MBA - Semester II - MCQ - All Subjects-1 PDF

Subject Code: 17MBA2C9
Jamal Mohamed College (Autonomous)

Tiruchirappalli.
Objective Type Questions

Department of Management Studies
Semester – II – PG
OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT
UNIT I
1. ................ is the management of all activities directly related to the production of goods and
services
a) Production management b) Finance control
c) Employee development d)all of these
2. Which of the following statement is not true in the case of goods?

a)Tangibility. b) Can be stored c) Physical shape d)Intangibility.
3. Which of the following is not an objective of operations management?

a)Customer satisfaction b)Profitability c)Timeliness d)Employee punishment
4. ...............is measure of the quantity of output per unit of input.

a)Productivity b)Marketability c)Sociability d)None of these
5. Operations management is applicable

a)Mostly to the service sector b)Mostly to the manufacturing sector
c) to manufacturing and service sectors d)To services exclusively
6. _______subsystem that includes all functions required to design, produce, distribute, and
service a manufactured product.
a. Production b. operation c. service d. Manufacturing
7.What are the two basic types of production systems?

a. Automated and manual b. Intermittent and non-intermittent process
c. Normal and continuous processed. d. Continuous process and batch
8.What type of process would a paper mill be most likely to use?

a. Continuous flow b. Project c. Job shop d. Flow shop
9.Moving from the aggregate plan to a master production schedule requires

a. rough cut capacity planning b. sub-optimization
c. disaggregation d. strategy formulation
10. The 'indirect' objectives of operations management are different from the 'direct' objectives
for which of the following reasons?
a. Indirect objectives concern the longer term issues of the organisation, such as long-term
survival, market growth and return on investment.
b. Indirect objectives concern satisfying the operations functions and th customers within the
organisation, such as marketing and new product/service development.
c. Indirect objectives are concerned with the social, environmental, ethical, informational and
technological issues that concern the organisation.
d. Indirect objectives concern making sure that the operations function works well with all the
other parts of the organisation.
11. Which of the following is NOT true of the changing business environment in which
operations management work?
a.Demand for better quality b.More frequent product introduction
c. Less ethical sensitivity d.More legal regulation
12. The variation in product or service design to suit the specific needs of individual customers
or customer groups is referred to as:
a. Operationalization b.Customization c.Modularity d.Product flexibility
13. What name is given to an approach to formulating operations strategy, most often used in
manufacturing operations?
a.Taguchi Methodology b.Deming Methodology
c.Juran Methodology d.Hill Methodology
14. Technology that assists in the management of process, rather than adds directly to the
creation of products or services, is called:
a.Indirect process technology b.Supporting process technology
c.Functional process technology d.Directive process technology
15. What are the major direct responsibilities of operations management?

a. Planning its resources, controlling its activities and monitoring its output of products and
services.
b. Understanding the operation's strategic objectives, developing an operations strategy,
designing products, services and processes, planning and controlling the operation, and
improving the performance of the operation.
c. Managing the interfaces with the marketing function and the product/service development
function.
d. Understanding the competitive role of operations, determining operations strategic
objectives, setting its overall strategy, and improving its operations performance.
16. Which one is not generally considered to be an advantage of using models for decision
making?
A) Providing a systematic approach to problem solving.
B) Emphasizing quantitative information.
C) Providing an exact representation of reality.
D) Enabling managers to answer "what if" questions
17. An appropriate strategy to maximize efficiency of promotions is:

a) Efficient replacement.
b) Efficient store assortments..
c) Revision of organization processes supported by information systems.
d) Integrate this activity into all supply chain planning.
18. Labor intensive refers to a process or industry that requires a large amount of _________
a) Labour b) Asset c) capital d) investment
19. ________costs most often relate to the equipment necessary to meet production needs
a) Fixed b) Capital c) Labour d) distribution
20. ______ is a result of arranging inputs, their conversion process and output based on some
logic and functions.
a. production system b. operation system c. batch system d. output system
UNIT II
21. The following is the preliminary stage of Production planning

(A) Capacity planning (B) Material requirements planning
(C) Scheduling (D) Product development and design
22. The following is the source(s) for developing new or improved product
(A) Research and Development department of the enterprise
(B) Consumer suggestions and Complaints
(C) Other competitive products in the market
(D) All of the above
23-Product cost can be reduced by considering the following aspect(s) at the design stage
(A) Minimum number of operations
(B) Unnecessary tight tolerance should not be provided
(C) Design should consist of standard parts
24-The ultimate objective of the product is

(A) To provide a new look (B) Utilizing existing manpower
(C) To monopolize the market (D) All of the above
25. Design capacity is:

(A) The capacity management wishes they had
(B) The capacity an engineering firm has for designing new products
(C The capacity the business was designed to be able to produce over a long period of time
(D) The increase in capacity for a business expansion
26 Decisions include facility planning, location and layout.

(A) Operating (B) Technology
(C) Capacity (D) Quality
27. The following is the source(s) for developing new or improved product
(A) Research and Development department of the enterprise
(B) Consumer suggestions and Complaints
(C) Other competitive products in the market
28. Based on their field of application, manufactured goods can be classified as

(A) Primary, Secondary and Tertiary (B) Consumer, Capital and Defense
(C) Essential, Market and Standard (D) Primary, Luxury and Consumer
29. When referring to capacity, the main issue is typically whether:
(A) The business has the skills to do the job
(B) The business can produce the desired amount in the time available
(C )The business can meet unexpected demand
(D) The business can minimize inventory while meeting demand
30. Design capacity is:

(A) The capacity management wishes they had
(B)The capacity an engineering firm has for designing new products
(C)The capacity the business was designed to be able to produce over a long period of time
(D)The increase in capacity for a business expansion
31. The output of a constrained system is determined by:

(A) The interactions of nonconstraints
(B) The capacity an engineering firm has for designing new products
(C ) The production rate of the constraint
(D) The difference between demand and the nonconstrained workcenters
32. Yield management can be best described as:

A. A way to manage manufacturing yields
B. A way to minimize defects in services
C. A way to maximize revenues in capital intensive services
D. A way to increase the output of a constraint
33. When demand is above design capacity for an extended period of time:
A. Cost per unit eventually returns to normal.
B. Cost per unit is actually reduced.
C. Capacity may also be short during the recovery period that follows.
D. It can be expected to respond immediately as soon as demand drops.
34. The profit of an enterprise can be increased by

i) Reducing total costs of production ii) Increasing sales value
iii) Increasing capital cost iv) Increasing manpower
Which of the above are true?
(A)Only i (B) i & ii (C) i, ii & iii (D) All of the above
35. Which of the following industries should be located near the vicinity of raw materials?
(A) Cycles (B) Televisions (C) Sewing machines (D) Steel mills
36. For which of the following industry humid climate is helpful

(A) Cotton (B) Steel (C) Light Bulb (D) Automobile
37. For good natural ventilation, the ____ type of building preferred
(A) Flat roof (B) Saw tooth (C) Highbay (D) Monitor
38. Buildings for foundries and steel mills are often of the
(A) Flat roof (B) Saw tooth (C) Highbay (D) Bow string
39. Which of the following is not true for Multi-storey building?

(A) High heating and ventilation cost (B) Small ground runs for drainage
(C) Adopted for manufacture of light goods (D) Less roof repairs
40. Discovers the destination for the product or service that is produced.
(A) Financing (B) Marketing (C) Analyzing (D) Scheduling
UNIT III
41. Which of the following industries should be located near the vicinity of raw materials?
a) Cycles b) Televisions c) Sewing machines d) Steel mills
42. If all the processing equipment and machines are arranged according to the sequence of operations
of a product the layout is known as
a) Product layout b) Process layout
c) Fixed position layout d) Combination layout
43. For which of the following industry humid climate is helpful

a) Cotton b) Steel
c) Light Bulb d) Automobile
44. What is the main objective of plant layout

a) Minimum investment in equipment b) Utilizing existing space effectively
c) Minimum overall production time d) All of the above
45. The following type of layout is preferred to manufacture a standard product in large quantity
a) Product layout b) Process layout
46. In ship manufacturing, the type of layout preferred is

a) Product layout ` b) Process layout
47. A job shop is an example of a(n)

a) repetitive process b) continuous process
c) line process d) intermittent process
48. A ____ layout is an arrangement based on the sequence of operations that are performed during the
manufacturing of a good or the delivery of a service.
a) Group b) Process
c) Product d) Fixed position
49. Which of the following is true for process layouts?

a) Low –in process inventories b) Flexibility in equipment
c) Low variety of products d) High volume of output
50. What type of process would a paper mill be most likely to use?
a) Continuous flow b) Project c) Job shop d) Flow shop
51. A process layout would be most appropriate in which of the following cases
a) Constructing a Boeing 777 air craft b) A fast food restaurant
c) An automobile factory d) A garment factory
52. What type of layout is job shop

a) Product layout ` b) Process layout
53. Maintenance consist of the following action(s)
a) Replace of component b) Repair of component
c) Service of component d) All of the above
54. The following is not a classification of maintenance

a) Corrective maintenance b) Timely maintenance
c) Scheduled maintenance d) Preventive maintenance
55. The following is (are) scheduled maintenance

a) Overhauling of machine b) Cleaning of tank
c) Whitewashing of building d) All of the above
56. Which type of maintenance is done before failure?

a) Fixed time b) Preventive
c) Emergency d) none of these
57. with the increase in preventive maintenance cost, breakdown maintenance cost
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Remain same d) Any of the above
58. Total productive maintenance aims at

a) Less idle time b) Increase in productivity
c) Zero down time d) None of the above
59. Total Productive maintenance (TPM) approach has the potential of providing almost a
seamless integration between
a) Production and Quality b) Quality and Maintenance
c) Production and Maintenance d) All of the above
60. Which activity in operations management, ensures product quality

a) Forecasting b) Quality management
c) Facility management d) Scheduling
UNIT IV
61. In production management MRP stands for:
a) Management Reaction Planning b) Manufacturing Resource Planning
c) Materials Requirements Planning d) Master Resources Production
62. This is a finite capacity plan because it operates within certain constraints.
a) Resource requirements plans (RRPs) b) Capacity requirements plans (CRPs)
c) Rough-cut capacity plans (RCCPs) d) Materials Requirements Planning
63. What does ERP stand for?

a) Enterprise resource planning b) Expanse resource project
c) Expanse research project d) Enterprise research planning
64. Which of the following has the least integration of information systems?
a) Manufacturing resource planning b) Web-integrated enterprise resource planning
c) Materials requirements planning d) Enterprise resource planning
65. Which of the following is an output of materials requirements planning?

a) Work orders b) Bills of materials
c) Master production schedule d) All of the above
66. The list of quantities of components, ingredients, and materials required to produce a product is the
a) Purchase order. b) Master schedule c) Engineering change notice d) Bill-of-materials.
67. The difference between a gross material requirements plan (gross MRP) and a net material
requirements plan (net MRP) is
a) The gross MRP doesn't take taxes into account, whereas the net MRP includes the tax
considerations.
b) The net MRP includes consideration of the inventory on hand, whereas the gross MRP does not.
c) The gross MRP includes consideration of the inventory on hand, whereas the net MRP does not.
d) The gross MRP may not be computerized, but the net MRP must be computerized
68. Breaking up the order and running part of it ahead of schedule is known as
a) Overlapping. b) Operations Splitting c) Lot Splitting d) Pegging
69. A report that shows the resource requirements in a work center for all currently assigned work as
well as all planned and expected orders is a
a) MRP II Report b) Load Report c) Back Flush Report d) Closed-Loop Report
70. Which of these pieces of information is NOT contained in a bill of material?

a) Quantities of Components b) Physical Dimensions
c) Raw Materials to be Used d) Lead Times
71.The process mapping is a ______ diagram.
a) Data flow b) Work flow c) Circular d) Audit
72. Control chart is a

a) Process monitoring tool b) Process control tool
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
73. The objective of ISO-9000 family of Quality management is
a) Customer satisfaction b) Employee satisfaction
c) Skill enhancement d) Environmental issues
74.Total Quality Management (TQM) focuses on

a) Employee b) Customer c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
75. Which of the following is responsible for quality objective?

a) Top level management b) Middle level management
c) Frontline management d) All of the above
76. What is ISO?
a) Indian organization for standard b) Internal organization for standard
c) International organization for standard d) None of the above
77. EMS stands for

a) Environmental management system b) Employees management system
c) Engineering management system d) Equipment management system
78. ISO emphasis on

a) Prevention b) Inspection c) Rejection d) All of the above
79. The system is designed to react and adapt to changes within the production process is
a) Material Management system b) Flexible Manufacturing system
c) Product manufacturing system d) Quality manufacturing system
80. ----------- is a participatory management technique that enlists the help of employees in solving
problems related to their own jobs
a) Quality Circle b) Leadership c) Employee union d) Executive committee
UNIT V
81. _______________ Management is a department in an organization responsible for
purchasing activities
a) Purchasing b) Organising c) Operational d) Production
82. ______________ is the first phase of Material Management

a) Operational b) Organising c) Production d) Purchasing
83. ______________ is the objectives of Purchasing Management
a)To Pay reasonably low price with high quality
b)To keep inventory as low
c)To locate new material
d) All the Above
84. ___________ is the function of buying goods and services from external sources to an
organization
a) Operational b) Purchasing c) Production d) Organising
85._____________ Management refers to the process of ordering, storing and using an inventory
a) Operational b) Stores c) Production d) Inventory
86. ____________ Management ensuring that all activities in store- keeping are carried out
economically
a)Stores b) Operational c) Inventory d) Production
87. ____________ control is used to maintain the stock at a desired level

a) Stores b) Inventory c) Operational d) Production
88._______________ is the benefits of Inventory control

a) Improves the liquidity position of the firm
b) It protects the firm against material delay time
c) It ensures smooth production
d) All the Above
89. ______________ is the cost of holding goods in stock

a) Inventory b) Fixed c) Variable d) Semi- Variable
90. Cost of procurement and inbound logistics costs form a part of ___________
a) Fixed b) Ordering c) Holding d) Variable
91. ____________ cost is often described as a percentage of the inventory value.

a) Fixed b) Ordering c) Carrying d) Store
92. EOQ stands for ______________

a) Economic Order Quality b) Economically Order Quality
c) Efficient Order Quantity d) Economic Order Quantity
93. _____________ equation is used to determines the ideal order quantity of a company
a) ABC b) JIT c) VED d) EOQ
94. ______________ is an important tool to minimize the cost of inventory

a) EOQ b) ABC c) JIT d) VED
95. Setup cost is used in __________ equation

a) VED b) ABC c) EOQ d) JIT
96. ABC stands for _____________
a) Analysis Best Commodity b) Activity Based Costing
c) Activity Based Commodity d) Analysis Best Costing
97. ______________ is an important tool to minimize the cost of inventory

a) ABC b) JIT c) VED d) EOQ
98.VED stands for _____________

a) Vital, Essential, Desirable b) Verbal, Essential, Desirable
c) Vital, Economical, Desirable d) Verbal, Economical, Depth
99.___________ inventory is a management system in which material is produced only as

demand requires.
a) VED b) ABC c) EOQ d) JIT
100. _______________ management includes planning and control of flow of material and the
associated flow of information.
a) Operation b) Production c) Inventory d) Material
ANSWER KEY
1. A. Production management
2. D. Intangibility
3. D. Employee punishment
4. A. Productivity
5. C. to manufacturing and service sectors
6. D. Manufacturing
7. B. Intermittent and non-intermittent process
8. A. Continuous flow
9. C. disaggregation
10. D. Indirect objectives concern making sure that the operations function works well with
all the other parts of the organisation
11. C. Less ethical sensitivity
12. B. Customization
13. D. Hill Methodology
14. A. Indirect process technology
15. B. Understanding the operation's strategic objectives, developing an operations strategy,
designing products, services and processes, planning and controlling the operation, and
improving the performance of the operation
16. C. Providing an exact representation of reality
17. D. Integrate this activity into all supply chain planning
18. A. Labour
19. B. Capital
20. A. production system
21. D. Product development and design
22. D. All of the above
24. C. To monopolize the market
25. C. The capacity the business was designed to be able to produce over a long period of
time
26. C. Capacity
28. B. Consumer, Capital and Defense
29. B. The business can produce the desired amount in the time available
30. C. The capacity the business was designed to be able to produce over a long period of
time
31. C. The production rate of the constraint
32. C. A way to maximize revenues in capital intensive services
33. C. Capacity may also be short during the recovery period that follows
34. B. Increasing sales value
35. D. Steel mills
36. A. Cotton
37. D. Monitor
38. C. Highbay
39. A. High heating and ventilation cost
40. B. Marketing
41. D. Steel mills

42. A. Product layout
43. A. Cotton
45. A. Product layout
46. C. Fixed position layout
47. D. intermittent process
48. C. Product
49. B. Flexibility in equipment
50. A. Continuous flow
51. D. A garment factory
52. B. Process layout
54. B. Timely maintenance
56. B. Preventive
57. B. Decreases
58. C. Zero down time
59. B. Quality and Maintenance
60. B. Quality management
61. C. Materials Requirements Planning

62. C. Rough-cut capacity plans (RCCPs)
63. A. Enterprise resource planning
64. C. Materials requirements planning
65. A. Work orders
66. D. Bill-of-materials
67. B. The net MRP includes consideration of the inventory on hand, whereas the gross MRP
does not
68. C. Lot Splitting
69. C. Back Flush Report
70. D. Lead Times
71. B. Work flow
72. C. Both (a) and (b)
73. A. Customer satisfaction
74. C. Both (a) and (b)
75. A. Top level management
76. C. International organization for standard
77. A. Environmental management system
78. A. Prevention
79. B. Flexible Manufacturing system
80. A. Quality Circle
81. A. Purchasing
82. D. Purchasing
83. D. All the Above
84. B. Purchasing
85. D. Inventory
86. A. Stores
87. B. Inventory
89. A. Inventory
90. B. Ordering
91. C. Carrying
92. D. Economic Order Quantity
93. D. EOQ
94. B. ABC
95. C. EOQ
96. B. Activity Based Costing
97. D. EOQ
98. A. Vital, Essential, Desirable
99. D. JIT
100. D. Material
Tiruchirappalli.

FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
UNIT - I
1. The only feasible purpose of financial management is

a) Wealth Maximization b) Sales Maximization
c) Profit Maximization d) Assets maximization
2. Finance Function comprises

a) Safe custody of funds only b) Expenditure of funds only
c) Procurement of finance only d) Procurement & effective use of funds
3. The objective of wealth maximization takes into account

a) Amount of returns expected b) Timing of anticipated returns
c) Risk associated with uncertainty of returns d) All of the above
4. The appropriate objective of an enterprise is:

a) maximization of sales b) maximization of owner’s wealth
c) maximization of profit d) maximization of owners capital
5. "Shareholder wealth" in a firm is represented by:

a) The number of people employed in the firm.
b) The book value of the firm's assets less the book value of its liabilities.
c) The amount of salary paid to its employees.
d) The market price per share of the firm's common stock.
6. The long-run objective of financial management is to:

a) Maximize earnings per share. b) Maximize the value of the firm's common stock.
c) Maximize return on investment. d) Maximize market share.
7. Which of the following is NOT one of the three main types of decision facing the financing
manager in a company?
a) Dividend decision b) Investment decision
c) Economic decision d) Financing decision
8. Financial management process deals with

a) Investments b) Financing decisions
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
9. The financial management is responsible for the
a) Controlling of the Organization b) Organizing trading programs
c) Recording the transaction d) Finance function of the firm
10. In his traditional role the finance manager is responsible for ___________.
a) proper utilisation of funds b) arrangement of financial resources
c) acquiring capital assets of the organization d)Efficient management of capital
11. Generally, a corporation is owned by its;

a) Managers b) board of directors
c) shareholders d) all of these options
12. Investment is the _______________.

a) net additions made to the nation’s capital stocks
b) person’s commitment to buy a flat or house
c) employment of funds on assets to earn returns
d) employment of funds on goods and services that are used in production process
13. A firm’s investment decision is also called as the:

a) Financing decision b) capital budgeting decision
c) liquidity decision d) dividend decision
14. The financial goal of a corporate is to:

a)Maximize sales b) maximize profits
c)maximize market value of the firm d) maximize managers benefits.
15. A firm’s liquidity decision is also called as the:

a) Financing decision b) capital budgeting decision
c) working capital decision d) dividend decision
16. Financial management is mainly concerned with

a) Efficient management of business b) arrangement of funds required for business
c) Obtaining required funds and effectively utilizing d) disbursement of funds
17. The decision function of financial management can be broken down into the decisions.
a) Financing and Investment b) Investment, Financing, and Asset Management
c) Financing and Dividend d) Capital Budgeting and Cash Management
18. Financial decisions involves

a) Investment, sales and dividend decisions b)finance, investment and dividend decisions
c) Finance, investment and cash decisions d) finance, sales and profit decisions
19. Interest rate which is not reinvested but is earned is classified as

a) invested interest b) simple interest
c) earned interest d) unstated interest
20. Value which converts series of equal payments in to value received at end time of investment is
classified as
a) present value of annuity b) future value of annuity
c) decreased value of annuity d) increased value of annuity
UNIT II
21. Under traditional approach Cost of Equity is…
a. More than cost of debt
b. Equal to overall cost
c. Less than cost of debt
d. Less than overall cost
22.Which of the following is a formula of working capital

a.Current asset – Long term liability
b.Fixed asset – Current asset
c.Share capital + Fixed asset
d.Current asset – Current liabilities
23. Which of the following is not an current asset

a. Income received in advance
b. Prepaid expenses
c. Accounts receivables
d. Short term advances
24.Which of the following is not an current liability

a. Bills payable
b. Creditors
c. Outstanding interest
d. Prepaid expenses
25.A single, overall cost of capital is often used to evaluate projects because:
a. It avoids the problem of computing the required rate of return for each investment
proposal.
b. It is the only way to measure a firm’s required return.
c. It acknowledges that most new investment projects have about the same degree of risk.
d. It acknowledges that most new investment projects offer about the same expected return.
26. The weighted average cost of capital for a firm is the:

a. Discount rate which the firm should apply to all of the projects it undertakes
b. Rate of return a firm must earn on its existing assets to maintain the current value of its
stock.
c. Coupon rate the firm should expect to pay on its next bond issue.
d. Maximum rate which the firm should require on any projects it undertakes
27.A firm with high operating leverage has:

a. Low fixed costs in its production process
b. High variable costs in its production process
c. High fixed costs in its production process
d. High price per unit
28.The cost of equity capital is all of the following EXCEPT:
a. The minimum rate that a firm should earn on the equity-financed part of an
investment.
b. A return on the equity-financed portion of an investment that, at worst, leaves the market
price of the stock unchanged.
c. By far the most difficult component cost to estimate.
d. Generally lower than the before-tax cost of debt
29. In calculating the costs of the individual components of a firm's financing, the corporate tax
rate is important to
a. Common stock.
b. Debt.
c. Preferred stock.
d. None of the above.
30. A firm's leverage denotes its ------

a. Equity
b. Preference shares
c. Debt
d. Retained Earnings
31. In the context of operating leverage break-even analysis, if selling price per unit rises and all
other variables remain constant, the operating break-even point in units will:
a. Fall.
b. Rise.
c. Stay the same.
d. Still be indeterminate until interest and preferred dividends paid are known.
32 Retained earnings are

a) An indication of a company's liquidity.
b) The same as cash in the bank.
c) Not important when determining dividends.
d) The cumulative earnings of the company after dividends.
33. In weighted average cost of capital, a company can affect its capital cost through
a) policy of capital structure
b) policy of dividends
c) policy of investment
d) all of above
34. Method uses for an estimation of cost of equity is classified as

a) market cash flow
b) future cash flow method
c) discounted cash flow method
d) present cash flow method
35. The weighted average cost of capital for a firm is the:
a) Discount rate which the firm should apply to all of the projects it undertakes.
b) Rate of return a firm must earn on its existing assets to maintain the current value of its
stock.
c) Coupon rate the firm should expect to pay on its next bond issue.
d) Maximum rate which the firm should require on any projects it undertakes.
36. For which of the following costs is it generally necessary to apply a tax adjustment to a yield
measure?
a) Cost of debt.
b) Cost of preferred stock.
c) Cost of common equity.
d) Cost of retained earnings
37 .A firm's degree of operating leverage (DOL) depends primarily upon its

a) Sales variability.
b) Level of fixed operating costs.
c) Closeness to its operating break-even point.
d) Debt-to-equity ratio.
38. The further a firm operates above its operating break-even point, the closer its degree of
operating leverage (DOL) measure approaches
a) Minus One.
b) Zero.
c) One.
d) Infinity.
39. Higher operating leverage is related to the use of additional __________.

a) Fixed Costs
b) Variable Costs
c) Debt Financing
d) Common Equity Financing
40. Lower financial leverage is related to the use of additional __________.

a) fixed costs
b) variable costs
c) debt financing
d) common equity financing
UNIT III
41. Irrelevance and then relevance of capital structure to cost of capital theory proposed by..
a. Modigliani and Miller
b. Walter
c. Gordon
d. None of the above
42. Which of the following assumption made by MM in case of capital structure theory
a. No corporate tax
b. Perfect market condition
c. Investors act rationally
d. All of the above
43. Which of the following factor determine the capital structure --------
a. Size of the company
b. Nature of the business
c. Inflationary condition
d. All the above
44. The common stock of a company must provide a higher expected return than the debt of the
same company because
a. There is less demand for stock than for bonds.
b. There is greater demand for stock than for bonds.
c. There is more systematic risk involved for the common stock.
d. There is a market premium required for bonds.
45. A critical assumption of the net operating income (NOI) approach to valuation is:
a. That debt and equity levels remain unchanged.
b. That dividends increase at a constant rate.
c. That to remains constant regardless of changes in leverage.
d. That interest expense and taxes are included in the calculation.
46.. The traditional approach towards the valuation of a company assumes:

a. That the overall capitalization rate holds constant with changes in financial leverage.
b. That there is an optimum capital structure.
c. That total risk is not altered by changes in the capital structure.
d. That markets are perfect.
47.. An EBIT-EPS indifference analysis chart is used for

a. Evaluating the effects of business risk on EPS.
b. Examining EPS results for alternative financing plans at varying EBIT levels.
c. Determining the impact of a change in sales on EBIT.
d. Showing the changes in EPS quality over time
48. EBIT is usually the same thing as:
a. Funds provided by operations.
b. Earnings before taxes.
c. Net income.
d. Operating profit.
49. If a firm has a DOL of 5 at Q units, this tells us that:

a. If sales rise by 5%, EBIT will rise by 5%.
b. If sales rise by 1%, EBIT will rise by 1%.
c. If sales rise by 5%, EBIT will fall by 25%.
d. If sales rise by 1%, EBIT will rise by 5%
50. A firm's degree of total leverage (DTL) is equal to its degree of operating leverage its degree
of financial leverage (DFL).
a. Plus
b. Minus
c. Divided by
d. Multiplied by
51. A risk associated with project and way considered by well diversified stockholder is
classified as
a) expected risk
b) beta risk
c) industry risk
d) returning risk
52.A critical assumption of the net operating income (NI) approach to valuation is:
a) That debt and equity levels remain unchanged.
b) There is no Corporate Tax.
c) That ko remains constant regardless of changes in leverage.
d) None of these.
53.This type of risk is avoidable through proper diversification:

a) Portfolio risk
b) Systematic risk
c) Unsystematic risk
d) Total risk
54. Which of the following factors is likely to encourage a corporation to increase the
proportion of debt in its capital structure?
a. An increase in the corporate tax rate.
b. An increase in the personal tax rate.
c. An increase in the company's degree of operating leverage.
d. The company's assets become less liquid
55. Total risk equals
a) Unique plus diversifiable risk.
b) Market plus non-diversifiable risk.
c) Systematic plus unsystematic risk.
d) Systematic plus non-diversifiable risk.
56. The discount rate used to determine the present value of a stream of expected future cash
flows is referred to as the __________.
a) Net Operating Income
b) Capitalization Rate
c) Capital Structure
d) Yield on the Company's Market Value of Common Equity
57.The traditional approach towards the valuation of a company assumes that __________.
a) The cost of capital is independent of the capital structure of the firm
b) The firm maintains constant risk regardless of the type of financing employed
c) There exists no optimal capital structure
d) That management can increase the total value of the firm through the judicious use of
financial leverage
58. Which of the following statements regarding the net operating income approach is incorrect?
a) The overall capitalization rate, kO, is constant.
b) The cost of debt funds, ki, is constant.
c) The required return on equity, ke, is constant.
d) The total value of the firm is unaffected by changes in financial leverage
59. Which of the following is not something that you would consider when evaluating the
optimal capital structure?
a) Agency Costs.
b) EBIT-EPS Analysis.
c) Taxes.
d) All of the above are considered when determining the optimal capital structure.
60.The overall (weighted average) cost of capital is composed of a weighted average of

__________.
a) The cost of common equity and the cost of debt
b) The cost of common equity and the cost of preferred stock
c) The cost of preferred stock and the cost of debt
d) The cost of common equity, the cost of preferred stock, and the cost of debt
UNIT IV
61. ______________ budgeting decisions about the long – term investment of a company’s
capital into operation
a) Production b) Operational c) Capital d) Master
62. ______________ Factors influence the capital expenditure decisions
a) Availability of Funds b) Minimum Rate of Return on Investment
c) Future Earnings d) All the Above
63 . _________ is the importance of Capital Budgeting Decisions
a) Long-term Implications b) Involvement of large amount of funds
c) Irreversible decisions d) All the Above
64. ________________ techniques which simply measure the time needed for the investment to
return its value.
a)Time Value of Money b) Pay Back Period

c) Net Present Value d) Accounting Rate of Return
65. The ________ expenditure decision is the process of making decisions regarding investments
in fixed assets
a) Capital b) Inflow c) Outflow d) Cash
66. Capital budgeting consists of _____________ techniques
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
67.______________ measures the time in which the initial cash flow is returned by the project.
a)Pay Back Period b) Net Present Value

c) Accounting Rate of Return d) Internal Rate of Return
68. ARR stands for ___________
a)Average Rate of Return b) Annual Rate of Return
c) Average Rate of Risk d) Accounting Rate of Return
69. _____________ is a core component of corporate budgeting.
a) ARR b) NPV c) AIRR d) IRR
70. IRR stands for ___________

a)Internal Rate of Return b) Interest Rate of Return
c)Internal Rate of Risk d) Investment Rate of Return
71.__________ is the discount rate at which net present value of the project become zero
a) ARR b) NPV c) AIRR d) IRR
72.NPV stands for ____________
a)National Par Value b) Net Present Value
c)National Present Value d) Net Par Value
73.__________ techniques is calculated by dividing the present value of future cash flows of a
project by the initial investment
a) ARR b) NPV c) Profitability Index d) IRR
74. Present Value of Net Future cash flows – Initial Investment required is the formula for
____________ techniques
a) NPV b) ARR c) IRR d) Profitability Index
75.NPV= Rx 1- (1+i)-n/i - Initial Investment is the formula when cash is ____________
a) Inflow b) Outflow c) Fund Flow d) Cash Flow
76.__________ is an investment measure that tells an investor whether the investment is

achieving a target yield at a given initial investment.
77. __________ is the amount of profit, or return, an individual can expect based on an
investment
78. ∑ {After-Tax Cash Flow / (1+r)^t} – Initial Investment is the formula for ____________
79. Average Accounting Profit is the formula for ____________

Average Investment
80. An annual operating expenses by $60,000. The new machine would cost $360,000. The old
machine can be sold to a small factory for $10,000.__________ is the accounting rate of return
a) 15.14% b) 16.14% c) 17.14% d) 18.14%

UNIT V
81. ________________ account refers to company’s managerial accounting strategy.

a) Management b) Financial c) Cost d) Working Capital
82. ________________ involves the relationship between a firm’s short-term assets and
liabilities.
a) Cost b) Production c) Working Capital d) Capital
b)
83. ________________ Management involves managing inventories, account receivable,
account payable and cash.
a) Cost b) Working Capital c) Production d) Capital
84. ________________ are the two concepts of Working Capital

a)Gross Working Capital, Net Working Capital
b) Net Working Capital, Profit Working Capital
c) Profit Working Capital, Loss Working Capital
d) Loss Working Capital, Gross Working Capital
85. ________________ is the main advantage of Working Capital

a)Goodwill b) Easy Loan
c) Cash Discount d) Regular supply of Raw Material
86. ________________ is the factors determining the Working Capital

a)Size of business, Production Policy
b) Character of business
c) Credit Policy
d) Size and Character of business, Production and Credit Policy
87. ________________ dimension is concerned with formulation of policies in Working Capital

a) I b) II c) III d) IV
88. ________________ is the time duration involved in the acquisition of resources and
collection of sales.
a) Working Capital b) Operating Cycle c) Cost d) Production
89. Estimated production x Selling Price X Collection Period / 365 days is the formula for
_____________
a) Working Capital b) Operating Cycle
c) Accounts Receivable d) Accounts Payable
90.Operating Cycle = Raw Material Holding Period + Work In Progress Period + Finished
Goods Holding Period + _____________
a) Working Capital b) Payable Collection Period
c) Receivable Collection Period d) Collection Period
91. _____________ is the assumption of MM approach
a) Taxes do not exist b) Investors behave rationally
c) Risk and Uncertainty d) All the Above
92. _____________ approach is the dividend policy method which says the relationship between
firm’s internal return of return and cost of capital.
a) Modigliani & Miller b) Walter c) Gordon d) All the Above
93.D1/ke-g is the formula for _____________ dividend policy

94. If r=0.15 ; ke = 0.10 E= 10, Retention = 60 % and Payout = 40 %. _____________ will be the
market price as per Gordon Model.
a) 300 b) 400 c) 500 d) 600
95. Investors do not pay any importance to the dividend history of a company is under
_____________ theory.
96. If Po= 150 ; k = 10% ; D = 10 _____________ is the market price under MM model
a) 150 b) 155 c) 160 d) 165
97. Myron Gordon developed _____________ model in dividend policy

a) Modigliani & Miller b) Walter c) Gordon d) Capital
98. If D = 5; E = 15; k = 12.5% ; r= 10% _____________ is the market price under Walter model
a) 103 b) 104 c) 105 d) 106
99. According to Walter model, if internal rate of return > cost of capital is the characters of
_____________ firm.
a) Growth b) Normal c) Decline d) No Change
100. _____________ ratio is known as the ratio of total amount of dividends paid out to
shareholders relative to the net income of the company.
a) Profit b) Cash c) Dividend d) Debtors
ANSWER KEY
1. A. Wealth Maximization
2. D. Procurement & effective use of funds
4. B. maximization of owner’s wealth
5. D. The market price per share of the firm's common
stock
6. B. Maximize the value of the firm's common stock
7. C. Economic decision
8. B. Financing decisions
9. D. Finance function of the firm
10. D. Efficient management of capital
11. C. shareholders
12. C. employment of funds on assets to earn returns
13. B. capital budgeting decision
14. C. maximize market value of the firm
15. C. working capital decision
16. C. Obtaining required funds and effectively utilizing
17. B. Investment, Financing, and Asset Management
18. B. finance, investment and dividend decisions
19. B. simple interest
20. B. future value of annuity
21. A. More than cost of debt

22. D. Current asset – Current liabilities
23. A. Income received in advance
24. D. Prepaid expenses
25. A. It avoids the problem of computing the
required rate of return for each investment
proposal
26. B. Rate of return a firm must earn on its existing
assets to maintain the current value of its stock.
27. C. High fixed costs in its production process
28. D. Generally lower than the before-tax cost of debt
29. B. Debt
30. C. Debt
31. A. Fall
32. D. The cumulative earnings of the company after
dividends
33. D. all of above
34. C. discounted cash flow method
35. B. Rate of return a firm must earn on its existing
assets to maintain the current value of its stock
36. A. Cost of debt
37. C. Closeness to its operating break-even point
38. C. One
39. A. Fixed Costs
40. D. common equity financing
41. A. Modigliani and Miller

43. D. All the above
44. C. There is more systematic risk involved for the
common stock
45. C. That to remains constant regardless of changes in
leverage
46. B. That there is an optimum capital structure
47. B. Examining EPS results for alternative financing
plans at varying EBIT levels
48. D. Operating profit
49. D. If sales rise by 1%, EBIT will rise by 5%
50. D. Multiplied by
51. B. beta risk
52. B. There is no Corporate Tax
53. A. Portfolio risk
54. A. An increase in the corporate tax rate
55. C. Systematic plus unsystematic risk
56. B. Capitalization Rate
57. D. That management can increase the total value of
the firm through the judicious use of financial
leverage
58. C. The required return on equity, ke, is constant
59. D. All of the above are considered when determining
the optimal capital structure
60. D. The cost of common equity, the cost of preferred
stock, and the cost of debt
61. C. Capital
64. B. Pay Back Period
65. A. Capital
66. D. 6
67. A. Pay Back Period
68. D. Accounting Rate of Return
69. B. NPV
70. A. Internal Rate of Return
71. D. IRR
72. B. Net Present Value
73. C. Profitability Index
74. A. NPV
75. A. Inflow
76. A. NPV
77. B. ARR
78. D. IRR
79. A. ARR
80. C. 17.14%
81. D. Working Capital

82. C. Working Capital
83. B. Working Capital
84. A. Gross Working Capital, Net Working Capital
85. A. Goodwill
86. D. Size and Character of business, Production and
Credit Policy
87. A. I
88. B. Operating Cycle
89. C. Accounts Receivable
90. C. Receivable Collection Period
92. B. Walter
93. C. Gordon
94. B. 400
95. A. Modigliani & Miller
96. B. 155
97. C. Gordon
98. B. 104
99. A. Growth
100. C. Debtors
Tiruchirappalli.

MARKETING MANAGEMENT
UNIT – I
1. “The concept of marketing mix was developed by ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.

a. N. H. Borden b. Stanton
c. Philip Katter d. W. Anderson
2. “Many people want BMW, only few are able to buy” this is an example of …
a. Need b. Demand
c. Want d. Status
3. …………. is the act of obtaining a desired object from someone by offering something in
return.
a. Marketing Myopia b. Exchange
c. Selling d. Delivery
4. It’s combination of quality, service & price

a. Marketing Triad b. Customer Satisfaction Triad
c. Customer Value Triad d. Service Quality Triad
5. ………… model is highly firm centric, where the firm believes that the competitive edge
lies in its ability to innovate.
a. Conventional b. Competitive
c. Contemporary d. None of the above
6. “Marketing is the activity, set of ……………… & processes for creating, communicating,
delivering & …………… offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners &
society.”
a. Institutions, satisfying b. Institutions, exchanging
c. Organizations, exchanging d. Organizations, understanding
7. …………. Involves purchase from various sources & assembled at one place – involves
creation & maintenance of the stock of goods purchased & …………..Involves transfer of
ownership of the goods
a. Selling & Buying b. Buying & Assembling
c. Assembling & Selling d. Assembling & Buying
8. ………..are the form of human needs take as shaped by culture & individual personality.
a. Wants b. Needs
c. Demands d. Social Needs
9. ………….. is want for specific product backed by on ability to pay
a. Demand b. Want
c. Need d. Customer
10. This of the following is not a type of Marketing Concept:

a. The production concept b. The societal marketing concept
c. The selling concept d. The Supplier Concept
11. Marketing must develop strategies for a range of services and products ________ the
organization.
a. Within b. Both a & b
c. Outside d. None of the above
12. As per the Value Delivery Process

a. Marketing comes after planning b. There is no need for marketing
c. Marketing comes at the beginning of planning d. None of the above.
13. The value creation and delivery sequence process place emphasis on:
a. Choosing the value b. Providing the value
c. Communicating the value d. All of the above
14. The formula_______ is the essence of strategic marketing.

a. STP- Segmentation, Targeting, Positioning
b. CRM- Customer Relationship Management
c. TPD- Targeting, Positioning, Distribution
15. Market Research and company self analysis is a part of
a. Value-developing process b. Value-defining process

c. Value-delivering process d. None of the above
16. Mohan Sawhney has proposed the concept of ________ to describe a cluster of
complementary products and services that are closely related in the minds of consumers
but are spread across a diverse set of industries.
a. metamarket b. horizontal integration
c. vertical integration d. betamarket
17. The internet offers marketers a fast, versatile and inexpensive

a. Communication medium c. Cost of construction
b. Cost of production d. All of the above
18. Which is the task of salesman?

a. Develop product and market knowledge c. Prospect for potential clients
b. Sales Pitch d.
19. Out Of 4ps in marketing mix three are product, promotion, and price, which is the 4th P.
a. Purpose b. Promotion
c. Place d. Plan
20. Who suggested product, pricing, place, promotion all these in a company represents
“Market Mix”?
a. Philip Kotler b. Neilsen
c. Stephen Morse d. Neil Borden
UNIT II
21. 'buyer's black box' consists of

A. characteristics of buyers
B. buyer's decision process
C. cultural environment
D. D. both a and b
22. 'buyer's black box' consists of

A. characteristics of buyers
B. technological factors
C. cultural environment
D. economic environment
23. Research on consumer buying behavior answers

A. what consumers buy
B. why consumers buy
C. where consumers buy
D. All of above
24. Highly involved consumer buying behavior and customers perceive fewer differences among
brands is called
A. complex buying behavior
B. variety seeking buying behavior
C. dissonance reducing buying behavior
D. habitual buying behavior
25. If product performance exceeds customer expectations, customer is

A. satisfied
B. dissatisfied
C. delighted
D. none of above
26. Less involved consumer buying behavior in which customers perceive few differences
between brands is called
A. complex buoying behavior
B. variety seeking buying behavior
C. dissonance reducing buying behavior
D. habitual buying behavior
27. Segmentation on basis of values and attitudes and behavioral patterns is an example of
A. geographic location
B. cultural factors
C. economic factors
D. political and legal factors
28. Targeting affluent customers with luxurious goods is an example of

A. geographic segmentation
B. income segmentation
C. psychographic segmentation
D. behavioral segmentation
29. Segmentation of international markets on basis of monetary regulations is an example of
B. cultural factors
C. economic factors
30. Segmentation of international markets on basis of common languages, religions and customs
is example of
B. cultural factors
C. economic factors
31. Customer market division done on basis of 'compulsive, ambitious and outgoing customers'
classified as
A. geographic segmentation
B. demographic segmentation
C. psychographic segmentation
D. behavioral segmentation
32. Variables such as market and product variability plays a role in designing of
A. positioning strategy
B. targeting strategy
C. differentiation
D. market segmentation
33. In positioning statement, first thing that must be stated is
A. target segment
B. market segmentation
C. differentiation
D. positioning
34. Company marketing mix that target market segments very broadly is called
A. mass marketing
B. segmented marketing
C. niche marketing
D. micromarketing
35. Situation in which company targets whole market with one similar offer is called as
A. mass marketing
B. segmented marketing
C. niche marketing
D. micromarketing
36. The first step in the market segmentation process is to

A. Segment the market
B. Define the market
C. Target the market
D. Position offer in the market
37. The Coca Cola Company markets a wide range of different beverage products including
soft drinks, bottled water, juices and sports drinks. Each product appeals to a different
segment. This is an example of which type of market offering?
A. Undifferentiated marketing B. Differentiated marketing

C. Targeted marketing D. None of the above
38. Which of the following 'market definitions' could be used by Mercedes Benz in describing its
market?
A. The motor car market

B. The luxury car market
C. The transportation market
D. All of the above
39. Which one of the following is not a geodemographic basis for market segmentation?
A. Personality
B. Marital status
C. Occupation
D. Postcode
40. Psychographic segmentation categorises markets according to

A. Preference to behave in certain ways
B. Characteristics of the organization
C. People's product usage patterns
D. None of the above
UNIT III
41. Products that are bought without detailed comparisons are best classified as
A. sought products B. unsought products
C. less convenient products D. convenient products
42. Product quality level is considered as part of

A. actual product B. augmented product
C. de-augmented product D. customer value
43. Products that customers buy after careful comparison on price and quality are called
A. specialty products B. less specialty products
C. shopping products D. unsought products
44. Luxury products such as Rolex watches are best classified as

A. unsought specialty products B. sought services
C. specialty products D. convenience products and services
45. Product or service that can satisfy a need or want is called

A. market offering B. marketing mix
C. market segmentation D. target market
46. Distribution of branded products through one or few outlets is called
A. unsought products B. industrial products
C. specialty products D. augmented products
47. Product packaging is said to be part of

A. actual product B. positioning strategy
C. competitive strategy D. value proposition
48. Product mix pricing technique through which companies develop product lines for
pricing instead of single products is classified as
A. by-product pricing B. optional-feature pricing
C. product line pricing D. Two-part pricing
49. In product hierarchy, product classes that help in satisfying core needs are considered as
A. product line B. product class C. need family D. product family
50. According to product hierarchy, group of products that perform similar functions
including recognized product class is classified as
A. product line B. product class C. need family D. product family
51. Major sources of ideas for product development comes from

A. internal sources B. external sources
C. product lines extension D. both a and b
52. In new product development process, after analysis of business next step to be taken is
A. test marketing B. One channel marketing
C. penetration marketing D. individual marketing
53. Way consumers feel or perceive towards an actual product or potential market offering is
called
A. sales concept B. product idea
C. product image D. customer management
54. Stage of product life cycle in which product has achieved acceptance from its potential
buyers is called
A. maturity stage B. productive stage
C. improved market stage D. profit achieved stage
55. Basic competitive strategies includes

A. cost leadership B. focusing strategy
C. differentiation D. all of above
56. Company who follows balanced approach to both competitors and customers while
designing its strategies is classified as
A. market centered company B. competitor centered company
C. customer centered company D. profit centered company
57. Process of assessing objectives, strengths, weaknesses, strategies and reaction patterns of
competitors is classified as
A. branding analysis B. premium analysis
C. competitor analysis D. corporate analysis
58. Pricing strategy used to set prices of products that are must be used with main product is
called
A. optional product pricing B. product line pricing
C. competitive pricing D. captive product pricing
59. New product pricing strategy through which companies set lower prices to gain large
market share is classified as
A. optional product pricing B. skimming pricing
C. penetration pricing D. captive product pricing
60. Kind of reduction made to those buyers who buy large volumes of products is classified
as
A. cash discount B. seasonal discount
C. functional discount D. quantity discount
UNIT IV
61. Which tool of the promotional mix is defined as any paid form of non personal presentation
and promotion of ideas, goods, or services by an identified sponsor?
A. Advertising B. Public relations
C. Direct marketing D. Sales promotion
62.Promotion mix includes Sales Promotion, Personal Selling, Advertising and

A. Marketing B. Sales
C. Publicity D. None of these
63.Which tool of the promotional mix consists of short-term incentives to encourage the
purchase or sale of a product or service?
A. Advertising B. Public relations
C. Direct marketing D. Sales promotion
64. ___________________ is used heavily when introducing a new product category.

A. Persuasive advertising B. Inferential advertising
C. Reminder advertising D. Informative advertising
65. The first step in developing an advertising program should be to:

A. Set advertising objectives. B. Set the advertising budget.
C. Evaluate advertising campaigns. D. Develop advertising strategy.
66.The combination of media used for advertising in a target market is

A. Media Mix B. Market-Media Match
C. Media Advertising D. Media Option
67. The final stage in the personal sales process is the stage
A. Follow-up B. Assumptive close
C. Trial Close D. Presentation
68. AIDA stands for Awareness, ______, Desire and _____.

A. Interest; Action B. Idea; Approach
C. Intensity; Appeal D. Involvement; Appeal
69. A pull sales promotion strategy concentrates on the __________
A. Consumer B. middlemen
C. Producer D. Sales force
70. Publicity s simply defined as a _____________ advertisement

A. Free B. Paid
C. Local D. None of these
71. Marketing channel that involves no intermediaries to made their products available to final
buyers is classified as
A. direct channel B. indirect channel
C. flexible channel D. static channel
72. Process of managing upstream and downstream of final goods, flow of raw materials and
information about resellers and final consumers is classified as
A. marketing logistics network B. supply chain management
C. delivery network D. physical distribution network
73. In marketing channels, conflict occurs in marketing channels working at same level is
classified as
A. steep conflict B. slope conflict
C. vertical conflict D. horizontal conflict
74. Network of delivering products to customer which is composed of distributors, suppliers and
manufacturing company is classified as
A. supply chain management B. marketing channels
C. delivery channels D. value delivery network
75. In marketing intermediaries, way of distribution in which few dealers distribute company's
product in selective territories is classified as
A. selective distribution B. intensive distribution
C. inclusive distribution D. exclusive distribution
76. A providing preferred services by marketing channels to their customer in a collective way is
classified as
A. functional integration B. product integration
C. channel integration D. location integration
77. System in which company creates partnerships with different channels to deliver their market
offering is classified as
A. functional network B. predatory network
C. hybrid network D. value network
78. Strategy of marketing channel system in which company's sales force carry, promote and sell
products to end users is classified as
A. shallow strategy B. push strategy
C. pull strategy D. bundle strategy
79. Which type of marketing structure implies that divisions become primarily esponsible for the
development and implementation of the overall international strategy?
A. The functional structure B. The matrix structure
C. The geographical structure D. The international division structure
80. The simplest approach to global marketing organization is represented by:
A. the geographical structure B. the matrix structure
C. the functional structure D. the product structure
UNIT V
81. Sustainable marketing principle which states that company must considers society's long
term interest, consumer wants and company requirements is called
A. sense of broad marketing B. sense of mission marketing
C. sense of vision marketing D. societal marketing
82. Social marketing has gone through several changes including developing into CRM or ___.
A. Cause Related Marketing B. Cause Relationship Marketing
C. Customer Related Marketing D. Customer Relationship Marketing
83. One aim of societal marketing is to

A. Consider consumers needs and long-term welfare
B. Encourage satisfaction of short-term needs
C. Demand support from local communities
D. Form partnerships which benefit the selling organization
84. Way of personal communication between friends, family, neighbors and target buyers about
particular market offering is called
A. print and broadcast media B. Word-Of-Mouth Influence
C. buzz marketing D. display and online media
85. In a company who should own the social marketing plan?

A. Head of Marketing B. CFO
C. President D. Operational staff
86. What methods of social network marketing should a company always use?
A. Blogging only B. Twitter, Blogs, Facebook
C. YouTube D. Depends on the company, their product, their audience
87. Which social network is considered the most popular for business to business marketing?
A. Facebook B. Orkut C. Ryze D. LinkedIn
88. Social media marketing are organized primarily around __________.

A. brands B. people C. discussions D. interests
89. A social marketing consultant’s function of managing a social marketing program can
include
A. Plan marketing initiative B. Review relevant data about the problem or issue
C. Segment audiences D. All the above
90. Green marketing is a part of
A. Social marketing B. Service marketing
C. Relationship marketing D. Rural marketing
91.The objective of relationship marketing is

A. Customer satisfaction B. Customer dissatisfaction
C. Customer retention D. Customer delight
92. Targeting overseas markets through the online channel is an example of:
A. market development. B. diversification.
C. market penetration. D. product development.
93. Using a digital channel to offer new product variants or extended products is an example of:
A. diversification. B. product development.
C. market penetration. D. market development.
94. Rural marketing involve a number of strategies, which include:

A. Management of demand B. Developmental marketing
C. Unique selling proposition (USP) D. All of these
95. The consumer ………….and consumption patterns also differ across rural and urban areas, in
many products rural consumption now accounts for a large share then urban.
A. Consumer B. Retail C. Demand D. Reseller
96. International marketing strategy according to which company uses separate marketing mix
for each international target market is classified as
A. straight product marketing B. product adaptation marketing
C. standardized global marketing D. adapted global marketing
97. Way of entering foreign markets by setting up foreign manufacturing facilities is classified as
A. direct investment B. indirect investment
C. union ownership D. export union
98. With the globalization of markets, the tastes and preferences of consumers world-wide are:
A. so different that they can be ignored by international organizations.
B. being encouraged by multinational organizations to become increasingly similar.
C. converging upon a global norm.
D. becoming similar to the tastes and preferences of American consumers.
99. The goals of international marketing are to:

A. eliminate competition in international markets.
B. gain market share and increase profit.
C. expand business activities abroad.
D. create and retain customers in global markets.
100. A global market leader is an organization which:

A. is recognized as being ahead of the rest in terms of market share.
B. has more than 50% global market share.
C. has the monopoly over several foreign markets.
D. is ahead of the competition in terms of global innovation.
ANSWER KEY
1. A. N. H. Borden
2. B. Demand
3. B. Exchange
4. C. Customer Value Triad
5. A. Conventional
6. B. Institutions, exchanging
7. C. Assembling & Selling
8. D. Social Needs
9. A. Demand
10. D. The Supplier Concept
11. A. Within
12. C. Marketing comes at the beginning of planning
14. A. STP- Segmentation, Targeting, Positioning
15. B. Value-defining process
16. A. metamarket
17. A. Communication medium
19. C. Place
20. D. Neil Borden
21. D. both a and b
22. A. characteristics of buyers
23. D. All of above
24. C. dissonance reducing buying behavior
25. C. delighted
26. D. habitual buying behavior
27. B. cultural factors
28. B. income segmentation
29. D. political and legal factors
30. B. cultural factors
31. C. psychographic segmentation
32. B. targeting strategy
33. A. target segment
34. A. mass marketing
35. A. mass marketing
36. B. Define the market
37. B. Differentiated marketing
39. A. Personality
40. A. Preference to behave in certain ways
41. D. convenient products
42. A. actual product
43. C. shopping products
44. C. specialty products
45. A. market offering
46. C. specialty products
47. A. actual product
48. C. product line pricing
49. D. product family
50. A. product line
51. D. both a and
52. A. test marketing
53. C. product image
54. A. maturity stage
55. D. all of above
56. A. market centered company
57. C. competitor analysis
58. D. captive product pricing
59. C. penetration pricing
60. D. quantity discount
61. A. Advertising
62. C. Publicity
63. A. Advertising
64. D. Informative advertising
65. D. Develop advertising strategy
66. A. Media Mix
67. A. Follow-up
68. A. Interest; Action
69. A. Consumer
70. A. Free
71. A. direct channel
72. B. supply chain management
73. D. horizontal conflict
74. D. value delivery network
75. D. exclusive distribution
76. C. channel integration
77. D. value network
78. B. push strategy
79. D. The international division structure
80. C. the functional structure
81. D. societal marketing
82. A. Cause Related Marketing
83. A. Consider consumers needs and long-term welfare
84. B. Word-Of-Mouth Influence
85. A. Head of Marketing
86. D. Depends on the company, their product, their audience
87. D. LinkedIn
88. B. people
90. A. Social marketing
91. A. Customer satisfaction
92. A. market development
93. B. product development
94. A. Management of demand
95. B. Retail
96. D. adapted global marketing
97. A. direct investment
98. C. converging upon a global norm
99. D. create and retain customers in global markets
100.A. is recognized as being ahead of the rest in terms of market share
Tiruchirappalli.

HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
UNIT 1 – HRM – INTRODUCTION

1. Human resource management is:
(a) An entirely new approach to managing people
(b) Another name for personnel management
(c) The same as human capital management
(d) A perspective on personnel management
2. Scope of the HRM includes ______________?
a. Retirement and separation of employees b. HR training and development
c. Industrial relations d. All of the above
3. Human Resource Management (HRM) is_________?

a. a staff function b. a line function
c. a staff function, line function and accounting function d. all of the above
4. The matching model of HRM:

(a) Links HRM with personnel management
(b) Emphasizes that HRM systems should be integrated with organizational strategy
(c) Suggests that HR policies should be matched with the interests of both management
and employees
(d) Focuses on the need to gain the commitment of employees
5. The objectives of HRM are categorized as _____________?

A. Personal objectives B. Functional objectives
C. Organisational and social objectives D. All of the above
6. The purpose of HR policy is to:
(a) Provide guidelines on how things relating to people should be done
(b) Provide the basis for HR strategy
(c) Set out the procedures to be used in dealing with HR
(d) Keep people informed about what the organization is doing about HRM
7. The scope of HRM does not include ____________?

A. Retirement of employees B. Manpower planning
C. Training of employees D. Maintenance of accounts
8. The most important aim of integrated HRM is to:

(a) Seek both vertical and horizontal fit
(b) Bundle HR practices together
(c) Ensure that HR strategy is aligned to the business strategy
(d) Ensure that HR practices are mutually supporting
9. The process of developing the applicant’s pool for job openings in an organization is
Called ___________?
a. Hiring b. Recruitment c. Selection d. Retention
10. A formal approach to human resource planning does not take place in many
organizations because:
(a) It is not considered necessary (b) It is already being done informally
(c) It takes too much time and effort (d) It is difficult to forecast future demands for people
11. HRM is considered as____________?

a. a reactive function b. a proactive function
c. an auxiliary function d. an auxo-reactive function
12. Customary method used to handle activities of employees is called

A. Rules B. organizational path C. policies D. procedures
13. Which of the following helps the managers with the information required to make good
human resources decisions?
A. Selection B. industrial relations C. recruitment D. performance appraisal
14. The term procurement stands for

A. recruitment and selection B. Training and Development
C. Pay and Benefits D. Health and safety
15. The characteristics of human resources are ________ in nature

A. Homogeneous B. Heterogeneous C. Ductility D. None of the above
16. Identify the managerial function out of the following functions of HR managers.
A. Procurement B. Development C. Organizing D. Performance appraisal
17. Which of the following is an example of operative function of HR managers?

A. Planning B. Organizing C. procurement D. Controlling
18. The scope of human resource management includes

A. Procurement B. Development C. Compensation D. All of the above
19. The human resource management functions aim at

A. ensuring that the human resources possess adequate capital, tool, equipment and
material to perform the job successfully
B. helping the organization deal with its employees in different stages of employment
C. improving an organization’s creditworthiness among financial institutions
D. None of the above
20. Which of the following aptly describes the role of line managers and staff advisors,
namely HR professionals?
A. Staff advisors focus more on developing HR programmes while line managers are
more involved in the implementation of those programmes
B. Line managers are concerned more about developing HR programmes whereas staff
advisors are more involved in implementing such programmes.
C. Staff advisors are solely responsible for developing, implementing and evaluating the
HR programmes while line managers are not all involved in any matters concerning
HR.
D. Line managers alone are responsible for developing, implementing and evaluating the
HR programmes while staff advisors are not all involved in any matters concerning
HR.
UNIT II
21. A human resource planning scenario is:
(a) a detailed picture of future people requirements
(b) a method of forecasting possible changes in the labour market
(c) a plan for satisfying the forecast demand for people
(d) an imagined sequence of future events affecting people requirements
22. The labour turnover index:

(a) is the most accurate method of measuring labour wastage
(b) is the most commonly used method of measuring labour wastage
(c) can produce misleading results
(d) is the key human resource planning tool
23. Interviewing panels or selection boards:

(a) are a cost-effective method of processing candidates
(b) ensure that a wide range of probing questions are put to candidates
(c) combine the views of a number of interviewers to produce better assessments
(d) favour the confident and articulate candidate
24. A structured interview is one:

(a) that is biographical
(b) that has a clearly defined beginning, middle and end
(c) that requires the candidate to answer a set of questions issued in advance
(d) built around a set of predetermined questions
25. A person specification

(a) sets out the personal qualities required by a candidate
(b) sets out the abilities, qualifications and experience required to carry out a role
(c) specifies the skills required to carry out a role
(d) specifies the competencies required to carry out a role
26. Procedure of analyzing human capital availability and need of human resources for
organization is classified as
A. human resource planning B. recruitment planning
B. cost planning D. differentiation planning
27. Means by organization used to manage demand and supply of human capital are called
A. demand management strategy B. supply management strategy
C. human resource strategies D. all of above
28. Human resource strategy in which focus is mainly on cost control, efficiency and business
stability is classified as
A. organization centralization B. competency advantage
C. cost leadership D. differentiation
29. Human resource strategy in which focus is mainly on innovation, growth and
decentralized structuring of firm is classified as
A. cost leadership B. differentiation
C. organization centralization D. competency advantage
30. Step in recruitment process in which candidates are shortlisted fulfilling minimum
requirements of job is classified as
A. placement screening B. pre-employment screening
C. compensatory screening D. affirmative screening
31. Procedure of fitting right person into right job is classified as

A. placement of employees B. interviewing applicants
C. maintaining records D. administering tests
32. Process of matching characteristic of jobs to skills, abilities and knowledge of individuals
is classified as
A. selection yield fit B. success-acceptance fit
C. person-organization fit D. person-job fit
33. A prerequisite for a successful and efficient recruitment programme is to have a(n)
A. corporate policy B. HR policy

C. recruitment policy D. health and safety policy
34. The process of selection of employees is usually influenced by

A. rules and regulations B. strategies and objectives
principles and programmes D. none of the above
35. The primary responsibility for human resource planning lies with
A. HR Manager B. general manager C. trade union leader D. line manager
36. The plans that necessitate changes in the existing technology, the organizational structure,
and the employees’ authority and responsibility are called
A. short-term HR plan B. medium-term HR plan
C. long-term HR plan D. none of the above
37. Which of the following is not a forecasting technique to assess the human resource
requirements of an organization?
A. trend analysis B. ratio analysis
C. managerial judgment D. replacement charts
38. The term bottom-up approach is commonly associated with

A. normal group technique B. Delphi technique
C. managerial judgment D. work study technique
39. The method that requires the line managers to justify the continuance of each job that
becomes vacant is called
A. simulation model B. zero-base forecasting
C. human resource allocation approach D. Delphi technique
40. The forecasting based on the subjective views of the managers on the HR requirements of
an organization is known as
A. normal group technique B. Delphi technique

C. managerial judgment D. work study technique
UNIT III
41. __________ refers to the learning opportunities designed to help employees grow.
a. Training b. Development c. Education d. All of the above
42. How does training and development offer competitive advantage to an organisation?
a. Removing performance decencies
b. Deficiency is caused by a lack of ability
c. Individuals have the aptitude and motivation to learn
43. Which of the following is a benefit of employee training?

a. Improves morale
b. Helps people identify with organisational goals
c. Provides a good climate for learning, growth and co - ordination
44. Choose which of the following is a benefit to the individual while receiving training?
a. Creates an appropriate climate for growth, communication
b. Aids in increasing productivity and/ or quality of work
c. Satisfies a personal needs of the trainer
45. Which of this is a step in training process?

a. KSA deficiency b. Provide proper feedback
c. Obstacles in the system d. Use of evaluation models
46. Which of these is an off - the - job training method?

a. Television b. Job rotation c. Orientation training d. Coaching
47. Which of the following is a method used in group or organisational training needs
assessment?
a. Consideration of current and projected changes b. Rating scales
c. Interviews d. Questionnaires
48-The following is (are) the benefit(s) of training.

(A) Increased productivity (B) Reduced accidents
(C) Reduced supervision (D) All of the above
49-The following training aims to provide broad training to enable the trainee to take
up a wide variety of tasks within his field of specialisation
(A) Demonstration (B) On-the-job training
(C) Apprenticeship (D) All of the above
50-Demonstration type of training method is used to train

(A) Workers (B) Supervision (C) Managers (D) All of the above
51-The following is not a part of lower level management

(A) Worker (B) Foreman (C) Supervisor (D) Inspector
52 A homogenous group of ____ men from the plant constitutes an ideal conference
group
(A) 8-10 (B) 12-15 (C) 18-20 (D) 22-25
53.Method in which problem to be solved is described for employees is called

a. job rotation b. action learning
c. lifelong learning d. case study method
54. Improving current and future management performance is called

a. job rotation b. job training c. lifelong learning d. management development
Answer
55. Method in which teams consisting managers compete on solving problems is called
a. management game b. action learning
c. lifelong learning d. case study method
Answer
56. Technique, involving trainees to act on role of specific person in real situation is
a. behavior modeling b. role playing
c. in-house development center d. both A and B
57.In career development, discussing your career with your manager is part of
a. individual role b. manager role c. employer role d. line manager
58. In career development, realistic career plans is included in

a. individual role b. manager role c. employer role d. line manager
a
59. In career development focus, individual goal setting is part of
a. training and development b. performance appraisal
c. recruitment and placement d. human resource planning
60. In career planning of employees, strong vocational interest inventory and Lindsey study
of values are tests used for
a. reality feedback b. self-assessment
c. spaced assessment d. massed assessment
UNIT IV
61.Basic compensations given to employees as salaries or wages are called
A. base pay B. wages C. variable pay D. salaries
62. Payments made to employees for amount of time in which employee has worked are
classified as
A. variable pay B. salaries C. base pay D. wages
63. Compensation given with base pay linked to individual team or organizational
performance is classified as
A. variable pay B. salaries C. base pay D. wages
64. Type of benefits which are given to those employees who got injured on job are classified
as
A. unemployment compensation B. severance pay
C. worker's compensation D. employment compensation
65. Benefit offered to employee voluntarily by employers who had lost their jobs is classified
as
A. lump sum pay B. severance pay
C. unemployment pay D. insurance option
66. Primary benefits of most organization includes

A. unemployment compensation B. severance pay
C. worker's compensation D. all of above
67. Motivation theory shows downside of 'extrinsic rewards' is explained in

A. Victor Vroom expectancy theory B. Edward Deci motivation theory
C. Maslow's motivation theory D. Fredrick Herzberg motivation theory
68. In Vroom's theory, motivation is a product of

A. expectancy B. instrumentality C. valence D. all of above
69. According to Mitchell, the purpose of motivational theories is to:

A. Predict behavior B. Control behaviour
C. Change behavior D. Organise behaviour
70. Needs and expectations at work are sometimes divided into two types:
A. Extrinsic/intrinsic B. External/internal
C. Social/spiritual D. Effort/reward
71. Mullins proposes a three-fold classification of motivation as a starting . point for

discussion which comprises:
A. Intrinsic satisfaction, social relationships and organisational affiliation
B. Social relationships, organisational affiliation and economic rewards
C. Economic rewards, intrinsic satisfaction and social relationships
D. Organisational affiliation, economic rewards and social relationships
72.Which of the following is a positive reaction to the blockage of a desired goal?

A. Fixation B. Withdrawal
C. Problem-solving D. Regression
73. Negative responses to the blockage of a desired goal include:

A. Aggression B. Fixation
C. Withdrawal D. All three of the above
74. Managers can attempt to reduce levels of frustration in organisation members by:
A. Participative management B. Effective recruitment
C. All of the above D. None of the above
75. Aldefer and McClelland are two examples of ___________ theories of motivation.
A. Equity B. Content C. Expectancy D. Process
76-In this technique, personnel specialists and operating managers prepare lists of statements
of very effective and very ineffective behavior for an employee.
(A) Critical incident technique
(B) Forced choice
(C) Essay evaluation
(D) Management by Objective
77-The following technique(s) is based on the critical incident approach.

(A) Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) (B) Critical incident technique
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
78-Paired comparison method can be used by

(A) Superiors (B) Peers
(C) Subordinates (D) All of the above
79-The multiple-input approach to performance feedback is sometimes called ____ degree

assessment.
(A) 90 (B) 180 (C) 270 (D) 360
80- An incentive plan may consist of

(A) Monetary (B) Nonmonetary
(C) Both ‘monetary’ and ‘nonmonetary (D) None of the above
UNIT V
81.Which of the following is not a characteristic of a virtual company?
a. Permanent teams b. geographical dispersion of employees
c. information technology–enabled organization d. customer-driven organization
82. A horizontal networking among partners of the organization who perform different but
related activities characterizes
a. alliance organization b. Displaced organization
c. invisible organization d. truly virtual organization
83. When employees perform work from their home and remain away from the office, it is
called the _______ model.
A. Telecommuting b. frontline c. cyber link d. None of the above
84. When the employees perform their work from the client’s workplace or site, it is called
a. telecommuting b. Frontline c. cyber link d. None of the above
85. Which of the following is not an extra-mural welfare?

(A) Co-operative consumer facility (B) Creche For Child Care
(C) Recreational club (D) Health and Medical Services
86. Which of the following is not a principle of Labour Welfare?

(A) The Principle Of Uniformity (B) The Principle of Co-ordination and
Integration
(C) The principle of Association (D) The Principle of Timeliness
87. Which one of the following is not a principle of labour legislation?
(A) Principle of Protection (B) Principle of Social Justice
(C) Principle of Social Security and Welfare (D) Principle of Reasonable Standard Of
Living
88. Which of the following is not a labour legislation?

(A) Factories Act (B) Minimum Wages Act
(C) Untouchability Abolition Act (D) Equal Remuneration Act
89. Classification of international employees includes

A. expatriates B. host country nationals C. third country nationals D. All Of Above
90. Global assignments in which employees are sent for strategic jobs having intercultural
understanding are classified as
A. development assignments B. non development assignments
C. strategic assignments D. managerial assignments
91. If employee is citizen of India, working in U.S and employed by company whose
headquarters are in Japan then employee is classified as
A. third country nationals B. third world employees
C. expatriates D. host country nationals
92. Factors that affect global human resource management are

A. economic factors B. societal factors C. cultural factors D. all of above
93. Kind of organization which have integrated worldwide corporate units in different
countries is classified as
A. alliance enterprise B. global enterprise
C. interdependence enterprise D. multinational enterprise
94. Citizens of country other than host country or home country are
A. host country nationals B. expatriates
C. home country nationals D. third country nationals
95. Specific procedure according to which 'employees of company has legal rights to take
part in policy designing' is classified as
A. sub-determination B. sub-ordination C. co-ordination D. codetermination
96. The automation of attendance keeping, payroll preparation and applicant tracking are
some of the activities carried out at the _______ level.
a. management information system b. decision support system
c. electronic data processing d. None of the above
97. Which of the following is not an advantage of the Human Resource Information System?
a. a reduction in labour cost
b. the ability to manage voluminous data
c. better supervision and control over the human resources
d. none of the above
98. Which of the following is not normally an essential condition for an effective HRIS?
a. Ensuring clarity of HRIS goals
b. Strengthening the infrastructure and other supporting systems
c. changing the HR manager
d. Sustained enhancement of the HRIS capabilities
99. Which of the following is/are the sub-system(s) of HRIS?

a. Position control and budgeting system b. Compensation management system
c. Performance management system d. all of the above
100. To Avail voluntary retirement scheme the employees has to complete minimum
……………………….. years service
a. 15 years b. 20 years c. 10 years d. 5 years
ANSWER KEY
1. D. A perspective on personnel management

3. A. a staff function
4. B. Emphasizes that HRM systems should be integrated with organizational strategy
6. A. Provide guidelines on how things relating to people should be done
7. D. Maintenance of accounts
8. A. Seek both vertical and horizontal fit
9. B. Recruitment
10. A. It is not considered necessary
11. B. a proactive function
12. D. procedures
13. D. performance appraisal
14. A. recruitment and selection
15. B. Heterogeneous
16. C. Organizing
17. C. procurement
19. B. helping the organization deal with its employees in different stages of employment
20. A. Staff advisors focus more on developing HR programmes while line managers are more
involved in the implementation of those programmes
21. D. an imagined sequence of future events affecting people requirements
22. C. can produce misleading results
23. D. favour the confident and articulate candidate
24. D. built around a set of predetermined questions
25. B. sets out the abilities, qualifications and experience required to carry out a role
26. A. human resource planning
27. C. human resource strategies
28. C. cost leadership
29. B. differentiation
30. B. pre-employment screening
31. A. placement of employees
32. D. person-job fit
33. B. HR policy
34. B. strategies and objectives
35. B. general manager
36. D. none of the above
37. D. replacement charts
38. C. managerial judgment
39. B. zero-base forecasting
40. C. managerial judgment
41. B. Development
42. A. Removing performance decencies
43. B. Helps people identify with organisational goals
44. C. Satisfies a personal needs of the trainer
45. D. Use of evaluation models
46. A. Television
47. A. Consideration of current and projected changes
49. C. Apprenticeship
50. A. Workers
51. A. Worker
52. B. 12-15
53. D. case study method
54. D. management development
55. A. management game
56. B. role playing
57. A. individual role
58. A. individual role
59. B. performance appraisal
60. B. self-assessment
61. A. base pay
62. D. wages
63. A. variable pay
64. C. worker's compensation
65. B. severance pay
66. D. all of above
67. B. Edward Deci motivation theory
68. D. all of above
69. A. Predict behavior
70. A. Extrinsic/intrinsic
71. C. Economic rewards, intrinsic satisfaction and social relationships
72. C. Problem-solving
73. D. All three of the above
74. D. None of the above
75. D. Process
76. A. Critical incident technique
77. C. Both (A) and (B)
79. D. 360
80. C. Both ‘monetary’ and ‘nonmonetary
81. A. Permanent teams
82. B. Displaced organization
83. A. Telecommuting
84. B. Frontline
85. B. Creche For Child Care
86. A. The Principle Of Uniformity
87. D. Principle of Reasonable Standard Of Living
88. C. Untouchability Abolition Act
89. D. All Of Above
90. C. Strategic assignments
91. A. third country nationals
92. D. all of above
93. B. global enterprise
94. D. third country nationals
95. D. codetermination
96. C. Electronic data processing
97. D. none of the above
98. C. changing the HR manager
99. D. all of the above
100. C. 10 years
Subject Code: 17MBA 2C13

Tiruchirappalli.

ENTERPRISE RESOURCE PLANNING
UNIT I
1. An enterprise is a group of people with ____________

a.separate goal for each department. b.Common goal
c.Multiple goal d.two or more goal
2. In _________,entire organization is considered as system and the departments are its sub-system.
a.Business way b.general c.enterprise way d.planning
3. ______________ is the heart of any ERP system.

a.Information b.Employees c.Customers d.Database
4. ERP system is built on a_________ utilizing common computing platform.

a. centralized database b.Individual database
c.Modular database d.centralized layout.
5. MRP stands for:

a .Master Resources Production b .Management Reaction Planning
c .Materials Requirements Planning d .Manufacturing Resource Planning
6. ERP is usually referred to as a category of business

a.Management software b. Planning software
c. Communication software d. All of the above
7. Which of the following describes an ERP system?

a) ERP systems provide a foundation for collaboration between departments
b) ERP systems enable people in different business areas to communicate.
c) ERP systems have been widely adopted in large organizations to store critical knowledge.
d) All of the above
8. ERP stands for

a. Enterprise Research Planning b. Enterprise Resource Planning
C .Enterprise Relationship Planning d. Entire Resource Planning
9. MRP – II stands for
a. Master Resources Production b .Management Reaction Planning
c .Materials Requirements Planning d .Manufacturing Resource Planning
10. BOM stands for

a. Bill of Material b. Bill of Moneyc .Bill of Machine d . All of the above
11. _______ is an organizational set up where by there is no connectivity and transparency among the
functional divisions.
a. System Island b. System Integrationc. System d. Information System
12. Which one of the following does not belong to ERP technologies?
a. Data warehousing b. data mining c. BPR d. MRP- II
13. Which of the following is not a myth about ERP?

a. ERP means more work and procedures;
b. ERP makes many employees redundant
c. ERP integrate and automate organizational process;
d. ERP is the sole responsibility of Management
14. Which of the following is a part of organization?

a. People b. Common goal c. Resources d. All of the above
15. Which one of the following is not a benefit of an ERP system?

a. Information Integration b. Business Customer Satisfaction c. Use of Latest Technology d.
Program Management
16. Which one of the following is the indirect benefit of ERP?

a. Access to accurate data; b. Faster access to data for timely decisions
c. Improve customer response d. All of the above
17. Which one of the following is an advantage of an ERP?

a. Business Integration b. better analysis and planning capabilities
c. use of advanced technologies d. All of the above.
18. Which of the following is a reason for ERP explosive growth?

a. ERP is a logical solution to the mess of incompatible applications
b) ERP addresses the need for global information sharing and reporting
c) ERP is used to avoid the pain and expense of fixing legacy systems
d) All of the above
19. What are the primary business benefits of an ERP system?

a) Sales forecasts, sales strategies, and marketing campaigns
b) Market demand, resource and capacity constraints, and real-time scheduling
c) Forecasting, planning, purchasing, material management, warehousing, inventory, and
distribution
d) All of the above
20. What is one of the key resources of every organization, in today’s competitive business environment?
A. Employee B. Information C. ERP D. Database
UNIT II
21. It is a fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business process to achieve dramatic
improvement in cost quality speed and service it is called as _________________________
a. Enterprise resource planning. b .Business process reengineering
c. Business process management. d. Business training.
22. The first and foremost concept of business process reengineering is _______________
a. Radical redesign. b .Time management c. Fundamental rethinking d.quality analysis.
23. Which of the following is not the objective of BPR?

a.customer focus b.speed c.Flexibility d.Tangibility
24. One of the more recent methodologies proposed for BPR is _____________
a. Innovation technique. b. product life cycle.
c. Process redesign. d .Process reengineering life cycle.
25. The benefits of implementing BPR are______________________

a. Increased effectiveness. b. Reduced overall cost.
c.Improved organization approach. d. All of the above.
26. _______________ is a management approach that is primarily concerned with productivity that
lead to customer satisfaction.
a. Total quality management b. BPR.
c. Business process management. d. All of the above.
27. Both TQM and BPR are concerned with improving_________________

a .Technologies b. Methodologies. c. Standard d. Efficiency.
28. Business process reengineering model comprises of _________________ stages.

a. Three stages b .Four stages c .Five stages d .Eight stages
29. BPR helps in creating advantage of____________

a.Satisfaction b.Showing results c. Quality improvements d. None of the above
30. ERP provides an integrated and continuously updated view of core business processes using
common databases maintained by a
a. database management system b integrated application system
c. Integrated management system d. database application system
31. BPR is also known as

a. Business Process Redesign b. Business Transformation
c. Business Process change management d. All of the above
32. Which term refers to business process that are not executed by single function?
a. Silo effect b. Cross functional c. Functional structure d. enterprise systems
33. Which term refers to a system in which workers complete their tasks in separate departments without
regard to the consequences for the other components of the process?
a. silo effect b. cross functional c. Functional structure d. enterprise systems
34. Which system supports business processes end to end?

a. Management System b. Accounting System c. Enterprise System d. Functional Structure.
35. Which of the following statements about business processes is true?

a. They are executed across multiple functions b. They are initiated by some type of trigger
c. They involve multiple steps d. All of the Above
36. Which term represents a set of tasks or activities that produce desired outcomes?
A. Business process B. Outcome C. Trigger D. Event
37. Re-engineering, Restructuring and ___________ are kinds of strategic change.

a. Imitation b. Innovation c. invention d. Creativity
38. The starting base for BPR is _________

a. Existing process b. Blank sheet c.Value adding process d. Strategic process.
39. It is the process by which organizations use their skills and resources to create new technologies or
goods and services so that they can change and better respond to the needs of their customer.
a. BPR b. Innovation c. Restructuring d. Invention
40. It is the second form of change that strategic managers choose to implement strategy to improve the
firms performance.
a. Redesigning b. Restructuring c. Innovation d. Redefining
UNIT - III
41. _______________ are the primary user of ERP SYSTEM.
a. sales marketing ,customer service. b .Accounting, finance, logistics, and production.
c .customers ,resellers ,partners, supplies d. all of the above.
42. The most important step of ERP implementation is _________ phase

a. Installing. b. Training. c. Gap analysis d .Testing.
43. ERP facilitates information flow between all business functions and manages connections to
outside
a. Stakeholders. b. Share holder c. Director d. Manager
44. Which one of the following is not a part of ERP implementation ?
a. Vendor representatives b. Customer c. Employee Team d. Consultants
45. Full form of AHP is

a. Analytical Hierarchy Process b. Analytical High Process
c. Analytical Hierarchy Chain d. None of the Above
46. ERP use software application to __________ process of an organization.

a. Automate b. Speed up c. Eliminate d. None of the above.
47. Which one of the following is the success factor of ERP implementation?
a. Project Planning b. Architectural Design c. Phased Approach d. All of the above
48. Which one of the following is an ERP ownership cost?

a. Hardware b. Consultancy c. training d. All of the above
49. Which one of following is the ERP life cycle phase?

a. Adaptation and Decision b. Acquisition and Implementation
c. Use and Maintenances d. All of the above
50. Which of the following is not an ERP implementation strategy?

a. Big Bang Strategy; b. Phased Implementation;
c. Half Implementation; d. Parallel Implementation
51. ROI stands for

a. Return on Investment b. Repeatable Operational Information
c. Regular Official Information d. None of the Above
52. ERP package will handle __________ business functionalities.

a. one b. two c. three d. all
53. The _________ should plan well and execute perfectly the implementation of ERP.
a. Organization b. System developers c. Vendors d. Top Management
54. Which is one of the most critical steps in the ERP implementation?
a. Creation of Organizational Model b. Creation of Integrated Data Model
c. Creation of Business Model d. Creation of Data Model
55. The Success or Failure of ERP project lies in

a. Vendor Selection b) Package Evaluation c) Package Screening. d) Team formation
56. RFP stands for ___________________

a) Request For Productivity b) Request For Profits
c) Request For Processing d) Request For Proposal
57. There is no ERP project with out __________

a. Liaison officer b. Project Supervisor c. Project Manager d. Project Sponsor
58. POC stands for:

a. Proof of Concept b. Processing of Concept
c. Procedure of Control d. None of the above
59. What does EDI stand for?

a. Electronic Data Interchange b. Electronic Dictionary Interchange
c. Electrical Data Interchange d. Employee Development Plan
60. ___________ are the people who will be doing functions which will be automated by ERP system.
a. ERP vendor b. ERP Consultant c. CRM Consultant d. End Users
Unit – IV
61. ________________ allow companies to enter requirements for various types of items.
a. Purchase order
b. Purchase requisitions
c. Invoice
d. General ledger
62. ____________ maintains reports of warehouse supplies.

a. ERP financial module
b. ERP Inventory software module
c. ERP Resource module
d. ERP verification module
63. Installing ERP Inventory systems is ____________ .

a. Simple
b. Trouble free
c. Complex
d. Cost Effective
64. In recent years, CRM has become a primary component of:

a. ERP vendors
b. ERP software solutions.
c. CRM software
d. CRM solutions
65. ____________is the most common operating system for running CRM software
a. UNIX
b. Windows NT
c. Windows Vista
d. Windows XP
66. ‘Dwell time through supply chain’ is categorized under:

a. SRM metrics.
b. CRM metrics.
c. ERP metrics.
d. Supply chain planning metrics.
67. ‘Cash to cash cycle time’ is categorized under:

a. SRM metrics.
b. ERP metrics.
c. Supply chain planning metrics.
d. CRM metrics.
68. ETO means

a. Engineer-to-Order
b. Engineer-to-Offer
c. Enterprise-to-Order
d. Enterprise-to-Offer
69. ____________ system maintains employees information in graphical format.
a. Employee master data

b. Personnel administration
c. Payroll accounting
d. Benefits administration
70. __________ module keeps track of liquidation process.
a. Market management module

b. Liquidation module
c. Treasury module
d. Enterprise management module
71. The vendor should have a _______, who must constantly interact with the implementation team.
a. Liaison officer
b. Project Supervisor
c. Project Manager
d. Implementation co-ordinator
72. Web ERP is suitable for ____________ .
a. Both small and big organisations

b. Only big organisations
c. Medium scale organisations
d. Only small organisations
73.The scope of ERP applications extends to:
a. Accounting and finance

b. Human resources, sales and marketing, and manufacturing and logistics
c. Customer relationship management and cloud computing
d. A and B
74. Internal supply chain of a manufacturing enterprise consists of all of the following except:
a. Procurement cycle
b. Marketing cycle
c. Sales and distribution cycle
d. Manufacturing cycle
75. Functions related to supply chain management in SAP ERP system are all of the following
except:
a. Supply chain planning

b. Supply chain execution
c. Supply chain collaboration
d. Supply chain cooperation
76. Most failed ERP software implementations have been blamed on...
a. People Issues
b. Technological software issues
c. Hardware issues
d. Both A and B
77. ________modules enable a company to learn more about customers and their needs
with each interaction.
a. ERP
b. EDI
c. CRM
d. EFT
78. ___________software modules allow a company's sales staff to work more efficiently as
individuals, as a team, and as part of the organization.
a. Sales force automation
b. Global integration
c. Market automation
d. Personalization
79. SAP stands for

a. Systems Applications and Products in Data Processing
b. Semester Action Plan
c. Service Access Point
d. Student Assistance Programme
80. Which of the following has the least integration of information systems?
a. Manufacturing resource planning
b. Web-integrated enterprise resource planning
c. Materials requirements planning
d. Enterprise resource planning
Unit – V
81. Which of the following is an output of materials requirements planning?

a. Work orders
b. Master production schedule
c. Bills of materials
d. All of the above
82. OLAP stands for:

a. On-Line Analytical Processing
b. On-Line Account Processing
c. On-Line Arithmetic Processing
d. On-Line Application Processing
83. ERP vendors usually design their systems around standard business processes, based upon
____________________
a. Business standards
b. Global standards
c. Best business practices.
d. Best profitable standards
84. The _______ module's internal functions do not directly interact with the data or processes of
other modules.
a. Finance
b. Quality Management
c. Sales and Distribution
d. Plant Maintenance
85. Which among the following systems can be assigned to a cost centre directly which illustrates
the interface to the cost accounting system?
a. FAPA
b. Purchasing
c. Sales and Distribution
d. CASO
86. Which system provides the foundation for creating concurrent business processes across the
supply chain and achieving Return on Assets (ROA) improvement?
a. Finance
b. Inventory
c. Manufacturing
d. Sales
87. The processes described in the quality manual can be implemented and automated in the EDP
system. Here what does EDP stand for?
a. Electronic Data Processing
b. Electronic Dictionary Project
c. Electrical Data Processing
d. Employee Development Plan
88. If a university sets up a web-based information system that faculty could access to
record student grades and to advise students, that would be an example of a/an
a. CRM
b. intranet
c. ERP
d. extranet
89. A bill of materials lists the

A. times needed to perform all phases of production
B. Production schedules for all products
C. Components, ingredients, and materials required to produce an item
D. Operations required to produce an item
90. Which of the following allows individual ERP systems to communicate with each
other?
a. Web-integrated ERP
b. EMRP
c. Global ERP
d. Web-integrated MRP
91. One way to facilitate production scheduling and production in firms making a large number of
different final products is to use
A. Planning bills
B. Modular bills
C. Phantom bills
D. Overdue bills
92. The minimum record accuracy required for successful MRP is approximately
a. lower than 90%
b. 90%
c. 95%
d. 99%
93. A master production schedule specifies

a. the financial resources required for production
b. what component is to be made, and when
c. what product is to be made, and when
d. the labor hours required for production
94. Distribution Resource Planning (DRP) is

a. a transportation plan to ship materials to warehouses
b. a time-phased stock replenishment plan for all levels of a distribution network
c. a shipping plan from a central warehouse to retail warehouses
d. material requirements planning with feedback loop from distribution centers
95. What are several different types of software, which sit in the middle of and provide connectivity
between two or more software applications?
a. Middleware
b. Enterprise application integration middleware
c. Automated business process
d. e-business infrastructure
96 . Who are the primary users of SCM systems?
a. Sales, marketing, customer service

b. Accounting, finance, logistics, and production
c. Customers, resellers, partners, suppliers, and distributors
d. All of the above
97. What represents a new approach to middleware by packaging together commonly used
functionality, such as providing prebuilt links to popular enterprise applications, which reduces the
time necessary to develop solutions that integrate applications from multiple vendors?
a. Middleware
b. Enterprise application integration middleware
c. Automated business process
d. e-business infrastructure
98.The process of taking active role in working with suppliers to improve products and processes is
called ______________.
a. ERP
b. Marketing
c. Supply Chain Management
d. Sale
99. Which of the following is a layer in the SAP NetWeaver BW Architecture?

a. Document is created for every transaction in the system, Documents are created using master
data and organizational elements.
b. Master data information is organized into views, Is used long-term in the SAP System,
Supports execution of key business processes,
c. Data is entered using organizational elements, Data is tracked using organizational
d. Extraction, Transformation and Load, Data Analysis and Planning
100. Which one of the following is not a business driver for an information system?
a. business process redesign

b. knowledge asset management
c. proliferation of networks and the Internet
d. security and privacy
ANSWER KEYS:
Q.No Answer Description
1 B Common goal
2 C enterprise way
3 D Database
4 A centralized database
5 A Master Resources Production
6 D All of the above
8 B Enterprise Resource Planning
9 D Manufacturing Resource Planning
10 A Bill of Material
11 A System Island
12 D MRP- II
13 C ERP integrate and automate organizational process;
15 D Program Management
Forecasting, planning, purchasing, material
19 C management, warehousing, inventory, and
distribution
20 B Information
21 B Business process reengineering
22 C Fundamental rethinking
23 D Tangibility
24 C Process redesign.
26 A Total quality management
27 D Efficiency
28 A Three stages
29 D None of the above
30 A database management system
32 A Silo effect
33 A Silo effect
34 C Enterprise System
36 A Business process
37 B Innovation
38 B Blank sheet
39 B Innovation
40 B Restructuring
41 B Accounting, finance, logistics, and production
42 C Gap analysis
43 A Stakeholders
44 B Customer
45 A Analytical Hierarchy Process
46 A Automate
50 C Half Implementation
51 A Return on Investment
52 D all
53 C Vendors
54 B Creation of Integrated Data Model
55 B Package Evaluation
56 D Request For Proposal
57 D Project Sponsor
58 A Proof of Concept
59 A Electronic Data Interchange
60 D End Users
61 B Purchase requisitions
62 B ERP Inventory software module
63 C Complex
64 B ERP software solutions.
65 A UNIX
66 D Supply chain planning metrics.
67 B ERP metrics.
68 A Engineer-to-Order
69 A Employee master data
70 C Treasury module
71 A Liaison officer
72 A Both small and big organisations
73 D A and B
74 B Marketing cycle
75 D Supply chain cooperation
76 A People Issues
77 C CRM
78 A Sales force automation
Systems Applications and Products in Data
79 A
Processing
80 C Materials requirements planning
81 A Work orders
82 A On-Line Analytical Processing
83 C Best business practices.
84 B Quality Management
85 D CASO
86 C Manufacturing
87 A Electronic Data Processing
88 B intranet
Components, ingredients, and materials required to
89 C
produce an item
90 A Web-integrated ERP
91 B Modular bills
92 D 99%
93 C what product is to be made, and when
a time-phased stock replenishment plan for all
94 B
levels of a distribution network
95 A Middleware
Customers, resellers, partners, suppliers, and
96 C
distributors
97 B Enterprise application integration middleware
98 D Supply Chain Management
Extraction, Transformation and Load, Data
99 D
Analysis and Planning
100 C proliferation of networks and the Internet
Tiruchirappalli.

RESEARCH METHODOLOGY
Unit I
1. The main purpose of research in education is to _________

a) Help in the personal growth of an individual
b) Help the candidate become an eminent educationist
c) Increase job prospects of an individual
d) Increase social status of an individual
2. Social Science Research ……………. Problems

a) Explain
b) Diagnosis
c) Recommend
d) Formulate
3. Facts or information’s are analyzed and critical evaluation is made in

a) Survey
b) Action research
c) Analytical research
d) Pilot study
4. Research conducted to find solution for an immediate problem is ………….

a) Fundamental Research
b) Analytical Research
c) Survey
d) Action Research
5. The concept of 'variables':

a) is derived from physics.
b) is derived from statistics.
c) is derived from biology.
d) has always been used in psychology.
6. Survey research studies _________

a) Circumstances
b) Events
c) Populations
d) Processes
7. A hypothesis is:
a) a statement of the aims of an investigation.
b) a statement which serves as the basis for further investigation.
c) the methodical evaluation of research evidence.
d) all of these.
8. Confounding variables are a problem in:

a) experimental studies.
b) longitudinal studies.
c) correlational studies.
d) all of the above.
9. ____ is a statistical index which describes the degree and direction of the
relationship between two characteristics or variables.
a) Probability
b) Mean
c) T-test
d) Correlation
10. What is the name for a variable which wholly or partially accounts for the
relationship between two other variables?
a) Consistent variable.
b) Congruent variable.
c) Confounding variable.
d) Confounded variable.
11. What sort of data are postal codes (PIN codes)?

a) Ordinal
b) Nominal
c) Ratio
d) Interval
12. What sort of data is income?

a) Ratio
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Nominal
13. What sort of variable is dress size?

a) Dependent
b) Nominal
c) Ordinal
d) Ratio
14. A mediator variable is:

a) responsible for the relationship between two other variables.
b) another name for the independent variable.
c) another name for the dependent variable.
d) all of the above.
15. Response rate refers to:
a) how big a population is.
b) the proportion of people who take part in a study.
c) how variable participants' responses are.
d) how confident you want to be about your results.
16. The difference between the mean of a researcher's sample and the mean of the
population of the sample is known as the:
a) significance level.
b) confidence interval.
c) sampling error.
d) standard deviation.
17. Sampling is advantageous as it ________

a) Helps in capital-saving
b) Saves time
c) Increases accuracy
d) Both (a) and (b)
18. Random sampling is helpful as it is __________.

a) An economical method of data collection
b) Free from personal biases
c) Reasonably accurate
d) All the above
19. Type-I Error occurs if ___________________

a) the null hypothesis is rejected even though it is true
b) the null hypothesis is accepted even though it is false
c) both the null hypothesis as well as alternative hypothesis are rejected
d) None of the above
20. _________ is a preferred sampling method for the population with finite size.
a) Area sampling
b) Cluster sampling
c) Purposive sampling
d) Systematic sampling
UNIT II
21. Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in quantitative terms

a) Socio-economic Status b) Marital Status
c) Numerical Aptitude d) Professional Attitude
22. “A systematic step-by-step Procedure following logical process of reasoning” called

a) Experiment b) Observation c) Deduction d) Scientific method
23. Facts or information’s are analyzed and critical evaluation is made in

a) Survey b) Action research c) Analytical research d) Pilot study
24. Population Census is an example of ………….. Research
a) Survey b) Empirical c) Clinical d) Diagnostic
25. Research through experiment and observation is called
a) Clinical Research b) Experimental Research

c) Laboratory Research d) Empirical Research
26. A Blue print of Research work is called

a) Research Problem b) Research design
c) Research tools d) Research methods
27. In a survey there is an enumerator and a ………………….

a) Guide b) Respondent c) Supervisor d) Messenger
28. A methods of collecting primary data in which a number of individuals with a common
interest interact is called
a) Telephone Interview b) Clinical Interview
c) Focused Interview d)Group Interview
29. Questions which allow only a few alternative way of answering is called ………..
a) Open ended questions b) Unstructured questions
c) Structural questions d) Dichotomous questions
30. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called

a) Multiple choice questions b) Dichotomous questions
c) Open ended questions d) Structured questions
31. Sample value is called………………

a) Parameter b) Core Value c)Statistic d) Variable
32. Population value is called …………..

a) Statistic b) Parameter c) Variable d) Core value
33. Probability sampling is otherwise called

a) Multiple choice b) Uni-variate Analysis
c) Random Sampling d) Bi-variate Analysis
34. An example of probability sampling is

a) Quota Sampling b) Snow-ball sampling
c) Purposive sampling d) Lottery method
35. In which sample population is divided into different strata and sample is taken from
different strata?
a) Quota Sampling b) Snow ball sampling
c) Stratified sampling d)Purposive Sampling
36. Drawing a sample from each stratum in the proportion to latter’s share in the total
population is called
a) Stratified sampling b) Proportioned stratified sampling
c) Disproportionate sampling d) Quota sampling
37. The aggregate of all the units pertaining to a study is called

a) Population or universe b) Unit c) Sample d) Frame
38. A member of the population is called ……………

a) Element b) Census c) Sample d) Group
39. Source of Data collected and compiled by others is called

a) Primary b) Secondary
c) Primary and Secondary d) None of the above
40. The original source from which researcher collects information is

a) Primary Source b) Secondary Source
c) Both primary and Secondary d) None of these
UNIT III
41. Facts, figures and other relevant materials serving as bases for a study is called
a) Sample b)Method c) Data d) Theory
42. Summarizing raw data and displaying them on compact statistical tables for analysis is
a) Tabulation b) Coding c) Transcription d) Editing
43. Selecting sample units in just a “hit and miss” fashion is called
a) Convenience or Accidental sampling
b) Purposive sampling
c) Stratified sampling
d) Proportionate sampling
44. A technique of Building up a list or a sample of a special population by using an initial

set of members as informants is called
a) Quota sampling b) Convenience Sampling
c) Snow ball Sampling d) Purposive sampling
45. Which technique is generally followed when the population is finite?

a) Systematic sampling technique b) purposive sampling technique
c) Area sampling technique d)None of the above
46. The importance of the correlation co-efficient lies in the fact that:
a) It is one of the most valid measure of statistics.
b) It is one of the most valid measure of statistics.
c) There is a linear relationship between the correlated variables.
d) It allows one to determine the degree or strength of the association between two variables.
47. To study the relationship of family size to income a researcher classifies his population
into different income slabs and then takes a random sample from each slab. Which technique
of sampling does he adopt?
A) Random sampling b) Stratified random sampling
c) Systematic sampling d) Cluster sampling
48. The sampling errors arise due to drawing faulty inferences about the
__________________ based upon the results of the samples.
a) Sample b) Survey c) Population d) Census
49. _____________________ provides various types of statistical information of either

qualitative or quantitative nature.
a) Sampling b) Tabulation c) Observation d) Editing
50. Secondary data are information which is

a) already available b) findings of a study
c) yet to be collected d) not available for the research
51. When all the items in the population are included for the study it is called as
a) sample study b) systematic sample study
c) multiple study d) census study
52. Quota sampling is used intensively in which type of research?
a) Market research b) Experimental research
c) Action research d) Ethnographic research
53. A closed question means

a) the respondent is given a limited choice of possible Answer
b) the final question of the interview
c) the interviewer can embellish the interviewee's answer
d) the responses are difficult to codify
54. The most popularly used device for collecting data is :

a) a schedule b) a questionnaire c) an observation d) a diary
55. Sampling design refers to:

a) a definite plan for obtaining a sample from a given population
b) a definite plan for obtaining a sample from a field
c) a plan which includes the field of research
d) a plan of activities connected to research
56. When numbers are just assigned to phenomena without discrimination, it is a

a) Ordinal scale b) interval scale c) nominal scale d) ratio scale
57. When phenomena are rated or scored in the order of importance, the type of scale Used
is
a) ordinal scale b) nominal scale c) interval scale d) ratio scale
58. When phenomena are grouped into categories with uniform ranges, researcher would
adopt
a) Ordinal scale b) nominal scale c) interval scale d) ratio scale
59. A two way systematic conversation between an investigator and respondent is

Called
a) Observation b) Schedule c) Interview d) Simulation
60. Schedule is used as a ……………
a. Questionnaire b) Tool c) Method d) technique
UNIT IV
61. Rank correlation is popularly known as

a) Spearman’s rank Correlation b) product moment correlation
c) time series analysis d) Personian analysis
62. When there are more more variables studied it is

a) partial correlation b) simple correlation
c) multiple correlation and partial correlation d) Spurious correlation
63. Spurious Correlation refers to

a) Yule’s correlation of coefficient b) correlation between unrelated variation
c) simple relationship d) simple correlation
64. Types of frequencies are

a) two types b) direct and indirect
c) discrete and continuous d) classified and unclassified
65. The variables that is not manipulated is

a) Problem statement b) dependent variable c) Hypothesis d) Testability
66. The types of of rating scales universally adopted are

a) nominal and ordinal b) ration and interval
c) nominal and interval d) nominal, ordinal, interval and ratio
67. When phenomena are rated or scored in the order of importance, the type of Scale used
is a) ordinal scale b) nominal scale c) interval scale d) ratio scale
68. Incase of multiple correlation coefficients

a) the t test is used and work out the test statistic
b) the f test is used and work out the test statistic
c) the t and f tests are used and to calculate the test statistic
d) the mean variance test is used and to calculate the test statistic
69. Which of the following statements is false?

a) Discrete variables allow measurement of an infinite number of fractions of units of
measurement
b) Discrete variables can only have whole number values
c) Continuous numbers can only have whole number values
d) Continuous measures do not allow for scores that fall between two number values
70. A _____________________ variable is a variable whose values can theoretically take

on an infinite number of values within a given range of values.
a) Continuous b) Discrete c) Random d) Both (a) and (b)
71. Regression analysis reveals

a) Average relationship between two variables b) the magnitude of variation
c) Closeness of independent variables d) Closeness of dependent
variables
72. The Chi-square test is designed by

a) Karl Pearson b) Gauss c) Fisher d) Laplace
73. The Coefficient of correlation

a) Cannot be positive b) cannot be negative
c) can be either positive or negative d) can be a qualitative analysis
74. Which of the following could tell us the point about which items have a tendency to
Cluster?
a) Regression b) Correlation c) Variation d) Range
75. Which of the following is a measure of dispersion?

A) Mean b) Standard deviation c) Mode d) Median
76. Which of the following graph or chart suitable for correlation analysis
a) Bar chart b) Frequency polygon c) Scatter graph d) Histogram
77. Which measure of central tendency might be biased by extreme values in a set of data
a) Median b) Mode c) Arithmetic mean d) All of these
78. A Study which shows a relationship between two variables is known as

a) A Correlation b) An Experiment
c) An Interview d) A Naturalistic Observation
79. Association or relation between or relation among variables is established through

a) Association of attributes b) Anova
c) Manova d) Correlation of Coefficient
80. Association of more than two variables is

a) Complex variable b) Complex association
c) multiple regression d) multiple correlation
UNIT V
81. What is the primary purpose of the report?

a) To monitor and control production, sales, shipping etc.
b) To control problems, sell products and services
c) To analyse problems and predict practical alternatives
d) To solve problems and supply facts
82. Which of the following is not one of the seven major parts to the research report?
a) Results b) Abstract c) Method d) Footnotes
83. Bibliography means

a) Foot notes
b) Quotations
c) List of books
d) Biography
84. What is the purpose of the conclusion in a research report?
a) It just a summary what the article already said
b) It summarizes the key findings in relation to the research questions.
c) It contains a useful review of the relevant literature
d) It outlines the methodological procedures that were employed.
85. Which of the following is not usually found in a report of a quantitative study?
a) Measurement b)Results c)Confession d)Validation
86. When referencing other works you have cited within the text of the report you should
a. State the first and last name of the author
b. Use the author, date citation method
c. Use an asterisk and a footnote
d. Insert the complete citation in parenthesis
87. Which of the following is not an essential element of report writing?

a. Research Methodology
b. Reference
c. Conclusion
d. None of These
88. A Research Report is a formal statement of ……………….

a) Research Process b) Research Problem c) Data collection d) Data Editing
89. Technical Report is otherwise called

a) Interim Report b) Popular Report c) Thesis d) Summary
90. It is in this section that you fully interpret and evaluate your results.
a. Introduction
b. Method
c. Results
d. Discussion
91. The first page of the research report is

a) Appendix b) Bibliography c) Index d) Title Page
92. In Research Report ……………. is used to acknowledge indebtness

a) Bibliography b) Index c) Appendix d) Foot-Notes
93. Ph. D stands for

a) Doctor of Philosophy b) Degree in Philosophy
c) Doctor of Psychology d) None of the above
94. The glossary is the list of

a) References
b) Subjects covered in the report
c) Technical terms used in the report
d) Diagrams used in the report
95. A short summary of Technical Report is called

a) Article b) Research Abstract c) Publication d) Guide
96. ----------is called publication in a Research journal
a) Guide b) Popular report c) Research article d) Format
97. The Report submitted when there is a time lag between data collection and
presentation of Result is called
a) Thesis b) Interim Report c) Summary Report d) Article
98. The final research report is not

a) Tangible evidence of a research project.
b) Future secondary data.
c) A research proposal.
d) A basis for decision-making.
99. The introductory section of a research report should aim to:

a) Identify the specific focus of the study
b) Provide a rationale for the dissertation, or article
c) Grab the reader’s attention
d) All of the above
100. Which report helps decision makers select choose best course of action
a) Feasibility report
a) Short report
c) Essential report
d) Long report
ANSWER KEY
S.No. Options
1. B. Help the candidate become an eminent educationist
2. B. Diagnosis
3. C. Analytical research
4. D. Action Research
5. B. is derived from statistics
6. C. Populations
7. B. statement which serves as the basis for further investigation
8. D. all of the above.
9. D. Correlation
10. C. Confounding variable
11. B. Nominal
12. A. Ratio
13. C. Ordinal
14. A. responsible for the relationship between two other variables
15. B. the proportion of people who take part in a study
16. C. sampling error
17. D. Both (a) and (b)
19. A. the null hypothesis is rejected even though it is true
20. D. Systematic sampling
21. C. Numerical Aptitude
22. D. Scientific method
23. C. Analytical research
24. A. Survey
25. D. Empirical Research
26. B. Research design
27. B. Respondent
28. D. Group Interview
29. C. Structural questions
30. B. Dichotomous questions
31. C. Statistic
32. B. Parameter
33. B. Uni-variate Analysis
34. D. Lottery method
35. C. Stratified sampling
36. B. Proportioned stratified sampling
37. A. Population or universe
38. A. Element
39. B. Secondary
40. A. Primary Source
41. C. Data
42. A. Tabulation
43. A. Convenience or Accidental sampling
44. C. Snow ball Sampling
45. A. Systematic sampling technique
46. D. It allows one to determine the degree or strength of the association
between two variables.
47. B. Stratified random sampling
48. C. Population
49. A. Sampling
50. A. already available
51. D. census study
52. A. Market research
53. A. the respondent is given a limited choice of possible Answer
54. B. a questionnaire
55. A. a definite plan for obtaining a sample from a given population
56. C. nominal scale
57. A. ordinal scale
58. C. interval scale
59. B. Schedule
60. B. Tool
61. A. Spearman’s rank Correlation
62. C. multiple correlation and partial correlation
63. B. correlation between unrelated variation
64. C. discrete and continuous
65. B. dependent variable
66. D. nominal, ordinal, interval and ratio
67. A. ordinal scale
68. A. the t test is used and work out the test statistic
69. B. Discrete variables can only have whole number values
70. A. Continuous
71. A. Average relationship between two variables
72. A. Karl Pearson
73. C. can be either positive or negative
74. D. Range
75. B. Standard deviation
76. C. Scatter graph
77. C. Arithmetic mean
78. A. A Correlation
79. D. Correlation of Coefficient
80. D. multiple correlation
81. C. To analyse problems and predict practical alternatives
82. D. Footnotes
83. C. List of books
84. B. It summarizes the key findings in relation to the research questions
85. C. Confession
86. B. Use the author, date citation method
87. D. None of These
88. A. Research Process
89. C. Thesis
90. D. Discussion
91. D. Title Page
92. D. Foot-Notes
93. A. Doctor of Philosophy
94. C. Technical terms used in the report
95. B. Research Abstract
96. C. Research article
97. B. Interim Report
98. C. A research proposal
100. A. Feasibility report

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Subject Code: 17MBA2C9

Jamal Mohamed College (Autonomous)

Objective Type Questions

2. Which of the following statement is not true in the case of goods?

3. Which of the following is not an objective of operations management?

4. ...............is measure of the quantity of output per unit of input.

5. Operations management is applicable

7.What are the two basic types of production systems?

8.What type of process would a paper mill be most likely to use?

9.Moving from the aggregate plan to a master production schedule requires

15. What are the major direct responsibilities of operations management?

17. An appropriate strategy to maximize efficiency of promotions is:

21. The following is the preliminary stage of Production planning

24-The ultimate objective of the product is

25. Design capacity is:

26 Decisions include facility planning, location and layout.

28. Based on their field of application, manufactured goods can be classified as

30. Design capacity is:

31. The output of a constrained system is determined by:

32. Yield management can be best described as:

34. The profit of an enterprise can be increased by

36. For which of the following industry humid climate is helpful

39. Which of the following is not true for Multi-storey building?

43. For which of the following industry humid climate is helpful

44. What is the main objective of plant layout

46. In ship manufacturing, the type of layout preferred is

47. A job shop is an example of a(n)

49. Which of the following is true for process layouts?

52. What type of layout is job shop

54. The following is not a classification of maintenance

55. The following is (are) scheduled maintenance

56. Which type of maintenance is done before failure?

58. Total productive maintenance aims at

60. Which activity in operations management, ensures product quality

63. What does ERP stand for?

65. Which of the following is an output of materials requirements planning?

70. Which of these pieces of information is NOT contained in a bill of material?

72. Control chart is a

74.Total Quality Management (TQM) focuses on

75. Which of the following is responsible for quality objective?

77. EMS stands for

78. ISO emphasis on

82. ______________ is the first phase of Material Management

87. ____________ control is used to maintain the stock at a desired level

88._______________ is the benefits of Inventory control

89. ______________ is the cost of holding goods in stock

91. ____________ cost is often described as a percentage of the inventory value.

92. EOQ stands for ______________

94. ______________ is an important tool to minimize the cost of inventory

95. Setup cost is used in __________ equation

97. ______________ is an important tool to minimize the cost of inventory

98.VED stands for _____________

99.___________ inventory is a management system in which material is produced only as

41. D. Steel mills

61. C. Materials Requirements Planning

Objective Type Questions

1. The only feasible purpose of financial management is

2. Finance Function comprises

3. The objective of wealth maximization takes into account

4. The appropriate objective of an enterprise is:

5. "Shareholder wealth" in a firm is represented by:

6. The long-run objective of financial management is to:

8. Financial management process deals with