Preboard Exam BioScience 0319

B.L.E.P.
T
1. Which of the two layers describe cell
membrane?
a. Carbohydrates c. phospholipids
b. nucleic acids d. proteins
• Phospholipids are the most abundant
type of lipid found in the membrane.
Phospholipids are made up of two
layers, the outer and inner layers.
The inside layer is made of
hydrophobic fatty acid tails, while the
outer layer is made up of hydrophilic
polar heads that are pointed toward
the water.
2. Which of the following are
purines?
a. Adenine and guanine
b. Adenine and thymine
c. Guanine ancytosine
d. Guanine and uracil
• There are many naturally occurring
purines. They include
the nucleobases adenine and guanine.
• Other notable purines
are hypoxanthine, xanthine, theobromi
ne, caffeine, uric acid and isoguanine.
3. Which of the following cellular
structures is responsible for the
production of ATP during aerobic
respiration?
a. Chloroplast c. Mitochondria
b. Lysosome d. Nucleus
• Mitochondria are often called the
"powerhouses" or "energy factories"
of a cell because they are responsible
for making adenosine
triphosphate (ATP), the cell's main
energy-carrying molecule.
4. Which of the following cellular
structures is present to both
prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
a. Centrioles c. Nucleus
b. Mitochondria d. Ribosome
5. Which of the following
bases is notfound
found in RNA?
a. Adenine c. Thymine
b. Guanine d. Uracil
BONUS!
pyrimidines?
a.Adenine and cytosine
b. Cytosine and adenine
c. Adenine and guanine
d. Cytosine and thymine
7. Which structure contains
a prokaryotic cell’s genetic
material?
a. DNA c. Nucleus
b. RNA d. Nucleoid
• For numbers 8 to 10 refer to the
given below:
A portion of a strand of a much
longer molecule has a nucleotide
sequence AGC AGG CAG ATC.
8. If this strand is replicated, the
complementary strand produced is
a. AGC AGG CAG ATC
b. TCG TCC GTC TAG
c. AGC AGG CAG AUC
d. UCG UCC GUC UAG
Replication to form
complementary strand
•C  G
•T  A
•G  C
•A  T
9. If transcribed into an mRNA, the
resulting strand is
a. AGC AGG CAG ATC
b. TCG TCC GTC TAG
c. AGC AGG CAG AUC
d. UCG UCC GUC UAG
Transcription into a mRNA
• Substitute Thymine for
Uracil and vice versa
•TU
10. During translation, the tRNA
sequence of nucleotides arranged
linearly is
a. AGC AGG CAG ATC
b. TCG TCC GTC TAG
c. AGC AGG CAG AUC
d. UCG UCC GUC UAG
Transcription into a tRNA
•C  G
•T  U
•G  C
•A  U
11. The movement of molecules
from a region of greater
concentration to a region of lower
concentration
a. Diffusion c. Hypotonic
b. Hypertonic d. Osmosis
• Diffusion is the net movement of molecules or
atoms from a region of high concentration to a
region of low concentration as a result of
random motion of the molecules or atoms
• A hypotonic solution is one in which the
concentration of solutes is greater inside the
cell than outside of it, and
a hypertonic solution is one where the
concentration of solutes is greater outside the
cell than inside it.
• Osmosis is the spontaneous net movement of
solvent molecules through a selectively
permeable membrane into a region of higher
solute concentration, in the direction that
tends to equalize the solute concentrations on
the two sides.
12. The movement of molecules
from an area of higher
concentration to lesser
concentration through a semi
permeable membrane
13. The solution with a higher
concentration of solutes
14. The solution with a lower
concentration of solutes
15. The diffusion of a substance
across a biological membrane
a. Active transport
b. Passive transport
c. Hypertonic solution
d. Hypotonic solution
16. Which of the following statements is
TRUE about chloroplasts?
a. Chloroplasts are present in animal
cells only.
b. Chloroplasts are present in plant
cells only.
c. Chloroplasts are present in
bacterial cells only.
d. Chloroplasts are present in
protozoan cells only
• Chloroplasts are small organelles inside the
cells of plants and algae. They absorb light to
make sugar in a process called photosynthesis.
The sugar can be stored in the form of
starch. Chloroplasts contain the molecule
chlorophyll, which absorbs sunlight for
photosynthesis.
structures stores the genetic
information?
a. Lysosome c. nucleus
b. Mitochondria d. ribosomes
• Lysosomes are organelles that contain
digestive enzymes. They digest excess or
worn out organelles, food particles, and
engulfed viruses or
bacteria. Lysosomes are like the stomach
of the cell.
• The most prominent roles
of mitochondria are to produce the
energy currency of the cell, ATP (i.e.,
phosphorylation of ADP), through
respiration, and to regulate cellular
metabolism.
• Ribosomes are a cell structure
that makes protein. Protein is
needed for many cell functions
such as repairing damage or
directing chemical processes.
18. Which is true about male
gamete?
a. 23 chromosomes
b. 46 chromosomes
c. 92 chromosomes
d. 184 chromosomes
19. Which of the following cell
types is formed by meiosis?
a. blood c. skin
b. bone d. sperm
• Meiosis starts after interphase where cell
growth, DNA replication and cell functions
happens.
• There are 46 chromosomes but 92 chormatids
but since we count through centromeres we
get 46 conjoined chromatids
• PMAT1 and PMAT 2
PMAT1
• PRO(before)PHASE – chromosomes are going to
condense, thicken and line up with homologous
pair. And crossover happens or transfer of genes
to each other. And creates recombinant
chromosomes which causes the variety of traits
that we have.
• M(middle)ETAPHASE-chromosome are at the
middle of the cell and are in pairs.
• A(away)NAPHASE – chromosomes are going to be
pulled away by the spindle fibers.
• T(two)ELOPHASE – forms 2 new nuclei and ends
meisosis one with 2 new cells.
PMAT 2
• After meiosis 1 you have 23 choromosomes and
46 chromatids.
• Prophase II- chromosomes are thickening and
growing but no crossover.
• Metaphase II – Chromosomes are going to line up
in the middle but in a single file.
• Anaphase II – away but this time chromatids will
be pulled away by the spindle fibers.
• Telophase II – there are fou cells that will be
formed and cytokinesis follows which splits the
cytoplasm.
lacks nucleus?
a. Amoeba c. plant
b. animal d. virus
statements is true?
a. Microbes are beneficial
b. Microbes are harmful
c. Microbes are rare
d. Microbes are ubiquitous
Ubiquitous – ever present

22. Which of the following hierarchies is
in the proper sequence?
a. Kingdom, Class, Division, Order,
Family, Genus
b. Kingdom, Division, Class, Order,
Family, Genus
c. Kingdom, Division, Order, Class,
Family, Genus
d. Kingdom, Order, Division, Class,
Family, Genus
even smaller than viruses?
a. Chlamydias
b. Cyanobacteria
c. Prions
d. Rickettsia
• Prions are so small that they are
even smaller than viruses and
can only be seen through an
electron microscope when they
have aggregated and formed a
cluster.
• Chlamydia is a common sexually
transmitted disease. It is caused by
bacteria called Chlamydia
trachomatis. It can infect both men
and women. Women can
get chlamydia in the cervix, rectum,
or throat. Men can get chlamydia in
the urethra (inside the penis), rectum,
or throat.
• Cyanobacteria /saɪˌænoʊbækˈtɪəriə/
, also known as Cyanophyta, are a
phylum of bacteria that obtain their
energy through photosynthesis, and
are the only photosynthetic
prokaryotes able to produce oxygen.
The name "cyanobacteria" comes
from the color of the bacteria which is
blue.
• Rickettsia rickettsii is the small,
aerobic gram-negative bacterium
that is the cause Rocky Mountain
spotted fever in humans (and
other vertebrates).
24. Which of the following terms is
associated with fungi?
a. animals
b. autotrophs
c. Heterotrophs
d. plants
• Fungi are heterotrophic -
they obtain their organic material
from external sources, their
environment. They have no
chlorophyll; they are not green in
color. In comparison, most plants are
autotrophic, they are able to
manufacture their food from solar
radiation and water.
• Fungi, which are not green plants
because they do not contain
chlorophyll, cannot make their own
food and so must rely on other things.
Most fungi feed on the remains of
dead plants and animals. They are
decomposers and change dead
things into humus which is rich in
nutrients that plants use as food.
25. Which of the following statements
describes bacterial cells?
a. cell wall made up of phosphates
b. cell wall made up of amino acids
c. no DNA
d. no ribosomes
• Bacteria are considered to be prokaryotes,
which means they do not have a nucleus and
other membrane-bound organelles. Instead,
the DNA is found in the nuceloid, a
region with no membrane, or as a plasmid, a
small circle of extra genetic information,
floating right in the cytoplasm, the fluid that
fills the cell.
26. Which of the following phyla of
protozoan uses “whip like” structure
for locomotion?
a. Ciliophora c. Sarcodina
b. Mastigophora d. Sporozoa
• A Mastigophora is a cell or organism
with one or more whip-like
appendages called flagella. The word
flagellate also describes a particular
construction characteristic of many
prokaryotes and eukaryotes and their
means of motion.
• Ciliophora is the name for a phylum
of protists commonly called the
ciliates. Ciliates are the most complex
of cells, having an elaborate
cytoskeleton, cilia and two different
kinds of nuclei.
• Sarcodina, the largest phylum
(11,500 living species and 33,000
fossil species) of protozoans ). It
comprises the ameobas and related
organisms which are all solitary cells
that move and capture food by means
of pseudopods, flowing temporary
extensions of the cell. Most
sarcodines are free living others are
parasitic.
• Unlike most other
protozoans, sporozoans have no
cilia or flagella. All species are
parasitic and have elaborate life
cycles, often requiring more than one
host. The best-known sporozoan is
Plasmodium falciparum, the causative
organism of malaria.
diseases is caused by virus?
a. Hepatitis c. Meningitis
b. Leprosy d. Tetanus
• Hepatitis A is caused by an infection with the
hepatitis A virus (HAV). This type of hepatitis
is most commonly transmitted by consuming
food or water contaminated by feces from a
person infected with hepatitis A.
• Hepatitis B is transmitted through contact
with infectious body fluids, such as blood,
vaginal secretions, or semen, containing the
hepatitis B virus (HBV). Injection drug use,
having sex with an infected partner, or
sharing razors with an infected person
increase your risk of getting hepatitis B.
• Hepatitis C comes from the hepatitis C virus
(HCV). Hepatitis C is transmitted through direct
contact with infected body fluids, typically through
injection drug use and sexual contact. HCV is
among the most common bloodborne viral
infections in the United States.
• Also called delta hepatitis, hepatitis D is a serious
liver disease caused by the hepatitis D virus
(HDV). HDV is contracted through direct contact
with infected blood. Hepatitis D is a rare form of
hepatitis that only occurs in conjunction with
hepatitis B infection. T
• Hepatitis E is a waterborne disease caused by the
hepatitis E virus (HEV). Hepatitis E is mainly found
in areas with poor sanitation and typically results
from ingesting fecal matter that contaminates the
water supply.
• Meningitis is an inflammation of the
membranes (meninges) surrounding
your brain and spinal cord. The
swelling from meningitis typically
triggers symptoms such as headache,
fever and a stiff neck.
• Tetanus is a serious bacterial
disease that affects your nervous
system, leading to painful muscle
contractions, particularly of your jaw
and neck muscles. Tetanus can
interfere with your ability to breathe
and can threaten your life. Tetanus is
commonly known as "lockjaw."
describes protists?
a. true nucleus c. few nuclei
b. false nucleus d. many nuclei
• Definition of protist. : any of a
diverse taxonomic group and
especially a kingdom
(Protista synonym Protoctista) of
eukaryotic organisms that are
unicellular and sometimes colonial or
less often multicellular and that
typically include the protozoans, most
algae, and often some fungi (such as
slime molds)
groups pertains to rod shape
bacteria?
a. Bacilli c. Pili
b. Cocci d. Spirilla
• A bacillus (plural bacilli) or
bacilliform bacterium is a rod-
shaped bacterium or
archaeon. Bacilli are found in many
different taxonomic groups of
bacteria. However, the
name Bacillus, capitalized and
italicized, refers to a specific genus of
bacteria.
• A coccus (plural cocci) is any
bacterium or archaeon that has a
spherical, ovoid, or generally
round shape. It is one of the three
distinct bacterial shapes,
• A pilus (Latin for 'hair'; plural : pili) is
a hair-like appendage found on the
surface of many bacteria. The
terms pilus and fimbria (Latin for
'fringe'; plural: fimbriae) can be used
interchangeably, although some
researchers reserve the
term pilus for the appendage
required for bacterial conjugation.
• Spirilla (or spirillum for a single cell)
are curved bacteria which can range
from a gently curved shape to a
corkscrew-like spiral. Many spirilla
are rigid and capable of movement. A
special group of spirilla known as
spirochetes are long, slender, and
flexible.
30. Which of the following groups
refer to cocci in bunches?
a. Cocci
b. Diplococcic
c. Staphylococci
d. Streptococci
Staphylococcus
-”staphylo” means “cluster”
-“coccus” means “sphere”
REMEMBER:
*Bacterial shapes:
-cocci- round/sphere
-bacilli- rod
-spiral- coiled
REMEMBER:
*Bacterial colonies:
-”diplo” means “two”
-”strepto” means “chain”
-”staphylo” means“cluster”
Staphylococccus bacterium
diplococcus bacterium
diplobacilli bacterium
streptococcus bacterium
31. The statement “All
microorganisms cause diseases” is
a. Definite c. Probable
b. False d. True
32. The difference between
heterotrophic and autotrophic
bacteria lies basically on their
a. Mobility c. Respiration
b. Nutrition d. Structure
33. The virus that causes polio is a/an
a. Animal c. Human
b. Bacteriophage d. Plant
34. The group of fungi that includes the bread
mold is
a. Ascomycota c. Deuteromycota
b. Basidiomycota d. Zygomycota
• Zygomycota: The Conjugated Fungi.
Thezygomycetes are a relatively small group
of fungi belonging to the Phylum Zygomycota.
They include the familiar bread
mold, Rhizopus stolonifer, which rapidly
propagates on the surfaces of breads, fruits,
and vegetables.
• Ascomycota is a division or phylum of the
kingdom Fungi that, together with the
Basidiomycota, form the subkingdom Dikarya.
Its members are commonly known as the sac
fungi or ascomycetes
• Basidiomycota are filamentous fungi
composed of hyphae (except
for basidiomycota-yeast; refer yeast for more
information) and reproduce sexually via the
formation of specialized club-shaped end cells
called basidia that normally bear external
meiospores (usually four). These specialized
spores are called basidiospores.
35. The protozoan that causes malaria
reproduces in the
a. Red blood cells of mosquito
b. Red blood cells of human
c. Animal’s body
d. Plant’s body
36. The common edible mushroom is classified
under
a. Ascomycota c. Deuteromycota
b. Basidiomycota d. Zygomycota
37. All fungi are either parasitic or saprophytic
because they
a. absorb inorganic materials c. cause disease
b. absorb organic materials d. cause decay
• Fungi get their nutrition by absorbing organic
compounds from the environment. Fungi
are heterotrophic: they rely solely on carbon
obtained from other organisms for their
metabolism and nutrition. Fungi have evolved in
a way that allows many of them to use a large
variety of organic substrates for growth, including
simple compounds such as nitrate, ammonia,
acetate, or ethanol. Their mode of nutrition
defines the role of fungi in their environment.
38. A virus
a. Has a nucleus c. No surrounding membrane
b. Is plant cell d. Smaller than bacterium
• Viruses are even smaller than bacteria and
require living hosts — such as people, plants
or animals — to multiply. Otherwise, they
can't survive. When a virus enters your body,
it invades some of your cells and takes over
the cell machinery, redirecting it to produce
the virus.
39. A lichen is
a. A fungi c. Fungus and alga
b. A mold d. Fungus and bacteria
• A lichen is not a single organism. Rather, it is a
symbiosis between different organisms - a
fungus and an alga or cyanobacterium.
Cyanobacteria are sometimes still referred to
as 'blue-green algae', though they are quite
distinct from the algae.
• A lichen is an organism that results from a
mutualistic relationship between a fungus and
a photosynthetic organism. The other
organism is usually a cyanobacterium or
green alga. The fungus grows around the
bacterial or algal cells. The fungus benefits
from the constant supply of food produced by
the photosynthesizer.
40. A mimivirus mimics
a. Algae b. Bacteria c. Fungi d. Virus
• APMV was discovered accidentally in 1992 within
the amoeba Acanthamoeba polyphaga, after which it is
named, during research into Legionellosis by researchers from
Marseille and Leeds.[6] The virus was observed in a gram
stain and mistakenly thought to be a gram-positive bacterium.
As a consequence it was named Bradfordcoccus, after the
district the amoeba was sourced from in Bradford, England. In
2003, researchers at the Université de la
Méditerranée in Marseille, France published a paper
in Science identifying the micro-organism as a virus. It was
given the name "Mimivirus" (for "Mimicking microbe") as it
resembles a bacterium on Gram staining.[7]
• The same team that discovered the mimivirus later discovered
a slightly larger virus, dubbed the mamavirus, and the Sputnik
virophagethat infects it.[8]
41. A network of filamentous hyphae is called a
a. Bacterium c. Paramecium
b. Mycelium d. Sporangium
• Paramecium feed on microorganisms like
bacteria, algae, and yeasts.
The paramecium uses its cilia to sweep the
food along with some water into the cell
mouth after it falls into the oral groove. The
food goes through the cell mouth into the
gullet.
• Aspergillus flavus is a fungus. It grows by
producing thread like branching
filamentsknown as hyphae. Filamentous fungi
such as A. flavus are sometimes called
molds. A network of hyphae known
as the mycelium secretes enzymes that break
down complex food sources.
• A sporangium (pl: sporangia) [1][2] is an
enclosure in which spores are formed.[3] It can
be a single cell or multicellular.
All plants, fungi, and many other lineages
form sporangia at some point in their life
cycle. Sporangia can produce asexual spores
by mitosis, but in nearly all land plants and
many fungi, sporangia are the site of meiosis,
and produce genetically
unique haploid spores.
42. A “red tide” that turns ocean reddish in
color and kills fish and other organism is caused
by a population explosion of
a. Bacteria c. Kelps
b. Dinoflagellates d. Red algae
• Dinoflagellates are unicellular protists which
exhibit a great diversity of form. The
largest, Noctiluca, may be as large as 2 mm in
diameter! Though not large by human standards,
these creatures often have a big impact on the
environment around them. Many are
photosynthetic, manufacturing their own food
using the energy from sunlight, and providing a
food source for other organisms. Some species
are capable of producing their own light
through bioluminescence, which also makes
fireflies glow. There are some dinoflagellates
which are parasites on fish or on other protists.
43. Chickenpox is caused by
a. Algae b. Bacteria c. Fungi d. Viruses
• Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster
virus, which also causes shingles. Chickenpox
is highly contagious and spreads by closeness
and contact with someone with chickenpox.
Fever, malaise, and a very itchy rash (red
spots, fluid-filled tiny blisters, and crusted
lesions) are all symptoms and signs of
chickenpox.
44. Fungi are important to an ecosystem as
a. Balancers c. Decomposers
b. Consumers d. Producers
• When plants and animals die, they become
food fordecomposers like bacteria, fungi and
earthworms.Decomposers or saprotrophs
recycle dead plants and animals into chemical
nutrients like carbon and nitrogen that are
released back into the soil, air and water.
45. Green algae belong to phylum
a. Chlorophyta c. Pyrrophyta
b. Phaeophyta d. Rhodophyta
• Green algae - Phylum Chlorophyta. A phylumincluding
unicellular and multicellular groups, having
chlorophylls and carotenoids similar to those of
vascular plants and appear green.
• Phaeophyta or brown algae are a group of autotrophic,
multicellular organisms, belonging to the class
Phaeophyceae in the division Chromophyta. They
contain the xanthophyll pigment - fucoxanthin, in
addition to chlorophyll a and c. Hence, the members
of phaeophyta exhibit a characteristic greenish-brown
color.
• Pyrrophyta. : a division or other category of
algae comprising yellowish-green to golden-
brown algae that are mostly unicellular and
biflagellate, that form starch, starchy compounds,
or oil as food reserves, and that include the
dinoflagellates and cryptomonads.
• Rhodophyta (red algae) are a distinct eukaryotic
lineage characterized by the accessory
photosynthetic pigments phycoerythrin,
phycocyanin and
46. Pseudopods are used by amoeba for
a. Defense c. Movement
b. Mitosis d. Reproduction
• Pseudopods are temporary cytoplasmic
projections of the cell membrane in certain
unicellular protists such as
amoeba.Pseudopods, also called pseudopodia
(singular: pseudopodium), literally means
false foot. That is because they are associated
with locomotion.
47. Slime molds are found in
a. Bread b. rocks c. soil d. water
• They feed on microorganisms that live in any
type of dead plant material. They contribute
to the decomposition of dead vegetation, and
feed on bacteria, yeasts, and fungi. For this
reason, slime molds are usually found in soil,
lawns, and on theforest floor, commonly on
deciduous logs.
48. Yeasts are reproduced by
a. Branching c. Mitosis
b. Budding d. Meiosis
• The most common mode of vegetative growth
inyeast is asexual reproduction by budding.
Here, a small bud (also known as a bleb), or
daughter cell, is formed on the parent cell.
The nucleus of the parent cell splits into a
daughter nucleus and migrates into the
daughter cell.
49. The lowest taxonomic category in the
group
a. Class b. Domain c. Family d. Genus
50. The highest taxonomic category in the
group
a. Class b. Domain c. Family d. Genus
51. Epidermis consist of five sub-layers. Which of
the following layers where a protein called
keratin is found?
A. Stratum basale C. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum spinosum D. Stratum
granulousum
• Epidermis: This tough layer of cells is the outermostlayer of
skin. It gets its toughness from a protein calledkeratin.
The epidermis has five layers: Stratum corneum is made up
of dead, mature skin cells called keratinocytes.
• The stratum granulosum (or granular layer) is a thin layer of
cells in the epidermis. Keratinocytes migrating from the
underlying stratum spinosum become known as granular
cells in this layer.
• he stratum basale (basal layer, sometimes referred to as
stratum germinativum) is the deepest layer of the five
layers of the epidermis, the outer covering of skin in
mammals. The stratum basale is a single layer of columnar
or cuboidal cells.
• The stratum spinosum (or spinous layer/prickle cell layer) is
a layer of the epidermis found between the stratum
granulosum and stratum basale. Their spiny
(Latin, spinosum) appearance is due to shrinking of the
microfilaments between desmosomes that occurs when
stained with H&E.
52. Type of joint that is immovable and can be
seen in the structures of the skull called:
A. Fibrous C. Cartilaginous
B. Synovial D. Axial
• Types. Most fibrous joints are also called
"fixed" or "immovable", because they do not
move. These joints have no joint cavity and
are connected via fibrousconnective tissue.
The skull bones are connected byfibrous joints
called sutures.In fetal skulls the sutures are
wide to allow slight movement during birth.
• The synovial membrane (also known as
the synovial stratum,synovium or stratum
synoviale) is a specialized connective tissue
that lines the inner surface of capsules
of synovial joints and tendon sheath.
53. Which of the following types of bone cells
that is responsible for resorption of bones:
A. Osleoclasts C. Osteoblasts
B. Osteogenesis D. Osteocytes
• Osteoclasts have multiple roles in bone in
addition to bone resorption. Osteoclastsare the
cells that degrade bone to initiate normal bone
remodeling and mediate bone loss in pathologic
conditions by increasing their resorptive activity.
• Bone is a dynamic tissue that is constantly being
reshaped by osteoblasts, which produce and
secrete matrix proteins and transport mineral
into the matrix, and osteoclasts, which break
down the tissues.
• Osteocytes are mature osteoblasts that have
become trapped within the very bone matrix they
produced. Osteocytes continue to form bone to
some degree, which is important for maintaining
the strength and health of the bone matrix.
However,osteocytes perform functions that
extend far beyond simple maintenance.
• Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI), also known as
brittle bone disease, is a group of genetic
disorders that mainly affect the bones. It results
in bones that break easily. The severity may be
mild to severe.
54. Considered as essential to human life as it
give you framework and support to protect the
vital organs and other structures of the body:
A. Cartilage C. Tissues
B. Joints D. Bones
55. Which of the following type of muscles that
is spindle shaped and non-striated and tends to
be involuntary?
A. Cardiac muscles C. Skeletal muscles
B. Smooth muscles D. Rough muscles
• The smooth muscle in the uterus helps a woman
to push out her baby. In the bladder, smooth
muscle helps to push out urine. Smooth muscle
determines the flow of blood in the arteries.
Smooth muscles move food through the digestive
tract.
• Molecular structure. A substantial portion of the
volume of the cytoplasm of smooth muscle cells
are taken up by the molecules myosin and actin,
which together have the capability to contract,
and, through a chain of tensile structures, make
the entiresmooth muscle tissue contract with
them.
56. Inflammation of the joint caused by
accumulation of uric acid.
A. Bursitis C. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Gouty arthritis D. Osteoarthritis
• Bursitis (bur-SY-tis) is a painful condition that
affects the small, fluid-filled sacs — called
bursae (bur-SEE) — that cushion the bones,
tendons and muscles near your
joints.Bursitis occurs when bursae become
inflamed. The most common locations
for bursitis are in the shoulder, elbow and hip.
• Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is an autoimmune
disease in which the body's immune system –
which normally protects its health by
attacking foreign substances like bacteria and
viruses – mistakenly attacks the joints.
57. Disease of the skeletal system causing
abnormal lateral curvature of the spine which is
noted to be of unknown cause and heredity at
times. What do you call this condition?
A. Osteomalacia C. Osteoporosis
B. Scoliosis D. Fracture
• Osteomalacia refers to a marked softening of
your bones, most often caused by severe
vitamin D deficiency. The softened bones of
children and young adults with osteomalacia
can lead to bowing during growth, especially
in weight-bearing bones of the legs.
Osteomalacia in older adults can lead to
fractures.
58. Disease of the muscular system of unknown
causes, or sometimes associated with too little
dopamine reaching the neuromuscular junction
causing severe exhaustion and muscle fatigue:
A. Myasthenia C. Gullain barre syndrome
B. Muscular dystrophy D. Parkinson’s disease
• Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoimmune
neuromuscular disease that causes weakness in the
skeletal muscles, which are responsible for breathing
and moving parts of the body, including the arms and
legs. The name myasthenia gravis, which is Latin and
Greek in origin, means "grave, or serious, muscle
weakness.“
• Myasthenia gravis (MG) is an autoimmune disorder
characterized by weakness in specific muscle groups,
especially the ocular and bulbar muscles. Guillain-
Barré syndrome (GBS) presents with ascending
paralysis and areflexia, often secondary to an infection.
• Muscular dystrophy is a group of diseases that
cause progressive weakness and loss of
muscle mass. In muscular dystrophy,
abnormal genes (mutations) interfere with the
production of proteins needed to form healthy
muscle.
59. Condition of the nervous system caused by a
damage of the facial nerve leading to a
unilateral paralysis of the facial muscles:
A. Alzheimer’s disease C. Meningitis
B. Bell’s palsy D. Parkinson’s disease
• Bell's palsy is a condition in which the muscles on
one side of your face become weak or paralyzed.
It affects only one side of the face at a time,
causing it to droop or become stiff on that side.
It's caused by some kind of trauma to the seventh
cranial nerve. This is also called the “facial nerve.”
• Alzheimer's is the most common cause of
dementia, a general term for memory loss and
other cognitive abilities serious enough to
interfere with daily life. Alzheimer'sdisease
accounts for 60 percent to 80 percent of
dementia cases.
60. Division of the peripheral nervous system
that controls voluntary movements of the body.
A. Autonomic nervous system
B. Somatic nervous system
C. Sympathetic nervous system
D. Parasympathetic nervous system
• The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) is part
of the autonomic nervous system (ANS),
which also includes the
parasympathetic nervous system (PNS).
The sympathetic nervous system activates
what is often termed the fight or flight
response.
61. The cerebrum has four lobes. What lobe is
responsible for hearing and language?
A. Temporal lobe C. Occipital lobe
B. Parietal lobe D. Frontal lobe
• The Occipital Lobe is located at the back of the
skull and controls vision. The Temporal Lobes are
located on each side of the head above the ears.
They controlhearing and are related to smell,
taste and short-term memory (especially visual
and verbal).
• The parietal lobe integrates sensory information
among various modalities, including spatial sense
and navigation (proprioception), the main
sensory receptive area for the sense of touch
(mechanoreception) in the somatosensory cortex
which is just posterior to the central sulcus in the
postcentral gyrus, and the dorsal ...
62. Structure in the diencephalon that manage
and control body temperature, thirst, hunger
and sexual urges:
A. Thalamus C. Hypothalamus
B. Pons D. Pituitary gland
• The thalamus is a small structure within the brain
located just above the brain stem between the cerebral
cortex and the midbrain and has extensive nerve
connections to both. The main function of
thethalamus is to relay motor and sensory signals to
the cerebral cortex.
• he Pons serves as a message station between several
areas of the brain. It helps relay messages from the
cortex and the cerebellum. Without the pons, the brain
would not be able to function because messages would
not be able to be transmitted,or passed along. It also
plays a key role in sleep and dreaming, where REM
sleep, or the sleeping state where dreaming is most
likely to occur, has been proven to originate here, in
the pons.
63. Cells found in the brain is generally called as:
A. Myocytes C. Hepatocytes
B. Nephrons D. Neurons
• A myocyte (also known as a muscle cell) is the
type of cell found in muscle
tissue. Myocytes are long, tubular cells that
develop from myoblasts to form muscles in a
process known as myogenesis. There are
various specialized forms ofmyocytes: cardiac,
skeletal, and smooth muscle cells, with
various properties.
• The nephron (from Greek νεφρός – nephros,
meaning "kidney") is the microscopic
structural and functional unit of the kidney. It
is composed of a renal corpuscle and a renal
tubule. The renal corpuscle consists of a tuft
of capillaries called a glomerulus and an
encompassing Bowman's capsule.
64. Part of nerve cell that conveys impulse away
from the cell body is called as:
A. Arteries C. Dendrites
B. Axons D. Myelin sheath
• An axon (from Greek ἄξων áxōn, axis) or nerve
fiber, is a long, slender projection of a nerve
cell, or neuron, in vertebrates, that typically
conducts electrical impulses known as action
potentials, away from the nerve cell body.
• Function of Dendrites. In order for neurons to
become active, they must receive action
potentials or other stimuli. Dendrites are the
structures on the neuron that receive
electrical messages. These messages come in
two basic forms: excitatory and inhibitory
65. Structure of the brainstem that regulates
breathing, heartbeat and regulates blood flow
and blood pressure:
A. Pons
B. Midbrain
C. Pituitary gland
D. Medulla oblongata
• The medulla oblongata helps regulate
breathing, heart and blood vessel function,
digestion, sneezing, and swallowing. This part
of the brain is a center for respiration and
circulation. Sensory and motor neurons (nerve
cells) from the forebrain and midbrain travel
through the medulla
• The pituitary gland is a tiny organ, the size of
a pea, found at the base of the brain. As the
“master gland” of the body, it produces many
hormones that travel throughout the body,
directing certain processes or stimulating
other glands to produce other hormones.
• The Pons serves as a message station
between several areas of the brain. It helps
relay messages from the cortex and the
cerebellum.
66. It distributes oxygen and necessary nutrients
needed by the body and therefore, considered
as the river of life:
A. Blood vessels C. Valves
B. Blood D. Heart
67. Which of the following components of the
blood that controls blood clothing?
A. Leukocytes
B. Platelets
C. Erythrocytes
D. Electrolytes
• Platelets, also called thrombocytes (from Greek θρόμβος, "clot"
and κύτος, "cell"), are a component of blood whose function (along
with the coagulation factors) is to react to bleeding from blood
vessel injury by clumping, thereby initiating a blood clot.
• Platelets are made in your bone marrow along with your white and
red blood cells. Your bone marrow is the spongy center inside your
bones. Another name for platelets is thrombocytes. Healthcare
providers usually call a clot a thrombus. Once platelets are made
and circulated into your bloodstream, they live for 8 to 10 days.
• Under a microscope, a platelet looks like a tiny plate.
Your healthcare provider may do a blood test called a complete
blood count to find out if your bone marrow is making the right
number of platelets:
• A normal platelet count is 150,000 to 450,000 platelets per
microliter of blood.
• Risk for spontaneous bleeding develops if a platelet count falls
below 10,000 to 20,000. But when the platelet count is less than
50,000, bleeding is likely to be more serious if an individual is cut or
bruised.
• Some people make too many platelets and can have platelet counts
from 500,000 to more than 1 million.
68. When you are to cite the synonyms for
Dengue, you should NOT mention:
A. Break-bone fever
C. Ague
B. Dandy fever
D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura.
• Breakbone fever: Also known as dengue fever, an acute
mosquito-borne viral illness of sudden onset that
usually follows a benign course with headache, fever,
prostration, severe joint and muscle pain, swollen
glands (lymphadenopathy) and rash. The presence (the
"dengue triad") of fever, rash, and headache (and other
pains) is particularly characteristic. Better known as
dengue, the disease is endemic throughout the tropics
and subtropics in various parts of the world. It goes by
other names including dandy fever. Victims of dengue
often have contortions due to the intense joint and
muscle pain. Hence, the name "breakbone fever."
Slaves in the West Indies who contracted dengue were
said to have "dandy fever" because of their postures
and gait
• Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is
a disorder that can lead to easy or excessive
bruising and bleeding. The bleeding results
from unusually low levels of platelets — the
cells that help blood clot. Idiopathic
• Ague: A fever (such as from malaria) that is marked by
paroxysms of chills, fever, and sweating recurring
regular intervals. Also a fit of shivering, a chill. Hence,
ague can refer to both chills and fevers.
• Pronounced 'A-(")gyu with the accent solidly on the
"A", the word "ague" is an example of how medical
terminology changes with time. Not only are new
terms introduced (with great speed these days) but old
terms such as "ague" may decline in usage (become
archaic) and eventually may be dropped entirely (be
obsolete).
69. The primary pathologic change in malaria is:
A. Decrease in platelet count
B. Destruction of lymphocytes
C. Destruction of erythrocytes
D. Reaction to toxins
• Basically, because of the peculiar life cycle of the
Plasmodium spp., infection causes massive rupture of
red blood cells (RBCs). This causes chills and fever,
severe nausea, vomiting and diarrhea (which may
resemble intestinal infections), while fever is followed
by drenching sweats. Headache, convulsions, joint
pain, anemia can all be signs of a Plasmodium sp.
infection.
Pathologically, the most characteristic symptoms are

enlarged spleen (due to congestion of sinusoids with
RBCs), anemia, hemolysis, and kidney damage -- leads
to hemoglobinuria (RBCs in the urine), darkening the
urine (termed “blackwater fever”).
70. The type of immunity that has two to three
weeks duration of protection is:
A. Artificial passive immunity
B. Artificial active immunity
C. Natural active immunity
D. Natural passive immunity
• Whenever T cells and B cells are activated, some
become "memory" cells. The next time that an
individual encounters that same antigen, the
immune system is primed to destroy it quickly.
Long-term immunity can be stimulated not only
by infection but also by vaccines made from
infectious agents that have been inactivated or,
more commonly, from minute portions of the
microbe. Short-term immunity can be transferred
passively from one individual to another via
antibody-containing serum; similarly, infants are
protected by antibodies they receive from their
mothers (primarily before birth)
71. You know that innate immunity is known as:
A. Immunity resulting from vaccination
B. State of resistance to infection inherent in
body tissues.
C. Resistance dependent on the recognition of
infectious disease.
D. Defense mechanism providing protection
against infectious agents.
• Artificially acquired passive immunity is a short-term
immunization induced by thetransfer of antibodies,
which can be administered in several forms; as human
or animal blood plasma, as pooled human
immunoglobulin for intravenous (IVIG) or
intramuscular (IG) use, and in the form of monoclonal
antibodies (MAb).
• Vaccines help your immune system fight infections
faster and more effectively. When you get a vaccine, it
sparks your immune response, helping your body fight
off and remember the germ so it can attack it if the
germ ever invades again. And since vaccines are made
of very small amounts of weak or dead germs, they
won’t make you sick.
• Vaccines often provide long-lasting immunity to serious
diseases without the risk of serious illness.
72. The typical pattern of malarial infection in
whatever strain among infected person is:
A. Fever, chills, diaphoresis
B. Chills, diaphoresis, fever
C. Fever, diaphoresis, chills
D. Chills, Fever, diaphoresis
• typical features: The characteristic, text-book picture
of malarial illness is not commonly seen. It includes
three stages viz. Cold stage, Hot stage and Sweating
stage. The febrile episode starts with shaking chills,
usually at mid-day between 11 a.m. to 12 noon, and
this lasts from 15 minutes to 1 hour (the cold stage),
followed by high grade fever, even reaching above
1060 F, which lasts 2 to 6 hours (the hot stage). This is
followed by profuse sweating and the fever gradually
subsides over 2-4 hours. These typical features are
seen after the infection gets established for about a
week. The febrile paroxysms are usually accompanied
by head aches, vomiting, delirium, anxiety and
restlessness. These are as a rule transient and
disappear with normalization of the temperature.
73. The teacher asks you regarding the characteristics of
the vector that is responsible for the transmission of the
disease. As a knowledgeable science head teacher, which
of the following would you respond?
A. It usually does not bite a person in motion.
B. It breeds in stagnant water and a high flying mosquito
C. It has fine white dots at the base of the wings with
white bands on the legs.
D. The mosquito that infects person usually bites two
hours after sunrise and 2 hours before sunset.
• Aedes aegypti is a day biting mosquito. That
means that the mosquito is most active during
daylight, for approximately two hours after
sunrise and several hours before sunset.
• The female Anopheles mosquito is the only
mosquito that transmits malaria. She primarily
bites between the hours of 9pm and 5am, which
is why sleeping under an insecticide treated
mosquito net each night is crucial in the
prevention of malaria.
74. The largest immunoglobulins and appears
mostly in the intravascular serum and the first Ig
to be synthesized is:
A. Ig G B. IgM C. Ig A
D. Ig E
• Ig A – Secreted by saliva, milk, gut , respiratory track and
sweat. Parts of the innate immune systems and fight such
as bacteria, viruses, fungus and parasytic worms.
• Ig D- primarily found at surface membrane of the b cells.
Least well known. Basophils and mastocells activation
• Ig E- responds to parasytic worms as well as allergens. Are
connected to mast cells and basophils. Releasing histamine
as an allergic reaction
• Ig G- account to 70-80 5 of the immunoglobulin pool in the
body. Targerts pathogenic organism such as bacteria viruses
and parasytic worms and bind with white cells like
machropages. It is the smalles odf the Ig molecules
• Ig M- the early responder are Ig M’s they are called
macroglobulin and they are the largest.
75. A student asks his biology teacher how the skin
provides natural immunity to our body. Which of the
following is an appropriate response by the teacher?
A. Skin has normal secretions like sweat that makes skin
slightly acidic hereby inhibiting bacterial growth.
B. Skin serves as the first line of defense against invading
micro-organisms
C. The moisture in the skin prevents bacterial growth.
D. None of the above
• The first line of defence (or outside defence
system) includes physical and chemical
barriers that are always ready and prepared to
defend the body from infection. These include
your skin, tears, mucus, cilia, stomach acid,
urine flow, ‘friendly’ bacteria and white blood
cells called neutrophils.
76. Which of the following statements describe
Ig E?
A. Cross placenta
B. Most abundant immunoglobulin
C. Involve in allergic & parasitic infection
D. None of the above
• IgG is the only antibody class that
significantly crosses the human placenta.
Thiscrossing is mediated by FcRn expressed on
syncytiotrophoblast cells. ... Inversely, harmful
autoantibodies may cross the placenta and
cause transitory autoimmune disease in the
neonate
77. You know that innate immunity is known as:
A. Immunity resulting from vaccination.
B. State of resistance to infection inherent in
body tissues.
C. Resistance dependent on the recognition of
infectious disease.
D. Defense mechanism providing protection
against infectious agents.
78. Your co-teacher asks which class of
immunoglobulin is being acquired by the baby
as it breastfeed to the mother. The
knowledgeable teacher would respond by
saying:
A . Ig A B. IgM C. Ig G D.
Ig E
79. Which description is appropriate for the Ig A?
A. Takes part in allergic and combats parasitic
infections.
B. Appears in small amount in serum with it biologic
function unknown.
C. Provides a rapid protection because it is the first
antibody noted after antigen injection in an adult.
D. Has a protective function in mucosal surfaces
exposed ton environment transported across
mucous membrane with secretions.
80. Which of the following does not confer
innate immunity by decreasing the pH thereby
inhibiting bacterial growth?
A. Vagina B. Tears C. Breast milk D.
Sweat
• Human tears contain a secretory protein
known as lysozyme. Tears have the ability
to inhibit bacterial growth and also act as a
physiological scavenger for hydrophobic and
potentially harmful molecules. ... The
antimicrobial molecules present in tear fluid
either kill the pathogen
or inhibit their growth [3-5].
81. Processes that take place during the process
of inhalation by a process called diffusion.
Oxygen enters the lungs while carbon dioxide
exits. The process is called as:
A. Gas transport C. Respiration
B. Gas exchange D. Regulation
• Gas exchange is the delivery of oxygen from
the lungs to the bloodstream, and the
elimination of carbon dioxide from the
bloodstream to the lungs. It occurs in the
lungs between the alveoli and a network of
tiny blood vessels called capillaries, which are
located in the walls of the alveoli.
• In physiology, respiration is defined as the
movement of oxygen from the outside
environment to the cells within tissues, and the
transport of carbon dioxide in the opposite
direction.
• Oxygen is transported in the blood in two ways: A
small amount of O 2 (1.5 percent) is carried in the
plasma as a dissolved gas. Most oxygen (98.5
percent) carried in the blood is bound to the
protein hemoglobin in red blood cells. A fully
saturated oxyhemoglobin (HbO 2) has four
O 2 molecules attached.
82. What is the normal respiration of an
individual per minute?
A. Below sixteen C. Sixteen to twenty
B. Sixty to one hundred D. Twelve to sixteen
• Respiratory rate: A person's respiratory rate is
the number of breaths you take per minute.
The normal respiration rate for an adult at rest
is 12 to 20 breaths per minute. A respiration
rate under 12 or over 25 breaths per minute
while resting is considered abnormal.
83. The main source of infection in pulmonary
tuberculosis is:
A. Unsanitary surroundings
B. Unavailability of potable drinking water
C. Crowded living quarters
D. Direct contact with infected person
• M. tuberculosis is carried in airborne particles,
called droplet nuclei, of 1– 5 microns in
diameter. Infectious droplet nuclei are
generated when persons who have pulmonary
or laryngeal TB disease cough, sneeze, shout,
or sing. TB is spread from person to person
through the air.
84. Which of the following statements regarding TB
is incorrect?
A. The disease is caused by a gram (+) acid fast
bacilli
B. Most of the extra pulmonary TB are not
communicable
C. Bovine tuberculosis is acquired through ingestion
of unpasteurized milk
D. Adults can develop TB as a result of contact with
a child having primary complex
• Children exposed to Mycobacterium
tuberculosis may sometimes develop a
tuberculosis (TB) infection called Primary
Complex. The most common route of
infection is through inhalation. A person with
active TB coughs up the germ and it is inhaled
by a healthy child. The TB then travels to the
lungs
• Bovine Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious
disease ofcattle. It is caused by the bacterium
Mycobacterium bovis (M. bovis) which can
also infect and cause disease in many other
mammals including humans, deer, goats, pigs,
cats, dogs and badgers. In cattle, it is mainly a
respiratory disease but clinical signs are rare.
85. Which of the following component of the
excretory system that transport urine from the
renal pelvis to the urinary bladder.
A. Ureters C. Urinary system
B. Kidneys D. Urethra
• Ureter, duct that transmits urine from
the kidney to the bladder. There normally is one
ureter for each kidney. Each ureter is a narrow
tube that is about 12 inches (30 cm) long. A
ureter has thick contractile walls, and its
diameter varies considerably at different points
along its length. The tube emerges from each
kidney, descends behind the abdominal cavity,
and opens into the bladder. At its termination the
ureter passes through the bladder wall in such a
way that, as the bladder fills with urine, this
terminal part of the ureter tends to close.
86. Urine formation undergo three process.
What process that allows necessary nutrients
and substance to be absorbed by the blood
while eliminating ammonia, urea and other
waste products.
A. Tubular secretion C. Tubular
reabsorption
B. Glomerular filtration D. Glomerular
absorption
• Glomerular filtration
• This takes place through the semipermeable walls of the
glomerular capillaries and Bowman’s capsule.
• The afferent arterioles supplying blood to glomerular
capsule carries useful as well as harmful substances. The
useful substances are glucose, aminoacids, vitamins,
hormones, electrolytes, ions etc and the harmful
substances are metabolic wastes such as urea, uric acids,
creatinine, ions, etc.
• The diameter of efferent arterioles is narrower than
afferent arterioles. Due to this difference in diameter of
arteries, blood leaving the glomerulus creates the pressure
known as hydrostatic pressure.
• The glomerular hydrostatic pressure forces the blood to
leaves the glomerulus resulting in filtration of blood. A
capillary hydrostatic pressure of about 7.3 kPa (55 mmHg)
builds up in the glomerulus.
• Selective reabsorption
• As the filtrate passes to the renal tubules, useful substances including
some water, electrolytes and organic nutrients such as glucose,
aminoacids, vitamins hormones etc are selectively reabsorbed from the
filtrate back into the blood in the proximal convoluted tubule.
• Reabsorption of some substance is passive, while some substances are
actively transported. Major portion of water is reabsorbed by Osmosis.
• Only 60–70% of filtrate reaches the Henle loop. Much of this, especially
water, sodium and chloride, is reabsorbed in the loop, so that only 15–20%
of the original filtrate reaches the distal convoluted tubule, More
electrolytes are reabsorbed here, especially sodium, so the filtrate
entering the collecting ducts is actually quite dilute.
• The main function of the collecting ducts is to reabsorb as much water as
the body needs.
• Nutrients such as glucose, amino acids, and vitamins are reabsorbed by
active transport. Positive charged ions ions are also reabsorbed by active
transport while negative charged ions are reabsorbed most often by
passive transport. Water is reabsorbed by osmosis, and small proteins are
reabsorbed by pinocytosis.
• Tubular secretion
• Tubular secretion takes place from the blood in the peritubular
capillaries to the filtrate in the renal tubules and can ensure that
wastes such as creatinine or excess H+ or excess K+ ions are actively
secreted into the filtrate to be excreted.
• Excess K+ ion is secreted in the tubules and in exchange Na+ ion is
reabsorbed otherwise it causes a clinical condition called
Hyperkalemia.
• Tubular secretion of hydrogen ions (H+) is very important in
maintaining normal blood pH.
• Substances such as , e.g. drugs including penicillin and aspirin, may
not be entirely filtered out of the blood because of the short time it
remains in the glomerulus. Such substances are cleared by
secretion from the peritubular capillaries into the filtrate within the
convoluted tubules.
• The tubular filtrate is finally known as urine. Human urine is usually
hypertonic.
87. The Lymphatic system is a series of an open
structural network that circulates throughout the
body by containing a clear fluid called lymph. The
immune system protects our body from infectious
agents therefore maintaining homeostasis.
Component of the lymphatic system that gathers
interstitial fluid from body tissues. This is called as:
A. Lymphatics C. Lymph nodes
B. Tonsils D. Lymphatic capillaries
• Tonsils are the two lymph nodes located on
each side of the back of your throat. They
function as a defense mechanism. They help
prevent your body from infection. When
the tonsils become infected, the condition is
called tonsillitis. Tonsillitis can occur at any age
and is a common childhood infection.
• Lymph also carries white blood cells, which
are responsible for protecting the body
against viruses and bacteria and may trap
cancer cells. Lymph nodes are located
throughout the body but the largest groupings
are found in the neck, armpits, and groin
areas.
• The primary function of the lymphatic system
is to transport lymph, a fluid containing
infection-fighting white blood cells,
throughout the body. The lymphatic system
primarily consists of lymphatic vessels, which
are similar to the circulatory system's veins
and capillaries
88. Which of the following health practices would
the teacher most stress in preventing the
transmission of human immunodeficiency virus
(HIV) virus in case any team member has HIV or
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
A. No sharing of underarm deodorant or shower
soap
B. Making sure certain towels have been washed in
boiling water
C. No sharing of razors or toothbrushes
D. Avoiding physical contact such as hugs
• The following are nine ways the virus
is not spread:
• Kissing and touching. Social kissing and
hugging pose no risk of transmission, Sha says.
Also, being sexual with someone without
exchanging infected body fluids does not
spread the virus. The only time deep kissing is
a risk is when the person infected with HIV has
open sores or oral bleeding, Sha notes.
• Sharing a living space. Any casual contact with
someone who has HIV, including sharing a
bathroom, is safe. However, Sha tells patients not
to share razor blades or toothbrushes. If
someone who is infected nicks himself while
shaving or has bleeding gums, it could increase
risk of transmission.
• Sharing a living space. Any casual contact with
someone who has HIV, including sharing a
bathroom, is safe. However, Sha tells patients not
to share razor blades or toothbrushes. If
someone who is infected nicks himself while
shaving or has bleeding gums, it could increase
risk of transmission.
• Sharing food or utensils. The virus cannot
survive on surfaces, so sharing utensils and
other household items will not spread HIV.
You can even share a meal with someone who
is infected without worry.
• Helping an injured person with HIV. Wearing
gloves while doing so is ideal; but even if the
person’s blood comes into contact with your
intact skin, you should not worry. “We don’t
consider blood exposure to intact skin to be a
risk,” Sha says
• Water fountains. Sipping from a water fountain
after someone who has HIV used it is considered
casual contact and will not lead to transmission.
• Toilet seats. HIV cannot survive on surfaces, so
this is not a concern.
• Modern blood transfusions. Donated blood is
screened and disposed of if it tests positive for
HIV. Advanced technology has made screening
increasingly sensitive at identifying the virus, Sha
says
89. Which of the following hormones plays the
role in regulating blood sugar level and protein
breakdown:
A. Growth hormone C. Prolactin
B. Cortisol D. Aldosterone
• Because most bodily cells have cortisol
receptors, it affects many different functions
in the body. Cortisol can help control blood
sugar levels, regulate metabolism, help
reduce inflammation, and assist with memory
formulation. It has acontrolling effect on salt
and water balance and helps control blood
pressure.
• Prolactin is a hormone named originally after its
function to promote milk production (lactation)
in mammals in response to the suckling of young
after birth. It has since been shown to have more
than 300 functions in the body.
• Aldosterone, the main mineralocorticoid
hormone, is a steroid hormone produced by the
zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex in the
adrenal gland. It is essential for sodium
conservation in the kidney, salivary glands, sweat
glands and colon.
90. Which of the following hormones causes
contraction of the uterus during child labor and
delivery:
A. Hormones C. Thyroid stimulating hormone
B. Oxytocin D. Estrogen
• Labor contractions are the periodic tightening
and relaxing of the uterine muscle, the largest
muscle in a woman's body. Something triggers
the pituitary gland to release a hormone
called oxytocin that stimulates the uterine
tightening. It is difficult to predict when
true labor contractions will begin.
• The primary function of estrogens is
development of female secondary sexual
characteristics. These includes breasts,
endometrium, regulation of the menstrual cycle
etc. In males estrogen helps in maturation of the
sperm and maintenance of a healthy libido.
• Thyroid-stimulating hormone (also known as
thyrotropin, thyrotropic hormone, TSH, or hTSH
for human TSH) is apituitary hormone that
stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine
(T4), and then triiodothyronine (T3) which
stimulates the metabolism of almost every tissue
in the body.
91. Disease of the endocrine system brought about
by insufficient production of insulin. This could be
hereditary or acquired. This condition causes excess
blood sugar, this is called as:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Syndrome of inappropriate anti-diuretic
hormone
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Hyperglycemia
• Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition
characterized by large amounts of dilute urine
and increased thirst. The amount of urine
produced can be nearly 20 liters per day.
Reduction of fluid has little effect on the
concentration of the urine. Complications may
include dehydration or seizures.
92. The cnidarians like the starfishes and hydra
possess an organ for protection. What is this
organ and how does it defend the cnidarians
from their enemies?
A. Nematocysts: contains poison
B. Spicules: Hard body
C. Mantle: sharp edged shell
D. Claws: sharpened edges
• Only cnidarians manufacture microscopic intracellular
stinging capsules, known as nematocysts or cnidae,
which give the phylum its name. The alternative name,
coelenterate, refers to their simple organization around
a central body cavity (the coelenteron). As first defined,
coelenterates included not only the animals now
designated cnidarians but also sponges (phylum
Porifera) and comb jellies (phylum Ctenophora). In
contemporary usage, “coelenterate” generally refers
only to cnidarians, but the latter term is used in order
to avoid ambiguity.
• READ MORE ON THIS TOPIC
• The mantle (also known by
the Latin word pallium meaning mantle, robe or cloak,
adjective pallial) is a significant part of the anatomy
of molluscs: it is the dorsal body wall which covers the
visceral mass and usually protrudes in the form of flaps
well beyond the visceral mass itself.
• In many species of molluscs the epidermis of the
mantle secretes calcium carbonate and conchiolin, and
creates a shell. In sea slugs there is a progressive loss of
the shell and the mantle becomes the dorsal surface of
the animal.
• Spicules are structural elements found in
mostsponges. They provide structural support
and deter predators. Large spicules that are
visible to the naked eye are referred to as
megascleres, while smaller, microscopic ones
are termed microscleres.
93. The phase of mitosis characterized by
chromosomes separation and migration is:
A. Anaphase C. Telophase
B. Metaphase D. Interphase
• Metaphase is the third phase of mitosis, the
process that separates duplicated genetic
material carried in the nucleus of a parent cell
into two identical daughter cells.During
metaphase, the cell's chromosomes align
themselves in the middle of the cell through a
type of cellular "tug of war
• Metaphase leads to anaphase, during which each
chromosome's sister chromatids separate and
move to opposite poles of the cell. Enzymatic
breakdown of cohesin — which linked the sister
chromatids togetherduring prophase — causes
this separation to occur.
• Telophase is technically the final stage
of mitosis. Its name derives from the latin
word telos which means end. Duringthis
phase, the sister chromatids reach opposite
poles. The small nuclear vesicles in the cell
begin to re-form around the group of
chromosomes at each end.
94. If the female fly has white eyes and the male
fly has homozygous dominant red eyes, what
are the possible phenotypes of their offspring?
A. 100% homozygous dominant
B. 100% heterozygous dominant
C. 100% heterozygous recessive
D. 100% homozygous recessive
• Alelles – one member of a pair or series of genes
that occupy a specific position on a specific
chromosomes.
R R
r Rr Rr
r Rr Rr
Homozygous dominant: heterozygous:homozygous
Phenotype : 0:4:0
100%
Example:
• Tall dominant over short
R r
R RR Rr
r Rr rr
Homozygous dominant:heterozygous:homozygous
Genotype: 1:2:1
Genotype%: 25:50:25
Phenotype: 3:1
Phenotype %: 75 % tall and 25% small
• The genotype of an organism is the genetic
code in its cells. This genetic constitution of an
individual influences – but is not solely
responsible for – many of its traits.
The phenotype is the visible or expressed
trait, such as hair color. The phenotype
depends upon the genotype but can also be
influenced by environmental factors.
95. If both flies are heterozygous, then what are
the possible genotypes of their offspring?
A. 25% TT, 25%tt, 50%Tt
B. 75% Tt, 25% TT
C. 50% TT, 50% tt
D. 25% TT, 50% tt, 25% Tt
B b
B BB Bb
b Bb bb
Genotype ratio: 1:2:1

25% 50% 25%
96. If both recessive male and female flies mate,
what is the genotypic and phenotypic ratio of their
offspring?
A. Genotype 100% tt, phenotype 100% homozygous
dominant
B. Genotype 100% tt, phenotype 100% homozygous
recessive
C. Genotype 100% tt, phenotype 100%
heterozygous dominant
D. Genotype 100% tt, phenotype 100%
heterozygous recessive
97. Archaea is said to be the ancient life form on
earth and also known as extremophiles because
these organism can survive in extreme
environment or temperature. Which of the
following organisms lives in salty environment?
A. Halophiles C. Methanogens
B. Thermophiles D. Sulfulobus
• Halophiles are organisms that thrive in high salt
concentrations. They are a type of extremophile organisms.
The name comes from the Greek word for "salt-loving".
• A thermophile is an organism—a type of extremophile—
that thrives at relatively high temperatures, between 41
and 122 °C (106 and 252 °F). Many thermophiles are
archaea. Thermophiliceubacteria are suggested to have
been among the earliest bacteria.
• Methanogens are microorganisms that produce methane
as a metabolic byproduct in anoxic conditions. They are
prokaryotic and thus belong to the kingdom Monera, and
they uniquely belong to the domain of archaea.
• Sulfolobus solfataricus grows in volcanic hot springs where
they have ample sulfur and low pH. S. solfataricus is a very
widely studied crenarchaeal organism. It is used as a model
organism in archaeal research, including DNA replication,
the cell cycle, chromosomal integration, and RNA
processing.
98. Who among of the following introduced the
binomial system of classification?
A. Carolus Linnaeus C. Aristotle
B. Democritus and Leucippus D. Ernst Haeckle
• Carl Linnaeus, also known after his
ennoblement as Carl von Linné, was a Swedish
botanist, physician, and zoologist who
formalised binomial nomenclature, the
modern system of naming organisms. He is
known as the "father of modern taxonomy"
• Ernst Heinrich Philipp August Haeckel was a German biologist, naturalist,
philosopher, physician, professor, marine biologist, and artist who
discovered, described and named thousands of new species.
• Atoms (Leucippus and Democritus)
• Our senses suggest that matter is continuous. The air that surrounds us,
for example, feels like a continuous fluid. (We do not feel bombarded by
individual particles in the air.) The water we drink looks like a continuous
fluid. (We can take a glass of water, divide it in halves, and repeat this
process again and again, without appearing to reach the point at which it
is impossible to divide it one more time.)
• Because our senses suggest that matter is continuous, it isn't surprising
that the debate about the existence of atoms goes back as far as we can
trace and continued well into this century. The first proponents of an
atomic theory were the Greek philosophers Leucippus and Democritus
who proposed the following model in the fifth century B.C.
• 1. Matter is composed of atoms separated by empty space through which
the atoms move.
• 2. Atoms are solid, homogeneous, indivisible, and unchangeable.
• 3. All apparent changes in matter result from changes in the groupings of
atoms.
• 4. There are different kinds of atoms that differ in size and shape.
• 5. The properties of matter reflect the properties of the atoms the matter
contains.
99. Which parts of an animal cell dissolve
malfunctioning and excess organelles?
A. Mitochondria C. Lysosomes
B. Nucleus D. Plasma membrane
100. Which results from drinking saltwater?
A. Poisoning of the cells
B. Dehydration of the cells
C. Increase in cell pressure
D. Bursting of the cells
• When humans drink seawater, their cells are
thus taking in water and salt. ... Therefore, to
get rid of all the excess salt taken in
by drinking seawater, you have to urinate
more water than you drank.
Eventually, you die of dehydration even as
you become thirstier.
101. Movement of molecules from an area of
lower concentration to an area of higher
concentration with the use of adenosine
triphosphate is known as?
A. Bulk transport C. Active transport
B. Passive transport D. Diffusion
• The movement of macromolecules such as
proteins or polysaccharides into or out of the
cell is called bulk transport. There are two
types of bulk transport, exocytosis and
endocytosis, and both require the expenditure
of energy (ATP). In exocytosis, materials are
exported out of the cell via secretory vesicles.
• Passive transport is a movement of ions and
other atomic or molecular substances across
cell membranes without need of energy input.
Unlike active transport, it does not require an
input of cellular energy because it is instead
driven by the tendency of the system to grow
in entropy.
• Diffusion is the net movement of molecules or
atoms from a region of high concentration to a
region of low concentration as a result of
random motion of the molecules or atoms
• Active transport is the movement of
molecules across a membrane from a region
of their lower concentration to a region of
their higher concentration—in the direction
against the concentration gradient.
102. Which will thrive in temperature exceeding
90 degree Celsius?
A. Thermophiles C. Acidophiles
B. Methanogens D. Halophiles
• Acidophiles or acidophilic organisms are
those that thrive under highly acidic
conditions (usually at pH 2.0 or below). These
organisms can be found in different branches
of the tree of life, including Archaea, Bacteria,
and Eukarya
103. Which is an example of a salt loving
archaebacteria?
A. Methanobacterium C. Halobacterium
B. Thermoplasma D. Ferroplasma
• In taxonomy, Halobacterium is a genus of the
Halobacteriaceae. The
genus Halobacterium ("salt" or "ocean
bacterium") consists of several species of the
Archaea with an aerobic metabolism which
requires an environment with a high
concentration of salt; many of their proteins
will not function in low-salt environments.
• Contrary to their name, they are not exactly a
bacterial species as they belong to
the archaea and have the distinguishing
biopolymer, peptidoglycan, missing from their
cell membranes.[2] Methanobacterium are
nonmotile and live without oxygen. Some
members of this genus can use formate to
reduce methane; others live exclusively through
the reduction of carbon dioxide with hydrogen.
They are ubiquitous in some hot, low-oxygen
environments, such as anaerobic digestors, their
wastewater, and hot springs
• In taxonomy, Ferroplasma is a genus of the
Ferroplasmaceae. The genus Ferroplasma
consists solely of three species. Its type
species, F. acidophilum, is an acidophilic iron-
oxidizing member of the Euryarchaeota
104. Which is used in the production of cheese
from milk?
A. Clostridium C. Lactobacillus
B. Salmonella D. Staphylococcus
• Lactobacillus helveticus is a lactic-acid
producing, rod-shaped bacterium of the
genus Lactobacillus. It is most commonly used
in the production of American
Swisscheese and Emmental cheese, but is also
sometimes used in making other styles
ofcheese, such as Cheddar, Parmesan,
Romano, provolone, and mozzarella.
• Clostridium is a genus of Gram-positive bacteria,
which includes several significant human
pathogens, including the causative agent of
botulism and an important cause of
diarrhea, Clostridium difficile. They are obligate
anaerobes capable of producing endospores.
• Salmonella infection (salmonellosis) is a common
bacterial disease that affects the intestinal
tract.Salmonella bacteria typically live in animal
and human intestines and are shed through
feces. Humans become infected most frequently
through contaminated water or food.
105. Which is always true for a colony of
protists?
A. Multicellular C. Animal like
B. Unicellular D. Plant like
106. What causes red tide?
A. Dinoflagellate C. Green algae
B. Brown algae D. Diatom
107. Which disease is NOT caused by a virus?
A. Chicken pox C. Dengue
B. Mumps D. Malaria
• Malaria is a mosquito-borne parasitic
infection spread by Anopheles mosquitoes.
The Plasmodium parasite that
causesmalaria is neither a virus nor
a bacterium – it is a single-celled parasite that
multiplies in red blood cells of humans as well
as in the mosquito intestine.
• Dengue fever is a mosquito-borne tropical
disease caused by the dengue virus. Symptoms
typically begin three to fourteen days after
infection. ... A vaccine for dengue fever has been
approved and is commercially available in a
number of countries
• Chickenpox (chicken pox), also known as varicella,
is a highly contagious infection caused by the
varicella zoster virus. Although uncomfortable,
most people recover within 1-2 weeks.
• Mumps is a viral disease caused by
the mumps virus. Initial signs and symptoms
often include fever, muscle pain, headache,
poor appetite, and feeling tired. This is then
usually followed by painful swelling of one or
both parotid salivary glands.
108. What are the locomotory organs of
paramecium and Amoeba?
A. Cilia for Paramecium and Flagella for Amoeba
B. Cilia for Paramecium and pseudopodia for
Amoeba
C. Pseudopodia for Amoeba and Flagella for
Paramecium
D. Flagella for Amoeba and Pseudopodia for
Paramecium
• According to this
theory, locomotion in Amoeba is performed
by adhesion similar to drop of water which
spreads irregularly on uneven glass plate. The
protoplasm flows, like the fluid of the drop, in
the path of greater adhesion. Due to adhesive
properties pseudopodia generally grow in the
paths of adhesion.
• (iii) Cilia:
• The entire body is covered with numerous, small,
hair like projections called cilia. Cilia occur in
longitudinal rows all over the body, this condition
is known as holotrichous in which the body cilia
are equal. Cilia have the same structure as
flagella, they have an outer protoplasmic sheath
or plasma membrane with nine double
longitudinal fibrils in a peripheral ring. In some
cilia the nine outer fibrils are not paired.
109. Which comes first in viral multiplication?
A. Attachment C. Penetration
B. Replication D. Assembly
• Viral Replication I. Steps in Viral Replication
• A. Attachment. This is the first step in viral replication.
Surface proteins of the virus interact with specific
receptors on the target cell surface. These may be
specialized proteins with limited distribution or
molecules that are more widely distributed on tissues
throughout the body. The presence of a virus-specific
receptor is necessary but not sufficient for viruses to
infect cells and complete the replicative cycle.
• B. Penetration. Enveloped viruses (e.g., HIV, influenza
virus) penetrate cells through fusion of the viral
envelope with the host cell membrane. Non-enveloped
viruses penetrate cells by translocation of the virion
across the host cell membrane or receptor mediated
endocytosis of the virion in clathrin coated pits with
accumulation of viruses in cytoplasmic vesicles.
• C. Uncoating (disassembly). A complex process which
differs by taxonomic class and is not fully understood for
many agents. This process makes the nucleic acid available
for transcription to permit multiplication of the virus.
• D. Transcription and Translation. The key to understanding
the genomic expression of viruses is noting the fact that
viruses must use host cellular machinery to replicate and
make functional and structural proteins. Strategies for
genomic expression for different taxonomic groupings of
viruses are described below (section II).
• F. Assembly and Release. The process of virion assembly
involves bringing together newly formed viral nucleic acid
and the structural proteins to form the nucleocapsid of the
virus. There are basically three strategies that viruses
employ:
110. Which feature is true for deserts?
A. Always dry
B. Always hot and windy
C. Always hot and dry
D. Always hot, sometimes dry
• Deserts are arid or dry regions and receive
less than 10 inches of rain per year.
Biologically, they contain plants and animals
adapted for survival in arid environments.
Physically they are large areas with a lot of
bare soil and low vegetation cover.
111. What good does a predator bring to a
community?
A. Regulate the energy transfer
B. Keeps the members of the community fit
C. Maintains the diversity of the community
D. Reduce the waste produced by other species
112. Food chain is a linear representation of
energy transfer from one trophic level to the
next. To which direction is the arrow pointing
at?
A. Either way, as long as it is unidirectional
B. Towards the organisms to be consumed
C. Towards the consumer
D. Towards the produce
• he trophic level of an organism is the number
of steps it is from the start of the chain. A food
chain starts at trophic level 1 with primary
producers such as plants, can move to
herbivores at level 2, predators at level 3 and
typically finish with carnivores or apex
predators at level 4 or 5
113. Which of the following exhibits genuine
symbiosis?
A. Grass and man C. Lichen
B. Seal and penguin D. Whale and shark
• Symbiosis in lichens is the mutually
helpfulsymbiotic relationship of green algae
and/or blue-green algae (cyanobacteria) living
among filaments of a fungus, forming lichen.
• A symbiosis is an evolved interaction or close living
relationship between organisms from different species,
usually with benefits to one or both of the individuals
involved. Symbioses may be ‘obligate’, in which case
the relationship between the two species is so
interdependent, that each of the organisms is unable
to survive without the other, or ‘facultative’, in which
the two species engage in a symbiotic partnership
through choice, and can survive individually. Obligate
symbioses are often evolved over a long period of
time, while facultative symbioses may be more
modern, behavioral adaptions; given time, facultative
symbioses may evolve into obligate symbioses.
114. Which of the following provides an
incorrect comparison between tropical
rainforest and grassland?
A. Both are terrestrial ecosystem
B. Both have large areas are converted to
commercial establishments
C. Fires in grasslands occur more often inhibiting
the growth of trees
D. Precipitation are of the greatest quantity
• Transcript of Tropical Rainforest Vs Grassland.
Trees are cut down to provide grazing space
for cattle and livestock Poachers hunt animals
for their skin or horns even though it is illegal
Savanna Maintaining the Biome Rainforest
GrasslandPeople go on hike in the forest so
they can conserve the forest.
• Both the temperate forest and grasslands can
be found in the North America as well as other
continents. They both have different seasons,
including summer and winter. Also, the plants
and animals that reside in these areas need to
adapt to changes in the climate. For example,
in the temperate forest, trees lose their leaves
during the winter and many animals
“hibernate” or “migrate” when the weather
gets frigid.
• What is the difference between Rainforest and Grassland?
• • Rainforests receive a much higher rainfall than grasslands
get.
• • Rainforests provide homes for much more species than
grasslands would offer.
• • Main vegetation of rainforests is woody plants while
grasslands have herbaceous (non-woody) plants.
• • There are only two types of rainforests, whereas
grasslands are of five main types depending on the climatic
conditions.
• • Rainforests have high density of plants with different
heights, whereas grasslands barely have trees and all the
bushes are usually short.
• • The humidity is higher inside rainforests than in
grasslands.
• • Rainforests are stable ecosystems while grasslands and
not stable.
115. Which biome has the shortest growing
season?
A. Grassland C. Savanna
B. Taiga D. Tropical rainforest
116. Which of the following can be considered
as ecotone?
A. Desert C. Grassland
B. Savanna D. Tropical rainforest
• occurring in six transects cutting across
the savanna, ecotone and forest were
analysed. ... Ecotone, rain forest, savanna,
forest-savanna into the savanna, stability
between the two ecosystems and boundary,
India.
• An ecotone acts as the boundary or barrier
between two biomes. It is the area where two
distinct types of environments merge and blend.
• Ecotones could be the border where forestland
and grassland meet or the boundary where
wetlands meet prairie. Many things form a sharp
boundary such as natural formations. The area
where the land meets water such as where the
mangrove fields meet the ocean is also
considered an ecotone. The estuary between
freshwater and saltwater is also a natural ecotone
117. Which of the following organisms is
incorrectly paired with its trophic niche?
A. Cyanobacteria-primary producer
B. Grass-primary producer
C. Eagle-tertiary consumer
D. Zooplankton-secondary consumer
• Zooplankton is actually an umbrella term for a
huge range of tiny (mostly microscopic-size)
organisms floating in the ocean water that are
unable to swim against the current and are a
crucial food source for many marine animals.
• Tiny sea jellies, krill, copepods, fish larvae, small
fry, amphipods, siphonophores, dinoflagellates,
any many more, and these are all of very
different phylogenetic groups, are all considered
plankton by ecological niche.
• Yes, they are primary consumers, as they do not
make their own food as plants and cyanobacteria
do.
• . Producers. These organisms absorb the sun’s
energy and convert the energy into food for
themselves, allowing them to grow larger,
make flowers and fruit, etc. An example of a
producer is a plant, such as the flower in the
picture.
•
• Consumers. These organisms, mostly animals, can be
split into a few categories:
• Primary consumers only eat plants, so they are called
herbivores. The primary consumers in the picture are
the bee and grasshopper
• Secondary consumers eat primary consumers. Many
secondary consumers also eat plants, which makes
them omnivores (meat and plant eaters). The
secondary consumers in the picture are the wasp and
beetle
• Tertiary consumers eat the secondary consumers and
are usually carnivores (meat eaters). The tertiary
consumers in the picture are the frog and snake.
• Tertiary consumers eat the secondary consumers and
are usually carnivores (meat eaters). The tertiary
consumers in the picture are the frog and snake
118. What may happen if a keystone predator is
removed from an ecosystem?
A. The density of all populations will increase
B. The diversity of organisms will increase
C. The diversity of organisms will decrease
D. The prey will become the keystone predator
• The most obvious result of the removal of the
top predators in anecosystem is a population
explosion in the prey species. ... Whenprey
becomes more scarce,
the predator population declines until prey is
again more abundant. Therefore, the two
balance each other.When the predators are
removed, prey populations explode.
119. There are main foods rich in proteins that
provide energy for man, but this is not an
example of these foods:
A. Butter B. Nuts C. Fish D. Meat
• Fats in Butter. Butter is about 80% fat, and the
rest is mostly water. Basically, it is the fatty
portion of milkthat has been isolated from the
protein and carbs. Butter is one of the most
complex of all dietary fats, containing more
than 400 different fatty
• Protein is an important component of every
cell in the body. Hair and nails are mostly
made of protein. Your body uses protein to
build and repair tissues. You also
use protein to make enzymes, hormones, and
other body chemicals. Protein is an important
building block of bones, muscles, cartilage,
skin, and blood.
120. There are main foods rich in carbohydrates
that provide energy for man, but this is not an
example of these foods:
A. Bread B. Meat C. Rice D.
Cereals
• Carbohydrates covalently linked to proteins
(glycoproteins) or lipids (glycolipids) are also a
part of cell membranes, and function as
adhesion and address loci for cells. The Fluid
Mosaic Model describes membranes as a fluid
lipid bilayer with floating proteins and
carbohydrates
121. Among the following, which is considered
Prokaryotic organisms which lack a true nucleus
in their cells?
A. Animals C. Fungi
B. Bacteria D. Protists
• major difference is that eukaryotic
cells have a nucleus and other membrane-
bound organelles. Prokaryotic cells lack most
organelles, namely the nucleus,
which contains genetic information and
controls everything that goes on in the cell. ...
Therefore, and most
importantly, bacteria cells do
not have a nucleus.
122. According to the level of the classification
of living things, what next lower/smaller
grouping comprises a kingdom?
A. Phyla B. Order C. Species D.
Class
123. Under the Six-Kingdom system of the living
world, how are multicellular forms with
specialized eukaryotic cells ability to locomote
(sponges, worms, insects, etc.) classified?
A. Fungi C. Animalia
B. Plantae Protista D. Protista
• Animalia
• This Kingdom
includes animal organisms. These multicellular
eukaryotes depend on plants and other
organisms for nutrition. Most animals live
in aquatic environments and range in size from
tiny tardigrades to the extremely large blue
whale. Most animals reproduce by sexual
reproduction, which involves fertilization (the
union of male and female gametes).
• Organisms are classified into
three Domains and into one of six Kingdoms
of life. These Kingdoms are Archaebacteria,
Eubacteria, Protista, Fungi,
Plantae, and Animalia.
124. Whose work marked the beginning of
modern taxonomy that developed a scheme of
classification with hierarchical categories based
on the physical and behavioral characteristics of
organisms?
A. Charles Darwin B. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck
C. Ernest Mayr D. Carolus Linnaeus
• Carl Linnaeus, also known after his
ennoblement as Carl von Linné, was a Swedish
botanist, physician, and zoologist who
formalised binomial nomenclature, the
modern system of naming organisms. He is
known as the "father of modern taxonomy"
125. Among the following which is considered
Eukaryotic organisms which possess a true
nucleus in their cells?
A. Blue-green algae C. Bacteria
B. Archaens D. Animals and plants
• These microbes (archaea; singular archaeon)
are prokaryotes, meaning they have no cell
nucleus. Archaea were initially classified as
bacteria, receiving the name archaebacteria
(in the Archaebacteria kingdom), but this
classification is outdated.
• Cyanobacteria, also known as Cyanophyta, are
a phylum of bacteria that obtain their energy
through photosynthesis, and are the only
photosynthetic prokaryotes able to produce
oxygen. The name "cyanobacteria" comes
from the color of the bacteria
126. Under the Six-Kingdom system, how are
multicellular forms with specialized eukaryotic
cells e.g. mosses and ferns but no ability for
locomotion classified?
A. Protista B. Animalia C. Plantae
D. Fungi
• Protista- eukaryotic but UNICELLULAR
• Animalia- eukaryotic and MULTICELLULAR but
HAS the ability to LOCOMOTE
• Fungi- eukaryotic UNICELLULAR (yeast) or
MULTICELLULAR
• PLANTS- eukaryotic and MULTICELLULAR
BUTHAS NO ABILITY TO LOCOMOTE
127. The process of photosynthesis occurs not
only in plants, but also in one of the following:
A. Archaea B. Viruses C. Green fungi
D. Algae
• Archaea – AUTOTROPHS (make food from
organic sources from the environment) but no
Photosynthesis
• Viruses- NON-LIVING, NEITHER AUTOTROPH
NOR HETEROTROPH
• Algae –AUTOTROPHS
128. Which organisms is an example of a
fungus?
A. Algae B. Entamoeba C. Euglenoids
D. Yeast
• Algae (if unicellular, Protista)
(if multicellular, Plantae)
• Entamoeba- Protozoa
• Euglenoids- Protista
• YEAST – Kingdom Fungi

Phylum Ascomycota
129. Among the following animals in the class
mammalian, which are categorized as
Carnivora?
A. Elephants B. Pigs C. Monkeys
D. Cats
• Elephants – Order PROBOSCIDAE
• Pigs- Order ARTIODACTYLA
• Monkeys- Order PRIMATA
• CATS- Order CARNIVORA

130. Among organisms which is capable of
regeneration when cut into parts?
A. Yeast B. Molds C. Bacteria
D. Sea star
• There are approximately 1,800 different
species of Asteroidea. They are known for
their ability to regenerate amputated limbs,
and are characterized by flexible arms
attached to a central disc. The central disc is
essential to regeneration in nearly all sea
star species.
131. What is not an example of ways of asexual
reproduction through cellular division in plants?
A. Saprophytes generation
B. Germination of runners in grasses
C. Formation of a bud
D. Stem cuttings
• Vegetative propogation (Germination)
• Budding (Formation of a bud)- Some cells split
via budding (for example baker's yeast),
resulting in a "mother" and "daughter" cell.
The offspring organism is smaller than the
parent.
• Vegetative propagation (Stem cutting)- A
piece of the stem or root of the source plant is
placed in a suitable medium such as moist
soil.
132. What transport system in plants move
water from roots to the top of its tree?
A. Photosynthesis
B. Capillarity
C. Transpiration
D. Respiration
• Photosynthesis – the process by which plants,
some bacteria and some protistans use the
energy from sunlight to produce glucose from
carbon dioxide and water.
• CAPILLARITY- the ability of a liquid to flow in
narrow spaces without the assistance of, or
even in opposition to, external force
• Transpiration- the process where plants
absorb water through the roots and then give
off water vapor through pores in their leaves.
• Respiration- the movement of oxygen from
the outside environment to the cells within
tissues, and the transport of carbon dioxide in
the opposite direction.
133. Of the following which is not an example of
Biome?
A. Forest B. Lake C. Grassland
D. Desert
The principal biome-types by Allee (1949):[16]
• Tundra
• Taiga
• Deciduous forest
• Grasslands
• Desert
• High plateaus
• Tropical forest
• Minor terrestrial biomes
134. How are original and primary forests
referred to?
A. Virgin forest C. Green forest
B. Rainforest D. Verdant forest
• Virgin forest- a forest that has attained great
age without significant disturbance and
thereby exhibits unique ecological features
and might be classified as a climax community
• Rainforest- A Rainforest can be described as a
tall, dense jungle. The reason it is called a
"rain" forest is because of the high amount of
rainfall it gets per year.
• Green Forest-
• Verdant Forest- green with grass or other rich
vegetation
135. What is the substrate that enters the citric
acid cycle?
A. Glucose B. Lactate C. Pyruvate
D. Acety-A
• The citric acid cycle (CAC) – also known as
the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle or the Krebs
cycle is a series of chemical reactions used by
all aerobic organisms to release stored energy
through the oxidation of acetyl-CoA derived
from carbohydrates, fats,
and proteins into adenosine
triphosphate (ATP) and carbon dioxide.
136. What is a possible consequence of
eutrophication?
A. Significantly diminished sea harvest by
fishermen
B. Less turbidity of water
C. Decreased toxicity of bodies of water
D. Water that is colorless and odor-free
1. Increased biomass of phytoplankton resulting in algal
blooms
2. Toxic or inedible phytoplankton species (harmful algal
blooms)
3. Increased blooms of gelatinous zooplankton
4. Decreases in water transparency (increased turbidity)
5. Dissolved oxygen depletion or hypoxia resulting in
increased incidences of fish kills and / or dead benthic
animals
6. Species biodiversity decreases and the dominant
biota changes
7. Increased biomass of macroalgae
137. Which of the following are most likely
consequences of air pollution?
A. Enriched flora and fauna
B. Decreased incidence of cancer
C. Enhanced cardiovascular endurance
D. Exacerbation of lung disease such as COPD
• Choices A, B and C are positive effects of
CLEAN AIR.
• COPD is Chronic Obstructive PULMONARY
Disease, a sickness related to the lungs.
138. What is the maximum number of ATP
produced by the electron transport chain?
A. 36 B. 38 C. 40
D. 34
• 2 from GYCOLYSIS
• 2 from the Krebs Cycle
• 34 from the ELECTRON TRANSPORT SYSTEM
Oxygen is required to create ATP. 2 ATP from
GLYCOLYSIS= PYRUVATE enters the mitochondria
to be fully oxidized by the Krebs Cycle= CO₂ and
H₂O but the energy transferred is used to break
bonds in ADP as the third phosphate group is
added to form ATP by substrate-level
phosphorylation. More ATP is converted through
an electron transport chain.
1. Glycolysis
2 ATPs + Glucose  2 Pyruvic Acid + 4 Hydrogen + 4 ATPs
2. Formation of Acetyl-CoA
2 Pyruvic Acid + 2 CoA + 2 Carbon Dioxide + 2 Hydrogen
3. Krebs Cycle
2 Acetyl-CoA + 3 Oxygen  6 Hydrogen + 4 Carbon
Dioxide + 2 ATPs
4. Electron Transport System
12 Hydrogen + 3 Oxygen  6 Water + 34 ATPs
139. What does a virus release into a bacterial
cell when it infects it?
A. Viral genomic nucleic acid
B. Viral nucleus
C. Viral plasma membrane
D. Viral cytoplasm
• Bacteriophage is a virus that infects and
replicates within Bacteria. Bacteriophages are
composed of PROTEINS that ENCAPSULATE
DNA or RNA NUCLEIC ACID. Phages replicate
within the bacterium following the injection of
their GENOME into its Cytoplasm.
140. A species of fish lived in a lake. When a dam
was constructed in the area, a group of fish was
separated and populated a new pond. They then
developed differing characteristics and became a
distinct species. Which of the following concepts
explain this speciation?
A. Geographical isolation
B. Chronoscopic isolation
C. Episodic isolation
D. Behavioral isolation
Geographical Isolation- biological
populations of the same species become
isolated from each other to an extent that
prevents or interferes with genetic interchange.
Human activity such as agriculture or
developments can alter a region’s geography
resulting in the separation of species
populations. PHYSICAL BARRIERS that exist that
keep 2 species from mating.
Behavioral Isolation refers to the fact that
many species perform different mating rituals. This
is a common barrier between animals.
Chemical Isolation is caused by chemical
barriers that keep species isolated from one
another.
Temporal/Chronoscopic Isolation is when
species could interbreed do not because the
different species breed at different times.
Ecological Isolation occurs when two species
live in different areas.
141. What is the Philippine species known as
Pithecophagajefferyil that was listed as an
endangered species by the 1975 Convention on
International Trade of Endangered Species?
A. Philippine tamaraw
B. Palawan peacock pheasant
C. Bohol tarsier
D. Monkey-eating eagle
• Philippine tamaraw- Bubalus mindorensis
• Palawan peacock pheasant- Polyplectron
napoleonis
• Bohol tarsier- Tarsius syrichta
142. True of recessive genes:
A. Will only have phenotypic expression if
present as a homozygous genotype
B. Have more superior phenotypic traits
C. Should be paired with a dominant gene for it
to be expressed
D. Will prevent a dominant gene from
expressing its phenotype
For a RECESSIVE ALLELE PHENOTYPE, the
individual must have 2 copies, one from each
parent. An individual with 1 dominant and 1
recessive allele for a gene will have the
dominant phenotype.
Aa (heterozygous) = DOMINANT PHENOTYPE

AA (homozygous) = RECESSIVE PHENOTYPE
143. In what particular step of protein synthesis
do ribosomes participate in?
A. Translation C. Cell division
B. Replication D. Transcription
• TRANSCRIPTION- enzymes called RNA
polymerase ;build RNA molecules that are
complementary to a portion of one strand of
the DNA double helix.
• TRANSLATION- reading of mRNAs to make
proteins begin. Molecules of tRNAs are
responsible for matching amino acids. These
tRNAs carry amino acid to the RIBOSOME.
144. What is the natural cause for what is
known as a fish kill in lakes and esturaries?
A. Excessive fishing
B. Use of oxygen by decaying algae
C. Acid rain
D. Lowering water levels
FISH KILLS are caused by:
• POLLUTION from agricultural runoff
• OXYGEN DEPLETION brought by ALGAL
BLOOMS, DROUGHTS, HIGH TEMPERATURES
and THERMAL POLLUTION
145. Humans reproduce when an ovum is
combined with a sperm leading to the
development of an embryo. This form of
reproduction is called:
A. Asexual reproduction
B. Binary fission
C. Fertilization
D. Budding
• ASEXUAL REPRODUCTION is a type of
reproduction by which offspring arise from a
single organism, and inherit the genes of that
parent only.
• Binary fission (parent organism is replaced by two
daughter organisms because it literally divides
into two) and Budding (split resulting in a
“mother” and “daughter” cells. The buds grow
into fully-matured individuals which eventually
break away) are examples of asexual
reproduction.
146. Which of the following animals does not
need a hard shell to protect its fertilized eggs?
A. Lizard B. Eagle C. Duck
D. Frog
147. True of noble gases:
A. Classified as group 7 in the periodic table of
elements
B. Includes argon and hydrogen
C. Able to react with any other atoms
D. Includes neon and helium
• GROUP 7- TRANSITION METALS
• Hydrogen- OTHER NON-METALS
• Argon- NOBLE GAS
• ABLE TO REACT WITH ANY OTHER ATOMS-
ALKALI METALS
• NEON (10) ARGON (18) BELONG TO GROUP 18

(NOBLE GASES)
148. Which of the following is an isomer of
glucose?
A. Fructose C. Maltose
B. Pentose D. Ribose
• ISOMERS:
GALACTOSE – aldose-aldehyde
FRUCTOSE – ketose-ketones
As an example of an structural isomer,
both glucose and fructose have the same molecular
formula, C6H12O6. However the difference between
them is the arrangement of the atoms involved.
That is they are structurally different and hence
called, Structural Isomers.
149. What functional group differentiates chitin
from cellulose?
A. Amino group C. Phosphate group
B. Carboxyl group D. Hydroxyl group
• Chitin is formed by a series of glycosidic bonds
between substituted glucose molecules.
Chitin is different from cellulose because of
the substitution that occurs on the glucose
molecule. Instead of a hydroxyl group (OH),
the glucose molecules in chitin have an amyl
group attached that consists of carbon and
nitrogen
• The amino group is one of several nitrogen-
containing functional groups found in organic
molecules.
• Carboxyl groups are weak acids, dissociating
partially to release hydrogen ions. The carboxyl
group (symbolized as COOH) has both a carbonyl
and a hydroxyl groupattached to the same carbon
atom, resulting in new properties.
• A phosphate is chemical derivative of phosphoric
acid. The phosphate ion, is an inorganic chemical,
the conjugate base that can form many different
salts. In organic chemistry, a phosphate, or
organophosphate, is an ester of phosphoric acid.
150. The rise in the temperature of Earth’s
atmosphere due to increased greenhouse gases
is called:
A. Microwave effect C. Heat wave
B. Summer phenomenon D. Global
warming
• A greenhouse gas (GHG) is any gas in the atmosphere
that absorbs and emits radiation in the thermal
infrared range. These are the fundamental cause of the
greenhouse effect, which results in increased
temperatures on Earth.
•
The greenhouse effect occurs as the gases reach Earth’s
surface. As the short wave energy heats the surface,
some of the longer wave energy radiates back into the
atmosphere and back into space. Greenhouse gases
absorb some of the energy and trap it in the lower
atmosphere. Less heat radiates into space, and Earth is
warmer

Preboard Exam BioScience 0319

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Preboard Exam BioScience 0319

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B.L.E.P.

Ubiquitous – ever present

Pathologically, the most characteristic symptoms are

Genotype ratio: 1:2:1

• YEAST – Kingdom Fungi

• CATS- Order CARNIVORA

Aa (heterozygous) = DOMINANT PHENOTYPE

• NEON (10) ARGON (18) BELONG TO GROUP 18

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