SBBMC 2011

ENGLISH
Questions 1-2 are based on the following passage.
Chemistry emerged as a science when it was understood that all substances are combinations of the same primary
elements, which are to all intents and purposes indestructible (except under such violent actions as occur in the atomic
bomb). Wood turns out to be a combination of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, and when it is burnt the carbon is turned to
carbon dioxide and the hydrogen to water, and one can make an accurate balance sheet accounting for everything
originally present in the wood. The first stage of scientific chemistry, which was begun by Lavoisier with the correct
account of combustion, was guided by the atomic theory of Dalton, which served to explain the facts of chemical
combination in simple compounds.

1. The first stage of Scientific chemistry was guided by the theory of:

(a) Lavoisier (b) Dalton (c) Newton (d) Wohler (e) None

2. Chemistry became a science when it was understood that all substances are

(a) combinations of the different primary elements (b) not combinations of the same primary elements
(c) combinations of the same primary elements (d) combinations of the different secondary elements
(e) combinations of the same secondary elements

Complete the sentence by choosing the most appropriate option.

3. Her hair was hanging ________ her back.

(a) up (b) over (c) under (d) down (e) by

4. I can't ________ his name.

(a) remember (b) remind (c) remembered (d) reminded (e) required

Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct:
𝒈𝒐𝒕 𝒊𝒏𝒕𝒐 𝒉𝒊𝒔 𝒄𝒂𝒓 𝒅𝒓𝒊𝒗𝒆 𝑵𝒐 𝒆𝒓𝒓𝒐𝒓
5. He and away.
𝑨 𝑩 𝑪 𝑫 𝑬

𝒘𝒂𝒔 𝒅𝒚𝒊𝒏𝒈 𝒕𝒐 𝒌𝒏𝒐𝒘 𝒉𝒂𝒅 𝒃𝒆𝒆𝒏 𝑵𝒐 𝒆𝒓𝒓𝒐𝒓

6. She 𝑨 𝑩 𝑪
where you, 𝑫
. 𝑬

Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalized ones.

7. QUIETLY:

(a) loudly (b) silently (c) seriously (d) nosily (e) rashly

8. DAMP:

(a) Dry (b) Moist (c) clear (d) dark (e) dust

Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word.

9. BRILLIANT:

(a) tough (b) shining (c) bright (d) funny (e) dull

10. TOGETHER:

(a) joined (b) closer (c) alone (d) collective (e) deep

Complete the sentence by choosing the most appropriate option.

11. The recent ________ of medical science have brought life and health to millions of people.

(a) conclusion (b) product (c) discoveries (d) law (e) statement
12. The government not only increased income-tax, but it also imposed a new tax ___________ luxury articles.

(a) one (b) of (c) for (d) off (e) over

Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be corret:
𝒐𝒊𝒍−𝒕𝒂𝒏𝒌𝒆𝒓 𝒇𝒖𝒏𝒏𝒆𝒍 𝒋𝒖𝒔𝒕 𝒃𝒆𝒈𝒊𝒏𝒏𝒊𝒏𝒈 𝒕𝒐 𝑵𝒐 𝒆𝒓𝒓𝒐𝒓
13. The 𝑨
, whose 𝑩
you can 𝑪
see, is 𝑫
move. 𝑬

𝒘𝒆𝒍𝒍−𝒌𝒏𝒐𝒘𝒏 𝒅𝒐𝒄𝒕𝒐𝒓 𝒘𝒓𝒊𝒕𝒕𝒆𝒏 𝒎𝒆𝒅𝒊𝒄𝒂𝒍 𝒖𝒔𝒆𝒔 𝒉𝒚𝒑𝒏𝒐𝒕𝒊𝒔𝒎 𝑵𝒐 𝒆𝒓𝒓𝒐𝒓

14. Two have a report on the of .
𝑨 𝑩 𝑪 𝑫 𝑬

Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word.

15. Convict:

(a) clear (b) prisoner (c) robber (d) felon

16. Fascinate:

(a) charm (b) thrill (c) repel (d) influence

Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalized ones.

17. Moist:

(a) dry (b) waterless (c) humid (d) crispy

18. Vengeance:

(a) kind (b) shameless (c) caring (d) revenge (e) honesty

Questions 19-20 are based on the following passage.

Given an adequate professional training in the same field, two scientists observing the same physical phenomena are
likely to reach the same conclusions about them, no matter what their race, religion, or political creed. Their instruments
will give them the same readings and the universal law of mathematics will bind the calculations of them both. The
universality of science and mathematics accounts very largely for the stupendous progress of science in modern times. A
discovery published on one side of the world will rapidly be accepted and applied by scientists on the other. Very
effective team work is possible, for members of a team of research workers can divide a large task among themselves,
each confident in the soundness of his colleagues’ findings.

19. An appropriate title for the passage could be:

(a) physical phenomenon and their observation (b) trust and team work
(c) progress of science in modern times (d) the universality of scientific laws

20. It can be inferred from the passage that:

(a) the laws of science have no universal implication

(b) scientist reach to same conclusions due to the universality of laws
(c) laws of mathematics are implied differently in different areas
(d) scientific laws made at one place are rectified at other places

PHYSICS

21. If A = 4i + 3j – 2k and B = 8i + 6j – 4k, the angle between A and B is:

(a) 45° (b) 60° (c) 0° (d) 90° (e) 106°

22. If a body moves with a constant speed in a circle:

(a) no work is done on it (b) no force acts on it

 (c) no acceleration is produced in it (d) its velocity remains constant (e) None

23. A 1000 kg car accelerates from rest to a speed of 25 m/s in 10s. What average power must the engine of the
car produce in order to cause this acceleration? Neglect friction loss.

(a) 61.25 kW (b) 57.66 kW (c) 42.69 kW (d) 31.25 kW (e) 67.1 kW

24. An elevator, in which a man is standing, is moving upwards with a constant speed of 10 m/s. If the man
drops a coin from a height of 2.45 m, find the time taken by it to reach the floor of the elevator. (9.8 m/s2)

(a) 0.707 s (b) 1.9 s (c) 3.1 s (d) 6.17 s (e) 7.15 s

25. The work done in holding a weight of 40 N at a height of 3m above the floor for 2 sec is, in joules:

(a) 0 (b) 40 (c) 80 (d) 120 (e) 240

26. Two forces, one of 6 newton and the other of 8 newton, act on a point at-right angles to each other. The
resultant of these forces is, (in newton):

(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 10 (e) 14

27. Two lenses are in contact, a converging of focal length 30 cm and a diverging one of focal length -10 cm,
what is the focal length of the combination?

(a) -5 cm (b) -10 cm (c) -15 cm (d) -20 cm (e) -25 cm

28. A lens of focal length ‘f’ is cut into two halves by a vertical plane, the focal length of each half is:

(a) f (b) f/2 (c) 2f (d) 4f (e) None

29. Which of the following is an example of a scalar quantity?

(a) velocity (b) force (c) angular momentum (d) electrostatic potential (e) acceleration

30. A traveling wave, in which the particles of the distributed

medium move perpendicular to the direction of
propagation of the wave is called:

(a) longitudinal wave (b) standing wave (c) transverse

wave (d) both a and b (e) None

31. Three resistors are connected as shown in the diagram below using connecting wires negligible resistance.
What is the approximate resistance between points P and Q?

(a) 0.5 Ω (b) 0.8 Ω (c) 2.0 Ω

(d) 2.2 Ω (e) 3.6 Ω

32. A force acts for 10 s on a body of mass 10-2 kg, initially at rest, after which the force ceases (come to an end)
to act. The body travels 0.5 m in the next 5s. Find the magnitude of the force.

(a) 10−1 𝑁 (b) 10−4 𝑁 (c) 10−7 𝑁 (d) 10−9 𝑁 (e) 10−11 𝑁

33. The amplitude of a sound wave is detected as its:

(a) wavelength (b) frequency (c) pitch (d) resonance (e) loudness

34. “If there is no external force applied to a system, then the total momentum of that system remains
constant”. This is known as

(a) law of conservation of mass (b) elastic collision

(c) law of conservation of momentum (d) momentum of a body (e) inertia

35. The time period of a circular motion is:

 2𝜋 1
(a) 𝑇 = 𝜔
(b) 𝑇 = 2𝜋 𝜔 (c) 𝑇 = 2𝜋𝜔 (d) 𝑇 = 𝜋𝜔2 (e) T = ½

36. The SI unit of magnetic induction is:

(a) gauss (b) tesla (c) weber (d) weber2 (e) ampere

37. During the Carnot cycle, which equation is correct?

(a) Δ𝑄 = Δ𝑈 + Δ𝑊 (b) Δ𝑈 = 𝑊2 − 𝑊1 (c) Δ𝑄 = 𝑊2 − 𝑊1 (d) Δ𝑈 = 0 (e) Δ𝑄 = Δ𝑈 − Δ𝑊

38. Which of the following expressions defines power?

(a) force x distance moved in the direction of the force (b) force x velocity
(c) word done ÷ time taken (d) work done × time taken (e) None

39. Which of the following is a unit of pressure?

(a) 𝑘𝑔𝑚𝑠 −1 (b) 𝑘𝑔𝑚−1 𝑠 −2 (c) 𝑘𝑔𝑚2 𝑠 −2 (d) 𝑘𝑔𝑚−2 𝑠 −1 (e) kgms

40. A car is traveling in a straight line along a highway at a constant speed of 80 miles per hour for 10 seconds.
Find its acceleration?

(a) 100 m/s2 (b) 200 m/s2 (c) 0 m/s2 (d) 150 m/s2 (e) 300 m/s2

41. What is the kinetic energy of a baseball (mass = 0.15 kg) moving with a speed of 20 m/s?

(a) 20 J (b) 30 J (c) 40 J (d) 50 J (e) 100 J

42. Which of the following is/are characteristics of simple harmonic motion?

I. The acceleration is constant. II. The restoring force is proportional to the displacement.
III. The frequency is independent of the amplitude.

(a) II only (b) I and II only (c) I and III only (d) II and III only (e) I, II and III

43. A collection of capacitors are said to be in parallel if they all share:

(a) the same potential difference (b) the same charge magnitude
(c) the same gravitational force (d) both b & c (e) None

44. What is the wavelength of an x-ray whose frequency is a𝟏. 𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟖 Hz?

(a) 3.3 × 10−11 𝑚 (b) 3.0 × 10−10 𝑚 (c) 3.3 × 10−9 𝑚 (d) 3.0 × 10−8 𝑚 (e) 3.0 × 1026 𝑚

45. A light bulb has resistance of 150Ω, find the voltage while the current is 1.5 A?

(a) 250 V (b) 300 V (c) 224 V (d) 225 V (e) 150 V

46. A virtual image is formed by:

(a) a slide projector (b) a motion-picture projector

(c) a duplicating camera (d) an ordinary camera (e) a simple magnifier

47. The time period of a simple pendulum in a laboratory does not depend on:

(a) the altitude of the laboratory (b) the acceleration due to gravity in the laboratory
(c) the length of the string (d) vibration in the laboratory (e) mass of the bob

48. A boy throws a ball upward from the top of the cliff with a speed of 14.7 m/s. On the way down it just misses
the thrower and falls to the ground 49 m below. How long (time) the ball rises?

(a) 0.5 s (b) 1.5 s (c) 2.5 s (d) 3.5 s (e) 4.5 s

49. Boyle’s law describes the behavior of gas when:

 (a) its pressure is kept constant (b) its volume is kept constant
(c) its density is kept constant (d) its mass is kept constant
(e) nothing is kept constant

50. Wavelength is the distance:

(a) between any two crests (b) between two consecutive crest or troughs
(c) between any two troughs (d) equal to length of long crest
(e) equal to length of a long trough

51. Which one of the following groups contains three vector quantities?

(a) displacement, velocity, energy (b) displacement, velocity, momentum

(c) velocity, acceleration, power (d) force, work, energy (e) speed, temperature, work

52. When a force acts at right angles to the displacement (θ = 90°), the work is:

(a) negative (b) positive (c) zero

(d) first positive then negative (e) first negative then positive

53. A car is traveling in a straight line along a highway at a constant speed of 80 miles per hour for 10 seconds.
Find its acceleration.

(a) 100 m/s2 (b) 200 m/s2 (c) 0 m/s2 (d) 150 m/s2 (e) None

54. How much force is required to cause an object of mass 2kg to have an acceleration of 4 m/s2?

(a) 8 N (b) 10 N (c) 4 N (d) 2 N (e) None

55. What is the mass of an object that weighs 500 N (g = 10 m/s2)?

(a) 25 kg (b) 35 kg (c) 50 kg (d) 75 kg (e) None

56. Light can be polarized by:

I. reflection II. double refraction III. Scattering of light

(a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I and II only (c) I, II and III

57. An object whose mass is 100 g starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration of 20 cm/s2. At the
end of 8s its momentum is, in g cm/s:

(a) 500 (b) 8000 (c) 16,000 (d) 33,000 (e) 64,000

58. A handball is tossed vertically upward with a velocity of 19.6 m/s, how high approximately will it rise?

(a) 15 m (b) 20 m (c) 25 m (d) 30 (e) 60

59. A bomb is dropped from an airplane moving horizontally with a speed of 200 km/h. If the air resistance is
negligible, the bomb will reach the ground in 5 s, when the altitude of the plane is approximately:

(a) 50 m (b) 75 m (c) 125 m (d) 250 m (e) 300 m

60. A freely falling object is:

(a) Newtons’s first law of motion (b) Newton’s second law of motion
(c) Archimedes’ principle (d) Hooke’s law (e) Bernoulli’s principle

CHEMISTRY

61. The alkali metals possess one electron in their outermost:

(a) s-orbital (b) p-orbital (c) d-orbital (d) f-orbital (e) None
62. Blister copper:

(a) is an ore of copper (b) is an alloy of copper

(c) is pure copper (d) contains 50% copper (e) contains 99% copper

63. The percentage of 𝑪𝑯𝟒 in natural gas is:

(a) 10% (b) 50% (c) 65% (d) 94% (e) 100%

64. Ethene is the first member of:

(a) alkene series (b) saturated hydrocarbons

(c) aromatic hydrocarbons (d) alkyne series (e) alcohols

65. Transition elements show _________ oxidation state.

(a) constant (b) variable (c) single (d) infinite (e) None

66. Which of the following elements has the lowest electro negativity?

(a) strontium (b) calcium (c) cesium (d) barium (e) potassium

67. Which of the following in NOT an isotopes of hydrogen?

(a) deuterium (b) tritium (c) protium (d) uranium (e) All isotopes

68. Heating phenol with Zn with yield:

(a) benzoic acid (b) benzene (c) phenoxide acid (d) chloro ethane (e) cyclohexane

69. Removal of halogen and hydrogen atom is:

(a) halogenation (b) dehalogenation (c) dehydrohalogenation (d) carbonations (e) hydrogenation

70. The IUPAC name of compound 𝑪𝑯𝟑 − 𝑪𝑯 − 𝑪𝑯𝟐 − 𝑪𝑯𝟑 is

∣
𝑪𝟔 𝑯 𝟓

(a) 2-cyclohexyl butane (b) 2-phenyl butane

(c) 3-cyclohexyl butane (d) 3-phenyl butane (e) 4-phenyl butane

71. Diethyl ether on heating with concentrated HI gives two moles of

(a) iodoform (b) ethyl iodide (c) methyl iodide (d) iodine (e) phenol

72. During condensation polymerization, two monomers may be joined by the removal of a molecule of:

(a) carbon dioxide (b) nitrogen (c) hydrogen (d) oxygen (e) water

73. Chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature because

(a) the equilibrium is attained slowly (b) concentration of reactants is always greater than products
(c) concentration of reactants and products does not become equal at equilibrium
(d) it is one sided reaction
(e) both forward and backward reaction occur at all times with the same speed

74. The electrode potential measures

(a) the tendency of the electrode to gain or lose electron (b) the tendency of cell reaction to occur
(c) current carried by an electrode (d) different in the ionization potential
(e) the atomic weight of an element

75. Two isotopes of the same element will always differ in

 (a) mass number but never in atomic number (b) atomic number but never mass number
(c) charge outside but never inside their nuclei (d) nuclear charge but never overall charge
(e) the number of electrons outside their nuclei but never in the number of neutrons inside their nuclei

76. Which of the following metals is most reactive?

(a) sodium, Na (b) magnesium, Mg (c) copper, Cu (d) gold, Au (e) chlorine, Cl

77. According to the ideal gas law, what is the approximate volume that will be occupied by 0.6 mole of an ideal
gas at 30° C and 3 atm pressure (gas constant R = 0.821 L-atm/mol-K)?

(a) less than 1 L (b) 5 L (c) 10 L (d) 15 L (e) more than 20 L

78. Oxidation of a secondary alcohol gives:

(a) organic acid (b) ether (c) aldhyde (d) formic acid (e) ketone

79. How many single bonds are in a molecule of carbon dioxide (𝑪𝑶𝟐 )?

(a) one (b) Two (c) three (d) four (e) None

80. For a particular organic compound, which of the following pairs can represent the empirical and the
molecular formula, respectively?

(a) 𝐶𝐻 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶𝐻4 (b) 𝐶𝐻 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶6 𝐻6 (c) 𝐶𝐻2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶2 𝐻2 (d) 𝐶𝐻2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶2 𝐻3 (e) 𝐶𝐻3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶3 𝐻6

81. All of the following have covalent bonds except:

(a) HCl (b) 𝐶𝐶𝑙4 (c) 𝐻2 𝑂 (d) 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 (e) 𝐶𝑂2

82. All halogens have similar reactivity because:

(a) they have the same number of protons (b) they have the same number of electrons
(c) they have the similar outer shell electron configurations
(d) they have valence electrons with the same quantum numbers (e) they have the same the number of neutrons

83. The general formula for alkenes is:

(a) 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛+1 (b) 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛+2 (c) 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛 (d) 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛−2 (e) 𝐶𝐻2𝑛

84. Grignard’s reagent can be prepared by the reaction of alkyl halide with magnesium in the presence of:

(a) ether (b) anhydrous ether (c) water (d) sulphuric acid (e)sodium hydroxide

85. Empirical formula mass and molecular mass are related as:

(a) empirical formula mass × 2 = molecular mass (b) empirical formula mass × n = molecular mass
(c) molecular mass × n = empirical formula mass (d) molecular mass × empirical formula mass = n
(e) molecular mass × 2 = empirical formula mass

86. The rate of diffusion of a gas is

(a) directly proportional to its density (b) directly proportional to its molecular weight
(c) inversely proportional to square root of the molecular density
(d) inversely proportional to square root of the molecular formula
(e) inversely proportional to its molecular weight

87. Conversion of a solid into gas form, without changing into liquid state is called

(a) sublimation (b) condensation (c) oxidation (d) distillation (e) reduction

88. In the periodic table, ionization energy:

(a) increase downward in the group (b) decrease downward in the group
 (c) remains same in the group (d) decrease from left to right in the periods
(e) remains same in the period

89. Aqueous solution of 𝑵𝒂𝟐 𝑪𝑶𝟑 as pH.

(a) greater than 7 (b) less than 7 (c) 7 (d) 0 (e) inadequate information

90. The total number of periods in the modern periodic table is

(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 8 (e) 12

91. According to the ideal gas law, what is the approximate volume that will be occupied by 0.5 moles of an
ideal gas at 30° C and 3 atm pressure (gas constant R = 0.0821 L-atm / mol-K)?

(a) less than 1 L (b) 4.14 L (c) 10.14 L (d) 15.14 L (e) more than 20 L

92. What is the pH of 1.0 M 𝑯𝑵𝑶𝟑 (𝒂𝒒)?

(a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 5 (d) 0 (e) None

93. The acid present in Vinegar is:

(a) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 (b) 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 (c) 𝐻𝐶𝑙 (d) 𝐻𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 (e) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻

94. If 10 g of NaOH are dissolved in 500g of water, what is the molality of the solution?

(a) 1.5 m (b) 2.5 m (c) 0.50 m (d) 3.5 m (e) None

95. Which of the following solutions is most acidic?

(a) a solution of phosphoric acid at pH 4 (b) a solution of sodium hydroxide at pH 11.

(c) a solution of hydrochloric acid at pH 5 (d) a solution of acetic acid at pH 6
(e) a solution of aqueous ammonia at pH 9.

96. Which of the followings yield an electrolytic solution upon dissolution in water?

(a) Nitrogen dioxide, 𝑁𝑂2 (𝑔) (b) Iodine, 𝐼2 (𝑠) (c) Glucose, 𝐶6 𝐻12 𝑂6 (𝑠)
(d) Naphthalene, 𝐶10 𝐻8 (𝑠) (e) Calcium oxide, 𝐶𝑎𝑂(𝑠)

97. The general formula of Alkene Series (unsaturated) is:

(a) 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛+2 (b) 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛−2 (c) 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛 (d) 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛−6 (e) None

98. Butane and methylpropane are isomers. Which formula is different for the two isomers?

(a) empirical formula (b) general formula (c) molecular formula (d) structural formula
(e) both general and empirical formula

99. A carboxylic acid contains

(a) a hydroxyl group (b) a carbonyl group (c) a hydroxyl and carbonyl group
(d) a carbonyl and an aldehye group (e) None

100. The variable oxidation state of transition metals, is due to

(a) the vary small energy difference in between 3d and 4s orbitals

(b) no difference in between 3d and 4s orbitals
(c) the vary huge energy difference in between 3d and 4s (d) All Correct (e) None

101. What are the products of the following reaction?

102. The heat generated in atomic hydrogen torch having a flame of temperature between 4000 to 5000 degree
centigrade, is due to:

I. burning of hydrogen II. recombination of hydrogen atoms

III. isotopes of hydrogen atoms

(a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I & II only (e) I, II, III

103. The hybridization between 𝑪𝟐 𝑯𝟒 (ethane) is:

(a) 𝑠𝑝3 − 𝑠𝑝3 (b) 𝑠𝑝2 − 𝑠𝑝2 (c) 𝑠𝑝 − 𝑠𝑝 (d) 𝑠𝑝2 − 𝑠𝑝 (e) 𝑠𝑝2 − 𝑠

𝑪𝑯𝟐 𝑲𝑴𝒏𝑶𝟒
104. || + 𝑯𝟐 𝑶 + [𝑶] → ?
𝑪𝑯𝟐

(a) ethanol (b) ethanal (c) ethylene glycol (d) ethane (e) Mustard gas

𝑨𝒍𝟐 𝑶𝟑
105. 𝑪𝟐 𝑯𝟓 𝑶𝑯 → 𝑪𝟐 𝑯𝟒 + 𝑯𝟐 𝑶 ; temperature(temp) in the given reaction is:
𝒕𝒆𝒎𝒑

(a) 250° C (b) 100° C (c) 350° C - 360° C (d) 250° C – 300° C (e) 400° C – 500° C

106. Alkanes having five to seventeen carbon atoms per molecule are:

(a) liquids (b) solids (c) gases (d) semi solid wax

107. Absolute alcohol can be prepared by:

(a) absorbing water of rectified spirit (b) direct fermentation of molasses

(c) direct fermentation of starch (d) distillation of wood (e) None

108. At constant volume, the increase in internal energy is:

(a) equal to the heat absorbed by the system (b) not equal to the heat absorbed by the system
(c) equal to the heat released by the system (d) equal to the heat content of the system (e) None

109. Characteristic of 0.001 is:

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) -2 (e) -3

110. Fats and oils are liable to spoilage and give a peculiar odor of an aldehyde. It is mainly due to the:

(a) hydrolytic reactions (b) oxidative reactions

(c) substitution reactions (d) both hydrolytic and oxidation reactions (e) None

111. The maximum number of atoms is present in:

(a) 16 gram of 𝑂2 (b) 4 gram of 𝑂2 (c) 16 gram of 𝐶𝐻4 (d) 18 gram of 𝐻2 𝑂 (e) None
112. “Rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of that gas provided the
pressure and temperature are the same the two gases” it is:

(a) Avogadro’s law (b) Dalton’s law of partial pressure

(c) Graham’s law of diffusion (d) general gas equation (e) None

113. In the mixture of NO and 𝑪𝑶𝟐 (initially containing 4 mol of NO and 0.9 mol of 𝑪𝑶𝟐 ) reaction occurs according
to the equation below 𝑵𝑶(𝒈) + 𝑪𝑶𝟐 (𝒈) → 𝑵𝑶𝟐 (𝒈) + 𝑪𝑶(𝒈).
At equilibrium, 0.1 mol of 𝑪𝑶𝟐 was present. What is equilibrium constant, Kc, for this experiment?

(a) 0.2 (b) 0.5 (c) 1.6 (d) 2.0 (e) 5.0

114. ___Al(s) + ___𝑶𝟐 (𝒈) → ___Al2O3(s) When equation representing the reaction above is completed and
balanced an all coefficients are reduced to lowest whole-number terms, the coefficient of 𝑶𝟐 (𝒈) is:

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 6

115. Benzene is the simplest example of hydrocarbons called:

(a) acyclic (b) aromatic (c) open chain (d) All Correct (e) None

116. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding cathode rays?

(a) the rays carry negative charge (b) the rays produced mechanical effect
(c) the charge/mass ratio is dependent of the gas taken in the discharge tube (d) All Correct

117. Which of the following intensive property is obtained from extensive properties?

(a) melting point (b) density (c) vapor pressure (d) boiling point (e) None

118. Which phenomenon of physical chemistry occurs when you pout tissue paper on a wet surface?

(a) evaporation (b) capillary action (c) boiling (d) condensation (e) None

119. The bond angle in NH3 is:

(a) 109°28” (b) 107° (c) 104.5° (d) 90° (e) None

120. Which of the following halogens does not exhibit positive oxidation state in its compounds?

(a) I (b) Br (c) Cl (d) F (e) None

BIOLOGY

Questions 121 – 122 refer to the following statement:

𝑭𝒂𝒕𝒉𝒆𝒓 𝑴𝒐𝒕𝒉𝒆𝒓
𝑿(𝒏𝒐𝒓𝒎𝒂𝒍) /𝒀(𝒏𝒐𝒓𝒎𝒂𝒍) 𝑿(𝒉𝒆𝒎𝒐𝒑𝒉𝒊𝒍𝒊𝒂) /𝒀(𝒏𝒐𝒓𝒎𝒂𝒍)

With reference to the parents whose genotypes are shown above

121. __________% of children is likely to be male.

(a) 0 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 75 (e) 100

122. The possibility of a female child with phenotype: hemophilia is ____%.

(a) 0 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 75 (e) 100

123. Pepsin is a(n) ________, secreted by the __________.

(a) enzyme … stomach (b) hormone … pancreas

(c) antibody … gall bladder (d) pigment … skin (e) antigen … blood
124. The rough endoplasmic reticulum differs from the smooth endoplasmic reticulum due to the presence of

(a) lysosomes (b) ribosomes (c) mitochondria (d) golgi apparatus (e) histones
125. Ascaris belongs to the phylum

(a) platyhelminthes (b) annelida (c) mollusca (d) nematoda (e) arthropoda

126. Which of the following statements regarding photosynthesis is not true?

(a) the light cycle occurs only during exposure to light

(b) the dark cycle occurs only in the absence of light (c) ATP is produced during the light cycle
(d) during the dark cycle, sugar phosphates are produced
(e) red and blue light are optimal for photosynthetic

127. Process that cannot take place in a haploid cell is

(a) mitosis (b) meiosis (c) ATP production (d) DNA replication (e) transcription

Questions 128 – 129 refer to the following diagram.

128. Which structure contains the female gametophytes?

(a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 7

(d) 9 (e) 12

129. Where do pollen grains develop?

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (e) 8

130. Conifers, such as pine trees, are classified as

(a) anglosperm (b) gymnosperm (c) fern (d) mosses (e) None

131. The hormone progesterone

(a) stimulates follicle growth (b) stimulates FSH production

(c) prepares the uterus for implantation (d) is produced by the anterior pituitary
(e) is solely responsible for the development of secondary sex characteristics

132. The absorption of oxygen from the atmosphere into the blood takes place in the

(a) pulmonary artery (b) pulmonary vein (c) alveoli (d) trachea (e) bronchi

133. Membrane bound organelles include all of the following except:

(a) mitochondria (b) lysosomes (c) peroxisomes (d) centriole (e) plastids

134. Which one of the following is not sexually transmitted disease?

(a) gonorrhea (b) syphilis (c) genital herpes (d) meningitis (e) aids

135. In DNA, guanine forms a base pair with, while adenine forms a base pair with _________.

(a) thymine … cytosine (b) adenine … guanine

(c) cytosine … thymine (d) thymine … thymine (e) cytosine … cytosine

136. What is the correct sequence of events in the development of the embryo?

(a) morula → cleavage → blastula → gastrula (b) cleavage → morula → blastula → gastrula
(c) cleavage → gastrula → blastula → morula (d) blastula → cleavage → gastrula → morula
(e) morula → blastula → cleavage → gastrula

137. Which of the following is not found in a molecule of DNA?

 (a) adenine (b) deoxyribose (c) phosphorus (d) uracil (e) thymine

138. A muscle that bends a joint is termed as:

(a) flexor (b) insertion (c) tonus (d) diastole (e) extensor

139. The cell of a corn plant contains a diploid number of 20 chromosomes. When it divides by mitosis, what is
the number of chromosomes in each of the following resulting cells?

(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 30 (e) 40

140. If the male blood type A marries a female with blood type B, which of the following types would be
impossible for a first generation child?

(a) type B (b) type A (c) type O (d) type AB (e) all types possible

141. Bile is stored in

(a) liver (b) pancreas (c) duodenum (d) gall bladder (e) spleen

142. The structure and functional unit of nervous system is

(a) neuron (b) nerve (c) receptor (d) effector (e) axon

143. Which of the following is a hermaphrodite?

(a) ant (b) earthworm (c) aphid (d) trout (e) wasp

144. The outer protective covering of the heart is called

(a) epicardium (b) mesocardium (c) pericardium (d) peritoneum (e) pleura

145. Deficiency of vitamin A causes

(a) rickets (b) osteomalacia (c) delay in coagulation of blood

(d) night blindness (e) anemia

146. In the given food chain of grass → squirrel → snake → owl, the secondary consumer would be

(a) grass (b) squirrel (c) snake (d) owl (e) microbes of decay

147. Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection incorporated all of the following except.

(a) hereditary variation (b) high reproductive potential

(c) inheritance of acquired characteristic (d) struggle for existence (e) different survival

148. An organic compound in which hydrogen and oxygen are present in the same ratio as in water is

(a) fat (b) carbohydrate (c) protein (d) nucleic acid (e) All Correct

149. Ultra-filtration of blood occurs in

(a) bowman’s capsule (b) proximal convoluted tubule

(c) distal tubule (d) afferent arteriole (e) efferent arteriole

150. Shape of a coccus is

(a) spherical (b) rod shaped (c) helical (d) spiral (e) elongated
Questions 151 – 152 refer to the following statement:

Father Mother
X(normal) / Y X(hemophilia) / X(normal)

With reference to the parents whose genotypes are shown above:

151. ________% of children is likely to be male.

(a) 0 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 75 (e) 100

152. The possibility of a female child with phenotype hemophilia is __________%.

(a) 0 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 75 (e) 100

153. Peach trees, apple trees, tomatoes, and chhui mui are example of

(a) gymnosperms (b) bryophytes (c) angiosperms (d) chlorophytes (e) rhodophytes

154. Compound eyes are found in

(a) porifera (b) coelenterata (c) mollusca (d) arthropoda (e) annelida

155. In a reflex arc:

(a) the sensory neuron synapses directly with the motor neuron
(b) sensory and motor neuron can synapse outside of the spinal cord
(c) sensory neurons synapse in the brain
(d) the motor response occurs without synaptic delay
(e) a minimum of three neurons must participate

Questions: 156 – 157 refer to the following diagram

156. Which structure contains the female gametophytes?

(a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 7

(d) 9 (e) 12

157. Where do pollen grains develop?

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6

(d) 7 (e) 8

158. Meiosis differs from mitosis in that:

I. two consecutive cell divisions in one cell take place
II. DNA replicates during Interphase
III. haploid cells are produced form diploid cells

(a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I and III only (e) I, II and III

159. Identify the bones in which the connecting joints are immovable:

(a) phalanges (b) Wrist (c) arm (d) skull bones (e) None

150. Which one of following is not a viral disease?

(a) influenza (b) hepatitis (c) AIDS (d) pneumonia (e) rabies

161. The weakness in Darwin’s theory of how evolution occurs was his inability to explain the

(a) mechanisms that produce variations (b) reasons for overproduction

(c) role played by natural selection (d) adaptations of living organisms for survival
(e) inheritance of acquired characteristics
152. Which of the following kingdom(s) includes single-celled organisms?

I. Monera II. Protista III. Fungi

(a) I only (b) II only (c) I and III only (d) II and III only (e) I, II, and III

163. Which one of the following structures is present in a human nephron?

(a) Urethra (b) Ureter (c) flame cell

(d) Bowman’s capsule (e) Malpighian tubule

164. Which of the following statements about the Kreb’s cycle is not true?

(a) the Kreb’s cycle occurs in the matrix of the mitochondrion.

(b) the Kreb’s cycle is linked to glycolysis by pyruvate.
(c) the Kreb’s cycle is the single greatest direct source of ATP in the cell.
(d) Citrate is an intermediate in the Kreb’s cycle.
(e) the Kreb’s cycle produces nucleotides such as NADH+H+ and FADH2.

165. Pancreatic lipase is involved in the digestion of

(a) starch (b) protein (c) fat (d) cellulose (e) nucleic acid

166. If a plant utilized 𝑯𝟐 𝑺𝑶𝟒 instead of water, the plant would release

(a) 𝐶𝑂2 (b) 𝐻2 𝑂 (c) 𝑂2 (d) 𝑆𝑂42− (e) None

167. A red-flowered plant crossed with a white-flowered plant of the same species, produced 𝑭𝟏 , plants which all
had pink flowers. Self-pollination of the 𝑭𝟏 plants produced an 𝑭𝟐 generation in which 40 plants had red
flowers, 80 pink flowers and 40 had white flowers.

What does this experiment demonstrate?

(a) incomplete dominance (b) continuous variation

(c) a dihybrid cross (d) linkage (e) multiple alleles

168. Which of the following associations of brain structure and function is false?

(a) hypothalamus : appetite (b) cerebellum : motor coordination

(c) cerebral cortex : higher intellectual function (d) medulla : basic emotional drives (e) None

169. Which of the following groups have the most in common with one another?

(a) members of the same kingdom (b) members of the same genus
(c) members of the same phylum (d) member of the same class
(e) members of the same family

170. Hyperthyroidism is always associated with

(a) low blood pressure (b) severely diminished mental activity

(c) low metabolic rate (d) low body temperature
(e) increased heart rate

171. Which statement about the phylum Echinodermata is false?

(a) the phylum includes starfish and sea urchins. (b) Echinoderms usually reproduce sexually.
(c) the phylum includes crayfish. (d) Echinoderms are hetrotophs
(e) Echinoderms are invertebrates

172. All viruses:

(a) carry DNA (b) carry RNA (c) lack protein (d) cannot reproduce outside of cells

173. The biome in which an ecologist would expect to fine the coldest year-round temperature is the:
 (a) taiga (b) coniferous forest (c) deciduous forest (d) tundra (e) grassland

174. Which of the following is a stage in the light independent reactions in photosynthesis (the Calvin Cycle)?

(a) Carboxylation of a five-carbon sugar (b) Photolysis of water

(c) Photophosphorylation of ADP (d) Release of oxygen (e) None

175. __________ is commonly known as Almond.

(a) rosa indica (b) pyrus malus (c) pyrus communis (d) prunus amygdalus (e) prunus persica

176. Which process allows the movement of molecules that are too large to enter through a cell surface
membrane?

(a) active transport (b) endocytosis (c) exocytosis (d) facilitated diffusion

177. An animal cell and a plant cell are placed in distilled water. The animal cell swells and bursts, while the plant
cell swells but does not burst. What accounts for this difference?

(a) Animal cells have no cell wall (b) Animal cells have no vacuole.
(c) Plant cell surface membranes are partially permeable (d) Plant cell walls are freely permeable

178. What is the correct sequence of the bones in the arm of a mammal, from the hand to the shoulder?

(a) Humerus radius scapula

(b) humerus scapula radius
(c) radius humerus scapula
(d) scapula radius humerus

179. The diagram show a cell nucleus in prophase of mitosis.

Which statement describes the chromosomes found in each daughter
nucleus immediately following division of this cell by mitosis?

(a) 8 chromosomes, each consisting of 4 chromatids

(b) 8 chromosomes, each containing 1 molecule of DNA
(c) 12 chromosomes, each consisting of 4 chromatids
(d) 16 chromosomes, each containing 1 nucleus

180. Using the flow diagram, which organism is a fungus?

(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D (e) None