1. Is the electrical circuit in a corrosion reaction AC or DC?

• In a corrosion circuit the current is always D.C. (Direct Current).

2. Does corrosion occur at the cathode or at the anode?
• Corrosion only occurs at the anode, never at the cathode.
3. Name the three factors needed for corrosion to occur.
• The electron circuit can be seen to be from anode A, to cathode C, through the
electrolyte E, back to A
4. What is meant by the term electrolyte?
• An electrolyte is a substance, which will conduct a current and be broken down
by it, (dissociate into ions)
5. What is corrosion?
• “Degradation of a metal by chemical or Electro-chemical means”.
6. In the corrosion circuit do electrons flow from anode to cathode?
• The electrons move from cathode to anode.
7. Which gas is released at the cathode when the electrolyte is water?
• 2H2O=2H +2OH. Simultaneously the electrons couple back with the Hydrogen
ions to form two full Hydrogen atoms, which join together diatomically to form
Hydrogen gas (H2)
8. Which is the more noble metal, Steel or Aluminium?
• Steel (-0.7v)
9. Which is more electronegative, steel or Aluminium?
• Aluminium (-0.9v)
10. If Steel and Copper (-0.35v) were in contact in an electrolyte which would corrode?
• Steel (-0.7v)
11. Name two common Hygroscopic salts
• Sulphates and Chlorides are the two most common salts, chlorides predominant in
marine environments, and sulphates in industrial areas and sometimes
agricultural.
12. Name three metals used as sacrificial anodes on a steel pipeline.
• Aluminium, Zinc, Magnesium.
13. What is the approximate thickness of mill scale?
• The thickness of mill scale varies from 25 to 100 um.
14. Which of the two metals would corrode if steel and zinc were coupled?
• Zinc (-1.0v)
15. Which other names relate to the Galvanic List?
• The Galvanic List
• The Electro Motive forces series
• Electro-Chemical series.
16. In which environment are you likely to encounter chloride salts?
• Chlorides predominant in marine environments.
17. Which three compounds together form mill scale?
o
• The oxides of iron form very quickly at temperatures in excess of 580 C. The
first oxide formed is FeO , iron oxide, the next is Fe3O4 and last of all Fe2O3
(wustite, magnetite, haematite).
18. If magnesium was coupled with zinc, which would corrode?
• Magnesium (-1.6v).
19. In which environment would sulphate salts be found?
• Sulphates in industrial areas and sometimes agricultural
20. What is an osmotic blister?
• These blisters are called osmotic or hygroscopic blisters, and are defined as
‘pinhead sized water filled blisters’.
21. What is an ion?
• An ion is a charged atom or molecule. It is charged because the numbers of
electrons do not equal the number of protons in the atom or molecule. An atom
can acquire a positive charge or a negative charge depending on whether the
number of electrons in an atom is greater or less then the number of protons in the
atom
22. What is meant by polarisation?
• The polarity of an ion.
23. Is an anode positive or negative?
• positive charge
24. Can corrosion occur without an electrolyte?
• No, it can’t
25. Name a sub atomic particle.
• Electrons, protons, notrons
26. What is mill scale and when and where does it occur?
o
• The oxides of iron form very quickly at temperatures in excess of 580 C
• Mills scale is formed during the rolling operation of steel sections
27. Name three factors, which can accelerate corrosion reactions.
• Temperature.
• Hygroscopic Salts.
• Aerobic conditions, (presence of oxygen).
• Presence of some types of bacteria on the metal surface ( SRBs, or MEMs)
• Acids and alkalis
• Bi-metallic
28. Why is it considered essential to remove mill scale prior to painting?
• Mill scale is above steel on the galvanic list. This means that mill scale is cathodic
to steel.
29. Why does an un-coated steel plate corrode?
• Bimetallic corrosion.
30. If corrosion occurs at anodic areas, why does steel corrode evenly all over the surface?
• There are many elements in steel like Nikel, Carbon, Aluminium…, they provide
millions of cathodic to steel.
 Surface preparation - Monday
1. Which British standard would be used in determining the size of copper slag abrasive?
• BS 410
2. Which British standard would be used in determining the size of metallic abrasives?
• BS 410
• BS 7079 Pt. E
3. Which regulations prohibit the use of sand for blasting steel?
• COSHH REGS does not allow the use of sand containing silica for dry blasting
• Si1657
4. What is meant by the term ‘key’?
• Also amplitude, key, anchor pattern, surface profile
5. Why is it important to have good surface preparation?
• Surface preparation involves removing these contaminants, and in some instances
increasing the area available for adhesion by roughening up the substrate. A good
surface preparation grade (degree of cleanliness) along with a suitable surface
profile can give 10 years life from a typical four coat paint system.
6. What is meant by the term sleever?
• Lamination – Appears to be a longitudinal ‘crack’, one lip curling back, any
laminations (slivers) found must be referred to engineer for ultrasonic check.
7. What is a hackle?
• Hackle – A small surface lamination, which stands upright like a needle after
blasting. Approximately ≤ 13 mm. Easily removed..
8. Name two other terms that could be used for ‘anchor pattern’?
• Also amplitude, key, anchor pattern, surface profile
9. What are the main advantages of using ‘Testex papers’ for measuring profiles?
• This method provides a permanent record and the traceability required from
quality systems.
10. What is meant by the term grade, relating to a blast finish?
• Grading relating to how much contaminant is left on the surface after preparation.
The degree of cleanliness is mainly dependent on the time spent on the area and
the velocity of the particles.
11. What are the main factors governing the grade of a blast finish?
• The degree of cleanliness is mainly dependent on the time spent on the area and
the velocity of the particles.
12. Can the grade of a blast finish be determined by using the surface comparators to BS
7079 Pt C3?
• No, it can’t
13. What profile range can be measured using X coarse Testex?
• Extra Coarse Grade for measuring profiles 1.5 to 4.5 Thou" 37-115um
14. What profile range can be measured using coarse grade Testex?
• Coarse Grade for measuring profiles 0.8 to 2 Thou". 20-50um
15. What are the two theories of adhesion?
• Molecular Interference. Physical (for the first coat).
• Molecular Attraction. Chemical (for the second and finish coat).
16. Briefly describe the mechanisms of the two theories of adhesion.
 • Molecular Interference. Because the surface is rough and uneven the paint wets,
and locks into the profile, analogy Velcro. Physical.
• Molecular Attraction. Negatively charged particles attracted to positive areas, and
vice versa. Analogy Magnet (sometimes called Ionic Bonding). Chemical.
17. How many microns are in 1 thou?
• 1 mm = 1000 um
• 1 thou = 25.4 um
• 25.4 mm = 1 inch
• 2.54 cm = 1 inch
18. Give three different names for the cross section of a blast.
• Also amplitude, key, anchor pattern, surface profile
19. What is the approximate speed of abrasives leaving a venturi nozzle?
• Velocity of the particles at approximately 450 mph.
20. What is the most common cause of flash rusting on a blasted substrate?
• Moisture.
21. What would be considered to be an ideal shot grit mix?
• 70-80% shot, 20-30% grit
• A mix of shot and grit results in a more uniform profile. The grit cuts the profile
and the shot being unable to enter the troughs produced, controls the peak height
and so greatly reduces the number of ‘rogue peaks.’
22. What is the purpose of mixing shot and grit?
• A mix of shot and grit results in a more uniform profile.
23. Which abrasive would have the effect of work hardening a substrate?
• Metallic Shot
24. Name three methods of measuring or assessing a profile.
• Surface Profile Needle Gauge.
• Dial Micrometer and Replica Tape.
• Comparators
25. What is the most common cause of rogue peaks on a substrate?
• Surface area to be blasted for too long.
26. In what situation would it be better to use steel grit in preference to copper slag
abrasives?
• Enclosed system. High profile required’.
27. If cracks or laminations are found on a substrate after blasting what steps should be
taken?
• Inform to engineer for ultrasonic check
28. Using comparators to ISO 8503, what are the three main profile assessments?
• Fine - Profiles equal to segment one and up to, but excluding segment two.
• Medium - Profiles equal to segment two and up to, but excluding segment three.
• Coarse - Profiles equal to segment three and up to, but excluding segment four.
29. What are the other two assessments when the above three are not appropriate?
• Any profile below the lower limit for ‘Fine’ grading is referred to as finer than
fine.
• Any profile above the upper limit for ‘Coarse’ grading is referred to as coarser
than coarse.
30. What would be size of copper slag needed to give a profile of 50 to 75 um?
 Surface preparation – Tuesday
1. What is the title of the BS 7079?
• Preparation of steel substrates before application of paints and related products
2. What are the four characteristics of an abrasive?
• Size of the particles
• Hardness of the material
• Density of the material
• Shape of the particle
3. Why are blast hoses carbon impregnated?
• The hose should be carbon impregnated to reduce the chance of the operator
getting electric shock from static.
4. Name the gauge used for measuring pressure at the blast nozzle?
• The hypodermic needle gauge.
5. Name four advantages of centrifugal blasting over open blasting.
• The quality can be controlled by adjusting the feed roller speeds
• The system is totally enclosed there is efficient use of abrasives
• More operator safety because the operator is not involved.
• The systems can be far more productive than open blasting.
• Less manpower.
6. According to BS 7079 is it possible to blast clean to an A Sa1?
• Sa 1 and Sa 2 are not achievable on rust grade A and consequently there are no
photographs for the grades.
7. Is there any difference between an A Sa1 and B Sa1?
• A Sa1- not achievable
• B Sa1- achievable
8. Could you tell the difference between rust grades A and B blasted to Sa3?
• No difference.
9. Could you tell the difference between rust grades C and D blasted to Sa3?
• Rust Gr. C - slight pitting visible
• Rust Gr. D - general pitting is visible
10. What would be a typical speed of abrasives leaving a wheelabrator?
• 220 mph ( 98.35 m/s)
11. What is considered to be the most efficient blasting pressure?
• 100 psi is considered to be the ultimate pressure for open blasting.
12. What is meant by the term “burnishing”?
• The reducing of an existing profile give a smooth shiny area does not provide
good adhesion because of surface to be treated for longtime.
13. What would be the equivalent to St2 in the Sa grades?
• There is no equivalent when comparing between methods of preparation.
14. What is the neutral figure on the pH scale?
• 7
15. How is pH measured?
• using the pH indicator strips
16. Why are inhibitors sometimes added to water in wet blasting?
• Inhibitors added to water to retard the formation of corrosion products
17. Name two typical areas where needle guns might be used?
 • Rivets, screws, bolts, nuts, weld seams.
18. What is the Duplex Process of surface preparation?
• Footners Duplex System involves the pickling process followed by a passivation
process using Phosphoric or Chromic acid along with a small percentage of iron
filings
19. Which pH range covers acids?
• 0-7
20. Which pH range covers alkalies?
• 7-14
21. What is the meaning of pH?
• pH is a measure of acidity or alkalinity of a substance and is measured using pH
indicator strips.
22. Name three disadvantages of wet blasting.
• Supply of large amounts of water.
• Disposal of the resulting slurry
• Need mixing substrate inhibitors
• Not cut the profile (if abrasive not used)
23. Name two areas on a structure where flame cleaning cannot be done.
• It is not wise to use this method of surface preparation on any fasteners relying on
tension, e.g. rivets, screws, nuts and bolts
24. Which three basic operations are performed during flame cleaning?
• Expansion
• Dehydration
• Heat penetration
25. How does BS 7079 define Flame Cleaning standards?
• The BS 7079, ISO 8501 (SS 05 5900) contains four photographs showing flame
cleaning standards from the original rust grades A, B, C, D. The designation
given is AFl, BFl, CFl, and DFl.
26. What is a ‘Jasons Hammer’?
• A type of hand and power tool equipment.
27. What is meant by St2 and St3?
• St2 – Thorough hand and power tool cleaning.
• St3 – Very thorough hand and power tool cleaning.
28. Two alloys are used to render wire brushes spark free, what are they?
• Non sparking alloys such as phosphor bronze and beryllium bronze.
29. Why should ‘Burnishing’ be avoided?
• not provide good adhesion
30. Name two major disadvantages of using a needle gun.
• Leave a very coarse profile which invariably needs to be reduced by abrading
with emery, or grinding.
31. After phosphating, what would be a typical pH requirement prior to coating?
• 4.5 to 7.0
32. What is understood by the term ‘knock out pot’?
• Vapour Traps for oil and water (knock out pots).
33. If an operator was blasting with a nozzle pressure of 80 psi. What would be his
approximate efficiency?
 • 70%
34. Which solvents are commonly used for degreasing?
• Xylene.
35. What is a ‘dead man’s handle’?
• The handle under direct operation control for safety.
36. Why is carbon impregnated into blast hoses?
• The hose should be carbon impregnated to reduce the chance of the operator
getting electric shock from static.
37. How is abrasive cleansed in a wheelabrator system?
• Air Wash Separator
38. What is the main disadvantage of high pressure jetting compared to other systems?
• It will only clean up the original profile on rework areas.
39. Name five methods of wet blasting.
• High pressure water blasting up to 30 000 psi (water jetting).
• High pressure water plus abrasive injection.
• Low pressure water plus abrasive injection.
• Steam Cleaning.
• Air blasting with water injection.
40. What would be the typical temperature and concentration of Sulphuric Acid in the
pickling process?
o
• Sulphuric Acid, 5 – 10% concentration at a temperature of 65 – 70 C
41. Describe the ‘Duplex Process’.
• Any oil or grease needs to be removed by using a suitable solvent e.g. xylene or
as specified Oil and grease show up as fluorescent yellow/green under an
ultraviolet light.
• Totally immerse in a bath of Sulphuric Acid, 5 – 10% concentration at a
temperature of 65– 70 oC. Time can vary from 5 to 25 minutes
• Rinse using clean warm water to remove the layer of soluble salts formed. If
required the component could be coated after pickling. Likewise components can
be blast cleaned and sent on for phosphating/chromating, but the patented process
is only called “Footners” when pickled then phosphated/chromated
o
• Immerse in a bath of phosphoric/chromic acid, 2% solution at 80 C for
approximately one to two minutes with iron filing (0.5%) (and an inhibitor to
prevent embrittlement). This leaves a very thin layer of iron phosphate/chromate,
which acts as a rust preventative for a limited time
• Rinse in clean water, and check for pH values.
42. What would be a maximum pressure for high pressure water jetting?
• 30.000 psi
43. What are the disadvantages of wet blasting over dry blasting?
• Supply of large amounts of water.
• Disposal of the resulting slurry
• Need mixing substrate inhibitors
• Not cut the profile (if abrasive not used)
44. Describe the phosphating process.
 • Immerse in a bath of phosphoric/chromic acid, 2% solution at 80 oc for
approximately one to two minutes with iron filing (0.5%). This leaves a very thin
layer of iron phosphate/chromate.
45. What would be considered to be advantages of wet blasting over dry blasting?
• More environmentally friendly than open blasting, no spark and dust.
• Ideal for removal of soluble salts, sulphates and chlorides.
• Ideal for removing layers of toxic materials, e.g. red lead, calcium plumbate, and
zinc chromate primers.
46. Why is the phosphating or chromating of steel done?
o
• Immerse in a bath of phosphoric/chromic acid, 2% solution at 80 C for
approximately one to two minutes with iron filing (0.5%) (and an inhibitor to
prevent embrittlement). This leaves a very thin layer of iron phosphate/chromate,
which acts as a rust preventative for a limited time.
47. What would be an acceptable remedy for burnished areas?
• Burnishing needs to be treated by abrading with coarse emery.
48. Would burnishing be expected on areas of St2 preparation?
• No.
49. How many photographs of blast cleaning standards are shown in BS 7079 Pt A?
• 14 photos
50. Do the plates shown in Bs 7079 Pt A relate to grit blasting or shot blasting?
• Both
1. Name a third type of paint other than solvent free and solvent borne.
• Paints are supplied as either liquids or solids in powder form and can be
subdivided into groups
• Liquid paints containing solvent (solvent borne).
• Solvent free.
• Powders.
2. An epoxy resin would use which solvent?
• Ketones (Acetone, Methyl Ethyl Ketone, Methyl ISO Butyl Ketone).
3. Name four or more advantages of Chlorinated Rubber paints.
• Because of the chlorine content, high resistance to mould growth.
• Again because of the chlorine, non-flammable after solvent release.
• Very resistant to chemical attack e.g. Acids and Alkalis.
• Very high resistance to water vapour transmission.
• Material is non toxic and provides a very durable film.
• Very easily maintained, no abrasion needed, clean surface only.
4. What are the three main disadvantages of Chlorinated Rubber paint?
• Its position on solvent compatibility list shows low resistance to solvents i.e. only
resistant to Aliphatics and Water.
o
• Low temperature tolerance, 65 C maximum.
• Spray application resulted in ‘cobwebs’.
5. Which solvent could be used with a Phenolic Resin?
• White Spirit.
6. Chlorinated Rubber paint would contain which solvent?
• Xylene.
7. Would it be good practice to apply Chlorinated Rubber over Alkyd resin?
• Chlorinated Rubber coated over an Alkyd would result in lifting, and wrinkling.
8. Which solvent would be used with an Alkyd Resin?
• White Spirit.
9. How was the word Alkyd derived?
• Derived from alcohol – acid reaction.
10. What is meant by opaque?
• Properties give covering power, (opacity) and colour.
11. What is meant by vehicle?
• Vehicle = solvent + binder.
12. Would it be acceptable practice to apply an Alkyd over Chlorinated Rubber?
• Alkyd over Chlorinated Rubber would have no ill effect.
13. Would it be acceptable practice to apply Chlorinated Rubber over Phenolic?
• Chlorinated Rubber coated over Phenolic would result in lifting, and wrinkling.
14. Would it be acceptable practice to apply Phenolic Resin over Chlorinated Rubber?
• Acc.
15. Would it be acceptable practice to apply Epoxy over linseed oil base?
• Rej.
16. Would it be acceptable practice to apply Chlorinated Rubber over Epoxy?
• Acc.
17. Would it be acceptable practice to apply Epoxy Resin over Alkyd Resin?
 • Rej.
18. What is another name for an unpigmented paint?
• Dye
19. What are the natural properties of a Resin?
• Natural resins are brittle by nature and fast drying. (copals, dammars and
coumarones).
20. What are the natural properties of Oil?
• Elastic, slow drying properties. (Linseed Oil, Tung Oil, Soya Oil, Tall Oil and
Safflower Oil).
21. How does paint using the barrier principle work?
• The material forms a thick impermeable layer of a high electrical resistance e.g.
urethane
22. How does paint using the passivation principle work?
• Causing a chemical reaction between the paint constituents and the substrate e.g.
rust inhibitive primers.
23. How does paint using cathodic protection principle work?
• Employs the bi-metallic principles by using a less noble metal as pigmentation
e.g. zinc in zinc rich primers.
24. Give another name for solvent free two packs.
• MCL (Multi Component Liquids).
25. Name six properties of a binder.
• Ease of application (flow properties or viscosity).
• Adhesion to the substrate for the expected life of coating.
• Resistance to abrasion.
• Resistance to chemical attack according to environment.
• Cohesive strength, its ability to hold together as a film.
• Dielectric strength (high conductivity).
• Ability to resist the passage of water.
• Ability to change from a liquid as applied, into a solid to provide the above
properties, and others, for the expected life of the coating.
26. Name three natural resins used in paints.
• Copals, dammars and coumarones
27. Name five natural oils used in paints.
• Linseed Oil, Tung Oil, Soya Oil, Tall Oil and Safflower Oil.
28. What does oleoresinous mean?
• A mixture of oil and resin is known as “oleoresinous”.
29. Name an Inorganic high temperature service binder.
• Silicones, inorganic zinc silicates
30. Name two pigments likely to be used for high temperature service.
• Carbon or aluminium.
 Paint technology (2) - Wednesday
1. By what name would you call the basic unit of a polymer?
• Mer(meras GK) can be a single atom, or a molecule.
2. What is polymerisation?
• Polymerisation is the “joining together of a string or structure of repeated units”.
3. Name three types of polymers.
• Linear Polymers.
• Branched polymers.
• Cross linked polymers.
4. What would be the characteristics of a short oil paint?
• Short oil paints: less than 45% oil to resin, faster drying material, suitable for
steelwork. More brittle with shorter over coating time.
5. What would be the characteristics of a long oil paint?
• Long oil paint: more than 60% oil to resin, elastic, slower drying properties
suitable for domestic applications, decorative materials.
6. What is meant by the term “opaque pigment”?
• Opaque pigments are inert particles with excellent light scattering properties in
order to give covering power, (opacity) and colour.
7. What is a typical size of a pigment particle?
• 1/10 um
8. Briefly describe the difference between “saturated” and “unsaturated” when referring to
oils or polymers.
• Saturated oil: will not solidify by polymerisation to form a film.
• Unsaturated oil: will combine with oxygen.
9. Name two drying oils, which are unsaturated.
• Linseed oil, Tung oil, soya oil, tall oil, safflower oil.
10. What is the main difference between a dye and a pigment?
• Pigments used in paints must remain as solid particles within the vehicle (the
binder plus the solvent if a solvent is used), and not dissolve.
• Dyes are dissolves in the vehicle.
11. What are the sources of pigments?
• Pigments are from many sources, animal, vegetable, mineral and synthetically
produced.
12. If Titanium Dioxide was used in paint, what would be the colour?
• White.
13. Name three rust inhibitive pigments considered to be toxic.
• Red lead.
• Calcium plumbate.
• Coal tar.
• Zinc chromate
14. Name four commonly occurring minerals used as extender pigments.
• Clays: Kaolin, China clay.
• Chalk: Calcium carbonate.
• Talcum: Magnesium silicate.
• Slate flour: Aluminium silicate.
15. Name three laminar pigments.
 • MIO (Micaceous Iron Oxide).
• Aluminium Flake.
• Glass Flake.
• Mica.
• Graphite.
16. If pigment was added way below the CPVC, how would it affect the film?
• Below the CPVC: would give a film of good gloss properties, but poor covering
power (opacity) and with a tendency to blister (low cohesive strength).
17. The abbreviation CPVC means what?
• CPVC: Critical Pigment Volume Concentration.
18. Why are thixotropes added to a paint formulation?
• Thixotropes, an anti-settling agent add to paint to aid to shelf life and also give
higher film thickness.
19. If carbon was used as a pigment what would be the paint colour?
• Black.
20. Name four properties that a binder contributes to a paint film.
• Ease of application (flow properties or viscosity).
• Adhesion to the substrate for the expected life of coating.
• Resistance to abrasion.
• Resistance to chemical attack according to environment.
• Cohesive strength, its ability to hold together as a film.
• Dialectric strength.
• Ability to resist the passage of water.
• Ability to change from a liquid as applied, into a solid to provide the above
properties, and others, for the expected life of the coating.
21. Describe how a basic inhibitor works.
• Passivation the surface and make it less reactive to oxidation and corrosion.
22. Which of the common extenders could not be used in whites and pastels?
• Slate flour: Aluminium silicate (Black).
23. How would the film be affected if pigment was added above the CPVC?
• The CPVC is exceeded and all particles are not wetted, the film would be porous,
low in cohesive strength and adhesion.
24. Which of the rust inhibitive pigments is the most common?
• Zinc phosphate.
25. Why are extenders used in paint formulation?
• Provide some of the main properties expected of the film, such as:
• Adhesion, cohesion, film strength and durability.
• They also have a role in application and flow, leveling, gives higher thickness.
• Aid to inter coat adhesion and can reduce gloss.
26. If chromium was used as a pigment, what colour would the paint be?
• Compound of Chromium: Greens, Yellows and Oranges.
27. Why are plasticisers added to paint?
• A plasticiser basically gives paint flexibility and reduces brittleness and therefore
needs to be compatible with the binder and have a very low volatility in order to
stay in the film for a long time.
28. Two metals are commonly used as galvanic pigmentation, name them.
 • Zinc and Aluminium.
29. Why are driers added to oil based paint?
• To give more oxygen into the paint and allow even through drying of the film.
30. What is meant by the term ‘thixotropic’?
• Anti-settling agents
31. What is meant by the term ‘aggregate’ when referring to paint?
• The pigment particles are so small, they cluster together to form agglomerates or
aggregates.
• The aggregate size is known as Degree of Dispersion of Fineness of Grind.
32. If an antioxidant was added to paint, what would it do?
• Anti skinning agents are also known as anti oxidants.
• These are added to oxidising paints to retard the formation of a skin on the surface
of the paint.
33. Give the names of two plasticisers.
• Alkyd resin was used extensively in Chlorinated Rubber
• Non Drying Oils (saturated oils, which will not polymerise) are used as
plasticisers: Castor Oil, Coconut Oil and some Palm Oils.
34. What is meant by the term solution?
• A solution is the resulting liquid of A solvent and A solute.
35. Give two examples of a solution.
• Salt and water, sugar and water are solutions.
• A binder and solvent are a solution.
36. What is meant by the term dispersion?
• Dispersion can be either a solid or liquid dispersed within another liquid, where
there is no solubility.
37. There are two types of dispersion, what are they?
• A suspension.
• An emulsion
38. If paint cures by chemical reaction is it reversible or convertible?
• Convertible.
39. What type of polymerisation occurs in chemically curing paint?
• Cross linked polymer.
40. Name a paint, which dries solely by solvent evaporation.
• Chlorinated rubber, vinyls, acrylics, cellulosic.
41. What is meant by ‘non convertible’?
• Not conduct oxidation or chemical reaction.
42. What is meant by ‘non reversible’?
• A change the chemical structure of the binder and cannot be removed.
43. Name four drying mechanisms.
• Solvent Evaporation.
• Oxidation.
• Chemical Curing.
• Coalescence.
44. In a coating, which dries by solvent evaporation, what type of polymerisation occurs?
• Linear polymerisation.
45. What is another term for Fineness of Grind?
 • The aggregate size is known as Degree of Dispersion of Fineness of Grind.
46. Which generic types of paint dry by solvent evaporation followed by oxidation?
• Branching polymerisation.( alkyds, phenolics, natural oils, natural risens)
47. What type of polymer forms during oxidation?
• Branching polymerisation.
48. What term applies to paint drying at ambient temperatures?
• Air Drying.
49. What is meant by the term ‘coalescence’?
• Coalescence means to physically join together.
50. What is meant by the term ‘pot life’?
• Pot life is the period of time after mixing in which the paint must be used. After
the recommended pot life the material becomes very user unfriendly and if in
bulk, is quite often subject to spontaneous combustion.
51. Name three curing agents used in epoxies?
• Amides, Amines, Isocyanates.
52. Is paint a solution or dispersion, qualify?
• Dispersion
53. What is an exothermic reaction?
• An exothermic reaction: Giving off heat, the container will warm up.
54. What is meant by the term ‘induction period’?
• An induction period is “The length of time after mixing which the paint should
stand before use”. Induction time is also called stand time or lead time.
55. What is the difference between ‘thermoplastic’ and ‘thermosetting’?
• Thermoplastic materials soften with the application of heat, are linear polymer
and therefore reversible or non-convertible.(Polyethylene and Polypropalene).
• Thermosetting means the material will cure with the application of heat and
therefore are convertible or non-reversible materials.(epoxy and urethane).
56. With a chemically curing paint, what type of polymerisation occurs?
• Cross linked polymerisation.
57. Two other terms relate to induction period, what are they?
• Stand time or lead time
58. Does a phenolic resin have an induction period?
• No.
59. Which of the following binders are reversible?
• Chlorinated Rubber.
• Acrylics.
• Cellulose.
• Vinyl
60. Is epoxy powder paint thermoplastic or thermosetting?
• Thermosetting.
61. If a coating is permeable, what does it mean?
• Permitting liquids or gases to pass through.
62. What is meant by cross-linking, give two binders as an example?
• Three dimensional polymerisation process
• Epoxy, polyurethane.
63. What is the opposite to exothermic?
 • Endothermic.
64. What is the term used for paints needing temperatures in excess of 65 oC to cure?
• Stoving.
65. What would be a typical induction period for Chlorinated Rubber paint?
• CR is a linear polymer. There is not an induction period.
66. Name a material used as a dryer in paint formulation.
• Common salts are octoates or naphthenates of cobalt, manganese and zirconium
e.g.cobalt naphthenate.
67. Why would bentonite or wax be used in paint formulation?
• An anti-settling agent is an aid to shelf life. It is a thixotrope, a thickener, which
also allows a higher film thickness.
68. Name two materials used as plasticisers.
• Non Drying Oils: Castor Oil, Coconut Oil and Palm Oils.
• Alkyl
69. What generic type of paints would use anti-oxidants?
• Oxidation paint (oil base paints).
70. How does a single pack, epoxy ester paint dry?
• Solvent evaporate.
71. How is Dew Point defined?
• The temperature at which water vapour in the air will condense.
72. How is Relative Humidity defined?
• The amount of water vapour in the air expressed as a percentage of the amount of
water vapour which could be in the air at that same temperature.
73. When using a whirling hygrometer which bulb should be read first and why?
• The wet bulb.
• When rotation stops, the wet bulb temperature will slowly start to rise towards
that of the dry bulb.
74. At what speed should the thermometer bulbs pass through the air?
• The bulbs pass through the air at 4m/sec.
75. What should be used when wetting the wick on whirling hygrometer?
• Distilled water or clean rainwater i.e. de-ionised water
76. By what other name can we refer to a whirling hygrometer?
• The Whirling Hygrometer.
• Aspirated Hygrometer.
• Psychrometer.
77. When the air temperature rises does the air’s capacity to hold water increase or decrease?
• Increase.
o
• Every 11 C drop in temperature results in the airs capacity to hold water halving.
78. What is the stated criterion for acceptance, prior to calculations, on a whirling
hygrometer?
o
• Two consecutive spins the readings should be within 0.2 C.
79. Name two pieces of equipment used for taking steel temperature.
• Magnetic gauge known commonly as Limpet gauge.
• Digital thermometer, thermocouple, sometimes called a touch pyrometer.
80. Is it possible for a wet bulb temperature to be higher than the dry bulb?
 • The water on the wet bulb uses heat energy from the air to change into water
vapour, so the wet bulb will give a lower temperature reading than the dry bulb.
Paint testing – Thursday
1. Define viscosity.
• Viscosity is defined as being a fluid resistance to flow.
2. What is meant by high viscosity?
• High viscosity is as a high resistance to flow, it will not run easily.
3. Approximately, what is the viscosity of water?

•
• At 20 oC water viscosity is 1 centipoise.
4. Name the cgs and SI units of dynamic viscosity.
• cgs: poise
• Systems international (SI): N.s/m2
5. Name three different flow cups.
• There are various types of flow cups e.g. Zahn and Frikmar, used for hot fluids,
Ford, ISO and DIN used for ambient temperature materials.
6. When using a flow cup which unit of viscosity would be used?
• The time in seconds is recorded as the viscosity, at the measured temperature.
7. In ‘Ford Flow Cup No 4’ what does ‘4’ relate to?
• 4mm hole size.
8. Give the names of three different rotational viscometers.
• Paddle.
• Disc.
• Ball
9. Give a reason for performing a viscosity test on site.
• Thinners added to paint over and above recommended quantities could also be
determined by viscosity.
10. Which viscometer would not be used on thixotropic paint?
• Thixotropic paints cannot be measured using a flow cup.
11. Why is temperature very important when doing viscosity tests?
• An increase in temperature (or decrease) can have a severe effect on a fluid’s
viscosity and therefore comparative tests should be done at the same temperature.
 As the temperature increases the molecules within the paint gain more molecular
freedom, move more easily and thus reduce viscosity. A typical recommended
temperature is standard laboratory temperature of 20 oC ± 0.5.
12. What is the main difference between the rotothinner and Krebs Stomer?
• Rotothinner: Rotation is done by a motor, dynamic viscosity.
• Krebs Stomer: Rotation is done by falling a weight, Kinematic viscosity.
13. Describe how to use a Ford Flow Cup?
o
• Ensure that the equipment and paint temperatures are at 20 C ± 0.5.
• Level off the equipment using the bubble level and adjustable screw legs.
• Put the lid to one side when leveling is complete.
• Place a suitably sized receptacle under the orifice (greater than 100cc).
• Place a finger over the nozzle orifice and fill with the paint to be tested, up to the
brim, leaving a convex meniscus.
• Using a straight edge (a ruler) quickly scrape excess material into the overflow
rim on the top of the cup.
• Simultaneously start a stopwatch (or use sweep second hand) and remove finger
from the nozzle.
• The paint will run from the orifice in a continual stream. At the first distinctive
break in the stream i.e. when it drips, stop the watch. The time in seconds is
recorded as the viscosity, at the measured temperature.
14. Give another name for a Fineness of grind gauge.
• The Hegman grind gauge, also called a fineness of grind gauge.
15. Is a low flash point safer than a high flash point?
• A high flashpoint material is safer than a low flash point material.
16. How and for what is a Hegman grind gauge used?
• The Hegman Grind Gauge is a stainless steel block approximately 17.5cm x
6.5cm x 1.4cm and is highly polished on the sop surface. Two grooves, or on
some gauges one groove, are precision ground tapering from 100 um deep to zero
along almost the total length of the gauge. A 10um increment scale is engraved
along the length of the groove, representing the depth at that point. Paint is added
to the deepest point of the scale and drawn along to totally fill the groove using a
specially profiled scraper bar. The specification BS 3900 requires that within three
seconds of this operation the scale should be placed so that the eye looks almost
parallel along the groove, very obliquely, to observe a point along the groove
where, within a 3mm band, five to ten aggregates break through the surface of the
paint. This actually, looking at the stated angle is the point where the surface will
change from gloss, at the deep end, to matt at the shallow end.
17. Briefly describe how to do the volatile, non-volatile test to BS 3900 Part B2.
• Select a clean, thoroughly dry glass stirring rod and watch glass, and weigh on a
sensitive balance to the nearest milligram.
• Place onto the watch glass approximately 2gm of paint and weigh again.
• Place the watch glass with paint into a hot air oven, no naked flame or element,
repeatedly stir to drive away the volatile content.
• Take a final weight of the glass, rod, and dry paint and simple calculations will
give volatile/nonvolatile ratio by weight.
18. Name the equipment used to determine the flash point of a solvent.
 • Abel cup.
19. What colour should the flame be at the flash point?
• The flash point temperature is reached when a blue flame flashes over the solvent.
An orange flame signifies that the flashpoint temperature has been exceeded and
the test should be redone.
20. What formula is used to calculate the density?
• Density = Weight / Volume.
21. What formula is used to calculate specific gravity?
• SG or RD = Density of x / Density of water.
22. What is relative density?
• Relative Density or Specific Gravity is in effect comparing the density of another
material with that of water.
23. What are the other names for a density cup?
• Relative density cup
• Specific gravity cup
• Weight per litre cup
• Weight per gallon cup
• Pyknometer
24. What is a stoke, the unit for?
• Viscosity unit frequently used for kinematic viscosity is the stoke and centi stoke.
25. Which test is used to determine Abrasion Resistance?
• A material resistance to abrasion can be tested using a Taber Rotary Abraser.
26. Which equipment would be used to determine flexibility?
• A conical mandrel with a uniform taper from 3 mm diameter to 37 mm diameter is
frequently used now.
27. Which equipment would be used to measure Impact Resistance?
• Tubular impact testers.
• Unit: Joules.
28. For what reason would the Koenig Albert Apparatus be used?
• Koenig Albert Apparatus is the most frequently used for Hardness testing
29. For which two reasons could a density cup be used on site?
• Calculate the density of the solvent.
• Calculate the percentage of any added solvent.
• Calculate the proportion of 2 pack mixed material.
30. Name four accelerated test boxes.
• Humidity cabinets.
• Salt spray cabinets.
• Water soak tests.
• Temperature cycling.
• Prohesion testing.
31. Why would a tropical box be used?
• Tropical box (Humidity cabinets): Humidity is very high at 95% and elevated
temperatures up to 55oC.
32. Would a paint be higher or lower density than water?
• Higher
33. How would the density be affected if solvent was added to paint?
 • Density reduces.
34. What is the capacity of a density cup?
• 100 cc.
35. What difference is there between SG and Density?
• SG: Density of Material / Density of Water.
36. What information could be obtained from a water soak test?
• Allowing painted panels to be submerged to test for water absorption, by
weighing before and after submersion.
37. What information could be obtained from a temperature cycling test?
• Cracking test due to the materials expand and contract according to temperature.
38. What information could be obtained from a cold check test?
• The material shall withstand a minimum of 10 to 15 cycles of exposure to heat,
humidity and freezing conditions ( at specified times and intervals) with no
resultant cracking, crazing of adhesion lost.
39. Name four drying and curing tests.
• Ballotini test.
• Beck Koller Stylus test (BK trying time recorder).
• Mechanical thumb test
• Wolff-wilbrone pencil scratch
40. What stage of the BK test would be recorded as the drying time?
• Finally drying time is when no scratch is visible.
41. Name three methods of determining opacity.
• Pfund Cryptometer Trough type.
• Pfund Cryptometer Black and white fused plates.
• Hiding power charts and micrometer adjustable film applicator.
42. What affects the opacity of a paint film?
• The ability to hide (cover) the substrate
43. Why would a Pfund cryptometer be used?
• To determine the opacity result as wet film thickness.
44. Give one reason why an inspector would use a PIG gauge?
• PIG used to measure a coating including MIO where MIO is magnetic and would
cause error in the reading.
45. Why are wet paint film thicknesses needed?
• If regular checks of wet film thickness (WFT) are carried out, and found to be
adequate, it gives added confidence that upon checking the following day, the dry
film thickness (DFT) should meet specification requirements.
46. Name two methods of measuring WFTs.
• Eccentric wheel.
• Comb gauges.
47. What is the reason for taking WFTs immediately after application?
• Wet film readings should be taken immediately after application, in order to
obtain true readings (solvent starts to evaporate away as it exits the spray tip).
48. Where could an inspector find information to determine if a 2 pack paint was mixed in
the correct proportions, using a density cup?
• Materials data sheet of manufacture.
49. Can a banana gauge be used on non-ferromagnetic substrate?
 • No.
50. Could an eddy-current gauge be used on ferromagnetic substrates?
• No.
51. Can a horseshoe gauge be used on non-ferromagnetic substrates?
• No.
52. As part of which test would a bar applicator be used?
• Opacity.
53. Which instruments would be used to measure reflectivity?
• Gloss meter or reflector meter
54. How does a gloss meter work?
• A light source directs a beam of light onto the surface under test, and a photo
electric cell, set at the same angle, collects the reflected light and quantifies it and
converts it digitally into a percentage of the incident light.
55. Which factors in paint govern the degree of gloss?
• Main contributors are PVC Degree of Dispersion Particle size, Resin type (for
polymer formation and RI, refractive index) and Solvent type.
56. In a primer/mid coat what would be the expected degree of grind?
• 40 um
• Aggregates are going to be present in all pigmented paints, but only the largest
aggregates are of any concern.
57. In a gloss paint what would be a typical degree of grind?
• With gloss paint a perfectly smooth surface is required, so any aggregates within
the paint should be substantially below the dimension of the film thickness.
• 10-20 um
58. What percent reading would be expected when measuring gloss on a glass panel?
• 80%- 100%
59. Using a gloss meter a reading of 25% would signify what?
• Matt.
60. If an aggregate size of 35 um was present in a paint of 30 um DFT what would be a likely
result when using a gloss meter?
• Matt.
61. Name three common tests for determining adhesion of a paint film?
• ‘V’ cut test.
• Cross cut (cross hatch test).
• Dolly test.
• Hydraulic adhesion test equipment.
62. Which adhesion tests are quantitative?
• Dolly test.
• Hydraulic adhesion test equipment.
63. Inter coat adhesion and primer to substrate adhesion is two adhesion faults name the
third?
• Cohesive failure in one coating layer.
64. What chemical solution is used to conduct a Cathodic Disbondment test?
• 3% solution of common salt, sodium chloride.
65. Which gas evolved at the cathode causes disbondment?
• Hydrogen.
66. What criterion is used when assessing a Cathodic Disbondment test panel?
• Where disbondment has occurred the coating will chip of as the cuts are being
made. The distance from the edge of the hole to the extent of the disbondment is
measured and should not exceed the stated requirements.
67. Name the two methods of applying Cathodic Protection.
• Sacrificial Anodes Systems.
• Impressed Current Systems.
68. What is used to determine the potential of a pipeline?
• To ensure that the required potential is being maintained, checks need to be
carried out at regular intervals. One method of monitoring is known as half-cell
reference electrode. The most commonly used half-cell electrode is the
copper/copper sulphate half-cell electrode.
69. Would it be advisable to refill a pipe trench with carbonaceous backfill?
70. Does a Cathodic Protection System eliminate corrosion?
• A CP system does not eliminate corrosion, it controls where corrosion occurs.
71. Can the external surface of a tank be protected?
• The external surface of a tank cannot have cathodic protection.
72. Could a crude oil tank be fully protected internally?
• The tank is holding an electrolytic medium, but only up to the level of medium,
not above.
73. What voltage would be used on a 250 um thick paint using a sponge type pinhole
detector?
• DFTs of less than or equal to 300 um the 9v setting is normal.
74. What voltage would be used on a 450 um thick coating with a sponge type pinhole
detector?
• DFTs of 300 – 500 um 90v or 67½v intermediate sensitivity would be preferred.
75. When using a wet sponge, what other liquid is added to the water?
• Sponge electrode is wetted in water with a tiny amount of detergent/washing up
liquid added, and squeezed out to remove excess water.
76. What function does the above additive perform?
• Remove excess water.
77. Would it be advisable to do wet sponge detection on galvanising?
• No.
78. Why work upwards on a vertical surface with a wet sponge?
• avoid skip
79. Does a sponge detector work on AC or DC current?
• DC
80. Other than the wet sponge, which other equipment could be used to determine the
presence of pinholes/holidays?
• For coatings of thicknesses above 500 um it would be necessary to use a high
voltage holiday detector.
 Revision questions general – Friday
1. Name two categories of paint mill.
• Premixing
• Dispersion or grinding or milling.
• Let down process
2. What is the main reason for processing paint in a mill?
• Part of this manufacturing process is grinding aggregates and agglomerates down
to a suitable size for the paint type being processed.
3. Briefly describe how a ball mill works.
• A ball mill in a horizontal steel drum, filled with various types of balls. Mill base
is added to the drum until the balls are covered, about 50% capacity of the drum
the drum started rotating at such a speed so that the balls cascade down. Shear
forces are applied to the mill base as the balls cascade both between the balls and
balls and vessel walls.
4. Briefly describe how an attritor mill works.
• The attritor mill is a vertical version of the ball mill, but more efficient and also
static. The balls are driven by paddles. The mill base is continually circulated by
pump from bottom to top and gives adequate dispersion in less time.
5. When would steel balls not be used in a ball mill?
• Steel balls for darker colours and porcelain or selected flint for lighter colours.
6. A bead mill is sometimes called by which other names?
• Bead mill is also call as pearl mill or sand mill.
7. How does a colloid mill work?
• High speed stone mill.
• Gravity fed low viscosity slurry enters the centre of the static top stone and is
passed between the two stones by centrifugal force, where it is subjected to
extreme turbulence and shear forces to affect the dispersion.
8. Name eight items of information listed on a materials data sheet.
• Description.
• Recommended use.
• Service temperature.
• Certificates/ approvals.
• Availability.
• Physical constant.
• Application detail.
• Safety.
9. What do you understand from the term Halogenated Hydrocarbon?
• Halogenated hydrocarbons are derivatives of hydrocarbons (that is, organic
compounds that only contain carbon and hydrogen atoms) which include some
halogen atoms within their chemical structure. The most commonly encountered
halogens in halogenated hydrocarbons are fluorine and chlorine, but sometimes
bromine or iodine occur, or combinations of any of these.
10. How can we determine the viscosity of high viscosity paint?
• Rotothiner Viscometers.
11. Briefly describe the principles of CP.
 • When damage to the coating occurs, the underlying steel can then be in contact
with electrolyte and corrosion can occur. But if these areas can become cathodic
i.e. receive current, corrosion can be avoided.
12. What function does a primer have in a paint system?
• A primer will not work as designed anywhere else other than in contact with the
substrate. A primer, normally low volume solid materials, wets out the substrate
and provides excellent adhesion and also provides a key for any subsequent layer.
The binders usually have a relatively low resistance to vapour transmission, and
allow water into the film to carry tiny amounts of the rust inhibitive pigmentation
onto the substrate to form a passivation layer.
13. In a mordant primer what is the main working constituent?
• 4% phosphoric acid
14. What advantages do electrostatic application methods provide?
• The voltage can control the thickness, especially when using powder coatings.
• Wastage is significantly reduced and it produces a more uniform coating.
15. Which is the most expensive type of brush filling?
• Natural bristles
16. What is cohesive failure in paint, give the main cause?
• Over thickness of a layer can entrap solvent during the drying process and thus
stop polymerization and the correct formation of the film, reducing cohesive
strength.
• The main reason for cohesive failure is solvent entrapment but incorrect ratio mix
of a two pack can have exactly the same effect.
17. Why does a zinc rich paint need a strong binder?
• zinc rich follow by Epoxy binder due to Inorganic zinc rich primer/coating is an
age old proven protective primer as well as can work as single finish coat
• An organic zinc rich epoxy would provide galvanic protection through bimetallic
principles but would last longer with a barrier system to protect the zinc.
18. Why are etch primers not spray applied?
• Because of the acid content, high V.O.C
19. What do you understand by the term over spray?
• Paint which has been accidentally sprayed, to areas where coating is not required.
20. Name four methods of determining DFTs
• 1 Test panels
• 2 Calculations
• 3 Destructive test gauges
• 4 Nondestructive test gauges
21. What is a psychrometer used for?
• Commonly called the whirling hygrometer, this piece of equipment is widely used
by coating inspectors to determine wet and dry bulb temperature readings, from
which, using calculators or hygrometric tables, relative humidities and dew points
can be calculated.
22. What colour should a galvanised surface be after application of ‘T’ wash?
• Black
23. How soon can a ‘T’ washed substrate be coated?
• Some specifications allow painting as soon as dry, but other require water wash.
24. Other than pigment, base and curing agent name two other constituents of FBE powder
paint.
• Essential components of a powder coating are:
• Resin (base).
• Hardener or curing agent.
• Fillers and extenders.
• Colour pigments.
25. Give the main differences between airless and conventional spray.

Conventional Airless

Slow application due to fluid Excellent application rates.

delivery.

Low air pressure 40 – 75 PSI Can need 100 PSI to operate the pump.

Delivery pressure greater than 20 Delivery pressures greater than 6000 PSI dependant on
PSI pump ratio.

Need special paint containers. Uses manufacturer’s containers.

Guns can be unwieldy, two lines to Single line supplies pressurised paint.
supply the gun

Basic equipment needs very little Needs more maintenance due to high pressure and moving
maintenance. parts.

Easier to clean after use. Equipment needs flushing well to remove all traces of
paint. Expensive replacement.

26. Brush application has advantages over spray application, what are they?
• Brushing is relatively slow, labour intensive, produces coating of uneven
thicknesses, but is more environmentally friendly, results in less waste material
and virtually no spotting or over spray damage to adjacent areas.
27. What is the main consideration when selecting a metallic pigment for a sacrificial paint?
• In order to satisfy this requirement the metal pigment must be below the position
of steel on the galvanic list.
28. What is meant by shererdizing?
• Zinc powder, just below the melting point, is used instead. After cleaning the
components are tumbled in the powdered zinc, impact fuses the zinc onto the
components and in effect, “cold welds” the powder onto the metal.
29. Name three types of paint feed for a conventional spray.
• Suction feed
• Gravity feed
• Remote pressure pot
30. What is the calorising process?
o
• Calorising is coating with aluminium. Aluminium has a melting point of 625 c as
apposed to 425 oC of zinc so it is not really practical to tumble. One way of
calorising a component is to dip it into molten aluminium. The resulting
exothermic reaction is so severe that is alloys the aluminium with the steel.
Calorising can also be done by immersing a component in a mix of fine sand and
aluminium powder and heating.
31. Why would a sealer be applied to Aluminium metal spray?
• The resulting of TSA film is in an open cell structure due to individual particles
forming a fish scale like structure, the interstices between the particles are not all
filled.
• If the coating is to be subjected to high temperature services it will need sealing
with a silicone sealer, aluminium or carbon pigmented. If however the metal spray
is applied to give an extended major maintenance free life to an anti-corrosion
system, then either an epoxy sealer or etch primer would be applied prior to the
specified system.
32. What is the BS 2015 term for skipped or missed areas?
• Holiday.
33. A colour has three properties, what are they?
• Hue
• Brightness (Value)
• Saturation (Chroma, intensity, weight)
34. Why would paint be applied by ‘hot spray’?
• Reducing of viscosity cause by heating.
35. On an airless spray tip how are blockages cleared?
• Most tips used on airless spray equipment have a facility for reversing the flow of
paint through the tip. Blockages can then be cleared by turning the tip through
180o, triggering to ground or a container to clear the blockage, then reverse the tip
again to its original position.
36. How is atomisation achieved using conventional sprays?
• Approximately 25 mm in front of the aperture, two air channels, from lugs on the
cap, diametrically opposed, blow air to converge at the paint stream. At this
convergeance the paint is atomised into very minute droplets, and conducted onto
the workpiece.
37. How is atomisation achieved using airless sprays?
• These systems are called airless because air is not used for atomisation.
Atomisation occurs by forcing the paint at extremely high pressure, usually 2000
to 2500 psi through a very small aperture, 12 to 23 thou diameter, into a volume
of air offering a resistance to the paint flow. As the air and paint meet, the paint
atomises.
38. What is dip coating?
• Dip coating: A component is dipped into paint and hung to dry.
39. What do you understand from the term ropiness?
• Pronounced brush marks that have not flowed out because of the poor levelling
properties of the coating material.
40. What is efflorescence and how does it occur?
 • A whitish crystalline formation on bricks, mortar, plaster etc. Usually forms under
paint films on the above substrates, and is not a paint defect. Caused by soluble
salts crystallising on the surface.
41. Name two ways of melting aluminium to enable it to be sprayed.
• Electric arc system:
• Wire and pistol system:
42. What is flocculation?
• The development of loosely cohesive pigment agglomerates in a coating material
43. What could be the cause of bittiness in a paint film?
• The presence of particles of gel, flocculated material or foreign matter in a coating
material, or projecting from the surface of a film.
44. What is a tie coat?
• The coat of paint, which joins together two incompatible paint systems. (Example:
Chlorinated Rubber and Epoxy, tie coated with water borne acrylic)
45. How many depressions of the bellows are needed for the Dräger test?
• The bellows are then depressed and released according to the number expressed as
n =, as written circumferentially around the centre of the tube. Each depression
and release slowly draws 100 cc of air through the open end of the tube, through
the crystals and into the bellows.
46. What are the hazard signs for Toxic, Very Toxic, Harmful and corrosive?
• Toxic or Very Toxic: Black symbol of skull and crossbones on an orange square
with the words Toxic or Very Toxic printed below
• Harmful: Black diagonal cross on an orange square with the words Harmful or
Irritant printed below
• Corrosive: Black symbol showing a tilted test-tube dripping onto a hand with a
chunk out, adjacent to a test tube dripping onto a stone flag. Orange background
with the word corrosive printed below.
47. What is saponification?
• The formation of a soap by the reaction of a fatty acid ester and an alkali.
48. What units are used for measuring toxicity?
• ppm
49. Which material would have to be used on a perpetually damp surface?
• Moisture cure.
50. What is padding?
• Padding: Mainly DIY Pads of mohair or foam are used to apply paint. Large pads
like plaster hawks for large areas and small ones (about 25 mm square) for cutting
in around door furniture and putty lines on windows.
51. What air inlet pressure is needed to give 2500 psi delivery with 35:1 pump?
• 71.4 psi
52. What causes lifting of a paint film?
• Softening, swelling or separation from the substrate of a dry coat as a result of the
application of a subsequent coat.
• Solvent strength, overcoating time.
53. What is cissing and how is it caused?
• The formation of small areas of the wet film of a coating material where the
coating material has receded leaving holidays in the film.
 • Oil, grease contaminant on the surface.
54. What is meant by the abbreviations: OES, OEL, MEL, UEL, LEL and RAQ?
• OES: Occupations Exposure Standard
• OEL: Occupational Exposure Limit
• MEL: Maximum Exposure Limit
• UEL: UPPER EXPLOSIVE LIMIT
• LEL: LOWER EXPLOSIVE LIMIT
• RAQ: REQUIRED AIR QUANTITY
55. Why would a paint inspector use potassium hexacyonoferrate?
• This is a qualitative test, it will not even differentiate between the salts. It will
detect the presence of either Sulphates or Chlorides.
56. What would be an average thickness for galvanising?
• Average thickness of approximately 100 um.
57. How can you tell the difference between blooming and chalking?
• Bloom: A deposit resembling the bloom on a grape that sometimes forms on the
floss film of a coating causing loss of gloss and dulling of colour.
• Chalking: The formation of a friable, powdery layer on the surface of the film of a
coating material caused by disintegration of the binding medium due to disruptive
factors during weathering.
58. What could be the reasons for inter coat adhesive failure?
• Surface contamination problem mainly. Lacks of adequate surface preparation,
grease, oil, dirt, dust are the usual causes.
• Lack of observance of recommended over-coating limits and
expansion/contraction differences between materials.
59. How would you determine quality of added thinners in thixotropic paint?
• Measure the viscosity of paint.
60. Why are manufacturers developing solvent free, water borne and powders?
• Reduced amounts of solvents, and therefore to comply with modern EPA
requirements.
61. What would be the cause of grinning on a paint film?
• The showing through of the substrate due to the inadequate hiding power of the
coating material (Poor opacity, low CPVC).
62. How can ‘bleeding’ be avoided?
• The process of diffusion of a soluble coloured substance from, into, or through a
coating material from beneath, thus providing an undesirable staining or
discoloration.
• Over-coating time and solvent strength to be observed.
• Remove Bitumen / coal tar from paint
63. Explain the duties of a painting inspector.

64. Name five documents, which a painting inspector might need on a contract.
• a) Job Specification.
• b) Data Sheets for the paints/coatings.
• c) Procedures.
 • d) Quality Plans.
• e) Plant Drawings.
• f) Site Plans.
• g) BS’s e.g. 7079 Pt. A.
• h) Waste Management, Duty of Care Document.
• i) Relevant Local Regulations.
65. What information should be given on a daily report sheet?
• 1) Details about the contract and contractor, including plant on site and number of
personnel.
• 2) Ambient conditions applicable during the work period, to be monitored as near
as possible to the task location.
• 3) For surface preparation activities the information required will include, method
used, original substrate condition, abrasive type, degree of cleanliness achieved,
profile achieved, identity of plant and times of starting and completion.
• 4) For materials, the information required will include manufacturer, product
reference number, expiry date, batch number, colour, reference number of
thinners, WFT and resulting DFT, time of application and identity of plant. In the
case of labour only contracts it will be required to record quantity used.
• 5) The comment part is a space left for the inspector to report on any
irregularities, nonconformance or deviation from specification.
66. Curtains, Sags, Runs and Tears are a result of what?
• Cause by the paint continuing to flow after the surrounding material has set.
67. Some binders can be modified to use water as a solvent, name four.
• a) Alkyds
• b) Epoxies
• c) Polyesters
• d) Polyurethane
• e) Vinyl’s
• f) Acrylics
• g) Silicones
68. What is meant by the term stripe coat?
• Stripe coating is the application of an extra coat of paint to edges, welds,
fasteners, and other irregular areas. The coating provides the areas with sufficient
film build for added protection against corrosion, and is usually done before
applying the full coat to the entire surface.
69. How many cm3 are there in 4.5 litres?
• 4500 cm3
70. A paint data sheet provides a wealth of information, name eight items.
• Description
• Recommended use
• Service temperature
• Certifications
• Physical constant
• Availability
• Application details
• Safety
1. What is the specified course of action for grit inclusions?
• Re-prepare the affected areas and re-apply the complete painting system
2. The term long term protection refers to what?
• long term protection: typically ten-year life
3. What is the difference between new and weathered galvanising?
• New galvanising: a galvanized steel surface on which a cohesive oxide layer has
not yet formed.
• Weathered galvanising: A galvanized steel surface on which a cohesive oxide
layer has formed by natural weathering. The surface is normally dull and lacking
in metallic sheen, (only stiff bristled brush for preparation due to weathered
surface provides its own key).
4. What criterion determines which paint system should be used?
• The most appropriate cost effective method(s) of surface preparation.
• The most appropriate cost effective paint system(s) to give the required service
life?
5. What is the total DFT of the compliant epoxy system?
• 265 um.
6. What is the total DFT of the water borne system?
• 225um.
7. When can ladders and other means of access be removed?
• Until approval has been given by the Engineer.
8. Two materials are specified for used on damp surfaces, what are they?
• Moisture curing polyurethanes.
• High solids multi-component epoxy paints.
9. After removal of a non-drying paint, which type of primer is recommended?
• White spirit-based primer (xylene).
10. Some non-ferrous substrates are painted for aesthetics only, name four.
• Stainless steel.
• Pre-painted cladding (Plastics cladding or equivalent).
• Glass reinforced plastics (GRP).
• Fusion bonded epoxy (FBE).
• Multi component liquids (MCL).
• Concrete.
11. Which three non-ferrous substrates are painted for anti-corrosion purposes?
• New galvanized surfaces.
• Weathered galvanized surfaces.
• Previously painted galvanized surfaces.
• Aluminum surfaces.
12. According to PA 10 in which situations would T wash be used?
• a non-proprietary material used as a primer or pretreatment for zinc metal surfaces
13. How many coats of primer are specified on surfaces at 100-149°C?
• Within the manufacturers' recommended overcoating times, further coats of
primer should be applied to achieve a total minimum DFT of 100 um for urethane
or 250 um for the epoxy coating.
14. Give preferential order of coating systems for surfaces 150-340°C.
 • Thermally spray aluminium (TSA) must be applied to prepared surfaces in
accordance with BS E1.1 22063 and / or BS 2569: Part 2. (Preferential)
• Paint systems based on inorganic zinc silicate or polysiloxane primers can be
used. (Substitution).
15. Is it mandatory for a contractor to produce a test area?
• The Contractor may be required to prepare and paint test areas.
16. List four items needing masking off prior to blasting and painting.
• Typical items to be masked are fire protection equipment, weld end preparations,
atmosphere sensing heads, spray heads, vents on control equipment, flame traps,
lubrication points and nameplates.
17. Which aluminium substrate would not be sweep blasted?
• Thin gauge aluminium should not be blast cleaned and should be treated with an
etch primer.
18. Which three paint systems are specified for use on aluminum?
• Waterborne acrylic
• Epoxy high build
• Alkyd or modified alkyd.
19. What differences are there in new and maintenance painting specifications for substrates
below 100°C?
• Overlapping existing paint at least 100 mm.
20. Toxic coatings need special considerations for removal from substrates, name two methods
which comply.
• Wet blasting
• Enclosed recovery blast system.
21. In which situations is a permit to work required?
22. Which primers are specified for non-weathered galvanizing?
• T-wash
23. Which primers are specified for weathered galvanizing?
• Primer is not required, initial coat is MIO.
24. According to PA 10 is flame cleaning allowed?
• Not allowed.
25. According to PA 10 is thinning of paint allowed?
• Depend on manufacture recommendation.
26. What temperature range is covered by 'hot duty service'?
• 100 to 340 and over
27. Does PA 10 cover internal coatings on pipes?
• No it doesn't
28. What is the specified overlap on repair areas?
• 100 mm
29. What would be the specified surface preparation and coating system for aluminum
cladding?
• Sweep abrasive blast
• 120 um and include a MIO build coat.(Waterborne acrylic Epoxy high build
Alkyd or modified alkyd)
30. What would be the procedure for removal of algae and mould?
 • All algae and mould growth should be treated with a biocidal agent and left for a
minimum of 24 h. It would then be removed by scrubbing with stiff bristle
brushes and clean water or by use of high pressure water washing.
31. What would be the procedure for degreasing prior to surface preparation?
• All contaminants including oil or grease and water soluble salts on the working
surfaces must be removed by washing with an appropriate solvent.
32. What would be the procedure for degreasing after to surface preparation?
• Washing with an appropriate solvent and reblasting.
33. When blasts cleaning on an AGI what precautions are taken?
• Abrasive blast cleaning should comply with current safety regulations
34. Is it permissible to prepare paint by stirring?
• For 5-litre containers or less, hand mixing can be considered
35. What would be the surface preparation method for new galvanising?
• Sweep abrasive blast.
36. When would it be necessary to apply a sealer to inorganic zinc silicate?
• FOR DUTIES AT TEMPERATURES ABOVE 340 C degree.
37. How could areas of a paint breakdown be prepared for repainting?
• Where the substrate is exposed, the surface preparation must be by blast cleaning
or wire brushing.
38. What information should be on a paint can label for BG?
• Description
• Recommended use.
• Service temperature.
• Physical constants ( color, finish, % VS, theoretical spreading rate, flash point,
Specific gravity, surface dry , Dry to touch, V.O.C)
39. When measuring DFTs over galvanizing what allowances are made?
• Need to deduct the galvanized thickness (normally 100um).
40. What is the first coat applied to galvanized substrates and why?
• MIO, primer is not required.
41. Properties and Performances of paint are covered in which BG specification?
• PA9: Technical specification for paint properties and performances requirements
42. What are the considerations when selecting a paint system?
• The most appropriate cost effective method(s) of surface preparation.
• The most appropriate cost effective paint system(s) to give the required service
life.
43. According to PA 10 which two coats are applied at works?
• Primer and mid coat.
44. Give the criterion for when and when not, painting can take place.
• Paint should normally be applied when the relative humidity in the work zone is
less than 90% and when the air and metal temperatures are at least 3O C degree
above the dew point.
45. What should be the substrate reaction when T wash is applied to a newly galvanized
substrate?
• T wash (96% VOCs in the form of ketones and 4% phosphoric acid)
• The reaction turns the surface black (Zinc + phosphoric acid → Zinc phosphate
salts).
46. Which two materials are specified for use on damp surfaces?
• Moisture curing polyurethanes.
• High solids multi-component epoxy paints.
47. What is the maximum time lapse from surface preparation to coating?
• 4 hours of metal preparation and before any rust blooming or contamination of the
surface occurs.
48. Which is the most common pigment used in high temperature paints?
• Heat resistant paints are normally pigmented with aluminum flake.
49. What would be the result of over thick application of zinc silicate?
• With the use of inorganic zinc silicate, mud cracking of the coating will result if
the manufacturer, recommended film thickness is exceeded.
50. According to PA 10 is roller application permissible?
• No.
51.
 1. In which of the following conditions would corrosion more readily occur?
a) Cold dry conditions
b) Warm dry conditions
c) Cold wet conditions
d) Warm wet conditions

2. Which of the following is an electrolyte?

a) Salts in solution
b) A solution containing acid
c) A solution containing alkali
d) All of the above are efficient electrolytes

3. At which of the following sites would corrosion occur?

a) The cathodic area
b) The anodic area
c) Where the electrons return to the cathode
d) In the electrolyte on dissociation into ions

4. Which of the following would not accelerate the corrosion reaction?

a) Anaerobic conditions
b) Increased temperatures
c) Presence of some bacterias
d) Presence of acids or alkalies

5. Which of the following metals, in contact with steel, would cause the steel to corrode?
a) Magnesium
b) Copper
c) Aluminum
d) Zinc

6. Which of the following is not present in mill-scale?

a) Perlite
b) Wustite
c) Magnetite
d) Haematite

7. Which of the following pigments do not contribute to the opacity of a film?

a) Metallic pigments
b) Opacifying pigments
c) Extender pigments
d) Laminar pigments

8. Regarding solvents in a paint, which of the following is not true?

a) Solvents are added to reduce viscosity
b) Solvents help to control the drying process
c) Solvents are an aid to application
d) Solvents are added to enable the film to be applied thicker.
 9. Which of the following additives is also known as a thixotrope?
a) An anti-skinning agent
b) An oxidant
c) An anti-settling agent
d) A plasticizer

10. Which of the following polymer types is highly unlikely to be utilised in paints offshore?
a) Linear polymer
b) Branched polymer
c) Cross-linked polymer
d) A co-polymer

11. Which of the following paint types would be impractical for offshore use?
a) Powder paint
b) 2 pack paint
c) Epoxy intumescent
d) Solvent free MCL’s

12. Which of the following is false when discussing extenders?

a) Extenders aid intercoat adhesion
b) Extenders contribute to the opacifying properties of a paint
c) Extenders add bulk cheaply to a paint formulation
d) Extenders allow films to be applied thicker

13. Which of the following degrees of cleanliness cannot be achieved on a rust grade A?
a) Sa 3
b) Sa 2
c) A Fl
d) Sa 1

14. Which of the following is an equivalent standard to Sa 2.5?

a) Flame cleaning
b) St 3
c) St 2
d) There is no equivalent grading by any other method

15. Is it possible to tell the difference between an A Sa 3 and a B Sa 3?

a) Yes, because there is more mill-scale on an A
b) Yes, because a B has rust on it
c) No, not at all
d) Yes because one will have pitting

16. Which of the following rust grades, by definition, May or may not have mill-scale?
a) Rust grade C
b) Rust grade D
c) Rust grade A
d) Rust grade B
 17. Onto which of the following substrates would an epoxy intumescent be applied?
a) Bare steel blasted to Sa 3
b) A normal 4 coat system applied offshore
c) A specially approved anti-corrosive primer
d) Any substrate requiring coating with PFP

18. Which of the following sections would require the thicker coating of PFP?
a) A plate girder with a web thickness of 30mm
b) A 100mm dia. Tube with a wall thickness of 4mm.
c) A column with 55mm thick web and flanges
d) A secondary member of steelwork supporting a cable tray

19. Which of the following is true with regard to cementitious PFP’s

a) Cementitious PFP’s need sealing
b) Cementitious PFP’s need removing after exposure to a fire
c) Cementitious PFP’s need re-inforcing with wire mesh
d) All of the above are true

20. Which factors are considered when deciding the thickness of PFP’s
a) The section factor principle
b) The core temperature of the structural steelwork
c) The Hp/a of the member
d) All of the above are to be considered.

21. Which of the following are acknowledged methods of applying metallisation?

a) Wire and pistol
b) Flame sprayed powder
c) Electric arc
d) All of the above are acknowledged methods

22. Which of the following is a fault commonly found with zinc silicates?
a) Discolouration due to drying
b) Mud cracking
c) Delamination on thin layers
d) Very slow drying times

23. Which of the following anti-foulant types is based on modern silicon technology?
a) Self polishing
b) Insoluble matrix
c) Foulant release
d) Soluble matrix

24. Which of the following dimensions would be a typical cladding overlap on insulation?
a) 50mm
b) 75mm
c) 25mm
d) None of the above.
 25. Which of the following insulation materials could be used for hot insulation at 950Oc
a) Polyisocyanurate
b) Mineral wool
c) Polyurethane foam
d) Calcium silicate

26. Which insulation material can be used for hot or cold systems between +450 and –270 Oc
a) Perlite
b) Cellular glass
c) Calcium silicate
d) Mineral wool

MARKING SCHEME
1D 6A 11 A 16 A 21 D
2D 7C 12 B 17 C 22 B
3B 8D 13 D 18 B 23 C
4A 9C 14 D 19 D 24 A
5B 10 B 15 C 20 D 25 D 26 B

1. 1000 um =
a. 1cm
b. 1mm
c. 10mm
d. 0.1mm
2. Which one is non metallic abrasive
a) Iron Silica
b) Steel Shot,
c) Steel Grit,
d) Grit-Shot Mix
3. VS% relate to
a) Volatile
b) Non volatile
c) Total Paint volume
d) Activator
4. Thixotrops are of _____________ type
a) Liquid
b) Solid
c) Gel
d) Gas
5. Addition of thixotropes helps to avoid _________
a) Blistering
b) Sagging
c) Cracking
d) Flaking
6. Which coating fault occurs when over thinning a paint
a) Pinholes
b) Run
c) Spot rusting
d) Hair cracking
7. Which fault relate to Peeling
a) Orange peel
b) Flaking
c) Wrinkling
d) Cracking
8. Chemical cleaning is another name for
a) Silver nitrate test
b) Potassium ferry cyanide test
c) Pickling
d) Copper sulphate test
9. Which fault can be avoided when bitumen removed from paint system
a) Bittines
b) Blistering
c) Cracking
d) Bleeding
10. What is the actual DFT ,if banana gauge shows 335um when checked on galvanizing
a) 335um
b) 265um
c) 235um
d) 435um
11. Ford flow cup nozzle is made of
a) Aluminum alloy
b) Stainless steel
c) Nickel
d) Tungsten carbide
12. _______________ can be used to check pressure
a. Hygrometer
b. Surface profile needle gauge
c. Hypodermic needle gauge
d. Touch pyrometer
13. Dolly test used to check _____________
a) Hardness
b) Flexibility
c) DFT
d) Adhesion
14. What will be the unit of viscosity of a thixotropes paint
a) Second
b) Centipoises
c) Ns/m2
d) Stoke
15. How to use comb gauge on a pipe
a) Perpendicularly
b) Circumferentially
c) Longitudinally
d) Not possible
16. If the required DFT is 50um ,then the particle size in the paint should be _____
a) 50um
b) Above 50um
c) Below 50um
d) All the above
17. which laminar pigment is best for UV protection
a) Aluminum Flake
b) MIO
c) Glass Flake
d) Graphite
18. Fe++ is ______________
a) An atom
b) Molecule
c) Ion
d) Iron Substrate
19. Which is cathode in corrosion
a) Water
b) Oxygen
c) Substrate
d) Electrons released
20. Which one is more noble
a) Silver
b) Steel
c) Magnesium
d) Zinc
21. Hygroscopic slats cause
a) Rash rusting
b) Pinholes
c) Rogue peak
d) Blisters
22. Which pressure suitable for dry blasting
a) 20psi
b) 100psi
c) 220psi
d) 450psi
23. Degree of roughness related to
a) Abrasive blasting
b) Hand and power tool
c) Anchor pattern
d) Abrasive hardness
24. Un fused area in steel is _____________
a) Sliver
b) Rogue Peak
c) Hackle
d) Pinhole
 25. Transparent layer in replica tape is ____________
a) Milar
b) Mylex
c) Mylar
d) Testex
26. ______________ NOT SUITABLE FOR PROFILE MEASURMENT
a) Dial micrometer
b) Surface profile needle gauge
c) Surface comparator
d) Corn plaster method
27. Burnishing occurs when
a) High pressure Water blasting
b) Flame cleaning
c) Dry Abrasive blasting
d) Needle Gunning
28. Which one is not quantitative
a) Silver nitrate test
b) Dolly test
c) Bristle sample patch test
d) Banana gauge test
29. Which is not a property of binder.
a) Cohesive strength
b) Leafing effect
c) Resist water
d) Hold pigments in suspension
30. Which one is saturated
a) Linceed oil
b) Tung oil
c) Palm oil
d) China wood oil
31. Which one is not a pigment
a) Coal tar
b) Red lead
c) MIO
d) Silicone
32. Which one cannot be used for yellow colour paint
a) Chromium
b) Cobalt
c) Calcium
d) Iron
33. Which one is not toxic
a) Zinc chromate
b) Zinc phosphate
c) Calcium plumbate
d) Coal tar
34. Which property of a solvent is not best
a) Low evaporation rate
b) Low toxicity
c) Low flashpoint
d) High evaporation rate
35. Paint is a _________________
a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Dispersion
36. Which one is convertible
a) CR
b) Vinyl
c) Natural Resin
d) Emulsion
37. Which one is not a direct charge mill
a) Ball mill
b) Attritor Mill
c) Bead mill
d) High Speed Disperser
38. Reccova valve is ____________
a) Control abrasive transfer
b) Stores abrasives
c) Removes water
d) Control air from compressor
39. Specular Hematite is other name
a) Rust
b) Millscale
c) MIO
d) Steel flex
40. Toxicity measured in
a) Mph
b) Psi
c) Ppm
d) Cfm
41. Mixing of two pack can be calculated by
a) Pykno meter
b) Closed Abel Cup
c) Pyro meter
d) Crypto meter
42. Approx viscosity of paint is
a) 1 centi poise
b) 1 stoke
c) 2.4 Ns/m2
d) 1.2 gm/cc
43. Air temperature can be calculated by
a) Hygro meter
b) Thermo stat
c) Limpet gauge
d) Strobo scope
44. Chalking occurs due to
a. Coating age
b. Weathering
c. Shelf life problem
d. Hygro scopic salts
45. Vaccume blasting is
a. Water blasting
b. Abrasive blasting
c. Closed blasting
d. Air blasting with water
46. Inclusion is defect related to
a. Rogue peak
b. Lamination
c. Hackle
d. High thickness profile
47. Which fault happens when over apply zinc silicate
a. Sagging
b. Run
c. Mud cracking
d. Holidays
48. _______________ not a destructive test
a. PIG
b. Saberg Thickness Drill
c. Koenig Albert
d. Horse Shoe
49. How much air suppled ,if nozzle size is ½ inch
a. 450 cfm
b. 413 cfm
c. 100 cfm
d. 220 cfm
50. __________ can be applied when Relative humidity = 100%
a. Epoxy
b. CR
c. Poly urethane
d. Zinc Rich Epoxy
1. What is mean by compliant coating?
a. Coating which applied on specified atmosphere condition
b. Coating which suitable with the requirements of the EPA
c. Coating which suitable for the steel substrate
d. Coating with non compliance report
2. Which situation is expressed as damp surface
a. Surface with detectable water
b. Surface temperature below dew point
c. Surface with a noticeable film of water
d. Surface temperature above dew point
3. Which information is not available in MDS
a. Flash point
b. Dew point
c. VS%
d. Recommended Thinner
4. Who is having duty of Safety on a Working site
a. HSE (Health & safety executive)
b. Contractor
c. Engineer
d. Employees
5. ___________ used to detect the voltage in Impressed current system
a. National Grid
b. Transformer Rectifier
c. Copper/Copper Sulphate half cell electrode
d. Sodium Chloride
6. A Coating continues protection of 7 years, Which falls in _____________
a. Long term protection
b. Medium term protection
c. Short term protection
d. Fixed term protection
7. In dragger tube number specified is n=5,what is RAQ
a. 500 ppm
b. 5 rpm
c. 500 cfm
d. 500 cc
8. A Galvanized substrate with oxide layer has formed called
a. New Galvanising
b. Weathered Galvanising
c. Unsuitable galvanizing
d. Previously painted Galvanising
9. A primer used for pretreatment for zinc metal surfaces.
a. Zinc rich epoxy
b. T.Wash
c. FBE
d. Zinc Phosphate
10. PA 10 specification is suitable for use in the following area:
a. Onshore installations
b. offshore installations
c. internal coatings of pipes
d. below ground (buried)
11. After applying primer on steel surface, Paint got wetted by raining. As a painting
inspector what you do?
a. Wait for water to dry
b. Blast to remove existing primer, recoat
c. Continue next stage after rain
d. Recoat primer without removing existing coat
12. Who is having permission to change a specified paint system
a. Paint technologist
b. Painting inspector
c. Engineer
d. Contractor
13. Which surfaces comes on hot duty surfaces
a. Metal surfaces attaining a temperature above 340o C
b. Metal surfaces attaining a temperature above 100o C
c. Metal surfaces attaining a temperature above 37o C
d. Metal surfaces attaining a temperature above 540o C
14. At which temperature aluminium melts
a. 100 oC
b. 240 oC
c. 425 oC
d. 625 oC
15. A Multi component paint dried by
a. Solvent evaporation
b. Oxidation
c. Chemical reaction
d. Coalescense
16. Biscuit Gauge is another name for
a. Hegman’s grind gauge
b. Surface Comparator
c. Banana Gauge
d. Comb Gauge
17. Gold leaf test is used for _________
a. Adhesion
b. Drying
c. Residual tack
d. Dust detection
18. A single pack epoxy paint dry by
a. Coalescence
b. Chemical curing
c. Oxidation
d. Solvent evaporation
19. Pull of Adhesion is a term associated with
a. Tinsley pencil
b. Banana Gauge
c. HATE
d. Dolly Test
20. Which is not a property of extender pigments
a. Increase Gloss
b. Increase Adhesion
c. Increase Cohesion
d. Increase film strength
21. ___________ can be used to detect the presence of oil or grease
a. Copper sulphate
b. Transparent Sticking Paper
c. UV Light
d. Brestle Sample Patch
22. A coating fault which resembles holidays
a. Checking
b. Cratering
c. Crazing
d. Cissing
23. Which grade of surface preparation required for hot duty surfaces from above 150 oC
a. Sa1
b. Sa2
c. Sa2½
d. Sa3
24. In Electrostatic spray, The thickness of paint as controlled by
a. Time used to spray
b. Velocity of the particles
c. Voltage
d. Degree of dispersion
25. Over thickness of Zinc silicate cause
a. Sagging
b. Mud Cracking
c. Curtaining
d. Cohesive failure
26. Which factor does not affect gloss of a paint film
a. CPVC
b. Flash Point
c. Particle Size
d. Solvent type
27. According to Transco PA10,which metal spray not required a sealer
a. TSA
b. Polysiloxane Inorganic Coating
c. Poly Vinyl Buterol
d. Inorganic Zinc Silicate
28. It is advisable to apply Moisture curing polyurethane by
a. Airless spray
b. Brushing
c. Roller
d. Padding
29. IGE SR 21 is associated with
a. Gas Plant Manufacture
b. Handling of Methanol
c. Abrasive Blasting Safety
d. Using of Sand Abrasive
 30. Which paint application have “Insulation” effect
a. Airless Spray
b. Remote Pressure pot
c. Dip coating
d. Electrostatic spray
31. Reflector meter measures _________
a. Aggregate Size
b. Agglomerates Percentage
c. Gloss
d. Colour
32. A Non Destructive test can be done
a. When substrate contain MIO
b. When substrate is non ferromagnetic and coating is Ferro magnetic
c. When substrate is Ferro magnetic and coating is Ferro magnetic
d. When substrate is ferromagnetic and coating is non Ferro magnetic
33. Which one is not included in non ferrous substrate
a. Stainless steel
b. Mild steel
c. New Galvanising
d. Weathered Galvanising
34. Which one is not a compound in millscale
a. FeO
b. Fe2O3
c. Fe2 O4
d. Fe3O4
35. What is the approximate overlap area in painting
a. 100 mm
b. 100 cm
c. 10mm
d. 100 um
36. In colour attributes, Brightness also referred by the term
a. Chroma
b. Intensity
c. Value
d. Weight
37. What is the minimum time for over coating
a. 30 Minutes
b. 4 Hrs
c. 12 Hrs
d. 24 Hrs
38. Colour of Millscale
a. Dark Blue
b. Dark Grey
c. Black
d. No Colour
39. RAL number represents
a. Batch Number
b. Thinner Code
c. Colour Code
d. Solvent Code
40. Ropiness is fault look like
a. Roller Stiple
b. Rivelling
c. Brush Marks
d. Blisters
41. ____________ Abrasive is preferred for Wheel abrator
a. Steel Grit
b. Steel Shot
c. Grit and Shot Mixed
d. Copper Slag
42. _____________ flow cup can be used to check viscosity of hot paint
a. Ford
b. Zahn
c. ISO
d. DIN
43. Miser Valve ___________________ in dry blasting
a. Controls the Air Pressure
b. Controls the flow of abrasives
c. Removes oil and water
d. Avoids leakage
44. Which solution is used for cathodic disbandment test?
a. Slightly acidic liquid
b. Salt water
c. Alkaline liquid
d. Distilled water
45. Concentration and temperature of sulphuric acid in pickling process
a. 5-10% , 65-70oC
b. 65-70% , 5-10oC
c. 2%, 80oC
d. 80%, 65-75oC
46. Which one is not a laminar pigment
a. Graphite
b. Aluminium flake
c. Glass flake
d. China Clay
47. Phosphating process of steel structure is termed as
a. Pickling
b. Passivation
c. Cathodic protection
d. Salt Detection
48. Millscale test done , when Blast grade is
a. Sa1
b. Sa2 and Above
c. Sa2½ and Above
d. Sa3
49. Which one is not a Paint fault
a. Grinning through
b. Efflorescence
c. Cracking
d. Bittiness
50. What is the total thickness of compliant epoxy based paint
a. 325 um
b. 225um
c. 265um
d. 365um
51. Which term is not relate with binder
a. VOC
b. Film former
c. Vehicle
d. Non volatile
52. Internal coating of pipeline come under
a. PA7
b. PA8
c. PA9
d. PA10
53. If a comb gauge show 120-140 um ,then the actual DFT is
a. 120 um
b. 130um
c. 140 um
d. 120 / 140 um
54. De-lamination is a fault occurs when using
a. Epoxy
b. CR
c. Micaceous Iron Oxide
d. Poly Urethane
55. Nuts and Bolts can be coated by
a. Calorising
b. Galvanising
c. Sheradizing
d. Anodising
56. ________________are examples for natural resin
a. Amber, Laq
b. Soya Oil, Tung Oil
c. Bitumen, Coal tar
d. Phenolic resin, Cellulosic resin
57. If Paint in a density cup weighs 135gm,Relative Density is ______
a. 135
b. 13.5gm/cc
c. 1.35
d. 1.35 gm/cc
58. Which paint from below, can be applied over Phenolics
a. CR
b. Epoxy
c. Alkyd
d. None of these
59. Which warning symbol represents Toxic

-
60. If more pigments added in a paint, then the surface should be ___________
a. Gloss
b. Matt
c. Grinning
d. Fast Drying
61. ____________ is an example for aliphatic HC solvents
a. Water
b. Xylene
c. Turpentine
d. Acetone
62. Non drying oils can be used in paints, for __________
a. Fast drying
b. Slow drying
c. Activate Chemical reaction
d. Flexibility
63. Which additive used in paints to stop settlements
a. Drying oils
b. Non Drying oils
c. Wax
d. Anti skinning agents
64. If an airless spray pump ratio 35;1 delivery pressure 2800.howmuch the inlet pressure
a. 100psi
b. 90psi
c. 80psi
d. 70psi
65. How atomization is achieved in conventional spray
a. Two air channels outside the nozzle
b. Air pressure applied before nozzle
c. Paint forced at high pressure
d. Hydraulic pressure
66. Which term is used when heat applied over 65 oC for Drying of Paint
a. Metal Spray
b. Air Drying
c. Stoving
d. Forced Drying
67. The following is not an information of Daily report sheet
a. Dew point
b. Relative Humidity
c. Relative Density
d. Air Temperature
68. Which one is thermoplastic
a. Poly ethylene
b. Poly urethane
c. Epoxy
d. Natural Resin
69. Steel temperature can be measured by
a. Psychro meter
b. Limpet Gauge
c. Thermo meter
d. Horseshoe gauge
70. What is the solution ,if damage occurs to a galvanizing
a. T Wash
b. Zinc Rich Epoxy
c. CR
d. Water Borne Acrylic
71. Which mill widely used for producing thick paint
a. Ball Mill
b. Pearl Mill
c. Triple Roll Mill
d. Single Roll Mill
72. Which one is suitable for steel work
a. Short oil paint
b. Medium oil paint
c. Long Oil paint
d. Full Oil paint
73. Pigment, which dissolve in a binder called
a. Lacquer
b. Dye
c. Varnish
d. Solute
74. If 11 Litres Paint Weighs 18 Kg then density =
a. 1.8 gm/cm
b. 1.6 gm/cm
c. 1.1 gm/cc
d. 1.6 gm/cc
75. Ford Flow cup made of ___________
a. Stainless Steel
b. Aluminium Alloy
c. Mild Steel
d. Glass Reinforced Plastic
76. When temperature increases,__________
a. Viscosity increases
b. Viscosity decreases
c. Viscosity Stable
d. Drying time increases
77. What is the approximate induction period of CR
a. 20 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 6-8 hrs
d. Not Applicable
78. Stroboscope checks
a. Rotation
b. Polarity
c. Potential
d. Aggregate count
79. Which paint mill produce expensive materials
a. Triple roll mill
b. Single roll mill
c. Sand mill
d. Ball mill
80. High speed stone mill is another name for
a. High speed disperser
b. Pearl mill
c. Colloid mill
d. Attritor Mill
81. Which paint is not suitable for EPA
a. Water borne
b. High volume solid
c. Solvent Based
d. Solvent free
82. By which polymerisation method a 2 pack epoxy paint dry
a. Cross linked Polymer
b. Branched Polymer
c. Solution Polymer
d. Linear Polymer
83. Transco Specification PA9 Specifies
a. New and Maintenance painting at work and site for AGI
b. Paint Properties and Performance
c. Internal coating of steel small bore pipe
d. Preparation of steel substrate before application of paint
84. Which term cannot be used for solid particles in binder
a. Aggregates
b. Emulsion
c. Degree of dispersion
d. Fineness of grind
85. Which one is more suitable for CR paint to increase flexibility
a. Alkyd resin
b. Linceed oil
c. Bentones
d. Coconut oil
86. __________ is not a unit of viscosity
a. Stoke
b. Poise
c. Littre
d. Second
87. Which type of Comb gauge is not available
a. Square
b. Circle
c. Triangular
d. Rectangular
88. Which application method used to apply paints on damp surface
a. Brush
b. Roller
c. Airless Spray
d. Dip coating
89. What is BS 4800 specifies
a. Colour co-ordination
b. Specification of abrasive size sieves
c. Methods of test for paints
d. Glossary of paint and related terms
90. Which application greatly reduce pinholes
a. Brush
b. Spray
c. Aerosol
d. Roller
91. Spray tip with adjustable aperture size known as
a. Carbide
b. Venturi
c. Titan
d. Taber
92. Pyro meter is an instrument to check
a. Adhesion
b. Hardness
c. Steel Temp
d. Density
93. Graticule scale is a part of
a. PIG
b. Hegman Grind Gauge
c. Eccentric Wheel
d. Tough type Pfund Crypto meter
 94. MDS shows a two pack paint density is 1.35 gm/cc, when the density check completed
it shows the density as 1.25.Which one is true
a. Base Part is High
b. Activator Part is High
c. Mix ratio on MDS is incorrect
d. Activator Part is Low
95. In which temperature Density,Viscosity etc tests of Paints done
a. 20 ºC ± 0.5 ºC
b. 37 ºC ± 0.5 ºC
c. 100 ºC ± 0.5 ºC
d. Temperature not affected
96. If metal spray applied on a thin steel plate ,
a. Plate should not be heated
b. Plate should be preheated
c. Plate should be post heated
d. Cannot be applied
97. BS 7079 does not contains
a. Rust Grades
b. Blast Grades
c. Hand and Power tool Grades
d. Salt tests on Substrate
98. Wa1 ,Wa2 are grades of
a. Abrasive blasting
b. Closed blasting
c. Water Blasting
d. Weathering Grades
99. When using replica tape 50um deducted because _________
a. Thickness of paper
b. Thickness of transparent layer
c. Thickness of Testex
d. Dial micrometer Criteria
100. Which blasting is suitable for non-ferrous substrates
a. Thorough abrasive blasting
b. Sweep blasting
c. Sa2½
d. Not Applicable
1. How many cleaning grades available by using tools according to BS 7079
1. 14
2. 6
3. 4
4. 16
2. Example for paint involving barrier principle
1. Zinc rich epoxy
2. Zinc or aluminium
3. Urethane
4. Rust inhibitive primers
 3. According to Transco , an Engineer is
1. Appointed by a contractor and notified in writing to client
2. Appointed by Client and notified in writing to contractor
3. Responsible for coating and records
4. Higher authority
4. If 7.5 Liters Paint weighs 9.75 Kg, Relative Density is ______
1. 13.0 gm/cc
2. 13.0
3. 1.30 gm/cc
4. 1.3
5. Fineness of grind is a term used for
1. Premixing
2. Aggregate size
3. Profile roughness
4. PVC
6. Very thorough blast cleaning is refers to
1. Sa1
2. Sa2
3. Sa2½
4. Sa3
7. RAQ is an abbreviation of
1. Required Area Quantity
2. Repaired Area Quality
3. Required Air Quantity
4. Report and Quality Record
8. If Profile thickness is higher than specified ,result will be
1. Rash rusting
2. Cause Paint adhesion
3. Blisters
4. Millscale
9. What result will get by Temperature Cycling test
1. Cracking
2. Blistering
3. Chalking
4. Discoloration
10. Why an inspector use PIG Gauge
1. When substrate is non ferromagnetic and coating is non Ferro magnetic
2. When substrate is non ferromagnetic and coating is Ferro magnetic
3. When substrate is Ferro magnetic and coating is Ferro magnetic
4. When substrate is ferromagnetic and coating is non Ferro magnetic
11. High pressure abrasive blasting operates at which pressure
1. 100 psi
2. 2500 psi
3. 20000 psi
4. 30000 psi
12. Too much binder to solid ratio gives
1. Good Opacity
2. Good Gloss
3. Cohesive Strength
4. Porous Film
13. Specular Hematite is commonly called
1. Millscale
2. Rust
3. MIO
4. Iron Sulphate
14. Which application method provides uniform film thickness
1. Stripe coat
2. Airless Spray
3. Conventional spray
4. Electrostatic spray
15. Which paint is more suitable for hot duty surface above 150ᵒ C
1. Zinc Silicate
2. High Solid Epoxy
3. Urethane
4. CR
16. Which surface preparation is used for weathered galvanising
1. Sweep Blast
2. Stiff Bristle Brushing
3. Through Blast
4. Sa2½
17. Amplitude is a term associated with
1. Dry film thickness
2. Wet film thickness
3. Matt Film
4. Peak to trough height
18. Which solvent group is suitable for chlorinated rubber paints
1. Xylene
2. Ketones
3. Water
4. White Spirit
19. Which coating fault will look like discoloration
1. Chalking
2. Bleeding
3. Cissing
4. Curtaining
20. Which one is a direct charge mill
1. Sand Mill
2. Single roll mill
3. Triple roll mill
4. Attritor Mill
1. Two examples of Hygroscopic salts would be:
(a) Iron Phosphates and Iron Chromates
(b) Iron Chlorates and Iron Oxides
(c) Iron Sulphates and Iron Chlorides
(d) Iron Sulphides and Iron Silicates
2. What is an electrolyte?
(a) It is a mixture of salts and water
(b) A substance which will conduct electricity and cause rusting
(c) Oxidising liquid which will attack steel
(d) A substance which will conduct a current and be broken down by it
3. Corrosion is defined as:
(a) Rusting of the Cathode by electrophysical means
(b) Oxidation of a metal in contact with water
(c) Degradation of a material by chemical or electrochemical means
(d) Breakdown of the metal by hydrogen
4. Hydrogen is evolved at:
(a) The Anode at all times
(b) The Cathode at all times
(c) The Cathode as a by-product of the corrosion reaction
(d) The Anode as corrosion takes place
5. The “degradation of material by chemical or electrochemical means” is:
(a) Pickling followed by passivation
(b) Acid cleaning
(c) Corrosion
(d) An Electrolyte
6. The BGas specification for site application of paint systems is
(a) BGC/PS/PA10
(b) BGC/PS/CW5
(c) BGC/PS/PA8
(d) BS 7079
7. Another name for the Galvanic List, is:
(a) The Corrosion List
(b) Electro Negative List
(c) Electrical Corrosive Properties Series
(d) Electromotive Forces Series
8. In the corrosion circuit, electrons travel from:
(a) Anode to cathode
(b) Cathode to Anode
(c) Electrolyte to both cathode & anode
(d) None of the above
9. If Zinc and Aluminium were in close contact, in the presence of electrolyte:
(a) Aluminium would corrode
(b) They would corrode equally
(c) Zinc would corrode
(d) None of the above
10. When the electrolyte is water, what occurs at the cathode during a corrosion reaction?
(a) Rusting of the surface would begin
(b) Oxygen is given off
(c) Electrons are entering the material
(d) Hydrogen is evolved
11. MEM’s are also known as:
(a) Moisture Enriched Materials
(b) Metal Eating Microbes
(c) Maximum Evolved Moistures
(d) Material Electron Mobility
12. When checking surface profile using X-Course replica tape:
(a) 50 micron must be added to the final reading
(b) The average number of readings must be taken
(c) 50 microns must be deducted from the reading
(d) A minimum of ten readings must be taken
13. Which of the following is not a sub atomic particle?
(a) Proton
(b) Neutron
(c) Micron
(d) Electron
14. Three factors which can affect the rate of corrosion are:
(a) Temperature, Time, and Coating system
(b) Bi-metallic contact, Hygroscopic Salts, and Bacteria
(c) Coating system, Pipe diameter, and Ultra Violet light
(d) Blasting Grades, Rust Grades, and Surface Profile
15. How many Abrasive Blast Cleaning photographs are in BS 7079 part A?
(a) 4
(b) 14
(c) 8
(d) 16
16. The thickness of Millscale is approximately:
(a) 25 μm to 100 μm
(b) 100 to 150 μm
(c) zero
(d) Dependant upon the material thickness
17. The three compressed oxides which form Millscale are:
(a) Iron oxide, Rust, and Iron sulphate
(b) Wustite, Haematite, and Magnetite
(c) Iron Sulphate, Iron Chloride, and Iron Phosphate
(d) RSC, RSJ, and RSA
18. When preparing stainless steel, what abrasive should be used?
(a) Copper Slag
(b) Steel Shot
(c) Aluminium Oxide
(d) Angular Chilled Iron
19. A Banana gauge works on which principle
(a) Magnetic resistance
(b) Conductive resistance
(c) Tension reluctance
(d) Viscosity relativity
20. Rust Grade A can be described as
(a) Tightly adhering Millscale, with evident heavy pitting
(b) Clean white metal
(c) Tightly adhering Millscale, with no apparent corrosion
(d) Millscale which has begun to flake, or can be scraped away
21. Which Blasting Grade best describes “Thorough Blast cleaning”?
(a) Sa 2
(b) Sa 2½
(c) Sa 3
(d) Sa 1
22. The two factors to consider when inspecting a surface preparation:
(a) Degree of cleanliness, and time taken
(b) Surface Profile, and material condition
(c) Surface Profile and degree of cleanliness
(d) Degree of cleanliness, and surface contamination
23. Abrasive used on site for British Gas projects must be:
(a) Mixed with sand, to reduce cost
(b) Stored correctly prior to use
(c) Expendable
(d) Used up to a maximum of three times only.
24. Which two materials are commonly used as sacrificial anodes?
(a) Copper and Tungsten
(b) Aluminium and Graphite
(c) Zinc and Aluminium
(d) Lead and Tin
25. Name a sub atomic particle
(a) Atom
(b) Micron
(c) Electron
(d) Moron
1. Two examples of Hygroscopic Salts would be:
(a) Iron Phosphates and Iron Chromates
(b) Iron Chlorates and Iron Oxides
(c) Iron Sulphates and Iron Chlorides
(d) Iron Sulphides and Iron Silicates
2. What is an electrolyte?
(a) It is a mixture of salts and water
(b) A substance which will conduct electricity and cause rusting
(c) Oxidising liquid which will attack steel
(d) A substance which will conduct a current and be broken down by it
3. Corrosion is defined as:
(a) Rusting of the Cathode by electrophysical means
(b) Oxidation of a metal in contact with water
(c) Degradation of a material by chemical or electrochemical means
(d) Breakdown of the metal by hydrogen
 4. Hydrogen is evolved at:
(a) The Anode at all times
(b) The Cathode at all times
(c) The Cathode as a by-product of the corrosion reaction
(d) The Anode as corrosion takes place
5. Which Blasting Grade best describes “Thorough Blast cleaning”?
(a) Sa 2
(b) Sa 2½
(c) Sa 3
(d) Sa 1
6. What is the minimum standard of surface cleanliness specified by BGC/PS/PA 10?
a) Rust Grade C
b) St 3
c) Sa 2 1/2
d) 30 to 75 microns
7. In a corrosion Circuit, Electrons flow from:
a) Anode to Cathode, via Electrolyte
b) Positive to Negative
c) Electrolyte to Steel
d) Anode to Cathode, via metallic path
8. Rust Grade A can be described as:
(a) Tightly adhering Millscale, with evident heavy pitting
(b) Clean white metal
(c) Tightly adhering Millscale, with no apparent corrosion
(d) Millscale which has begun to flake, or can be scraped away
9. Abrasive used on site for British Gas projects must be:
a) Mixed with sand, to reduce cost
b) Dried in an oven prior to use
c) Expendable
d) Used up to a maximum of three times only.
10. Which is the more noble metal:
A) Steel
B) Aluminium
C) Magnesium
D) Tin
11. Millscale is made up of which three oxide compounds?
A) Rust, Iron oxide, and Scale
B) RSJ, RSC, and RSA
C) Wustite, Magnetite, and Haematite
D) Iron Sulphate, Iron Chloride, and Iron Phosphate
12. Two factors to be considered when inspecting a Surface Preparation, are:
A) Cleanliness and Roughness
B) Rust Grade and material type
C) Abrasive type and Time
D) Surface area and type of contamination
13. The Galvanic List is also known as:
A) The Metallic Corrosion Potential Chart
B) The Electromotive Forces Series
C) The Element Forces Order
D) The Electronic Chemical Series
14. When using a Venturi Nozzle at 100psi, the abrasive exits at approximately what speed?
A) 200 mph
B) 450 mph
C) 1200 mph
D) 100 mph
15. Copper Slag is also known as :
A) Garnet
B) Black sand
C) Iron Silica
D) Steel Grit
16. The thickness of Millscale is approximately:
(a) 25 μm to 100 μm
(b) 100 to 150 μm
(c) zero
(d) Dependant upon the material thickness
17. ‘The force required to separate two surfaces in contact’, can also be termed:
A) Viscosity
B) Profile
C) Adhesion
D) Blasting
18. Blasting in one area for too long, produces what?
A) Hackles
B) Rogue Peaks
C) Slivers
D) Laminations
19. Metallic Shot also has which affect upon the material?
A) Stress relieves
B) Physically deforms
C) Work hardens
D) Causes Slivers
20. What is the main cause of flash rusting on a substrate?
A) Rogue Peaks
B) Moisture
C) Hackles
D) Hygroscopic Salts
21. What is the main advantage of using ‘Testex’ papers for surface profile measurement?
A) It also measures cleanliness
B) Most accurate over a large area
C) Easy to use
D) Permanent record
22. Which of the following could be classified as a major cause of microbial corrosion:
A) Sulphur Eating Metal
B) Sulphate Reducing Bacteria
C) Rust inhibitive salts
D) Iron Phosphates
23. Three factors which accelerate the rate of corrosion are:
a) Temperature, Time, and Coating system
b) Bi-metallic contact, Hygroscopic Salts, and Bacteria
c) Coating system, Pipe diameter, and Ultra Violet light
d) Blasting Grades, Rust Grades, and Surface Profile
24. How many Abrasive Blast Cleaning photographs are in BS 7079 part A?
(a) 4
(b) 14
(c) 8
(d) 16
25. British Gas PA 10 specifies a surface profile of:
A) 30 microns to 75 microns
B) 100 microns to 150 microns
C) 10 microns to 40 microns
D) More than 90 microns
1. Which of the following is Rust Grade C?
A) Tightly adhering Millscale which can be brushed clean
B) Loosely adhering Millscale with no evident pitting
C) Millscale almost totally removed, visible rust, no heavy pitting
D) Heavy pitting clearly visible, heavy corrosion
2. The optimum pressure to achieve 100% efficiency in abrasive blast cleaning is?
A) 75 psi
B) 450 psi
C) 100 psi
D) 220 psi
3. Sand is not permitted as a dry blast abrasive, as directed by:
A) BGC/PS/PA10
B) BS 7079 Part A
C) COSHH
D) BS 410
4. How many times can Garnet be used as an abrasive for BGas site use?
A) Up to 3 times, if cleaning of abrasive is possible
B) None
C) It must be expendable
D) 20 times
5. The correct ratio of a “working mix” would be:
A) 70-80% Grit : 20-30% Shot
B) 50% Grit :50% Shot
C) 70-80% Shot : 20-30% Grit
D) 20-25% Sand : 75-80% Copper Slag
6. Flame cleaning uses which mechanisms?
A) Expansion, Decontamination, and Force
B) Oxidation, Penetration, and De-lamination
C) Heat Penetration, Expansion, and Dehydration
D) Oxidation, Weathering, and Pressurisation
7. Carbon Impregnated hoses are used to:
A) Create static electricity
B) Prevent Static electricity
C) Reduce Friction
D) Discharge static electricity
8. One of the most important safety items of equipment in abrasive blasting is:
A) Dry abrasive mix
B) The banana gauge
C) Dead mans handle
D) 100 psi compressor
9. What is the approximate speed of the abrasive particles exiting a wheelabrator?
A) 450 mph
B) 220 mph
C) Mach 3
D) 100 psi
10. Where would you normally use a comparator gauge?
A) To check surface cleanliness
B) To determine surface roughness
C) To control cleaning of abrasives
D) To assess the rust grade of a material
11. “Amplitude” refers to what?
A) The ‘peak-to-trough’ height of a blast profile
B) The amount of noise a blasting operation creates
C) the velocity of the abrasive particles
D) the roughness of an abrasive particle
12. What is the material used in surface replica tape, used to measure profile?
A) Mylex
B) Testrex
C) Mylar
D) Mylon
13. How do we remove hygroscopic salts from the substrate:
A) Water blasting
B) Silver nitrate
C) Dry abrasive blast cleaning
D) Chalk or Talc
14. The test for the presence of Hygroscopic Salts, is:
A) Potassium Hexacyanoferrate test
B) Copper Sulphate test
C) Iron Phosphate test
D) Iron Chromate test
15. How many photographs of flame cleaning standards are shown in BS 7079 Part A?
A) 4
B) 14
C) 8
D) 16
16. Which abrasive has the effect of stress relieving the substrate?
A) Copper Slag
B) Metallic Shot
C) Steel Grit
D) Garnet
17. Where would it be advisable to use Steel Grit as an abrasive?
A) When a fine profile is required
B) On high pressure pipework
C) In enclosed blasting units
D) On offshore installations
18. What is the minimum number of readings required for a Dial Micrometer?
A) Minimum of 10
B) Minimum of 12
C) One only
D) As many as you wish, but the average reading is recorded
19. Which test would be used to determine for soluble salts in a marine environment?
A) Potassium Hexacyanoferrate
B) Copper Sulphate
C) Iron Phosphate
D) Silver Nitrate
20. The standard for the test sieves used for the sizing of abrasives is:
A) BS 7079 Part A
B) BS 410
C) BGC / PS / PA10
D) SI 1657
21. The most common type of abrasive used for BGas site work is:
A) Copper Slag
B) Grit & Shot mix
C) Garnet
D) Metallic Shot
22. Compared to a Venturi Nozzle, a Straight Bore Nozzle would give:
A) Better paint application
B) More speed
C) larger area coverage
D) Greater accuracy
23. Anchor Pattern, Key, Peak-to-trough, are names given to what?
A) The abrasive properties
B) The cross section of a blast
C) The total area of blasted substrate
D) The potential of adhesion
24. What is a “knock out pot”?
A) A drum used for mixing paint and thinners
B) The area on the equipment where static electricity can build up and be hazardous
C) A vessel for removing oil and moisture from the air stream
D) A container where any blockages of the nozzle can be tapped free
 25. High Pressure blasting operates up to which pressure?
A) 100 psi
B) 450 psi
C) 30,000 psi
D) 2,250 mph
1. Which of the following is not a drying mechanism?
a) Coalescence
b) Oxidation
c) Stove drying
d) Chemical curing
2. A solution is:
a) The resultant liquid in a polymerisation event
b) The resultant liquid after dispersing a solid
c) The resultant liquid after dissolving a material in another liquid
d) The resultant liquid after dispersing a liquid in another liquid
3. Which of the following is a natural oil?
a) Dammar
b) Alkyd
c) Castor
d) Xylene
4. Which of the following are said to be “reversible”?
A) Cross-Linked Polymer
B) Branched Polymer
C) Linear Polymer
D) Convertible coating
5. Which of the following are Quantitative tests?
a) Potassium Hexacyanoferrate
b) Copper Sulphate
c) Silver Nitrate test
d) Bresle Sample Patch
6. A Whirling Hygrometer is also called a :
a) Pfund Cryptometer
b) A Psychrometer
c) A Pyknometer
d) A Rotational Viscometer
7. What is the meaning of “compliant”?
a) In accordance with PA 10
b) In accordance with Environmental Protection Act
c) As per engineers instructions
d) As per manufacturers recommendations
8. What is the recommended stand-off distance and speed at which the abrasive leaves a
Venturi Nozzle?
a) 450 mm and 220 mph
b) 220 mm and 450 mph
c) 220 mm and 220 mph
d) 450 mm and 450 mph
 9. A typical remedy for burnishing would be:
a) Power brushing
b) Emery Paper or similar
c) Needle gun
d) Addition of thinners
10. Which of the following is part of the Footners Duplex System?
a) 1-2% Sulphuric Acid @ 65-800C for 5-25 mins
b) 5-10% Sulphuric Acid @ 70-800C for 5-10 mins
c) 5-10% Sulphuric Acid @ 65-700C for 5-25 mins
d) 5-10% Chromic / Phosphoric Acid @ 65-700C for 1-2 mins
11. Which of the following is not a natural resin?
a) Copal
b) Amber
c) Dammar
d) Linseed
12. Which of the following is not a natural Oil?
a) Castor
b) Amber
c) Olive
d) Linseed
13. Which of the following is an extender?
a) Graphite
b) Mica
c) Glass Flake
d) China Clay
14. Which of the following is an opaque pigment?
a) Graphite
b) Compound of Chromium
c) Zirconium Octoate
d) Zinc Phosphate
15. Which of the following is an “additive”?
a) Opaque pigments
b) Rust Inhibitive pigments
c) Thickening agents
d) Thinners
16. What is the specified minimum standard of cleanliness required by BGas for non-ferrous
substrates?
a) Sa 2 1/2
b) Sa 3
c) St 1
d) Sa 1
17. Which of the following binders are reversible?
a) Epoxy
b) Urethane
c) Chlorinated Rubber
d) Silicone
 18. What is the maximum allowable time lapse between surface preparation, and painting?
a) 24 hours
b) 4 hours
c) 20-30 minutes
d) 7 days
19. Which of the following is not a commonly used binder?
a) Epoxy
b) Zinc
c) Urethane
d) Vinyl
20. Wire brushes used for BGas hand & power tool cleaning, must be made from which
material?
A) Tungsten or Stainless Steel
B) Copper or Brass
C) Beryllium Bronze or Phosphor Bronze
D) The same material as the pipe
21. What is the cause of rash rusting?
A) Moisture
B) Rogue Peaks
C) Hackles
D) Hygroscopic Salts
22. Which of the following are commonly used as anti-settling agents?
A) Heavy metal salts
B) Bentones & Waxes
C) Saturated oils
D) Extender pigments
23. A paint drying by chemical reaction is said to be:
A) Linear polymer
B) Convertible
C) Non-Convertible
D) Reversible
24. Which of the following is not a laminar pigment?
A) Graphite
B) Glass flake
C) Magnesium Silicate
D) Mica
25. Which two materials are commonly used as sacrificial anodes?
(a) Copper and Tungsten
(b) Aluminium and Graphite
(c) Zinc and Aluminium
(d) Lead and Tin
1. What is a pyknometer?
a) Opacity testing equipment
b) Whirling Hygrometer
c) Density Cup
d) Windspeed measuring equipment
 2. What is the name of the mill used to produce mastics, fillers, and putties?
a) Triple Roll Mill
b) Ball Mill
c) Single Roll Mill
d) Bead Mill
3. Which of the following is not an adhesion test?
a) Dolly test
b) Cross hatch
c) Krebs Stormer
d) HATE
4. Which of the following is not a drying test?
a) Koenig Albert
b) Beck Koller
c) Mechanical Thumb
d) Ballotini
5. What is the name given to the drying test involving the use of glass beads?
a) Wolff Wilborne
b) Taber
c) Ballotini
d) Erichsson
6. What type of machinery is used to produce large production runs of popular paints?
a) Triple Roll Mill
b) Colloid Mill
c) Ball Mill
d) Sand Mill
7. A typical pot life of a paint used in BGas specifications would be:
a) 20 - 30 minutes
b) 12 - 24 hours
c) 6 - 8 hours
d) 3 - 7 days
8. What is the specified temperature at which a Flash Point Determination test must be
carried out?
0
a) 20 C
b) Up to 4500C
c) There is no specific temperature
d) 250C in seawater
9. HATE is an abbreviation of what?
a) High Adhesive Tension Equipment
b) Humidity Affected Electrical Tolerance
c) Hydraulic Adhesion Test Equipment
d) Hardness And Temperature Evaluation
10. In paint testing, why is temperature cycling carried out?
a) To check for water absorption
b) To check flexibility
c) To check contraction cracking
d) To prove the service life of the coating system
 11. Which of the following would not affect the degree of Gloss?
a) Surface profile
b) Critical Pigment Volume Concentration
c) Solvent type
d) Degree of dispersion
12. What diameter is the conical mandrel, which is used in the flexibility test?
a) 8 mm to 25 mm
b) 12mm to 18mm
c) 5mm to 50mm
d) 3mm to 37mm
13. Which specification covers the internal coating of small bore steel pipes?
A) BGC PS PA 10
B) BGC PS PA 9
C) BGC PS PA 8
D) BGC PS PA 7
14. What product should be used for repairs to pipe coatings in damp conditions?
a) Moisture sensitive isocyanates
b) Water-Borne Acrylics
c) Moisture curing polyurethane
d) Chlorinated Rubber
15. What surface preparation is specified in PA 10 for weathered galvanised steel?
a) Sa 2 1/2, followed by “T-Wash” mordant primer
b) Sa 3, followed by etch primer
c) Hand abrasion with a stiff bristled brush only
d) Sa 1 followed by water washing.
16. What would be the correct course of action upon discovering that the contractor has
applied a coat of paint, out of sequence?
a) Blast and re-coat
b) Apply the correct coating over the top
c) Inform the Engineer
d) add an extra protective coating
17. The function of a finish coat is mainly to provide:
a) impermeability and adhesion
b) aesthetic properties and water shedding
c) cathodic protection and passivation
d) increased thickness at low cost
18. What is the name of the vessel used to determine the viscosity of hot fluids, as per BGas
specifications?
A) Ford Flow cup No 4
B) Zahn cup
C) Abel cup
D) Pyknometer
19. Which of the following is not a test for contaminants?
A) Sellotape
B) Banana gauge
C) Talcum powder
D) Solvent
20. The BGas specified site painting conditions is:
A) Maximum wind speed 4 m/sec, Relative Humidity maximum 95%
B) Maximum 90% Relative Humidity, Dew Point 30 C above Steel
C) Maximum 90% Relative Humidity, Dew Point 3o C less than Steel
D) Maximum 27 oC, Relative Humidity 95% maximum
21. Which test would be used to determine for soluble salts in a marine environment?
A) Potassium Hexacyanoferrate
B) Sulphuric Acid
C) Iron Phosphate
D) Silver Nitrate
22. Which of the following is an extender pigment?
a) Magnesium Silicate
b) Aluminium Oxide
c) Manganese Napthanate
d) Barium Metaborate
23. With every 11 degree rise in temperature, the air’s ability to hold water:
a) Would rise by 11%
b) Would half
c) Would double
d) Would decrease by 11%
24. According to PA10, what is the correct course of action upon discovering foreign bodies
embedded in the paint film?
a) Apply an extra protective barrier coat
b) Re-blast, and re-coat
c) Lightly abrade with emery paper, apply stripe coat
d) Make a report to the engineer only
25. According to PA10, is the addition of Thinners allowed?
a) yes, at the engineers discretion, up to 20% max.
b) only if the paint is difficult to apply
c) yes, in accordance with the product data sheets
d) No, under no circumstances
1. This paint defect is referred to as:
A) Flaking
B) Chalking
C) Grinning
D) Cissing
 2. The main difference between Airless and conventional spray is:
(a) Conventional spray gives better deposition rate
(b) Conventional spray gives less waste
(c) Airless spray gives better quality finish
(d) Conventional spray gives better atomization
3. What is the name of the equipment used to determine particle aggregate size?
(a) Beck-koller
(b) Hegman gauge
(c) Wolfe-Wilborne
(d) Krebs-Stormer
4. What are the 3 attributes, which make up the colour of a paint?
(a) White, black, and primary colour
(b) Hue, brightness and saturation
(c) Red, yellow, and blue
(d) Contrast, density, and definition
5. What voltage settings are commonly used for sponge test holiday detection?
A) 5 Kv to 15 Kv
B) 15 Kv maximum
C) 9v to 90 v
D) 110v or 240v
 6. This is the hazard warning symbol for:
a) Toxic or Very Toxic
b) Harmful or Irritant
c) Corrosive
d) Explosive

7. Another name for a Vapour Trap is?

(a) Air wash cup
(b) Dry out pot
(c) Knock out pot
(d) Pressure regulator
8. Beryllium Bronze is a material used in the manufacture of:
(a) Welding electrodes
(b) Power wire brushes
(c) Comb gauges
(d) Venturi Nozzle liners
9. Which of the following are Primary Colours?
a) Blue Yellow and Green
b) Red Green and White
c) Red White and Blue
d) Red Yellow and Blue
10. When carrying out holiday detection using the sponge tester, what can we add to the
water?
a) Salt
b) Detergent
c) Xylene
d) Inhibitor
11. What would be the main problem of a low CPVC?
(a) High opacity
(b) Permeability
(c) Low Gloss
(d) Low opacity
12. BGC/PS/PA10 contains which table, specifying the preferred coating systems?
A) Spa 6a
B) Spa 1e
C) Spa 4a
D) spa 3c
13. Thermally Sprayed Aluminium is normally applied by which system?
A) Electric arc spray
B) Sheradising
C) Wire & Pistol
D) Electro-plating
14. ‘Padding’ refers to what?
A) Protection for pipes during transport & storage
B) Protective clothing for TSA application
C) A paint application method
D) Material used to soak spillages
15. Which of the following is not a system for paint colour classification?
A) BS 4800
B) BS 5252
C) Munsell
D) BGC/PS/CW5
16. When testing for Xylene using a Drager Bellows, the crystals will change colour :
A) Orange to Black
B) White to Red/Brown
C) White to Green
D) White to Black
17. Which pH range covers Acids?
A) 7 to 14
B) 0 to 7
C) 0 to 14
D) 5 to 10
18. What is the specified abrasive overlap requirement on repair areas?
A) 250 mm
B) twice pipe diameter
C) 100 mm
D) 1 metre
19. The specified method of removal of this of type (algae and mould) of contamination is:
A) Dry abrasive blasting
B) Hand abrasion
C) Xylene
D) High pressure washing
 20. Where a silicone sealer is applied to an Inorganic Zinc Silicate coating system, how is the
sealer cured?
A) Propane torch
B) Electric induction pads
C) It cures when the system begins to operate
D) it does not require curing
21. Which would be considered to be the most toxic?
A) Acetone
B) Xylene
C) Ethanol
D) Toluene
22. The document issued by the HSE listing all known harmful substances, is:
A) COSHH
B) SI 1657
C) EH40
D) IGE SR 21
23. In the electrostatic spray painting process, the component must be:
A) Positively charged
B) Negatively charged
C) 9 volts DC
D) 15 Kv DC
24. Where Bleeding is evident on a pipe which was previously coated with Coal Tar, the
staining would be which colour?
A) Black
B) Brown
C) Yellow
D) Red
25. This is caused by:
A) Expansion and contraction
B) Age and environment
C) Solvent strength
D) Surface contamination

1. Using a 35:1 ratio pump, an inlet pressure of 60 psi would result in which of the following
a) 1800 psi spraying pressure
b) 1500 psi spraying pressure
c) 2100 psi spraying pressure
d) 2500 psi spraying pressure

2. Why is steel grit and shot mixture used on some applications

a) Because it is cheaper and more economical than other abrasives
b) Because it gives a cleaner blast
c) Because it gives a more controlled uniform profile
d) Because it is not heavy and is easily handled

3. Tiny spots of oil on a surface to be painted could result in which of the following faults
a) Bleeding
b) Cissing
c) Blisters
d) Any of the above

4. Which of the following would be used to check the pressure on a blast hose whilst working
a) A pressure gauge
b) A hypodermic needle gauge
c) A hygrometer
d) None of the above
5. How many lines go to an airless spray gun ( not electrostatic )
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) It depends upon the paint being used

6. Which of the following is the estimated speed of particles leaving a venturi nozzle at 100
psi
a) 450 km per hour
b) 220 km per hour
c) 450 miles per hour
d) 220 miles per hour

7. Which of the following would be a typical spraying pressure using an airless spray
a) 100 psi
b) 1500 psi
c) 2500 psi
d) 4000 psi

8. What is meant by the term ‘ pot life’ of a paint

a) It’s the time, after mixing, in which the paint must be used
b) It’s the time allowed before pouring into another container
c) It’s the length of time that the material can be left in storage
d) None of the above

9. Which is the highest degree of cleanliness that can be assessed using a surface comparator
a) Sa 3
b) NACE 1
c) SSPC SP 5
d) None, because the comparators are for surface profile assessment only

10. Which of the following could not be used to measure the dry film of a paint
a) A horseshoe gauge
b) A comb gauge
c) A banana gauge
d) A tinsley pencil gauge

11. Which of the following could be considered to be an advantage of using wet blasting
a) No sparks are produced
b) The substrate only corrodes slightly
c) Rogue peaks are easily removed
d) There is no restriction on the type of paint which can be applied over it

12. Which of the following components would not be expected in industrial paints
a) Binders
b) Solvents
c) Resins
d) Dyes

13. In BS 7079 Pt A, which of the following profiles are referred to in the Sa grades
a) 50-100 um
b) 25-75 um
c) 25- 100 um
d) None of the above, the photographs show degree of cleanliness only

14. If a paint with a VS OF 60% was applied at 100 um WFT, what would be the DFT
a) 120 um
b) 90 um
e) 60 um
c) 40 um

15. The photographs in BS 7079 Pt A show steel plates blast cleaned with which of the
following abrasives

a) Copper slag
b) Garnet
c) Clean sand
d) Metallic abrasives

16. When using an airless spray gun it is advisable to do which of the following
a) De-pressurise the system prior to changing the tip
b) Apply the paint with the gun passing parallel to the substrate
c) Apply the paint perpendicular to the substrate
d) All of the above are advisable practices

17. Which of the following would most likely be used on an airless spray
a) A beryllium tip
b) A phosphor bronze tip
c) A reversible tip
d) All of the above could be used
18. Which of the following is true regarding high pressure pure water blasting at 30,000 psi
a) Almost all of the hygroscopic salts would be removed from the substrate
b) A medium profile would be obtained
c) There would be no surface corrosion
d) The abrasives would easily wash away

19. When mixing inorganic zinc silicate for spray application, which of the following is not true
a) The solid component must be added slowly to the liquid, continually agitating
b) The liquid component must be added slowly to the solid, continually agitating
c) The resulting mixture should be continually agitated during application
d) The agitation should preferably be by mechanical means

20. Which of the following have an effect on the degree of cleanliness obtained on a substrate
a) The particle size of the abrasive
b) The shape of the abrasive particle
c) The density of the abrasive material
d) None of the above have any effect on the degree of cleanliness

1. Which of the following would be a typical spraying pressure using an airless spray.
a) 100 p.s.i.
b) 1500 p.s.i.
c) 2500 p.s.i.
d) 4000 p.s.i.

2. How is atomisation achieved on a conventional spray

a) By air jets converging on the paint stream
b) By expansion of the paint stream due to a drop in pressure
c) By operator spraying technique
d) By all of the above mechanisms

3. How many lines go to an airless spray gun, not electrostatic.

a) 3.
b) 2.
c) 1.
d) It depends upon the paint being applied.

4. When using an airless spray, if a blockage occurs in the tip, causing ‘fingering’, (a jet of
paint rather than an atomised stream,) which of the following faults could occur.

a) Blistering
b) Cissing
c) Bleeding
d) Runs sags and tears

5. Tiny spots of oil on a surface to be painted could result in which of the following faults
a) Bleeding
b) Cissing
c) Blisters
d) Any of the above

6. In which of the following situations would bleeding most likely occur

a) Applying solvent free MCL over coal tar
b) Applying coal tar epoxy over a solvent free MCL
c) Applying a water based epoxy over a bitumen
d) Applying a 60% VS epoxy over a bitumen

7. Using a 35:1 ratio pump, an inlet pressure of 60psi would result in which of the following
a) 1800 psi spraying pressure
b) 1500 psi spraying pressure
c) 2100 psi spraying pressure
d) 2500 psi spraying pressure

8. When using an airless spray it is advisable to do which of the following

a) De-pressurise the system prior to changing the tip
b) Apply the paint with the gun passing parellel to the substrate
c) Apply the paint perpendicular to the substrate
d) All of the above are advisable practices

9. A ‘stripe’ coat is which of the following

a) A decorative system involving the use of masking tape
b) A special coat applied to areas of difficult access
c) A chemical method of removing paint
d) None of the above

10. If a paint with a VS of 60% was applied at 100um WFT, what would be the DFT
a) 120um
b) 90um
c) 60um
d) 40um

11. Which of the following components is not found in industrial paints

a) Binders
b) Solvents
c) Resins
d) Dyes

12. Why would an inspector use a whirling hygrometer on site during paint application
a) To check that the weather conditions were within the specification requirements
b) To help with the drying of the paint
c) To measure the steel temperature
d) To check whether or not it is likely to rain.

13. Which of the following could not be used to measure the dry film of a paint
a) A horseshoe gauge
b) A comb gauge
c) A banana gauge
d) A tinsley pencil gauge

14. When mixing a two pack paint which of the following is true
a) Pack A should be added slowly to pack B
b) Part of pack B should be mixed with part of pack A
c) It doesn’t matter which way it’s done
d) It should be mixed according to the instructions on the data sheet

15. What is meant by the term ‘pot life’ of a paint

a) It’s the time, after mixing, in which the material must be used
b) It’s the time allowed before pouring into another container
c) The length of time that the material can be left in storage
d) None of the above

16. What do you understand from the term ‘shelf life’

a) The paint must be used before this date
b) The paint must stay in storage until that date before being used
c) The paint must not be kept in boxes or cupboards
d) None of the above give the meaning of shelf life

17. When mixing inorganic zinc silicate for spray application, which of the following is not true
a) The solid component must be added slowly to the liquid, continually agitating
b) The liquid component should be added slowly to the solids, continually agitating
c) The resulting mixture should be continually agitated during application
d) The agitation should preferably be by mechanical means
18. From a safety aspect which is the better solvent to work with
a) One with a short name
b) One with a hazard warning on the can
c) One with a high flash point
d) One with a low flash point

19. Which of the following statements is true

a) Protective clothing should be worn at all times
b) When applying water based paints there is no need to wear protective clothing
c) Airless spray guns have no intrinsic dangers
d) All hydrocarbon solvents are perfectly safe

20. Which of the following would most likely be used on an airless spray
a) A beryllium tip
b) A phosphor bronze tip
c) A reversible tip
d) All of the above could be used

1. Dew point is defined "the temperature at which the water vapor will…"
A. Will evaporate
B. Will condense
C. Will dry
D. Will cause osmotic blisters.
2. As define by national grid, Transco, the engineer is the person…?
A. Appointed by a contractor and notified in writing to client.
B. Appointed by a client and notified to a contractor.
C. Responsible for compiling site records.
D. Delegates the compilation of site records to a contractor.
3. A newly galvanized substrate has a surface:
A. Where a cohesive oxide layer has not been formed and which lacking in metallic sheen.
B. On which a cohesive oxide layer has been formed and which lacking in metallic sheen.
C. Where a cohesive oxide layer has not been formed, showing a bright surface.
D. Where a cohesive oxide layer has been formed, showing a bright surface.
4. “Compliant” coating is one that complies with requirement of the…?
A. The health and safety at work act.
B. The COSHH Regulation.
C. The Contract Requirements
D. The Environmental Protection Act.
5. When measuring acidity and alkality, distill water…
A. 1
B. ?
C. 7
D. ?
6. ...Which British standard?
A. BS?
B. BS?
C. BS?
D. BS?
7. What are the total paint systems DFT requirements for the 2 prefer system in table SPA 1e of
PA10?
A. 255 and 225 um.
B. 265 and 235 um.
C. 265 and 225 um.
D. 255 and 235 um.
8. Which British standard covers the color coding of pipework?
A. BS 5493
B. BS 1710
C. BS 6072
D. BS 3900
9. In accordance with PA10 table SPA 3e where TSA or IZS have been used as the preferred
coating for surface operating above 340 oC:
A. They should be cured by chemical reaction
B. The coating must be immediately heated to 340 oC
C. They should be sealed with polysiloxane inorganic coating
D. They must be further protected by the application of silicone sealer.
10. Which of following substrates are not dealt with in table SPA A6 of PA10?
A. Concrete
B. Stainless Steel
C. Galvanized surfaces
D. They are all dealt with under that section
11. During the corrosion reaction, the cathode primarily contains:
A. Negative iron ions, dissociated from the electrolyte.
B. Positive iron protons, dissociated from the electrolyte.
C. Positive electrons, dissociated from the electrolyte.
D. Negative protons, dissociated from the electrolyte.
12. "Aerobic condition" would refer to highest proportion …?
A. Hydrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
D. Water
13. An additive that gives a paint material its opacity is…?
A. A plasticizer
B. A thixotrope
C. A stabilizer
D. A pigment
14. Which of the following is considered to be a Laminar pigment?
A. Mica
B. Coal tar
C. Zinc chromate
D. Red lead
15. Which of the following is not an example of a direct charge mill
A. A single roll mill
B. A ball mill
C. An attritor mill
D. A high speed disperser
16. A test that use glass bead to confirm the drying time?
A. ?
B. ?
C. Ballotini test
D. The cryptometer test
17. Rust inhibitive primer operates by?
A. Oxidation to protect the substrate
B. Pigmentation
C. Passivation
D. Direct encapsulation
18. The correct voltage setting for wet sponge for 265 um is?
A. 9 volts
B. 67.5 volts
C. 90 volts
D. 125 volts
19. Most tips used on airless spray equipment are Reversible, that is …?
A. Tip life is prolonged
B. Costs can be kept down
C. Blockages can be cleaned
D. All of the above
20. What is the volume of paint required to cover a circular area ...material has a specified WFT
176 um?
A. 76.38 litres
B. 124.40 litres
C. 214.34 litres
D. 321.56 litres
1. Which of the following material is the most electronegative?
A. Copper
B. Tin
C. Aluminum
D. Zinc
2. The institute of gas engineers Safety Recommendation for safety operation is:
A. IGE/SR/12
B. IGE/SR/21
C. IGE/SR/23
D. IGE/SR/25
3. How many microns in an mm?
A. 100
B. 1000
C. 10000
D. 100000
4. The new and maintenance painting ...painting application…?
A. SPA 1
B. SPA 3
C. SPA 4
D. SPA 6
5. The paint ingredient that has the most influence on the opacity of a paint?
A. The Binder
B. The Solvent
C. The Pigment
D. An additive is used to influence opacity
6. When considering environmental conditions prior to paint application recommended dew
point, air temperature and metal temperature should be?
A. Within 3 oC of dew point
B. More than 3 oC below dew point
C. More than 3 oC above dew point
D. Greater than 10 oC
7. If a crack like indication is observed following the blast cleaning of substrate:
A. It should be assessed ultrasonically to determine its size
B. It should be subject to a magnetic particle assessment to determine its size
C. It should be subject to a grind and investigation to remove it
D. It should be reported to the engineer
8. Which is the larger mesh size
A. G12
B. G16
C. S18
D. S20
9. What is an ion?
A. Part of an atom
B. A positively charged electron
C. An electron no longer orbiting an atom
D. An electrically charged particle
10. The person of organization responsible for the site designed to write procedures from site is:
A. The contractor foreman
B. The site engineer
C. The contractor
D. The senior pipeline inspector
11. It is only necessary to brush down a weathered galvanized surface with a stiff brush prior to
painting because:
A. A suitable key for paint it provided by the zinc oxides on the surface
B. We only need to remove dust and loose particle of abrasive prior to painting
C. A key for adhesion is not necessary on galvanized surface
D. Weathered galvanized provides its own key
12. What WFT would be required to provide a DFT 75 um of the paint 65% volume solids?
A. 90 um
B. 110 um
C. 115 um
D. There is insufficient information to provide an answer
13. A rotational viscometer assesses a material:
A. Ability to flow
B. Dynamic viscosity
C. Kinematic viscosity
D. Free flowing viscosity
14. The continent that has the most influence on paint impermeability is
A. The pigment
B. The solvent
C. The binder
D. An additive is used to influence impermeability
15. Paint containing natural oil and resin will dry by
A. Solvent evaporation alone
B. Oxidation
C. Coalescence
D. A chemical reaction
16. The recognized test for detecting mill scale on substrate :
A. The silver nitrate test
B. The copper sulphate test
C. The xylene test
D. The ballotini test
17. If paint is being applied by conventional spray the point at which atomization is?
A. In the container
B. At the aperture or nozzle
C. 25mm outside the aperture/ nozzle
D. On the substrate
18. What is the activity should be carried out to assess safety aspect prior to work …?
A. A safety work around
B. A safety review
C. A rick assessment
D. A rick review
19. Before daily work activities being on a pipeline project?
A. The inspector should carry the safety assessment
B. A permit to work should be applied
C. The weather forecast should be consider
D. The senior inspector should have a meeting with the contractor and representative.
20. The wet sponge holiday detector setting for a paint coat 600um final DFT would be?
A. 9 volts
B. 67 volts
C. 90 volts
D. The wet sponge detector is not generally used on this thickness of paint
1. What is the name of this equipment?
- Magnetic coating thickness gauge or Banana Gauge.
2. What is the purpose of use this equipment?
- Measuring the thickness of the coatings.
3. On which substrate we can use this equipment?
- Only can used on a ferrous substrate because this equipment working by magnetic
principal and springs tensioned.
4. Can we used for measuring DFT of paint which applied on top of non Ferrous
substrate?
- Can not used, magnet cannot detect the substrate.
5. If the painting system containing MIO, and the substrate is Ferrous, this equipment
can use or not?, why?
- This is equipment cannot use. Because the coating it self containing with iron
which give the gauge false reading.
6. This equipment working in which principles?
- Magnetic principle and spring tensioned.

1. What is the name of this equipment?

- Comb gauge.
2. What is the purpose of use this equipment?
- To measure the wet film thickness of paints during paints application.
3. Please describe how to use this equipment.
- Select correct scale number according to the wet paints thickness given and place
the gauge perpendicular to the wet paint films until the leg of gauge touch to the
bare metal, and the wet paint wetted the number selected at the tooth of gauge.
4. How to use this equipment on a curve surface?
- Place the gauge longitudinally on the curve surface.
 5. Other than stainless steel material, what is other material use to make this equipment?
- Plastic and aluminum
6. Plastic type of wet comb gauge use for what reason?
- Plastic type use for permanent record.
Home work.
1. What is corrosion?
- Degradation of a metal by chemical and electro-chemical means.
2. What is an electrolyte?
- A substance which will conduct a current and be broken down by it, dissociate
into ions.
3. Where electrolytes come from?
- From a surrounding area, or ambient condition which contain a water, salt and
alkalis.
4. In a corrosion triangle, anode, cathode and electrolyte, which on will corrode?
- Anode always corrodes this because the combination of elements or oxidation
takes place at the anode.
5. What is a mill scale and where it’s come from?
- A dark blue color on a steel surface with thickness of 25 um to 100 um, these
cause by a combination of oxide during milling process from very high
temperature to a cold temperature.
6. During corrosion reaction, what is a gas evolved at cathodes?
- Hydrogen gas.
7. Please explain on what you know about anodes, cathodes and electrolyte.
- Anodes positively charge and always corrode, cathodes are negatively charge
areas and protected, and electrolyte are a substance which will conduct a current
and be broken down by it.
8. Why the degree of cleanliness very important to our coating life?
- Degree of cleanliness will provide a surface to which the paints will readily
adhere and these will effectively a longer service life from the coating.
9. Prior to blasting activities, what is a material used for removal oil and grease on
substrate?
- Solvent, detergent and degreaser.
10. Name an abrasive used on open yard, and explain why?
- Copper slag and a garnet, both are expendable.
11. What is an expendable abrasive mean? List down an expendable abrasive?
- Used once only and then discharge. Copper slag and Garnet.
12. What is a recyclable abrasives means, and why must recycle?
- Abrasives which can used up to three times if cleaning units used to recollect, re-
clean and re-size before used. Because this type of abrasive have a very high
density and not easy to wear and also very expensive.
13. What will happen to the abrasives during impinge upon blasting?
- The abrasive shatter upon impact and the same time, chip out the contamination,
and at the same times roughening the surface and increasing the surface area to
increase adhesion properties.
14. List down the names of equipment used to measure blasting profile or surface profile?
- Dial micrometer with a replica tape or testex tape and surface profile needle
gauge.
15. Please explain: a) Sa1, b) Sa2, c) Sa2 ½ and d) Sa3.
- Sa1: light blast cleaning
- Sa2: thorough blast cleaning.
- Sa2 ½: very thorough blast cleaning.
- Sa3: blast cleaning to visually clean steel.
16. What is optimum pressure at nozzle during blasting, and names of equipment used to
measure?
- 100 psi, hypodermic needle gauge.
17. Please explain: a) St2, b) St3 and what is the different on each surface.
- St2: thorough hand and power tool cleaning.
- St3: very thorough hand and power tool cleaning.
- The appearance of St3 is much gloss, smooth and clean compare to St2.
18. What is the test name to detect the presence of soluble salts and soluble chloride salts.
- For soluble salts a test name is Potassium Hexa-cynoferate and for chloride salts
the test name is Silver Nitrate test.
19. Why there is no photos of degree cleanliness of Sa1 and Sa2 for Rust grade A in
SS055900, ISO 8501, BS7079 part A?
- Because Sa1 and Sa2 cannot totally remove Mill scale from the substrate.
20. In footner Duplex System, what is a suitable pH value use?
- pH 4.5-07 .
1. Name three basic ingredients of paints?
- Binder
- Solvent (if applicable)
- Pigment
- Other additives
2. What is a binder and its function in a paint formula?
- A film former, vehicle and non-volatile, its function for ease of application,
adhesion to substrate, resistance to abrasion and chemical attack, change a liquid
into solid, dielectric strength and cohesive strength.
3. List down a pigment use in paint formula?
- Rust inhibitive pigment
- Metal pigment
- Opaque pigment
- Extender pigment
- Laminar pigment
4. What is a pigment use on primer coat?
- Rust inhibitive pigment
- Metal pigment
5. What is the name of additives pigment use for opacity?
- Opaque pigment
6. What is a means of opacity, please explain?
 - Opaque pigments are inert particles with excellent light scattering properties in
order to give covering power, (opacity) and color.
7. What is laminar pigment, explain their function and list down a paint names which
containing with laminar pigment?
- Plate like,' pigments such as MIO (Micaceous iron oxide), aluminum flake, glass
fake, mica and graphite, provide excellent barriers. These pigments have a leafing
effect and in theory overlap when the coating dries.
8. Please list down the name of paint additives, function and their properties in a paint?
- Anti-settling agent for shelf life of paint
- Plasticizer for paint flexibility
- Drier for oxidizing oil and resin
- Anti-skinning for retard the formation of a skin on the surface of the paint
9. Please explain these: suspension, dispersion, solution?
- Suspension: fine particulate solid dispersed within a liquid, no solubility. E.g.
Sand and water.
- Dispersion: solid of liquid, within another liquid, where there is no solubility.
- Solution: the result of liquid produced by dissolving a solute in a solvent.
10. Epoxy is a binder; please explain the properties of epoxy?
- Provide good chemical, solvent and water resistance and good exterior durability
- Prone to chalking
11. What is thixotropic paint?
- Jelly paints, non-drip and if stirred change to normal liquid consistency and when
it left, they slowly revert to thixotropic consistency.
12. In multi component liquid paint, what is a medium for their curing process?
- Chemical curing using a part B, Curing agent, Hardener or catalyst.
13. What is the term of Non reversible and convertible?
- Thermosetting. Their chemical structure cannot change of remove after cure.
14. In which document that you can find an over coating time, induction periods and pot
life?
- Paint manufacturer product date sheet or technical data sheet.
15. What is means of induction periods and what happen to paints during induction
period?
- The length of time after mixing which the paint should stand before used.
Chemical reaction will commence and will be either an endothermic reaction or an
exothermic reaction happen.
16. In a three coat paint system, what is a function of rust inhibitive primer?
- Added into primer to protect the steel substrate by passivation.
17. Please explain the function of Barrier in a paint system?
- Applied over primer to prevent further water passing into the film and leaching
out the inhibitive pigmentation.
18. What is a paint system use for service temperature above 340oC in PA10 SPA3?
- First option thermally sprayed aluminum.
- Second option is inorganic zinc silicate with next layer was sealer and follow by
heat to cure sealer.
 - Third option is polysilixane inorganic coating.
19. Please write the operation chart for painting Damp metal surface in table SPA4a?
- Remove all surface contamination, blast clean to Sa 2 ½ , wash by clean water
remove droplets and standing water and lastly apply paint system by brush
application

-
20. Why do we do a galvanized in steel substrate, please explain?
- For longer protection up to 60 year using a zinc as a material which will sacrifice
itself to protect the substrate.
1. What is water borne coating?
- Solvent free material or water based paint which complies with COSHH and EPA
requirement.
2. What is a means of compliant in COSHH and EPA regulation?
- Refer to material which complies with COSHH and EPA requirement and used for
Bgas Transco site.
3. What is BS 3900 means?
- Method of test for paint.
4. What are the equipment names for measuring viscosity of paint?
- Rotothinner
- Krebs Stormer viscometer
- Flow cups
5. Explain high viscosity, low viscosity?
- High viscosity: Fluids with a high resistance to flow and will not run easily.
- Low viscosity: fluid run very easily.
6. What is a means of viscosity?
- A fluid resistance to flow.
7. Why a wet film thickness must be checked immediately during paint application?
- Paint will start drying or curing process immediately after paint application which
will affect the accuracy of wet film thickness upon checking.
8. List down all equipment use for measuring wet film thickness?
- Eccentric wheel
 - Comb gauge
9. Please explain how to use eccentric wheel?
- To use the wheel it should be placed on the surface with the zero at the six o'clock
position, rolled through 180° in one direction, back to the zero and then 180° in
the opposite direction, back to zero. The wet film thickness value is taken by
transferring (mentally) the interface between wet and dry on both sides of the
eccentric rim into a value from the scale. The average of the two values is the
WFT of the paint film
10. List down all equipment use to measuring dry film thickness of paint?
- Paint inspector gauge.
- Eddy current.
- Electromagnetic induction.
- Magnetic horseshoe gauge .
- Tinsley pencil / pull of gauge.
- Banana gauge / magnetic coating thickness gauge.
11. Please explain how the rotothinner, krebs stormer and flow cups working?
- Rotothinner, Rotational viscometers rely on a paddle, disc or ball rotating in a
liquid to measure the viscosity. The rotation can be driven by an electric motor,
which gives dynamic viscosity measurements.
- Krebs stormer viscometer, Rotational viscometers rely on a paddle, disc or ball
rotating in a liquid to measure the viscosity. The rotation can be driven by falling
weights which gives kinematic viscosity measurements.
- Flow cups: by fill up a cup with a paint and wait for paints liquid run from an
orifice nozzle at the bottom of a cup.
12. What is benefit if we measuring the WFT?
- Gives confident that after paint dry the dry film thickness is in a specification
acceptance range and control the consumption of paint used.
13. What is Hegman Grind gauge? Describe how to use this equipment?
- Equipment use for measuring the degree of dispersion of paint. After paint milling
put some paint inside the groove of this equipment and make it parallel by a
scrapper, immediately by visual, looking at a within 3mm band between a gloss
and matt for their results.
14. Opacity is very important for paint, what are the methods uses for measuring of
opacity?
- Hiding power chart with applicator bar
- Black and white fused plate
- Pfund Cryptometer trough type
15. What is a means of adhesion?
- A force required to separate two surfaces in touch.
16. What is suitable equipment use for adhesion test on a paint thickness of DFT 300um?
- V cut test
- Cross cut (cross hatch test)
- Dolly test
- Hydraulic adhesion test equipment
17. Please explain, Relative humidity, Dew point?
- Relative humidity, the amount of water vapor in the air expressed as a percentage
of the amount of water vapor which could be in the air at that same temperature.
- Dew point, temperature at which water vapor in the air will condense.
18. What is maximum relative humidity % in BS which not allows to paint?
- 90% RH
19. What is equipment name for measuring % Relative Humidity and Dew point
temperature?
- RH and dew point are defined by calculated or hygrometric tables,
20. What is minimum Dew point temperature which not allows painting, why?
- Dew point must be always 3oC below steel temperature reading, if the Dew point
is same or higher than steel temperature reading, condensation will occur.
1. What is the function of Cathodic Protection?
- As a secondary line of defense against corrosion by sacrificial anode system or
impress current system.
2. How sacrificial anodes systems work?
- Work on the principle of a bimetallic corrosion.
3. Where is the correct location to install these sacrificial anodes?
- Directly to substrate where surrounded by an electrolyte.
4. What is the equipment used to detect a pin hole or holiday on paint coating with DFT
of 550um
- High voltage pin hole / holiday detector.
5. What is the equipment used to detect a pin hole or holiday on a paint coating with
DFT 420um
- Wet sponge pin hole / holiday detector.
6. What is the correct current / voltage setting when use Wet sponge pin hole detector on
a paint/ coating with DFT 275um?
- 9 volts current setting.
7. Why Bgas Transco not allow using roller as a paint application?
- Create a bubbles, uneven films thickness, roller marks, wool of roller stuck at the
peak of blasting profile and low production rate.
8. What is the advantages when use a paint Brush?
- Wetted out the surface, can used on difficult accesses, low wastage and suitable
for small areas, no spotting and over spray.
9. How is the electro-static spray application working?
- Small air driven by turbine is mounted on the gun and supplies with current on the
tip and operates in the region of 85kv. The component to be coated is earth into
the same circuit and become negatively charged and the coating material is
positively charged and during application the coating material will be spray
through an ionized air and then attracted to the component or substrate.
10. Please describe on a term of “wrap around effect” in electro-static
- The coating can stick all around the pipe or substrate easily without any miss
spray or holiday and gives sufficient thickness.
 - When the coating thickness increases it has an insulation effect and the coating
material is then drawn to other charged areas, it produces a more uniform coating.
11. What is the name of equipment use for applying a thermally Spray aluminum?
- Wire and pistol system.
12. What is a recommended of Degree of Cleanliness on substrate before Appling a thermally
spray aluminum?
- Blast clean to Sa3 grade.
13. What are major cause of sagging, how to avoid this paint fault?
- Low viscosity of paint
- Paint viscosity shall be control by following manufacture recommended solvent
mixing.
14. What is BS 4800?
- Paint color for building purpose, 100 colors from total 237 colors in BS 5252.
15. What is BS 1710?
- Color coding for pipework.( BS 1710 British Standard Pipe Marking)
16. What is a necessary safety action when working in confine space?
- Enough lighting
- Good ventilation
- Free from gases and toxic
- Working in a group
17. What is a document related to Safety on Blasting?
- IGE SR 21
18. What is duty of a painting inspector?
- Ensure that all work is carried out in according to the specification requirement,
report any deviation from specification especially malpractices. Do a visual
inspection on surface preparation, paint application and dry paint films. Writing
for daily activities, writing a report for ends on contract; daily report signed off, a
complete register of control document, a complete record of test results, all NCR
should be closed out, complete waste disposal records and a complete
correspondence file.
19. According to PA 10 explain short term protection, medium term protection and long
term protection?
- Short term protection: typically two to three years life
- Medium term protection: protection typically lasting 5 years
- Long term protection: protection typically lasting 10 years
20. Please explain this Qa and Qc?
- Qa means quality assurance as being a management tool, a method of maintaining
and improving quality.
- Qc means quality control which the definition is operating techniques and
activities that are used to fulfill requirements for quality.
1. The dew point calculator

-
2. Viscosity, Ford flow cup, No. 4.

-
- Level the stand and cup. Place another cup under the flow cup to catch the paint.
Fill the cup with paint ensuring it is full whilst covering the 4mm hole in the
bottom. Run a straight edge over the lip of the cup to ensure it is full.
Simultaneously remove finger from bottom ad start stop watch. Time until 1st
break in flow. The time recorded is the viscosity in second at the temperature.
3. Wet film thickness measurement – Eccentric Wheel.
 -
- Hold between thumb & index finger and roll through wet paint starting at the roll
at zero.
- Sprayer should be completing this as they spray to ensure they have applied
sufficient paint, if they have not they can apply more at that time.
4. Cross hatch cutter.

-
- The coating thickness determines the cutter size used. The 1mm cutter is suitable
for coating under 60 um, the 2mm cutter is suitable for coating over 60 um.
- Simple operation, each Cross Hatch cutter has 6 cutting blades spaced either 1mm
or 2mm apart, one cutting pass make 6 cuts in the coating, a second pass at 90o
makes a square lattice pattern. Apply adhesive tape over the cut section and within
5 minutes remove tape. Classify the cut area according to BS 3900 pt. E6
5. Dolly test.
 -
- Ensure the test area is clean and free from oil, grease, lightly abrade the area and
apply mixed two pack heavy duty adhesive. Firmly place the aluminum alloy
dolly in position onto the adhesive ensuring that the skirted flange is to the
adhesive. Leave for manufacturers recommended cure time. Place the core drill
supplied around the dolly and cut through the coating to the substrate (this ensures
that only the area of dolly flange receives the pull off forces). Apply the pull off
gauge and apply pull off force, (some models use a ratcheted lever, others a
knurled wheel) until failure occurs. This will usually involve a loud bang and the
instrument will jump from the substrate. Examine the face of dolly and apportion
adhesive failure according to areas exposed, at the pull off force indicated on the
scale.
6. Hegman gauge.

-
- Fill the deepest end with paint. Draw the paint along the gauge with the profiled
scraper to fill the entire length. Within 3 seconds look parallel along the length of
the gauge to see where, within 3cm length, where 5 to 10 aggregates break
through the surface. This will show where the paint changes from gloss to matt
with gloss being the deeper and mat being the shallow end.
7. High voltage holiday detector.
 -
- Typical high voltage sets for pinhole and holiday detector operate up to 5kV, this
is far too high for a normal paint system. Used for painting systems which are
above 500um.
8. Wet sponge holiday detector.

-
- The sponge electrode is wetted in water with a tiny amount of detergent/ washing
up liquid added, and squeezed out to remove excess water. Attach earthing wire to
items under inspection. After switching on anh selection of operating voltage, the
sponge is traversed methodically over the area. On a vertical surface it is better to
work upwards. On contract with a pinhole, the wetting agent (detergent) allows
 immediate penetration of the water, so providing a very low resistance circuit
back to the control box. A high pitched bleep indicates the presence of a pinhole,
the exact position of which is located by using a corner of the sponge. The
position is then marked ready for repair. Used for coating thickness of less than
500um. Typical voltage range is 9 to 90 volts, some can be set at 67.5 volts.
9. Hydraulic adhesion test equipment (HATE)

-
- This is a much quicker test with a higher degree of accuracy than the mechanical.
The HATE use Cyano-acrylic impact adhesives and can usually be done
approximately two hours after dolly/ adhesive application, the dollies are mild
steel and reusable because they are heated up to destroy the adhesive after use.
Big downside for this test is initial cost and usually high maintenance.
10. The Whirling Hydrometer.

-
11. The frame with the thermometers mounted should be rotated quickly about a
horizontal axis. (BS 2482 states in front of and to windward of the operator) so that
the bulbs pass through the air at 4m/sec. If there is a wind the operator should face
into the wind, if no wind then walk slowly into a clean air current The frame should
be rotated for 30-40 seconds, or as otherwise specified, as fast as possible (to meet
 requirement as above) and then read the values on the thermometer always the wet
bulb first, immediately on ceasing rotation. The water on the wet bulb uses heat
energy from air to change into water vapour, so the wet bulb will give a lower
temperature reading than dry bulb. When rotation stops, the aspiration rate slows and
so the wet bulb temperature will slowly start to rise towards that of the dry bulb. This
operation should be repeated as many times as is necessary until the following criteria
is met. Or two consecutive spins the readings should be within 0.2°C, wet bulb to wet
bulb and dry bulb to dry bulb.
12. Magnetic temperature gauge. Limpet Gauge.

-
- The air temperature is temperature recorded from the dry bulb thermometer. To
measure the steel substrate temperature a magnetic gauge known commonly as a
limpet gauge is used, or a digital thermometer, thermocouple, sometime called a
touch pyrometer. Limpet gauge must be in contact with the substrate for at least
15 minutes and not in direct sunlight.
13. Dial micrometer

-
 - To calibrate: clean anvils & ensure dial is set to zero, lock the dial replica tape to
be used as instructed. Place tape between anvils and read measurement, deduct
thickness of tape to obtain surface profile reading.
14. Needle Gauge

-
- Calibrate on flat glass
- Ensure dial set to zero.
- Take minimum of 10 readings and calculate average.
15. Hypodermic Needle Gauge
-
 - Insert needle in to blast hose at an angle of 45o with air flowing. Needle must
point towards the nozzle. Read the pressure on the gauge.
16. Density cup / Pyknometer

-
- Weight the cup clean, empty and dry.
- Fill the cup with paint to 2mm of the brim. Fit the lid and allow air and excess
paint to escape. Remove excess paint by wiping and weight the cup again on scale
that are accurate to ±0.1gm.
- Deduct the weight of the empty cup from the final weight and divide the weight
by 100. The resulting answer is the density in gm/cc.
17. Abel cup.
18. Density cup/ pyknometer.

19. Krebs stormer viscometer

20. The PIG

21. Impress current system

22. Cathodic disbondment

23. Hot metal spray includes three method.

24. Cissing and cracking.

25. Cratering, curtaining / sagging.

26. Flaking, holiday.

27. Rash rusting / spot rusting.

28. Sand mill

29. Opaque pigments.

30. Silver nitrate test.

31.