Test - 6 (Code E) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2019

TEST - 6 (Code E)
Test Date : 24/02/2019

ANSWERS
1. (1) 37. (3) 73. (2) 109. (3) 145. (4)
2. (4) 38. (1) 74. (2) 110. (1) 146. (3)
3. (3) 39. (1) 75. (4) 111. (2) 147. (1)
4. (4) 40. (3) 76. (4) 112. (3) 148. (1)
5. (4) 41. (2) 77. (3) 113. (2) 149. (4)
6. (4) 42. (3) 78. (1) 114. (3) 150. (4)
7. (1) 43. (1) 79.Delete 115. (1) 151. (4)
8. (1) 44. (3) 80. (2) 116. (2) 152. (4)
9. (1) 45. (1) 81. (3) 117. (4) 153. (3)
10. (3) 46. (3) 82. (1) 118. (3) 154. (3)
11. (2) 47. (4) 83. (4) 119. (2) 155. (3)
12. (2) 48. (1) 84. (4) 120. (3) 156. (2)
13. (1) 49. (3) 85. (1) 121. (3) 157. (4)
14. (4) 50. (1) 86. (2) 122. (3) 158. (2)
15. (3) 51. (3) 87. (3) 123. (4) 159. (2)
16. (4) 52. (3) 88. (2) 124. (4) 160. (2)
17. (2) 53. (2) 89. (4) 125. (4) 161. (4)
18. (1) 54. (3) 90. (3) 126. (1) 162. (2)
19. (2) 55. (2) 91. (2) 127. (3) 163. (2)
20. (3) 56. (3) 92. (4) 128. (4) 164. (4)
21. (1) 57. (4) 93. (4) 129. (1) 165. (1)
22. (3) 58. (4) 94. (2) 130. (1) 166. (1)
23. (2) 59. (2) 95. (4) 131. (4) 167. (4)
24. (4) 60. (3) 96. (2) 132. (3) 168. (1)
25. (1) 61. (2) 97. (3) 133. (3) 169. (3)
26. (4) 62. (4) 98. (3) 134. (2) 170. (2)
27. (1) 63. (1) 99. (3) 135. (2) 171. (3)
28. (4) 64. (3) 100. (1) 136. (3) 172. (4)
29. (1) 65. (4) 101. (3) 137. (3) 173. (1)
30. (2) 66. (2) 102. (1) 138. (3) 174. (2)
31. (1) 67. (2) 103. (2) 139. (1) 175. (3)
32. (1) 68. (3) 104. (4) 140. (3) 176. (4)
33. (4) 69. (4) 105. (3) 141. (4) 177. (4)
34. (1) 70. (2) 106. (3) 142. (1) 178. (4)
35. (3) 71. (2) 107. (1) 143. (3) 179. (4)
36. (1) 72. (2) 108. (3) 144. (2) 180. (3)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 6 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

6. Answer (4)
PHYSICS Hint:  = MB sin 
1. Answer (1)
  Id  sin 
Hint: | dB |  0
4 r 2 B  4  10– 2 T
Sol.: y Sol.:

P 0.01 m
0.75 m

 = MB sin 
 = NIA B sin90°
z
3
z   1 1  10– 4  4  10–2
4
 = 1.732 × 10 – 6 N m
  Id  sin  10 –7  15  0.75  10 –2  1 7. Answer (1)
| dB | = 0 =
4 r 2 (0.75)2 1
= 2 × 10 – 8 T Hint: e  B0  l 2
2
  
direction of dB is along (idl  r ) i .e. kˆ  ˆj  – iˆ . 2 l /3
2
2. Answer (4) Sol.: eOB  ∫0
B0 xdx   B0 l 2
9
...(i)
Hint: Magnetic field lines are closer at regions where
the magnetic field is strong. 1
Sol.: Magnetic field lines are widely separated where
and eOA  B0 l 2 ...(ii)
18
the magnetic field is weak.
3. Answer (3) 1 B0l 2 1
  
VB – VA  [– 4  1]  – B0l 2
Hint and Sol.: F  q[v  B] 2 9 6
8. Answer (1)
4. Answer (4)
     Bl ADv
Hint: Fe  qE, Fm  q(V  B ) Hint: I 
  Req
Sol.: Since v = 0 so F m = 0, Fe  qE i.e.
 Bl ADv
Sol.: I 
E  0 but B may or may not be zero. R eq
5. Answer (4)
10 –2  1 10
Hint: Fleming’s Left hand rule I  1mA
102
9. Answer (1)
Sol.: v v cos45°
Hint: Independent quantities conventionally used to
v sin45°

specify the earth’s magnetic field.

45°
Sol.: Horizontal component (BH), angle of dip ()
°
90

90° and angle of declination () are considered elements

=

90° of earth’s magnetic field.



10. Answer (3)

45° 45°  
Hint: U  – M  B
v cos45°

45° Sol.: For equilibrium,  = 0

(1) For stable equilibrium, U = – MBcos0° = – 0.24 J
(2) For unstable equilibrium, U = –MBcos180° = 0.24 J
v sin45° 11. Answer (2)
B
Hence from the diagram deviation  = 90°. Hint: tan 60 
BH

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Test - 6 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
15. Answer (3)
B   
Sol.: tan 60  Hint: Bnet   0 ( H  I )   0 (1   ) H
BH
Sol.: Bnet   0 H (1   )  4  10 – 6 (1  1999)
N  8   10 –3 T
16. Answer (4)
BH
r 60° Hint: For ideal transformer VIn IIn = Vout Iout
S VIn Iout
Bnet Sol.: 
B Vout Iin

B  3 BH Vout I
For step up  1 ⇒ in  1
0 M VIn Iout
3  0.4  10 – 4 
4 r 3  IIn > Iout
So, current decreases in step up transformer.
10– 7  5 3  10 –2 17. Answer (2)
3  0.4  10 – 4 
r3 Hint: XL = L

1 Z1 R 2  (2f L )2
8  103  Sol.:  k
r3 Z2 R 2  16(2f L )2
1
r   5 cm 0  k 1
2  10
18. Answer (1)
12. Answer (2)
 VR
Q  Hint: cos   .
Hint: M  L VZ
2m
Q Sol.: VZ2  VR2  (VL ~ VC )2
Sol.: M  L
2m (1000)2 = VR2  (1600 – 800)2
VR = 600 V
Q Q ⎛2 ⎞ 2
M I  mR 2 ⎟ 2 f0  f0R 2Q
2m 2m ⎜⎝ 5 ⎠ 5 600 3
cos     0.6
13. Answer (1) 1000 5
Hint: Curie’s Law 19. Answer (2)
Sol.: Curie’s Law 2
Vrms R
CB0 Hint: Pav  Irms
2
R
I Z2
T
3 R
CB1 Sol.: cos   
I1  ...(i) 13 Z
T1
13
CB2 Z R
I2  ...(ii) 3
T2
2
Vrms 9V 2
I2 B2 T1 Pav  2
R
 Z 13R
I1 B1 T2
9  (220)2
R  34.6 
⎛ B ⎞⎛ T ⎞ 0.3 ⎛ 36 ⎞ 968  13
I2  I1 ⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎜ 1 ⎟  18   4 A m–1
⎝ B1 ⎠ ⎝ T2 ⎠ 0.9 ⎜⎝ 54 ⎟⎠ 20. Answer (3)
14. Answer (4) Vrms
Hint: Irms 
Hint and Sol.: For diamagnetic material, Z
susceptibility is independent of temperature and it is
negative. Sol.: Z  Req
2
 X C2  5 2 

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 6 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)

20 d E
Irms  Id   0
5 2 dt
 Electric field changing with time produces
Irms  2 2 A
magnetic field.
21. Answer (1) 27. Answer (1)
2 /  Hint: Stationary charge only produces electric field.
∫ I 2  dt Sol.: A charge moving with uniform velocity
2
Hint: Irms  0
2 / 
produces only electric and magnetic field. It does not
∫
0
dt produce time varying magnetic field.
28. Answer (4)
Sol.: I = K cost 1 B2
Hint: Average energy density U  0 E 2 
I0 K 2 20
Irms  
2 2
1
22. Answer (3) Sol.: Velocity of EM waves in a medium v =

Hint: At resonance X L  X C
Sol.: XL = XC Direction of propagation of EM wave is normal to the
 Z=R electric field vector and magnetic field vector.
29. Answer (1)
Vrms 220
Irms    10 A P
R 22 Hint: I 
VC = Irms × XC = 200 V 4r 2
23. Answer (2) 1 314
Sol.: I   1.25  103 W m–2
Hint: 0  1 2 2  4  3.14  (0.1)2
30. Answer (2)
1
Sol.: 12  Hint: Impulse = P
LC
2U 2  15  10 –2
1 1 Sol.: Impulse =   10 –9 N s
LC    2  10 – 5 s2/rad2 C 3  108
12 500  100
31. Answer (1)
24. Answer (4)  
Hint and Sol.: In a RL series, circuit V leads I. E B E
Hint: vˆ   and  v .
25. Answer (1) |E B | B
Hint: V 2  VR2  VC2
 1.5  1011
Sol.: V 2  VR2  VC2 Sol.: v    3  108 m/s
k 0.5  10 3

(141.4)2 = (100)2 + VC2 

 (100 2)  (100)  V2 2 2 
E  2  10 –7  3  10 8 sin 0.5  10 3 x  1.5  1011 t 
C

(100)2  2  (100)2  VC2 –i  Eˆ  jˆ

VC = 100 V Eˆ  kˆ ,
VR 100 
I  1A E  60 sin 0.5  103 x  1.5  1011 t  kˆ (V/m)
P 100
VC = IXC = IXC 32. Answer (1)

1 1 10 – 4 d E dV
100  ⇒ C  F Hint: Id  0  IC  C .
C 100  2  f  dt dt
26. Answer (4) dV
  Sol.: Id  C
Hint: ∫ B  dl   0 (IC  Id ) dt
  dV Id 2
Sol.: ∫ B  dl   0 (IC  Id )    5  105 V/ s
dt C 4  10 – 6

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Test - 6 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
33. Answer (4) 40. Answer (3)
 
Hint: B  ∫ B  dA  0 2I
Hint: BC 
4 R
0 2I
Sol.: B  0 2I  I
4 x Sol.: BP  sin 45  0  B0 ...(i)
4 L /2 2 L
0 I
for circular loop B ...(ii)

10 cm
I  2 R
L
R ...(iii)
2
dx 0 I I
x B 2   0 ...(iv)
2 L L
0 2I from eqn (i) and (iv)
d  dx 
4 x B = 2 2B0

0.2 m
dx  1 41. Answer (2)
 0 I ∫  0 I ln 2 = ln (2) × 10–7 Wb
20 0.1m x 2 10 m
Hint: T 
34. Answer (1)
   qB
Hint and Sol.:   l  (v  B )
⎛ m ⎞ ⎛ q ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞⎛ 2 ⎞ 1
Tp
35. Answer (3) Sol.:  ⎜ p ⎟ ⎜  ⎟  ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ 
Hint: Lines of induced electric field are closed curve. T ⎝ m ⎠ ⎜⎝ qp ⎟⎠ ⎝ 4 ⎠⎝ 1 ⎠ 2
Sol.: This field is produced by time varying 42. Answer (3)
magnetic field. Hint: Concept of Ampere’s circuit law.
This field is non-conservative in nature.  
36. Answer (1) Sol.: Magnetic field B, in ∫ B  dl   0I, is due all
dB current elements.
Hint:   – A .     
dt Hence, B  B1  B2  B3  B4 .
dB 43. Answer (1)
Sol.: Since, in loop region is zero.
dt Hint:  = Blv
Hence,  = 0 Sol.: Equivalent circuit
37. Answer (3)
  I I
Hint: B due to circular arc, B = 0 .
4 R
Sol.: B = B1 + B2 + B3 + B4 1, r1 2, r2 R
 I
B1  0 , B4  0
4  r1
0 I /2
B2   1 = 1.5 × 5 × 1 = 7.5 V
4 r1
2 = 1.5 × 10 × 1 = 15 V
0 I /2
B3   1r2  2 r1
4 r2 eq   10 V
r1  r2
0 ⎡   1⎤
B I⎢ – – ⎥ eq 10
4  ⎣ 2r2 2r1 r1 ⎦ I 
Re q 2
38. Answer (1) R
3
I
Hint: Vs  s
R 10
I 1A =
I 2
Sol.: R  s  103  R
Vs 3
39. Answer (1) 28
R= 
Hint and Sol.: Charge is independent of speed. 3

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 6 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
44. Answer (3) 50. Answer (1)
dI1 Hint: Organic compound, which may decompose on
Hint:   M 21 and M  L1L2 . or before its boiling point is purified by vacuum
dt
distillation.
Sol.: M  L  4L  2L Sol.: Glycerol decomposes before its boiling point.
dI 51. Answer (3)
 2  M 1  2LI0  cos t
dt Hint: First point of difference rule.

 2  2LI0  cos    LI0  Sol.:
3 9 7 5 3
2
1
45. Answer (1) 10 8 6 4
Hint: For decreasing current through Inductor.
2, 7, 8- trimethyldecane
52. Answer (3)
⇒

Hint: In ester, alkyl is written first, carboxylic acid is

Sol.: written when — COOH is not the part of main chain.
dI Sol.:
 2  103 10 F COOH
dt + – cyclopentanecarboxylic
A B acid
1A 2 5V
10 mH
VA – 2 – 5 + 20 – 10 = VB COOH
VA – VB = – 3 V
1
5 2 4-hydroxycyclopent-2
CHEMISTRY -encarboxylic acid
3
46. Answer (3) 4
HO
Hint: CFCs are responsible for ozone layer
depletion. CH 3 — O — C — CH 3 methyl ethanoate
Sol.: CO2  H2O  H2CO3
O
H2 O
NO2 
O
 HNO3
2
3
OCH2CH3
O2
SO2  SO3  H2O
 H2SO4 4
2 1-bromo-2-ethoxycyclopentane
47. Answer (4)
Hint: Greenhouse gases can trap heat. 5 1 Br
Sol.: H2O, CH4, O3 are green house gases.
48. Answer (1) 53. Answer (2)
Hint: 1°, 2°, 3° amides are different functional groups.
Hint : g equivalents of N = g equivalents of NH3
Sol.:
Sol.: Total number of milli equivalent of H2SO4
= (M × n) × V. O
⎛1 ⎞ CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — C — NH2
 ⎜  2 ⎟  80 = 80
⎝ 2 ⎠
number of milli equivalents of H 2SO 4 left after 1°amide O
⎛ 1 ⎞ 400
reaction with NH3  ⎜  30 ⎟  . CH3 — CH2 — C — NHCH3
⎝ 20 ⎠ 20
= 30 milli equivalent. 2°amide

50 14 54. Answer (3)

% N   100  10%
1000 7 O
49. Answer (3)
Hint: Ammonium phosphomolybdate forms yellow Hint: -H at sp 3 - carbon next to — C — or at
ppt. conjugated position should be present.

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Test - 6 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
Sol.: O 57. Answer (4)
Hint: More is the number of hyperconjugates greater
is the bond length of C = C.
No -H Sol.: x  9  H
y  No  H
z  3  H
So, order should be y < z < x.
O1 OH
58. Answer (4)
2 Hint: Larger alkyl, more branching and –ve charge
3 1,5 prototropy favour + I effect.
Sol.:
4
CH3 — < CH3 — CH2 —
5 < CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — (Larger alkyl)
H
 —
CH3 —  CH (– ve charge)
O 2

  — NH 
  — O ⎛ 1 ⎞
— CH 2 ⎜ I  ⎟
⎝ Electronegative ⎠
No, -H
CH3
O CH3 — C — > CH3 — CH — CH2 —
CH2 CH — C — H No, -H CH3 CH3
55. Answer (2)
Hint: Aromatic enol has greater enol content. > CH3 — CH2 — CH2—
Sol.: O OH 59. Answer (2)

º
Hint: More electron releasing group stabilizes the
carbocation more.
Sol.: Electron releasing tendency :
Antiaromatic
– NH2 > –OH > – OCH3 > – CH3
O OH
60. Answer (3)
Hint: H2,Pd-BaSO4 gives cis alkene from alkynes.

º 61. Answer (2)

Hint: C is in sp2 hybrid state.
O O HO OH H 2
sp orbital
Aromatic Sol.: C C
O H
H
No enol form 62. Answer (4)
Hint: Carbon bonded to two other carbons is
2°–carbon.
O OH
2°
Sol.: CH3 — CH2 — CH — CH3

º 63. Answer (1)

O OH Hint:
Non-aromatic Controlled oxidation of methane.
56. Answer (3)
Mo2O3
Hint: Compounds having same molecular formula, Sol.: CH4 + O2 HCHO + H2O .

but different functional groups are called functional
64. Answer (3)
group isomers.
Sol.: 1°, 2° and 3° amines are functional group Hint:
isomers. Deficiency of fluoride ion cause tooth decay.
Aldehyde and ketones are functional group isomers. 65. Answer (4)
1°, 2° and 3° amides are functional group isomers. Hint: Allene is a non planar molecule.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 6 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)

H H Attack at 3- position
Sol.: 1. C C C
H Non-planar
H E

CH2 — CH3 r
Er

2.
N N

E E

N N
r

3. H 2(or 4) position is electronically more rich, because

H
attack at this position is favoured due to more stable
resonating structures, as N does not bear +ve charge.
Steric repulsion 67. Answer (2)
2
Hint: Alkene with more number of -H atoms has
sp
2 sp
more number of hyperconjugative structures
CH CH2
therefore, more stable.
4. CH2 CH Sol.:
2
2 sp
sp (i)
66. Answer (2)
Hint: Electron density is maximum at 2, 4-position CH3 CH3
in pyridine. Hr r
CH3 — C — CH CH2 CH3 — C — CH — CH3
Sol.: Attack at 1- position
CH3 CH3

Er CH3
–
CH3 shift
CH3 — C — CH — CH3
N N E r
r
CH3
r r CH3
+
–H
CH3 — C C — CH3
N E N E
CH3
Attack at 2- position
(ii)
r
E CH3
Hr
Er C CH — CH2 — CH3
CH3
CH3
N N
CH3 — C — CH2 — CH2 — CH3
E E r
CH3
r r – Hr
N CH3 — C CH — CH2 — CH3
N

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Test - 6 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
(iii) 70. Answer (2)
 2 
3  sp , CF3  sp
3
Hint: CH
Hr
CH3 — CH2 — CH — CH CH2

3  %s character = 33%,
Sol.: CH
CH3
r   sp3 %scharacter = 25%
CH3 — CH2 — CH — CH — CH3 CF 3
–
H shift Free radical species contain unpaired electrons, so
CH3
CH3 they are paramagnetic in nature and highly reactive.
+ 71. Answer (2)
–H
CH3 — CH2 — C — CH2 — CH3 
Hint: HO — NO2  H2SO 4  H2O  NO2  HSO–4
CH3 — CH2 — C CH — CH3 72. Answer (2)
CH3 Hint: E attacks at electron rich position.
CH3
H
+ Ring
(iv) CH3 — CH — CH CH2 O deactivating group
CH3 C 
E attacks at ortho
r
CH3 — CH — CH — CH3 Sol.: and para positions
..
to – O
.. – group
O
CH3 Ring
hydride shift activating group
CH3 — C — CH2 — CH3
r
73. Answer (2)
CH3 Hint: Benzene is aromatic, Cyclooctatetraene is
+
–H non-planar tub-shaped.
CH3 — C CH — CH3 Sol.:
68. Answer (3)
Hint: Alkene with more number of -H is more Red hot
C6H6 or (B)
stable. Fe
Sol.: H2O
CaC2 C2H2
(A) Ni(CN)2
C8H8 or (C)

4-H 3-H 7-H 10-H

I. II. III. IV. Tub-shaped

(Non-aromatic)
1
Hhydrogenation  74. Answer (2)
Number of -H Hint: Intramolecular- H-bonding increases stability.
IV < III < I < II Sol.: Gauche form can show intramolecular
69. Answer (4) H-bonding.
Hint: More is the dispersal of charge by +I/+R or Intramolecular
OH
aromaticity, more is the stability of carbocation. H-bond
Sol.: H OH
r r r r r

H H
H
75. Answer (4)
Extended Antiaromatic Aromatic conjugate Non-conjugate Hint: Conformers may be found at every difference of
conjugate
angle.
III > IV > V > I > II
Sol.: Number of total conformations =  (infinite).

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 6 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
76. Answer (4) 81. Answer (3)
H H Hint: – NO2 is a meta-directing group.
Hint: C C C
Cl Cl
Non-planar NO2
H H
Sol.:  C C C C
Conc. H2SO4
Cl H Sol.: (A)
Same substituents Conc. HNO3
H
C
NO2
CH3

Cl2/Fe
CH3 Same (B)
Substituents
Cl
CH3
 C N
H OH 82. Answer (1)
Syn Hint: HComb.  Number of carbon atoms.
CH3 OH 83. Answer (4)
C N Hint: Terminal alkynes have acidic H, therefore, can
H react with Tollen’s reagent.
Anti 84. Answer (4)
77. Answer (3) Hint: Conformers differ in their potential energy.
Hint: Groups having lone pair, can show +R effect.
Sol.: Sol.: They have nearly same bond length, bond
energy and bond angles.
+ R group 85. Answer (1)
— OH, — NH2, — CH2, — OR, — NHCH3, Hint: In presence of O3 followed by hydrolysis with
Zn/H2O, reductive ozonolysis of alkene takes place.
— NHCOCH3
– R group Sol.:
O
O O O O
O3 O
— C — H, — C  N, — C — OH, — C — Cl,
O

— C — OCH3
O
78. Answer (1) Zn/H2O O
Hint: In electrolysis cation migrates to cathode and
undergo reduction.
Sol.: Cathode : 2H+ + 2e–  H2(g) or
O O
79. Delete
80. Answer (2) CH3 — C — CH2 — CH — CH2 — C — CH3
Hint: Acetylene on hydration gives acetaldehyde.
HgSO4 CH2 —
— CH CH3
Sol.: HC  CH + H2O
—

tautomerisation

H2SO4 
OH
86. Answer (2)
Hint: A planar cyclic conjugated system, having
(4n + 2)  delocalized electrons, is aromatic in
CH3CHO nature.

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Test - 6 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

– BIOLOGY
– 91. Answer (2)
Sol.: 8e , Antiaromatic
Hint: Genetic code is commaless and without
punctuations.
H Sol.: A codon is read in a contiguous or continuous
fashion in mRNA. There is no full stop or comma in
B (Empty p-orbital of boron) genetic code.
– 92. Answer (4)
6e , Aromatic system
Hint: Adenosine is a nucleoside.
Sol.: A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide in lacking
3
sp a phosphate group. It consists of a base and a
sugar. Base links with sugar through N-glycosidic
– – bond.
Not conjugated A nucleotide has a nitrogenous base, sugar and a
phosphate group.
93. Answer (4)
–
Hint: Methionine is coded by only one codon i.e.
4 e , Antiaromatic AUG which has dual functions.
Sol.: AUG codes for an amino acid methionine and
87. Answer (3) it also acts as initiation codon. As methionine is
coded by AUG only, it is non-degenerate codon.
Hint: Dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halide.
94. Answer (2)
Sol.: Hint: DNA polymerase has polymerisation activity in
Br 5  3 direction only.
Sol.: DNA polymerase adds nucleotides only in one
CH CH direction i.e. 5  3. Hence, the strand with
alc. KOH
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH2 + KBr + H2O 5  3 polarity is synthesized discontinuously.
95. Answer (4)
88. Answer (2)
Hint: There are mainly three types of RNA i.e. rRNA,
Hint: Substitution product is formed by saturated tRNA and mRNA.
hydrocarbon. Sol.: tRNA carries amino acids to the ribosomes or
Sol.: CnH2n + 2 mRNA during translation.
Molecular mass = 12n + (2n + 2) ×1 rRNA (ribosomal RNA) is a constituent of ribosomes.
mRNA is messenger RNA which carries/copies
86 = 14n + 2
information from DNA which is present in nucleus
n=6 and forms proteins in the cytoplasm.
So, alkane is C6H14. 23S rRNA and 28 S r-RNA play a catalytic role
Possible isomers are during protein synthesis. They help in catalysing
peptide bond formation between the amino acids.
CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — CH2 — CH2 — CH3
96. Answer (2)
 3 products
Hint: According to Chargaff’s rule
CH3 Amount of purines = Amount of pyrimidines,
A=T
CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — CH — CH3  5 products
G=C
CH3 CH3 Sol.: Chargaff’s rule is applicable for ds DNA only.
Here, A = T and G = C which shows it is a ds DNA.
CH3 — CH — CH — CH3  2 products 97. Answer (3)
89. Answer (4) Hint: The DNA strand which is used to synthesize
mRNA is called non-coding strand and the
Hint: CH4 cannot be prepared by Wurtz reaction.
complementary of it is called coding strand.
90. Answer (3)
Sol.: The sequence of mRNA is same as of the
Hint: CO 2 is not a chemical component of coding strand except uracil is present at place of
photochemical smog. thymine.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
98. Answer (3)
Hint: Codons present on mRNA are complementary
to anticodons of tRNA and code the type of amino
acids accordingly.
Sol.: tRNA has 3— AAA—5 anticodon.
mRNA will have 5— UUU—3codon.
UUU codon – codes for amino acid phenylalanine.
99. Answer (3)
Hint: In lac operon lactose functions as inducer. It
inactivates repressor protein by interaction.
Sol.: Inactive repressor cannot bind to the operator.
Hence RNA polymerase is free to bind with promoter
and finally transcription takes place.
100. Answer (1)
Hint: In prokaryotes, nucleus is absent.
Sol.: In prokaryotes both transcription and translation
occur in the cytoplasm only.
101. Answer (3)
Hint: During translation, formation of peptide bond is
catalysed by peptidyl transferase.
Sol.: Peptidyl transferase is a ribozyme
(RNA enzyme) or RNA catalyst.
102. Answer (1)
Sol.: Meselson and Stahl first time proved semi
conservative mode of DNA replication in a bacterium,
E. coli.
103. Answer (2)
Hint: RNA and DNA are nucleic acids.
Sol.: Ribozyme is a RNA enzyme not
proteinaceous. Hence it is a nucleic acid.
Spliceosomes are formed during splicing of primary
transcript.
HIV has RNA. It is a retrovirus.
Transformation was discovered by Griffith in
Diplococcus pneumoniae.
104. Answer (4)
Hint: Due to its packaging, heterochromatin takes
darker stain as compared to euchromatin.
Sol.: Heterochromatin is tightly packed region of
DNA which is transcriptionally inactive. As it is tightly
packed it gets darker stain.
105. Answer (3)
Hint: DNA is more stable as compared to RNA.
Sol.: RNA has free 2OH in sugar of every nucleotide
but in DNA it is not found. Hence RNA is easily
degradable as compared to DNA.
The experiment of Hershey and Chase proved clearly
that DNA is the genetic material. They used isotopes
of phosphorus and sulphur for their experiments. QB
bacteriophage is a RNA virus.
106. Answer (3)
Hint: RNA polymerase III mainly synthesizes tRNA,
few r-RNA and some other types of RNA.
Sol.: RNA polymerase III synthesizes tRNA,
5S rRNA, ScRNA and SnRNA.
12/16
Test - 6 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
107. Answer (1)
Hint: Allosomes are sex chromosomes. Apart from
sex chromosomes remaining are autosomes.
Sol.: Maximum number of genes are present on
chromosome 1(autosome) and minimum number of
genes are present on Y chromosome (an allosome).
108. Answer (3)
Hint: Polymorphism in DNA is variation at genetic
level.
Sol.: Polymorphism in DNA sequence is the basis
of DNA fingerprinting as it is unique to every
individual as well as basis for genetic mapping of
human genome too.
109. Answer (3)
Hint: Bulk DNA of human genome is satellite DNA.
Sol.: Less than 2% of human genome codes for
proteins. Satellite DNA which is major portion of
human DNA normally does not code for any protein.
110. Answer (1)
Hint: Central dogma of molecular biology is
unidirectional flow of information in two consecutive
steps.
Sol.: These two consecutive steps of Central Dogma
of molecular biology are transcription and translation.
HIV does not follow it because it is a retrovirus.
111. Answer (2)
Hint: M.S. Swaminathan introduced Mexican
varieties of wheat in India.
Sol.: Introduction of Mexican wheat varieties in India
culminated into green revolution. This was done by
M.S. Swaminathan.
Therefore M.S. Swaminathan is considered as father
of green revolution in India.
112. Answer (3)
Sol.: Jaya and Ratna are rice varieties.
Sonalika and Kalyan sona are wheat varieties that
were introduced in all wheat growing belts of India in
1963.
113. Answer (2)
Hint: Sugarcanes grown in South India had good
yield in reference to sugar content.
Sol.: They were originally grown in South India only.
They had thicker stem and good sugar content with
high yield.
114. Answer (3)
Sol.: The nutrient medium for tissue culture does not
have enzyme. Although it requires plant hormones
such as auxin and cytokinins.
115. Answer (1)
Sol.: Meristematic tissues from a diseased plant are
used to obtain healthy plants through tissue culture.
These cells don’t give time to viruses to multiply as
they divide continuously.
Test - 6 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
116. Answer (2)
Hint: Somatic hybridisation does not involve fusion of
gametes.
Sol.: Plant cells cannot fuse if they have cell wall.
First cell wall is removed to make them protoplast
and then fusion takes place. Two plant cells
belonging to different varieties, species and even
genera are taken in somatic hybridisation.
117. Answer (4)
Hint: It is a symbiotic association between fungi and
roots of higher plants.
Sol.: In this association, plant provides food and
shelter to the fungal partner and in return fungi
absorb phosphorus for the plants.
118. Answer (3)
Hint: Lactobacillus bacteria is found in curd.
Sol.: – It is a heterotrophic organism which
converts milk into curd.
– It does not fixes nitrogen in leguminous
plants, it is done by Rhizobium.
– Curd is more nutritious than milk as it
contains number of vitamins especially B12.
119. Answer (2)
Hint: Cyclosporin A is produced by Trichoderma
polysporum.
Sol.: It is a fungus.
120. Answer (3)
Sol.: Biogas is a mixture of methane, carbon
dioxide and hydrogen sulphide. Oxygen is not a
component of biogas.
121. Answer (3)
Hint: Methanogens help to produce gobar gas or
biogas.
Sol.: Methanogens are anaerobic and
chemoautotrophic.
122. Answer (3)
Hint: Primase is a modified RNA polymerase which
synthesizes RNA primers.
Sol.: Aminoacyl t-RNA synthetase is required to
activate the amino acids.
During replication, helicase unwinds the DNA double
helix and Okazaki fragments are joined by DNA
ligase.
123. Answer (4)
Hint: DNA is the genetic material.
Sol.: DNA from S-strain (heat killed) is transferred to
R-strain (alive) which made it virulent by formation of
a smooth polysaccharide coat i.e. capsule.
124. Answer (4)
Hint: In prokaryotes, the binding sequence of RNA
polymerase in DNA is called Pribnow box.
Sol.: It is 6 nucleotide bases long i.e. TATAAT and
located 10 bp upstream of start point.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
125. Answer (4)
Hint: Mutations can be induced with the help of
ionizing and non-ionizing radiations.
Sol.: Infrared radiations do not cause mutations. X
rays, -rays, -rays, -rays and UV-rays cause
mutations.
126. Answer (1)
Sol.: Yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) is used for
commercial production of ethanol.
127. Answer (3)
Hint: Toddy is made by fermenting sap from palm.
Sol.: This palm is Caryota urens.
128. Answer (4)
Hint: Monascus purpureus is a yeast.
Sol.: Streptococcus bacterium is used to obtain
streptokinase which is a clot buster.
129. Answer (1)
Hint: Cyanobacteria are autotrophs and can fix
nitrogen also.
Sol.: Oscillatoria is a cyanobacterium.
Clostridium, Rhizobium and Frankia are
heterotrophs.
130. Answer (1)
Sol.: Viruses are not biofertilisers. They are obligate
parasites.
131. Answer (4)
Hint: NPV are species specific.
Sol.: They don’t have negative impacts on non
targeted insects, plants, mammals, fishes and birds.
132. Answer (3)
Hint: Heterotrophic bacteria use organic matter from
other sources but autotrophic bacteria do not.
Sol.: Aerobic, heterotrophic bacteria and fungi are
useful in sewage treatment. Masses of these are
known as flocs. Autotrophic bacteria do not require
organic matter from others so they don’t do it.
133. Answer (3)
Hint: Trichoderma species are effective biocontrol
agents.
Sol.: Trichoderma species can control growth of
several fungi and bacteria (pathogens). They are free
living fungi found in root ecosystems.
134. Answer (2)
Hint: Higher BOD of water indicates more amount of
organic matter in it.
Sol.: More amount of the organic matter in the
sewage indicates its more pollution level and low
amount of dissolved oxygen.
135. Answer (2)
Hint: Activated sludge is the sediment in the settling
tank.
Sol.: It contains flocs (bacteria + fungi).
Both are aerobic.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
136. Answer (3)
Hint: Causative agent is commonly known as
roundworm.
Sol.: Ascaris lumbricoides infects intestine in human
beings and may cause anemia. Internal bleeding is
caused due to release of certain toxins by parasite.
Fever may be caused due to eosinophilia and
increase in number of parasite may cause intestinal
blockage.
137. Answer (3)
Hint: Identify the disease caused due to
carcinogens.
Sol.: Non-infectious/Non-communicable disease do
not spread to other persons by touch etc. Among
non-infectious diseases, cancer is the major cause
of death. Infectious/communicable diseases are
easily transmitted from one person to another, e.g.,
common cold, Hepatitis-B and ringworm.
138. Answer (3)
Hint: Vector of this disease is female Culex.
Sol.: Swelling of leg, foot and sometimes scrotum
due to lymphatic blockage is seen in filariasis.
Wuchereria bancrofti is the helminth responsible for
filariasis.
139. Answer (1)
Hint: Enzyme which is responsible for production of
viral DNA.
Sol.: Reverse transcriptase synthesises cDNA called
complementary DNA. DNA polymerase synthesises
a new strand of DNA complementary to an existing
DNA template in 5 to 3 direction. Protease acts on
protein.
140. Answer (3)
Hint: Tissue responsible for immune system of the
body.
Sol.: Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue is present
in lamina propria layer of mucous membrane of
digestive, respiratory and reproductive tract and
constitutes about 50% of total lymphoid tissue
present in our body.
141. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify the roundworm.
Sol.: Ascaris, an intestinal parasite causes
ascariasis. Fungi belonging to genera Microsporum,
Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are responsible for
ringworm infections.
142. Answer (1)
Hint: Evolutionary history of an organism is called
phylogeny.
Sol.: The study of history of life forms on Earth is
known as evolutionary biology. Ontogeny involves
study of developmental history of an organism/
embryo. ‘Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny’ is
Biogenetic law.
14/16
Test - 6 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
143. Answer (3)
Hint: Theory for origin of life is based entirely on
religious faith.
Sol.: Cosmozoic theory also known as panspermia
theory explains that life came on earth from other
planets in the form of spores. Theory of special
creation was based on conventional literature and
has no scientific data to support it. Theory of
spontaneous generation aimed to prove that life
arose from non-living matter.
144. Answer (2)
Hint: Acquired characters which affect only
somatoplasm are non inheritable.
Sol.: According to ‘Theory of germplasm’ changes in
germplasm affect the characteristics of future
generations as they are inheritable
145. Answer (4)
Hint: This principle is exploited by autoimmunity.
Sol.: Memory is responsible for secondary response
and anamnestic.
146. Answer (3)
Hint: Environmental conditions vary from place to
place.
Sol.: Basic evolutionary mechanisms remain the
same irrespective of time and place.
147. Answer (1)
Hint: It is a kind of change in genetic material.
Sol.: According to Hugo de Vries, a single large
mutation is known as saltation. Genetic drift includes
Founder’s effect and Bottleneck effect.
148. Answer (1)
Hint: Life travelled in the form of spores between
planets.
Sol.: Theory of panspermia is a debatable theory but
is largely supported by astronomers.
149. Answer (4)
Hint: This factor fixes a variation of adaptive value.
Sol.: Natural selection is the selection of organisms
by nature which are more vigorous and have high
reproductive fitness. Genetic mutations, genetic
recombination and change in chromosome number
are responsible for genetic variability.
150. Answer (4)
Hint: Analogous structures.
Sol.: Structures which have different origin but
perform same functions are known as analogous
structures. RuBisCO is universal enzyme in plants.
Kreb’s cycle is found in all eukaryotes having same
enzyme and blood proteins of human and apes are
similar. Similarity in protein and nucleotide sequence
represents molecular homology.
151. Answer (4)
Hint: Exposure to nature is actually exposure to
antigens.
Test - 6 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
Sol.: Children in metro cities have exposure to
environment that is protected from environmental
pollution from childhood. So they have less antigenic
stimulus. So, sensitivity of their body remains high
to allergens and pathogens present in nature.
152. Answer (4)
Hint: Main inflammatory mediator synthesized by
mast cells and basophils.
Sol.: In allergic reactions, histamine released by
mast cells is inflammatory in nature and responsible
for vasodilation and bronchoconstriction.
153. Answer (3)
Hint: T-lymphocytes which decrease in AIDS
patients and contain CD4 receptors on their surface.
Sol.: Helper T-cells synthesize different types of
lymphokines which activate killer T-cells for cell-
mediated immunity and B-lymphocytes to produce
antibodies. So T4 or TH cells are considered as
connecting link between CMI and AMI.
154. Answer (3)
Hint: Evolution shown by analogous organs.
Sol.: Development of similar functional
characteristics between members of unrelated
species in habitats with similar environmental
conditions located at different places result in
convergent evolution.
155. Answer (3)
Hint: Horse in which molar teeth are highly suitable
for grinding.
Sol.: Equus is the modern horse which arose from
Pliohippus in Pleistocene epoch.
Mesohippus – Oligocene epoch
Merychippus – Miocene epoch
Pliohippus – Pliocene epoch
Eohippus  Mesohippus  Merychippus 
Pliohippus  Pliohippus  Equus.
156. Answer (2)
Hint: Anabolic drugs affect size of testicles.
Sol.: Oligospermia is seen in males who abuse
anabolic steroids.
157. Answer (4)
Hint: Disorder in which lung alveoli collapse.
Sol.: Atelectasis is not caused due to cigarette
smoking but can be caused due to pneumothorax,
lack of lung surfactant or hydrothorax.
158. Answer (2)
Hint: Nicotine activates adrenal medulla to release
adrenaline.
Sol.: Tobacco chewing promotes release of
adrenaline and noradrenaline which act to increase
blood pressure.
159. Answer (2)
Hint: IgM is pentameric in nature.
Sol.: Being smallest in size, only IgG type of
antibodies pass across placenta to foetus.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
• IgA is found in all types of body secretions,
hence commonly known as secretory antibody.
• IgE is a mediator in allergic responses as it
activates histamine secreting cells.
160. Answer (2)
Hint: Smack slows down body functions.
Sol.: Receptors for cannabinoids are present in brain
but they affect the cardiovascular system of the body.
Heroin is a depressant and slows down body
functions.
161. Answer (4)
Hint: Cellular proto-oncogenes are found in normal
cells.
Sol.: Oncogens or carcinogens transform proto-
oncogenes into oncogenes.
162. Answer (2)
Hint: Mesozoic era is the age of reptiles.
Sol.: In Jurassic period, first the birds appeared.
163. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify an Australian marsupial.
Sol.: Lemur and spotted cuscus are placental
mammal and Australian marsupial respectively. Mole,
flying squirrel and bobcat are the examples of
placental mammals.
164. Answer (4)
Hint: Use Hardy-Weinberg principle.
Sol.: According to Hardy-Weinberg equation
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
p and q2 are frequency of dominant and recessive
2
individuals respectively. Similarly p + q = 1
 So frequency of q = 1 – p = 1 – 0.64 = 0.36
165. Answer (1)
Hint: Selective mating in a population can disturb
Hardy Weinberg equilibrium.
Sol.: Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium cannot be
maintained in presence of selective mating, genetic
recombination, gene flow, natural selection.
166. Answer (1)
Hint: Diversifying selection.
Sol.: In disruptive selection, both extremities of
phenotype are selected i.e., more individuals acquire
peripheral character value at both ends of distribution
curve and mean value gradually decreases. In
stabilizing selection, mean value is selected whereas
in directional selection only one extreme of
phenotype is selected.
167. Answer (4)
Hint: Predator selects the prey.
Sol.: Birds eat the type of moth which couldn’t
camouflage against the tree bark.
168. Answer (1)
Hint: Probably lived in East African grasslands.
Sol.: Australopithecines walked upright. Their fossils
were initially found in South Africa.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
169. Answer (3)
Hint: A period of Paleozoic era.
Sol.: According to geological time scale, Cycads and
dicotyledons originated from seed ferns in
Carboniferous period. Zosterophyllum originated from
tracheophyte ancestors. Herbaceous lycopods and
arborescent lycopods have common ancestors.
170. Answer (2)
Hint: Homo habilis is probably the first hominid
fossil in human evolution.
Sol.: Homo habilis - 650-800 cc
Homo erectus - 900 cc
Homo sapiens sapiens - 1400 cc
Homo sapiens fossilis - 1650 cc
171. Answer (3)
Hint: Recapitulation theory proposed by Ernst
Haeckel.
Sol.: Presence of tooth buds in the beak of birds is
an example of ‘Ontogeny repeats Phylogeny’.
Sudden appearance of ancestral characters after
many generation is known as atavism. Change in
genetic material is known as mutation and sudden
migration of organisms leading to change in allelic
frequency is known as genetic drift.
172. Answer (4)
Hint: Biochemical process takes place with the help
of chlorophyll.
Sol.: Photosynthesis in green plants results in
release of O2. Primitive type of photosynthesis in
which H2S is used in place of water and there is no
release of O 2 is known as anoxygenic
photosynthesis. In chemosynthesis, food is formed
by chemical reactions. Breakdown of food
substances to release energy is known as
respiration.
173. Answer (1)
Hint: Structures having same origin but different
functions.
Sol.: Forelimbs of humans, tigers, whales and bats
are homologous structures. Structures having
different origin but same function are known as
analogous organs. The structures which are present
but are not in functional form are known as vestigial
structures.
174. Answer (2)
Hint: Select a bacterial disease.
Sol.: Dengue, Chikungunya and Filariasis are spread
by mosquitoes whose larvae breed in water.
 
16/16
Test - 6 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
175. Answer (3)
Hint: Fossil of a bird containing teeth in its beak.
Sol.: The connecting links which are not alive today
and are found only in their fossil form are known as
missing links. eg. Archaeopteryx is a connecting link
between reptiles and birds. Hyracotherium is name
given to fossil of Ist horse. Sphenodon is a reptile
considered as living fossil.
176. Answer (4)
Hint: Reptiles that evolved from Pelycosaurs in
Permian period.
Sol.: Therapsids gave rise to mammals in Jurassic
period of Mesozoic era. Sauropsids and synapsids
evolved in Carboniferous period from early reptiles.
Thecodonts probably evolved into dinosaurs in
Triassic period of Mesozoic era.
177. Answer (4)
Hint: Resistance power of an organism present from
birth.
Sol.: Innate immunity is birth right of all organisms
present in a particular species. Antibody mediated
immunity is also known as humoral immunity.
Immunity in which T-lymphocytes become activated
to destroy foreign cells/organisms is known as
cellular immunity.
178. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify the factor which explain pattern and
mechanism of evolution.
Sol.: Branching descent points towards the concept
of common ancestory. The selection of ‘useful
variations’ by nature is the main mechanism of
evolution.
179. Answer (4)
Hint: Interferons act as cytokine barriers.
Sol.: Natural killer cells are modified lymphocytes to
kill cancer cells and participate as cellular barrier/2nd
line of defence of the body.
180. Answer (3)
Hint: This disease is caused due to a protozoan
infecting liver cells and RBCs.
Sol.: Black water disease is other name of
malignant tertian malaria caused due to Plasmodium
falciparum. Nitrate pollution causes blue baby
syndrome. Leishmania donovani is causative agent
of Kala azar. Yersinia pestis/Pasturella pestis
causes plague, commonly known as black death.

Test - 6 (Code F) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2019

TEST - 6 (Code F)
Test Date : 24/02/2019

ANSWERS
1. (1) 37. (1) 73. (1) 109. (4) 145. (3)
2. (3) 38. (1) 74. (4) 110. (2) 146. (2)
3. (1) 39. (1) 75. (2) 111. (1) 147. (3)
4. (3) 40. (4) 76. (3) 112. (3) 148. (1)
5. (2) 41. (4) 77. (2) 113. (2) 149. (4)
6. (3) 42. (4) 78. (4) 114. (3) 150. (1)
7. (1) 43. (3) 79. (4) 115. (2) 151. (1)
8. (1) 44. (4) 80. (3) 116. (1) 152. (4)
9. (3) 45. (1) 81. (2) 117. (3) 153. (2)
10. (1) 46. (3) 82. (3) 118. (3) 154. (2)
11. (3) 47. (4) 83. (2) 119. (1) 155. (4)
12. (1) 48. (2) 84. (3) 120. (3) 156. (2)
13. (4) 49. (3) 85. (3) 121. (3) 157. (2)
14. (1) 50. (2) 86. (1) 122. (4) 158. (2)
15. (1) 51. (1) 87. (3) 123. (2) 159. (4)
16. (2) 52. (4) 88. (1) 124. (1) 160. (2)
17. (1) 53. (4) 89. (4) 125. (3) 161. (3)
18. (4) 54. (1) 90. (3) 126. (1) 162. (3)
19. (1) 55. (3) 91. (2) 127. (3) 163. (3)
20. (4) 56. (2) 92. (2) 128. (3) 164. (4)
21. (1) 57.Delete 93. (3) 129. (3) 165. (4)
22. (4) 58. (1) 94. (3) 130. (2) 166. (4)
23. (2) 59. (3) 95. (4) 131. (4) 167. (4)
24. (3) 60. (4) 96. (1) 132. (2) 168. (1)
25. (1) 61. (4) 97. (1) 133. (4) 169. (1)
26. (3) 62. (2) 98. (4) 134. (4) 170. (3)
27. (2) 63. (2) 99. (3) 135. (2) 171. (4)
28. (1) 64. (2) 100. (1) 136. (3) 172. (2)
29. (2) 65. (2) 101. (4) 137. (4) 173. (3)
30. (4) 66. (2) 102. (4) 138. (4) 174. (1)
31. (3) 67. (4) 103. (4) 139. (4) 175. (4)
32. (4) 68. (3) 104. (3) 140. (4) 176. (3)
33. (1) 69. (2) 105. (3) 141. (3) 177. (1)
34. (2) 70. (2) 106. (3) 142. (2) 178. (3)
35. (2) 71. (4) 107. (2) 143. (1) 179. (3)
36. (3) 72. (3) 108. (3) 144. (4) 180. (3)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 6 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

4. Answer (3)
PHYSICS Hint: Concept of Ampere’s circuit law.
 
1. Answer (1) Sol.: Magnetic field B, in ∫ B  dl   0I, is due all
Hint: For decreasing current through Inductor.
current elements.
    
Hence, B  B1  B2  B3  B4 .
⇒ 5. Answer (2)
m
Sol.: Hint: T 
qB
dI
 2  103 10 F Tp ⎛ m ⎞ ⎛ q ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞⎛ 2 ⎞ 1
dt Sol.:  ⎜ p ⎟ ⎜  ⎟  ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ 
A + – B T ⎝ m ⎠ ⎜⎝ qp ⎟⎠ ⎝ 4 ⎠⎝ 1 ⎠ 2
1A 2 5V 6. Answer (3)
10 mH
VA – 2 – 5 + 20 – 10 = VB  2I
Hint: BC  0
VA – VB = – 3 V 4 R
2. Answer (3)  2I  I
Sol.: BP  0 sin 45  0  B0 ...(i)
dI 4 L /2 2 L
Hint:   M 21 1 and M  L1L2 .
dt  I
for circular loop B 0 ...(ii)
Sol.: M  L  4L  2L 2 R
L
dI1 R ...(iii)
2  M  2LI0  cos t 2
dt
0 I I
 B 2   0 ...(iv)
 2  2LI0  cos    LI0  2 L L
3 from eqn (i) and (iv)
3. Answer (1) B = 2 2B0
Hint:  = Blv 7. Answer (1)
Sol.: Equivalent circuit Hint and Sol.: Charge is independent of speed.
8. Answer (1)
I Is
Hint: Vs 
R
1, r1 2, r2 R Is
Sol.: R   103 
Vs
9. Answer (3)
1 = 1.5 × 5 × 1 = 7.5 V   I
Hint: B due to circular arc, B = 0 .
2 = 1.5 × 10 × 1 = 15 V 4 R
1r2  2 r1 Sol.: B = B1 + B2 + B3 + B4
eq   10 V
r1  r2 0 I
B1  , B4  0
eq 4  r1
10
I 
Re q 2 0 I /2
R B2  
3 4 r1
10 0 I /2
I 1A =
2 B3  
R 4 r2
3
28 0 ⎡   1⎤
R=  B I⎢ – – ⎥
3 4  ⎣ 2r2 2r1 r1 ⎦

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Test - 6 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
10. Answer (1)
–i  Eˆ  ˆj
dB
Hint:   – A . Eˆ  kˆ ,
dt 
E  60 sin 0.5  103 x  1.5  1011 t  kˆ (V/m)
dB
Sol.: Since, in loop region is zero. 16. Answer (2)
dt
Hence,  = 0 Hint: Impulse = P
11. Answer (3) 2U 2  15  10 –2
Sol.: Impulse =   10 –9 N s
Hint: Lines of induced electric field are closed curve. C 3  108
Sol.: This field is produced by time varying 17. Answer (1)
magnetic field. P
This field is non-conservative in nature. Hint: I 
4r 2
12. Answer (1)
   1 314
Hint and Sol.:   l  (v  B ) Sol.: I   1.25  103 W m–2
2  4  3.14  (0.1)2
13. Answer (4) 18. Answer (4)
 
Hint: B  ∫ B  dA 1 B2
Hint: Average energy density U  0 E 2 
0 2I 2 20
Sol.: B 
4 x 1
Sol.: Velocity of EM waves in a medium v =

Direction of propagation of EM wave is normal to the
electric field vector and magnetic field vector.
10 cm

I  19. Answer (1)

Hint: Stationary charge only produces electric field.
Sol.: A charge moving with uniform velocity produces
dx only electric and magnetic field. It does not produce
x time varying magnetic field.
20. Answer (4)
 
0 2I Hint: ∫ B  dl   0 (IC  Id )
d  dx   
4 x Sol.: ∫ B  dl   0 (IC  Id )
0
0.2 m
dx  1
 I ∫  0 I ln 2 = ln (2) × 10–7 Wb d E
20 0.1m x 2 10 Id   0
dt
14. Answer (1)  Electric field changing with time produces
magnetic field.
d E dV
Hint: Id  0  IC  C . 21. Answer (1)
dt dt
Hint: V 2  VR2  VC2
dV
Sol.: Id  C Sol.: V 2  VR2  VC2
dt
(141.4)2 = (100)2 + VC2
dV Id 2
   5  105 V/ s  (100 2)2  (100)2  VC2
dt C 4  10 – 6
15. Answer (1) (100)2  2  (100)2  VC2
 
E B E VC = 100 V
Hint: v 
ˆ  and  v .
|E B | B VR 100
I  1A
P 100
 1.5  1011
Sol.: v    3  108 m/s VC = IXC = IXC
k 0.5  103
 1 1 10 – 4
100  ⇒ C 

E  2  10 –7  3  10 8 sin 0.5  103 x  1.5  1011 t  C 100  2  f 
F

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 6 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
22. Answer (4) 28. Answer (1)
Hint and Sol.: In a RL series, circuit V leads I. VR
23. Answer (2) Hint: cos  .
VZ
Hint: 0  1 2
Sol.: VZ2  VR2  (VL ~ VC )2
1
Sol.: 12  (1000)2 = VR2  (1600 – 800)2
LC
VR = 600 V
1 1
LC    2  10 – 5 s2/rad2 600 3
12 500  100 cos     0.6
24. Answer (3) 1000 5
29. Answer (2)
Hint: At resonance X L  X C Hint: XL = L
Sol.: XL = XC
 Z=R Z1 R 2  (2f L )2
Sol.:  k
Vrms 220
Z2 R 2  16(2f L )2
Irms    10 A
R 22
0  k 1
VC = Irms × XC = 200 V
25. Answer (1) 30. Answer (4)
Hint: For ideal transformer VIn IIn = Vout Iout
2 / 

∫ I 2  dt
Sol.:
VIn Iout

Hint: I 2
rms  0
2 / 
Vout Iin
∫ dt
Vout I
0 For step up  1 ⇒ in  1
VIn Iout
Sol.: I = K cost
 IIn > Iout
K I0 So, current decreases in step up transformer.
Irms  
2 2 31. Answer (3)
  
26. Answer (3) Hint: Bnet   0 ( H  I )   0 (1   ) H
Vrms
Hint: Irms  Sol.: Bnet   0 H (1   )  4  10 – 6 (1  1999)
Z
 8   10 –3 T
Sol.: Z  R  X  5 2 
2
eq
2
C 32. Answer (4)
Hint and Sol.: For diamagnetic material,
20
Irms  susceptibility is independent of temperature and it is
5 2 negative.
33. Answer (1)
Irms  2 2 A
Hint: Curie’s Law
27. Answer (2) Sol.: Curie’s Law
2
Vrms R CB0
Hint: Pav  Irms
2
R 2
I
Z T
3 R CB1
Sol.: cos    I1  ...(i)
13 Z T1
CB2
13 I2  ...(ii)
Z R T2
3
2 I2 B2 T1
Vrms 9V 2 
Pav  R  I1 B1 T2
Z2 13R
⎛ B ⎞⎛ T ⎞ 0.3 ⎛ 36 ⎞
9  (220)2 I2  I1 ⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎜ 1 ⎟  18  ⎜ 54 ⎟  4 A m
–1
R  34.6  B T 0.9 ⎝ ⎠
968  13 ⎝ 1 ⎠⎝ 2 ⎠

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Test - 6 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
34. Answer (2) 39. Answer (1)
 Q  1
Hint: M  L Hint: e  B0  l 2
2m 2
2 l /3
2
Sol.: M 
Q
L
Sol.: eOB  ∫ B0 xdx   B0 l 2
9
...(i)
2m 0

1
Q Q ⎛2 ⎞ 2 and eOA  B0 l 2 ...(ii)
M I  mR 2 ⎟ 2 f0  f0R 2Q 18
2m 2m ⎜⎝ 5 ⎠ 5
1 B0l 2 1
35. Answer (2) VB – VA  [– 4  1]  – B0l 2
2 9 6
B 40. Answer (4)
Hint: tan 60 
BH Hint:  = MB sin 
B Sol.:
Sol.: tan 60 
BH
B  4  10– 2 T
N

BH
r 60° 0.01 m
S  = MB sin 
Bnet  = NIA B sin90°
B
B  3 BH 3
  1 1  10– 4  4  10–2
4
0 M  = 1.732 × 10 – 6 N m
3  0.4  10 – 4 
4 r 3 41. Answer (4)
Hint: Fleming’s Left hand rule
10– 7  5 3  10 –2
3  0.4  10 – 4  Sol.: v v cos45°
r3
v sin45°

1 45°
8  103 

°
r3
90
90°
90° =

1
r   5 cm
2  10
45° 45°
36. Answer (3)
 
v cos45°

Hint: U  – M  B 45°
Sol.: For equilibrium,  = 0
(1) For stable equilibrium, U = –MBcos0° = – 0.24 J v sin45°
(2) For unstable equilibrium, U = –MBcos180° = 0.24 J
Hence from the diagram deviation  = 90°.
37. Answer (1)
42. Answer (4)
Hint: Independent quantities conventionally used to     
specify the earth’s magnetic field. Hint: Fe  qE, Fm  q(V  B )
Sol.: Horizontal component (BH), angle of dip ()  
and angle of declination () are considered elements Sol.: Since v = 0 so F m = 0, Fe  qE i.e.
of earth’s magnetic field. 
E  0 but B may or may not be zero.
38. Answer (1)
43. Answer (3)
Bl ADv   
Hint: I  Hint and Sol.: F  q[v  B]
Req
44. Answer (4)
Bl ADv
Sol.: I Hint: Magnetic field lines are closer at regions where
Req
the magnetic field is strong.
10 –2  1 10 Sol.: Magnetic field lines are widely separated
I  1mA
102 where the magnetic field is weak.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 6 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
45. Answer (1) 50. Answer (2)
 Hint: A planar cyclic conjugated system, having
 Id  sin  (4n + 2)  delocalized electrons, is aromatic in
Hint: | dB |  0
4 r 2 nature.
Sol.: y –
Sol.:
P
–
8e , Antiaromatic
0.75 m

z H
z
B (Empty p-orbital of boron)
–
  Id  sin  10 –7  15  0.75  10 –2  1 6e , Aromatic system
| dB | = 0 =
4 r 2 (0.75)2
3
= 2 × 10 – 8 T sp
  
direction of dB is along (idl  r ) i .e. kˆ  ˆj  – iˆ .
– –
Not conjugated
CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (3)
–
Hint: CO 2 is not a chemical component of 4 e , Antiaromatic
photochemical smog.
47. Answer (4) 51. Answer (1)
Hint: CH4 cannot be prepared by Wurtz reaction. Hint: In presence of O3 followed by hydrolysis with
48. Answer (2) Zn/H2O, reductive ozonolysis of alkene takes place.
Hint: Substitution product is formed by saturated Sol.:
O
hydrocarbon. O
O3 O
Sol.: CnH2n + 2
Molecular mass = 12n + (2n + 2) ×1
86 = 14n + 2
n=6
O
So, alkane is C6H14. Zn/H2O O
Possible isomers are
CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — CH2 — CH2 — CH3
 3 products or
O O
CH3
CH3 — C — CH2 — CH — CH2 — C — CH3
CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — CH — CH3  5 products
CH3
CH3 CH3
52. Answer (4)
CH3 — CH — CH — CH3  2 products Hint: Conformers differ in their potential energy.
Sol.: They have nearly same bond length, bond
49. Answer (3) energy and bond angles.
Hint: Dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halide. 53. Answer (4)
Sol.: Hint: Terminal alkynes have acidic H, therefore, can
Br react with Tollen’s reagent.
54. Answer (1)
CH CH Hint: HComb.  Number of carbon atoms.
alc. KOH
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH2 + KBr + H2O 55. Answer (3)
Hint: – NO2 is a meta-directing group.

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Test - 6 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

Sol.: H H
NO2 Sol.:  C C C C
Cl H
Same substituents
Conc. H2SO4
(A)
Conc. HNO3 H
C
CH3
NO2 
CH3 Same
Cl2/Fe Substituents
(B)

Cl CH3
 C N
56. Answer (2) H OH
Hint: Acetylene on hydration gives acetaldehyde. Syn
Sol.:
CH3 OH
HgSO4 CH2 —
— CH C N
HC  CH + H2O H
—

tautomerisation
H2SO4 
OH Anti

61. Answer (4)

Hint: Conformers may be found at every difference of
angle.
CH3CHO
Sol.: Number of total conformations =  (infinite).
57. Delete 62. Answer (2)
58. Answer (1) Hint: Intramolecular- H-bonding increases stability.
Hint: In electrolysis cation migrates to cathode and Sol.: Gauche form can show intramolecular
undergo reduction. H-bonding.
Sol.: Cathode : 2H+ + 2e–  H2(g) Intramolecular
OH
59. Answer (3) H-bond
H OH
Hint: Groups having lone pair, can show +R effect.
Sol.:

+ R group H H
H
— OH, — NH2, — CH2, — OR, — NHCH3, 63. Answer (2)
Hint: Benzene is aromatic, Cyclooctatetraene is
— NHCOCH3 non-planar tub-shaped.
Sol.:
– R group
Red hot
O O O C6H6 or (B)
Fe
H2O
— C — H, — C  N, — C — OH, — C — Cl, CaC2 C2H2
O (A) Ni(CN)2
C8H8 or (C)
— C — OCH3

60. Answer (4)

H H
Hint: C C C
Cl Cl Tub-shaped
Non-planar (Non-aromatic)

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 6 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
64. Answer (2) Sol.:

Hint: E attacks at electron rich position. (i)
CH3 CH3
Ring r
O deactivating group Hr
CH3 — C — CH CH2 CH3 — C — CH — CH3
C
E attacks at ortho CH3 CH3
Sol.: and para positions
.. CH3
to – O
.. – group –
O CH3 shift
Ring CH3 — C — CH — CH3
activating group r
65. Answer (2) CH3
 CH3
Hint: HO — NO2  H2SO 4  H2O  NO2  HSO–4 +
–H
66. Answer (2) CH3 — C C — CH3

Hint: CH   sp3
 sp 2 , CF
3 3 CH3
(ii)

Sol.: CH3  %s character = 33%,
CH3

CF  sp3 %scharacter = 25% Hr
3 C CH — CH2 — CH3
Free radical species contain unpaired electrons, so CH3
CH3
they are paramagnetic in nature and highly reactive.
67. Answer (4) CH3 — C — CH2 — CH2 — CH3
Hint: More is the dispersal of charge by +I/+R or r
aromaticity, more is the stability of carbocation. CH3
Sol.: – Hr
r r r r r CH3 — C CH — CH2 — CH3
(iii)

Hr
CH3 — CH2 — CH — CH CH2
CH3
Extended Antiaromatic Aromatic conjugate Non-conjugate r
conjugate CH3 — CH2 — CH — CH — CH3
–
III > IV > V > I > II H shift
CH3
68. Answer (3) CH3
Hint: Alkene with more number of -H is more –H
+

stable. CH3 — CH2 — C — CH2 — CH3

Sol.:
CH3 — CH2 — C CH — CH3
CH3
CH3
+
H
(iv) CH3 — CH — CH CH2
4-H 3-H 7-H 10-H
CH3
I. II. III. IV. r
CH3 — CH — CH — CH3
1
Hhydrogenation 
Number of -H CH3
IV < III < I < II hydride shift
69. Answer (2) CH3 — C — CH2 — CH3
r
Hint: Alkene with more number of -H atoms has
CH3
more number of hyperconjugative structures +
therefore, more stable. –H
CH3 — C CH — CH3

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Test - 6 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
70. Answer (2) CH2 — CH3
Hint: Electron density is maximum at 2, 4-position
in pyridine. 2.
Sol.: Attack at 1- position

Er

N N E
r
3.
r r H
H

N E N E Steric repulsion

Attack at 2- position 4. 2
sp
2 sp
r CH CH2
E CH2 CH
Er
2
2 sp
sp
72. Answer (3)
N N Hint: Deficiency of fluoride ion cause tooth decay.
73. Answer (1)
E E
Hint: Controlled oxidation of methane.
Mo2O3
r r Sol.: CH4 + O2 HCHO + H2O .

N N
74. Answer (4)
Attack at 3- position Hint: Carbon bonded to two other carbons is
2°–carbon.
E 2°
Sol.: CH3 — CH2 — CH — CH3
r
Er 75. Answer (2)
Hint: C is in sp2 hybrid state.
N N Sol.:
H 2
sp orbital
E E
C C
H H
r
76. Answer (3)
Hint: H2,Pd-BaSO4 gives cis alkene from alkynes.
N N 77. Answer (2)
r
Hint: More electron releasing group stabilizes the
2(or 4) position is electronically more rich, because carbocation more.
attack at this position is favoured due to more stable Sol.: Electron releasing tendency :
resonating structures, as N does not bear +ve charge. – NH2 > –OH > – OCH3 > – CH3
71. Answer (4) 78. Answer (4)
Hint: Allene is a non planar molecule. Hint: Larger alkyl, more branching and –ve charge
Sol.: favour + I effect.
H H Sol.:
1. C C C CH3 — < CH3 — CH2 —
H Non-planar
H
< CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — (Larger alkyl)

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 6 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)

 — 82. Answer (3)

CH3 —  CH (– ve charge)
2
O
   ⎛ 1 ⎞
— CH 2  — NH  — O ⎜ I  ⎟ Hint: -H at sp 3 - carbon next to — C — or at
⎝ Electronegative ⎠ conjugated position should be present.
CH3 Sol.: O
CH3 — C — > CH3 — CH — CH2 —

CH3 CH3 No -H

> CH3 — CH2 — CH2—

O1 OH
79. Answer (4)
Hint: More is the number of hyperconjugates greater 2

is the bond length of C = C. 3 1,5 prototropy

Sol.: x  9  H 4
y  No  H
z  3  H 5
H
So, order should be y < z < x.
80. Answer (3) O
Hint: Compounds having same molecular formula,
but different functional groups are called functional
group isomers. No, -H
Sol.: 1°, 2° and 3° amines are functional group
O
isomers.
Aldehyde and ketones are functional group isomers. CH2 CH — C — H No, -H
1°, 2° and 3° amides are functional group isomers.
81. Answer (2) 83. Answer (2)
Hint: Aromatic enol has greater enol content. Hint: 1°, 2°, 3° amides are different functional groups.
Sol.:
Sol.: O OH
O
º CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — C — NH2
Antiaromatic

O OH 1°amide O

CH3 — CH2 — C — NHCH3

º 2°amide
O O HO OH 84. Answer (3)
Aromatic Hint: In ester, alkyl is written first, carboxylic acid is
written when — COOH is not the part of main chain.
O
Sol.:
No enol form COOH
cyclopentanecarboxylic
acid
O OH
COOH

º
1

5 2
4-hydroxycyclopent-2
-encarboxylic acid
O OH 3
Non-aromatic 4
HO

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Test - 6 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

CH 3 — O — C — CH 3 methyl ethanoate
BIOLOGY
O 91. Answer (2)
3 Hint: Activated sludge is the sediment in the settling
OCH2CH3 tank.
4
2 1-bromo-2-ethoxycyclopentane Sol.: It contains flocs (bacteria + fungi).
Both are aerobic.
5 1 Br 92. Answer (2)
85. Answer (3) Hint: Higher BOD of water indicates more amount of
organic matter in it.
Hint: First point of difference rule.
Sol.: More amount of the organic matter in the
Sol.: sewage indicates its more pollution level and low
9 7 5 3
1 amount of dissolved oxygen.
2
10 8 6 4 93. Answer (3)
Hint: Trichoderma species are effective biocontrol
2, 7, 8- trimethyldecane agents.
86. Answer (1) Sol.: Trichoderma species can control growth of
Hint: Organic compound, which may decompose on several fungi and bacteria (pathogens). They are free
or before its boiling point is purified by vacuum living fungi found in root ecosystems.
94. Answer (3)
distillation.
Hint: Heterotrophic bacteria use organic matter from
Sol.: Glycerol decomposes before its boiling point. other sources but autotrophic bacteria do not.
87. Answer (3) Sol.: Aerobic, heterotrophic bacteria and fungi are
Hint: Ammonium phosphomolybdate forms yellow useful in sewage treatment. Masses of these are
ppt. known as flocs. Autotrophic bacteria do not require
88. Answer (1) organic matter from others so they don’t do it.
95. Answer (4)
Hint : g equivalents of N = g equivalents of NH3
Hint: NPV are species specific.
Sol.: Total number of milli equivalent of H2SO4
Sol.: They don’t have negative impacts on non
= (M × n) × V.
targeted insects, plants, mammals, fishes and birds.
⎛1 ⎞ 96. Answer (1)
=  ⎜  2 ⎟  80 Sol.: Viruses are not biofertilisers. They are obligate
⎝2 ⎠
parasites.
= 80 97. Answer (1)
number of milli equivalents of H 2SO 4 left after Hint: Cyanobacteria are autotrophs and can fix
nitrogen also.
⎛ 1 ⎞ 400 Sol.: Oscillatoria is a cyanobacterium.
reaction with NH3  ⎜  30 ⎟  .
⎝ 20 ⎠ 20 Clostridium, Rhizobium and Frankia are
heterotrophs.
= 30 milli equivalent.
98. Answer (4)
50 14 Hint: Monascus purpureus is a yeast.
% N   100  10% Sol.: Streptococcus bacterium is used to obtain
1000 7
streptokinase which is a clot buster.
89. Answer (4) 99. Answer (3)
Hint: Greenhouse gases can trap heat. Hint: Toddy is made by fermenting sap from palm.
Sol.: H2O, CH4, O3 are green house gases. Sol.: This palm is Caryota urens.
90. Answer (3) 100. Answer (1)
Hint: CFCs are responsible for ozone layer Sol.: Yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) is used for
depletion. commercial production of ethanol.
101. Answer (4)
Sol.: CO2  H2O  H2CO3 Hint: Mutations can be induced with the help of
H2 O ionizing and non-ionizing radiations.
NO2 
O
 HNO3 Sol.: Infrared radiations do not cause mutations. X
2

rays, -rays, -rays, -rays and UV-rays cause

O2
SO2  H2O
SO3   H2SO4 mutations.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
102. Answer (4)
Hint: In prokaryotes, the binding sequence of RNA
polymerase in DNA is called Pribnow box.
Sol.: It is 6 nucleotide bases long i.e. TATAAT and
located 10 bp upstream of start point.
103. Answer (4)
Hint: DNA is the genetic material.
Sol.: DNA from S-strain (heat killed) is transferred to
R-strain (alive) which made it virulent by formation of
a smooth polysaccharide coat i.e. capsule.
104. Answer (3)
Hint: Primase is a modified RNA polymerase which
synthesizes RNA primers.
Sol.: Aminoacyl t-RNA synthetase is required to
activate the amino acids.
During replication, helicase unwinds the DNA double
helix and Okazaki fragments are joined by DNA
ligase.
105. Answer (3)
Hint: Methanogens help to produce gobar gas or
biogas.
Sol.: Methanogens are anaerobic and
chemoautotrophic.
106. Answer (3)
Sol.: Biogas is a mixture of methane, carbon
dioxide and hydrogen sulphide. Oxygen is not a
component of biogas.
107. Answer (2)
Hint: Cyclosporin A is produced by Trichoderma
polysporum.
Sol.: It is a fungus.
108. Answer (3)
Hint: Lactobacillus bacteria is found in curd.
Sol.: – It is a heterotrophic organism which
converts milk into curd.
– It does not fixes nitrogen in leguminous
plants, it is done by Rhizobium.
– Curd is more nutritious than milk as it
contains number of vitamins especially B12.
109. Answer (4)
Hint: It is a symbiotic association between fungi and
roots of higher plants.
Sol.: In this association, plant provides food and
shelter to the fungal partner and in return fungi
absorb phosphorus for the plants.
110. Answer (2)
Hint: Somatic hybridisation does not involve fusion of
gametes.
Sol.: Plant cells cannot fuse if they have cell wall.
First cell wall is removed to make them protoplast
and then fusion takes place. Two plant cells
belonging to different varieties, species and even
genera are taken in somatic hybridisation.
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Test - 6 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
111. Answer (1)
Sol.: Meristematic tissues from a diseased plant are
used to obtain healthy plants through tissue culture.
These cells don’t give time to viruses to multiply as
they divide continuously.
112. Answer (3)
Sol.: The nutrient medium for tissue culture does not
have enzyme. Although it requires plant hormones
such as auxin and cytokinins.
113. Answer (2)
Hint: Sugarcanes grown in South India had good
yield in reference to sugar content.
Sol.: They were originally grown in South India only.
They had thicker stem and good sugar content with
high yield.
114. Answer (3)
Sol.: Jaya and Ratna are rice varieties.
Sonalika and Kalyan sona are wheat varieties that
were introduced in all wheat growing belts of India in
1963.
115. Answer (2)
Hint: M.S. Swaminathan introduced Mexican
varieties of wheat in India.
Sol.: Introduction of Mexican wheat varieties in India
culminated into green revolution. This was done by
M.S. Swaminathan.
Therefore M.S. Swaminathan is considered as father
of green revolution in India.
116. Answer (1)
Hint: Central dogma of molecular biology is
unidirectional flow of information in two consecutive
steps.
Sol.: These two consecutive steps of Central Dogma
of molecular biology are transcription and translation.
HIV does not follow it because it is a retrovirus.
117. Answer (3)
Hint: Bulk DNA of human genome is satellite DNA.
Sol.: Less than 2% of human genome codes for
proteins. Satellite DNA which is major portion of
human DNA normally does not code for any protein.
118. Answer (3)
Hint: Polymorphism in DNA is variation at genetic
level.
Sol.: Polymorphism in DNA sequence is the basis
of DNA fingerprinting as it is unique to every
individual as well as basis for genetic mapping of
human genome too.
119. Answer (1)
Hint: Allosomes are sex chromosomes. Apart from
sex chromosomes remaining are autosomes.
Sol.: Maximum number of genes are present on
chromosome 1(autosome) and minimum number of
genes are present on Y chromosome (an allosome).
Test - 6 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
120. Answer (3)
Hint: RNA polymerase III mainly synthesizes tRNA,
few r-RNA and some other types of RNA.
Sol.: RNA polymerase III synthesizes tRNA,
5S rRNA, ScRNA and SnRNA.
121. Answer (3)
Hint: DNA is more stable as compared to RNA.
Sol.: RNA has free 2OH in sugar of every nucleotide
but in DNA it is not found. Hence RNA is easily
degradable as compared to DNA.
The experiment of Hershey and Chase proved clearly
that DNA is the genetic material. They used isotopes
of phosphorus and sulphur for their experiments. QB
bacteriophage is a RNA virus.
122. Answer (4)
Hint: Due to its packaging, heterochromatin takes
darker stain as compared to euchromatin.
Sol.: Heterochromatin is tightly packed region of
DNA which is transcriptionally inactive. As it is tightly
packed it gets darker stain.
123. Answer (2)
Hint: RNA and DNA are nucleic acids.
Sol.: Ribozyme is a RNA enzyme not
proteinaceous. Hence it is a nucleic acid.
Spliceosomes are formed during splicing of primary
transcript.
HIV has RNA. It is a retrovirus.
Transformation was discovered by Griffith in
Diplococcus pneumoniae.
124. Answer (1)
Sol.: Meselson and Stahl first time proved semi
conservative mode of DNA replication in a bacterium,
E. coli.
125. Answer (3)
Hint: During translation, formation of peptide bond is
catalysed by peptidyl transferase.
Sol.: Peptidyl transferase is a ribozyme
(RNA enzyme) or RNA catalyst.
126. Answer (1)
Hint: In prokaryotes, nucleus is absent.
Sol.: In prokaryotes both transcription and translation
occur in the cytoplasm only.
127. Answer (3)
Hint: In lac operon lactose functions as inducer. It
inactivates repressor protein by interaction.
Sol.: Inactive repressor cannot bind to the operator.
Hence RNA polymerase is free to bind with promoter
and finally transcription takes place.
128. Answer (3)
Hint: Codons present on mRNA are complementary
to anticodons of tRNA and code the type of amino
acids accordingly.
Sol.: tRNA has 3— AAA—5 anticodon.
mRNA will have 5— UUU—3codon.
UUU codon – codes for amino acid phenylalanine.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
129. Answer (3)
Hint: The DNA strand which is used to synthesize
mRNA is called non-coding strand and the
complementary of it is called coding strand.
Sol.: The sequence of mRNA is same as of the
coding strand except uracil is present at place of
thymine.
130. Answer (2)
Hint: According to Chargaff’s rule
Amount of purines = Amount of pyrimidines,
A=T
G=C
Sol.: Chargaff’s rule is applicable for ds DNA only.
Here, A = T and G = C which shows it is a ds DNA.
131. Answer (4)
Hint: There are mainly three types of RNA i.e. rRNA,
tRNA and mRNA.
Sol.: tRNA carries amino acids to the ribosomes or
mRNA during translation.
rRNA (ribosomal RNA) is a constituent of ribosomes.
mRNA is messenger RNA which carries/copies
information from DNA which is present in nucleus
and forms proteins in the cytoplasm.
23S rRNA and 28 S r-RNA play a catalytic role
during protein synthesis. They help in catalysing
peptide bond formation between the amino acids.
132. Answer (2)
Hint: DNA polymerase has polymerisation activity in
5  3 direction only.
Sol.: DNA polymerase adds nucleotides only in one
direction i.e. 5  3. Hence, the strand with
5  3 polarity is synthesized discontinuously.
133. Answer (4)
Hint: Methionine is coded by only one codon i.e.
AUG which has dual functions.
Sol.: AUG codes for an amino acid methionine and
it also acts as initiation codon. As methionine is
coded by AUG only, it is non-degenerate codon.
134. Answer (4)
Hint: Adenosine is a nucleoside.
Sol.: A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide in lacking
a phosphate group. It consists of a base and a
sugar. Base links with sugar through N-glycosidic
bond.
A nucleotide has a nitrogenous base, sugar and a
phosphate group.
135. Answer (2)
Hint: Genetic code is commaless and without
punctuations.
Sol.: A codon is read in a contiguous or continuous
fashion in mRNA. There is no full stop or comma in
genetic code.
136. Answer (3)
Hint: This disease is caused due to a protozoan
infecting liver cells and RBCs.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
Sol.: Black water disease is other name of
malignant tertian malaria caused due to Plasmodium
falciparum. Nitrate pollution causes blue baby
syndrome. Leishmania donovani is causative agent
of Kala azar. Yersinia pestis/Pasturella pestis
causes plague, commonly known as black death.
137. Answer (4)
Hint: Interferons act as cytokine barriers.
Sol.: Natural killer cells are modified lymphocytes to
kill cancer cells and participate as cellular barrier/2nd
line of defence of the body.
138. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify the factor which explain pattern and
mechanism of evolution.
Sol.: Branching descent points towards the concept
of common ancestory. The selection of ‘useful
variations’ by nature is the main mechanism of
evolution.
139. Answer (4)
Hint: Resistance power of an organism present from
birth.
Sol.: Innate immunity is birth right of all organisms
present in a particular species. Antibody mediated
immunity is also known as humoral immunity.
Immunity in which T-lymphocytes become activated
to destroy foreign cells/organisms is known as
cellular immunity.
140. Answer (4)
Hint: Reptiles that evolved from Pelycosaurs in
Permian period.
Sol.: Therapsids gave rise to mammals in Jurassic
period of Mesozoic era. Sauropsids and synapsids
evolved in Carboniferous period from early reptiles.
Thecodonts probably evolved into dinosaurs in
Triassic period of Mesozoic era.
141. Answer (3)
Hint: Fossil of a bird containing teeth in its beak.
Sol.: The connecting links which are not alive today
and are found only in their fossil form are known as
missing links. eg. Archaeopteryx is a connecting link
between reptiles and birds. Hyracotherium is name
given to fossil of Ist horse. Sphenodon is a reptile
considered as living fossil.
142. Answer (2)
Hint: Select a bacterial disease.
Sol.: Dengue, Chikungunya and Filariasis are spread
by mosquitoes whose larvae breed in water.
143. Answer (1)
Hint: Structures having same origin but different
functions.
Sol.: Forelimbs of humans, tigers, whales and bats
are homologous structures. Structures having
different origin but same function are known as
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Test - 6 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
analogous organs. The structures which are present
but are not in functional form are known as vestigial
structures.
144. Answer (4)
Hint: Biochemical process takes place with the help
of chlorophyll.
Sol.: Photosynthesis in green plants results in
release of O2. Primitive type of photosynthesis in
which H2S is used in place of water and there is no
release of O 2 is known as anoxygenic
photosynthesis. In chemosynthesis, food is formed
by chemical reactions. Breakdown of food
substances to release energy is known as
respiration.
145. Answer (3)
Hint: Recapitulation theory proposed by Ernst
Haeckel.
Sol.: Presence of tooth buds in the beak of birds is
an example of ‘Ontogeny repeats Phylogeny’.
Sudden appearance of ancestral characters after
many generation is known as atavism. Change in
genetic material is known as mutation and sudden
migration of organisms leading to change in allelic
frequency is known as genetic drift.
146. Answer (2)
Hint: Homo habilis is probably the first hominid
fossil in human evolution.
Sol.: Homo habilis - 650-800 cc
Homo erectus - 900 cc
Homo sapiens sapiens - 1400 cc
Homo sapiens fossilis - 1650 cc
147. Answer (3)
Hint: A period of Paleozoic era.
Sol.: According to geological time scale, Cycads and
dicotyledons originated from seed ferns in
Carboniferous period. Zosterophyllum originated from
tracheophyte ancestors. Herbaceous lycopods and
arborescent lycopods have common ancestors.
148. Answer (1)
Hint: Probably lived in East African grasslands.
Sol.: Australopithecines walked upright. Their fossils
were initially found in South Africa.
149. Answer (4)
Hint: Predator selects the prey.
Sol.: Birds eat the type of moth which couldn’t
camouflage against the tree bark.
150. Answer (1)
Hint: Diversifying selection.
Sol.: In disruptive selection, both extremities of
phenotype are selected i.e., more individuals acquire
peripheral character value at both ends of distribution
curve and mean value gradually decreases. In
stabilizing selection, mean value is selected whereas
in directional selection only one extreme of
phenotype is selected.
Test - 6 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
151. Answer (1)
Hint: Selective mating in a population can disturb
Hardy Weinberg equilibrium.
Sol.: Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium cannot be
maintained in presence of selective mating, genetic
recombination, gene flow, natural selection.
152. Answer (4)
Hint: Use Hardy-Weinberg principle.
Sol.: According to Hardy-Weinberg equation
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
p and q2 are frequency of dominant and recessive
2 Merychippus – Miocene epoch
individuals respectively. Similarly p + q = 1
 So frequency of q = 1 – p = 1 – 0.64 = 0.36
153. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify an Australian marsupial.
Sol.: Lemur and spotted cuscus are placental
mammal and Australian marsupial respectively. Mole,
flying squirrel and bobcat are the examples of
placental mammals.
154. Answer (2)
Hint: Mesozoic era is the age of reptiles.
Sol.: In Jurassic period, first the birds appeared.
155. Answer (4)
Hint: Cellular proto-oncogenes are found in normal
cells.
Sol.: Oncogens or carcinogens transform proto-
oncogenes into oncogenes.
156. Answer (2)
Hint: Smack slows down body functions.
Sol.: Receptors for cannabinoids are present in brain
but they affect the cardiovascular system of the body.
Heroin is a depressant and slows down body
functions.
157. Answer (2)
Hint: IgM is pentameric in nature.
Sol.: Being smallest in size, only IgG type of
antibodies pass across placenta to foetus.
• IgA is found in all types of body secretions,
hence commonly known as secretory antibody.
• IgE is a mediator in allergic responses as it
activates histamine secreting cells.
158. Answer (2)
Hint: Nicotine activates adrenal medulla to release
adrenaline.
Sol.: Tobacco chewing promotes release of
adrenaline and noradrenaline which act to increase
blood pressure.
159. Answer (4)
Hint: Disorder in which lung alveoli collapse.
Sol.: Atelectasis is not caused due to cigarette
smoking but can be caused due to pneumothorax,
lack of lung surfactant or hydrothorax.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
160. Answer (2)
Hint: Anabolic drugs affect size of testicles.
Sol.: Oligospermia is seen in males who abuse
anabolic steroids.
161. Answer (3)
Hint: Horse in which molar teeth are highly suitable
for grinding.
Sol.: Equus is the modern horse which arose from
Pliohippus in Pleistocene epoch.
Mesohippus – Oligocene epoch
Pliohippus – Pliocene epoch
Eohippus  Mesohippus  Merychippus 
Pliohippus  Pliohippus  Equus.
162. Answer (3)
Hint: Evolution shown by analogous organs.
Sol.: Development of similar functional
characteristics between members of unrelated
species in habitats with similar environmental
conditions located at different places result in
convergent evolution.
163. Answer (3)
Hint: T-lymphocytes which decrease in AIDS
patients and contain CD4 receptors on their surface.
Sol.: Helper T-cells synthesize different types of
lymphokines which activate killer T-cells for cell-
mediated immunity and B-lymphocytes to produce
antibodies. So T4 or TH cells are considered as
connecting link between CMI and AMI.
164. Answer (4)
Hint: Main inflammatory mediator synthesized by
mast cells and basophils.
Sol.: In allergic reactions, histamine released by
mast cells is inflammatory in nature and responsible
for vasodilation and bronchoconstriction.
165. Answer (4)
Hint: Exposure to nature is actually exposure to
antigens.
Sol.: Children in metro cities have exposure to
environment that is protected from environmental
pollution from childhood. So they have less antigenic
stimulus. So, sensitivity of their body remains high
to allergens and pathogens present in nature.
166. Answer (4)
Hint: Analogous structures.
Sol.: Structures which have different origin but
perform same functions are known as analogous
structures. RuBisCO is universal enzyme in plants.
Kreb’s cycle is found in all eukaryotes having same
enzyme and blood proteins of human and apes are
similar. Similarity in protein and nucleotide sequence
represents molecular homology.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
167. Answer (4)
Hint: This factor fixes a variation of adaptive value.
Sol.: Natural selection is the selection of organisms
by nature which are more vigorous and have high
reproductive fitness. Genetic mutations, genetic
recombination and change in chromosome number
are responsible for genetic variability.
168. Answer (1)
Hint: Life travelled in the form of spores between
planets.
Sol.: Theory of panspermia is a debatable theory but
is largely supported by astronomers.
169. Answer (1)
Hint: It is a kind of change in genetic material.
Sol.: According to Hugo de Vries, a single large
mutation is known as saltation. Genetic drift includes
Founder’s effect and Bottleneck effect.
170. Answer (3)
Hint: Environmental conditions vary from place to
place.
Sol.: Basic evolutionary mechanisms remain the
same irrespective of time and place.
171. Answer (4)
Hint: This principle is exploited by autoimmunity.
Sol.: Memory is responsible for secondary response
and anamnestic.
172. Answer (2)
Hint: Acquired characters which affect only
somatoplasm are non inheritable.
Sol.: According to ‘Theory of germplasm’ changes in
germplasm affect the characteristics of future
generations as they are inheritable
173. Answer (3)
Hint: Theory for origin of life is based entirely on
religious faith.
Sol.: Cosmozoic theory also known as panspermia
theory explains that life came on earth from other
planets in the form of spores. Theory of special
creation was based on conventional literature and
has no scientific data to support it. Theory of
spontaneous generation aimed to prove that life
arose from non-living matter.
174. Answer (1)
Hint: Evolutionary history of an organism is called
phylogeny.
Sol.: The study of history of life forms on Earth is
known as evolutionary biology. Ontogeny involves
study of developmental history of an organism/
 
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Test - 6 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
embryo. ‘Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny’ is
Biogenetic law.
175. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify the roundworm.
Sol.: Ascaris, an intestinal parasite causes
ascariasis. Fungi belonging to genera Microsporum,
Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are responsible for
ringworm infections.
176. Answer (3)
Hint: Tissue responsible for immune system of the
body.
Sol.: Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue is present
in lamina propria layer of mucous membrane of
digestive, respiratory and reproductive tract and
constitutes about 50% of total lymphoid tissue
present in our body.
177. Answer (1)
Hint: Enzyme which is responsible for production of
viral DNA.
Sol.: Reverse transcriptase synthesises cDNA called
complementary DNA. DNA polymerase synthesises
a new strand of DNA complementary to an existing
DNA template in 5 to 3 direction. Protease acts on
protein.
178. Answer (3)
Hint: Vector of this disease is female Culex.
Sol.: Swelling of leg, foot and sometimes scrotum
due to lymphatic blockage is seen in filariasis.
Wuchereria bancrofti is the helminth responsible for
filariasis.
179. Answer (3)
Hint: Identify the disease caused due to
carcinogens.
Sol.: Non-infectious/Non-communicable disease do
not spread to other persons by touch etc. Among
non-infectious diseases, cancer is the major cause
of death. Infectious/communicable diseases are
easily transmitted from one person to another, e.g.,
common cold, Hepatitis-B and ringworm.
180. Answer (3)
Hint: Causative agent is commonly known as
roundworm.
Sol.: Ascaris lumbricoides infects intestine in human
beings and may cause anemia. Internal bleeding is
caused due to release of certain toxins by parasite.
Fever may be caused due to eosinophilia and
increase in number of parasite may cause intestinal
blockage.