Target Mds Aiims Mock PDF

9/23/2016 Target MDS
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Report/Result : AIIMS May Mock test
Total number of correct Answers : 23
Number of answered questions : 29
Number of unattempted questions : 61
Total Marks : 21.5
Sr Question Answer Option Correct Answer Your Answer Answer Explanation
1 Why the acid A. To have better A. To have better To have better Ans. (A) Tohave better control over flow.

etchant is supplied control over flow control over flow control over The phosphoric acid etchant is
in gel form? B. To get higher flow available in two forms either solution or
concentration of gel form The gel form is preferred over
etchant solution form as it is easier to keep it in
C. To act more one place without spreading. The gels
rapidly on enamel are made by adding colloidal silica –
surface polymer beads to the acids Solution
D. To get good taste form is useful when larger areas are
in patient mouth needed to be etched like for composite
venner
2 Dentin “Conditioner”. A. Remove Smear A. Remove Smear Increases free Ans. (A) Removes Smear Layer.

True is? Layer Layer surface energy Dentin conditioner removes smear layer
B. Increases free of dentin and produces microscopic relief with
surface energy of undercuts on surface to create
dentin opportunity for more binding Primary
C. Has low viscosity envelopes the external surface of
and bonds to tooth collagen fibrils, wet the surface of dentin
surface tubules and also increases the surface energy of
D. Forms a layer of dentin Etchant decreases surface
resin on dentin energy of dentin (increases surface
energy of the enamel) open the tubules
(both intertubular and peritubular
dentin).
http://targetmds.in/Previous_tests# 1/22
3 Which of following is A. Life or dycal D. Poly –F Life or dycal Ans. (D) PolyF This is a B university

the best material as B. Chemfil question (these are already mentioned
temporary dressing C. Kalzinol in target mds book). If you choose to
for an access cavity D. Poly –F temporarily seal the access cavity of
after endodontic tooth with kalzinol , it should be 3 mm
treatment is thick. PloyF is white and easy to identify
completed? for removal. It is much stronger than
kalzinol. It provides a good nedium seal.
4 The Bacterial A. 500 million / ml D. 750 million / ml 750 million / ml Ans (D) 750 million / ml “Numerous

density or B. 87 million / ml bacteria exist in the oral cavity.The
concentration in C. 45 million / ml average total microscopic count is 750
saliva on an average D. 750 million / ml million oral bacterial cellsper milliliter of
is? saliva → Quantity of saliva secrted
normally is 700800 ml/day →
Unstimulated flow rate of saliva is
0.3ml/minute
5 The process of A. 12 D. 100 72 Ans. (D) 100 days It takes around 0.5 to

accumulation and B. 50 2 hours for pellicle to form over a
growth continues till C. 72 cleantooth surface Irreversible bacterial
the plaque mass is D. 100 colonization will take around 24 hours
approximately how over a clean tooth surface Plaque may
much bacterial cells be readily visiualized on teeth after 12
in thickness? days in absence of oral hygiene
measures
6 The depth of clinical A. Cementoenamel D. Apical penetration of Apical Ans. (D). Apical penetration of probe

gingival sulcus is the junction the probe penetration of Clinically the junctional epithelium
distance between B. Alveolar crest the probe cannot be evaluated The probing
the gingival margin C. Apical extension sulcus depth probing pocket depth is
to the? of junctional measured by length of the probe that
epithelium penetrates into sulcus till it encounters
D. Apical penetration resistance And this resistance depends
of the probe upon size and shape of probe as well as
probing force
7 Which of the A. ANUG A. ANUG ANUG Ans .(A). ANUG Acute necrotizing

following conditions B. Desquamative ulcerative gingivitis produces a
requires gingivitis characterstic punced out interdental
gingivoplasties as it C. Erosive Lichen papillae and crater like gingival
creates gingival Planus deformities which require gingivoplasty
defects? D. Acute Herpatic to recreate the gingival contour Lichen
gingivostomatitis planus manifests as variety of
desquamative gingivitis Acute herpetic
gingivitis shows vesiculoulcerative
diffuse inflammation
8 A periodontal pocket A. An Infrabony B. A Pseudopocket A Ans. (B) Pseudopocket →

of 8 mm deep pocket Pseudopocket Pseudopocket/ gingival pocket/relative
having the junctional B. A Pseudopocket or false pocket is formed by gingival
epithelium coronal to C. A true periodontal enlargement without destruction of
CE junction is? pocket underlying periodontal tissues →
D. A Furcation True/absolute /periodontal pocket is
involvement formed by destruction of supporting
periodontal tissues and attachment loss
→ Suprabonysupracrestal/Supraalveolar
pocket is formed when bottom of pocket
is coronal to underlying alveolar bone
9 Severe Alveolar A. Impaired D. Impaired Neutrophil Impaired Ans. (D) Impaired Neutrophil chemotaxis

Bone loss is seen in Osteoblastic activity chemotaxis Neutrophil Aggressive periodontitis display
patients with B. Increased chemotaxis functional defect of polymorphonuclear
Juvenile Phagocytosis leukocytes, monocytes or both. These
Periodontitis is C. Increased defects can impair either the
related to Macrophage chemotactic attraction of PMN to site of
migration injection or their ability to phagocytose
D. Impaired and kill microorganism.
Neutrophil
chemotaxis
10 A patient on steroid A. NSAIDS B. Antibiotics Antibiotics Ans (B) Antibiotics. → Antibiotic

therapy has to B. Antibiotics coverage should be given to all under
undergo elective C. Antihistamines steroid therapy “National boards’ Oral
extraction of many D. Antihypertensives surgery and Pain control July 1978 Q
teeth. The 23” → If indications of an infection
premedication appear or if surgery is
indicated prior to required,antibilotic therapy plus
surgical procedure increased dosage of steroid must be
is? instituted by patient physician.Stressful
conditions for these patients as in
surgery,infections or trauma, might
produce adrenal insufficiency unless the
steroid dose is raised.
11 About Bacteroides A. Susceptible to A. Susceptible to many Susceptible to Ans .(A) Susceptible to many antibiotic.

all are true except ? many antibiotics antibiotics many → Gram negative bacilli may appear as
B. Present mainly in antibiotics slender rods or coccobacilli → Many
mixed infections species of this genus have been now
C. Most common reclassified into genus prevotella or
species in B. Fragilis porphyromonas → Are normal
D. Bile resistant inhabitants of bowel → B fragilis very
Anerobes important pathogen among anaerobes
that are part of normal flora → Virulence
factors Capsular polysachharide also
produce superoxide dismutase → Are
resistant to pencillin G
12 All of the following A. It is a normal skin D. Some strains do not Some strains Ans .(D) Some strain do not secrete

are true about commensal secrete coagulase do not secrete Coagulase. Staphylococcus
Staphylococcus B. It causes native coagulase Lugdunenesis → Normally found on
lugdunenesis valve endocarditis human skin as commesnal , especially
except? C. It is susceptible to in inguinal region (Option A) → Highy
multiple types of pathogenic due to clumping factor and
antimicrobials thermostable Dnase, also produce
D. Some strains do extracellular glycocalyx Produces:
not secrete Lipase, Esterase, Fatty acid modifying
coagulase enzyme, Synergistic haemolysin There
are cases report of serious infective
endocarditis ,with rapid destruction of
heart valves.(Option D) → Known as
coagulase negative staphylococcus but
shows coagulase activity because of
clumping factor (Clumping factor is a cell
bound coagulase) “Slugdunensis is
tube coagulase but can often be
misidentified since it can produce
positive results for clumping factor
(bound coagulase)
13 Sickle cell anemia is A. Nonsense B. Missense mutation Missense Ans. (B) Missense mutation of beta

caused due to? mutation of beta of beta chain mutation of chain. “Sickle cell anemia is a classical
chain beta chain example of missense mutation” →
B. Missense Altering the nucleotide sequence in a
mutation of beta codon can cause silent mutations (the
chain altered codon also codes for the original
C. Deletion of beta amino acid), mutations (the altered
chain codon codes for a different amino acid),
D. None of the or nonsense mutations (the altered
above codon is a termination codon. → In one
of the most common examples,
hemoglobin S, the alpha chains are
normal but the beta chains have a single
substitution of a valine residue for one
glutamic acid, leading to sickle cell
anemia .
14 Malignant epithelial A. IL1 B. Laminin Laminin Ans. (B) Laminin. The expression of

cells have increased B. Laminin receptor in malignant epithelial cell is
number wider C. Histamine mediated by LAMININ (IL1) Major
distribution of which D. Complement function of interleukin 1 → Proliferation
of the following and differentiation of T,B and other cells
receptors? → Is an important endogenous pyrogen
→ Induce acute phase proteins → Bone
marrow proliferations → Stimulation of T
cells for IL2 and othere lymphokines
production
15 Cachectin is A. Neutrophils A. Neutrophils Ans. (A) Cytotoxic T cells. → IL1 is

produced by B. Eosinophils produced by macrophages ( activated)
C. Macrophages which produce Th1 → TH1 after
D. Basophils activation produce IF gamma and IL2 →
IL2 in turn activates or stimulates B
cells, T cell and NK cells → TH2 cells on
activation produce IL4,IL5 and IL6 which
in turn stimulate antibody production
16 If bacteria were A. Pencillin is D. Pencillin is only Pencillin is only Ans. (D) Pencillin is only effective

susceptible to both inactivated by effective against effective against growing cells. → Pencillin is
erythromycin and erythromycin growing cells against bactericidal drug whereas erythromycin
penicillin, then it B. Erythromycin growing cells is a bacteriostatic drug. → The
would be not exerts its effects combination of static and cidal drug may
appropriate to treat extracellularly be synergistic or antagonistic → Cidal
the patients with C. Erythromycin drug primarily act on rapidly multiplying
both antibiotics at enhances the microorganism while static drug retard
same time because? lactamase activity the multiplication → Thus response to
D. Pencillin is only combination is equal to static drug alone
effective against (apparent antagonism)
growing cells
17 Anti Pseudomonal A. Cefoperozone A. Cefoperozone Cefoperozone Ans. (A) Cefoperazone. →

cephalosporin is? B. Cefuroxime Cefoperazone has antipseudomonal
C. Cefadroxil activity → Antipseudomonal antibiotics:
D. Cefoxitin → Pencillin Piperacillin, mezlocillin, and
ticarcillin → Cephalosporin:
Ceftazidime,ceforperazone,
cefepime,cefpirome,monobactam, and
aztreonam
18 True about penicillin A. Mainly excreted A. Mainly excreted by Mainly Ans. (A) MAINLY EXCRETED BY

G? by kidney kidney excreted by KIDNEY Gastric juice at ph 2 rapidly
B. Acid resistant kidney destroy the penicillin Pencillin G is
C. Broad Spectrum highly active against sensitive strains of
Antibiotic gram positive cocci Pencillin G is not
D. Resistance to effective against pseudomonas
Pencillinase Pencillin G is excreted unchanged in
urine Pencillin G is drug of choice for
meningiococcal disease Pencillin G
benzathine should not be given in case
of neurosyphillis
19 Coronary steel A. Thiopentone C. soflurane soflurane Ans. (C) Isoflurane “A vasoconstriction

phenomenon is seen B. Enflurane caused by hypocapnia or suitable
with? C. soflurane anaesthetic agent such as thiopentone
D. All will cause a reduced blood flow to the
normal resposnsive regions of the brain
resulting into redistribution of blood to
ischemic areas. This is called as Robbin
Hood phenomenonor inverse steal or
reverse steal Isoflurane is associated
with coronary steal phenomenon.”
20 Which of following A. Indirect comb test B. Direct Coomb test Direct Coomb Ans (B). Direct Coomb Test → Direct

investigations should B. Direct Coomb test test comb test or direct antiglobulin test
be done immediately C. Antibody in (DAT) on post transfusion blood smaple
to best confirm a patients serum from patient should be done to detect
nonmatched blood D. Antibody in donor antibodies directed against transferred
transfusion reaction? serum red blood cells → A positive direct comb
test strongly suggests that patient has
an antibody directed against the
transfused red blood cells .This is
consistent with hemolytic transfusion
reaction. → At the blood bank every
post transfusion sample should be
tested for evidence of hemolysis (serum
haptoglobulin, hemoglobulin, and
bilirubin) and direct comb test should be
performed.
21 The ligand receptor A. Of its large size C. Of the acidic pH of Of the acidic ANS C. (Of the acidic pH of the vesicle):

complex dissociates B. The vesicle loses the vesicle. pH of the Ref Shinde and Chatterjea 6th /19,
in the endosome its clathrin coat. vesicle. Lippincott 3rd/230 The low ph breaks the
because C. Of the acidic pH linkage between receptor
of the vesicle. macromolecule (Ligand complex) The
D. Of the basic pH of low pH breaks the linkage between
the vesicle. receptor macromolecule (ligand)
complex. Endosomes and their role in
receoptor mediated Absorptive
Pinocytosis: • These are transient
cellular structures involved in the
transport of macromolecules from the
exterior of cells to its interior. • They do
not contain hydrolytic enzymes, are less
dense than lysosomes and have an
internal pH of 5.0.
22 Proteins are linear A. Denatured state D. Quaternary structure Quaternary ANS D. (Quaternary structure): Herper’s

polymers of amino B. Molecular structure 26* 134, & 27f /34 Homodimers and
acids. They fold into aggregation heterodimer arrangement of poly
compact structures. C. Precipitation peptide chain is an example of
Sometimes, these D. Quaternary quaternary structure. Structurally, this
folded structures structure structure is described as the polypeptide
associate to form composition and spatial relationship
homoor hetero between subunit of proteins that are
dimmers. Which one assembled from more than one
of the following polypeptide units. PROTEIN
refers to this STRUCTURES Primary • It consists of
associated form sequence of aminoacid is single
polypeptide chain • Its insufficient to
perform a particular chemical or physical
task.
23 The ligandreceptor A. Of its large size C. Of the acidic pH of Of the acidic ANS C. (Of tfye acidic pH of the

complex dissociates B. The vesicle loses the vesicle pH of the vesicle.): Lippincott’s 3rd/230; Chatterjea
in the endosome its clathrin coat vesicle Of the acidic pH of the vesicle, the
because C. Of the acidic pH ligandreceptor complex dissociates in
of the vesicle the endosome. • Endosomes are
D. Of the basic pH of transient cellular structures involved in
the vesicle the transport of macromolecules from
the exterior of cells to its interior. It
receives the receptor ligand complex by
fusing with the ‘coated vesicles’, (it
consists of receptor, ligand and a layer
of clathrin protein) on fusion, the coated
vesicles discharge there
macromolecular into the interior of
endosome. The low pH within the
endosome, breaks the linkage between
receptormacromolecule complex and
releases the receptor.
24 Serum creatinine A. Modified C. Enzyme assay ANS C. (Enzyme assay): Ref. Journal:

can be accurately kinematic Jaffe’s Clinical biochemistry review &
measured by technique www.pubmedcentral.nih.gov
B. Jaffe's reaction Measurement of creatinine Creatinine
C. Enzyme assay concentration in plasma and urine is
D. None of the usually based on Jaffe’s reaction
above characterized by production of orange
red colour when creatinine reacts with
alkaline sodium picrate. This method is
not very specific. Modified Jaffe’s
technique has improved the specificity of
creatinine estimation. Enzymatic
methods are more specific than Jaffe’s
reaction, their cost limits their use.
Isotope dilutional mass spectroscopy is
the potential “definitive” method.
25 Transamination A. Pyridoxal A. Pyridoxal Phosphate Thiamine ANS A. (Pyridoxal Phosphate): Ref.

reaction requires: Phosphate Phosphate Satyanarayan 1st /175, Vasudevana 6th
B. Thiamine /124 Transamination is transfer of an
Phosphate amino group from an amino acid to a
C. Biotin Keto group Features of transamination
D. Nicotinic Acid are : • All transaminases require
pyridoxal phosphate (PLP), a coenzyme
of vitamin B6 • No free NH3 liberated • It
is a reversible process • It divert excess
amino acid to energy production
26 Ketone bodies are A. RBC A. RBC Cardiac ANS A. (RBC): Ref. Satyanarayana 1st

utilized by all B. Neuron muscle /157 Ketone bodies : Acetone True
except: C. Skeletal muscle Ketone body Acetoacetate True
D. Cardiac muscle Ketone body Beta Hydroxybutyrate
false as no Keto group is present
27 All are true about A. It is a tripeptide B. It converts It converts ANS B. (It converts hemoglobin to

glutathione except? B. It converts hemoglobin to hemoglobin to methemoglobin) Ref. Harper 26th/166,
hemoglobin to methemoglobin methemoglobin 169, 629; 28thZ612; various websites
methemoglobin Glutathione prevents oxidation of
C. It conjugates hemoglobin to methemoglobin. The
xenobiotics heme group o f hemoglobin contains
D. It scavenges free iron in the ferrous state. Hemoglobin can
radicals and accept and transport oxygen only when
superoxide ions the iron atom is in its ferrous form. When
haemoglobin becomes oxidized, it is
converted to the ferric state (Fe3*) or
methemoglobin. Methemoglobin is
unable to transfer oxygen. Glutathione
prevents this oxidation.
28 True about G protein A. G protiens bind to C. G proteins act as ANS C. (G proteins act as inhibitory and

coupled receptors hormones on the cell inhibitory and excitatory excitatory because of difference in alpha
is? surface because of difference subunit). Harper 26th Ed Pg 458 &
B. All the three in alpha subunit Lippincott Biochem 3rd Ed Pg 93 &
subunits alpha, beta Ganong 22nd Ed Pg 341 The ability o f a
and gamma should hormone or neurotransmitter to stimulate
bind each other for or inhibit adenyl cyclase(enzyme
G protein to act through which G protein acts) depends
C. G proteins act as upon type o f G protein linked to the
inhibitory and receptor like Gs(one family o f G protein)
excitatory because stimulate adenyl cyclase while another
of difference in alpha Gi inhibit this enzyme. >Gprotein
subunit coupled receptors (GPCR) are the
D. G protein is largest superfamily of cell surface
bound to GTP in receptors. > They typically have seven
resting state helices that traverse the membrane. >
These receptors are integral membrane
proteins characterized by an
extracellular ligandbinding region,
seven transmembrane helices, and an
intracellular domain that interacts with
Gproteins.
29 True about A. Unfolding occurs D. Biological activity is ANS D. (Biological activity is retained)

denaturation of B. Disruption of retained Ref Lippincott 3rd Pg 21 • Denaturation
proteins is all secondary structure of proteins involves unfolding and
except? occurs disorganization of the protein's
C. Sequence of secondary and tertiary structures. Since
amino acids remain denaturation reactions are not strong
the same enough to break the peptide bonds, the
D. Biological activity primary, structure (sequence of amino
is retained acids) remains the same after a
denaturation process. Denturation
disrupts the normal alphahelix and beta
sheets in a protein and uncoils it into a
random shape. • Most biological proteins
lose their biological function when
denatured For example, enzymes lose
their activity.
30 Glucagon causes A. Increased B. Increased glycogen ANS B. (Increased glycogen breakdown

increased blood glycogen breakdown breakdown in liver only in liver only): Satyanarayan l st/143
sugar level due to: in muscle only Glucagon acts primarily on liver and
B. Increased does not affect glycogen breakdown in
glycogen breakdown muscles. It also enhances
in liver only gluconeogenesis from amino acid and
C. Increased lactate.
glycogenolysis in
liver and muscle
D. Glycogenesis
from glucose
31 A patient who A. Galactose A. Galactose ANS A. (Galactose): Vasudevan 5{ 776;

reports loss of B. Glycogen Satyanarayan 1st7149 Galactosemia
weight, mental C. Cellulose gives rise to all these symptoms due to
retardation and D. Glycine deposition of galactitol, a reduced
development of product of galactose. It is due to
cataract; emission of deficiency of glucose1phosphate uridyl
certain substance transferase.
corrects it; which is:
32 Metabolic disease A. Cori’s disease C. von Gierke’s disease ANS C. (von Gierke’s disease):

(glycogen storage) B. Pompe’s disease Vasudevan 5th/59 In glycogen storage
associated with C. von Gierke’s diseases absence of particular enzyme
glucose6 disease leads to excessive accumulation of
phosphatase D. Gaucher’s glycogen. Debranching enzyme breaks
enzyme deficiency disease down glycogen with the help of
phosphorylase to form glucose6P04,
glucose6 phosphatase generates
glucose finally. The absence of glucose
6 phosphatase leads to von Gierke’s
disease.
33 The HMP shunt A. Mitochondria B. Cytoplasm ANS B. (Cytoplasm): Satyanarayan

pathway occurs in B. Cytoplasm 1st/145 An alternative pathway for
C. Extracellularly oxidation of glucose when certain
D. Both mitochondria reactions in glycolytic pathway are
and cytoplasms blocked isHMP shunt. It is
extramitochondrial which produces 12
moles ofNADPH per mole of glucose
oxidised. HMP Shunt / Pentose
Phosphate pathway / Phospho
gluconate pathway It is an alternative
pathway to glycolsis & TCA cycle for
glucose oxidation
34 NaF is added to A. It inhibits the A. It inhibits the ANS A. (It inhibits the enzyme enolase):

blood collected for enzyme enolase enzyme enolase Vasudevan 5th/49 NaF inhibits enzyme
blood glucose B. It prevents the enolase which catalyses 2
estimation because glucose oxidation by phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol
atmospheric O2 pyruvate. Thus, it inhibitsglycolysis
C. It prevents which is the only means for providing
conversion of energy in erythrocytes. Otherwise a low
pyruvic acid to acetyl blood glucose levelwill be obtained due
coenzyme A to glycolysis.
D. It oxidizes all
double bonds and
saturates the sugars
35 The major pathway A. Krebs’ cycle B. Glycolysis ANS B. (Glycolysis): Satyanarayan

for utilization of B. Glycolysis 1st/131 Glycolysis is the major pathway
glucose in C. Hexose for utilization of glucose in erythrocytes
erythrocytes is monophosphate as they do not have mitochondrial
glycolysis is very shunt enzymes to oxidise glucose aerobically.
essential for tissue D. Anaerobic
lacking mitochondri pathway
like, erythrocytes,
cornea lens etc
36 The rate limiting step A. Hexokinase B. Phosphofructokinase ANS B. (Phosphofructokinase):

in glycolysis is B. Vasudevan 5th/47 Conversion of
catalyzed by: Phosphofructokinase fructose6P04 to fructose 1,6
C. Enolase diphosphate, mediated by
D. Pyruvatekinase phosphofructokinase (PFK) is the rate
limiting step in glycolysis. PFK is
stimulated by AMP, ADP and fructose6
P04 and inhibited by ATP.
37 Glycolysis occurs in A. Cytoplasm A. Cytoplasm ANS A. (Cytoplasm): Vasudevan 5th/46

B. Mitochondrion Glycolysis is an extramitochondrial
C. Both in cytoplasm pathway. It occurs in cytoplasm. Break
and mitochondria down of glucose to pyruvic acid is
D. Only in presence known as glycolysis. Under aerobic
of 02 condition it enters mitochondria to form
C02 and H20. Under anaerobic
conditions lactic acid is formed.
38 Which of the A. Starch and C. Starch gives blue ANS C. (Starch gives blue colour with I2

following is true.? glycogen are colour with 12 whereas whereas glycogen gives red colour):
polysaccharides of glycogen gives red Vasudevan 5th/90 Starch and glycogen
animal origin colour are glucose polysaccharide. Starch is of
B. Starch is of plant plant origin and glycogen is of animal
origin and is much origin. Glycogen gives red colour and
more branched than starch blue colour with iodine.
glycogen
C. Starch gives blue
colour with 12
whereas glycogen
gives red colour
D. Starch is
galactose
polysaccharide and
glycogen is glucose
polysaccharide
39 Inversion is a feature A. Glucose C. Sucrose ANS C. (Sucrose): Vasudevan 5th740

of B. Maltose Sucrose is a dextrorotatory sugar. In
C. Sucrose solution it dissociates into glucose and
D. Mannose fructose. The mixture is levorotatory.
The change of rotation is called
inversion.
40 The cotton ball A. Glucose D. Lactose ANS D. (Lactose): Vasudevan 5th/37

osazone crystal B. Fructose Lactose forms cotton ball osazone
structure is seen C. Maltose crystals. Glucose, fructose; needle
when phenyle D. Lactose shaped and maltose gives sunflower
hydrazine reacts crystals with phenyl hydrazine. All
with reducing sugars form osazones with
phenyhydrazine when kept at boiling
temperature. Each sugar form
characteristic crystals.
41 Benedict’s solution A. Of oxidizing B. Of reducing property ANS B. (Of reducing property of sugars):

is a qualitative property of sugars of sugars Vasudevan 5th/37 Benedict's solution
estimation for sugar B. Of reducing contains cupric sulphate, sodium
estimation because property of sugars carbonate, sodium citrate. The reducing
C. Of cyclic structure sugar forms cuprous oxide and
of the sugar indicating colour, e.g glucose.
D. Of hemiacetal
linkage of sugars
42 Glucose and A. Epimers A. Epimers ANS A. (Epimers): Vasudevan 5th/35

galactose are: B. Anomers Glucose and galactose are epimers
C. Monomers since they differ in their configuration at
D. Xenomers C4 Catom. Anomers differ only in their
configuration around the carbonyl
carbon atom of aD glucose and pD
glucose. Epimerism of Aldoses i) When
sugars are different from one another,
only in configuration with regard to a
single carbon atom (other than the
reference carbon atom), they are called
epimers. ii) For example, glucose and
mannose are an epimeric pair which
differ only with respect to C2. iii)
Similarly, galactose is the 4th epimer of
glucose. Galactose and mannose are
not epimers but diastereoisomers.
43 The isomers of A. 2 D. 32 ANS D. (32): Vasudevan 5,h/34 The

glucose are: B. 12 number of isomers of glucose is 32.
C. 16 (Isomers = 2n where n = number of
D. 32 asymmetric carbon atoms). In glucose
asymmetric carbon atoms = 4. But due
to cyclic or ring structure total 32
isomers exist.
44 All are essential A. Glucose A. Glucose ANS A. (Glucose): Essential nutrients

nutrients for B. Water are those substances that are required
humans, except: C. Linolenic acid for normal function but cannot be
D. Methionine synthesised by the body at all or are
synthesised in amounts inadequate to
keep pace with the rates at which they
are broken and excreted. Glucose can
be synthesised by the body.
45 The total number of A. 38 ATPs B. 34 ATPs ANS B. (34 ATPs): Vasudevan/4th The

ATPs produced by B. 34 ATPs total number of ATPs produced by
oxidative C. 22 ATPs oxidative phosphorylation of coenzyme
phosphorylation of D. 8 ATPs 2H generated in aerobic glucose
coenzyme2H catabolism is 34 ATPs. Total ATPs
generated in aerobic generated are 38. 2 ATP each are used
glucose catabolism by substrate phosphorylation in
of 1 glucose glycolysis and Krebs’ cycle.
molecule are
46 Which cells produce A. WBCs B. RBCs ANS B. (RBCs): Vasudevan/4th746

ATP exclusively B. RBCs Erythrocytes lack mitochondria which
through glycolysis? C. Macrophages contain enzymes for Kreb’s cycle. ATPs
D. Platelets are exclusively produced through
glycolysis.
47 The blood sugar is: A. Galactose B. Glucose ANS B. (Glucose): Vasudevan 5th735

B. Glucose Blood sugar is principally glucose only.
C. Fructose All other sugars are converted to
D. Mannose glucose thus, the measured sugar of
blood is glucose only.
48 The molecule which A. Sorbitol D. Galactitol ANS D. (Galactitol): Ref. Harper

is the initiator of B. Mannitol 27th/177; 28th/182 In galactolsemia,
cataract formation in C. Inositol due to deficiency of uridyl1transferase,
the eye lens is D. Galactitol the serum level of galactose and
galactose 1 phosphate increases due
to decrease in their metabolism. • The
increased galactose concentrated in
blood and eyes get accumulated in form
of galacticol by aldolase reductase. •
The galacticol cannot escape from the
lens cells. Galacticol is a sugar alcohol
and its osmotic effects contribute to
injury of lens protein and development of
cataract.
49 The A. Heparin A. Heparin ANS A. (Heparin): Ref. Harpers

mucoplysaccharides B. Keratin 27th7553; 28th7536; Satyanarayan for
predominantly C. Chondroitin dental students 1st 712 Heparin is an
component of extra D. Thrombin anticoagulant that is found in the
cellular matrix granules of mast cells and also in liver,
having anti lung, skin, spleen, kidney, blood etc. It
coagulation effect helps in release of lipoprotein lipase
and present in liver enzyme which clears the turbity of
and lungs is lipemic plasma Heparin is composed of
alterating units of NsulfoDglucosamine
6 sulfate and glucuronate 2sulfate.
50 Which of the A. Infrared B. Luminol stray Answer is B (Luminol stray):

following methods is photography Fundamentals of Forensic Science 2"d
used for B. Luminol stray 1237, 238; Crime Reconstruction
demonstrating old C. Ultraviolet light (Academic Press) 2nd/ 166 Luminol
washed up blood D. Magnify lens Spray is one of the most common blood
stains. regent sprays used for visualizing and
documenting weak blood stains (old and
washed stains).
51 A person ‘X’ hits A. Imprisonment for C. Imprisonment for 1 Answer is C (Imprisonment for 1 month

another person ‘Y’ one year and/or fine month and/or fine of and/or fine of Rs. 500): ‘Textbook on the
with a wooden stick of Rs. 1000 Rs. 500 Indian Penal Code’ by Krishna Deo
on provocation. This B. Imprisonment for Gaur 4'h/594 The offence performed by
leads to formation of two years and/or fine person ‘X’ would fall under the peiview
a bruise 3cm x 3cm ofRs. 5000 of IPC section 334 (Voluntarily Causing
on the forearm. No C. Imprisonment for Hurt on Provocation). The nature of
other injuries are 1 month and/or fine injury inflected is simple (Bruise over
noted. Which of the of Rs. 500 forearm) and not grievious. Tim weapon
following is true, D. Rigrous used to inflict injury is simple and not
regarding his Imprisonment for six dangerous.
punishment? months
52 Disclosure of Identity A. Section 298A B. Section 228A Answer is B (Section 228A): ‘Textbook

of Rape Victim is B. Section 228A on the Indian Penal Code’ by Krishna
protected under C. Section 226A Deo Gaur 4th/594 Disclosure of identity
which of the D. Section 225A of rape victim is protected and
following sections of punishable under section 228A of the
IPC: Indian Penal Code. ‘Whoever prints or
publishes the name or any matter which
may make known the identity of any
person against whom an offence under
section 376 (Rape).
53 Which of the A. Glaister Keene A. Glaister Keene Rods Answer is A (Glaister Keene Rods):

following is used in Rods Parikh 6th/5.36 Glaister Keene Rods
rape victims to B. Gaba Rod may be used to determine degree of
determine of rupture C. Gram Rod rupture of hymen and whether rupture is
of hymen and D. Cylinder Rod recent or old. ‘To determine the degree
whether rupture is of hymenal rupturing, and whether this is
recent or old recent or old, a glass rod with a small
spherical head (Glaister KeeneRod),
54 The ‘Japanese A. H2S and other A. H2S and other Answer is A (H2S and other poisonous

Detergent Suicide poisonous gases poisonous gases gases): http://www.
Technique’ involves B. Deadly foam wired.com/threatlevel/2009/03/japanese
mixing of common C. Deadly Acidic deterg/ Detergentrelated suicide
household chemical Compond involves mixing household chemicals to
to produce: D. Deadly fluid produce hydrogen sulfide or other
cyanide compound poisonous gases.
55 Which of the A. Provides different A. Provides different Answer is A (Provides different

following statements punishment for drug punishment for drug punishment for drug users and drug
about the Narcotic users and drug users and drug peddlers): The NDPS Act offers severe:
Drugs and peddlers peddlers punishment to both drug users anddrug
Psychotropic B. Recommends peddlers but makes a distinction
Substances ACT treatment / between possession for personal
(NDPS) is true? rehabilitation of drug consumption and trafficking. The
users and punishment for possession for personal
punishment for drug consumption is less severe being limited
peddlers tosix months and one year only.
C. Consumption of
Excessive alcohol is
punishable under the
act
D. Farmers growing
opium are permitted
to grow and
consume unlimited
amounts of opium
56 Forced diuresis with A. A m phetam ines B. Phenobarbitone Answer is B (Phenobarbitone): KDT

acidification or B. Phenobarbitone 6th/392; Comprehensive Reviews in
alkalinization of C. Phencyclidine Toxicology: For Emergency Clinicians
urine is a common D. Theophylline 3rd/36; Oh's Intensive Care Manual
method for (Elsevier) 2009 / 905 Forced alkaline
elimination of certain diuresis is commonly used to enhance
poisons / drugs from excretion of acidic drugs like
the body. The phenobarbitone and salicylates
elimination of which
of the following
drugs is commonly
enhanced by
alkaline diuresis
57 All of the following A. Cohorts are C. Cohort studies are Answer is C (Cohort studies are suitable

statements chosen based on suitable to investigate to investigate ‘rare’ disease): Park
regarding case history of ‘Exposure’ ‘rare’ disease 21s'/75 Cohort studies are inappropriate
control and cohort B. Cohort studies when the disease or exposure under
studies are true, require longer time investigation is rare. Case control
Except: frame than case studies are suitable to investigate rare
control studies diseases.
C. Cohort studies
are suitable to
investigate ‘rare’
disease
D. Cohort studies
yield information
about more than one
disease
58 In the N atural A. Occurs after D. Screening has no Answer is D (Screening has no role in

History of Disease, agent enters the role in this phase this phase): Park 21st 132, 33, 34
all of the following human host Screening during ‘period of
statements about B. Tertiary pathogenesis’ can help in early
the ‘Period of prevention is diagnosis and treatment o f the condition
Pathogeness’ are possible at this stage and is an important element of
true except: C. Subclinical Phase ‘secondary prevention’ during period
may be present ofpathogenesis.
D. Screening has no
role in this phase
59 If alternate of A. Physiotherapy B. Preventive Medicine Answer is B (Preventive Medicine):

medicine were B. Preventive Refer text below ‘Yoga’ is a practice that
accepted as a Medicine involves training of the mind, body and
modality of therapy, C. Emergency breathing to deliver various health
then ‘Yoga’ would be Medicine benefits. Regular practice of Yoga can
best described as a D. Caloric usurper be best defined as a form of ‘Preventive
form of Medicin’ that has shown beneficial effect
on several ailments including Backache,
Anxiety, Headache, Hypertension etc.
60 A state of disease A. Eradication B. Elimination Answer is B (Elimination): ‘Statistical

endemicity in which B. Elimination Handbook of Infectious Diseases’ by
disease C. Control Sarah Watstein (Greenwood Publishing)
transmission has D. Holoendemic 2003/282 State of disease endemicity in
been stopped but which disease transmission has been
the agent persists is: stopped (zero incidence) but agent
persists is best defined by the term
‘Elimination’.
61 Concentration of A. Absorption at 260 A. Absorption at 260 ANS A i.e. Absorption at 260 nm [Ref:

DNA is measured by nm nm Harper 28/e 288; Lehninger 5/e 276]
B. Doxyribose Concentration (and quality) of
estimation nucleotides and ncleic acid (DNA/RNA)
C. Infrared is measured in terms of " absorbance at
examination 260 nm" with a Ultraviolet (UV)
D. Ultrasound spectrophotometer.
examination
62 Ends of A. Telomerase A. Telomerase ANS A i.e. Telomerase Telomerase is a

chromosomes B. Centromere multisubunit RNA containing complex
replicated by C. Restriction related to viral RNA dependent DNA
endonuclease polymerase (reverse transcriptase), the
D. Exonuclease enzyme which is responsible for
telomere synthesis & thus for
maintaining the length of telomere.
Telomerase, a RNA dependent DNA
polymerase (reverse transcriptase), is
the enzyme responsible for telomere
synthesis and thus for maintaining the
length of telomereR. Germinal (germ
line), cancer and hemopoetic stem
cellsR with telomerase activity do not
undergo cellular aging and apoptosis
(death).
63 Highly repetitive A. Cloning of DNA C. Telomere ANS C i.e. Telomere Highly repetitive

DNA is seen in B. Microsatelite DNA sequences also called simple sequence
C. Telomere DNA or simple sequence repeats (SSR)
D. Centromere or satellite DNA is mostly clustered in
centromeres and telomeres.
64 Mitochondrial DNA A. Closed circular A. Closed circular ANS A i.e. Closed Circular [Ref:

is B. Nicked circular Lehninger 5th/ed pg73842; Harper
C. Linear 28th/ed pg31920; Robbin's 7/e p. 185;
D. Open circular Teitz 6th/ed pg269; Eberhard: Colour
atlas of genetics 3/edpg134; Acta
Neuropathol (2006) 111: pg61016] A
Mitochondrial DNA (mt DNA) is a closed
circular double strandedR molecule that
is transmitted by maternal [ Inheritance
and contains no or very few interons
(untranslated sequences)R. It is not
highly conserved has high mutation rate
(d/t point mutation, large scale
rearrangements & some deletions) and
leads to mitochondrial myopathies,
MELAS, Leber's hereditary optic
atrophy, Leigh syndrome and NARP
syndrome.
65 Bromodeoxyuridine A. Uracil D. Thymidine ANS D i.e. Thymidine [Ref: NMS 3/e P

is related to DNA in B. Adenosine 222; Harper's 27/e P29899]
C. Cytosine Bromodeoxyuridine is a thymidine
D. Thymidine analogu. As in DNA thymine is present
instead of uracil, bromodeoxy uridine (5
halogenated derivative of uracil) is
analogus to Thymidine of DNA.
66 Triplex DNA is due A. Hoogsteen pairing A. Hoogsteen pairing ANS A i.e. Hoogsteen pairing [Ref:

to B. Palindromic Harrison 17th/1764; Harrison's
sequences 18th/2312] Hoogsteen (non Watson
C. Large no. of Crick) hydrogen pairing allows fonnation
guanosine repeats of DNA triplexG; which is also facilitated
D. Polypyramidine by long only pyramidine or only purine
tracts sequences in a given strand, 2Py + lP u
or 2Pu + 1 Py strands, low pH,
increased pKa and protonated cytosine.
67 Which form of DNA A. A C. B ANS C i.e. B [Ref: Harper 28/ed 28990,

is predominantly B. C 302304; Chattarjae 7/e 22527;
seen C. B Lippincott 5/e 39698; Lehninger 5/e
D. Z 27782] The most common form of DNA
is B DNAQ. Within the cells most of
DNA is B DNA, although regions rich in
guanine and cytosine base pairs may
assume Z conformation.
68 Apart from occurring A. Theophylline D. Thiamine ANS D i.e. Thiamine [Ref: Chatterjea 6/e

in nucleic acids, B. Theobromine P159; Harper's 27/e P49697] Usually
pyrimidines are also C. Flavin purine & pyrimidine occur in nucleic acid
found in mononucleotide i.e. DNA and RNA Besides nucleic acid
D. Thiamine pyrimidines also occur in thiamine.
Purine is also a structural component of
number of essential coenzyme:
Coenzyme A NAD+ , NADP+
69 Significant decrease A. Hyperirritability of A. Hyperirritability of Ans.(A). Hyperirritability of nerve and

in serum calcium will nerves and muscles nerves and muscles muscle "A decrease in extracellular
cause B. Positive ionotropic Ca2+ exerts a net excitatory effect on
and chronotropic the nerve and muscle cells in vivo. The
effect on the heart result is hypocalcemictetany" "A
C. Sudden increase decrease in the extracellular Ca2+
in the thyroid and concentration increases the excitability
parathyroid of nerve and muscle cells by decreasing
D. None the amount of depolarization necessary
to initiate the changes in Na+, K
conductance that produces the action
potential"
70 Magnesium is A. Phosphatase A. Phosphatase Ans.(A). Phosphatase "Magnesium is

needed for the B. Aldolase required in covalent modification of
activity of which C. Dismutase enzymes by phosphorylation,
enzyme D. ATPase dephosphorylation of seryl residues"
"Magnesium as seen in above is
required with enzymes kinase and
phosphatase. As kinase is not provided
in the options, phosphatase is the
answer.
71 The following host A. Exudation D. Granuloma Granuloma Ans.(D). Granuloma formation

tissue responses B. Vasodilation formation formation "Granulomatous inflammations are a
can be seen in acute C. Margination distinctive pattern of chronic
inflammation except D. Granuloma inflammation characterized by
formation aggregate of activated macrophages
that assume an epitheloid appearance"
Hence granuloma formation is a feature
of chronic inflammation.
72 A 27 year old female A. Endotracheal tube D. Endobronchial Answer is D (Endobronchial intubation):

was brought to blockage intubation Miller’s Anesthesia; ‘Complications in
emergency B. Bronchospasm Anesthesiology ’ by Kirby (Lippincott
department for acute C. Esophageal William’s); Benumofs A irway
abdominal pain intubation Management Unilateral absence (or
following which she D. Endobronchial decrease) of breath sounds over one
was shifted to the intubation lung (especially left) after a speedy
operation theatre for intubation suggests a diagnosis of
Laparotomy. A inadvertent endobronchial intubation.
speedy intubation End tidal C02 may be low, normal or
was performed but raised after an endotracheal intubation.
after the intubation,
breath sounds were
observed to be
decreased on the
left side and a high
end tidal C02 was
recorded. The likely
diagnosis is
73 A 25 year old A. Incomplete A. Incomplete reversal Fentanyl Answer is A (Incomplete reversal of

overweight female reversal of of pancuronium induced chest pancuronium): Miller’s Anesthesia;
was given pancuronium wall rigidity ‘Complications in Anesthesiology ’ by
fentanylpancuronium B. Pulmonary Kirby; ‘Clinical Anesthesia’ by Stoelting,
anesthesia for embolism Cahalan (Lippincott) Residual
surgery. After C. Fentanyl induced neuromuscular paralysis after extubation
surgery and chest wall rigidity is a common complication after
extubation she was D. Respiratory administration of neuromuscular
observed to have depression blocking agents (especially long acting
limited movement of agents like pancuronium). The presence
the upper body and of limited movements of upper body
chest wall in the (residual paralysis) along with reduced
recovery room. She voluntary respiratory effort (residual
was conscious and weakness) after extubation in patients
alert butvoluntary who have received long acting
respiratory effort neuromuscular blockers (like
was limited. Her pancuronium) suggest a diagnosis of
blood pressure and incomplete reversal of the muscle
heart rate were relaxation effect of the anesthetic drug.
normal. The likely
diagnosis is
74 All of the following A. No fade on Train B. Fade on tetanic Answer is B (Fade on titanic

statements about of four stimulation stimulation stimulation): Miller’s Fade on tetanic
neuromuscular B. Fade on tetanic stimulation is a feature of Non
blockage produced stimulation depolarizing blockers. Succinylcholine
by succinylcholine C. No post tetanic characteristically produces a
are true, except facilitation depolarizing neuromuscular block.
D. Train of four ratio Depolarizing neuromuscular blockage is
> 0.4 characterized by no fade on train offever
or tetanic stimulation, no post titanic
facilitation and a high train of four ratio
>0.7 (>0.4)
75 A patient with A. Vecuronium C. Atracurium Atracurium Answer is C (Atracurium): KDT; ‘Critical

bilirubin value of B. Pancuronium Care Medicine’ (Lippincott); ‘Basics of
8mg/dl and serum C. Atracurium Anesthesia by Stoelting & Miller'
creatinine of 1.9 D. Rocuronium Atraeurium is the muscle relaxant of
mg/dl is planned for choice in patients with liver disease and
surgery. What is the renal failure Elevated serum bilirubin
muscle relaxant of levels (8 mg/dl) and serum creatinine
choice in this (1.9 mg/dl) suggests the presence of
patient liver disease and renal failure.
Atracurium undergoes nonspecific ester
hydrolysis and spontaneous non
enzymatic (Hoffman) degradation in the
plasma. Because of extensive plasma
degradation atracurium does not depend
on hepatic metabolism or kidney for
excretion and can be safely used in
patients with liver and renal disease.
76 Which of the A. PAS A. PAS Answer is A (PAS): Ananthnarayanan;

following stains is B. Von kossa Rook's Textbook of Dermatology;
used to study fungal C. Alizarin Red Fundamentals of Pathology of Skin The
morphology in tissue D. Masson’s periodic Acid Sciff (PAS) stain is a
sections? Trichrome valuable method for the demonstration
offungal elements in tissues Von Kossa
stain and Alizarin Red are used to
identify calcium while Masson’s
Trichrome is used to identify collagen,
muscle andfibrin.
77 Median rhomboid A. Trauma C. Candidiasis Answer is “C” i.e. “Candidiasis”. Ref:

glossitis is caused B. Nutritional Shafers 4th ed. /26; Neville 2nd ed/192.
by deficiency “Most current evidence strongly
C. Candidiasis suggests an etiologic relationship
D. Folic acid between median rhomboid glossitis and
deficiency a localized chronic fu n gal infection,
specifically Candida albicans.”
Shafers/26. “Other form of erythematous
candidiasis is usually asymptomatic and
chronic. Included in this category is the
condition known as central papillary
atrophy of the tongue or median
rhohtboidglossitis.
78 Protein that A. Albumin B. Bence Jones Answer is “B” i.e. “Bence Jones

precipitates on B. Bence Jones proteins Proteins”. Ref: Shafers 4th ed/192.
heating at 45°C and proteins “Presence o f Bence jones proteins in
redissolve on boiling C. Gamma globulin urine are noted in 6085% of multiple
is D. Myosin myeloma patients. This is an unusual
protein which coagulates when the urine
is heated to 406(f C and then
disappears when the urine is boiled. It
reappears when the urine is cooled.
79 When calcospherites A. Interglobular A. Interglobular dentin Answer is “A” i.e. “Interglobular dentin”.

fail to fuse during dentin Ref: Oral Histology by Vincent Provenza
dentin matrix B. Dead tracts T d ed/277278. “The initial sites or nidi
formation, the result C. Irregular dentin of mineralization grow by the peripheral
is formation of D. None of the addition o f new crystallites. Progressive
above growth and fusion of these
ultramicroscopic deposits with adjacent
ones continue so that they eventually
acquire dimensions resolvable with light
microscopy. The isolated spheroid
islands of mineral are called
calcospherites. These fuse with
neighboring ones and eventually form a
linear calcifying front This is the normal
sequence of mineralization.
80 Dental age of a A. Dependant on the D. None of the above Answer is ‘D’ i.e. “None of the above”.

patient is skeletal age Ref: Proffit 4th/ l 05 “The correlation
B. Dependant on between developmental ages o f all
chronological age types o f ages and chronologic age is
C. Dependant on the quite good, as biologic indicators go. For
both most developmental indicators, the
D. None of the correlation coefficient beween
above developmental status and chronologic
age is about 0.8. The ability to predict
one characteristic from another varies as
the square of correlation coefficient, so
probability that one could predict the
developmental stage from knowing the
chronologic age or vice versa is (0.8f =
0.64. This means you would have two
chances out of three of predicting one
from other. The correlation of dental with
chronologic age is not quite good, about
0.7, which means that there is about a
50% chance of predicting the stage o f
dental development from chronologic
age.
81 Apical PDL fibres A. Crest of alveolar B. Apical end of root Answer is “B” i.e. “Apical end of root”.

arise from bone Ref: Tencate’s 5th ed/263. Periodontal
B. Apical end of root ligament fibers: 1) Alveolar crest group:
C. Middle third of Attached to cementum just below the
root CEJ and running downward and
D. None of the outward to insert into the rim of the
above alveolus. 2) Horizontal group: Just
apical to the alveolar crest group and
running at right angles to the long axis of
the tooth from cementum to bone just
below the alveolar crest.
82 The most widely A. Hydrodynamic A. Hydrodynamic Answer is “A” i.e. “Hydrodynamic”. Ref:

accepted theory for B. Direct neural Sturdevant 5th ed/441. “Several theories
dentinal stimulation have been advanced to explain the
hypersensitivity is C. Transduction unusual sensitivity and response of such
D. None of the exposed dentin to a stimulus or irritation.
above The most accepted theory is
“hydrodynamic theory” which postulates
that the pain results from indirect
innervations caused by dentinal fluid
movement in the tubule that stimulates
mechanoreceptors near the predentin.
Some causes of such fluid shifts are
temperature change, air drying and
osmotic pressure. Any treatment that
can reduce these fluid shifts by partially
or totally occluding the tubules may help
reduce the sensitivity. Sturdevant / 441
83 Most charachteristic A. Vasoconstriction C. Vasodilatation and Answer is C (Vasodilatation and

feature of acute B. Vascular stasis Increased vascular Increased Vascular Permeability) :
inflammation is C. Vasodilatation permeability Robbins The hallmark o f acute
and Increased inflammation is increased vascular
vascular permeability leading to escape of protein
permeability rich fluid (exudates) into the
D. Margination of extravascular tissue Robbins f h/50
Leucocytes Vascular stasis and margination of
Leucocytes are also seen in acute
inflammation but the hallmark of acute
inflammation is increased vascular
permeability which is the single best
answer of choice.
84 Treatment of choice A. Chloroquine B. Intravenous Answer is B (Intravenous Artesunate):

for severe B. Intravenous artesunate Harrison’s, Harrison’s SelfAssessment&
falciparum malaria artesunate Review (17th) 7104/ Q iv7 Artesunate is
is C. Intravenous the drug of choice for severe falciparum
quinine malaria when available In severe
D. Intravenous Falciparum Malaria, parentral artesunate
quinidine has shown to reduce mortality rates by
35% compared to IV Quinine.
Artesunate has therefore become the
drug of choice’ – Harrisons
85 Which of the A. Pilocarpine B. Clozapine Answer is B (Clozapine): KDT; Kaplan &

following drugs is B. Clozapine Sadock’s Psychiatry; Atlas of Psychiatric
not used in Acute C. Fluphenazine Pharmacotherapy; American Psychiatric
Angle closure D. Duloxetine Association Practice Guidelines for
Glaucoma? Treatment of Psychiatric Disorders
Medications with anticholinergic property
may cause mydriasis and precipitate an
attack of acute angle glaucoma.
Clozapine is frequently associated with
anticholinergic side effects (moderately
potent '+ + + ’) and is contraindicated in
patients with narrow angle glaucoma.
86 Ifosfamide is an A. Alkylating Agent A. Alkylating Agent Answer is A (Alkylating Agent): KDT

B. Antimetabolite Ifosfamide is an alkylating agent that
C. Folate antagonist belongs to the class of Nitrogen
D. Plant Alkaloid Mustards Alkylating Agents: Review •
These compounds produce highly
reactive carbonium ion intermediates^
which transfer their alkyl group to
various cellular constituents. • Alkylation
of DNAQ within the nucleus probably
represents the major interactions that
lead cells death • These are Cell Cycle
Non Specific agentsR (Act on dividing
as well as nondividing cells)
87 Which of the A. Alcohol B. Chloroquine Answer is B (Chloroquine): Repeat;

following drugs will B. Chloroquine Goodman & Gillman; KDT; Harrison
not precipitate folate C. Sulfasalazine Chloroquine has not been mentioned in
deficiency? D. Phenytoin association with folate deficiency
Phenytoin, Sulfasalazine, and Alcohol
may all be associated with folate
deficiency.
88 Which stage of A. Gametocyte A. Gametocyte Ans.(A). Gametocyte → Human infection

Plasmodium Vivax is B. Trophozytes comes through bite of infective female
infectious to C. Merozoite anopheles mosquito. Sprozoites are
Mosquito? D. Sporozoite infective stages to man whereas
gametocytes are infective stages to
mosquito. → The mosquito cycle (
sporogony) begins when the
gametocytes are ingested by vector
when feeding on infected person.The
gametocytes continue further
development in mosquito.The first event
to take place in the stomach of the
mosquito is exflagellation of male
gametocyte. 48 thread like filament
microgametes are formed.The female
gametocyte undergo process of
maturation and become female gamete
or microgametes.
89 With a flush terminal A. Initially be classII D. Erupt immediately Ans. (D). Erupt immediately into an end

plane, permanent B. Initially be class into an end to end on relation “The distal surface of the
first molar will III relationship upper and lower second deciduous
C. Immediately molar are in one vertical plane. This type
assume a normal of relationship is called flush or vertical
relationship terminal plane. This is a normal feature
D. Erupt immediately of the deciduous denitition. Thus the
into an end to end erupting first permanent molars may
relationship also be in a flush or end on relation"
90 Paralleling technique A. Minimize C. Minimize distortion Minimize Ans. (C).Minimizedistortion To minimize

is used to superimposition of distortion shape distortion a) Position the film
anatomic structures parallel to the long axis of the object, b)
B. Prevent Orient the central ray perpendicular to
shortening of image object and film” “In bisecting angle
C. Minimize technique the film is placed as close to
distortion the teeth as possible without deforming
D. Prevent it. However, when the film is in this
elongation of image position, it is not parallel to the long axis
of the teeth. This arrangement inherently
causes distortion”
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Sr Question Answer Option Correct Answer Your Answer Answer Explanation

1 Why the acid A. To have better A. To have better To have better Ans. (A) Tohave better control over flow.

2 Dentin “Conditioner”. A. Remove Smear A. Remove Smear Increases free Ans. (A) Removes Smear Layer. ­

3 Which of following is A. Life or dycal D. Poly –F Life or dycal Ans. (D) Poly­F ­ This is a B­ university

4 The Bacterial A. 500 million / ml D. 750 million / ml 750 million / ml Ans (D) 750 million / ml “Numerous

5 The process of A. 12 D. 100 72 Ans. (D) 100 days It takes around 0.5 to

6 The depth of clinical A. Cementoenamel D. Apical penetration of Apical Ans. (D). Apical penetration of probe ­

7 Which of the A. ANUG A. ANUG ANUG Ans .(A). ANUG ­ Acute necrotizing

8 A periodontal pocket A. An Infrabony B. A Pseudopocket A Ans. (B) Pseudopocket →

9 Severe Alveolar A. Impaired D. Impaired Neutrophil Impaired Ans. (D) Impaired Neutrophil chemotaxis

10 A patient on steroid A. NSAIDS B. Antibiotics Antibiotics Ans (B) Antibiotics. → Antibiotic

11 About Bacteroides A. Susceptible to A. Susceptible to many Susceptible to Ans .(A) Susceptible to many antibiotic.

12 All of the following A. It is a normal skin D. Some strains do not Some strains Ans .(D) Some strain do not secrete

13 Sickle cell anemia is A. Nonsense B. Missense mutation Missense Ans. (B) Missense mutation of beta

14 Malignant epithelial A. IL­1 B. Laminin Laminin Ans. (B) Laminin. The expression of

15 Cachectin is A. Neutrophils A. Neutrophils Ans. (A) Cytotoxic T cells. → IL1 is

16 If bacteria were A. Pencillin is D. Pencillin is only Pencillin is only Ans. (D) Pencillin is only effective

17 Anti Pseudomonal A. Cefoperozone A. Cefoperozone Cefoperozone Ans. (A) Cefoperazone. →

18 True about penicillin A. Mainly excreted A. Mainly excreted by Mainly Ans. (A) MAINLY EXCRETED BY

19 Coronary steel A. Thiopentone C. soflurane soflurane Ans. (C) Isoflurane “A vasoconstriction

20 Which of following A. Indirect comb test B. Direct Coomb test Direct Coomb Ans (B). Direct Coomb Test → Direct

21 The ligand ­receptor A. Of its large size C. Of the acidic pH of Of the acidic ANS C. (Of the acidic pH of the vesicle):

22 Proteins are linear A. Denatured state D. Quaternary structure Quaternary ANS D. (Quaternary structure): Herper’s

23 The ligand­receptor A. Of its large size C. Of the acidic pH of Of the acidic ANS C. (Of tfye acidic pH of the

24 Serum creatinine A. Modified C. Enzyme assay ANS C. (Enzyme assay): Ref. Journal:

25 Transamination A. Pyridoxal A. Pyridoxal Phosphate Thiamine ANS A. (Pyridoxal Phosphate): Ref.

26 Ketone bodies are A. RBC A. RBC Cardiac ANS A. (RBC): Ref. Satyanarayana 1st

27 All are true about A. It is a tripeptide B. It converts It converts ANS B. (It converts hemoglobin to

28 True about G protein A. G protiens bind to C. G proteins act as ANS C. (G proteins act as inhibitory and

29 True about A. Unfolding occurs D. Biological activity is ANS D. (Biological activity is retained)

30 Glucagon causes A. Increased B. Increased glycogen ANS B. (Increased glycogen breakdown

31 A patient who A. Galactose A. Galactose ANS A. (Galactose): Vasudevan 5{ 776;

32 Metabolic disease A. Cori’s disease C. von Gierke’s disease ANS C. (von Gierke’s disease):

33 The HMP shunt A. Mitochondria B. Cytoplasm ANS B. (Cytoplasm): Satyanarayan

34 NaF is added to A. It inhibits the A. It inhibits the ANS A. (It inhibits the enzyme enolase):

35 The major pathway A. Krebs’ cycle B. Glycolysis ANS B. (Glycolysis): Satyanarayan

36 The rate limiting step A. Hexokinase B. Phosphofructokinase ANS B. (Phosphofructokinase):

37 Glycolysis occurs in A. Cytoplasm A. Cytoplasm ANS A. (Cytoplasm): Vasudevan 5th/46

38 Which of the A. Starch and C. Starch gives blue ANS C. (Starch gives blue colour with I2

39 Inversion is a feature A. Glucose C. Sucrose ANS C. (Sucrose): Vasudevan 5th740

40 The cotton ball A. Glucose D. Lactose ANS D. (Lactose): Vasudevan 5th/37

41 Benedict’s solution A. Of oxidizing B. Of reducing property ANS B. (Of reducing property of sugars):

42 Glucose and A. Epimers A. Epimers ANS A. (Epimers): Vasudevan 5th/35

43 The isomers of A. 2 D. 32 ANS D. (32): Vasudevan 5,h/34 The

44 All are essential A. Glucose A. Glucose ANS A. (Glucose): Essential nutrients

45 The total number of A. 38 ATPs B. 34 ATPs ANS B. (34 ATPs): Vasudevan/4th The

46 Which cells produce A. WBCs B. RBCs ANS B. (RBCs): Vasudevan/4th746

47 The blood sugar is: A. Galactose B. Glucose ANS B. (Glucose): Vasudevan 5th735

48 The molecule which A. Sorbitol D. Galactitol ANS D. (Galactitol): Ref. Harper

49 The A. Heparin A. Heparin ANS A. (Heparin): Ref. Harpers

50 Which of the A. Infrared B. Luminol stray Answer is B (Luminol stray):

51 A person ‘X’ hits A. Imprisonment for C. Imprisonment for 1 Answer is C (Imprisonment for 1 month

52 Disclosure of Identity A. Section 298A B. Section 228A Answer is B (Section 228A): ‘Textbook

53 Which of the A. Glaister Keene A. Glaister Keene Rods Answer is A (Glaister Keene Rods):

54 The ‘Japanese A. H2S and other A. H2S and other Answer is A (H2S and other poisonous

55 Which of the A. Provides different A. Provides different Answer is A (Provides different

56 Forced diuresis with A. A m phetam ines B. Phenobarbitone Answer is B (Phenobarbitone): KDT

57 All of the following A. Cohorts are C. Cohort studies are Answer is C (Cohort studies are suitable

58 In the N atural A. Occurs after D. Screening has no Answer is D (Screening has no role in

2 Dentin “Conditioner”. A. Remove Smear A. Remove Smear Increases free Ans. (A) Removes Smear Layer.

3 Which of following is A. Life or dycal D. Poly –F Life or dycal Ans. (D) PolyF This is a B university

6 The depth of clinical A. Cementoenamel D. Apical penetration of Apical Ans. (D). Apical penetration of probe

7 Which of the A. ANUG A. ANUG ANUG Ans .(A). ANUG Acute necrotizing

14 Malignant epithelial A. IL1 B. Laminin Laminin Ans. (B) Laminin. The expression of

21 The ligand receptor A. Of its large size C. Of the acidic pH of Of the acidic ANS C. (Of the acidic pH of the vesicle):

23 The ligandreceptor A. Of its large size C. Of the acidic pH of Of the acidic ANS C. (Of tfye acidic pH of the

65 Bromodeoxyuridine A. Uracil D. Thymidine ANS D i.e. Thymidine [Ref: NMS 3/e P

67 Which form of DNA A. A C. B ANS C i.e. B [Ref: Harper 28/ed 28990,

89 With a flush terminal A. Initially be classII D. Erupt immediately Ans. (D). Erupt immediately into an end