the drainage is normal 4 days after a sigmoid colostomy when the stool is:

Green liquid

Solid formed

Loose, bloody

Semiformed

2. Where would nurse Kristine place the call light for a male client with a right-sided brain attack and left
homonymous hemianopsia?

On the client’s right side

On the client’s left side

Directly in front of the client

Where the client like

3. A male client is admitted to the emergency department following an accident. What are the first
nursing actions of the nurse?

Check respiration, circulation, neurological response.

Align the spine, check pupils, and check for hemorrhage.

Check respirations, stabilize spine, and check circulation.

Assess level of consciousness and circulation.

4. In evaluating the effect of nitroglycerin, Nurse Arthur should know that it reduces preload and relieves
angina by:

Increasing contractility and slowing heart rate.

Increasing AV conduction and heart rate.

Decreasing contractility and oxygen consumption.

Decreasing venous return through vasodilation.

5. Nurse Patricia finds a female client who is post-myocardial infarction (MI) slumped on the side rails of
the bed and unresponsive to shaking or shouting. Which is the nurse next action?

Call for help and note the time.

Clear the airway

Give two sharp thumps to the precordium, and check the pulse.

Administer two quick blows.

6. Nurse Monett is caring for a client recovering from gastro-intestinal bleeding. The nurse should:

Plan care so the client can receive 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep each night.

Monitor vital signs every 2 hours.

Make sure that the client takes food and medications at prescribed intervals.

Provide milk every 2 to 3 hours.

7. A male client was on warfarin (Coumadin) before admission, and has been receiving heparin I.V. for 2
days. The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is 68 seconds. What should Nurse Carla do?

Stop the I.V. infusion of heparin and notify the physician.

Continue treatment as ordered.

Expect the warfarin to increase the PTT.

Increase the dosage, because the level is lower than normal.

8. A client undergone ileostomy, when should the drainage appliance be applied to the stoma?

24 hours later, when edema has subsided.

In the operating room.

After the ileostomy begin to function.

When the client is able to begin self-care procedures.

9. A client undergone spinal anesthetic, it will be important that the nurse immediately position the
client in:

On the side, to prevent obstruction of airway by tongue.

Flat on back.

On the back, with knees flexed 15 degrees.

Flat on the stomach, with the head turned to the side.

10.While monitoring a male client several hours after a motor vehicle accident, which assessment data
suggest increasing intracranial pressure?

Blood pressure is decreased from 160/90 to 110/70.

Pulse is increased from 87 to 95, with an occasional skipped beat.

The client is oriented when aroused from sleep, and goes back to sleep immediately.

The client refuses dinner because of anorexia.

11.Mrs. Cruz, 80 years old is diagnosed with pneumonia. Which of the following symptoms may appear
first?

Altered mental status and dehydration

Fever and chills

Hemoptysis and Dyspnea

Pleuritic chest pain and cough

12. A male client has active tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following symptoms will be exhibit?

Chest and lower back pain

Chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis

Fever of more than 104°F (40°C) and nausea

Headache and photophobia

13. Mark, a 7-year-old client is brought to the emergency department. He’s tachypneic and afebrile and
has a respiratory rate of 36 breaths/minute and has a nonproductive cough. He recently had a cold. Form
this history; the client may have which of the following conditions?

Acute asthma

Bronchial pneumonia

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

Emphysema

14. Marichu was given morphine sulfate for pain. She is sleeping and her respiratory rate is 4
breaths/minute. If action isn’t taken quickly, she might have which of the following reactions?

Asthma attack

Respiratory arrest

Seizure

Wake up on his own

15. A 77-year-old male client is admitted for elective knee surgery. Physical examination reveals shallow
respirations but no sign of respiratory distress. Which of the following is a normal physiologic change
related to aging?

Increased elastic recoil of the lungs

Increased number of functional capillaries in the alveoli

Decreased residual volume

Decreased vital capacity

16. Nurse John is caring for a male client receiving lidocaine I.V. Which factor is the most relevant to
administration of this medication?

Decrease in arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) when measured with a pulse oximeter.

Increase in systemic blood pressure.

Presence of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on a cardiac monitor.

Increase in intracranial pressure (ICP).

17. Nurse Ron is caring for a male client taking an anticoagulant. The nurse should teach the client to:

Report incidents of diarrhea.

Avoid foods high in vitamin K

Use a straight razor when shaving.

Take aspirin to pain relief.

18. Nurse Lhynnette is preparing a site for the insertion of an I.V. catheter. The nurse should treat excess
hair at the site by:

Leaving the hair intact

Shaving the area

Clipping the hair in the area

Removing the hair with a depilatory.

19. Nurse Michelle is caring for an elderly female with osteoporosis. When teaching the client, the nurse
should include information about which major complication:

Bone fracture
Loss of estrogen

Negative calcium balance

Dowager’s hump

20. Nurse Len is teaching a group of women to perform BSE. The nurse should explain that the purpose
of performing the examination is to discover:

Cancerous lumps

Areas of thickness or fullness

Changes from previous examinations.

Fibrocystic masses

21. When caring for a female client who is being treated for hyperthyroidism, it is important to:

Provide extra blankets and clothing to keep the client warm.

Monitor the client for signs of restlessness, sweating, and excessive weight loss during thyroid
replacement therapy.

Balance the client’s periods of activity and rest.

Encourage the client to be active to prevent constipation.

22. Nurse Kris is teaching a client with history of atherosclerosis. To decrease the risk of atherosclerosis,
the nurse should encourage the client to:

Avoid focusing on his weight.

Increase his activity level.

Follow a regular diet.

Continue leading a high-stress lifestyle.

23. Nurse Greta is working on a surgical floor. Nurse Greta must logroll a client following a:

Laminectomy

Thoracotomy

Hemorrhoidectomy

Cystectomy.
24. A 55-year old client underwent cataract removal with intraocular lens implant. Nurse Oliver is giving
the client discharge instructions. These instructions should include which of the following?

Avoid lifting objects weighing more than 5 lb (2.25 kg).

Lie on your abdomen when in bed

Keep rooms brightly lit.

Avoiding straining during bowel movement or bending at the waist.

25. George should be taught about testicular examinations during:

when sexual activity starts

After age 69

After age 40

Before age 20.

26. A male client undergone a colon resection. While turning him, wound dehiscence with evisceration
occurs. Nurse Trish first response is to:

Call the physician

Place a saline-soaked sterile dressing on the wound.

Take a blood pressure and pulse.

Pull the dehiscence closed.

27. Nurse Audrey is caring for a client who has suffered a severe cerebrovascular accident. During
routine assessment, the nurse notices Cheyne- Strokes respirations. Cheyne-strokes respirations are:

A progressively deeper breaths followed by shallower breaths with apneic periods.

Rapid, deep breathing with abrupt pauses between each breath.

Rapid, deep breathing and irregular breathing without pauses.

Shallow breathing with an increased respiratory rate.

28. Nurse Bea is assessing a male client with heart failure. The breath sounds commonly auscultated in
clients with heart failure are:

Tracheal

Fine crackles
Coarse crackles

Friction rubs

29. The nurse is caring for Kenneth experiencing an acute asthma attack. The client stops wheezing and
breath sounds aren’t audible. The reason for this change is that:

The attack is over.

The airways are so swollen that no air cannot get through.

The swelling has decreased.

Crackles have replaced wheezes.

30. Mike with epilepsy is having a seizure. During the active seizure phase, the nurse should:

Place the client on his back remove dangerous objects, and insert a bite block.

Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects, and insert a bite block.

Place the client o his back, remove dangerous objects, and hold down his arms.

Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects, and protect his head.

31. After insertion of a cheat tube for a pneumothorax, a client becomes hypotensive with neck vein
distention, tracheal shift, absent breath sounds, and diaphoresis. Nurse Amanda suspects a tension
pneumothorax has occurred. What cause of tension pneumothorax should the nurse check for?

Infection of the lung.

Kinked or obstructed chest tube

Excessive water in the water-seal chamber

Excessive chest tube drainage

32. Nurse Maureen is talking to a male client, the client begins choking on his lunch. He’s coughing
forcefully. The nurse should:

Stand him up and perform the abdominal thrust maneuver from behind.

Lay him down, straddle him, and perform the abdominal thrust maneuver.

Leave him to get assistance

Stay with him but not intervene at this time.

33. Nurse Ron is taking a health history of an 84 year old client. Which information will be most useful to
the nurse for planning care?

General health for the last 10 years.

Current health promotion activities.

Family history of diseases.

Marital status.

34. When performing oral care on a comatose client, Nurse Krina should:

Apply lemon glycerin to the client’s lips at least every 2 hours.

Brush the teeth with client lying supine.

Place the client in a side lying position, with the head of the bed lowered.

Clean the client’s mouth with hydrogen peroxide.

35. A 77-year-old male client is admitted with a diagnosis of dehydration and change in mental status.
He’s being hydrated with L.V. fluids. When the nurse takes his vital signs, she notes he has a fever of
103°F (39.4°C) a cough producing yellow sputum and pleuritic chest pain. The nurse suspects this client
may have which of the following conditions?

Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

Myocardial infarction (MI)

Pneumonia

Tuberculosis

36. Nurse Oliver is working in a out patient clinic. He has been alerted that there is an outbreak of
tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following clients entering the clinic today most likely to have TB?

A 16-year-old female high school student

A 33-year-old day-care worker

A 43-yesr-old homeless man with a history of alcoholism

A 54-year-old businessman

37. Virgie with a positive Mantoux test result will be sent for a chest X-ray. The nurse is aware that which
of the following reasons this is done?

To confirm the diagnosis

To determine if a repeat skin test is needed

To determine the extent of lesions

To determine if this is a primary or secondary infection

38. Kennedy with acute asthma showing inspiratory and expiratory wheezes and a decreased forced
expiratory volume should be treated with which of the following classes of medication right away?

Beta-adrenergic blockers

Bronchodilators

Inhaled steroids

Oral steroids

39. Mr. Vasquez 56-year-old client with a 40-year history of smoking one to two packs of cigarettes per
day has a chronic cough producing thick sputum, peripheral edema and cyanotic nail beds. Based on this
information, he most likely has which of the following conditions?

Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

Asthma

Chronic obstructive bronchitis

Emphysema

Situation: Francis, age 46 is admitted to the hospital with diagnosis of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia.

40. The treatment for patients with leukemia is bone marrow transplantation. Which statement about
bone marrow transplantation is not correct?

The patient is under local anesthesia during the procedure

The aspirated bone marrow is mixed with heparin.

The aspiration site is the posterior or anterior iliac crest.

The recipient receives cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) for 4 consecutive days before the procedure.

41. After several days of admission, Francis becomes disoriented and complains of frequent headaches.
The nurse in-charge first action would be:

Call the physician

Document the patient’s status in his charts.

Prepare oxygen treatment

Raise the side rails

42. During routine care, Francis asks the nurse, “How can I be anemic if this disease causes increased my
white blood cell production?” The nurse in-charge best response would be that the increased number of
white blood cells (WBC) is:

Crowd red blood cells

Are not responsible for the anemia.

Uses nutrients from other cells

Have an abnormally short life span of cells.

43. Diagnostic assessment of Francis would probably not reveal:

Predominance of lymhoblasts

Leukocytosis

Abnormal blast cells in the bone marrow

Elevated thrombocyte counts

44. Robert, a 57-year-old client with acute arterial occlusion of the left leg undergoes an emergency
embolectomy. Six hours later, the nurse isn’t able to obtain pulses in his left foot using Doppler
ultrasound. The nurse immediately notifies the physician, and asks her to prepare the client for surgery.
As the nurse enters the client’s room to prepare him, he states that he won’t have any more surgery.
Which of the following is the best initial response by the nurse?

Explain the risks of not having the surgery

Notifying the physician immediately

Notifying the nursing supervisor

Recording the client’s refusal in the nurses’ notes

45. During the endorsement, which of the following clients should the on-duty nurse assess first?

The 58-year-old client who was admitted 2 days ago with heart failure, blood pressure of 126/76 mm Hg,
and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute.

The 89-year-old client with end-stage right-sided heart failure, blood pressure of 78/50 mm Hg, and a
“do not resuscitate” order
The 62-year-old client who was admitted 1 day ago with thrombophlebitis and is receiving L.V. heparin

The 75-year-old client who was admitted 1 hour ago with new-onset atrial fibrillation and is receiving L.V.
dilitiazem (Cardizem)

46. Honey, a 23-year old client complains of substernal chest pain and states that her heart feels like “it’s
racing out of the chest”. She reports no history of cardiac disorders. The nurse attaches her to a cardiac
monitor and notes sinus tachycardia with a rate of 136beats/minutes. Breath sounds are clear and the
respiratory rate is 26 breaths/minutes. Which of the following drugs should the nurse question the client
about using?

Barbiturates

Opioids

Cocaine

Benzodiazepines

47. A 51-year-old female client tells the nurse in-charge that she has found a painless lump in her right
breast during her monthly self-examination. Which assessment finding would strongly suggest that this
client’s lump is cancerous?

Eversion of the right nipple and mobile mass

Nonmobile mass with irregular edges

Mobile mass that is soft and easily delineated

Nonpalpable right axillary lymph nodes

48. A 35-year-old client with vaginal cancer asks the nurse, “What is the usual treatment for this type of
cancer?” Which treatment should the nurse name?

Surgery

Chemotherapy

Radiation

Immunotherapy

49. Cristina undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion according to
the TNM staging system as follows: TIS, N0, M0. What does this classification mean?

No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant
metastasis
Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis

Can’t assess tumor or regional lymph nodes and no evidence of metastasis

Carcinoma in situ, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph nodes, and ascending degrees of
distant metastasis

50. Lydia undergoes a laryngectomy to treat laryngeal cancer. When teaching the client how to care for
the neck stoma, the nurse should include which instruction?

“Keep the stoma uncovered.”

“Keep the stoma dry.”

“Have a family member perform stoma care initially until you get used to the procedure.”

“Keep the stoma moist.”

51. A 37-year-old client with uterine cancer asks the nurse, “Which is the most common type of cancer in
women?” The nurse replies that it’s breast cancer. Which type of cancer causes the most deaths in
women?

Breast cancer

Lung cancer

Brain cancer

Colon and rectal cancer

52. Antonio with lung cancer develops Horner’s syndrome when the tumor invades the ribs and affects
the sympathetic nerve ganglia. When assessing for signs and symptoms of this syndrome, the nurse
should note:

miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of the face.

chest pain, dyspnea, cough, weight loss, and fever.

arm and shoulder pain and atrophy of arm and hand muscles, both on the affected side.

hoarseness and dysphagia.

53. Vic asks the nurse what PSA is. The nurse should reply that it stands for:

prostate-specific antigen, which is used to screen for prostate cancer.

protein serum antigen, which is used to determine protein levels.

pneumococcal strep antigen, which is a bacteria that causes pneumonia.

Papanicolaou-specific antigen, which is used to screen for cervical cancer.

54. What is the most important postoperative instruction that nurse Kate must give a client who has just
returned from the operating room after receiving a subarachnoid block?

“Avoid drinking liquids until the gag reflex returns.”

“Avoid eating milk products for 24 hours.”

“Notify a nurse if you experience blood in your urine.”

“Remain supine for the time specified by the physician.”

55. A male client suspected of having colorectal cancer will require which diagnostic study to confirm the
diagnosis?

Stool Hematest

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

Sigmoidoscopy

Abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan

56. During a breast examination, which finding most strongly suggests that the Luz has breast cancer?

Slight asymmetry of the breasts.

A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin

Bloody discharge from the nipple

Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that change with the menstrual cycle

57. A female client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. Which of the following is one
of the most common metastasis sites for cancer cells?

Liver

Colon

Reproductive tract

White blood cells (WBCs)

58. Nurse Mandy is preparing a client for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to confirm or rule out a
spinal cord lesion. During the MRI scan, which of the following would pose a threat to the client?

The client lies still.

The client asks questions.

The client hears thumping sounds.

The client wears a watch and wedding band.

59. Nurse Cecile is teaching a female client about preventing osteoporosis. Which of the following
teaching points is correct?

Obtaining an X-ray of the bones every 3 years is recommended to detect bone loss.

To avoid fractures, the client should avoid strenuous exercise.

The recommended daily allowance of calcium may be found in a wide variety of foods.

Obtaining the recommended daily allowance of calcium requires taking a calcium supplement.

60. Before Jacob undergoes arthroscopy, the nurse reviews the assessment findings for contraindications
for this procedure. Which finding is a contraindication?

Joint pain

Joint deformity

Joint flexion of less than 50%

Joint stiffness

61. Mr. Rodriguez is admitted with severe pain in the knees. Which form of arthritis is characterized by
urate deposits and joint pain, usually in the feet and legs, and occurs primarily in men over age 30?

Septic arthritis

Traumatic arthritis

Intermittent arthritis

Gouty arthritis

62. A heparin infusion at 1,500 unit/hour is ordered for a 64-year-old client with stroke in evolution. The
infusion contains 25,000 units of heparin in 500 ml of saline solution. How many milliliters per hour
should be given?

15 ml/hour

30 ml/hour

45 ml/hour
50 ml/hour

63. A 76-year-old male client had a thromboembolic right stroke; his left arm is swollen. Which of the
following conditions may cause swelling after a stroke?

Elbow contracture secondary to spasticity

Loss of muscle contraction decreasing venous return

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility of the ipsilateral side

Hypoalbuminemia due to protein escaping from an inflamed glomerulus

64. Heberden’s nodes are a common sign of osteoarthritis. Which of the following statement is correct
about this deformity?

It appears only in men

It appears on the distal interphalangeal joint

It appears on the proximal interphalangeal joint

It appears on the dorsolateral aspect of the interphalangeal joint.

65. Which of the following statements explains the main difference between rheumatoid arthritis and
osteoarthritis?

Osteoarthritis is gender-specific, rheumatoid arthritis isn’t

Osteoarthritis is a localized disease rheumatoid arthritis is systemic

Osteoarthritis is a systemic disease, rheumatoid arthritis is localized

Osteoarthritis has dislocations and subluxations, rheumatoid arthritis doesn’t

66. Mrs. Cruz uses a cane for assistance in walking. Which of the following statements is true about a
cane or other assistive devices?

A walker is a better choice than a cane.

The cane should be used on the affected side

The cane should be used on the unaffected side

A client with osteoarthritis should be encouraged to ambulate without the cane

67. A male client with type 1 diabetes is scheduled to receive 30 U of 70/30 insulin. There is no 70/30
insulin available. As a substitution, the nurse may give the client:
9 U regular insulin and 21 U neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH).

21 U regular insulin and 9 U NPH.

10 U regular insulin and 20 U NPH.

20 U regular insulin and 10 U NPH.

68. Nurse Len should expect to administer which medication to a client with gout?

aspirin

furosemide (Lasix)

colchicines

calcium gluconate (Kalcinate)

69. Mr. Domingo with a history of hypertension is diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism. This
diagnosis indicates that the client’s hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which
of the following glands?

Adrenal cortex

Pancreas

Adrenal medulla

Parathyroid

70. For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the doctor orders bed rest, a wetto- dry dressing change
every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used
for this client?

They contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment.

They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing.

They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention.

They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort.

71. Nurse Zeny is caring for a client in acute addisonian crisis. Which laboratory data would the nurse
expect to find?

Hyperkalemia

Reduced blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Hypernatremia

Hyperglycemia

72. A client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).
Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered

Encouraging increased oral intake

Restricting fluids

Administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids as ordered

73. A female client tells nurse Nikki that she has been working hard for the last 3 months to control her
type 2 diabetes mellitus with diet and exercise. To determine the effectiveness of the client’s efforts, the
nurse should check:

urine glucose level.

fasting blood glucose level.

serum fructosamine level.

glycosylated hemoglobin level.

74. Nurse Trinity administered neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin to a diabetic client at 7 a.m. At
what time would the nurse expect the client to be most at risk for a hypoglycemic reaction?

10:00 am

Noon

4:00 pm

10:00 pm

75. The adrenal cortex is responsible for producing which substances?

Glucocorticoids and androgens

Catecholamines and epinephrine

Mineralocorticoids and catecholamines

Norepinephrine and epinephrine

76. On the third day after a partial thyroidectomy, Proserfina exhibits muscle twitching and
hyperirritability of the nervous system. When questioned, the client reports numbness and tingling of
the mouth and fingertips. Suspecting a lifethreatening electrolyte disturbance, the nurse notifies the
surgeon immediately. Which electrolyte disturbance most commonly follows thyroid surgery?

Hypocalcemia

Hyponatremia

Hyperkalemia

Hypermagnesemia

77. Which laboratory test value is elevated in clients who smoke and can’t be used as a general indicator
of cancer?

Acid phosphatase level

Serum calcitonin level

Alkaline phosphatase level

Carcinoembryonic antigen level

78. Francis with anemia has been admitted to the medical-surgical unit. Which assessment findings are
characteristic of iron-deficiency anemia?

Nights sweats, weight loss, and diarrhea

Dyspnea, tachycardia, and pallor

Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia

Itching, rash, and jaundice

79. In teaching a female client who is HIV-positive about pregnancy, the nurse would know more
teaching is necessary when the client says:

The baby can get the virus from my placenta.”

“I’m planning on starting on birth control pills.”

“Not everyone who has the virus gives birth to a baby who has the virus.”

“I’ll need to have a C-section if I become pregnant and have a baby.”

80. When preparing Judy with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for discharge to the home,
the nurse should be sure to include which instruction?
“Put on disposable gloves before bathing.”

“Sterilize all plates and utensils in boiling water.”

“Avoid sharing such articles as toothbrushes and razors.”

“Avoid eating foods from serving dishes shared by other family members.”

81. Nurse Marie is caring for a 32-year-old client admitted with pernicious anemia. Which set of findings
should the nurse expect when assessing the

client?

Pallor, bradycardia, and reduced pulse pressure

Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue

Sore tongue, dyspnea, and weight gain

Angina, double vision, and anorexia

82. After receiving a dose of penicillin, a client develops dyspnea and hypotension. Nurse Celestina
suspects the client is experiencing anaphylactic shock. What should the nurse do first?

Page an anesthesiologist immediately and prepare to intubate the client.

Administer epinephrine, as prescribed, and prepare to intubate the client if necessary.

Administer the antidote for penicillin, as prescribed, and continue to monitor the client’s vital signs.

Insert an indwelling urinary catheter and begin to infuse I.V. fluids as ordered.

83. Mr. Marquez with rheumatoid arthritis is about to begin aspirin therapy to reduce inflammation.
When teaching the client about aspirin, the nurse discusses adverse reactions to prolonged aspirin
therapy. These include:

weight gain.

fine motor tremors.

respiratory acidosis.

bilateral hearing loss.

84. A 23-year-old client is diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). After recovering from
the initial shock of the diagnosis, the client expresses a desire to learn as much as possible about HIV and
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). When teaching the client about the immune system, the
nurse states that adaptive immunity is provided by which type of white blood cell?
Neutrophil

Basophil

Monocyte

Lymphocyte

85. In an individual with Sjögren’s syndrome, nursing care should focus on:

moisture replacement.

electrolyte balance.

nutritional supplementation.

arrhythmia management.

86. During chemotherapy for lymphocytic leukemia, Mathew develops abdominal pain, fever, and “horse
barn” smelling diarrhea. It would be most important for the nurse to advise the physician to order:

enzyme-linked immunosuppressant assay (ELISA) test.

electrolyte panel and hemogram.

stool for Clostridium difficile test.

flat plate X-ray of the abdomen.

87. A male client seeks medical evaluation for fatigue, night sweats, and a 20-lb weight loss in 6 weeks.
To confirm that the client has been infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the nurse
expects the physician to order:

E-rosette immunofluorescence.

quantification of T-lymphocytes.

enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).

Western blot test with ELISA.

88. A complete blood count is commonly performed before a Joe goes into surgery. What does this test
seek to identify?

Potential hepatic dysfunction indicated by decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels

Low levels of urine constituents normally excreted in the urine

Abnormally low hematocrit (HCT) and hemoglobin (Hb) levels

Electrolyte imbalance that could affect the blood’s ability to coagulate properly

89. While monitoring a client for the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the
nurse should take note of what assessment parameters?

Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time

Platelet count, blood glucose levels, and white blood cell (WBC) count

Thrombin time, calcium levels, and potassium levels

Fibrinogen level, WBC, and platelet count

90. When taking a dietary history from a newly admitted female client, Nurse Len should remember that
which of the following foods is a common allergen?

Bread

Carrots

Orange

Strawberries

91. Nurse John is caring for clients in the outpatient clinic. Which of the following phone calls should the
nurse return first?

A client with hepatitis A who states, “My arms and legs are itching.”

A client with cast on the right leg who states, “I have a funny feeling in my right leg.”

A client with osteomyelitis of the spine who states, “I am so nauseous that I can’t eat.”

A client with rheumatoid arthritis who states, “I am having trouble sleeping.”

92. Nurse Sarah is caring for clients on the surgical floor and has just received report from the previous
shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

A 35-year-old admitted three hours ago with a gunshot wound; 1.5 cm area of dark drainage noted on
the dressing.

A 43-year-old who had a mastectomy two days ago; 23 ml of serosanguinous fluid noted in the Jackson-
Pratt drain.

A 59-year-old with a collapsed lung due to an accident; no drainage noted in the previous eight hours.

A 62-year-old who had an abdominal-perineal resection three days ago; client complaints of chills.
93. Nurse Eve is caring for a client who had a thyroidectomy 12 hours ago for treatment of Grave’s
disease. The nurse would be most concerned if which of the following was observed?

Blood pressure 138/82, respirations 16, oral temperature 99 degrees Fahrenheit.

The client supports his head and neck when turning his head to the right.

The client spontaneously flexes his wrist when the blood pressure is obtained.

The client is drowsy and complains of sore throat.

94. Julius is admitted with complaints of severe pain in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen. To
assist with pain relief, the nurse should take which of the following actions?

Encourage the client to change positions frequently in bed.

Administer Demerol 50 mg IM q 4 hours and PRN.

Apply warmth to the abdomen with a heating pad.

Use comfort measures and pillows to position the client.

95. Nurse Tina prepares a client for peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take first?

Assess for a bruit and a thrill.

Warm the dialysate solution.

Position the client on the left side.

Insert a Foley catheter

96. Nurse Jannah teaches an elderly client with right-sided weakness how to use cane. Which of the
following behaviors, if demonstrated by the client to the nurse, indicates that the teaching was effective?

The client holds the cane with his right hand, moves the can forward followed by the right leg, and then
moves the left leg.

The client holds the cane with his right hand, moves the cane forward followed by his left leg, and then
moves the right leg.

The client holds the cane with his left hand, moves the cane forward followed by the right leg, and then
moves the left leg.

The client holds the cane with his left hand, moves the cane forward followed by his left leg, and then
moves the right leg.
97. An elderly client is admitted to the nursing home setting. The client is occasionally confused and her
gait is often unsteady. Which of the following actions, if taken by the nurse, is most appropriate?

Ask the woman’s family to provide personal items such as photos or mementos.

Select a room with a bed by the door so the woman can look down the hall.

Suggest the woman eat her meals in the room with her roommate.

Encourage the woman to ambulate in the halls twice a day.

98. Nurse Evangeline teaches an elderly client how to use a standard aluminum walker. Which of the
following behaviors, if demonstrated by the client, indicates that the nurse’s teaching was effective?

The client slowly pushes the walker forward 12 inches, then takes small steps forward while leaning on
the walker.

The client lifts the walker, moves it forward 10 inches, and then takes several small steps forward.

The client supports his weight on the walker while advancing it forward, then takes small steps while
balancing on the walker.

The client slides the walker 18 inches forward, then takes small steps while holding onto the walker for
balance.

99. Nurse Deric is supervising a group of elderly clients in a residential home setting. The nurse knows
that the elderly are at greater risk of developing sensory deprivation for what reason?

Increased sensitivity to the side effects of medications.

Decreased visual, auditory, and gustatory abilities.

Isolation from their families and familiar surroundings.

Decrease musculoskeletal function and mobility.

100. A male client with emphysema becomes restless and confused. What step should nurse Jasmine
take next?

Encourage the client to perform pursed lip breathing.

Check the client’s temperature.

Assess the client’s potassium level.

Increase the client’s oxygen flow rate.

Answers and Rationales

Answer: (C) Loose, bloody. Normal bowel function and soft-formed stool usually do not occur until
around the seventh day following surgery. The stool consistency is related to how much water is being
absorbed.

Answer: (A) On the client’s right side. The client has left visual field blindness. The client will see only
from the right side.

Answer: (C) Check respirations, stabilize spine, and check circulation. Checking the airway would be
priority, and a neck injury should be suspected.

Answer: (D) Decreasing venous return through vasodilation. The significant effect of nitroglycerin is
vasodilation and decreased venous return, so the heart does not have to work hard.

Answer: (A) Call for help and note the time. Having established, by stimulating the client, that the client
is unconscious rather than sleep, the nurse should immediately call for help. This may be done by dialing
the operator from the client’s phone and giving the hospital code for cardiac arrest and the client’s room
number to the operator, of if the phone is not available, by pulling the emergency call button. Noting the
time is important baseline information for cardiac arrest procedure.

Answer: (C) Make sure that the client takes food and medications at prescribed intervals. Food and drug
therapy will prevent the accumulation of hydrochloric acid, or will neutralize and buffer the acid that
does accumulate.

Answer: (B) Continue treatment as ordered. The effects of heparin are monitored by the PTT is normally
30 to 45 seconds; the therapeutic level is 1.5 to 2 times the normal level.

Answer: (B) In the operating room. The stoma drainage bag is applied in the operating room. Drainage
from the ileostomy contains secretions that are rich in digestive enzymes and highly irritating to the skin.
Protection of the skin from the effects of these enzymes is begun at once. Skin exposed to these
enzymes even for a short time becomes reddened, painful, and excoriated.

Answer: (B) Flat on back. To avoid the complication of a painful spinal headache that can last for several
days, the client is kept in flat in a supine position for approximately 4 to 12 hours postoperatively.
Headaches are believed to be causes by the seepage of cerebral spinal fluid from the puncture site. By
keeping the client flat, cerebral spinal fluid pressures are equalized, which avoids trauma to the neurons.

Answer: (C) The client is oriented when aroused from sleep, and goes back to sleep immediately. This
finding suggest that the level of consciousness is decreasing.

Answer: (A) Altered mental status and dehydration. Fever, chills, hemortysis, dyspnea, cough, and
pleuritic chest pain are the common symptoms of pneumonia, but elderly clients may first appear with
only an altered lentil status and dehydration due to a blunted immune response.
Answer: (B) Chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis. Typical signs and symptoms are chills, fever, night
sweats, and hemoptysis. Chest pain may be present from coughing, but isn’t usual. Clients with TB
typically have low-grade fevers, not higher than 102°F (38.9°C). Nausea, headache, and photophobia
aren’t usual TB symptoms.

Answer:(A) Acute asthma. Based on the client’s history and symptoms, acute asthma is the most likely
diagnosis. He’s unlikely to have bronchial pneumonia without a productive cough and fever and he’s too
young to have developed (COPD) and emphysema.

Answer: (B) Respiratory arrest. Narcotics can cause respiratory arrest if given in large quantities. It’s
unlikely the client will have asthma attack or a seizure or wake up on his own.

Answer: (D) Decreased vital capacity. Reduction in vital capacity is a normal physiologic changes include
decreased elastic recoil of the lungs, fewer functional capillaries in the alveoli, and an increased in
residual volume.

Answer: (C) Presence of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on a cardiac monitor. Lidocaine drips
are commonly used to treat clients whose arrhythmias haven’t been controlled with oral medication and
who are having PVCs that are visible on the cardiac monitor. SaO2, blood pressure, and ICP are important
factors but aren’t as significant as PVCs in the situation.

Answer: (B) Avoid foods high in vitamin K. The client should avoid consuming large amounts of vitamin K
because vitamin K can interfere with anticoagulation. The client may need to report diarrhea, but isn’t
effect of taking an anticoagulant. An electric razor-not a straight razor-should be used to prevent cuts
that cause bleeding. Aspirin may increase the risk of bleeding; acetaminophen should be used to pain
relief.

Answer: (C) Clipping the hair in the area. Hair can be a source of infection and should be removed by
clipping. Shaving the area can cause skin abrasions and depilatories can irritate the skin.

Answer: (A) Bone fracture. Bone fracture is a major complication of osteoporosis that results when loss
of calcium and phosphate increased the fragility of bones. Estrogen deficiencies result from menopause-
not osteoporosis. Calcium and vitamin D supplements may be used to support normal bone metabolism,
But a negative calcium balance isn’t a complication of osteoporosis. Dowager’s hump results from bone
fractures. It develops when repeated vertebral fractures increase spinal curvature.

Answer: (C) Changes from previous examinations. Women are instructed to examine themselves to
discover changes that have occurred in the breast. Only a physician can diagnose lumps that are
cancerous, areas of thickness or fullness that signal the presence of a malignancy, or masses that are
fibrocystic as opposed to malignant.

Answer: (C) Balance the client’s periods of activity and rest. A client with hyperthyroidism needs to be
encouraged to balance periods of activity and rest. Many clients with hyperthyroidism are hyperactive
and complain of feeling very warm.
Answer: (B) Increase his activity level. The client should be encouraged to increase his activity level.
Maintaining an ideal weight; following a low-cholesterol, low sodium diet; and avoiding stress are all
important factors in decreasing the risk of atherosclerosis.

Answer: (A) Laminectomy. The client who has had spinal surgery, such as laminectomy, must be log
rolled to keep the spinal column straight when turning. Thoracotomy and cystectomy may turn
themselves or may be assisted into a comfortable position. Under normal circumstances,
hemorrhoidectomy is an outpatient procedure, and the client may resume normal activities immediately
after surgery.

Answer: (D) Avoiding straining during bowel movement or bending at the waist. The client should avoid
straining, lifting heavy objects, and coughing harshly because these activities increase intraocular
pressure. Typically, the client is instructed to avoid lifting objects weighing more than 15 lb (7kg) – not
5lb. instruct the client when lying in bed to lie on either the side or back. The client should avoid bright
light by wearing sunglasses.

Answer: (D) Before age 20. Testicular cancer commonly occurs in men between ages 20 and 30. A male
client should be taught how to perform testicular selfexamination before age 20, preferably when he
enters his teens.

Answer: (B) Place a saline-soaked sterile dressing on the wound. The nurse should first place saline-
soaked sterile dressings on the open wound to prevent tissue drying and possible infection. Then the
nurse should call the physician and take the client’s vital signs. The dehiscence needs to be surgically
closed, so the nurse should never try to close it.

Answer: (A) A progressively deeper breaths followed by shallower breaths with apneic periods. Cheyne-
Strokes respirations are breaths that become progressively deeper fallowed by shallower respirations
with apneas periods. Biot’s respirations are rapid, deep breathing with abrupt pauses between each
breath, and equal depth between each breath. Kussmaul’s respirations are rapid, deep breathing without
pauses. Tachypnea is shallow breathing with increased respiratory rate.

Answer: (B) Fine crackles. Fine crackles are caused by fluid in the alveoli and commonly occur in clients
with heart failure. Tracheal breath sounds are auscultated over the trachea. Coarse crackles are caused
by secretion accumulation in the airways. Friction rubs occur with pleural inflammation.

Answer: (B) The airways are so swollen that no air cannot get through. During an acute attack, wheezing
may stop and breath sounds become inaudible because the airways are so swollen that air can’t get
through. If the attack is over and swelling has decreased, there would be no more wheezing and less
emergent concern. Crackles do not replace wheezes during an acute asthma attack.

Answer: (D) Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects, and protect his head. During the
active seizure phase, initiate precautions by placing the client on his side, removing dangerous objects,
and protecting his head from injury. A bite block should never be inserted during the active seizure
phase. Insertion can break the teeth and lead to aspiration.
Answer: (B) Kinked or obstructed chest tube. Kinking and blockage of the chest tube is a common cause
of a tension pneumothorax. Infection and excessive drainage won’t cause a tension pneumothorax.
Excessive water won’t affect the chest tube drainage.

Answer: (D) Stay with him but not intervene at this time. If the client is coughing, he should be able to
dislodge the object or cause a complete obstruction. If complete obstruction occurs, the nurse should
perform the abdominal thrust maneuver with the client standing. If the client is unconscious, she should
lay him down. A nurse should never leave a choking client alone.

Answer: (B) Current health promotion activities. Recognizing an individual’s positive health measures is
very useful. General health in the previous 10 years is important, however, the current activities of an 84
year old client are most significant in planning care. Family history of disease for a client in later years is
of minor significance. Marital status information may be important for discharge planning but is not as
significant for addressing the immediate medical problem.

Answer: (C) Place the client in a side lying position, with the head of the bed lowered. The client should
be positioned in a side-lying position with the head of the bed lowered to prevent aspiration. A small
amount of toothpaste should be used and the mouth swabbed or suctioned to remove pooled
secretions. Lemon glycerin can be drying if used for extended periods. Brushing the teeth with the client
lying supine may lead to aspiration. Hydrogen peroxide is caustic to tissues and should not be used.

Answer: (C) Pneumonia. Fever productive cough and pleuritic chest pain are common signs and
symptoms of pneumonia. The client with ARDS has dyspnea and hypoxia with worsening hypoxia over
time, if not treated aggressively. Pleuritic chest pain varies with respiration, unlike the constant chest
pain during an MI; so this client most likely isn’t having an MI. the client with TB typically has a cough
producing blood-tinged sputum. A sputum culture should be obtained to confirm the nurse’s suspicions.

Answer: (C) A 43-yesr-old homeless man with a history of alcoholism. Clients who are economically
disadvantaged, malnourished, and have reduced immunity, such as a client with a history of alcoholism,
are at extremely high risk for developing TB. A high school student, daycare worker, and businessman
probably have a much low risk of contracting TB.

Answer: (C ) To determine the extent of lesions. If the lesions are large enough, the chest X-ray will show
their presence in the lungs. Sputum culture confirms the diagnosis. There can be false-positive and false-
negative skin test results. A chest X-ray can’t determine if this is a primary or secondary infection.

Answer: (B) Bronchodilators. Bronchodilators are the first line of treatment for asthma because broncho-
constriction is the cause of reduced airflow. Beta adrenergic blockers aren’t used to treat asthma and can
cause bronchoconstriction. Inhaled oral steroids may be given to reduce the inflammation but aren’t
used for emergency relief.

Answer: (C) Chronic obstructive bronchitis. Because of this extensive smoking history and symptoms the
client most likely has chronic obstructive bronchitis. Client with ARDS have acute symptoms of hypoxia
and typically need large amounts of oxygen. Clients with asthma and emphysema tend not to have
chronic cough or peripheral edema.

Answer: (A) The patient is under local anesthesia during the procedure. Before the procedure, the
patient is administered with drugs that would help to prevent infection and rejection of the transplanted
cells such as antibiotics, cytotoxic, and corticosteroids. During the transplant, the patient is placed under
general anesthesia.

Answer: (D) Raise the side rails. A patient who is disoriented is at risk of falling out of bed. The initial
action of the nurse should be raising the side rails to ensure patients safety.

Answer: (A) Crowd red blood cells. The excessive production of white blood cells crowd out red blood
cells production which causes anemia to occur.

Answer: (B) Leukocytosis. Chronic Lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is characterized by increased production
of leukocytes and lymphocytes resulting in leukocytosis, and proliferation of these cells within the bone
marrow, spleen and liver.

Answer: (A) Explain the risks of not having the surgery. The best initial response is to explain the risks of
not having the surgery. If the client understands the risks but still refuses the nurse should notify the
physician and the nurse supervisor and then record the client’s refusal in the nurses’ notes.

Answer: (D) The 75-year-old client who was admitted 1 hour ago with new-onset atrial fibrillation and is
receiving L.V. dilitiazem (Cardizem). The client with atrial fibrillation has the greatest potential to become
unstable and is on L.V. medication that requires close monitoring. After assessing this client, the nurse
should assess the client with thrombophlebitis who is receiving a heparin infusion, and then the 58-
year-old client admitted 2 days ago with heart failure (his signs and symptoms are resolving and don’t
require immediate attention). The lowest priority is the 89-year-old with end stage right-sided heart
failure, who requires time-consuming supportive measures.

Answer: (C) Cocaine. Because of the client’s age and negative medical history, the nurse should question
her about cocaine use. Cocaine increases myocardial oxygen consumption and can cause coronary artery
spasm, leading to tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, myocardial ischemia, and myocardial infarction.
Barbiturate overdose may trigger respiratory depression and slow pulse. Opioids can cause marked
respiratory depression, while benzodiazepines can cause drowsiness and confusion.

Answer: (B) Nonmobile mass with irregular edges. Breast cancer tumors are fixed, hard, and poorly
delineated with irregular edges. A mobile mass that is soft and easily delineated is most often a fluid-
filled benign cyst. Axillary lymph nodes may or may not be palpable on initial detection of a cancerous
mass. Nipple retraction — not eversion — may be a sign of cancer.

Answer: (C) Radiation. The usual treatment for vaginal cancer is external or intravaginal radiation
therapy. Less often, surgery is performed. Chemotherapy typically is prescribed only if vaginal cancer is
diagnosed in an early stage, which is rare. Immunotherapy isn’t used to treat vaginal cancer.
Answer: (B) Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant
metastasis. TIS, N0, M0 denotes carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence
of distant metastasis. No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no
evidence of distant metastasis is classified as T0, N0, M0. If the tumor and regional lymph nodes can’t be
assessed and no evidence of metastasis exists, the lesion is classified as TX, NX, M0. A progressive
increase in tumor size, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph nodes, and ascending degrees
of distant metastasis is classified as T1, T2, T3, or T4; N0; and M1, M2, or M3.

Answer: (D) “Keep the stoma moist.” The nurse should instruct the client to keep the stoma moist, such
as by applying a thin layer of petroleum jelly around the edges, because a dry stoma may become
irritated. The nurse should recommend placing a stoma bib over the stoma to filter and warm air before
it enters the stoma. The client should begin performing stoma care without assistance as soon as
possible to gain independence in self-care activities.

Answer: (B) Lung cancer. Lung cancer is the most deadly type of cancer in both women and men. Breast
cancer ranks second in women, followed (in descending order) by colon and rectal cancer, pancreatic
cancer, ovarian cancer, uterine cancer, lymphoma, leukemia, liver cancer, brain cancer, stomach cancer,
and multiple myeloma.

Answer: (A) miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of the face. Horner’s
syndrome, which occurs when a lung tumor invades the ribs and affects the sympathetic nerve ganglia, is
characterized by miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of the face. Chest pain,
dyspnea, cough, weight loss, and fever are associated with pleural tumors. Arm and shoulder pain and
atrophy of the arm and hand muscles on the affected side suggest Pancoast’s tumor, a lung tumor
involving the first thoracic and eighth cervical nerves within the brachial plexus. Hoarseness in a client
with lung cancer suggests that the tumor has extended to the recurrent laryngeal nerve; dysphagia
suggests that the lung tumor is compressing the esophagus.

Answer: (A) prostate-specific antigen, which is used to screen for prostate cancer. PSA stands for
prostate-specific antigen, which is used to screen for prostate cancer. The other answers are incorrect.

Answer: (D) “Remain supine for the time specified by the physician.” The nurse should instruct the client
to remain supine for the time specified by the physician. Local anesthetics used in a subarachnoid block
don’t alter the gag reflex. No interactions between local anesthetics and food occur. Local anesthetics
don’t cause hematuria.

Answer: (C) Sigmoidoscopy. Used to visualize the lower GI tract, sigmoidoscopy and proctoscopy aid in
the detection of two-thirds of all colorectal cancers. Stool Hematest detects blood, which is a sign of
colorectal cancer; however, the test doesn’t confirm the diagnosis. CEA may be elevated in colorectal
cancer but isn’t considered a confirming test. An abdominal CT scan is used to stage the presence of
colorectal cancer.

Answer: (B) A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling
of the overlying skin is common during late stages of breast cancer. Many women have slightly
asymmetrical breasts. Bloody nipple discharge is a sign of intraductal papilloma, a benign condition.
Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that change with the menstrual cycle indicate fibrocystic
breasts, a benign condition.

Answer: (A) Liver. The liver is one of the five most common cancer metastasis sites. The others are the
lymph nodes, lung, bone, and brain. The colon, reproductive tract, and WBCs are occasional metastasis
sites.

Answer: (D) The client wears a watch and wedding band. During an MRI, the client should wear no metal
objects, such as jewelry, because the strong magnetic field can pull on them, causing injury to the client
and (if they fly off) to others. The client must lie still during the MRI but can talk to those performing the
test by way of the microphone inside the scanner tunnel. The client should hear thumping sounds, which
are caused by the sound waves thumping on the magnetic field.

Answer: (C) The recommended daily allowance of calcium may be found in a wide variety of foods.
Premenopausal women require 1,000 mg of calcium per day. Postmenopausal women require 1,500 mg
per day. It’s often, though not always, possible to get the recommended daily requirement in the foods
we eat. Supplements are available but not always necessary. Osteoporosis doesn’t show up on ordinary
X-rays until 30% of the bone loss has occurred. Bone densitometry can detect bone loss of 3% or less.
This test is sometimes recommended routinely for women over 35 who are at risk. Strenuous exercise
won’t cause fractures.

Answer: (C) Joint flexion of less than 50%. Arthroscopy is contraindicated in clients with joint flexion of
less than 50% because of technical problems in inserting the instrument into the joint to see it clearly.
Other contraindications for this procedure include skin and wound infections. Joint pain may be an
indication, not a contraindication, for arthroscopy. Joint deformity and joint stiffness aren’t
contraindications for this procedure.

Answer: (D) Gouty arthritis. Gouty arthritis, a metabolic disease, is characterized by urate deposits and
pain in the joints, especially those in the feet and legs. Urate deposits don’t occur in septic or traumatic
arthritis. Septic arthritis results from bacterial invasion of a joint and leads to inflammation of the
synovial lining. Traumatic arthritis results from blunt trauma to a joint or ligament. Intermittent arthritis
is a rare, benign condition marked by regular, recurrent joint effusions, especially in the knees.

Answer: (B) 30 ml/hour. An infusion prepared with 25,000 units of heparin in 500 ml of saline solution
yields 50 units of heparin per milliliter of solution. The equation is set up as 50 units times X (the
unknown quantity) equals 1,500 units/hour, X equals 30 ml/hour.

Answer: (B) Loss of muscle contraction decreasing venous return. In clients with hemiplegia or
hemiparesis loss of muscle contraction decreases venous return and may cause swelling of the affected
extremity. Contractures, or bony calcifications may occur with a stroke, but don’t appear with swelling.
DVT may develop in clients with a stroke but is more likely to occur in the lower extremities. A stroke
isn’t linked to protein loss.
Answer: (B) It appears on the distal interphalangeal joint. Heberden’s nodes appear on the distal
interphalageal joint on both men and women. Bouchard’s node appears on the dorsolateral aspect of
the proximal interphalangeal joint.

Answer: (B) Osteoarthritis is a localized disease rheumatoid arthritis is systemic. Osteoarthritis is a

localized disease, rheumatoid arthritis is systemic. Osteoarthritis isn’t gender-specific, but rheumatoid
arthritis is. Clients have dislocations and subluxations in both disorders.

Answer: (C) The cane should be used on the unaffected side. A cane should be used on the unaffected
side. A client with osteoarthritis should be encouraged to ambulate with a cane, walker, or other
assistive device as needed; their use takes weight and stress off joints.

Answer: (A) 9 U regular insulin and 21 U neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH). A 70/30 insulin preparation
is 70% NPH and 30% regular insulin. Therefore, a correct substitution requires mixing 21 U of NPH and 9
U of regular insulin. The other choices are incorrect dosages for the prescribed insulin.

Answer: (C) colchicines. A disease characterized by joint inflammation (especially in the great toe), gout
is caused by urate crystal deposits in the joints. The physician prescribes colchicine to reduce these
deposits and thus ease joint inflammation. Although aspirin is used to reduce joint inflammation and
pain in clients with osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis, it isn’t indicated for gout because it has no
effect on urate crystal formation. Furosemide, a diuretic, doesn’t relieve gout. Calcium gluconate is used
to reverse a negative calcium balance and relieve muscle cramps, not to treat gout.

Answer: (A) Adrenal cortex. Excessive secretion of aldosterone in the adrenal cortex is responsible for
the client’s hypertension. This hormone acts on the renal tubule, where it promotes reabsorption of
sodium and excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions. The pancreas mainly secretes hormones involved
in fuel metabolism. The adrenal medulla secretes the catecholamines — epinephrine and
norepinephrine. The parathyroids secrete parathyroid hormone.

Answer: (C) They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention. For this client, wet-to-
dry dressings are most appropriate because they clean the foot ulcer by debriding exudate and necrotic
tissue, thus promoting healing by secondary intention. Moist, transparent dressings contain exudate and
provide a moist wound environment. Hydrocolloid dressings prevent the entrance of microorganisms
and minimize wound discomfort. Dry sterile dressings protect the wound from mechanical trauma and
promote healing.

Answer: (A) Hyperkalemia. In adrenal insufficiency, the client has hyperkalemia due to reduced
aldosterone secretion. BUN increases as the glomerular filtration rate is reduced. Hyponatremia is
caused by reduced aldosterone secretion. Reduced cortisol secretion leads to impaired glyconeogenesis
and a reduction of glycogen in the liver and muscle, causing hypoglycemia.

Answer: (C) Restricting fluids. To reduce water retention in a client with the SIADH, the nurse should
restrict fluids. Administering fluids by any route would further increase the client’s already heightened
fluid load.
Answer: (D) glycosylated hemoglobin level. Because some of the glucose in the bloodstream attaches to
some of the hemoglobin and stays attached during the 120-day life span of red blood cells, glycosylated
hemoglobin levels provide information about blood glucose levels during the previous 3 months. Fasting
blood glucose and urine glucose levels only give information about glucose levels at the point in time
when they were obtained. Serum fructosamine levels provide information about blood glucose control
over the past 2 to 3 weeks.

Answer: (C) 4:00 pm. NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin that peaks 8 to 12 hours after administration.
Because the nurse administered NPH insulin at 7 a.m., the client is at greatest risk for hypoglycemia from
3 p.m. to 7 p.m.

Answer: (A) Glucocorticoids and androgens. The adrenal glands have two divisions, the cortex and
medulla. The cortex produces three types of hormones: glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and
androgens. The medulla produces catecholamines — epinephrine and norepinephrine.

Answer: (A) Hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia may follow thyroid surgery if the parathyroid glands were
removed accidentally. Signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia may be delayed for up to 7 days after
surgery. Thyroid surgery doesn’t directly cause serum sodium, potassium, or magnesium abnormalities.
Hyponatremia may occur if the client inadvertently received too much fluid; however, this can happen to
any surgical client receiving I.V. fluid therapy, not just one recovering from thyroid surgery. Hyperkalemia
and hypermagnesemia usually are associated with reduced renal excretion of potassium and
magnesium, not thyroid surgery.

Answer: (D) Carcinoembryonic antigen level. In clients who smoke, the level of carcinoembryonic antigen
is elevated. Therefore, it can’t be used as a general indicator of cancer. However, it is helpful in
monitoring cancer treatment because the level usually falls to normal within 1 month if treatment is
successful. An elevated acid phosphatase level may indicate prostate cancer. An elevated alkaline
phosphatase level may reflect bone metastasis. An elevated serum calcitonin level usually signals thyroid
cancer.

Answer: (B) Dyspnea, tachycardia, and pallor. Signs of iron-deficiency anemia include dyspnea,
tachycardia, and pallor as well as fatigue, listlessness, irritability, and headache. Night sweats, weight
loss, and diarrhea may signal acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Nausea, vomiting, and
anorexia may be signs of hepatitis B. Itching, rash, and jaundice may result from an allergic or hemolytic
reaction.

Answer: (D) “I’ll need to have a C-section if I become pregnant and have a baby.” The human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is transmitted from mother to child via the transplacental route, but a
Cesarean section delivery isn’t necessary when the mother is HIV-positive. The use of birth control will
prevent the conception of a child who might have HIV. It’s true that a mother who’s HIV positive can give
birth to a baby who’s HIV negative.

Answer: (C) “Avoid sharing such articles as toothbrushes and razors.” The human immunodeficiency virus
(HIV), which causes AIDS, is most concentrated in the blood. For this reason, the client shouldn’t share
personal articles that may be blood-contaminated, such as toothbrushes and razors, with other family
members. HIV isn’t transmitted by bathing or by eating from plates, utensils, or serving dishes used by a
person with AIDS.

Answer: (B) Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue. Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue are all
characteristic findings in pernicious anemia. Other clinical manifestations include anorexia; weight loss; a
smooth, beefy red tongue; a wide pulse pressure; palpitations; angina; weakness; fatigue; and
paresthesia of the hands and feet. Bradycardia, reduced pulse pressure, weight gain, and double vision
aren’t characteristic findings in pernicious anemia.

Answer: (B) Administer epinephrine, as prescribed, and prepare to intubate the client if necessary. To
reverse anaphylactic shock, the nurse first should administer epinephrine, a potent bronchodilator as
prescribed. The physician is likely to order additional medications, such as antihistamines and
corticosteroids; if these medications don’t relieve the respiratory compromise associated with
anaphylaxis, the nurse should prepare to intubate the client. No antidote for penicillin exists; however,
the nurse should continue to monitor the client’s vital signs. A client who remains hypotensive may need
fluid resuscitation and fluid intake and output monitoring; however, administering epinephrine is the
first priority.

Answer: (D) bilateral hearing loss. Prolonged use of aspirin and other salicylates sometimes causes
bilateral hearing loss of 30 to 40 decibels. Usually, this adverse effect resolves within 2 weeks after the
therapy is discontinued. Aspirin doesn’t lead to weight gain or fine motor tremors. Large or toxic
salicylate doses may cause respiratory alkalosis, not respiratory acidosis.

Answer: (D) Lymphocyte. The lymphocyte provides adaptive immunity — recognition of a foreign antigen
and formation of memory cells against the antigen. Adaptive immunity is mediated by B and T
lymphocytes and can be acquired actively or passively. The neutrophil is crucial to phagocytosis. The
basophil plays an important role in the release of inflammatory mediators. The monocyte functions in
phagocytosis and monokine production.

Answer: (A) moisture replacement. Sjogren’s syndrome is an autoimmune disorder leading to

progressive loss of lubrication of the skin, GI tract, ears, nose, and vagina. Moisture replacement is the
mainstay of therapy. Though malnutrition and electrolyte imbalance may occur as a result of Sjogren’s
syndrome’s effect on the GI tract, it isn’t the predominant problem. Arrhythmias aren’t a problem
associated with Sjogren’s syndrome.

Answer: (C) stool for Clostridium difficile test. Immunosuppressed clients — for example, clients
receiving chemotherapy, — are at risk for infection with C. difficile, which causes “horse barn” smelling
diarrhea. Successful treatment begins with an accurate diagnosis, which includes a stool test. The ELISA
test is diagnostic for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and isn’t indicated in this case. An electrolyte
panel and hemogram may be useful in the overall evaluation of a client but aren’t diagnostic for specific
causes of diarrhea. A flat plate of the abdomen may provide useful information about bowel function
but isn’t indicated in the case of “horse barn” smelling diarrhea.
Answer: (D) Western blot test with ELISA. HIV infection is detected by analyzing blood for antibodies to
HIV, which form approximately 2 to 12 weeks after exposure to HIV and denote infection. The Western
blot test — electrophoresis of antibody proteins — is more than 98% accurate in detecting HIV
antibodies when used in conjunction with the ELISA. It isn’t specific when used alone. Erosette
immunofluorescence is used to detect viruses in general; it doesn’t confirm HIV infection. Quantification
of T-lymphocytes is a useful monitoring test but isn’t diagnostic for HIV. The ELISA test detects HIV
antibody particles but may yield inaccurate results; a positive ELISA result must be confirmed by the
Western blot test.

Answer: (C) Abnormally low hematocrit (HCT) and hemoglobin (Hb) levels. Low preoperative HCT and Hb
levels indicate the client may require a blood transfusion before surgery. If the HCT and Hb levels
decrease during surgery because of blood loss, the potential need for a transfusion increases. Possible
renal failure is indicated by elevated BUN or creatinine levels. Urine constituents aren’t found in the
blood. Coagulation is determined by the presence of appropriate clotting factors, not electrolytes.

Answer: (A) Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time. The diagnosis of DIC is
based on the results of laboratory studies of prothrombin time, platelet count, thrombin time, partial
thromboplastin time, and fibrinogen level as well as client history and other assessment factors. Blood
glucose levels, WBC count, calcium levels, and potassium levels aren’t used to confirm a diagnosis of DIC.

Answer: (D) Strawberries. Common food allergens include berries, peanuts, Brazil nuts, cashews,
shellfish, and eggs. Bread, carrots, and oranges rarely cause allergic reactions.

Answer: (B) A client with cast on the right leg who states, “I have a funny feeling in my right leg.” It may
indicate neurovascular compromise, requires immediate assessment.

Answer: (D) A 62-year-old who had an abdominal-perineal resection three days ago; client complaints of
chills. The client is at risk for peritonitis; should be assessed for further symptoms and infection.

Answer: (C) The client spontaneously flexes his wrist when the blood pressure is obtained. Carpal spasms
indicate hypocalcemia.

Answer: (D) Use comfort measures and pillows to position the client.Using comfort measures and pillows
to position the client is a non-pharmacological methods of pain relief.

Answer: (B) Warm the dialysate solution. Cold dialysate increases discomfort. The solution should be
warmed to body temperature in warmer or heating pad; don’t use microwave oven.

Answer: (C) The client holds the cane with his left hand, moves the cane forward followed by the right
leg, and then moves the left leg. The cane acts as a support and aids in weight bearing for the weaker
right leg.

Answer: (A) Ask the woman’s family to provide personal items such as photos or mementos.Photos and
mementos provide visual stimulation to reduce sensory deprivation.
Answer: (B) The client lifts the walker, moves it forward 10 inches, and then takes several small steps
forward. A walker needs to be picked up, placed down on all legs.

Answer: (C) Isolation from their families and familiar surroundings. Gradual loss of sight, hearing, and
taste interferes with normal functioning.

Answer: (A) Encourage the client to perform pursed lip breathing. Purse lip breathing prevents the
collapse of lung unit and helps client control rate and depth of breathing.

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