1100 Qna PPT by Serote Quiz

Property, Patrimony & Territory
(Foundations of Land Use

Planning) By ERNESTO M.
SEROTE & Supplemental QnA
of RA 7160
1100 EnP
QnA
PRACTICE
QUIZ
Recompiled by : RA.Abao & SELF-REVIEW ONLINE GRP ENP 2018
Chapter 1 – Essential Concepts Related to Land Use Planning
1. According to Serote, land definition has 4 senses?
I. Common sense
II. Legal sense
III. Economic sense
IV. Ecological sense
V. Stability sense
A. I,II,V B. I,II,III,V C. I,II,III,IV,V D.I,II,III,IV,V
2. According to Serote, concept of land use planning evokes the following?

I. LAND
II. CLUP
III. LAND USE
IV. LAND USE PLANNING
A. I.II. B. I.III.IV C. I.II.III.IV D. II.III.IV
3. On the global scale, the solid portion of the earth has how many percent?
A. 29 B. 30 C. 31 D. 32
4. When urban land is to be used as a site, it attributes to the land parcel

to critical importance:
I. LOAD BEARING CAPACITY

II. LOCATION
III. CLIMATE
IV. LAND
A. I.II B. I.II.IV C. I.II.III.IV.V D. I.III.IV
5. The 5 determinants of urban land value formulated by Eugene F. Brigham

refer to...
I. ACCESSIBILITY
II. AMENITY
III.TOPOGRAPHY
IV. UTILIZATION
V. HISTORY FACTOR
VI.CLIMATE
A. I.II.III.IV.V
B. I.II.III.VI
C. I.III.IV.V
D. II.III.IV.V.VI
6. In Serote's concept of land use planning, in his economic sense, land used as site is
more profitable than land used as....
A. SOLID B. SOIL C. SURFACE D. PUBLIC DOMAIN
7. The Serote's broad concepts of land refer to....
I. NATURAL RESOURCE
II. ECONOMIC GOOD
III. PROPERTY
IV. TERRITORY
V. LAND USE
A. I.II.III.IV.V
B. I.II.III.IV
C. I.II.III
D. III.IV.V
8. How many numbers of site or area characteristics that make a prized location for
residential development as enumerated by Homer Hoyt in this book of Serote?
A. 12 B. 10 C. 9 D. 8
9. The distinctive colors of Serote as mentioned in his PPT book are the following:
I. Green
II. Blue
III. Red
IV. Yellow
V. Brown
A. I.II.III.IV.V
B. I.II.V
C. II.III.IV.V
D. I.III.IV
10. The socio-economic is represented by ________ color.
A. Blue B. Violet C. Brown D. Yellow
11. In Serote’s broad concepts of land, it conceives as any as the ff…
I. Natural Resource
II. Economic Good
III. Property
IV. Territory
V. Weather
A. I.II.V B. I.II.III.IV C. II.III.IV.V D. I.II.III.IV.V
12. Who defines that state-sovereignty as a double claim, inward and outward?
A. Ernest Burguess
B. Homer Hoyt
C. Christopher Reeves
D. Immanuel Wallerstein
13. It is the assertion that within its boundaries the state may pursue whatever policies it
deems wise, decree whatever laws it deems necessary, and that it may do this without
any individual, group or sub-state structure inside the state having the right to refuse
to obey the law.
A. Inward-looking sovereignty
B. Outward-looking sovereignty
C. Inside-looking sovereignty
D. Outside-looking sovereignty
14. The “The Three Arshins of Land” is written by a Russian writer named
_____________.
A. George W. Bush
B. Steve Smith
C. Michael Todarro
D. Anton Checkov
15. The principles of T. Nicolaus Tideman on territorial claim of nation and sub-nation are
the ff…
I. Might makes right

II. Claim is in accord with history
III. Make no choice
IV. Inward-looking sovereignty
V. Cash in the Trash
A. I.II B. I.II.III.IV.V C. III.IV.V D. I.II.III.IV
16. Land use pertains to board categories whereas _________ pertains to specific uses
of smaller areas.
A. Land Use Plan B. Land utilization C. CLUP D. CDP
17. A poem wrote by Carl Sandburg co-relates to the restorative power of nature was
entitled ____________.
A. Bamboo B. Grass C. Lemon Grass D. Grass root
18. Types of land conversion are as follows:
I. Reversible
II. Removable
III. Convertible
IV. Transferable
V. Irreversible
A. I.II.III.IV.V B. I.V C. II.III.V D. I.III.IV.V
19. Type of land conversion occurs when the original character of the land is changed to
such a degree that reversal to its former use or condition becomes very difficult if not
impossible.
A. Irreversible
B. Tangible
C. Convertible
D. Reversible
20. ___________ pertains to the ability of a given unit of land source to produce a net
return above the production costs associated with its use.
A. economic stability
B. economic status
C. economic use capacity
D. economic changes
21. In Serote’s land use capacity, carrying capacity pertains to the intensity of a particular
use in which a land unit can be put without causing significant damage to the
___________.
A. Land use
B. Land resource
C. Landmark
D. Landing area
22. Economic linkages as basis for compatibility among combined land uses can comes
in a number of forms.
I. forward & backward

II. distribution or services
III. residentiary
IV. subsidiary
V. inward & outward
A. I.III.IV B. I.II.III C. I.II.III.IV.V D. III.IV.V
23. Types of zoning practice derive their justification from the concept of compatibility.
I. Exclusionary zoning
II. Zoning ordinance
III. Mixed-use zoning
IV. Zonification
VI. provision of zoning
A. I.II.III.IV.V B. I.II.IV.V. C. II.III.IV D. I.III
24. Assigns to discrete exclusive areas activities that are incompatible.
A. Mixed-used zoning
B. Zoning ordinance
C. Exclusionary zoning
D. Provision of zoning
25. Based on Venn diagram, these are the general groups of urban activities.
I. work
II. sport
III. live
IV. dance
V. play
A. I.II.III.IV.V B. I.III.V C. II.III.IV D. I.III.IV.V
26. In land classification diagram, what are the group the defines the publicly developed
area?
I. streets
II. railroad property
III. parks and playgrounds
IV. public and semi-public property
V. superhighways
A. I.II.III B. I.II.III.IV C. II.III.V D. II.III.IV.V
27. In land use categories, functional characteristics refer to…
I. type of activity
II. transportation model
III. The product of the activity
IV. road pattern
V.The facilities of the activity
A. I.III.V B. I.II.III.IV.V C. II.III.V D. I.III.IV.V
28. These refer to the general land use categories…
I. protection land use

II. settlement development
III. production land use
IV. Infrastructure development
V. ancestral domain
A. I.II.III.IV.V B. I.II.III.IV C. II.IV.V D. I.II.IV.V
29. It is a phenomenon characterized by a given land unit accommodating more than one
type of land use.
A. Land use plan

B. Mixed land use
C. Urban land use
D. Eminent domain
30. For dominant land use Class A, what is the percent area covered?
A. 40-50 B. 70-80 C.60-70 D. 90-100
31. The ____________________ definition of land is that solid portion of earth’s surface
on which we stand, walk, build our homes, raise our garden or produce our crops.
a. Common sense
b. legal sense
c. economic sense
d. ecological sense
32. The ____________ part also covered 71% or 367 million square kilometers of the
earth surface.
a. Polarized cap
b. land
c. air
d. water
33. The 1% was the polar ice cap that included in the land portion and a simple reason
explained by ________________ that at prevailing temperatures the ice caps remain
permanently solid.
a. L. Dudley Stamp
b. Terry Chaplin
c. Alexander Grahambel
d. Albert Einstein
34. _______________ refers to the this outer layer of the earth’s crust which varies in
thickness from up to 32 kilometers beneath the continental mass to only 8 kilometers
below the ocean floor of seabed.
a. stratosphere
b. surface
c. mantel
d. core
35. Factors that constrain us from making use of any piece of land.
I. Geophysical
II. Environmental
III. Social
IV. Economic
V. Climatic
a. I,III,IV,V
b. I,II,III,IV
c. I,II,III,IV,V
d. II,III,V
36. Considered “good” lands which soil has adequate water, good drainage and
abundant sunlight.
I. Flat
II. Deep
III. Fertile
IV. Good weather
V. Habited
a. I,II,III,V
b. I,II,III
c. I,II,III,IV,V
d. II,III,V
37. Land defined as any ground, soil or earth that is regarded as the subject of
ownership and everything annexed to in whether by nature or by human extending
indefinitely vertically upwards and downwards.
a. Common sense
b. economic sense
c. legal sense
d. ecological sense
38. From legal sense perspective, the operative term is __________________.
a. subject of ownership
b. being owned
c. reaches to heaven
d. man-made
39. According to _________________, land is not a simply a physical entity but also “an
element of nature inextricably interwoven by man’s institutions”.
a. Einstein
b. Smith
c. Polanyi
d. Serote
40. Whoever owns land also owns everything annexed to it either by nature or by man.
a. Bill of right
b. ownership right
c. right of suffrage
d. right to claim
41. The upward and downward extension of surface owner can effectively exercise his
rights with _______________ limitations.
I. Technical
II. Economical
III. Physical
IV. Practical
V. Legal
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. I,II,III
c. I,IV,V
d. II,III,IV,V
42. Today __________________ that easily dwarf the tower of Babel pierce the skylines
of major cities of the world.
I. Skycrappers
II. Cathedral spires
III. Communication towers
IV. Minarets
V. High tension towers
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. II,III,IV,V
c. I,III,IV,V
d. I,II,III,IV
43. According to _______________, land refers to “surface resources together with the
thin layer of subsurface and supra-surface resources man uses in his daily life”.
a. Owen
b. Barlowe
c. Serote
d. Hoyt
44. Land is a natural resource but it can also be man-made, as such it is often regarded
as a good or a commodity that can be supplied anything that satisfies human wants.
a. economic sense
b. legal sense
c. common sense
d. ecological sense
45. Not all land surface in the earth can be utilized by man, it could be augmented
through the introduction of human labor and capital investment, such as;
I. Reclamation
II. Urban Renewal
III. Land drainage
IV. Terracing
V. Urban development
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. II,III,IV,V
c. I,II,III,IV
d. I,III,V
46. Social dimension of land scarcity refers to the unequal distribution of property rights
and it usually favored to _____________________.
I. Politicians
II. Militaries
III. IPs
IV. Power clans
V. Rich families
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. IV,V
c. I,II,III,IV
d. I,II,III
47. Land is regarded as ____________________ when it is used or enjoyed in a way

that no further production or processing is required.
a. Factor of production
b. consumption of good
c. production of good
d. factor of consumption
48. In consumption of good, land can be enjoyed with outdoor recreation or ecotourism
activities, such as;
I. Trekking
II. Photo safari
III. Birds’ watching
IV. Picnic
V. Hunting
a. I,II,III,IV
b. I,II,III,IV,V
c. I,II,III
d. II,III,IV
49. In ________________, land is taken along with capital, labor and management.
a. Consumption of good
b. production of good
c. factor of consumption
d. factor of production
50. In factor of production, land activities are associated with resource extraction, such
as;
I. Crop growing
II. Livestock raising
III. Dairying
IV. Fisheries
V. Mining & Quarrying
a. I,II,III,IV
b. II,III,IV,V
c. I,II,III,IV,V
d. I,II,V
(Chapter 2 – Determinants of Land Use Decisions (Physical Determinants of Land

Use)
51. All except one Under the Philippines Constitution the State shall regulate the absolute
right to the following over the land as property remain with the state which exercises
sovereignty over all lands within its territory.
I.acquisition
II.ownership
III. land Use
IV. use
V. disposition of property and its increments
a.I,II,IV,V
b.II,III,IV,V
c. I,II,III,IV
d. I,II,III,IV,V
52. Is the power of the State to retake private property for development by itself or
through various arrangement s with private developers.
a. Public Ownership
b. Public Domain
c. Eminent Domain
d. Land Acquisitions
53. The following actions are the summary of public intervention in land use.
I. Guide the use of land to promote advantageous development of the community
II. Curb the misuse of land so that it will not injuriously affect the interest of the
community
III. Prevent the abuse of land to preserve its integrity and ecological balance
IV. Discourage the non-use or disuse of land to make it
productive.
V. Encourage the re-use of land for more appropriate
purposes.
a. I,II,III,IV
b. II,III,IV,V
c. III,IV,V
d. I,II,III,IV,V
54. According to Serote, the following are the general determinants of land use
decisions.
I. Physical Factors
II. Social Factors
III. Infrastructure Factors
IV. Settlement Factors
V. Economic Factors
a. I,II,III
b. II,III,IV,V
c. I,II,III,IV,V,
d. I,II,V
55. These physical and natural features are considered determinants of land decisions
especially when the intended use of the land is an input to the production process.
I. Topography
II. Geology
III. Climate
IV. Land Capability or Suitability
V. Pedo- Ecological Zones
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. II,III,IV,V
c. I,II,III,
d. IV,V
56. According to Serote, the following are the geological elements useful in Urban and
Regional Planning.
I. Geomorphology
II. Soils
III. Climate
IV. Hydrogeology
V. Land Capability
a. I,II,IV
b. II,III,IV,V
c. II,III,V
d. III,V
57. These major categories of climate refers to the meteorological conditions and
patterns over a large or regional area and found within the small spaces or local areas.
I. Micro-Climate
II. Solar Radiation
III. Ocean Currents
IV. Macro-Climate
V. Wind Intensity
a. I,IV
b. II,III,IV,V
c. II,III,V
d. II,V
58. According to Bureau of Soils this capability classes of land are very good agricultural
land with level to nearby level (0-3% slope ) deep soil, well drained and with high natural
fertility. This land class can be cultivated safely to clean -tilled or row crops with simple
but good farming practices.
a. Class B
b. Class A
c. Class D
d. Class C
59. According to Bureau of Soils the following are the Land Capability Classes adapted
from the US Dept of Agriculture.
I. A,B,C,D
II. E,F,G,H
III. I,J,K
IV. L,M,N,
V. X,Y
a. I,IV,V
b. II,III,IV
c. II,III,V
d. I,V
60. According to the Bureau of Soils and Water Management (BSWM) the following are
the pedo-ecological zone.
I. Warm Pedo-Ecological Regions

II. Hot Land Pedo-Ecological Regions
III. Cold Land Ecological Regions
IV. Warm-Cool Pedo-Ecological Regions
V. Cool Pedo- Ecological Regions
a. I,V
b. I,II,III,IV,V
c. II,III
d. I,IV,V
61. The FMB recommends a ______ slope for drainage and sewage flow.
a. 2%
b. 3%
c. 6%
d. 7%
62. Percentage of slope for moderately sloping to strongly rolling

a. 3-8%
b. 8-18%
c. 30-50%
d. 0-3%
63. Under topography of physical determinants; some of the major topographic feature
are
______________.
I. Slope
II. Relief
III. Position
IV. Size and Shape
V. Land Cover
a. I, III, IV, V
b. I, II, III, IV
c. II, III, IV V
d. I, II, III, IV, V
64. The following are the stakeholders in the land who will play the important part in the
final decision on how that particular land or site will be used.
I. The owner of the property

II. Individuals of groups who are not the owners of the affected land
parcels III. Advocacy groups who seek to promote social justice and
equity
IV. National government agency
V. Local Government Unit (LGU)
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, III, V
c. II, III, IV, V
65. The physical determinants that is important in land use decisions because it affect the
cost of productions, the cost of land development, the cost of laying networks and
infrastructure , the cost of conveyance of water , drainage and sewage, and the rate of
erosion.
a. Topography
b. Geology
c. Climate
d. Land Capability
e. Land Suitability
66. The relatives steepness of a land surface.
a. Slope
b. Ratio
c. Position
d. Size and shape
67. Refers to the gradient or inclination of surface expressed as the ratio of the vertical
rise to the horizontal run.
a. Horizontal Inclination
b. Vertical Inclination
c. Slope
d. Rise and Run
68. The recommends ______ slope is limit for road construction.
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 2%
d. 7%
69. Percentage of slope for very gently to moderate sloping undulating.
a. 3-8%
b. 8-18%
c. 30-50%
d. 0-3%
70. Percentage of slope for strongly rolling to hilly terrain.
a. 3-8%
b. 8-18%
c. 30-50%
d. 18-30%
71. Percentage of slope for very steep terrain.
a. 3-8%
b. 8-18%
c. 30-50%
d. Above 50%
72. Percentage of slope for hilly to mountainous terrain.
a. 3-8%
b. 8-18%
c. 30-50%
d. Above 50%
73. The housing agencies recommends a ______ slope as the limit for urban and
agriculture uses.
a. 3%
b. 30%
c. 18%
d.7%
74. This is important in the siting of certain activities for maximum capture of sunlight,
for shelter from storms or wind (leeward), or when strong wind velocity is desired
(windward)
a. Orientation or aspect
b. Shape and size
c. Northing and Easting
d. Azimuth Projection
75. This topographic features refers to the general configuration of the earth's surface
characterized by unevenness of differences in altitude and slopes the affect the cost of
land development as leveling or grading may be necessary.
a. Slope
b. Relief
c. Position
d. Size and Shape
e. Land Cover
76. This topographic features as, for examples, when the site is relatively isolated and
inaccessible, or is located in high elevation, increases development and operating cost.
a. Slope
b. Relief
c. Position
d. Size and Shape
e. Land Cover
77. Topographic conditions in the form of vegetations or rock outcrops that reduce the
productivity of the land if these are not removed.
a. Slope
b. Relief
c. Position
d. Size and Shape
e. Land Cover
78. The physical determinants that understand the rock and mineral structure of the
earth crust is vital in identifying the appropriate land use and determining the intensity of
such use.
a. Topography
b. Geology
c. Climate
d. Land Capability
79. This geological element that is useful for urban and regional planning refers to the
different landforms occurring on the surface of the earth, such as mountains, plains,
coastal areas and the like.
a. Mountains
b. Plains
c. Coastal Areas
d. Geomorphology
80. Landforms which rise to height of no less than 300m (1000ft), above a narrow
summit and steep slopes.
a. Mount Everest
b. Mount Apo
c. Mountain
d. Volcano
81. Band of dry land and adjacent ocean space (water and submerged land) in which
the territorial processes and uses directly affect oceanic processes and uses.
a. Coastal Areas
b. Coastal Land
c. Shoreline
d. Swamplands
82. This geological element are the thin upper layer of the surface of the earth
composed of a mixture of fragments of rocks, water, air and organic matters.
a. Sand
b. Soil
c. Sediments
d. Rock formation
83. The following are the characteristics of soil.
I. Soil texture
II. Soil structure
III. Soil fertility
IV. Soil erosion
V. Sandy soil
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, III ,IV
c. I, II, IV, V
84. The following are the basic soil texture.
I. Sand
II. Silt
III. Clay
IV. Loam
V. Rocky soil
a. I, II, III, IV
b. II, III, IV
c. II, III, IV, V
d. I, II III, IV, V
85. Soil particles with a diameter of less than 0.002mm.
a. Clay
b. Silt
c. Sand
d. Gravel
86. Soil particles with a diameter of 0.002 - 0.06mm.
a. Clay
b. Silt
c. Sand
d. Gravel
87. Soil particles with a diameter of 0.06 - 2.0mm.
a. Clay
b. Silt
c. Sand
d. Gravel
88. Soil particles with a diameter more than 2.0mm.
a. Clay
b. Silt
c. Sand
d. Gravel
89. Important processes involving soils but are not exactly treated as soil characteristics
are the following;
I. Soil texture
II. Soil structure
III. Soil fertility
IV. Soil erosion
V. Soil drainage
a. I, II, III
b. IV, V
c. III, IV, V
d. II, IV, V
90. The searing away of land surface by running water, wind, ice and other geologic
agents and by physical processes like gravity.
a. Soil structure
b. Soil fertility
c. Soil erosion
d. Soil drainage
91. Refers to the relative rapidity and extent of the removal of water from the surface
and from within the soil under natural conditions.
a. Soil structure
b. Soil fertility
c. Soil erosion
d. Soil drainage
92. The rainwater that flows on the ground surface is called.
a. Rain water
b. Soil water
c. Runoff
d. Rainfall
93. Pertains to the subsurface water or aquifer.
a. Geomorphology
b. Soil
c. Soil Erosion
d. Hydrogeology
94. Factors affecting recharge;
I. Rainfall
II. Slope of the Land
III. Porosity of rock formation
IV. Permeability of rock formation
V. Nature of rock strata
VI. Presence of vegetation
VII. Atmospheric Humidity
a. I, II, III, IV
b. V, VI, VII
c. I, II, III, IV, V, VI
d. Both A & B
95. This natural feature is considered determinants of land decisions that heavily
influence physical and biological factors like temperature, sunlight, precipitation, humidity
and atmospheric pressure.
a. Topography
b. Geology
c. Climate
d. Land Capability
e. Land Suitability
96. The following are the important elements of micro-climate.
I. Ventilation
II. Fog
III. Frost
IV. Solar radiation
V. Vegetation changes
a. I, II, III
b. IV, V
c. II, III, IV, V
97. Considered as determinants of land decisions according to BSWM as a new concept

of land characteristics that are determined on the basis of a combination of topographical
and geological characteristic of the land.
a. Topography
b. Geology
c. Climate
d. Pedo-ecological Zones
98. These are landscape strips in the low elevation of less than 100 meters above sea
level (asl) and with slope ranging from 0 to 18%.
a. Warm Pedo-Ecological Regions

b. Low Land Pedo-Ecological Zones
c. Warm-Cool Pedo-Ecological Regions
d.Cool Pedo- Ecological Regions
99.These landscape strips represents a wide environmental wedge that separate the
distinct warm and cool regions.

b. Upland Pedo-Ecological Regions
d.Cool Pedo- Ecological Regions
100. These zones are the elevated landscape strips located above the floodplains within
the 500 meters elevations and with slopes ranging from 8% to 18%. Also represent the
border strips that separate public land from alienable and disposable (A&D) lands or lands
with less than 18% slope.
b. Upland Pedo-Ecological Zones
d. Cool Pedo- Ecological Regions
101. These zones includes the low and steep hills and mountains within the 500 meters
above with slope greater than 18%
a. Upland Pedo-Ecological Zones

b. Warm-Cool Pedo-Ecological Regions
c. Cool Pedo- Ecological Regions
d. Hilly and Mountain Pedo-Ecological Zones
102. These are landscape strips above the 500 meters elevation. The average
temperature is, in general, less than 15 degree celsius with durations long enough to
cause severe frost and damage to some crops.
a. Upland Pedo-Ecological Zones

b. Warm-Cool Pedo-Ecological Regions
c. Cool Pedo- Ecological Regions
d. Hilly and Mountain Pedo-Ecological Zones
103. Factors considered in the evaluation of cost & benefits of alternative use to arrive at
the highest and best use for a particular parcel of land.
a. Physical determinants
b. Social determinants
c. Economic determinants
d. Socio-Economic determinants
104. A commercial establishment that is more accessible to its customer is more likely to
generate ________.
a. Greater volume of cost and benefits than one that is more remote
b. Greater volume of business than one that is more remote.
c. Greater volume of Demand and supply than one that is more remote
d. Greater volume of Income tax than one that is more remote
105. Benefits of land use utilization are varied and are MOSTLY expressed in terms of
________________.
I. Money value
II. Estimated value of mineral deposits
III. General increase in land value as a result of its use.
IV. Accruing on account of its location
a. I,II,III
b. I,III
c. I,IV
d. I II III IV
106. Non-quantifiable value w/c is the collective subjective perception of different

individuals.
a. Amenity
b. Utility
c. Beauty
d. Cemetery
107. Before a land can acquire much economic value it should be made accessible for
use through the application of ____________.
a. Cost & Benefit

b. Capital & Labor
c. Beauty & the beast
d. Amenity& Utility
108. In the market, the concept of land value is useful when land is regarded as a
consumption good that is
I. Traded
II. Exchanged
III. Exposed
IV. Developed
a. I,IV
b. I,II
c. III,IV
d. I,II,III,IV
109. Market price can only be taken as equal to market value when consideration is taken
of
a. The relationship between seller and buyer

b. The terms of the sale and the conditions of the market
c. The effect of the passage of time since the sale was made.
d. AOTA
110. A land valuation formulas that has a general application is accdg.to.
a. Paul F. Wendt
b. E.F Brigham
c. Paul F. Wendell
d. E.F Burham
111. The reluctance of landowner to transfer title to their heirs while the former are still
alive.
a. Salot
b. Sakim
c. Hiya
d. Tapang
112. RA 8371 means:
a. LGC
b. IPRA
c. PEZA
d. HLURB
113. Instrument w/c have been instituted by society to regulate the exercise of certain
basic rights pertaining to property on land.
a. Production right
b. Land use controls
c. Land Policy
d. Pecuniary right
114. The value of a particular urban site is a function of its
I.Accessibility to economic activities

II.Existing Amenities
III. Geography
IV. Present and future use
V. Historical factors that affect utilization.
a. I,II,III,IV
b. II,III,IV,V
c .I,III,IV,V
d. I,II,IV,V
115. Restrictive right is the right of the owner not to develop the land, and which again
can be the subject of __________?
a. Eminent domain
b. IPRA
c. Idle land tax
d. Land use controls
116. The benefits of land utilization are varied and are mostly expressed in the terms
of______________.
a. Money value
b. Cost value
c. Income Value
d. Price value
(Chapter 3 – Land Use Planning in the Philippines – Philosophy, Politics, Practice (

Land and The Filipino – Politics of Land Use Planning )
117. These are three interlocking dimensions of land use planning:
I. Technical
II. Political
III. Historical
IV. Ideological
V. Scientific
a. I.II.III
b. I.II.IV
c. II,III,IV
d. I.III.V
118. Acquires land by all means, fair and foul, like the protagonist in Checkov's "Three
Aishins of Land", with the frenzy of one racing against the setting sun.
a. The Acquirer
b. The Accumulator
c. The Possessor
d. The Dispossessed
119. It deals with the underlying social philosophy of land.
a. Political Dimension
b. Technical Dimension
c. Ideological Dimension
d. Historical Dimension
120. It involves the approaches, methods and techniques used to determine the proper
location of, and allocation of spate for the different land using activities.
121. They seek to acquire whatever land there is from any source including traders in
"rights" over lands they have no right to sell in the first place and once they have acquired
"title" to their land, they defend their possession literally to the death.
a. The Deprived
b. The Displaced
c. The Disinherited
d. The Dispossessed
122. It relates to the development of policies, guidelines and criteria for proper
management of land resources, including the sharing of responsibility between the
national government and local governments in various aspects of land use planning.
123. To the one who acquired too much, land is life - and more, as it adds to the holder
the following:
I. Social Status
II. Enormous Wealth
III. Political Power
IV. Pride
V. Popularity
a. I.II.III
b. II.III.V
c. II.III.IV
d. I.II.IV
124. These Historians, excluding one, believe that private property in land was non-
existent in the pre-Spanish Filipino society. Barangay chiefs merely administered the
lands in the name of the barangay which ensured that every individual had a share of
community resources, regardless of status.
a. Renato D. Constantino
b. Teodoro A. Agoncillo
c. Samuel K. Tan
d. J.H. Parry
125. They were the ones who introduced the "Regalian doctrine" by virtue of which all
lands belonged to the King because he had invested in the expeditions of discovery,
conquest and pacification.
a. Americans
b. Spaniards
c. Muslims
d. Barangays
126. Under this system the title of the grantee or transferee is made binding against the
whole world, including the government, as soon as the deed of transfer shall have been
presented and registered in the office of the register of deeds.
a. Torrens System
b. Recording System
c. American-style land reform
d. Native Private Landholdings
127. Under the Public Land Act (Commonwealth Act 141) of 1936, lands in the public
domain were classified into:
I. Timberlands
II. Mineral lands
III. Recreational lands
IV. Agricultural lands
V. Transport
a. I,II,III
b. II,III,IV
c. I,II.IV
d. II,III,V
128. Under the Law (CA 141), methods of public agricultural land disposition, after these
had been released as being no longer needed for forest or public purposes, were
instituted, each with defined maximum limits of hectares, namely:
I. by homestead settlement
II. sale by open bidding
III. lease
IV. through judicial legalization or by administrative action
a. I.II.III
b. I.II.IV
c. II.III.IV
d. I.II.III.IV
129. They were the ones who introduced the practice of land subdivision and the
business of selling subdivided lots in the Philippines.
a. Americans
b. Spaniards
c. Muslims
d. Japanese
130. This private business is largely responsible for modifying the urban form of most
cities in the Philippines throughout the rest of the 20th century.
a. Real Estate
b. Transportation
c. Recreational
d. Agricultural
131. Two types of Landed Interest:
I. agricultural estate
II. urban real estate
III. Industrial real estate
IV. commercial real estate
a. I & II
b. I & III
c. I & IV
d. II & III
132. Following the effectively of the 1987 Constitution, a new land classification scheme
was set up wherein all lands are divided into:
I. private lands
II. timberlands
III. mineral lands
IV. lands of the public domain
V. alienable & disposable
a. I & II
b. II.III.V
c. I & IV
d. I. IV & V
133. Lands in the public domain that are disposable and hence available for alienation
for various purposes are:
I. agricultural
II. Residential
III. Commercial
IV. Institutional
V. educational
VI. town sites
a. I.II.III.IV
b. II.III.IV.V
c. II.III.V.VI
d. AOTA
134. Lands in the public domain that are non-disposable and therefore not available for
alienation are :
I. natural parks
II. mineral lands
III. forest lands
IV. fields
V. open sites
a. I.II.IV
b. I.II.III
c. II.III.IV
d. I.II.III.IV
135. The extent of public easements as defined in the Revised Forestry Code (PD 705)
and in the Philippine Water Code (PD 1067) state that "The banks of rivers and streams
and the shores of the seas and lakes throughout their entire length and within a zone of
___ meters in urban areas, ____ meters in agricultural areas and ____ meters in forest
areas ... are subject to the easement of public use...."
a. 3, 20, 40
b. 6, 25, 40
c. 2, 25, 40
d. 3, 20, 60
136. These are the roles of LGUs in the EIA (Environmental Impact Assessment)
process:
I. Mandatory Representation in the Scoping Session

II. Membership in the EIA Review Committee
III. Active Participation in Public Consultations
IV. Mandatory Membership in the Multi-partite Monitoring Team
V. Share in the Utilization of the Environmental Guarantee Fund.
a. I.II.III.IV
b. II.III.IV.V
c. I.III.IV.V
d. AOTA
137. The DENR has devolved to LGUs the following land management functions:
I. conduct of cadastral survey

II. conduct of lot survey
III. conduct of isolated and special surveys
IV. verification of survey returns
V. issuance of patents
a. I.II.III
b. II.III.IV
c. I.II.IV
d. I.II.V
138. In the pre-Spanish Filipino society, they were the native principalia in towns, who in
return for their services of collecting taxes and organizing forced-labor gangs, received
land grants from the Spaniards, thus, from holders of land in trust for the community,
became the actual owners of erstwhile common lands.
a. Gobernadorcillos
b. Alcaldes
c. Cabeza de barangays
d. Datus
139. The second instance of unequal land distribution in the Philippines, wherein this
time, the natives' own leaders became the large landowners.
a. Pre-colonial Practice
b. The Rise of Native Principalia
c. Recogniton of Native Private Landholdings by the Spaniards
d. Spanish Colonization
140. It is called “realengas” which concept is roughly equivalent to that of public domain.
From the lands of the public domain, the King awarded large land grants to non-Filipinos,
particularly those Spaniards who took part in the conquest and pacification campaigns in
other parts of the world.
a. Reward land
b. Prize land
c. Grant Land
d. Crown Land
141. It was during this time that the Filipinos saw the first appearance of lopsided
distribution of land in favor of non-natives. Ownership of land was a right or privilege
bestowed by the king. Thus, the Filipinos lost their ancestral rights to land.
a. Pre-colonial Practice
b. The Rise of Native Principalia
c. Recogniton of Native Private Landholdings by the Spaniards
d. Spanish Colonization
142. Nicholas P.Cushner, author of "Slice of the Land Pie: How our ancestors were
stripped of their ancestral landholdings'', referred to them as "opportunistic Judases who
betrayed their people by selling their communal lands.. . Thus, from their positions of
authority they took quick advantage of the new economic and political reality to sell lands
which were not theirs to sell".
a. Spaniards
b. Native Principalia
c. Americans
d. Muslims
143. This is the third and most far-reaching moment of skewed land distribution in the
Philippines. It led to a vast social transformation characterized by "a few large landholders
and an army of landless peasants who either worked as feudal peons or went adrift as
landless laborers or vagamundos”.
a. Land Acquisition
b. The Rise of Landed Estate
c. Recognition of Native Private Landholdings by the Spaniards
d. American-Style Land Reform
144. They were the non-cultivating tenants who leased relatively large tracts of church
lands for fixed annual cash rent. At the change-over of colonial rule from the Spaniards
to the Americans, these former renters became the new hacienderos, courtesy of
American-style land reform.
a. Friars
b. Big inquilinos
c. Small inquilinos
d. Aparceros
145. In this major act, the principalia class became the big landowners twice over and the
already skewed land distribution pattern even during the Spanish regime has
exacerbated. Almost all the lands purchased from the Vatican ended up as haciendas
owned by Filipinos of the upper class.
a. Land Acquisition
b. The Rise of Landed Estate
c. Torrens Title System
d. American-Style Land Reform
146. By this method of land disposition, an individual can purchase up to 124 hectares;
a corporation up to 1,024 hectares.
a. by homestead settlement
b. sale by open bidding
c. lease
d. through judicial legalization or by administrative action
147. A method of land disposition whereby one can apply for a maximum of 1,024
hectares if intended for cultivation; 2,000 hectares if to be used for grazing.
a. by homestead settlement
c. lease
d. through judicial legalization or by administrative action
148. The Law (CA 141) has also opened the door for confirmation of imperfect or
incomplete titles to lands of the public domain of up to 24 hectares. This could be done
either through
___________.
a. homestead settlement
c. lease
d. judicial legalization or by administrative action
149. What is the percentage of open space requirement on subdivision developments.

(p.94)
a. 20%
b. 25%
c. 30%
d. 32%
150. Who is responsible for providing non-subdivision dwellers the needed healthy and
wholesome environment through the establishment of public open spaces?
a. DENR
b. DSWD
c. LGUs
d. CARE
151. Under the 1991 Local Government Code (RA 7160), they are mandated to co-
manage with the national government the natural resources and the environment through
the mechanism of devolution of DENR-functions.
a. LGUs
b. DSWD
c. ENRO
d. CARE
152. They are considered agents of persons in authority, designated by law or ordinances
to maintain a desirable and balanced environment or who come to the aid of persons in
authority who protect the environment.
a. Municipalities
b. Barangay officials and members
c. Provincial Government
d. CARE
153. As defined in DAO 30-92, it is "a tract of forest land set aside by the Secretary of the
DENR for use of the residents of a municipality from which said residents may cut, collect
and remove forest products for their personal use in accordance with existing laws and
regulations."
a. mineral lands
b. agricultural lands
c. communal forest
d. timberlands
154. This law allows each LGU to apply for up to a maximum of 5,000 hectares to manage
as its communal forest. To date, very few LGUs are known to have availed of this
opportunity and responsibility.
a. RA 7160
b. DAO 30-92
c. RA 7586
d. RA 7076
155. A modality of co-management as an alternative to devolution patterned after two

seemingly exceptional cases, those of the St. Paul Subterranean National Park in Puerto
Princessa, Palawan, and the Sagay Marine Reserve in Sagay City, Negros Occidental,
where both NIPAS areas have their Protected Area Management Boards (PAMB) jointly
chaired by the respective city mayors and the DENR Regional Executive Director (RED),
apparently deviating from the provision of the NIPAS Law (RA 7586) (p.96)
a. partnership
b. joint management
c. alliance
d. union
156. The devolved environmental management functions to be performed by the by

cities and municipalities within their territorial jurisdictions are as follows, except for one:
a. Issuance of Environmental Compliance Certificate to establishments registered

under Kalakalan 20
b. Implementation of solid waste management disposal
c. Abatement of noise and other forms of nuisance as defined by law
d. Implementation of Cease and Desist Orders issued by the Pollution Adjudication
Board
157. These, except for one, are identified as common polluters covered by the manual
of operations for environmental management pursuant to DAO 30-92:
a. industries
b. smoke-belching motor vehicles
c. fireplaces
d. other sources of noise and odor pollution
158. There is a strong feeling among LGUs that they are under-represented in the EIA
process. Being the locale of the proposed project and the direct receptor of the impacts
of the project, LGUs, it is felt, should be an active participant in every major step of the
EIA process. Among the suggested roles of LGUs are the following:
I. Mandatory Representation in the Scoping Session

II. Membership in the EIA Review Committee
III. Active Participation in Public Consultations
IV. Mandatory Membership in the Multi-partite Monitoring Team
V. Share in the Utilization of the Environmental Guarantee Fund
a. I.II.III.IV
b. II.III.IV.V
c. I.III.IV.V
d. AOTA
159. The law that spells out the policy and procedures for settlement of boundary
disputes which proceedings shall be initiated by the political officials.
a. Rule II of the Implementing Rules and Regulations of RA 7160
b. Rule III of the Implementing Rules and Regulations of RA 7160
c. Rule IV of the Implementing Rules and Regulations of RA 7160
d. Rule V of the Implementing Rules and Regulations of RA 7160
160. The following functions relative to mines and geo-sciences development have
been devolved to LGUs: (p.101)
I. Enforcement of the small-scale mining laws involving areas not declared as

government mineral reservations subject to policies, standards and guidelines of the
DENR
II. Issuance of permit for guano collection and to extract sand, gravel and other quarry
resources
III. Verification and adjudication of conflicts on the extraction of sand, gravel and other
quarry resources
IV. Imposition and collection of fees and charges on guano, sand, gravel and other
quarry resources
V. Award contracts to small-scale miners
a. I.II.III.IV
b. II.III.IV.V
c. I.III.IV.V
d. AOTA
161. Percentage of LGUs' share from the proceeds of utilization of natural resources.
(p.102)
a. 30%
b. 40%
c. 50%
d. 60%
162. The responsibility for ancestral domains is given by law (RA 8371) to the NCIP.
What is NCIP?
a. National Commission onIndigenous Peoples

b. National Commission for Independent Peoples
c. National Council for Intermediate Programs
d. National Commission for Independent Policies
163. As of March 2001, how many percentage of LGUs nationwide have already
prepared their town plans and zoning ordinances.
a. between 30% to 40%

b. between 40% to 50%
c. between 60% to 70%
d. between 70% to 80%
164. In an evaluation study conducted by the U.P. Planning and Development Research
Foundation (PLANADES) in 1984, the POSITIVE effects, with exception to one, of the
inter-agency local planning assistance programs were assessed as follows:
a. The program had introduced the rudiments of town planning to hundreds of people
through the learning-by-doing approach.
b. The program had created great expectations on the part of local officials regarding
what the plan can do to bring about development.
c. Hundreds of local chief executives were initiated into the planning process.
d. Regarding technology transfer, the members of planning
165. Under LGC 7160, the LGUs are mandated to co-manage the natural resources but
still DENR ruled on the following subjects.
I. Supervision
II. Control
III. Review
IV. Evaluate
V. Assess
a. III,IV,V
b. I,II,III,IV,V
c. I,II,III
d. I,II,III,IV
166. Problems encountered during the devolution of power from the DENR to LGUs are
the following:
I. Supervision, control and review are still by the DENR

II. Geographical area covered which is almost insignificant proportion of the LGUs
territorial jurisdiction
III.Lack of budget of LGUs.
IV. The LGUs haven’t enough capabilities in handling the devolved
responsibilities.
V. Lack of technical personnel
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. I,II
c. III,IV,V
d. I,II,III,IV,V
167. DENR devolved functions classified under the sectoral areas are as follows:
I. Forests
II. Protected areas
III.Environment
IV. Lands
V. Minerals
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. I,II,III
c. II,III,V
d. I,II,III,IV
168. The Integrated Social Forestry (ISF) projects retained by the DENR are also called
_______________.
a. Center for People’s Empowerment in the Upland (CPEU)

b. Upland Farmers Community-Based Projects
c. Socialized Projects for Upland Community
d. NOTA
169. The functions of forest management are devolved to the following:
I. Cities
II. Municipalities
III.Regions
IV. Provincies
V. Barangays
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. I,II,III,IV
c. I,II,III,V
d. I,II,IV,V
170. According to RA 7160 LGC allows the LGUs to apply for up to a maximum of
_______________ hectares to manage as its communal forest.
a. 10,000
b. 3,000
c. 5,000
d. 7,000
171. R.I.C.H. Project means…
a. Rescue for Important Conservation Hotspots

b. Rescue for Important Conservation Hotstops
c. Rescue of Conservation Important Hotdogs
d. Rescue for Important Conservation Hotshots
172. C.A.R.E. Project means…
a. City Awareness in Resources and Environment

b. Community Awareness in Resources and Environment
c. Community-based Awareness in Resources and Environment
d. City-based Awareness in Resources and Environment
173. The DENR has devolved to LGUs the following land management functions:
I. Conduct of cadastral survey

II. Conduct of scoping
III.Conduct of Evaluation
IV. Conduct of lot survey
V. Conduct of isolated and special surveys
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. I,II,IV,V
c. I,IV,V
d. I,III,IV
174. The following function which are part of the survey are still to be performed by the
DENR:
I. Issuance of survey authority

II. Verification of survey returns
III.Maintenance of official survey records and documents
IV. Issuance of patents
V. Other post-survey activities
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. b. II,IV,V
c. I,II,III,IV
d. IV,V
175. The policy and procedures for settlement of boundary dispute are spelled out in
________ of the IRR of RA 7160.
a. Rule VI
b. Rule V
c. Rule IV
d. Rule III
176. Rule III of the IRR of RA 7160 states that the settlement proceedings shall be
initiated by the _______________.
a. Public officials
b. Political Officials
c. Private Officials
d. AFP Officials
177. This board is created under the RA 7076 to administer the mines and geo-sciences
development of the provinces and cities.
a. Mining Regulatory Board

b. Ecological Solid Waste Mgt. Board
c. Local Zoning Board
d. Local Finance Board
178. According to LGC, LGUs are entitled to a share of _____ of all the proceeds of
utilization of natural resources.
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
179. In ____, the inter-agency National Coordinating Council for Town Planning,
Housing and Zoning (NCC-TPHZ) was organized to assist the cities and urban centers
in the preparation of town plans and zoning ordinances.
a. 1976
b. 1967
c. 1979
d. 1997
180. The analysis of the planning area includes the following:
I. Physical base
II. Population
III.Economic activities
IV. Social services
V. Local administrative capabilities
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. b. II,III,IV
c. I,III,V
d. I,II,IV,V
181. Next to National Coordinating Council for Town Planning, Housing and Zoning
(NCC-TPHZ) was ________________________ organized in the end of 1980.
a. Human Settlements Regulatory Commission (HSRC)

b. Human Settlements Regulatory Council (HSRC)
c. Human Settlements Regulatory Committee (HSRC)
d. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board (HLURB)
182. Agencies that have power to review and approve the local land use plan of
component cities and municipalities, highly urbanized cities and independent
component cities are as follows:
I. Sangguniang Panlungsod
II. Sangguniang Panlalawigan
III. Regional Development Council
IV. HLURB
V. DILG
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. II,IV,V
c. II,III,IV
d. I,II,III,IV
183. ___________ gives the NEDA and DILG an authority to formulate guidelines and
standards in relation to the existence of HLURB.
a. E.O. no. 72
b. E.O. no. 70
c. E.O. no. 71
d. E.O. no. 73
184. The easements for seas and rivers utilize as public use in urban, agricultural and
forest areas respectively are…
a. 3 meter, 10 meters, 40 meters

b. 3 meters, 20 meters, 40 meters
c. 3 meters, 20 meters, 30 meters
d. 3 meters, 20 meters, 50 meters
185. _______ is the open space requirement for subdivision developments to ensure
that the essential life support systems of local communities do not get completely built
over.
a. 30%
b. 40%
c. 50%
d. 60%
186. Part of the evolution of agencies managing human settlement issues and
concerned in the Philippines are the following:
VI. Human Settlement Regulatory Committee

VII. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
VIII. National Land Use Committee
IX. Committee on Human Settlement Management
X. Council for Human Settlement Management
a. I,II,III
b. I,II,III,IV,V
c. II,III,IV,V
d. I,III,V
187. ______________ authorizes that regulation of the agricultural land conversion.
a. HLURB
b. national government agency
d. sangguniang panlungsod
d. planning office
188. What particular national government agency that has the power to approve and
disapprove agricultural land conversion by virtue of Order 129-A, S. 1987 by the Office
of the President.
a. DAR
b. DOA
c. HLURB
d. Planning Office
e. City Council
189. Law that protects irrigated and irrigable agricultural lands.
a. RA 9003
b. RA 8749
c. RA 10121
d. RA 8435
190. What particular section in the RA 7160 LGC, prescribes procedures and
requirements that the LGUs must comply before the local legislative body can enact
ordinances reclassifying agricultural lands to other uses.
a. 20
b. 21
c. 22
d. 23
191. As of March 2001, between _______________ of LGUs nationwide have already

prepared their town plans and zoning ordinances.
a. 50% and 60%

b. 60% and 70%
c. 70% and 80%
d. 80% and 90%
192. What are the effects of inter-agency local planning assistance program study
evaluated by the U.P. Planning and Devt Research Foundation (UPPDRF)?
XI. Positive Effects
XII. Negative Effects
XIII. Neutral Effects
XIV. Usual Effects
XV. Planning Effects
a. I,II
b. I,II,III,IV,V
c. II,III,V
d. I,III,IV,V
193. This agency authorizes by law to formulate guidelines for land use conversion after
HSRC.
a. NLUC
b. HLURB
c. DAR
d. DOA
194. What are the categories cited most in this chapter?
XVI. Philosophy
XVII. Politics
XVIII. Practice
XIX. Economy
XX. Topography
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. I,II,III
c. I,II,IV,V
d. II,III,IV,V
(Chapter 4 – Institutional Framework for Land Use Planning (Organizational

Structure for Land Use Planning-Local Planning Structure)
195. The initiatives for Land Use Planning have emanated mainly from the
______________.
A. Executive branch of government (Bureaucracy)

B. Legislative branch of government
C. Senate and Congress
D. Judiciary branch
196. What year is the creation of National Urban Planning Commission?
A. 1950
B. 1946
C. 1972
D. 1983
E. 1948
197.What year is the creation of National Land Use Committee?

A. 1983
B. 1946
C. 1972
D. 1950
198. Who is the Chairman of the National Land Use Committee (NLUC)?
A. Deputy Director-General of NEDA

B. Secretary-General of HUDCC
C. Undersecretary of the DILG
D. Secretary-General of HLURB
199. The first physical planning body in the Philippines was created by virtue of Executive
Order no 98 by President Sergio Osmena.
A. Capital City Planning Commission (CCPC)

B. National Planning Commission (NPC)
C. National Land Use Committee (NLUC)
D. National Urban Planning Commission (NUPC)
200. The same EO 98 also empowered the National Planning Commission to organize
______________ (provincial and chartered cities) to which the Commission may delegate
its function.
A. Real Property Board

B. Capital City Planning Commission
C. Local Zoning Administrator
D. Local Planning Board
201. The increasing duplication of these planning bodies had given President Elpidio
Quirino the justification to abolish all existing bodies and consolidates their functions into
the
_______________. It also serves as the central planning body until it was abolished in
1792.
A. National Planning Commission
B. The Local Planning Board
C. City Planning Commission
D. National Urban Planning Commission
202. On September 19, 1973, this Executive Order created the Task Force of Human
Settlements (TFHS) to conduct a study on the nature, policy issues and strategies in the
pursuit of comprehensive and integrated human settlements program in the country.
A. EO 648
B. EO 98
C. EO 419
D. EO 90
203. By the virtue of PD 933, the Task Force of Human Settlements evolved from an ad
hoc agency into commission conferred with the status of a full-fledged government body.
A. Ministry of Human Settlements

B. Human Settlement Regulatory Commission
C. National Planning Commission
D. Human Settlement Commission
204. The following are the function of Human Settlement Commission;
I. National monitoring and planning assistance to interested LGUs, agencies and parties
II. Plan enforcement and regulations,
III. Metro Manila Area development planning
IV. Environmental Management,
V. Human settlements technology research and special projects
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, IV, V
C. II, III, IV, V
D. I, II, III, IV, V
205. On June 11, 1978, created under PD 1396, the Human Settlements Commission,
together with 30 other government entities was placed under the umbrella of the
_____________.
A. Ministry of Human Settlements

B. Human Settlements Regulatory Commission
C. Housing and Urban Development Coordination Council
D. National Planning Commission
206. Human Settlement Commission was renamed into ______________.

A. HLURB
B. HUDCC
C. HSRC
D. NHA
207. February 8, 1981, created the Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board (HLURB)
as the Human Settlements Regulatory Commission (HSRC) with the powers and
attributes of a quasi-judicial body.
A. EO 90
B. EO 72
C. EO 648
D. EO 71
208. What is the Law regulates the sales of Subdivision and Condominiums Buyer’s
Protective Decree.
A. PD 957
B. EO 648
C. BP 220
D. EO 90
209. This period was the best years for the real estate industry.
A. 1983 to 1990
B. 1982 to 1990
C. 1985 to 1995
D. 1980 to 1985
210. With the end of the dictatorship in 1986, Ministry of Human Settlements was
abolished and was replaced by the ____________________.
A. HSRC
B. HLURB
C. HUDCC
D. NLUC
211. December 17, 1986, renamed the HSRC to Housing and Land Use Regulatory
Board (HLURB) and designated it as a regulatory body for housing and land development.
A. EO 648
B. EO 71
C. EO 90
D. EO 72
212. This letter of instruction issued by President Marcos in the year 1983, providing for
the Institutional Framework for National Physical Planning and creating the National Land
Use Committee that was commissioned in particular to serve as the coordinating
mechanism and periodically revise an Integrated National Physical Framework Plan.
A. LOI 1035
B. LOI 1530
C. LOI 1151
D. LOI 1350
213. The following are the other task of National Land Use Committee;
I. Develop, compile, and reconcile actual and indicative national and regional land use
plans;
II. Coordinate and Integrate Physical Planning Activities; and
III. Coordinated related researches and survey undertaken by the various agencies.
IV. Provide technical assistance to city and municipal governments in making land use
plans and land capability decision maps
V. Formulate and prescribe national standards guidelines for zoning ordinances of city
and municipality.
A. I, II, III
B. IV, V
C. I, II, III, IV
214. All except one, the following are the functions of National Economic Development
Authority for the Physical Planning at the National and Regional levels.
I. Formulate and prescribe regional standards and guidelines for regional physical
framework plans, to be prepared by the RDC.
II. Provide technical assistance to the regions in the formulation of land use and land
capability decision maps;
III. Develop, in conjunction with the various appropriate government agencies, a database
system which would identify and classify the present and possible use of the specific land
areas, public and private comprising total land resources of the nations;
IV. Serve as the secretariat for the NLUC; and
V. Perform such other functions as may be necessary.
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. I, II, III, IV, V
D. I, II, IV, V
215. The Ministry of Local Government (MLG) (now _______________________) is

responsible for the general supervision of local government at the city and municipality
levels to ensure that preparation and enforcement of local zoning plans are in accordance
with the standards and guidelines by the HLURB.
A. DILG
B. HUDCC
C. DPWH
D. MMDA
216. The following are the functions of the Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board,
general human settlements planning at the sub-regional levels, more specifically, at the
level of the city and municipality.
I. Provide technical assistance to city and municipal governments in making land use
plans and land capability decision maps
II. Formulate and prescribe national standards guidelines for zoning ordinances of city
and municipality.
III. Develop, compile, and reconcile actual and indicative national and regional land use
plans;
IV. Coordinate and Integrate Physical Planning Activities; and
V. Coordinated related researches and survey undertaken by the various agencies.
A. I, II,
B. III, IV, V
C. I, II, III, IV
217. This government agency is formerly called the Ministry of Natural Resource.
A. DAR
B. LMB
C. DENR
D. DA
218. The most important responsibilities of the Regional Land Use Committee (RLUC)
and Provincial Land Use Committee (PLUC) include the following;
I. The preparation of their respective Physical Framework Plan

II. The review of lower-level comprehensive land use plans.
III. The formulation of Comprehensive Multi-Sectoral Development Plan
IV. Formulate Long-term, Medium-term and annual socioeconomic development plans
policies.
A. I, II
B. I, II, III
C. I, II, III, IV
D. III, IV
219. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code, the institutional structure of local planning
and development is spelled out in ____________.
A. Title two, Section 39-42

B. Title Three, Section 76-97
C. Title Four, Section 98-101
D. Title Six, Section 106-115
220. The following are the functions of the provincial, city, and municipality development
councils;
I. Formulate local investment incentives to promote the inflow and direction of private
investment capital
II. Evaluate and prioritize socioeconomic development programs and project
III. Formulate medium-term and annual public investment programs
IV. Formulate Long-term, medium-term and annual socioeconomic development plans
and policies
V. Coordinate, monitor, evaluate the implementation of development programs and
project; and perform such other functions as may be provided by laws or competent
authority.
A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, III, IV, V
D. I, II, IV, V
221. All except one are the Political Component of the Local Planning Structure.
I. Local Sanggunian
II. Local Development Council
III. Congressman Representatives
IV. Civil Society Organization
V. Private Sector Representative
A. I, II, III, IV,

B. II, III, IV, IV
C. I, II, III
D. III, IV, V
222. The following are the development sectors in the comprehensive development plan.
I. Social Development
II. Economic Development
III. Infrastructure Development
IV. Environment and Natural Resources
V. Institutional Development
A. I, II, III,
B. II, III, IV
D, I, II, IV, V
223. According to E. M. Serote the following are the Political Component of the Local
Planning Structure.
I. Local Sanggunian
II. Local Development Council
III. Mayor Representatives
IV. Local Special Bodies
V. Private Sector Representative
A. I, II, III, IV,

B. II, III, IV, IV
C. I, II, III
D. III, IV, V
224. According to E. M. Serote the following are the Technical Component of the Local
Planning Structure
I. Local Planning and Development Officer

II. LGU Department Head
III. Local Special Bodies
IV. Sectoral Development Committees
V. Technical Working Group
A. I, II, III, IV, V

B. II, III, IV, V
C. I, II, III, IV
D. III, IV, V
225. These two planning bodies lay down policy and guidelines and take decisions
regarding the direction, character, and objectives of local development and in a very real
sense, they are the true planner of the city, municipality or province.
A. Mayor and Local Special Bodies

B. Local Sanggunian and Local Development Council
C. Congressman Representatives and Private Sector Representative
D. LGU Department Head and Local Special Bodies
226. The land use policy guidelines form the core of the NFPP covers the (4) major land
use components of settlements development. These includes Choices below EXCEPT
one.
a. Production land use

b. Protection land use
c. Infrastructure development
d. Residential
227. Settlement areas where concentrations of populations engage in economic, political,

cultural & Other social activities vary from small, agricultural-based villages to
metropolitan urban center that accommodate millions of people and serve__________.
I. Industrial
II. Market
III. Administrative centers
IV. Convention centers
a. I,II,III
b II,III,IV
c I,III,IV
d. all
228. The national framework for physical planning evolved from the NPFP, which was
prepared by the National land use committee (NLUC) in 1992. Adopted by through
proclamation no.___ by Fidel V. Ramos
a. 54
b. 65
c. 56
d. 66
229. From the local planning and development office under planning & Programming
division of local planning and development coordinator includes:
I. Social development coordinator

II. CLUP updating & Revision specialist
III. LDIP & AIP preparation specialist
IV. CLUP Formulation specialist
V. Geographic information section
a. I,II,III
b. all
c. II,III,IV
d. I,II
230. The NPFP was prepared in response to the presidential directive LOI 1350 to
formulate an integrated national land use policy agency that would guide the:
I. Allocation
II. Utilization
III. Development & Management
IV. Mobilization
V. Creation
a. I,II,III
b. I,II,IV,V
c. ALL
d. I,II,III,IV
231. These Principles to achieve the national vision, land use, physical and related
planning activities shall proceed within the context of the principles that support the
allocation and use of land and water resources with due regard to their sustainability
Includes:
I. Food security
II. Environmental Sustainability & Ecological integrity
III. Spatial integration
IV. Protection land Use
a. I,II,III
b. II,III,IV
c. V,IV,III
d. AL
232. The LGC mandates all LGUs to prepare these plan as the primary basis for
determining the future use of land and other natural resources.
a. Zoning Plan
b. National Physical framework plan.
c. Comprehensive land use plan
d. Comprehensive development plan
233. The principal and legal instrument for enforcing the locational policies and
performance standards of the CLUP.
a Zoning Ordinance
b. Regulatory measures
c. Local Development plan
d. Long-term framework plan
234. A local planning and development model outcome includes:

I. Change in social and economic well-being of residents
II. Change in configuration and quality of the physical environment
III. Change in local institutional capabilities
IV. Improved public services
V. New or Improved public facilities /Infrastructure
a. I,II,III
b. ALL
c. I,II,III,IV
d. II,III,IV
235. This component of LDP seeks to improve the state of well-being of the local
population and upgrade the quality of social services such as health, education or welfare
housing and the like.
a. Social development
b. Economic development
c. Physical land use development
d. Environmental management
e. ONLY A and B
236. This plan can be regarded as an action plan and an implementing instrument of the
CLUP.
a. CDP
b. Zoning
c. LDIP
d. AIP
e. HUDCC
237. The LDIP is a short-term plan covering normally how many years of period?
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years
238. There are three main component of the LDIP, these includes:
I. The final project list

II. Financial analysis and projection
III. Fiscal management
IV. NGA program
V. LGU mandates and thrusts
a. I,II,III
b. ALL
c. I,II,III,IV
d. II,III,IV
239. All except one are the (4) four major physical planning issues / concerns within
protection land use.
I. Non-demarcation of boundaries of protection areas

II. Conflict resolution within protection areas
III. Disaster mitigation ,use of resources and its impact on protection areas
IV. Information ,education and communication campaign
V. Financial analysis and protection
a. I,II,III
b. ALL
c. I,II,III,IV
d. II,III,IV,V
240. The major issues/Concerns and the corresponding policy guidelines in planning for
settlements development are:
I. Planning within the context of national settlement networks

II. Spatial distribution and planning for future population growth
III. Infrastructure and basic services
IV. Housing and informal settlements
V. Environmental impacts
VI. Food security
a. I,II,III
b. I,II,III,IV
c. I,II,III,IV,V
d. ALL
241. One of the ff. policy guidelines under food security is to implement this strategy,
adopt a shift from traditional commodity production approach and protect from conversion
through land use and infrastructure planning and zoning.
a. SAFDZs
b. ZOs
c. LDIP
d. NFPP
242.The major planning concerns and corresponding policy guidelines in infrastructure

development are:
I. Strategic role of infrastructure
II. Food security and agrarian reform objectives
III. Protection and disaster mitigation
IV. Local and private sector participation
V. Protect infrastructure right of way
a. I,II,III,IV
b. II,III,IV,V
c. All
d. I,II
243. Comprehensive land use plan is a long term framework plan while Comprehensive
development plan is a:
a. Medium term framework plan

b. Medium term development plan
c. Long term development plan
d. Short term development framework plan.
244.Comprehensive development plan is a Medium term development plan while LDIP

(Local development investment program is __________.
a. Short term plan

b. Medium term development plan
c. Long term development plan
d. Short term development framework plan.
245. Refers to the direct and indirect utilization of land resources for crop production,
agro-forestry, mining industry and tourism.

c. Infrastructure development
d. Agricultural land use
246. The physical planning issues and concerns are grouped into (4) four categories
namely:
I. Food security
II. Level of production & Productivity
III. Industrialization
IV .Environmental impact
V. Development and management
a. I,II,III,IV
b. II,III,IV,V
c. III,IV,V,I
d I,III,IV,V
247. Refers to rehabilitation, conservation,& management of sensitive / critical

ecosystems to preserve their integrity, to allow degraded resources to regenerate and to
protect the human population from environmental hazards

c. Settlement development
d. Infrastructure development
248. Focuses on the spatial distribution of shelter, infrastructure and networks and
services

c. Settlement development
d. Infrastructure development
249. There are (5) policy options on planning approaches that may be utilized by planners
depending on corresponding environmental and economic conditions. These includes:
I. Redevelopment/Renewal
II. Growth of other towns/Cities
III. Urban expansion / Metropolitan growth
IV. New town / city development
V. Infilling of vacant lands and increasing densities in certain areas.
a. I,II,III
b. Only A& B
c. ALL
d. Both C and D
250. The issues facing the planning, for industrial site includes:
I. The type of industrial activities for regional an local physical plans

II. Extent of land to be allocated
III. The location of Industries
IV. Environmental impacts
V. Site analysis
a. I,II,III
b. I,II,III,IV
c. II,III,IV
d. All
251. Aside from NFPP, there are _________ Counterparts in each region and provincial
of the country.
a. Regional
b. Provincial
c. National
d. both A and B
252. What body reviews CLUPs of provinces?
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
d. AOTA
253. What body ratifies CLUPs of metro manila cities and Municipalities?
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
d. AOTA
254. What body reviews CLUPs of independent component cities?
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
d. AOTA
255. What body ratifies CLUP of highly urbanized cities?
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
d. AOTA
256. Under LGC RA 7160 there are two sets of mandated plan that the LGUs are directed
to prepare. In fact the LGC envisions LGU to become "self-reliant communities and
effective partners of the national goals".
a. NPFP and MTPDP

b. RPFP and MTRDP
c. PPFP and PDP
d. CLUP and CDP
257. Refers to the methods and approaches used by the public and private sector to
influence the distribution of people and activities in spaces of various scales. It also
defined as the coordination of practices and policies affecting spatial organization.
a. Spatial Planning System

b. Rationale Planning System
c. Integrated Planning System
d. Physical Framework Planning System
258. These two inter-agencies have been mandated to prepare the national and
regional physical framework plans respectively.
a. NLUC and NEDA

b. NLUC and RLUC
c. PLUC and RLUC
d. NOTA
259. The following are elements of Integrated system in the Philippines, except.
a. organization structure
b. synchronization of planning process
c. reintegration of plan documents
d. NOTA
260. What are the interlocking dimensions of land use planning?
I. Technical
II. Political
III. Environmental
IV. Ideological
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, II, III
c. I, II, IV
d. II, III, IV
261. What is the mandated time frame that all physical framework plans must be
updated and revised every 6 years?
a. 10 years
b. 20 years
c. 30 years
d. nota
262. The medium-term plans shall undergo mid-term updating and revision
every____________.
a. 15 years
b. 10 years
c. 5 years
d. nota
263. What are the counterpart of NEDA and DENR in provincial level?
a. PPDO and PENRO

b. NGO and CENTRO
c. PO and CPDO
d. nota
264. What are the joint responsibility of the project implementing agency or office and
the local planning office?
l. Project monitoring
II. Investment planning
III. Framework planning
IV. Project Evaluation
a. l, II
b. I, II, III
c. II, IV
d. I, IV
e. II, III
265. What is the original name of National Framework for Physical Planning?
a. National Physical Framework Plan.

b. National physical planning plan
c. National physical environment plan
d. nota
266. Following are important aims of RPFP for having a spatial arrangement of land use
activities, except.
a. rational distribution of population

b. to optimize the use of natural resources
c. protect the integrity of the environment
d. nota
267. What are the major land use policy areas of RPFP?
I. Production
II. Protection
III. Settlements
IV. Infrastructure development
a. I, II
b. II, III, IV
c. I, III, IV
d. I, II, III, IV
268. The annual components of plans and programs that is synchronized whit the
annual budget?
a. Annual Investment Plan (AIP)
b. Local Development Investment Programs (LDIP
c. Comprehensive Development Plan (CDP)
d. Annual Budget Plans (ABP)
269. The following are the Spatial Development Planning mandated by the government
from National, Regional, Provincial, and Municipal Level.
I. NPFP and RPFP

II. /*PPFP and CLUP
III. MTPDP and MTRDP
IV. PDP & CDP
a. I, II
b. II, III
c. I, III, III
d. III, IV
e. I, II, III, IV
270. The following are the Sectoral Development Planning mandated by the
government. Except.
a. MTPDP
b. PDP / CDP
c. MCDP
d. CLUP
271. This is the counter part of the National Physical Framework Plan (NPFP) at the
regional level.
a. RPFP
b. MTPDP
c. MTRDP
d. PPFP
272. This is the tools of implementation for the plans and programs at the national level
a. MTPIP
b. RDIP
c. PDIP / CDIP
d. LDIP
273. This land use policy embodies the existing and proposed land uses for production
purposes and includes all A&D lands and portions of public domain not specifically set
aside for conservation or protection purposes.
a. Protection Land Use Plan

b. Production Land Use Plan
c. Regional Settlement Plan
d. Regional Infrastructure Development Plan
274. It is one of the land use policy areas in the region which may not be developed or
exploited for their economic values.
a. Regional Settlement Plan

b. Regional Infrastructure Development Plan
c. Protection Land Use Plan
d. Production Land Use Plan
275. This major component of RPFP translates the preferred spatial development
strategy into a package of policies and other intervention measures directed towards the
realization of the rational pattern of spatial distribution of the regional populations and
economic activities.
a. Regional Settlement Plan

b. Regional Infrastructure Development Plan
c. Protection Land Use Plan
d. Production Land Use Plan
276. The following are the subcomponents of the Regional Infrastructure Development
Plan include;
I. Regional Transport Networks to connect province and sub-regional

areas; II. Regional power supply and Telecommunication System;
III. Major Water Impounding Works;
IV. Major shore protection and stabilization projects;
V. Urban and Industrial waste collection, treatment and disposal systems in
metropolitan areas VI. Tertiary-level Infrastructure support and Major tourism-support
infrastructure.
a. I, II, III, IV, V

b. I, II
c. I, II, V, VI
d. I, II, III, IV, V, VI
277. The intermediate level that links the regional plan with the municipal city plans is
the
_________________________.
a. PPFP
b. RPFP
c. NPFP
d. PDP
278. This is the provincial counter part of NLUC and RLUC?
a. PLUC
b. PPFP
c. MLUC
d. PDP
279. Has been created as a permanent sub-committee within the Provincial

Development Council.
a. NLUC
b. RLUC
c. PLUC
d. MLUC
280. As a member of NLUC, the ____ will have to dovetail its guidelines with the NLUC-
adopted land use categories for the sake of consistency.
a. PLUC
b. RLUC
c. HLURB
d. CLUP
281. Assist the Sangguniang Panlalawigan in the review of municipal and component
city comprehensive land use plan prior to their approval.
a. NLUC
b. RLUC
c. PLUC
d. MLUC
282. Served as the guide for coordinating the various sectoral development programs
and project in the regions, has had a 4 years or 5 years planning horizon and covered
economic and social sectors.
a. RDIP
b. LDIP
c. CDP
d. RDP
Chapter 5 – Land Use Planning as Natural Resources Mgt.
283. What property domain mainly concerned to forests with context of watershed
and fisheries that comprised within the coastal zone?
a. public domain
b. ancestral domain
c. private domain
d. coastal domain
284. The full coverage of public domain includes the following:
I. land
II. water
III. minerals
IV. forests
V. fisheries and wildlife
a. I,II,III,IV
b. I,II,III,IV,V
c. II,III,IV,V
d. I,III,V
285. Part of public domain that is classified as agricultural is administered by the

______________.
a. DOA b. LMB c. NLUC d. DAR
286. Forest lands are administered by _______________.
a. FMB b. CENRO-DENR c. LMB d. DENR
287. Mineral lands are administered by _________________.
a. DENR
b. Mining Regulatory Board
c. MGSB
d. SP
288. National parks are administered by _________________.
a. National Park Bureau

b. DENR
c. Park System Board
d. Protected Areas and Wildlife Bureau
289. The different bureaus of DENR are the following:
I. LMB
II. FMB
III. MGSB
IV. PAWB
V. Bureau of Solid & Mgt. (BSM)
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. I,II,III,IV
c. II,III,IV,V
d. I,II,III,V
290.The responsibility of delineating and disposing of ancestral domains used to assume

by
________________ but it is now take over under R.A 8371 (IPRA Law).
a. NCIP
b. DENR
c. IP’s leaders
d. local officials
291. The responsibility of regulating the use of private land is lodged with the
______________ whose boundaries concerned are located.
a. LGU
b. NLUC
c. Sangguniang Panlungsod
d. HLURB .
292. Republic Act no. 8371 is also known as the _________________________.
a. NCIP Law of 1997

b. IPs Act of 1997
c. NIPAS of 1997
d. IPRA of 1997
293. LGUs are confined to regulate private land but nothing to do with regulating
the following:
I. Ownership
II. Selling
III. acquisition
IV. Subdivide
V. disposition of property
a. I,III,V
b. I,II,III,IV,V
c. II,III,V
d. I,II,III,IV
294. Regulation of ownership, acquisition and disposition of property in the private land
is a pure mandate of the ___________________.
a. LGU
b. LMB
c. national government
d. HLURB
295. The two pillars of resource and now use as the prevailing philosophy of natural
resource planning and management found in 1987 Constitution are as follows:
I. Sustainability
II. promotion of social justice and equity
III. Equality
IV. Transparency
V. Eco Friendly
a. I,II
b. I,III
c. I,IV
d. I,V
296. For over 200 years of forest exploitation from Spanish regime, the rate of extraction
was
little over ________ has annually simply because timber was mainly used for
shipbuilding.
a. 1,000 has.
b. 2,000 has.
c. 4,000 has
d. 3,000 has.
297. To finally control the forest exploitation/ deforestation in the country, Spaniard tried
to introduce the issuance of ______________ in 1863.
a. certificate of timber cutting

b. certificate of cutting
c. certificate of tree cutting
d. certificate of forest farming
298. What UP’s college course in Los Baños that was introduced by the American
in the 1900s?
a.College of Engineering
b. College of Forestry
c. College of Agriculture
d. college of art
299. Forest management in 1935’s Constitution provision was once influenced by the
_____________.
a. Spanish
b. American
c. European
d. Asian
SUPPLEMENTAL QUESTIONS
300. Which government agency approves applications for small scale mining, sand and
gravel, quarry, guano, gemstone gathering and gratuitous permits and for industrial
sand and gravel permits not exceeding five (5) hectares?
A. Environmental Management Bureau - Regional Office
B. Mines and Geosciences Bureau - Regional Office
C. LGU
D. Bureau of Lands
301. R.A No. 7586 otherwise known as National Integrated Protected Areas System Act
of 1992 had established the following protected areas:
i. Strict nature reserve;
ii. Natural park;
iii. Natural monument;
iv. Wildlife sanctuary;
v. Protected landscapes and seascapes;
vi Resource reserve;
vii. Natural biotic areas; and
viii. Other categories established by law, conventions or international agreements which
the Philippine Government is a signatory.
Except for two areas as categorized above, exploration for energy resources can be
conducted in those other areas. What are these two areas?
A. ii, vi
B. i, vi
C.iii, v
D. i, ii
302. In accordance with the NDRRMF, through the NDRRMP, the country will have
"Safer, adaptive and disaster resilient Filipino communities towards sustainable
development" which will be achieved through the following, with four as priority areas:
i. Disaster Prevention and Mitigation
ii. Disaster Educational Campaign
iii. Disaster Preparedness
iv. Disaster Relief Assistance
v. Disaster Response
vi. Disaster Recovery and Rehabilitation
Based on the above list, identify the four priority areas:
A. i, ii, iii, iv
B. ii, iv, v, vi
C. iii, iv, v, vi
D. i, iii, v, vi
303. CLUP’s preparation follows a 12-step process as enumerated below in random

order:
i. Set the vision
ii. Organize
iii. Set the goals and objectives
iv. Analyze the situation
v. Conduct Public hearing
vi. Identify stakeholders
vii. Establish development thrust and spatial strategies
viii. Implement the CLUP and Zoning Ordinance
ix. Prepare the land use plan
x. Review, adopt and approve the CLUP and Zoning Ordinance
xi. Draft the zoning ordinance
xii. Monitor and evaluate the CLUP and Zoning Ordinance
Based on the above, which steps are in the pre-planning stage?
A. i and iii
B. ii and vi
C. iii and vi
D. i and iv
304. What are these flows of official financing from foreign sources which are
administered for the promotion of the economic development and welfare of developing
countries called?
A. Economic assistance fund
B. Development assistance fund
C. Overseas development assistance fund
D. Official development assistance
305. CLUP’s preparation follows a 12-step process as enumerated below in random
order:
i. Set the vision
ii. Organize
iii. Set the goals and objectives
iv. Analyze the situation
v. Conduct Public hearing
vi. Identify stakeholders
vii. Establish development thrust and spatial strategies
viii. Implement the CLUP and Zoning Ordinance
ix. Prepare the land use plan
x. Review, adopt and approve the CLUP and Zoning Ordinance
xi. Draft the zoning ordinance
xii. Monitor and evaluate the CLUP and Zoning Ordinance
Based on the above, which steps are in the plan implementation and monitoring stage?
A. viii, v, ix, xii
B. v, x, viii, xii
C. v, vii, viii, xii
D. viii, x, xi, xii
306. The Philippines is composed of how many regions?

A. 16
B. 17
C. 18
D. 15
307. It is a method that enables a planner to generate feasible alternative strategies for
the LGU through an assessment of the present conditions, characteristics, and current
state and utilization of the LGU’s natural/physical, human and fiscal resources.
A. Inter-cross sectoral analysis technique
B. Scalar technique
C. SWOT Analysis
D. Suitability analysis
308. These are the products, goods, services or facilities that are directly delivered and
provided for by the LGU or local agencies/ organizations that are needed to achieve the
desired key outcomes of the CLUP.
A. Results
B. Outputs
C. Outcomes
D. Effects
309. These are the results or changes expected from a local condition or LGU level of
development.
A. Outputs
B. Effects
C End products
D. Outcomes
310. Which government agency is the implementing arm of R.A. 9275 (Clean Water Act
of 2004?
A. Local Water Utilities Administration
B. DENR -Environmental Management Bureau
C. DoH
D. National Water Resources Board
311. Which of this is not a thematic map?

A. Hazard map
B. Slope Map
C. Existing land use map
D. Protected area map
E. None of the above
312. Slope maps can be obtained specifically from this government agency:
A. DENR
B. Bureau of Lands
C. NAMRIA
D. BSWM
313. In Kevin Lynch “Image of the City”, he identified several image elements of a city
as listed below. In a local setting, Pasay Rotonda in Pasay City would qualify in which
element?
A. Path
B. District
C. Landmark
D. Edge
E. Node
314. Topographic maps show point elevations, major road network, built up areas,
water bodies, other surface features. These maps can be obtained specifically from this
government agency:
A. LGU
B. DENR
C. NAMRIA
D. BSWM
E. Bureau of Lands
315. The number of years required for the population of an area to double its present
size, given the current rate of population growth is called:
A. Double Growth Rate
B. Doubling Time
C. Double Growth
D. Accelerated growth
316. Aside from the municipal mayor, vice-mayor, sangguniang members, secretary
and treasurer, the following officials are also considered in the municipal government:
i. Administrator
ii. Legal Officer
iii. Assessor
iv. Accountant
v. Agriculturist
vi. Environment and Natural Resources Officer
vii. Budget Officer
viii. Social Welfare and Development Officer
ix. Planning and Development Coordinator
x. Engineer / Building Official
xi. Architect
xii. Health Officer
xiii. Information Officer
xiv. Civil Registrar
From the above list, identify those officials that are optional in the municipal
government:
A. iii, v, vi, viii, x, xi, xiii
B. ii, v, vi, vii, viii, xi, xiv
C. i, ii, v, vi, viii, xi, xiii
D. ii, iv, v, vii, ix, xi, xiii,
317. He is generally recognized as the "father of GIS.” He is the visionary geographer

who conceived and developed the first GIS for use by the Canada Land Inventory in the
early 1960s.
A. Jack Dangermond
B. Roger Tomlinson
C. Ian McHarg
D. Charles Picquet
318. According to the Philippine Statistics Authority, what is the female reproductive age
bracket in the Philippines?
A. 14 - 50
B. 18 - 49
C. 16 - 45
D. 15 - 49
319. He is the Father of American City Planning and a hallmark name in the "City
Beautiful Movement". He also gave the famous and inspirational quote "Make no little
plans... Aim high in hope and work, remembering that a noble, logical diagram once
recorded will never die, but long after we are gone will be a living thing". He made the
urban plan for the cities of Manila and Baguio.
A. Sir Patrick Geddes
B. Le Corbusier
C. Daniel Burnham
D. Kevin Lynch
320. In 1973 Constitution, it found out that there was a whole article their entitled
“Conservation and Utilization of Natural Resources” but there was no provision
about conservation instead, the article deals on __________________ of natural
resources.
I. disposition
II. exploitation
III. development
IV. utilization
V. management
a. II,III,V
b. I,III,IV,V
c. I,II,III,IV
d. I,II,III,IV,V
321. It is reported that from _________________ the Philippines was the top exporter
of rainforest timber in Asia.
a. 1920 to 1960
b. 1910 to 1930
c. 1930 to 1970
d. 1940 to 1980
322. According to Kummer, the distinction between politicians and loggers is difficult to
make, since loggers contribute heavily to ______________ and many politicians control
the logging consessions.
a. elections b. votes c. campaigns d. debates
323. Philippine political system has concentrated control of ___________________

in the hands of the few at the expense of the economically disadvantaged as
mentioned by Porter and Ganapin.
a. government b. natural resources c. election d. management
324. During Marcos presidency, logging concessions were given to reward

______________
and even benefited from the taxes of the loggers.
a. retiring generals b. politicians c. government employees d. poor people
325. After the affluence of the few was the obverse side of the affluence which in this time
____________________ has given a chance of getting a slice of the large agricultural
estates (denuded part) from forest concessions
.
a. politicians
b. military
c. poor
d. IPs
326. What are the technical reasons why people encroach to forest land?
I. road to the forest

II. farm to market road
III. absence of forest land boundaries
IV. access road to the city corrupt officials
a. I,III
b. I,II,III,IV,V
c. I,II,III
d. II,III
327. The absence of land boundaries is one of the reasons of land encroachment in the
forest as well as the uncompleted _______________ survey.
a. map b. cadastral c. Land d. forest
328. The ___________________ aims to conduct actual survey and plot the
boundaries including classified timber lands and unclassified public lands and it was
adopted by the DENR for the CY2000.
a. banner program
b. survey program
c. mapping program
d. delineation program .
329. What is the standard scale of topographic map in plotting boundaries?
a. 1:10,000
b. 1:20,000
c. 1:30,000
d. 1:50,000
330. ___________________ is the keeper of all topographic maps of delineated forest

land boundaries in uniform scales.
a. NAMRIA b. DENR c. FMB d. DENR-Community ENRO
331. What are the events after independence?
I. affluence from the few

II. the obverse side of the affluence
III. Technical factors
IV. The rising of loggers Forest boundaries
a. I,II,III b. I,III,V c. I,II,III,IV,V d. I,II,III,V
Chapter 5 – Land Use Planning as Natural Resources Management (Toward a Policy

Shift / Coastal Resource Management / Integrated Catchments Approach)
332. The overwhelming number of people living in the forest or defending on forest
resources for their livelihood has led the DENR to rethink its policy on
_________________.
A. Forest Management
B. Forest Agreement
C. Timber Agreements
D. Woodland Agreement
333. From a failed policy of awarding Timber License Agreements (TLA), the DENR has
shifted support for small scale-users, the community residing in or near forest, through
the mechanism of the ____________.
A. CBFMA
B. CRMF
C. CBFMP
D. CRMA
334. CMFMA stands for?
A. Coastal Based Forest Management Agreements

B. Community Based Forest Management Agreements
C. Communal Based Forest Management Agreements
D. Coastline Based Forest Management Agreements
335. Dates back to the 1970s the community-based approach to forest management,
generally known as “____________”.
A. Communal Tree farming

B. Family reforestation
C. Forest Occupancy Management
D. Social Forestry
336.The following are the predecessors programs under social forestry or the community-
based approach for forest management;
I. Communal tree farming

II. Family reforestation
III. Forest Occupancy Management
IV. Timber and Woodland Management
V. Private tree farming

B. I, II, III, IV
C. I, II, III,
D. II, III, IV
337. Under CBFMA they are allowed to harvest mature trees within their “concessions”.
A. Organized Communities
B. Elite Communities
C. Elite Politicians
D. Family Concessionaires
338. This policy shift is in the pursuance of the provisions of the 1987 Philippines
Constitutions, especially those pertaining to the promotion of the people’s right to the
balance ecology and of social justice.
A. Community Based Forest Management Agreements

B. Community Resources Management Foundation
C. Community Based Forest Management Plan
D. Community Resources Management Agreements
339. This branch of government formally recognizes the soundness of the approach and
to adopt it as national strategy for the sustainable development of the country’s forest
resources through Executive Order.
A. Senate & Congress

B. Legislative Branch
C. Executive Branch
D. AOTA
340. The Community Based Forest Management implements the following policy
approach for the sustainable forest management adopted by the DENR. These are the ff:
I. Strict observance of the logging ban on ecologically sensitive and vulnerable protected
forest areas such as critical watershed, biodiversity reserve, national Parks;
II. Regulated use of ecologically stable natural production forest through environment-
friendly forest harvesting methods to satisfy the country’s needs;
III. Converting the upland population from agents of forest destruction into active partners
in forest stewardship, conservation, development and management.
A. I, II
B. I, II, III
C. II, III
D. I, III
341. The basic principles underlying Community Based Forest Management are:
I. Social equity, recognition of indigenous peoples, and gender parity.

II. Livelihood and local management of natural resources.
III. Community participation, sustainable forest management and biodiversity.
IV. Creation of the enabling environment.
V. Partnership
A. I, II, III
B. I, II, III, IV
C. II, III, IV, V
342. The following are the key features of Community-Based Forest Management. These
are:
I. Community empowerment
II. Integration of all people-oriented forestry programs
III. Deregulation
IV. Decentralization
V. Devolution

B. II, III, IV, V
C. I, II, III, IV
D. I, II, III
343. This feature of CBFM requires re-aligning and re-defining existing staffing and
deployment patterns to meet the CBFM requirements. It also require greater coordination
with the field people to ensure that adequate human and logistical support for the
programs implementation gets included in DENR’s annual plans and budgets.
A. Community empowerment
B. Integration of all people-oriented forestry programs
C. Deregulation
D. Decentralization
E. Devolution
344. This feature of CBFM requires that the CENROs take on greater service-oriented
functions than they have ever had before. It will also require PENRO and regional offices
to be better equipped and responsive in supporting CENRO-level CBFM initiatives.
B. Deregulation
C. Decentralization
D. Devolution
345. This feature of CBFM requires DENR to enter into strong partnership with respective
local government units at CBFM sites. It also requires CENROs, PENROs, and REDs
take the initiative engage local government units in the land use planning.
B. Deregulation
C. Decentralization
D. Devolution
346. The following are implementation stages of a CBFM project.
I. Preparatory Stage
II. PO Formation and Diagnostic Stage
III. Planning Stage
IV. Implementation Stage
V. Processing of Conflicting Rights
A. I, II, III
B. I, II, III, IV
C. II, III, IV, V
347. The identification and selection of CBFMP areas shall be jointly undertaken by the
following;
I. DENR
II. Regional Executive Director (RED)
III. Regional Technical Director (RTD)
IV. Local Government Unit (LGU)
V. Local Communities
A. I, II, III
B. II, III, IV
C. I, IV, V
D. AOTA
348. The CBFMP may be implemented in upland and coastal lands of the public domain
except in the following;
I. Areas covered by the TLAs, PLAs, IFMA,

II, Protected Areas except multiple zone, buffer zones and other areas where utilization
activities allowed pursuant to RA 7586 (NIPAS LAW).
III. Forest land which have been assigned by law under the administration control of other
government agencies.
IV. Certified ancestral lands and domains, except where the ICCs/IPS opt to participate
in the CBFMP
V. Other areas occupied by ICC that are known to be ancestral but are not yet covered
by CADT or CALT, unless the ICCs/IPs opt to participate in CBFMP.

B. II, IV, V
C. I, II, IV, V
D. II, III, IV, V
349. CADT stands for?
A. Cadastral Ancestral Domain Title

B. Certificate of Ancestral Domain Title
C. Computer-Aided Design Title
D. Certificate for Ancestral Domain Title
350. The following are the team that may utilize culturally appropriate and locally
acceptable methods of conflict management of the adverse claimants or any party
alleging conflicting claims over the identified CBFMP area, provided these are transparent
and fair.
I. Regional Technical Director for Forestry (RTD-F)

II. Representatives of PENRO and CENRO,
III. Provincial and Municipal Government.
IV. Provincial Special Task Force on Ancestral Domains (PSTFAD)
V. Community Special Task Force on Ancestral Lands (CSTFAL)
A. I, II, III
B. II, III, IV, V
C. III, IV, V
D. I, II, III, IV, IV
351. Formation of People’s Organization and Diagnostic Stage has the following objective
except one.
A. to encourage participation of local communities in the CBFMP;

B. to start community organization building or strengthening;
C. to define existing conditions (social, economic, natural resources, etc) relevant to
planning
D. obtain CBFMA
E. to inform and educate DENR officials, LGUs, and general public about CBFMP
352. Who will conduct the initial community appraisal on identifying of the existing forest
land resources management system of the community and related concerns that may be
addressed under the CBFMP?
A. CENRO
B. PENRO
C. LGU and PO
D. COs
353. Who will apply the Community-Based Forest Management Agreement to the
concerned CENRO?
A. Duly Registered Peoples Organizations

B. Peoples Organizations (POs)
C. Community Organizations (COs)
D. LGU or other Gov’t Agencies
354. The following are the minimum requirements for the application for Community
Based Forest Management Agreements (CBFMA) prepared by the PO.
I. Certificate of Registration of the Peoples Organizations (POs), provided that ICCs/IPs

shall exempted from the presenting this requirements.
II. List of officers or, in the case of IICs, members of the Council of Elders;
III. List of members and their respective addresses, including names of both spouses in
each household;
IV. Resolution from the membership authorizing the officers of the community
organization to file the application.
V. Individual or joint endorsement of the concerned Legislative Councils of the Barangay,
Municipal, and Provincial LGUs, depending on the jurisdiction and coverage of the area.
A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, III, IV, V
C. I, III IV, V
D. I, II, III IV, V
355. The following are the review committee for the application for Community Base
Forest Management Agreements (CBFMA);
I. Representatives of the RTD-Forestry,

II, Representatives from CENRO,
III. Representatives, from PENRO,
IV. Representatives from, Barangay, Municipal, and Provincial Council,
V. Representatives from PAMB.

B. I, II, III, V
C. I, II, III, IV
D. I, II, III
356. During planning stage the DENR-LGU and other sectors shall assist the POs for the
preparation of the following plans;
I. Community Resources Management Plan (CRMF)

II. Resources Use Plans (RUPs)
III. Annual Work Plans (AWPs)
IV. Strategic Watershed Management Plan (SWMPs)
V. Forest and Water Land Use Plans (FWLUPs)
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. II, III, IV, V
D. IV, V
357. In formulation of Community Resources Management Framework (CRMF), the

CRMF shall indicate among the others the POs mission, vision and objective. These are
the following;
I. A summary of situation analysis;

II. Guiding principles to be followed in plan preparation;
III. Indicative community resources development plans;
IV. Internal management arrangements including benefits sharing;
V. External support needed;
VI. Internal monitoring and evaluation system to be adopted
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, III, IV, VI
C. I, II, III, IV, V, VI
D. I, II, V, VI
E. II, III, IV, V, VI
358. Who will conduct the inventory as a basis for the Resources Use Plan (RUP)?
A. LGU
B. Legislative Council of the Municipal
C. CENRO and PENRO
D. DENR
359. The following are the objectives during implantation stage for CBFMA and CBFMP;
I. Enhance organizational and institutional capacities that will make resource use and
development sustainable;
II. Ensure the economic viability of resources management activities;
III. Ensure the flow and equitable distribution of benefits to the POs members and to larger
community;
IV. Ensure the build-up of capital by PO for forest management and community
development project.
V. Ensure continued membership and leadership skills development
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. I, II, IV, V
360. Activities in this stage will revolve around the iterative process involved in
implementing and managing planned activities by the _______________.
A. RUP
B. AWP
C. CRMF
D. RLUP
361. A region or area bounded peripherally by water parting also known as water divide
or interfluve and draining ultimately to a particular watercourse or body of water.
A. Coastal Area
B. Shoreline Area
C. Watershed
D. Coastal and River Zone
362. Watershed is variously called by the following;
I. River Basin
II. Drainage Basin
III. Stream source areas Catchment Areas
IV. Coastal River
V. Mangrove River
A. I, II
B. I, II, IV, V
C. I, IV, V
D. I, II, III
363. In critical areas where soil erosion hazard is high, _______________ measures must
be instituted to keep the soil surface in a perceptive condition for infiltration of rainfall.
A. Concrete channels
B. Cultivation on the contour
C. Construction of cut-off drains
D. Soil Conservation
364. The following are the Strategies in Watershed Management. These Strategies
include;
I. Cultivation on contour,
II, Construction of cut-off drains and grassed waterways’
III. Terracing of or arable areas in steppers slopes,
IV. Land drainage of the flatter areas
V. Solid block, floating and covering the surface reduce the area where evaporation can
occur.
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, III, IV, V
C. II, III, IV, V
D. I, II, III
365. _____________is the loss of water from the surface of open reservoir.
A. Evapotranspiration
B. Evaporation
C. Retardation
D. Prevention
366. One of the pioneering examples of “watershed managers” is the provincial

government of ________________.
A. Nueva Ecija
B. Nueva Viscaya
C. Pangasinan
D. La Union
367. Klee defines the _____________ as extending from the shoreline to the limit of
continental shelf and, where the terrestrial environment influences the marine or
lacustrine (lake) environment , or vice versa.
A. Shoreline Zone
B. Coastal Marine Areas
C. Eco zone
D. Coastal Zone
368. In the Philippines we have wider band of geographical areas which we consider our
coastal area or zone. How many kilometre the geographic extent includes areas from the
shoreline at high tide?
A. 1 kilometer
B. 2 kilometers
C. 5 kilometers
D. 15 kilometers
369. The following are the important Coastal Resource;
I. Mangroves
II. Coral Reefs
III. Sea grass Beds
IV. Coastal Fisheries
V. Sand and Gravels
A. I, III, IV
B. I, II, III, IV
C. I, III, IV
370. This coastal resources contribute 10-15 percent of the yearly total fish production
and estimated to nurture about 30 tons of commercially valuable fish and invertebrates
every year.
A. Mangroves
B. Coral Reefs
C. Sea grass beds
D. Coastal Fisheries
371. The different types of human activities on the land contribute to degradation of coral
resources. These are the following;
I. Agricultural cultivation of the uplands deforestation

II. Disposal of mine tailings which aggravate siltation
III. Destructive fishing methods
IV. Dynamite fishing
V. Cyanide fishing
A. I, II, III
B. IV, V
C. I, II
372. These different types of human activities contribute to degradation of coral

resources. These are the following;
I. Agricultural cultivation of the uplands deforestation

II. Disposal of mine tailings which aggravate siltation
III. Destructive fishing methods
IV. Dynamite fishing and Muro-ami’
V. Cyanide fishing and the like.
A. I, II, III
B. IV, V
C. I, II
373.This coastal resources contribute to the reduction of water energy and motion,
regulation of chemical composition of coastal waters and sediments and as a habitats for
a variety of fishes, shell fish, crustaceans, and also filter impurities in water which
otherwise destroy corals.
A. Mangroves
B. Coral Reefs
C. Sea grass beds
374. This coastal resource is among the most important contributions to the national
economy. It comprises three sub-sectors: Municipal Fisheries, Aquaculture, and
Commercial Fisheries.
A. Mangroves
B. Coral Reefs
C. Sea grass beds
375. An act providing for the development, management and conservation of the
fisheries and aquatic resources.
A. RA 8550
B. RA 7916
C. RA 8435
D. RA 8748
376. This act shall be known as "The Philippine Fisheries Code of 1998".
A. RA 8550
B. RA 7916
C. RA 8435
D. RA 8748
377. After the enactment of the Philippines Fisheries Code (8550) the LGUs have been
put in charge of managing their municipal waters which is extended from how many
kilometres from the shoreline.
A. 5 km to 15 km
B. 7 km to 15 km
C. 5 km to 7 km
D. 10 km to 15 km
378. Within the municipal water, ________________ are prohibited from fishing
operation.
A. Local Politicians
B. Commercial Fishers
C. Fishers Politician
D. Small Fisherfolk
379. In what particular section of RA 7160 The Local Government Code has likewise
given LGUs exclusive authority to grant fishery privileges in municipal waters and impose
rentals and fees?
A. RA 7160 Section 20
B. RA 7160 Section 17
C. RA 7160 Section 131
D. RA 7160 Section 149
380. In what particular section of RA 8550 The Philippine Fisheries Code also bans
commercial fishing in municipal waters and reserves these exclusively for municipal
fisherfolk and their cooperatives and organizations.
A. RA 8550 Section 19
B. RA 8550 Section 20
C. RA 8550 Section 18
D. RA 8550 Section 26
381. The whole idea behind this new policy is to remove the open-access character of
coastal and marine resources. In effect, LGUs now have the exclusive right to grant
territorial use rights in fisheries.
A. TURF
B. CBCRM
C. CBFMA
D. ICM
382. CBCRM stands for?
A. Coastal-Based Community Resource Management

B. Community-Based Coastal Resource Management
C. Communal-Based Community Resource Management
D. Community-Based Coastal Rehabilitation Management
383. This contract guarantees security of tenure and a privilege of access to mangrove
resources in accordance with the stipulation in the contract.
A. Coastal Stewardship Contract (CSC)

B. Coral Reefs Stewardship Contract (CRSC)
C. Mangrove Stewardship Contract (MSC)
D. Coastal Fisheries Contract (CFC)
384. The following are the important consideration in formulating the CBCRM Plan;
I. Balancing Conservation and Development Objectives

II. Participation of Stakeholder
III. Participatory Rural Appraisal (PRA)
IV. Local Knowledge
V. Gender Considerations
VI. Laws and Policies
A. I, II, III, IV, VI

C. II, III, IV, V, VI
D. I, II, III, IV, V, VI
385. An important factor in plan formulation, implementation and enforcement where the
community, as participant, must act as controller and managers of their resources.
A. Participation of Stakeholder
B. Participatory Rural Appraisal (PRA)
C. Local Knowledge
D. Laws and Policies
386. The knowledge and wisdom were built up and verified by long years of community
contact with environment.
A. Local Knowledge
B. Local Beliefs
C. Local Laws and Policies
D. Local Saying
387. According to Alcala, there following are the Community-Based Coastal Resources
Management (CBCRM) process as applied in the Philippines.
I. Social preparation and community organizing,

II. Environmental education and capability building,
III, Resource management planning
IV. Support activities for livelihood and financial resources mobilization,
V. Research and monitoring,
VI. Networking activities
A. I, II, III, IV, VI

B. I, II, III, IV
C. I, II, III, IV, V, VI
388. Using this concept and tool, the communities are empowered to think about their
economic and social needs and problems within an environmental management
framework.
A. Resource Management
B. Networking and Advocacy
C. Environmental Education
D. Livelihood Development
389. This process of CBCRM refers to production, marketing and trading activities
undertaken individually or collectively for people to increase their level of food production
and to generate income which enhances their economic and social life.
A. Resource Management
B. Networking and Advocacy
C. Environmental Education
D. Livelihood Development
390. Variably known as “whole catchment”, or bay region management is a variant or

expansion of the generic concept of coastal resource management.
A. Resource Management Approach

B. Coastal Management Approach
C. Coastal-Based Management Approach
D. Integrated Catchment Approach
391. The seaward portion of integrated catchment or receiving waters can be extended
up to how many nautical miles from the shoreline as allowed under UNCLOS.
A. 200 nautical miles

B. 150 nautical miles
C. 12 nautical miles
D. 250 nautical miles
392. An approach to natural resources management that seeks to understand and

address the interrelated issues pertaining to land, water, vegetation, wildlife, and other
resources in their totality.
A. Resource Management Approach

B. Coastal Management Approach
C. Coastal-Based Management Approach
D. Integrated Catchment Approach
Chapter 6 – Land Use Planning in Protected Areas (Concept of Protected Areas,

The NIPAS Protected Areas)
393.. This is one of the four general land use policy areas under CLUP which covered by
existing laws which are located within the territorial limits of the LGU and may be
considered as forming part of the open space system of that LGU.
a. Settlement Areas
b. Production Areas
c. Infrastructure Areas
d. Protected Areas
394. On June 2001, these are the total number of the initial protected areas listed by the
Protected Areas and Wildlife Bureau PAWB of the DENR that covered by proclamation
as national parks.
a. 209
b. 184
c. 50
d. 34
395. On June 2001, the highest number of proclaimed national parks is located in this
region that have a combined land area of 1.13 million hectares or nearly half of the total
area coverage of all proclaimed national parks in the Philippines.
a. Region 1
b. Region 4
c. Region 3
d. Region 5
396. On June 2001, these are the total number of the proposed additional protected areas
listed by the Protected Areas and Wildlife Bureau PAWB of the DENR that covered by
proclamation as national parks.
a. 184
b. 209
c. 50
d. 34
397. In what particular Article and Section of the 1987 Philippines Constitution that refers
to national parks as one of the four basic land classes of the public domain together with
the Agricultural, Forest, and Minerals as a generic land class national parks obviously
means protected areas.
a. Article XII, Section 5
b. Article X, Section 5
c. Article XII Section 4
d. Article X, Section 4
398. In the wake of the adaptation of the National Land Use Committee, NEDA (1992)
the National Physical Framework Plan 1993-2022, the following are the major land use
policy areas:
I. Institutional Area
II. Settlement Areas
III. Production Areas
IV. Infrastructure Areas
V. Protected Areas

b. II, III, IV, I
c. I, II, IV, V
d. II, III, IV, V
399. Under the National Land Use Committee, NEDA (1992) National Physical
Framework Plan 1993-2022, the following are the objectives of protected land use
policies;
I. To protect sensitive critical ecosystem from human intrusion in order to preserve their
integrity and to allow degraded resources to regenerate themselves;
II. To protect the human populaces from environmental hazards;
III. To encourage participation of local communities in the forest management
protection plan ; IV. To start community organization building or strengthening;
V. To define existing conditions protected social, protected economic and natural
resources, relevant to planning.
a. I, II
b. I, II, III
c. I II, III, IV
400. National parks have now become only a subset of the broader concept of
protected areas which embraces the following categories;
I. Areas declared as belonging to the National Integrated Protected Area System

(NIPAS) being establish under RA 7586;
II. Areas outside the NIPAS areas requiring equivalent amount of protection;
III. Areas prone natural Hazards otherwise known as environmentally -
constrained areas; IV. Areas declared as belonging to the National Integrated
Production Areas System;
V. Areas outside the production areas requiring equivalent amount of protection.
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, IV, V
c. II, III, IV, V
401. An act providing for the establishment and management of national integrated
protected areas system, defining its scope and coverage, and for the purposes.
a. RA 8371
b. RA 8435
c. RA 7586
d. RA 10121
402. ____________________________is the classification ion and administration of all

designated protected areas to maintain essential ecological processes and life-support
systems, to preserve genetic diversity, to ensure sustainable use of resources found
therein, and to maintain their natural conditions to the greatest extent possible;
a. Protected Area
b. Buffer Zone
c. National Park
d. National Integrated Protected Areas Systems (NIPAS)
403. This refers to identified portions of land and water set aside by reason of their unique
physical and biological significance, managed to enhance biological diversity and
protected against destructive human exploitation.
a. Protected area
b. Strict nature reserve
c. Buffer Zone
d. National Park
404. The identified areas outside the boundaries of and immediately adjacent to
designated protected areas pursuant to Section 8 of RA 7586 that need special
development control in order to avoid or minimize harm to the protected area.
a. Protected area
b. Strict nature reserve
c. Buffer Zone
d. National Park
405. These refers to a group of people sharing common bonds of language, customs,
traditions and other distinctive cultural traits, and who have, since time immemorial,
occupied, possessed and utilized a territory.
a. Tenured migrant communities

b. Indigenous communal community
c. Indigenous people community
d. Indigenous cultural community
406. Refers to a forest reservation essentially of natural wilderness character which has
been withdrawn from settlement, occupancy or any form of exploitation except in
conformity with approved management plan and set aside as such exclusively to
conserve the area or preserve the scenery, the natural and historic objects, wild animals
and plants therein and to provide enjoyment of these features in such areas;
a. National park
b. Natural monument
c. Strict nature reserve
d. Wildlife sanctuary
407. Is a relatively small area focused on protect ion of small features to protect or
preserve nationally significant natural features on account of their special interest or
unique characteristics?
a. National park
b. Natural monument
408. Is an area possessing some outstanding ecosystem, features and/or species of flora
and fauna of national scientific importance maintained to protect nature and maintain
processes in an undisturbed state in order to have ecologically representative examples
of the natural environment available for scientific study, environmental monitoring,
education, and for the maintenance of genetic resources in a dynamic and evolutionary
state.
a. National park
b. Natural monument
409. These are communities within protected areas which have actually and continuously
occupied such areas for five (5) years before the designation of the same as protected
areas in accordance with this RA 7586 and are solely dependent therein for subsistence.
a. Tenured migrant communities

b. Indigenous migrant communal community
c. Indigenous people community
410. Comprises an area which assures the natural conditions necessary to protect
nationally species, groups of species, biotic communities or physical features of the
environment where these may require specific human manipulation for the perpetuation.
a. National park
b. Natural monument
411. This zones of NIPAS areas encompass outstandingly remarkable and biologically
important public lands that are habitants of rare and endangered species of plants and
animals.
A. Biological Zones
B. Ecological Zones
C. Wildlife Sanctuary
D. Biogeographic Zones
412. The National Integrated Protected Area System (NIPAS) is placed under the control
of what government and administrative agency?
A. BFAR
B. DENR
C. NEDA
D. FMB
413.. Once established, the NIPAS will be administered by the three-tiered structure
headed by the DENR secretary at central office as the overall responsible authority. At
regional level what division is created by the Department that is under the supervision of
a Regional Executive Director (RED) of DENR assumes over-all responsibility assisted
by the Regional Technical Director (RTD).
A. Protected Areas Wildlife Division (PAWD)

B. Protected Areas Management Board
(PAMB) C. Protected Areas Superintended
(PAS)
D. Protected Areas Management Division (PAMD)
414. This Administrative Order setting forth the rules and regulations governing
implementation of the Act pursuant to Section 10(d) of Republic Act No. 7586 otherwise
known as the “National
Integrated Protected Areas System (NIPAS).
A. DEPARTMENT AND ADMINISTRATIVE ORDER No. 25 Series of 1992

B. DEPARTMENT AND ADMINISTRATIVE ORDER No. 02 Series of 1993
C. DEPARTMENT AND ADMINISTRATIVE ORDER No. 07 Series of 2006
D. DEPARTMENT AND ADMINISTRATIVE ORDER No. 10 Series of 2004
415. This Administrative Order shall be known as the Revised Implementing Rules and
Regulations of the NIPAS Act of 1992, Pursuant to Section 10(d) of the NIPAS Act and
consistent with the Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act (R.A. No. 9147),
Caves and Cave Resources Management and Protection Act (R.A. No. 9072), Philippine
Mining Act of 1995 (R.A. No. 7942), and other laws establishing the specific components
of the NIPAS.
a. DEPARTMENT AND ADMINISTRATIVE ORDER No. 26 Series of 2008

b. DEPARTMENT AND ADMINISTRATIVE ORDER No. 26 Series of 2009
c. DEPARTMENT AND ADMINISTRATIVE ORDER No. 07 Series of 2006
d. DEPARTMENT AND ADMINISTRATIVE ORDER No. 10 Series of 2004
416. RA no.7586 otherwise known as National Integrated Protected Areas System Act
of 1992 had established the following protected areas:
I. Strict nature Reserve;

II. Natural park;
III. Natural Monument;
IV. Wildlife Sanctuary
V. Protected Landscape and
Seascapes;
VI. Resources Reserve;
VII. Natural Biotic Areas; and
VIII. Other categories established by Law, conventions, or international agreements
which the Philippines Government is a Signatory.
Except for the two areas as categorized above, exploration for energy resources can be
conducted in those other areas. What are these two areas?
a. II, VI
b. I, VI
c. III, V
d. I, II
417. Refers to a protected area occupant who has been actually and continuously
occupying portion of the protected area subject to the provisions of Rule 15 of the revised
IRR of DAO 26 series of 2008.
a. Tenured Migrant
b. Tenured migrant communities
c. Protected Area Occupants
Chapter 6 –Land Use Planning in Protected Areas (Environmentally-Constrained

Areas, Outdoor Recreation in Protected Areas)
418. What is the third group of protected areas that are prone to natural hazards,
specifically weather, hydraulic and geologic?
a. Non -NIPAS protected areas

b. Environmentally-Constrained Areas
c. Reserve prime agricultural areas
d. nota
419. Following are natural hazards.
I. tropical cyclone winds

II. Ground shaking
III. Ground ruptures
IV. Tropical cyclone rains
V. landslide
a. l, ll, lll
b. l, lll, lv
c. l, lv, v
d. I, ll, lll, lv, v
420. Aside from the occasional flooding due to severe monsoon weather, the country
experience about ________tropical cyclone a year.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
421. Following are usually experienced during tropical cyclones.
l. excessive rainfall
ll.strong winds
lll. storm surges
lv.lightning
v.landslide
a. l,ll,lll,v
b. l,ll,lv,v
c. ll,lll,lv,v
d. l,ll,lll,lv
422. Tropical cyclones which read typhoon intensity wind of over ______kph are
considered destructive.
a. 90
b. 100
c. 120
d. 140
423. The strongest winds recorded occurred along the country's ________ .
a. east cost
b. north east cost
c. south cost
d. south west cost
424. Reasons of heavy rainfalls are.
l. quasi stationary typhoon

ll. slow moving typhoon passes to northeast luzon.
lll. slow moving typhoon passes to western Luzon
lv. slo mo typhoon passes eastern visayas.
a. l,ll,lll
b. ll,lll
c. lll,lv
d. l,lll,lv
425. When a tropical cyclone approaches the coastal area, strong onshore winds can
cause a rise of several meters in the sea level which we call.
a. tsunami
b. storm surge
c.drought
d.pyroclastic flow
426. This hazard occurs when there is insufficient water to meet requirements for
various uses such as irrigation, power generation and household consumption.
a. drought
b. storm surge
c. tropical cyclone rains
427. The Philippines is a seismically active country, with at least five earthquakes
occurring every day. The major earthquake generators include the following.
l. Manila Trench
ll. negros trench
lll. davao trench
lv. cotabato trench
v. lubang faults
a. l,ll,lll
b. ll,lll,lv
c. lll,lv,v
d. l,ll,lll,lv,v
428. Following are the various hazards resulting from earthquakes
l. ground shaking
ll. ground rupture
lll. liquifaction and lateral spreading
lv. landslides
v. tsunai
a. l,lll,lv
b. l,lll,v
c. ll,lll,lv
d. l,ll,lll,lv,v
429. The Philippines has approximately more than ______which are distributed in five
volcanic belts related to the subduction processes along the various trenches bounding
the country.
a. 100
b. 150
c. 200
d. 250
430. Lahar is more devastating than the other hazards as they can affect low-lying and
populated areas as far as_________.
a. 20-30km
b. 30-40km
c. 40-50km
d. nota
431. A great risk is involved during an eruption, hence permanent settlement are
discouraged within this zone. The danger zone radius from the crater of Mayon vocano
is _______ .
a. 4km
b. 5km
c. 6km
d. 10km
432. Soil erosion happens mostly in
l. CAR
ll. Region ll
lll. Region VIII, X
lv. Region XI, XII
a. l,ll,lll
b. ll,lll,lv
c. l,ll,lv
d. l,ll,lll,lv
433. The government should undertake a full review of methods and resources needed
to implement disaster protection plans to include:
a. legal structures
b. building permit authorization procedures
c. staffing levels
d. aota
434. Classification of recreation resources are as follows.
l. High density
ll. general outdoor
lll.unique natural
lv primitive areas
v. natural environment
vl. historic and cultural
a. l,ll,lll
b. l,lll,lv,v
c. ll,lll,lv,v,vl
d. l,ll,lll,lv,v,vl
435. Some of the hazardous effects of soil erosion area:
l. Disposition areas along waterways is reduced.

ll. the subsoil layer marginally productive to agricultural activities
lll. sedimentations imperils the irrigation systems, water supply and power capacities of
reservoirs.
lv. forcible expulsion of water and sediments in the surface in the form of water and
sand fountaining.
a. l,ll
b. l,ll,lll
c. l,ll,lv
d. l,ll,lll,lv
436. Defined as a low-impact environmentally sound and community-participatory tourism

activity in a given natural environment that enhances the conservation of bio-physical and
cultural diversity.
a. Resort Market Development

b. Shoreline Development
c. Eco-tourism Development
d. Coastal Tourism Development
437. It is the removal, transport and deposition of sediments.
a. lahar
b. landslide
c. erosion
d. nota
438. In this kind of user characteristic, the activities become most important feature and
a great deal of alteration is acceptable and often necessary to protect the area against
the damaging effect of heavy use.
a. Intermediate-type recreation resources

b. resource-based recreation
c. primary -type recreation
d. user-oriented recreation
439. In this kind of user characteristic the environment is all important in these designated
uses and so human impact must be minimized except in limited areas where visitor
number is very high.
a. user-oriented recreation
b. intermediate type
c. resource -based recreation
d. primary -type recreation
440. Which user characteristic categories are not appropriate for for protected areas?
a. user oriented
b. intermediate type
c. resource -based
d. nota
441. The terrain in develop urban areas is usually limited to relatively flat areas with
slopes from
_____to avoid serious drainage problems and the engineering problems encountered in
building in steeper slope.
a. 3-5%
b. 3-6%
c. 3-8%
d. 3-10%
442. Rural or underdeveloped terrain fulfills of practical aesthetic and recreational needs
which can be classified into _____groups.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. nota
443. The second groups for the rural / underdeveloped terrain are intended for
educational and scientific purposes include:
l. nature reserves
ll. botanical and geological
collection lll. arboreta
a. l,ll
b. l,lll
c. ll,lll
d. l,ll,lll
444. In the third group classification of underdeveloped terrain, color must be in

harmonious combination as follows:
l. white and orange

ll. yellow and green
lll. yellow and blue
lv. Indigo and black
v. white and red
a. l,lll,lv
b. l,ll,v
c. l,lv,v
d. l,ll,ll
445. In underdeveloped terrain, following are attractive physiographic features, except.
l. hills and mountains

ll. open water
lll. coastal area
lv. wood land
a. l,ll,lll
b. l,lll,lv
c. l,ll,lv
d. nota
446. Give dramatic quality to the scene.
a. hills and mountains

b. open water
c. woodlands
d. nota
447. It’s always attractive specially when it is in motion.
a. hills
b. mountains
c. coast
d. open water
Chapter 7 – Land Use Planning in Ancestral Domain-ADSDPP Process
448. It serves as the basis of the Five-Year Master Plan defined under the Implementing
rules and Regulations of RA 8371. (Sec. 8, Part II, Rules VIII)
a. ADSDPP
b. CLUP
c. DMP
d. FMP
e. FSP
449. The Ancestral Domain Sustainable Development and Protection Plan preparation
hinges on the rights of the ICCs/IPs to freely pursue their:
a. Political, economic, social and cultural activities

b. Economic and social strategies
c. Economic, protection, political and cultural activities
d. Cultural heritage and social protection
e. Rights under the IPRA Law
450. The following are the contents of the ADSDPP according to Section 2 of Rule VII,
the ADSDPP basic information; except.
a. Manner by which the ICCs/IP will protect the domain

b. Basic community policies covering the implementation of all forms of development
activities in the area
c. Forest Management Plan
d. Kind or type of development programs adopted and decided by the ICC/IPs
e. Basic management system, including the sharing benefits and responsibilities
among members of the concerned ICC/IP community
451. The goals of the ADSDPP shall be the following:
I. sustainable natural resources management

II. sustainable farming systems
III. sustainable livelihood
IV. cultural integrity
V. cultural awareness
VI. self-determination
VII. lasting peace with nature, environment and among all creation
a. i,ii,iii,iv,v
b. I,ii,iii,v,vi,vii
c. I,ii,iv,v,vi,vii
d. I,iii,v, viii
e. I,ii,iii,iv,v,vii
452. The overall approach to the ADSDPP shall promote the integration of the
indigenous people’s spirituality as the life force that generates:
I. unity,
II. peaceful community
III. harmony,
IV. cultural awareness
V. integrity, of all people and their cultures, into all phases of the ancestral domain
programs
a. i,ii,iii,iv,v,
b. i,ii,iii,
c. i,ii,iv,v
d. i,iii,v
e. i,ii,iii,v
453. The Guiding Principles in the ADSDPP formulation of programs, projects and
activities shall be guided by the following principles, except.
a. System-oriented and integrated approach

b. Integration of gender concerns in development
c. Interface of indigenous customary laws and indigenous knowledge systems and
practices (IKSP) with the present systems of governance
d. Integration of executive legislative agenda
e. A concern for meeting the needs of present and future generations
f. Awareness of limits in the carrying capacity of ecosystems
g. Maintenance and strengthening of vital ecosystem functions in the development
process
h. A concern for resource use efficiency
i. Recognition that poverty is both a cause and a consequence of environmental
degradation
j. Concern for equity in access to and control of natural resources
k. Promotion of citizen’s/people participation and decentralization in implementing
programs.
454. The procedures in the ADSDPP preparation combine the legal requirements and the
actual experiences of communities that had prepared their Ancestral Domain Resources
Management Plan (ADORMP) under the following:
a. DENR-DAO No. 36-96, as well as Rule VII and Rule VIII of the IRR of 8371
b. DENR-DAO No. 34-96, as well as Rule VI and Rule VII of the IRR of 8371
c. DENR-DAO No. 34-96, as well as Rule VII and Rule VIII of the IRR of 8371
d. DENR-DAO No. 14-96, as well as Rule VII and Rule VIII of the IRR of 8371
455. One of the important activity before the preparation of the plan is levelling-off of
understanding among the key leaders of the community about the objectives, contents
and
___________of the planning.
a. Venue
b. Schedule
c. Strategies
d. Resource Persons
e. Funding Source
456. During the Information dissemination activities, the primary entities involved in
planning are key leaders in the community such as respected _____________, LGU
officials, peace pact holders in bodong areas, and sectoral representatives from women,
youth, church, business, academe, heads of socio-civic organizations, etc.
a. barangay Officials
b. chief of policemen
c. teachers
d. elders
e. school principal
457. In addition to the IPRA, the following are the topics discussed during the information
dissemination campaign: except.
a. Development concepts for an ancestral domain community

b. Guiding Principles of the Framework for community development, activities,
programs and projects
c. Peace process in conflict affected areas
d. Components of a development plan for the ancestral domain
e. Objectives of the Plan
458. One of the additional ADSDPP objectives is to maintain and protect the following:
I. the quality of common resources such as air and water in the communities;
II. the environment and biological species and generic diversity in the natural resources as in
forest and water;
III. original settlers whether IP or none-IP
IV. the integrity of essential ecological processes and life-support systems
a. i,ii,iv
b.) I,ii,ii,iv
c.) i,ii
d.) I,ii,iii
459. The ADSDPP should be built upon existing resources including indigenous
knowledge systems, practices and ______________ institutions.
a. Educational
b. Traditional
c. Technical
d. Cultural
460. The ADSDPP should be _______ and practicable.
a. Simple
b. Creative
c. Innovative
d. Inventive
461. The ADSDPP should be____________ to the needs and aspirations of the
communities.
a. receptive
b. responsive
c. reactive
d. complimentary
462. The plan should be based on facts and figures. One basic information required
before preparation of the plan is the ______________________ of the community.
a. leaders
b. cultural heritage
c. cultural awareness
d. Socio-economic profile
463. The technical processes involved in ADSDPP plan preparation may involve the
following sequential steps:
I. Development needs assessment

II. Baseline survey
III. Formulation of the ADSDPP
IV. Validation of the Plan
V. Submission of the ADSDPP to LGU
VI. Submission of the ADSDPP to NCIP
VII. Dissemination of the ADSDPP
a. II, I, III, IV, VI, V, VII

b. I,II, III, IV,V,VI,VII
c. II, I, III, V,IV,VI, VII
d. I,II,III, IV, VI,VII, V
464. The over-all content of ADSDPP plans are the following:
I. A description of the community resources (e.g. skills, knowledge, and practices);

II. An articulation of the community’s vision
III. A description of activities/program/projects to achieve the vision given the
resources to implement the plan
IV. Articulation of issues that need resolution and corresponding recommendations
V. Description of Tribal Halls and Village
a. i,ii,iii,v
b. I,ii,iii,iv,v
c. i,ii,iii,iv
d. i,ii,iii,v
465. The following are the components of development plans for ancestral domain
communities.
1 Agricultural/ on-farm improvements;
2. Non-farm improvements;
3__________________;
4. Basic Social Services;
5. Institutional development and local governance;
6. Management and development of natural resources and ecosystems.
7. Capability building/education and training for youth, women, LGUs and existing IP
Organizations;
8. Programs for accelerating the completion of the process for the award of CADT and
CALT.
a. Credit Support service

b. Physical Infrastructure
c. Farm-to Market roads
d. Relevant education
e. Livestock raising
466. There are three key thoughts for the NCIP to consider in formulating the ADSDPP.
1. On how to classify the ethnic groups into a few manageable categories,

2. On the desired substantive context of the ADSDPP document, and
3. _____________________________________________________ .
a. On the integration of the ADSDPP into the local planning system of the host LGU
b. ADSDPP preparation should form an integral part of the periodic and cyclical planning
activities of the LGU
c. Basic Management System
d. Basic Community Policy
467. The ethno-ecological framework is an original idea of anthropologist
a. Eric S. Cariño
b. Larry Casiño
c. Eric S. Casiño
d. Larry Tungpalan
Chapter 8 – Land Use Planning for the Urban Sector
468. Urban land use planning primarily involves regulating the location, intensity and
direction of development rather than merely allocating land areas for such space using
function of city life, as the following; ________________________________ .
I. Residential
II. Commercial
III. Industrial
IV. Institutional
V. Recreational
a. I, II, IV, V
b. I, II, IV
c. I, II, III, IV
469. Urban land use as a government function therefore entails ____________ in the
decisions made by private property owners.
a. Public Intervention
b. Private Intervention
c. Private and Public Intervention
d. NOTA
470. Land use planning for the urban sector is a subset of _______________________.
a. Land Development Planning

b. Urban Design
c. Comprehensive Land Use Planning
d. Comprehensive Development Planning
471. The National Statistics Office started to define an urban area in the year _____
census.
a. 1975
b. 1960
c. 1965
d. 1980
472. The total number of population per square kilometre to defined a Cities and
Municipalities according to National Statistics Office
a. 500
b. 1000
c. 750
d. 1500
473. The population density of person per square kilometre for Poblaciones or Central
Districts of Municipalities and Cities as defined by National Statistic Office.
a. 1000
b. 1500
c. 750
d. 500
474. The following are the characteristic that defined the Poblaciones or Central
Districts;
I. Street Pattern;
II. Commercial Establishment;
III. Manufacturing;
IV. Recreational and/ or personal services
V. Town Hall, Church or Chapel
VI. Public Plaza, Park or Cemetery
VII. Market Place; and
VIII All Public Building
a. I, II, III, IV
b. V, VI, VII VIII
c. Both A&B
d. I, II, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII
475. The number of inhabitants that defined the Barangay, and where the occupation of
the inhabitants is predominantly agriculture.
a. 1000
b. 1500
c. 750
d. 500
476. Classified as urban is usually contiguous to the traditional urban core or poblacion,
it can be analysed in its own right and treated as forming another urban node in addition
to the traditional poblacion.
a. Hamlet
b. Sitio
c. Barrio
d. Urban Place
477. This peculiar morphology of the typical Philippine town resembles strongly the
generalized model that was adopted from _________________.
a. Daniel Burnham
b. Lorne H. Russwurm
c. F. Stuart Chapin, Jr.
d. Edward J. Kaiser
478. The generalized model that was adopted from Lorne H. Russwurm has the
following sector of the town that can be recognized morphologically.
I. Urban Core
II. Urban Fringe
III, Rural Hinterland
IV. Suburb
V. Sub rural
a. I, II, III
b. IV, V
c. I, II, IV, V
479. The rural sector can also be conceived of as consisting of the following
components;
I. Urban Shadow
II. Urban Fringe
III. Rural Hinterland
IV. Built up Areas
a. I, III,
b. II, IV
c. I, II, III
d. I, II, III, IV
480. It lies immediately outside the poblacion, it may comprise the inner fringe and outer
fringe according to an area’s distance from the edge of the poblacion.
a. Urban Core
b. Rural Hinterland
c. Urban Fringe
d. Urban Barrio
481. Sometimes also called "urban-rural fringe," is the area of land where town meets
country, and the area most often reserved for urban-based people who wish to be closer
to nature and for industries that require large amounts of open land such as airports and
wind farms.
a. Urban Core
b. Rural Hinterland
c. Urban Fringe
d. Urban Barrio
482. Rural in character but signs of urban influences are evident such as the presence
of economic activities directed at servicing the urban market.
a. Rural Sector
b. Rural Hinterland
c. Urban Fringe
d. Urban Shadow
483. The typical urban shadows industries include the following;
I. Cut flower or vegetables garden

II. Sash factories
III. Wood works
IV. Steel fabrications
V. Poultry and piggery farms
a. I, II, III
b. IV, V
c. I, III, II, IV, V
d. I, II, III, V
484. Consider as the “urban sector” in a typical town, and historically the first urban area
where urban development and expansion proceeds whether in a planned or in a
spontaneous manner.
a. The Urban Places

b. The Poblacion
c. The Urban Barrio
d. The Urban Barangay
485. Referring to the lowest level of political units younger generation of Filipinos.
a. Barangay
b. Barangay Capitan
c. Barangay Kagawad
d. Sangguniang Kabataan (SK)
486. Served as the administrative, religious, cultural, commercial and service center of
the town.
a. Municipal Hall
b. Commercial District
c. Poblacion
d. Urban Nodes
487. It is compact in form which is the inevitable outcome of the street pattern of the
poblacion prescribed by no less than the king of Spain during the Spanish regime.
a. Rectilinear
b. Irregular
c. Radial
d. Gridiron
488. Urban form stereotype that represented the small clusters of house of the native
inhabitants in the barrios.
a. Dispersed Cluster
b. Galaxy Settlements
c. Concentric and Nodal form
d. Radial and Circumferential
489. The formation of the poblacion originated from the policy of Spanish colonist which
literally involved the reduction of thousands of scattered settlements into a smaller
number of larger compact communities.
a. Policy of Settlement Concentration

b. Policy of Dispersed Settlement
c. Policy of Compact Settlement
d. Policy of Dispersed and Compact Settlement
490. A smaller of larger compact communities and a concentration of several barangays

often comprising up to 500 families.
a. Poblacion
b. Cabecera
c. Pueblos
d. Urban Barrio
491. Became one of the top Philippine advisers of William Howard Taft, and in 1905 he
published “Philippine Life in Town and Country”, which is still considered today as one of
the best foreign narratives of travels and observations in turn-of-the-20th-century
Philippines.
a. Robert R. Reed
b. James A LeRoy
c. Lorne H. Russwurm
d. Daniel Burnham
492. The smaller clusters or barrios and even much smaller groups of houses in the
Philippines up to present time are called ___________.
a. Rural Barrios
b. Barangays
c. Hamlets
d. Sitios
493. The dualistic physical of Spanish towns that characterized Philippines landscape
throughout the 20th century.
I. Poblacion-Barrio
II. Urban-Rural Town
III. Urban Core
IV. Rural Hinterland
V. Plaza Complex
a. I, V
b. III, IV
c. II, V
d. I, II
494. This Hispanic Master Plan characterized by the presence of central open air park
called___________.
a. Towns
b. Tribunal or Town Hall
c. Recreational Park
d. Plaza
495. The following are the principal building directly fronting and surrounded the plaza
of the Hispanic Master Plan. Except
a. Principal Church
b. Tribunal or Townhall
c. Residences of the Towns Elite, Principalia
d. Public Building
e. Lodging House
496. The most visually prominent among the structure around the plaza complex.
a. Principal Church
b. Tribunal or Townhall
c. Residences of the Towns Elite, Principalia
d. Public Building
497. The Local Finance Committee (LFC) is composed of the following, except one
A. Local Chief Executive
B. Local Planning and Development Coordinator
C. Local Budget Officer
D. Local Treasurer
498. Who reviews and consolidates the budget proposals of diﬀerent

departments and offices of the LGU and also assist the LCE in the preparation of the
budget and during consultation meetings with stakeholders?
A. Local Treasurer
B. Local Budget Officer
C. Local Planning and Development Coordinator
D. Local Finance Committee
499. Planning strategies of new construction on scattered vacant or underutilized lots in

the established neighborhoods and business districts of your community. Typically
located closer to the center of your community and are already served by public
infrastructure, such as roads, water and sewer lines.
a. Densification
b. Cluster Planning
c. Functional Grouping
d. Infill development
500. Planning strategies that optimize use of land by building on available open spaces
within developments and expanding vertically. Developing the open areas on the outskirts
of cities/municipalities lead to indiscriminate conversion of “Greenfields” and contribute to
urban sprawl. It’s also ideal strategies for developments in constricted areas.
a. In-Filling and Densification

b. Cluster Planning
c. Functional Grouping
d. Smart Growth
501. The following are the idealized models or prototype of urban development, and
urban growth or expansion in the Philippines;
I. Spontaneous Development through Influx of Population

II. Urban Growth through Windfalls in Household Income
III. Urban Growth through Modernized Agriculture
IV. Urban Growth through Industrial Location/Expansion
V. Cities in Towns and Social Equity Issues
VI. The Metropolitan Areas
a. I, II, III
b. IV, V, VI
c. Both A& B
502. Under this model, the main reason fast population growth of town or city is being the
receiver of movers being pushed out of certain areas by natural and manmade calamities.
Such calamities include;
I. Squatter Resettlements
II. Insurgency Victims
III. Victims of Natural Calamities
IV. Alternative to Resettlements
V. Location of regional government centre
a. I, II, III,
b. I, II, IV, V
c. II, III, IV, V
d. I, II, III, IV
503. The planning and development of resettlement site has always been responsibility
of the
_______________.
a. Local Government Unit

b. Provincial Government Unit
c. Regional Development Council
d. National Government
504. The impact of resettlement areas in terms of changing the urban forms of the host
locality is easy to detect they contribute to _____________.
a. Urban Sprawl
b. Suburbanization
c. Urbanization
d. Urban Growth
505. A major cause of significant population movements particularly from areas of

armed conflict into large urban centers.
a. Squatter Drugs Conflict

b. Insurgency Victims
c. Victims of Kidnap for Ransoms
d. Victims of Drug and Fire Arms Abuse
506. An act to provide for a comprehensive and continuing urban development and
housing program on resettlements.
a. RA 9653
b. RA 7835
c. RA 6846
d. RA 7279
507. Another government response which seemingly reinforce this thrust toward on-site
development and urban renewal.
a. Community Mortgage Programs

b. Abot-Kaya Pabahay Fund
c. National Shelter Programs
d. Integrated Shelter and Urban Development Programs
508. Under this model the main stimulus to urban development is the net capital inflow
accruing from the windfall incomes of households, and investments of institutions and
government, into a particular locality.
a. Spontaneous Development through Influx of Population
b. Urban Growth through Windfalls in Household Income
c. Urban Growth through Modernized Agriculture
d. Urban Growth through Industrial Location/Expansion
e. Cities in Towns and Social Equity Issues
509. The following are the major contributors of net capital inflow in the Philippines towns
and cities. These are;
I. Export of manpower (particular oversees
II. Development of local tourist potentials
III. Siting of major Institutions
IV. Regional Government Center
V. Foreign direct investment and portfolio investment.
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, V
c. II, III, IV
510. A net flow of capital, real and/or financial, into a country, in the form of increased
purchases of domestic assets by foreigners and/or reduced holdings of foreign assets by
domestic residents. Recorded as positive, or a credit in the balance on capital account.
a. Net Capital Outflow

b. Net Income Inflow
c. Net Income Capital Inflow
d. Net Capital Inflow
511. This contributors of net capital inflow undoubtedly one of the country major
industries. The impact of this policy on the country foreign exchange reserves is already
well-known.
a. Investment in local tourist potentials

b. Remittances from Deployed Labor (export of manpower)
c. Location of major institutions
d. Foreign Direct Investment
512. In what particular section of LGC of 1991 (RA 7160) stated that the development of
tourist resources, tourism promotion and development have been devolved to LGU?
a. Section 17
b. Section 19
c. Section 20
d. Section 22
513. This model or prototype of urban development, and urban growth is exemplified by
town that are located within the sphere of influence of large metropolitan centre. Farming
towns exploit their location advantage by serving as market gardens of the metropolis.
a. Urban Growth through Windfalls in Household Income

b. Urban Growth through Modernized Agriculture
c. Urban Growth through Industrial Location/Expansion
d. Cities in Towns and Social Equity Issues
514. An Act prescribing urgent related measures to modernize the Agriculture and
Fisheries Sectors of the country in order to enhance their profitability, and prepare said
sectors for the challenges of the globalization through an adequate, focused and rational
delivery of necessary support services.
a. RA 7279
b. RA 8550
c. RA 7916
d. RA 8435
515. The reclassification of land from agriculture to urban use allowed under Section 20
of the Local Government Code of 1991 under the following conditions:
I. When the land ceases to be economically feasible and sound for agricultural purposes
as determined by the Department of Agriculture.
II. Where the land shall have substantially greater economic value for residential,
commercial, or industrial purposes, as determined by the Sanggunian.
III. When the provincial governor so desires.
IV. When the governor or mayor orders such reclassification
A. I, IV
B. III, IV
C. II, III
D. I, II
516. Reclassification of agricultural land shall be limited to the following percentage of the
total agricultural area in highly urbanized and Independent cities at the time of the
passage of the ordinance.
A. 30%
B. 15%
C. 25%
D. 20%
517. Under the Local Government Code (RA 7160) reclassification of agricultural land in
component cities & first class municipalities shall be limited to:
A. 5%
B. 20%
C. 15%
D. 10%
518. Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceiling under various legal
issuances, e.g. Local government code. Under the AFMA, only 5% of the SAFDDC areas
maybe converted to other use, while the LDC limits to:
A. 15% of Agricultural land in highly urbanized and independent component cities

B. 10% of total arable land in any town
C. 5% of total arable land in the
city D. AOTA
519. The following are the major institutions that contribute a significant capital inflow
into the host local economy.
I. Regional Hospitals
II. Universities
III. Convention Center
IV. Military Camps
V. Private Universities
VI. Private Hospitals
A. I, II, III, IV
B. III, V, VI
C. I, II, III, V, VI
D. I, II, III, IV, V, VI
520. A well-known process and industrial dispersal that remain a favorite and recurring
process regional development strategy in the Philippines.
A. Urban Growth through Windfalls in Household Income

B. Urban Growth through Modernized Agriculture
C. Urban Growth through Industrial Location/Expansion
D. Cities in Towns and Social Equity Issues
521. A theory developed by Swedish economist Gunnar Myrdal in the year 1956. It is a
multi-causal approach where the core variables and their linkages are delineated.
A. Circular cumulative causation

B. Behavioral Theory
C. Regional Industrial Locational Theory
D. Industrial Estates Theory
522. An extended city or town area comprising the built-up area of a central place
(usually a municipality) and any suburbs linked by continuous urban area
A. Urban Area
B. Conurbation
C. Urban Agglomeration
D. Metropolitan
523. The Special Economic Zone Act of 1995.
A. RA 7916
B. RA 8435
C. RA 7279
D. RA 7586
524. In what particular section of RA 7916 stated that industrial firm within economic
zone enjoy a lot tax-free privileges.
A. Section 22
B. Section 15
C. Section 24
D. Section 25
525. This Executive Order prescribed the criteria and procedure for site selection of
industrial tourism and socialized housing purposes.
A. EO 25
B. EO 26
C. EO 30
D. EO 124
526. Another variation on industrial location model is the location of major transport
facilities that have a very strong impact on the local economy and land use pattern
I. Airport
II. North & South Harbour Manila
III. Seaport
IV. Train Station
V. Bus Terminal

B. I, III, IV, V
C. I, II, III, IV
D. I, II, III
527. This model or prototype of urban development, and urban growth, pertains to large
private development that take up a considerable portion of the land area of a given
municipality, e.g Ayala in Makati and Cebu, BGC in Taguig, Ortigas in Pasig.
A. Urban Growth through Windfalls in Household Income

B. Urban Growth through Modernized Agriculture
C. Urban Growth through Industrial Location/Expansion
D. Cities in Towns and Social Equity Issues
528. Refers to the beneficiaries of UDHA and to individuals or families residing in urban
and urbanizable areas whose income or combined household income falls within the
poverty threshold as defined by the NEDA and who do not own housing facilities.
A. Underprivileged and homeless citizens

B. Small property owners
C. Professional squatters
D. Resettlement
529. Refers to housing programs and projects covering houses and lots or homelots only
undertaken by the Government or the private sector for the underprivileged and homeless
citizens.
A. Socialized housing
B. Economic Housing
C. Small Housing
D. PD 957
530. Refers to those whose only real property consists of residential lands not exceeding
three hundred square meters (300 sq.m.) in highly urbanized cities and eight hundred
square meters (800 sq.m.) in other urban areas.
A. PD 957 home owners

B. Professional Property Owners
C. Bigtime Property owners
D. Small property owners
531. Refers to areas identified by the appropriate national agency or by the local
government unit with respect to areas within its jurisdiction, which shall be used for the
relocation of the underprivileged and homeless citizens.
A. Migration areas
B. Small property owners
C. Squatters Areas
D. Resettlement areas
532. The rational approach of allocating available resources as equitably as possible

among competing user groups and for different functions consistent with the development
plan of the area and the program under UDHA.
A. Land swapping
B. Land banking
C. Land use plan
D. Areas for priority development
533. The ultimate form of urban areas known as urban region, functional urban region
or conurbation.
A. Metropolitan
B. Megapolis
C. National Region
D. Exurbia
534. A geographical area, extending across several local government boundaries

forming in socio-economic terms a single continuous urban region.
A. Urbanization
B. Urban Continuum
C. Metropolitan Agglomeration
D. Conurbation
535. Area beyond the daily commuting range that are considered outside the
metropolitan.
A. Exurbia
B. Rural Hinterland
C. Suburbs
D. Exurban-Rural Continuum
536. According to Jean Gottman these form in extremely large metropolitan areas there
may be a number of central cities each having its own suburban hinterlands as well as
open unbuilt areas between them.
A. Exurban-Rural Continuum
B. Urban Continuum
C. Metropolis
D. Megapolis
E. Metropolitan Agglomeration
537. Friedman and Miller, American Planners believe that a metropolitan areas covers an
urban field consisting of a core area of at least __________ people and a surrounding
territory within a radius of 100 miles.
A. 300,000
B. 200,000
C. 400,000
D. 500,000
538. The concept of metropolis in the Philippines is the __________________ which,

according to the Local Government Code, is a city having a population of 200,000 or
more.
A. Highly Density City

B. Highly Urbanized Urban Core
C. Highly Urbanized City
D. Highly Urbanized Metropolis.
539. The early stages of urbanization the tendency for the population and economic
activities is to concentrate in the ________.
A. Dense City
B. Core City
C. Suburbs
D. Urban Nodes
540. The following are the factors, phenomenon and process of suburbanization.
I. Environmental Factors
II. Economic Factors
III. Technological Factors
IV. Historical-materialistic Perspective
V. The role of the State
A. I, II, IV, V
B. I, II, III, IV
C. I, II, III, V
541. The following are the effect of suburbanization that is associated with metropolitan
growth.
I. Social Issues
II. Economic Issues
III. Environmental Issues
IV. Political Issues
A. I, II III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. I, II, IV
D. II, III, IV
542. This factor of suburbanization is associated with the activities of land development
and real estate developers.
A. Social Factors
B. Economic Factors
C. Environmental Factors
D. Political Factors
543. The main factors that drives residents out from the central city is the generally
unsatisfactory living condition resulting from overcrowding.
A. Social Factors
B. Economic Factors
C. Environmental Factors
D. Political Factors
542. This issues of the effect of suburbanization stem from the massive flight of
business and industrial firms from the central city to suburbs town.
A. Social Issues
B. Economic Issues
C. Political Issues
D. Environmental Issues.
543. This issue is the most significant effect of suburbanization in the conversion of
agricultural lands to urban area.
A. Social Issues
B. Economic Issues
C. Political Issues
D. Environmental Issues.
544. American Planner believes that a metropolitan area covers an urban field
consisting of a core area of at least 300,000 people and a surrounding territory within a
radius of 100 miles.
A. Friedman and Miller

B. Jean Gottman
C. Daniel Burnham
D. Chapin and Godschalk
545. A French geographer who was best known for his seminal study on the urban region
of the Northeast megalopolis. His main contributions to human geography were in the
sub-fields of urban, political, economic, historical and regional geography.
A. Friedman and Miller

B. Jean Gottman
C. Daniel Burnham
D. Chapin and Godschalk
Chapter 9– The CLUP and The Mgt. of Local Territories
546. The ________________ is the most extensive of geological coverage as it

embraces the entire territorial jurisdiction of LGU.
a. CDP
b. CLUP
c. LDIP
d. AIP
547. The preparation of the CLUP is mandated to all __________________.
a. Local government
b. HLURB
c. Sangguniang Panlunsod
d. National government
548. The term _______________ is generally understood as a plan for the proper
management of land resources.
a. CLUP
b. CDP
c. Land Use Plan
d. LDIP
549. In the 1st view, CLUP is defined in the following translations.

I. Spatial dimension
II. Sectoral participation
III. Land allocation
IV. Spatial distribution
V. Land zoning

b. I, III, IV
c. I, III
d. II, III, V
550. CLUP is to CDP, comprehensive is to _________________.
a. Multi-disciplinary
b. Multi-sectoral
c. Multi-spatial dev’t
d. Multi-participatory
551. According to the other view of CLUP, comprehensive means _______________.
a. Multi-sectoral
b. multi-disciplinary
c. Encompassing territorial limits
d. Spatial dev’t
552. Even in the mids-1970, the __________________ has always rendered assistance
to local government in terms of planning process.
a. City planning office

b. HLURB
c. DILG
d. SP
553. CLUP as encompasses the entire territorial limit is interpreted right from the
physical framework planning initiatives of the ___________________ through its
secretariat, the NEDA.
a. HLURB
b. NLUC
c. NPFPP
d. PDP
554. There were confusions on how many plans that the LGU must be formulated as
stipulated in different mandates.
I. LGC
II. Town Planning Guidelines
III. HLURB Guidelines
IV. 1987 Constitutions
V. 1937 Constitutions
a. I, II
b. I, II, III
c. I, II, III, IV
555. LGC is to two plans, HLURB is to _________
a. 3 plans
b. 4 plans
c. 1 plan
d. 5 plans
556. CLUP is to SP, CDP is to _______
a. LDC
b. LGU
c. HLURB
d. DILG
557. CLUP is to zoning ordinance, CDP is to ___________
a. Sectoral
b. LDIP
c. ELA
d. land use plan
558. Other term of “Provincial Physical Framework Plan”.
a. Provincial Dev’t Plan

b. Provincial Framework Plan
c. Provincial Spatial Dev’t Plan
d. Provincial Comprehensive Dev’t Plan
559. The different domains of municipal territories are as follows:
I. Private domain
II. Public domain
III. Ancestral domain
IV. Coastal domain
V. Forest domain

b. I, II, III, IV
c. I, II, III
d. I, II
560. _______________ lands also include those owned by the Government

Corporation and instrumentalities.
a. Public lands
b. Forest lands
c. private lands
d. ancestral lands
561. Public lands include the following:
I. A&D
II. Forest
III. Mineral lands
IV. National parks
V. Territorial waters
a. II, III, IV, V

b. I, II, III, IV, V
c. I, II, III, IV
d. I, III, V
562. The rights of indigenous people with respect to their land were acquired since
immemorial but formally recognized after the implementation of ______________.
a. 1987 Constitution
b. NCIP
c. RA 8373
d. 1937 Constitution
563. The rights of IP’s/ICCs were formally institutionalized in ________ through the
implementation of RA 8371.
a. 1997
b. 1998
c. 1999
d. 1996
564. Ancestral lands are under the administrative responsibility of the

_________________.
a. RA 8371
b. Tribal leaders
c. NCIP
d. DENR
565. Type of domain that cannot be managed alone by the LGU and according to the
LGC, the LGU shall co-manage this land with the DENR.
a. Private domain
b. Public domain
c. Ancestral domain
d. A & D domain
566. What particular section and paragraph in the LGC mandated the co-management
of public domain to the LGU and DENR?
a. Sec. 10, par. a

b. Sec. 5, par. d
c. Sec. 3, par. j
d. Sec. 3, par. i
567. ______________ serves as the framework for the co-management of the national
territories and its component local territories between the national and local
governments.
a. CLUP
b. LGC
c. CDP
d. LDIP/AIP
568. The _________ is a corporation but it has a longer lifespan compare to an ordinary
corporation.
a. SSS
b. GSIS
c. LGU
d. Procter and gamble
569. In a particular LGU, the long-term framework (CLUP) shall be guided with the
formulation of a short-term programs and projects (CDP) to ensure the following:
I. Continuity
II. Rationality
III. Stability
IV. Partiality
V. Equality

b. I, II, III, IV
c. I, II, III
d. I, II
570. These plans serve as the counter part of CLUP.
I. PCLUP
II. RPFP
III. NFPP
IV. CDP
V. LDIP/AIP
a. I, II
b. I, II, III
c. I, II, III, IV
571. CLUP generally embodies the following policy areas;
I. Settlement areas
II. Protected areas
III. Production areas
IV. Infrastructure areas
V. Coastal areas

b. I, II, IV, V
c. I, II, III, IV
d. II, III, V
572. The four policy areas also correspond to the generalized areas within any given
administrative/political unit/territory to wit;
I. Areas for living

II. Areas for making a living
III. Areas taken up by infra
IV. Areas for life support
V. Areas for IPs/ICCs
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, II, IV, V
c. I, II, IV, V
d. II, III, IV, V
573. Life support or the protected areas are mainly producer of the following:
I. Area for waste disposal

II. Fresh food
III. Fresh air
IV. Safe water
V. Timber
a. I, III, IV, V
b. I, II, III, IV
c. II, III, IV, V
d. I, II, IV, V
574. The settle, production and infra areas are considered __________________.
a. Built environment
b. Working environment
c. Built areas
d. Working areas
575. From four policy areas, these are reduce to broad policy areas to wit;
I. Built form
II. Compress form
III. Unbuilt environment
IV. Build environment
V. Cluster form
a. I, III
c. II, V
d. I, III, IV
576. Settlement areas consist of the following:
I. Urban
II. Rural
III. IPs/ICCs Settlement
IV. Barangays
V. CARP lands

b. I, II, III
c. II, III, V
d. I, III, IV, V
577. Agricultural areas are divided with the following sectors;
I. Crops Land
II. Farm land
III. Livestock
IV. Forestry
V. Fisheries
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, III, IV, V
c. II, III, IV, V
578. The concept of the urban form is mainly to control the ___________ in the built
environment.
I. Expansion
II. Usage
III. Shape
IV. Direction
V. Intensity

b. III, IV, V
c. I, II, III, IV
d. II, III, IV
579. What are the stereotype forms of urban forms as enumerated by Kevin Lynch?
I. The core
II. The dispersed sheet
III. The galaxy
IV. the urban star
V. the urban ring
a. I, II
b. I, II, III
c. I, II, III, IV
580. The following are the basic contents of the CLUP.
I. Land use policy areas

II. Concept of urban form
III. Urban stereotype
IV. Land use policy
V. Zoning ordinance

B. I, II, III
C. I, II, III, IV
D. II, III, IV, V
Chapter 9– The Four Policy Areas of CLUP
581. The ________________ is the most important element of the city’s spatial
element.
a. Town center
b. CBD
c. Urban area
d. Rural area
582. Town center also is the nerve center of the ________________ life of the town.
I. Social
II. Economic
III. Geographical
IV. Developmental
V. Political

b. I, III, V
c. I, III, IV, V
d. I, V
583. It embodies the distinctive image of the town with which residents identify
themselves.
a. CBD
b. Urban center
c. downtown
d. town center
584. Town center performs the following:
I. Important element for spatial structure

II. Nerve center for the social and political life of the town
III. Where the most special functions area located
IV. Embodies the distinctive image of the town
V. Recreational center of the town
a. I, II, III, IV
c. II, III, IV, V
d. I, III, V
585. The design of a center is a bit more complicated if the town serves as
_____________.
I. Provincial capitol
II. Regional administrative center
III. Highly-urbanized
IV. Component
V. Tourism capital
a. I, II, III, IV
c. I, II
d. II, III, V
586. The design of _____________ deserves an identity with its own but should not
compete with the provincial capitol.
a. City/municipal hall
b. Town center
c. Urban center
d. Downtown
587. The host city/municipal hall design should complement a number of ways to wit:
I. Proximity
II. Architectural design
III. Building scale
IV. Ground
V. location

b. I, II, III, IV
c. II, III, IV, V
d. I, III, V
588. In settlement area, the important hierarchy of urban design are the following:
I. Visual distinction
II. Recognize easily
III. Unique design
IV. Dev’t equality
V. Location
a. I, II, III
b. I, III, V
c. I, II, III, IV, V
d. I, II, III, IV
589. The incorporation of _______________ has a little more problematic in urban

design of town.
a. City/municipal hall
b. Provincial center
c. Regional offices
d. Recreational center
590. _________________ are the models of regional offices in urban design.
I. Discreet
II. Star
III. Dispersed
IV. Core
V. indiscreet

b. I, V
c. I, II, III
d. II, III, V
591. The ____________________ is where the regional offices are consolidated in

one site usually at some distance from the existing built-up area of the host city.
a. Indiscreet model
b. star model
c. core model
d. discreet model
592. ___________________ is a sample of discreet model place.
a. Region 11 (davao city)

b. ARMM (cotabato city)
c. Region 7 (cebu city)
d. Region 5 (bicol)
593. Regions belong to discreet model are the following:
I. Region 2
II. Region 3
III. Region 5
IV. Region 8
V. ARMM

b. II, III, V
c. I, III, V
d. I, IV, V
594. Hypothesize discreet model is to urban advantage; in contrast discreet model is

to
________________.
a. Urban nightmare
b. urban dilemma
c. urban growth
d. urban sprawl
595. What are the focal points of the town at municipal level?
I. LGU halls
II. Churches/mosques
III. CBD
IV. Parks & plazas
V. recreational area

b. I, II, III, IV
c. II, III, IV, V
d. II, IV, V
596. In the four focal points in the municipality, what point in which the local
government cannot be influenced.
a. Local gov’t halls

b. Churches/mosque
c. CBD
d. parks and plazas
597. The formation of CBD in small towns usually follows the location of the
_______________.
a. Urban center
b. City/municipal hall
c. public market
d. downtown
598. In _________________ time, the four focal points have been put together in
one central location.
a. American
b. Spanish
c. British
d. Chinese
599. The plaza complex is usually loomed with _____________ that emerged
largely in the scenery.
a. Church
b. market
c. CBD
d. parks and plazas
600. An ideal _______________ provides a safe environment and adequate facilities

for child to play.
a. Neighbourhood
b. Eco-friendly city
c. Child-friendly city
d. Childhood
601. The possible factors to reorganize the town’s physical structure by the local
government are as follows:
I. Locational clearance
II. Zoning ordinance
III. Subdivision regulation
IV. Building permit
V. CLUP

b. I, III
c. II, III, V
d. I, II, III, IV
602. What should be the primary concern in structuring residential patterns for the
benefits of the residents?
I. Health
II. Safety
III. Employment
IV. Hazard zone
V. Access road
a. I, II
b. I, II, III
c. I, II, III, IV
603. A physical environment in which a mother knows that her child will have no
traffic streets to cross on his way to school is a principle of ________________.
a. neighbourhood unit
b. hazard free
c. danger zone
d. child-friendly zone
604. ________________ are usually scattered and are found in relatively remote
locations.
a. Urban growths
b. Rural developments
c. Rural settlements
d. Urban centers
605. The space for making a living are usually taken the following:
I. Commercial
II. Office
III. Industrial
IV. Agricultural
V. Tourism
a. I, II
b. I, II, III
c. I, II, III, IV
606. What production areas that are located in the built environment?
I. Commercial
II. Offices
III. Industries
IV. Mining
V. Malls
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, III, IV
c. II, III, V
607. What production areas that are located in the unbuilt environment?
I. Industries
II. Agriculture
III. Mining
IV. Forestry
V. tourism
a. I, II, III, V
b. I, III, V
c. II, III, IV, V
608. These areas provide employment to a substantial portion of the labor force.
a. Production areas
b. commercial areas
c. mining areas
d. agricultural areas
609. What sector in the production areas that could be found both in the built and
unbuilt environments?
a. Commercial
b. Industries
c. Agricultural
d. Sari-sari store
610. In the small provinces, the types of shopping facilities generally include the
_________.
a. Sari-sari store
b. Shopping center
c. Department store
d. Public market
611. These establishments usually locate along arterial roads thereby causing
enormous traffic congestions.
a. Shopping centers
b. Public markets
c. Sari-sari stores
d. Talipapa
612. The proliferation of offices should be evaluated in terms of its impact as follows:
I. Form & design

II. Circulation patterns
III. Communication services
IV. Local tax revenues
V. Land use classification & zoning
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, III, V
c. I, II, III, IV, V
d. II, III, IV, V
613. Production area that considered a polluter of the environment.
a. Agricultural area
b. Industrial area
c. Mining area
d. Plantation area
614. _________________ location must be carefully chosen especially in relation to

residential areas, schools and other sensitive activity areas.
a. Agricultural area
b. industrial area
c. Mining area
d. Plantation area
615. The location of industrial area must evaluated on the basis of their impact on the
following:
I. Environment
II. Traffic
III. Provision of services & utilities
IV. Sewerage system
V. telecommunication facilities

b. I, II, III, IV
c. I, II, III
d. II, III, IV, V
616. In developing an industrial estate, the location should be identified in the CLUP
but the site plan preparation should be commissioned to _______________.
a. City planning officer

b. City engineer
c. Site planner
d. Environmental planner
617. The evaluation as to the industrial estate to place under the status of a special
economic zone should lead to what in most advantageous to the ______________.
A. Capitalists
B. Local residents
C. LGU hosts
D. environment
618. Who will administer the ECOZONE?
A. National government
B. LGU
C. HLURB
D. Office of the President
619. Although the national government will take charge of the ECOZONE, the
_____________
will also serve as a member of the ECOZONE advisory body.
A. President
B. Mayor
C. Congressman
D. governor
620. The ______________ could not be imposed taxing powers in the business
establishments operating within the ECOZONE vicinity.
A. Provincial government
B. Business bureau
C. LGU
D. congress
621. What is the most extensive sector in the production areas in many localities?
a. commercial
b. agricultural
c. industrial
d. tourism
622. The peculiar characteristics of an agricultural area are as follows:
I. flat topography
II. Near to irrigation source
III. Close proximity to built-up areas
IV. Tropical area
V. fertile land
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. I,II,III
c. I,II,III,IV
d. I,III
623. Due to geographical feature, agricultural areas are often potential for
____________.
a. Urban expansion areas

b. large scale farming
c. production area
d. source of goods
624. _______________ are comprise of croplands.
a. farming areas
b. agricultural areas
c. plantation areas
d. cultivating areas
625. Large-scale __________________ devoted to croplands are not mapped as

district agricultural land use.
I. ranches
II. Livestock and grazing areas
III. Cropland areas
IV. Farming areas
V. plantation areas
a. I,II
b. I,II,III,IV
c. II,III,V
d. I,II,III,IV,V
626. _________________ are businesses include in the agriculture use but can be
classified as commercial or industrial use.
I. poultry
II. Banana plantation
III. food manufacturing
IV. Fishery
V. piggery
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. I,II,III
c. I,V
d. II,III,V
627. The sub-classification of agricultural cropland has distinct categories to wit:
I. annual crops and permanent crops

II. Irrigated and rain-fed
III. dry and rainy season
IV. Crops and animal farming
V. fruit and root crops seasons
a. I,II
b. I,II,III,V
c. II,III,V
d. I,II,III,IV,V
628. Crops that are place under the protection status by existing laws.
I. rice
II. cacao
III. Coconut
IV. Sweet potato
V. banana
A.I,II,III,IV,V
B . I,III
C.II,IiI
D. I,V
629. The conversion of mangrove areas into __________ is prohibited under RA

8550.
a. fishing areas
b. fishponds
c. resorts/beaches
d. recreational area
630. Sectors in the agricultural use that has restriction and protection under various
laws are the following:
I. cropland
II. Fishery
III. industry
IV. Commercial
V. tourism
a. I,II
b. I,V
c. I,II
d. I,II,III,IV,V
631. 5% to 15% is the allowable reclassification of agricultural land in

cities/municipalities under
________________.
a. sec. 16 of LGC
b. sec. 3 of LGC
c. sec. 20 of LGC
d. sec. 1 of LGC
632. RA 8435 prohibits the conversion of irrigated and potentially irrigable lands to
_________________.
a. urban uses
b. agricultural uses
c. industrial uses
d. commercial uses
633. Municipal waters comprise of the following:
I. streams
II. Lakes
III. inland bodies of waters
IV. Tidal waters
V. marine waters
a. I,II
b. I,II,III
c. I,II,III,IV
d. I,II,III,IV,V
634. Within the municipal waters, the host LGU is the responsible of
_______________ of all aquatic resources.
I. management
II. Conservation
III. Protection
IV. Fishing
V. controlling
a. IV,V
b. I,II,III
c. I,II,III,IV,V
d. II,III,IV
635. Commercial fishers are only allowed ___________________ in the municipal

water.
A. within 15 kms. From the municipal coastline

B. beyond 15 kms. From the municipal coastline
3 within 5 kms. From the municipal coastline
4 beyond 5 kms. From the municipal coastline
636. To avoid confusion on municipal waters’ boundaries, the host LGU shall conduct
__________________ with the technical assistance of NAMRIA.
I. delineation
II. Delimitation
III. GIS survey
IV. Marine survey
V. demarcation
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. I,II,V
c. II,III,IV
d. III,IV,V
637. Commercial fishers can operate within the 10.1 to 15 kms from the municipal
waters provided that the _____________ shall make an appropriate resolution
allowing the same to operation within the above distance within the municipal waters.
a. sanggunian
b. mayor
c. congressman
d. governor
638. Scheme that resolve conflicting issues on municipal water uses.
a. water use zonification scheme

b. water use zonation scrheme
c. water use scheme
d. water zoning scheme
639. What is the important purpose of water use zonation?
a. to resolve conflicting issues on water uses

b. to identify the governing bodies on water use
c. to separate areas for culture fisheries from areas for catch or mobile fisheries
d. to identify the governing bodies responsible for the management of municipal water
640. According to RA 8435, ____ of the mangrove areas shall be reserved for
biological and ecological balance.
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
641. A _________________ is defined as “a tract of forest land set aside for the
use of the residents for their personal use”.
a. Timber land
b. communal forest
c. commercial forest
d. mossy forest
642. The LGU can apply up to a maximum ___________ to manage as its communal
forest.
a. 5,000 sqm
b. 5,000 has.
c. 5,000 kms.
d. 5,000 mts.
643. What particular mandate of devolution to LGU addresses the sec. 17 of LGC?
a. Avail a maximum of 5,000 has. of communal forest

b. Devolution to co-manage the forest
c. Power to delineate forest land
d. AOTA
644. Forest lands not categorized as protected areas could be placed under the
__________.
a. CARP
b. open space
c. CBFM scheme
d. farmer’s cooperative
645. In the spirit of co-management the DENR and the LGU concerned, forest lands
under any applicable tenure-securing scheme giving priority to the ___________.
a. Local farmers
b. local residents
c. IPs/ICC
d. local owners
646. Forest land is to DENR and LGU, Mineral land is to __________.
a. DENR & LGU

b. LGU
c. DENR
d. Sanggunian
647. _______________ provide a vital link on the activities of the living and those
for making a living.
a. Infrastructure areas
b. settlements areas
c. production areas
d. protection areas
648. Social infrastructure is to support the former, support the latter is to

______________.
a. City infrastructure
b. road infrastructure
c. wide infrastructure
d. economic infrastructure
649. Concepts of infrastructure areas are as follows:
I. Social infrastructure
II. Support the former
III. Support the latter
IV. economic infrastructure
V. city infrastructure
a. I,III,V
b. I,IV
c. I,II,III,IV,V
d. II,IV,V
650. The ____________ is a major factor contributing to the formation of the physical
structure of the town.
a. Irrigation system
b. electrification system
c. circulation system
d. calculation system
651. Circulation system plays both _______________ roles.
I. Reactive
II. Proactive
III. Important
IV. Critical
V. vital
a. I,II
b. I,II,III,IV,V
c. III,IV,V
d. I,III,V
652. Circulation system is _____________ when it merely service development that

laid out to service areas that area already in existence.
a. Critical
b. vital
c. reactive
d. proactive
653. The 3 types of circulation sub-systems are the following:
I. Thru traffic
II. Poblacion-barrio traffic
III. Barangay traffic
IV. internal circulation in the poblacion
V. city traffic
a. I,II,IV
b. I,II,III
c. II,III,V
d. I,III,IV
654. In most towns ____________ is a major component of local circulation.
A. Barangay traffic
B. city traffic
C. thru traffic
D. pablacion-barrios traffic
655. Thru traffic can be separated to local traffic by means of the following:
I. Overpass
II. Underpass
III. By-pass
IV. fly-over
V. train
a. I,III
b. I,II,III,IV
c. I,III,III,
d. I,II,III,IV,V
656. The ____________ has the adverse effect of diverting development to another
part of the town or causing premature conversion of agricultural lands.
a. Overpass
b. underpass
c. by-pass
d. fly-over
657. An overpass eases traffic flow at ____________ but it does not increase the
capacity of existing streets.
a. Arterial roads
b. intersections
c. major thoroughfares
d. national highways
658. Issues that matter on Poblacion-barrio traffic in which _________________ are

also using the arterial national and provincial road which sometimes causing vehicular
accidents.
a. Tricycles & kalesas

b. trisibot & tricycles
c. PUJ & taxis
d. buses & tricycles
659. One traffic alternative in the internal circulation in the poblacion is the provision of
______________ at the edge of the town center to avoid the entrance of buses and
trucks inside the said place.
A. By-pass
D. overpass
C. terminals
D. underpass
660. Inside the town center must be operated with the following:
I. Pedicabs
II. Calesas
III. Bicycles
IV. on foot
V. tricycles
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,III,IV,V
D. I,II,III,V
661. In the internal circulation in the Poblacion, busy streets should be installed the
following:
I. Traffic signals
II. Zebra crossing
III. Overpasses
IV. Pedestrian lanes
V. Traffic symbols
a. I,II,III
b. I,II,III,IV
c. I,II
d. I,II,III,IV,V
662. In developing a subdivision, make sure that no subdivision creates a ________

effect so that they can design their internal circulation system to link up with the wider
circulation network of the town.
a. Sidewalk
b. dead-end
c. pedestrian
d. traffic
663. These customary ways create an extensive circulation network especially in

remote rural areas.
I. Side-walks
II. Footpaths
III. Pedestrian
IV. trails
V. traffic signals
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. I,II,III
c. I,II,III,IV
d. II,IV
664._____________ should be declared a permanent easement for the public use by

the LGU so that the owners of the private lands traversed by the same.
a. Footpath
b. pedestrian
c. sidewalk
d. traffic signal
665. Footpaths should be built and maintained to ______________ standards.
a. road
b. earthquake
c. all-weather
d. flood
666. In water-related transport, the road approach should be maintained in good

condition to ensure _______________ inter-modal transfers.
I. Safety
II. Vibrant
III. Visible
IV. stability
V. smooth
a. I,V
b. I,II,III,IV,V
c. II,III,V
d. I,IV
667. Other infrastructures and urban services that must be carefully located because of
their potential to pollute the environment.
I. Sewage treatment facility (STF)

II. Sanitary landfill (SLF)
III. Power plant
IV. depot
V. flood control
a. I,II,III
b. I,II,IV,V
c. I,II,III,IV,V
d. II,III,V
668. These bodies of surface water and its immediate catchment area should be
delineated as protected area to ensure the continuous of water at the quantity and quality
and likewise if the sources are ground water and/or aquifer.
a. Watershed
b. spring
c. river
d. domestic water sources
669. Residential area is to septic tank, Industrial area is to __________.
a. STF
b. WWTF
c. SLF
d. NOTA
670. Low-lying areas are good for establishment and construction of ___________ for
municipal waste.
a. STF
b. SLF
c. WWTF
d. AOTA
671. ______________ are areas ideal for establishment of dumping facility for the
municipal waste.
I. Plains
II. Ravines
III. Swaps
IV. abandoned pits
V. cliff
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. II,III,IV
c. II,III,IV
d. II,IV,V
672. What particular section in the RA 9003 that prohibits the open dumping of
garbage?
a. Sec. 48
b. Sec. 49
c. Sec. 50
d. Sec. 51
673. In connection to the above question, what chapter in the RA 9003 that penalizes
the same?
a. Chapter 5
b. chapter 4
c. chapter 3
d. chapter 6
674. The LGU is not responsible of putting the ________________ of the cities/
municipalities but can be provided a buffer zone for these.
a. STF
b. SLF
c. power sources
d. WWTF
675. These facilities must take into account the proximity and access to the service
population.
a. Social service facilities

b. flood control facilities
c. power sources facilities
d. water supply facilities
676. In most municipalities, secondary and tertiary schools and general hospitals must
be located at the _______________.
a. Downtown
b. poblacion
c. town center
d. CBD
677. ___________________ are facilities that requires major civil works to stabilize the
edges of rivers, lakes and seas.
a. bridges
b. piers and wharfs
c. flood control & drainage
d. barriers
678. The social services facilities are the following:
I. schools
II. Hospitals
III. Government buildings
IV. churches
V. Malls
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. II,III,V
c. I,III,IV,V
d. I,II,III
679. A facility that abates pollutions from decaying solid waste.
a. SLF
b. STF
c. WWTF
d. pollution control devices
680. _______________ is an alternative for community sewerage for the residential

areas.
a. Toilet
b. dranage/canal
c. septic tank
d. NOTA
681. Functional ___________ are land that deliberately kept in their open character
for their contribution toward maintaining the amenity value of the environment.
a. open spaces
b. protected spaces
c. agricultural spaces
d. forest spaces
682. Aside of offering cheap recreation for local residents, they can also serve as
_____________ around hazardous areas and installations.
a. Protected areas
b. open spaces
c. protection buffers
d. hazard zones
683. In the local open space system specifically at the municipal level,
______________ is at the top of the hierarchy.
a. Town center
b. plaza
c. CBD
d. public market
684. Lower-end open spaces are as follows:
I. District parks
II. Neighborhood parks
III. Vest-pocket parks
IV. Children’s playgrounds
V. People’s parks
a. I,II,III,IV
b. I,II,III,IV,V
c. II,III,IV,V
d. I,III,V
685. ____________ as required by the LGC may also be incorporated into the
city/municipality open space system.
I. Parks
II. Buffers
III. Prime agricultural lands
IV. Communal forests
V. easements
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. I,II,III
c. II,III,V
d. II,III,IV,V
686. These ____________ should also be incorporated to the city/municipality

open space system due to its national significant and hazard-prone areas
respectively.
I. Historical sites
II. ECAs
III. Tourism sites
IV. Prime agricultural lands
V. Buffers
a. I,II
b. I,II,III
c. I,II,III,IV
d. I,II,III,IV,V
687. These are part of the local open space system, except one;
I. Buffers
II. ECAs
III. Forest lands
IV. Prime agricultural land
V. Historical sites
a. Prime agricultural lands

b. ECAs
c. forest lands
d. historical sites
688. Protected areas covered by national laws can be classified into _________.
I. NIPAS areas
II. Non-NIPAS areas
III. ECAs
IV. Scientific study areas
V. Tourism sites
a. I,II
b. I,II,III,IV,V
c. I,III,V
d. II,III
689. Aside from IPRA law, section 13 of ___________________ also defines the
rights of IPs/ICCs over their ancestral lands.
a. 1987 Constitution
b. RA 7568
c. RA 8371
d. 1937 Constitution
690. All are NIPAS categories, except one;
I. Wildlife sanctuary
II. Mangrove & fish sanctuary
III. Natural biotic area
IV. Resource reserve
V. Natural park
a. Natural park
b. resource reserve
c. natural biotic area
d. mangrove & fish sanctuary
691. All are Non-NIPAS categories, except;
I. Buffer strips/easements
II. Salvage zone along forest lands
III. Fresh water swamps & marshes
IV. Second growth forests
V. Mangrove and fish sanctuary
a. Buffer strips
b. salvage zone along forest land
c. second growth forest
d. fresh water swamps
692. _____________ are areas for protection identified in various other legislations
and policy documents.
a. NIPAS areas
b. ECAs
c. Non-NIPAs
d. PPAs
693. There are the sub-categories of Non-NIPAs Protected areas;
I. Non-NIPAS areas
II. ECAs
III. PAAs
IV. Watersheds (source of local water)
V. Utility easements
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. I,II,III
c. II,III,IV,V
d. I,III,IV
694. Buffer strips/easements standards measurements are the following:
I. 40 meters along riverbank of the forest land

II. 20 meters along riverbank of A&D land
III. 3 meters along riverbank of urban area
IV. 40 meters along escarpments
V. 20 meters from the right-of-way of national roads
a. I,II,III
b. III,IV,V
c. I,II,III,IV,V
d. I,III,IV,V
695. Network of PAAs is a mandate under __________.
a. DA-AO No. 1
b. DA-AO No. 2
c. DA-AO No. 3
d. DA-AO No. 4
696. Above ______ elevation and above _______ slope are specifications of
second growth forest under PD 705.
a. 50 meters & 50%

b. 100 meters & 80%
c. 1000 meters & 50%
d. 1500 meters & 50%
697. Laws on the administration of PAAs are the following:
I. DA-AO No.1
II. RA 7160
III. RA 8749
IV. RA 8435
V. RA 8048
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. I,IV,V
c. I,II,III
d. II,IV,V
698. ____________ are sub-categories under the utility easements.
I. Cell sites
II. Footpaths
III. Transmission lines
IV. Depots
V. Transformers
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. II,III,V
c. I,III,IV,V
d. I,II,V
699. Sub-category of ___________ are established by law, convention or

international agreements of which the Philippines is a signatory.
a. NIPAS areas
b. Non-NIPAS areas
c. ECAs
d. PAAS
700. In protected areas, a _______ of functional open spaces is an important

element of CLUP.
a. Guidelines
b. goal
c. policy
d. system
701. It is primarily a guide to the proper location of land-using activities.
A. LDIP/AIP
B. CDP
C. CLUP
D. LCCAP
702. ____________ is the principal instrument for implementing the CLUP.
a. zoning ordinance
b. CDP
c. LDIP/AIP
d. FLUP
703. It is an agency that popularizing the mechanics of zoning formulation and

enforcement.
a. sangguniang
b. DILG
c. HLURB
d. LGU
704. Aside from the existing planning and zoning guidelines, these are the deeper
basis of zoning to wit;
I. spiritual
II. economical
III. philosophical
IV. political
V. geographical
A. II,III
B. I,V
C. I,II,III,IV,V
D. III,IV
705. In terms of its procedural aspect, ____________ is the division of a city into
districts or zones and prescribing the use of regulation for each district or zone.
A. zoning
B. delineating
C. subdividing
D. housing
706. An older ordinance has inherent police power of the state to safeguard and
promote the following, except one;
I. peace and order

II. public health
III. safety
IV. convenience
V. general welfare
A. safety
B. convenience
C. peace and order
D. public health
707. The later ordinances promote the state regulation of properties to wit;
I. ownership
II. acquisition
III. right
IV. disposition
V. use
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,II,IV,V
C. II,III,IV
D. I,III,IV,V
708. In the principle of common good, individuals and private groups shall have the
right to
____________________ economic enterprise.
I. own
II. establish
III. operate
IV. franchise
V. sale
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. II,III,V
C. I,II,III
D. I,III,V
709. The authority to regulate the _______ of property was devolved to LGU though
the LGC.
A. use
B. own
C. operate
D. sale
710. Zoning is the instrument used by the _______ to regulate the use of land within
the LGU territory.
A. local zoning
B. local planning
C. HLURB
D. state
711. Current zoning is to urban land, new zoning is to ______________.
A. territorial land
B. city land
C. forest land
D. agricultural land
712. As part of the amendment of LGC and Fishery Code in administering

city/municipal water, LGU may be given authority to regulate that may include the
following:
I. tourism and recreation

II. navigation and transport
III. commerce and industry
IV. survey and delineation
V. protection and utilization
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III,V
C. I,II,III
D. III,IV,V
713. When land uses in the upstream have the capacity to degrade the quality of
receiving waters, indeed _______________ is an urgent need.
A. zoning ordinance
B. water-driven land-use planning
C. CLUP
D. water strategic planning
714. The problematic situation that cannot be easily solved by strictly adhering
the current zoning guidelines is the ________________.
A. mixed land uses

B. scattered land uses
C. spatial land uses
D. mixed-uses land
715. Zoning problem is to mixed land uses, zoning solution is to ___________.
A. spatial land uses

B. scattered land uses
C. mixed-uses land
D. mixed land use
716. It is the matrix lists of all possible land-use activities and indicates whether
each activity is permitted in a given zone, without, with certain, or under special
conditions.
A. matrix compatibility zoning

B. zoning compatibility matrix
C. compatibility zoning matrix
D. zoning matrix compatibility
717. Areas under the zoning problems are as follows:
I. ECAs
II. Disaster-prone areas
III. Mixed land uses
IV. Special use zones
V. Protected areas
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. II,III,IV
C. III,IV,V
D. I,III,V
718. In relation to zoning, these are the powers given by law to the LGU in dealing
with private property owners.
I. police
II. zoning
III. taxation
IV. eminent domain
V. planning
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. II,III,IV,V
C. I,III,V
D. III,IV
719. In the Philippines, what are the various special levies?
I. real property tax

II. special education fund
III. idle land tax
IV. special benefit assessment
V. plastic use levy
A. I,II,III,V
B. II,III,IV
C. I,II,III,IV,V
D. III,IV,V
720. By virtue of the power vested by law, the LGU shall be mandated to collect the
following taxes to the property owners:
I. special education fund

II. real property tax
III. idle land tax
IV. plastic use levy
V. special levies
A. II,V B. I,II C. III,V D. I,V
721. Why we should pay taxes to our own land?
a. Because of the concept of land as a natural resource.

b. Because owner is mandated to pay land taxes.
c. Because land is own by the state.
d. Because the state has the power to collect taxes.
722. Real property tax is a tax not on the use of the land but, on the ____________.
a. Privilege of enjoying it
b. Privilege of owning it
c. Privilege of living it
d. Privilege of using it
723. ____________ is use exclusively for the maintenance and operation of public
taxes.
a. Basic real property tax

b. special levy
c. SEF
d. school levy
724. This tax is also applicable on all taxable property.
a. SEF
b. basic property tax
c. special levy
d. school levy
725. Land planted with permanent crops with atleast 50 trees per hectare is
exempted to
_______.
a. Idle land tax

b. SEF
c. basic real property tax
d. special levy
726. Agricultural lands used for __________ are exempted to idle land tax to wit:
I. Permanent crops
II. Banana
III. Cacao
IV. Coconut
V. grazing
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. II,III,V
c. I,V
d. I,III,V
727. ___________ with one half of which is unutilized or unimproved in _________

is considered idle land.
a. 1000 square meters, urban areas

b. 5000 square meters, rural area
c. 1,500 square meters, urban area
d. 2000 square meters, rural area
728. The bases of invoking special levy are the following:

I. Force majeure
II. Civil disturbance
III. Natural calamity
IV. Treat of outsiders
V. intruders
a. I,II,III
b. I,II,III,IV,V
c. II,III,IV,V
d. I,II,V
729. The rationale behind the idle tax is to ___________ for overall benefit of the
society.
I. Promote efficient
II. Optimum utilization
III. Collect revenue
IV. Levy the ownership
V. Execute the power to collect taxes by the state
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. I,II
c. II,III,IV,V
d. I,III,IV,V
730. Another reason why the idle tax shall be imposed is to increase the _______
revenues.
a. SEF
b. special levy
c. school levy
d. real property tax
731. This special levy on real property tax has been in existence since _______.
a. SEF, 1938
b. SBL, 1939
c. SEF, 1939
c. SBL, 1938
732. Special Benefit Levy was provided under Commonwealth Act no. 134 and was
later carried to PD 464 or ____________.
a. Real Property Tax Code of 1974

b. Real Property Tax Code of 1973
c. Real Property Tax Code of 1975
d. Real Property Tax Code of 1972
733. What particular sections in the LGC that the SBL was appeared?
a. Secs. 230-235
b. Secs. 220-225
c. Secs. 240-245
d. Secs. 250-255
734. This is an assessment on lands that are specially benefited by public works
projects.
a. SEF
b. RPT
c. ILT
d. SBL
735. SBL allows LGU to recover as much as _______ of the cost of project from
contributions by the owners of the lands.
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 40%
d. 30%
736. SBL’s rationale is derived by the principle of __________.
I. Social justice
II. Equity
III. General welfare
IV. Abundance
V. Harmony
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. II,III,V
c. I,II
d. III,IV,V
737. Better off is to SBL, worse off is to ___________.
a. Eminent domain
b. SEF
c. ILT
d. RPT
738. In the Philippines, the affected of the power of _______________ of the state is
claimed by the property owners but, _____________ to which the society is entitled
remains uncollected.
a. RPT
b. SEF
c. SBL
d. ILT
739. Eminent domain is to worsement compensation, SBL is to _________.
a. Betterment levy
b. betterment tax
c. better off
d. better in
740. This scheme is what the Americans call “wipeouts for windfalls”.
a. Zoning compatibility matrix

b. the 2 principles’s matrix
c. matrix of taxation
d. worsement compensation and betterment levy
741. This is one of the inherent powers of the state to deal with the property owners.
a. eminent domain
b. real property tax
c. SEF
d. ILT
742. ____________ is the advance acquisition and consolidation of lands identified

in the CLUP as areas for future urban expansion.
a. land planning
b. land conversion
c. land banking
d. land mapping
743. In the Philippines, it is the ________________ who practice land banking with
the undesirable outcome that land becomes speculatively priced when released by
them in the market.
a. politician
b. private developer
c. military
d. rich
744. Investment in public ____________ is a powerful tool shape local development
in accordance with the chosen urban form in the CLUP.
I. access road
II. administrative building
III. infrastructure
IV. town center
V. facilities
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. III,V
c. II,III,IV,V
d. II,IV,V
745. Public facilities are as follows:
I. bridges
II. schools
III. public buildings
IV. water supply system
V. waste disposal facilities
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. I,II,III,IV
c. II,III,IV,V
d. II,IV
746. In both public and private invest together, it operates a synergistic-effect that
will redound to higher-levels of ________________ well-being of the population.
I. social
II. economic
III. spiritual
IV. environmental
V. individual
a. I,II
b. I,II,III
c. I,II,III,IV
d. I,II,III,IV,V
747. _______________ programming is an intermediate process that links the plan

to local budget.
a. LDIP
b. public investment
c. private investment
d. dual investment
748. When local development invest plant is translated into its annual component, it
is now called ___________.
a. CLUP
b. CDP
c. LDIP
d. AIP
749. If the choice programs and projects is to be included in the investment program,
it should be guided with ______ principles.
a. 6
b. 5
c. 8
d. 9
750. The broader concept of _________ includes both hard and soft projects.
a. investment
b. LDIP
c. AIP
d. asset
751. Asset includes projects to wit:
I. big
II. small
III. soft
IV. large
V. hard
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. III,V
c. II,III,IV
d. I,II
752. Hard projects involve ________________.
I. acquisition of land
II. construction of physical structures
III. establishment of access roads
IV. delineanation of boundaries
V. construction of utility facilities
a. I,II
b. I,II,III,IV,V
c. I,II,III,IV
d. I,II,III
753. ____________ pertain to direct investment in people which are the important
assets of any community.
a. hard projects
b. medium projects
c. soft projects
d. small projects
754. Soft projects include the following:
I. charitable institution
II. skills training
III. public roads
IV. scholarship
V. public health
a. I,II,III
b. II,IV,V
c. III,IV,V
d. I,II,III,IV,V
755. ___________ produce the most important assets of the community.
a. public investment
b. LDIP
c. soft projects
d. hard projects
756. Public investment is to general services, private investment is to __________.
a. capital build-up
b. attract investors
c. higher economy
d. boost development
757. In the 3rd principle of public investment programming, projects should be

chosen according with the desired ____________.
a. spatial strategy
b. development design
c. urban from
d. land planning
758. In public investment, projects include in the LDIP/AIP should only be those
owned by the
____________.
a. LGU
b. private developer
c. private investor
d. GOCC
759. Improve local fiscal management includes raising more revenues by improving
collection
____________ in certain items that the LGU has tend to be under-performed.
a. strategy
b. efficiency
c. expansion
d. technique
760. The last principle of public investment programming intends ______________

approach that includes all sectors in the LGU to have their ideas heard on all matters
that affect their lives.
a. cooperative
b. participatory
c. scientific
d. unilateral
761. The magnitude of investible resources in the possession of the ____________

is much greater than that of the public sector especially at the local level.
a. private investment
b. private sector
c. private company
d. private room
762. Private investment is to multiple areas, public investment is to __________.
a. Sectoral areas
b. dual areas
c. fractional areas
d. intermediate areas
763. What are two realities of private investment?
I. Possesses multiple areas in the locality

II. Large coverage in terms investment
III. Easily access to large group of investors
IV. General welfare is not prioritize
IV. Large capitals
a. I,IV,
b. II,III
c. IV,V
d. II,V
764. The LGC stipulated provision, the private invest has given __________ to
promote the inflow of capital.
a. Awards
b. bonuses
c. incentives
d. penalties/levies
765. Local government and national government are directed by the LGC to act as
co-managers of the national ______________.
I. Territory
II. Patrimony
III. Land
IV.Coverage
V. Boundary
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. I,II
c. III,IV,V
d. I,III,IV,V
766. LGC empowers the mayor to adopt measures to safeguard and ensure the
following:
I. Land
II. Mineral
III. Marine
IV. Forest
V. Coastal
a. I,II,III,IV
b. I,II,III,IV,V
c. II,III,IV,V
d, III,IV,V
767. The LGC directs SP to impose penalties to prohibited acts as follow:
I. Dynamite fishing
II. Illegal logging
III. Log smuggling
IV. Smuggling of the products of natural resources
V. Kaingin
a. I,II
b. I,II,III
c. I,II,III,IV
d. I,II,III,IV,V
768. In co-management, LGU can use the __________ as the basis of crafting a
MOA with the DENR to jointly manage all natural resources & IPs/ICCs territories.
a. CLUP
b. LDIP
c. CDP
d. FLUP
769. Aside from natural resources, LGC also mandates LGU and DENR to co-
manage the
_____________ located within the territorial jurisdiction of an LGU.
a. Public domains
b. private domains
c. ancestral domains
d. A&D domains
770. When CLUP is already in place, _________________ must conform with the
policies in the same.
I. Natural resources
II. Protected areas
III. Ancestral domain
IV. Urban lands
V. Coastal areas
a. I,II,III,IV,V
b. I,II,III,IV
c. I,II,III
d. I,II
771. DENR and ___________ has jointly responsible in planning of ancestral

domains located within the territorial jurisdiction of an LGU.
a. NCIP
b. LGU
c. HLURB
d. DILG
Chapter 10 – Emerging Challenges
772. Approaches to minimize the undesirable outcomes of unplanned urban growth

are the following:
I. Metropolitanization
II. Urban renewal
III. Land use planning
IV. Spatial development
V. Urbanization
A. I,II
B. I,II,III
C. I,II,III,IV
D. I,II,III,IV,V
773. The old approaches/strategies in urban growth have reflected eternal tension of
growth as a result of contrasting spatial outcomes the lead to the following:
I. Urban growth
II. Centrifugal growth
III. Fringes
IV. Urban sprawl
V. Centripetal growth
A. I,II,III
B. I,IV
C. II,V
D. II,V
774. Taken as a symbol of centralized authority _______________ appears on the

surface to be anachronistic to the general mood of devolution and decentralization.
A. Urban growth
B. urban renewal
C. metropolitanazition
D. centrifugal growth
775. The existence of cheap agricultural land at the fringes of poblacion is a simple
idea of __________.
A. Metropolitanization
B. urban renewal
C. urban sprawl
D. decentralization
776. Metropolitanization is to central authority, urban renewal is to ______________.
A. agricultural in the urban fringes

B. urban sprawl
C. urban growth
D. decentralization
777. The inefficiency use of land in urban renewal strategy results in ___________.
I. Urban sprawl
II. Fringes
III. Low density space
IV. Metropolitanization
V. Underutilized space
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,II,III
D. III,V
778. ___________ is the result of inefficiency of land use coupled with the
proliferation of unsold subdivision lands in green sites and filling up the fringes and
hollowing out the core.
A. Doppler effect
B. doughnut effect
C. coupler effect
D. hollowing effect
779. The continuous conversion of agricultural lands cannot be allowed without

undermining the base of the ______________.
A. national food security

B. land area
C. jurisdictional territory
D. urban expansion
780. ______________ is a result of continuous conversion of agricultural lands.
A. Urban sprawl
B. spatial development
C. decentralization
D. outward expansion
781. Large sprawling cities create certain absurdities in the urban living to wit:
I. Long-distance commuting
II. Inefficient transportation
III. Saps energy
IV. Reduces productivity
V. Increases pollution that reduce life expectancy
A. I,II,III
B. I,II,III,IV,V
C. II,III,V
D. I,II,III,IV
782. Very large cities also pose serving problems of maintaining quality of utilities
and social services, such as;
I. Health
II. Garbage & sewage collection
III. Parks & playgrounds
IV. Crime prevention
V. Education
A. II,IV
B. I,II,III,IV
C. II,III,V
D. I,II,III,IV,V
783. What city that ranked no. 1 in 2000 which has a population with over 200,000?
A. Cebu City
B. Zamboanga City
C. Davao City
D. CDO City
784. The top 3 cities with populations of over 200,000 and consistently placed the
same in 1990,1995 and 2000 respectively are the following:
I. Davao City
II. CDO City
III. Cebu City
IV. Angeles City
V. Zamboanga City
A. I,III,V
B. I,II,III
C. II,IV,V
D. I,III,V
785. In urban renewal, inner cities are made attractive again to the
________________.
I. Infrastructure areas
II. Protection areas
III. Settlement areas
IV. Production areas
V. Coastal areas
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III,V
C. III,IV
D. II,III,IV,V
786. What are the two complementary faces of a regional planning strategy
appropriate for the 21st Century Philippines?
I. Urban renewal
II. Metropolitanization
III. Decentralization
IV. Multi-nodal development
V. CLUP
A. II,V
B. I,II
C. III,V
D. II,III
787. The term ___________ city is sometimes used to call forth an ugly image.
A. Sprawling
B. squatting
C. developing
D. doughnut effect
788. Problems associated by urban sprawl are as follows:
I. Mixed development
II. Decentralization
III. Loss of agricultural lands to urban use
IV. Long distance commuting
V. Decay and blight in the core and inner cities
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. II,III,V
C. III,IV,V
D. I,III,IV,V
789. Through metropolitanization, it is possible to preserve and protect agricultural

lands in each locality concerned by adopting a _________ strategy.
A. spatial
B. central
C. mixed use
D. decentralization
790. The constitution limits the power of whatever metropolitan authority will be
created by simply providing _____________ requiring coordination.
A. Utilities
B. basic services
C. health needs
D. enough security
791. In the case of Manila Metropolitan, the ___________ powers were removed to
the component LGUs.
A. Executive
B. police
C. eminent domain
D. legislative
792. In rational perspective of land use planning, metropolitan approach enables

contagious cities/municipalities to ______________ their resources collectively for
their common interests.
A. Marshall & manage

B. secure & manage
C. guard & manage
D. plan & manage
793, In growing cities/municipalities, why agricultural lands are seriously planned

with regards to conversion to urban uses?
A. Reserve for farming

B. sources for economic stability
C. food security
D. produce agri-products for exportation
794. Metropolitan and other forms of aggregation of LGUs allows by the LGC to
group themselves, consolidate, or coordinate their __________ for purposes
commonly beneficial to them.
I. Efforts
II. Services
III. Resources
IV. Plans
V. Man-powers
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III
C. I,II,III,IV
D. II,III,V
795. Examples of services better provided by the metro-wide authority are the
following:
I. Transport & communications

II. Power generation & distribution
III. Domestic water supply & sewerage
IV. Flood control & drainage
V. Police and terrorist protection
A. I,II,III,IV
B. I,II,III,IV,V
C. I,II,III
D. I,II
796. _______________ must be able to identify highly urbanized city that are likely
to attain metropolitan character within their territorial jurisdiction.
A. Developer
B. investor
C. government planner
D. private planner
797. In metropolitan idea, expansion of the __________ area is observed to proceed

at a rapid pace.
A. Urban
B. settlement
C. built-up
D. unbuilt
798. In the concept of metropolitan in the Philippines, the ______________ city may
be adopted as the core city among the choose LGUs.
A. Highly urbanized
B. component
C. capital
D. mega
799. The highly urbanized city along with the towns in its hinterlands should be
delineated and declared a ________ planning area by either PDC or RDC.
A. Mixed-used
B. special
C. exclusive
D. spatial
800. What are the provincial cities that have passed the half-million mark in terms of
total population?
I. Davao city
II. Cebu city
III. Zamboanga city
IV. CDO city
V. Koronadal city
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,II,IV
D. I,II,III
801. ______________ are component cities of Metro Manila that included in the
topped cities in terms of total population.
I. Makati city
II. Quezon city
III. San juan city
IV. Manila city
V. Kalookan city
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. II,IV,V
C. II,III,V
D. I,II,III,IV
802. San Jose Del Monte was converted into a city in 2000 but had by _______
already ranked ________ among the largest provincial cities.
A. 1995, 15th
B. 1995, 14th
C. 1990, 15th
D. 1990, 14th
803. In connection to the above question, this city became ___ position after ____
years.
A. 1st, 10
B. 2nd, 5
C. 9th, 4
D. 9th, 5
804. Among the cities with rapid increase in population from 1990-2000,
__________ had more spectacular rise.
A. Davao city
B. Antipolo city
C. Cebu city
D. Zamboanga city
805. ______ large cities as of year 2000 could well serve as the core city of
emerging metropolitan areas.
A. 20
B. 19
C. 21
D. 22
806. The cities like ____________ are hard to be conceived as the core to a
metropolis due to over-bounded territorial boundaries.
I. Davao city
II. Cebu city
III. Antipolo City
IV. CDO city
V. Zamboanga city
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,V
D. I,II,V
807. _____________ is a locality that built-up areas are confined within their
territorial boundaries.
A. Hinterlands
B. fringes
C. over-bounded city
D. metropolitan
808. _____________ relationship among political units is the main characteristic of a

metropolitan area.
A. Core-periphery
B. dual
C. bilateral
D. unilateral
809. In over-bounded cities in a metropolitan area, intense flows of _____________

occur between a core city and its hinterlands.
I. Trade
II. Commuting
III. Transaction
IV. Commuters
V. Investors
A. I,II,III,IV
B. I,II,III
C. II,III,V
D. I,II,III,IV,V
810. In the recent years, certain local groups have been pushing for the creation of
Metro Davao which embraces adjoining LGUs are as follows:
I. Sta. Cruz, Davao del Sur

II. Panabo City, Davao del Norte
III. IGACOS, Davao del Norte
IV. Tagum City, Davao del Norte
V. Digos City, Davao del Sur
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,II,III
D. II,III,IV,V
811. Mactan island is to Metro Cebu, Guimaras island is to ___________.
A. Metro Davao
B. Metro Ilo-ilo
C. Metro Negros
D. Metro Bacolod
812. The _________ and ____________ over spilling of both metro-fringe cites have
contributed to the massive relocation of squatters from Metro Manila and the
establishment of many subdivisions in the adjacent component cities.
A. population, investment
B. squatter , migrant
C. employee, employment
D. worker, job
813. ___________ is the common issue in structuring metropolis.
A. Economics
B. planning
C. politics
D. budget
814. In metropolis approach, before creating the appropriate administrative

structure, it should be considered the problem of how to allocate the powers and
functions of both governments to wit:
I. Metropolitan
II. Highly-urbanized city
III. Component cities
IV. Province
V. Region
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,III
C. I,II,III
D. II,III,V
815. The two options how to resolve the political issues on the establishment of
administrative structure of metropolitan approach are as follows:
I. Annexation & amalgamation

II. Centralization & Decentralization
III. Spatial planning & core-periphery
IV. Mixed-used land use & multi-nodal approach
V. Incorporation & integration
A. I,II
B. II,III
C. III,IV
D. I,V
816. This process empowers the central city to extends its boundaries to embrace
surrounding localities causing the latter to lose their political identity and power and
become a mere district of the core city.
A. Annexation & Incorporation

B. integration & amalgamation
C. annexation & amalgamation
D. centralization & decentralization
817. In _____________ option, suburban localities retain their political boundaries
but to agree to be co-opted into a relationship with the core city based on functional
specialization and interdependencies.
A. Incorporation & integration

818. In incorporation and integration option, there are alternatives that are currently
available to wit:
I. Metro government
II. Elective regional body
III. Regional coordinative machinery
IV. Provincial integrated governance
V. Inter-regional government
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,II,III
D. I,III,IV
819. This form of metropolitan governance partakes the nature of a public

corporation.
A. Elective regional body

B. regional coordinative machinery
C. inter-regional government
D. metro government
820. In metro government form, component cities cannot exercise their

___________ power.
A. Police
B. legislative
C. taxation
D. executive
821. Metro area planning and policy-making is performed by a ______ which may be
appointed by the central government or indirectly elected by the residents.
A. Leader
B. head
C. chairman
D. council
822. Who will lead in day-to-day operation and management in metro government
which is usually assigned by the central government?
A. Executive officer
B. department head
C. councilor
D. administrator
823. Metro Manila is composed of ______ localities.
A. 16
B. 17
C. 18
D. 19
824. Power that are more efficiently exercised by metro government rather than local
governments include the following:
I. Land use planning

II. Transport planning
III. Delivery of basic services
IV. Budget planning
V. Environment planning
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III
C. II,III,V
D. I,II,IV,V
825. Problems associated by metro governance are as follows:
I. Identity crisis
II. Representation
III. Accountability
IV. Budget distribution
V. Police vicinity
A. I,II,III
B. I,II,III,IV,V
C. II,III,V
D. I,II,IV,V
826. This form of metro government is empowered by the people from the regional
body possesses to execute plans and programs with the metropolis.
A. Metro government
B. Elective regional body
C. Regional coordinative machinery
D. Provincial integrated governance
827. Elective regional body can be adopted if ___________ is decided upon as the
mode of sharing powers and functions among the component LGUs.
A. Incorporation & integration

828. Metros like ____________ are good examples of an elective regional body
approach of metro government.
I. Metro Toronto
II. Greater London
III. Metro Manila
IV. Metro Cebu
V. Metro Ilo-ilo
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,II
D. III,IV,V
829. Elective regional body has acquired problem associated lack of specificity in the
allocation of ____________.
I. Powers
II. Budget
III. Security
IV. Functions
V. Foods
A. I,II,III
B. II,III,V
C. I,IV
D. III,IV
830. ________________ is based on the consideration of the metropolis as a region

in itself being treated as the NCR.
A. Metro government
B. Elective regional body
C. Regional coordinative machinery
D. Provincial integrated governance
831. Who in the proper body that will administer in the concept of regional
coordinative machinery?
A. RDC
B. HLURB
C. DILG
D. LGUs
832. Metro Manila was created in _____.
A. 1976
B. 1975
C. 1977
D. 1978
833. Metro Naga Development Council (MNDC) was formed in _______ with
partnered ______ local government in the Province of Camarines Sur.
A. 1992, 15
B. 1993, 14
C. 1994, 15
D. 1993, 15
834. _____________ in a policy created the Metro Naga Development Council and
authorizing its inclusion in the annual General Appropriation Act signed by President
Fidel V. Ramos.
A. EO 102
B. EO 120
C. EO 201
D. EO 210
835. The MNDC is manned with the following:
I. Chairman
II. Vice chairman
III. Secretary
IV. Treasurer
V. Auditor
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,II,III
D. I,II
836. The day-to-day activities of the MNDC are managed by the _______ who
directly report to the council.
A. Chairman
B. executive director
C. council president
D. chief local executive
837. Personnel under the Project Development Unit (PDU) of MNDC supervised by
the executive director are the following:
I. Secretariat
II. Technical staff
III. Executive offices
IV. Planning office
V. Barangay representatives
A. I,II
B. I,II,III
C. I,II,III,IV
D. I,II,III,IV,V
838. The MNDC operations are funded through ___________.
I. General appropriation
II. Economic development fund
III. IRA
IV. LDIP/AIP
V. Local finance committee
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,II,III
D. I,II
839. In MNDC budget, national government is to general appropriation, LGU is to

_________.
A. LDIP/AIP
B. economic development fund
C. IRA
D. local finance committee
840. The MNDC is composed of _____ functions.
A. 5
B. 6
C. 4
D. 7
841. The MNDC has mandated services for its member-LGUs as reiterated in the
EO 102 are as follows:
I. Senior Citizen Service

II. Emergency Rescue Network
III. Economic development fund
IV. Project Assistance Fund
V. Equipment Pool
A. I,II,III,IV
B. I,II,III,IV,V
C. I,II,IV,V
D. II,III,IV,V
842. ____ of the economic development fund (EDF) of the member-LGUs has to be
allocated for the operational budget of MNDC.
A. 10%
B. 2%
C. 5%
D. 1%
843. Metro Jolo is basically a socio-economic alliance forged by and among the
municipal governments of ________.
I. Mamasapano
II. Indanan
III. Patikul
IV. Hadji Panglima
V. Jolo
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III,IV
C. II,III,IV,V
D. I,III,IV,V
844. Usual issues that have been addressed by the Metro Jolo Dev’t Council
(MJDC) which commonly emanated from the component municipalities.
I. infrastructure
II. budget
III. poverty
IV. basic services
V. peace and order
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III,IV
C. III,IV,V
D. II,IV,V
845. A MOA from the component municipalities of MJDC signed on February 28,
1996 committing themselves to consolidate the following:
I. Armies & polices

II. Efforts
III. Budget
IV. Services
V. Resources
A. II,IV,V
B. I,II,III,IV,V
C. II,III,V
D. I,III,V
846. In MJDC, the devolution of power from the national government agencies is
directly handed to the ________.
A. LGU
B. provincial government
C. regional level
D. barangay
847. _____________ represents the highest form of spatial integration of LGUs.
A. Centralization
B. metropolitanization
C. megapolis
D. agropolis
848. _______________ have attained a high level of urbanization as evidence by
their large populations.
I. Metro Manila
II. Metro Cebu
III. Davao
IV. Zamboanga
V. Metro Ilo-ilo
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,III,IV
C. II,III,IV,V
D. I,II,III,IV
849. The _________ is spatial system consisting of an urban area and its rural
hinterlands that mutually benefit from the factor and product markets provided by
either side.
A. IAD
B. metropolitan
C. centralization
D. megapolis
850. The 3 main issues of metropolitanization are the following:
I. Urban-focused IAD
II. A question of sustainability
III. The leadership factor
IV. Budget sources
V. Territorial boundaries
A. I,II,III
B. I,III,V
C. II,III,IV
D. I,IV,V
851. _____________ is a comprehensive approach to the revitalization of areas of

urban decline.
A. metropolitanization
B. urban renewal
C. centralization
D. decentralization
852. ___________ defines urban renewal as a deliberate effort to change the urban
environment through planned.
A. hoyt
B. smith
C. colean
D. grebler
853. colean is to __________, grebler is to deliberate effort for changes.
A. comprehensive revitalization
B. CLUP
C. urban renewal
D. growth pole
854. Who defines urban renewal as more precise terms as the extensive demolition
of property.
I. colean
II. grbler
III. hoyt
IV. medhurst
V. lewis
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III
C. IV,V
D. II,III,IV
855. Weimer and hoyt define urban renewal as comprising any or a combination of
these programs to wit:
I. rehabilitation
II. conservation
III. redevelopment
IV. reforestation
V. reconstruction
A. I,II,III
B. I,II,III,IV,V
C. II,III,V
D. III,IV,V
856. It is a process of bringing up substandard structures to a prescribed standard.
A. rehabilitation
B. conservation
C. Redelopment
D. Reconstruction
857. It involves a combination of rehabilitation and spot clearance in order to

upgrade an area.
A. rehabilitation
B. conservation
C. Redevelopment
D. reconstruction
858. It involves demolition, clearance and reconstruction of an entire area.
A. rehabilitation
B. conservation
C. Redevelopment
D. reforestation
859. If at the onset of blight and no renewal treatment is introduced progressive

deterioration leads to __________.
I. urban fringe
II. abandonment
III. spot zoning
IV. decay
V. mixed land use
A. II,IV
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,II,III
D. II,III,V
860. A state that the rest of the structures in a neighbourhood decline in quality.
A. fringe
B. slum
C. decay
D. abandonment
861. It is a phenomenon if one of the determinants of the market value of a particular

property is the quality of neighbourhood in which it is located.
A. decaying effect
B. slum effect
C. spillover effect
D. urban fringe
862. What are the four types of blight in commercial area?
I. economic blight
II. functional blight
III. physical blight
IV. frictional blight
V. construction blight
A. I,II,III,V
B. I,II,III,IV
C. II,III,IV,V
D. I,III,IV,V
863. It is also known as environmental blight exists when the commercial

establishments find itself situated with an area that has an unfavourable effect on the
business operation.
A. frictional blight
B. economic blight
C. functional blight
D. physical blight
864. It occurs when there are changes in the demand structure.
B. economic blight
D. physical blight
865. It has to do with the inability of a given establishment to engage in efficient

operations due to technological changes.
B. economic blight
D. physical blight
866. It refers to deterioration of structures occupied by business concern.
B. economic blight
D. physical blight
867. Economic blight occurs with these demand structure to wit:

I. loss of population
II. losses to competing centers
III. changes in economic structure
IV. urban decay
V. urban fringe
A. I,II,III
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,II
D. I,II,III,IV,V
868. Economic blight is to loss of population, functional blight is to _______.
A. losses to competing centers

B. changes in economic structure
C. urban decay
D. floor-to-ceiling shelves
869. ____________ in the context of housing, refers to the physical characteristics

of urban housing rather that to the social characteristics of the occupants of such
housing.
B. economic blight
D. urban blight
870. It refers to a critical stage in the functional or social depreciation of real property
beyond which its existing condition or use is unacceptable to the community.
B. economic blight
D. urban blight
871. The concept of _________ is limited to the functional depreciation of real

property in the area.
A. slum
B. blight
C. decay
D. fringe
872. _______ pertains particular section of the city where houses are crowded and
old and aesthetically displeasing.
A. slum
B. blight
C. decay
D. fringe
873. Issues occur in slum area are as follows:
I. low rental
II. alcoholism
III. disordered family life
IV. prostitution
V. drug trafficking
A. I,II,III
B. I,III,IV,V
C. I,II,III,IV,V
D. II,III,IV
874. As explained by Richardson, not all slums are squatter areas and not all
______ areas are slum.
A. fringes
B. slums
C. squatters
D. urban decays
875. What are the three foreign models in terms of urban renewal mentioned in this
chapter?
I. American
II. British
III. Japan
IV. Spanish
V. French
A. I,III,V
B. II,III,IV
C. I,III,IV
D. I,II,III
876. In American experience, according Feagin, slums are created by this ________
activity.
A. profit-centered
B. profit-manipulation
C. profit-extortion
D. Profit-based
877. Real property speculators comprise of the following :
I. Engineers
II. Soldiers
III. Developers
IV. Bankers
V. Capitalists
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III
C. III,IV,V
D. II,III,V
878. The close ties between ________________ is evidence by the fact the many
American cities have been directly governed by individuals with real estate and
banking interests that are forested by the decisions they make as government
officials.
I. business
II. government
III. constituent
IV. people’s organization
V. capitalists
A. I,II
B. I,II,III
C. I,II,III,IV
D. I,II,III,IV,V
879. In American urban process, local authorities do land acquisitions which

subsidize by the ______________ in the form of capital grants.
A. LGU
B. businessmen
C. federal government
D. investors
880. _____________ is a form of funding process from the federal government

down to the local government which taken from the two-thirds to three-fourth of the
net project cost.
A. capital grant
B. subsidiary grant
C. scholar grant
D. federal-LGU grant
881. Relocation of displaced persons and establishments is done through any of the
following:
I. outright payment
II. special mortgage insurance
III. aid
IV. grant
V. donation
A. I,II
B. I,II,III
C. I,II,III,IV
D. I,II,III,IV,V
882. Part of the concept of American urban renewal process is to resale the
improved land to __________ for redevelopment purposes and to avoid reverting to
a slum again.
A. capitalist
B. federal government
C. private parties
D. LGU
883. As Feagin explained, ______________ is a form of revitalization in which the

lower income urbanites are displaced buy higher-income urbanites.
A. fringe
B. decay
C. gentrification
D. urban renewal
884. The higher-income urbanites either are residents of outlying city areas returning
to the central city or suburbanites opting for central city locations is called _______.
A. renaissance
B. gentrification
C. urban decay
D. Urban fringe
885. Two forms of renaissance process are the following :
I. incumbent upgrading
II. speculator upgrading
III. incumbent-developer upgrading
IV. speculator-developer upgrading
V. developer upgrading
A. I,II
B. I,IV
C. II,IV
D. III,V
886. It involves local residents together with newcomers of the same socio-economic
background upgrading a central area and pushing out the local residents.
A. developer upgrading
B. incumbent upgrading
C. speculator-developer upgrading
D. speculator upgrading
887. _______________ is done by buying up low-income housing, building or

replacing it and then selling to white, affluent, often young, families with professional,
technical or managerial workers
A. developer upgrading
B. incumbent upgrading
C. speculator-developer upgrading
D. speculator upgrading
888. British experience in urban renewal is a long time way back during _________
in 18th century.
A. industrial revolution
B. medieval age
C. renaissance period
D. crusader’s era
889. ___________ is process conducted during British experience to indentify

buildings unfit for human habitation or in bad arrangement ready for clearing and
demolition.
A. tagging
B. color-coding
C. consultation
D. meeting
890. Through the local authorities as mandated in their housing act, pass a
resolution called “Housing Treatment Area” to a certain dwelling unit if it pass the
standard, otherwise the same will advise to a specific treatment to wit:
I. demolition
II. improvement
III. demolition & improvement
IV. burn
V. sold to business investors
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III,V
C. I,II,III
D. II,III,V
891. In British experience when demolition of private owned land was advised,
compulsory purchase of land is done by the _______________.
A. local government
B. private investor
C. national government
D. rich family
892. In British experience, when _________ is advised by the local authorities,

financial grants are available by the local authorities to homeowners who undertake
the repair themselves.
A. demolition
B. sale
C. improvement
D. rent
893. ___________ is the continuous process of minor rebuilding and renovation of

individual structure.
A. grand renewal
B. urban renewal
C. metropolitanization
D. renovation
894. American urban renewal is to business, British urban renewal is to _____.
A. rich family
B. minority
C. capitalist
D. investor
895. Land readjustment is an urban renewal approach which widely found in

countries in Asian like;
I. Japan
II. South Korea
III. Taiwan
IV. Singapore
V. Hong Kong
A. I,II,III,IV
B. I,II,III,IV,V
C. I,II,III
D. II,III,IV,V
896. ______________ is a form of land readjustment which originated in Japan and

Germany in 19th.
A. Farmland rationalization
B. rationalization of farmland
C. farmland ownership
D. farmland rental
897. Land readjustment involves the improvement of following:
I. Shape
II. Dimension
III. Condition of plot
IV. Irrigation sources
V. Soil condition
A. I,II,III,IV
B. I,II,III
C. I,II,III,IV,V
D. II,III,IV
898. Thru ________________ institutionalized land readjustment as an approach to

alleviating the undesirable effects of industrialization in the urban centers.
A. Tokyo Urban Renewal Ordinance of 1888

B. Land Readjustment Act
C. City Planning Act of 1919
D. Tokyo Ordinance of land Readjustment
899. Land readjustment in Japanese model is known _______________.
A. Kamikaze
B. kukaku-seiri
C. katana
D. harakiri
900. _______________ is a comprehensive area redevelopment project which

provides urban infrastructure in an integrated manner together with serviced building
sites.
A. Land readjustment
B. urban renewal
C. grand renewal
D. farmland rationalization
901. Land readjustment scheme may be implemented by the following:
I. Provincial & Municipal government

II. National government
III. LGU
IV. Public corporation
V. Private individuals or cooperatives
A. I,II,III,IV
B. II,III,IV,V
D. I,II,III,IV,V
D. II,III,V
902. The land readjustment process in summarized into _____ steps.
A. 10
B. 11
C. 13
D. 12
903. The number of members of the land readjustment council ranges from
_________ according to the size of the area concerned with term not more than 5
years.
A. 15-20
B. 10-15
C. 20-25
D. 5-10
904. ____________ involves the realignment of structures to provide alleys and

pathways connecting the interior area to the major roads and subdividing the area
into residential lots for awarding to qualified beneficiaries.
A. Land readjustment
B. reblocking scheme
C. grand renewal
D. farmland rationalization
905. Reblocking operates of basic principles, namely:
I. Maximum retention of structures and minimum displacement of

families
II. Provision of basic services and utilities
III. Land ownership by qualified beneficiaries
IV. Maximum community participation
V. Involves in realigning of structures
A. I,II,III,IV
B. I,II,III,IV,V
C. II,III,IV,V
D. I,III,IV,V
906. There are _____ steps in carrying out a reblocking project.
A. 10
B. 8
C. 9
D. 7
907. In reblocking, the composite team who will conduct the ocular inspection are
the following:
I. Architectural group
II. Socio-economic development group
III. Community relations team
IV. Private surveyor
V. Planning office
A. I,II,III,IV
B. I,II,III,IV,V
C. I,II,III
D. I,II
908. Who will approve on the alternative plan in reblocking process?
A. Mayor
B. HULRB manager
C. SP
D. NHA general manager
909. In census verification of reblocking process, determines untagged structures

and census status of residents to wit:
I. Affordability level
II. House occupancy size
III. Place of origin
IV. Year of establishment
V. Quality of resident
A. I,II,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III
C. II,III,V
D. NOTA
910. In reblocking process, ___________ are in-charge of giving the award

certificate to the lot awardees.
I. NHA director
II. Bureau of Soil
III. LGU
IV. HLRUB manager
V. DILG Secretary
A. I,II
B. I,II,III,IV,V
C. II,IV,V
D. NOTA
911. Who will in-charge of giving a home material program fund to the structure
owners affected in the movement in reblocking process?
A. PNB
B. DBP
C. DOF
D. LGU
SUPPLEMENTAL QUESTIONS
912. By virtue of the above provision, the Philippines adopt what kind of protest in
public bidding that preserves all the elements inherent in government contracts?
A. Britïsh challenge
B. German challenge
C. American challenge
D. Swiss chałlenge
913. The following are the three inherent elements in traditional public bidding in
government contracts.
I. Transparency
II. Simplicity
III. Ecońomy
IV. Competition
V. Accountability
A. I, II, III
B. I, II, V
C. I, IV, V
D. II, III, IV
914. As per IRR of LGC what is the required lot area for a cemetery serving 10,000
population?
a. 3000 sq.m.
b. 5000 sq.m.
c. 8000 sq.m.
d. 4000 sq.m.
915. Within how many days from the date the winner was announced may a losing
bidder file with the Committee on Awards a protest?
A. 5 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 15 days
916. What specific section of the IRR of RA 7160 can you find the procedure on
filing protest by the losing bidder?
A. Art 346
B. Art 347
C. Art 436
D. Art 437
917. The following Principles consistent with the planning and management of
resources provided for in the National Framework for Physical Planning.
I. Food security
II. Ecological Integrity
III. Poverty reduction
IV. Spatial Integration
V. Private-Public sector Partnership
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, III, IV, IV
C. I, II, IV, V
D. I, III, IV, V
918. The National agency that formulates and implement the National Disaster Risk
reduction and Management Plan, that sets of goals and specific objectives for
reducing disaster risks together with related actions to accomplish these objectives.
A. Department of National Defense
B. Office of Civil Defense
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. NEDA
919. The measurement of central tendency.

I. Range
II. Mean
III. Median
IV. Mode
A. I, II, III
B. II, III, IV
C. I, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
920. The actual number of vehicles passing through a specific road section or
intersection.
A. Traffic flow
B. Traffic Volume
C. Traffic capacity
D. Traffic Ratio
921. It is prohibited by the LGC or by the government to use the fund in;
A. Entertainment
B. Personal and Religious Affair
C. Investment
D. Recreation
922. The national agency primarily responsible for the promulgation, revision and
enforcement (penalties) of drinking water standards.
A. DENR
B. DOH
C. DA
D. DOST
923. Location Quotient is a concentration index measurement of a certain economic

activity usually used to determine.
A. Employment
B. Income
C. Salaries
D. Production
924. These are areas of national significance which are characterized by the
harmonious interaction of man and land while providing opportunities for public
enjoyment through the recreation and tourism within the normal lifestyle and
economic activity of these areas.
a. Natural park
b. Resource reserve
c. Natural biotic area
d. Protected landscapes/seascapes
925 .In planning public facilities and utilities, 'population density' should be rationally
matched with
A. Materials & machines
B. Nuts and bolts
C. Service capacity infrastructure
D. Investments of government
926. In water supply planning, what classification of water should a residential

consumer get from a faucet?
A. Class AA
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
E. Class E
927. A water system composed of a source, reservoir, distribution system, and

communal faucets. Usually, one faucet serves 4 to 6 households, generally suitable
for rural and urban-fringe areas where houses are clustered densely to justify a
simple piped-system.
A. Level I
B. Level II
C. Level III
D. Level IV
928. Under PD198 dated May 25, 1973, if a 'water district' can be created for at least
one municipality or cluster of municipalities, what would be the minimum population
to be serviced within a water district?
A. 15,000
B. 25,000
C. 35,000
D. 45,000
E. 55,000
929. Since the permitted width of four-wheel vehicle is 2.5 meters and the minimum
clearance between two parallel vehicles is 0.50 meters, what should be the ideal
width of a two-lane farm-to-market road also called barangay road?
A. 3 meters
B. 6 meters
C. 9 meters
D. 12 meters
930 .Which law exempts, in Section 20, cremation, siga, bonfires, traditional cultural
practices, etcetera from the total ban on incineration?
A. RA 8749
B. RA 9003
C. RA 6969
D. RA 9275
931. According to RA 9367 Renewable Energy Act of 2006, what are the additives to
gasoline that are harmful to both people and nature?
A. Methyl tertiary butyl ether
B. Isooctane and heptane
C. Molybdenum oxide
D. Tetraethyl
932. Which of the following is least effective for controlling soil erosion caused by
wind and water?
A. planting windbreaks
B. Planting cover crops
C. Removing crop stubble from surface
D. Using conservation tillage
933. The following factors combine to cause flashfloods and large-scale flooding,
except
A. Amount of rainfall
B. Winds and gusts
C. Loss of tree cover causing erosion & siltation
D. waterways clogged with household wastes
E. Impervious
934. In Homer Hoyt's model (1939), where would the elite class place their high-end
subdivisions?
A. Section 'A'
B. Section 'B1'
C. Section 'C'
D. Section 'D'
935. 'Leapfrog development' and 'sprawl' commonly results from what Pierce F.
Lewis calls
A. Circumferential City
B. Multi-cellular City
C. Stellar City
D. Galactic City
936. The 'multiple nuclei' model of Harris and Ullmann (1945) posits that
A. Cities have varied natural resources that stimulate progress in different locations
B. Diversified economic functions of cities cluster around several points of growth
C. Zoning of cities closely follows the flow or circuits of capital
D. Air transport, sea transport, land transport facilities are the logical growth zones of
cities
937. In classical theories of industrial location by Weber, Losch, and lsard, what are
the three factors that firms are most concerned about?
A. Minerals, electricity, water
B. Costs of money, taxes, stock exchange growth
C. Location of raw materials, location of market, transport
D. Product image, promotion & advertising, public relations
938. The most profitable utilization of property based on what is physically possible,
ecologically sound, legally permissible, and financially viable, thus resulting in the
optimal value of the property, is called
A. Maximum Sustainable Yield
B. Feasibility
C. Highest & Best Use
D. Cost-efficiency
939. According to R. Hurd, since land value depends on economic rent, and rent on
location, and location on convenience, and convenience on nearness, we may
eliminate the intermediate steps and say that land value depends on nearness."
A. Social connection
B. Proximity and access
C. Ease of movement
D. Free play of market forces
940. In the conventional land economics by Raleigh Barlowe (1958), what are the
three determinants of land value?
A. Farm harvest, wild growth, usufruct
B. Scarcity, utility, desirability
C. Sale, lease, rent
D. Location, permanence, transferability
941. Why do land values at the center of an overpopulated city fall drastically?
A. Pollution, land degradation, disease
B. Urban blight, decay, and criminality
C. Congestion, overcrowding, traffic
D. Deteriorating quality of life
E. All of the choices
942. The highest and best use of a 30 sq.km freshwater lake based on computation
of both monetary and non-monetary values, is best illustrated in the following
combination:
A. Five-star resort hotel that caters to foreign tourists, with boating, wakeboarding,
jetski and other sports facilities;
B. Five-star resort hotel plus high-end Retirement Haven that contributes substantial
revenues to the LGU;
C. Manufacturing park with 20 locators and ready facilities for industrial cooling and
dumping of factory wastewater;
D. Ecotourism plus fisheries, ferry transport, sports, wellness centers, flood holding
area, aquatic parks and sanctuaries
943. Which is not one of Nature’s Eco systemic services and functions as adopted
by the United Nations?
A. Climate regulation
B. Food and fiber
C. Nutrient cycling
D. Soil formation
E. Physical aberrations and anomalies
F. Biological treatment of water and storm runoff
944. "Conservation" from the perspective of environmental economics' would include

all but one of the following
A. Society's savings from strict preserves
B. Elimination of social and economic waste
C. Orderly and efficient resource use
D. Maximization of social net returns over time
945. "Environmental Economics" by Randall and Howe calculates the value in use of
natural resources by creating them as
A. Stock resources, flow resources, reproducing resources
B. Renewable, replenishable, replicable
C. Extant, extinct, exhaustible
D. Inputs, throughputs, outputs
946. In "Ecological Economics" by Daly and Costanza, non-use of ENR has

economic value because it can result in greater "environmental protection and
security"
A. Existence value
B. Insurance value
C. Bequest value
D. Vicarious value
E. All of the above
946. 'Republic Act that provides for conservation and protection of wildlife resources
and their habitats is numbered as
A. RA 9147
B. RA 9714
C. RA 4791
D. RA 1479
947. The shifts in perspective from victim as receiver to victim as actor, 'from dole
out of goods to capacity building and institution-building,' 'from individual aid to
restoration of the social system,' 'from outside response to community initiatives' -all
form part of the paradigm of
A. Quick emergency response
B. Disaster risk reduction
C. Disaster recovery management
D. Search, rescue & rehab
948. This law mandated each local government unit to prepare a comprehensive
multi-sectoral development plan to be initiated by its local development council and
approved by its sanggunian.
A. RA 7160
B. DILG MC 2008-156
C. RA 7272
D. 1987 Constitution
949. What agency of the government who is mandated to formulate the operational
guidelines on local government planning?
A. Local Development Council

B. HLURB
C. DILG
D. Both A and C
950. What is the memorandum circular that is known as the "Guide for the
preparation of the Comprehensive Development Plan for the Local Government
Unit"?
A. DILG MC 2008-156
B. HLURB MC 2008-156
C. Both A and B
d. None of the above.
951. What are the concepts and processes enunciated in the rationalized local
planning system and JMC No. 001, S. 2007 that is put into operation by the DILG
Guides?
I. Harmonization of local planning

II. Investment programming
III. Budgeting and revenue administration
IV. Development planning process
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. II, III, IV
D. I, III, IV
952. As a reference, the CDP Guide offers procedural tools and techniques along
each step of the comprehensive development planning process. What are these
major parts of the CDP with corresponding chapters detailing each part?
I. Organizing and Mobilizing the Planning Structure

II. Preparing the CDP
III. Implementing the CDP
IV. Plan monitoring and Evaluation
A. I, II, III
B. II, III, IV
C. I, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
953. This provides mechanism for the synchronization and harmonization of the core
LGU operations from the planning to budgeting with thematic and cross- sectoral
concerns that various national government agencies pursue and seek to address at
the LGU levels.
A. Sec. 106, RA 7160

B. DILG MC 2008-156
C. Art. X, Sec. 1, 1987 Constitution
D. JMC No. 001, S. 2007
954. Under DILG MC 2008-156, all DILG Field Offices are directed to provide
technical assistance to the following:
I. Local Development Council

II. The Local Executive Commitee
III. The Local Finance Committee
IV. The executive and legislative bodies in the performance of their
planning functions
V. The Sectoral Committee.
A. I, II, III, IV
C. II, III, IV, V
D. I, III, IV, V
955. DILG MC-2008-156 can also be used as a guide for the LGU in the preparation
of their __________________.
I. Comprehesive Land Use Plan
II. Comprehensive Development Plan
III. Local Development Investment Plan
IV. Annual Procurement Plan
A. II, III
B. I, IV
C. I, II, III
D, I, II, III, IV
956. Mandates LGUs to prepare a comprehensive land use plan (CLUP) enacted
through a zoning ordinance.
A. Art. X, 1987 Constitution

B. Sec. 20, RA 7160
C. Secs. 106 and 109, RA 7160
D. All of the above
957. Mandate the LGUs to prepare comprehensive multi-sectoral development plans

(CDP) and public investment programs.
A. Art. X, 1987 Constitution

B. Sec. 20, RA 7160
C. Secs. 106 and 109, RA 7160
D. All of the above
958. These plans influence public and private sector investments which have the
cumulative effects of making available goods and services of high quality, and
making these more accessible to the people, thereby raising the level of their well-
being.
I. Comprehensive Development Plan

II. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
III. Annual Investment Plan
IV. Local Development Investment Plan
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. I, II
D. III, IV
959. Under RA 7160, what are the plans that the local government units are
mandated to prepare?
I. Comprehensive Development Plan

II Comprehensive Land Use Plan
III. Annual Investment Plan
IV. Local Development Investment Plan
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. I, II
D. III, IV
960. What is meant by the term "Comprehensive" in the CLUP?
I. Understood in its geographical and territorial sense

II. Covering four land policy areas like physical, settlement, production
and protection areas
III. Multi-sectoral development
IV. Long term
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. I, II
D. III, IV
961. What is meant by the term "Comprehensive" in the CDP?

A. Understood in its geographical and territorial sense
B. Covering four land policy areas like physical, settlement, production and
protection area
C. Multi-sectoral development
D. Short-term
962. It must be contiguous, unless its comprises two or more islands or is separated
by a local government unit independent of the others; properly identified by metes
and bounds with technical descriptions, and sufficient to provide for such basic
services and facilities to meety the requirements of its populace.
A. regions
B. land area
C. islands
D. province
963. According to LGC 1991 Sec 10, said plebiscite shall he conducted by the
COMELEC within ___ from the date of effectively of the law or ordinance effecting
such action, unless said law or ordinance fixes another date.
A. 90 days
B.120 days
C. 60 days
D. 30 days
964. As used in LGC 1991, it is a term refers to the act by which the national
government confers power and authority upon the various local government units to
perform specific functions and responsibilities.
A. capital
B. devolution
C. amusement
D. taxation
965. The local government unit may immediately take possession of the property
upon the filing of the expropriation proceedings and upon, making a deposit with the
proper court of at least ____ of the fair market value of the property based on current
tax declaration of the property to be expropriated.
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 30%
966. RA 7160 Sec.6, Authority to create, divide, merge abolish or alter LGUs;
i) By law enacted in congress (province, city, municipality or any other political
subdivision)
ii) By ordinance passed by the sangguniang panlalawigan or sangguniang
panglungsod (barangay)
iii) By proclamation of the President (province, city, municipality or any other political
subdivision)
iv) By law enacted in Senate (province, city, municipality or any other political
subdivision)
A.iii & iv
B. ii & iv
C. i & ii
D. ii & iii
967. RA 7160 Sec.7 Creation & Conversion should be based on income, population
and land area. Who should attest all these respectively?
A. DOF, NSO, DENR-LMB
B. DOF, Philippine Statistics Authority (by RA 10625), DENR
C. BIR, NSO, DENR-LMB
D. BIR, Philippine Statistics Authority (by RA 10625), DENR
968. RA 7160 Sec.16, LGUs should consider these General Welfares except one:
A. Culture; Health & Safety; Balanced Ecology

B. Science & Technology Capabilities; Public Morals;
C. Economic Prosperity & Social Justice; Full Employment;
D. Peace & Order; Comfort & Convenience
E. None of the choices
969. RA 7160 Sec.20a, Reclassification of Lands. Agricultural lands under CARP

should be limited to ___?
A. 15%
B. 10%
C. 5%
D. None of the choices
970. RA 7160 Section 20b, _______, when public interest so requires and upon
recommendation of NEDA can authorize a city or municipality to reclassify lands in
excess of the limits set forth.
A. The President
B. PLUC
C. RLUC
D. HLURB
971. RA 7160 Sec. 25, The President shall exercise supervisory authority directly
over provinces, highly urbanized cities, and independent component cities; with
respect to CCs and municipalities he should go through?
A. Province
B. HUC
C. ICC
D. None of the Choices
972. A 21 year old Hagedorn wants to run as Vice Mayor of Puerto Princesa. Their
family is very well-known in Palawan and can be considered as their "baluarte".What
are his chances of winning the election?
A. Very High
B. 50/50 Uncertain
C. Very Low
D. No Chance
973. RA 7160 Sec. 48/49, Local legislative power shall be exercised by the
respective Sanggunian.If the presiding officer for Sangguniang Panlalawigan is the
vice-governor, who will preside the Sanggunian Barangay?
A. Asst. Barangay Captain
B. Barangay Vice-Chairman
C. Punong Barangay
D. Barangay Secretary
974. RA 7160 Sec. 107, Composition of Barangay LDC except one:

A. Members of the sangguniang barangay
B. Representatives of NGOs (constituting not less than ¼ of the members of the fully
organized council)
C. Representative of the congressman
D. Chairman of the committee on appropriations of the Sanggunian concerned
975. RA 7160 Sec. 107, Composition of City/Municipal LDC except one:

A. All punong barangays in the city or municipality
organized council)
976. RA 7160 Sec. 107, Composition of Provincial LDC except one:

A. All mayors of component cities and municipalities
organized council)
977. RA 7160 Sec. 114(b), The approved development plans of provinces, highly-
urbanized cities, and independent component cities shall be submitted to the _____,
which shall be integrated into the regional development plan for submission to the
National Economic and Development Authority, in accordance with existing laws.
A. Regional Development Council
B. Barangay Development Council
C. City Development Council
D. Municipal Development Council
978. RA 7160 Sec. 120, Is the legal process whereby the registered voters of a local
government unit may directly propose, enact, or amend any ordinance.
A. Local Initiative
B. Local Referendum
C. Local Propositions
D. Local Amendment
979. RA 7160 Sec. 126, Is the legal process whereby the registered voters of the
local government units may approve, amend or reject any ordinance enacted by the
Sanggunian. It shall be held under the control and direction of the Comelec within
sixty (60) days in case of provinces and cities, forty-five (45) days in case of
municipalities and thirty (30) days in case of Barangays. The Comelec shall certify
and proclaim the results.
A. Local Initiative
B. Local Referendum
C. Local Propositions
D. Local Amendment
980. RA 7160 Sec. 130, All are the Fundamental Principles of Taxation except one:
A. Taxation shall be uniform in each local government unit;
B. Be equitable and based as far as practicable on the taxpayer's ability to pay;
C. Be levied and collected only for public purposes;
D. Each local government unit shall, as far as practicable, evolve a progressive
system of taxation.
981. RA 7160 Section 135, A tax may be imposed on the sale, donation, barter, or
any other mode of transferring ownership or title of real property at the rate of not
more than ________ of the total consideration involved in the acquisition of the
property or the fair market value in case the monetary consideration involved in the
transfer is not substantial, whichever is higher.
A. Half of 1%
B. 1/20th of 1%
C. 10% of 1%
D. 30% of 1%
982. RA 7160 Sec. 157, All are true statements regarding Individuals liable to
community tax except one:
A. Every inhabitant of PH, eighteen (18) years of age or over who has been regularly
employed on a wage or salary basis for 30 consecutive days.
B. Who is engaged in business or occupation, or who owns real property with an
aggregate assessed value of One thousand pesos (P1,000.00) or more
C. Who is required by law to file an ITR shall pay an annual community tax of
(P5.00) and an annual additional tax of P1.00 for every P1,000.00 of income
regardless of whether from business, exercise of profession or from property which
in no case shall exceed Five thousand pesos (P5,000.00).
983. RA 7160 Sec. 159, the following are exempt from the community tax except
one:
A. Diplomatic Representatives
B. Consular Representatives
C. Transient Visitors when their stay in the Philippines does not exceed three (3)
months.
984. RA 7160 Sec. 201, All real property, whether taxable or exempt, shall be
appraised at the current and fair market value prevailing in the locality where the
property is situated. The ____shall promulgate the necessary rules and regulations
for the classification, appraisal, and assessment of real property pursuant to the
provisions of RA 7160.
A. Department of Finance
B. Department of Budget & Management
C. Bureau of Internal Revenue
985. The act or process of determining the value of property as of a specific date, for
a specific purpose.
A. Appraisal
B. Assessment
C. Ad Valorem Tax
986. The act or process of determining the value of a property, or proportion subject
to tax, including the discovery, listing, classification, & appraisal of properties.
A. Appraisal
B. Assessment
C. Ad Valorem Tax
987. Is a levy on real property determined on the basis of a fixed proportion of the
value of the property?
A. Appraisal
B. Assessment
C. Ad Valorem Tax
988. RA 7160 Sec. 205, LGU assessor shall prepare and maintain _____ wherein
shall be listed all real property, whether taxable or exempt, located within the
territorial jurisdiction of the LGU
A. Assessment Roll
B. Schedule of Fair Market Values
C. Assessor Master List (AML)
D. Taxable & Exempted Real Property List (TERP List)
989. RA 7160 Sec. 212, there shall be prepared _________ by LGU assessors for
the different classes of real property situated in their respective LGU for enactment
by ordinance by of the sanggunian concerned
A. Assessment Roll
B. Schedule of Fair Market Values
C. Assessor Master List (AML)
D. Taxable & Exempted Real Property List (TERP List)
990. RA 7160 Sec. 215, for purposes of assessment, real property shall be classified
as ______ except one:
A. Residential, agricultural
B. Commercial, industrial
C. Mineral, timberland
D. Special
991. RA 7160 Sec. 226, Who is the Chairman of the Local Board of Assessment
Appeals?
A. Register of Deeds
B. Provincial/ City Engineer
C. Provincial/ City Prosecutor
992. In the case of a city or a municipality within the Metropolitan Manila Area, Rates
on Levy for Real Property Tax shall be at the rate not exceeding ____of the
assessed value of real property.
A. two percent (2%)
B. One percent (1%)
C. Three percent (3%)
993. RA 7160 Sec. 234, All are exempted from Real Property Tax except one:
A. Real property owned by the President of the Republic of the Philippines
B. Religious cemeteries and all lands, buildings, and improvements actually directly
and exclusively used for religious, charitable and educational purposes.
C. Machinery and equipment used for pollution control and environmental protection
D. All real property owned by duly-registered cooperatives as provided for under RA
6938
E. All machineries and equipment that used by GOCCs engaged in supply &
distribution of water and power.
F. None of the choices
994. RA 7160 Sec. 235, A province or city, or a municipality within the Metropolitan
Manila Area, may levy and collect an annual tax of ____on the assessed value of
real property which shall be in addition to the basic real property tax. The proceeds
thereof shall exclusively accrue to the Special Education Fund (SEF).
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 4%
D. 5%
995. RA 7160 Section 236. Additional ad valorem tax on idle lands A province or
city, or a municipality within the Metropolitan Manila area may levy an annual tax on
idle lands at the rate not exceeding ___ of the assessed value of the property which
shall be in addition to the basic real property tax.
A. 5%
B. 4%
C. 2%
D. 1%
996. RA 7160 Sec. 237, True statements for coverage of Idle Lands:
(1) Agricultural lands, more than 1 hectare in area, ½ of which remain uncultivated
(2) Agricultural lands at least 50 trees to a hectare & Lands used for grazing
(3) Lands caused by force majeure, civil disturbance, natural calamity which
prevents on improving the land
(4) Lands, other than agricultural, located in a city or municipality, more than 1,000
sqm. in area one-half (1/2) of which remain unutilized or unimproved by the owner of
the property.
A. 2 & 3
B. 1 & 4
C. 1 & 2
D. 3 & 4
997. RA 7160 Sec. 255, Interests on unpaid real property tax. ___ per month on the
unpaid amount; but shall not exceed ___ months
A. 1% , 24 months
B. 2%, 36 months
C. 3%, 24 months
D. 5%, 36 months
998. RA 7160 Sec. 271, Distribution of Proceeds in the case of an Idle Lot in
Tugatog, Malabon City
A. 35%PROV -40% MUNI -25% BRGY
B. 70% CITY- 30% MUNI (where half of 30% to barangay where property is located
& other half equally divided to component barangays.
C. 35% MMA -35% MUNI-30% BRGY (where half of 30% to barangay where
property is located & other half equally divided to component barangays.
999. RA 7160 Sec. 285, Allocation of IRA to Local Government Units for
Municipalities?
A. 23%
B. 34%
C. 20%
D. 50%
1000. RA 7160 Sec.286, Release of IRA Shares shall be every _____?

A. 3 months
B. 12 months
C. 24 months
D. 6 months
1001. RA 7160 Sec. 287, Each LGU shall appropriate in its annual budget no less
than ____ of its annual internal revenue allotment for development projects;
development plans shall be furnished the DILG.
A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%
1002. RA 7160 Sec. 292, Aside from IRA, Allocation of Shares from the proceeds
derived from GAs and GOCCs, where the natural resources are located in the
province. Distribution should be what percentage for province, component
city/municipality & barangay respectively?
A. 20% 45%- 35%
B. 35% 45%- 20%
C. 45% 20%- 35%
D. 45% 35%- 20%
1003. Income realized from operations & activities of the LGU in the exercise of its
corporate functions.
A. Receipts
B. Revenue
C. Profit
D. Special Funds
1004. Income derived from the regular system of taxation

A. Receipts
B. Revenue
C. Profit
D. Special Funds
1005. RA 7160 Sec 386. All are Requisites for creation of Barangay except one:
A. Contiguous territory
B. 2,000 inhabitants except in Metro Manila
C. 5,000 inhabitants for HUCs & ICCs
D. P 200,000 income as certified by DOF for the last 2 consecutive years
1006. RA 7160 Sec.442, All are Requisites for creation of Municipality except one:
B. 100 sq.km.
C. 25,000 inhabitants
D. P 2,500,000 income as certified by DOF for the last 2 consecutive years
1007. RA 7160 Sec. 448, all are Requisites for creation of Component City except
one:
B. 100 sq.km.
1008. RA 7160 Sec. 452, all are Requisites for creation of HUCs except one:
B. 100 sq.km.
1009. RA 7160 Sec. 461, all are Requisites for creation of Province except one:
A. Contiguous Territory of at least 2,000 sq.km.
B. 250,000 inhabitants
C. P 20,000,000 income as certified by DOF for the last 2 consecutive years
D. None of the above
1010. RA 7160 Sec. 404, There shall be constituted for each dispute brought upon
the lupon a conciliaton panel to be known as the ____ consisting of 3 members who
shall be chosen by the parties to the dispute from the list of members of the lupon.
A. Pangkat ng Tagapagkasundo
B. Lupong Tagapamayapa
C. Lupon ng mga Tanod
D. Liga ng mga Kagawad
1011. RA 7160 Sec. 399,402, composed of the punong barangay as chairman and
10 to 20 members. Provides a forum for exchange of ideas among its members and
the public on maters relevant to the amicable settlement of disputes, and to enable
various conciliation panel members to share with one another their observations and
experiences in effecting speedy resolution of disputes.
A. Pangkat ng Tagapagkasundo
B. Lupong Tagapamayapa
C. Lupon ng mga Tanod
D. Liga ng mga Kagawad
1012. RA 7160 Sec. 470, A Treasurer is a mandatory position for Provinces/ City &
Municipality. Who appoints the position for the respective LGUs?
A. DOF Secretary
B. Governor
C. City Mayor
D. President of the Philippines
1013. All are Mandatory Positions for Provinces and Cities only (municipality not
included) except one:
A. Legal Officer
B. Administrator
C. General Service Officer
D. Social Welfare and Dev’t Officer
E. Environment and Natural Resource Officer
1014. All are Optional Positions for Provinces, Cities and Municipalities except one:
A. Population Officer
B. Assessor
C. Asst. Treasurer
D. Agriculturist
E. Information Officer
1015. What position is Mandatory for City and Municipality only?
A. Civil Registrar
B. Cooperatives Officer
C. Health Officer
D. Budget Officer
1016. RA 7160 Section 329. _________ of the general fund of the Barangay shall be
set aside for the Sangguniang Kabataan.
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 25%
1017. Real property shall be appraised at its current and __________.

A. Acquisition Cost
B. Assessed Value
C. Fair Market Value
D. Replacement Cost
1018. Real property shall be classified for assessment purposes on the basis of its
__________.
A. Acquisition Cost
B. Actual Use
C. Assessment
D. Classification
1019. Real property shall be assessed on the basis of a uniform __________within

each local government unit;
A. Actual Use
B. Appraisal
C. Assessment
D. Classification
1020. The appraisal, assessment, levy and collection of real property tax shall be let
to any private person;
A. True
B. False
1021. The appraisal and assessment of real property shall be equitable.

A. True
B. False
1022. Which of the ff. statement is incorrect?

a) Real property shall be appraised at its current and fair market value;
b) Real property shall be classified for assessment purposes on the basis of its
actual use;
c) Real property shall be assessed on the basis of a uniform classification within
d) The appraisal, assessment, levy and collection of real property tax shall be let to
any private person;
e) The appraisal and assessment of real property shall be equitable.
1023. __________ is land devoted principally to the planting of trees, raising of

crops, livestock and poultry, dairying, salt making, inland fishing and similar
aquacultural activities, and other agricultural activities, and is not classified as
mineral, timber, residential, commercial or industrial land
A. Agricultural Land
B. Commercial Land
C. Industrial Land
D. Residential Land
1024. __________ is land devoted principally for the object of profit and is not
classified as agricultural, industrial, mineral, timber, or residential land
B. Commercial Land
C. Industrial Land
D. Residential Land
1025. ____________ is land devoted principally to industrial activity as capital

investment and is not classified as agricultural, commercial, timber, mineral or
residential land;
B. Commercial Land
C. Industrial Land
D. Residential Land
1026. ___________ is land principally devoted to habitation.

B. Commercial Land
C. Industrial Land
D. Residential Land
1027. ___________ are lands in which minerals, metallic or non-metallic, exist in

sufficient quantity or grade to justify the necessary expenditures to extract and utilize
such materials;
A. Commercial Land
B. Industrial Land
C. Mineral Land
D. All of the above
1028. The ff. statements are collectively known as __________.

(a) Real property shall be appraised at its current and fair market value;
(b) Real property shall be classified for assessment purposes on the basis of its
actual use;
(c) Real property shall be assessed on the basis of a uniform classification within
(d) The appraisal, assessment, levy and collection of real property tax shall not be
let to any private person; and
(e) The appraisal and assessment of real property shall be equitable.
A. Basic Principles
B. Fundamental Principles
C. General Principles
D. Taxation Principles
1029. __________ is the fair market value of the real property multiplied by the
assessment level. It is synonymous to taxable value;
A. Assessed Value
B. Depreciated Value
D. Remaining Value
1030. Taxable Value is the fair market value of the real property multiplied by the
assessment level.
A. True
B. False
1031. ___________ is the value remaining after deducting depreciation from the
acquisition cost;
A. Assessed Value
D. Remaining Value
1032. ________ is the price at which a property may be sold by a seller who is not
compelled to sell and bought by a buyer who is not compelled to buy;
A. Assessed Value
D. Remaining Value
1033. __________ is the value corresponding to the remaining useful life of the
machinery;
A. Assessed Value
D. Remaining Value
1034. All real property, whether taxable or exempt, shall be appraised at the current
and fair market value prevailing in the locality where the property is situated
A. True
B. False
1035. The sworn declaration of real property shall be filed with the assessor
concerned once every _____ years during the period from January first (1st) to June
thirtieth (30th) commencing with the calendar year 1992.
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
1036. The filing period of the sworn declaration of real property is from January first
(1st) to _________ commencing with the calendar year 1992.
A. January thity-first
B. March thirty-first
C. June thirtieth
D. December thirty-first
1037. It shall be the duty of all persons, natural or juridical, owning or administering
real property, to prepare, or cause to be prepared, and file with the assessor
concerned, a sworn statement declaring the true value of their property.
A. True
B. False
1038. The sworn declaration of real property shall be filed with the assessor
concerned once every year during the period from January first (1st) to June thirtieth
(30th) commencing with the calendar year 1992.
A. True
B. False
1039. It shall also be the duty of any person, acquiring at any time real property, to
prepare, or cause to be prepared, and file with the assessor concerned, a sworn
statement declaring the true value of subject property, within _____ days after the
acquisition of such property or upon completion or occupancy of the improvement,
whichever comes earlier.
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days
1040. Every person by or for whom real property is declared, who shall claim tax
exemption for such property shall file with the assessor concerned within ____ days
from the date of the declaration of real property sufficient documentary evidence in
support of such claim including corporate charters, title of ownership, articles of
incorporation, by-laws, contracts, affidavits, certifications and mortgage deeds, and
similar documents.
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days
1041. If the required evidence or proof of exemption is not submitted within the
prescribed period, the property shall be listed as taxable in the assessment roll.
A. True
B. False
1042. Any person who shall transfer real property ownership to another shall notify
the assessor concerned within _____ from the date of such transfer.
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 45 days
D. 60 days
1043. Which of the ff. classification is not among the special class of real property?
A. cultural
B. educational
C. hospital
D. scientific
1044. All lands, buildings, and other improvements thereon actually, directly and
exclusively used by local water districts, and government-owned or controlled
corporations rendering essential public services in the supply and distribution of
water and/or generation and transmission of electric power shall be classified as
special.
A. True
B. False
1045. It is the percentage applied to the fair market value to determine the taxable
value of the property.
A. Ad Valorem Rate
B. Assessment Level
C. Percentage Tax
D. Tax Rate
1046. The maximum assessment level for land is 50%. Which of the ff. classification
of land have a lower assessment level of 50%?
A. Agricultural
B. Commercial
C. Industrial
D. Mineral
1047. What is the maximum assessment level for Mineral, Industrial and
Commercial lands?
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 40%
D. 50%
1048. What is the maximum assessment level for Cultural, Hospital and Scientific
class of real property?
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 40%
D. 50%
exclusively used by local water districts, and government-owned or controlled
corporations rendering essential public services in the supply and distribution of
water and/or generation and transmission of electric power shall be classified as
special. What is the maximum assessment level for these class of real property?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 50%
exclusively used for hospitals, cultural, or scientific purposes shall be classified as
special.
A. True
B. False
1051. If all lands, buildings, and other improvements there on actually, directly and
exclusively used for hospitals, cultural, or scientific purposes shall be classified as
special?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 50%
1052. All assessments or reassessments made after the first (1st) day of January of
any year shall take effect on the first (1st) day of January of the current year
A. True
B. False
1053. The reassessment of real property due to its partial or total destruction, or to a
major change in its actual use, or to any great and sudden inflation or deflation of
real property values, or to the gross illegality of the assessment when made or to
any other abnormal cause, shall be made within _____ days from the date any such
cause or causes occurred, and shall take effect at the beginning of the quarter next
following the reassessment.
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
1054. When real property is assessed for the first time or when an existing
assessment is increased or decreased, the assessor shall within _____ days give
written notice of such new or revised assessment to the person in whose name the
property is declared.
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
1055. In what manner of delivery must the Notice of New or Revised Assessment
may be made?
A. Personal Delivery
B. Registered Mail
C. Delivery through the assistance of the punong barangay
D. A & B only
E. All of the above
1056. For purposes of assessment, a depreciation allowance shall be made for

machinery at a rate not exceeding _____ of its original cost or its replacement or
reproduction cost, as the case may be, for each year of use.
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
1057. The remaining value for all kinds of machinery shall be fixed at not less than
__________ of such original, replacement, or reproduction cost for so long as the
machinery is useful and in operation.
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
1058. Which of the ff. is not a member of the City Board of Assessment Appeals?
A. City Assessor
B. City Engineer
C. City Prosecutor
D. Registrar of Deeds
1059. Who is the Chairman of the City Board of Assessment Appeals?

A. City Assessor
B. City Engineer
C. City Prosecutor
D. Registrar of Deeds
1060. The Members of the Board of Assessment Appeals shall serve as such in an
ex officio capacity with additional compensation.
A. True
B. False
1061. The Board of Assessment Appeals shall decide the appeal within __________
days from the date of receipt of such appeal.
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
1062. The Central Board of Assessment Appeals shall be composed of a chairman,

and _____ members, who shall serve for a term of seven (7) years, without
reappointment.
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
1063. The Chairman and Members of the Central Board of Assessment Appeals are
appointed by the ______.
A. CSC Chairman
B. Commission of Appointments
C. President
D. Secretary of Finance
1064. The chairman and the members of the Central Board of Assessment Appeals
shall be Filipino citizens, at least ______ years old at the time of their appointment.
A. 30
B. 35
C. 40
D. 45
1065. Central Board of Assessment Appeals: The chairman and the members of the
Board must be __________ for at least ten (10) years immediately preceding their
appointment.
A. Members of the BAR
B. Certified Public Accountant
C. Professional Engineer
D. A or B
E. B or C
1066. Appeal on assessments of real property made under the provisions of this
Code shall suspend the collection of the corresponding realty taxes on the property
involved as assessed by the assessor, without prejudice to subsequent adjustment
depending upon the final outcome of the appeal.
A. True
B. False
1067. Real property declared for the first time shall be assessed for taxes for the
period during which it would have been liable but in no case of more than _____
years prior to the date of initial assessment.
A. 5
B. 7
C. 10
D. 12
1068. A province or city, or a municipality within the Metropolitan Manila Area, may
levy an annual tax on idle lands at the rate not exceeding _____ of the assessed
value of the property which shall be in addition to the basic real property tax.
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. 5%
1069. The real property tax for any year shall accrue on the _____ and from that
date it shall constitute a lien on the property which shall be superior to any other lien,
mortgage, or encumbrance of any kind whatsoever, and shall be extinguished only
upon the payment of the delinquent tax.
A. January 1
B. February 1
C. March 1
D. March 31
1070. These are mineral lands which were located as mining claims under the
provisions of the Philippine Bill of 1902.
A. Metallic Mineral Land
B. Non-Metallic Mineral Land
C. Patented Mineral Land
D. Unpatented Mineral Land
1071. It is a parcel of mineral land that which does not come under the definition of
"lode mineral claim."
A. Lode Mineral Claim
B. Non-producing patented mineral claim
C. Placer claim
D. Producing patented mineral claim
1072. These are mineral lands covered by a duly issued mineral patent signed by
the President of the Philippines.
A. Metallic Mineral Land
B. Non-metallic Mineral Land
C. Patented Mineral Land
D. Unpatented Mineral Land
1073. It is a parcel of mineral land containing a vein, lode, ledge, lens, or mass of
ore in place which has been located in accordance with law.
B. Non-producing Patented Mineral Claims
C. Placer Claim
D. Producing Patented Mineral Claims
1074. Those claims which are only in the stage of exploration and development and
has not produced minerals for commercial production.
B. Non-producing Patented Mineral Claims
C. Placer Claim
1075. Those claims producing minerals for commercial purposes.

B. Non-producing Patented Mineral Claim
C. Placer Claim
1076. It is defined as an act or fact in reality. It is something real or actually existing

as opposed to something merely possible, or to something which is presumptive or
constructive.
A. Actually Use
B. Directly Use
C. Exclusively Use
D. All of the above
1077. It is defined as that use without anything intervening proximately or without an

intervening agency or person.
A. Actually Use
B. Directly Use
C. Exclusively Use
D. All of the above
1078. It means the primary or inherent use and does not preclude such incidental
uses as are directly connected with, essential to, and in furtherance of the primary
use.
A. Actually Use
B. Directly Use
C. Exclusively Use
D. All of the above
1079. It is land devoted to or cultivated for planting of vegetables, flowers and other
ornamental plants.
B. Orchard
C. Horticulture Land
D. All of the above
1080. It is land specifically devoted to various fruit trees and plants;

B. Orchard
C. Horticulture Land
D. All of the above
1081. It is a strip of land along the seashore, the use of which may or may not be
granted by the government to private persons or corporations;
A. Foreshore Land
B. Mangrove Land
C. Marsh Land
D. Timberland
1082. Is a term applied to the type of forest occurring on tidal flat along the seacoast,
extending along stream where the water is brackish;
A. Foreshore Land
B. Mangrove Land
C. Marsh Land
D. Timberland
1083. It is a tract of low-lying land usually under water.

A. Foreshore Land
B. Mangrove Land
C. Marsh Land
D. Timberland
1084. It is land identified as forest or reserved area by the government, which may
or may not be granted to a concessionaire, licensee, lessee or permitee.
A. Foreshore Land
B. Mangrove Land
C. Marsh Land
D. Timberland
1085. Which of the following is a Policy of the State?

A. Territorial and political subdivisions of the State shall enjoy genuine and
meaningful local autonomy
B. Ensure the accountability of local government units through recall, initiative and
referendum
C. Provide for a more responsive and accountable local government structure
instituted through a system of decentralization
D. All of the choices
1086. Which one is not an operative principle of decentralization?

A. Power to create and broaden their own sources of revenue
B. Right to a just share in national taxes
C. Development of the national wealth within their respective areas
D. Promote health and safety
1087. Creation and conversion of LGU as compliance with the foregoing indicators
shall be attested to by the:
I. NSO
II. LMB
III. DOF
IV. DENR
V. PSA
VI. Office of the President
VII. Congress
A. I, II, III, IV, VI, VII only
B. V, VI. VII only
C. I, II, III, IV only
D. II, III, IV, V, VI, VII only
1088. It must be sufficient, based on acceptable standards, to provide for all

essential government facilities and services and special functions commensurate
with the size of its population.
A. services
B. land area
C. population
D. income
1089. Authority to create a Municipal LGU.

A. By ordinance passed by the sangguniang panglungsod
B. By ordinance passed by the sangguniang panlalawigan
C. By law enacted in congress
1090. Creation or conversion of an LGU shall not be based on

A. Land area
B. Population
C. Politics
D. Income
1091. Compliance in the creation or conversion of an LGU shall not be attested to by
what agency?
A. DOF
B. NEDA
C. NSO
D. LMB
1092. It is contiguous, unless it comprises two or more islands.

A. Population
B. Income
C. Land Area
D. Community
1093. Which statement is true in the division and merger of an existing LGU?
A. May reduce the income, population, or land area less than the minimum
requirements
B. May reduce the income and population; not the land area less than the minimum
requirements
C. May reduce the income; not the population and land area less than the minimum
requirements
D. Shall not reduce the income, population, or land area less than the minimum
requirements
1094. When can a Local Government Unit be abolished?

A. When its income has been irreversibly reduced to less than the minimum
standards prescribed
B. When its population has been irreversibly reduced to less than the minimum
C. When its land area has been irreversibly reduced to less than the minimum
1095. When is a plebiscite not required?

A. Creation & abolition of LGU
B. Division or merger of LGU
C. Substantial alteration of boundaries of LGU
1096. Which is not a criteria for the Selection and Transfer of Local Government
Site, Offices and Facilities?
A. Geographical centrality
B. Accessibility
C. Tradition and history
D. Development and economic progress
1097. What shall specify the seat of government from where governmental and
corporate services shall be delivered?
A. When conditions and developments have significantly changed
B. Public hearings and the concurrence of the majority of all the members of the
Sanggunian
C. Law or ordinance creating or merging LGU
1098. How may the seat of government be transferred?

A. When conditions and developments have significantly changed
B. Public hearings
C. Concurrence of the majority of all the members of the Sanggunian
1099. Which LGU can change the name of Public vocational or technical schools
and other post-secondary and tertiary schools?
A. Sangguniang Panlalawigan with the Philippine Historical Commission
B. Sanggunian of Highly urbanized cities and of component cities with the Philippine
Historical Commission
C. Sanggunian of Component cities and municipalities with the Philippine Historical
Commission
D. Sanguniang Barangay
1100. Which LGU can change the name of Public elementary, secondary and
vocational or technical schools, community colleges and non-chartered colleges?
A. Sangguniang Panlalawigan with the Philippine Historical Commission
B. Sanggunian of Highly urbanized cities and of component cities with the Philippine
Historical Commission
C. Sanggunian of Component cities and municipalities with the Philippine Historical
Commission
D. Sanguniang Barangay
ANSWER KEYS (PPT BY SEROTE)
1. D 22. B 43. B
2. B 23. D 44. B
3. A 24. C 45. A
4. A 25. B 46. B
5. A 26. B 47. B
6. B 27. A 48. A
7. B 28. B 49. D
8. D 29. B 50. C
9. B 30. D 51. A
10. C 31. A 52. C
11. B 32. D 53. D
12. D 33. A 54. D
13. A 34. B 55. A
14. D 35. B 56. A
15. A 36. A 57. A
16. B 37. C 58. B
17. B 38. A 59. A
18. B 39. C 60. D
19. A 40. B 61. B
20. C 41. C 62. B
21. B 42. D 63. D

64. D 87. C 110. A
65. A 88. D 111. C
66. A 89. B 112. B
67. C 90. C 113. B
68. D 91. D 114. D
69. A 92. C 115. C
70. D 93. D 116. A
71. D 94. D 117. B
72. C 95. C 118. B
73. B 96. D 119. C
74. A 97. D 120. A
75. B 98. A 121. D
76. C 99. C 122. A
77. E 100. B 123. A
78. B 101. D 124. D
79. D 102. C 125. B
80. C 103. C 126. A
81. A 104. B 127. C
82. B 105. D 128. D
83. A 106. A 129. A
84. A 107. B 130. A
85. A 108. B 131. A
86. B 109. D 132. C

133. D 156. A 179. A
134. B 157. D 180. A
135. A 158. D 181. A
136. D 159. B 182. C
137. A 160. A 183. A
138. A 161. B 184. B
139. B 162. A 185. A
140. D 163. D 186. A
141. D 164. D 187. B
142. B 165. C 188. A
143. A 166. B 189. D
144. B 167. A 190. A
145. D 168. A 191. C
146. B 169. D 192. A
147. C 170. C 193. B
148. D 171. A 194. B
149. C 172. B 195. A
150. C 173. C 196. B
151. A 174. A 197. A
152. B 175. D 198. A

153. C
176. B 199. D
154. A 177. A 200. D
155. B 178. D 201. A

202. C 225. B 248. C
203. D 226. D 249. C
204. D 227. A 250. A
205. A 228. C 251. D
206. C 229. C 252. A
207. C 230. A 253. C
208. A 231. A 254. C
209. B 232. C 255. C
210. C 233. A 256. D
211. C 234. A 257. A
212. D 235. A 258. B
213. A 236. A 259. D
214. C 237. C 260. C
215. A 238. A 261. C
216. A 239. C 262. D
217. C 240. D 263. A
218. A 241. A 264. D
219. D 242. A 265. A
220. C 243. B 266. D
221. A 244. A 267. D
222. C 245. A 268. A
223. C 246. A 269. A
224. A 247. B 270. D

271. A 294. C 317. B
272. 295. A 318. D
273. B 296. C 319. C
274. C 297. A 320. C
275. A 298. B 321. A
276. D 299. B 322. C
277. A 300. C 323. B
278. A 301. D 324. A
279. C 302. D 325. C
280. C 303. B 326. A
281. C 304. D 327. B
282. D 305. B 328. A
283. A 306. B 329. D
284. B 307. C 330. A
285. B 308. B 331. A
286. A 309. D 332. A
287. C 310. B 333. A
288. D 311. E 334. B
289. B 312. C 335. D
290. B 313. E 336. C
291. A 314. C 337. A
292. D 315. B 338. A
293. A 316. C 339. C

340. C 363. D 386. A
341. D 364. A 387. C
342. A 365. B 388. C
343. B 366. B 389. D
344. C 367. D 390. D
345. D 368. A 391. A
346. B 369. B 392. D
347. C 370. B 393. D
348. A 371. C 394. A
349. B 372. D 395. B
350. A 373. C 396. A
351. E 374. D 397. C
352. A 375. A 398. D
353. A 376. A 399. A
354. D 377. B 400. A
355. A 378. B 401. C
356. B 379. D 402. D
357. C 380. C 403. A
358. D 381. A 404. C
359. A 382. B 405. D
360. B 383. C 406. A
361. C 384. D 407. B
362. D 385. A 408. C

409. A 432. D 455. B
410. D 433. D 456. D
411. D 434. D 457. C
412. B 435. B 458. A
413. A 436. C 459. B
414. A 437. C 460. A
415. A 438. D 461. B
416. D 439. C 462. D
417. A 440. A 463. A
418. B 441. C 464. C
419. D 442. B 465. B
420. D 443. D 466. A
421. A 444. A 467. C
422. C 445. D 468. D
423. A 446. A 469. A
424. A 447. D 470. C
425. B 448. A 471. B
426. A 449. A 472. B
427. D 450. C 473. D
428. D 451. C 474. C
429. C 452. E 475. A
430. C 453. D 476. C
431. C 454. C 477. B

478. A 501. C 524. C
479. A 502. D 525. D
480. C 503. D 526. A
481. C 504. A 527. D
482. D 505. B 528. A
483. C 506. D 529. A
484. B 507. A 530. D
485. A 508. B 531. D
486. C 509. A 532. C
487. D 510. D 533. A
488. A 511. B 534. D
489. A 512. A 535. A
490. C 513. B 536. D
491. B 514. D 537. A
492. D 515. D 538. C
493. B 516. B 539. B
494. 517. D 540. D
495. E 518. A 541. A
496. A 519. D 542. B
497. A 520. C 543. D
498. B 521. A 544. A
499. D 522. C 545. B
500. A 523. A 546. B

547. A 570. B 593. A
548. C 571. C 594. A
549. C 572. A 595. B
550. B 573. B 596. B
551. C 574. A 597. C
552. B 575. A 598. B
553. B 576. B 599. A
554. A 577. B 600. A
555. C 578. B 601. B
556. A 579. D 602. A
557. B 580. B 603. A
558. D 581. A 604. C
559. C 582. D 605. D
560. A 583. D 606. A
561. B 584. A 607. C
562. A 585. C 608. A
563. B 586. A 609. B
564. C 587. B 610. D
565. B 588. A 611. A
566. D 589. C 612. C
567. A 590. B 613. B
568. C 591. D 614. B
569. C 592. B 615. C

616. C 639. C 662. B
617. B 640. D 663. D
618. A 641. B 664. A
619. B 642. 665. C
620. C 643. A 666. A
621. B 644. C 667. C
622. D 645. B 668. D
623. A 646. C 669. A
624. B 647. A 670. B
625. A 648. D 671. C
626. C 649. B 672. A
627. A 650. C 673. D
628. B 651. A 674. C
629. B 652. C 675. A
630. C 653. A 676. B
631. C 654. C 677. C
632. A 655. A 678. D
633. D 656. C 679. A
634. B 657. B 680. C
635. B 658. A 681. A
636. B 659. C 682. C
637. A 660. B 683. B
638. B 661. A 684. A

685. D 708. C 731. B
686. A 709. A 732. A
687. C 710. D 733. C
688. A 711. A 734. D
689. B 712. C 735. B
690. D 713. B 736. C
691. B 714. A 737. A
692. C 715. D 738. C
693. A 716. B 739. A
694. C 717. C 740. D
695. A 718. D 741. A
696. C 719. B 742. C
697. B 720. A 743. B
698. C 721. A 744. B
699. A 722. B 745. A
700. D 723. C 746. A
701. C 724. A 747. B
702. A 725. A 748. D
703. C 726. C 749. A
704. D 727. A 750. D
705. A 728. A 751. B
706. C 729. B 752. A
707. B 730. D 753. C

754. B 777. D 800. D
755. C 778. B 801. B
756. A 779. A 802. A
757. C 780. D 803. D
758. A 781. B 804. B
759. B 782. A 805. A
760. B 783. C 806. C
761. B 784. A 807. C
762. C 785. C 808. A
763. A 786. B 809. B
764. C 787. A 810. C
765. B 788. C 811. B
766. A 789. A 812. A
767. D 790. B 813. C
768. A 791. D 814. B
769. C 792. A 815. D
770. B 793. C 816. C
771. A 794. B 817. A
772. A 795. A 818. C
773. D 796. C 819. D
774. C 797. C 820. B
775. B 798. A 821. D
776. A 799. B 822. A

823. B 846. C 869. D
824. B 847. B 870. D
825. A 848. D 871. B
826. B 849. A 872. A
827. A 850. A 873. C
828. C 851. B 874. B
829. C 852. D 875. D
830. C 853. A 876. A
831. A 854. C 877. C
832. B 855. A 878. A
833. D 856. A 879. C
834. A 857. B 880. A
835. C 858. C 881. A
836. B 859. A 882. C
837. A 860. B 883. C
838. D 861. C 884. A
839. B 862. B 885. B
840. A 863. A 886. B
841. C 864. B 887. C
842. B 865. C 888. A
843. C 866. D 889. B
844. C 867. A 890. C
845. A 868. D 891. A

892. C 915. C 938. C
893. A 916. C 939. B
894. B 917. C 940. B
895. C 918. B 941. E
896. A 919. B 942. D
897. B 920. B 943. E
898. C 921. B 944. A
899. B 922. B 945. A
900. A 923. A 946. A
901. D 924. D 947. B
902. D 925. C 948. A
903. B 926. A 949. C
904. B 927. B 950. A
905. A 928. B 951. B
906. C 929. B 952. D
907. A 930. A 953. B
908. D 931. A 954. D
909. B 932. C 955. A
910. D 933. B 956. B
911. B 934. D 957. C
912. D 935. D 958. C
913. C 936. B 959. C
914. B 937. C 960. C

961. C 984. A 1007. D
962. B 985. A 1008. D
963. B 986. B 1009. D
964. D 987. C 1010. A
965. C 988. A 1011. B
966. C 989. B 1012. A
967. A 990. E 1013. E
968. E 991. A 1014. D
969. D 992. A 1015. A
970. A 993. A 1016. A
971. A 994. A 1017. C
972. D 995. A 1018. B
973. C 996. B 1019. D
974. D 997. B 1020. B (LGC Sec198)
975. E 998. C 1021. A (LGC Sec198)
976. E 999. B 1022. D
977. A 1000. A 1023. A
978. A 1001. A 1024. B
979. B 1002. A 1025. C
980. E 1003. A 1026. D
981. A 1004. B 1027. C
982. D 1005. D 1028. B
983. D 1006. B 1029. A

1030. A 1053. C 1076. A
1031. B 1054. A(LGC Sec 223) 1077. B
1032. C 1055. E(LGC Sec 223) 1078. C
1033. D 1056. A(LGC Sec 225) 1079. C
1034. A(LGC Sec 201) 1057. D 1080. B
1035. B 1058. A 1081. A
1036. C 1059. D 1082. B
1037. A(LGC Sec 202) 1060. A 1083. C
1038. B (every 3 yrs) 1061. D 1084. D
1039. C (LGC Sec203) 1062. A(LGC Sec 230) 1085. D
1040. B(LGC Sec 206) 1063. A(LGC Sec 230) 1086. D
1041. A(LGC Sec 206) 1064. C(LGC Sec 230) 1087. C
1042. D(LGC Sec 208) 1065. C(LGC Sec 230) 1088. D
1043. B(LGC Sec 216) 1066. B(LGC Sec 231) 1089. D
1044. A(LGC Sec 216) 1067. C(LGC Sec 222) 1090. C
1045. B 1068. D(LGC Sec 236) 1091. B
1046. A 1069. A(LGC Sec 246) 1902. C
1047. D 1070. D 1093. D
1048. A 1071. C 1904. D
1049. A 1072. C 1095. D
1050. A(LGC Sec 216) 1073. A 1096. C
1051. B(LGC Sec 218) 1074. B 1097. C
1052. B(LGC Sec 221) 1075. D 1098. D

1099. A
1100. B

1100 Qna PPT by Serote Quiz

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1100 Qna PPT by Serote Quiz

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Property, Patrimony & Territory

(Foundations of Land Use

1. According to Serote, land definition has 4 senses?

A. I,II,V B. I,II,III,V C. I,II,III,IV,V D.I,II,III,IV,V

2. According to Serote, concept of land use planning evokes the following?

A. I.II. B. I.III.IV C. I.II.III.IV D. II.III.IV

4. When urban land is to be used as a site, it attributes to the land parcel

I. LOAD BEARING CAPACITY

A. I.II B. I.II.IV C. I.II.III.IV.V D. I.III.IV

5. The 5 determinants of urban land value formulated by Eugene F. Brigham

A. SOLID B. SOIL C. SURFACE D. PUBLIC DOMAIN

7. The Serote's broad concepts of land refer to....

A. Blue B. Violet C. Brown D. Yellow

11. In Serote’s broad concepts of land, it conceives as any as the ff…

A. I.II.V B. I.II.III.IV C. II.III.IV.V D. I.II.III.IV.V

I. Might makes right

A. I.II B. I.II.III.IV.V C. III.IV.V D. I.II.III.IV

A. Land Use Plan B. Land utilization C. CLUP D. CDP

A. Bamboo B. Grass C. Lemon Grass D. Grass root

18. Types of land conversion are as follows:

A. I.II.III.IV.V B. I.V C. II.III.V D. I.III.IV.V

I. forward & backward

A. I.III.IV B. I.II.III C. I.II.III.IV.V D. III.IV.V

A. I.II.III.IV.V B. I.II.IV.V. C. II.III.IV D. I.III

24. Assigns to discrete exclusive areas activities that are incompatible.

A. I.II.III.IV.V B. I.III.V C. II.III.IV D. I.III.IV.V

A. I.II.III B. I.II.III.IV C. II.III.V D. II.III.IV.V

27. In land use categories, functional characteristics refer to…

A. I.III.V B. I.II.III.IV.V C. II.III.V D. I.III.IV.V

28. These refer to the general land use categories…

I. protection land use

A. I.II.III.IV.V B. I.II.III.IV C. II.IV.V D. I.II.IV.V

A. Land use plan

A. 40-50 B. 70-80 C.60-70 D. 90-100

38. From legal sense perspective, the operative term is __________________.

47. Land is regarded as ____________________ when it is used or enjoyed in a way

(Chapter 2 – Determinants of Land Use Decisions (Physical Determinants of Land

I. Warm Pedo-Ecological Regions

62. Percentage of slope for moderately sloping to strongly rolling

I. The owner of the property

66. The relatives steepness of a land surface.

68. The recommends ______ slope is limit for road construction.

69. Percentage of slope for very gently to moderate sloping undulating.

70. Percentage of slope for strongly rolling to hilly terrain.

71. Percentage of slope for very steep terrain.

72. Percentage of slope for hilly to mountainous terrain.

83. The following are the characteristics of soil.

84. The following are the basic soil texture.

85. Soil particles with a diameter of less than 0.002mm.

86. Soil particles with a diameter of 0.002 - 0.06mm.

88. Soil particles with a diameter more than 2.0mm.

92. The rainwater that flows on the ground surface is called.

93. Pertains to the subsurface water or aquifer.

94. Factors affecting recharge;

97. Considered as determinants of land decisions according to BSWM as a new concept

a. Warm Pedo-Ecological Regions

a. Warm Pedo-Ecological Regions

a. Upland Pedo-Ecological Zones

a. Upland Pedo-Ecological Zones

106. Non-quantifiable value w/c is the collective subjective perception of different

a. Cost & Benefit

a. The relationship between seller and buyer