PRACTICE EXERCISE
Q.1 The genome sequencing of
which virus has been recently
done by Indian scientists?
(A) Hepatitis C
(B) Hepatitis B
(C) HIV
(D) Flu Virus
Q.2 Net growth rate of population
is determined by
(A) Gross reproduction rate
(B) The birth rate and the
death rate
(C) The pressure
population
(D) The birth rate in
country
Q.3 APSARA is the name of
India’s first
(A) Nuclear reactor
(B) Helicopter
(C) Ground battle tank
(D) Railway locomotive
Q.4 Which of the following parts
of the sunlight makes the
solar cooker hot?
(A) Ultraviolet
(B) Red light rays
(C) Infrared
(D) Cosmic rays
Q.5 Human Genome Project
endeavours to
(A) Decode DNA
(B) Invent AIDS treatment
(C) Study evolution of
human
(D) Study finger prints
Q.6 The Green revolution in
crops, Yellow revolution in
oil seeds and Golden
revolution in ……. Has been
an ample testimony to the
contributions of agricultural
research and development
efforts undertaken in the
country.
(A) Horticulture
of (B) Wheat
(C) Petrol
a (D) None of these
Q.7 Which of the following does
not come as a product of
vehicular pollution?
(A) Sulphur dioxide
(B) Nitrogen oxide
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Hydrogen peroxide
Q.8 Which one of the following
does a TV remote control unit
use to operate a TV set?
(A) Light waves
(B) Sound waves
(C) Microwaves
(D) Radio waves
Q.9 Under Indian space program,
the abbreviation GSLV stands
for
 (A) Geosynchronous used as an antiseptic in mouth
Satellite Launch Vehicle washes and tooth pastes?
(B) Global Satellite Link (A) Borax
Vehicle (B) Salt Petre
(C) Geostationary Solar (C) Hydrogen peroxide
Light Vehicle
(D) Sodium chloride
(D) None of these
Q.14 Anthrax is one of the most
Q.10 Centre for DNA potent biological weapons in
Fingerprinting and the world. It is spread by
Diagnostics (CDFD) is single bacterium called
located at
(A) Bacillus thuricide
(A) Delhi
(B) Bacillus anthratum
(B) Kolkata
(C) Thiobacillus
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Bacillus anthracis
(D) Chennai
Q.15 ‘Threat of global warming’ is
Q.11 The Russian nuclear increasing due to increasing
submarine, which sunk concentration of
killing all on board, was
(A) Nitrous oxide
called
(B) Ozone
(A) Slovik
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(B) Lenin
(D) Carbon dioxide
(C) Brodigaya
Q.16 Which is the supersonic
(D) Kursk
antiship cruise missile that
Q.12 Richter scale is a/an ……. has been successfully test -
Scale to measure earth fired by India from a warship
tremors. in the Bay of Bengal?
(A) Exponential (A) Nag
(B) Logarithmic (B) Brahmos
(C) Geometric (C) Prithvi
(D) Physical (D) Agni
Q.13 Which of the following Q.17 In radio transmission, what
compounds is commonly does FM stand for?
(A) Frequent Modulation
 (B) Frequency Moderation Q.21 Pedagogy is a science which
(C) Frequency Monitoring deals with
(D) Frequency Modulation (A) Teaching

Q.18 Satellite INSAT – 1D has (B) Study of human mind

taken over the functions of (C) Weather and climate
INSAT (D) Production of desired
(A) 1A offspring
(B) 1B Q.22 RDX is a
(C) 1C (A) Type of lime
(D) Both (a) and (b) (B) Explosive chemical
Q.19 Which of the following is an (C) Medicine
anti - tank missile developed (D) Fertilizer
in India?
Q.23 Which Communication
(A) Nag Satellite of ISRO was
(B) Trishul launched in September 2003?
(C) Akash (A) INSAT – 2B
(D) Prithvi (B) INSAT – 2A
Q.20 An instrument for (C) INSAT – 3D
determining the amount of (D) INSAT – 3E
water vapours present in the
Q.24 Cryogenic engines are used
atmosphere is known as
in
(A) Hygrometer
(A) Atomic reactors
(B) Hydrometer
(B) Rockets
(C) Chronometer
(C) Defrost refrigerators
(D) None of these

(D) Doing research connected with superconductivity

PRACTICE EXERCISE ANSWER KEY

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. A
6. A 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. D
11. D 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. D
16. B 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. A
 21. A 22. B 23.
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
Q.1 The material used for electric
fuse is an alloy of tin and lead.
This alloy should have:
Q.5
(A) High specific resistance
and low melting point.
(B) High specific resistance
and high melting point.
(C) Low specific resistance
and high melting point.
(D) High specific resistance
and high melting point.
Q.2 Silver ware turns black after a
period of time due to
formation of :
Q.6
(A) Nitrate coating on silver
(B) Sulphide coating on
silver
(C) Chloride coating on
silver.
(D) Oxide coating on silver
Q.3 When concentrated
splits on the surface, it should
Q.7
be immediately cleaned:
(A) With a piece of cloth.
(B) By adding cold water
(C) By adding solid
(D) By adding solid
Q.4 A bee - sitting leaves an acid
which causes pain and
irritation. The injected acid is:
(A) Acetic acid
D 24. B
(B) Sulphuric acid
(C) Citric acid
(D) Methanoic acid.
Iron nails are dipped into blue
copper sulphate solution.
After some time iron nails are:
(A) Dissolved and blue
colour is discharged.
(B) Dissolved but blue
colour is not discharged
(C) Not dissolved and blue
colour is not discharged
(D) Not dissolved but blue
colour is discharged
A student by chance mixed
acetone with alcohol. This
mixture of acetone and
alcohol can be separated by :
(A) Filtration
(B) Separating funnel
(C) Fractional crystallization
(D) Fractional distillation
Which one among the
following methods is not
effective in removing arsenic
from contaminated ground
water?
(A) Boiling
(B) Reverse osmosis
(C) Ion exchange
(D) Coagulation - adsorption
Q.8 Which one among the (B) Heavy water
following is the main (D) Hydrogen peroxide
ingredient in cement?
Q.13 Which one of the following
(A) Gypsum contains maximum percentage
(B) Lime stone of nitrogen by mass?
(C) Clay (A) Urea
(D) Ash (B) Ammonium cyanide
Q.9 Glass is actually : (C) Ammonium carbonate
(A) A crystalline solid (D) Ammonium nitrate
(B) An ionic solid Q.14 Oxygen and ozone are
(C) An elastic solid (A) Allotropes
(D) A vitrified liquid (B) Isomers
Q.10 Solutions in test tubes (C) Isotopes
containing and aqueous (S) Isobars
NaOH can be differentiated Q.15 When applied to the affected
with the help of : area, which one of the
(A) Red litmus following will relieve the
pain due to ant – bite or bee –
(B) Blue litmus
sting?
(C) (A) Lemon juice
(D) HCl (aqueous) (B) Vinegar
Q.11 Human stomach produces (B) Baking soda
acid ‘X’ which helps in
(D) Caustic soda
digestion of food. Acid ‘X’ is:
Q.16 Which among the following
(A) Acetic acid
is a chemical change?
(B) Methanoic acid
(A) A wet towel dries in the
(C) Hydrochloric acid sun
(D) Citric acid (B) Lemon juice added to tea
Q.12 Which one among the causing its colour to
following is used as a change
moderator in nuclear reactors? (C) Hot air rises over a
(A) Ozone radiator
(B) Heavy hydrogen
 (D) Coffee is brewed by Q.21 Propagation of light quanta
passing steam through may be described by
ground coffee (A) Photons
Q.17 Which among the following (B) Protons
is a element?
(C) Neutrons
(A) Alumina
(D) Electrons
(B) Brass
Q.22 Which one of the following is
(C) Graphite not electromagnetic in nature?
(D) Silica (A) Cathode – rays
Q.18 The natural dye present in (B) X – rays
turmeric is known as
(C) Gamma – rays
(A) Cinnamin
(D) Infrared – rays
(B) Phenolphthalein
Q.23 Consider the following four
(C) Methyl orange particles :
(D) Curcumin 1. Alpha particle
Q.19 Which one of the following is 2. Proton
not an enzyme?
3. Electron
(A) Amylase
4. Neutron
(B) Pepsin
Which one of the following is
(B) Somatotropin the correct sequence in which
(D) Trypsin their rest – masses increase?
Q.20 Which one of the following (A) 3 – 4 – 2 – 1
processes takes place in lakes (B) 4 – 2 – 3 – 1
during eutrophication?
(C) 3 – 2 – 4 – 1
(A) Rapid destruction of
(D) 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
algal growth
Q.24 The mass of water vapour per
(B) Excessive availability of
unit volume of air is known
dissolved oxygen
as
(C) Loss of dissolved
(A) Relative humidity
nutrients from water
(B) Specific humidity
(D) Excessive entry of
nutrients into water (C) Absolute humidity
(D) Variable humidity
Q.25 What is the term used to compound . Which
denote the critical temperature among the following is the
at which the air becomes valency of gallium?
saturated with vapour and
below which the condensation (A) 1 (B) 2
is likely to begin? (C) 3 (D) 4
(A) Condensation point Q.30 Vinegar is the trade name of
(B) Evaporation point (A) Acetic acid
(C) Dew point (B) Chloroform
(D) Point of critical (C) Carbon tetrachloride
temperature (D) Ethyl alcohol
Q.26 The metal compound Q.31 Which one of the following
commonly found in Sindhoor chemicals is used in Beauty
or Kumkum is based on Parlours for hair – setting?
(A) Tin (A) Sulphur based
(B) Lead (B) Phosphorus based
(C) Copper (C) Silicon based
(D) Zinc (D) Iron based
Q.27 Alum is used as Q.32 Which one among the
(A) An analgesic following radiations carries
maximum energy?
(B) A fertilizer
(A) Ultraviolet rays
(C) A disinfectant
(B) Gamma – rays
(D) A purifier for water
(C) X – rays
Q.28 Which among the following
elements (metals) pollutes the (D) Infra – red rays
air of a city having large Q.33 The neutron, proton, electron
number of automobiles? and alpha particle are moving
(A) Cadmium with equal kinetic energies.
How can the particles ne
(B) Lead
arranged in the increasing
(C) Chromium
order of their velocities?
(D) Nickel
(A) Alpha particle – neutron
Q.29 Two elements gallium and – proton – electron
oxygen combine to form a
 (B) Proton – electron – (D) Phosphates of Na and
neutron – alpha particle
(C) Electron – proton – Q.38 What is composition of
neutron – alpha particle Nitrolim – a chemical
(D) Neutron – proton – fertilizer?
electron – alpha particle (A) Nitrogen and limestone
Q.34 Which one of the following (B) Calcium carbide and
chemicals is used in foam fire nitrogen
extinguishers?
(C) Calcium carbide and
(A) Amunimium sulphate carbon
(B) Copper sulphate (D) None of these
(C) Cobalt sulphate Q.39 Which one of the following
(D) Nickel sulphate glasses is used in bullet proof
Q.35 Talc contains which of the screens?
following? (A) Soda glass
(A) Zinc, calcium and oxygen (B) Pyrex glass
(B) Calcium, oxygen and tin (C) Jena glass
(C) Magnesium, silicon and (D) Reinforces glass
oxygen Q.40 Which substance is used to
(D) Zinc, tin and sulphur retard the setting action of
Q.36 When an alkali – metal reacts cement?
with water, which one of the (A) CaO
following gases is produced?
(B)
(A) Hydrogen
(C)
(B) Oxygen
(C) Hydrogen peroxide (D)
(D) Ozone Q.41 When water is heated from
Q.37 Which of the following salts to , how does its
are insoluble in water? value change
(A) Chlorides of Fe and Mn (A) It shall increase
(B) Nitrates of Ag and Pb (B) It shall decrease
(C) Carbonates of Pb and Cu (C) It shall first increase and
then decrease
 (D) It shall first decrease and (D) Dissolving power of
then increase water
Q.42 let us assume that air density Q.45 What is mixture of potassium
( ) remains nitrate, powdered charcoal
constant as we go up in the and sulphur called?
atmosphere. In such a (A) Glass
hypothetical case, what is the (B) Cement
approximate height of
(C) Paint
atmosphere to have 1
atmospheric pressure? (D) Gun powder

(A) 4 km Q.46 In which one of the following

is the valence electronic
(B) 8 km
configuration, found ?
(C) 40 km
(A) Carbon
(D) 80 km
(B) Oxygen
Q.43 Which one of the following
laws explains the formation (C) Nitrogen
of carbon and carbon dioxide (D) Argon
from carbon and oxygen? Q.47 When iron is left exposed in
(A) Law of conservation of open air, it gets rested. Which
mass constituent (s) of air is/are
(B) Law of multiple responsible for rusting iron?
proportions 1. Oxygen gas present in
(C) Law of reciprocal air
proportions 2. Moisture present in air
(D) Law of definite 3. Carbon dioxide gas
proportions present in air
Q.44 Which one of the following is Select the correct answer
the most important using the code given below :
characteristic of water to act (A) 1 only
as a good solvent?
(B) 2 only
(A) Purity of water
(C) 1 and 2
(B) Ionizing power of water
(D) 2 and 3
(C) Polar nature of water
Q.48 Which one of the following
elements cannot displace
 hydrogen gas from a dilute (A) Einstein’s theory of
acid? relativity
(A) Zinc (B) Darwin’s theory of
(B) Copper natural selection

(C) Magnesium (C) Newton’s theory of

gravitation
(D) Iron
(D) Hawking’s theory of
Q.49 The molecular weight and
black hole
equivalent weight of which
one of the following is the Q.52 Metal pipes used to carry
same? water sometimes burst in the
winter. This is because
(A)
(A) Water expands when it
(B) freezes

(C) (B) Metal contracts more

than water
(D)
(C) Outside of the pipe
Q.50 The sun is constantly contracts more than
radiating energy and yet its inside
surface temperature is nearly
(D) Metal expands more than
constant at . The water
constancy of solar
Q.53 When dried raisins are put in
temperature is due to
plain water, they swell up. If
(A) Fission put again in brine solution,
(B) Radioactivity they shrivel up. This
(C) Fusion phenomenon indicates the
property of
(D) Black hole evaporation
(A) Diffusion
Q.51 An annular solar eclipse
occurred during January 2010 (B) Perfusion
with duration of annularity (C) Osmosis
around 12 min. It is predicted (D) Fusion
that such long annular
Q.54 As compared to covalent
duration will not occur till the
compounds, electro – valent
year 3043. Such prediction is
compounds, generally have
possible due to
 (A) Low melting point and oxidation – reduction
low boiling point reaction
(B) Low melting point and (D) Loses electrons in an
high boiling point oxidation – reduction
(C) High melting point and reaction
low boiling point Q.57 Neutral water with pH about
(D) High melting point and 7 becomes slightly acidic
high boiling point when aerated. This is because

Q.55 Which among the following (A) Oxygen from air is

statements with regard to pH dissolved in the water which
scale is/are correct? makes the water acidic
I. It is a logarithmic : scale. (B) Dirt, which get
contaminated with the
II. The scale is limited to 0
water during aeration
– 14 because the ionic
makes the water acidic
product of water is about
(C) Ultraviolet radiation
.
dissociates water
III. The lower the value of molecules and makes
pH, the greater is the water acidic
acidity of the solution.
(D) Carbon – dioxide from
Select the correct answer air is dissolved
using the code given below
Q.58 In the reaction
(A) I and II only
(B) I, II and III
Which of the following
(C) I and III only
statements is incorrect?
(D) II only
(A) It is a redox reaction
Q.56 An oxidizing agent is a
(B) Metallic iron acts as
substance which
reducing agent
(A) Increases the oxidation
number of an element in (C) acts as an oxidizing
a given substance agent
(B) Decreases the oxidation (D) Metallic iron is reduced
number of an element in to
a given substance
(C) Is oxidized itself in an
Q.59 Consider the following (B) Law of definite
statements with regard to the proportion
properties of water (C) Law of multiple
I. Water is a good solvent proportion
for ionic compound but (D) Avogadro’s law
poor solvent for covalent
Q.61 A mixture containing
compound.
and is
II. Water is a good solvent
taken for separating the
for covalent compound
constituents. The suitable
but poor solvent for ionic
steps required for this are
compound.
(A) Sublimation –
III. Water has maximum
dissolution – filtration –
density at the
crystallization
temperature .
(B) Dissolution –filtration –
Which of the statements crystallization –
given above are correct? Sublimation
(A) I and III only (C) Sublimation –
(B) II and III only evaporation – dissolution
(C) I and II only – decomposition

(D) I, II and III (D) Dissolution - distillation -

decomposition -
Q.60 Calcium carbonate is
evaporation
naturally available as
limestone and can also be Q.62 Iodized salt is a
synthesized from quick lime. (A) Mixture of a potassium
It is seen that the iodide and common salt
compositions of the elements (B) Mixture of molecular
in both the natural and iodine and common salt
synthetic calcium carbonate
(C) Compound formed by
are same. The validity of
combination of
which one among the
potassium iodide and
following laws is confirmed
common salt
by this observation?
(D) Compound formed by
(A) Law of conservation of
combination of
mass
molecular iodine and
common salt
Q.63 Which one among the
following is a chemical
process?
(A) Distillation of sea (salty)
water
(B) Crystallization of impure
salt (NaCl)
(C) Production of iodine ( )
from sea – weeds
(D) Sublimation of iodine
( )
Q.64 By which one among the
following mechanisms, soap
removes dirt (soil) from cloth?
(A) Soap dissolves the soil as
such
(B) Soap reacts with soil and
converts them into
soluble silicates
(C) Soap takes ways the oily
part of the soil and thus
separates the soil from
the cloth
(D) The soap molecules bind
with the soil, lift the soil
and keep it suspended
which can then be rinsed
away
Q.65 Which one among the
following statements is not
correct about graphite?
(A) It is the most stable
allotrope of carbon
(B) It is an electrically
conducting material
(C) Crystalline spherical
beads of graphite have
very good lubricating
property under dry
conditions
(D) It is the higher grade of
coal
Q.66 Which one among the
following is not a
property of salt ?
(A) Salts have ordered
packing arrangements
(B) Salts have low meting
points but high boiling
points
(C) Salts are britlle
(D) Salts conduct electricity
when dissolved in water
or even in the molten
state
Q.67 Bases turn red litmus blue
and acids turn blue
litmus red. A student
tested a liquid with a red
litmus paper and it
stayed red with a red
litmus paper and it
stayed red with no
change. This show that
the liquid
(A) Must be pure water
(B) Must be an acid
(C) Is not a base
(D) Is neither a base nor an
acid
Q.68 The main constituent of (B) Short range ‘strong
vinegar is interaction’
(A) Citric acid (C) Long range
(B) Acetic acid ‘electromagnetic
interaction’
(C) Ascorbic acid
(D) Long range ‘gravitational
(D) Tartaric acid
interaction’
Q.69 The major component used in
Q.72 Which one among the
preparation of different
following most correctly
types of glasses is
determines the atomic
(A) Silica number of an element?
(B) Sodium borate (A) Number of protons
(C) Calcium silicate (B) Number of protons and
(D) Sodium silicate electrons
Q.70 All the elements in a group (C) Number of ions
(family) have a common (D) Number of nucleons
valency. For example, all the
Q.73 Which one of the following
elements of the carbon family
processes of weathering
(carbon, silicon , germanium,
belongs to both
tin and lead) have common
mechanical and chemical
valency four. However, some
weathering?
of these elements can also
have valency two. Which of (A) Crystallization
the following can have (B) Exfoliation
valency two? (C) Hydration
(A) Silicon, germanium and (D) Carbonation
tin
Q.74 In oxidation
(B) Only germanium and tin
1. Hydrogen is displaced
(C) Germanium, tin and lead from a substance.
(D) Only tin and lead 2. An electropositive
Q.71 Protons and neutrons are element is added to or
bound in a nucleus by proportion of
the electropositive element
(A) Short range ‘weak increases in a substance
interaction’
 Select the correct answer (A) More than the atomic
using the code given below number of the element
(A) 1 only (B) Less than the atomic
(B) 2 only number of the element

(C) Both 1 and 2 (C) More than the number of

electrons in the atom
(D) Neither 1 or 2
(D) Less than the number of
Q.75 When a copper rod is dipped
electrons in the atom
in aqueous silver nitrate
solution, the colour Q.78 The metal constituent of
chlorophyll is
of the solution changes to
blue. This is because (A) Iron
(A) Cu is more easily (B) Potassium
reduced than Ag (C) Manganese
(B) Ag is more easily (D) Magnesium
reduced than Cu] Q.79 During explosion of
(C) Nitrate ion acts as an gunpowder, which of the
oxidizing agent following gases are evolved
(D) Nitrate ion acts as an in the proportion of 1 : 3?
reducing agent (A) Oxygen : Nitrogen
Q.76 The reaction that takes place (B) Nitrogen : Oxygen
in soap making is called (C) Nitrogen : Carbon
saponification. Basically soap dioxide
is sodium or potassium salts
(D) Carbon dioxide :
of
Nitrogen
(A) Long chain
Q.80 Which one among the
monocarboxylic acids
following is not a mixture?
(B) Glycerol
(A) Graphite
(C) Long chain di-carboxylic
(B) Glass
acids
(C) Brass
(D) Long chain tri-
carboxylic acids (D) Steel

Q.77 The number of protons in a Q.81 A stable nucleus (light with

negatively charged atom A<10) has
(anion) is
 (A) Exactly the same number
of neutrons and protons
(B) More neutrons than
protons
(C) No neutrons
(D) No protons
Q.82 Which one of the following
elements exists in liquid state
at room temperature?
(D) Law of combining
volumes
Q.85 Dry ice is used for making
cold baths in laboratories by
mixing with volatile organic
solvents. Identify the form of
dry ice from the following
(A) Gaseous carbon dioxide
(B) Liquid carbon dioxide

(A) Mercury (C) Solid carbon dioxide

(B) Lead (D) Solid hydrogen oxide

(C) Sodium Q.86 Arrange the following bases
in increasing order of their
(D) Calcium
basic strength:
Q.83 Aluminium is more reactive
(A) Sodium hydroxide
than iron but aluminium is
less easily corroded than iron, (B) Magnesium hydroxide
because (C) Aluminium hydroxide
(A) Oxygen forms a (D) Ammonium hydroxide
protective oxide layer Select the correct answer
(B) It is a noble metal using the code given below:
(C) Iron undergoes reaction Codes:
easily with water (A) 4-2-1-3
(D) Iron forms ions (B) 4-1-2-3
Q.84 According to which one of (C) 4-3-2-1
the following laws it is
(D) 1-2-3-4
indicated that when two or
more gases react with one Q.87 The major combustible
another, their volumes bear a component of gobar (cow-
simple ratio? dung) gas is
(A) Law of mass action (A) Methane
(B) Law of multiple (B) Carbon dioxide
proportions (C) Hydrogen
(C) Law of reciprocal (D) Propane
proportions
Q.88 Which of the following is the (A) 1 and 2
best example of the law of (B) 2 and 3
conservation of mass?
(C) 3 only
(A) When 12 gm carbon is
(D) 1 only
heated min vacuum,
there is no change in Q.91 Diamond is a
mass (A) Good conductor and soft
(B) Weight of platinum wire (B) Non-conductor and soft
is the same before and (C) Non-conductor and hard
after heating
(D) Good conductor and
(C) A sample of air increases hard
in volume when heated
Q.92 Consider the following
at constant pressure but
statements regarding
mass remains
aluminium paint:
(D) 12 gm of carbon
1. It is fairly good head –
combines with 32 gm of
resistant
oxygen to give 44 gm of
carbon dioxide 2. It possesses good
electrical resistance.
Q.89 Which one of the following is
not a mixture? 3. It cannot be used for hot
water pipe.
(A) Air
Which of the statements
(B) Mercury
given above is/are correct?
(C) Milk
(A) 1 and 3
(D) Cement
(B) 1 only
Q.90 Consider the following
(C) 1 and 2
statements:
(D) 2 and 3
1. Soap cannot be used in
acidic water. Q.93 Which one among the
following nitrogen
2. Ionic part of a soap is –
compounds has the least
COO-Na
percentage of nitrogen by
3. Soap dissolve in water mass?
faster than detergent.
(A)
Which of the statements
given above is/are correct? (B)
 (C)
(D)
Q.94 Which one among the
following groups is referred
to as types of precipitation?
(A) Fog, Dew and Rain
(B) Air, Water and Soil
(C) Fog, Water and Rain
(D) Dew, Soil and Rain
Q.95 Which one among the
following is the major
constituent of soda lime glass?
(A) Sodium oxide
(B) Calcium oxide
(C) Calcium carbonate
(D) Silica
Q.96 Which one among the
following is the most
appropriate statement with
respect to the atomic weight
of an element?
(A) The atomic weight of an
element is the sum total
of the number of protons
and neutrons present in
the atom of the element
(B) Unlike mass number, the
atomic weight of an
element can be a fraction
(C) The atomic weight of an
element is a whole
number
(D) The atomic weight of all
the atoms in an element
is the same
Q.97 Which one among the
following is the correct order
of amount of lime (CaO),
silica , alumina
and ferric oxide
in Portland cement?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.98 A glass of water does not turn
into ice as it reaches . It
is because
(A) Water does not solidify
at
(B) A certain amount of heat
must be supplied to the
glass of water so as to
solidify
(C) A certain amount of heat
must be taken out from
the glass of water so as
to solidify
(D) Water solidifies at 0 K
only
Q.99 Which one among the
following nutrients is a
structural component of the
cell wall of plants?
(A) Manganese
 (B) Potassium (C) Tesla
(C) Phosphorus (D) Siemens
(D) Calcium Q.103 Which one of the following is
Q.100 The deficiency of which one not a nitrogenous fertilizer?
of the following leads to (A)
dental caries?
(B)
(A) Iron
(B) Copper (C)
(D) Fluorine (D) Urea
(D) Zinc Q.104 Flint glass is obtained from
which of the following
Q.101 A proton and an electron
having equal velocity are (A) Zinc and barium
allowed to pass through a borosilicate
uniform magnetic filed. (B) Sand, red lead and
Which one of the following potassium carbonate
statements is correct in this (C) Sodium aluminium
connection? borosilicate
(A) The proton and the (D) Pure silica and zinc
electron experience oxide
equal and opposite force
Q.105 Which one of the following is
(B) The proton experiences the correct order in which the
greater force than does
gases and are
the electron
evolved on fractional
(C) The electron experiences distillation of liquid air?
more force than does the
proton (A)
(D) No moving charged (B)
particle experiences a
force in a magnetic field. (C)

Q.102 Which one of the following is (D)

the unit of activity of a Q.106 Consider the following :
radioactive source?
The concentration of
(A) Lux hydrogen ions in an aqueous
(B) Becquerel solution is expressed by its
 1. pH (C) Polyethene, Polyvinyl
2. pOH Chloride, Graphite
3. pKa (D) Iodine, Sulphur,
4. pKw Q.110 Which one of the following is
Which of the above is/are an element which never
correct? exhibits positive oxidation
state in any of its compounds?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(A) Oxygen
(B) 1 and 3 only
(B) Chlorine
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(C) Fluorine
(D) 2, 3 and 4
(D) Carbon
Q.107 Which one of the following
correctly defines the state of Q.111 Which of the following
glass? statements with regard to
Isotopes and Isobars is/are
(A) Crystalline solid
correct?
(B) Super cooled liquid
1. Isotopes have same mass
(C) Condensed gas number.
(D) Liquid crystal 2. Isobars have same
Q.108 Which one of the following is atomic number.
the correct order of oxidation Select the correct answer
number of Iodine (I) in using the code given below :
and ICI? (A) 1 only
(A) (B) 2 only

(B) (C) Both 1 and 2

(C)
Q.112 Which of the following
(D)
Q.109 Which one of the following
sets of substances can exist as
molecular crystalline solids?
(A) Nickel, Zinc, Manganese
(B) Glass, Cement, Rubber
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
statements regarding carbon
dioxide is/are correct?
1. It is prepared on large
scale by the action of
water on lime.
2. In the solid form it can
be used as a refrigerant.
 Select the correct answer Crude oil is a direct source of
using the code given below : :
(A) 1 only 1. Asphalt
(B) 2 only 2. Paraffin wax
(C) Both 1 and 2 3. Fatty acids
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 4. Gas oil
Q.113 What is the number of water Which of the above are
molecules present in a tiny correct?
drop of water (volume 0.0018 (A) 1 and 2 only
ml) at room temperature?
(B) 2 and 3 only
(A) (C) 1 and 4 only
(B) (D) 1, 2 and 4
(C) Q.117 Consider the following :
(D) Heat produces in a conductor
Q.114 In which one of the following carrying current is
independent of
situations a chemical reaction
does not occur? 1. Current passing through
it.
(A) Common salt is exposed
to air 2. Thermal conductivity.
(B) Coal is burnt in air 3. Specific resistance
(C) Sodium is placed in Which of the statements
water given above is/are correct?
(D) Iron is kept is moist air (A) 1 and 3
Q.115 Which one of the following (B) 2 only
materials is suitable for water (C) 1 and 2
purification? (D) 2 and 3
(A) Silicones
Q.118 due to accumulation of which
(B) Zeolites one of the following, joggers
(C) Asbestos experience pain in their leg
muscles after running?
(D) Quartz
(A) Lactic acid
Q.116 Consider the following :
(B) Acetic acid
 (C) Malic acid
(D) Citric acid
Q.119 The metal atom, which is
present in superphosphate, is
Q.123 Food wrapped in newspaper
is likely to get contaminated
with
(A) Lead

(A) Sodium (Na) (B) Aluminimum

(B) Potassium (K) (C0 Iron

(C) Calcium (Ca) (D) Magnesium

(D) Magnesium (Mg) Q.124 Among the following

elements, which one is
Q.120 The best and the poorest
essential for the transmission
conductors of heat are
of impulses in the nerve fibre?
respectively
(A) Calcium
(A) Silver (Ag) and lead (Pb)
(B) Iron
(B) Copper (Cu) and
aluminium (Al) (C) Sodium

(C) Silver (Ag) and gold (Au) (D) Zinc

(D) Copper (Cu) and gold Q.125 Which one of the following
(Au) statements is correct?

Q.121 Which one among the (A) Only electrons reside

following metals is more inside the nucleus of an
reactive than hydrogen? atom

(A) Mercury (B) Both electrons and

protons reside the
(B) Copper
nucleus of an atom
(C) Silver
(C) Only neutrons reside
(D) Tin inside the nucleus of an
Q.122 The number of neutrons in atom
is (D) Both protons and
(A) 40 neutrons can reside
inside the nucleus of an
(B) 27 atom
(C) 14 Q.126 The ratio of velocity of X –
(D) 13 rays to that of gamma rays
(A) is < 1
(B) is > 1
 (C) is 1
(D) Depends upon the ratio
of their frequencies
Q.127 Which one of the following
pairs of rays is
electromagnetic in nature?
(A) Beta rays and gamma
rays
(B) Cathode rays and beta
rays
(C) Alpha rays and beta rays
(D) X – rays and gamma
rays
Q.128 Which one of the following is
a transition metal?
(A) Aluminium (Al)
(B) Mangenese (Mn)
(C) Magnesium (Mg)
(D) Calcium (Ca)
Q.129 Which one of the following
gases, present in the air near
the surface of the Earth, has
maximum concentration?
(A) Oxygen
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Methane
Q.130 Which one of the following
elements will replace
hydrogen from acids to from
salts?
(A) Sulphur (S)
(B) Silicon (Si)
(C) Zinc (Zn)
(D) Phosphorus (P)
Q.131 Which of the following
represent a chemical change?
1. Magnetization of iron
2. Condensation of liquid
3. Burning of fuel
4. Rusting of iron
Select the correct answer
using the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4
Q.132 Which one among the
following is the correct order
or reactivity of the elements?
(A) Cu > Mg > Zn > Na
(B) Na > Zn > Mg > Cu
(C) Cu > Zn > Mg > Na
(D) Na > Mg > Zn > Cu
Q.133 Vinegar is produced from
(A) Ethanoic acid
(B) Valeric acid
(C) Methanoic acid
(D) Butanoic acid
 OBJECTIVE TYPE ANSWER KEY

1. A 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. D
6. D 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. A
11. C 12. C 13. B 14. A 15. C
16. D 17. C 18. D 19. C 20. D
21. A 22. A 23. C 24. C 25. C
26. B 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. A
31. C 32. A 33. A 34. B 35. C
36. A 37. D 38. D 39. D 40. C
41. D 42. A 43. B 44. C 45. D
46. C 47. D 48. C 49. D 50. C
51. C 52. A 53. C 54. D 55. B
56. A 57. D 58. D 59. A 60. B
61. A 62. A 63. C 64. D 65. D
66. B 67. A 68. B 69. A 70. C
71. B 72. A 73. C 74. A 75. A
76. A 77. D 78. D 79. C 80. A
81. A 82. A 83. A 84. C 85. A
86. C 87. A 88. A 89. B 90. A
91. C 92. A 93. A 94. A 95. A
96. B 97. A 98. C 99. B 100. C
101. A 102. C 103. A 104. B 105. B
106. A 107. B 108. A 109. D 110. C
111. D 112. B 113. C 114. A 115. B
116. D 117. B 118. A 119. C 120. A
121. D 122. C 123. A 124. C 125. D
126. C 127. D 128. C 129. C 130. C
 131. C 132. D 133. A

(B) Diverging lens

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
Q.1 A Jet engine works on the
principle of conservation of :
(A) Linear momentum
(B) Angular momentum
(C) Energy
(D) Mass
Q.2 The surface temperature of
the Sun is nearly :
(A)
(B)
(C) Piano – converging lens
(D) Piano – diverging lens
Q.5 ‘The starts seem to be higher
on the sky than they actually
are’. This can be explained by
:
(A) Atmospheric refraction
(B) Dispersion of light
(C) Total internal reflection
(D) Diffraction of light
Q.6 Which one among the
following is not a source of
renewable energy?

(C) (A) Hydroelectricity

(B) Solar energy
(D)
(C) Fuel cell
Q.3 If the electrical resistance of a
(D) Wind energy
typical substance suddenly
drops to zero, then the Q.7 Mass of B is four times that
substance is called : of A, B moves with a velocity
half that of A. Then B has :
(A) Super conductor
(A) Kinetic energy equal to
(B) Semiconductor
that of A
(C) Conductor
(B) Half the kinetic energy
(D) Insulator of A
Q.4 A spherical air bubble is (C) Twice the kinetic energy
embedded in a piece of glass. of A
For a ray of light passing
(D) Kinetic energy one –
through the bubble, it
behaves like a : fourth of A

(A) Converging lens

Q.8 In a pressure cooker cooking (A) Linearly with square root
is “faster because the increase of time
in vapour pressure” (B) Linearly with time
(A) Increases the specific (C) Linearly with square of
heat time
(B) Decreases the specific (D) Inversely with time
heat
Q.12 Which one among the
(C) Decreases the boiling following statements is
point correct?
(D) Increases the boiling (A) Convex mirrors are used
point by doctors to examine
Q.9 Magnets attract magnetic oral cavity
substance such as iron, nickel, (B) Concave mirrors are
cobalt etc. They can also used as reflectors
repel:
(C) Convex mirrors are used
(A) Paramagnetic substances as reflectors
(B) Ferromagnetic (D) Convex mirrors should
substances be used for shaving
(C) Diamagnetic substances Q.13 Bats can ascertain distances,
(D) Non – magnetic directions, nature and size of
substances the obstacles at night. This is
Q.10 When a ray of light is going possible by reflection of the
from one medium to another, emitted :
its : (A) Ultrasonic waves from
(A) Wavelength remains the bat
same (B) Ultrasonic waves from
(B) Frequency remains same the distant objects

(C) Frequency increases (C) Supersonic waves from

(D) Wavelength increases
Q.11 A body initially at rest upon
by a constant force. The rate
of change of its kinetic
energy varies :
the bat
(D) Supersonic waves from
the distant objects
Q.14 Light travels slower in glass
than in air because :
 (A) Refractive index of air is (A) Energy supplied per unit
less than that of glass time
(B) Refractive index of air is (B) Energy of an object due
greater than that of glass to its motion
(C) Density of glass is (C) Energy of an object sue
greater than that of air to its position
(D) Density of glass is less (D) None of the above
than that of air Q.18 The electric charge is stored
Q.15 The lines of force of a in d device called
uniform magnetic field : (A) Inductor
(A) Must be convergent (B) Capacitor
(B) Must be divergent (C) Resistor
(C) Must be parallel to each (D) Transformer
other
Q.19 Consider the following parts
(D) Intersect of spectra :
Q.16 Which of the following 1. Visible
statements is/are correct?
2. Infrared
1. In comparison to the
3. Ultraviolet
Jupiter, planet Earth
displays eclipses more 4. Microwave
frequently Which one of the following is
2. On Mars only partial the correct sequence in which
solar eclipses are their wavelengths increase?
possible (A) 4 – 3 – 1 – 2
Select the correct answer the (B) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
code given below : (C) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
(A) 1 only (D) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
(B) 2 only Q.20 One light year is equal to
(C) Both 1 and 2 (A)
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(B)
Q.17 Which one of the following
statements correctly defines (C)
power? (D)
Q.21 Which among the following Q.24 Which among the following is
thermometers is preferred for the necessary condition for
measuring temperature around simple harmonic motion?
? (A) Constant period
(A) Mercury thermometer (B) Constant acceleration
(B) Constant volume gas (C) Displacement and
thermometer acceleration are
(C) Optical pyrometer proportional
(D) Platinum resistance (D) Displacement and torque
thermometer are proportional
Q.25 The wavelength of X – rays is
Q.22 Which one of the following is of the order of
the value of current I in the (A) 1 mm
circuit shown above? (B) 1 cm
(C) 1 micron
(D) 1 angstrom
Q.26 In vacuum, the speed of light
(A) Depends in its
wavelength
(B) Depends on its frequency
(A) 5 A (C) Depends on its intensity
(B) 10 A (D) Neither depends on its
(C) 15 A wavelength, frequency
(D) 20 A nor intensity
Q.23 A long jumper runs before Q.27 If an particle is projected
jumping because he normally through a uniform
magnetic field, then the path
(A) Covers a greater distance
of the particle inside the
(B) Maintains momentum field will be
conservation
(A) Circular
(C) Gains energy by running
(B) Parabolic
(D) Gains momentum
(C) Elliptic
(D) A straight line
Q.28 Non – conductors, whose (C) Melting point of ice
polarization is caused by an remains unchanged with
electric filed, are known as increase in pressure
(A) Semi – conductors (D) Melting point of ice is
(B) Super – conductors
(C) Dielectrics Q.32 A bar magnet is place inside a
(D) Resistive conductors uniform magnetic field. What
does it experience?
Q.29 The resistance of a wire that
must be placed parallel with a (A) A force
resistance to obtain a (B) A torque
combined resistance of is (C) Both a force and a torque
(A) 2 W (D) Neither a force nor a
torque
(B) 4 W
Q.33 Which one of the following is
(C) 6 W
a good conductor of
(D) 8 W electricity?
Q.30 Which one of the following is (A) Shellac
the mode of heat transfer in
which warm material is (B) Human body
transported so as to displace a (C) Glass
cooler material (D) Ebonite
(A) Conduction only Q.34 A far sighted person has a near
(B) Convection only point at 100 cm. What must be
(C) Radiation the power of the correcting
lens?
(D) Both conduction and
convection (A) – 0.8 D

Q.31 Why do two ice blocks join to (B) – 3.0 D

form one block when pressed
together?
(A) Melting point of ice is
lowered with increase in
pressure
(B) Melting point of ice
increases with increase in
pressure
(C) + 0.8 D
(D) + 3.0 D
Q.35 The figure shows current in a
part of electrical network.
What is the value of current I?
 bottom wall increases by

3. The pressure at al points

inside the liquid
increases by
Which of the statements given
above are correct?
(A) 0.2 A
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 0.1 A
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 0.3 A
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 0.5 A
(D) 2 and 3 only
Q.36 Some common mediums in
Q.38 Sound moves with higher
which speed of sounds waves
velocity if
in measured are mentioned
below : (A) Pressure of the medium is
decreased
1. Air
(B) Temperature of the
2. Steel
medium is increased
3. Copper
(C) Humidity of the medium
4. Water is increased
What is the correct increasing (D) Both (B) and (C)
order of the speed of sound?
Q.39 Which one of the following is
(A) 1 < 4 < 2 < 3 the correct angle between the
(B) 4 < 1 < 2 < 3 incident and reflected rays
(C) 1 < 4 < 3 < 2 when a ray of light incident
normally on a plane mirror?
(D) 4 < 1 < 3 < 2
Q.37 Consider the following (A)
statements : (B)
AN external pressure is (C)
applied to the surface of a (D)
liquid in a contained. Then,
Q.40 Which one of the following
1. The pressure on all side –
four glass lenses is a diverging
walls increases by lens?
2. The pressure in the
 separately charged and then
brought in contact
(A) The total energy of the
(A) (B) two spheres is conserved
(B) The total charge on the
spheres is conserved
(C) Both the total energy and
(C) (D) charge are conserved
Q.41 Magnetism of a bar magnet (D) The final potential is
can be destroyed if it is always the mean of the
original potential of the
I. Kept in the magnetic
two spheres
meridian.
Q.44 Two pieces of metallic wire
II. Placed in a direction
having equal lengths and
opposite to that of the
equal volume placed in air
Earth’s horizontal
have different resistances. The
intensity.
two wires must
III. Heated to a temperature
(A) Have different cross –
known as Curie
sections
temperature.
(B) Have different
Select the correct answer
temperatures
using the code given below :
(C) Be of different materials
(A) I and II only
(D) Be of same density
(B) II only
Q.45 If a heater coil is cut into two
(C) II and III only
equal parts and only one part
(D) I, II and III is used in the heater, the heat
Q.42 For a particle revolving in a generated will be
circular path, the acceleration (A) Doubled
of the particle is
(B) Four times
(A) Along the tangent
(C) One – fourth
(B) Along the radius
(D) Halved
(C) Zero
Q.46 The direction of magnetic
(D) Along the circumference field at a point due to an
of the circle
Q.43 If two conducting spheres are
 infinitely long wire carrying
current is
(A) Parallel to the current
(B) Antiparallel to
current
(C) Along the perpendicular
drawn from a point on the
wire
(D) Perpendicular to the
plane containing the
conductor and the point
Q.47 A hollow metal ball carrying
an electric charge produces no
electric field at points
(A) Outside the sphere
(B) On its surface
(C) Inside the sphere
(D) Only at the centre
Q.48 Microwave oven consumes
less power due to
(A) Small frequency
radiation
(B) Short wavelength
radiation
(C) Large frequency as well
as wavelength of
radiation
(D) Small frequency as well
as wavelength of
radiation
Q.49 Which one among the
following statements
regarding the properties of
mixtures and compounds is
not correct?
(A) A mixture shows the
the properties of its
constituents but the
properties of a compound
are entirely different
from its constituents
(B) A mixture may be
homogeneous or
heterogeneous but a
compound is a
homogeneous substance
(C) The constituents of a
mixture can be separated
by physical methods but
those of a compound
cannot be separated by
physical methods
(D) Energy is either absorbed
or evolved during the
preparation of a mixture
of but not in the preparation
of a compound
of Q.50 A pendulum beats faster than
a standard pendulum. In order
to bring it to the standard beat,
the length of the pendulum is
to be
(A) Reduced
(B) Increased
(C) Reduced and the mass of
the bob increased
(D) Reduced and also the
mass of the bob reduced
Q.51 When a ship floats on water
 (A) It displaces no water Q.55 An electric lamp of 100 watt
(B) The mass of water is used for 10 hours per day.
displaced in lesser than The ‘units’ of energy
the mass of the ship consumed in one day by the
lamp is
(C) The mass of water
displaced is greater than (A) 1 unit
the mass of the ship (B) 0.1 unit
(D) The mass of water (C) 10 units
displaced is greater than (D) 100 units
the mass of the ship
Q.56 What is the power of the lens,
Q.52 If the ratio of the weight of a if the far point of a short –
man in a stationary lift and sighted eye is 200 cm?
when it is moving downwards
(A) – 0.5 D
with uniform acceleration ‘a’
is 3 : 2, then the value of ‘a’ is (B) 2 D
(A) 3g/2 (C) 1 D
(B) g/3 (D) –1.5 D

(C) g Q.57 Which one among the

following is correct for
(D) 2g/3
resultant of balanced forces?
Q.53 The phenomenon of ‘trade
(A) It is zero
winds’ takes place due to
(B) It is non – zero
(A) Conduction of heat
(C) It varies continuously
(B) Convection of heat
(D) None of these
(C) Radiation
Q.58 Which one among the
(D) None of these
following is used to make
Q.54 Ultrasonic waves are those periscope?
sound waves having
(A) Concave lens
frequency
(B) Concave mirror
(A) Between 20 hertz and
1000 hertz (C) Plane mirror
(B) Between 1000 hertz and (D) None of these
20000 hertz Q.59 Kilowatt – hour is the unit of
(C) More than 20 kilohertz (A) Potential difference
(D) Less than 20 hertz (B) Electric power
 (C) Electric energy
(D) Electric potential
Q.60 Which one among the
following waves are called
waves of heat energy?
(A) Radio waves
(B) Infrared waves
(C) Ultraviolet waves
(D) Microwaves
Q.61 Refractive index of an optical
medium changes with
1. The nature of the medium
2. The change in the angle
of incidence of the ray.
3. Colour of the incident ray.
Select the correct answer
using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Q.62 Momentum of a body is
1. A vector quantity
2. A conserved quantity in
an isolated system.
3. Same as force in linear
motion.
Select the correct answer
using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Q.63 The resistance of a wire is
. If it is stretched ten
times, the resistance will be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.64 The torque on a rectangular
coil placed in a uniform
magnetic field is large when
the
(A) Number of turns is large
(B) Number of turns is less
(C) Plane of the coil is
perpendicular to the
magnetic field
(D) Area of the coil is small
Q.65 The penetrating power of X –
rays can be increased by
(A) Increasing the current in
the filament
(B) Decreasing the potential
difference between the
cathode and the anode
(C) Decreasing the current in
the filament
(D) Increasing the potential
difference between the
cathode and the anode
Q.66 When a solid object is
immersed in water, there is a
loss in its weight. This loss is
 (A) Equal to the weight of the
water displaced
(B) Less than the weight of
the water displaced
(C) Greater than the weight
of the water displaced
(D) Not related to the weight
of the water displaced
Q.67 Body A of mass 2 kg and
another body B of mass 4 kg
and of same material are kept
in the same sunshine for some
interval of time. If the rise in
temperature is equal for both
the bodies, then which one
among the following in this
regard is correct?
(A) Heat absorbed by B is
double because its mass
is double
(B) Heat absorbed by A is
double because its mass
is half
(C) Heat absorbed by both A
and B is equal because
the quantity of heat
absorbed does not
depend upon mass
(D) Heat absorbed by B is
four times than the heat
absorbed by A because
the quantity of heat
absorbed is proportional
to square of the mass
Q.68 For a steel boat floating on a
lake, the weight of the water
displace by the boat is
(A) Less than the weight of
the boat
(B) More than the weight of
the boat
(C) Equal to the weight of the
part of the boat which is
below the water level of
the lake
(D) Equal to the weight of the
boat
Q.69 Which one among the
following transitions of
electron of hydrogen atom
emits radiation of the shortest
wavelength?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.70 A refracting telescope consists
of
(A) One concave mirror and
one convex lens
(B) Two convex lenses of
equal focal length
(C) Two concave mirrors of
different focal lengths
(D) Two convex lenses of
unequal focal lengths
Q.71 To obtain the powerful
parallel beams of light from a
 vehicle’s headlight, one must
be (C)
(A) Front surface silvered
plane mirror
(D)
(B) Back surface silvered
Q.74 A vessel contains oil of density
plane mirror
over mercury of
(C) Concave mirror
density .
(D) Convex mirror
A homogeneous sphere floats
Q.72 If a light body and a heavy
with half of its volume
body have equal momentum, immersed in mercury and the
then other half in oil. The density
(A) The lighter body has of the material of the sphere
greater kinetic energy in CGS unit is
than the heavier body
(A) 3.3
(B) The lighter body has
(B) 6.4
lesser kinetic energy than
the heavier body (C) 7.2

(C) The kinetic energy of the (D) 12.8

lighter body is equal to Q.75 Water flows out of the hole of
the kinetic energy of the bucket and follows a
heavier body parabolic path. If the bucket
(D) The kinetic energy of both falls freely under gravity, the
the bodies are water flow (ignoring air
independent of resistance)
momentum (A) Follows a straight – line
Q.73 A spring has length ‘l’ and path relative to the
spring constant ‘k’. It is cut falling bucket

into two pieces of lengths (B) Follows a parabolic path

relative to the falling
and , such that . The
force constant of the spring of (C) Stops

length is (D) Decreases but continues

to flow
(A)
Q.76 An electric iron of resistance
(B)
takes a current of 5 A.
 The heat developed in joules front of a concave mirror of
in 30 s is focal length 15 cm. What will
(A) 5 kJ be the nature of the image?

(B) 10 kJ (A) Virtual, not magnified

(C) 15 kJ (B) Virtual, magnified

(D) 20 kJ (C) Real, not magnified

Q.77 An object is placed at a (D) Real, magnified

distance of 12 cm from a Q.80 The density of cast iron
convex lens on its principal having specific gravity 7.20
axis and virtual image of is
certain size is formed. If the
(A)
object is moved further 8 cm
away from the lens, a real (B)
image of the same size as that
(C)
of the virtual image is formed.
Which one of the following is (D)
the focal length of the lens? Q.81 A current I in a lamp varies
(A) 15 cm with voltage V as shown in
(B) 16 cm the above figure. Which one
of the following is the
(C) 18 cm
variation of power P with
(D) 20 cm current I?
Q.78 Different objects at different
distances are seen by the eye.
The parameter that remains
constant is
(A) The focal length of the
eye lens
(B) The object distance from
the eye lens
(C) The radii of curvature of
the eye lens
(D) The image distance from
the eye lens
(A)
Q.79 An object is kept 5 cm in
 Radar Imaging Satellite
(RISAT - 2):
1. This is the first Indian
satellite with microwave
imaging configuration on
(B)
board.
2. The satellite will boost
India’s defense
capabilities.
3. It can take images of the
(C) earth day and night even
under rainy and cloudy
conditions.
Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(D)
(B) 2 and 3 only
Q.82 The audible frequency range
(C) 1, 2 and 3
of a human ear is
(D) 1 and 2 only
(A) 20 hertz to 20 hertz
Q.85 A book is kept on the surface
(B) 2 hertz to 20 hertz
of a table. If the gravitational
(C) 200 hertz to 2000 hertz pull of the earth on the book
(D) 20 hertz to 20000 hertz is the force of action, then the
Q.83 Which one of the following is force of reaction is exerted by
the resistance that must be (A) The book on the table
placed parallel with (B) The book on the earth
resistance to obtain a
(C) The table on the book
combined resistance of ?
(D) The table on the earth
(A)
Q.86 kinetic viscosity of a given
(B)
liquid is the ratio of
(C)
(A) The coefficient of
(D)
viscosity to the density
Q.84 Consider the following
statements with respect to the
 (B) The coefficient of (B)
viscosity to the surface (C)
tension
(D)
(C) The density to the
Q.90 In a sitar wire which one of
coefficient of viscosity
the following types of
(D) The surface tension to vibration is produced?
the coefficient of
(A) Progressive longitudinal
viscosity
(B) Stationary longitudinal
Q.87 When oil floats on water, the
surface tension of water. (C) Progressive transverse
(D) Stationary transverse
(A) Vanishes immediately
(B) Decreases considerably Q.91 Consider the following
statements:
(C) Increases considerably
The principle of total internal
(D) Remains unaffected
reflection is applicable to
Q.88 Consider two hollow glass explain the:
spheres, one containing water
1. Formation of mirage in
and the other containing
desert.
mercury. Each liquid fills
about one – tenth of the 2. Formation of image in
volume of the sphere. In zero microscope
gravity environment 3. Colour of evening sky.
(A) Water and mercury float Which of the statements
freely inside the sphere given above are correct?
(B) Water forms a layer on (A) 1 and 4
the glass, while mercury (B) 3 and 4
floats
(C) 2 and 3
(C) Mercury forms a layer
(D) 1 and 2
on the glass, while water
floats Q.92 Which of the following
statements is /are true
(D) Water and mercury both
regarding a light wave
form a layer on the glass
travelling from air to glass?
Q.89 Which one of the following is
1. Its frequency remains
the range of frequency used
unchanged.
in optical communication?
2. Its speed changes
(A)
 Select the correct answer
using the code given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither a nor 2
Q.93 The sum is visible a little
before the actual sunrise
because of which one of the
following?
(A) Atmospheric reflection
(B) Atmospheric dispersion
(C) Atmospheric diffraction
(D) Atmospheric scattering
Q.94 DC current can be controlled
by which one of the
following components?
(A) Impedance
(B) Resistance
(C) Capacitance
(D) Inductance
Q.95 What is the correct sequence
in which lengths of the
following units increase?
1. Angstrom
2. Micron
3. Nanometer
Select the correct answer
using the code given below:
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 3, 1, 2
(C) 1, 3, 2
(D) 2, 3, 1
Q.96 Flow velocities in an
incompressible fluid can be
measured with which one of
the following?
(A) Barometer
(B) Venturi tube
(C) Strain gague
(D) Manometer
Q.97 The simple harmonic motion
of a particle is given by
Which one of the following is
the amplitude of such motion?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 12
Q.98 In which one of the following
cases Ohm’s law is not valid/
(A) Wire bound resistor
(B) Potentiometer
(C) Junction diode
(D) Electric bulb
Q.99 Consider the following
statements:
If the net external torque
action on an object is
switched off, then
1. Linear momentum will
remain unchanged.
2. Angular momentum will
remain unchanged.
 Which of the statements Q.102 If can object is placed at the
given above is/are correct? centre of curvature of a
(A) 1 only concave mirror, the
position of the image is
(B) 2 only
(A) At the principal focus
(C) Both 1 and 2
(B) Between the principal
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
focus and the centre of
Q.100 How many sixty watt (60 W) curvature
bulbs may be safely used in a
(C) At the centre of
240 – V supply with 4 –
curvature
ampere fuse ?
(D) Beyond the centre of
(A) 4
curvature
(B) 8
Q.103 The radius of curvature of a
(C) 12 plane mirror
(D) 16 (A) Is zero
Q.101 Which one of the statements (B) Is infinity
given below is not correct?
(C) Can be anywhere
(A) A vertical plane passing between zero and
through the axis of a infinity
freely suspended magnet
(D) None of these
is called the magnetic
meridian. Q.104 A coin in a beaker filled with
water appears raised. This
(B) A vertical plane passing
phenomenon occurs because
through the axis of
of the property of
rotation of the earth is
called the geographical (A) Reflection of light
meridian (B) Refraction of light
(C) The degree to which the (C) Total internal reflection
magnetic field can of light
penetrate a medium is (D) Interference of light
know as the relative
Q.105 A ray of light falls on a
permeability of the
transparent glass plate. A part
medium.
of it is reflected and a part is
(D) The relative permeability refracted. The reflected and
is not a dimensionless refracted rays can be
quantity
 perpendicular to each other (C) on the Fahrenheit
for scale
(A) Angle of incidence equal (D) on the Reaumur scale
to Q.109 When a body move with
(B) Angle of incidence equal simple harmonic motion, then
to zero the phase difference between
(C) Only one angle of the velocity and the
incidence acceleration is

(D) More than one angle of (A)

incidence
Q.106 A man with a dark skin, in
comparison with a man with
a white skin, will experience
(A) Less heat and less cold
(B) Less heat and more cold
(C) More heat and less cold
(D) More than one angle of
incidence
Q.107 A fan produces a feeling of
comfort during hot weather,
because
(A) Our body radiates more
heat in air
(B) Fan supplies cool air
(C) Conductivity of
increases
(D) Our perspiration
evaporates rapidly
Q.108 Which one among the
following denotes the
smallest temperature?
(A) on the Celsius scale
(B) on the Kelvin scale
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.110 A body is the thrown
vertically upwards and then
falls back on the ground. Its
ground. Its potential energy is
maximum
(A) On the ground
(B) At the maximum height
(C) During the return
journey
(D) Both on the ground and
at the maximum height
Q.111 When X-rays are produced
air
(A) Heat is generated at the
target
(B) Heat is absorbed at the
target
(C) The temperature of the
target remains constant
(D) Brilliant light is seen at
the target
Q.112 ‘Pitch’ is a characteristic of OBJECTIVE TYPE ANSWER
sound that depends upon is KEY
(A) Intensity
(B) Frequency 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. B 5.
(C) Quality 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. C 10.
(D) None of these11. C 12. D 13. C 14. A 15.
16. C 17. A 18. B 19. A 20.
21. C 22. C 23. B 24. C 25.
26. D 27. A 28. C 29. C 30.
31. A 32. A 33. D 34. D 35.
36. C 37. A 38. D 39. D 40.
41. B 42. B 43. C 44. C 45.
46. D 47. C 48. B 49. D 50.
51. B 52. B 53. D 54. C 55.
56. A 57. A 58. C 59. C 60.
61. D 62. C 63. D 64. A 65.
66. A 67. A 68. C 69. A 70.
71. C 72. A 73. A 74. C 75.
76. C 77. B 78. C 79. B 80.
81. B 82. D 83. C 84. C 85.
86. A 87. B 88. A 89. C 90.
91. A 92. C 93. D 94. B 95.
96. B 97. B 98. C 99. A 100.
101. D 102. D 103. C 104. A 105.
106. D 107. D 108. D 109. B 110.
111. C 112. A
 (D) Zine
Q.5 Plant development is
Objective Type Question influenced by

Q.1 In which of the following are (A) Quality of light only

Mitochondria absent? (B) Quality and quantity of
(A) Fungi light

(B) Angiosperms (C) Quality and duration of

light
(C) Green algae
(D) Quality, quantity and
(D) Blue - green algae
duration of light
Q.2 Eucaryotic organisms are
Q.6 Edible part of tomato is
those that contain
(A) Endocarp
(A) DNA threads
(B) Fleshy thalamus
(B) Plastids
(C) Mesocarp
(C) True nucleus
(C) Whole fruit
(C) Vacuoles
Q.7 Xylem is a complex tissue,
Q.3 With which of the following
consisting of different type of
is Azotobacter associated?
cells. Which of the following
(A) Carbon fixation perform the function of
(B) Nitrogen fixation conduction of water and
(C) Fermentation minerals?

(D) Root nodules (A) Fiders

Q.4 Which of the following (B) Parenchyma cells

micronutrients plays an (C) Tracheary elements
important role in the nitrogen (D) None of these
metabolism plants, especially
Q.8 The edible portion of mango
in the reduction of nitrate?
is
(A) Boron
(A) Embryo
(B) Copper
(B) Endocarp
(C) Molydbenum
(C) Endosperm
 (D) Mesocarp Q.14 Photosynthesis generally
Q.9 The rice grain is takes place in which portions
of the plant?
(A) A seed
(A) Leaf and other
(B) One seeded fruit
chloroplast bearing parts
(C) Many seeded fruit
(B) Stem and leaf
(D) Multiple seeded fruit
(C) Roots and chloroplast
Q.10 In which of the following are bearing parts
plastids not present?
(D) Bark and leaf
(A) Aernechyma
Q.15 Opium is obtained from
(B) Collenchyma
(A) Poppy leaves
(C) Parenchyma
(B) Latex juice
(D) Schlerenchyma
(C) Tablet type latex
Q.11 Bamboo is a
(D) Seed capsule of opium
(A) Herb poppy
(B) Grass Q.16 Binomial nomenclature
(C) Shrub system was introduced by
(D) Tree (A) Darwin
Q.12 Cork cells are impervious to (B) Linnaeus
water because of the presence (C) Mendel
of
(D) None of these
(A) Cellulose
Q.17 RNA differs from DNA in
(B) Cutin containing
(B) Lignin (A) Cytocine
(D) Suberin (B) Deoxyribose
Q.13 The biotic relationship (C) Ribose
between insects and plants
(D) Phosphate
with reference to pollination
is called Q.18 Which of the following
glands has both an endocrine
(A) Commonsalism
and an exocrine function?
(B) Mutualism
(A) Adrenal
(C) Parasitism
(B) Mammary
(D) Saprophytism
 (C) Pancreas (B) Starch will be found in
(D) Thyroid the entire leaf
Q.19 Pepsin converts (C) Starch will be found only
in the shaded part
(A) Protein into peptides in
acid media (D) Starch will not be found
in the leaf at all
(B) Protein into peptides in
alkaline media Q.23 Which of the following is
essential for the plants to help
(C) Protein into peptides in
them in the formation of
neutral media
chlorophyll?
(D) Starch into glucose
(A) Calcuim
Q.20 Adrenocorticotrophic
(B) Magnesium
harmone (ACTH) is secreted
by (C) Potassium

(A) Adrenal (D) Phosphorus

(B) Mammary Q.24 DNA is

(C) Pancreas (A) Acetic acid

(D) Thyroid (B) Citric acid

Q.21 The number of chromosomes (C) A class of nucleic acid

in the human body is (D) An enzyme
(A) 42 Q.25 The epidermis of sponge is
(B) 44 made up of

(C) 46 (A) Thesocytes

(D) 48 (B) Pinacocytes

Q.22 A green leaf is partially (C) Choanocytes

covered and placed in the (D) Archaeocytes
light for several days. If it is Q.26 Which is the inhalant
then boiled and tested for aperture in a sponge?
starch with iodine, what will
(A) Prosopyle
be the result?
(B) Apopyle
(A) Starch will be found only
in the part of the leaf (C) Osculum
exposed to light (D) Ostium
Q.27 Common larva of a sponge is
 (A) Tadpole Q.33 Common form of food stored
(B) Planula in fungal cells is
(C) Ephyra (A) Starch

(D) Parenchymula (B) Sucrose

Q.28 Which is a fresh water (C) Glucose

cnidarian ? (D) Glycogen
(A) Hydra Q.34 A fungus which requires only
(B) Spongilla one single host for
completion of its life cycle is
(C) Dugesia
called
(D) None of these
(A) Heteroecious
Q.29 The oral of Hydra is called
(B) Autoecious
(A) Manubrium
(C) Heterothallism
(B) Mouth
(C) Heterosporous
(C) Osculum
Q.35 Majority of lichens are made
(D) Ostium of
Q.30 Sea flowers are (A) Blue – green algae and
(A) Corals basidiomycetes
(B) Red corals (B) Blue – green algae and
(C) Sea Anemones ascomycetes

(D) Jelly fish (C) Red algae and

ascomycetes
Q.31 Cell tissue organisation
occurs in (D) Brown algae and higher
plants
(A) Amoeba
Q.36 When fungi feed on dead
(B) Hydra
organic matter, they are
(C) Tapeworm called
(D) Ascaris (A) Parasites
Q.32 Anus is absent in (B) Saprophytes
(A) Fasciola (C) Lithophytes
(B) Pheretima (D) Dimorphic
(C) Periplaneta Q.37 Which one is decomposer?
(D) Unio (A) Lichen
 (B) Rhizopus Q.43 The differentiation of ER in
(C) Algae to RER and SER is based on
(C) Carnivores (A) Presensce of cisternae

Q.38 Fungi are always. (B) Attachment of ribosomes

(A) Heterophytes (C) Presence of vescicles

(B) Autotrophic (D) Number of cisternae

(C) Saprophytic Q.44 Ribosomes are made up of

(D) Parasitic (A) Liqids and Proteins

Q.39 A plant cell has potential to (B) RNA and proteins

develop into full plant. The (C) DNA, RNA and Proteins
property is called (D) Proteins and
(A) Tissue culture Carbohydrates
(B) Pleuripotency Q.45 Diameter of rebosomes is
(C) Totipotency (A) 23 A
(D) Gene cloning (B) 20 mm
Q.40 Cell vacuole containe (C) 230 A
(A) Water (D) 70 S
(B) Metabolic gases Q.46 In Eukaryotes, 80S ribosomes
(C) Water and dissolved are synthesized in

(D) Cytoplasm (A) Nucleolus

Q.41 Mitochondria do not occur in (B) Mitochondria

(A) Human liver cell (C) Chloroplasts

(B) Human nerve cell (D) Ergosomes

(C) Human erythrocyte Q.47 Function units of Golgi

complex are called
(D) Frog liver cell
(A) Dictyosomes
Q.42 Factory for synthesis of sugar
in autorphic eucaryotes is (B) Cisternae

(A) Chlorplast (C) Vescicles

(B) Mitochondrion (D) Idiosomes

(C) Endoplasmic reticulum Q.48 Plastids are found in

(D) Ribosome (A) Dictyosomes

 (B) Fungi (C) Fat
(C) Animals (C) Milk
(C) Plants Q.54 What is responsible for
Q.49 A stack of thylakoids of diphtheria and influenza?
chloroplast is called (A) Virus and bacteria
(A) Stroma respectively

(B) Granum (B) Bacteria and virus

respectively
(C) Matrix
(C) Bacteria
(D) Cisternae
(D) Water pollution
Q.50 Lysosmes are abundantly
found in Q.55 The deficiency Vitamin – A
causes
(A) RBC
(A) Falling of hair
(B) Excretory cells
(B) Dysentery
(C) Secretory cells
(C) Night blindness
(D) Digestive cells
(D) Wakeness
Q.51 Vitamin - D deficiency canses
Q.56 Rickets is caused by the
(A) Pellagra
deficiency of
(B) Scurvy
(A) Vitamin A
(C) Rickets
(B) Protein
(D) None of these
(C) Iodine
Q.52 The chemical name of
(D) Vitamin D
Vitamin C is
Q.57 Excessive consumption of
(A) Salicylic acid
alcoholic drinks causes
(B) Acetic acid damage to
(C) Rickets (A) Liver
(D) None of these (B) Kidneys
Q.53 Which of the following is (C) Heart
most important for the
(D) lungs
growth of children upto the
age of 14? Q.58 Which of the following
worms enters the inteatine by
(A) Protein
penetrating through the skin?
(B) Vitamins
 (A) Hookworm Q.63 Which of the following is a
(B) Tapeworm universal blood donor?
(C) Threadworm (A) A

(D) Ringworm (B) B

Q.59 What should be given to an (C) AB

athlete for instant energy? (D) O
(A) Protein Q.64 The ductless glands in the
(B) Vitamin human body which secrete
hormones are called
(C) Carbohydrate
(A) Virus
(D) Fat
(B) Fungi
Q.60 Iron, necessary for the body,
is aubudantly found in (C) Bacteria

(A) Egg (D) Protozoa

(B) Green vegetables Q.65 The ductless gland in the

human body which secrete
(C) Milk
hormones are called
(D) Cauliflower
(A) Exocrine glands
Q.61 Which of the following fights
(B) Endocrine glands
against the diseases?
(C) Epithelial gland
(A) WBC
(D) Metabolic glands
(B) RBC
Q.66 Which of the following is the
(C) Liver
growth gland in human body?
(D) Heart
(A) Adrenal
Q.62 A quick test to determine
(B) Thyroid
children’s general health is by
(C) Pituitary
(A) Examining their hair,
nais and skins (D) Cowper’s gland

(B) Through a thorough Q.67 In the human body, fats are

checking stored in

(C) Only after conducting (A) Epithelial cells

certain tests (B) Adiapose tissue
(D) None of these (C) Epidermis
(D) Liver
Q.68 A hypochondric suffers from (C) Small pox, whooping
(A) Heart disease cough, tetanus
(B) Stomach trouble (D) Polio tetanus, whooping
cough
(C) No organic disease
Q.73 Which of the following is a
(D) Mental disease
genetically transmitted
Q.69 Acetyl salicylic acid is disease?
commonly used as
(A) Myopia
(A) Pain reliever
(B) Long sightedness
(B) Paint
(C) Colour blindness
(C) Chemical
(D) Night blindness
(D) Tear gas
Q.74 Snake venom is harmful to
Q.70 Which of the following human body due to
diseases is spread by the milk
(A) It attacks the nervous
of an infected cow?
system
(A) Tuberculosis and
(B) It attacks the nervous
Rinderpest
system and blood
(B) Rinderpest and Typhoid circulation
(C) Tuberculosis (C) Coagulation and
(D) Rinderpest and Bucolisis anticoagulation of blood
Q.71 Sex of a child is determined (D) None of the above
by Q.75 Decomposition of organic
(A) Chromosomes of father matter is caused by
(B) Chromosomes of mother (A) Algae
(C) Rh factor of the parents (B) Fungi
(D) Blood group of father (C) Bacteria
Q.72 Triple antigen is given to a (D) Virus
child to prevent Q.76 The genetic code of DNA is
(A) Polio, small pox, carried from the nucleus to
diphtheria Ribosome by
(B) Diphtheria, whooping (A) t-RNA
cough, tetanus (B) r-DNA
(C) s-DNA
 (C) ATP (D) Water
Q.77 Polio myelitis, which causes Q.82 In the given figure, if P is a
polio in man is spread by point source of light, R is
(A) Mosquito retina and L is the lens of the
eye, the person having such
(B) Water
condition of his eyes is
(C) Adulterated food suffering from
(D) Virus
Q.78 Sun light produces vitamin
_____ in the human skin
(A) A (B) B
(C) D (D) E
Q.79 A person walking barefooted
in a field feels a sharp sting Hypermetroplo : the power of
and on examination two the eye’s optical system is
puncture marks are found on insufficient to bring the light
his leg. He is most proably by to a focus on the retina.
(A) Poisonou snake (A) Cataract
(B) Non poisonous snake (B) Myopia
(C) Scorpion (C) Hypermatropia
(D) Rat (D) Night blindness
Q.80 Influence of genes in Q.83 Which of the following
controlling the activity of diseases is hereditary?
living organism is through
(A) Haemophilia
(A) Photosynthesis
(B) Tuberculosis
(B) Protein synthesis
(C) Cancer
(C) Vitamins
(C) Dysentery
(D) Hormones
Q.84 Ultrafitering unit of kidney
Q.81 The final product of are called
photosynthesis is
(A) Nephron
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Glomerulus
(B) Carbond dioxide
(C) Vena Cava
(C) Oxygen
(D) Tubule
Q.85 Temperature in human beings (A) Starch
is controlled by (B) Proteins
(A) Pituitary gland (C) Fidres
(B) Thyroid gland (D) Fats
(C) William Harvey Q.91 Which of the following is not
(D) Adrenal gland an element of the bone?
Q.86 Blood grouping was (A) Calcium
discovered by (B) Phosphorus
(A) Landsteiner (C) Carbon
(B) Rod Koch (D) Oxygen
(C) Rice Q.92 Inspection and dissection of
(D) Louis Fasteur body after death in human
Q.87 A good source of vitamin A is beings, as for determination
of cause of death is called.
(A) Carrot
(A) Autopsy
(B) Potato
(B) Autotomy
(B) Rice
(C) Autoesium
(D) Tomato
(D) Autograft
Q.88 Foetus development in
women’s womb can be Q.93 There are more anti-bacterial
ascertained by drugs than anti – viral drugs
because
(A) CAT scanning
(A) Bacterial diseases are
(B) Ultrasound
intra – cellular
(C) PTT scanning
(B) Viral diseases are intra –
(D) Co-27 experiment cellular
Q.89 The drugs caffeine, tannin (C) Virus are small than
and nicotine are bacteria
(A) Steroids (D) Drugs can penetrate
(B) Cortisones bacteria more effectively
(C) Alkaloids Q.94 The chief ingredient of the
(D) Milk alkalis mosquito repellent cream is
derived from
Q.90 The saliva help in the
digestion of (A) Tulsi
 (B) Neem Q.99 If a bacteria culture doubles
(C) Lemon exponentially in every 30
minutes, then after 5 hours
(d) Rice bran
they become
Q.95 Population of cells derived
(A) 10 fold
form a single parent cell is
called (B) 100 fold

(A) Haploid (C) 1000 fold

(B) Diploid (D) 10000 fold

(C) Symmetrical Q.100 The human immuno

deficiency virus (HIV) is a
(D) Clone
living entity because it can
Q.96 The chemical name of aspirin
(A) Excrete in human it can
is
(B) Disturb in human serum
(A) Acetyl cyanamide
(C) Undergo auto- respiration
(B) Acetyl salicylic acid
(D) Move from one cell to
(C) Benzyl salicylate
another
(D) Tartaric acid
Q.101 Rabies is caused by a
Q.97 Green house effect means
(A) Virus and it affects the
(A) Trapping of solar energy nervous system
due to atmospheric
(B) Virus and it affects the
carbon dioxide
cardiovascular
(B) Trapping of solar energy
(C) Bacteria and it affects
due to atmospheric
the nervous system
carbon oxygen
(D) Bacteria and it affects
(C) Pollution in houses in
the cardiovascular
tropical region
Q.102 Thermoregulatory centre of
(D) None of the above
the human body is
Q.98 Lathyrism is a crippling
(A) Pituitary
disease caused by
(B) Skin
(A) Tinned fish
(C) Hypothalamus
(B) Chick pea and pulses
(D) Thyroid
(C) Meat
Q.103 Which one of the following is
(D) Adulteration
associated with AIDS?
 (A) Paper (C) When the malaria
(B) HIV causing germs reach the
liver
(C) IVF
(D) Upon release of toxins
(D) MAC
into blood
Q.104 Some medicines are given in
Q.108 Two gas used for artificial
the from of capsules. The
ripening of green fruits is
capsules are made of
(A) Carbon dioxide
(A) Paper
(B) Ethane
(B) Gelatinous material
(C) Hydrogen
(C) Embrayonic tissue
(D) Acetylene (ethyl)
(D) Starch
Q.109 Two richest known sources of
Q.105 Significantly higher level of
edible protein are
urea in blood is the indication
of (A) Meat and eggs

(A) Liver damage (B) Some algae and other

microorganisms
(B) Kidney damage
(C) Soyabean and groundnut
(C) Heart attack
(D) Milk and leafy
(D) Spleen damage
vegetables
Q.106 The medicines which are
Q.110 The introduction of pre-natal
used to treat diseases caused
Diagnostic Techniques Bill in
by allergy are known as
Parliament was prompted by
(A) Analgesics the increasing incidence of
(B) Antithisnamines (A) Female incidence of
(C) Antipyretics (B) Failure of contraceptive
(D) Allergents devices
Q.107 Malaria fever is caused (C) Spurious drugs being
(A) Immediately after used for pre – natal
mosquito bite immunisation

(B) Upon disintegration and (D) Unqualified persons

bursting of red blood diagnosing pregnancy in
cells villages by primitive
methods
Q.111 Three important micronutrients (A) Females and expressed
essential for humans are by females
(A) Copper, zinc and iodine (B) Females and expressed
(B) Zinc, copper and by males
potassium (C) Males and expressed by
(C) Nitrogen, molybdenum females
and iodine (D) Males and expressed by
(D) Sulphur, copper and iron males
Q.112 Man cannot digest cellulose Q.115 Which one of the following
whereas cows can do so vitamins is considered to be a
because hormone?
(A) Their gut contains (A) A (B) B
bacteria capable of (C) C (D) D
digesting cellulose Q.116 Rennin and lactase, the
(B) They have many – enzymes required to digest
chambered stomach milk, disappear in the human
(C) They have efficient body by the age of
grinding molars (A) Two
(D) They produce an enzyme (B) Three
cellulose which can (C) Five
digest cellulose
(D) Eight
Q.113 If a mouse of over eight times
Q.117 Haemoglobin is dissolved in
its normal size has been
the plasma of
produced by introducing
human growth harmone gene, (A) Frog
the technique involved is (B) Fish
called (C) Man
(A) Hybridisation (D) Earthworm
(B) Genetic engineering Q.118 The heart of human embryo
(C) Nutation Breeding starts beating in the
(D) Hormonal feeding (A) First week of its
Q.114 Haemophilia is a hereditary development
disease carried by (B) Third week of its
development
 (C) Fourth week of its Q.122 Which one of the following
development hormones contains
(D) Sixth week of its iodine?
development (A) Thyroxine
Q.119 A person with ‘AB’ blood (B) Testosterone
group is sometimes called a (C) Insulin
universal recipient because of
(D) Adrenaline
the
Q.123 According to the World
(A) Lack of antigen in his
Health Organisation, the
blood
disease which causes the
(B) Lack of antibodies in his death of the largest number of
blood people today is
(C) Lack of both antigens (A) AIDS
and antibodies in his
(B) Tuberculosis
blood
(C) Malaria
(D) Presence of antibodies in
his blood (D) Ebola

Q.120 Which one of the following is Q.124 The major components of

a membrane that protect the honey is
developing embryo from (A) Protein analysis
desiccation? (B) Chromsome counting
(A) Amnion (C) Quantitative analysis of
(B) Allantois DNA
(C) Chorion (D) DNA finger – printing
(D) Yolk sac Q.125 The major components of
Q.121 The normal temperature of honey is
human body on the Kelvin (A) Glucose
scale is (B) Sucrose
(A) 280 (C) Maltose
(B) 290 (D) Fructose
(C) 300 Q.126 Arteries supplying blood to
(D) 310 the heart are called
(A) Carotid arteries
(B) Hepatic arteries
 (C) Coronary arteries (C) Decrease in WBC
(D) Kumarilabhatta (D) Non – clotting of
Q.127 The characteristic odour of blood
garlic is due to Q.132 The Complete conversion of
(A) A chloro compound glucose in the presence of
oxygen into carbon dioxide
(B) A sulphur compound
and water with release of
(C) A fluorine compound energy is called
(D) Acetic acid (A) Aerobic respiration
Q.128 Corpus luteum is a mass of (B) Anaerobic respiration
cells found in
(C) Glycolysis
(A) Brain
(D) Hydrolysis
(B) Ovary
Q.133 The major chemical
(C) Pancreas compound found in human
(C) Spleen kidney stones is
Q.129 Alpha-keratin is a protein (A) Uric acid
present in (B) Calcium carbonate
(A) Blood (C) Calcium oxalate
(B) Skin (D) Calcium sulphate
(C) Wool Q.134 Neem tree has acquired
(D) Eggs industrial importance as a
Q.130 The water pollution in river is source of
measured by the dissolved (A) Biopesticide and
amount of antifertility compound
(A) Chlorine (B) Antiferility compound,
(B) Ozone biofertilizer and
anticancer drug
(C) Nitrogen
(C) Biofertilizer,
(D) Oxygen
biopesticide and
Q.131 Haemopholia is a genetic anfertility compound
disorder which leads to
(D) Anti – Cancer drug,
(A) Decrease in haemoglobin biopestcide and
level biofertilizer
(B) Rheumatic heart disease
Q.135 Normal Blood pressure of (B) Iron
human being must be (C) Sodium
(A) 140/80 (D) Phosphorus
(B) 160/100 Q.140 Night blindness could be
(C) 120/80 caused by the deficiency of
(C) 140/90 (A) Vitamin A
Q.136 Vitamin C is synonym of (B) Vitamin B
(A) Hydrochloric acid (C) Vitamin C
(B) Ascorbic acid (D) Vitamin D
(C) Riboflavin Q.141 Coagulation of blood in
(D) Thiamine vessels is prevented of during
normal circulation by
Q.137 A man is colour blind but the
woman is normal. In that case (A) Heparin

(A) Male child will be colour (B) Prothrombin

blind (C) Plasmogen
(B) Female child will be (D) Thromplastin
colour blind Q.142 In the eye, colour vision is
(C) Both male and female affected by the prevented
children will be colour during normal circulation by
(D) Both male and female (A) Choroid coat
children will be normal (B) Sclerotic coat
Q.138 Anti - rabies vaccine was (C) Rods
discovered by
(D) Cones
(A) Edward Jenner
Q.143 Transfer of genetic
(B) James Lind information from one
(C) Louis Pasteur generation to the next is
(D) Robert Koch accomplished by

Q.139 If a person vomits (A) RNA

excessively and shows (B) Codon
symptoms of diarrhea it is (C) Translation
possible that in his blood
(D) DNA
serum there is a decrease of
(A) Calcium
Q.144 The average temperature of Q.148 The process by which the
human body is blood carries the absorbed
food products to the tissue
(A)
cells, where they are taken up,
(B) is called
(C) (A) Absorption
(D) (B) Assimilation
Q.145 The vitamin which can be (C) Digestion
most easily synthesized in (D) Ingestion
human body is
Q.149 Treatment of rabies was
(A) Vitamin D discovered by
(B) Vitamin C (A) Lord Lister
(C) Vitamin B (B) Ronald Ross
(D) Vitamin K (C) Louis Pasteur
Q.146 Which of the following is not (D) Jenner
a source of Vitamin C? Q.150 The vaccine triple antigen is
(A) Potato given to children to protect
(B) Tomato them against Diphtheria,
(C) Guava (A) Polio and Tetanus
(D) Milk (B) Whooping cough and
Tetanus
Q.147 The wonder drug Penicillin
was discovered by (C) Whooping cough and
Tuberculosis
(A) Louis Pasteur
(B) Alexander Fleming (D) Polio and Tuberculosis

(C) Edward Jenner

(D) Jonas Salk
OBJECTIVE TYPE ANSWER KEY

1. D 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. D
6. D 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. D
11. B 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. D
16. B 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. C
21. C 22. A 23. B 24. C 25. B
26. D 27. D 28. A 29. A 30. C
31. B 32. A 33. D 34. B 35. B
36. B 37. A 38. A 39. C 40. C
41. C 42. A 43. B 44. B 45. C
46. A 47. A 48. D 49. B 50. D
51. C 52. C 53. A 54. B 55. C
56. D 57. A 58. A 59. C 60. B
61. A 62. A 63. D 64. D 65. B
66. C 67. B 68. D 69. A 70. C
71. A 72. B 73. C 74. C 75. C
76. D 77. D 78. C 79. A 80. B
81. A 82. C 83. A 84. A 85. A
86. A 87. A 88. B 89. C 90. A
91. C 92. A 93. B 94. B 95. D
96. B 97. A 98. B 99. C 100. C
101. A 102. C 103. B 104. B 105. B
106. B 107. D 108. D 109. C 110. A
111. A 112. A 113. B 114. B 115. D
116. D 117. A 118. C 119. C 120. B
121. D 122. D 123. D 124. B 125. A
126. D 127. C 128. B 129. B 130. A
131. A 132. C 133. A 134. D 135. D
136. B 137. D 138. B 139. C 140. C
141. D 142. B 143. B 144. C 145. C
146. C 147. C 148. D 149. A 150. B