PHYSICS

1. What is the standard unit of mass?

A. Kilogram
B. Pound
C. Gram
D. Newton
2. What is defined as the distance the light travels in a vacuum in 1/299,792,458 second?
A. Yard
B. Feet
C. Meter
D. Inch
3. What is the SI unit of work?
A. Newton
B. Watt
C. Newton-Second
D. Joule
4. What is the SI unit of power?
A. Newton
B. Watt
C. Newton-Second
D. Joule
5. What is the SI unit of temperature?
A. Fahrenheit
B. Kelvin
C. Celsius
D. Rankine
6. What is the SI unit of luminous intensity?
A. Candela
B. Lumens
C. Lux
D. Candlepower
7. What is the unit of relative intensity?
A. Pa
B. N-m
C. C.N-m/s
D. Unitless
8. What is the SI unit of pressure?
A. Pa
B. N-m
C. N/m
D. N-m/s
9. Which one is equivalent of the unit “Pascal’?
A. N/nm2
B. N/m2
C. N/m
D. N/nm
10. The pressure of 1 bar is equivalent to how many pascals?
A. 1,000,000
B. 100,000
 C. 10,000
D. 1000
11. What is the SI unit of intensity?
A. Joule/m2
B. kg/m2
C. N/m2
D. watt/m2
12. What is the unit of potential difference?
A. Watt
B. Coulomb
C. Volt
D. Weber
13. Which of the following is equivalent to a volt?
A. watt/coulomb
B. joule/coulomb
C. joule/watt
D. watt/joule
14. One election volt is equivalent to _______ joules.
A. 1.6 x 10^-17
B. 1.6 x 10^-18
C. 1.6 x 10 ^-19
D. 1.6 x 10^-20
15. What is the unit of capacitance?
A. Farad
B. Weber
C. Coulomb
D. Gauss
16. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit “farad”?
A. coulomb/volt
B. joule/volt
C. joule/coulomb
D. coulomb/joule
17. What is the unit of electric current?
A. Volt
B. Watt
C. Ampere
D. Coulomb
18. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit “ampere”?
A. joule/second
B. volt/second
C. coulomb/second
D. watt/second
19. What is the unit of resistance?
A. Ohm
B. Watt
C. Volt
D. Ampere
20. Ohm is equivalent to which of the following?
A. coulomb/ampere
B. watt/ampere
 C. volt/ampere
D. joule/ampere
21. What is the unit of luminous intensity?
A. Footcandle
B. Lumen
C. Candela
D. Lux
22. What is the unit of luminous flux?
A. Candela
B. Lumen
C. Lux
D. Footcandle
23. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit “candela”?
A. lumen/m2
B. footcandle/steradian
C. lux/steradian
D. lumen/steradian
24. What is the unit of luminous efficiency?
A. lumen/watt
B. lumen/volt
C. lumen/ampere
D. lumen/coulomb
25. What is the unit of illumination?
A. Lux
B. Lumen
C. Candela
D. Lumen/watt
26. Lux is equivalent to which combination of units?
A. lumen/cm2
B. lumen/ft2
C. lumen/m2
D. lumen/in2
27. Footcandle is equivalent to which combination of units?
A. lumen/cm2
B. lumen/ft2
C. lumen/m2
D. lumen/in2
28. How many dynes are there in one newton?
A. 10,000
B. 100,000
C. 1,000,000
D. 1000
29. What is an elemental unit of energy?
A. Quartz
B. Quark
C. Photon
D. Quantum
30. What refers to the mass which is accelerated at the rate of one foot per second when
acted on by a force of one pound?
A. Slug
 B. Erg
C. Dyne
D. BTU
31. The size of some bacteria and living cells is in the order of _______.
A. centimetre
B. millimetre
C. nanometer
D. micrometer
32. The size of the largest atom is in the order of ________.
A. centimeter
B. millimeter
C. nanometer
D. micrometer
33. The mass of a grain of salt is in the order of _______.
A. milligram
B. gram
C. microgram
D. nanogram
34. Which one is equivalent to the unit ‘joule’?
A. Newton-second
B. Newton-meter
C. Newton-meter per second
D. Newton-meter per second squared
35. Which one is equivalent to the unit “watt”?
A. Newton-second
B. Newton-meter
C. Newton-meter per second
D. Newton-meter per second squared
36. One horsepower is equivalent to how many watts?
A. 550
B. 746
C. 33,000
D. 250
37. The “kilowatt-hour” is a unit of _______.
A. work
B. energy
C. power
D. work or energy
38. The “kilowatt-hour” is a unit of _______.
A. work
B. energy
C. power
D. work or energy
39. The English unit “slug” is a unit of _______.
A. mass
B. weight
C. force
D. energy
40. How is sound intensity measured?
A. In beats
 B. In decibels
C. In phons
D. In sones
41. An electron volt is the energy required by an electron that has been accelerated by a
potential difference of how many volts?
A. 1 volt
B. 0.1 volts
C. 10 volts
D. 0.01 volts
42. What is a vector with a magnitude of one and with no unit?
A. Single vector
B. Unit vector
C. Dot vector
D. Scalar vector
43. What is the purpose of a unit vector?
A. To describe the direction in space
B. To indicate a magnitude without reference to direction
C. To serve as comparison with other vectors
D. To set a standard among vectors
44. What is another term for a scalar product of two vectors?
A. Cross product
B. Vector product
C. Dot product
D. Plus product
45. What is another term for vector product of two vectors?
A. Cross product
B. Vector product
C. Dot product
D. Plus product
46. The scalar product of two perpendicular vectors is always _______.
A. equal to 1
B. greater than 1
C. less than 1
D. equal to 0
47. The vector product of two parallel or antiparallel vectors is always ______.
A. equal 1
B. greater than 1
C. less than 1
D. equal to 0
48. The vector product of any vector with itself is ______.
A. equal to 1
B. greater than 1
C. less than 1
D. equal to 0
49. What refers to physical quantities that are completely specified by just a number and a
unit or physical quantities that have magnitudes only?
A. Scalar quantities
B. Vector product
C. Dot product
D. Vector quantities
50. What refers to physical quantities that have a magnitude and a direction?
A. Scalar quantities
B. Vector quantities
C. Dot product
D. Vector quantities
51. Which is NOT a vector quantity?
A. Displacement
B. Velocity
C. Acceleration
D. Time
52. Which is NOT a fundamental physical quantity of mechanics?
A. Length
B. Mass
C. Volume
D. Time
53. What is an arrowed line whose length is proportional to the magnitude of some vector
quantity and whose direction is that of the quantity?
A. Vector diagram
B. Vector
C. Component
D. Resultant
54. What is scaled drawing of the various forces, velocities or other vector quantities
involved in the motion of a body?
A. Vector diagram
B. Vector
C. Component
D. Resultant
55. The _______ of a moving object is the distance it covers in a time interval divided by the
time interval.
A. acceleration
B. instantaneous speed
C. average speed
D. instantaneous velocity
56. The rate at which velocity changes with time is known as ________.
A. acceleration
B. instantaneous speed
C. average speed
D. instantaneous velocity
57. “The work done by the net force on a particle equals the change in the particle’s kinetic
energy.” This statement is known as _________.
A. Law of conservation of energy
B. Work-energy theorem
C. Law of conservation of work
D. Total work theorem
58. The ________ of a particle is equal to the total work that particle can do in the process of
being brought to rest.
A. kinetic energy
B. potential energy
C. total energy
D. mechanical energy
59. Work is defined as the product of:
A. Force and displacement
B. Force and time
C. Displacement and time
D. Power and time
60. What is defined as the time rate at which work is done?
A. impulse
B. Momentum
C. Power
D. Energy
61. What is defined as any influence that can change the velocity of an object?
A. Impulse
B. Force
C. Energy
D. Work
62. What is a measure of the inertia of an object?
A. Density
B. Weight
C. Mass
D. Force
63. What is the property of matter which is the reluctance to change its state of rest or of
uniform motion?
A. Impulse
B. Momentum
C. Inertia
D. Equilibrium
64. “If no net force acts on it, an object at rest will remain at rest and an object in motion will
remain in motion at constant velocity”. This statement is the _______.
A. first law of motion
B. second law of motion
C. third law of motion
D. d’Alembert’s principle
65. “The net force acting on an object equals the product of the mass and the acceleration of
the object. The direction of the force is the same as that of the acceleration”. This statement
is the _______.
A. first law of motion
B. second law of motion
C. third law of motion
D. d’ Alembert’s principle
66. “When an object exerts a force on another object, the second object exerts on the first a
force of the same magnitude but in the opposite direction”. This statement is the _____.
A. first law of motion
B. second law of motion
C. third law of motion
D. d’Alembert’s principle
67. What refers to the force with which the earth attracts an object?
A. Gravitational pull
B. Mass
C. Weight
D. All of the above
68. How many kilograms are there in 1 slug?
A. 11.9
B. 12.5
C. 13.2
D. 14.6
69. What refers to an actual force that arises to oppose relative motion between contracting
surfaces?
A. Action force
B. Reaction force
C. Friction
D. Drag
70. What refers to the force between two stationary surfaces in contact that prevents motion
between them?
A. kinetic friction
B. sliding friction
C. starting friction
D. static friction
71. What is the maximum value of the static friction?
A. Starting friction
B. Sliding friction
C. Kinetic friction
D. Dynamic friction
72. What is TRUE between kinetic friction and static friction?
A. Kinetic friction is always to static friction
B. Kinetic friction is always less than static friction
C. Kinetic friction is always greater than static friction
D. Kinetic friction is equal to or greater than static friction
73. What is another term for kinetic friction?
A. Dynamic friction
B. Starting friction
C. Sliding friction
D. All of the above
74. For the same materials in contact, what is TRUE between coefficient of static friction and
coefficient of kinetic friction?
A. Coefficient of static friction is always less than the coefficient of kinetic friction
B. Coefficient of static friction is always equal to the coefficient of kinetic friction
C. Coefficient of static friction is always greater than the coefficient of kinetic
friction.
D. Coefficient of static friction may be greater than or less than the coefficient of
kinetic friction.
75. Efficiency of a machine is the ratio of:
A. power output to power input
B. power input to power output
C. total work done to total energy
D. total energy to total power
76. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its motion?
A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Rest energy
D. Mechanical energy
77. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its mass?
A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Rest energy
D. Mechanical energy
78. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its position?
A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Rest energy
D. Mechanical energy
79. When the vector sum of the external forces acting on the system of particles equals zero,
the total linear momentum of the system __________.
A. becomes zero
B. maximizes
C. changes abruptly
D. remains constant
80. What is conserved in an elastic collision?
A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Rest energy
D. Mechanical energy
81. In elastic collision, kinetic energy is conserved. This statement is:
A. true
B. false
C. is either true or false, depending upon the colliding bodies
D. is either true or false, depending on the impact of two colliding bodies
82. When can we say that a collision is a completely inelastic collision?
A. When the kinetic energy lost is minimum.
B. When the kinetic energy is conserved.
C. When the two colliding objects stick together after impact.
D. When the two colliding objects will separate after impact.
83. What will happen to the kinetic energy if it is a completely inelastic collision?
A. It is conserved.
B. It is lost to maximum value.
C. It is gained from the loss of potential energy.
D. It is lost to minimum value.
84. Coefficient of restitution is the ratio of:
A. relative speed after collision to relative speed before collision
B. relative speed before collision to relative speed after collision
C. relative speed to absolute speed
D. absolute speed to relative speed
85. What is the coefficient of restitution for a perfectly elastic collision?
A. 0
B. 1
C. Less than 1
D. Greater than 1
86. What is the coefficient of restitution for a perfectly inelastic collision?
A. 0
B. 1
C. Less than 1
 D. Greater than 1
87. The coefficient of restitution always applies _______.
A. to only one of the colliding objects
B. to neither of the colliding objects
C. jointly to the colliding objects
D. to the bigger colliding object
88. “When the vector sum of the external forces acting on a system of particles equals zero,
the total linear momentum of the system remaining constant.” This statement is known as:
A. Law of universal gravitation
B. Law of conservation of impulse
C. Law of conservation of momentum
D. Law of conservation of energy
89. What refers to the product of the force and the time during which a force acts?
A. Impulse
B. Momentum
C. Power
D. Energy
90. Momentum is the product of:
A. mass and time
B. velocity and mass
C. force and time
D. force and mass
91. The coefficient of restitution always applies _________.
A. to only one of the colliding objects
B. to neither of the colliding
C. jointly to the colliding objects
D. to the bigger colliding object
92. What refers to the force perpendicular to the velocity of an object moving along a curve
path?
A. Centrifugal force
B. Centripetal force
C. Reverse-effective force
D. Gravitational force
93. The centripetal force is:
A. directed away from the center of the curvature of the path
B. directed toward the center of curvature of the path
C. tangent to the curvature of the path
D. either directed away or toward the center of curvature of the path
94. What refers to the time needed by an object in uniform circular motion to complete an
orbit?
A. path time
B. orbit time
C. revolution
D. period
95. The centripetal acceleration of a particle in uniform motion is _______ to the radius of its
path.
A. directly proportional
B. inversely proportional
C. equal
D. not related in any way
96. Gravitation occurs between all objects in the universe by virtue of their ________.
A. mass
B. density
C. weight
D. volume
97. “Every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force directly proportional
to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance
separating them”. This statement is known as:
A. Law of conservation of energy
B. Law of universal gravitation
C. Law of conservation of momentum
D. Law of conservation of impulse
98. The gravitational force of the earth on an object varies of the ______ the distance of the
object from the center of the earth.
A. inversely as
B. inversely as the square of
C. directly as
D. directly as the square of
99. A rotating body has kinetic energy. This statement is ________.
A. sometimes true
B. sometimes false
C. always true
D. always false
100. What type of energy is usually transmitted by rotary motion?
A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Mechanical energy
D. Rest energy
101. Angular momentum is the product of ________.
A. moment of inertia and linear speed
B. moment of area and angular speed
C. moment of inertia and angular speed
D. moment of area and angular speed
102. “When the sum of the external torques acting on a system of particles is zero, the total
angular momentum of the system remains constant “. This statement is known as:
A. Conservation of energy
B. Conservation of impulse
C. Conservation of linear momentum
D. Conservation of angular momentum
103. What particles will experience tangential acceleration?
A. Those particles whose angular speed changes
B. Those particles whose angular speed remains constant
C. All particles
D. Those particles whose angular speed is zero.
104. The _________ of a body about a given axis is the rotational analog of mass of the
body is distributed about the axis.
A. moment of mass
B. moment of area
C. moment of inertia
D. torque
105. The _______ of a force about a particular axis is the product of the magnitude of the
force and the perpendicular distance from the line of action of the force to the axis.
A. inertia
B. mass moment
C. torque
D. moment
106. When the forces that act on an object have a vector sum of zero, the object is said to
be in _______.
A. unstable equilibrium
B. stable equilibrium
C. rotational equilibrium
D. translational equilibrium
107. Which of the following is an example of a neutral equilibrium?
A. A cone balanced on its apex.
B. A cone balanced on its base.
C. A cone on its side.
D. A cone balanced on the circumference of its base.
108. Which of the following is an example of a stable equilibrium?
A. A cone balanced on its apex.
B. A cone balanced on its base.
C. A cone on its side.
D. A cone balanced on the circumference of its base.
109. A device that transmits force or torque is called _______.
A. mechanical tool
B. machine
C. axle
D. wedge
110. If a cone is balanced on its apex, it illustrates what type of equilibrium?
A. stable equilibrium
B. neutral equilibrium
C. unstable equilibrium
D. translational equilibrium
111. When the net torque acting on an object is zero, the object is in _______.
A. unstable equilibrium
B. stable equilibrium
C. rotational equilibrium
D. translational equilibrium
112. Which of the following is NOT a basic machine?
A. lever
B. incline plane
C. hydraulic press
D. wedge
113. Where is the center of gravity of an object located?
A. It is always inside the object.
B. It is always outside the object.
C. It is always at its geometric center.
D. It may sometimes be inside the object and sometimes outside the object.
114. What is defined as the mass per unit volume?
A. Density
B. Weight density
 C. Relative density
D. Specific density
115. What is defined as the weight per unit volume?
A. Density
B. Weight density
C. Relative density
D. Specific density
116. All are values of the density of water except one. Which one?
A. 1000 kg/m3
B. 62.4 lb/ft3
C. 10 g/cm3
D. 9.81 kN/m3
117. The __________ of a substance is its density relative to that of water?
A. density
B. weight density
C. viscosity
D. specific gravity
118. What is another term for specific gravity?
A. Density
B. Weight density
C. Relative density
D. Viscosity
119. What is the average pressure of the earth’s atmosphere at sea level?
A. 1.042 bar
B. 1.021 bar
C. 1.013 bar
D. 1.037 bar
120. “An external pressure exerted on a fluid is transmitted uniformly throughout the volume
of the fluid”. This statement is known as ________.
A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem
B. Pascal’s principle
C. Archimedes principle
D. Torricelli’s theorem
121. The hydraulic press is an instrument which uses one of the following theorems. Which
one?
A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem
B. Pascal’s principle
C. Archimedes principle
D. Reynold’s principle
122. The hydrometer is an instrument which uses one of the following theorems. Which one?
A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem
B. Pascal’s principle
C. Archimedes principle
D. Reynold’s principle
123. The hydrometer is an instrument used to measure __________.
A. pressure of a liquid
B. density of a liquid
C. Reynold’s number
D. viscosity of liquid
124. The maximum displacement of an object undergoing harmonic motion on either side of
its equilibrium position is called the _________ of the motion.
A. frequency
B. oscillation
C. period
D. amplitude
125. What quantity is often used in describing harmonic motion?
A. Amplitude
B. Frequency
C. Period
D. Oscillation
126. The period of the simple harmonic motion is _______ its amplitude.
A. directly proportional to
B. inversely proportional to
C. equal to
D. independent of
127. What refers to an oscillatory motion that occurs whenever a restoring force acts on a
body in the opposite direction to its displacement from its equilibrium position, with the
magnitude of the restoring force proportional to the magnitude of the displacement?
A. Damped harmonic motion
B. Pendulum
C. Simple harmonic motion
D. Damped harmonic oscillation
128. In a damped harmonic oscillator, what reduces the amplitude of the vibrations?
A. Force
B. Period
C. Frequency
D. Friction
129. The _________ of a pivotal object is that point at which it can be struck without
producing a reaction force on its pivot.
A. center of gravity
B. center of oscillation
C. axis of oscillation
D. center of mass
130. What is a longitudinal wave phenomenon that results in periodic pressure variations?
A. Sound
B. Resonance
C. Wave
D. Beat
131. What occurs when periodic impulses are applied to a system and frequency equal to
one of its natural frequencies of oscillation?
A. Beat
B. Resonance
C. Doppler effect
D. Shock wave
132. What refers to a shell of high pressure produced by the motion of an object whose
speed exceeds that of sound?
A. Shock wave
B. Mach wave
C. Beat wave
 D. Sonic wave
133. What refers to the change in frequency of a wave when there is relative motion
between its source and an observer?
A. Superposition principle
B. Shock effect
C. Doppler effect
D. Wave motion
134. What occur when the individual particles of a medium vibrate back and forth in the
direction in which the waves travel?
A. Longitudinal waves
B. Transverse waves
C. Wave motions
D. Shock waves
135. Infrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies are below _________.
A. 20 Hz
B. 30 Hz
C. 40 Hz
D. 50 Hz
136. Ultrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies are above __________.
A. 10,000 Hz
B. 20,000 Hz
C. 30,000 Hz
D. 40,000 Hz
137. What occur when the individual particles of a medium vibrate from side to side
perpendicular to the direction in which the waves travel?
A. Longitudinal waves
B. Transverse waves
C. Wave motions
D. Shock waves
138. “When two or more waves of the same mature travel just a given point at the same
time, the amplitude at the point is the sum of the amplitude of the individual waves”. This
statement is known as ________.
A. Mach principle
B. Doppler principle
C. Principle of superposition
D. Wave motion principle
139. What occurs when the resulting composite wave has amplitude greater than that of
either of the original waves?
A. Local interference
B. Ordinary interference
C. Constructive interference
D. Destructive interference
140. What occurs when the resulting composite wave has amplitude less than that of either
of the original waves?
A. Local interference
B. Ordinary interference
C. Constructive interference
D. Destructive interference
141. The rate at which a wave of any kind carries energy per unit cross-sectional area is
called ________.
 A. beats
B. frequency
C. gain
D. intensity
142. At what intensity will sound wave starts to damage the ear of humans.
A. 10 W/m2
B. 0.1 W/m2
C. 1 W/m2
D. 0.01 W/m2
143. For a 1kHz sound wave to be audible, it must have a minimum intensity of ______
W/m2?
A. 10^-10
B. 10^-11
C. 10^-12
D. 10^-13
144. How many decibels should a sound to be barely audible?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 0.1
D. 1.5
145. The ratio of a speed of an object and the speed of sound is called the _________.
A. Wave factor
B. Supersonic number
C. Sonic number
D. Mach number
146. “The net electric charge in an isolated system remains constant”. This statement is
known as ________.
A. Principle of conservation of attraction
B. Principle of conservation of charge
C. Coulomb’s law
D. Principle of superconductivity
147. “The force one charge exerts on another is directly proportional to the magnitudes of
the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them”. This
statement is known as ________.
A. Coulomb’s law
B. Kirchhoff’s law
C. Lenz’s law
D. Faraday’s law
148. What refers to a region of space at every point of which an appropriate test object
would experience a force?
A. Energy field
B. Electric field
C. magnetic field
D. Force field
149. The _________ of an electric field is the electric potential energy per unit volume
associated with it.
A. capacitance
B. polar energy
C. energy density
D. dielectric distance
150. What is the ratio between the charge on either plates of a capacitor and the potential
difference between the plates?
A. Resistance
B. Inductance
C. Capacitance
D. Potential difference
151. What refers to the measure of how effective a material is in reducing an electric field set
up across a sample of it?
A. Electronegativity
B. Potential difference
C. Dielectric constant
D. Energy density
152. The potential difference across a battery, a generator or other source of electric energy
when it is not connected to any external circuit is called its ________.
A. electromechanical force
B. electrostatic force
C. electromotive force
D. internal resistance
153. What is defined as the luminous flux per unit area?
A. Luminous intensity
B. Luminous efficiency
C. Illumination
D. Lumen
154. What refers to the brightness of a light source?
A. Luminous intensity
B. Illumination
C. Luminous flux
D. Luminous efficiency
155. What is the approximate luminous intensity of a candle?
A. 1 candela
B. 1 flux
C. 1 lumen
D. All of the above
156. What unit is defined in terms of the light emitted by a small pool of platinum at its
melting point?
A. Footcandle
B. Candela
C. Lux
D. Lumen
157. What refers to the total amount of visible light given off by a light source?
A. Luminous intensity
B. Luminous flux
C. Luminous efficiency
D. Illumination
158. Lumen is defined as the luminous flux that falls on each square meter of a sphere 1
meter in radius at whose center is a ________ light source that radiates equally well in all
directions.
A. 0.1 candela
B. 1.0 candela
C. 10 candela
 D. 100 candela
159. What is the total luminous flux radiated by a 1 candela source?
A. 2π lm
B. 4π lm
C. 8π lm
D. π lm
160. What refers to the luminous flux emitted by a light source per watt of power input?
A. Luminous factor
B. Luminous efficiency
C. Luminous intensity
D. Illumination
161. What coating material is used in the inside of the fluorescent lamp which emits visible
light when it is excited by an ultraviolet radiation?
A. Mercury
B. Inert gas
C. Phosphor
D. Argon
162. What refers to the ratio between the speed of light in free space and its speed in a
particular medium?
A. Index of refection
B. Total internal reflection
C. Index of dispersion
D. Index of refraction
163. “The ratio of the sines of the angles of incidence and refraction is equal to the ratio of
the speeds of light in the two media”. This statement is known as ________.
A. Huygen’s principle
B. Snell’s law
C. Maxwell’s hypothesis
D. Doppler’s effect
164. Light ray that passes at an angle from one medium to another is deflected at the
surface between the two media. What is this phenomenon called?
A. Dispersion
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Incidence
165. “Every point on the wavefront can be considered as a source of secondary wavelets
that spread out in all directions with the wave speed of the medium. The wavefront at any
time is the envelope of these wavelets”. This statement is known as ________.
A. Huygen’s principle
B. Snell’s law
C. Maxwell’s hypothesis
D. Doppler’s effect
166. What is an imaginary surface the joins points where all the waves from a source are in
the same phase of oscillation?
A. Gamma ray
B. Wavefront
C. Electromagnetic wave
D. Microwave
167. What refers to the effect when a beam containing more than one frequency is split into
a corresponding number of different beams when it is refracted?
 A. Flux
B. Refraction
C. Reflection
D. Dispersion
168. What refers to the band of colors that emerges from the prism?
A. Spectrum
B. Luminance
C. Facet
D. Reflection
169. What is the index of refraction of air?
A. 1.3
B. 1.03
C. 1.003
D. 1.0003
170. What is the index of refraction of water?
A. 1.33
B. 1.63
C. 1.43
D. 1.53
171. What type of lens deviates parallel light outward as though it originated at a single
virtual focal point?
A. Magnifying lens
B. Convergent lens
C. Divergent lens
D. Microscopic lens
172. What type of lens bring parallel light to a single real focal point?
A. Magnifying lens
B. Convergent lens
C. Divergent lens
D. Microscopic lens
173. Which one best describes the meniscus lens?
A. It has only concave surfacples.
B. It has only convex surfaces.
C. it has no concave surface and no convex surface.
D. It has one concave surface and one convex surface
174. What is the distance from a lens to its focal point called?
A. Focal index
B. Focal factor
C. Focal length
D. All of the above
175. In optical system, what refers to the ratio of the image height to the object height?
A. Linear magnification
B. Object magnification
C. Image magnification
D. Height magnification
176. If the linear magnification of an optical system is less than one, it means that:
A. the image and the object are of the same size
B. the image is larger than the object
C. the image is smaller than the object
D. the image may be larger or smaller than the object
177. A camera usually uses what type of lens to form an image on a light-sensitive
photographic film?
A. Magnifying lens
B. Convergent lens
C. Divergent lens
D. Microscopic lens
178. One of the common defects of vision is _______ commonly known as nearsightedness.
A. hyporopia
B. hyperopia
C. myopia
D. minorpia
179. One of the common defects of vision is ______ commonly known as farsightedness.
A. hyporopia
B. hyperopia
C. myopia
D. minorpia
180. What lens is commonly used to correct nearsightedness?
A. Magnifying lens
B. Convergent lens
C. Divergent lens
D. Microscopic lens
181. What lens is commonly used to correct farsightedness?
A. Magnifying lens
B. Convergent lens
C. Divergent lens
D. Microscopic lens
182. What is a defect of vision caused by the cornea having different curvatures in different
planes?
A. Astigmatism
B. Myopia
C. Hyperopia
D. Presbyopia
183. In telescopes, what refers to the ratio between the angles subtended at the eye by the
image and the angle subtended at the eye by the object seen directly?
A. Magnifying power
B. Linear magnification
C. Angular magnification
D. Object magnification
184. What type of mirror that curves inward its center and converges parallel light to a single
real focal point?
A. Convex mirror
B. Concave mirror
C. Spherical mirror
D. Chromatic mirror
185. What type of mirror that curves outward toward its center and diverges parallel light as
though the reflected light came from a single virtual focal point behind the mirror?
A. Convex mirror
B. Concave mirror
C. Spherical mirror
D. Chromatic mirror
186. What refers to an artificially made polarizing material that transmits light with only a
single plane of polarization?
A. Quartz
B. Fiber optic
C. Polaroid
D. Tounnaline
187. In optical system, what refers to its ability to produce separate images of nearby
objects?
A. Coherent power
B. Brewster’s power
C. Polarization power
D. Resolving power
188. The resolving power of an equal system is _________ the objective lens of the optical
system?
A. directly proportional
B. inversely proportional
C. equal
D. not related to
189. What refers to the ability of waves to bend around the edges of obstacles in their
paths?
A. Coherence
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffraction
190. What refers to a series of parallel slits that produces a spectrum through the
interference of light that is diffracted?
A. Diffraction grating
B. Polarization
C. Coherent waves
D. Reflection
191. The emission of electrons from a metal surface when light shines on it is called
_______.
A. Absorption effect
B. Spectrum emission
C. Quantum effect
D. Photoelectric effect
192. What are high-frequency electromagnetic waves emitted when fast electrons impinge
on matter?
A. Beta rays
B. Alpha rays
C. X-rays
D. De Broglie waves
193. What refers to the increase in the measured mass of an object when it is moving
relative to an observer?
A. Exclusion principle
B. Quantum theory of mass
C. State of mass
D. Relativity of mass
194. What device is used for producing a narrow, monochromatic, coherent beam of light?
A. Spectral device
 B. Prism
C. Fiber optic
D. Laser
195. What consists of various wavelengths of light emitted by an excited substance?
A. Excited spectrum
B. Light spectrum
C. Absorption spectrum
D. Emission spectrum
196. What consists of various wavelengths of light absorbed by a substance when white light
is passed through it?
A. Excited spectrum
B. Light spectrum
C. Absorption spectrum
D. Emission spectrum
197. Every electron has a certain amount of angular momentum called its _________.
A. spin
B. shell
C. state
D. quantum number
198. What is the distance from a lens to its focal point called?
A. Focal index
B. Focal factor
C. Focal length
D. All of the above
199. What does LASER stands for?
A. Light amplification by spectral emission of radiation
B. Light amplification by state emission of radiation
C. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
D. Light amplification by saturated emission of radiation
200. A free falling object is acted upon by which of the following?
A. Weight of the body
B. Air resistance and gravitational pull
C. Gravitational pull
D. Air resistance
201. If the forces acting on a falling body balance one another, the body continues to fall at a
constant velocity. What is thus constant velocity called?
A. Instantaneous velocity
B. Free-falling body
C. Gravitational velocity
D. Terminal velocity
202. The first law of motion is also known as ___________.
A. Law of acceleration
B. Law of inertia
C. Law of interaction
D. Law of momentum
203. The second law of motion is also known as _________.
A. Law of acceleration
B. Law of inertia
C. Law of interaction
D. Law of momentum
204. The third law of motion is also known as __________.
A. Law of acceleration
B. Law of inertia
C. Law of interaction
D. Law of momentum
205. Air exerts force that is opposite to the car’s motion. What is this force called?
A. Reverse effective force
B. Terminal force
C. Drag force
D. Aerodynamic force
206. What instrument is used to measure blood pressure of human beings?
A. Stropomanometer
B. Pumpmanometer
C. Electromanometer
D. Sphygmomanometer
207. What do light, radiowaves, microwaves and X-rays have in common?
A. These waves were predicted by only one person, James Maxwell.
B. These do not need a medium to travel in.
C. These waves are all mechanical waves.
D. These waves are all serendipitous discoveries.
208. Who predicted the existence of electromagnetic waves in 1865?
A. Roentgen
B. Maxwell
C. Tesla
D. Doppler
209. What is the velocity of light in meters per second?
A. 3 x 10^6
B. 3 x 10^9
C. 3 x 10^7
D. 3 x 10^8
210. What is the sound level of the threshold of pain?
A. 100 dB
B. 110 dB
C. 120 dB
D. 130 dB
211. What is the intensity in W/m2 of the threshold of pain?
A. 1
B. 10
C. 0.1
D. 0.01
212. What is the intensity of the threshold of hearing in W/m2?
A. 10^-12
B. 10^-10
C. 10^-8
D. 10^-6
213. What refers to a measure of the energy of sound?
A. Intensity
B. Loudness
C. Pitch
D. Sone
214. What refers to the sensation in the ear which depends on the energy in the sound
wave?
A. Pitch
B. Intensity
C. Loudness
D. Timbre
215. How can loudness of sound be increased?
A. By increasing the energy of sound
B. By preventing sound waves to spread in different directions.
C. By collecting and focusing sound waves at the receiving end.
D. All of the choices.
216. Which of the following is dependent upon the frequency of sound vibrations?
A. Timbre
B. Loudness
C. Intensity
D. Pitch
217. The “Doppler effect” is named after which scientist?
A. Christopher Jacques Doppler
B. Christian Jacques Doppler
C. Christopher Jason Doppler
D. Christian Johann Doppler
218. When a person tells you that the pitch of your voice is high, he is referring to
_________.
A. the intensity of your voice
B. the number of sound waves you are sending out per second
C. the loudness of your voice
D. the equality of your voice
219. At what intensity level will a noise be considered pollutant in the environment?
A. Above 50 dB
B. Above 100 dB
C. Above 120 dB
D. Above 150 dB
220. The velocity of sound in air increases by how many m/s for every 1ºC increase in
temperature?
A. 0.2
B. 0.4
C. 0.6
D. 0.8
221. Why is sound wave travel faster in water than in air?
A. Because water has greater density than air.
B. Because water has greater bulk modulus than air.
C. Because water has more in terms of number of molecules than air.
D. Because water has more in volume than air.
222. What will happen to the wavelength if the velocity and frequency of a wave are both
reduced to one-half?
A. It will double.
B. It will reduce in half.
C. It will quadruple.
D. It will remain the same.
223. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
 A. A high-frequency sound has high pitch.
B. A high-frequency sound has low pitch.
C. A high-frequency sound has low energy.
D. A high-frequency sound has low pitch and low energy.
224. What part of the human ear where sound energy is converted into electrical energy?
A. Ear drum
B. Cochlea
C. Tympanum
D. Ear canal
225. In which medium do sound waves travel the faster?
A. Liquids
B. Solids
C. Gases
D. Vacuum
226. Who provide evidence that light and electromagnetic waves have the same nature and
that they travel at the same speed and exhibit the same properties such as refraction,
reflection and interference?
A. Townes
B. Maxwell
C. Hertz
D. Huygens
227. Which of the following has the smallest wavelength band?
A. Blue
B. Indigo
C. Green
D. Yellow
228. What color has the longest wavelength?
A. Orange
B. Red
C. Yellow
D. Green
229. What color has the shortest wavelength?
A. Indigo
B. Violet
C. Blue
D. Green
230. What is the wavelength band of orange?
A. 550 nm – 600 nm
B. 600 nm – 650 nm
C. 650 nm – 700 nm
D. 500 nm – 550 nm
231. What is the wavelength band in nanometer of visible light?
A. 350 – 700
B. 350 – 800
C. 300 – 700
D. 300 – 800
232. What terms is used to describe the angular opening of a sphere that encloses the
mirror?
A. Angle of curvature
B. Focal point
 C. Aperture
D. Vertex
233. What makes the sun visible even before it is in the line with the horizon?
A. Diffraction
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffusion
234. When the white light is passed through a prism, the different lights are bent to varying
degrees and are dispersed into different colors. Which of these colors bends the most?
A. Violet
B. Red
C. Orange
D. Green
235. When the white light is passed through a prism, the different lights are bent to varying
degrees and are dispersed into different colors. Which of these colors bends the least?
A. Violet
B. Red
C. Orange
D. Green
236. The formation of rainbow in the sky is due to _______.
A. diffraction
B. reflection
C. refraction
D. diffusion
237. What refers to the defect in lenses which causes unequal refraction of the different
colors?
A. Chromatic diffraction
B. Chromatic polarization
C. Chromatic aberration
D. Chromatic dispersion
238. What property of a light wave is determined by its wavelength?
A. Color
B. Shape
C. Size
D. Density
239. What is diffraction?
A. It is the scattering of white light behind an obstruction.
B. It is the separation of white light into its component colors.
C. It is the merging of component colors into white light.
D. It is the absorption of white light in the atmosphere.
240. What is dispersion?
A. It is the scattering of white light behind an obstruction.
B. It is the separation of white light into its component colors.
C. It is the merging of component colors into white light.
D. It is the absorption of white light in the atmosphere
241. What are primary colors?
A. Blue, Red and White
B. Light colors
C. Colors which when combined produce white light
D. Blue, Red and Green
242. What device used to measure atmospheric pressure and is consists of a glass tube
sealed at one end filled with mercury and a slide with a vernier scale?
A. Bourdon gage
B. Aneroid barometer
C. Mercury barometer
D. Manometer
243. A wave that needs a material medium through which it can travel as it transfers energy?
A. Electromagnetic wave
B. Radiowave
C. Microwave
D. Mechanical wave
244. What refers to the band of colors produced when sunlight passes through a prism?
A. Light spectrum
B. Solar spectrum
C. White spectrum
D. Visible spectrum
245. What refers to the property of some media to transmit light wave in a diffused matter to
make objects behind them undistinguishable?
A. Lucidity
B. Limpidity
C. Transparent
D. Translucent
246. What refers to the invisible electromagnetic waves shorter than the visible violet wave
but longer than the Roentgen ray?
A. Beta ray
B. Ultraviolet light
C. Alpha ray
D. X-ray
247. What refers to the part of the shadow from which all light is excluded?
A. Footprint
B. Lumbra
C. Umbra
D. Sunspot
248. The range of the projectile is:
A. directly proportional to the gravitational acceleration
B. directly proportional to the square of the velocity
C. directly proportional to the velocity
D. inversely proportional to the velocity
249. What instrument is used to measure humidity of air?
A. Hydrometer
B. Hygrometer
C. Lactometer
D. Radiometer
250. It explains combustion as a result of loss of a substance.
a. Phlogiston
b. Roasting
c. Reduction
d. Fission
251. The volume of a definite quantity of dry gas is inversely proportional to the pressure
provided the temperature remains constant.
 a. Charles’ Law
b. Boyle’s Law
c. Gay-Lussac’s Law
d. Dalton’s Law
252. It refers to matter that do not have definite form or structure.
a. Amorphous
b. Morphous
c. Transient
d. Extrinsic
253. Three grams of sulphur dissolved in 200 g of naphthalene C10H8, was found decreasing
the freezing point of the solvent to 0.72 ⁰C. Find the molecular weight of the solute. (Kf
C10H8 = 6.9 ⁰C/molar)
a. 351.16 g/mole
b. 115.32 g/mole
c. 135.61 g/mole
d. 151.23 g/mole
254. Substance having a pH level less than 7
a. acid
b. base
c. salt
d. hydrate
255. It is the enthalpy change associated with the condensation of gaseous positive and
negative ion into a crystal.
a. Raoult’s Law
b. Lattice Energy
c. Enthalpy Of Solution
d. Partition Coefficient
256. It is a product of the weathering of complex silicates, particularly of feldspars which are
abundant minerals.
a. clay
b. chalk
c. pyrite
d.diamond
257. Electrons occupy all the orbitals of a given subshell singly before pairing begins. These
unpaired electrons have parallel spins. This is known as:
a. Building Up Principle
b. Aufbau Principle
c. Hund’s rule
d. David’s rule
258. This law states that at constant temperature the volume of a sample of gas varies
inversely with the pressure.
a. Avogadro’s Law
b. Boyle’s Law
c. Charle’s Law
d. Gay-Lussac’s Law
259. It is the scattering of light by colloidal particles
a. Mott Scaterring
b. Tyndall Effect
c. Rayleigh Scattering
d. Wolf Effect
260. Consider H3AsO3, Arsenic acid (H=1.01,As=74.9,O=16.0).How many mole is 1kg of
H3AsO3?
a. 7.94 moles
b. 6.94 moles
c. 5.94 moles
d. 8.94 moles
261. It is customary to indicate accuracy by using a certain numbers of figures or digits.
a. atomic mass unit
b. International system
c. significant figures
d. supplementary units
262. It is required for organic compounds.
a. hydrogen
b. oxygen
c. boron
d. carbon
263. At what temperature reading do the Celsius scale and the Fahrenheit scale have the
same temperature?
A. – 40
B. – 30
C. – 20
D. – 25
264. The _______ of the source is the luminous flux per unit area of the source.
A. luminous emittance
B. luminous efficiency
C. luminous intensity
D. illumination
265. Brightness is the same as __________.
A. luminous emittance
B. luminous efficiency
C. luminous intensity
D. illumination
266. What is a monochromatic light?
A. Light with only one color
B. Light with only one wavelength
C. Light with only one color and one wavelength
D. Light with many colors
267. What is a three-dimensional image of an object illuminated by a broad band of coherent
light?
A. Hologram
B. Polygram
C. Opaque image
D. Translucent image
268. In opaque material,
A. light is able to pass through
B. the reflected energy is absorbed within a very thin layer and converted to
heat
C. light is partially absorbed
D. the refracted energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to heat
269. In translucent material,
 A. light is able to pass through
B. the refracted energy is absorbed within a very thin layer and converted to heat
C. light is partially absorbed
D. the reflected energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to heat
270. In transparent material,
A. light is able to pass through
B. the refracted energy is absorbed within a very thin layer and converted to heat
C. light is partially absorbed
D. the refracted energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to heat
271. The ratio of the speeds of light in two different media is known as ________.
A. index of refraction
B. index of diffraction
C. relative index of refraction
D. index of diffusion
272. What occurs when two waves combine so that one subtracts from the other?
A. Interference
B. Superposition
C. Reinforcement
D. Polarization
273. What type of waves is produced in the stem when tuning fork?
A. Transverse wave
B. Longitudinal wave
C. Neither transverse wave nor longitudinal wave
D. Both transverse wave and longitudinal wave
274. The moment of inertia of an object is dependent on which of the following?
A. The object’s size and shape
B. The object’s mass
C. The location of the axis of rotation
D. All of the above
275. Which of the following statements about center of gravity is TRUE?
A. It may be outside the object
B. It is always at its geometrical center
C. It is always in the interior of the object
D. It is sometimes arbitrary
276. A diatomic scale is a musical scale build up of how many major chords?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
277. A chromatic scale is a diatomic scale with how many added half tones?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
278. What refers to two colors which combine to form white light?
A. Complementary colors
B. Secondary colors
C. Primary colors
D. Elementary colors
279. A spectrum consisting of a wide range of unseparated wavelength is called ________.
 A. visible spectrum
B. continuous spectrum
C. emission spectrum
D. discontinuous spectrum
280. What refers to the emission of electrons from a heated metal in a vacuum?
A. Geiger effect
B. Edison effect
C. Eddy current
D. Fraunhofer effect
281. The six colors of which sunlight is composed are called __________.
A. secondary colors
B. primary colors
C. complementary colors
D. elementary colors
282. A spectrum formed by the dispersion of light from an incandescent solid, liquid and gas
is
called ________.
A. visible spectrum
B. continuous spectrum
C. emission spectrum
D. discontinuous spectrum
283. What is the type of force which binds the protons and neutrons together in the nucleus
of an atom?
A. Drag force
B. Bind force
C. Exchange force
D. Intact force
284. The “f” number of the lens is the ration of the:
A. focal length of the lens to the effective aperture
B. effective aperture to the focal length of the lens
C. magnifying power of lens to effective aperture
D. effective aperture to magnifying power of the lens
285. What refers to the length of time during which half of a given number of radioactive
nuclei will disintegrate?
A. active life
B. half cycle
C. half life
D. half period
286. What refers to the lowest pitch produced by a musical tone source?
A. Treble
B. Bass
C. Octave
D. Fundamental
287. What is an electromagnetic radiation of very short wavelength emitted from the nucleus
of a radioactive atom?
A. Beta ray
B. Alpha ray
C. Gamma ray
D. X-ray
288. What is an instrumental used to detect and measure radioactivity?
 A. Edison counter
B. Radioactive counter
C. Fraunhofer counter
D. Geiger effect
289. What refers to the fundamentals and the tones whose frequencies are whole number
multiples of the fundamentals?
A. Harmony
B. Beats
C. Treble and bass
D. Harmonics
290. A spectrum consisting of monochromatic slit images having wavelengths characteristic
of the atoms parent is called __________.
A. line spectrum
B. continuous spectrum
C. slit spectrum
D. image spectrum
291. What is an instrument used to determine the mass of atomic particles?
A. Mass indicator
B. Mass spectrograph
C. Mass counter
D. Mass technograph
292. What is a nucleon?
A. A proton in the nucleus of an atom.
B. An electron in the nucleus of an atom.
C. A neutron in the nucleus of an atom.
D. A proton or a neutron of an atom.
293. What is a glass bottle used to determine the specific gravity of liquids?
A. Beaker
B. Flask
C. Pyonometer
D. Graduated cylinder
294. What is an instrument used to determine the angle of rotation of the plane of polarized
light?
A. Polariscope
B. Polarimeter
C. Polargraph
D. Polagraph
295. What refers to the property of sound waves which depends on the number of harmonics
present and on their prominence?
A. Pitch
B. Quality
C. Harmonic
D. Fundamental
296. What refers to the failure of one set of color receptors in the eye to be stimulated?
A. Retinal failure
B. Retinal fatigue
C. Pupil imperfection
D. Astigmatism
297. The theory that the retina of the eye is provided with three sets of receptors, each of
which is sensitive to one of the three primary colors is known as ___________.
 A. True color vision theory
B. Young – Helmholtz color vision theory
C. Primary vision theory
D. Young – Huygen primary vision theory
298. What is a probable explanation for observe phenomena which is supported by
abundant data?
A. Theory
B. Hypothesis
C. Axiom
D. Conclusion
299. A tempered scale is a musical scale with _______ equal frequency ratio intervals
between the successive notes of an octave.
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 1
300. What is unifying theory applicable to the divergent phenomena of light which assumes
that the transfer of energy between light and matter occurs only in discrete quantities
proportional to the frequency of the energy transferred?
A. Quantum theory
B. Radioactive theory
C. Nuclear energy
D. Quark energy
301. The wavelength of a source wave in a certain material as measured is 18 cm. The
frequency of the wave is 1900 Hz. Compute the speed of sound wave?
A. 342 m/s
B. 400 m/s
C. 542 m/s
D. 300 m/s
302. A horizontal cord 5 m long has a mass of 2.5 grams. What must be the tension in the
cord if the wavelength of a 120 Hz wave on it is to be 50 cm?
A. 1.50 N
B. 1.80 N
C. 2.50 N
D. 4.30 N
303. A 3-m string is driven by a 240 Hz vibrator at its end. Determine the speed of
transverse waves on the string if it resonates four segments?
A. 340 m/s
B. 360 m/s
C. 430 m/s
D. 420 m/s
304. A guitar string 30 cm long resonates in its fundamental to a frequency of 250 Hz. What
is the tension in the string if 80 cm of the string “weighs” 0.80 grams?
A. 20 N
B. 30 N
C. 10 N
D. 40 N
305. A piano string with a length of 1.17 m and a mass of 21.0 g in under tension of 6.4 x
103 N, what is the fundamental frequency?
A. 225 Hz
 B. 187 Hz
C. 255 Hz
D. 290 Hz
306. A rope 4 ft long weighs 0.7 lb. A blow on the rope produces a transverse wave.
Determine the velocity of the wave considering that the tension is 40 lb.
A. 75.8 ft/s
B. 95.7 ft/s
C. 78.5 ft/s
D. 85.8 ft/s
307. What is the relative intensity level of sound in decibels it its intensity is 3 x 10-7 W/cm2?
A. 94.8
B. 78.7
C. 80.5
D. 75.4
308. A wave has pressure amplitude of 5 dynes/cm^2 and a velocity of 35.7 m/s, what is the
absolute intensity considering that 0.001293gm/cm?
A. 1.27 x 10^-8 W/cm2
B. 1.47 x 10^-8 W/cm2
C. 3.27 x 10^-8 W/cm2
D. 2.71 x 10^-8 W/cm2
309. A train blowing its whistle at 750 Hz approaches a station at the rate of 35mph. What
frequency is heard by a man standing at the station considering the velocity of sound in air
1100 ft/s?
A. 739.7 Hz
B. 857.4 Hz
C. 716.4 Hz
D. 786.7 Hz
310. Two cars A and B are traveling toward each other at speeds of 45km/hr and 70 km/hr
respectively. If A blowing its horn, what is the relative pitch heard by a passenger in B,
considering that the velocity of sound is 344 m/s
A. 1.043
B. 1.021
C. 1.096
D. 1.078
311. An explosion occurs at a distance of 5 km from the observer. How long after the
explosion does a person hear if the temperature is 18°C? Note: the speed of sound at STP
(standard temperature and pressure) is 332 m/s and changes by 0.6 m/s for every 1 °C
change in temperature.
A. 14.58 s
B. 12.45 s
C. 11.87 s
D. 17.54 s
312. What is the speed of sound in neon gas at temperature of 25°C considering that the
molecular mass if this gas is 20.18 kg/mol? Neon is monoatomic. Use k = 1.67
A. 543.7 m/s
B. 478.6 m/s
C. 321.7 m/s
D. 447.5 m/s
313. What is the wavelength of yellow light whose frequency is 5 x 1014 Hz?
A. 800 mm
 B. 200 mm
C. 600 mm
D. 700 mm
314. What is the angle of refraction of light as a beam of parallel light enters a block of ice at
angle of incidence of 30°? The index of refraction of ice is 1.31 and that of air is 1.0.
A. 45°
B. 30°
C. 22°
D. 26°
315. A light ray is incident at an angle of 45° on one side of a glass plate of index of
refraction 1.6. Find the angle at which the ray emerges from the other side of the plate.
A. 26°
B. 20°
C. 22°
D. 28°
316. It was found out that the speed of light in water is 75% of its speed in vacuum. What is
the index of refraction of water?
A. 1.46
B. 1.33
C. 1.26
D. 1.67
317. A glass plate is 0.6 cm thick and has a refractive index of 1.55. Compute how long will it
take for a pulse of light to pass through the plate?
A. 4.41 x 10-12 s
B. 3.11 x 10-11 s
C. 1.34 x 10-12 s
D. 2.34 x 10-11 s
318. A light passes from glass to water. If the index of refraction for glass is 1.54 and for
water is 1.33, compute the critical angle for this light to pass the glass.
A. 59.7°
B. 45.8°
C. 67.4°
D. 50.9°
319. A light source emits a total luminous flux of 1000 lumens and distributed uniformly over
25% of a sphere. What is the luminous intensity at 2.5-meter distance?
A. 413 cd
B. 243 cd
C. 134 cd
D. 318 cd
320. A light bulb emits a total luminous flux of 1700 lumens, distributed uniformly over a
hemisphere. What is the illuminance at a distance of 2 meters?
A. 67.65 lm/m2
B. 35.70 lm/m2
C. 59.87 lm/m2
D. 23.56 lm/m2
321. A light bulb is used to light a bunker 10 ft below. A chair sits on the floor of the bunker 3
feet from a spot directly below the bulb. What is the illumination on the floor around the chair
if the luminous intensity is 150 candles?
A. 2.38 footcandles
B. 2.43 footcandles
 C. 3.87 footcandles
D. 1.38 footcandles
322. A light ray passing through air and strikes a glass surface at an angle of 55° from the
normal surface. What is the angle between the reflected light and the surface?
A. 55°
B. 25°
C. 35°
D. 45°
323. A converging lens of focal length 20 cm is placed 37 cm in front of a screen. At what
distance that the object be placed so that its image appears on the screen?
A. 43.5 cm
B. 35.7 cm
C. 27.6 cm
D. 50.7 cm
324. In what positions will a converging lens of focal length 10 cm from an image of luminous
object on a screen located 50 cm from the object?
A. 11.52 cm and 38.48 cm from the object
B. 10 cm and 40 cm from the object
C. 13.82 cm and 36.18 cm from the object
D. 12.56 cm and 37.44 cm from the object
325. A lens has a convex surface of radius 17 cm and a concave surface of radius 38 cm
and is made of glass of refractive index 1.55. Calculate the focal length of the lens and
classify the type of lens whether diverging or converging?
A. 55.93 cm converging lens
B. 57.45 cm diverging lens
C. 55.93 cm diverging lens
D. 57.45 cm converging lens
326. A double convex lens has faces of radii 16 and 18 cm. When an object is 20 cm from
the lens, a real image is formed 30 cm from the lens. What is the focal length of the lens?
A. 11 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 12 cm
D. 14 cm
327. A double convex lens has faces of radii 22 and 24 cm. When an object is 30 cm from
the lens, a real image is formed 45 cm from the lens. Compute the refractive index of the
lens material
A. 1.64
B. 1.32
C. 1.21
D. 1.76
328. A 50 watt incandescent lamp has a mean spherical luminous intensity of 66.5 candelas.
Compute the total luminous flux radiated by the lamp?
A. 842 lm
B. 457 lm
C. 786 lm
D. 987 lm
329. A 250 W light source has a mean spherical luminous intensity of 87.5 candelas.
Compute the luminous intensity of the lamp?
A. 4.7 lm/s
B. 4.4 lm/s
 C. 2.0 lm/s
D. 1.7 lm/s
330. Compute the illumination on a surface 5 ft distance from a 100-cd source if the surface
makes an angle of 18° with the rays?
A. 1.67 lm/ft2
B. 1.50 lm/ft2
C. 1.24 lm/ft2
D. 2.13 lm/ft2
331. Estimate the distance for which a 30-cd lamp provide the same illumination as a
standard lamp of 80-cd placed 17 ft from the screen?
A. 9.76 ft
B. 8.5 ft
C. 12.7 ft
D. 10.41 ft
332. A Plano-convex lens has a focal length of 35 cm and an index of refraction 1.53. Find
the radius of the convex surface.
A. 18.55 cm
B. 15.78 cm
C. 20.78 cm
D. 17.55 cm
333. If a beam of polarized light has one-twelfth of its initial intensity after passing through an
analyzer, what is the angle between the axis of the analyzer and the initial amplitude of the
beam?
A. 65.73°
B. 76.27°
C. 73.22°
D. 67.54°
334. An observer sees a spaceship, measured 100 m long when at rest. He passed by in
uniform motion with the speed of 0.5 c. While the observer is watching the spaceship, a time
of 2 s elapses on a clock on board the ship, what is the length of the moving spaceship?
A. 82 m
B. 85 m
C. 83 m
D. 87 m
335. The captain of a spacecraft send a pulse of light towards earth and then exactly 1 min.
later (as measured by the clock on the spacecraft), sends a second pulse. An observer on
earth sees the second pulse arrive 4 minutes after the first. What is the velocity of the
spacecraft relative to the earth?
A. 0.987c
B. 0.968c
C. 0.954c
D. 0.953c
336. What is the rest energy of electron equivalent to its rest mass? 1Mev = 1.60 x 10^-13 J
and mass of electron is 9.11 x 10^-31 kg.
A. 0.512 MeV
B. 0.987 MeV
C. 0.345 MeV
D. 0.675 MeV
337. What is the frequency of photon having energy of 2 eV?
A. 560 THz
 B. 300 THz
C. 250 THz
D. 480 THz
338. A red light passes an empty space. What is the momentum of a single photon of red
light whose frequency is 400 x 1012 HZ?
A. 8.8 x 10 -28 kg m/s
B. 7.6 x 10 -28 kg m/s
C. 5.4 x 10 -28 kg m/s
D. 6.5 x 10 -28 kg m/s
339. The eye can detect as little as 1 x 10^-18 J of electromagnetic energy. How many
photons of orange light whose wavelength is 600 nm present in the energy?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 1
340. What is the speed of sound through compressed water (100 kPa) if its volume
decreased by 0.005% of its original volume?
A. 1414 m/s
B. 1250 m/s
C. 1130 m/s
D. 1200 m/s
341. What is the bulk modulus of steel if the sound waves traveled at approximately 5900
m/s? Note: the density of steel is 7900 kg/m3
A. 2.75 x 1011 Pa
B. 1.25 x 1011 Pa
C. 1.15 x 1011 Pa
D. 2.45 x 1011 Pa
342. A certain loud speaker has a circular opening with a diameter of 15 cm. Assume that
the sound it emits is uniform and outward through this entire opening. How much power is
being radiated by the loudspeaker if the sound intensity at opening is 150µW/m^2?
A. 1.77 µW
B. 1.87 µW
C. 2.65 µW
D. 3.41 µW
343. Sound intensity that reaches 1.2 W/m2 is painful to human ear. How many decibels is
1.2 W/m2?
A. 240.5 dB
B. 170.4 dB
C. 120.8 dB
D. 134.5 dB
344. Compute the ratio of the intensities of sounds if one is 12 times louder than the other?
A. 13.47 dB
B. 15.85 dB
C. 18.76 dB
D. 14.54 dB
345. An automobile moving at 30 m/s is approaching a building whistle with a frequency of
500 Hz. If the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s what is the apparent frequency of the whistle
heard by the driver?
A. 459 Hz
B. 458 Hz
 C. 457 Hz
D. 456 Hz
346. What is the mass of electron traveling at half the speed of light?
A. 1.05 x 10-30 kg
B. 2.31 x 10-30 kg
C. 1.56 x 10-31 kg
D. 1.61 x 10-31 kg
347. A medium unshaded lamp hangs 8 m directly above the table. To what distance should
it be lowered to increase the illumination to 4.45 times its former value?
A. 4.02 m
B. 3.86 m
C. 3.79 m
D. 4.21 m
348. A floodlight emitting 25,000 candelas in the center of its beam is aimed at 50° to a point
on the ground 20 meters away. The illumination of the point in flux is:
A. 54.12
B. 62.5
C. 31.25
D. 625
349. Compute the speed of sound in neon gas at 27°C of molecular mass 20.18 kg/kmol and
k of 1.67.
A. 454 m/s
B. 564 m/s
C. 356 m/s
D. 434 m/s
350. A magnifying glass has a lens with an index of refraction 5.4 and radii of curvature of
2.95 feet and 4.27 feet for the two faces. What is the magnification of the lens when it is held
2.36 inches from an object being viewed?
A. 1.6
B. 2.78
C. 2.16
D. 1.98
351. “At any point along a streamline in an ideal fluid in steady flow, the sum of the pressure,
the potential energy per unit volume and the kinetic energy per unit volume have the same
value.” The concept is known as
A. Bernoulli’s Energy Principles
B. Fluid theorem
C. Pascal’s theorem
D. Hydraulic theorem
352. The work done by all forces except the gravitational force is always equal to the one of
the system.
A. Total mechanical energy
B. Total potential energy
C. Total kinetic energy
D. Total momentum
353. When the two waves of the same frequency, speed and amplitude traveling in opposite
directions are superimposed,
A. the phase difference is always zero
B. distractive waves are produced
C. standing waves are produced
 D. constructive interference always results to zero
354. According to this law, “The force between two charges varies directly as the magnitude
of each charge and inversely as the square of the distance between them.”
A. Law of Universal Gravitation
B. Newton’s Law
C. Inverse Square Law
D. Coulomb’s Law
355. It describes the luminous flux incidence per unit area and is expressed in lumens per
square meter.
A. Illuminance
B. Luminance
C. Luminous Intensity
D. Radiance
356. The fluid pressure is the same in all directions. This is known as
A. Pascal’s Principle
B. Bernoulli’s Theorem
C. Ideal Fluid Principle
D. Archimedes Principle
357. The amount of heat needed to change solid to liquid is
A. condensation
B. cold fusion
C. latent heat of fusion
D. solid fusion
358. At the boiling point of liquid, the vapor pressure
A. is equal to external pressure on the surface of the liquid
B. is greater than the atmospheric pressure
C. is less than the atmospheric pressure
D. can have any value
359. Which of the following thermometers is best suited for measuring a temperature of
nearly 1500oC?
A. Gas thermometer
B. Platinum resistance thermometer
C. Thermo couple thermometer
D. Mercury thermometer
360. The energy stored in a starched elastic material such as spring is
A. Mechanical energy
B. Elastic potential energy
C. Internal energy
D. Kinetic energy
361. In physics, if LF and LV are the latent heat of fusion and vaporization, respectively,
which of the following equations apply in determining the amount of energy needed to freeze
a liquid?
A. Q = -mif
B. Q = -miv
C. Q = mif
D. Q = miv
362. Which of the following is true? The density of water
A. Is maximum at 4oC
B. Decreases as the temperature is increased
C. Is minimum at 4oC
 D. Increases with temperature
363. When the pitch of a note is raised then, its
A. frequency decreases
B. wavelength is increased
C. frequency increases
D. None of the above is true
364. Cohesion is the attraction between like
A. atom
B. element
C. compound
D. molecule
365. The quality known as specific heat is based on:
A. the increase in temperature due to induction
B. the heat needed for one pound of water to boil
C. the heat needed to increase the temperature to one gram of a substance one
degree Celsius
D. the amount of heat required to melt one kg of lead
366. On decreasing the pressure, the boiling point of water will
A. increase
B. remain unaffected
C. decrease
D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure
367. When sugar is added to water, its boiling point
A. increases
B. remains unaffected
C. decreases
D. Any of the above is possible
368. Which one of the following processes of heat transfer requires the presence of a fluid?
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. none of the above
369. When salt is added to water, its boiling point
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure
370. Which one of the following propagates with the same speed as speed of light?
A. The sound waves
B. The heat waves
C. The shock waves
D. The Beta rays
371. Which of the following is not true about sound waves?
A. They transmit the energy
B. They are propagated as a series of compressions and the rare fractions
C. They travel faster in air than in solids
D. They produce interference
372. Sound waves in air are
A. longitudinal
B. neither longitudinal nor transverse
 C. transverse
D. stationary
373. Normal range of the frequency of sound, which the human beings can hear, is
A. Less than 20 Hz
B. More than 25,000 Hz
C. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
D. All of these
374. The loudness of sound depends upon its
A. Wavelength
B. Frequency
C. Amplitude
D. All of the above
375. Sound above the frequency of 20,000 Hz is called
A. Supersonic sound
B. Intrasonic sound
C. Hypersonic sound
D. Ultrasonic sound
376. The surface of the thermos flask is silvered for minimizing heat transfer by what
process?
A. conduction
B. radiation
C. convection
D. vaporization
377. Water starts boiling when
A. Its temperature reaches 100oC
B. Its vapor pressure equals 76cm of mercury
C. Its saturated vapor pressure equals the external pressure on its surface
D. Its saturated vapor pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure
378. 500 gm of water at 4oC occupies a certain volume V. Which of the following statements
is correct?
A. It will weigh less than one pound of water at 0oC
B. It will weigh more than 500 gm of water at 0oC
C. Its volume will decrease when its temperature is lowered
D. Its volume will increase when its temperature is lowered or raised
379. Heat will flow from one body to another in thermal contact with it, when they differ in
A. mass
B. specific mass
C. density
D. temperature
380. The amount of heat which is absorbed during the change of state of a substance
without rise in its temperature is called its
A. Specific heat
B. Latent heat
C. Thermal conductivity
D. Water equivalent
381. The scientist who systematically demonstrated the equivalence of mechanical energy
and heat was
A. Joule
B. Boltzmann
C. Faraday
 D. Kelvin
382. On a sunny day at the beach, the sand gets so hot and the water stays relatively cool is
due to the difference in of water and sand.
A. density
B. specific heat
C. depth
D. thermal conductivity
383. The instrument, which measures temperature by radiation, is called
A. thermopile
B. thermometer
C. pyrometer
D. hydrometer
384. When the temperature of an ideal gas is increased at constant pressure,
A. the potential energy of molecules increases
B. the potential energy of molecules decreases
C. the kinetic energy of molecules increases
D. the kinetic energy of molecules decreases
385. The root mean square speed of the molecules of a gas is
A. independent of its pressure P
B. directly proportional to square root of P
C. directly proportional to the square of its temperature T
D. proportional to T
386. At what temperature do both the centigrade and Fahrenheit thermometers show the
same reading?
A. -38oC
B. -40oC
C. -42oC
D. -50oC
387. A mercury thermometer is constructed at
A. room temperature
B. a temperature higher than the maximum range of the thermometer
C. a temperature lower than the minimum range of the thermometer
D. atmospheric pressure
388. The boiling point of water on plains is 100oC. At hills it will be
A. 100oC
B. Less than 100oC
C. More than 100oC
D. May be any of the above
389. It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same distance on the sides because of:
A. convection of heat
B. conduction of heat
C. radiation of heat
D. convection, conduction and radiation of heat
390. The density of water is
A. same at all temperature
B. maximum at 4oC
C. minimum at 4oC
D. maximum at 0oC
391. When a substance is heated, its
A. molecules move more slowly
 B. molecules move more rapidly
C. there is no change in the speed of its molecules
D. its temperature always increases
392. When common salt is sprinkled on ice the temperature of ice
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unchanged
D. none of these
393. The minimum temperature which can be measured with a mercury thermometer is
A. 0oC
B. -273oC
C. -39oC
D. -143oC
394. A wave in which the particles of the material move up and down as the waves goes
from left is called a
A. Longitudinal wave
B. Transverse wave
C. Standing wave
D. None of these
395. When waves go from one place to another they transport
A. Energy and matter
B. Wavelength and matter
C. Frequency only
D. Energy only
396. The phenomenon of damping results in decrease in
A. frequency
B. velocity
C. wavelength
D. amplitude
397. Echo is formed as a result of
A. refraction of sound
B. diffraction of sound
C. interference of sound
D. reflection of sound
398. The characteristic of sound which enables us to distinguish two musical notes having
the same frequency and loudness is called
A. pitch
B. intensity
C. timber
D. decibel
399. Which of the following could be a longitudinal wave?
A. electromagnetic waves
B. a sound wave in air
C. a water wave
D. waves on vibrating string
400. A Decibel is a
A. musical instrument
B. highest frequency emitted by a tuning fork
C. a measure of intensity level
 D. a measure of clarity of sound
401. A ball is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 3 m/s from a window of a tall
bldg. The ball strikes the ground level 4 seconds later. Determine the height of window
above the ground.
a) 66.331 m.
b) 66.450 m.
c) 67.239 m.
d) 67.492 m.
402. A stone was dropped freely from a balloon at a height of 190 m. above the ground. The
balloon is moving upward at a speed of 30 m/s. Determine the velocity of the stone as it hits
the ground.
a) 69.03 m/s
b) 68.03 m/s
c) 67.30 m/s
d) 69.23 m/s
403. A ball is thrown vertically at a speed of 20 m/s from a bldg. 100 m. above the ground.
Find the velocity and position of the stone above the ground after 5 seconds.
a) 4.67 m, 48.30 m/s
b) 4.54 m, 47.68 m/s
c) 5, 43 m, 47.69 m/s
d) 5.68 m, 48.20 m/s
404. A ball is thrown vertically at a speed of 30 m/s from the top of a tower 200 m. Determine
the velocity of the stone and the time that it strikes the ground.
a) 1 1.50 sec, 65.80 m/s
b) 1 1.45 sec, 66.59 m/s
c) 10.30 sec, 67.21 m/s
d) 10.14 sec, 69.45 m/s
405. A ball is thrown vertically with a velocity of 20 m/s. from the top of a bldg. 100 m. high.
Find the velocity of the stone at a height of 40 m. above the ground.
a) 39.71 m/s
b) 40.23 m/s
c) 39.88 m/s
d) 39.68 m/s
406. A projectile is fired from the top of a cliff 92 m. high with a velocity of 430 m/s directed
45º to the horizontal. Find the range on the horizontal plane through the base of the cliff.
a) 18.959 km.
b) 23.408 km.
c) 15.273 km.
d) .20.365 km.
407. A stone is thrown outward, at an angle of 30º with the horizontal as shown in the
drawing, into the river from a cliff that is 120 meters above the water level at a velocity of 36
kilometers per hour . At what height above the water level will the stone start to fall?
a) 121.27 m.
b) 189.29m.
c) 1 1 1.38 m.
d) 152.22 m.
408. A stone was thrown upward at an angle of 60º with the horizontal and a resultant
vertical speed of 100.0 meters per second. If gravity decelerates the speed at 9.8
meters/sec², what is the actual speed of the stone, in meters per second, 10.0 seconds later,
in the direction it was thrown?
 a) 57.77 m/s
b) 64.22 m/s
c) 60.35 m/s
d) 67.23 m/s
409. A projectile is launched at 45º to the horizontal on a level ground at a speed of 60 m/s.
Neglecting air resistance, what is the range of the projectile?
a) 366.86 m.
b) 355.29 m.
c) 663.24 m.
d) 386.66 m.
410. A ball thrown at an angle of 30º with the horizontal from a point60 m. from the edge of a
vertical cliff 48 m. high. The ball just misses the edge of the cliff. Determine the initial velocity
of the ball and the distance beyond the cliff where the ball strikes the ground.
a) 28.4 m/sec; 32.6 m.
b) 26.1 m/sec; 46.9 m.
c) 27.5 m/sec; 56.5m
d) 31.1m/sec; 43.2m
411. A block passes a point 4 m from the edge of a table with a velocity of 5 m/sec. It slides
off the edge of the table which is 5 m. high and strikes the floor 3 m from the edge of the
table. What was the coefficient of friction between the block and the table?
a) 0.65
b) 1.04.
c) 0.21.
d) 0.1 1
412. A ball is shot at a ground level at an angle of 60 degrees with the horizontal with an
initial velocity of 10 m/sec. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum height (h)
attained by the ball?
a) 2.47 m
b) 3.29 m
c) 4.61 m
d) 3.82 m
413. A stone is thrown upward at an angle of 30º with the horizontal. It lands 60 m.
measured horizontally and 2 m. below measured vertically from its point of release.
Determine the initial velocity of the stone in m/s.
a) 27.35
b) 28.35
c) 25.35
d) 26.35
414. A projectile is fired with a muzzle velocity of 300 m/s from a gun aimed upward at an
angle of 20º with the horizontal, from the top of a building 30m. high above a level ground.
With what velocity will it hit the ground in m/s?
a) 300.98
b) 310.96
c) 320.96
d) 330.96
415. A projectile leaves a velocity of 50 m/s at an angle of 30 with the horizontal. Find the
maximum height that it could reach?
a) 31.86
b) 41.26
c) 28.46
 d) 51.26
416. A ball is shot at a ground level at angle of 60 degrees with the horizontal with an initial
velocity of 100 m/s. Determine the height of the ball after 2 sec.
a) 162.46 m.
b) 153.59 m.
c) 175.48 m.
d) 186.42 m.
417. A ball is shot at an average speed of 200 m/sat an angle of 20º with the horizontal.
What would be the velocity of the ball after 8 sec.?
a) 188.21m/s
b) 154.34m/s
c) 215.53 m/s
d) 198.37 m/s
418. A projectile has a velocity of 200m/s acting at an angle of 20º with the horizontal. How
long will it take for the projectile to hit the ground surface?
a) 13.95 sec.
b) 15.75 sec.
c) 10.1 1 sec
d) 24.23sec.
419. A stone is thrown upward at an angle of 20º with the horizontal from the top of a tower
30 m. high and hits the ground at a distance of 5976.4 m. horizontally from the base of the
tower. Find the time of flight of the stone until it hits the ground.
a) 21.20 sec.
b) 22.20 sec
c) 19.39 sec.
d) 24.15 sec.
420. A projectile is fired upward at an angle of 20ºwith the horizontal from the top of a tower
30 m. high above a level ground. Find the range on the horizontal plane will the ball hit the
ground after 20.20 seconds.
a) 5386.30 m.
b) 5642.22 m.
c) 5415.37 m.
d) 6329.33 m.
421. A projectile leaves a velocity of 50 m/s at an angle of 30º with the horizontal. Find the
time it would take for the projectile to reach the maximum height.
a) 2.55 sec.
b) 2.60 sec.
c) 3.10 sec.
d) 2.89 sec.
422. A baseball is thrown from a horizontal plane following a parabolic path with an initial
velocity of 100 m/s at an angle of 30º above the horizontal. How far from the throwing point
will the ball attain its original level?
a) 890 m.
b) 884 m.
c) 883 m.
d) 875 m.
23. A shot is fired at an angle of 45º with the horizontal and a velocity of 300 fps. Calculate,
to the nearest, the range of the projectile.
a) 3500 ft.
b) 1200 ft.
 c) 4000 ft.
d) 934 yds.
424. Three crates with masses A = 45.2 kg, B = 22.8 kg and C = 34.3 kg and are placed with
B along a horizontal frictionless surface. Find the force exerted by B and C by pushing the
crates to the right with an acceleration of 1.32 m/sec².
a) 45.3 kN
b) 54.2 KN
c) 43.2kN
d) 38.7kN
425. Three blocks A, Band Care placed on a horizontal frictionless surface and are
connected by chords between A, Band C. determine the tension between block B and C
when a horizontal tensile force is applied at C equal to 6.5 N. Masses of the blocks are A =
1.2 kg, B = 2.4 kg and C = 3.1 kg.
a) 3.50 N
b) 4.21 N
c) 3.89 N
d) 4.65 N
426. A constant force P = 750 N acts on the body shown during only the first 6 m. of its
motion starting from rest. If u = 0.20, find the velocity of the body after it has moved a total
distance of 9m.
a) 3.93 m/sec²
b) 4.73 m/sec²
c) 2.32 m/sec²
d) 3.1 1 m/sec²
427. A weight of 9 kN is initially suspended on a 150 m. long cable. The cable weighs 0.002
kN/m. If the weight is then raised 100 m. How much work is done in Joules?
a) 915000
b) 938700
c) 951000
d) 905100
428. What is the kinetic energy of a 4000 lb. automobile which is moving at 44 fps.
a.) 1.21 x 105 ft-lb.
b.) 2.1 x 105 ft-lb.
c) 1.8 x 105 ft-lb
d) 1.12 x 105 ft-lb.
429. A box slides from rest from point Adown a plane inclined 30º, to the horizontal. After
reaching the bottom of the plane, the box moves on horizontal floor at a distance 2 m before
coming to rest. If the coefficient of friction between the box and plane and between the box
and floor is k = 0.40, what is the distance of point “A” from the intersection of plane and the
floor?
a) 7.24 m
b) 5.21 m
c) 4.75 m
d) 9.52 m
430. A 400 N block slides on a horizontal plane by applying a horizontal force of 200 N and
reaches a velocity of 20 m/s in a distance of 30 m. from rest. Compute the coefficient of
friction between the floor and the block.
a) 0.18
b) 0.24
c) 0.31
 d) 0.40
431. A car weighing 40 tons is switched to a 2 percent upgrade with a velocity of 30 mph. If
the train resistance is 10 lb/ton, how far up the grade will it go?
a) 1124 ft. on slope
b) 2014 ft. on slope
c) 1203 ft. on slope
d) 1402 ft on slope
432. A car weighing 10 KN is towed along a horizontal road surface at a uniform velocity of
80kph. The towing cable is parallel with the road surface. The road is straight and smooth.
When the car is at the foot of an incline as shown having an elevation of 30 m, the towing
cable was suddenly cut. At what elevation in the inclined road will the car stop in its upward
motion?
a) 55.16 m
b) 60.24 m
c) 51.43 m
d) 49.62 m
433. A wooden block starting from rest, slides 6 m down a 45º slope, then 3 m along a level
surface and then up a 30º incline until it comes to rest again. If the coefficient of friction is
0.15 for all surfaces of contact, compute the total distance traveled.
a) 20m
b) 1 1m
c) 14 m
d) 18m
434. A 1000 N block on a leveled surface is attached to250 N block hanging on the pulley.
The pulley is 3 m away from the first block. If the first block started at rest and moves
towards the right. What is the velocity of block B as it touches the ground? How far will the
block A travel along the horizontal surface if the coefficient of friction between block A and
the surface is .20? Assume pulley to be frictionless.
a) 1.44 m
b) 2.55 m
c) 5.22 m
d) 3.25 m
435. A 500 N block on a n incline plane with an angle of 30º has move 3 m up the incline
plane due to 600 N force applied. Find the velocity of the block when it returns to its initial
position.
a) 8.6 m/s
b) 5.6 m/s
c) 6.4 m/s
d) 7.1 m/s
436. A 10 Kg block is raised vertically 3 meters. What is the change in potential energy?
Answer in SI units closest to:
a) 350 kg-m2/sec
b) 320 J
c) 350 N-m
d) 294 J
437. A car weighing 40 tons is switched to a 2% upgrade with a velocity of 30 mph. if the car
is then allowed to run back, what velocity will it have at the foot of the grade?
a) 37fps
b) 31fps
c) 43 fps
 d) 34 fps
438. A 200 ton train is accelerated from rest to a velocity of 30 mph on a level track. How
much useful work was done?
a) 12024845 ft-lbs
b) 13827217 ft-lbs
c) 11038738 ft-lbs
d) 10287846 ft-lbs
439. A drop hammer weighing 40 KN is dropped freely and drives a concrete pile 150 mm
into the ground. The velocity of the drop hammer at impact is6m/sec. what is the average
resistance of the soil in KN?
a) 542.4
b) 489.3
c) 384.6
d) 248.7
440. A force of 200 lbf acts on a block at an angle of 28º with respect to the horizontal. The
block is pushed 2 feet horizontally. What is the work done by this force?
a) 320 J
b) 480 J
c) 540 J
d) 215 J
441. A 50 Kg object strikes the unscratched spring attached to a vertical wall having a spring
constant of 20 KN/m. Find the maximum deflection of the spring. The velocity of the object
before it strikes the spring is 40 m/s.
a) 1 m
b) 2 m
c) 3 m
d) 4 m
442. To push a 25 Kg crate up a 27º incline plane, a worker exerts a force of 120 N, parallel
to the incline. As the crates slides 3.6m, how much is the work done on the crate by the
worker and by the force of gravity.
a) 400 J
b) 420 J
c) 380 J
d) 350 J
443. A train weighing 12,000 KN is accelerated at a constant rate up a 2% grade with a
velocity increasing from 30 kph to 50 kph in a distance of 500 meters. Determine the horse
power developed by the train.
a) 5.394 kW
b) 5.120 kW
c) 4.486 kW
d) 4.591 kW
444. An elevator has an empty weight of 5160 N. It is design to carry a maximum load of 20
passengers from the ground floor to the 25th floor of the building in a time of 18 seconds.
Assuming the average weight of a passenger to be 710 N and the distance between floors to
be 3.5 m, what is the minimum constant power needed for the elevator motor?
a) 94.3 kW
b) 85.5 kW
c) 97.4 kW
d) 77.6 kW
445. A piano string is 80 cm long and weighs 5 N. if the string is stretched by a force of 500
N. what is the speed of the wave set up when the hammer strikes the string?
a) 26m/s
b) 27m/s
c) 28 m/s
d) 30m/s
446. A 16-16 wire cable 100 ft. long is stretched between two poles under tension of 500 lb.
If the cable is struck at one end, how long will it take for the wave to travel to the far end and
return?
a) 0.63 s
b) 0.64 s
c) 0.65 s
d) 0.66 s
447. Assume that young modulus for silver is 77.5 G N/m2. If it has density 10.5x103 kg/m3,
how fast does sound travel through the silver?
a) 2600m/s
b) 2700m/s
c) 1600 m/s
d) 1700m/s
448. The speed of a compressional wave in silver, specific gravity 10.5, is 2610 m/s.
compute y for silver.
a) 71.6 G N/m2
b) 76G N/m2
c) 7.16 G N/m2
d) 716 GN/m2
449. Two waves whose frequencies are 500 and 511 per second travel out from a common
point. Find their difference in phase after 1.40 s.
a) 143°
b) 144°
c) 145°
d) 146°
450. A copper has a density of 9 g/cm3 and a bulk modulus of 120 G N/m2. What is the
speed of a wave through it?
a) 3600 m/s
b) 6300 m/s
c) 6030 m/s
d) 1460 m/s
451. The time rate of change of velocity. Since velocity is a directed or vector quantity
involving both magnitude and direction, a velocity may change by a change of magnitude
(speed) or by a change of direction or both.
a. Gravitation
b. invariant mass
c. Acceleration
d. none of the above
452. The closeness of an indication or reading of a measurement device to the actual value
of the quantity being measured. Usually expressed as ± percent of full scale output or
reading.
a. Accuracy
b. Compression
c. Chemical Equilibrium
 d. Distance
453. The rate of change of angular velocity with respect to time.
a. Angular Velocity
b. Acceleration
c. Angular Acceleration
d. none of the above
454. What is a physical quantity expressing the size of a part of a surface?
a. Lever
b. Area
c. Measurement
d. Bend
455. The rate of change of angular displacement with respect to time.
a. Angular Velocity
b. Load
c. Instantaneous
d. Brittle
456. A rigid, usually horizontal, structural element
a. Beam Bridge
b. Force
c. Core
d. Beam
457. A simple type of bridge, composed of horizontal beams supported by vertical posts
a. Beam
b. Brace
c. Beam Bridge
d. Buckle
458. To curve; bending occurs when a straight material becomes curved; one side squeezes
together in compression, and the other side stretches apart in tension.
a. Tension
b. Brace
c. Buckle
d. none of the above
459. Is mechanics applied to biology (Fung). This includes research and analysis of the
mechanics of living organisms and the application of engineering principles to and from
biological systems.
a. Biomechanics
b. engineering mechanics
c. mechanics
d. none of the above
460. A structural support;
a. Brittle
b. Cable
c. Brace
d. Cantilever
461. Characteristic of a material that fails without warning; brittle materials do not stretch or
shorten before failing.
a. Beam
b. Brace
c. Beam Bridge
d. Brittle
462. To bend under compression.
a. Brittle
b. compression
c. bend
d. Buckle
463. A structural element formed from steel wire bound in strands; the suspending element
in abridge; the supporting element in some dome roofs.
a. Beam
b. Cable
c. Brace
d. Compression
464. A projecting structure supported only at one end, like a shelf bracket or a diving board.
a. Cantilever
b. Equilibrium
c. Cable
d. Irreversible
465. A condition in which a chemical reaction is occurring at equal rates in its forward and
reverse directions, so that the concentrations of the reacting substances do not change with
time.
a. Chemical Equilibrium
b. Equilibrium
c. force
d. Pile
466. A pressing force that squeezes a material together.
a. force
b. Compression
c. steel
d. modulus
467. Central region of a skyscraper; usually houses elevator and stairwell.
a. Core
b. physical constant
c. gravitational attraction
d. dimension
468. To change shape
a. dimension
b. deform
c. deformation
d. instantaneous
469. Is a numerical description of how far apart objects are at any given moment in time. In
physics or everyday discussion, distance may refer to a physical length, a period of time, or
estimation based on other criteria. In mathematics, distance must meet more rigorous
criteria.
a. Force
b. Distance
c. mass
d. deformation
470. Is the mathematical description of an object or substance's tendency to be deformed
elastically (i.e. non-permanently) when a force is applied to it.
a. modulus of elasticity
b. fluid power
 c. Hydraulics
d. Gravitation
471. A profession in which acknowledge of math and natural science is applied to develop
ways to utilize the materials and forces of nature for the benefit of all human beings.
a. Mechanics
b. Engineering Mechanics
c. Engineering
d. None of the above
472. A condition in which all acting influences are canceled by others, resulting in a stable,
balanced, or unchanging system.
a. Chemical Equilibrium
b. Equilibrium
c. invariant mass
d. Gravitation
473. The capacity to do work or cause physical change; energy, strength, or active power:
the force of an explosion.
a. Inertia
b. Quantity
c. Lever
d. Force
474. Is a natural phenomenon by which all objects with mass attract each other? In everyday
life, gravitation is most commonly thought of as the agency that gives objects weight.
a. gravitational attraction
b. universal gravitation
c. Gravitation
d. mass
475. Is a physical constant involved in the calculation of the gravitational attraction between
objects with mass? It appears in Newton's law of universal gravitation and in Einstein's
theory of general relativity.
a. gravitational attraction
b. universal gravitation
c. Gravitation
d. gravitational constant
476. Is the measurement of vertical distance, but has two meanings in common use. It can
either indicate how "tall" something is, or how "high up" it is.
a. magnitude
b. Height
c. distance
d. none of the above
477. Is a topic of science and engineering dealing with the mechanical properties of liquids.
Hydraulics is part of the more general discipline of fluid power.
a. Hydraulics
b. physical body
c. fluid power
d. momentum
478. The tendency of a body to resist acceleration; the tendency of a body at rest to remain
at rest or of a body in straight line motion to stay in motion in a straight line unless acted on
by an outside force.
a. Inertia
b. energy
 c. force
d. none of the above
479. Occurring or completed without perceptible delay
a. volume
b. Shear
c. Instantaneous
d. none of the above
480. Is the same for all frames of reference? A mass for a particle is m in the equation
a. mass
b. invariant mass
c. force
d. all of the above
481. That cannot be revoked or undone.
a. measurement
b. Irreversible
c. base unit
d. none of the above
482. A device connecting two or more adjacent parts of a structure; a roller joint allows
adjacent parts to move controllably past one another; a rigid joint prevents adjacent parts
from moving or rotating past one another.
a. energy
b. velocity
c. force-field
d. joint
483. Is the base unit of mass in the International System of Units (known also by its French-
language initials “SI”).
a. mass
b. measurement
c. weight
d. kilogram
484. Is the long dimension of any object? The length of a thing is the distance between its
ends, its linear extent as measured from end to end.
a. distance
b. rigid
c. free body
d. length
485. A simple machine consisting of a rigid bar pivoted on a fixed point and used to transmit
force, as in raising or moving a weight at one end by pushing down on the other.
a. Inertia
b. Quantity
c. Lever
d. Force
486. Weight distribution throughout a structure; loads caused by wind, earthquakes, and
gravity, for example, affect how weight is distributed throughout a structure.
a. Angular Velocity
b. Load
c. Instantaneous
d. Brittle
487. A property by which it can be large or smaller than other objects of the same kind; in
technical terms, an ordering of the class of objects.
 a. magnitude
b. Height
c. distance
d. none of the above
488. Is a fundamental concept in physics, roughly corresponding to the intuitive idea of "how
much matter there is in an object". Mass is a central concept of classical mechanics and
related subjects, and there are several definitions of mass within the framework of relativistic
kinematics.
a. mass
b. measurement
c. weight
d. kilogram
489. Is commonly defined as the substance of which physical objects are composed, not
counting the contribution of various energy or force-fields, which are not usually considered
to be matter per se.
a. mass
b. magnitude
c. matter
d. none of the above
490. Science of the action of forces on material bodies. It forms a central part of all physical
science and engineering.
a. engineering mechanics
b. mechanics
c. mechanism
d. none of the above
491. Is the estimation of the magnitude of some attribute of an object, such as its length or
weight, relative to a unit of measurement?
a. mass
b. measurement
c. weight
d. kilogram
492. Is the product of the mass and velocity of an object? Motion - The act or process of
changing position or place.
a. Hydraulics
b. physical body
c. fluid power
d. momentum
493. The three laws proposed by Sir Isaac Newton to define the concept of a force and
describe motion, used as the basis of classical mechanics.
a. law of inertia
b. Newton’s Law of Motion
c. Newton’s Law
d. none of the above
494. A long, round pole of wood, concrete, or steel driven into the soil by pile drivers
a. Chemical Equilibrium
b. Equilibrium
c. force
d. Pile
495. Is a collection of masses, taken to be one. For example, a cricket ball can be
considered an object but the ball also consists of many particles.
 a. Hydraulics
b. physical body
c. fluid power
d. momentum
496. Is a kind of property which exists as magnitude or multitude?
a. magnitude
b. fluid power
c. quantity
d. none of the above
497. Ability to resist deformation when subjected to a load; the measure of a structure's
ability not to change shape when subjected to a load.
a. distance
b. rigid
c. free body
d. length
498. Is the effort to understand, or to understand better, how nature works, with observable
physical evidence as the basis of that understanding.
a. physics
b. science
c. physical evidence
d. load
499. A force that causes parts of a material to slide past one another in opposite directions.
a. force
b. stress
c. shear
d. momentum
500. Is a stress state where the stress is parallel or tangential to a face of the material, as
opposed to normal stress when the stress is perpendicular to the face.
a. shear stress
b. tensile stress
c. shear
d. none of the above
501. Solid concrete walls that resist shear forces; often used in buildings constructed in
earthquake zones.
a. shear stress
b. tensile stress
c. shear
d. shear-walls
502. Sediment particles ranging from 0.004 to0.06 mm (0.00016 to 0.0024 inch) in diameter.
a. silt
b. stress
c. shear
d. momentum
503. Is often used to describe the measurement of the steepness, incline, gradient, or grade
of a straight line. A higher slope value indicates a steeper incline.
a. shear
b. stiff
c. slope
d. none of the above
504. Ability to resist collapse and deformation;
 a. stable
b. shear
c. stiff
d. none of the above
505. Characteristic of a structure that is able to carry a realistic load without collapsing or
deforming significantly.
a. steel
b. stability
c. stiff
d. stable
506. An alloy of iron and carbon that is hard, strong, and malleable.
a. stable
b. shear
c. stiff
d. none of the above
507. Ability to resist deformation;
a. steel
b. stability
c. stiff
d. stable
508. Defined as force per unit area, is a measure of the intensity of the total internal forces
acting within a body across imaginary internal surfaces, as a reaction to external applied
forces and body forces.
a. silt
b. stress
c. shear
d. momentum
509. Is a two-dimensional manifold.
a. surface
b. vector
c. silt
d. volume
510. A bridge in which the roadway deck is suspended from cables that pass over two
towers; the cables are anchored in housings at either end of the bridge
a. surface
b. vector
c. suspension bridge
d. tensile strength
511. The component of linear acceleration tangent to the path of a particle moving in a
circular path.
a. tension
b. tangential acceleration
c. tensile
d. tension ring
512. Is the stress state leading to expansion; that is, the tensile stress may be increased
until the reach of tensile strength, namely the limit state of stress.
a. tension
b. tension ring
c. tensile
d. tensile stress
513. A stretching force that pulls on a material.
a. tension
b. tension ring
c. tensile
d. tensile stress
514. A support ring that resists the outward force pushing against the lower sides of a dome.
a. tension
b. tension ring
c. tensile
d. tensile stress
515. Is a vector that measures the tendency of a force to rotate an object about some axis.
The magnitude of a torque is defined as force times its lever arm. Just as a force is a push or
a pull, a torque can be thought of as a twist.
a. tension
b. tension ring
c. torque
d. tensile stress
516. A rigid frame composed of short, straight pieces joined to form a series of triangles or
other stable shapes.
a. truss
b. tension
c. torque
d. tensile stress
517. Not in balance or in proper balance.
a. unbalanced
b. torque
c. truss
d. stress
518. A directed line segment. As such, vectors have magnitude and direction. Many physical
quantities, for example, velocity, acceleration, and force, are vectors. Vectors are widely
used in mathematical physics.
a. surface
b. vector
c. suspension bridge
d. tensile strength
519. Of a solid object is the three-dimensional concept of how much space it occupies, often
quantified numerically. One dimensional figures and two-dimensional shapes are assigned
zero volume in the three-dimensional space.
a. volume
b. Shear
c. Instantaneous
d. none of the above
520. Is a measurement of the gravitational force acting on an object?
a. mass
b. measurement
c. weight
d. kilogram
521. The maximum displacement of a particle in vibration relative to the position of the
equilibrium.
a) Wave front
 b) Frequency
c) Amplitude
d) Period
522. A type of wave in which the particles vibrate in direction at right angles to the direction
of the wave travel.
a) Wave front
b) Transverse waves
c) Longitudinal waves
d) wave length
523. A type of wave in which individual particles vibrate in a direction parallel to the direction
of the wave travel.
a) Longitudinal waves
b) Stationary wave
c) wave front
d) Transverse waves
524. A surface that passes through all points in the wave those are in the same phase.
a) Longitudinal waves
b) Transverse waves
c) Wave front
d) Stationary wave
525. Interference in which two waves arrive at a point in phase with each other and the
resulting amplitude is the sum of the amplitudes is the sum of the amplitudes of the two
original waves.
a) Constructive interference
b) Destructive interference
c) Opposing interference
d) None of these
526. The waves arrive a half wave out of phase and the resultant amplitude is the difference
between the two amplitude.
a) Constructive interference
b) Destructive interference
c) Opposing interference
d) None of these
527. A principle stating that each point on a wave front may be considered as a new source
of disturbance sending wavelets in forward direction. At any instant the new wave front is the
surface tangent to all wave length.
a) Huygen’s principle
b) Hygen’s principle
c) Hugen’s principle
d) Hegyn’s principle
528. The change of direction of a wave due to speed changes.
a) Dispersion
b) Refraction
c) wave front
d) wave misalignment
529. Wave produced when two waves of equal amplitude and frequency travel in opposite
directions in a medium.
a) Stationary Wave
b) Antinodes
c) wave front
 d) wave misalignment
530. Points in a stationary wave at which the amplitude is zero.
a) antinodes
b) nodes
c) pronodes
d) none of these
531. Points of maximum amplitude.
a) antinodes
b) nodes
c) pronodes
d) none of these
532. A disturbance caused by a vibrating body and sense by the ear.
a) force vibration
b) resonance
c) sound
d) intensity
533. Set up by an elastic body by another vibrating body.
a) resonance
b) forced vibration
c) amplitude
d) super sonic wave
534. Forced vibration where the natural frequency of the coupled body is the same as that of
the vibrator.
a) resonance
b) amplitude
c) forced vibration
d) super sonic wave
535. Effect due to the combined action of two set of waves passing through a single region
at the same time.
a) interference
b) Doppler effect
c) refraction
d) ultrasonic
536. The apparent frequency of a sound source is changed if there is relative motion
between the source and the observer.
a) Doppler effect
b) supersonic
c) interference
d) ultrasonic
537. A highly concentrated pressure wave caused by an object flying faster than speed of
sound.
a) sonic-boom shock wave
b) ultrasonic
c) supersonic
d) resonance
538. A speed greater than the speed of sound.
a) supersonic
b) ultrasonic
c) infrasonic
d) micro sonic
539. Sound produced by an object that vibrates with a frequency above the range of human
hearing.
a) supersonic
b) ultrasonic
c) infrasonic
d) micro sonic
540. The study of sound production and transmission in relation to the human sense of
hearing.
a) music
b) acoustic
c) noise
d) pitch
541. A sound produce by a regular vibration.
a) musical tone
b) acoustic
c) noise
d) pitch
542. Any undesirable sound.
a) musical tone
b) acoustic
c) noise
d) pitch
543. The highness or lowness of a sound as characterized by the frequency of vibration.
a) musical tone
b) acoustic
c) noise
d) pitch
544. Refers to the complexity of the sound.
a) musical tone
b) acoustic
c) noise
d) pitch
545. The magnitude of hearing sensation produced by the sound.
a) intensity
b) intensity level
c) loudness
d) bell
546. The rate at which sound energy flows through a unit area.
a) intensity
b) intensity level
c) loudness
d) bell
547. The logarithm of the ratio of the intensity of a sound to an arbitrary chosen intensity.
a) intensity
b) intensity level
c) loudness
d) bell
548. The unit of intensity.
a) intensity
b) intensity level
 c) loudness
d) bel
549. The succession of tones related to each other.
a) musical tone
b) intensity level
c) musical pitch
d) musical scale
Answer: musical scale
550. The persistence of sound in a enclose space.
a) echo
b) reverberation
c) reflection
d) complexity
551. A type of wave in which the particles vibrate in direction at right angles to the direction
of the wave travel.
a) Wave front
b) Transverse waves
c) Longitudinal waves
d) Wave length
552. A type of wave in which individual particles vibrate in a direction parallel to the direction
of the wave travel.
a) Longitudinal waves
b) Stationary wave
c) Wave front
d) Transverse waves
553. A surface that passes through all points in the wave those are in the same phase.
a) Longitudinal waves
b) Transverse waves
c) Wave front
d) Stationary wave
554. Interference in which two waves arrive at a point in phase with each other and the
resulting amplitude is the sum of the amplitudes is the sum of the amplitudes of the two
original waves.
a) Constructive interference
b) Destructive interference
c) Opposing interference
d) None of these
555. The waves arrive a half wave out of phase and the resultant amplitude is the difference
between the two amplitude.
a) Destructive interference
b) Constructive interference
c) Opposing interference
d) None of these
556. A principle stating that each point on a wave front may be considered as a new source
of disturbance sending wavelets in forward direction. At any instant the new wave front is the
surface tangent to all wave length.
a) Huygen’s principle
b) Hygen’s principle
c) Hugen’s principle
d) Hegyn’s principle
557. The change of direction of a wave due to speed changes.
a) Dispersion
b) Refraction
c) Wave front
d) Wave misalignment
558. Wave produced when two waves of equal amplitude and frequency travel in opposite
directions in a medium.
a) Stationary Wave
b) Antinodes
c) wave front
d) wave misalignment
559. Points in a stationary wave at which the amplitude is zero.
a) antinodes
b) nodes
c) pronodes
d) none of these
560. Points of maximum amplitude.
a) antinodes
b) nodes
c) pronodes
d) none of these
561. A disturbance caused by a vibrating body and sense by the ear.
a) force vibration
b) resonance
c) sound
d) intensity
562. Set up by an elastic body by another vibrating body.
a) resonance
b) amplitude
c) forced vibration
d) super sonic wave
563. Forced vibration where the natural frequency of the coupled body is the same as that of
the vibrator.
a) resonance
b) amplitude
c) forced vibration
d) super sonic wave
564. Effect due to the combined action of two set of waves passing through a single region
at the same time.
a) interference
b) Doppler effect
c) refraction
d) ultrasonic
565.The apparent frequency of a sound source is changed if there is relative motion
between the source and the observer.
a) Doppler effect
b) supersonic
c) interference
d) ultrasonic
566. A highly concentrated pressure wave caused by an object flying faster than speed of
sound.
a) sonic-boom shock wave
b) ultrasonic
c) supersonic
d) resonance
567. A speed greater than the speed of sound.
a) supersonic
b) ultrasonic
c) infrasonic
d) micro sonic
568. Sound produced by an object that vibrates with a frequency above the range of human
hearing.
a) supersonic
b) ultrasonic
c) infrasonic
d) micro sonic
569. The study of sound production and transmission in relation to the human sense of
hearing.
a) music
b) acoustic
c) noise
d) pitch
570. A sound produce by a regular vibration.
a) musical tone
b) acoustic
c) noise
d) pitch
571. Any undesirable sound.
a) musical tone
b) acoustic
c) noise
d) pitch
572. The highness or lowness of a sound as characterized by the frequency of vibration.
a) musical tone
b) acoustic
c) noise
d) pitch
573. Refers to the complexity of the sound.
a) musical tone
b) acoustic
c) noise
d) pitch
574. The magnitude of hearing sensation produced by the sound.
a) intensity
b) intensity level
c) loudness
d) bell
575. The rate at which sound energy flows through a unit area.
a) intensity
 b) intensity level
c) loudness
d) bell
576. The logarithm of the ratio of the intensity of a sound to an arbitrary chosen intensity.
a) intensity
b) intensity level
c) loudness
d) bell
577. The unit of intensity.
a) intensity
b) intensity level
c) loudness
d) bel
578. The succession of tones related to each other.
a) musical tone
b) intensity level
c) musical pitch
d) musical scale
579. The persistence of sound in a enclose space.
a) echo
b) reverberation
c) reflection
d) complexity
580. Rebounding of light from certain substances.
a) reflection
b) interference
c) refraction
d) diffraction
581. The property of light by which it travels in a straight line.
a) intensity
b) rectilinear propagation
c) polarization
d) diffraction
582. The process by which the vibrations of light are confined to a definite plane.
a) intensity
b) rectilinear propagation
c) polarization
d) diffraction
583. A theory which states that light is a special form of wave disturbances.
a) wave theory or adulatory theory of light
b) quantum theory
c) wave disturbances theory
d) none of these
584. States that energy exchanges between matters occur in discrete amounts of energy
which are proportional to the frequency.
a) wave theory or adulatory theory of light
b) quantum theory
c) wave disturbances theory
d) none of these
585. Refers to the quantity of visible radiation passing per unit time.
 a) luminous flux
b) quantum theory
c) lumen
d) candle
586. Unit of luminous intensity
a) luminous flux
b) luminous intensity
c) lumen
d) candle
587. Unit of luminous flux.
a) luminous flux
b) luminous intensity
c) lumen
d) candle
588. Evaluated in terms of the power that causes the brightness sensation from a standard
candle.
a) illuminance
b) luminous intensity
c) lumen
d) candle
589. Luminous flux per unit area that reaches the surface.
a) illuminance
b) luminous intensity
c) lumen
d) candle
590. A faint blue white glow produced in water and other transparent substances when
charges particles pass through the substances at speeds greater than the speed of light
through these substances.
a) illuminance
b) cherenkov radiation
c) blue tooth
d) radiation
591. Instrument use for comparing luminous intensities of light sourced.
a) odometer
b) luminous tester
c) luminance
d) photometer
592. Source intensity per unit projected area of emitting surface.
a) odometer
b) luminous tester
c) luminance
d) photometer
593. Law of reflection.
a) the angle of reflection is equal to the angle of incidence.
b) the reflected ray, the incident ray, and the normal to the surface are in the same
plane principal focus of a spherical mirror.
c) both a and b
d) none of these
594. Rays farther from the principal axis of the spherical mirror are reflected to cross the axis
nearer to the mirror than those close to the axis.
 a) spherical
b) aberration
c) vertical length
d) spherical aberration
595. The ratio of the speed of light v1 in the first medium to the speed v2 in the second
medium.
a) absolute index of refraction
b) index of refraction
c) total internal refraction
d) mirage
596. The ratio of the speed of light in empty space to the speed in the medium.
a) absolute index of refraction
b) index of refraction
c) total internal refraction
d) mirage
597. Phenomenon due to atmospheric refraction.
a) absolute index of refraction
b) index of refraction
c) total internal refraction
d) mirage
598. Occur when light passes from a medium of less speed to one of greater speed.
a) absolute index of refraction
b) index of refraction
c) total internal refraction
d) mirage
599. The point at which rays parallel to the principal axis converge after passing through a
converging lens.
a) principal focus
b) focal length
c) real image
d) virtual image
600. Distance of principal focus from the lens.
a) principal focus
b) focal length
c) real image
d) virtual image
601. When the principal focus is between object and lens.
a) primary
b) focal length
c) real image
d) virtual image
602. When object is between lens and principal focus.
a) converging lens
b) focal length
c) real image
d) virtual image
603. A type of lens which causes a set of parallel rays to converge after passing through the
lens
a) converging lens
b) diverging lens
 c) real image
d) virtual image
604. A lens that causes parallel rays to diverge after refraction.
a) converging lens
b) diverging lens
c) real image
d) virtual image
605. It only produces a virtual image of any object regardless of position.
a) converging lens
b) first surface
c) diverging lens
d) diverging image
606. The defect of a lens by which rays entering near the edge of the lens are brought to a
focus nearer the lens than the rays that enter near the center.
a) coma
b) distortion
c) astigmatism
d) spherical aberration
607. A form of lateral spherical aberration whereby rays from object points not on the
principal axis are focused in a comet-shaped image.
a) coma
b) distortion
c) astigmatism
d) spherical aberration
608. Caused by variations in the magnification of the outermost portion of the image,
resulting in a barrel-shaped or pin-cushion-shaped images of a square- mesh object.
a) coma
b) distortion
c) astigmatism
d) spherical aberration
609. The defect whereby horizontal and vertical lines are brought to a focus at different
distances.
a) coma
b) distortion
c) astigmatism
d) spherical aberration
610. The adjustment of the eye for seeing at different distances.
a) hyperopia
b) accommodation
c) myopia
d) magnifier
611. The inability of the eye to clearly see distant objects.
a) hyperopia
b) accommodation
c) myopia
d) magnifier
612. The difficulty of the eye to focus on very close object.
a) hyperopia
b) accommodation
c) myopia
 d) magnifier
613. A converging lens use to produce an enlargement effect.
a) hyperopia
b) accommodation
c) myopia
d) magnifier
614. Ratio of the angle subtended at the eye by the image to the angle subtended by the
object.
a) angular vision
b) angular modulation
c) angular displacement
d) angular magnification
615. The variation of the index of refraction with the wavelength of light.
a) angular dispersion
b) optical dispersion
c) circular dispersion
b) none of these
616. Produces deviation without dispersion.
a) prism spectroscope
b) fluorescence
c) achromatic prism or lens
d) chromatic aberration
617. Light rays of different wave lengths originating from a common point are brought to
different foci by a lens.
a) prism spectroscope
b) fluorescence
c) achromatic prism or lens
d) chromatic aberration
618. A combination of a prism an achromatic lenses. Used to separate the various
wavelengths in a beam of light into its spectrum.
a) prism spectroscope
b) fluorescence
c) achromatic prism or lens
d) chromatic aberration
619. A process in which substance absorbs radiant energy and remits it in wavelengths,
different from those absorb.
a) phosphorescence
b) fluorescence
c) achromatic prism or lens
d) chromatic aberration
620. Occurs when the process of fluorescence continues after the exciting radiation is
removed.
a) phosphorescence
b) fluorescence
c) achromatic prism or lens
d) chromatic aberration
621. The science that seeks to relate the human sense of color perception to the physical
light stimulus in such a way as to produce practical graphical and numerical specification of
color.
a) colorimetry
 b) color characterization
c) chief spectral hues
d) complementary beams
622. Hue, saturation, brightness, or lightness of a color.
a) primaries
b) characteristic of color
c) chief spectral hues
d) complementary beams
623. What hue does the color violet, blue, green, yellow, orange, and red belong?
a) primaries
b) color characterization
c) chief spectral hues
d) complementary beams
624. Monochromatic or polychromatic pairs which when in proper proportions produce the
sensation of white.
a) primaries
b) color characterization
c) chief spectral hues
d) complementary beams
625. Any three beams having wavelengths near the two extremes and the middle of
spectrum. These beams when added in correct proportions produce the sensation of white.
a) primaries
b) color characterization
c) chief spectral hues
d) chromaticity coordinates
626. Specification of color quantitatively in terms of relative amounts of three artificial
primaries necessary to produce a visual equivalent of that color.
a) primaries
b) color characterization
c) chief spectral hues
d) chromaticity coordinates
627. Interference fringes formed in air films between optical surfaces. The spacing of the
rings provide a sensitive means of measuring
a) constructive interference
b) Michelson interferometer
c) destructive interference
d) Newton’s ring
628. An instrument that uses interference in the measurement of light wavelengths.
a) Constructive interference
b) Michelson interferometer
c) Destructive interference
d) Newton’s ring
629. The spreading of light into the region behind an obstacle.
a) interference
b) diffraction
c) destructive interference
d) Newton’s ring
630. The process by which the vibrations of a wave motion are confined to a definite pattern.
a) polarization
b) Malu’s law
 c) angle of polarization
d) Newton’s ring
631. Angle at which light reflected from a substance is almost completely planed polarized.
a) polarization
b) Malu’s law
c) angle of polarization
d) angular displacement
632. Instrument for measuring optical rotation.
a) polarization
b) Malu’s law
c) polarimeters
d) light meter
633. A branch of physics that deals with the properties of electricity at rest.
a) electrical
b) electrostatics
c) electrification
d) magnetism
634. The process of rubbing two materials together and then separating them to produce
charge on the materials.
a) energy convention
b) electrostatics
c) electrification
d) magnetism
635. Bodies of similar charges repel and bodies of unlike charges attract.
a) first law of electrostatics
b) second law of electrostatics
c) third law of electrostatics
d) fourth law of electrostatics
636. What charges will be produce if you rub glass rod with silk.
a) positive charge
b) negative charge
c) neutral
d) none of these
637. What charges will be produce if you rub rubber rod with fur.
a) positive charge
b) negative charge
c) neutral
d) none of these
638. The rubbing of an objects does not create energy but merely changes the electrical
neutrality of the substance in contact.
a) first law of electrostatics
b) second law of electrostatics
c) law of conservation of charge
d) Newton’s law
639. Small, tightly packed, positively charged mass that consist of protons and neutrons.
a) electrons
b) neutrons
c) nucleus
d) free electron
640. Negatively charged particles.
 a) electrons
b) neutrons
c) nucleus
d) free electron
641. Positive charges particles in the nucleus.
a) neutrons
b) proton
c) insulator
d) free electron
642. Particles that carry no charges.
a) neutrons
b) proton
c) insulator
d) free electron
643. Removed from an atom or atoms due to the influence of nearby atoms.
a) neutrons
b) proton
c) insulator
d) free electron
644. A substance with very few free electrons.
a) neutrons
b) proton
c) insulator
d) semiconductor
645. Materials that are ordinarily insulators but which become conductors when under
particular conditions.
a) neutrons
b) proton
c) insulator
d) semiconductor
646. A device for studying electrostatic phenomena. Consist of very light gold leaf, or other
thin metal foil, hanged from a contact on a flat metal plate which ends in a ball at the upper
end.
a) electroscope
b) leaf electroscope
c) force scope
d) gold scope
647. A point charged that is repelled by a force of one dyne when place one cm. from an
equal charged.
a) statcoulomb
b) coulomb
c) partlycoulomb
d) none of these
648. The charged transferred through any cross section of a conductor in one second by a
constant current of one ampere.
a) statcoulomb
b) coulomb
c) partlycoulomb
d) none of these
649. A region in which a charge will be subjected to a force
 a) electric field
b) electric field intensity
c) magnetic field
d) magnetic field intensity
650. A line so drawn in an electric field such that a tangent to it at any point gives the
direction of the electric field at that point.
a) electric field line
b) electric field intensity
c) line of force
d) tangent line
651. A light hangs from two cables. One cable has a tension of 39.72 lb. and is at an angle
of 43.4° with respect to the ceiling. What is the weight of the lamp if the other cable makes
an angle of 17.1° with respect to the ceiling?
a. 37.2 lb.
b. 35.8 lb.
c. 36.8 lb.
d. 36.17 lb.
652. A 46.07 N light hangs from two cables at angles 54.9° and 61.4° with respect to the
ceiling. What is the tension in the first cable?
a. 24.6 N
b. 25 N
c. 23.9 N
d. 26.4 N
653. A light hangs from two cables. One cable has a tension of 28.75 N and is at an angle of
58.1° with respect to the ceiling. What is the tension in the other cable if it makes an angle of
9.4° with respect to the ceiling?
a. 15.9 N
b. 16.1 N
c. 15.4 N
d. 14.9 N
Newton's Second Law
654. A 8.3 kg mass and a 17.1 kg mass are tied to a light string and hung over a frictionless
pulley. What is their acceleration?
a. 33.95 m/s2
c. 4.395 m/s2
b. 4 m/s2
d. 3.395 m/s2
655. An unknown mass and a 9.9 kg mass are tied to a light string and hung over a
frictionless pulley. If the tension in the string is 14.5 N, what is the unknown mass?
a. 1 kg
b. 0.8 kg
c. 1.8 kg
d. 0.5 kg
656. A lady pulls a cart with a force of 1837 N. Neglecting friction, if the cart changes from
resting to a speed of 1.3 m/s in a distance of0.03289 m, what is the total mass of the cart?
a. 71.5 kg
b. 75.1 kg
c. 70.5 kg
d. 17.5 kg
657. A 3.66 lb. book is resting on a 19.41 lb. table. What is the normal force from the floor on
each table leg?
a. 5 lbs.
b. 5.7675 lbs.
c. 4.9 lbs.
d. 6.7675 lbs.
658. A box sits on a ramp inclined at 21.7° to horizontal. If the normal force on the box from
the ramp is 20.94 N, what is the mass of the box?
a. 3.2 kg
b. 2.9 kg
c. 2.3 kg
d. 3.9 kg
659. A 7.9 kg box sits on a ramp. If the normal force on the box from the ramp is 41.82 N,
what is the angle the ramp makes with the (horizontal) ground?
a. 75.3°
c. 57.3°
b. 57.5°
d. 75.5°
660. A man sees a 44.5 kg cart about to bump into a wall at 1.7 m/s. If the cart is 0.04203 m
from the wall when he grabs it, how much force must he apply to stop it before it hits?
a. 1530 N
c. 1350 N
b. 1250 N
d. 1520 N
661. What is the minimum force required to start a 4.2 kg box moving across the floor if the
coefficient of static friction between the box and the floor is 0.6?
a. 23.761 N
b. 25.469 N
c. 24.696 N
d. 26.496 N
662. What is the kinetic energy of a 70 kg man running along at 6.36 m/s?
a. 1315 J
b. 1515 J
c. 1215 J
d. 1415 J
663. What is the speed of a 53.6 kg woman running with a kinetic energy of 1617 J?
a. 7.77 m/s
b. 7.57 m/s
c. 7.67 m/s
d. 7.87 m/s
664. What is the gravitational potential energy of a149.1 kg man at a height of h = 74.21 m
above the ground? (consider h = 0 to be the reference where Ug = 0)
a. 100,000 J
b. 107,300 J
c. 108,400 J
d. 110,580 J
665. What is the height where a 121.2 kg woman would have a gravitational potential energy
of 10610 J? (consider h = 0 to be the reference where the Ug = 0)
a. 9.54m
b. 7.57m/s
 c. 8.94 m
d. 7.87m/s
666. What is the change in gravitational potential energy for a 68.9 kg man walking up stairs
from a height of 63.07 m to 107.69 m?
a. -30133 J
b. 301230 J
c. 30320 J
d. 30130 J
667. What is the change in gravitational potential energy for a 132.5 kg woman walking
down a hill from a height of 102.86 m to 70.38 m?
a. -4123 J
b. -42175 J
c. -5 J
d. 4321 J
668. How much work is done by gravity when a 82.3 kg. diver jumps from a height of 5.23 m
into the water?
a. 4321 J
b. 4218 J
c. 4871 J
d. 4334 J
669. How much work must be done to move a 34.6 kg box 3.66 m across the floor if the
coefficient of kinetic friction between the box and the floor is 0.3.
a. 372.3 J
b. -321.9 J
c. -372.3 J
d. 3.234 J
670. What is the coefficient of kinetic friction between a 16 kg box and the floor if it takes
140.4 J of work to move it a distance of 3.2 m?
a. 0.28
b. -0.25
c. 0.281
d. 0.21
671. What is the length of a 73.7 m wide rectangular lab if its mass is 1.01 kg and the
moment of intertia about an axis through the center and perpendicular to the large flat face if
its mass is 713.6 kg*m2?
a. 55.2 m
b. 53.5 m
c. 52.5 m
d. 54.5 m
672. What is the mass of a hollow cylinder of radius3.38 m if it has a moment of inertia of
33.930468 kg*m2 about the central axis or rotation?
a. 3.07 kg
b. 2.50 kg
c. 2.97 kg
d. 1.95 kg
673. A 0.324 kg ball is stuck 0.54 m from the center of a disk spinning at 5.55 rad/s. What is
its angular momentum?
a. 0.5243 J*s
b. 0.6321 J*s
c. 1.021 J*s
 d. 1.1524 J*s
674. A 40.2 kg child is sitting on the edge of a 165.3 kg merry-go-round of radius 2.1 m while
it is spinning at a rate of 3.229 rpm. If the child moves to the center, how fast will it be
spinning? (Hint: use conservation of angular momentum)
a. 4.5 rpm,
b. 4.4 rpm
c. 4.2 rpm
d. 4.8 rpm
675. An empty metal can rolling down a hill gets to the bottom with a speed of 1.06 m/s.
What would have been the speed if the can was full? (Assume the ends of the hollow can
don't significantly affect its moment of inertia and the walls are so thin that the full can may
be considered as a solid cylinder of the same radius)
a. 1.333 m/s
b. 1.423 m/s
c. 1.223 m/s
d. 1.323 m/s
676. A light hangs from two cables. One cable has a tension of 23.83 lb. and is at an angle
of 26.2° with respect to the ceiling. What is the weight of the lamp if the other cable makes
an angle of 48.7° with respect to the ceiling?
a. 34.86 lb.
b. 33.9 lb.
c. 35.8 lb.
d. 36 lb.
677. A light hangs from two cables. One cable has a tension of 25.55 N and is at an angle of
7.5° with respect to the ceiling. What is the tension in the other cable if it makes an angle of
20.2° with respect to the ceiling?
a. 28 N
b. 26 N
c. 27 N
d. 29 N
678. A man is pulling a cart (total 26.7 kg) with a force of 1612 N. Neglecting friction, how
much time does it take to get the cart from rest up to 1.5 m/s?
a. 0.04583s
b. 0.01252s
c. 0.03567s
d. 0.02484 s
679. A lady is pulling a cart (total 55.7 kg) with a force of 395 N. Neglecting friction, what is
the acceleration of the cart?
a. 7.1 m/s2
b. 7.092 m/s2
c. 7.091 m/s2
d. 7.093 m/s2
680. A lady pulls a cart with a force of 1454 N. Neglecting friction, if the cart changes from
resting to a speed of 1.7 m/s in a distance of 0.02872 m, what is the total mass of the cart?
a. 28.90 kg
b. 28.91 kg
c. 27.90 kg
d. 29.00 kg
681. A man sees a 44.5 kg cart about to bump into a wall at 1.7 m/s. If the cart is 0.04203 m
from the wall when he grabs it, how much force must he apply to stop it before it hits?
 a. 1530 N
b. 1730 N
c.1630 N
d.1830 N
682. A 5.4 kg mass and a 6.2 kg mass are tied to a light string and hung over a frictionless
pulley. What is the tension in the string?
a. 56.57 N
b. 55.569 N
c. 57.1 N
d. 56.569 N
683. A 4.6 kg mass and an 8.5 kg mass are tied to a light string and hung over a frictionless
pulley. What is their acceleration?
a. 2.92 m/s2
b. 2.916 m/s2
c. 2.917 m/s2
d. 3 m/s2
684. An unknown mass and a 13.2 kg mass are tied to a light string and hung over a
frictionless pulley. If the tension in the string is 61.3114 N, what is the unknown mass?
a. 4.12 kg
b. 4.1 kg
c. 4.0 kg
d. 4.2kg
685. A 3.1 lb. book is resting on a 73.76 lb. table. What is the normal force of the book on
the table?
a. -3.2 lbs.
b. -3.1 lbs.
c. 3.2 lbs.
d. 3.1 lbs.
686. A 5.2 kg box sits on a ramp inclined at 42.4° to horizontal. What is the normal force on
the box from the ramp?
a. 37.64N
b. 37.53N
c. 37.54 N
d. 37.63 N
687. A 6.7 kg box sits on a ramp inclined at 37.4° to horizontal. What is the normal force on
the ramp from the box?
a. 52.17 N
b. 52.16 N
c. -52.16 N
d. -52.17 N
688. A box sits on a ramp inclined at 21.7° to horizontal. If the normal force on the box from
the ramp is 20.94 N, what is the mass of the box?
a. 2.3 kg
b. 2.4 kg
c. 2.2 kg
d. 2.1 kg
689. A 7.9 kg box sits on a ramp. If the normal force on the box from the ramp is 41.82 N,
what is the angle the ramp makes with the (horizontal) ground?
a. 57.3°
b. 56.3°
 c. 57.4°
d. 55.3°
690. What is the minimum force required to start a 11.5 kg box moving across the floor if the
coefficient of static friction between the box and the floor is 0.64?
a. 72.13N
b. 72.1 N
c. 72.13 N
d. 72.128 N
691. What is the mass of a box which requires a minimum pushing force of 74.088 N to start
moving across a floor with a coefficient of static friction between the box and the floor of 0.6?
a. 12.2 kg
b. 12.6 kg
c. 13 kg
d. 12.5 kg
692. If a minimum force of 79.4682 N is required to push on a 15.9 kg box to begin moving it
across the floor, what is the coefficient of static friction between the box and the floor?
a. 0.51
b. 0.52
c. 0.53
d. 0.54
693. A box is sliding down a ramp with an acceleration of 1.621 m/s2. If the ramp is at an
angle of 25.1° relative to the ground, what is the coefficient of kinetic friction between the
box and the ramp?
a. 0.2857
b. 0.3000
c. 0.2856
d. 0.2867
694. What is the kinetic energy of a 70 kg man running along at 6.36 m/s?
a. 1416 J
b. 1417 J
c. 1415 J
d. 1418 J
695. What is the change in gravitational potential energy for a 68.9 kg man walking up stairs
from a height of 63.07 m to 107.69 m?
a. 30130 J
b. 30132J
c. 30131 J
d. 30133 J
696. What is the mass of a diver whose gravitational potential energy changes by -160,500 J
when diving into water from a height of 130.61 m?
a. 125.2 kg
b. 125.3 kg
c. 125.5 kg
d. 125.4 kg
697. How much work is done by gravity when a 82.3 kg diver jumps from a height of 5.23 m
into the water?
a. 4220 J
b. 4218 J
c. 4229 J
d. 4219 J
698. What height above the water does a 133.9 kg diver jumps need to jump from for gravity
to do 6062 J of work on him/her?
a. 4.61 m
b. 4.60 m
c. 4.62 m
d. 4.63 m
699. What is the mass of a diver if gravity does 8100 J of work on him/her when jumping into
the water from a height of 6.55 m? What is the mass of a diver if gravity does 8100 J of work
on him/her when jumping into the water from a height of 6.55 m?
a. 126.2 kg
b. 126.1 kg
c. 126.4 kg
d. 126.3 kg
700. How much work must be done to move a 34.6 kg box 3.66 m across the floor if the
coefficient of kinetic friction between the box and the floor is 0.3?
a. 372.2 J
b. 372.3 J
c. 372.4 J
d. 372.5 J
701. What is the velocity of a wave along a cord having a linear mass of 4 g/cm if the cord is
stretched to have a tension of 90 Kdyne?
a) 3600 m/s
b) 6300 m/s
c) 6030 m/s
d) 1460 m/s
702. What is the wavelength in air under standard conditions of a compressional wave
whose frequency is 250 per second? Assume that the bulk modulus for air is 1.40
Mdyne/cm2 and the density of air is 1.29 g/L.
a) 132 cm
b) 231 cm
c) 123 cm
d) 321 cm
703. What tension would be required to create a standing wave with four segments in a
string 100 cm long weighing 0.50 g. If it is attached to a vibrator with a frequency of 100 Hz?
a) 0.125 Mdyne
b) 0.521 Mdyne
c) 0.152 dyne
d) 0.251 dyne
704. What is the velocity of a wave along a chord having a linear mass of 4 g/cm if the chord
is stretched to have a tension of 90 Kdyne?
a) 105 cm/s
b) 150 cm/s
c) 501 cm/s
d) 510 cm/s
705. What is the theoretical speed of sound in oxygen at 0°C for a diatomic gas u = 1.40,
and for oxygen M = 32.00 g/mol.
a) 315 m/s
b) 215 m/s
c) 500 m/s
d) 351 m/s
706. A sonar device on a submarine sends out a signal and receives an echo 5 seconds
later. Assuming the speed of sound in water to be 1452 m/s, how far away is the object that
is reflecting the signal?
a) 3526m
b) 4215m
c) 3625 m
d) 3512m
707. What note is sounded by a siren having a disk with 16 holes and making 20 r/s?
a) 320 Hz
b) 220 Hz
c) 302 Hz
d) 230 Hz
708. If one sound is 5.0 dB higher than another, what is the ratio of their intensities?
a) 3.16
b) 31.6
c) 2.55
d) 35.1
709. Two sounds have intensities of 0.5 and 10 W/m² respectively. How many decibels is
one louder than the other?
a) 1.3 dB
b) 13 dB
c) 3.1 dB
d) 31 dB
710. Two sound waves have intensities of 100 and 400 ∝W/cm2, respectively. How much
louder is one than the other?
a) 0.6 dB
b) 6 dB
c) 4 dB
d) 7 dB
711. If an unshaded electric lamp is 6m above a table and is lowered to 3m, how much has
its luminance been increase?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
712. A lamp produces a certain luminance on a screen situated 85 cm from it. On placing a
glass plate between the lamp and the screen, the lamp must be moved 5 cm closer to the
screen to produced same illuminance as before. What percent of the light is stopped by the
glass?
a) 11%
b) 12%
c) 13 %
d) 14%
713. If a lamp provides an illuminance of 8.0 mc on a book is moved 1.5 times as far away ,
will the new illumination then be sufficient for comfortable reading?
a) 2.5 mc
b) 3.6 mc
c) 3 mc
d) 4 mc
714. If the light of a full moon is found to produce the same illuminance as a 1.0 cd source
does at a distance of 4.0 ft., what is the effective luminous intensity of the moon? (The mean
distance of the moon is 239,000 mi.)
a) 1.0 x 10 cd
b) 2.0 x 10 cd
c) 3.0 x 10 cd
d) 4.0 x 10 cd
715. An unknown lamped placed 6m from a photometer screen provides the same
illumination as an 80 cd lamp placed 4 m from that same screen. What is the candle power
of the unknown lamp?
a) 180 cd
b) 200 cd
c) 280 cd
d) 100 cd
716. A standard 48 - cd lamp is placed 30cm from a photometer screen and produces the
same illumination as a 60 -cd lamped placed some distance away. How far away is the 60 -
cd lamp from the screen?
a) 33.54 cm
b) 23.54 cm
c) 33.43 cm
d) 25.43 cm
717. Two point sources of light are placed 4.0m apart on a photometer. If one is a standard
of 50 cd and they produced equal illuminance at a point 2.5m from the standard source,
what is the intensity of the second source?
a) 18 cd
b) 19 cd
c) 20 cd
d) 17 cd
718. A point source of light of 10 cd is enclosed at the middle of a hollow sphere having a
radius of 4 m. If an opening of 10 m2 exist in the sphere, what is the luminous flux through
the opening?
a) 625 m
b) 62.5 m
c) 6.25 m
d) 0.625 m
719. Find the candle power of a point source of light that provides 20 mc of illumination on a
surface 4 m away.
a) 320 cd
b) 32.0 cd
c) 3.20 cd
d) 217 cd
720. What is the vertical length of the smallest plane mirror in which a man 2 m tall can just
see his full height from the top of his head to his feet?
a) 1 m
b) 2 m
c) 3 m
d) 4m
721. A person backing a car up sees in the rearview mirror a person walking toward him at 5
km/hr. If the car is moving backward at 10km/hr., how fast does the person as viewed from
the mirror approached the car.
 a) 10 km/h
b) 20 km /h
c) 50 km/h
d) 30 km/h
722. The distance of comfortable distinct vision is about 25 cm for the average person.
Where should a person hold a plane mirror in order to see himself conveniently?
a) 12.5 cm
b) 125 cm
c) 20 cm
d) 10cm
723. An object is placed 20 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 60 cm. Where is the
image?
a) 12cm
b) 25cm
c) 60 cm
d) 100 cm
724. In what position in front of a spherical mirror should an object be placed to produce a
real image which is magnified three times if the radius of curvature of the mirror is 18cm?
a) 12 cm
b) 9 cm
c) 7 cm
d) 10cm
725. A dentist holds a concave mirror of radius of curvature 6.0 cm at a distance 2.0 cm from
a filling in a tooth. What is the magnification of the filling?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 3
726. A convex mirror whose focal length is 15 cm has an object of 10 cm tall and 60 cm
away. Find the position, nature, and size of the object.
For position:
a) -12 cm
b) -9 cm
c) -7cm
d) -10 cm
727. For nature:
a) real
b) virtual
c) cannot be determined
d) none of these
728. For size:
a) 2 cm
b) 3 cm
c) 4 cm
d) 1 cm
729. In what position should an object be placed in front of a concave mirror having a focal
length of 20 cm so that an erect image which is twice as large as the object is formed?
a) 12 cm
b) 9 cm
c) 7 cm
 d) 10 cm
730. The angle of incidence of a ray of light at the surface of water is 40°and the observe
angle of refraction is 29°. Compute the index of refraction.
a) 13.25
b) 1.325
c) 1.25
d) 132.5 cm
731. The velocity of light in a liquid is 0.80 as fast as it is in air. What is the index of
refraction of the liquid?
a) 13.25
b) 1.325
c) 1.25
d) 132.5
732. A ray of light strikes a water surface at an angle. The angle of refraction in the water is
measured to be 22°. What must be the angle of incidence of the light ray have been?
a) 30°
b) 25°
c) 35°
d) 40°
733. What is the mass of a box which requires 3518 J of work to be pulled 9.36 m across a
floor with a coefficient of kinetic friction between the box and the floor of 0.4?
a. 96 kg
b. 95.8 kg
c. 95.7 kg
d. 95.9 kg
734. How far must you pull a 10.9 kg box across the floor to do 123.3 J of work if the
coefficient of kinetic friction between the box and the floor is 0.15?
a. 7.5 m
b. 7.6 m
c. 7.7 m
d. 7.8 m
735. How much work must be done to move a 3.8 kg chair 6.1 m across the floor at constant
velocity if the coefficient of kinetic friction between the chair and the floor is 0.64 and you are
pushing at an angle of 30.2° relative to the floor?
a. 231.5 J
b. 231.6 J
c. 231.7 J
d. 231.8 J
736. If you do 231.9 J of work to move a 19.8 kg chair 3.35 m across the floor at constant
velocity, and you are pushing at an angle of 17.9° relative to the floor, what is the coefficient
of kinetic friction between the floor and the chair?
a. 0.30
b. 0.31
c. 0.32
d. 0.33
737. A 80.4 kg diver jumps from a height of 2.64 m with an initial speed of 1.25 m/s. What is
his speed entering the water?
a. 7.301 m/s
b. 7.302 m/s
c. 7.303 m/s
 d. 7.304 m/s
751. The weight of a mass of 10 kg at a location where the acceleration of gravity is 9.77
m/s^2 is
A. 79.7 N
B. 77.9 N
C. 97.7 N
D. 977 N
752. How much does a 30 lbm weigh on the moon? Gravitational acceleration in the moon is
5.47 ft/s^2 and in earth is 32.2 ft/s^2.
A. 2.0 lbf
B. 3.2 lbf
C. 3.4 lbf
D. 5.096 lb
753. The mass of air in a room 3 m x 5 m x 20 m is known to be 350 kg. Find its density.
A. 1.167
B. 1.176
C. 1.617
D. 1.716
754. An iron block weighs 5 N and has a volume of 200 cubic centimeters. What is the
density of the block?
A. 988 kg/m^3
B. 1255 kg/m^3
C. 2550 kg/m^3
D. 800 kg/m^3
755. 100 g of water is mixed to 150 g of alcohol (ρ = 790 kg/m^3). Calculate the specific
volume of the solution, assuming that it is mixed completely.
A. 0.82 cm^3/g
B. 0.88 cm^3/g
C. 0.63 cm^3/g
D. 1.20 cm^3/g
756. 100 g of water is mixed to 150 g of alcohol (ρ = 790 kg/m^3). Calculate the specific
gravity of the total mixture.
A. 1.862
B. 0.963
C. 0.286
D. 0.862
757. The specific gravity of mercury relative to water is 13.55. What is the specific weight of
mercury? The specific weight of water is 62.4 lbf/ft^3.
A. 102.3 kN/m^3
B. 132.9 kN/m^3
C. 150.9 kN/m^3
D. 82.2 kN/m^3
758. A 16 gram mass is moving at 30 cm/sec while a 4 gram mass is moving in an opposite
direction at 50 cm/sec. They collide head on and stick together. Their velocity after collision
is
A. 0.14 m/s
B. 0.21 m/s
C. 0.07 m/s
D. 0.28 m/s
759. A 60 ton rail car moving at 1 mile/hr is instantaneously coupled to a stationary 40 ton
rail car. What is the speed of the coupled cars?
A. 0.88 mph
B. 1 mph
C. 0.6 mph
D. 0.4 mph
760. A 10 g block slides with a velocity of 20 cm/s on a smooth level surface and makes a
collision with a 30 g block moving in the opposite direction with a velocity of 10 cm/s. If the
collision is perfectly elastic, what is the velocity of the 30 g block after the collision?
A. 15 cm/s
B. 10 cm/s
C. 25 cm/s
D. 5 cm/s
761. A 60 ton rail car moving at 1 mile/hr is coupled to a second stationary rail car. If the
velocity of the two cars after coupling is 1ft/s (in the original direction of motion) and the
coupling is completed in 0.5 second, what is the average impulsive force on the 60 ton rail
car?
A. 50 lbf
B. 3500 lbf
C. 1200 lbf
D. 60 lbf
762. What momentum does a 40 lbm projectile possess if the projectile is moving at 420
mph?
A. 24,640 lbf-sec
B. 16,860 lbf-sec
C. 765 lbf-sec
D. 523.6 lbf-sec
763. A 10-kg block is raised vertically 3 meters. What is the change in potential energy?
Answer in SI units closest to:
A. 320 J
B. 350 kg-m^2/s^2
C. 294 J
D. 350 N-m
764. An aircraft engine develops a forward thrust of 15,000 N. If the gross mass of the
aircraft is 100 tons, what horsepower does the engine develop if it is flying at 1000 kph?
A. 150,000
B. 5585
C. 5400
D. 3108
765. If a 10 kg piece of copper falls 100 m, how much heat might be produced?
A. 3.81 kCal
B. 32 BTU
C. 2300 Cal
D. 9.41 kJ
766. A rocket is moving through a vacuum. It changes its velocity from 9020 ft/sec to 5100
ft/sec in 48 seconds. How much power is required to accomplish this if the rocket’s mass is
13,000 slugs?
A. 1.63 x 10^7 hp
B. 3.16 x 10^7 hp
C. 3.61 x 10^7 hp
 D. 1.36 x 10^7 hp
767. A force of 200 lbf acts on a block at an angle of 28° with respect to the horizontal. The
block is pushed 2 feet horizontally. What is the work done by this force?
A. 320 J
B. 480 J
C. 540 J
D. 215 J
768. What average force is necessary to stop a .45 caliber bullet of mass of 15 grams and
speed of 300 m/s as it penetrates a block to a distance of 5 cm?
A. 12.5 kN
B. 13.0 kN
C. 13.5 kN
D. 12.0 kN
769. What is the water pressure if manometer is 0.6 m Hg? Mercury is 13.6 times heavier
than water.
A. 27.4 kPa
B. 47.2 kPa
C. 79.97 kPa
D. 72.4 kPa
770. A mercury barometer at the base of Mt. Makiling reads 654 mm and at the same time
another barometer at the top of the mountain reads 480 mm. Assuming specific weight of air
to be constant at 12 N/m^3, what is the approximate height of Mt. Makiling?
A. 1,934.5 m
B. 3,508.4 m
C. 4, 168.2 m
D. 2,674.7 m
771. Assuming the barometer reads 760 mm Hg, what is the absolute pressure for 900 mm
Hg gauge?
A. 74.213 kPa
B. 221.24 kPa
C. 48 kPa
D. 358 kPa
772. A barometer reads 760 mm Hg and a pressure gage attached to a tank reads 850 cm
of oil (sp.gr. 0.80). What is the absolute pressure in the tank in kPa?
A. 168.1 kPa
B. 186.1 kPa
C. 118.6 kPa
D. 161.8 kPa
773. A sealed tank contains oxygen at 27°C at a pressure of 2 atm. If the temperature
increases to 100°C, what will be the pressure inside the tank?
A. 4.92 atm
B. 4.29 atm
C. 2.49 atm
D. 9.24 atm
774. A volume of 400 cc of air is measured at a pressure of 740 mm Hg abs and a
temperature of 18°C. What will be the volume at 760 mm Hg and 0°C?
A. 376 cc
B. 326 cc
C. 356 cc
D. 366 cc
775. The pressure of the nitrogen gas thermometer is 76 cm at 0°C. What is the temperature
of a liquid in which the bulb of the thermometer is immersed when the pressure is seen to be
87.7 cm?
A. 34°C
B. 45°C
C. 60°C
D. 90°C
776. A transportation company specializes in the shipment of pressurized gaseous
materials. An order is received for 100 liters of a particular gas at STP (32°F and 1 atm).
What minimum volume tank is necessary to transport the gas at 80°F and a maximum
pressure of 8 atm?
A. 16 liters
B. 14 liters
C. 10 liters
D. 12 liters
777. A 20 liter sample of gas exerts a pressure of 1 atm at 25°C. If t is expanded into a 40
liter vessel that is held at 100°C, what will be its final pressure?
A. 0.50 atm
B. 1.0 atm
C. 0.315 atm
D. 0.63 atm
778. A 10 lbm object is acted upon by a 4.4 lbf force. What acceleration in ft/s^2 does the
object possess?
A. 12.4
B. 10.1
C. 14.2
D. 13.0
779. A 50 kN truck traveling with a speed of 50 kph hits a lamp post and is brought to rest in
0.1 s. What is the average force of the truck?
A. -408 kN
B. -508 kN
C. -608 kN
D. -708 kN
780. A tennis ball moving horizontally to the left at 40 m/s hits a racket and rebounds
horizontally to the right at 30 m/s. If the mass of the ball is 100 grams, find the impulse of the
force (in kg-m/s) exerted on the ball by the racket.]
A. 1
B. -1
C. 7
D. 12
781. Two steel balls of masses 500 kg and 50 kg, respectively are placed with their centers
0.5 m apart. The two balls attract with a force of
A. 6.67 x 10^-10 N
B. 6.67 x 10^-7 N
C. 6.67 x 10^-8 N
D. 6.67 x 10^-3 N
782. A 50 g mass hangs at the end of the spring. When 20 grams more are added to the end
of the spring, it stretches 7 cm more. Fine the spring constant.
A. 2.8
B. 2.9
 C. 4.3
D. 2.5
783. Determine the submerged depth of a cube of steel 0.3 m on each side floating in
mercury. The specific gravities of steel and mercury are 7.8 and 13.6 respectively.
A. 0.155 m
B. 0.165 m
C. 0.134 m
D. 0.172 m
784. A block of wood floats in water with 5 cm projecting above the water surface. When
placed in glycerine of specific gravity of 1.35, the block projects 7.5 cm above the liquid.
Determine its specific gravity.
A. 0.514
B. 0.704
C. 0.836
D. 0.658
785. A solid cube material is 0.75 cm on each side. If it floats in oil of density 800 kg/m^3
with one-third of the block out of the oil, what is the density of the material of the cube?
A. 533 kg/m^3
B. 523 kg/m^3
C. 513 kg/m^3
D. 543 kg/m^3
786. A hollow cylinder 1 m in diameter and 2 m high weighs 2825 N. How many kN of lead
weighing 110 kN/m^3 must be fastened to the outside bottom of the cylinder to make it float
with 1.5 m submerged in water?
A. 8.5 kN
B. 6.5 kN
C. 1.5 kN
D. 9.5 kN
787. How long must a current of 5 amperes pass through a 10-ohm resistor until a charge of
1200 coulombs passes through?
A. 3 min
B. 1 min
C. 4 min
D. 2 min
788. What is the power required to transfer 97,000 coulombs of charge through a potential
rise of 50 volts in one hour?
A. 0.5 kW
B. 1.3 kW
C. 0.9 kW
D. 2.8 kW
789. How much oil at 200°C must be added to 5 grams of the same oil at 20°C to heat it to
70°C?
A. 12.39 grams
B. 29.12 grams
C. 19.23 grams
D. 23.91 grams
790. The temperatures of three different liquids are maintained at 15°C, 20°C and 25 °C
respectively. When equal masses of the first two liquids are mixed, the final temperature is
18°C and when equal masses of the last two are mixed, the final temperature is 24°C. What
temperature will be achieved by mixing equal masses of the first and last liquid?
 A. 15.87°C
B. 10.30°C
C. 8.65°C
D. 23.57°C
791. Three forces, 20 N, 30 N, and 40 N are in equilibrium. Find the largest angle(in
degrees) they make with each other.
A. 104.48
B.105.58
C. 106.69
D. 107.96
792. Two forces of 20 units and 30 units act at right angle. What is the magnitude of the
resultant force?
A. 36
B. 42
C. 40
D. 44
793. What is the magnitude of the resultant force of the two forces 200 N at 20 degrees and
400 N at 144 degrees?
A. 332.5N
B. 323.5N
C. 313.5N
D. 233.5N
794. A load of 100 lb is hung from the middle of the rope, which is stretched between two
rigid walls 30 ft. apart. Due to the load, the rope sags 4 feet in the middle. Determine the
tension in the rope.
A. 165lbs.
B. 173lbs.
C. 194lbs.
D. 149lbs.
795. A boat moving at 12 kph is crossing a river 500 m wide in which a current is flowing at 4
kph. In what direction should the boat head if it is to reach a point on the other of the river
directly opposite in starting point?
A. 19.47 degrees downstream
B. 19.47 degrees upstream
C. 18.43 degrees downstream
D. 18.43 degrees upstream
796. A 100 kg weight rest on a 30 degrees incline plane. Neglecting friction, how much pull
must one exert to bring the weight up the plane?
A. 88.67 kg.
B. 100 kg
C. 70.71 kg
D. 50 kg
797. A block weighing 500 kN rest on a ramp inclined at 25 degrees with the horizontal. The
force tending to move the block down the ramp is ________.
A. 121 kN
B. 265 kN
C. 211 kN
D. 450 kN
798. A 200 kg crate impends to slide down a ramp inclined at an angle of 19.29 degrees with
the horizontal. What is the frictional resistance?
 A. 612.38 N
B. 628.38 N
C. 648.16 N
D. 654.12 N
799. A man can exert a maximum pull of 1000 N but wishes to lift a new stone door for his
cave weighing 20,000 N. If he uses a lever, how much closer must the fulcrum be to the
stone then to his hand?
A. 10 times nearer
B. 20 times farther
C. 10 times farther
D. 20 times nearer
800. A beam rests on a fulcrum, 1.2 m from one end. A weight of 350 kg is suspended from
this end causing the beam to balance. If the weight of 350 kg is suspended on the opposite
end of the beam, it is necessary to suspend a 1000 kg weight on the first end in order to
effect an even balance. Find the length of the beam.
A. 2.48 m
B. 3.24 m
C. 3.43 m
D. 4.21 m