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MOCK BOARD EXAM REVIEWER

CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM


1. A component or pillar of the Criminal Justice System which is involved in
the administration of appropriate sanctions in keeping with the sentence
handed down.
A. Corrections B. Prosecutions
C. law enforcement D. court
2. A statue enacted by Congress, penal in character, which is not amendment
to the Revise Penal Code such as Republic Acts, Presidential Decrees and
Memorandum Circulars.
A. Special Law
B. Special Penal Laws
C. Common Law
D. Amendment to the Revised Penal Code
3. A social norm providing guidance for people in their dealings with one
another, as a standard against which actions are evaluated, and as a
prescription or requirement that people act justly.
A. Law B. Justice
C. Ethics D. Conduct
4. In the Philippines, there were 5,000 murder incidents reported to the
authorities in 2014. Assuming that the population of the country is
90,000,000, what is the crime rate for murder in the same year?
A. 4.56 B. 5.56
C. 6.56 D. 7.56
5. Is the course of action or process whereby accusations are brought before a
court of justice to determine the innocence or guilt of the accused?
A. Trial B. Prosecution
C. Pre-trial D. Arraignment
6. It is such a fact and circumstances which would lead a reasonably discreet
and prudent man to believe that the person has committed an offense, sought
to be arrested.
A. Information B. Probable cause
C. Testimony D. Prima facie
7. Juan Dela Cruz, a resident of Quezon City found out to be in conflict with
the law particularly the R.A. 9165. What particular agency would be
responsible in processing the investigation?
A. PNP B. Interpol
C. NBI D. PDEA
8. One which consists of several parts that interacts with each other to produce
some results, serve some functions or meet some objectives.
A. Justice B. System
C. Feedback D. Environment
9. Takes cognizance of the case, conducts trial and imposes penalty if the
accused is found guilty beyond reasonable grounds.
A. Correction B. Court
C. Police D. Prosecution
10. The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in conflict with the law
by law enforcement officers or private citizens is termed as:
A. Arrest B. Initial contact
C. Child custody D. All of these
11. The branch of the administration of criminal justice charges with the
responsibility for the custody, security, supervision and rehabilitation of a
convicted offender.
A. Community B. Correction
C. Jail D. Rehabilitation Center
12. The group of person who have something in common that links them and
distinguish them from each other who are not part of that certain groups is
called?

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A. Community B. Anarchy
C. Milling D. Binding
13. The machinery of the State designed to enforce the law by arresting,
prosecuting and adjudicating those accused of violating it and by applying the
proper sanctions to those found guilty.
A. Court B. Government
C. Criminal Justice System D. Due Process of Law
14. The person responsible for securing the rights of the state over an accused
person for he directs the proceeding and he institute an offense in behalf of the
state.
A. Judge B. Counsel De officio
C. Attorney D. Prosecutor
15. The Police seek to prevent crimes by being present in places where crimes
might be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from practices that make
them or their property vulnerable.
A. law enforcement B. public services
C. opportunity denial D. order maintenance
16. It means as the power to try and decide, or hear and determine a cause.
A. Court B. Jail
C. Jurisdiction D. Justice
17. These provides the basis for due process of law.
A. Bible B. Common Law
C. Constitution D. PNP Law
18. Which of these have the administrative supervision over all courts and the
personnel thereof?
A. DOJ B. Supreme Court
C. The President D. Court of Appeals
19. The authority of the court to hear and determine a case.
A. Hearing B. Legislative power
C. Decision D. Jurisdiction
20. The best interest of the child shall at all times be respected by the by
whom?
A. Court B. Prosecution
C. Defense D. Witnesses
21. Who has The highest in rank among the following?
A. Chief Superintendent B. Deputy Director general
C. Director D. Director General
22. The informal component of the Criminal Justice System.
A. Community B. law enforcement
C. prosecution D. corrections
23. The major function of the Prosecution component of the Criminal Justice
System.
A. Rehabilitate prisoners
B. Represents the government in criminal cases
C. Enforce the law of the land
D. Sentencing of the accused
24. The police is an agency of the…
A. State B. Government
C. Community D. All of these
25. The primary and major output of the Criminal Justice System is:
A. Law B. Crime
C. Justice D. Correction
26. The primary goal of Criminal Justice System is:
A. Maintain Peace and order
B. Prevention of crime
C. Protection of government from enemies
D. Prosecute criminal
27. Which of the following is the primary source of criminal law in the
Philippines is?
A. Republic Acts B. Presidential Decrees

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C. Revised Penal Code D. Either of these


28. This refers to the recital of the rights of a suspect during custodial
investigation.
A. Bill of Rights B. Miranda Warning
C. Code of Ethics D. Policeman’s Code
29. This refers to the reduction or elimination of the desire and opportunity to
commit a crime.
A. law enforcement B. crime prevention
C. protection of rights D. order maintenance
30. They are referred to as the forgotten subject in the criminal justice system.
A. Accused B. Criminals
C. Victims D. Witnesses
31. A confinement facility having custodial authority over an individual
sentenced by a court to imprisonment, which is administered by a National
Government.
A. jail B. prison
C. corrections D. rehabilitation center
32. What is a group of people having ethnic or cultural or religious
characteristics in common?
A. society B. community
C. people power D. cultural minority
33. Teaching the community to protect themselves aside from constant police
patrol and visibility refers to.
A. reactive policing B. proactive policing
C. high visibility D. low visibility
34. They are task to apprehend and investigate those person who have violated
the rules of the professional ethics in spending the government’s budget in
some personal interest.
A. NBI B. COA
C. Sandiganbayan D. Senate
35. Is the course of action or process whereby accusations are brought before a
court of justice to determine the innocence or guilt of the accused?
A. Trial B. Prosecution
C. Pre-trial D. Arraignment
36. It carries the burden of proving the guilt of the accused in a formal
proceeding.
A. police B. prosecution
C. court D. preliminary investigation
37. When should the sworn counter-affidavit be filed by the respondent from
receipt to answer the accusations against him?
A. 10 days B. after 10 days
C. within 10 days D. before 10 days
38. It is a course of action whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a
criminal case work out mutually beneficial and satisfactory disposition on the
case subject to court approval.
A. Arraignment B. Plea bargaining
C. Pre- trial D. Trial
39. During the Pre-Spanish period in the history of the Philippines, there are
codes that already implemented by the Datus in their respective territory. One
of the great examples of it, is the Code of Kalantiao. When was the year Revised
Penal Code took effect?
A. 1433 B. 1930
C. 1932 D. 1927
40. Who was the one that conceive the idea of giving the police a very wide
powers including price control.
A. Saint-Louis B. Debelleyme
C. Augustus Caesar D. Robert Peel
41. All of the following except one, are the bad labels of the modern police of
Robert Peel.
A. dirty puppy B. bloody gang

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C. blue devils D. peelers


42. Which is true about Police?
A. ensure law and order
B. should be powerful not oppressive
C. a branch of Criminal Justice System
D. should form an impartial force
43. Constables are implementing and carrying out the law by keeping the
peace, arresting criminals and guarding. They were known in what particular
country?
A. England B. Rome
C. Greece D. Egypt
45. They were privately paid to follow-up investigation of crimes
A. Keepers of the peace B. constable
C. bow street runners D. rattle watch
46. The term police was derived from Greek word Politeia that primarily
denotes the activity of a polis. What do polis means?
A. police B. city
C. government D. govern
47. It was enacted after WWII providing the expansion and reorganization of
the NBI.
A. RA 6725 B. RA 2678
C. RA 4864 D. RA 1960
48. In the Criminal Justice system, government must keep within the
framework of laws that protect individual rights. Who among these people is
being process in the said system?
A. the offended party B. law
C. justice D. accused
49. The known forgotten person of the Criminal Justice system –
A. offender B. prosecutor
C. accused D. victim
50. Who are the gate keepers of Criminal Justice system?
A. Jail guard B. Court
C. Correction D. Law enforcement

HUMAN BEHAVIOR & CRISIS MANAGEMENT


1. A false belief based on an incorrect inference about external reality and
firmly sustained despite clear evidence to the contrary, and which is not related
to cultural or religious beliefs
A. False alarm B. Wrong perception
C. Incoherence D. Delusion
2. Feeling that is private and subjective, condition of psychological arousal an
expression or display of distinctive somatic and automatic responses.
A. Emotion B. Stimuli
C. Feelings D. Attitude
3. Form of violent crime where there is the killing of several victims in three or
more separate incidents over a week, a month, a year.
A. Spree Murder B. Serial Murder
C. Mass Murder D. Murder
4. He developed the study of body build and criminal behavior or Somatotype
School, which held that manifest distinct physiques that makes them
susceptible to particular types of delinquent behavior.
A. Charles Goring B. William Sheldon
C. Charles Darwin D. Edwin Sutherland
5. It is a method whereby an organized group or party seeks to achieve its
avowed aims chiefly through the systematic use of violence.
A. conventional warfare B. insurrection
C. terrorism D. insurgency

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6. The calculated use of violence or threat of violence to attain political,


religious or ideological goals by instilling fear or using intimidation or coercion.
A. Crisis B. Strike
C. Crime D. Terrorism
7. The one who makes complete estimate of the crisis situation and plans his
courses of actions upon arrival at the incident area while negotiation is in
progress is the
A. Chief Negotiaton B. Tactical Commander
C. Fire fighting team D. Support Unit Commander
8. The reaction to facts of relationship between the individual and his
environment. Mainly influence by both genes and environment.
A. Behavior B. Attitude
C. Human behavior D. Actions
9. They believes threatened/ persecuted they are highly suspicious of persons.
Acts with anti-value set to relieve stress or vindicate himself and impulsive.
A. Socio path B. Paranoid hostage taker
C. Terrorists D. Neurotic
10. This is the inexcusable reverential awe of a specific situation when there is
no existing evil that are totally out of dimensions.
A. Phobias B. Obsessive-compulsive
C. Anxiety neurosis D. Exposure
11. According to Frederick Hacker, these are terrorists who are using terrorism
to change society.
A. Crusaders B. Crazies
C. Criminals D. Mercenaries
12. According to psychoanalysis, this refers to the conscience of man.
A. Ego B. Id
C. super ego D. spirit
13. An individual with strongly self-centered pattern of emotion, fantasy and
thought.
A. Delusion B. Extrovert C. Hallucination
D. Introvert
14. An irrational fear which is fixed, intense, uncontrollable and often has no
reasonable foundation.
A. Phobia B. Delusions
C. Regression D. Anxiety
15. A person jumps out of the window to his death because he believes he can
fly is _______.
A. Psychotic B. Mental retardate C. Neurotic
D. Pyromanic
16. A very important factor in effective negotiation is:
A. Containment of the area
B. Knowing where the hostages are located
C. Efficient communication
D. Letting the hostage taker know that he can’t win
17. Controlling situation and area and area by people involved.
A. Containment B. Crowd control
C. Crime control D. Traffic control
18. Which of the following refers to the fear of robbers -
A. Anthophobia B. Bibliophobia
C. Cardiophobia D. Harpaophobia
19. Focuses on external activities that can be observed and measured.
A. Behavioral B. Cognitive
C. Humanistic D. Neurological
20. When girls see her mother as rival for her father’s attention this complex is
termed as…
A. Oedipus Complex B. Electra Complex
C. Penis Envy D. Athena Complex
21. It is a means to describe the form of criminal behavior
A. Sociology B. Typology

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C. Psychology D. Psychiatric
22. It is an act or manner of running or handling decisive materials.
A. Police management B. Negotiation
C. Crisis management D. Negotiator
23. It is an irresistible impulse to steal in the absence of economic motive.
A. Pedophilia B. Kleptomania
C. Neurotic D. Satyriasis
24. It is the last option to be considered in a hostage situation.
A. Negotiation B. Denial to demands C. Assault
D. Give in to demands
25. It is the study of social interactions of people.
A. Transactional analysis B. Response analysis
C. Adjustment concept D. Social analysis
26. It means to arrange by conferring or discussing.
A. Validate B. Vindicate
C. Negotiate D. Extricate
27. It refers to all types of internal forces which may prevent a person from
committing a crime.
A. Contact with reality B. Internal Inhibition
C. Need frustration D. Situational crime potential
28. This is refers to the conscience of man.
A. ego B. id
C. super ego D. spirit
29. Is the result or product of interplay of biology, psychology, and culture, just
is as normal personality.
A. Schizophrenia B. psychoses
C. neurosis D. split mind
30. Is the voluntary or involuntary attitude a person adopts in order to fit
society idea of right or wrong.
A. Attitude B. Behavior
C. Behavioral D. Human behavior
31. Maria killed Jose while she was asleep. What abnormality was manifested?
A. Delirium B. Hypnotism
C. Semisomnolence D. Somnambulism
32. Moral aspect of personality that judges our personality and is also known
as the conscience.
A. Id B. Ego
C. Super ego D. All of the foregoing
33. People who take hostages during a period of prolonged frustration, despair
and problems.
A. Common criminals B. Psychotics
C. Political terrorists D. Person in crisis
34. People who take hostages for personal, rather than ideological reasons.
A. Person in crisis B. Political terrorists
C. Common criminals D. Psychotics
35. Reacting to events with alertness and vigilance and a feeling of persecution.
A. dementia praecox B. frustration
C. paranoia D. aggression
36. Sexual gratification and excitement by wearing clothes and acting the rule
of opposite sex.
A. Incest B. Lesbianism
C. Fetishism D. Transvestism
37. Scientific approach based upon mental processes and characteristics.
A. psychogenic determinism B. emotional determinism
C. biological determinism D. criminological determinism
38. The first step in a hostage situation.
A. Assault B. Control
C. crowd control D. negotiation
39. The following are characteristics common to terrorists except one
A. operate openly B. highly mobile

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C. promote fear D. possess limited resources


40. The following are qualities which must be possessed by a police negotiator
except one:
A. Flexible B. Irrational
C. Patient D. knows psychology
41. The two-factor theory was known as the best formulation of explaining the
existence of emotion. It is comprised of cognitive factor and ______.
A. physiological changes B. physiological arousal
C. physiological factor D. physiological response
42. It is sometimes known as the study of the cognitive interpretation.
A. james-lange theory B. two factor theory
C. cannon-bard theory D. cognitive theory of motivation
43. The following are symptoms of depression, except:
A. suicide attempt B. have trouble on making decision
C. using illegal drugs D. feeling of guilt
44. The traits that were shared by people with the same culture were the
common traits but, if it just superficial and less enduring it is termed as the:
A. Common B. Secondary
C. Central D. Cardinal
45. All of the following are not the causes of depression, except:
A. narcotics use B. party
C. fair D. speech
46. Which of the following is considered as the most difficult to resolve.
A. approach-approach conflict
B. approach-avoidance conflict
C. avoidance-avoidance conflict
D. multiple approach-avoidance conflict
47. These personality traits known as individual are very unique to the person
as stated by:
A. Cardinal B. Allport
C. Central D. Wade
48. Stress is the consequence of the failure of a person to respond in any
physical threats. The word was coined by Hans Hugo Bruno Selye in:
A. 1933 B. 1930
C. 1932 D. 1935
49. Presenting a sophisticated topic in front of your classmate will fall on what
specific type of stress.
A. brief naturalistic stress B. acute time
C. short term stress D. long term stress
50. A type of depression that takes a long time but with less depressive
symptoms.
A. major depressive disorder B. psychotic disorder
C. SAD D. dysthymia
51. It is not common as major depression or even dysthymia and sometimes
being referred to as an illness which is manic-depressive in nature.
A. Bipolar disorde B. psychotic depression
C. endogenous depression D. reactive depression
52. As to the types of long term stress, this may have a long-lasting effects on
the emotional and mental health of the person.
A. Distant stress B. distant stressor
C. chronic stress D. stressful event sequence
53. This refers to a significant loss of contact with reality.
A. Schizophrenia B. psychosis
C. neurosis D. split mind
54. Which behavior is characterized by the attempts of committing suicide.
A. Maladaptive behavior B. psychosis
C. somatoform disorder D. dissociative disorder
55. Taking the licensure examination for criminologists. The statement best
describes:
A. brief naturalistic stress B. acute time

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C. short term stress D. long term stress


56. Which of the following is true about personal distress?
A. inability to reach goals
B. disruption to social group functioning
C. anxious
D. all of these
57. All but one, are the different types of mental disorder.
A. personality disorder B. neurosis
C. psychosis D. gender identity disorder
58. Unfaithful boyfriend suspects his girlfriend to have other “LOVER”. The
statement best describes;
A. sublimation B. displacement
C. suppression D. projection
59. It is considered as behavior that is noticeable departure from the accepted
norm.
A. Deviation of norm B. Abnormal behavior
C. Deviated behavior D. Standard behavior
60. These people are just simply confused and that they could experience
hallucination or delusion, these people falls on the category of bizarre behavior.
What do hallucination means?
A. Bizarre behavior B. impaired functioning
C. Disruptive behavior D. false perception

INTRODUCION TO CRIMINOLOGY
1. A body of knowledge regarding crime as a social phenomenon.
A. criminal psychology B. criminal
C. criminal law D. criminology
2. Absence of a complaining victim in the typology of crime is classified as
public order crime or?
A. Crimes against person B. Victimless crime
C. Physical crime D. Public scandal
3. A crime that is committed in the shortest possible time such as libel.
A. Acquisitive crime B. Extinctive crime
C. Seasonal crime D. Instant Crime
4. Are those who commit crime due to less physical stamina and less self
control.
A. Criminoloid B. Psuedo Criminals

5. A state of normlessness as proposed by Durkheim that describes France


during its trying times.
A. Strain Theory B. Anomie
C. Labeling Theory D. Chicago Area Project
6. A sub-discipline of criminology which focuses on victims of crime.
A. penology B. criminal psychology
C. criminal profiling D. victimology
7. A theory that is based on utilitarian concept of free will and greatest good of
the greatest number.
A. Classical School B. Free will Theory
C. Deterrence Theory D. Hedonistic Calculus
8. A type of crime in which the end result is destructive.
A. acquisitive crime B. extinctive crime
C. seasonal crime D. static crime
9. A voice of reason bidding oneself to avoid evil and do good.
A. virtue B. value
C. dignity D. conscience
10. It is a branch of sociology that studies the characteristics of human
populations.
A. Demography B. Sociology

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C. Anthropology D. Criminology
11. It is the study of human society, its origin, structure, functions and
direction.
A. psychology B. criminology
C. sociology D. anthropology
12. It is the study of the formation of the skull in relation to the behavior of the
criminal.
A. Phrenology B. Criminology
C. Criminology D. Entomology
13. Science concerned with improving the quality of human off springs.
A. Genetics B. Eugenics
C. Criminology D. Heredity
14. Study of criminality in relation to spatial distribution in a community.
A. Criminal epidemiology B. Criminal demography
C. Criminal psychology D. Criminal determinism
15. Study of human mind in relation to criminality
A. Criminal demography B. Criminal physical anthropology
C. Criminal psychiatry D. Criminal psychology
16. The following are characteristics of criminology, except:
A. Nationalistic B. Flexible
C. Dynamic D. Applied Science
17. The basis of criminal liability is human freewill and the purpose of the
penalty is retribution.
A. Classical theory B. Eclectics Theory
C. Multiple factor theory D. Positivist theory
18. The following are the classifications of criminals by Cesare Lombroso
except one…
A. Born Criminals B. Criminal by Passion
C. Psuedo Criminals D. Deficient Criminals
19. The primary advocate of the Positivist School in Criminology.
A. Cesare Beccaria B. Cesare Lombroso
C. Edwin Sutherland D. Leonard Keeler
20. The principle that events including criminal behavior that has sufficient
causes.
A. positivism B. determinism
C. atavism D. narcissism
21. The principle which states that man, by nature, always tries to maximize
pleasure and avoid pain.
A. Utopia B. Hedonism
C. Socialism D. Atavism
22. The purpose of penalty in the Positivist School of Criminology.
A. Retribution B. Reformation
C. Rejection D. Restitution
23. This theory believes that punishment should fit the criminal and not the
crime committed
A. Positivist theory B. Neo-classical theory
C. Classical theory D. Differential Association Theory
24. This theory postulates that the ordinary routines of life present
opportunities for crime.
A. Functionalist theory B. Routine activities theory
C. Rational choice theory D. Control theory
25. This theory puts the focus on the process of naming behaviors and the
people that perform them.
A. Functionalist theory B. Anomie theory
C. Rational choice theory D. Labeling theory
26. This type of physique has relatively predominant muscles, bones and motor
organs of the body.
A. Viscerotonic B. Mesomorphic
C. Endomorphic D. Ectomorphic
27. What law created the board of criminology in the Philippines?

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A. RA 5606 B. RA 6560
C. RA 6506 D. RA 8551
28. What theory considers crime as a natural social phenomenon?
A. Somatotyping Theory B. Differential Association Theory
C. Anomie Theory D. Psychoanalytical Theory
29. Which is an attempt at scientific analysis of the study of causes or reasons
for crime?
A. Penology B. Sociology of Law
C. Criminal Psychology D. Criminal Etiology
30. Who is a person who kills three or more persons in three or more separate
events?
A. Serial Killer B. Spree Killer
C. Mass Murderer D. Homicidal

31. This school of criminology was established based on philosophy of


utilitarianism. It was particularly founded by Cesare “Beccaria” Bonesana. This
was known as the classical school. What is that treatise on the legal reform
that became the pillar of the school?
A. Classical School B. Positivist School
C. Essay on Crimes D. Essay on Crimes and Punishment
32. This book contains all of the Stigmata of a potential criminal written by
Lombroso on hi medical studies in the inmate of the different prison.
A. The Criminal Mind B. Atavistic
C. Atavism D. The Criminal Man
33. Crime is caused by the rational effort of man to augment his pleasure and
to minimize his pains is a notion coming from:
A. positivist school B. classical school
C. Chicago school D. neo-classical school
34. All of the following are the description of a criminal man according to
Lombroso, Except one:
A. Symmetry of the Face B. Excessive length of Arms
C. Abnormal Dentition D. Defects of the Thorax
35. Which of the following is not true about the principles of Positivism?
A. stated that criminality is inherited
B. criminal behavior is caused by internal factors
C. imposition of deterrence
D. understanding criminality through the study of human behavior
36. All of the following except one are the indicative of criminal tendency
according to the Criminal anthropology of Cesare Lombroso.
A. measurement of the hairline
B. measurement of the jaw
C. measurement of the cheek bones
D. measurement of the cleft palate
37. Cesare Lombroso was considered as the father of Modern Criminology and
the father of the Italian school of Criminology. Which of the following is not
part of his works?
A. Identifying the three types of criminal
B. he took a scientific approach in the study of crime
C. he was the one who wrote “The Criminal Mind”
D. none of these
38. Attempting to provide a scientific analysis of the causes of crime is a
function of criminal etiology as one of the principal divisions of Criminology.
What division is treating youthful offenders?
A. Criminal etiology B. Criminal sociology
C. Sociology of law D. Penology
39. Which of the following is not included in the coverage of Criminology in
terms of theoretical field of study?
A. Sociology of crime B. causes of crime
C. meaning of crime in law D. community reaction to crime
40. Which is not true about Criminology?

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A. considered as an applied science


B. It is stable and it varies from one time and place to another
C. study of crime as a social phenomenon
D. none of these
41. In the Criminal Justice system, government must keep within the
framework of laws that protect individual rights. Who among these people is
being process in the said system?
A. the offended party B. law
C. justice D. accused
42. The following are those something that are left by the perpetrator in the
scene of crime which was commonly termed as physical evidences, except:
A. witness B. kerosene
C. cadaver D. prints
43. It is concomitant with the advancement of other sciences that has been
applied to it. The statement best describes:
A. dynamic B. criminology
C. social condition D. criminalistics
44. All but one is the task of the Criminal Justice System.
A. save life and property
B. enforce the law
C. removing dangerous in the community
D. rehabilitating offenders
45. Ex post facto law is one of the constitutional rights of every Filipino people
which means that, a person should not be put into jeopardy where there is no
effective law forbidding the particular act, except:
A. the suspect was not yet arrested
B. the law is in favor to the offender
C. retroactive effect
D. all of these
46. The earliest broad laws existing, these edicts are based on a retributire
system of “an eye for an eye”, “a tooth for a tooth”.
A. Lex taliones B. Code of Hammurabi
C. Code of Kalantiao D. Revised penal Code
47. Commonly known as “Victimless crime”.
A. Occasional crime B. Political crime
C. Public order crime D. Conventional crime
48. The machinery of a state or government which enforces the rules of
conduct necessary to protect life, liberty and property and maintain peace and
order.
A. Criminal Justice SystemB. Criminal justice Education
C. Criminal Justice D. Criminal Justice Research
49. All of the following except one are the concepts drawn by Lombroso in his
Positivist theory.
A. Psychiatry B. Society Darwinism
C. Physiognomy D. Eugenics
50. The science of classifying human physical characteristics.
A. Freewill B. Somatology
C. Positivism D. Atavism

JUVENILE DELINQUENCY
1. Any person who shall engage in trading and dealing with children including,
but not limited to the act of buying and selling of a child for money or for any
consideration or barter
A. Child Exploitation B. Child trafficking
C. Child prostitution D. Child abuse
2. A pattern of repeated or habitual unauthorized absences from school by any
juvenile subject to compulsory education laws is called
A. School Delinquency B. Status Offense
C. School Truancy D. Deviation

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3. A person appointed by the court to act as legal guardian of a child even if his
parents is still alive when the best interest of the said child so requires.
A. Parens Patriae B. Guardian ad Litem
C. Cousel De Officio D. Adopter
4. A sexual desire of an adult for children. This adult may obtain sexual
gratification from various forms of sexual intimacies and with the young.
A. Homosexual B. Pedophilia
C. Masochism D. Sex maniac
5. Which of the following will not exempt the child from criminal liability?
A. A child is 15 year and below who acted without discernment
B. A child is above 15 years but below 18 years who acted without
discernment
C. A child is above 15 years but below 18 years who acted with
discernment
D. A child is above 18 but below 21 years
6. Children shall not be ____to become members of the AFP or its civilian units
or other armed groups, nor not be allowed to take part in the fighting, or used
as guides, couriers or spices.
A. Invited B. Forced
C. Recruited D. Trained
7. It is characterized by infantile level of response, lack of conscience, deficient
feeling of affection to others and aggression to environment and other people.
A. Psychopathic personality B. Neurotic personality
C. Schizophrenic personality D. compulsive neurosis
8. It refers to the apprehension or taking into custody of child in conflict with
the law by law enforcement officers or private citizens is termed as?
A. Arrest B. Child Custody
C. Initial Contact D. All of these
9. No person shall employ child models in all ____ or advertisements promoting
alcoholic beverages, intoxicating drinks, tobacco and its byproducts and
violence.
A. Aspects B. Commercial
C. Production D. Shows
10. Refers to children male or female, who for money, profit or any
consideration influence by an adult or syndicate, indulge in sexual intercourse.
A. Juvenile delinquents
B. Children exploited in prostitution
C. Abandoned children
D. Children in conflict with the law
11. A child deserted by his parents or guardians for six continuous months is
classified as,
A. Neglected B. Dependent
C. Abandoned D. Abused
12. A child whose basic needs have been deliberately unattended.
A. neglected child B. abandoned child
C. dependent child D. abusive child
13. All but one, are the reasons on why a child will become truant.
A. unattractive school life B. family problems
C. reasonable mentors D. domestic problems
14. All parents are required to enroll their children in school to complete at
least.
A. Nursery Education B. Tertiary Education
C. Elementary Education D. Secondary Education
15. A child deserted by his parents or guardians for six continuous months is
classified as,
A. Neglected B. Dependent
C. Abandoned D. Abused
16. A child whose basic needs have been deliberately unattended.
A. neglected child B. abandoned child
C. dependent child D. abusive child

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17. All but one, are the reasons on why a child will become truant.
A. unattractive school life B. family problems
C. reasonable mentors D. domestic problems
18. All parents are required to enroll their children in school to complete at
least.
A. Nursery Education B. Tertiary Education
C. Elementary Education D. Secondary Education
19. Barangay Funds may be appropriated to provide annual scholarship for…
A. Delinquent children B. Parentless children
C. Indigent children D. Homeless children
20. Children shall be given priority during __________ as a result of armed
conflict.
A. Education B. Evacuation
C. Treatment D. War
21. Dependent, rebellious, selfish, demanding, impatient and emotional
A. Adult ego state B. Child ego state
C. Parent ego state D. None of these
22. Educational system should extend particular care and attention to young
persons, who are at…
A. Risk B. Social risk
C. Emotional Risk D. Security Risk
23. How many months are needed in order for the child to be considered as
abandoned?
A. 3 months B. 9 months
C. 6 months D. 2 months
24. It is the most basic social institution and is the most potentially effective
agency of social control.
A. Church B. Community
C. Family D. School
25. It is used to denote those various offenses committed by children under the
age of
A. Juvenile delinquency B. Juvenile acts
C. Juvenile crime D. Juvenile delinquent
26. Offender who is less than eighteen years old is classified as:
A. Adult offender
B. Senile offender
C. Youthful offender
D. Special Protection for Children Law
27. One of the following is a least cause of juvenile delinquency:
A. Neglected homes B. Police inefficiency
C. Lack of proper guidance D. Delinquent parents
28. The following are examples of delinquency except one:
A. Children out of parental control
B. Children with high grades in school
C. School dropouts without justifiable reasons
D. Waywardness of children
29. The goal of any juvenile justice system is to –
A. Ensure that children are in school
B. Punish and inculcate discipline among children
C. Remove children from streets
D. Save children from becoming criminals
30. The most effective institution for control of juvenile delinquency is.
A. The Church B. The control of the Police
C. The School D. The Home
31. The period when a person gets liberated from parents authority is called?
A. Period of Conception B. Period of Adoption
C. Period of Emancipation D. Menstrual Period
32. Under PD 603, what do we call a person under 18 years old who committed
a crime?
A. Child B. Youthful Offender

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C. Juvenile D. Child in Conflict with the Law


33. Under RA 9344, a child who is exactly 15 years of age is ______ from
criminal liability.
A. Exempted B. Not exempted
C. Mitigated D. Aggravated
34. Under the new law, what is the age of emancipation?
A. 15 B. 18
C. 21 D. 25
35. What do we call children who are in a places of war?
A. Child in Warzone Area B. Child Soldiers
C. Child in Conflict Zone D. Child in Conflict with the Law
36. What institution is being termed as the “cradle of human personality”?
A. School B. Home
C. Church D. Police
37. What is the primary right of parents?
A. To provide for the child’s quality education
B. To provide for the child’s shelter
C. To provide for the child’s upbringing
D. To provide for the child’s clothing
38. What will happen to the sentence rendered by the court to a boy of 10 who
raped a girl of his age?
A. Mitigated B. Suspended
C. Serve D. Commuted
39. Which of the following is not an element of social bonding?
A. Attachment B. Commitment
C. Involvement D. Conscience
40. Which of the following should not released to the press by the police
officer?
A. Length of investigation B. Juveniles age
C. Juveniles name D. Type of crime committed
41. Delinquency prevention programs are intended primarily to:
A. streamline juvenile court process
B. prevent young people from getting into trouble with the law
C. make the people more effective in dealing with juveniles
D. rehabilitate young people who are drug users
42. This may include the presence of both parents but who are irresponsible
that children experience constant quarrel in the home.
A. Separated Home B. Delinquent Home
C. Disturbed Home D. Broken Home
43. Refers to the apprehension or taking into custody of a child in conflict with
the law by the law enforcement officers or private citizens.
A. Arrest of the child
B. Taking the custody of the child
C. Initial contact with the child
D. Initial investigation of the child
44. It is the mental incapacity of an individual to understand the difference
between right from wrong and its consequences.
A. Discernment B. Judgment
C. Abnormality D. Sane
45. This provides temporary protection and care to children requiring
emergency reception.
A. Receiving home B. Shelter-care institution
C. Reception home D. Youth home
46. A principle that requires a process of resolving conflicts with the maximum
involvement of the victim, the offender and the community.
A. Retributive Justice B. Juvenile Justice
C. Criminal Justice D. Restorative Justice
47. A community based program for intervention that includes measures to
assist children at risk. This statement refers to?
A. Primary intervention B. Tertiary intervention

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C. Secondary intervention D. None of these


48. Refers to the program that the child in conflict with the law is required to
undergo after he/she is found responsible for an offense without resorting to
formal court proceedings.
A. Intervention B. Diversion program
C. Rehabilitation D. Reintegration
49. An institution that provides care, custody, protection and maintenance of
children for placement in any child-caring institution or home or under the
care and custody of persons for purposes of adoption, guardianship or foster
care.
A. Child caring institution B. Maternity homes
C. Child placing agency D. Receiving homes
50. PD 603 took its effect June 10, 1975 six months after its approval date.
When was this provision approved?
A. Dec. 10, 1974 B. Dec. 10, 1975
C. June 10, 1974 D. June 10, 1975
51. In the history, this period is beginning of reason and humanism. In what
century the enlightenment appear?
th th
A. 17 century B. 18 century
th th
C. 19 century D. 20 century
52. It is considered as the cradle of human personality.
A. Home B. Family
C. School D. Church
53. A place of residence whose primary function is to give shelter and care to
pregnant women and their infants.
A. Receiving homes B. Shelter care institution
C. Youth homes D. Maternity homes
54. Refers to a 24-hour residential care facility that provides care, treatment
and rehabilitation services for children in conflict with the law.
A. Receiving home B. Youth rehabilitation center
C. Child caring institution D. Maternity home
55. It is considered as the cradle of human personality.
A. Home B. Family
C. School D. Church
56. A place of residence whose primary function is to give shelter and care to
pregnant women and their infants.
A. Receiving homes B. Shelter care institution
C. Youth homes D. Maternity homes
57. Refers to a 24-hour residential care facility that provides care, treatment
and rehabilitation services for children in conflict with the law.
A. Receiving home B. Youth rehabilitation center
C. Child caring institution D. Maternity home
58. Refers to offenses which discriminate only against a child, while an adult
does not suffer any penalty for committing similar acts.
A. Misdemeanour B. Status Offense
C. Offense D. Felony
59. Otherwise known as Special Protection of Children Against Child Abuse,
Exploitation, and Discrimination Act.
A. RA 7658 B. PD 603
C. RA 7610 D. RA 9344
60. Otherwise known as An Act Prohibiting the Employment of Children?
A. RA 7658 B. PD 603
C. RA 7610 D. RA 9344

POLICE ETHICS
1. Among the following choices, which one should be the least priority in the
enforcement of the law.
A. saving the injured victim B. saving the property

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C. cordoning the crime scene D. preservation of the evidence


2. An act of the person that copies the work or idea of another person and
presents it as his own.
A. Plagiarism B. Copying
C. Editing D. Copyright
3. An established and generally accepted moral values refer to:
A. Ethical Standards B. Morality
C. Integrity D. Judicious use of authority
4. Arresting a suspect without a warrant of arrest may tantamount to;
A. Neglect of duty B. Nonfeasance
C. Malfeasance D. Misfeasance
5. As a general rule, police officers are not permitted or allowed to engage in
any other business or calling.
A. Bribery B. Moonlighting
C. Neglect of duty D. Misconduct
6. Authority of a person he exercised over his subordinates.
A. chain of command B. command responsibility
C. responsibility D. command
7. A voice of reason bidding oneself to avoid evil and do good.
A. virtue B. value
C. dignity D. conscience
8. In the PNP basic issues, what is the key to professionalism?
A. Career Development B. Career Enhancement
C. Career Management D. Career Upliftment
9. It is designed to influence public opinion in favor of the police force.
A. Public Information Program
B. Public Relations Program
C. Civic Action programs
D. Mass Communications Programs
10. It refers to the omission of some acts which ought to be performed?
A. Misfeasance B. Malfeasance
C. Nonfeasance D. Negligence
11. It refers to the sum total of dealings of the police with the people it serves
A. Police Community RelationsB. Police Relations
C. Public Relations D. Human Relations
12. The best PCR a police officer can do to the community is
A. harass the people B. perform his job well
C. dress well D. always present in the office
13. The courage to endure without yielding.
A. perseverance B. endurance
C. fortitude D. prudence
14. The following are the canon of police ethics except one;
A. Proper conduct of behavior
B. Obedience to superior and loyalty
C. Attitude towards police profession
D. Firmness in refusing gifts or favors
15. The improper enforcement of the law would mean;
A. Neglect of duty B. Nonfeasance
C. Malfeasance D. Misfeasance
16. The leniency in due process refers to:
A. Over enforcement B. Under enforcement
C. Zero tolerance D. Preventive enforcement
17. The police officer must be trustworthy and upholds the truth at all times.
This is called in police ethics as?
A. Nobility B. Integrity
C. Trustworthiness D. Honesty
18. These are the specific indicators of shared priorities and respect.
A. Image and visibility B. Trust and competency
C. Misconduct and corruption D. Priorities and dependability
19. The study of standards of conduct and moral judgment.

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A. community relations B. ethics


C. logic D. psychology
20. The wise use of one’s judgment, personal experience and common sense to
decide a particular situation.
A. Authority B. Decision
C. Discretion D. Evaluation
21. This as an unlawful act committed by policemen who caught gambling bet
collector, pusher, drug user.
A. Fixes B. Shakedowns
C. Gambling D. Gratuities
22. This is known as the moral obligation that depends upon freewill.
A. Task B. Duty
C. Services D. Rule
23. This refers to the sum total of dealings of the police with the people it
serves.
A. Human Relations B. Police Relations
C. Police Community RelationsD. Police Public Relations
24. This refers to unfair or unjust acts usually given to friends or relatives.
A. Deviance B. Corruption
C. Favoritism D. Misconduct
25. This right is an individuals’ right in participating in government affairs.
A. Civil Rights B. Bill of Right
C. Political Right D. Human Right
26. What disciplinary measure, do you think, will most likely produce
discontentment and grievance?
A. Unusual strictness B. Inconsistent administration
C. Severity of punishment D. Impersonal attitude
27. What is the mental capacity to distinguish right from wrong?
A. Discernment B. Judgment
C. Knowledge D. Wisdom
28. What is the basic weapon of police officers?
A. Gun B. Uniform
C. Whistle D. Knowledge of the Law
29. Which of the following is a pleasant activity to be performed by a police
officer on duty?
A. Using firearm as for warning shot
B. Acceptance of gratuities and donations
C. Non-partisan police activities
D. All of these
30. Which of the following is not a police custom on courtesy?
A. Salute B. address/title
C. giving gifts D. courtesy call
31. A police Officer or person acting and or conducting himself according to his
professional conduct and ethical standard is –
A. An Ethical Person B. A disciplined Person
C. An ideal Professional D. A moral Person
32. It is the essence of good manners, a manifestation of sportsmanship and
an exposition of gentility and culture.
A. Courtesy B. Discipline C. Loyalty
D. Morale
33. It refers to the commitment, dignity and attitude of an individual towards
work and his integrity and his practice of the core moral value principles.
A. Conduct B. Morality
C. Professionalism D. Ethics
34. It is the power of lawful authority to govern his subjects and to make laws
for them.
A. Right of Property B. Juridical rights
C. Right of Jurisdiction D. Alienable rights
35. Those actions which stand neutral in relation to the norm of morality. They
are neither good nor bad in themselves.

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A. Moral actions B. Immoral actions


C. Amoral actions D. Semi- moral actions
36. Which of the following refers to the set of conducts and behavior governing
a group, a class, or organization?
A. Ethical Standards B. Professional Standards
C. Code of Conduct D. Group Ethics
37. The doing either through ignorance, inattention or malice, of that which the
police officer had no legal right to do at all, as where he acts without any
authority whatsoever or exceeds, ignores or abuses his powers.
A. Incompetence B. Dishonesty
C. Misconduct D. Neglect of Duty
38. Higher levels of professional police service is on demand nowadays, in view
of ________.
A. the changing role of the police
B. the changing economic environment
C. higher pay scale due to standardization
D. more applicants to the police job
39. One common violation committed by law enforcement is the violation of due
process of law. Which of the following best explain due process of law?
A. Law which hears before it condemns
B. Law which proceeds upon inquiry
C. Law which renders judgment only
D. All of these
40. Who was the English person introduced the principles which might be
considered as a version of code of ethics?
A. Sir Henry Fielding B. Sir Robert Peel
C. Hippocrates D. Quetelet
41. A general approaches in police community relation program which is
directed towards the general public or various enclaves within the society.
A. Externally Oriented B. Service Oriented
C. Internally Oriented D. Youth Oriented
42. This must be performed by an agent who decides willfully to perform the
act. The statement is referring to:
A. morality B. acts of man
C. ethics D. human acts
43. Which of the following is the distinction of human acts between acts of
man?
A. deliberate B. physiological movement
C. instinctive D. biological
44. Avoiding a conduct of vandalism is a compliance of what duty?
A. affirmative duty B. positive duty
C. natural duty D. negative duty
45. It is a form of consequentialism, where punishment is forward looking
which was founded by Jeremy Bentham. It is the principles of utilitarianism.
Which became a part of what school of thought?
A. Utilitarianism B. positivist
C. retributive D. classical
46. In case it is obtain in violation of section 12 shall be inadmissible in
evidence against the person in accused. The statement is referring to:
A. incommunicado B. admission
C. torture D. secret detention
47. They are neither considered as moral or immoral and sometimes known as
psychic responses.
A. fear B. habits
C. violence D. passion
48. A feeling of frustration that dictated L. Umba to think and give consent in
possible things that he might commit is called?
A. Human acts B. Commanded acts
C. Elicited acts D. Acts of man
49. The statement that “the Filipino is worth dying for” would greatly describe:

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A. duty B. obligation
C. rights D. value
50. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
A. canons B. standards of practice
C. tenets D. code of ethics

INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTION
1. A deduction of sentence given to prisoner in recognition of his good conduct
or good behavior.
A. Parole B. Good Conduct Time Allowance
C. Good Conduct Pass D. All of these
2. A person convicted and sentenced to serve for not more than six months is
classified as –
A. Municipal prisoner B. City prisoner
C. Insular prisoner D. Colonist
3. A continuing application of the treatment program.
A. Diversification
B. Execution of the treatment program
C. Reclassification
D. None of these
4. A finally convicted able–bodied inmates maybe required to work for at least
how many hours in a day?
A. 4 hours B. 6 hours
C. 8 hours D. none of these
5. An inmate maybe excused from mandatory labor if he or she is...
A. over 55 years of age B. over 60 years of age
C. over 65 years of age D. over 70 years of age
6. An open institution usually a penal farm or camp
A. Minimum Security Institution
B. Medium Security Institution
C. Maximum Security Institution
D. None of these
7. First to use punitive imprisonment
A. England B. United States of America
C. Germany D. None of these
8. A prisoner sentenced for more than three years is under the jurisdiction of
the
A. City Jail B. District Jail
C. Provincial Jail D. Bureau of Corrections
9. Detention prisoners who are awaiting judgment or trial of their case are
under the supervision and control of
A. Provincial Jails
B. National Bilibid Prisons
C. Bureau of Corrections
D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
10. It is an institution intended to detain or house political offenders.
A. Iwahig Penal farm B. Sablayan Prison Farm
C. Davao Penal Farm D. San Ramon Prison and Penal farm
11. Intelligence and personality test are administered by-
A. Psychologist B. Psychiatrist
C. Correctional officer D. Social worker
12. For security purposes, what is the minimum required ratio in escorting an
offender when in transit?
A. 1:2+2 B. 1:2+1
C. 1:1+1 D. 1:1+2
13. It exercise supervision and control over provincial jails.
A. BJMP

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B. Bureau of Corrections
C. Provincial Government
D. Parole and Probation Administration
14. It insures a more careful selection of the institution in which the prisoner is
to be confined.
A. Courts B. Quarantine Unit
C. Correction D. Reception and Diagnostic Center
15. The ideal ratio on escort is ____ prison guard for every ____ number of
inmates.
A. 1:2 B. 1:4
C. 1:7 D. 1:12
16. The basis of this old school of penology is the human free-will.
A. Penology School B. Classical School
C. Neo-classical D. Positivist
18. It is the primary objective of custodial and security division.
A. To prevent riots
B. To implement discipline
C. To help in reformation of prisoners
D. Security
19. How long is the duration of stay in the viewing of the deceased relative of
an inmate?
A. 2 hours B. 3 hours
C. 6 hours D. 12 hours
20. A municipal warden must have the minimum rank of.
A. SJO1 B. J/INSP
C. J/SINSP D. J/CINSP
21. A person who is detained for the violation of law or ordinance and has not
been convicted is a -
A. Detention Prisoner B. Provincial Prisoner
C. Municipal Prisoner D. City Prisoner
22. A person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three (3) years is a
_________________.
A. Municipal prisoner B. Detention prisoner
C. City prisoner D. National or Insular prisoner
23. Clinical services geared toward improving inmates behavior are
administered by
A. Psychiatrist B. Social Worker
C. Psychologist D. None of these
24. How many times counting of prisoner be made within 24-hours?
A. At least 3 times B. At least 4 times
C. At least 2 times D. At least 5 times
25. Ideal number of days for proper classification of newly convicted offenders
at the RDC?
A. 45 days B. 30 days
C. 55 days D. 15 days
26. Prisoners whose sentences are more than three years to capital
punishment are considered
A. municipal prisoners B. provincial prisoners
C. city prisoners D. insular prisoners
27. Refers to those who are confined in correctional facilities awaiting verdict in
their cases
A. Prisoner B. Detainees
C. Probationer D. Offender
28. The law creating the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP) is
A. RA 8551 B. RA 9165
C. RA 6975 D. RA 4890
29. An_____ program employs prisoners in various product or good producing
tasks.
A. Agricultural B. Industrial
C. Operational D. Administrative

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30. Prisoners whose sentences are more than three years to capital
punishment are considered
A. municipal prisoners B. provincial prisoners
C. city prisoners D. insular prisoners
31. Refers to those who are confined in correctional facilities awaiting verdict in
their cases
A. Prisoner B. Detainees
C. Probationer D. Offender
32. The law creating the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP) is
A. RA 8551 B. RA 9165
C. RA 6975 D. RA 4890
33. An_____ program employs prisoners in various product or good producing
tasks.
A. Agricultural B. Industrial
C. Operational D. Administrative
34. Giving punishment to a person so to serve as an example to others is the
theory of
A. Self-defense B. Social defense
C. Exemplary D. Equality
35. Infant born in prison may be allowed to stay with sentenced serving mother
for-
A. 1 year B. 2 year
C. 3 years D. 4 years
36. It prison management, force is used only by correctional institutions or
correctional officers in order to,
A. Exact respect
B. Enforce discipline during mass jailbreaks or riots
C. Show physical strength and power
D. Perform assignments
37. Operation conducted by the BJMP where a prisoner maybe checked at
anytime.
A. Search and seizure B. Confiscation
C. Inspection D. Operation greyhound
38. Person who are deemed instrumental on the reformation of prisoners due
to their daily contact with inmates?
A. Chaplain B. Warden
C. Psychologist D. Prison guards
39. A person convicted to serve 6 years imprisonment would be classified as
what kind of prisoner?
A. Municipal prisoner B. Insular prisoner
C. Provincial prisoner D. Detention prisoner
40. He was the first superintendent of Elmira Reformatory.
A. John Howard B. Zebulon Brockway
C. John Augustus D. Teodulo Natividad
41. It is given to prisoners who have returned to their places of confinement
within 48 hours after a calamity.
A. Good conduct time allowance
B. Special time allowance for loyalty
C. Visitation privileges
D. Good treatment allowance
42. One of the following is an admission procedure which involves the frisking
of the prisoner.
A. Identification B. Searching
C. Briefing/Orientation D. Minimum security prisoners
43. The features of the prison system were confinement of the prisoners in
these is cells days and night.
A. Pennsylvania B. Mammertime
C. Auburn D. Alcatraz
44. Pending the submission of the investigation report, the defendant may be
allowed on temporary liberty through.

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A. Release on recognizance B. Bail


C. Manifestation D. Cash bond
45. The Bureau of Corrections which is headed by the Director of Corrections is
under the
A. Department of Justice
B. Department of Interior and Local Government
C. Office of the President
D. None of these
46. If you have committed a crime and found guilty with it, then the court
decided that you will be serving a sentence of six months and one day.
According to your sentence, on what category of prisoner do you belong?
A. Municipal prisoner B. City jail prisoner
C. Provincial prisoner D. Sentenced prisoner
47. Institution for the confinement of persons who are awaiting final
disposition of their criminal cases and also for the service of those convicted
and punished with shorter sentences, usually up to three years.
A. Lock-up B. Ordinary Jail
C. Jail D. Work house
48. Introduces profit margin and religion congregate loan with efficient
discipline permitted to set up factory style working conditions and become the
first prison to achieve a profitable work program.
A. Pennsylvania B. Auburn
C. Walnut street jail D. Sins sing prison
49. A security camp that houses prisoners whose sentence are 20 years and
above, life termers or those under capital punishment, those with pending
cases, those under disciplinary punishment, those whose cases are on appeal,
and those under detention;
A. Maximum Security Camp B. Medium Security Camp
C. Minimum Security Camp D. None of these
50. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain convicted
offenders for longer or extended period of time, including those who are waiting
their death sentence.
A. Halfway house B. Farm house
C. Jail D. Prison
51. A satellite unit of NBP that houses the Mediums Security Risk prisoner
located near the Reception and Diagnostic Center (RDC) and Youth
Rehabilitation Center.
A. Camp Sampaguita B. Camp Bukang Liwayway
C. Camp Abelon D. Camp Abubakar
52. A ___, also called a 'block' or 'isolation cell', used to separate unruly,
dangerous, or vulnerable prisoners from the general population, also
sometimes used as punishment.
A. Segregation Unit B. Reception Unit
C. Quarantine Unit D. Cell 45
53. It is regarded as the most important program that aids in the rehabilitation
or prisoners
A. Recreational program B. Religious program
C. Educational program D. Employment of prisoners
54. Classification of an inmate as to entitlement who has served imprisonment
with good conduct for a period equivalent to 1/5 of the maximum term or of his
prison sentence or those who served 7 years in the case of those who was
meted with the penalty of life sentence.
A. First class inmates B. Second Class inmates
C. Third class inmates D. Colonist
55. Elmira Correctional Facility, known otherwise as ___, is a maximum
security prison located in New York in the USA. The prison is located in
Chemung County, New York in the City of Elmira.
A. “The school” B. “The hill”
C. “The rock” D. “The dungeon”

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56. Formerly it is a fortress of defense in Paris France and it was a symbol of


th
absolutism before the French revolution but in 17 century it was converted as
prisons on where hundreds of political prisoners are tortured and died.
A. Gulag of Russia B. Bastille Prisons
C. Toul Sleng Prisons D. Insein Prisons
57. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain persons awaiting
trial or adjudication or confine convicted offenders for a short period of
time.
A. Halfway houses B. Penal colonies
C. Jails D. All of these
58. If the color of the maximum Security prisoner is Tangerine, Medium
Security Prisoner is Blue, What color is the uniform for the Minimum Security?
A. Brown B. Gray
C. Orange D. Stripe White and Orange
59. It involves supervision of prisoners to insure punctual and orderly
movement from the dormitories, place of work, hospital and churches in
accordance with the daily schedules.
A. Control B. Custody
C. Discipline D. Inspection
60. It is amendment and penitence model of prison built in 1820’s were
communication among the prisoners was next to impossible, prisoners are
individually isolated.
A. Pennsylvania system B. Auburn Prison
C. Mammertime Prison D. Justinian Prison
61. It is a method whereby a prisoner has been released from correctional
facilities either temporary or absolute to which acceptance of the members of
the society is expected.
A. Community participation B. Community Participation
C. Reintegration D. Community backing
62. The act of prisoner trying to convert or induce another to change his
religious beliefs, sect or the like to another while under confinement is referred
to as
A. Proselytizing B. Initiation
C. Fraternization D. Inducement
63. The decree that formally opened the Old Bilibid Prison which was
constructed as the main penitentiary on Oroquieta Street, Manila and designed
to house the prison population of the country. This prison became known as
the “Carcel y Presidio Correccional” and could accommodate 1,127 prisoners.
A. Royal Decree of 1865 B. Revised Administrative Code
C. Royal Decree of 1905 D. Royal Decree of 1869
64. The Director of Prison at Valencia, Spain in 1835 who divided prisoners
into companies and appointed them as petty officers; also, he allowed the
reduction of inmate’s sentence by 1/3 for good behavior.
A. John Howard B. Dometz of France
C. Alexander Macanochie D. Manuel Montesimos
65. The idea that re-entry of an offender should be in the mainstream of society
rather than the usual abrupt re-entry at the end of a prison sentence.
A. Reintegration B. Deterrence
C. Incapacitation D. Rehabilitation
66. The procedure in the admission of prisoners the purpose of which is to
make sure that documents contains the signature of the judge or the signature
of the clerk of court, and the seal of the court is termed as:
A. Receiving B. Checking of commitment papers
C. Searching D. Identification
67. The putting of offenders in prison for the purpose of protecting the public
and at the same time rehabilitating them by requiring the latter to undergo
institutional treatment program is referred to as:
A. Imprisonment B. Trial
C. Conviction D. Detention

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MOCK BOARD EXAM REVIEWER

68. These refers to information concerning an inmate’s personal


circumstances, such as the offense committed, imposed sentence, criminal
case number in the trial, date of the commencement of the service of sentence
and other analogous information.
A. Prison Record B. Carpeta
C. Prisoner’s record D. Inmate’s Record
69. The prisoners who cannot be trusted in open condition and maybe
allowed to work outside the fence or walls of the penal institution but under
guards or escorts are known as:
A. Medium Security Prisoners B. Maximum Security Prisoners
C. Minimum Security Prisoners D. Super Maximum Security
Prisoners
70. The privilege to view the deceased relative is permitted if the wake is in the
place within a radius 30 km by road from the prison, if more than 30 km, the
privilege may be extended in the inmate provided the inmate can return to his
place of confinement during_______________ hours of the same day.
A. Sunlight B. Morning
C. AftTop of Formernoon D. Daylight
71. The procedure in admitting prisoners which purpose is to insure that the
person being committed is the same as the person being named in the
commitment order.
A. Receiving B. checking of commitment papers
C. Searching D. Identification
72. The prisoners who cannot be trusted in open condition and maybe
allowed to work outside the fence or walls of the penal institution but under
guards or escorts are known as:
A. Medium Security Prisoners B. Maximum Security Prisoners
C. Minimum Security Prisoners D. Super Maximum Security
Prisoners
73. The privilege to view the deceased relative is permitted if the wake is in the
place within a radius 30 km by road from the prison, if more than 30 km, the
privilege may be extended in the inmate provided the inmate can return to his
place of confinement during_______________ hours of the same day.
A. Sunlight B. Morning
C. AftTop of Formernoon D. Daylight
74. The procedure in admitting prisoners which purpose is to insure that the
person being committed is the same as the person being named in the
commitment order.
A. Receiving B. checking of commitment papers
C. Searching D. Identification
75. The society is protected from the further depredations of criminals if they
are all imprisoned immediately after committing a crime”. This justification of
penalty is known as
A. Expiation B. Reformation
C. Deterrence D. Protection.
76. This group consists of chronic troublemakers but not as dangerous as the
super security prisoners. They are not allowed to work outside the institution.
A. Maximum security prisoners B. Super security prisoners
C. Minimum security prisoners D. Medium security prisoners
77. This is group of prisoners who may be allowed to work outside the fence of
the institution under guard escorts. Generally they are employed as
agricultural workers.
A. Medium security prisoners B. Minimum Security Prisoners
C. Maximum Security Prisoners D. None of the above
78. What Prison system that is consisted in the solitary confinement of the
prisoners in their own cells day and night where they lived, slept, received
religious instruction or read the bible, and given the work and also known as
separate system?
A. Pennsylvania Prison System B. Auburn Prison System
C. Walnut Street D. Auburn System

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MOCK BOARD EXAM REVIEWER

79. Which of the following is a maximum security prison in Ossining, New


York, USA? It is located approximately 30 miles (48 km) North of New York City
on the banks of the Hudson River which the Auburn Prison system was applied
A. Alcatraz prison B. Sing Sing Prison
C. Walnut Street Jail D. Silver Mine Farm
80. Which of these authorizes the release of a detainee who has undergone
preventive imprisonment equivalent to the maximum imposable sentence for
the offense he is charged with
A. B.P. Blg. 85 B. PD 29
C. B.P. 22 D. PD 968
81. In terms of service of sentence of a prisoner, his case may be reviewed by
BPP for possible communication of sentence if he has served:
A. One-third (1/3) of the definite or aggregate prison term
B. One-half (1/2) of the maximum of his prison sentence.
C. One-third (1/3) of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence.
D. One-half (1/2) of the minimum of his definite prison sentence.
82. The end purpose of classification is –
A. To orient new inmates for prison life
B. To prepare inmates for prison life
C. To develop integrated and realistic program for prison
D. All of these
83. The following procedures of admission is undertaken by the staff for every
prisoner entrusted to their custody except:
A. Checking of commitment papers
B. Establishing the identity of the prisoner
C. Searching the prisoner
D. Diversifying
84. The infamous gulag prison in Germany was the place where thousands of
Jews were slaughtered during the reign of Adolf Hitler.
A. Gulag of Russia
B. Gulag Prison of Aleksandr Solzhenisyn
C. Gulag of Germany
D. The gulag of Banaue
85. The special group of prisoners composed of incorrigibles and highly
dangerous persons are also known as:
A. Maximum Security Prisoners
B. Medium Security Prisoners
C. Super maximum security prisoners
D. None of the above
86. An inmate shall be transferred to a separation center for adjustment
process from life in prison to life in free community within –
A. 60 days prior to release B. 30 days prior to release
C. 90 days before release D. 15 days prior to release
87. A prison model which sought penitence (hence the term penitentiaries)
through total individual isolation and silence.
A. Pennsylvania Prison Model B. Auburn Prison Model
C. Work Release D. Halfway Houses
88. Except one, joined the June 1962 Alcatraz escape was a prison escape
attempt by American criminalsusing an inflatable raft.
A. Clarence Anglin, B. John Anglin
C. FrankMorris D. David Gilmour
89. How many years of service of sentence for a first time offenders meted with
life imprisonment may be classified as Medium Security.
A. 2 years B. 3 years
C. 4 years D. 5 Years
90. If the inmate agrees to abide by the same disciplinary rules upon convicted
prisoners, he shall be asked to manifest his
A. Certification B. Certification in writing
C. Agreement in writing D. None of the above

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MOCK BOARD EXAM REVIEWER

91. In prison, it is commonly through of a procedure to prevent escapes, riots


and disorders and the punishment of those involved.
A. Preventive discipline B. Negative discipline
C. Positive discipline D. Harsh discipline
92. Is that kind of prisoners discipline applied after an offense has been
committed, in these that may cases, and punishment does not enter.
A. Negative discipline B. Positive discipline
C. Harsh discipline D. All of the above
93. The following personal effect of inmates that can be brought by him into
the prison facilities for common use with other inmates, Except:
A. Cassette B. Electric Fan
C. Television D. Air conditioners
94. The systems of prison were the confinement of the prisoners in single cells
at night and congregate work in stop during the day.
A. Pennsylvania prison B. Auburn prison
C. Elmira reformatory D. Alcatraz prison
95. This refers to the manner or practice of managing or controlling the
rehabilitation and reformation of prisoners.
A. Penal Management B. Corrections Administration
C. Penal Justification D. Corrections Justification
96. Use of telephone of inmate in prison after showing a good behavior is
earned after 90 days. In such case an inmate is entitled to:
A. 5 minutes B. 3 minutes
C. Not exceeding 5 minutes D. Not exceeding 3 minutes
97. Who is the Director of the Irish Prison who introduced the Irish system that
modified the Maconochies Mark System?
A. Manuel Montesimus B. Walter Crofton
C. Domets of France D. Zebulon Brockway
98. A prison model where incarcerated persons are allowed to work outside the
institution that houses them.
A. Pennsylvania Prison Model B. Auburn Prison Model
C. Work Release D. Halfway Houses
99. Are prisoners who cannot be trusted in open conditions and pose less
danger to society if they escape;
A. Medium security prisoner B. Minimum Security Prisoner
C. Maximum Security Prisoner D. None of the above
100.A offender wearing orange shirt consider as a__________.
A. Detainee B. Convicted
C. Inmate D. None of these

NON-INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTION
1. After granting the probation, the probationer must present himself to the
probation officer within;
A. 24 hours B. 32 hours
C. 48 hours D. 72 hours
2. A condition given by the President during his/her birthday.
A. Amnesty B. Executive Clem
C. Parole D. Probation
3. A shoemaker and became the father of probation in the U.S
A. Mathew Davenport Hill B. Edward Savage
C. John Augustus D. Teodolo Natividad
4. Brief of an investigation conducted by probation officer not within the
jurisdiction of the court.
A. Post Sentence Investigation Report
B. Pre-sentence investigation report
C. Courtesy investigation report
D. Initial investigation report

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MOCK BOARD EXAM REVIEWER

5. Executive clemency extended to convicted and persons who have not yet
been tried by the court is
A. Amnesty B. Commutation
C. Pardon D. Reprieved
6. Father of parole.
A. Alexander Maconochie B. Zebulon Brockway
C. Sir Evelyn Rugges Brise D. Edward Savage
7. Father of probation in the United States.
A. John Augustus B. August Vollmer
C. Edward Henry D. Matthew Daven Port Hill
8. Forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT
A. Commutation B. Amnesty
C. Reform Model D. Probation
9. He is the first appointed probation officer in the world.
A. Hans Gross B. Edward Savage
C. John Augustus D. Benjamin Franklin
10. Is an act of grace and a recipient is not entitled to it as a matter of right.
A. pardon B. probation
C. parole D. none of these
11. It is one which if granted wipes away the guilt of the grantee without any
condition attaches to it.
A. Absolute Pardon B. Amnesty
C. Commutation D. Conditional Pardon
12. It is the temporary suspension in the execution of sentence?
A. Pardon B. Appeal
C. Commutation D. Reprieve
13. Judicial disposition after which the defendant after conviction and sentence
is released.
A. Probation B. Pardon
C. Parole D. Amnesty
14. Pardon cannot be exercised in what of the following instances except...
A. Before conviction B. Before trial
C. After conviction D. Before conviction and before trial
15. The continuing relationship between probation officer and probationer is
known as-
A. Affiliation guidance B. Pre-sentence Investigation
C. Supervision D. None of these
16. Reducing the degree of death penalty inflicted upon the convict.
A. Commutation B. Commutation service of sentence
C. Amnesty D. Pardon
17. A French word meaning “word of honor”.
A. Pardon B. Probation
C. Parole D. Amnesty
18. A person place on probation?
A. Prisoner B. Parole
C. Probation aid D. Probationer
19. A recipient of absolute pardon is ________ from civil liability imposed upon
him by the sentence.
A. partially exempted B. exempted
C. conditionally exempted D. not exempted
20. Generally bail is a matter of?
A. Right B. Privilege
C. Parole D. Pardon
21. Coined the word “probation” derived from the latin word “probare”.
A. John Augustus B. Teodolo C. Natividad
C. Matthew Davenport Hill D. Edward N. Savage
22. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of ________.
A. Punishment B. Treatment
C. Enjoyment D. Incarceration
st
23. He was held as the 1 probation officer employed by the government.

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MOCK BOARD EXAM REVIEWER

A. John Augustus B. Teodolo C. Natividad


C. Matthew Davenport Hill D. Edward N. Savage
24. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances.
A. Murder B. Rape
C. Brigandage D. Impeachment
25. Pardon is exercised when the person is_______________.
A. Already convicted B. Not yet convicted
C. About to be convicted D. Serve the sentence
26. Petition for request for pardon is processed by-
A. Board of pardons and Parole
B. Director of Prisons
C. Judge that sentenced prisoner
D. Pre-Parole and pardon Committee
27. Presidential Decree 968 established the _______ System.
A. Juvenile Justice B. Family Welfare
C. Adult Probation D. Civilian Police
28. Refers to the term of imprisonment with no definite duration w/in a
prescribed maximum.
A. Amnesty B. Indeterminate sentence
C. Parole D. Probation
29. The following are forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT
A. Commutation B. Reform model
C. Amnesty D. Pardon
30. The following are offender disqualified under P.D. 968, except.
A. Presently serving his sentence
B. Convicted of any offense against public order
C. Serving a term of prison mayor
D. 18 years of age and above
31. The pardoning power is exercised by-
A. Director of Prisons B. Board of Pardons and Parole
C. President D. Secretary of Justice
32. The Post Sentence Investigation is submitted by the Probation officer to the
court within
A. 30 days B. 60 days
C. 90 days D. 120 days
33. Those who have been once on probation under the Probation Law:
A. are qualified to apply for probation
B. are disqualified to apply for probation
C. should be confined in prison
D. may be granted for another probation
34. Under the Indeterminate Sentence Law, who acts as the chairman of the
Board of Pardons and Parole?
A. PNP Chief B. DILG Secretary
C. DOJ Secretary D. Chief Executive
35. It is an act of grace and the recipient of the grace is not entitled to it as a
matter of right. It is discretionary and within the prerogative of the Chief
Executive
A. Parole B. Pardon
C. Amnesty D. Executive Clemency
36. It is an administrative arm of the president in the exercise of his
constitutional power to grant executive clemency.
A. Parole and Probation Administration
B. Secretary of Justice
C. Bureau of Corrections
D. Board of Pardon and Parole
37. The form of conditional release that is granted after a prisoner has served a
portion of his sentence in a correctional
A. Conditional pardon B. Probation
C. Parole D. Commutation

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MOCK BOARD EXAM REVIEWER

38. Pardon includes any crime and exercised by president, while ________ is a
blanket pardon to classes person or communities who may be guilt political
offense.
A. Amnesty B. Pardon
C. Commutation D. Parole
39. What document is issued to the parolee after he has substantially met and
achieved the terms and conditions of his parole program?
A. Certificate of Final release
B. Certificate of Final Release and Discharge
C. Certificate of Discharge
D. None of these
40. In probation system’s philosophy and concept, it is stated that the
individual has the ability to _________ and to modify his anti- social behaviour
with the right kind of help.
A. Challenge B. Aggravate his behaviour
C. Change D. None of these
41. In the hearing for the violation committed by the probationer, the latter
shall have the right to be informed of the violation charged and to adduce
evidence in his favor. This right is in pursuant to his right to ___?
A. Equal protection B. Presumption of innocence
C. Miranda rights D. Due process of law
42. Payment of civil liability to the victim by the probationer shall be given to
the following except the–
A. Clerk of Court of the Trial Court
B. Paid directly to the victim with receipt filed with PO
C. Deposited to the victim’s account
D. Supervising Probation Officer on case
43. The court will not grant probation if it finds the following except;
A. The offender can be treated better in a mental institution or other
places for correction
B. The offender is a risk to the community
C. The offense is grievous to the eyes of the community
D. None of these
44. What is an effect of pardon by the president?
A. The pardoning power can be exercised even before conviction
B. The pardoning power of the president can be exercised only after
conviction
C. The pardoning power does not extend to cases of impeachment
D. None of these
45. A conditional release after the prisoner has served part of his sentence in
prison.
A. Parole B. Probation
C. Amnesty D. Executive Clemency
46. At this point all civil and criminal liability on the part of the probationer
shall be extinguished.
A. Before the termination of probation
B. After granted the pardon
C. Final discharge of the probationer
D. During serving the condition of the probation
47. Is one who investigates for court referral for probation supervision or one
who supervises a probationer?
A. BPP B. BJMP
C. Probation officer D. Probationer
48. It is an extension of institutional correction
A. Parole B. Pardon
C. Probation D. Amnesty
49. It serves as the basis in granting probation to qualified applicants.
A. Post Investigation Report
B. Pre-Sentence Investigation report
C. Admission report

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MOCK BOARD EXAM REVIEWER

D. Post Sentence Investigation


st
50. Probation was 1 introduced in the Philippines during what colonial
period?
A. Spanish B. American
C. Japanese D. British

Answer Key:
Criminal Justice System Police Ethics
1. A 36. B 1. C 36. B
2. B 37. C 2. A 37. C
3. D 38. C 3. A 38. A
4. B 39. C 4. C 39. A
5. B 40. C 5. B 40. B
6. B 41. A 6. B 41. A
7. D 42. A 7. D 42. D
8. B 43. A 8. C 43. A
9. B 44. ___ 9. B 44. D
10. B 45. C 10. C 45. D
11. B 46. B 11. A 46. B
12. A 47. B 12. B 47. D
13. C 48. D 13. A 48. C
14. D 49. D 14. B 49. D
15. C 50. D 15. D 50. C
16. C 16. B
17. C 17. C
18. B 18. B
19. D 19. B
20. A 20. C
21. D 21. B
22. A 22. B
23. B 23. C
24. D 24. C
25. C 25. C
26. A 26. B
27. C 27. A
28. B 28. D
29. B 29. C
30. C 30. C
31. B 31. A
32. B 32. A
33. B 33. C
34. B 34. C
35. A 35. C

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MOCK BOARD EXAM REVIEWER

Human Behavior Introduction Crim Juvinile Deliquency


1. D 51. B 1. D 1. B 51. B
2. A 52. B 2. B 2. B 52. A
3. B 53. B 3. D 3. B 53. D
4. B 54. A 4. A 4. B 54. B
5. C 55. A 5. A 5. C 55. A
6. D 56. C 6. D 6. C 56. D
7. B 57. B 7. A 7. A 57. B
8. C 58. D 8. B 8. C 58. B
9. B 59. B 9. D 9. B 59. C
10. A 60. D 10. A 10. B 60. A
11. A 11. C 11. C
12. C 12. A 12. A
13. D 13. B 13. C
14. A 14. B 14. C
15. A 15. C 15. C
16. C 16. B 16. A
17. A 17. A 17. C
18. D 18. D 18. C
19. A 19. B 19. C
20. B 20. B 20. B
21. B 21. B 21. B
22. C 22. B 22. B
23. B 23. A 23. C
24. C 24. B 24. C
25. A 25. D 25. C
26. C 26. B 26. C
27. B 27. C 27. B
28. C 28. C 28. B
29. A 29. D 29. D
30. D 30. A 30. D
31. D 31. D 31. C
32. C 32. D 32. D
33. D 33. B 33. A
34. C 34. A 34. B
35. C 35. C 35. C
36. B 36. B 36. B
37. A 37. C 37. C
38. C 38. D 38. B
39. A 39. A 39. D
40. B 40. B 40. C
41. B 41. D 41. B
42. B 42. A 42. D
43. C 43. A 43. C
44. B 44. A 44. C
45. A 45. A 45. B
46. D 46. B 46. D
47. B 47. C 47. C
48. B 48. A 48. B
49. B 49. B 49. B
50. D 50. B 50. A

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MOCK BOARD EXAM REVIEWER

Corrections Non-institution
(1-50) (51-100)
1. 1. 1.
2. 2. 2.
3. 3. 3.
4. 4. 4.
5. 5. 5.
6. 6. 6.
7. 7. 7.
8. 8. 8.
9. 9. 9.
10. 10. 10.
11. 11. 11.
12. 12. 12.
13. 13. 13.
14. 14. 14.
15. 15. 15.
16. 16. 16.
17. 17. 17.
18. 18. 18.
19. 19. 19.
20. 20. 20.
21. 21. 21.
22. 22. 22.
23. 23. 23.
24. 24. 24.
25. 25. 25.
26. 26. 26.
27. 27. 27.
28. 28. 28.
29. 29. 29.
30. 30. 30.
31. 31. 31.
32. 32. 32.
33. 33. 33.
34. 34. 34.
35. 35. 35.
36. 36. 36.
37. 37. 37.
38. 38. 38.
39. 39. 39.
40. 40. 40.
41. 41. 41.
42. 42. 42.
43. 43. 43.
44. 44. 44.
45. 45. 45.
46. 46. 46.
47. 47. 47.
48. 48. 48.
49. 49. 49.
50. 50. 50.

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