Aerody

PHILIPPINE
STATE COLLEGE OF AERONAUTICS

Piccio Garden, Villamor, Pasay City

MOCK EXAMINATION

AERODYNAMICS

1. A NASA Learjet has a section of one wing instrumented with devices capable of
measuring temperature and pressure at discrete points on the wing. If at one of
these points, the instruments measure pressure = 10 psi and temperature = -‐20
deg.F, what is the density of the air at that point?
a. .001971 slug per cu. Ft
b. .0019017 slug per cu. Ft
c. .0019071 slug per cu. Ft
d. .0010971 slug per cu. Ft
2. A wind tunnel has the following flow properties at the inlet: P = 101,000 Pa; A = 1
sq.m; T = 288 K; V = 200m/s and in the test section, A = 0.25 sq.m and V = 900 m/s.
What is the mass flow rate in the wind tunnel?
a. 314.32 N/s
b. 256.32 lb/s
c. 244.32 kg/s

3. An atmospheric pressure of 3 psig is equivalent to ___. (in psia)
a. 3 psia
b. 14 psia
c. 17 psia
d. 15 psia

4. Flight-‐test course students are preparing for a flight test sortie in a light aircraft.
They note that the altimeter indicates a pressure altitude of 7000ft. The student
flight-‐test engineer reads an air temperature of 65 degrees F. What is the density
altitude for these conditions?
a. 10,000 ft
b. 9,0000 ft
c. 8,000 ft
d. 7,000 ft
5. As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio,
total drag of an airplane
a. decreases because of lower parasite drag
b. increases because of increased parasite drag.
c. increases because of increased induced drag.
d. remains the same regardless of changes in airspeed.
6. What causes an airplane (except a T tail) to pitch nose down when power is reduced
and controls are not adjusted?
a. the CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced
b. the downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and
elevator effectiveness is reduced
c. when thrust is reduced to less than weight, lift is also reduced and the wings
can no longer support the weight
d. the CG shifts aft when thrust and drag are reduced
7. From the polar diagram of the entire airplane one can read:
a. the minimum lift-‐drag ratio and the minimum drag.
b. the maximum lift-‐drag ratio and lift coefficient.
c. the minimum drag and the maximum lift.
d. the minimum drag coefficient and the maximum lift.
8. The critical value of the pressure coefficient for an airplane flying at 500 knots in air
at 25OF is ________.
a. –0.417
b. –0.534
PHILIPPINE STATE COLLEGE OF AERONAUTICS

c. –0.325
d. –0.494
9. Why should flight speeds above VNE be avoided?
a. excessive induced drag will result in structural failure
b. a high speed stall is most likely to occur
c. ccontrol effectiveness is so impaired that the aircraft becomes
uncontrollable.
d. design limit load factors may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered
10. Given is a NACA 4415 airfoil with apposition of camber of 40 centimeters. Calculate
its maximum thickness.
a. 40 millimeters
b. 100 millimeters
c. 150 millimeters
d. 50 millimeters
11. The horizontal dashed line from point C to point E represents the
a. ultimate load factor
b. airspeed range for normal operations
c. positive limit load factor
d. airspeed range for turbulent operations

12. The speed for minimum glide angle occurs at a certain angle of attack. Which are the
following aerodynamic coefficient(s)?
CL
a. ( ) MAX
CD
b. C L MAX
CL
c. ( )
2 MAX

C D
3
CL
d. ( 2 ) MAX
CD
13. In Figure 4-‐9, The value of the angle of attack corresponding to CLMAX is called:
a. Maximum angle of attack.
b. Minimum angle of attack.
c. Critical angle of attack.
d. Best angle of attack.

14. The drag polar equation of an airplane is given by the relation:
CD = 0.025 + 0.046CL2
For minimum dag the induced drag coefficient is equal to_____ .
a. 0.008
b. 0.075
c. 0.050
d. 0.025
15. Consider an oblique shock wave with a wave angle of 30 degrees. The upstream flow
velocity at sea level is 1,590 knots. The deflection angle of the flow is _______________.
a. 6.62 degrees
b. 6.72 degrees
c. 6.82 degrees
d. 6.52 degrees
16. A Venturi tube narrows down from 4 in. in diameter to 2 in. in diameter. The
pressure at the throat is 2 lb per sq in. less than at the larger section? The rate of
flow of water is _______________.
a. 0.523 cu ft per sec.
b. 0.406 cu ft per sec.
c. 0.312 cu ft per sec.
d. 0.388 cu ft per sec.
17. Rate of descent can be minimized when the ________________________________.
a. parasite drag equals the induced drag
b. parasite drag equals one-‐third of induced drag
c. parasite drag equals three times the induced drag
d. parasite drag is greater than the induced drag
18. Consider an oblique shock wave with a wave angle of 35 degrees and pressure ratio
across the wave of 3.0. The deflection angle of the flow is _____________.
a. 15.24 degrees
b. 14.33 degrees
c. 16.63 degrees
d. 17.56 degrees
19. An airplane is flying at a density altitude of 4.5 kilometers at an ambient
temperature of 39o C. If the wing chord is 1.83 meters and the equivalent airspeed is
103 meters per second, the overall Reynolds Number is ________________.
a. 11,424,362
b. 10,628,467
c. 13,256,352
d. 9,664,786
20. The lift/drag ratio is obtained:
a. By dividing CL by the CD.
b. By dividing the CD by the CL.
c. By dividing the angle of attack by the CL.
d. By dividing the angle of attack by the CD.


21. An F-‐15 supersonic fighter aircraft is in a rapid climb. At the instant it passes
through a standard altitude of 25,000 ft., its time rate of change of altitude is 500
ft/s, which by definition is the rate of climb. Corresponding to this rate of climb at
25, 000 ft., is a time rate of change of ambient pressure. Calculate this rate of change
of pressure in units of pounds per square foot per second.
a. 1717 lb/ft2 sec
b. 1617 lb/ft2 sec
c. 1817 lb/ft2 sec
d. 1718 lb/ft2 sec
22. Consider a flying wing (such as the Northtrop YB-‐49 of the early 1950s) with a wing
area of 206 m2, an aspect ratio of 10, span effectiveness factor of 0.95, and a NACA
4412 airfoil. The weight of the airplane is 7.5 x105 N. If the density altitude is 3 km.
and the flight velocity is 100 m/s, calculate the total drag on the aircraft.
a. 2.35 x 104 N
b. 2.23 x 104 N
c. 2.33 x 104 N
d. 2.53 x 104 N
23. A high-‐speed subsonic Boeing 777 airliner is flying at a pressure altitude of 12 km. A
pitot tube on the vertical tail measures a pressure of 2.96 x 104 N/m2. At what Mach
number is the airplane flying?
a. 0.708
b. 0.801
c. 0.089
d. 0.616
24. Consider the flow of air through a supersonic nozzle. The reservoir pressure and
temperature are 5 atm and 500 K, respectively. If the Mach number at the nozzle
exit is 3, calculate the exit pressure, temperature, and density.
a. 1.37 x 104 Pa
b. 1.73 x 104 Pa
c. 1.30 x 104 Pa
d. 1.33 x 104 Pa
25. Temperature
a. 175.5 K
b. 157.6 K
c. 168.7 K
d. 178.6 K
26. Density
a. 0.267 kg/m3
b. 0.762 kg/m3
c. 0.672 kg/m3
d. 0.327 kg/m3
27. If the aircraft is operated in steady flight at maximum lift/drag ratio, the total drag
is:
a. minimum
b. maximum
c. below maximum
d. above minimum
28. It is equal to the limit load multiplied by the factor of safety.
a. Ultimate load
b. Maximum load
c. Gust load
d. Safe load


29. Lift-‐off velocity is typically how many percent higher than the stalling velocity to
ensure a margin of safety during take-‐off?
a. 30%
b. 20%
c. 10%
d. 40%
30. A gyroscopic instrument which provides details for roll rate, and movements about
roll and yaw axis.
a. Attitude indicator
b. Heading indicator
c. Turn indicator
d. VOR
31. A compass turning indicator, when heading north,
a. Lags or initially turns in the opposite direction
b. Indicates the right direction but with acceleration
c. Indicates correct heading
d. All of the above
32. It is the best rate of climb speed and is used to gain most altitude in a given period of
time.
a. Vy
b. Vx
c. Vno
d. Vs
33. Power required is a function of
a. Powerplant
b. Aerodynamic design & weight
c. Altitude
d. Alternator
34. It includes the effect of variation of parasite drag with lift
a. Oswalds
b. Reynold’s number
c. Load factor
d. Mach number
35. A pitot tube is mounted in the test section of a high speed subsonic wind tunnel. The
pressure and temperature of the airflow are 1 atm and 270 K, respectively. If the flow
velocity is 250 m/s, what is the pressure measured by the pitot tube?
5 2
a. 1.53 x 10 N/m
5 2
b. 1.48 x 10 N/m
5 2
c. 1.55 x 10 N/m
5 2
d. 1.42 x 10 N/m
36. The maximum lift to drag ratio of the World War I Sopwith Camel was 7.7. If the aircraft
is in flight at 5000 ft when the engine fails, how far can it glide in terms of distance
measured along the ground?
a. 629 miles
b. 700 miles
c. 719 miles
d. 729 miles.
37. Consider an airplane with a parasite drag coefficient of 0.025, an aspect ratio of 6.72, and an
Oswald efficiency factor of 0.9. Calculate the value of (L/D)max
a. 13.78
b. 14.78
c. 13.55
d. 14.55

38. Find R.N. for an airplane wing 4 ft chord, moving at 150 mph. Air is 40 C; barometer 21 in
Hg
a. 4,500,000
b. 4,300,000
c. 3,400,000
d. 5,300,000
39. A Fairchild monoplane weighs 2,550 lb; its wing span is 36 ft, 4in. At 5000 ft altitude,
what is the induced drag at an airspeed of 122 mph?
a. 67.9 lb
b. 47.8 lb
c. 55.9 lb
d. 40.9 lb
40. An airplane is making a turn of 1/8 mile radius at a speed of 225 mph. What is the load
factor?
a. 5.0
b. 5.5
c. 5.9
d. 5.2
41. Is the portion of parasite drag generated by the aircraft due to its shape and airflow
around it?
a. Interference drag
b. Form drag
c. Skin friction drag
d. Shape drag
42. Is the velocity of the air far upstream of the airfoil?
a. Stream velocity
b. Relative velocity
c. Free stream velocity
d. Indicated velocity
43. The initial tendency of the aircraft to remain in a new condition after its equilibrium is
disturbed.
a. Neutral Static Stability
b. Positive Dynamic Stability
c. Neutral Dynamic Stability
d. Positive Static Stability
44. The layer of air over the wing’s surface that is slowed down or stopped by viscosity.
a. Compression Wave
b. Laminar boundary layer flow
c. Boundary Layer
d. Turbulent Boundary Layer
45. Is a condition in which the aircraft tires ride on a thin sheet if water rather than on the
runway’s surface.
a. Static Hydroplaning
b. Dynamic Hydroplaning
c. Hydroplaning
d. Potential Hydroplaning
46. Maximum endurance for a propeller-‐driven airplane occurs when the airplane is flying
at ________ power required.
a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Stable
d. Medium


47. Lift-‐off speed will be anywhere from __________ times the stall speed or minimum control
speed.
a. 1.00 to 1.25
b. 1.08 to 1.25
c. 1.05 to 1.25
d. 1.03 to 1.25
48. Limit load factor for normal category aircraft.
a. 4.4 to -‐1.76
b. 3.9 to -‐1.52
c. 3.8 to -‐1.52
d. 6.0 to -‐3.00.
49. Air circulation around an airfoil occurs when the front stagnation point is below the
leading edge and the aft stagnation point is _____ the trailing edge.
a. Beyond
b. Above
c. Below
d. Within
50. A standard pressure lapse rate is one which pressure decreases at a rate approximately
1 inHg per 1,000 feet of altitude gain to ________.
a. 10,000 feet
b. 35,000 feet
c. 11,000 feet
d. 40,000 feet

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STATE COLLEGE OF AERONAUTICS

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