NTSE Test Stage 2 1 Final

Test 1 OT/L/2018/N001
SECTION : A (MAT)
Directions (1-15) : Following questions are 5. 2, 0, 5, 3, ?, 8, 17
based on number series. In each question,
(a) 5 (b) 6
a series of numbers is given, with a blank
(c) 8 (d) 10
space with a question mark (?) on it. The
number to fill in the blank is given as one 6. 4, 15, 16, ?, 36, 63, 64
of the alternatives among the four given (a) 25 (b) 30
under each question. Find the correct (c)32 (d) 35
alternative in each case.
7. 11, 24, 67, 122, 219, ?
1 2 (a) 300 (b)325
1. 80, 16, 4, 1 , , ?
3 3 (c) 316 (d) 340
1
(a) 0 (b) 1 1 1 1 5
3 8. , , , , , ?
2 6 6 2 6
2 1
(c) (d)
3 2
2 1
2 4 11 37 (a) 1 (b) 1
, , , ,? 3 2
2.
3 8 18 38
1 1
(c) 1 (d) 1
153 152 3 6
(a) (b)
78 84
9. 3, 4, 5, 4, 5, 6, 5, 6, 7, ?
115 143
(c) (d) (a) 5 (b) 6
74 58
(c) 7 (d) 8
3. 4 18, 48, 100, 180, ?
10. 18, 30, 55, 84, ?
(a) 201 (b) 212 (a) 107 (b) 143
(c) 240 (d) 294 (c) 117 (d) 130
4. 6, 24, ?, 120, 210, 336 11. 4427, 827, 67, 31, 9, ?
(a) 60 (b) 65 (a) 7 (b) 6
(c) 70 (d) 72 (c) 5 (d) 4
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OT/L/2018/N001 2 Test
18. 9, 7, 3, 11, 15, 2, 13, 32, 1
12. 3, 12, 4, 5, 30, 6, 7, ?, 8
(a) 15 (b) 32
(a) 40 (b) 42
(c) 13 (d) 1
(c) 50 (d) 56
19. 2, 9, 10, 65, 128, 217
13. 4183, 4388, 4285, 4490, ?, 4592
(a) 2 (b) 10
(a) 4695 (b) 4593
(c) 217 (d) 128
(c) 4285 (d) 4387
20. 6.2, 6.8, 7.3, 7.6, 8
14. 9, 20, 43, 9, 189, ?
(a) 7.1 (b) 7.8
(a) 287 (b) 378
(c) 7.6 (d) 6.8
(c) 277 (d) 389
Directions (21-25) : In each of the following
15. 99, 98, 94, 85, 69, 44, ?
questions, there is a letter series with one
(a) 9 (b) 15 term missing as shown by (?). This item
(c) 4 (d) 8 is given as one of the alternatives among
the four groups of letters given under it.
Directions (16-20) : Each of the question Find this term.
consists of a number series. Each contains
a wrong term. This is as one of the 21. AVJ, ?, CTF, DSD, ERB
alternatives among four numbers given by (a) BUH (b) BTR
the side of the question. Find the wrong (c) BHT (d) STU
term in each case.
22. BXI, EYK, HZM, KAO, ?
16. 58, 57, 54, 50, 42, 33, 22
(a) BQL (b) CNR
(a) 33 (b) 50
(c) NCR (d) NBQ
(c) 54 (d) 57
23. MAAL, AALM, ALMA, LMAA, ?
17. 380, 420, 462, 506, 550
(a) AAML (b) MAAL
(a) 550 (b) 506
(c) MALA (d) AAML
(d) 462 (d) 420
24. EYXB, HVUE, LRQI, VHGS, ?
(a) AZYD (b) YDEV

(c) SOKP (d) NPOK

Test 3 OT/L/2018/N001
25. YABRU, ?, ACDTW, BDEUX, CEFVY, Directions (31-35) : In this type there are cells
DFGWZ in the form of squares or rectangles. For
(a) ABDTU (b) BCEVW each question there is a different rule
(c) ACDVU (d) ZBCSV according to which all the cells except one
have been filled and one left vacant. Find
Directions (26-30) : In these questions, there is
the missing one.
a question Mark (?) in a blank space in
which only one of the four alternatives
given under the question satisfies the same
relationship as in found between the two
31.
terms to the left of the sign : : given in the
question. Find the correct answer.
26. 123 : 171 : : 291 : ? (a) 11 (b) 10
(a) 330 (b) 343 (c) 13 (d) 12
(c) 345 (d) 363
27. 48 : 33 : : 63 : ?
(a) 49 (b) 56
(c) 46 (d) 35 32.
28. 3 : 14 : : 21 : ?
(a) 28 (b) 32 (a) 16 (b) 19
(c) 33 (d) 36 (c) 18 (d) 20
29. 11 : 17 : : 19 : ?
(a) 29 (b) 27 33.
(c) 24 (d) 23
K 11 J (a) 51 (b) 42
30. : : :?
T 20 R (c) 53 (d) 47
10 10
(a) (b)
8 18
7 11
(c) (d)
9 19

OT/L/2018/N001 4 Test
38.
34.
(a) 56 (b) 50
(a) 22 (b) 28
(c) 52 (d) 54
(c) 30 (d) 36
35. 39.
(a) 122 (b) 137

(a) 169 (b) 156
(c) 145 (d) 521
(c) 182 (d) 196
Directions (36-47) : Find the missing character
from the given alternatives.
40.
36.
(a) 361 (b) 324
(c) 81 (d) 381
(a) 6 (b) 9
(c) 12 (d) 15
41.
37.
(a) 49 (b) 53
(c) 42 (d) 45
(a) 33 (b) 37
(c) 35 (d) 38

Test 5 OT/L/2018/N001
42. 45.
(a) 18 (b) 21
(c) 5 (d) 17 (a) 80, 2800 (b) 81, 2756
(c) 80, 2746 (d) 82, 2156
43.
46.
(a) 169 (b) 91

(c) 98 (d) 164
(a) 213 (b) 137
(c) 241 (d) 311
44.
47.
(a) 10 (b) 12
(a) 24 (b) 19
(c) 14 (d) 16
(c) 34 (d) 10

OT/L/2018/N001 6 Test
Directions : In the following questions . Nine
Direction (Q. 51 to 80): Find the missing
numbers are written according to certain
character in the following Questions.
rule. One number in the group is wrong.
Find the number which is wrong.
48. 19 21 23
17 7 9
14 13 11 51.
(a) 13 (b) 14
(c) 17 (d) 19
49. 12 21 30 (a) 6 (b) 8

(c) 9 (d) 5
56 110 72
42 90 132
(a) 12 (b) 21
(c) 56 (d) 90
52.
Directions : The numbers given below are
written in a specific manner. Find out the
number which fits in the vacant place
from the answers given by the side of (a) 6 (b) 4
question. (c) 2 (d) 5
50. 345 (96) 242
256 (?) 341
125 (24) 234

53.
(a) 45 (b) 60
(c) 120 (d) 72
(a) 6 (b) 8
(c) 9 (d) 10

Test 7 OT/L/2018/N001
54.
57.
(a) 7 (b) 9
(c) 11 (d) 8 (a) 9 (b) 4
(c) 1 (d) 5
55.
58.
(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 14 (d) 16 (a) 8, 6 (b) 7, 6
(c) 8, 1 (d) 4, 7
59. Which number is the odd one out in each
oval?
56.
(a) 10 (b) 11
(c) 12 (d) 13
(a) 58, 86 (b) 72, 63

(c) 32, 63 (d) 72, 35

OT/L/2018/N001 8 Test
63.
(a) 47 (b) 15
(c) 51 (d) 53
60.
(a) 9 (b) 8
(c) 3 (d) 1 64.
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 4
61.
65.
(a) 4 (b) 5 (a) 10 (b) 12

(c) 6 (d) 7 (c) 9 (d) 8
62.
66.
(a) 228 (b) 53

(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 253 (d) 131
(c) 9 (d) 8

Test 9 OT/L/2018/N001
70.
67.
(a) 7 (b) 6
(c) 5 (d) 4
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 6
68.
71.
(a) 15 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 8
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 8
69.
(a) 1 (b) 4 72.

(c) 6 (d) 3
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 6 (d) 8

OT/L/2018/N001 10 Test
77.
73.
(a) 7 (b) 13
(c) 19 (d) 11
(a) 22 (b) 24
(c) 23 (d) 28
78.
74.
(a) 0 (b) 1 (a) 81 (b) 89

(c) 2 (d) 3 (c) 90 (d) 109
75.
79.
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 6
76.
80.
(a) 7 (b) 13
(c) 11 (d) 18
(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9

Test 11 OT/L/2018/N001
Direction : (Q. 81 to 89) : Find the missing Direction : (Q. 91 to 100) : In the given
term in the following questions. sequence, some letters are missing.
81. 2, 4, 36, 48, 150, ? Which of the given options can fill the
blanks in the correct order from left to
(a) 232 (b) 180
right ?
(c) 198 (d) 210
91. a _ bd _ da _ dbc _ b _ dc
82. y, x, v, t, ?
(a) aabbc (b) bbcca
(a) r (b) p
(c) caabb (d) ccbaa
(c) s (d) q
92. _ bcdbc _ dcabd _ bcdbc _ dc _ bd
83. D, I, Y, M, M, R, ?
(a) aaaaa (b) ccccc
(a) T (b) Y
(c)bbbbb (d) ddddd
(c) J (d) O
93. adb _ ac _ da _ cddcb _ dbc _ cbda
84. 11, 31, 71, 91, 32, ?
(a) bccba (b) cbbaa
(a) 92 (b) 28
(c) ccbba (d) bbcad
(c) 85 (d) 81
94. a _ cacbc _ baca _ _ b
85. a, h, bg, abe, baf, ?
(a) baba (b) babc
(a) fbe (b) edc
(c) abac (d) cacb
(c) dec (d) cdc
95. b _ b _ bb _ _ bbb _ bb _ b
86. 42, 48, 60, 66, 78, ?
(a) bbbbba (b) bbaaab
(a) 68 (b) 93
(c) ababab (d) aabaab
(c) 101 (d) 104
96. cbaa _ bc _ acc _ aacbcaa _ cba
87. 81, 192, 375, ?, 1029
(a) babc (b) cabc
(a) 686 (b) 648
(c) bacc (d) abcb
(c) 484 (d) 468
97. a b _ _ a _ dca _ d _ ab _ c2
2 2
88. 255, 3610, 4915, ? , 8125

(a) cdb2bcb (b) acb2bcd
(a) 5100 (b) 5420
(c) dcb2dcd (d) bcb2bcd2
(c) 6420 (d) 6422
98. bed _ ge _ fgdf _ _ _ g
89. 1218199, 1006480, 814963, 643648, ?
(a) gdffg (b) fdgfg
(a) 366478 (b) 1442560
(c) fdggg (d) fdgff
(c) 492535 (d) 253634
99. abd _ fe _ baab _ e _ edba
90. In the following sequence, one number
(a) eddf (b) bdae
is wrong. Find the wrong number.
(c) edbf (d) abae
69, 55, 26, 13, 5
100. a _ c _ cbc _ baca _ _ b
(a) 5 (b) 13
(a) abacb (b) cabcb
(c) 26 (d) 55
(c) baabc (d) bcacb

OT/L/2018/N001 12 Test
SECTION : B (SAT)
1. A florist has 200 roses and 180 jasmines
5. If the product of 4864×9p2 is divisible by
with him. He was asked to make garlands
12, then the value of p is
of flowers with only roses or only jasmines
each containing the same number of (a) 2 (b) 5
flowers. What will be the largest number (c) 6 (d) 7
of flowers, he can join together without 6. Unit ’s digit of the nu mber
leaving a single flower ? 31001 × 71002 × 131003 is
(a) 16 (b) 17 (a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 20 (d) 19 (c) 7 (d) 9
2. An automobile dealer provides cars in 5 7. Let n be the number of different 5 digit
models in 6 different colours. Find the numbers, divisible by 4 with the digits
number of choices open to a customer. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6, no digit being repeated in
(a) 30 (b) 11 the numbers. What is the value of n ?
(c) 15 (d) 21 (a) 144 (b) 168
3. On dividing a certain number by 342, we (c) 192 (d) None of these

get 47 as remainder. If the same number 8. On simplifying
is div ided by 18, what will be the
remainder ? 3 3 8 7 4 3 , we get
(a) 30 (b) 11
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 15 (d) 21
(c) –1 (d) 2
4. If n is a natural number, then n(n + 1) 9. The number of integers n (< 20) for which
(n + 2) is always divisible by n2 – 3n + 3 is a perfect square is
(a) 4 (b) 12 (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 6 (d) 9 (c) 2 (d) 3

Test 13 OT/L/2018/N001
10. Which of the following is smallest ? 16. If (x + a)(x + b)(x + c) {x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6,
find the value of a2 + b2 + c2.
(a) 4
5 (b) 5
4
(a) 12 (b) 14
(c) 4 (d) 3 (c) 19 (d) 13
11. If ‘x’ & ‘y’ are odd integers then ? 17. Given a number x = 248 – 1. Then between
2 2
(a) x + y is even, but not divisible by 4 5 and 10, x has/have
(b) x2 + y2 is odd, but not divisible by 7 (a) no factor
2 2
(c) x + y is even, and divisible by 4. (b) only one factor
2 2
(d) x + y is odd & divisible by 7 (c) two factors
12. Two numbers are in the ratio of 15:11. If (d) three factors
their H.C.F is 13, then number will be
18. If a2 + b2 + c2 – ab – bc – ca = 0, then the
(a) 195 and 143 (b) 190 and 140 value of a : b : c is
(c) 185 and 163 (d) 185 and 143 (a) 1 : 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 3
13. Given two 4-digit numbers abcd and dcba. (c) 1 : 3 : 4 (d) 1 : 4 : 1
If a + d = b + c = 7, then their sum is not
19. When a natural number x is divided by
divisible by
5, the remainder is 2. When a natural
(a) 7 (b) 11 number y is divided by 5, the remainder
(c) 101 (d) 111 is 4. The remainder is z when x + y is
14. Find the value of x and state which of the 2z 5
given statement is/are required for it divided by 5. The value of is
3
I. The L.C.M of x and 18 is 36. (a) –1 (b) 1
II. The H.C.F of x and 18 is 2. (c) –2 (d) 2
(a) 1, only statement-I is required 20. If equation (3k + 1) x + 3y – 2 = 0 and
(b) 2, only statement-II is required (k2 + 1)x + (k –2)y– 5 = 0 have no solution,
(c) 4, statement-I and II both are required then valus of k is
(d) None of these (a) 1 (b) 0
15. Find the least number which when divided (c) –2 (d) –1
by 15, leaves a remainder of 5, when
divided by 25, leaves a remainder of 15
and when divided by 35 leaves a
remainder of 25.
(a) 515 (b) 525
(c) 1040 (d) 1050

OT/L/2018/N001 14 Test
21. A packet is released from a rising balloon
h
accelerating upward with acceleration a. (a) metre from the ground
9
The acceleration of the stone just after the
release is (b) (7h/9) metre from the ground
(a) a upward (b) g downward (c) (8h/9) metre from the ground
(c) (g – a) downward (d) (g + a) downward (d) (17h/18) metre from the ground
22. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from 26. A particle is falling freely under gravity. In
the ground. If T1 and T2 are the respective first t second it covers distance x1 and in
time taken in going up and coming down, the next t second it cover distance x2, then
and the air resistance is not ignored, then t is given by
(a) T1 > T2
x 2 x1 x 2 x1
(b) T1 = T2 (a) (b)
g g
(c) T1 < T2
(d) nothing can be said
2 x 2 x1 2 x 2 x1
23. The length of a seconds hand in watch is 1 (c) (d)
g g
cm. The average speed of its tip in 15 s is
27. The figure shows velocity–time graph of a
S 1
(a) zero (b) cms particle moving along a straight line.
30 2 Identify the correct statement.
S S 2
(c) cms 1 (d) cms1
30 30
24. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower

and one second later, a second stone is
thrown vertically downward with a velocity
–1
20 ms . The second stone will overtake the
fir st aft er travelling a distance of
–2
(g = 10ms )
(a) 13 m (b) 15 m
(a) The particle starts from the origin
(c) 11.25 m (d) 19.5 m
(b) The particle crosses it initial position at
25. A ball is released from the top of a tower of
t = 2s
height h metre. It takes T second to reach
the ground. What is the position of the ball (c) The average speed of the particle in the
in T/3 second? time interval, 0 d t d 2s is zero
(d) All of the above

Test 15 OT/L/2018/N001
28. A particle is projected vertically upwards
(c)
and reaches the maximum height H in time
T. The height of the particle at any time t
will be
2 2
(a) g(t – T) (b) H – g(t – T)
(d)
1 2 1 2
(c) g(t – T) (d) H – g(t – T)
2 2
29. A stone is thrown vertically upwards. When 32. A body has speed Q, 2Q and 3Q in first
stone is at a height half of its maximum
–1 1 1
height, its speed is 10ms ; then the of distance s second of s and third
3 3
maximum height attained by the stone is
–2
(g = 10 ms ) 1
of a respectively. Its average speed will
(a) 25 m (b) 10 m 3
(c) 15 m (d) 20 m be
(a) Q (b) 2Q
30. A juggler maintains four ball in motion,
making each of them to rise a height of 20 18 11
m from his hand. What time interval should (c) Q (d) Q
11 18
he maintain, for the proper distance
between them? (g= 10 m/s )
2 33. A car is moving with a constant speed of
70 km/h. which o f t he following
3 statements is correct?
(a) 3 s (b) s
2 (a) The acceleration of the car is definitely
zero.
(c) 1 s (d) 2 s
(b) The car has an acceleration only if it
31. Which pair of the following graphs
is moving along a curved path.
represents the same motion ?
(c) The car may have acceleration even if
(a) it is moving along a curved path.
(d) None of these
(b)

OT/L/2018/N001 16 Test
34. The reaction between carbon and oxygen (a) (D) ii (C) iv (B) i (A) iii
can be repr esented as (b) (C) i (A) ii (D) iii (B) iv
C(s) + O2(g) o CO2(g) + heat
(c) (B) ii (D) i (A) iii (C) iv
In which of the following type(s), the above
(d) (A) iv (B) iii (C) i (D) ii
reaction can be classified?
I. Combustion reaction 37. When copper powder is heated it gets
coated with
II. Displacement reaction
III. Endothermic reaction (a) black copper oxide
IV. Combination reaction (b) yellow copper oxide
(a) (I) and (Ill) (b) (I), (III) and (IV)
(c) red copper oxide
(c) (I) and (IV) (d) (I) only
35. Oxygen gas reacts with hydrogen to (d) None of these
produce water. The reaction is 38. The following reaction is used for the
represented by the equation: preparation of oxygen gas in the laboratory
O2 (g) + H2 (g) o H2O(g) Heat
2KClO3 (s)
Catalyst
o 2 KCl(s) 3O2 (g)
The above reaction is an example of
(1) Oxidation of hydrogen Which of the following statement(s) is(are)
correct about the reaction ?
(2) Reduction of oxygen
(a) It is a decomposition reaction and
(3) Reduction of hydrogen endothermic in nature
(4) Redox reaction (b) It is a combination reaction
(a) (1), (2) and (3) (b) (2), (3) and (4) (c) It is a decomposition reaction and
accompanied by release of heat
(c) (1), (3) and (4) (d) (1), (2) and (4)
(d) It is a photochemical decomposition
36. Match the item of Column I with the item reaction and exothermic in nature
of the Column II
39. Silver articles become black on prolonged
Column I Column II exposure to air. This is due to the
(A) NH4OH + CH3COOH (i) Thermal formation of
o CH3COONH4 + H2O decomposition (a) Ag3N (b) Ag2O
(B) 2AgBr o 2Ag + Br2 (ii) Thermite reaction (c) Ag2S (d) Ag2S and Ag3N
(C) ZnCO3 o ZnO + CO2 (iii) photochemical
reaction
(D) 2Al + Fe2O3 o (iv) Neutralization
2Fe+Al2O3 reaction

Test 17 OT/L/2018/N001
40. What type of a chemical reaction takes (a) Bromine is oxidised and carbonate is
place when reduced.
(i) lime stone is heated (b) Bromine is reduced and water is
oxidised
(ii) proteins are converted into amino acids ?
(c) Bromine is neither reduced nor
(a) In both (i) and (ii), a combination oxidised
reaction takes place.
(d) Bromine is both reduced and oxidised
(b) In (i), a decomposition reaction takes
44. When copper turnings are added to silver
place while in (ii), a combination reaction
nitrate solution, a blue coloured solution
takes place.
is formed after some time. It is because,
(c) In both (i) and (ii), a decomposition
copper -
reaction takes place.
(d) In (i), a combination reaction takes (a) reacts with silver from the solution
place while in (ii), a decomposition reaction
(b) forms a blue coloured complex with
takes place.
AgNO3
41. A dilute ferrous sulphate solution was
gradually added to the beaker containing (c) is oxidised to Cu2+
acidified permanganate solution. The light
purple colour of the solution fades and (d) is reduced to Cu2+
finally disappears. Which of the following
is the correct explanation for the 45. When P reacts with caustic soda, the
observation ? products are PH 3 and NaH 2PO 2. This
(a) KMnO4 is an oxidising agent, it oxidises reaction is an example of -
FeSO4
(a) oxidation
(b) FeSO4 acts as an oxidising agent and
oxidises KMnO4 (b) reduction
(c) The colour disappears due to dilution;
no reaction is involved (c) oxidation and reduction (redox)
(d) KMnO4 is an unstable compound and (d) neutralization
decomposes in presence of FeSO4 to a
colourless compound. 46. A dilute solution of sodium carbonate was
42. A, B and C are three elements forming a added to two test tubes – one containing
part of compound in oxidation states of dil HCl (a) and the other containing dilute
+2, +5 and –2 respectively. What could be NaOH (b). The correct observation was -
the compound ? (a) a brown coloured gas liberated in test
(a) A2(BC)2 (b) A2(BC4)3 tube A
(c) A3(BC4)2 (d) ABC (b) a brown coloured gas liberated in test
tube B
43. In the reaction
(c) a colourless gas liberated in test tube
3Br2 6CO32 3H2O o A
5Br BrO3 6HCO3 (d) a colourless gas liberated in test tube

B

OT/L/2018/N001 18 Test
47. What is true about neurons? (b) Virus < PPLO < Bacteria < Plant cell
(a) Myelinated neurons contain Schwann (c) Plant cell > Virus > Bacteria > PPLO
cell and nodes of Ranvier (d) Bacteria > Plant cell > Virus > PPLO
(b) Dendrites represent the efferent part 54. Fluid mosaic model is the most accepted
of a neuron model for plasma membrane structure.
(c) Nissl granules are made of histones It shows that
(a) Quasi fluid nature of lipid enables
(d) Afferent neurons conduct impulses
lateral movement of proteins within the
from brain to effector organs
overall bilayer
48. Which of the following is the characteristic
(b) Later al move ment within the
of epithelial tissues?
membrane is measured as its fluidity
(a) They are highly vascularised
(c) Fluid nature of membrane is important
(b) They never produce glands for growth, formation of intercellular
(c) They have large intercellular spaces junctions, secretion, endocytosis, cell
division, etc.
(d) They have a rapid rate of cell division
49. Identify the correctly matched pair (d) All of the above
(a) Sarcomere - Basic unit of muscle 55. Chromatin contains
contraction (a) DNA
(b) Haemopiesis- Formation of (b) basic proteins called histones
Hepatocytes (c) non-histone proteins
(c) Life span of - 10 days
(d) All of the above
human RBC
56. Which of the following is not correctly
(d) Plasma- Blood minus clotting
matched?
factors
(a) Amyloplast - Store fats
50. Smooth muscle fibres are
(b) Elaioplast – Store oils
(a) cylindrical, unbranched, striated,
multinucleate and voluntary (c) Aleuroplasts - Store proteins
(b) spindle-shaped, unbranched, non- (d) Chloroplasts - Contain photosynthetic
striated, uinucleated and involuntary pigments
(c) cylindrical, unbranched, non-striated, 57. The Golgi complex plays a major role
uninucleate are involuntary (a) in digesting proteins and carbohydrates
(d) spindle-shaped, unbranched, striated, (b) as energy transferring organelles
uninucleate and voluntary
(c) in post translational modification of
51. Mark the odd one
proteins and glycosidation of lipids
(a) monocytes (b) lymphocytes
(d) in trapping the light and transforming
(c) neutrophils (d) erythrocytes
it into chemical energy
52. Which of the following statements is true?
58. In photosynthetic organisms like bacteria,
(a) Vessels are multicellular and with wide blue-green algae, etc., pigments are found
lumen in
(b) Tracheids are uninucleated and with (a) mesosome
narrow lumen
(b) chromatophores
(c) Vessels are unicellular and with narrow
lumen (c) mesosome of inclusion bodies
(d) Tracheids are unicellular and with wide (d) cyanophycean granules or gas vacuoles
lumen
53. The correct ascending order with their size
is
(a) PPLO < Virus < Bacteria < Plant cell
Test 19 OT/L/2018/N001
59. Select the wrong statement from the 65. Napoleon’s invasions were resented in
following several countries due to
(a) both chloroplasts and mitochondria (a) Increased taxes, censorship and forced
contain an inner and an outer membrane conscription into army
(b) both chloroplasts and mitochondria (b) Poor administration, restricted trade,
have an internal compartment, the language issues
thylakoid space bounded by the thylakoid (c) Dominance of aristocracy and army in
membrane administration
(c) both chloroplasts and mitochondria (d) Growth of the feeling of nationalism
contain DNA
66. Liberal nationalism, which dominated
(d) the chloroplasts are generally much Europe in early nineteenth century
larger than mitochondria supported
60. Which of the following is not a function of (a) Personal freedom
cytoskeleton in a cell?
(b) Abolishing privileges of aristocracy and
(a) Intracellular transport clergy
(b) Maintenance of cell shape and (c) Demand for constitution
structure
(d) All of these
(c) Support of the organelle
67. When Frederic Sorrieu prepared a series
(d) Growth of four prints visualising his dream of a
61. The French nation was represented by world made of democratic and social
which female allegory? republics ?
(a) 1848 (b) 1852
(a) Marianne (b) Liberty
(c) 1856 (d) 1860
(c) Britannia (d) Germania 68. Who was J.J.Rousseau?
62. The French Civil Code is also known as (a) King (b) Philosopher
(a) The Universal Civil Code (c) An aristocrat (d) Clergy.
(b) The Napoleonic Code 69. Who wrote the “ Two Tr eaties of
(c) The Code of the Revolution government?”
(a) Rousseau (b) John Lock
(d) The Code Bonaparte
(c) Montesquieu (d) none of these.
63. Which of the following classes did not 70. Who wrote ‘The Spirit of Laws’?
emerge as a result of the Industrial
(a) Rousseau (b) John Lock
Revolution?
(c) Montesquieu (d) Adam Smith.
(a) Industrialists (b) Traders 71. Who said, “Man was born free yet he is
everywhere in chains?
(c) Working class (d) Aristocracy
(a) Montesquieu (b) Rousseau
64. Civil code of 1804, enforced throughout (c) John Locke (d) Adam Smith.
the French territories 72. When and where Estates General
(a) Abolished privileges based on birth Convened?
(b) Established equality before law (a) 14 June 1789, Paris
(b) 14 July 1789, Paris
(c) Secured right to property
(c) 17 May 1789, Versailles
(d) All the above
(d) 17 Sept 1789, Versailles

OT/L/2018/N001 20 Test
73. Who said, “I am France, my will is Law”? (d) The state of West Bengal lacks fertile
(a) Marie Antoinette (b) Louis XIV soil.
(c) Louis XVIII (d) Louis XVI. 81. Everything available in our environment
74. Which was the period of Reign of Terror? which can be used to satisfy our needs ,
(a) 1793-1794 A.D. (b) 1789-1790 A.D. provided , it is technologically accessible,
(c) 1790-91 A.D. (d) 1791-1792 A.D. economically feasible and culturally
acceptabl e can be t ermed
75. India has a total geographical area of
as………………...
____lakh km2:
(a) 32.80 (b) 22.80 (a) Development (b) Resource
(c) 42.08 (d) 30.80. (c) Planning (d) Product
76. Suez canal was opened in year: 82. The process of transformation of things
(a) 1849 (b) 1859 available in our environment involves in
(c)1869 (d)1879. our environment inv olv es an
77. Which is the total length of frontiers of interdependent relationship between
India? natu re ……………….. and
……………………….. .
(a) 12200 km (b) 13200km
(a) Technology , Institutions
(c) 14200 km (d) 15200 km.
(b) Technology , Human beings
78. Where does standard meridian of India
pass through? (c) Human beings , institutions
(a) Srinagar (b) Delhi (d) Resources , technology
(c) Mirzapur (d) Kolkata. 83. ……….interact with nature through

………………… and create institutions to
79. Match list I and list II and select the
accelerate the economic development.
correct answer using the codes given
below : (a) Technology , human beings
List I List II (b) Human beings, technology
1. Biotic 1. Water (c) Resource , technology
2. Renewable 2. Flora and Fauna (d) Technology , resource
3. Stock 3. Picnic spots 84. How can the resources be classified on

the basis of their origin ?
4. Community 4. Wind energy
(a) Biotic and abiotic
owned resource
(b) Renewable and non - renewable
A B C D
(c) Individual and community
(a) 1 2 4 3
(d) Potential and reserves
(b) 2 4 1 3
85. The first Muslim ruler of Delhi was
(c) 3 1 2 4
(a) Iltutmish (b) Qubacha
(d) 4 3 2 1
(c) Yalduz (d) Qutbuddin Aibak
80. Which of the following Is not true with
reference to distribution of resources in 86. The Sultan who was called as Sultan of
India ? Gardens?
(a) The s tates of Jharkhan d , (a) Feroz shah Tughluq

Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are (b) Alauddin Khalji
rich in minerals and coal deposits (c) Jalaluddin Khalji
(b) Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of (d) Qutbuddin Mubarak shah
water resources .
(c) The state of Rajasthan is very well
endowed with solar and wind energy .

Test 21 OT/L/2018/N001
87. Who ascended the throne af ter (d) The majority French – speaking
Muhammmad Bin Tughluq? community was relatively rich whereas
(a) Feroz Shah Tughluq Dutch – speaking minority was relatively
poor.
(b) Muhammad Bin Tughluq
93. Organs of United nations are
(c) Alauddin Khalji (d) Balban
(a) Four (b) Five
88. Which were the new towns established
by Feroz shah Tughluq? (c) Six (d) Three.
(a) Firozabad (b) Fatehabad 94. Which of the following does not exist?
(c) Hissar and Jaunpur (a) U.N. (b) World States
(d) All the above (c) International Monetary Fund
89. Which one of the following is not (d) World Bank.

appropriate reason for power sharing ? 95. Which of the following is not a permanent
(a) It leads to economic development . member of the Security Council?
(b) It reduces the possibility of social (a) India (b) American

conflict. (c) England (d) Russia.
(c) It ensures political stability . 96. When was Saddam Hussein removed from
(d) It is the very spirit of democracy. power from Iraq?
90. Under–distributions of power sharing, (a) 2000 (b) 2003

power is shared among legislature , (c) 1998 (d) 2005.
executive and judiciary . 97. Which of the following is the basis of
(a) Diagonal (b) Parallel democracy?
(c) Horizontal (d) Vertical (a) Equality (b) Liberty
91. Vertical division of power sharing is (c) Fraternity (d) All the above.
……………… 98. Who is the real source of power in a
(a) Among governments at different levels. democratic country?
(b) Among diff erent organs of the (a) People (b) Educated People
government . (c) Aristocratic people(d) King.
(c) Among different social groups 99. Which of the following is an obstacle in
(d) Among different political parities. the way democracy?
92. The Tension between Dutch speaking and (a) Distinctions on the basis of caste,
French – Speaking people in Belgium was colour and creed
because …………. . (b) Lack of education
(a) The minority French – speaking (c) Communalism (d) All the above.
community was relatively rich and
100. Direct democracy is that government in
powerful whereas Dutch – speaking
which:
community was relatively poor.
(a) All citizens cannot participate in
(b) The French – Speaking were Catholics
administration.
wher eas Dut ch- sp eaking were
Protestants . (b) All the citizens directly take part in
administration.
(c) The F rench – Speaking were
protestants whereas Dutch –speaking (c) All the citizens indirectly participate
were catholic . in administration.
(d) The representatives of the public run
the administration.
Dream on !!
[\]^[\]^
OT/L/2018/N001 22 Test
ANSWER KEY
DATE : 29-3-2018 Test ID : OT/L/2018/N001
SECTION : A (MAT)
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d)
6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (d)
16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (d)
26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (b)
36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (c)
46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (d)
56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (d)
61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (a)
66. (a) 67. (d) 68. (d) 69. (b) 70. (a)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (c)
76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (b)
81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (d)
86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (c) 90. (a)
91. (d) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (c)
96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (a) 100. (c)
SECTION : B (SAT)
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d)
6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (a)
16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (c)
26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d)
36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (c)
46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (d) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (d)
56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (a)
66. (d) 67. (a) 68. (b) 69. (b) 70. (c)
71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (a) 75. (a)
76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (d)
81. (b) 82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (d)
86. (a) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (c)
91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (a)
96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (a) 99. (d) 100. (b)

ANSWER KEY
DATE : 29-3-2018 Test ID : OT/L/2018/N001
SECTION : A (MAT)
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (d)
61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (a) 67. (d) 68. (d) 69. (b) 70. (a)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (c) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (b)
81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (d) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (c) 90. (a)
91. (d) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (c) 96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (a) 100. (c)
SECTION : B (SAT)
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (d) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (d) 67. (a) 68. (b) 69. (b) 70. (c)
71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (d)
81. (b) 82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (d) 86. (a) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (c)
91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (a) 96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (a) 99. (d) 100. (b)
ANSWER KEY
DATE : 29-3-2018 Test ID : OT/L/2018/N001
SECTION : A (MAT)
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (d)
61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (a) 67. (d) 68. (d) 69. (b) 70. (a)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (c) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (b)
81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (d) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (c) 90. (a)
91. (d) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (c) 96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (a) 100. (c)
SECTION : B (SAT)
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (d) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (d) 67. (a) 68. (b) 69. (b) 70. (c)
71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (d)
81. (b) 82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (d) 86. (a) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (c)
91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (a) 96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (a) 99. (d) 100. (b)
ANSWER KEY
DATE : 29-3-2018 Test ID : OT/L/2018/N001
SECTION : A (MAT)
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (d)
61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (a) 67. (d) 68. (d) 69. (b) 70. (a)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (c) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (b)
81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (d) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (c) 90. (a)
91. (d) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (c) 96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (a) 100. (c)
SECTION : B (SAT)
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (d) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (d) 67. (a) 68. (b) 69. (b) 70. (c)
71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (d)
81. (b) 82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (d) 86. (a) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (c)
91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (a) 96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (a) 99. (d) 100. (b)

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Test 1 OT/L/2018/N001

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(a) AZYD (b) YDEV

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(a) 122 (b) 137

Space for Rough Work

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(a) 169 (b) 91

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49. 12 21 30 (a) 6 (b) 8

50. 345 (96) 242

256 (?) 341

125 (24) 234

(c) 120 (d) 72

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(a) 58, 86 (b) 72, 63

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(a) 4 (b) 5 (a) 10 (b) 12

(a) 228 (b) 53

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(a) 1 (b) 4 72.

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(a) 0 (b) 1 (a) 81 (b) 89

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88. 255, 3610, 4915, ? , 8125

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(c) 15 (d) 21 (a) 144 (b) 168

3. On dividing a certain number by 342, we (c) 192 (d) None of these

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5Br   BrO3  6HCO3 (d) a colourless gas liberated in test tube

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(a) Srinagar (b) Delhi (d) Resources , technology

(c) Mirzapur (d) Kolkata. 83. ……….interact with nature through

List I List II (b) Human beings, technology

1. Biotic 1. Water (c) Resource , technology

2. Renewable 2. Flora and Fauna (d) Technology , resource

3. Stock 3. Picnic spots 84. How can the resources be classified on

(a) The s tates of Jharkhan d , (a) Feroz shah Tughluq

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(c) Hissar and Jaunpur (a) U.N. (b) World States

(d) All the above (c) International Monetary Fund

89. Which one of the following is not (d) World Bank.

(b) It reduces the possibility of social (a) India (b) American

90. Under–distributions of power sharing, (a) 2000 (b) 2003

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