A350 Questions

A350 QUESTIONS
100. A350-100 aircraft are not equipped with Brake Fans

a) TRUE
b) FALSE
c) 1H
d) 0.5 H
REF. DSC-32-40-10 P ¾
101. Maximum Cruise Altitude Limitation is 43100’ for both A359 & A35K variant
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
REF. LIM-AG-OPS P 2/6
102. On A350-1000 variant, when in alternate braking mode

a) A/BRK is available, provided that at least one BRAKES CTL is operative and the
accumulator pressure is more than 1800 PSI
b) A/BRK is available, provided that at least one BRAKES CTL is operative and the
c) A/BRK is available, provided that both BRAKES CTL is operative and the
d) A/BRK is available, provided that both BRAKES CTL is operative and the
REF. DSC-32-20-10-40 P 8/16
103. On A350-1000 variant, when in emergency braking mode

a) Manual barking is available via the brake pedals, the brake pressure is
automatically limited to 1130 PSI and the flight crew can apply braking ate least
6 times
b) Manual barking is available via the brake pedals, the brake pressure is
automatically limited to 1250 PSI and the flight crew can apply braking ate least
6 times
c) Manual barking is available via the brake pedals, the brake pressure is
automatically limited to 1250 PSI
d) Manual barking is available via the brake pedals, the brake pressure is
automatically limited to 1200 PSI
REF. DSC-32-20-10-40 P 12/16
104. Which statement is correct

a) A35K equipped with XWB-97 Rolls-Royce Trent engines and each engine
provides up to 97000 LB takeoff thrust at ISA sea level conditions
b) A35K equipped with XWB-97 Rolls-Royce Trent engines and each engine
provides up to 97000 LB takeoff thrust at ISA sea level conditions
c) Both A and B are correct answers
REF. DSC-70-10 P 1-2/4
REV 004
105. Which statement is correct for A350-1000
a) The middle wheel brakes on each landing gear are supplied by Green Hydraulic
System
b) The middle wheel brakes on each landing gear are supplied by Yellow Hydraulic
System
c) The middle wheel brakes on each landing gear are supplied by Green Hydraulic
System for one wheel and Yellow Hydraulic System for the opposite pair
d) Only the forward and aft pairs of wheels on each main landing gear are equipped
with braking system
REF. DSC-32-20-10-10 P 2/4
106. The Supplemental Cooling System (SCS) is a fully electrical system which
supplies cooling to the galleys. The SCS has two distribution units that supply this
coolant to the galleys on A35K and only one distribution unit on A359
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
REF. DSC-21-COND-10-40 P 1/2
107. What is the Maximum cross wind limitation for auto land
a) 28 Kts
b) 25 Kts
c) 35 Kts
d) 38 Kts
REF. LIM-AFS-20 P 1/8
108. What is the Maximum Crosswind for Landing (dry)

a) 40 kts for both A359 and A35K
b) 35 kts for both A359 and A35K
c) 40 kts for A359 and 24 kts for A35K
d) 40 kts for A359 and 35 kts for A35K
109. Autoland has been demonstrated for airports altitude elevation up to

a) 8000 Ft
b) 8200 Ft
c) 9000 Ft
d) 9200 Ft
110. What is the maximum tailwind limitation for auto land for A7-ALE
a) 12 Kt
b) 17 Kt
c) 13 Kt
d) 15 Kt
111. What is the maximum tailwind for takeoff
REV 004
a) 10 kts for both A359 and A35K
b) 15 kts for both A359 and A35K
c) 10 kts for A359 and 15 kts for A35K
d) 15 kts for A359 and 10 kts for A35K
112. Auto Land has been demonstrated for airports altitude elevation up to
a) 8000 ft
b) 8200 ft
c) 9000 ft
d) 9200 ft
REF. LIM-AFS-20 1/8
113. What is the minimum height for use of autopilot in approach with F-G/S mode
a) 500 ft AGL
b) Applicable minimum
c) 200 ft AGL
d) 160 ft AGL
REF. LIM-AFS 10 P 1/6
114. For approaches without auto land when will "DISCONNECT AP FOR LDG" pulses
on FMA?
a) At 150 ft RA, if the AP is still engaged, as a reminder to the flight crew that auto
land is not available for landing
b) At 200 ft RA, if the AP is still engaged, as a reminder to the flight crew that auto
c) At 50 ft RA, if the AP is still engaged, as a reminder to the flight crew that auto
d) At minima, if the AP is still engaged, as a reminder to the flight crew that auto
REF. DSC 22-FG-70-80-00 P 1/4
115. “- FD2”MFMA message means

a) Only FD2 is engaged and the FD are displayed on both FD1 and FD2
b) FD1 and FD2 are engaged but the FD bars are not displayed on FD1 and Air Data
Selector is set on the CAPT ON BACKUP position
c) FD1 and FD2 are engaged but the FD bars are not displayed on FD1 and Air Data
Selector is set on the F/O ON BACKUP position
d) Only FD2 is engaged and the FD bars are not displayed on either FDs
REF. DSC-22-FG-30-30 P 2/2
116. The use of AP or FD in OPEN DES or DES mode is not permitted in approach,
unless the FCU selected altitude is set to or above
a) MDA (MDH) or 300 ft, whichever is higher
b) MDA (MDH) or 200 ft, whichever is higher
c) MDA (MDH) or 500 ft, whichever is higher
d) MDA (MDH) or 800 ft, whichever is higher
REV 004
117. Auto land has been demonstrated for airport altitudes elevation up to
a) 8000 ft
b) 8200 ft
c) 9000 ft
d) 9200 ft
118. The AP or FD in OPEN DES or DES mode use is not permitted in approach, unless
the AFS CP altitude is set to, or above.
a) MDA (MDH) or 300 ft, whichever is the highest
b) MDA (MDH) or 200 ft, whichever is the highest
c) MDA (MDH) or 500 ft, whichever is the highest.
d) MDA (MDH) or 800 ft, whichever is the highest
REF-AFS 10 P 1/6
119. What is the minimum fuel temperature when using jet A1 fuel
a) -30oC
b) -47oC
c) -10oC
d) -60oC
REF. LIM FUEL P 1/2
120. What is the MAX refuel time on battery

a) 20 Min
b) 30 Min
c) 10 Min
d) 40 Min
REF. NOR-SUP-SUP-FUEL 3/8
121. What is the triggering condition of FUEL L(R) WING TK TEMP HI

a) The fuel temperature in the left (right) wing tank is above 35o C
b) The fuel temperature in the left (right) wing tank is above 40o C
c) The fuel temperature in the left (right) wing tank is above 50o C
d) The fuel temperature in the left (right) wing tank is above 25o C
REF. PRO-ABN-FUEL P 75/100
122. What can the crew consider in case of a FUEL LO TEMP ECAM
a) Decrease Mach number
b) Decrease to a lower altitude
c) Increase Mach number
d) B+C correct
123. When does the automatic refuel starts

a) As soon as the ground crew conforms
REV 004
b) As soon as the test is completed. The REFUEL IN PROGRESS MEMO APPEARS on
the WD
c) After the fuel pumps are switched ON
d) After the seat belt sign is switched OFF
REF. NOR-SUP-SUP-FUEL P 2/8
124. During a Manual engine Start, when the FADEC abort an abnormal manual start
a) In case of start valve fault
b) In case of oil pressure increase
c) In case of rotor over speed
d) APU bleed fault
REF. NOR-SUP-SUP-ENG P 6/8
125. What is the minimum oil quantity

a) 18 quarts
b) 13 quarts
c) 16 quarts
d) 15.5 quarts
REF. LIM-ENG P 2/6
126. What is the minimum oil pressure

a) 35 PSI
b) 15 PSI
c) 20 PSI
d) 25 PSI
REF. LIM-ENG P 2/6
127. For engine start, the engine oil temperature must be grater than
a) - 40 degrees Celsius
b) - 30 degrees Celsius
c) - 50 degrees Celsius
d) - 45 degrees Celsius
REF. LIM-ENG P 1/6
128. What is the minimum ENG oil temperature prior for takeoff
a) 50 degrees Celsius
b) 60 degrees Celsius
c) 70 degrees Celsius
d) 40 degrees Celsius
REF. LIM–ENG P1/6
129. On A350 the TMAX FLEX may be obtain up to

a) ISA +52
b) ISA +57
c) ISA +60
d) ISA +44
REV 004
REF. LIM-ENG P 3/6
130. What is the maximum headwind limitation for auto land

a) 43 kts
b) 40 kts
c) 35 kts
d) 30 kts
REF- LIM-AFS-20 P 1/10
131. How can the crew check ENG OIL QUANTITY before the flight if the ENG oil
quantity indication does not appear on the ENG SD page
a) By turning ING on
b) Oil can be checked after engine start
c) By pressing the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pb-sw on the overhead
maintenance panel
d) This information is available on the tech log
REF. NOR-SOP-40 P 9/16
132. What is the recommended starter air supply pressure when using air start unit
a) 20 PSI when the start valve is open
b) 35 PSI when the start valve is open
c) 15 PSI when the start valve is open
d) 25 PSI when the start valve is open
133. The recommended Turbulent speed on A350 is

a) 300 kts below FL 300 and 0.86 above FL 300
b) Between G/D and 300 kts/M 0.85
c) Between G/D and 280 kts/M 0.84
d) 300 kts / M0.85 which ever is less
REF. PER-IFT-20-20-10 P 1/2
134. CAB PRESS CTL MODE RESET is allowed in flight

a) True
b) False
REF. PRO-ABN-ABN-RESET P 48/14
135. CAB PRESS SYS FAULT is triggered when

a) Both the automatic and the manual modes are lost
b) Both the automatic and the manual modes are lost, or both outflow valves are
lost
c) Both outflow valves are lost
d) The semi automatic control unit (SACU) is lost
REF. PRO-ABN-CAB_PRESS P 29/32
136. What is the maximum time without air conditioning for 250 passenger
a) 13 min
REV 004
b) 22 min
c) 24 min
d) 20 min
REF. LIM-AIR P 1/2
137. During emergency descent, below FL100, flight crew should limit the rate of
descent to
a) 1500 Ft/min or less
b) 1200 Ft/min or less
c) 1000 Ft/min or less
d) 500 Ft/min or less
REF. PR-AEP-MISC P 3/30
138. What is the cabin altitude at which the pressurization system detects excessive
cabin altitude
a) When the cabin altitude exceeds 9550 Ft
b) When the cabin altitude exceeds 10550 Ft
c) When the cabin altitude exceeds 8550 Ft
d) When the cabin altitude exceeds 12550 Ft
REF. DSC-21-PRESS-10 P 3/6
139. AIR PACK BAY 1+2 VENT FAULT is trigger when

a) The ram air inlet or outlet is jammed in closed position
b) The manual control of the cross bleed valve is lost
c) The cross bleed valve is abnormally open
d) Both blowing fans associated to the pack bay ventilation are failed
REF. PRO-ABN-AIR P 85/88
140. What will happen if the thrust levers are not at IDLE during engine start
a) If thrust levers are not at IDLE, thrust will stay at IDLE until thrust lever is
moved
b) If thrust levers are not at IDLE, thrust will rapidly increase to the corresponding
thrust lever position, causing hazardous situation
c) Engine will not start
d) Master warning will be triggered
141. During ENGINE START VALVE MANUAL OPERATION, until when must the
ground crew maintain the valve in the OPEN position
a) Until bleed pressure is more than 40 PSI
b) Until the APU bleed is selected OFF
c) Until the engine is started
d) Until N3 is at 45 percent
142. On ground, if the engine is still running 10 sec after the ENG MASTER lever is set
to OFF how can the crew shut down the ENG
REV 004
a) ENG 1(2) FIRE P/B
b) Switch off the APU
c) Switch Off the Batteries
d) Reset engine master switch
REF. PRO-ABN-ENG P 94/170
143. When does the flight crew perform a dry crank

a) Any time start is aborted
b) After anytime manual start is successful
c) After start valve manual operations
d) After any time manual start is unsuccessful
144. What could happen if you lose ENGINE 1(2) FADEC totally
a) Nothing will happen
b) The engine is automatically shutdown
c) Auto thrust control is lost
d) AP is lost for the rest of the flight
145. What is the flight crew actions if the detect a fuel discrepancy that is not usual
after parking
a) Disregard
b) Maintenance action is due
c) Write it down on the OFP
d) Turn off the FUEL PUMPS
REF. NOR SOP 250 P 3/6
146. Is it permitted to use De-rated Take Off thrust for take off
a) It is permitted only on wet runway
b) It is permitted only on dry runway
c) It is permitted on wet and dry runway
d) It is not permitted for take off
147. At ISA sea level, with bleed off. What is the approximate fuel flow
a) 400 kg/h
b) 200 kg/h
c) 1000 kg/h
d) 700 kg/h
REF. NOR-SOP 80 P 2/6
148. When will the FUEL TEMP LO alert triggers it both FQMS failed
a) When the TAT is below -40oC for 6 hours
b) When the SAT is below -40oC for 6 hours
c) When the TAT is below -20oC for 6 hours
d) The alert is inhibited if both FQMS fail
REV 004
REF. ABN-FUEL P 85/100
149. What is the fuel penalty of flying at an altitude 8000 ft below optimum
a) Fuel penalty is approximately 30% of fuel
b) Fuel penalty is approximately 20% of fuel
c) Fuel penalty is approximately 10% of fuel
d) Fuel penalty is approximately 5% of fuel
REF NOR-SOP 20 P 2/4
150. What is the fuel penalty of flying at an altitude 4000 ft below optimum
a) Fuel penalty is approximately 5% of fuel
b) Fuel penalty is approximately 15% of fuel
c) Fuel penalty is approximately 25% of fuel
d) Fuel penalty is approximately 30% of fuel
REF NOR-SOP 20 P 2/4
151. What is the maximum THR to get the aircraft moving and taxi
a) 5 percent THR
b) 15 percent THR
c) 10 percent THR
d) 20 percent THR
REF. NOR-SOP- 100 P 2/8
152. What is the maximum operating speed for use of the wipers
a) 230 kt
b) 200 kt
c) 210 kt
d) 220 kt
REF. LIM-AG-SPD P 4/4
153. What is the maximum time limit for TOGA in case of engine failure
a) 10 min
b) 5 min
c) 15 min
d) 13 min
REF. LIM-ENG P 1/6
154. If the engine shutdown period is greater the 1.5 hours, how long is the minimum
engine warm-up period
a) The pilot should operate the engine at idle or near idle for at least 5 min
b) The pilot should operate the engine at idle or near idle for at least 3 min
c) The pilot should operate the engine at idle or near idle for at least 6 min
d) The pilot should operate the engine at idle or near idle for at least 2 min
REF. LIM-ENG P 6/6
155. After take off when should the flight crew set to ON ENG ANTI ICE pb sw
a) When icing conditions are expected with a TAT below 10oC
REV 004
b) When icing conditions are expected with a TAT at or below 10oC
c) When icing conditions are expected with a TAT at 10oC
d) When icing conditions are expected with a SAT at or below 10oC
156. A-ICE L(R) WINDSHIELD HEATING FAULT may be due to

a) A window overhear
b) A short circuit
c) A failure of the windshield temperature sensors
d) All answers are correct
REF. PRO-ABN-A-ICE P 15/48
157. How can the flight crew identify an engine stall

a) Sudden engine thrust dissymmetry
b) Flame out of the engine exhaust or engine inlet
c) Abnormal engine noises
d) All answer are correct
REF. ABN-PRO-ENG P 125/156
158. How can the flight crew generally identify high N2/N3 vibration
a) High N2, N3 vibration can occur without airframe vibrations
b) High N2, N3 vibration are generally associated with airframe vibrations
c) By Master Warning Light
d) Can not be identify by the flight crew
159. How can the flight crew generally identify high N1 vibration
a) Can not be identify by the flight crew
b) By Master Warning Light
c) High N1 vibration are generally associated without airframe vibrations
d) High N1 vibration are generally associated with airframe vibrations
160. Can the flight crew perform One Engine Taxi for departure
a) Only on dry taxi ways
b) One Engine Taxi for departures is not authorize
c) Only when visibility is more than 5 K
d) YES
REF. NOR-SUP-SUP OET P 1/2
161. What is the fuel penalty when an ECAM alert L/G DOORS NOT CLOSED and all
L/G extended
a) 15%
b) 100%
c) 115%
d) 130%
REF. PER-IFT-FP P 5/8
REV 004
162. What is the fuel penalty with an ECAM alert F/CTL FLAPS (SLATS) LOCKED, and
the flaps are at Conf 2
a) 135%
b) 85%
c) 60%
d) 55%
REF. PER-IFT-FP P 3/8
163. How would the flight crew identify the source of the fuel leak
a) The flight crew must stop all fuel transfers, and isolate each tank. Therefore each
wing tank will feeds the associated engine
b) Follow the QRH procedure
c) Identify it visually
d) It is not possible to identify the source
164. If there is leak detection in either pack

a) Both pack valves and cross bleed valves are closed automatically
b) Only one pack valve closes, the other one takes over automatically
c) Hot Air Valve closes automatically and pack valve remain open
d) If the Hot Air Valve does not close automatically. Both Pack valves of the
associated pack will automatically close
REF. DSC 36-10-60 P 9/10
165. When should the flight crew perform fuel checks according to SOP
a) Ever waypoint
b) Every 10 minutes
c) AT TOC, EVERY 30 MINUTES and at TOD
d) Not required
REF. PR NP SOP150 P 2/4
166. What is the maximum fuel temperature when using Jet A1 Fuel
a) 40oC
b) 63oC
c) 55oC
d) 45oC
REF. LIM-FUEL P 1/2
167. Maximum N1 (FAN MARK1)

a) 99.1
b) 96.1
c) 98.1
d) 108.1
REF. LIM-ENG P 1/6
REV 004
168. During engine start with ground pneumatic power, two ground pneumatic units
may be used in parallel. If the pressure / flow relation is expected to be marginal
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
169. Gust Load alleviation

a) Reduces the lift of the outer wing and reduce the loads in the case of turbulence
b) Is active above 250 kts
c) Can raise the aileron to its max deflection limit
d) Has priority over crew roll orders
REF. DSC-27-10-30 P 10/12
170. The outer aileron deflects

a) At all times together with the inner aileron
b) Only when the IAS is below 250 kts
c) Above 250 kts or Mach 0.55
d) In Normal law and when IAS is above 235 kts
REF. 27-10-10 P 21/32
171. During Manual ENG start if ENG 1(2) START FAULT because of EGT over limit,
can the crew do second ENG start
a) YES
b) NOT permitted
172. During MAN ENG START, when must the flight crew perform a dry crank
a) If the EGT is grater than 150 degrees Celsius
b) If the EGT is grater than 170 degrees Celsius
c) If the EGT is grater than 160 degrees Celsius
d) If the EGT is grater than 190 degrees Celsius
173. Can the flight crew simultaneously use engine bleed supply and external
pneumatic power for engine start
a) Yes, only in abnormal situations
b) Yes, only during winter
c) NO
d) Yes, there is not limitation
174. Can the flight crew press the engine fire pushbutton in the case of ENG TAILPIPE
FIRE
a) Only in flight
b) Yes
c) Only if the APU bleed available
d) No, this would cut the FADEC power supply
REV 004
175. What are the consequences of carrying unnecessary extra fuel

a) Extra fuel increases the fuel consumption for that sector and therefore reduces
the economy of the operation
b) Lower flex temperature, more tire and brake wear
c) More time in climb phase and lower flight level
d) All of the above
176. How would the flight crew suspect a leak in the left (right) wing tank
a) Refer to QRH procedure
b) If the fuel quantity in a wing increases faster that the fuel quantity in the other
wing tank
c) If the fuel quantity in a center tank decreases faster that the fuel quantity in the
other wing tank
d) If the fuel quantity in a wing decreases faster that the fuel quantity in the other
wing tank
REF. PRO.ABN.FUEL P 20/100
177. What should the flight crew do if a discrepancy exist between FMS and OFP fuel
requirements
a) Refer to QRH
b) If discrepancy exists between FMS and OFP fuel requirements, crew should uplift
OFP fuel requirements unless extra fuel is required for other operational reason
c) Apply a standard factor of 1.5 to the flight time
d) Rely to FMS
178. How would the flight crew suspect a leak from the CTR TK
a) Refer to QRH procedure
b) If the fuel quantity similarly decreases between the center tanks, and the fuel
quantity in the WING TK decreases
c) If the fuel quantity similarly decreases between the center tanks, and the fuel
quantity in the CTR TK decreases
d) Identify visually
179. How does the flight crew display the FUEL LEAK procedure
a) Refer to the QRH
b) The flight crew must press the ABN pb on the ECP, and then select the LEAK
procedure in the fuel section
c) Perform it by memory
d) Refer to the supplementary PROC
REF. PRO-ABN-FUEL 1/100
REV 004
180. What is the MAX refueling pressure
a) 90 PSI
b) 55 PSI
c) 10 PSI
d) 30 PSI
REF. NOR-SUP-SUP-FUEL P 1/6
181. What must the flight crew keep in mind behaviors that can indicate a fuel leak
a) A significant deviation between the planned and actual fuel data without any
reason
b) An excessive fuel flow leading to a potential imbalance
c) An abnormal decrease in total fuel quantity (i.e. FOB+FU)
d) All of the above
RER. PR-AEP-FUEL P 4/6
182. After engine relight why do we consider switching ON wing anti-ice and nacelle
anti-ice on the affected engine
a) To open the HP shutoff valve
b) To avoid N1/N2 over speed
c) This action increases the stall margin, with a trade off on EGT increase
d) All the answers are corrected
183. Rain repellent can be used as a windshield washer and to be applied on dre
windshield
a) True
b) False
REF. LIM-ICE_RAIN P 1/2
184. When is A-ICE SEVER ICE DETECTTED triggers

a) Severe ice is detected and the wing anti-ice system is off
b) Severe ice is detected and the engine anti-ice system is off
c) Severe ice is detected and the wing anti-ice system is fault
d) Severe ice is detected and the engine and wing anti-ice system is off
REF. PRO-ABN-A-ICE P 41/48
185. The engine anti ice increase the ground idle thrust
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
REF. PR-NP-SP-10-10-1 P 2/8
186. Can the flight crew continue the fight until the end if the EGT over limit triggers
a) Normal operation may be resumed until the end of the flight if the over limit
does not persist
b) Its not allowed
c) The crew must continue the flight
d) The crew must initiate a diversion
REV 004
187. In case of AIR APU BLEED FAULT, when does the APU bleed valve automatically
close
a) Above FL210
b) Above FL270
c) Above FL150
d) Above FL240
REF. PRO-ABN-AIR P 7/78
188. When the APU automatically starts

a) Both APU START pb and AVAIL light comes ON
b) Only Master SW on light comes ON
c) Only AVAIL light comes ON
d) There is no ON light in APU overhead panel
REF. DSC-49-30 P 3/4
189. The APU can be fed by

a) The right center tank pump provided that both feed valves are closed
b) The APU feed pump only if the cross feed valves are closed
c) The APU feed pump that operates automatically if required
d) The APU feed pump in case both cross feed valve failed open
REF. DSC-28-10 P 8/14
190. If the APU fails during any ground operations, can the flight crew restart the APU
a) Do not restart the APU
b) Yes
c) Yes, provided EXT PWR is on
d) Only after ground crew confirmation
REF. LIM-APU P 1/2 NOR-SUP-SUP-FUEL P 1/8
191. Air frame Deicing/Anti-icing procedures on ground, why should the flight crew
consider takeoff with APU BLEED OFF
a) If the fuselage was sprayed, there is a risk of fluid ingestion by the APU air intake
resulting in odors or smoke alerts
b) To reduce aircraft performance
c) To increase aircraft performance
d) Flight crew should always consider APU bleed
REF. NOR-SUP-SUP-ADVWXR P 2/16
192. Air frame Deicing/Anti-icing procedures on ground, when should the flight crew
consider using APU BLEED after fluid spraying
a) At least 2 min after fluid spraying
b) At least 5 min after fluid spraying
c) At least 3 min after fluid spraying
d) At least 20 min after fluid spraying
REF. NOR-SUP-SUP-ADVWXR P 2/16
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193. When can an immediate AUTO EMER SHUTDOWN occur
a) The APU SHUT OFF sw of the Maintenance Nose Gear panel is pressed
b) The APU FIRE pb on the overhead panel is pressed
c) The APU EMERGENCY SHUTDOWN sw of the external refuel panel (ERP) is
pressed
d) All of the above
REF. DSC-49-40 P 1/2
194. Operations on airports covered with ash, sand or dust, when should the APU be
started
a) Before takeoff
b) APU use is not permitted
c) After pushback
d) Only to start the engines
REF.NOR-SUP-SUPADWXR P 5/14
195. Why must the flight crew select APU bleed ON, just before engine shutdown
a) To prevent APU BLEED FAULT
b) To prevent engine exhaust fumes from entering the air conditioning
c) To prevent high temperature in the cabin
d) For passengers comfort
196. If the APU is supplying bleed air, what is the flow rate is the number of
passengers is not entered on the FMS
a) Air floe is adjusted to low flow rate
b) Air flow goes automatically to high flow rate
c) Air flow is automatically adjusted to the maximum number of passengers
d) Flow rate is adjusted manually by the flight crew
197. For how long does the APU FIRE pb-sw remains lit
a) As long as the fire is detected
b) As long as the FIRE pb-sw is pushed in
c) As long as the engines are running
d) It stays lit even if the fire is extinguished
REF. DSC 26-40-20 P 3/6
198. What is the APU Starter cooling period after 3 consecutive start attempts
a) 40 minutes
b) 80 minutes
c) 60 minutes
d) 20 minutes
REF. LIM APU P 1/2
199. What are the triggering conditions of APU FIRE
REV 004
a) Both loops fail within 5 seconds
b) Both loops A and B detect a fire
c) One loop detects a fire and the other is failed
d) All of the above
REF. PRO ABN APUF P 1/2
200. How much time should you wait before selecting the APU START pb-sw after
selecting the APU MASTER SW pb-sw
a) After 10 sec
b) After 20 sec
c) After 30 sec
d) After 5 sec
201. When should the CM2 consider turning off the APU MASTER SW when securing
the aircraft
a) Consider turning the APU OFF if required by local regulations and after all
passengers disembarked
b) When the slides are disarmed
c) Note required by the check list
d) Before EXT PWR is connected
202. During CROSSBLEED ENGINE START, why must the APU BLEED pb-sw be set to
off
a) To prevent AUTO SHUTDOWN
b) APU BLEED pb-sw should be on
c) To prevent multiple bleed sources that may result in adverse affect on the bleed
system
d) APU BLEED is inhibited
REF. NOR-SOP-SUP-ENG P 1/8
203. In which following cases the flight crew must immediately select REV MAX
during landing
a) A long flare or a long touchdown
b) A failure affects landing performance
c) The deceleration is not as expected
204. Why should the crew avoid using high levels of reverse thrust at low speed
a) This distortion of the airflow caused by the gases that re-enter the compressor
can cause engine stalls that may result in excessive EGT
b) This distortion of the airflow caused by the gases that re-enter the compressor
but will not have effect on EGT
c) Can cause engine fail
d) Can cause engine fire
REV 004
205. Can the flight crew start and operate the APU even if the OIL LEVEL LO ECAM
advisory is displayed
a) Yes, Maintenance action is required within 30 h of APU operation
b) Yes, Maintenance action is required within 20 h of APU operation
c) Yes, Maintenance action is required within 40 h of APU operation
d) No, not permitted
REF. LIM-APU P 1/2
206. The oil quantity advisory is inhibited

a) At takeoff or go-around
b) When the thrust reversers are selected
c) When the alpha floor protection is active
d) All of the above
REF. DSC-70-20 P 9/30
207. When does the APU SD page display the OIL LEVEL LO indication
a) If the oil quantity reaches the low level, when the aircraft is in flight and the APU
is not in operation
b) In case of APU FAULT
c) If the oil quantity reaches the low level, when the aircraft is on ground and the
APU is not operational
d) After performing and APU third start attempt
REF. DSC-49-10 P 4/6
208. APU SD page displays OIL LEVEL LO when the aircraft is on the ground
a) In normal conditions, the APU can continue for one more start
b) In normal conditions, the APU can continue to operate for at least 20 h
c) In normal conditions, the APU can continue for three more starts
d) Maintenance action is due or flight crew must consider APU inoperative
REF. LIM-APU P 1/2
209. What should the crew check while performing the APU FIRE TEST
a) The continues repetitive chime sounds and the MASTER WARNING light flashes
b) The ECAM displays the APU FIRE alert and the APU FIRE pb-sw comes on in RED
c) All SQUIB lights of the APU AGENT pb come on and ALL DISCH lights of the APU
AGENT pb come on
d) All of the above
210. What should the CM2 consider turning off the APU MASTER SW when securing
the aircraft
a) Consider turning the APU OFF if required by local regulations and after all
passengers disembarked
b) When the slide are disarmed
c) Not required by the check list
REV 004
d) Before EXT PWR is connected
211. Can the flight crew use APU BLEED air when HP ground air supply is used
a) Yes in case of one pack inoperative
b) Yes no limit in APU BLEED
c) Only when the cabin temperature is above 30oC
d) Do not use air from the APU BLEED and from te HP Air Start Unit at the same
time
REF. LIM-AIR P 1/2
212. Why may the crew keep the EXT PWR 2 when the APU GEN in ON
a) To shed electrical load
b) To reduce the APU load particularly in hot weather conditions
c) EXT PWR and APU GEN can supply the electrical system together
d) It is not permitted to use EXT PWR and APU GEN
213. In flight, the APU generator can replace up to :

a) All 4 engine generators.
b) 2 engine generators.
c) Single engine generator, the APU and engine generators are identical.
d) 62% of total electrical load in cruise.
REF. DSC-24-10-20 P 3/6
214. Can you use APU BLEED if a ground personnel confirms that the ground air unit
is connected
a) No, do not use APU BLEED
b) Yes, no limit on APU BLEED
c) Only when the cabin temperature is above 30oC
d) Yes, in case of one pack inoperative
REF. LIM-AIR P 1/2 NOR-SOP-40 P 6/12
215. What is the maximum altitude APU bleed air can supply air-conditioning and
pressurization (dual pack operation)
a) 22500 ft
b) 25500 ft
c) 20500 ft
d) 30000 ft
REF. LIM-APU P 2/2
216. Can APU BLEED be used to supply wing anti-ice

a) Yes
b) No, it is not permitted
c) Yes, only in severe icing conditions
d) Yes, only if engine anti-ice is not used
REF. LIM-APU 2/2
REV 004
217. What are the pilot flying actions if for ay reason during an RA the aircraft vertical
speed does not reach the green area od the vertical speed scale
a) The PF should disconnect the AP and override the FD orders
b) The PF should not disconnect the AP
c) The PF should turn in the opposite direction of the traffic
d) Try to establish visual contact and maintain own separation
REF. PRO –ABN-SURV P 7/52
218. During flight preparation for RVSM, what is the maximum altitude difference
from the airport elevation (QNH reference) between both PFDs
a) 20 ft
b) 100 ft
c) 200 ft
d) 75 ft
REF. PRO-SPO-RVSM P 2/4
219. Within RVSM airspace, the aircraft should not overshoot or undershoot the
cleared flight level by more than
a) 150 ft
b) 200 ft
c) 50 ft
d) 75 ft
220. The obstacle data base includes the location and high of all man made obstacles
that are above
a) 200 Ft surrounding terrains
b) 5 nm surrounding terrains
c) 450 Ft surrounding terrains
d) 100 Ft surrounding terrains
REF. DSC-34-SURV-20-10 P 22/24
221. What must the flight crew check if NAV PRIMARY LOST appears during take off
a) Check on the ND the FMS position I.e. That the aircraft is on the center line
b) Reject the Takeoff
c) GPS PRIARY will always be displayed
d) Disregard the message
222. In emergency configuration

a) RAT provides AC 230 V Power
b) Two emergencies TU provides AC 115V power from AC 230 V power
c) One DC static inverter (STAT INV) can also provide some AC 115V power from
DC 28V power
d) All of the above
REF. DSC-24-10-10 P 2/2
REV 004
223. The DC network is not available towing may be permitted
a) On Battery power (BAT1), TOWING ON BAT “ON” light come on “POWER” p/b
b) On Battery EMER 1
c) On Battery EMER 2
d) On Battery EMER 1 and EMER 2, TOWING ON BAT “ON” light comes on
“POWER” p/b
REF. DSC-24-20 P 38/38
224. What is the maximum acceptable discrepancy between altimeters for approach
using FLS guidance
a) 100 ft
b) 200 ft
c) 50 ft
d) 300 ft
REF NOR-SOP 180C P 3/20
225. When can the flight crew deselect terrain on ND

a) TERR on ND is not required for takeoff and landings
b) Only if the aircraft is within MSA
c) If the weather is a factor and there is no significant terrain to consider displaying
the WX image in both sides
d) When GPS is primary
226. After turning off the ADIRS, why must the flight crew wait at least 10 seconds
before turning off the electrical supply
a) To eliminate excessive drift
b) To extend the life of the ADIRS
c) In order to ensure that the ADIRS will memorize the latest data
d) To be able to perform a fast alignment
227. Which statement is correct about AIR DATA SOURCE

a) ADIRS has three fully segregated sources of air data parameters
b) ISIS system is independent from ADIRS. It has its own source of air data
parameters. Therefore Aircraft has four fully segregated sources of air data
c) In case of LOST OF AIRDATA from ADIRS, CDS can also use the EISIS fro display
on the PFD
d) All of the above
REF. DSC-34-NAV-20-10-30 P 1/4
228. Why should the flight crew select SURV SEL BELOW before initiation of descent
a) To display possible treats bellow the aircraft flight path
b) To engage managed flight modes
c) To inhibit TA/RA
d) To inhibit proximate and other traffic
REV 004
229. Can the flight crew use TERR on ND if NAV ACCURACY is LOW
a) Yes
b) No
c) Only in TMA
d) Only for decompression routes
230. In relation to the HUD policy, when must the flight crew revert to the PFD and
ND
a) TCAS resolution advisory
b) Controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) avoidance
c) Any MEL item restricting the use of the HUD
d) All of the above
231. When must the HUD be deployed

a) At cockpit setup until 20000 AAL and before start of descent
b) Only when required by pilots
c) Only during approach
d) Only during takeoff and landing
REF. NOR-SOP-20 P ¾
232. When may the flight crew use TA ONLY mode

a) In specific airports
b) For specific procedures (identified in OM Part C) that may provide resolution
advisories that are neither wanted nor appropriate
c) Closely spaced parallel or converging runways
d) All of the above
REF. NOR-SOP 110 P1/4
233. When can a SURV TWAS be considered cautionary

a) Only within 15 NM of the airfield
b) At night and VMC conditions
c) During daylight VMC conditions with terrain and obstacles clearly In sight
d) Only within the MSA
REF. PRO-ABN-SURV P 2/52
234. What is the maximum acceptable difference between the MFD and the charted
final lateral track for the approach in overlay to conventional radio NAVAID approach
using FLS guidance
a) 1o
b) 3o
c) 2o
REF. NOR-SOP 180C P 1/20
REV 004
final lateral track for the approach using FLS guidance
a) No limit
b) 2o
c) 3o
d) 1o
REF. NOR-SOP 180C P 1/20
final vertical path approach using FLS guidance
a) 0.5o
b) 0.3o
c) 0.1o
d) No limit
REF.NOR 180C P 1/20
237. When must the flight crew monitor the navigation accuracy
a) IRS only navigation
b) FMS POSITION MONITOR page displays ACCURACY LOW
c) NAV ACCUR DOWNGRADED message appears on the FMS message area and on
the ND
d) All of the above
238. When in DUAL mode. On each side the FMS can tune
a) 2 VORs, 4 DMEs, and 1 Landing System
b) 1 VORs, 2 DMEs, and 2 Landing System
c) 1 VORs, 4 DMEs, and 1 Landing System
d) 2 VORs, 2 DMEs, and 2 Landing System
REF. DSC-22-FMS-10-30-20 P 1/8
239. When must the flight crew perform a complete alignment

a) First flight of the day
b) Change in flight crew
c) GPS not available and the flight crew expects long segments is airspaces with
poor radio NAVAIDS coverage
d) All of the above
240. What are the consequences if a pilot does not follow an RA

a) The intruder RA will modify its command
b) The AP will disengage
c) Be aware that the intruder may have TCAS and may maneuver in response to a
coordinated RA order. Therefore not fallowing an RA order could compromise
safe separation
d) The threat will disappear
REV 004
241. What is the flight crew action in the ANF display does not correspond to the
outside view
a) The flight crew must disregard the ANF display
b) The flight crew must refer to the MEL
c) Crew must contact MOCC
d) Taxing the aircraft is not authorized under such conditions
242. Which one of the fallowing “approach and landing capabilities” is/are fail-passive
auto land”
a) LAND 3 SINGLE
b) LAND 3 SINGLE – LAND 2 – LAND 1
c) LAND 3 DUAL only
d) LAND 3 DUAL – LAND 3 SINGLE
REF. DSC-22-FG-80 P ¾
243. Can the flight crew preform an FLS approach if the FLS capability downgrades to
RAW only
a) Only if approves by the authority
b) Yes
c) No
d) Under commanders discretion
REF. NOR-SOP 180CP 5/20
244. On VD the magenta area indicates

a) That the direction of the route differs from the current heading by more than 3
degrees
b) That the terrain ahead of aircraft flying track is not reliable
c) That the heading selected by the flight crew and FMS RNP is equal or les than 1
NM
d) The area where TAWS stops displaying the terrain on ND
REF. DSC-31-CDS-40-50 P 18/26
245. On VD the grey area indicates

a) That the direction of the route differs from the current heading by more than 3o
b) The areas where TWAS stop displaying the terrain on ND
c) That the terrain ahead of the aircraft flying track is not reliable
d) Both A and B are correct answers
REF. DSC 31-CDS-40-50 P 18/26
246. The VD update may last few seconds longer than the ND update, ths is due to
a) TWAS mode 2 function
b) GPS function
c) The computation of the FMS
d) None of the above
REF. DSC-31-CDS-40-50 P 1/26
REV 004
247. On VD the yellow AIRCRAFT MOCK-UP may no longer appears on the VD scale if
a) The aircraft descends and the altitude target set on the AFS CP is too low
b) Onside RA is inoperative
c) RA 1+2 are inoperative
d) The aircraft descends and the altitude target set on the AFS CP is too high
REF. DSC-31-CDS-40-50 P 5/26
248. The VD range is always limited to

a) 320 nm
b) 80 nm
c) 160 nm
d) 240 nm
REF. DSC-31-CDS-40-50 P 4/26
249. On the VD, the altitude constraint is indicated with:

a) An upside-down triangle, for the AT OR BELOW altitude constraint and a
triangle, for the AT OR ABOVE altitude constraint.
b) Two triangles (hourglass shape, with touching tips), for the AT altitude
constraint and Two triangles (hourglass shape, with tips that do not touch), for
the ALTITUDE WINDOW
c) Amber dashes if approach has been manually activated.
d) Both a) and b) are correct.
REF. DSC-31-CDS-40-50- P 6/26
250. The Safety Altitude on VD is displayed in the form of

a) MSA only
b) MORA only
c) Either MORA or MSA both cannot be displayed at the same time
d) Both MORA and MSA
REF. DSC-31-CDS-40-50 P 20/26
251. VD displays the terrain in brown

a) Only if terrain height is higher the 200’ AGL
b) The color of the terrain does not change depending on relative terrain proximity,
nor during terrain or obstacles alerts
c) Only if TERR pb selected in EFIS CP
REF. DSC-34-SURV-20-20 P 21/22
252. The Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS)

a) Detects terrain collision threats and triggers applicable aural and visual
indications
b) Display TCAS information
c) Display weather information
d) All of the above
REF. DSC-34-SURV-20-10 P 1-24
REV 004
253. Which sentence is true should the TAWS trigger ‘TERRAIN AHEAD, PULL UP” or “
OBSTACLE AHEAD, PULL UP” alerts
a) Aircraft achieve the best climb performance when wings are as level as possible
b) The flight crew can initiate a turning maneuver while climbing
c) A and B are true
d) None of the options are correct
254. What is the standard call out as soon as “TRAFFIC’ warning is triggered
a) ‘TCAS CLIMB”
b) ‘TCAS”
c) “TCAS BLUE”
d) “TCAS RA”
REF. NOR-SCO P 5/10
255. Can the flight crew perform a maneuver based on TA alone

a) Yes, only in a visual circuit
b) Yes, only if traffic is in sight
c) Yes, if in IMC conditions
d) Do not perform a maneuver based on a TA alone
256. How can the flight crew display F/CTL LDG WITH FLAPS LEVER JAMMED (NOT-
SENSED PROCEDURES)
a) The flight crew must press the ABN pb on the ECP and then select LDG WITH
FLAPS LEVER JAMMED in the flight control selection
b) Refer to QRH
c) Not possible to be displayed
d) Only on OIS
REF. PRO-ABN-F_CTL P 1/164
257. When the entire content of DEFERRED PROCEDURE is displayed in grey, it

means that
a) The procedure is ACTIVATED
b) The procedure is NOT AVTIVE
c) The DEFRD RECALL is pressed
REF.DSC 31-CDS-60-10-40 P 12/38
258. On CHECKLIST menu page, When RESET button clicked

a) Al no sensed items remain validated
b) Sensed items lines for which action is completed remain validated
c) The blue selection box remains in its last position selecting the reset function
d) All action become blue
REF. DSC 31 CDS 60-10-30 P 13/16
259. When the flight crew exits from a checklist via the CHECKLIST MENU button:
REV 004
a) Each not-sensed item will be considered as actioned (BLUE).
b) The state of each not-sensed item line is memorized.
c) All not-sensed item line will turn to gray color when the flight crew calls the
CHECKLIST again.
d) All not-sensed item line will turn to blue color when the flight crew calls the
CHECKLIST again.
REF. DSC-31-CDS-60-10-30 P 14/16
260. For associated system control reset how many seconds are required?
a) Three seconds
b) Five seconds
c) One second
d) Four seconds
REF PRO-ABN-ABN-RESET P 1/114
261. The Auto thrust may be used with or without AP/FD in selected or managed
Speed /Mach
a) True
b) False
REF. DSC 22-FG-50-50 P 10/16
262. Which function monitors flight crew inserted data on the FMS pages
a) AFS backup Function
b) Flight Warning Function (TWF)
c) Takeoff Surveillance Function (TOS)
d) Airport Navigation Function (ANF)
REF. DSC-22 FMS-10-70 P 1/6
263. What is the crew action if a takeoff is performed from an aerodrome/runway

missing from the ANF database
a) The PF should be ready to cancel the alert using the master warning pb on PM
request
b) The PM should be ready to cancel the alert using the master warning pb on PF
request
c) Reject the take off
d) Disregard the master warning and continue as it is spurious alert
REF.

a) The GREEN normal hydraulic supplies hydraulic power to all 8 MLG wheels
b) The GREEN normal hydraulic supplies hydraulic power to all 8 MLG wheels
c) The GREEN normal hydraulic supplies hydraulic power to rear MLG wheels and
the YELLOW normal hydraulic supplies hydraulic power to the front MLG wheels
d) Both Rear and Front MLG wheels are supplied with GREEN and YELLOW normal
hydraulics
REF. DSC 29-10 p 10/12
REV 004
265. “EO MAX” LABEL on ACTIVE/PERF CRZ page
a) Depends on the engine state, if normal condition (both engine operative), it is
labeled GREEN
b) Will only be displayed if one engine is failed
c) Is always displayed in AMBER
d) Depends on the engine state, if both engine operative, it is labeled WHITE, when
one engine failed it becomes AMBER
REF. DSC 22 FMS 10-60 P 6/16
266. Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS)

a) Is controlled via pitch trim switches on the ground and in alternate law
b) Is controlled by the flight control computers, in flight and alternate law
c) Is controlled by flight control computers in Normal law and by pitch trim
switches in alternate and direct law
d) Is not available in Backup Control Law
REF. DSC-27-10-10 P 14/32
267. The Pitch Trim sw is inhibited in flight

a) Only when AP is engaged
b) Except in Direct Law
c) Below 100 when in Flare mode
d) When both HYD systems are lost
REF. DSC 27-10-20 P 19/34
268. During preliminary cockpit preparation, what is the procedure if the yellow
pressure indications is not in the green band and the APU GEN is OFF and only one
external power unit is connected
a) ACCU REINFLATE pb PRESS
b) GREEN ELEC PMP pb-sw PRESS (the white OFF light goes OFF)
c) GREEN ELEC PMP pb-sw PRESS (the white OFF light comes ON)
d) Non of the above

a) Electrical Hydraulic Pumps are inhibited in the air but are available after engine
start and during ground operation
b) Electrical Hydraulic Pumps are powered by 230V AC and requires constant
frequency of 400 HZ. Therefore both electrical pumps become inoperative after
engine start
c) Electrical Hydraulic pumps may be powered by APU or ENGINE generators as
the pump requires 230V AC
d) Electrical Hydraulic Pumps are powered by 115 V AC in the air and 230V AC on
the ground
REF. DSC 29-10 P 5/12
270. “ENG 1(2) FIRE DET FAULT” alert triggers in amber when
a) One loop detects fault
REV 004
b) Only one loop detects fire
c) When both loops (A and B) detect fault
d) When one loop detects fault and the other one detests fire
REF. DSC 26-30-10 P 5/6
271. Fallowing an automatic start the APU bleed valve opens and the APU supplies
bleed air to the bleed air system when
a) The APU is AVAIL
b) The flight crew sets one engine master lever to the STAR position
c) The aircraft is below 25000 ft
d) All of the above conditions are met
REF. DSC-49-30 P ¾

a) When all flight control computers are lost, the aircraft goes to Electrical Backup
Mode
b) On 350, Alternate Law is subdivided to ALT 1 and ALT 2
c) When Aircraft is far outside of the protected envelope, normal law changes to
Abnormal Attitude LAW
d) Both A & C are correct answers
REF. DSC 27-10-40 P 6/8 DSC 27-10-40 P 5/8
273. On a STALL RECOVERY, when stall indications are no longer present the
fallowing actions apply
a) Apply NOSE DOWN PITCH CONTROL and bank to WINGS LEVEL
b) INCREASE THRUST SMOOTHLY as needed, check SPEED BRAKES RETRACTED,
SMOOTHLY RECOVER the flight path
c) Apply NOSE DOWN PITCH CONTROL and bank to WINGS LEVEL in a clean
configuration and above 20000 ft select FLAP 1
d) INCREASE THRUST SMOOTHLY as needed, check SPEED BRAKES RETRACTED,
SMOOTHLY RECOVER the flight path, If in a clean configuration and above 20000
ft select FLAP 1
REF. PRO ABN MISC P 47/52
274. To reach a stabilized temperature in the cabin

a) Air conditioning requires approximately 10 minutes, 5 minutes for cabin
temperature adjustment and 5 minutes to compensate heat dissipation from the
cabin system
b) Air conditioning requires approximately 5 minutes, to compensate heat
dissipation from the cabin system
c) Air conditioning requires approximately 20 minutes, 10 minutes for cabin
temperature adjustment and 10 minutes to compensate heat dissipation from
the cabin system
d) Air conditioning requires approximately 20 minutes, 5 minutes for cabin
temperature adjustment and 15 minutes to compensate heat dissipation from
the cabin system
REF. DSC 21 COND 20 P 6/24
REV 004
275. In flight and incase of “ALL ENGINE FLAMEOUT”
a) RAT will be deployed to recover the complete emergency AC network and APU
need to be started to supply side 1
b) RAT will be deployed to recover the complete emergency AC network
c) RAT will be deployed to recover the complete emergency AC network and APU
automatically starts and supply side 1
d) APU will automatically starts and supply complete emergency AC network
REF. DSC 24-10-20 P 3/6
276. The AUTO DERATE option does not affect the climb ceiling as the Max Climb
Thrust is automatically recovered
a) 1500 ft below the REC MAX ALT
b) 2500 ft below the REC AMX ALT
c) 1500 ft below OPT ALT
d) At approximately 31000 pressure altitude regardless or final cruising level
REF PER- IFT 20-10-20 P 1/2
277. During an approach, if the deviation exceeds a quarter deflection in either

vertical deviation scale or the G/S symbol, both the scale and deviation symbols flash
when
a) The aircraft is below 1000 ft down to 100 ft
b) LAND 1, LAND 2 or LAND 3 appears on the FMA
c) G/S, LAND or FLARE is engaged
d) All of the above
REF. DSC 31 CDS 40-20-110 P 5/12
278. The automatic Pitch Trim Setting for Takeoff is a function of

a) Takeoff CG and ZFW and wing tanks fuel
b) ZFW CG
c) Takeoff CG
REF. DSC 27-10-10 P 14/26
279. Hydraulic exchangers

a) Are installed in Wing Fuel Tanks, each exchanger is capable to cool down any of
the HYD system
b) Each hydraulic system has one exchanger and cooling system
c) Each hydraulic system has an exchanger in each thank, the exchanger only
Prevents overheat and has an internal temperature control valve
d) Prevent overheat and thermal degradation of hydraulic fluid by a temperature
control valve inside filtering manifold
REF. DSC 29-10 P 6/12
280. Which Hydraulic system / systems control MLG's actuation and braking?
a) Actuation (GREEN), braking (GREEN and YELLOW).
b) Actuation (GREEN and YELLOW), braking (GREEN and YELLOW).
REV 004
c) Actuation (YELL0W), braking (GREEN and YELL0W).
d) Actuation (GREEN), braking (YELL0W).
REF. DSC-29-10 P 11/12
281. In AP/FD TCAS Mode when “CLEAR OF CONFLICT” aural alert sounds. TCAS
MODE automatically disengages and
a) The AP/FD reverts to basic a mode (HDG/VS)
b) The AP/FD maintains the same rate of climb or descent according to RA
c) The AP/FD levels the aircraft at the existing altitude, further tuning of AFS CP
must be made by the flight crew
d) ALT or ALT CRZ arms and the AP/FD provide guidance toward the previous AFS
CP selected altitude
REF. DSC 22 FG 70-100-10 P 1/2
282. Which ECAM alerts associated with FIRE TEST p/b activation
a) ENG 1 FIRE, ENG 2 FIRE, APU FIRE
b) ENG 1 FIRE, ENG 2 FIRE, APU FIRE, MLG FIRE
c) ENG 1 FIRE, ENG 2 FIRE, APU FIRE, MLG BAY FIRE DET FAULT
d) ENG 1 FIRE, APU FIRE, MLG FIRE
REF. DSC 26-30-20 P 5/6
283. If both Fuel Quantity Management System (FQMS) fail

a) Manual transfer is available through refueling panel only
b) Both cross feed valves open automatically and remain open
c) All indications on SD page will be lost
d) Pumps and cross feed valves may still be controlled via overhead panel
REF. DSC 28-10 P 12/14
284. Differential braking control of the rudder is available when

a) Aircraft on ground autopilot not engaged and the speed is above 50 kts
b) Only when the differential braking is more than 50%, the PRIMs will order
rudder deflection is addition to the rudder pedals
c) When the rudder pedals are not at zero, but with limit deflection order
d) All of the above
REF. DSC-27-10-30 P 7/12
285. Rudder pedals deflection is available

a) Only in normal and alternate laws, abrupt rudder inputs will be modulated by
yaw damper
b) Below 235 kts
c) When flaps FULL are selected
d) At all times no matter what is the aircraft speed and rudder deflection
REF. DSC-27-10-10 P 25/32
286. The authority of the rudder trim is

a) 80% of the maximum rudder deflection
b) 67% of the maximum rudder deflection
REV 004
c) 40% of the maximum rudder deflection
d) 85% of the maximum rudder deflection
REF. DSC-27-10-10 P 25/32
287. If PRIM 1 fails, PRIM 2 becomes the master as

a) It has the best operational capacity
b) PRIM 3 is always slave 2
c) SEC 2 has priority over PRIM 3
d) PRIM 3 can replaces PRIM 1 at times and in an alternative sequence with PRIM 2
REF. DSC-27-10-10 P 4/26
288. Which function manage the Center of Lift and reduces the drag in cruise
a) SLAT/FLAPS CRUISE BAULK Function
b) DIFFERENTIAL FLAPS SETTING (DFS) Function
c) FLAP CRUISE DEPLOYMENT Function
d) AILERON DROOP Function
REF. DSC 27-20-20 P 7/8
289. Changing and removing the alternate airport from INIT page
a) Will generate a temporary flight plan
b) Does nor create temporary flight plan
c) Is not possible
d) Is only available on the ground
REF. DSC 22 FMS 10-40-20 P 65/76
290. AFT CARGO components of

a) Two isolation valves and one bleed controlled heater
b) Two isolation valves only which automatically controlled
c) One isolation valve and an electrical heater, the heater stops in case of rapid
decompression
d) Two isolation valves and an electrical heater to obtain the desired temperature
and an extract fan
REF. DSC-21-VENT-10-40 P 1/2
291. When pressing the FWD cargo isolation Valve P/B the OFF light comes on and
a) FWD cargo outlet isolation valve closes and isolates FWD cargo for 10 seconds
b) Three isolation valves (two inlets and one outlet) will be closed
c) Only two inlet valve will close and outlet isolation valve stays for ventilation
REF. DSC-21-COND-10-30 P 5/6
292. Cargo smoke is equipped with two bottles

a) Bottle 2 is bigger than Bottle 1, therefore has more capacity of extinguisher
agent, bottle 2 has a flow metering system and slowly discharges (360 Min)
b) Bottle 1 is bigger discharges in approximately 1 minute and has more capacity of
extinguisher agent, bottle 2 has a flow metering valve and slowly discharges
(240 Min)
REV 004
c) Bottle 1 is bigger discharges in approximately 1 minute and has more capacity of
extinguisher agent, bottle 2 has a flow metering valve and slowly discharges
(360 Min)
d) Bottle 2 is bigger than Bottle 1, therefore has more capacity of extinguisher
agent, bottle 2 has a flow metering system and slowly discharges (240 Min)
REF. DSC 26-70-10 P 8/12
293. The TCAS manages up to 60 intruders but ND displays

a) The 6 most threatening intruder only
b) Intruders within the selected range on ND
c) The 8 most threatening intruders only
d) The 9 closest intruders within 2700 ft
REF. DSC 34-SURV-4-10 P 11/14
294. The Pack operates in degraded mode

a) When the flow downstream the pack control valve drops below predetermined
value
b) In case of an ACM failure, only heat exchanger is used to cool the air from the
bleed system
c) When the pilot selects MANUAL position by the Airflow selector on the overhead
panel
d) Above FL200
REF. DSC-21-C0ND-30 P 1/2
295. All pack valves of both packs are automatically closed

a) When Ditching P/B is set to ON or during engine start and the cross bleed valve
is open
b) During engine start and on the ground, they will remain closed for 2 minutes
c) When the ditching P/B switch is set to ON or during engine start and all doors
closed except L1 door
REF. DSC-21-COND-10-20 P 1/6
296. In case of Air Cycle Machine (ACM) failure

a) Below FL 220, the pack must stay On to avoid ice accumulation
b) Below FL 220, the pack must be selected OFF
c) Below FL 220, the pack can be used but pack performance is degraded
d) Answers B and C
REF. DSC-COND-30 P 1/2
297. With the air flow selector in NORM

a) The pack controller stays in HI demand only on the ground with two engines
running
b) The pack controller switches to HI demand when the APU is running and APU
bleed switch is ON
c) And one pack operation only, the pack control automatically adjust the airflow to
HI demand
d) Both B & C are correct answer
REV 004
REF. DSC 21-COND-10-30 P 1/8
298. The OVERTHRUST protection is active

a) When the aircraft speed is below M 0.45
b) When the aircraft is below 16600 ft
c) Only during TOGA thrust
d) Both A and B are correct
REF. DSC 70-10-30-20 P 4/6
299. On the THRUST GAGE the upper position of the gray sector indicates
a) Available thrust
b) MCT
c) TOGA thrust
d) 100% THR
REF. DSC 70-20 P 24/32
300. When the THRUST RATING mode is in GA SOFT

a) The engine thrust targets a vertical speed of 2000 ft/min
b) The engine thrust will be adjusted based on 85% of TOGA thrust
c) The engine thrust targets a vertical speed of 2000 ft/min or maximum available
thrust if the target V/S cannot be reached
REF. DSC 22-FG-50-30 P 1/10
301. On the VD, the altitude constrain is indicated with

a) An upside down triangle for the AT OR BELOW altitude constrain and a triangle
for the AT OR ABOVE altitude constrain
b) Two triangles (hourglass shape with touching tips) for the AT altitude constrain
and Two triangles (hour glass shape with tips that do not touch) for the
ALTITUDE WINDOW
c) Amber dashes if approach has been manually activated
d) Both A & B are correct
REF. DSC 31-CDS-40-50 P 6/26
302. On VD the magenta area indicates

a) That the terrain on the route differs from the current heading by more than 3
degrees
b) That the terrain ahead of aircraft flying track is not accurate
c) The heading selected by the flight crew and FMS RNP equal to or less than 1 NM
d) The area where TWAS stops displaying the terrain on ND
REF. DSC-31-CDS-40-50-P 18/26
303. The HEADING CONTROL FUNCTION (HCF) of steering system

a) Aims to mitigate aircraft veering during taxi when speed is below 50 kts
b) Is inhibited at T.O. and landing
c) Can order a maximum of +/- 3o
d) All of the above
REF. DSC-32-30-10 P 10/12
REV 004
304. With NAV PRIMARY LOST amber message
a) Navigation Accuracy will disappears from MFD POSITION /MONITOR page
b) The flight crew may still monitor ACCURACY (HIGH or LOW) on Position Monitor
c) FLS function capability will be degraded to RAW ONLY
d) FLS capability will not be affected
REF. DSC 22-FMS-20-20-20 P 321/492
305. On top part od ND, the BTV displays messages in the same area as TRUE
INDICATION
a) When a BTV message is displayed, it masks the TRUE indication
b) When a BTV message is displayed, the TRUE indication appears under the TAS
indication (on the third line)
c) When a BTV message is displayed, the TRUE indication replaces the TAS
indication
d) When a BTV message is displayed, the TRUE indication moves to lower right side
of the ND
REF. DSC -31-CDS-40-40-20 P 8/8
306. If the BTV is active and the flight crew did not disarm the auto-brake manually, at
what speed would the auto-brake disarm
a) 70 kts
b) 50 kts
c) 30 kts
d) 10 kts
REF. DSC-34-32-30-10 P 4/4
307. When considering the use of BTV, what is the maximum difference between
runway displayed on ND and the LDA publish in the chart
a) 10m
b) 15m
c) 35m
d) 20m
308. Why must the parking brake be set to ON during the exterior inspection
a) In order for the ground crew to check the tire pressure
b) To make sure the nose landing gear is centered for pushback
c) Parking brake is not required
d) To allow the flight crew to check the brake wear indicator
309. What is the crew action if wheels chocks are not in place during safety exterior
inspection
a) Aircraft boarding is not permitted until chocks are in position
b) Request the bridge to be connected
c) No action is required
REV 004
d) The flight crew must check that the parking brake is set with sufficient
accumulator pressure
REF.NOR-SOP-30 P 1/2
310. During safety exterior inspection, you observed a landing gear door open, can
you pressurize the hydraulic system
a) Landing gear doors can only be closed in flight
b) Not possible on ground
c) Yes, by obtaining clearance from ground personal
d) Yes, no confirmation is required
311. During cockpit preparation, why should the crew advise the ground crew before
selecting brakes fans to ON
a) It is an indication the aircraft is ready for push back
b) To prevent ear damage to the ground personal
c) To clear the area near the brakes
d) To prevent carbon brake dusk from blowing onto the ground crew
312. After landing rollout, when can the flight crew use the nose wheel steering
handle for directional control
a) Immediately after touchdown
b) When reaching taxi speed
c) Its not allowed to be used on the runway
d) When reaching 100 kts
313. A bogie Pitch Trimmer

a) Hold each MLG bogie in a correct pitch attitude during taxi
b) Hold each MLG bogie in a correct pitch attitude during rotation
c) Hold each MLG bogie in a correct pitch attitude during gear retraction
d) Hold each MLG bogie in a correct pitch attitude when the gear is not in contact
with the ground
REF. DSC-32-10-10-20 P 5/24
314. After performing a Landing Gear selection, when will the PM replay with the
selection callout
a) After Landing Gear is fully extended
b) After Landing Gera is down and locked
c) Before the PM moves the LG lever
d) The PM checks the landing gear indication on the PFD to confirm the landing
gear operation and replies
REF. NOR-SCO P 4/10
315. After performing a flap selection, when will the PM replay with the flap selection
callout
REV 004
a) The PM checks the blue FLAPS lever position on the PFD to confirm the correct
selection, then replays
b) After landing gear is fully extended
c) Before the PM moves the LG lever
d) After landing gear y down and locked
REF. NOR-SCO P 4/10
316. What are the MAXIMUM SPEEDS WITH LANDING GEAR EXTENDED (VLE)
a) 200 kts / M 0.45
b) 220 kts / M 0.48
c) 250 kts / M 0.55
d) 280 kts / m 0.67
REF. LIM –AG-SPD P 2/4
317. In alternate braking mode, braking performance is degraded as hydraulic power

is provided by
a) YELLOW accumulator only
b) GREEN only
c) Both YELLOW and GREEN accumulators
REF. DSC 32-20-10-30 P 6/10
318. In case of loss of braking, why should the crew release the brake pedals when
selecting A/SKID to OFF
a) To revert to alternate braking system
b) To depressurize the hydraulic system
c) To avoid brutal braking application when the emergency braking mode is
activated
d) To utilize accumulator pressure
REF. PRO-ABN-BRAKES P 1/54
319. In case of “HYD G +Y SYS PRESS LO” the auto brake mode remains available.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
REF PRO-ABN-HYD P 15/54
320. With G+Y SYS PRESS LO why will the fuel consumption increases
a) Due to aileron extension
b) Due to landing gear gravity extension
c) Due to flap slow
d) During the flight the spoiler(s) may gradually extend and increase(s) the fuel
consumption
REF. PRO-ABN-HYD P 17/54
321. With G+Y SYS PRESS LO why will the fuel consumption increases
a) Due to aileron extension
b) Due to landing gear gravity extension
REV 004
c) Due to flap slow
d) Due to loss of both outer ailerons
322. "HYD G (Y) RSVR PRESS LO” will be triggered when the affected pump pressure
is below..
a) 3000 PSI
b) 2700 PSI
c) 2200 PSI
d) 2000 PSI
323. What will trigger “HYD G (Y) ELEC PMP FAULT?

a) The electric pump is failed.
b) The temperature of the electric pump motor is above 190 °C.
c) The electric pump pressure is below 2755 PSI.
d) All answers are correct.
324. "HYD G (Y) PMP PRESS LO” will be triggered when the pressure ENGINE 1(2)
PUMP below
a) 3000 PSI
b) 2500 PSI
c) 3335 PSI
d) 3500 PSI
325. If BRAKES HOT alert is triggered, why should the flight crew not set the parking
brake handle to ON
a) To avoid oxidation
b) To prevent mechanical damage to the brakes component
c) Maintenance action is required with this alert
d) To prevent blowing carbon brake dust on ground personal
REF. PRO-ABN-BRAKES P 29/54
326. During taxi, when would the crew consider selecting brakes fans ON
a) When the temperature reaches 300o C
b) If an arc is displayed on ECAM WHEEL page above the brakes temperature
c) When the arc turns into amber
d) Brake fans are not required during taxi out
327. Do not use the BTV in case off

a) In the case of any aircraft failure affecting landing performance
b) Contaminated runways
c) Any reverser inoperative
d) All of the above
REV 004
328. During pushback, can the crew start the engine, if the ECAM does not display the
N/W STEER DISC memo
a) Only after obtaining confirmation from ground personnel
b) Yes they can
c) No they should no
d) Disregard the ECAM
329. “RUNWAY APPROACHING” ADVISORY triggers

a) 7 sec. before aircraft enters the runway area
b) 80 sec. from the runway threshold
c) When the aircraft crosses the CAT I holding point
d) All of the above
REF. DSC-34-NAV-80-10 P 4/6
330. The Runway Track (RWY TRK) mode engages

a) At 50 Ft RA if NAV is not engaged
b) At lift-off if NAV not either armed or engages
c) 5 seconds after lift-off and remains engaged as long as SRS mode is not available
d) If the flight crew pulls the HDG/TRK knob
REF. DSC-22-fg-70-20-50 p 1/2
331. The Maximum Take off Weight

a) 393000 Kilograms
b) 275000 Kilograms
c) 537000 Kilograms
d) 673000 Kilograms
REF. LIM-AG-WGHT P ½
332. The capacity on each collector cell in each wing tank is approximately
a) 1200 Kg
b) 1000 Kg
c) 1800 Kg
d) 900 Kg
REF. DSC-28-10 P 3/14
333. The FMS automatically cancels the WHAT IF scenario in the secondary flight
plan, if one or the fallowing occurs
a) The revised waypoint at which the FMS simulated the WHAT IF event was not
P.POS and the aircraft sequences this revised waypoint
b) The flight crew uses the SWAPT function
c) The EO mode becomes active
d) All of the above
REF. DSC 22-FMS-20-20-20 P 472/492
REV 004
334. When Engine Out (EO) mode is activated:
a) The flight crew may manually deactivate the (EO) mode only when engine is
recovered.
b) The flight crew may manually deactivate and activate the (EO) mode again.
c) As soon as the engine is recovered, the FMS automatically deactivates the (EO)
mode.
d) The FMS still maintains all the "altitude steps" if they are within predicted LRC
EO MAX FL capability.
REF. DSC-22-FMS-10-60 P 1/16
335. On A350 fuel gallery, Two Cross feed valves enable

a) Manual transfer of the fuel in the ground only
b) Any engine to be fed from any fuel pump
c) Fuel transfer from wing to center tank
REF. DSC-28-10 P 7/14
336. On “ENG 1 (2) FUEL LEAK SUSPECTED” alert triggers when

a) The highest fuel flow is greater than 3.8 times of the other fuel during 4 min
b) The highest fuel flow is greater than 1.5 times of the other fuel flow
c) The difference between (FOB+FUSED) and Block Fuel becomes -2 tones
REF. DSC-28-40 P 6/6
337. The Landing Gear Extension Retraction system (LGERS) provides

a) Compressed/not compressed landing gear information
b) Extended/retracted landing gear information
c) Gravity extension capabilities
d) All od the above
REF. DSC 27-10-10 P 8/26
338. A350 braking system consist of

a) Three braking systems (NORMAL – ALTERNATE - EMERGENCY)
b) Three braking systems (NORMAL – ALTERNATE - PARKING)
c) Four braking systems (NORMAL – ALTERNATE – EMERGENCY - PARKING)
d) Four braking systems (NORMAL – ALTERNATE – EMERGENCY - MANUAL)
REF. DSC-32-20-20-20 P ½
339. During LANDING GEAR ALTERNATE EXTENTION

a) Both NLG and MLG extend by their own EHA
b) NLG extends by independent EHA and only MLG extension is by alternate power
pack
c) Two alternate power packs hydraulically support L/G gravity extension. One for
the NLG and one for the MLG
d) One alternate power pack hydraulically supports L/G gravity extension
REF. DSC 32-10-10-20 P 13/24
REV 004
340. During Landing Performance calculation following IN-FLIGHT failure, if there is
not ECAM instruction, the FLAPS lever position for landing is
a) Always FULL
b) Always 3
c) At crews discretion
d) 3+S
REF. PER-LDG-50 P 2/6
341. The COOLING message in ENG SD page appears when

a) ENG is in 20 seconds cooling cycle between two manual starts
b) Engine is in 1 minute cooling cycle and flight crew must not turn the ENG master
switch to ON
c) A dry crank is in progress to reduce the EGT
d) Aircraft landed and “Minimum Engine Idle Time” has not completed
342. On the ground, with ENG MASTER lever se to OFF

a) FADEC will lose the electrical supply when N3 drops below 8%
b) FADEC alternator supplies the FADEC electrically fro 5 minutes after engine is
shutdown
c) The electrical network of the aircraft supplies the FADEC fro 15 min
d) FADEC alternator supplies the FADEC electrically fro 15 minutes after engine
shutdown
REF. DSC-70-10-30-10 P 4/4

a) Inner ailerons have one EHA and one conventional actuator
b) Inner ailerons have one EHA and two conventional actuator
c) Both inner and outer ailerons have two EHA and two conventional actuators
d) Inner ailerons have a conventional actuator only
REF. DSC 27-10-10 P 22/32
344. In flight the APU generator can replace up to

a) All 4 engine generators
b) 2 generators
c) Single engine generator, the APU and engine generators are identical
d) 62% of total electrical load in cruise
REF. DSC 24-10-20 P 3/6
345. Bus bar 1A(1B)(2A)(2B) is recovered if GEN 1A(1B)(2A)(2B) is recovered or the

automatic reconfiguration of the electrical network is successful
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
REF. DSC-24-40 P 1/24
346. What are the consequences when GEN 1A plus 1B are set to OFF when applying
the FIRE SMOKE /FUMES procedure
REV 004
a) F/CTL law degrades to alternate law
b) THS is unlocked
c) Cockpit lights are partially lost
d) Options A and C are correct
REF. PRO-ABN-FIRE P 7/12
347. One engine generator failed and the APU has been started in flight
a) Manual shedding is required
b) The APU will supply the AC EMER1 and AC EMER 2 bus bars therefore no
shedding is required, the remaining three generators provide full electrical
distribution
c) The APU will supply the bus bar of the lost generator, therefore no shedding is
needed
d) The APU will supply the AC EMER 1 and AC EMER 2 bus bars, auto shedding
required due to APU load limit
REF. DSC-24-40 P 4/24
348. Each FMS provides the onside ANF with the flight plan data
a) The origin and destination airports
b) The origin, alternate and destination airports
c) The RWY thresholds
d) Both B & C are correct
REF. DSC 34-NAV-80-10 P 3/6
349. In the air, destination airport moving map may only be displayed by ANF when
a) Bellow 10000’ and the A/C is less than 20 NM from the threshold of selected
runway
b) The airport is in ND range and the altitude of the aircraft is less than 5000’ AAL
c) The runway is in ND range and the altitude of the aircraft is less than 3000’ AAL
REF. DSC-34-NAV-80-20 P 7/20
350. The IDENT of an Anchor point in FLS approach is shown as “EP32L”, It

corresponds to
a) MAP
b) The identification of the Runway
c) Threshold of the Landing Runway
d) Both B & C
REF. DSC-22-FMS-10-30-40 P 8/20
351. When anchor point is shown in Magenta, it means

a) That the anchor point is computed by FMS and becomes green after passing FAF
b) The anchor point is pseudo end point and is computed by the FMS
c) The anchor point is stored in flight plan and is active (TO) waypoint
d) That the anchor point represents FAF
REF. DSC-22-FMS-10-30-40 P 12/20
REV 004
352. During approach, when destination temperature is below ISA and destination
temperature is entered in the APPR panel on MFD PERF page
a) The FMS increases the predicted path and only FMS green descent path
displayed in VD
b) The FMS decreases the FPA and only FMS magenta beam displayed in VD
c) The FMS green descent path displayed in VD and FLS runway symbol remains
fixed, however the anchor points shifts vertically
d) The FMS offsets both FLS beam and Runway symbol to maintain the vertical
clearance with the ground, therefore the green descent path and FLS beam will
not superimposed on the VD
REF. DSC-31-CDS-40-50- P 10/26
353. The FMS message “F-G/S BASED ON ISA” in Amber means

a) The computation of the F-G/S deviation is based on ISA temperature at
destination regardless of inserted OAT in APPR panel of the PERF page
b) The computation of the F-G/S deviation is based on ISA temperature at
destination. Flight crew did not enter the temperature at destination (OAT) on
the APPR panel of the PERF page
c) “LOC only” Approach selected by the flight crew and F-G/S deviation is not
available
d) Fully managed FMS approach is not available for the selected approach
REF. DSC-22-FMS-20-90 P 18/44
354. If the transition altitude (Level) is not available from the FMS, the default
transition altitude (Level) is automatically set to
a) 2500 ft RA
b) 2000 ft RA
c) 10000 ft RA
d) 25000 ft RA
REF. DSC 31-CDS-40-20-50 P 9/12
355. During flight FD’s come on view automatically if

a) Pilot selects TOGA and only if they were disappeared due excessive pith up
attitude
b) Go Around mode engages or upon resolution advisory when TCAS mode engages
c) Flight crew select the other AP
REF. DSC 22-FG-30-30 P 1/2
356. “FD 2” FMA message means

a) Only FD2 is engaged and the FD bars are displayed on both FD1 and FD2
b) FD1 and FD2 are engaged but the FD bars are not displayed on FD1 and air data
selector is set to the CAPT ON BACKUP position
c) FD1 and FD2 are engaged but the FD bars are not displayed on FD1 and air data
selector is set to the F/O ON BACKUP position
d) Only FD2 is engaged and the FD bars are not displayed on either FDs
REF. DSC-22-FG-30-30 P 2/2
REV 004
357. The temperature control valve (TCV) adjust the pack outlet temperature
a) Below FL 220 it will prevent Ice accumulation
b) Below FL 220 to support the pack valve with higher pressure
c) Above FL 220 it will prevent Ice formation
d) Above FL 220 it modulates the bleed quantity only
REF. DSC-COND-10-20 P 2/6
358. Each pack has two pack valves

a) They are manually controlled by pilots and regulate the temperature of hot bleed
b) They are automatically controlled and regulate the temperature of hot bleed
c) They are automatically controlled and regulate the quantity of hot bleed air that
flows to each pack
d) They are manually controlled and regulate both quantity and temperature of hot
bleed air at all times
REF. DSC 21-COND -10-20 P 1/6
359. Yaw Bar

a) Replaces F/D pitch bar in flare
b) Provides steering command and appears along in flare
c) Appears without pitch bar in Rollout
d) Appears together with pitch bar in RWY but does not provide any guidance
REF. DSC 22-FG-30-20 P 2/2
360. Yaw Bar:

a) Replaces F/D pitch bar in flare.
b) Provides steering command and appears alone in flare.
c) Indicates the required rudder input in order to maintain the aircraft on the
runway centerline.
d) Appears together with pitch bar in RWY but does not provide any guidance.
REF. DSC-31-CDS-40-20-20 P 2/2
361. Lateral Ground Law:

a) Is to facilitate aircraft handling on the ground.
b) Is a full authority control law in roll and yaw.
c) It will provide some yaw damping.
d) All of the above.
FER. DSC-27-10-30 P 5/12
362. For automatic approach, landing and Rollout, the fallowing maximum wind apply
a) Head wind 40kt, tail wind 10kt and cross wind 30kt
b) Head wind 40kt, tail wind 15kt, if airport pressure is above 8000 ft and cross
wind 25kt
c) Head wind 40kt and cross wind 25kt
d) Head wind 40kt, tail wind 15kt, if airport pressure altitude is at or below 8000 ft
and cross wind 30 kt
REV 004
363. The ground spoilers partially extends when they have been armed and
a) Any of the thrust reversers activated
b) Both Main and Nose gear are on the ground
c) Thrust reverser levers are idle and two main gears on the ground
d) Thrust levers are at idle and one main gear is on the ground
REF. DSC-27-10 P 23/26
364. When would the RAM AIR INLET open

a) The Ram Air Inlet opens, only if the differential pressure is below 4 PSI
b) The Ram Air Inlet opens, only if the differential pressure is above 2 PSI
c) The Ram Air Inlet opens, only if the differential pressure is below 3 PSI
d) The Ram Air Inlet opens, only if the differential pressure is below 2 PSI
REF. DSC-21-PRESS-10 P 5/6
365. When RAM AIR P/B selected ON

a) With ditching P/B is in the normal position and differential pressure less than 2
psi, each outflow valve will open to approximately 50%
b) With ditching P/B is in the normal position and differential pressure less than 2
psi, each outflow valve will fully open
c) The outflow valves will open 50%, when differential pressure drops to less than
2 psi, regardless of ditching P/B position
d) The outflow valves will open 20%, when differential pressure drops to less than
2 psi, regardless of ditching P/B position
REF. DSC-21-COND-20 P 4/24
366. RAM air P/B Switch activates the emergency RAM air
a) By opening the RAM air inlet on the belly fairing and only differential pressure is
less that 1 PSI
b) By opening the RAM air inlet under the avionic compartment and the pressure is
less that 2 PSI
c) By opening the RAM air inlet on the belly fairing only differential pressure is less
that 2 PSI
d) Automatically closes the RAM air inlet when differential pressure exceeds 2 PSI
REF. DSC-21-COND-20 P 4/24
367. In the case of CAB PRESS EXCESS CAB ALT when will the passengers oxygen
mask automatically drop
a) If the cabin altitude of the aircraft is above 13500 ft
b) If the cabin altitude of the aircraft is above 9550 ft
c) If the cabin altitude of the aircraft is above 10000 ft
d) If the cabin altitude of the aircraft is above 13800 ft
368. When is the CAB PRESS LDG ELEV FAULT triggered

a) When the OCUs do not receive the landing field elevation from the FMS
b) When the OCUs do not receive the landing field elevation from the ADIRS
REV 004
c) When the OCUs do not receive the landing field elevation from the RA
d) When the OCUs do not receive the landing field elevation from the CPCS
369. The 0% THR is the engine thrust when

a) Idle power selected
b) Idle power selected, it disappears as soon as ”Approach idle” becomes active
c) Aircraft is on ground, engines are running and idle thrust is selected
d) The associated engine is not running or when wind milling starts
REF. DSC-70-20 P 21/30
370. The engine thrust is always limited by the thrust lever position with or without
A/THR, except when
a) Aircraft speed exceeds VMAX +4
b) A.FLOOR protection is active
c) Aircraft speed is above .55 and OVER THURST protection is active
d) The aircraft is in Electrical Emergency Configuration
REF. DSC-70-10-30-30 P 1/10
371. “F/CTL SPD BRKs STILL EXTENDED” displayed in the ECAM

a) Aircraft in in Land mode and speed brakes are more than half extended
b) Aircraft is below 1000’ and the speed brakes are extended
c) When speed is manage and IAS reduced to VLS+5
d) Aircraft is below 800’ and Speed Brakes are extended for more than 5 sec
REF. DSC-27-10-20 P 41/44
372. The maximum takeoff and landing altitude is

a) 14000’ pressure altitude
b) 12500’ pressure altitude
c) 8000’ pressure altitude
d) 10000’ pressure altitude
373. On EFIS CP when barometric reference is changed by the flight crew

a) The vertical terrain profile remains unchanged until flight crew enters the new
reference in the APPR panel on MFD PERF page
b) In order to keep the barometric height constant between the aircraft reference
and the terrain profile, terrain moves vertically
c) The vertical terrain profile remains unchanged, crew awareness required
d) FLS bean compensates for new barometric reference and the terrain profile
remains unchanged
REF. DSC-31-CDS-40-50 P 17/26
374. If the aircraft approaches the terrain with the L/G down, flaps not in Landing
configuration and the speed above 180 kt, the following alert is triggered
a) TOO LOW TERRAIN audio indicator and TOO LOW TERRAIN visual indicator on
the PFD
REV 004
b) TOO LOW TERRAIN visual indicator on the PFD and PULL UP audio indicator
c) TOO LOW TERRAIN audio indicator and TERRAIN visual indicator on the PFD
REF. DSC-34-SURV-20-10 P 11/24

a) The FLS beam appears on ND only when a range of less than 40 NM is selected on
EFIS CP
b) The FLS beam appears on ND regardless of LS pb
c) The FLS beam is displayed on the VD only when the vertical cut is defined along
the flight plan
d) The FLS beam is displayed on the VD as soon as the APP pb pressed
REF. DSC-FMS-10-30-40 P 13/20
376. After recovery from Abnormal Altitude Law

a) Flight control system remains in direct law, all 3 PRIMs must be reset one at a
time
b) The flight control system will revert to Alternate Law for the remainder of the
flight
c) Flight control system remains in Direct Law, all 3 SECs must be reset on at a time
d) Flight control system remains in Direct Law, all 3 PRIMs and SECs must be reset
one at the time
REF. DSC-27-10-40 P 5/8
377. Which statement is correct with regard to the PRIMs

a) If PRIM 1 fails, PRIM 2 becomes master
b) If PRIM 2 fails, PRIM 3 becomes master
c) SEC 2 has Priority over PRIM 3
d) 1 and 2 are correct
REF. DSC-27-10-10 P 4/32
378. When the “DONE flight phase” is active, each FMC computes an average drift for
each IR position, drift is based between the IR position and
a) Destination RWY threshold
b) Aerodrome reference point (ARP)
c) Reference landing position (Destination RWY threshold plus 400m shift on RWY
access)
d) ADIRS average position
REF. DSC-22-FMS-20-20-20 P 314/492

a) During climb, if a time constrain is defined in the flight plan, the optimized
Speed/Mach is referred to as the RTA Speed/Mach
DSC-22-FMS-10-50-30 P 10/24
b) The crossover altitude is the altitude is the altitude at which the optimized speed
and the optimized Mach correspond to the same TAS
DSC-22-FMS-10-50-30 P 16/24
REV 004
c) In the preflight phase the operating speeds that are displayed on the PFD may be
different from the operating speed displayed on T.O. panel of the PERF page.
DSC-22-FMS-10-50-30 P 8-24
d) All of the above
REF. DSC-22-FMS-10-50-30
380. Manual validation of erroneous SQWK code results

a) The previous code to appear (instead of erroneous SQWK code)
b) The erroneous SQWK code appears again and crew must clear the code first
c) Temporary loss of previous SQWK code, the “SQUAWK CODE NOT VALID”
message appears on RMP
d) The newly inserted digit will replace the amber erroneous digit as the crew types
the numbers in
REF. DSC-34-SURV-50-20 P 13/14
381. ON MFD SURV page, the “TRAFFIC INFORMATION WINDOW” appears when
a) Intruder is within RA envelope and equipped with ADS-B
b) The bearing value is not available
c) The flight crew clicks on a traffic area
d) The flight crew deselects TRFC on EFIS CP and intruder is ADS-B equipped
REF. DSC 34-SURV-60-20 P 8/14
382. At landing the airport moving map automatically displayed to

a) Whatever the position of ND range selector and ND mode selector
b) PLAN 2nm
c) ROSE NAV 1nm
d) ARC 2nm
REF DSC-34-NAV-80-10 P 4/6
383. If the barometric reference is changed from QNH to STD a down path altitude
constrain unit
a) Remains as it was previously defined (FEET or FL)
b) Always remains as feet
c) Changes according to the current setting (FEET or FL)
d) Always remains as feet u tin A/C climbs above Trans Altitude
REF. DSC-22-FMS-10-40-30 P 23/42
384. SRS TO is engaged, V2 is suddenly lost during T.O. rotation

a) The PRIMs command a defaulted pitch value of 11o
b) Flight guidance reverts to basic mode (HDG-V/S) with a FD pitch command equal
to 1000’/ min
c) The manages speed target remains engaged and equals V2 because the PRIMs
memorize the target value at SRS TO engagement
d) Flight guidance revert to basic mode (HDG-V/S) with FD pitch command equal to
1500’ / min
REF. DSC-22-FG-60-20 P 2/12
REV 004
385. During rejected takeoff, if ground spoilers are not armed and speed is more than
72kts
a) They will extend 3 seconds after auto brake activation
b) They will automatically extend when the reversers are selected
c) They will automatically extend when auto brake is active
d) They will extend as soon as manual brake applied
REF. DSC-27-10-10 P 24/26
386. If ground spoilers are not armed during landing

a) They will automatically extend when two main landing gear are on the ground
b) They will automatically extend when one main landing gear are on the ground
c) They will automatically extend when the reversers are selected
d) They will automatically extend when BTV is active
REF. DSC-27-10-10 P 23/26
387. The Fire Protection System (FPS) for the Main Landing Gear (MLG) bay have
a) Overheat detection system in MLG through two identical loops for each sensitive
zone
b) Smoke detection system
c) A Fire Protection Function (FPF) and a Fire Extinguishing System
d) A fire extinguishing system through with two identical loops
REF. DSC-26-50-10 P 1/4
388. At what brake temperature will the crew release parking brake after confirming
chocks in place
a) 150 degrees Celsius
b) 300 degrees Celsius
c) When temperature >500o C (or >350o C Brakes Fan ON)
d) There is no limit
REF. NOR-SOP-250 P 4/6 PR-NR-SOP-230 P 1/2
389. During cockpit preparation who should the crew advice before selecting the
brake fans to ON
a) No advice required
b) The ground crew
c) The PM during walk around
d) The dispatcher
Ref. NOR-SOP-60 P 6/14
390. On the ground and during an automatic start, if the FADEC detects that the EGT
exceeds the temperature limit, the FADEC
a) Shutdowns the engine
b) Shutdowns the engine and automatically initiate a second start sequence
c) Shutdowns the engine and automatically initiate a second and last start sequence
after an automatic crank process
d) Shutdowns the engine after an automatic crank process, maintenance action is
due
REV 004
391. FADEC starts the engine via starter assisted start if

a) N3 is below 6%
b) The air speed is below 250 kts
c) Bleed air is provided by engine in operation and APU bleed valve has been
manually switched OFF
d) All of the above
REF. DSC-70-10-80-30 P 4/6
392. The FADEC automatically stops the ignition at the end of the start sequence
when
a) Start valve closes
b) When THR reaches approximately 3%
c) When N3 reaches approximately 50%
d) When IDLE displayed on THR indicators
REF. DSC-70-10-80-20 P 2/4
393. If one FMC fails, the backup FMC takes over and synchronizes with active FMC. In
case the backup FMC also fails
a) The reconfiguration of FMCs is necessary
b) The remaining active FMC will continue to control FMC1 and FMC2,
reconfiguration is not required
c) The remaining active FMC will continue to control onside FMS. Depending on the
failed DMCs either FMS1 or FMS2 switches to backup mode or flight crew must
create basic flight plan through ISIS
d) Both A and C are correct answer
REF. DSC 22-FMS-40 P 9/28
394. On Pitch Trim Display

a) Green Band is T.O. certified pitch trim area and corresponds to a pitch trim
position from 1o to 9o Nose Up
b) ZFWCG is shown in magenta
c) TO CG is shown in magenta
REF. DSC 27-10-20 P 15/34
395. Pitch Trim displays

a) On the ground and disappears 50’ after TO, it displays again after landing when
Nose Wheel touches the ground
b) On the ground and disappears 5 seconds after TO, it displays again after landing
when Nose Wheel touches the ground
c) On the ground and disappears 50’ after TO, it displays again after landing when
speed is below 30 kts
d) On the ground and disappears 5 seconds after TO, it displays again after landing
when speed is below 30 kts
REF. DSC-27-10-20 P 14/44
REV 004
396. Which statement is true about VMCL
a) VMCL is not computed and it not displayed to flight crew however it limits the
VLS
b) VLS limits the VMCL
c) In clean configuration, VMCL equals VLS
d) VMCL is not displayed to the flight crew but constantly changes with bank angle
REF. DSC 22-27-10-10 P 5/8
397. Which statement is true about “Time Constraint” if it is inserted in FLT PLN
a) Upper part od the ND displays the Time Constraint when CONSTRAINTS option
is selected on EFIS CP
b) The Time Constraint is not displayed on the VD
c) The Time Constraint on a way point is included by a Star in the left of the
waypoint time prediction. Color od the start is magenta if time constraint will be
respected, amber if the constraint will be missed
d) All of the adobe
REF. DSC-22-FMS-10-49-30 P 9/42
398. If the vertical cut defined along the flight plan, the width used for the safety
altitudes and the terrain display on the active leg is equal to
a) Two time the maximum EPU or FMS RNP
b) 10 NM in BRNAV and 1 in PRNAV routes
c) 5 NM or two times FMS RNP/EPU whichever is higher
d) Two times TWAS RNP
REF. DSC 31-CDS-40-50 P 17/26
399. If the vertical cut defined along the flight plan, the width used for the safety
altitudes and the terrain display on the active leg is equal to
a) Two times TWAS RNP
b) Two time the maximum EPU or FMS RNP
c) 10 NM in BRNAV and 1 in PRNAV routes
d) Both a and b
REF. DSC 31-CDS-40-50 P 17/26
400. On ECAM/LOGBOOK CHECK, the BRAKES REMOTE BRK CTL 1(2) remains
displayed in the dispatch messages after IR alignment and entry of the F-PLN in the
FMS. Can this be disregarded
a) Dispatch messages are not required to be checked
b) No, the flight crew must take dispatch messages into account for aircraft
acceptance
c) Yes it can be disregarded
d) Yes after commander discretion
401. The flight crew uses DISPATCH computations type of the LDG PERF application
a) To determine minimum landing distance
REV 004
b) To determine actual landing distance
c) To determine MLW limited by performance
d) To determine required landing distance
REF.DSC-46-OIS-20-80-110 P 2/14
402. A complete IR alignment last

a) 6 minutes
b) 13 minutes
c) Between 5 and 17 minutes depending on the aircraft latitude
d) 10 minutes but remaining time on POSITION/IRS page initially indicates >7
minutes and then counts down when first 4 minutes elapsed
REF. DSC-34-NAV-20-10-40 P 4/6
403. What are the FLIGHT MANUVERING LOAD ACCELERATION LIMITS in clean
configuration
a) 0 g + 2 g
b) -1 g + 2 g
c) -1 g + 2.5 g
d) No limitation as long as the speed is confined below VA
REF. LIM-AG/F_CTL P 1/2
404. If ECAM triggers F/CTL SLAT SYS 1+2 FAULT and both flaps systems are also
inoperative (indicated through the F/CTL FLAPS SYS 1+2 FAULT alert), at what height
will the flight control laws degrade to direct law
a) Will not degrade to Direct Law
b) Below 25000’
c) Below 28000’
d) Below 22000’
405. When will the slats/flaps display show the PARK BRK indication in green
a) When the parking brake is set to ON and the pressure is effective on brakes
b) When the PARK brake is et OFF
c) It will always show green
d) It will show green only is both engines are shut down
REF. DSC-32-20-20 P 11/22
406. How early could the CM1 cycle the seatbelt sign for the cabin crew to commence
service
a) After flaps retraction
b) After lift-off
c) Passing 10000’ AGL
d) After Gear retraction
407. If the approach was performed in icing conditions or if the runway was
contaminated with slush or snow, when should the crew retracts the flaps
REV 004
a) After vacating the runway
b) Before turning into the stand
c) After engine shutdown and after the ground crew confirmed that the flasp and
slats are clear of obstructing ice
d) During taxi
408. On departure, if taxiing in icing conditions with rain. Slush or snow, why should
the crew maintain the flaps retracted until the aircraft reaches the holding point of the
takeoff runway
a) To prevent “AIR L(R) INR WING LEAK” or “AIR L(R) OUTR WING LEAK alerts
b) To reduce aircraft speed fro fuel saving
c) Slats/Flaps are not available because hydraulic fluid is cold soaked
d) To prevent contamination and/or damage to Slats/Flaps mechanism
REF. NOR-SUP-SUP-ADVWXP P 2/14
409. If ECAM triggers F/CTL SLATS LOCKED, the wing tip brakes will be locked, can
the flight crew unlock the wing tip brakes inflight
a) Only after commanders discretion
b) Yes
c) No
d) Yes only during approach
410. Following functions are available when the accumulator pressure is more than
1600 psi
a) A/BRK only if at least one BRAKES CTL is operative
b) A-SKID
c) All normal brake modes function are available above 1600 psi and braking
performance is not degraded
d) Both A and B are correct
REF. DSC-32-20-10-40 P 6/16
411. The automatic Flap extension system (AES) is activated when

a) In configuration 1 and speed is below 203 kts
b) In configuration 1 and speed is below 210 kts
c) In configuration 1, 2 and 3 only
d) In configuration 1 and 2 only
REF. DSC-27-20-20 P 5/8
412. When radio altimeter is inoperative

a) Flare Law is not available
b) Flare Law is active when he landing gear is down
c) Flare Law is active below the inserted MDA
d) Flare Law is active when flaps Full selected
REF. DCS-27-10-30 P 5/12
REV 004
413. In the NAVAID page, the SELECTED FLS button is displayed instead of the
DESELECT FLS button, but is not available if
a) The selected approach can be flow with FLS function and FLS function is not
available or the approach that the flight crew selected is RNAV (RNP) approach
b) The approach that the flight crew selected is GNSS (GPS) approach
c) The approach that the flight crew selected is VOR/NDB approach
d) All of the above
REF. DSC-22-FMS-20-20-20 P 345/492
414. For RNAV (GNSS) approaches with LNAV/VNAV minima, when should the crew
discontinue the approach
a) If the F-G/S exceeds ½ dot above the F-G/S beam
b) If the F-G/S exceeds ¼ dot below the F-G/S beam
c) If the F-G/S exceeds ¼ dot above the F-G/S beam
d) If the F-G/S exceeds ½ dot below the F-G/S beam
REF. NOR-SOP-180-C P 6/20
415. In normal conditions, during an approach with FLS function, the approach
capability appears on the FMA when
a) The LS P/B is pressed regardless of the flight phase
b) The approach is activated either by flight crew or automatically
c) The LS P/B is pressed and the aircraft is within 300 nm from destination
d) The LS P/B is pressed and the active FMS flight phase is CRZ, DES or APP
REF. DSC-22-FG-80 P 4/4
416. The label “F G/S” (in magenta) appears above vertical deviation scale on PFD
when
a) The selected approach is GNSS or GPS approach
b) The approach is flown in LOC/FLS
c) Deviation from FLS beam exceeds 75 ft
d) The vertical guidance is not available during the NPA
REF. DSC-22-FMS-10-30-40 P 18/20
417. The weather radar is turned off

a) Manually, when the aircraft is on the ground and the Flaps position changed
from not retracted to retracted
b) Automatically and 30 sec after landing
c) Automatically after landing either below 60 kts or when Taxi camera is selected
by the crew
d) Automatically after landing when PF disarms ground spoilers
REF. DSC-34-SURV-30-10 P 1/16
418. The Multi Function Probes (MFP) provide

a) Angle of Attack, TAT and SIDESLIP angle
b) Angle of Attack, OAT and SIDESLIP angle
c) Angle of Attack, TAT and Total Air Pressure
d) Angle of Attack, TAT, Total Air Pressure, OAT and SIDESLIP angle
REV 004
REF. DSC-34-NAV-20-10-20 P 3/6
419. Which WXR function enables crew to analyze the weather at a selected altitude
a) MANUAL AZIMUT (AZIM) MODE
b) MANUAL GAIN MODE
c) MANUAL ELEVATION AND TILD MODE
d) TUBULANCE DETECTION (TURB) FUNTION
REF. DSC-34-SURV-30-10 P 5/16
420. AP automatically disengages if

a) The aircraft is on the ground and the first engine starts
b) Lateral deviation is no longer available on both MMRs, when LOC is engaged and
the aircraft is above 200’
c) If during a rejected landing, aircraft touches the ground before flight crew selects
TOGA
d) All of the above
REF. DSC-22-FG-40-30 P 2/4
421. AFR CARGO compartments consist of

a) Two isolation valves and one bleed controlled heater
b) Two isolation valves only, which automatically controlled
c) One isolation valve and an electrical heater, the heaters stops in case of rapid
decompression
d) Two isolation valves and an electrical heater too obtain the desired temperature
and an extraction fan
REF. DSC-2-COND-10-30 P 2/6
422. In automatic mode, with Air Flow selector in NORM position

a) The cabin and cockpit Airflow is automatically controlled based on the number
of passengers entered in the MFD
b) The airflow controlled by existing Aircraft flight level
c) The Cargo temperature regulation is directly based on selector position
d) All of the above
REF.DSC-21-COND-20 P 3/24
423. On A350 Lift Augmentation uses

a) 14 Slats, 2 Ailerons
b) 2 ailerons, 4 flaps and 7 spoilers
c) 2 ailerons, 14 slats, 4 flaps
d) 14 spoilers, 2 ailerons and 4 flaps
REF. DCS-27-10-10 P 4/26
424. On A350 Lift Augmentation uses

a) 14 Slats, 2 Ailerons
b) 2 ailerons, 4 flaps and 7 spoilers
c) 4 ailerons, 14 slats, 4 flaps
d) 12 spoilers, 4 ailerons and 4 flaps
REV 004
REF. DCS-27-10-10 P 4/26

a) Inner ailerons have one EHA and one conventional actuator
b) Inner ailerons have one EHA and two conventional actuators
c) Both inner and outer ailerons have two EHA and two conventional actuators
d) Inner ailerons have a conventional actuator only
REF. DSC-27-10-10 P17/26

a) INBD ailerons are supplied by YELLOW hydraulic system and OUTBD ailerons
are supplied by both YELLOW and GREEN hydraulic systems
b) For more redundancy, both INBD and OUTBD ailerons are supplied with
YELLOW and GREEN hydraulic systems
c) INBD ailerons are supplied by GREEN hydraulic system and OUTBD ailerons are
supplied by both YELLOW and GREEN hydraulic systems
d) INBD ailerons are supplied by GREEN hydraulic system and OUTBD ailerons are
supplied by YELLOW in normal conditions and GREEN hydraulic as a backup
REF. DSC-27-10-10 P 17/26
427. After engine start, flight crew realize that the three FMCs are operative, but in
abnormal configuration (e.g. FMC-C is assigned to FMS 1, and FMC-A is the backup
FMC), crew may restore the normal configuration by
a) Monetarily switching of both FMS on the correctly operated source
b) A reset of one of the FMCs that is not in the correct configuration (computer
reset)
c) A reset of both of the FMCs that are not in the correct configuration (computer
reset)
d) Switching one of the FMSs to OFF for 3 seconds
REF. DSC-22-FMS-40 P 20/28
428. The FAULT amber light on HDY ELECT PUMP P/B remain on
a) As long as the overheat exist in the pump’s cascade
b) Only when the pump is ON. After selecting OFF on P/B, the light goes away
c) As long as pressure in the system exceeds the predetermined value
d) Until the fluid high temperature disappears
REF. DSC 29-20 P 3/12
429. On HYD SD page, hydraulic pressure symbol changes from green to amber
a) When hydraulic pressure reaches 5000+/- 200 psi
b) Only after engine shutdown in flight
c) When the pressure drops below 2900 psi
d) When the pressure drops below 3000 psi
REF. DSC-29-20 P 10/12
430. The GROUND MAPPING FUNCTION color coded to represent

a) Green for Water
REV 004
b) Green for Terrain
c) Yellow fro Terrain
d) Black for Terrain
REF. DSC-34-SURV-30-10 P 15/16

a) PAX BBAND bay is located front of the FWD cargo and has a heat detector system
b) PAX BBAND bay is located aft of bulk cargo and has smoke detector system
c) PAX BBAND bay is located front of the FWD cargo and has smoke detector
system
d) PAX BBAND bay is located aft of bulk cargo and has heat detector system
REF. DSC-26-90-10 P 1/2
432. The GA SOFT mode engages if all the following conditions are available
a) Aircraft is not preforming touch and go, the slats or the flaps are extended and
the aircraft is below the go around thrust reduction altitude
b) Aircraft is not preforming touch and go, the slats or the flaps are extended and
the aircraft is below acceleration altitude
c) Aircraft is not preforming touch and go, the slats or the flaps are extended, gear
is retracted and SRS is previously engaged
REF. DSC-22-FG-50-30 P 4/8
433. The Fuel Tank Inerting System (FTIS) is designated to provide

a) Protection against fuel leak
b) Protection against water scavenging
c) Protection against fuel tank fire and explosion
d) Protection against fuel starvation
REF. DSC-28-10 P 9/14
434. The Fuel Tank Inerting System (FTIS)

a) Pressurized the fuel tank and will provide a positive tank pressure at all time
b) Is installed in the center tank and wing tanks
c) Protects the fuel gallery against reducing the amount of nitrogen which is
trapped in the tank
d) Reduces oxygen concentration to 12% and discharges oxygen enriched air
overboard
REF. DSC-28-10 P 9/14
435. The FOURT AOA PROBE

a) Provides the flight control computers with the raw measurement of Angle of
Attack
b) Is connected to PRIM 1and 3
c) Is on captain Side (left side of the aircraft)
d) All of the above
REF. DSC-34-NAV-20-10-20 P 5/6
436. When BUS TIE P/B SW is in normal position
REV 004
a) The BUS TIE contractors remain closed
b) The BUS TIE contactors automatically open or close to reconfigure the
ESSENTIAL AC BUS
c) The BUS TIE contactors automatically open or close to reconfigure the electrical
network, when necessary
d) BUS TIE contactor are open AC 1A, AC 1B, AC 2A, AC 2B are segregated from each
other
REF. DSC-24-20 P 22/38
437. If connected the electrical network is not power supplied by the external power
units when
a) The ground servicing mode is activated and ON blue light is illuminated on EXT
1(2)
b) APU is running
c) APU is running (only for EXT 1) or engines are running
REF. DSC-24-20 P 25/38
438. Slats/Flaps Cruise Baulk Function is activated when

a) IAS is above 265kts
b) Aircraft is above FL 220
c) Flap lever movement is from Zero to One
d) All of the above
REF. DSC-27-20-20 P 6/8
439. Normal idle

a) Is available only on flight
b) Is available on the ground if flight crew does not select the reverse thrust
c) Is available only on the ground
d) Is available on the ground and on flight provided that A/THR is switched ON
REF. DSC-70-10-30-30 P 9/10
440. When “INSER HISTORY WIND” SELECTED

a) The average history winds of the previous flight will be considered as the climb
wind for the next flight
b) The history winds for the CRZ FL, FL 250, FL 150, FL 050 will be considered as
the climb winds for the next flight
c) The history winds for the CRZ FL, FL 250, FL 150, FL 050 will be considered as
the climb winds for the next flight if next flight is less than 2 hours from DONE
phase
d) The average history winds of the previous flight will be considered as the climb
winds for the next flight is the next flight is less than 2 hours from DONE phase
REF. DSC-22-FMS-10-40-30 P 32/42
441. When “DIR TO – CRS IN” option is selected on the MFD, the message ADJUST
DESIRED TRK OR HDG displays to inform the crew that
a) Interception to the final course is not possible
REV 004
b) Intercept angle is too shallow
c) Intercept angle is more than 60o
d) It id possible to adjust the heading/track and change the position of the INTCPT
waypoint
REF. DSC-22-FMS-20-90 P 4/44
442. The LS source on ISIS cannot display

a) FLS
b) ILS
c) LOC
d) GLS
REF. DSC-34-NAV-30-30 P11/16
443. The Safety Altitude on VD is displayed in the form of

a) MSA only
b) MORA only
c) Either MORA or MSA both can not be displayed at the same time
d) Both MORA and MSA
REF. DSC-31-CDS-40-50-P 22/26
444. If the Limitations and Memos exceed the display in WD

a) The flight crew press the STATUS pb to see the rest of the Memos or Limitations
b) In this case some Limitation or Memos do not appear on the WD
c) The flight crew press the RECALL pb to see the rest of the Memos or Limitations
d) The flight crew press the CLEAR function to call second STATUS page and
monitor the rest of the Memos or Limitations
REF. DSC-31-CDS-60-10-40 P 26/38
445. How does the flight crew check the reverse deployment after touchdown
a) Check that the ECAM E/WD displays (REV red)
b) Check that the ECAM SD displays (REV green)
c) Check that the ECAM ED displays the expected reverser deployment
d) Check that the ECAM E/WD displays (REV blue)
REF. DSC-70-20 p 23/30
446. How can the flight crew display SMOKE/FUMES procedures

a) From the IOS display
b) The flight crew must press the DISPATCH Page pb on the ECP and then select the
SMOKE/FUMES procedure
c) It will appear by it self on ECAM
d) The flight crew must press the ABN pb on the ECP and select the SMOKE/FUMES
procedure
REF DSC-31-CDS-60-10-40 P 2/38
447. How must the flight crew check the portable fire extinguisher in the flight deck
a) Portable extinguisher lock wired and pressure in the red area
b) Portable extinguisher lock wired and pressure in the green area
REV 004
c) Portable extinguisher lock wired and pressure in the white area
d) Portable extinguisher lock wired and pressure in the yellow area
448. What are the consequences if the PF request to unplug the EXT PWR with EXT
PWR ON
a) This is the Standard Operating Procedure
b) APU will shut down
c) Engine will shut down
d) The ground engineer may be severely injured
449. Following an automatic start, the APU bleed valve opens and the APU supplies
bleed air to the bleed air system when
a) The APU is AVAIL
b) The flight crew sets one of the engine master levers to START position
c) The aircraft altitude is below 25000 ft
d) All of the above conditions are met
REF. DSC-49-30 P ¾
450. Why should the flight crew keep the external power unit ON, particularly in hot
weather conditions even if the APU is running
a) To reduce the APU load
b) To save fuel
c) To reduce load on batteries
d) All answer are correct
451. When can the flight crew attempt a system reset

a) On the ground only
b) If it’s requested by the ECAM procedure
c) The flight crew detects or suspects a system failure and the associated computer
reset is authorized by one of the listed procedures
d) Both B and C are correct
452. To initiate a Quick relight, the flight crew must

a) Set the start selector to NORM and the ENG master lever to ON then set it to OFF
and back to ON within 40s
b) Set the start selector to IGN START and the ENG master lever to ON then set it to
OFF and back to ON every 30s
c) Set the start selector to IGN START and the ENG master lever to ON then set it to
OFF and back to ON every 30s only when above FL 250 and when APU bleed is
not available
d) Set the start selector to ING START, FADEC auto restore cycle repeats
automatically every 30 sec
REF. 70-10-80-20 P 3/4
REV 004
453. What is the MIN SPEED FOR WINDML RELIGHT
a) 240Kts
b) 210Kts
c) 250Kts
d) 220Kts
REF. PRO-ABN-ENG P 2-156
454. What is the MIN RAT SPEED in ELEC EMER CONFIG

a) 140Kts
b) 150Kts
c) 169Kts
d) 125Kts
REF. DSC-24-10-40 P 2/2
455. The ELEC GEN 1A(1B)(2A)(2B) RESET applies only if

a) The load of engine GEN 1A(1B)(2A)(2B) is less than 0%
b) The voltage of engine GEN 1A(1B)(2A)(2B) is more than 0 V
c) The voltage of engine GEN 1A(1B)(2A)(2B) is equal to 0 V
d) The DC 1 and DC 2 is not powered
456. What will happen if the flight crew does not set the ENG START selector to NORM
after completing ENG START
a) WHEEL SD page automatically appears instead of the ENG SD page 15 sec after
the last engine start
b) WHEEL SD page automatically appears instead of the ENG SD page 20 sec after
c) WHEEL SD page automatically appears instead of the ENG SD page 30 sec after
d) WHEEL SD page automatically appears instead of the ENG SD page 40 sec after
REF. DSC-70-30 P 3/4
457. When can the crew apply the QRH SMOKE/FUMES PROCEDURES
a) Requested by the AVIONICS SMOKE ECAM procedure
b) The flight (cabin) crew suspects that the smoke is coming from the avionics,
and/or the air conditioning and/or cabin equipment
c) There is a smell of smoke/fumes in the cockpit
REF. PRO-ABN-FIRE P 3/12
458. The avionics bay has a Smoke Detection System (SDS), the system monitors
a) Left and Right avionics ventilation circuits
b) Left and Right side of avionics bay by two sensors in cabin inlet valves
c) Heat buildup in the bay
REV 004
REF. DSC-26-60-10 P 1/2
459. During approach, the Synthetic Runway no longer appears on HUD

a) If the aircraft overflies the runway
b) During flare
c) Below the minima
d) All of the above
REF. DCS-31-CDS-50-30-110 P 17/20
460. During Go around, if GA TRK engages and NAV mode arms:

a) NAV will not engage unless flight crew pushes the HDG/TRK knob.
b) NAV automatically engages as soon as the aircraft reaches the capture zone of
the flight plan active leg.
c) NAV automatically engages after overflying runway end.
d) Both b) and c) are correct answers.
REF. DSC-22-FG-70-90-10 P 2/4
461. TAXI mode appears on HUD when:

a) Aircraft is on the ground.
b) Aircraft is on the ground and taxi speed is less than 40 kt.
c) Aircraft is on the ground and taxi speed is between 3kt and 42 kt.
REF. DSC-31-CDS-50-30-20 P 2/16
462. When HUD is in use, digital indication of Vertical speed appears if:
a) Vertical speed exceeds +/- 100 ft.
b) Vertical speed exceeds +/- 200 ft.
c) Vertical speed exceeds +/- 500 ft.
d) Vertical speed exceeds +/- 50 ft.
REF.DSC-31-CDS-50-30-80 P 1/2
463. How many “Pilot store” Waypoints, Route and RWY may be stored in FMS
a) 40 Waypoints, 5 Routes and 5 Runways
b) 50 Waypoints, 5 Routes and 5 Runways
c) 99 Waypoints, 5 Routes and 10 Runways
d) 99 Waypoints, 10 Routes and 10 Runways
REF. DSC-22-FMS-10-20 P 6/12
464. On the POSITION/TIME page, flight crew can manually modify the start and stop
times that the FMS uses to compute
a) Block Time
b) Flight Time
c) Both Block and Flight Time
d) Minimum taxi time for departure
REF, DSC-22-FMS-10-80 P 1/4
465. When the STBY RAD NAV mode of the RMP is active
REV 004
a) Entry fields on the POSITION/NAVAIDS page are automatically synched with
RMP
b) The POSITION/NAVIDS page is disabled
c) Entry fields on the POSITION/NAVAIDS page are still available and have priority
over RMP selections
d) All entry fields on the POSITION/NAVAIDS page are automatically cleared and
the flight crew can not enter data
REF. DSC-22-FMS-20-20-20 P 330/492
466. During Eng. Fail at T/OFF, the ailerons and spoilers #3 will deflected on the
remaining engine side when
a) The aircraft is on the ground and the speed is above 80 kts
b) The rudder pedal deflection is more than 2/3 of the maximum rudder pedal
deflection
c) The aircraft is on the ground and the speed is above 60 kts
d) Answer B and C are correct
REF. DSC-27-10-30 P 5/12
467. The Continuous Descent Approach (CDA) computation results

a) VAPP at 1000 ft AGL in landing configuration
b) VAPP over FAF regardless of selected approach in FMS
c) F SPEED over FAF
d) F SPEED at 1000 ft AGL
REF. DSC-FMS-10-30-60 P 2/16
468. During approach, in de-clutter 2 mode:

a) The bank marker limit of roll scale reduces to 15°
b) The altitude scale reduces but speed scale remains the same as de-clutter 1
mode
c) X-wind switch has no effect on display as speed and altitude scales are reduced
d) The bank marker limit of roll scale reduces to 30°
REF. DSC-31-CDS-50-30-150 P 5/16
469. When the “De-clutter RWY” item activated by the crew

a) “DISPLAY ALL” function changes to grey and become not interactive
b) Some symbols that are not related to the selected runway are displayed in gray
and become not interactive and DISPLAY ALL function is available in the
interactive menu
c) Other runways in the destination aerodrome become gray and DISPLAY ALL
function is available in the interactive menu
d) All the taxiways with the range of more than 1 nm from selected runway
become not interactive and DISPLAY ALL function is available in the
interactive menu
REF.DSC-34-NAV-80-20 P 10/20
REV 004
470. When Engine bleed air is available, the FTIS provides tanks with the NEA
from
a) 1500ft after Takeoff until landing.
b) Take off until landing
c) The moment fuel tank temperature exceeds 47°
d) Engine start until engine shutdown
REF. DSC-28-10 P 10/14
471. Fuel that enters surge tank:

a) Will be purged overboard
b) Must be drained by Maintenance after the flight
c) Returns to the wing tank via a dedicated non-return valve
d) May be used when the quantity in wing tank drops below 3850KG
REF. DSC-28-10 P 5/14
472. Transfer to mailbox option is available on secondary flight plans only, it

enables:
a) The flight crew to send a secondary flight plan to the ATC mailbox
b) The flight crew to send a secondary flight plan with an associated free text to
the ATC mailbox
c) The flight crew to send only frees text messages to the ATC mailbox
d) The flight crew to transfer a secondary flight plan to the SEC 3 INIT page first
and then send it to ATC mailbox.
REF. DSC-22-FMS-20-20-20 P 403/492
473. When ATC FPLN displayed on SEC Flight Plan Creation Source, it means
a) The flight created the secondary flight plan by swapping the ACTIVE flight
plan
b) The flight created the secondary flight plan by uploading a received ATC flight
plan
c) The ACTIVE flight plan source is originally created by uploading a received
ATC flight plan
d) Non of the above
REF. DSC-22-FMS-20-20-20 P 398/492
474. The ALTERNATE page is available by selecting FPLN INFO menu in

a) Both ACTIVE and SECUNDARY flight plans
b) ACTIVE flight plan
c) SECUNDARY flight plan
d) ACTIVE flight plan and also SECUNDARY flight plans only when the aircraft
is in flight
REF. DSC-22-FMS-20-20-20 P 8/492
475. The flight crew can access to the ALTERNATE page
REV 004
a) Via the F-PLN page, by selecting the ALTERNATE revision in the FPLN
INFO menu
b) Via the ACTIVE flight plan only
c) Only via the SECONDARY flight plan
d) Via the ACTIVE flight plan and also via SECUNDARY flight plan only when
the aircraft is in flight
REF. DSC-22-FMS-10-40-20 P 67/76
476. Vertical Revision Page (ACTIVE/FPLN/VERT REV) menu “window” of ALT

CONSTRAINT
a) Appears only during TO and CIMB segment (SID)
b) Cannot be selected if AT, AO OF ABOVE or AT OR BELOW option is
selected by flight crew
c) Can be manually created by flight crew
REF. DSC-22-FMS-20-20-20 P 443/492
477. In Vertical Revision Page (ACTIVE/F-PLN/VERT REV/STEP ALTs)

a) OPTIMM STEP POINT entry field accepts step altitude that is at least 1000 ft
above the cruise level
b) OPTIMM STEP POINT entry field accepts step altitude that is at least 100 ft
above the cruise level
c) OPTIMM STEP POINT entry field accepts step altitude that are below MAX
REC ALT
d) OPTIMM STEP POINT entry field accepts step altitude between cruise FL and
FL 431
REF. DSC-22-FMS-20-20-20 P 448/492
478. In Vertical Revision Page (ACTIVE/FPLN/VERT REV/STEP ALTs), when "INSERT

AS OPT" Button for OPTIMUM STEP POINT is clicked:
a) The optimum step point will be inserted in the temporary flight plan.
b) The optimum step point will be inserted in the ACTIVE flight plan.
c) Predictions for assigned altitude will be displayed adjacent to the button in VERT
REV menu only.
d) None of the above.
e) REF. DSC-22-FMS-20-20-20 P 450/492
479. In Vertical Revision Page (ACTIVE/F-PLN/VERT REV) menu. “window” of

ALT CONSTRAINT
a) Appears only during T.O. and CLIMB segment (SID)
b) Can not be selected if a\AT, AROR ABOVE, or AT OR BELOW option is
selected by the flight crew
c) Can be manually created by the Flight crew
REF. DSC-22-FMS-20-20-20 P 408/492
REV 004
480. The flight crew can access the OFFSET page via
a) ACTIVE and SEC3/F-PLN pages
b) ACTIVE / F-PLN only
c) ACTIVE, SEC 1, SEC 2 AND SEC 3 / F-PLN pages
d) ACTIVE and SEC 1/F-PLN pages
REF. DSC-22-FMS-20-20-10 P 10/12
481. The Differential Flap Setting (DFS) helps to reduce the wing bending moment
for high GW and is available
a) When the outer flaps are selected down to 4o
b) Above FL100
c) In both Normal and Abnormal Law
d) For GW above MTOW- 30T and only in clean configuration
REF. DSC-27-10-30 P 11/12
482. The ground spoilers partially extend when they have been armed and
a) Any of the thrust reversers activated
b) Both Main and Nose gear are on the ground
c) Thrust levers are at idle and two main gears on the ground
d) Thrust levers are at idle and one main gears on the ground
REF. DSC-27-10-10 P 23/26
483. The Electro Hydrostatic Actuator are

a) Powered by both yellow and green hydraulic systems in emergency
b) Powered by one electric or one hydraulic system
c) Using RAT to locally generate their Hydraulic pressure in emergency
d) Powered by one Electric System
REF. DSC-27-10-10 P 10/32
484. In HYD system

a) Hydraulic fluid is interlinked between YELLOW and GREEN system
b) During normal operation, both systems share the same Hydraulic Fluid. When
the system quantity falls bellow predetermined value, each system becomes
independent
c) GREEN system may be supplied by YELLOW reservoir in case of HYD LOW
LVL
d) HYD fluid cannot be transferred from one side to other
REF. DSC-29-10 P 1/12
485. The SURV SYS includes two identical surveillance systems

a) In the case of electrical emergency configuration, the flight crew must switch
on SYS 2
REV 004
b) On the ground, SYS 1(2) is automatically selected, as the master Aircraft
Environment surveillance Unit (AESU) if the flight number is the FMS is an
odd (even) number. It enables the detection of hidden failures
c) In the case of electrical emergency configuration, the flight crew must switch
on SYS 1
REF. DSC-34-SURV-10 P 3/12
486. The aircraft has

a) Total of 6 anti-collision lights, 2 strobe lights on each wing and 2 strobe lights
on the tail con bellow the APU exhaust
b) Total of 3 anti-collision lights, 1 strobe light on each wing and 1 strobe light on
the tail con bellow the APU exhaust
c) Total of 5 anti-collision lights, 2 strobe light on each wing and 1 strobe light on
the tail con bellow the APU exhaust
d) Total of 4 anti-collision lights, 1 strobe light on each wing and 2 strobe lights
on the tail con bellow the APU exhaust
REF. DSC-33-30-10 P 3-22
487. Two OAT probes are installed

a) On the left side of the fuselage, below CM1’s window
b) On the right side of the fuselage, below CM2’s window
c) On each side of the fuselage, below flight deck windows
d) In the nose landing gear bay
REF. DSC-34-NAV-20-10-20 P 5/6
488. When HUD is in use, digital indication of Vertical speed appears if

a) Vertical speed exceeds +/- 100 ft
b) Vertical speed exceeds +/- 200 ft
c) Vertical speed exceeds +/- 500 ft
d) Vertical speed exceeds +/- 50 ft
REF. DSC-31-CDS-50-30-80 P 1/2
489. The backup trajectory function automatically deactivates when

a) At least one FMC provides a valid flight plan to CDS
b) Two FMC provides a valid flight plan to CDS
c) Predicted accuracy is equal or less than 0.51 nm
d) High accuracy displayed on FMS INIT/NAV page
REF. DSC-31-CDS-40-40-90 P 1/2
490. After shutdown following a 12 hours flight during the IRS performance check
you found that the position error is 20 NM. The ADIRU is..
a) Is acceptable for use
b) Needs to be checked on the next flight
c) Unacceptable, remove ADIRU
REV 004
RF. NOR-SOP-250 P 3/6
491. In RNAV 1 / RNAV 2 / P-RNAV - TERMINAL RNAV how many FD is required?

a) One FD in NAV mode
b) Two FD in NAV mode
c) None
REF. PRO-SOP-RNP P 5/12
492. How many AP are required to fly in RVSM airspace

a) 1 autopilot function
b) 2 auto pilot function
c) None
493. During FLS approach what is the maximum acceptable discrepancy between
altimeters?
a) 100 ft
b) 75 ft
c) 50 ft
d) 35 ft
REF. NOR-SOP-180C P 3/20
494. Which one of the following conditions deactivates A/THR SOFT mode
a) The Aircraft Speed is greater VMAX + 4 kts
b) The Aircraft Speed is greater VMAX + 4 kts or greater than VMAX – 5 kts
c) A/C descends below FL320 with MACH 0.78
d) The Aircraft Speed is greater VMAX -5 kts
REF. DSC-22-FG-50-50 P 12/16
495. Starting at what point would the PM call out if excessive lateral deviation occurs
during the approach when flying FLS approach?
a) F-LOC: ½ dot
b) F-LOC: 1 dot
c) F-LOC: ¾ dot
d) Full scale deviation
REF. NOR-SOP-180-C P 4/20
496. When will “NAV CAPT & F/0 ATT DISAGREE” warning will trigger
a) The attitude displayed on the PFD of the Captain differs from the attitude
displayed on the PFD of the First Officer by more than 7o in pitch or roll
b) The attitude displayed on the PFD of the Captain differs from the attitude
c) The attitude displayed on the PFD of the Captain differs from the attitude
d) The attitude displayed on the PFD of the Captain differs from the attitude
REF. PRO-ABN-NAV P 71/138
REV 004
497. When will "NAV LS TUNING DISAGREE" warning trigger?
a) There is a discrepancy between both MMRs.
b) This alert triggers when the tuning of ILS 1 and ILS 2 are different.
c) This alert triggers when GPS 1 and GPS 2 fail
d) This alert triggers when PFD on BKUP.
REF. PRO-ABN-NAV P 115/120
498. The alignment during engines start is possible.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE
REF. DSC-34-NAV-20-10-40 P 3/6
499. During cockpit preparation what is the maximum difference between the PFD
and the ISIS?
a) ± 40 ft between ISIS and PFD.
b) ± 20 ft between ISIS and PFD.
c) ± 30 ft between ISIS and PFD.
d) ± 25 ft between ISIS and PFD.
500. What is the maximum differences between the altitude indication between ADRs
(on PFD) at FL 100
a) 50 ft
b) 25 ft
c) 100 ft
d) 75 ft
501. The PFD airspeed scale displays

a) VR in Blue
b) VR by a blue dot
c) VR in magenta
d) VR is not displayed n PFD speed scale
REF. DSC-22-27-10-20 P 8/16
502. In case of excessive cabin altitude:

a) NO PORTABLE ELECTRONIC DEVICES sign come on in the cabin regardless of the
position of the SEAT BELT sw and of the NO PED sw.
b) FASTEN SEAT BELT sign comes on.
c) BOTH FASTEN SEAT BEALT and EXIT signs come on.
d) FASTEN SEAT BEALT, NO PORTABLE ELECTRONIC DEVICES and EXIT signs
come on regardless of the position of the SEAT BELT sw and of the NO PED sw.
REF. DSC-33-50-20 P 4/6
503. A350 (Applicable to: A7-ALA ===> A7-ALJ) equipped with the following slides:
a) Single lane (Type C) for all doors.
REV 004
b) Single lane (Type C) for doors 1 and 2.
c) Dual Lane (Type A) for doors 2 and 4 and single lane (Type C) for doors 1 and 3.
d) Single lane (Type C) for doors 2 and 4 and dual Lane (Type A) for doors 1and 3.
REF. CSPMM P 783/1099
504. During rejected takeoff, if ground spoilers are not armed and speed is more than
72kts:
a) They will extend 3 seconds after auto brake activation.
b) They will automatically extend when the reversers are selected.
c) They will automatically extend when auto brake is active.
d) They will extend as soon as manual brake applied.
REF. DSC-27-10-10 P 26/28
505. When spoiler “anti extension” mode is active

a) Spoiler remains retracted if it was extended
b) The affected spoiler remains retracted if it was retracted or remains in its
position if it extended below the balance position or retracts to balances position
if it was extended above its balance position
c) The command fully retracts the spoiler if it was extended below the zero hinge
moment position
d) Spoiler remains at its existing position when anti extension mode activates and
becomes isolated for the remainder of the flight
REF. DSC-27-10-10 P 22/32
506. FCU Backup Function is an FCU alternative in case of:
a) EFIS CP or AFS CP failure.
b) AFS CP failure only.
c) EFIS CP failure only.
d) EFIS CP or AFS CP or ECP failure.
REF. DSC-22-INT P 9/10
507. On the HOLD PAGE, the revised waypoint of the flight plan is
a) The last waypoint od the DES flight plan
b) The waypoint at 10000’ AAL of the destination aerodrome defined in the
secondary flight plan
c) Referred as the holding fix. The holding fix is the start and end waypoint of the
holding pattern
d) The last waypoint of the EO CRZ phase on secondary flight plan, this is defaulted
for both EO and DECOMP scenarios
REF.. DSC-22-FMS-10-40-20 P 38/76
508. If the speed constraint is applicable to holding fix:

a) FMS applies the speed constraint only at the end of the LEG
b) FMS considers the speed 3 minutes prior holding entry.
c) FMS applies the speed constraint on the entire LEG.
d) FMS considers Maximum Endurance Speed regardless of the constraint over
Holding Fix.
REF. DSC-22-FMS-10-40-30 P 10/42
REV 004
509. The “SPEED CONTRAINT” is predicted as missed
a) When the predicted speed is more than 5 knots above the constraint value
b) When the predicted speed is more than 10 knots above the constraint value. The
speed constraint remains missed as long as the predicted speed is more than 10
knots above the speed constraint value
c) When the predicted speed is more than 10 knots above the constraint value. The
speed constraint remains missed as long as the predicted speed is more than 5
knots above the speed constraint value
REF. DSC-22-FMS-10-40-30 P 11/42
510. Flight crew may use the MAP DATA panel to:
a) Display information of an interactive item of the airport-moving map.
b) To center the display of the airport moving map on an interactive item
c) To add or remove marks on an interactive item.
d) All of the above
REF. DSC-34-NAV-80-20 P 12/20
511. In ROSE-NAV mode, TCAS circle corresponds to 2.5 nm appears when

a) The selected range is less than or equal to 40 nm and the flight crew presses the
TRAF pb on EFIS CP
b) The selected range is less than or equal to 20 nm and the flight crew presses the
TRAF pb on EFIS CP or a TCAS alert is triggered
c) The selected range is less than or equal to 40 nm and the flight crew presses the
TRAF pb on EFIS CP or a TCAS alert is triggered
d) The selected range is less that or equals to 20 nm and a TCAS alert is triggered
REF. DSC-31-CDS-40-40-40 P 2/8
512. The aircraft is in cruise, selected MACH target is MACH 0.80

a) The short-term managed speed is not available
b) The short-term managed speed is the ECAON Mach
c) The short–term managed speed is the LRC Mach
d) The short-term managed speed is the LRC Mach only if remaining time to TOD is
more than 5 minutes
REF. DSC-22-FG-60-20 P 10/12
513. If selected, the time marker aural alert (audio indicator) sounds
a) For 5 seconds when defined time marker UTC time reached
b) For 5 seconds at defined time marker time (UTC)
c) For 2 seconds at defined time marker time (UTC)
d) When the remaining time between the current UTC time an the UTC time that
defines the time marker is equal to 30 seconds
REF. 22-FMS-10-80 P 2/4
514. When on AUTO, the logo lights on automatically when

a) On the ground and inflight when the slats extended
REV 004
b) On the ground and inflight when the landing gear extended
c) Only on the ground
d) On the ground and inflight when flaps are 3 or full
REF. DSC-33-30-20 P 4/8
515. In manual mode, with the Air FLOW selected in MAN position
a) The airflow controlled by existing Aircraft flight level
b) The cargo temperature regulation is directly base on the selector position
c) The pack Air FLOW switches to a default value based on full passengers capacity
d) The cabin and cockpit Airflow is automatically controlled based on the number
of passengers entered on the MFD
REF. DSC-21-COND-10-30 P 2/8
516. If an engine failure occurs during DES or APP flight phase

a) The manage speed target changes to GDOT
b) The manage speed target does not change
c) The manage speed target becomes EOGDOT
d) The manage speed mode varies depend on the V/S at the time of engine failure
REF. DSC-22-FMS-10-60 P 13/16
517. Speed brake auto retraction occurred after a go around, to extend the speed
brake again
a) Speed brake lever must be retracted, armed and disarmed
b) Speed brake lever must first be set to retracted position for at least 5 seconds
c) Speed brake remains deactivated as long as SRS mode engaged
d) Speed brake lever must be moved forward to at least half position
REF. DSC-27-10-10 P 27/32
518. Cockpit escape hatch

a) When displayed on amber X in SD page, the escape hatch is not closed
b) When displayed on amber X in SD page, the information related to the escape
hatch is not valid
c) Can be operated inside only
d) Non of the above
REF. DSC-52-50-20 P 4/4
519. Velocity Vector

a) Must not be used as a guidance order. It is only an indication of the aircraft
trajectory
b) May always be used as guidance during flight
c) Provide direct order to F/D and A/P during approach
d) Provides aircraft trajectory indication in compare to the ground reference and
commands F/Ds in both pitch and roll
REF. DSC-22-FG-30-20 P 1/2
520. When T.O. THS is shown amber

a) Pitch trim is more than 1.5o away from the optimum target
REV 004
b) Pitch trim is out of T.O range
c) Pitch trim is always amber before engine start
d) Pitch trim is inoperative
REF. DSC-27-10-20 P 17/44
521. A/THR soft mode

a) Is available in ALT CRZ mode and reduces the thrust variation when A/THR is in
SPEED/MACH
b) Is available only in clean configuration and when AP is engaged. A/C is above
FL280 and the SPEED /MACH target is above 0.55
c) Is available in ALT, ALT CST and ALT CRZ or DES mode and reduces the thrust
variation when A/THR is in SPEED /MACH
REF. DSC-22-FG-50-50 P 11/16
522. When amber FAULT light comes on generator “DRIVE” PB

a) This can be due generator oil overheat
b) This can be due to an engine mechanical fault
c) The engine generator must be disconnected
d) All of the above
REF. DSC-24-20 P 27/38
523. When on AUTO, the NO MOBILE signs will automatically come on in the cabin
a) When the aircraft is flying over a country where the use of mobile phone is not
authorized and the landing gear is down and locked
b) The landing gear is down and locked
c) When the aircraft is flying over a country where the use of mobile phones is not
authorized
d) On ground and inflight when the slats extended
REF. DSC-33-50-20 P 5/6
524. When in Backup control, the following surfaces are available

a) Inboard Aileron, Rudder and left Elevator
b) Inboard Ailerons, Rudder and two Elevators
c) Outboard Aileron, Rudder, Right Elevator
d) Only THS and Rudder
REF. DSC-27-10-40 P 6/8
525. The Normal Flight Law available in flight

a) 10 seconds after liftoff
b) Subject to rotation rate transition to flight may take 5 to 10 seconds
c) 5 seconds after liftoff
d) 2 seconds after liftoff
REF. DSC-27-10-30 P 1/12
526. When SYNCHRO ECAM BUTTON clicked, OIS updates the list of
a) DISPATCH alerts
REV 004
b) ECAM Cancelled alerts
c) Active ECAM alerts
d) Both DISPATCH and ECAM alerts
REF. DCS-46-OIS-20-80-70 P 7/8
REV 004

A350 Questions

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A350 Questions

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A350 QUESTIONS

100. A350-100 aircraft are not equipped with Brake Fans

102. On A350-1000 variant, when in alternate braking mode

103. On A350-1000 variant, when in emergency braking mode

104. Which statement is correct

108. What is the Maximum Crosswind for Landing (dry)

109. Autoland has been demonstrated for airports altitude elevation up to

111. What is the maximum tailwind for takeoff

115. “- FD2”MFMA message means

120. What is the MAX refuel time on battery

121. What is the triggering condition of FUEL L(R) WING TK TEMP HI

123. When does the automatic refuel starts

125. What is the minimum oil quantity

126. What is the minimum oil pressure

129. On A350 the TMAX FLEX may be obtain up to

130. What is the maximum headwind limitation for auto land

133. The recommended Turbulent speed on A350 is

134. CAB PRESS CTL MODE RESET is allowed in flight

135. CAB PRESS SYS FAULT is triggered when

139. AIR PACK BAY 1+2 VENT FAULT is trigger when

143. When does the flight crew perform a dry crank

156. A-ICE L(R) WINDSHIELD HEATING FAULT may be due to

157. How can the flight crew identify an engine stall

164. If there is leak detection in either pack

167. Maximum N1 (FAN MARK1)

169. Gust Load alleviation

170. The outer aileron deflects

175. What are the consequences of carrying unnecessary extra fuel

184. When is A-ICE SEVER ICE DETECTTED triggers

188. When the APU automatically starts

189. The APU can be fed by

199. What are the triggering conditions of APU FIRE

206. The oil quantity advisory is inhibited

213. In flight, the APU generator can replace up to :

216. Can APU BLEED be used to supply wing anti-ice

222. In emergency configuration

225. When can the flight crew deselect terrain on ND

227. Which statement is correct about AIR DATA SOURCE

231. When must the HUD be deployed

232. When may the flight crew use TA ONLY mode

233. When can a SURV TWAS be considered cautionary

239. When must the flight crew perform a complete alignment

240. What are the consequences if a pilot does not follow an RA

244. On VD the magenta area indicates

245. On VD the grey area indicates

248. The VD range is always limited to

249. On the VD, the altitude constraint is indicated with:

250. The Safety Altitude on VD is displayed in the form of

251. VD displays the terrain in brown

252. The Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS)

255. Can the flight crew perform a maneuver based on TA alone

257. When the entire content of DEFERRED PROCEDURE is displayed in grey, it

258. On CHECKLIST menu page, When RESET button clicked

263. What is the crew action if a takeoff is performed from an aerodrome/runway

264. Which statement is correct

266. Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS)

267. The Pitch Trim sw is inhibited in flight

269. Which statement is correct

272. Which statement is correct

274. To reach a stabilized temperature in the cabin

277. During an approach, if the deviation exceeds a quarter deflection in either

278. The automatic Pitch Trim Setting for Takeoff is a function of