OCET 2011 Sr. No.

Question Booklet Series : A

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate :
Subject : M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Human Genomics
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted
for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not
allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer
whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672 2
 M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A
1. The Pauli exclusion principle is obeyed by :
(A) all neutral particles
(B) all charged particles
(C) all particles with spin quantum numbers of 1/2
(D) all particles with spin quantum numbers of 1
2. The “E” in LASER stands for :
(A) entropy (B) electric
(C) energy (D) emission
3. X-rays are deflected by:
(A) an electric field (B) a magnetic field
(C) both the electric and magnetic fields (D) none of the electric and magnetic fields
4. Which of the following is a necessary and sufficient condition for a simple harmonic motion ?
(A) Constant time period
(B) Constant acceleration
(C) Proportionality between acceleration and displacement from equilibrium position
(D) Proportionality between restoring force and displacement from equilibrium position
5. Which of the following nuclei can not be used for the NMR analysis ?
(A) 1H (B) 12C
(C) 19F (D) 31P
6. Absorption of light in the ultraviolet region is because of the :
(A) electronic transitions only (B) vibrational level transitions only
(C) rotational level transitions only (D) rotational and the vibrational transitions.
7. The electric field in unpolarized light :
(A) has no direction at any time
(B) rotates rapidly
(C) is always parallel to the direction of propagation
(D) changes direction randomly and often
8. Heat has the same unit as :
(A) temperature (B) work
(C) energy/time (D) heat capacity

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672 3 [Turn over

9. An inelastic collision is one in which :
(A) momentum is not conserved but kinetic energy is conserved
(B) total mass is not conserved but momentum is conserved
(C) neither kinetic energy nor momentum is conserved
(D) momentum is conserved but kinetic energy is not conserved
10. A magnetic field exerts a force on a charged particle :
(A) always
(B) never
(C) if the particle is moving across the field lines
(D) if the particle is moving along the field lines
11. The number of all possible matrices of order 2×2 with each element 0 or 1 is :
(A) 2 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 32

4 3 dr
12. If V = πr , at what rate in cubic units in V increasing when r = 10 and = 0·01 ?
3 dt
(A) π (B) 4π
(C) 40π (D) 4π/3
13. The maximum value of f(x) = 5 – | x – 1 | for x ∈ R is
(A) 0 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6

∫ (3x + 2x + K)dx = 0, then K is equal to :

2
14. If
0

(A) –2 (B) –1
(C) 2 (D) 1
15. The general solution of the differential equation xdy = ydx is :
(A) y = eKx (B) y = Kx
(C) xy = K (D) y = K logex

1
16. If f(x) = , g(x) = f[f(x)] and h(x) = f[g(x)], then what is the value of f(x) · g(x) · h(x) ?
1−x
(A) –1 (B) 0
(C) 1 (D) 2

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672 4

 a−b a2 + b2
17. If = 5, then 2 is equal to :
a+b a − b2
2 3
(A) (B)
3 2
5 13
(C) (D)
13 5

(2·3)3 + ·027
18. The value of is equal to :
(2·3)2 − ·69 + ·09
(A) 2·6 (B) 2·33
(C) 2·27 (D) 2
19. The last digit in 9200 is :
(A) 9 (B) 7
(C) 3 (D) 1
20. About which axes, will be the graph of y = x2, x ∈ R is symmetric ?
(A) x-axis (B) y-axis
(C) both axes (D) none of the axes
21. Amphipathic molecules contain :
(A) a polar group (B) a nonpolar group
(C) a polar and a nonpolar group (D) an alkyl group
22. Lysosomes contain enzymes known as :
(A) Transferases (B) Hydrolases
(C) Ligases (D) Polymerases
23. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have all of the following except :
(A) a plasma membrane (B) a genome of DNA
(C) the ability to replicate (D) subcellular organelles
24. Biological membranes are associated with all of the following except :
(A) free movement of proteins and nucleic acids across the membrane
(B) sites for biochemical reactions
(C) release of protons when damaged
(D) prevention of free diffusion of ionic solutes

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672 5 [Turn over

25. Endonuclease is an enzyme that hydrolyzes a :
(A) nucleotide from only the 3' – end of an oligonucleotide
(B) nucleotide from only the 5' – end of an oligonucleotide
(C) bond only in a specific sequence of nucleotides
(D) a phosphodiester bond located anywhere in a polynucleotide
26. microRNAs (miRNAs) are :
(A) microscopic RNA molecules
(B) short single stranded RNAs ~23 nucleotides long with regulatory activities
(C) double stranded RNA ~23 nucleotides long with regulatory activities
(D) large RNA molecules
27. Glycine sidechain has :
(A) an aryl group (B) a phenyl group 10%
(C) a hydrogen atom (D) a hydroxyl group
28. Which one among following is not a true amino acid ?
(A) glycine (B) histidine
(C) glutamic acid (D) proline
29. Proteins can be separated according to mass by :
(A) isoelectric focussing (B) ion exchange chromatography
(C) SDS-PAGE (D) PAGE
30. Sequences that can be several thousand base pairs upstream or downstream of an eukaryotic
promoter and which increases gene expression are :
(A) CAAT Box (B) TATA Box
(C) Insulators (D) Enhancers
31. DNA replication is :
(A) semi conservative
(B) totally conservative
(C) sometimes totally sometimes partially conservative
(D) not at all conservative
32. Telomeres are :
(A) at the end of bacterial chromosomes
(B) at the end of plasmid DNA
(C) at the end of linear chromosomes in eukaryotes
(D) in between chromosomes in eukaryotes

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672 6

33. RecA is a protein involved in :
(A) translation (B) recombination
(C) splicing (D) transcription
34. A transition mutation is
(A) substitution of a purine/pyrimidine with purine/pyrimidine
(B) substitution of a purine with pyrimidine or vice versa
(C) insertion of one or two bases into the DNA chain
(D) always is a missense mutation
35. The sigma subunit of prokaryotic RNA polymerase
(A) is part of the core enzyme (B) is the catalytic subunit
(C) does the proof reading (D) is a gyrase
36. During processing of transfer RNA (tRNA)
(A) only exonucleases are involved (B) excess bases from the 3’–end are cleaved
(C) some bases are modified by methylation (D) RNA is degraded
37. The pathway from a gene to a protein in eukaryotic cells involves
(A) first, transport of mRNA, then its processing, then transcription, then translation
(B) first, transcription of the RNA, then its transport, then processing, then translation
(C) first, processing of the RNA, then its transport, then transcription, then translation
(D) first, transcription of RNA, then its processing, then its transport, then translation
38. Ribosome is made up of :
(A) RNA and protein (B) RNA, DNA and
(C) RNA, lipid and protein (D) RNA, lipid, and glycoprotein
39. Chaperones aid in
(A) DNA replication (B) protein folding
(C) RNA synthesis (D) protein degradation
40. pBR322 is a
(A) gene (B) chromosome
(C) plasmid (D) cosmid
41. Haptens
(A) can act as antigens (B) bind to antibodies specific to them
(C) are macromolecule (D) never act as antigenic determinants
42. Haemoglobin is a :
(A) monomeric protein (B) dimeric protein
(C) oligomeric protein (D) tetrameric protein

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672 7 [Turn over

43. In serine proteases, catalytic triad consists of :
(A) serine, glycine histidine (B) serine, histidine, aspartate
(C) serine, proline, histidine (D) serine, leucine, aspartate
44. An enzyme :
(A) stabilizes the transition state
(B) binds very tightly to the substrate
(C) binds very tightly to the product
(D) prevent the reaction from proceeding in the reverse direction
45. Cell membranes have :
(A) only lipids (B) only proteins
(C) both integral and peripheral proteins (D) only transport proteins
46. Calmodulin is a :
(A) membrane protein (B) protein that bind calcium
(C) kinase (D) second messenger
47. Intercellular signaling in which one cell can communicate with other over long distances is called :
(A) paracrine (B) autocrine
(C) juxtacrine (D) endocrine
48. Molecular motors involved in contraction and trafficking are :
(A) Dyneins (B) Myosins
(C) Ribosomes (D) Kinesins
49. Cyclin dependent kinases :
(A) occur only in the M phase (B) are always inactivated by phosphorylation
(C) are always activated (D) binds to cyclins
50. Basal metabolic rate :
(A) is influenced by energy intake
(B) is not influenced by energy intake
(C) does not respond to change in harmone levels
(D) does not decrease upon starvation
51. At equilibrium, the free energy change for any reaction is :
(A) large and positive (B) large and negative
(C) small and positive (D) zero

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672 8

52. The behaviour of real gases approaches that described by the ideal gas law :
(A) at low pressure (B) at high temperature and pressure
(C) at low temperature (D) at low temperature and high pressure
53. A predominantly ionic bond is formed between two elements which have :
(A) Equal electronegativities (B) Equal ionization energies
(C) An equal number of bonding electrons (D) Very different electronegativities
54. The low bond energy of F2 is best explained by :
(A) the high electronegativity of F (B) the small size of F
(C) double bonding through lone pairs on F (D) repulsion by lone pairs on F
55. A second order rate constant can have units :
(A) dm–3 mol s–1 (B) dm6 mol–2 s–1
(C) dm–6 mol2 s–1 (D) dm3 mol–1 s–1
56. Which of the following is the strongest acid in aqueous solution ?
(A) ethanol (B) phenol
(C) p-hydroxytoluene (D) p-nitrophenol
57. A suitable reagent for converting a primary alcohol into the corresponding chlorolakane would
be :
(A) Cl2 (B) SOCl2
(C) HCl (D) NaCl
58. Which one of the following contains the greatest number of molecules ?
(A) 1·0 g of O2 (B) 1·0 g of O3
(C) 1·0 g of O3+ (D) 1·0 g of O32+
59. A purified cytochrome protein isolated from a bacterial preparation was found to contain 0·376%
iron (Atomic mass of Fe : 55·8 u). Assuming that the protein contains one atom of iron per molecule
than the molecular weight of the protein is :
(A) 14840 u (B) 432 u
5
(C) 7×10 u (D) 20981 u
60. Which one of the following can exist as geometric isomers ?
(A) CH2Cl2 (B) CH2Cl–CH2Cl
(C) CHBr = CHCl (D) CH2Cl – CH2Br
61. Mixture of camphor and sodium chloride can be separated by :
(A) Chromatography (B) Sublimation
(C) Electrophoresis (D) Sieving
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672 9 [Turn over
62. The genetic disease in which the person is anaemic, but does not get infected with malaria is :
(A) Haemophilia (B) Sickle cell anaemia
(C) Colour blindness (D) Down’s syndrome
63. 1 torr = ____________________ mm of Hg.
(A) 1 (B) 760
(C) 101·3 (D) 1/760
64. Antidote for accidental acid poisoning ?
(A) NaOH (B) Na2CO3
(C) Aqua-regia (D) Lime water
65. Anaemia is a deficiency disease caused due to improper intake of :
(A) folic acid (B) iron
(C) vitamin B12 (D) any of the above
66. Anti-serum is :
(A) active immunization (B) passive immunization
(C) antigen and antibody (D) antigens
67. Hepatitis B affects :
(A) liver (B) kidneys
(C) heart (D) lungs
68. Which of the following is the live attenuated vaccine ?
(A) Diphtheria (B) Oral polio
(C) Tetanus Toxoid (D) Pertusis
69. Efficiency of a protective colloidal is judged from :
(A) Octane value (B) Cetane value
(C) Gold number (D) Silver number
70. Arrhenius equation is helpful in explaining :
(A) Temperature influence on rate kinetics
(B) Solubility phenomenon
(C) Osmotic pressure and temperature relationship
(D) Diffusional rate
71. Which of the following immunoglobulin provides mucosal immunity ?
(A) IgG (B) IgM
(C) sIgA (D) IgE

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672 10

72. Ringworm is caused by :
(A) bacterium (B) fungus
(C) virus (D) worm
73. Alzheimer’s disease is caused in :
(A) infants (B) pre-menopausal women
(C) elderly (D) adolescents
74. The units to measure the sound intensity are :
(A) Richter (B) Debye
(C) Diopter (D) Decibel
75. If a person counted 40 drops of a medication in filling a graduated cylinder to the mark 2·5 ml, how
many drops per ml did the dropper delivers ?
(A) 16 (B) 10
(C) 8 (D) 20

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672 11 [Turn over

 ROUGH WORK

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A/OEC-22672 12 156