Test Pattern Resonance

SAMPLE TEST PAPER
SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)

FOR RESONET 2019
INDEX
TARGET : NEET / AIIMS
S.No. Contests Target page no.

1 How to prepare for the Resonance National Entrance Test (ResoNET)-2019 ResoNET 2019 2
2 General instructions for the Examination Hall ResoNET 2019 3
3 Syllabus for ResoNET 2019 ResoNET 2019 4
4 Sample Test Paper-1 : For class Xth appearing / passed students (moving from class- NEET / AIIMS 2021
Xth to class-XIth). For the students applying for SAKSHAM(MA) & SAMARTH(MB) 8
courses
5 Sample Test Paper-1 Answer key : For class Xth appearing / passed students NEET / AIIMS 2021
(moving from class-Xth to class-XIth). For the students applying for SAKSHAM(MA) & 18
SAMARTH(MB) courses
6 Sample Test Paper-2 : For class XIth appearing / passed students (moving from NEET / AIIMS 2020
19
class-XIth to class-XIIth). For the students applying for SAMBHAV(MF) courses
7 Sample Test Paper-2 Answer key : For class XIth appearing / passed students NEET / AIIMS 2020
(moving from class-XIth to class-XIIth). For the students applying for SAMBHAV(MF) 31
courses
8 Sample Test Paper-3 : For class XIIth appearing / passed students (moving from NEET / AIIMS 2020
class-XIth to class-XIIIth). For the students applying for SAMPOORN(MD) & 32
SAFAL(MR) courses
9 Sample Test Paper-3 Answer key:: For class XIIth appearing / passed students NEET / AIIMS 2020
(moving from class-XIth to class-XIIIth). For the students applying for 46
SAMPOORN(MD) & SAFAL(MR) courses
10 Sample ORS Answer Sheet for Resonance National Entrance Test (ResoNET) 2019 ResoNET 2019 47
The sample test papers are only for reference and guidance. The sample papers given in the booklet are actually the papers of previous
year's ResoNET conducted by Resonance for its various courses.
Note : Resonance reserves the right to change the pattern of selection test (ResoNET). Pervious year papers do not guarantee that the
papers for this year selection test will be on the same pattern. However, the syllabus of the test paper will be equivalent to the syllabus of
qualifying school/board examination and as given on page no. 4.
© Copyright reserved 2019-20.

All rights reserved. Any photocopying, publishing or reproduction of full or any part of this material is strictly prohibited. This material belongs to only the applicants of RESONANCE for its various Selection Tests
(ResoNET) to be conducted for admission in Academic Session 2019-20. Any sale/resale of this material is punishable under law. Subject to Kota Jurisdiction only.
Corporate Office : CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.)-324005
Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : contact@resonance.ac.in
STP2019-Page-1
Toll Free : 1800 258 5555 | CIN: U80302RJ2007PLC024029
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
HOW TO PREPARE FOR THE RESONANCE NATIONAL ENTRANCE TEST (ResoNET)
 For Class-X appearing students (Class-X to Class-XI Moving) :
Study thoroughly the books of Science (Physics & Chemistry) and Maths of Classes
IX & X. (NCERT & Respective Board)

 For Class-XI appearing students (Class-XI to Class-XII Moving):
1. Study thoroughly the books of Physics, Chemistry and Maths of Class XI (Respective Board).
2. Refer to the following books (only Class-XI syllabus) to increase the level of competence:
   For Physics : Concepts of Physics by H.C. Verma Vol. I & II, NCERT Books
 For Chemistry : NCERT Books(XI & XII), A text book of Physical Chemistry (8th Edition),
Shishir Mittal, Disha Publications, Concise Inorganic Chemistry, J.D. Lee, Wiley-India Edition,
Vogel’s Qualitative Analysis for the JEE (7th Edition), G. Svehla & Shishir Mittal, Pearson
Education,Organic Chemistry : Clayden, Greeves, Warren and Wothers, Oxford University, A
guide book to Mechanism In Organic Chemistry (6th Edition), Peter Sykes, Pearson Education
  For Maths : Higher Algebra By Hall & Knight; Co-ordinate Geometry By

S.L. Loney ; Plane Trigonometry By S.L. Loney, Problem book in high school by A.I.Prilepko

 For Class-XII appearing students (Class-XII to Class-XIII Moving):
1. Study thoroughly the books of Physics, Chemistry and Maths of Classes XI & XII (Respective
Board).
2. Refer to the following books (Class-XI & Class-XII syllabus) to increase the level of
competence :
  For Physics : Concepts of Physics by H.C. Verma Vol-I & II
 For Chemistry : Physical Chemistry By R.K. Gupta, Organic Chemistry By Morrison &
Boyd, Organic Chemistry By I. L. Finar, Inorganic Chemistry By J.D. Lee, Objective Chemistry By
Dr. P. Bahadur
 For Maths : Higher Algebra By Hall & Knight; Co-ordinate Geometry By S.L. Loney; Plane
Trigonometry By S.L. Loney, Differential Calculus By G.N. Berman; Integral Calculus By Shanti
Narayan; Vector Algebra By Shanti Narayan ; A Das Gupta (subjective).

STP2019-Page-2
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS IN THE EXAMINATION HALL
( ijh{kk Hkou ds fy, lkekU; funs Z ' k )
1. This booklet is your Question Paper. ¼;g iqfLrdk vkidk iz'u&i=k gS½
2. The Question Paper Code is printed on the top right corner of this sheet. ¼iz'u&i=k dksM bl i`"B ds Åij
nk;sa dksus esa Nik gqvk gS½
3. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic gadgets in
any form are not allowed to be used. ¼[kkyh dkxt] fDyi cksMZ] y?kqx.kd lkj.kh] LykbM :y] dSYdqysVj]
eksckby ;k vU; fdlh bySDVªWkfud midj.k ds fdlh Hkh :i esa mi;ksx dh vkKk ugha gS½
4. Write your Name & Application Form Number in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet. (bl
i`"B ds uhps fn;s x;s fjDr LFkku esa viuk uke o vkosnu QkWeZ la[;k vo'; Hkjsa½
5. Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the Objective
Response Sheet (ORS). (iz'u&i=k gy djus ls igys] ORS&'khV esa fn;s x;s fjDr LFkkuksa esa iwNs x;s fooj.kksa
dks Hkjsa½
6. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Application Form Number neatly and clearly in the
blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet (ORS) / Answer Sheet. ¼mÙkj&iqfLrdk esa fn;s x;s
fjDr LFkku esa vius iz'u&i=k dk dksM o viuk vkosnu QkWeZ la[;k Li"V :i ls Hkjuk uk Hkwysa½
7. No rough sheets will be provided by the invigilators. All the rough work is to be done in the blank space
provided in the question paper. ¼fujh{kd ds }kjk dksbZ jQ 'khV ugha nh tk;sxhA jQ dk;Z iz'u&i=k esa fn;s x;s
[kkyh LFkku esa gh djuk gS½
8. No query related to question paper of any type is to be put to the invigilator.
¼fujh{kd ls iz'u&i=k ls lEcfU/kr fdlh izdkj dk dksbZ iz'u uk djsas½
QUESTION PAPER ¼iz'u i=k½
9. Marks distribution of questions is as follows. ¼iz'uksa ds izkIrkadks dk fooj.k fuEu izdkj ls gSA½
Marks to be awarded
S.No. Subject Nature of Questions No. of
Correct Wrong Total
Questions
PART-I Single Choice Questions (SCQ)
1 to 25 25 3 0 75
(Biology) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
PART-II Single Choice Questions (SCQ)
26 to 50 25 3 0 75
(Maths) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
PART-III Single Choice Questions (SCQ)
51 to 65 15 3 0 45
(Physics) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
PART-IV Single Choice Questions (SCQ)
66 to 80 15 3 0 45
(Chemistry) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
PART-V Single Choice Questions (SCQ)
81 to 100 20 3 0 60
(Mental Ability) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Total 100 300
Name : ________________________ Application Form Number : _______________
STP2019-Page-3
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
Syllabus for ResoNET

Basic : Cooling by evaporation. Absorption of heat. All things chemical reactions, stoichiometry and calculations based on
accupy space, possess mass. Definition of matter ; Elementary stoichiometry.
idea about bonding. Structure of Atom : Discovery of electron, proton and neutron ;
Solid, liquid and gas : characteristics-shape, volume, density; atomic number, isotopes and isobars.
change of state - melting, freezing, evaporation, condensation, Thompson’s model and its limitations, Rutherford’s model and its
sublimation. limitations, concept of shells and sub-shells, dual nature of
Elements, compounds and mixtures :Heterogeneous and matter and light, de Broglie’s relationship, Heisenberg
homogeneous mixtures; Colloids and suspension. uncertainty principle, concept of orbitals, quantum numbers,
Mole concept : Equivalence - that x grams of A is chemically shapes of s, p, and d orbitals, rules for filling electrons in orbitals
not equal to x grams of B ; Partical nature, basic units : atoms - Aufbau principle, Pauli exclusion principle and Hund’s rule,
and molecules ; Law of constant proportions ; Atomic and electronic configuration of atoms, stability of half filled and
molecular masses;Relationship of mole to mass of the particles completely filleld orbitals.
and numbers ; Valency ; Chemical formulae of common Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties :
compounds. Significance of classification, brief history of the development of
Atomic structure : Atoms are made up of smaller particles : periodic table, trends in properties of elements - atomic radii,
electrons, protons, and neutrons. These smaller particles are ionic radii, inert gas radii, ionization enthalpy, electron gain
present in all the atoms but their numbers vary in different enthalpy, electronegativity, valence.
atoms.
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure :
Isotopes and isobars.
Valence electrons, ionic bond, covalent bond, bond parameters,
Gradations in properties : Mendeleev periodic table. Lewis structure, polar character of covalent bond, covalent
Acids, bases and salts : General properties, examples and character of ionic bond, valence bond theory, resonance,
uses. geometry of covalent molecules, VSEPR theory, concept of
Types of chemical reactions : Combination, decomposition, hybridization involving s, p and d orbitals and shapes of some
displacement, double displacement, precipitation, neutralisation, simple molecules,
oxidation and reduction in terms of gain and loss of oxygen and molecular orbital theory of homonuclear diatomic molecules
hydrogen. (qualitative idea only), hydrogen bond.
Extractive metallurgy : Properties of common metals ; Brief States of Matter : Gases and Liquids :
discussion of basic metallurgical processes. Three states of matter, intermolecular interactions, type of
Compounds of Carbon : Carbon compounds ; Elementary idea bonding, melting and boiling points, role of gas laws in
about bonding ; Saturated hydrocarbons, alcohols, carboxylic elucidating the concept of the molecule, Boyle’s law, Charles’
acids (no preparation, only properties).Soap - cleansing action law, Gay Lussac’s law, Avogadro’s law, ideal behavior, empirical
of soap. derivation of gas equation, Avogadro’s number ideal gas
equation, deviation from ideal behaviour, Liquefaction of gases,
CLASS - X (BIOLOGY)
critical temperature.
Nutrition in plants & Animals, Respiration in plants & Animals,
Liquid State - Vapour pressure, viscosity and surface tension
Excretion in plants & Animals, Transportation in plants &
(qualitative idea only, no mathematical derivations)
Animals, Genetics (Heredity & Variation), Evolution, Ecology
Thermodynamics :
(our environment), Natural resources, Reproduction in plants &
Concepts of system, types of systems, surroundings, work, heat,
Animals.
energy, extensive and intensive properties, state functions.
CLASS - X (PHYSICS) First law of thermodynamics - internal energy and enthalpy, heat
Mechanics : Uniform and non-uniform motion along a straight capacity and specific heat, measurement of U and H, Hess’s
line ; Concept of distance and displacement, Speed and velocity, law of constant heat summation, enthalpy of bond dissociation,
accelaration and relation ship between these ; Distance-time combustion, formation, atomization sublimation, phase
and velcocity - time graphs. transition, ionization, and dilution.
Newton’s Law of motion ; Relationship between mass, Introduction of entropy as a state function, free energy change
momentum, force and accelaration ; work done by a force ; Law for spontaneous and non-spontaneous process, equilibrium.
of conservation of energy. Equilibrium : Equilibrium in physical and chemical processes,
Law of gravitation ; acceleration due to gravity. dynamic nature of equilibrium, law of mass action, equilibrium
Electricity and magnetism : Ohm’s law ; Series and parallel constant, factors affecting equilibrium - Le Chatelier’s principle ;
combination of resistances ; Heating effect of current. ionic equilibrium - ionization of acids and bases, strong and
Magnetic field near a current carrying straight wire, along the weak electrolytes, degree of ionization concept of pH. Hydrolysis
axis of a circular coil and inside a solenoid ; Force on current of Salts (elementary idea), buffer solutions, solubility product,
carrying conductor ; Fleming’s left hand rule ; Working of electric common ion effect (with illustrative examples).
motor ; Induced potential difference and current Redox Reactions : Concept of oxidation and reduction, redox
Electric generator : Principle and working ; Comparision of AC reactions,
and DC ; Domestic electric circuits. oxidation number, balancing redox reactions, applications of
Optics : Rectilinear propagation of light ; Basic idea of redox reaction.
concave mirror and convex lens ; Laws of refraction ; Hydrogen : Position of hydrogen in periodic table, occurrence,
Dispersion. isotopes, preparation, properties and uses of hydrogen ;
CLASS - XI (CHEMISTRY) hydrides - ionic, covalent and interstitial ; physical and chemical
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry : Particulate nature of properties of water, heavy water ; hydrogen peroxide -
matter, laws of chemical combination, Dalton’s atomic theory : preparation, reactions and structure ; hydrogen as a fuel.
concept of elements, atoms and molecules. s-Block Elements (Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals) :
Atomic and molecular masses. Mole concept and molar mass ; Group 1 and Group 2 elements :
percentage composition and empirical and molecular formula ; General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence,
anomalous properties of the first element of each group,
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER
diagonal relationship, trends in the variation of properties (such Secondary Growth, Cell Biology — Cell Structure & Functions ,
as ionization enthalpy, atomic and ionic radii), trends in chemical Cell Division, Plant Physiology — Transport in Plants , Mineral
reactivity with oxygen, water, hydrogen and halogens ; uses. nutrition , Respiration , Photosynthesis , Plant growth &
Preparation and properties of some important compounds development .
Sodium carbonate, sodium chloride, sodium hydroxide and
sodium hydrogen carbonate CLASS - XI (PHYSICS)
CaO, CaCO3, and industrial use of lime and limestone, Ca. General : Units and dimensions, dimensional analysis; least
count, significant figures; Methods of measurement and error
General Introduction to p-Block Elements : analysis for physical quantities pertaining to the following
Group 13 elements : General introduction, electronic experiments: Experiments based on using Vernier calipers and
configuration, occurrence, variation of properties, oxidation screw gauge (micrometer), Determination of g using simple
states, trends in chemical reactivity, anomalous properties of pendulum, Young’s modulus by Searle’s method.
first element of the group ; Mechanics : Kinematics in one and two dimensions (Cartesian
Boron - physical and chemical properties, some important coordinates only), projectiles; Uniform Circular motion; Relative
compounds ; borax, boric acids, boron hydrides. Aluminium : velocity.
uses, reactions with acids and alkalies. Newton’s laws of motion; Inertial and uniformly accelerated
Group 14 elements ; General introduction, electronic frames of reference; Static and dynamic friction; Kinetic and
configuration, occurrence, variation of properties, oxidation potential energy; Work and power; Conservation of linear
states, trends in chemical reactivity, anomalous behaviour of first momentum and mechanical energy.
element. Carbon - catenation, allotropic forms, physical and Systems of particles; Centre of mass and its motion; Impulse;
chemical propeties ; uses of some important compounds : Elastic and inelastic collisions.
oxides. Law of gravitation; Gravitational potential and field; Acceleration
Important compounds of silicon and a few uses : silicon due to gravity; Motion of planets and satellites in circular orbits;
tetrachloride, silicones, silicates and zeolites. Escape velocity.
Principles of qualitative analysis : Determinantion of one Rigid body, moment of inertia, parallel and perpendicular axes
anion and one cation in a given salt theorems, moment of inertia of uniform bodies with simple
Cations - Pb2 + , Cu2+, As3+, Al3+, Fe3+, Mn2+, Ni2 +, Zn2+, Co2+, Ca2+, geometrical shapes; Angular momentum; Torque; Conservation
Sr2+, Ba2+, Mg2+, of angular momentum; Dynamics of rigid bodies with fixed axis
Anions - of rotation; Rolling without slipping of rings, cylinders and
(Note : Insoluble salts excluded) spheres; Equilibrium of rigid bodies; Collision of point masses
Organic chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques with rigid bodies.
General introduction, methods of purification, qualitative and Linear and angular simple harmonic motions.
quantitative analysis, classification and IUPAC nomenclature of Hooke’s law, Young’s modulus.
organic compounds. Pressure in a fluid; Pascal’s law; Buoyancy; Surface energy and
Electronic displacements in a covalent bond : free radicals, surface tension, capillary rise; Viscosity (Poiseuille’s equation
carbocations, carbanions ; electrophiles and nucleophiles, types excluded), Stoke’s law; Terminal velocity, Streamline flow,
of organic reactions equation of continuity, Bernoulli’s theorem and its applications.
Waves : Wave motion (plane waves only), longitudinal and
Classification of Hydrocarbons : Alkanes : Nomenclature,
transverse waves, superposition of waves; Progressive and
isomerism, conformations (ethane only), physical propeties,
stationary waves; Vibration of strings and air
chemical reactions including free radical mechanism of columns;Resonance; Beats; Speed of sound in gases; Doppler
halogenation, combustion and pyrolysis. effect (in sound).
Alkenes : Nomenclatures, structure of double bond (ethene), Thermal physics : Thermal expansion of solids, liquids and
geometrical isomerism, physical properties, methods of gases; Calorimetry, latent heat; Heat conduction in one
preparation ; chemical reactions : addition of hydrogen, halogen, dimension; Elementary concepts of convection and radiation;
water, hydrogen halides (Markovnikov’s addition and peroxide Newton’s law of cooling; Ideal gas laws; Specific heats (Cv and
effect), Cp for monoatomic and diatomic gases); Isothermal and
ozonolysis, oxidation, mechanism of electrophilic addition. adiabatic processes, bulk modulus of gases; Equivalence of
Alkynes : Nomenclature, structure of triple bond (ethyne), heat and work; First law of thermodynamics and its applications
physical properties, methods of preparation, chemical reactions : (only for ideal gases); Blackbody radiation: absorptive and
acidic emissive powers; Kirchhoff’s law; Wien’s displacement law,
character of alkynes, addition reaction of - hydrogen, halogens, Stefan’s law.
hydrogen halides and water.
Aromatic hydrocarbons : Introduction, IUPAC nomenclature ;
CLASS - XII (CHEMISTRY)
Physical Chemistry
Benzene : resonance, aromaticity ; chemical properties :
General topics : Concept of atoms and molecules; Dalton’s
mechanism of electrophilic substitution - nitration sulphonation,
atomic theory; Mole concept; Chemical formulae; Balanced
halogenation, Friedel Craft’s alkylation and acylation ; directive
chemical equations; Calculations (based on mole concept)
influence of functional group in mono-substituted benzene ;
carcinogenicity and toxicity. involving common oxidation-reduction, neutralisation, and
displacement reactions; Concentration in terms of mole fraction,
CLASS - XI (BIOLOGY) molarity, molality and normality.
Zoology: Gaseous and liquid states : Absolute scale of temperature,
Living world , Animal kingdom, Structural Organisation in ideal gas equation; Deviation from ideality, van der Waals
Animals , Biomolecules, Digestion & Absorption, Breathing & equation; Kinetic theory of gases, average, root mean square
Exchange of gases and mostFluids
Body probable velocities and
and Circulation, their relation
Excretory withand
products temperature;
their Elimination, Locom
Law of partial pressures; Vapour pressure; Diffusion of gases.
Botany: Atomic structure and chemical bonding : Bohr model,
Biological Classification–Kingdom – Monera, Protista, Fungi,
spectrum of hydrogen atom, quantum numbers; Wave-particle
Virus, Plant Kingdom– Algae, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, duality, de Broglie hypothesis; Uncertainty principle; Qualitative
Gymnosperms, Angiosperms, Plant Morphology - Root , Stem , quantum mechanical picture of hydrogen atom, shapes of s, p
leaves, Inflorescence , Flower , Fruit, Seed. Families -
and d orbitals; Electronic configurations of elements (up to
Solanaceae, Liliaceae , Fabaceae, Plant Anatomy - Anatomy of atomic number 36); Aufbau principle; Pauli’s exclusion principle
Tissues, Tissue system , Anatomy of Root , Stem , Leaves, and Hund’s rule; Orbital overlap and covalent bond;
STP2019-Page-5
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
Hybridisation involving s, p and d orbitals only; Orbital energy potassium dichromate, silver oxide, silver nitrate, silver
diagrams for homonuclear diatomic species; Hydrogen bond; thiosulphate.
Polarity in molecules, dipole moment (qualitative aspects only); Ores and minerals : Commonly occurring ores and minerals of
VSEPR model and shapes of molecules (linear, angular, iron, copper, tin, lead, magnesium, aluminium, zinc and silver.
triangular, square planar, pyramidal, square pyramidal, trigonal Extractive metallurgy : Chemical principles and reactions only
bipyramidal, tetrahedral and octahedral). (industrial details excluded); Carbon reduction method (iron and
Energetics : First law of thermodynamics; Internal energy, work tin); Self reduction method (copper and lead); Electrolytic
and heat, pressure-volume work; Enthalpy, Hess’s law; Heat of reduction method (magnesium and aluminium); Cyanide process
reaction, fusion and vapourization; Second law of (silver and gold).
thermodynamics; Entropy; Free energy; Criterion of spontaneity. Principles of qualitative analysis : Groups I to V (only Ag+,
Chemical equilibrium : Law of mass action; Equilibrium Hg2+, Cu2+, Pb2+, Bi3+, Fe3+, Cr3+, Al3+, Ca2+, Ba2+, Zn2+, Mn2+ and
constant, Le Chatelier’s principle Mg2+); Nitrate, halides (excluding fluoride), sulphate and
(effect of concentration, temperature and pressure); Significance sulphide.
of G and Go in chemical equilibrium; Solubility product, Organic Chemistry
common ion effect, pH and buffer solutions; Acids and bases Concepts : Hybridisation of carbon; Sigma and pi-bonds;
(Bronsted and Lewis concepts); Hydrolysis of salts. Shapes of simple organic molecules; Structural and geometrical
Electrochemistry : Electrochemical cells and cell reactions; isomerism; Optical isomerism of compounds containing up to
Standard electrode potentials; Nernst equation and its relation to two asymmetric centres, (R,S and E,Z nomenclature excluded);
DG; Electrochemical series, emf of galvanic cells; Faraday’s IUPAC nomenclature of simple organic compounds (only
laws of electrolysis; Electrolytic conductance, specific, hydrocarbons, mono-functional and bi-functional compounds);
equivalent and molar conductivity, Kohlrausch’s law; Conformations of ethane and butane (Newman projections);
Concentration cells. Resonance and hyperconjugation; Keto-enol tautomerism;
Chemical kinetics : Rates of chemical reactions; Order of Determination of empirical and molecular formulae of simple
reactions; Rate constant; First order reactions; Temperature compounds (only combustion method); Hydrogen bonds:
dependence of rate constant (Arrhenius equation). definition and their effects on physical properties of alcohols and
Solid state : Classification of solids, crystalline state, seven carboxylic acids; Inductive and resonance effects on acidity and
crystal systems (cell parameters a, b, c, ), close packed basicity of organic acids and bases; Polarity and inductive
structure of solids (cubic), packing in fcc, bcc and hcp lattices; effects in alkyl halides; Reactive intermediates produced during
Nearest neighbours, ionic radii, simple ionic compounds, point homolytic and heterolytic bond cleavage; Formation, structure
defects. and stability of carbocations, carbanions and free radicals.
Solutions : Raoult’s law; Molecular weight determination from Preparation, properties and reactions of alkanes :
lowering of vapour pressure, elevation of boiling point and Homologous series, physical properties of alkanes (melting
depression of freezing point. points, boiling points and density); Combustion and halogenation
Surface chemistry : Elementary concepts of adsorption of alkanes; Preparation of alkanes by Wurtz reaction and
(excluding adsorption isotherms); Colloids: types, methods of decarboxylation reactions.
preparation and general properties; Elementary ideas of Preparation, properties and reactions of alkenes and
emulsions, surfactants and micelles (only definitions and alkynes : Physical properties of alkenes and alkynes (boiling
examples). points, density and dipole moments); Acidity of alkynes; Acid
Nuclear chemistry : Radioactivity: isotopes and isobars; catalysed hydration of alkenes and alkynes (excluding the
Properties of rays; Kinetics of radioactive decay (decay series stereochemistry of addition and elimination); Reactions of
excluded), carbon dating; Stability of nuclei with respect to alkenes with KMnO4 and ozone; Reduction of alkenes and
proton-neutron ratio; Brief discussion on fission and fusion alkynes; Preparation of alkenes and alkynes by elimination
reactions. reactions; Electrophilic addition reactions of alkenes with X2, HX,
Inorganic Chemistry HOX and H2O (X=halogen); Addition reactions of alkynes; Metal
Isolation/preparation and properties of the following non-
acetylides.
metals : Boron, silicon, nitrogen, phosphorus, oxygen, sulphur
Reactions of Benzene : Structure and aromaticity; Electrophilic
and halogens; Properties of allotropes of carbon
substitution reactions: halogenation, nitration, sulphonation,
(only diamond and graphite), phosphorus and sulphur.
Friedel-Crafts alkylation and acylation; Effect of ortho, meta and
Preparation and properties of the following compounds :
para directing groups in monosubstituted benzenes.
Oxides, peroxides, hydroxides, carbonates, bicarbonates,
Phenols : Acidity, electrophilic substitution reactions
chlorides and sulphates of sodium, potassium, magnesium and
(halogenation, nitration and sulphonation); Reimer-Tieman
calcium; Boron: diborane, boric acid and borax; Aluminium:
reaction, Kolbe reaction.
alumina, aluminium chloride and alums; Carbon: oxides and
Characteristic reactions of the following (including those
oxyacid (carbonic acid); Silicon: silicones, silicates and silicon
mentioned above):
carbide; Nitrogen: oxides, oxyacids and ammonia; Phosphorus:
Alkyl halides: rearrangement reactions of alkyl carbocation,
oxides, oxyacids (phosphorus acid, phosphoric acid) and
Grignard reactions, nucleophilic substitution reactions;
phosphine; Oxygen: ozone and hydrogen peroxide; Sulphur:
Alcohols: esterification, dehydration and oxidation, reaction with
hydrogen sulphide, oxides, sulphurous acid, sulphuric acid and
sodium, phosphorus halides, ZnCl2/concentrated HCl,
sodium thiosulphate; Halogens: hydrohalic acids, oxides and
conversion of alcohols into aldehydes and ketones;
oxyacids of chlorine, bleaching powder; Xenon fluorides.
Ethers:Preparation by Williamson’s Synthesis; Aldehydes and
Transition elements (3d series) : Definition, general
Ketones: oxidation, reduction, oxime and hydrazone formation;
characteristics, oxidation states and their stabilities, colour
aldol condensation, Perkin reaction; Cannizzaro reaction;
(excluding the details of electronic transitions) and calculation of
haloform reaction and nucleophilic addition reactions (Grignard
spin (only magnetic moment), Coordination compounds:
addition); Carboxylic acids: formation of esters, acid chlorides
nomenclature of mononuclear coordination compounds, cis-
and amides, ester hydrolysis; Amines: basicity of substituted
trans and ionisation isomerisms, hybridization and geometries of
anilines and aliphatic amines, preparation from nitro compounds,
mononuclear coordination compounds (linear, tetrahedral,
reaction with nitrous acid, azo coupling reaction of diazonium
square planar and octahedral).
salts of aromatic amines, Sandmeyer and related reactions of
Preparation and properties of the following compounds :
diazonium salts; carbylamine reaction; Haloarenes: nucleophilic
Oxides and chlorides of tin and lead; Oxides, chlorides and
aromatic substitution in haloarenes and substituted haloarenes
sulphates of Fe2+, Cu2+ and Zn2+; Potassium permanganate,
(excluding Benzyne mechanism and Cine substitution).
STP2019-Page-6
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
Carbohydrates: Classification; mono- and di-saccharides Escape
(glucose and sucrose); Oxidation, reduction, glycoside formation velocity.
and hydrolysis of sucrose. Rigid body, moment of inertia, parallel and perpendicular axes
Amino acids and peptides : General structure (only primary theorems, moment of inertia of uniform bodies with simple
structure for peptides) and physical properties. geometrical shapes; Angular momentum; Torque; Conservation
Properties and uses of some important polymers : Natural of angular momentum; Dynamics of rigid bodies with fixed axis
rubber, cellulose, nylon, teflon and PVC. of rotation; Rolling without slipping of rings, cylinders and
Practical organic chemistry : Detection of elements (N, S, spheres; Equilibrium of rigid bodies; Collision of point masses
halogens); Detection and identification of the following functional with rigid bodies.
groups: hydroxyl (alcoholic and phenolic), carbonyl (aldehyde Linear and angular simple harmonic motions.
and ketone), carboxyl, amino and nitro; Chemical methods of Hooke’s law, Young’s modulus.
separation of mono-functional organic compounds from binary Pressure in a fluid; Pascal’s law; Buoyancy; Surface energy and
mixtures. surface tension, capillary rise; Viscosity (Poiseuille’s equation
excluded), Stoke’s law; Terminal velocity, Streamline flow,
CLASS - XII (BIOLOGY) equation of continuity, Bernoulli’s theorem and its applications.
Zoology: Waves : Wave motion (plane waves only), longitudinal and
Animal Reproduction – Human Reproduction, Reproductive transverse waves, superposition of waves; Progressive and
Health , Evolution , Biology in Human Welfare–Human health stationary waves; Vibration of strings and air
and disease, Drug & Alcohol abuse, Medical Diagnostic columns;Resonance; Beats; Speed of sound in gases; Doppler
technique , Biology in Human Welfare–Strategies for effect (in sound).
Enhancement in Food production , Microbes in human welfare, Thermal physics : Thermal expansion of solids, liquids and
Living world , Animal kingdom , Structural Organisation in gases; Calorimetry, latent heat; Heat conduction in one
Animals , Biomolecules, Digestion & Absorption, Breathing & dimension; Elementary concepts of convection and radiation;
Exchange of gases, Body Fluids and Circulation, Excretory Newton’s law of cooling; Ideal gas laws; Specific heats (Cv and
products and their Elimination, Locomotion and Movement , Cp for monoatomic and diatomic gases); Isothermal and
Neural control and coordination, Chemical coordination and adiabatic processes, bulk modulus of gases; Equivalence of
Integration. heat and work; First law of thermodynamics and its applications
Botany: (only for ideal gases); Blackbody radiation: absorptive and
Reproduction in Flowering plants. Genetics – Heredity and emissive powers; Kirchhoff’s law; Wien’s displacement law,
variations. Genetics – Molecular basis of inheritance, Application Stefan’s law.
Biology– Plant Breeding, Biotechnology Principles, Processes, Electricity and magnetism : Coulomb’s law; Electric field and
applications, Ecology–Organism & its Environment , potential; Electrical potential energy of a system of point charges
Ecosystem, Ecology–Environmental issues , Biodiversity & and of electrical dipoles in a uniform electrostatic field; Electric
Conservation, Biological Classification–Kingdom – Monera, field lines; Flux of electric field; Gauss’s law and its application in
Protista, Fungi, Virus, Plant Kingdom– Algae, Bryophytes, simple cases, such as, to find field due to infinitely long straight
Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms, Angiosperms, Plant Morphology - wire, uniformly charged infinite plane sheet and uniformly
Root , Stem , leaves, Inflorescence , Flower , Fruit, Seed. charged thin spherical shell.
Families - Solanaceae, Liliaceae , Fabaceae, Plant Anatomy - Capacitance; Parallel plate capacitor with and without
Anatomy of Tissues, Tissue system , Anatomy of Root , Stem , dielectrics; Capacitors in series and parallel; Energy stored in a
Leaves, Secondary Growth , Cell Biology — Cell Structure & capacitor.
Functions , Cell Division, Plant Physiology — Transport in Electric current; Ohm’s law; Series and parallel arrangements of
Plants , Mineral nutrition, Respiration , Photosynthesis , Plant resistances and cells; Kirchhoff’s laws and simple applications;
growth & development. Heating effect of current.
Biot–Savart’s law and Ampere’s law; Magnetic field near a
CLASS - XII (PHYSICS)
current-carrying straight wire, along the axis of a circular coil and
General : Units and dimensions, dimensional analysis; least
inside a long straight solenoid; Force on a moving charge and
count, significant figures; Methods of measurement and error
on a current-carrying wire in a uniform magnetic field.
analysis for physical quantities pertaining to the following
Magnetic moment of a current loop; Effect of a uniform magnetic
experiments: Experiments based on using Vernier calipers and
field on a current loop; Moving coil galvanometer, voltmeter,
screw gauge (micrometer), Determination of g using simple
ammeter and their conversions.
pendulum, Young’s modulus by Searle’s method, Specific heat
Electromagnetic induction: Faraday’s law, Lenz’s law; Self and
of a liquid using calorimeter, focal length of a concave mirror and
mutual inductance; RC, LR and LC circuits with d.c. and a.c.
a convex lens using u-v method, Speed of sound using
sources.
resonance column, Verification of Ohm’s law using voltmeter
Optics: Rectilinear propagation of light; Reflection and refraction
and ammeter, and specific resistance of the material of a wire
at plane and spherical surfaces; Total internal reflection;
using meter bridge and post office box.
Deviation and dispersion of light by a prism; Thin lenses;
Mechanics : Kinematics in one and two dimensions (Cartesian
Combinations of mirrors and thin lenses; Magnification.
coordinates only), Projectile Motion; Uniform Circular Motion;
Wave nature of light: Huygen’s principle, interference limited to
Relative Velocity.
Young’s double-slit experiment.
Newton’s laws of motion; Inertial and uniformly accelerated
Modern physics : Atomic nucleus; Alpha, beta and gamma
frames of reference; Static and dynamic friction; Kinetic and
radiations; Law of radioactive decay; Decay constant; Half-life
potential energy; Work and power; Conservation of linear
and mean life; Binding energy and its calculation; Fission and
momentum and mechanical energy.
fusion processes; Energy calculation in these processes.
Systems of particles; Centre of mass and its motion; Impulse;
Photoelectric effect; Bohr’s theory of hydrogen-like atoms;
Elastic and inelastic collisions.
Characteristic and continuous X-rays, Moseley’s law; de Broglie
Law of gravitation; Gravitational potential and field; Acceleration
wavelength of matter waves.
due to gravity; Motion of planets and satellites in circular orbits;
STP2019-Page-7
01 SAMPLE TEST PAPER
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
01
(For Class-X Appearing / Passed Students)
COURSE : SAKSHAM(MA) & SAMARTH(MB)
TARGET : NEET/AIIMS 2021
Marks to be awarded
Correct Wrong Total
Questions
1 to 25 25 3 0 75
26 to 50 25 3 0 75
(Maths) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
51 to 65 15 3 0 45
66 to 80 15 3 0 45
PART-V Single Choice Questions (SCQ)
81 to 100 20 3 0 60
Total 100 300
PART - I (BIOLOGY) : Hkkx - I (tho&foKku) 2. According to the 'Unit membrane' model of

Robertson” the total thickness of cell membrane
Straight Objective Type is about
This section contains 25 multiple choice (1) 1.0 nm (2) 150 nm
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (3) 7.5 nm (4) 200 nm
(2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is jkcVZlu ds bdkbZ dyk ekWMy” ds vuqlkj dksf'kdk dyk
correct. dh dqy eksVkbZ yxHkx gksrh gS
lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj (1) 1.0 nm (2) 150 nm
bl [k.M esa 25 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u ds 4 (3) 7.5 nm (4) 200 nm
fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa, ftuesa ls flQZ ,d 3. Plasma membrane is asymmetric because
lgh gSA (1) Lipids present in the outer and inner side of
the bilayer are different
1. Which statement is/are wrong with respect to (2) Extrinsic proteins are more abundant on the
Mycoplasma? inner surface than on the outer surface
(a) Mycoplasma are the smallest living cells (3) Oligosaccharides are attached only to the
known. external surface of lipids and proteins of a
(b) These can survive without oxygen biomembrane
(c) The Mycoplasma are organisms that (4) All of the above
completely lack a cell wall IykTek dyk vfu;fer gksrh gS D;ksafd
(d) Mycoplasma can not pass through bacteria (1) f}Lrj ds ckgj rFkk Hkhrj dh vksj mifLFkr fyfiM~l
proof filters fHkUu gksrs gSa
(1) b & c (2) c & d (2) ckálrg dh rqyuk esa vkUrfjd lrg ij ,DlfVªafld
(3) only d (4) Only b izksVhUl vf/kd gksrh gSA
ekbdksIykTek ds lanHkZ esa fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk dFku xyr gS (3) vksfyxkslSdjkbM~l dsoy tSodyk dh fyfiM~l o
(a) ekbdksIykTek lcls NksVh thfor dksf'kdk gS izksVhUl dh cká lrg ij tqMs+ gSA
(b) ;s fcuk vkWDlhtu ds jg ldrs gSa (4) mijksDr lHkh
(c) ekbdksIykTek ,sls tho gS ftuesa dksf'kdk fHkfÙk
vuqifLFkr gksrh gSa 4. Resistance to antibiotic is character of –
(1) All bacteria
(d) ekbdksIykTek thok.kq jks/kh fQYVj ls ikl ugh gks ldrs
(2) All eukaryotes
gSaA (3) All bacteria having plasmid
(1) b & c (2) c & d (4) Some bacteria having plasmid
(3) dsoy d (4) dsoy b
Corporate Office : CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.)- 324005
STP2019MAMB-PAGE # -8
izfrtSfod ds izfr izfrjks/k ,d y{k.k gksrk gS lkekU;r;k dkcZfud vEyksa dk R.Q. gS\
(1) lHkh thok.kqvksa dk (1) ,d (2) ,d ls de
(2) lHkh ;wdsfj;ksV~l dk (3) ,d ls vf/kd (4) 'kwU;
(3) IykfTeM ;qDr lHkh thok.kqvksa dk
13. At high temperature in aerobic respiration, why
(4) IykfTeM ;qDr dqN thok.kqvksa dk the R.Q. value becomes more than one
5. Root cap does not occur in (1) Requirement of O2 increases but due to less
(1) Ipomoea (2) Mangrove plants availability of O2 partial replacement of aerobic
(3) Pandanus (4) Pistia. respiration takes place by anaerobic respiration
ewy xksi fdlesa ugha gksrh gS\ (2) O2 requirement decreases hence due to
(1) vkbiksfe;k (2) esUxzkso ikni
availablity of more O2 than required
(3) isUMsul (4) fifLV;k
(3) By formation of more organic acids which
6. Petiole is modified into tendril in enter respiration
(1) Passiflora (2) Gloriosa (4) O2 travel faster in warm enrironment
(3) Pisum (4) Clematis ok;oh; 'olu esa mPp rkiØe ij R.Q. dk eku ,d ls
fdlesa i.kZoÙr izrku esa :ikUrfjr gksrk gSA vf/kd gks tkrk gSA
(1) islh¶yksjk (2) Xysfj;kslk (1) O2 dh vko';drk c<+rh gS] 'olu dk vakf'kd :i ls
(3) ikble (4) fDyesfVl izfrLFkkiu vok;oh; 'olu }kjk gksrk gS
7. Presence of sheathing leaf base and ligule are (2) O2 dh vko';drk ?kVrh gS blfy, ftruh vko';drk
characteristic of gS mlls vf/kd O2 dh miyC/krk ds dkj.k gksrk gSA
(1) Cycas leaf (2) Fern leaf (3) vf/kd dkcZfud vEyksa ds fuekZ.k }kjk tks 'olu esa
(3) Banana leaf (4) Grass leaf.
'khfFkax i.kkZ/kkj rFkk fyX;wy dh mifLFkfr fdlds y{k.k gS\ izos'k djrs gSa
(4) O2 xz"e okrkoj.k esa 'kh?kz iyk;u djrh gSA
(1) lkbdl i.kZ (2) QuZ i.kZ
(3) dsyks ds i.kZ (4) ?kkl dh i.ksZ 14. Maximum photosynthesis takes place in
(1) Phytoplanktons (2) Zooplanktons
8. Hydroponics is growing plants in
(3) Marshy plants (4) Woody plants
(1) Water (2) Soil culture
vf/kdre izdk'k la'ys"k.k fdlesa gksrk gS\
(3) Solution of mineral nutrients
(4) Tissue culture medium. (1) ikni Iyodksa esa (2) tUrqIyodkas eas
gkbMªksiksfuDl gS ikniksa dks bl ek/;e esa o`f) djkuk (3) nynyh ikniksa eas (4) dk"Bh; ikniksa esa
(1) ty (2) e`nk lao/kZu 15. The dark reaction of photosynthesis takes place
(3) [kfut iks"kdksa dk foy;u in
(1) Night (2) Day
(4) Ård lao/kZd ek/;e
(3) Light is not essential for dark reaction
9. Element required for biological nitrogen fixation is (4) It takes place in night
(1) Zinc (2) Molybdenum izdk'k la'ys"k.k dh vizdkf'kd vfHkfØ;k gksrh gSA
(3) Copper (4) Manganese (1) jkf=k esa (2) fnu esa
tSfod ukbVªkstu fLFkjhdj.k ds fy, vko';d rÙo gSa (3) vizdkf'kd vfHkfØ;k ds fy, izdk'k dh vko';drk ugha
(1) ftad (2) eksyhCMsue gksrh gS
(3) dkWij (4) eSaxuht (4) ;g jkf=k eas gksrh gSa
10. Minimata disease is caused due to presence of -- 16. The process of sucking of fluid from the cell
--------------- in water. surface is called as
(1) Cadmium (2) Lead (1) Diffusion (2) Phagocytosis
(3) Arsenic (4) Mercury (3) Pinocytosis (4) Osmosis
feuhekVk jksx ikuh esa fdldh mifLFkfr ds dkj.k gksrk gS\ dksf'kdk lrg ls nzo dks pwlus dh izfdz;k dgykrh gS&
(1) dSMfe;e (2) ySM (1) folj.k (2) Hk{k.k
(3) vklsZfud (4) ejdjh (3) fiukslk;Vksfll (4) ijklj.k
11. The chief sinks for the mineral elements are 17. Brownian movement is due to-
(1) Senescent leaves (2) Ripe fruits (1) Collision and reversal of electrically charged
(3) Lateral meristems (4) Bark molecules
[kfut rÙoksa dh eq[; flad D;k gksrh gS\ (2) Simple movement of molecules themself
(1) th.kZeku ifÙk;k¡ (2) ids Qy (3) Force existing between molecules
(3) ik'oZ foHkT;ksrd (4) Nky (4) Attraction between molecules
czkmfu;u xfr fdl dkj.k gksrh gS–
12. What is the R.Q. of organic acids, generally
(1) oS|qr vkosf'kr v.kqvksa dh VDdj rFkk çdh.kZu
(1) One (2) Less then one
(3) More than one (4) Zero (2) v.kqvksa dh Lor% ljy xfr
(3) v.kqvksa ds e/; mifLFkr cy
(4) v.kqvksa ds e/; vkd"kZ.k
18. Which substance is not carbohydrate? 24. The heart of a healthy man, normally beats, per
(1) Starch (2) Glycogen minute
(3) Wax (4) Glucose (1) 60-70 times (2) 70-80 times
dkSu lk inkFkZ dkcksZgkbMªsV ugha gS\ (3) 80-90 times (4) 85-95 times
(1) LVkpZ (2) Xykbdkstu ,d euq"; dk ân; lkekU; :i ls izfr feuV /kM+drk gS&
(3) ekse (4) Xywdkst (1) 60-70 ckj (2) 70-80 ckj
(3) 80-90 ckj (4) 85-95 ckj
19. Proteins which are present in protoplasm are
very important because - 25. Endocrine glands
(1) They provide rigidity to cell (1) Do not possess ducts
(2) They function as biocatalyst (2) Sometimes do not have ducts
(3) They yield energy (3) Pour their secretion into blood through ducts
(4) They are stored food (4) Always have ducts
çksVhu tks çksVksIykTe esa mifLFkr gksrs gSa cgqr egRoiw.kZ gksrs vUr%ókoh xzafFk;k¡ &
gSa D;ksafd& (1) ufydk,a ugha j[krh gS
(1) ;s dksf'kdk dks n`<+rk çnku djrs gSaA (2) dHkh-dHkh ufydk,a ugha gksrh
(2) ;s tSo mRçsjd ds leku dk;Z djrs gSaA (3) jDr esa viuk óko.k ufydkvksa }kjk Mkyrh gSa
(3) ;s ÅtkZ çnku djrs gSaA (4) gesa'kk ufydk,a j[krh gSa
(4) ;s lafpr Hkkstu gSaA
20. Lipid derivative which occur in faecal material - PART - II (MATHS) : Hkkx - II ( xf.kr)
(1) Cholesterol (2) Ergesterol
Straight Objective Type
(3) Lanoline (4) coprosterol
This section contains 25 multiple choice
ey esa ik;k tkus okyk fyfiM O;wRié gS questions. Each question has 4 choices (1),
(1) dksysLVsjksy (2) bxsZLVsjksy (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is
(3) ysuksyhu (4) dkWijksLVsjksy correct.
21. DNA differs from RNA
lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj
(1) In the nature of sugar alone bl [k.M esa 25 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u ds 4
(2) In the nature of purines alone fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa, ftuesa ls flQZ ,d
(3) In the nature of sugar and pyrimidines lgh gSA
(4) None of the above
DNA, RNA ls fHkUu gksrk gS
(1) dsoy 'kdZjk dh çd`fr esa 3  2
26. If x = and y = 1 then the value of
(2) dsoy I;wjhUl dh izd`fr esa 3  2
(3) 'kdZjk o fijhfeMhULk dh izd`fr esa
x  y
(4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha is :
x  3y
22. Other function performed by kidney apart from
excretion is 3  2 x  y
;fn x = ,oa y = 1 gks rks dk eku
(1) Osmoregulation 3  2 x  3y
(2) Temperature regulation
gksxk &
(3) Hormonal regulation
(4) Spermatogenesis 5 5
(1) (2)
o`Dd }kjk mRltZu dk vfrfjDr vU; dkSulk dk;Z fd;k 6  4 6  4
tkrk gS\
(1) ijklj.k fu;eu (2) rki fu;eu 6  4 6  4
(3) (4)
(3) gkWeksZu fu;eu (4) LiesZVkstsusfll 5 5
23. In the mammalian heart, the bicuspid valve is 27. If x = 2 + 22/3 + 21/3, then what is the value of
situated between x3 – 6x2 + 6x ?
(1) Left atrium and left ventricle
(2) Post caval and right caval ;fn x = 2 + 22/3 + 21/3 gks rks x3 – 6x2 + 6x dk eku
(3) Right atrium and left auricle D;k gksxk \
(4) Right ventricle and pulmonary aorta (1) 6 (2) 12 (3) 4 (4) 2
Lru/kkjh ds ân; esa ckbZdfLiM okYo dgk¡ fLFkr gksrk gS \
28. Distance between the parallel lines x = 8 and x +
(1) ck¡;s vkfyan ,oa fuy; ds e/; 1 = 0 is
(2) i’p egkf’kjk dsoy rFkk nkfguh egkf’kjk ds e/; lekUrj js[kkvksa x = 8 rFkk x + 1 = 0 ds e/; dh nwjh
(3) nkfgus vkfyan ,oa ck¡;s vkfyan ds e/; gksxhA
(4) nk;sa fuy; ,oa iYeksujh ,svksjVk ds e/; (1) 8 (2) 1 (3) 9 (4) 7
29. The three steps from solids to points are : 34. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || CD. If ADC
(1) Solids - surfaces - lines - points = 2ABC, AD = a cm and CD = b cm, then the
(2) Solids - lines - surfaces - points length (in cm) of AB is :
(3) Lines - points - surfaces - solids ABCD ,d leyEc prqHkZqt ¼Vsªihft;e½ gS ftlesa AB ||
(4) Lines - surfaces - points - solids CD A ;fn ADC = 2ABC, AD = a lseh rFkk CD =
Bkslksa ls fcanqvksa rd rhu pj.k gSa &
b lseh rkss AB dh yEckbZ ¼lseh esa½ gSA
(1) Bksl&i`"B&js[kk,¡&fcanq
a
(2) Bksl&js[kk,¡&i`"B&fcanq (1) + 2b (2) a + b
(3) js[kk,¡&fcanq&i`"B&Bksl 2
(4) js[kk,¡&i`"B&fcanq&Bksl 2 2
(3) a+b (4) a + b
3 3
30. Ray OS stands on a line POQ. Ray OR and ray
OT are angle bisectors of POS and SOQ, 35. If parallelogram ABCD and rectangle ABEF are
respectively. If POS = x, find ROT. of equal area, then :
fdj.k OS js[kk POQ ij [kM+h gSA fdj.k OR vkSj OT ;fn lekarj prqHkqZt ABCD vkSj vk;r ABEM leku
Øe'k% POS vkSj SOQ ds lef}Hkktd gSaA ;fn {ks=kQy ds gSa] rks :
POS = x gS] rks ROT Kkr dhft,A
(1) 60º (2) 80º
(3) 90º (4) None of these
buesa ls dksbZ ugha
31. In right angled triangle ABC, EC is a bisector of
the BCD and BD  AC. BAC = 30º, then (1) Perimeter of ABCD = Perimeter of ABEM
CED is : (2) Perimeter of ABCD < Perimeter of ABEM
ledks.k f=kHkqt ABC esa EC, BCD dk lef}Hkktd gS (3) Perimeter of ABCD > Perimeter of ABEM
vkSj BD  AC ;fn BAC = 30º gS] rks CED gS - 1
(4) Perimeter of ABCD = (Perimeter of ABEM)
2
(1) ABCD dk ifjeki = ABEM dk ifjeki
(2) ABCD dk ifjeki < ABEM dk ifjeki
(3) ABCD dk ifjeki > ABEM dk ifjeki
1
(4) ABCD dk ifjeki = (ABEM dk ifjeki)
2
36. The lengths of two parallel chords of a circle 1

cm apart are respectively 10 cm and 8 cm. The
(1) 65º (2) 45º distance of the longer chord from the centre of
(3) 60º (4) 30º the circle is –
32. Find the area of a triangle whose sides are 8 cm, (1) 4 cm (2) 5 cm
(3) 7 cm (4) 12 cm
13 cm and 15 cm. (Take 3 = 1.73). 1 lseh dh nwjh ij fLFkr nks lekUrj thokvksa dh yEckbZ
(1) 51.9 cm2 (2) 42.9 cm2 Øe'k% 10 lseh o 8 lseh gSaA vf/kd yEckbZ okyh thok dh
2
(3) 59.9 cm (4) None dsUnz ls nwjh gksxh&
fdlh f=kHkqt ftldh Hkqtk,sa Øe'k% 8 cm, 13 cm rFkk
(1) 4 lseh (2) 5 lseh
15 cm gSa rks f=kHkqt dk {ks=kQy gksxk & (yhft, 3 = (3) 7 lseh (4) 12 lseh
1.73). 1 1 1
(1) 51.9 cm2 (2) 42.9 cm2  xb  bc  xc  ca  xa  ab
(3) 59.9 cm2 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha 37. The value of   .  .  is :
 c   a   b 
2  x   x   x 
33. In a school of the students are boys. If there 1 1 1
7
 xb  bc  xc  ca  xa  ab
are 305 girls, find the number of boys in the   .  .  dk eku gksxk &
school ?  c   a   b 
 x   x   x 
2
,d fo|ky; esa dqy fo|kfFkZ;ksa esa ls Hkkx yM+ds gSaA ;fn 1
7 (1) x (2)
305 yM+fd;k¡ gks rks fo|ky; esa dqy yM+ds fdrus gSa ? x
(1) 112 (2) 122 (3) – 1 (4) 1

(3) 132 (4) 127
38. If a sphere is inscribed in a cube, then the ratio of ABCDE ,d fu;fer iapHkqt gSA ik¡p fcUnqvks okyk ,d
the volume of the cube to the volume of the rkjk ACEBDA, iapHkqt ds ,dkUrj 'kh"kksZ dks tksM+dj
sphere will be : cuk;k x;k gSA bl rkjs ds lHkh ik¡p 'kh"kZ dks.kksa dk ;ksx
;fn ,d xksyk ,d ?ku ds varxZr gS] rks ?ku ds vk;ru dk gksxk&
xksys ds vk;ru ls vuqikr gS & D C
(1) 4 :  (2) 6 :  (3) 2 :  (4)  : 6
39. The mean of 5 numbers is 21. If one of the
numbers is excluded then the mean of the E B
remaining numbers is 22.5. The excluded
number is :
A
5 la[;kvksa dk ek/; 21 gS ;fn muesa ls ,d la[;k ckgj
(1) Two right angle (2) Three right angle
fudky nh tk;s rks ek/; 22.5 gks tkrk gS rks ckgj fudkyh (3) Four right angle (4) Five right angle
x;h la[;k gksxh & (1) nks ledks.k (2) rhu ledks.k
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20 (3) pkj ledks.k (4) ik¡p ledks.k
40. A bag contains 20 balls of different colours. The 46. Q is a point on the side SR of a PSR such that
probability of drawing a black ball is 4/5 then PQ = PR, then
number of black balls in the bag is :
,d PSR dh Hkqtk SR ij ,d fcanq Q bl izdkj fLFkr
,d Fksys esa fofHkUu jaxks dh dqy 20 xsans gSaA mlesa ls dkyh
gS fd PQ = PR gSA rc
xsan fudkyus dh izkf;drk 4/5 gS rks Fksys esa fdruh dkyh
(1) PS < PQ (2) PS > PQ
xSans gSa & (3) PS = PQ (4) None of these (buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(1) 14 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 20
47. The sides of a triangle are 10 cm, 24 cm and 26
41. 0.39 + 0.750 + 2.15 + (–1.001) =
cm. Find its longest altitude.
2289 2289 ;fn fdlh f=kHkqt ftldh Hkqtkvksa dh yEckbZ Øe'k% 10 cm,
(1) (2)
100 1000 24 cm rFkk 26 cm gS] rks lcls cM+s yEc dh yEckbZ gksxh
2829 8922 (1) 36 cm (2) 24 cm
(3) (4) (3) 48 cm (4) None buesa ls dksbZ ugha
1000 1000
a
2
b
2
ab  b
2 48. One fourth of one third of one half of a number is
42. Reduced to lowest terms, – 2
is 12, then number is :
ab ab  a
fdlh la[;k dk 1/2 Hkkx dk 1/3 Hkkx dk 1/4 Hkkx] 12 gS]
equal to :
2 2 2
rks la[;k gksxh &
a b ab  b (1) 284 (2) 286 (3) 288 (4) 290
– 2
dks vHkkT; in esa fo[kf.Mr
ab ab  a
49. The diagonals AC and BD of a parallelogram
dhft, & ABCD intersect each other at the point O. If
a a
2
 2b
2
DAC = 32º and AOB = 70º, then DBC is
(1) (2) (3) a2 (4) a – 2b equal to
b ab
lekarj prqHkqZt ABCD ds fod.kZ AC vkSj BD ijLij fcanq
43. The equation of the line passing through (–1, 3)
and (4, –1) is O ij izfrPNsn djrs gSaA ;fn DAC = 32º vkSj
fcUnw (–1, 3) rFkk (4, –1) ls xqtjus okyh js[kk dh AOB = 70º gSa rks ∠DBC cjkcj gS
lehdj.k gksxhA (1) 24º (2) 86º (3) 38º (4) 32º
(1) 5x + 4y – 1 = 0 (2) 4x + 5y – 11 = 0 50. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC, DC = 30
(3) 4x – 5y = 11 (4) 4x = 5y cm and AB = 50 cm. If X and Y are, respectively
44. Euclid divided his famous treatise “The the mid-points of AD and BC, if ar (DCYX) = k ar
Elements” into : (XYBA), then value of k is :
(1) 13 chapters (2) 12 chapters ABCD ,d leyac gS] ftlesa AB || DC, DC = 30 cm
(3) 11 chapters (4) 9 chapters vkSj AB = 50 cm gSA ;fn X vkSj Y Øe'k% AD vkSj BC
;wfDyM us viuh izfl) d`fr “,yhesaV~l” dks fuEufyf[kr esa ds eè;&fcanq gSa] ;fn ar (DCYX) = k ar (XYBA), rc k
foHkkftr fd;k% dk eku gS &
(1) 13 vè;k; (2) 12 vè;k; 8 5 7 3
(3) 11 vè;k; (4) 9 vè;k; (1) (2) (3) (4)
9 7 9 5
45. ABCDE is a regular pentagon. A star of five
points ACEBDA is formed to join their alternate
vertices. The sum of all five vertex angles of this
star is –
PART - III (PHYSICS) : Hkkx - III (HkkSfrd foKku) ,d dkj ftldh pky 35 km/h gS] 12 feuV esa og fdruh
nwjh r; djrh gS&
Straight Objective Type (1) 7 km (2) 3.5 km
This section contains 15 multiple choice (3) 14 km (4) 28 km
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1),
(2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is 56. Figure shows a ray of light as it travels from
correct. medium A to medium B. Refractive index of the
lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj medium B relative to medium A is
bl [k.M esa 15 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u ds 4 ,d izdk'k dh fdj.k dks ek/;e A ls ek/;e B esa xeu dk
fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa, ftuesa ls flQZ ,d fp=k iznf'kZr djrk gSA ek/;e A ds lkis{k ek/;e B dk
lgh gSA viorZukad gS&
51. When a fuse is rated 8A, it means 45º Medium A

(1) it will not work if current is less than 8A
(2) it has a resistance of 8 A
(3) it will work only if current is 8A 60º Medium B
(4) it will burn if current exceeds 8A
tc ,d ¶;wt 8A ds fy, vg;Z gS bldk rkRi;Z gSA
(1) 8A ,fEi;j dk ,d izfrjks/k ugh gksrk gS
(2) blesa 8 ,fEi;j ls de /kkjk esa ;g dk;Z ugh djsxhA 3 1
(1) (2)
(3) ;g dsoy 8 ,fEi;j dh /kkjk gksus ij gh dk;Z djsxk 2 2
(4) 8A ,fEi;j ls vf/kd /kkjk izokfgr djus ij ;g ty 2
tk;sxkA (3) 2 (4)
3
52. Which of the following devices works on the 57. A charge +Q is moving upwards vertically. It
principle of electromagnetic induction? enters a magnetic field directed to the north. The
(1) ammeter (2) Voltmeter force on charge will be towards
(3) Generator (4) Galvanometer (1) North (2) South (3) East (4) West
oS|qr pqEcdh; izsj.k ds fl)kUr ij fuEufyf[kr esa ls ,d +Q vkos'k m/okZ/kj :i ls mij dh vksj xfr dj jgh
dkSulk midj.k dk;Z djrk gS\ gSA ;g mRrj dh vksj fu/kkZfjr pqEcdh; {ks=k esa izos'k djrk
(1) vehVj (2) oksYVehVj gSA vkos'k ij cy fdl fn'kk esa yxsxk&
(3) tsusjsVj (4) xSyosuksehVj (1) mRrj (2) nf{k.k (3) iwoZ (4) if'pe
53. In an electric motor, the energy transformation is 58. A patient requires an intake of 1 glucose in
from 10 hours. If 1 cm3 of glucose contains 15 drops,
(1) electrical to chemical calculate the rate of intake in drops/minute.
(2) chemical to light ,d ejht dks 10 ?k.Vs esa 1 yhVj Xywdkst xzg.k djus dh
(3) mechanical to electrical vko';drk gSA ;fn 1 cm3 esa Xywdkst 15 cw¡n vkrk gS] izfr
(4) electrical to mechanical
,d fo|qr eksVj esa ÅtkZ ifjorZu fdl :i esa gksrk gSA feuV Xywdkst dh cw¡n dks xzg.k djus ds nj dh x.kuk
(1) fo|qr ls jklk;fud
dhft,A
(1) 15
(2) jklk;fud ls izdk'k ÅtkZ
(2) 25
(3) ;kaf=kd ls oS/kqr (3) 10
(4) oS|qr ls ;kaf=kd (4) 30
54. The speed-time graph for a particle moving at 59. An object started travelling from one end of the
constant speed is a straight-line ………… to the semicircular track and reached the other end. If
time axis. the length of the track is 12.56 m calculate the
(1) parallel (2) perpendicular magnitude of its displacement.
(3) aligned (4) inclined ,d oLrq v)Zo`Ùkkdkj ekxZ ds ,d {kksj ls pyuk izkjEHk dh
fu;r pky ls xfr djrh gqbZ ,d d.k ds fy, pky le; vkSj nwljs {kksj rd igq¡p x;hA ;fn ekxZ dh yEckbZ
(v-t) xzkQ ……… le; v{k ds fy, ,d ljy js[kk gS& 12.56 m gks rks blds foLFkkiu ds ifjek.k dh x.kuk
(1) lekUrj (2) yEcor~ dhft,&
(3) lajsf[kr (4) >qdk gqvk (1) 4 m
(2) 8 m
55. In 12 minutes a car whose speed is 35 km/h
(3) 12 m
travels a distance of
(4) 2 m
(1) 7 km (2) 3.5 km
(3) 14 km (4) 28 km
60. In the circuit arrangement shown, if the point A ,d mRry ySal dh Qksdl nwjh f = 12 cm rFkk ,d oLrq
and B are joined by a wire the current in this wire dks mRry niZ.k ls 15 cm dh nwjh ij j[kh x;h gS]
will be: (iznf'kZr ifjiFk izcU/k esa ;fn fcUnq A rFkk B dks izfrfcEc dh fLFkfr Kkr dhft,A
,d rkj }kjk tksM fn;k tk;s] bl rkj esa izokfgr gksus okyh (1) 6.66 cm (2) 3.33 cm
/kkjk gksxh) (3) 0.15 cm (4) 1.5 cm
12 A 12
65. Two mirrors are placed at an angle 60º. A light
ray is incident on one mirror with an angle of
incidence of 45º. What will be angle of reflection
12 B 12
when this light ray is incident on the second
mirror after getting reflected from the first mirror?
24Volt nks niZ.kksa dks 60º dks.k ij j[kk x;k gSA ,d izdk'k dh
(1) 1A (2) 2A
fdj.k ,d inZ.k ij 45º vkiru dks.k ij vkifrr gksrh gS]
(3) 4A (4) zero
tc ;g izdk'k dh fdj.k igys niZ.k ls ijkofrZr gksus ds
61. Two conductors A and B of same the length are ckn nwljs niZ.k ij iMrh gS] rc ijkorZu dks.k gksxk&
made up of the same metal and their (1) 45º (2) 15º (3) 60º (4) 75º
temperatures are also the same. If the cross-
sectional area of A is double that of B,
(1) the resistance of A is half the resistance of B.
(2) the resistance of A is twice the resistance of B.
PART - IV (CHEMISTRY): Hkkx - IV (jlk;u foKku)
(3) the resistance of A is equal to the resistance Atomic masses (ijek.kq Hkkj) : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12,
of B.
N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28,
(4) Their resistance cannot compared by using
P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52,
the given information
Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80,
leku yEckbZ okys nks pkyd A rFkk B leku /kkrq ds cus Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137 Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
gq, gS rFkk muds rkieku Hkh leku gSA ;fn A dk vuqizLFk
dkV {ks=kQy B ds nqxquk dj fn;k tk;s rc& Straight Objective Type
(1) A dk izfrjks/k B ds izfrjks/k dk vk/kk gSA This section contains 15 multiple choice
(2) A dk izfrjks/k B ds izfrjks/k dk nqxquk gSA questions. Each question has 4 choices (1),
(3) A dk izfrjks/k B ds izfrjks/k ds cjkcj gSA (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is
(4) fn;s x;s lwpuk ds iz;ksx }kjk muds izfrjks/kks dh rqyuk correct.
ugh dh tk ldrh gSA lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj
bl [k.M esa 15 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u ds 4
62. A 60 W bulb is switched ON for 6 hours on fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa, ftuesa ls flQZ ,d
alternate days in a month of 30 days. The energy lgh gSA
consumed in a month is
,d 60 okWV ds cYc dks nSfud vUrjky ij ,d eghuk
30 fnu rd tyk;k tkrk gSA ,d eghus esa miHkksx dh x;h 66. Which one of the following is not an
ÅtkZ gS& element ?
(1) Diamond (2) Ozone
(1) 19440 kJ (2) 1296 kJ
(3) Silica (4) Graphite
(3) 8100 kJ (4) 2560 kJ
fuEu esa ls dkSulk rRo ugha gS ?
63. A body is said to have +12 C of charge. It has (1) ghjk (2) vkstksu
(1) 750 × 1017 electrons in excess. (3) flfydk (4) xzsQkbV
(2) a deficiency of 750 × 1017 electrons.
(3) 325 × 1016 protons and 325 × 1016 electrons 67. A method of obtaining oxygen, which illustrates a
in excess. physical change and does not involve a chemical
(4) None of the above change, is -
,d fi.M dks +12 dwykWe vkos'k ds fy, crk;k x;k gS] (1) electrolysis of water
blesa (2) decomposition H2O2
(1) 750 × 1017 bysDVªkWu dh vf/kdrk gS (3) heating potassium chlorate
(2) 750 × 1017 bysDVªkWu dh deh gS (4) distilling liquid air
(3) 325 × 1016 izksVkWu rFkk 325 × 1016 bysDVªkWu vkWDlhtu izkIr djus dk ,d izØe ftlesa HkkSfrd ifjorZu
dhvf/kdrk gS gksrk gS rFkk jklk;fud ifjorZu ugha gksrk gS &
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugh (1) ty dk fo|qrvi?kVu
(2) H2O2 dk fo?kVu
64. The focal length of a convex mirror, f = 12 cm
and the object is placed at a distance of 15 cm (3) iksVsf'k;e DyksjsV dks xeZ djukA
from the convex mirror. Find the position of the (4) nzfor ok;q dk vklou
image.
(1) 6.66 cm (2) 3.33 cm
(3) 0.15 cm (4) 1.5 cm
68.
x
X atom is isotonic to
17
Y atom. The value of x is - 74. The number of molecules in one litre of water is
8 9
equal to -
x 17
8
X ijek.kq 9
Y ls leU;wVªkWfud gSA x dk eku gksxk - 18  10
23
(1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 9 (4) 17 (1) 18 × 6.023 × 1023 (2)

2 2 .4
69. The maximum number of orbitals in L - shell is - (3) 55.5 × 6.023 × 1023 (4) None of these
L - dks'k esa d{kdksa dh vf/kdre la[;k gS &
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 6 1 yhVj ty esa v.kqvksa dh la[;k fdlds cjkcj gS &
23
70. Atoms may be regarded as comprising of 18  10
(1) 18 × 6.023 × 1023 (2)
protons, neutrons and electrons. If the mass 2 2 .4
attributed by electrons was doubled and that (3) 55.5 × 6.023 × 1023 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
attributed by neutrons was halved, the atomic
mass of 12C would be - 75. A piece of sodium weighs 0.023 g. The number
(1) approximately the same. of atoms present in it are(Atomic mass Na = 23) -
(2) doubled. ,d lksfM;e ds VqdMs dk Hkkj 0.023 g gSA blesa mifLFkr
(3) reduced approximately by 25%. ijek.kqvks dh la[;k fuEu gSSa (ijek.kq Hkkj Na = 23) -
(4) approximately halved. (1) 6.023 × 1020 (2) 60.23 × 1022
ijek.kq] izksVksuks] U;wVªkWuksa o bysDVªkWuksa ls feydj cuk gksrk 21
(3) 6.023 × 10 (4) 6.023 × 1019
gSA ;fn bysDVªkWuksa dk nzO;eku nqxquk o U;wVªkWuksa dk nzO;eku
76. The IUPAC name of the compound is
vk/kk ekuk tk;s rc 12C dk ijek.kq nzO;eku D;k gksxk \ HO
(1) yxHkx leku (2) nqxquk
(3) yxHkx 25% de (4) yxHkx vk/kk (1) 3, 3 - dimethyl - 1 - hydroxy cyclohexane
(2) 1, 1 - dimethyl - 3 -hydroxy cyclohexane
71. Consider the nuclear change, (3) 3, 3 - dimethyl - 1 - cyclohexanol
(4) 1, 1 - dimethyl - 3 - cyclohexanol
237 –– –
93
Np  
 A    B    C ;kSfxd dk IUPAC uke gS
Which of the following statements is not correct ? HO
(1) Mass number of B is 233. (1) 3, 3–MkbZesfFky–1–gkbMªkWDlh lkbDyksgsDlsu
(2) Atomic number of A is 91. (2) 1, 1–MkbZesfFky–3–gkbMªkWDlh lkbDyksgsDlsu
(3) C is an isotope of A. (3) 3, 3–MkbZesfFky–1–lkbDyksgSDlsukWy
(4) B is an isobar of A . (4) 1, 1–MkbZesfFky–3–lkbDyksgSDlsukWy
ukfHkdh; ifjorZu dk voyksdu dhft,,
77. The IUPAC name of C6H5COCI is :
237 –– –
(1) Benzoyl chloride
Np  
 A    B    C
93 (2) Benzene chloro ketone
fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS \ (3) Benzene carbonyl chloride
(1) B dh nzO;eku la[;k 233 gSA (4) Chloro phenyl ketone
(2) A dk ijek.kq Øekad 91 gSA C6H5COCI dk IUPAC uke gSA
(3) C, A dk leLFkkfud gSA (1) csatks;y DyksjkbM
(4) B, A dk leHkkfjd gSA (2) csathu Dyksjks dhVksu
(3) csathu dkcksZfuy DyksjkbM
72. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is three
(4) Dyksjks Qsfuy dhVksu
hours. If the intial mass of the isotope were 256
g, the mass of it remaining undecayed after 18 78. The number of structural isomers for C6H14 is :
hours would be - C6H14 ds lajpukRed leko;fo;ksa dh la[;k gksxh %
,d jsfM;kslfØ; leLFkkfud dh v)Zvk;q rhu ?k.Vs gSA ;fn (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
leLFkkfud dk izkjfEHkd nzO;eku 256 g rc 18 ?k.Vs
79. The correct decreasing order of priority for the
i'pkr~ bldk 'ks"k vfo?kfVr (undecayed) nzO;eku gS &
functional groups of organic compounds in the
(1) 12 g (2) 16 g IUPAC system of nomenclature is
(3) 4 g (4) 8 g dkcZfud ;kSfxdksa ds ukedj.k dh IUPAC i)fr esa
73. Number of moles of NaOH required to neutralize fØ;kRed lewgksa ds fy, ojh;rk dk lgh ?kVrk Øe bl
1 mole of H2SO4 will be - izdkj gS
1 eksy H2SO4 ds mnklhuhdj.k ds fy, vko';d NaOH (1) –SO3H, –COOH, –CONH2, –CHO
dh eksy la[;k D;k gksxh \ (2) –CHO, –COOH, –SO3H, –CONH2
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) –CONH2, –CHO, –SO3H, –COOH
(3) 3 (4) 5 (4) –COOH, –SO3H, –CONH2, –CHO
80. The saturated heterocyclic compound is : 86. ab — acc — — da — bba —

larÌr fo"kepØh; ;kSfxd gS % (1) cdabc (2) badaa
(3) cdbcd (4) dbacd
(1) (2) 87. A man starts from his house walks 2 km. towards
N
.. North. He turns right and walk 3km. Then he turn
lft and travels 3 km. What is the direction o\he is
facing -
(1) East (2) West (3) North (4) South
N
(3) | (4) ,d O;fDr vius ?kj ls 2 fdeh- mÙkj dh vksj pyrk gS]
H fQj nk;ha vksj eqM+dj 3 fdeh- pyrk gSA vc og fdl
fn'kk dks face dj jgk gS&
(1) iwoZ (2) if'pe (3) mÙkj (4) nf{k.k
PART - V (MENTAL ABILITY) :
88. If OX is coded as 39, what will be the code
Hkkx - V (ekufld ;ksX;rk) number for LION ?
;fn OX dks 39 ls dksM+ fd;k tk;s rks LION ds fy, dksM+
This section contains 20 multiple choice la[;k D;k gksxh ?
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (1) 20 (2) 25 (3) 38 (4) 50
(2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is 89. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘ ×’ means ‘—’, ‘’ means ‘+’ and
correct. ‘—’ means ‘’, then
lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj ;fn ‘+’ dk vFkZ ‘×’, ‘ ×’ dk vFkZ ‘—’, ‘’ dk vFkZ ‘+’ rFkk
bl [k.M esa 20 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u ds 4 ‘—’ dk vFkZ ‘’, gks rks
fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa, ftuesa ls flQZ ,d 175 – 25 5 + 20 × 3 + 10 = ?
lgh gSA (1) 160 (2) 77 (3) 2370 (4) 240
90 . A × B means A is the sister of B, A B means A is
Directions :(81 to 85) Find the missing term : the daughter of B, A – B means A is the son of B.
funsZ'k (81 to 85) % yqIr in Kkr dhft, % On the basis of this information you have to tell,
how is P related to S in the relationship P – Q ×
81. 151, 158, 172, 182, ? R S.
(1) 210 (2) 193 (1) Brother (2) Son
(3) 197 (4) 203 (3) Grandson (4) Daughter’s son
A × B dk vFkZ A, B dh cfgu gSA A B dk vFkZ A, B dh
82. DFK, FEL, HDM, JCN, ?
(1) KBN (2) KBO iq=kh gSA A – B dk vFkZ A, B dk iq=k gSA bl lqpuk ds
(3) LBO (4) LBN vk/kkj ij vki crkbZ;s fd P vkSj S esa D;k lEcU/k gS ;fn
5 5 9 P–Q×RS
(1) HkkbZ (2) iq=k
3 21 2 8 24 1 4 ? 2
(3) iks=k (4) iq=kh dk iq=k
83. 7 6 5 91. How many triangles are there in the following
(1) 36 (2) 38 figure ?
(3) 48 (4) 42 nh xbZ vkd`fr esa f=kHkqtksa dh la[;k fdruh gS?
84. 5, 34, 10 51, 17, 68, 26, ? , ?
(1) 102, 39 (2) 76, 35
(3) 85, 37 (4) 35,86
(1) 19 (2) 21 (3) 27 (4) 48
25 10 4
85. Direction : (92 to 95) Find out the correct alternative
2 ? 32
of the questions based on the Dice figures.
12 6 3 funZs'k : (92 ls 95) iklksa ds n'kkZ, x, fp=k ij vk/kkfjr iz'uksa ds
(1) 4 (2) 6 lgh fodYi pqfu,A
(3) 8 (4) 10
Directions : (86) These questions are based on letter
series in which some of the letters are missing. 92.
The missing letters are given in the proper
sequence in one of the alternatives among the
four given under each question. Find out the The number opposite side the face having the
correct alternatives for each question. no. 4 will be –
funZs'k : (86) fuEukafdr iz'uksa esa nh xbZ v{kj Jsf.k;ksa esa dqN v{kj vad 4 ds foijhr i`"B ij dkSulh la[;k gksxh –
xk;c gSA izR;sd iz'u ds uhps fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls (1) 1 (2) 2
,d lgh Øe dk fodYi pqfu,A (3) 5 (4) 6
Direction : In the following figure Manager are

4 denoted by rectangle, Females by triangle and
93. ? Singers by circle, the numbers given in figures
2 represent their number, study the figure carefully
and answer the question No. 160 to 163 based
(i) (ii) (iii) on it–
Three positions of a Dice are shown. In figure (iii)
which number will come in place of (?).
ikls dh rhu fLFkfr;k¡ n'kkZbZ xbZ gSA fp=k (iii) esa vafdr fpgz
(?) ds LFkku ij dkSulk vad vk,xkA
(1) 5 (2) 3
(3) 6 (4) 1
94. The following figure is converted into a cube. Its funZs'k : uhps fn, x, fp=k esa vk;r ls izca/kdksa dks] f=kHkqt ls
correct shape will be–
fL=k;ksa dks ,oa o`r ls xk;dksa dks n'kkZ;k x;k gS vkjs[k esa nh
fuEukafdr fp=k dks ?ku ds :i esa ifjofrZr fd;k tk, rks
x;h la[;kvksa ds }kjk mudh la[;k dk crk;k x;k gS]
dkSulk :i lgh gksxk–
fuEufyf[kr vkjs[k dk /;ku ls v/;;u djsa ,oa iz'u 160
ls 163 dk tokc nsa-
(1) (2) 96. How many persons are only singers ?

fdrus O;fDr dsoy xk;d gS?
(1) 15 (2) 12
(3) (4) (3) 4 (4) 7
97. How many females are there who are managers

95. The following figure is converted into a cube. Its and singers as well ?
four positions (a), (b), (c) and (d) are shown. On ,slh fL=k;ksa dh la[;k fdruh gS] tks fd izca/kd rFkk xk;d
the basis of these select correct alternative. nksaukas gSa?
fuEukafdr fp=k dks ?ku esa ifjofrZr fd;k tk, rks n'kkZbZ xbZ (1) 4 (2) 7
pkj fLFkfr;k¡ (a),(b), (c) vkSj (d) ds vk/kkj ij lgh
fodYi dks pqfu,A (3) 9 (4) 16
98. How many mangers are there, who are neither

female nor singers ?
,sls izca/kdksa dh la[;k fdruh gS tks fd u rks L=kh gS] vkSj
u gh xk;d gSa?
(1) 35 (2) 12
(3) 4 (4) 9
(a) (b)
99. How many singers are there who are neither
female nor managers ?
,sls xk;dksa dh la[;k fdruh gS] tks u rks L=kh gS vkSj u gh
izca/kd gSa?
(c) (d)
(1) 4 (2) 7
(3) 15 (4) 12
(1) a only (2) b only
(3) a and c only (4) a, b, c and d

(1) dsoy a (2) dsoy b
(3) dsoy a vkSj c (4) a, b, c vkSj d
Direction : (100) Each of the following questions

consists of four figures marked 1, 2, 3 and 4.
These figures form a series. Find out the one
from the answer figures that will continue the
series.
funsZ'k : (100) izR;sd iz'u esa] fp=kksa ds nks lewg gSaA iz'u vkd`fr
rFkk mÙkj vkd`fr] mÙkj vkd`fr A, B, C, rFkk D ls vafdr
gSA mÙkj vkd`fr;ksa esa ls ml vkd`fr dk pquko dhft;s tks
iz'u vkd`fr esa nh xbZ vkd`fr;ksa dh Jsa.kh dks vkxs c<+k
ldsA
100.
(1) (2)
(A) (A)
(B) (B)
(C) (C)
(D) (D)
(3) (4)
(A) (A)(B) (B)(C) (C)

(D) (D)
ANSWER KEY TO SAMPLE TEST PAPER-1
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (4)

6. (4) 7. (4) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (1) 15. (3)
16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (4)
21. (3) 22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (1)
26. (4) 27. (4) 28. (3) 29. (1) 30. (3)
31. (3) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (3)
36. (1) 37. (4) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (3)
41. (2) 42. (1) 43. (2) 44. (1) 45. (1)
46. (2) 47. (2) 48. (3) 49. (3) 50. (3)
51. (4) 52. (3) 53. (4) 54. (1) 55. (1)
56. (4) 57. (4) 58. (2) 59. (2) 60. (4)
61. (1) 62. (1) 63. (2) 64. (1) 65. (2)
66. (3) 67. (4) 68. (2) 69. (2) 70. (3)
71. (3) 72. (3) 73. (2) 74. (3) 75. (1)
76. (3) 77. (3) 78. (3) 79. (4) 80. (3)
81. (2) 82. (3) 83. (1) 84. (3) 85. (3)
86. (2) 87. (3) 88. (4) 89. (2) 90 . (4)
91. (3) 92. (1) 93. (4) 94. (4) 95. (2)
96. (1) 97. (1) 98. (1) 99. (3) 100. (3)
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
02
(For Class-XI Appearing / Passed Students)
COURSE : SAMBHAV(MF)
Marks to be awarded
Correct Wrong Total
Questions
1 to 40 40 3 0 120
41 to 60 20 3 0 60
61 to 80 20 3 0 60
81 to 100 20 3 0 60
Total 100 300
PART - I (BIOLOGY) : Hkkx - I (tho&foKku) xyr ;qXe dks pqfu;s&

(1) ysxgheksXyksfcu - f'kEc ikniksa esa N2 - fLFkjhdj.k ds

nkSjku O2 viektZd
This section contains 40 multiple choice (2) jksMksLikbfjye - izdk'k la'ys"kh N2 - fLFkjhdkjh
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), ok;qoh; thok.kq
(2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is (3) jlk;u Loiks"kh - ukbVªhdkjh thok.kq
correct.
(4) ,ukfcuk rFkk ukWLVkWd - eqDrthoh N2 fLFkjhdkjh rFkk
bl [k.M esa 40 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u ds 4 lgthoh N2 fLFkjhdkjh nksuksa
fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa, ftuesa ls flQZ ,d 3. Given below the following statements
lgh gSA (a) The sporophyte of liverworts more
eloborates than sporophyte of mosses
(b) Both Cycas and Marchantia are dioecious
1. In which stage of cell cycle nuclear membrane
(c) Jacketed sex organs are found in both red
and nucleolus reappear, cytokinesis follows and
algae and brown algae
this is called as diad of cells
(d) Coralloid roots of Cycas has cyanobacteria
(1)Telophase (2) Prohase-I
for nitrogen fixation
(3) Telophase-II (4) Telophase-I
(e) Polyembryony is quite common in
dksf'kdk pØ dh dkSulh voLFkk esa dsUnzd dyk rFkk
angiosperm than gymnosperm
dssfUnzdk iqu% izdV gksrh gS] rFkk dksf'kdk nzO; foHkktu How many above staements are wrong
gksrk gS rFkk bls dksf'kdkvksa ds Mk;M ds :i esa tkuk (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
tkrk gS& uhps fuEu dFku fn;s x;s gSa&
(1) VhyksQst (2) izksQst-I (a) ekWl ds LiksjksQkbV dh rqyuk esa yhojoVZ~l dk
(3) VhyksQst-II (4) VhyksQst-I LiksjksQkbV vf/kd fodflr gksrk gS
(b) lkbdl rFkk ekWdsZfU'k;k nksuksa ,dfyaxkJ;h gksrs gSa
2. Select the wrong pair
(1) Leghaemoglobin-O2 scvenger during (c) yky 'kSoky rFkk Hkwjs 'kSoky nksuksa esa tSdsV;qDr tuukax
gksrs gSa
biological N2-fixation in legumes
(d) lkbdl dh izoky ewyksa esa ukbVªkstu fLFkjhdj.k ds
(2) Rhodospirillum-Photosynthetic N2-fixing
fy;s lkbukscSfDVfj;k gksrs gSa
aerobic Bacteria (e) vuko`Ùkchft;ksa dh rqyuk esa vko`Ùkchft;ksa esa cgqHkzw.krk
(3) Chemoautotrophs -Nitrifying bacteria. vf/kd feyrh gS
(4) Anabaena & Nostoc- both free living N2
mijksDr esa ls fdrus dFku xyr gSa&
fixers as well as symbiotic N2 fixers (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
STP2019MF-PAGE # -19
4. Which statement is wrong - a b c d

(1) Both Ascospores and Basidiospores are (1) ewykHkkl lEiqV lhV eq[;
sexual spores formed endogenously lEiqV v{k
(2) Phenetic classification is based on
(2) eq[; lhVk ewys lEiqV
observable characters of organisms
(3) Monograph contains information of any v{k
taxon (3) ewykHkkl lEiqV eq[; lhVk
(4) Herbarium is a store house of collected plant v{k
specimens that are dried, pressed and (4) eq[; lhVk ewykHkkl lEiqV
preserved on sheets. v{k
dkSulk dFku xyr gS&
(1) ,LdksLikslZ rFkk csflfM;ksLikslZ vUrZtkr :i ls cuus 6.
okys ySafxd chtk.kq gS
(2) QhfufVd oxhZdj.k thoksa ds izsf{kr fd;s x;s y{k.kksa ij c
vk/kkfjr gS d
(3) eksuksxzkQ esa fdlh VsDlkWu ds ckjs esa lwpuk gksrh gS
(4) gcsZfj;e laxzfgr fd;s x;s ikni izfrn'kksZa dk laxzg a
LFky gSa tks fd lq[kkdj] nckdj rFkk 'khVksa ij ifjjf{kr

b
fd;s tkrs gSa
5. Examine the figure given below and select the
correct option giving all the four parts (a, b,c and
d) rightly identified. On the basis of above diagram select the wrong
d statement.
(1) (b) The characteristic feature of Angiosperms
b (2) (d) is enucleated at maturity & living
(3) (a) is usually absent, in monocot stem
(4) (d) maintains the pressure gradient
a a
c
b
a b c d
(1) Rhizoids Capsule Seta Main
axis mijksDr fp=k ds vk/kkj ij xyr dFku dks pqfu;s
(2) Mains Seta Roots Capsule (1) (b)-vko`Ùkchth; ikniksa dk vfHky{k.k gS
axis (2) (d)-ifjiDork ij vdsfUnzdh; gksrh gS rFkk thfor
(3) Rhizoids Capsule Main Seta gksrh gS
axis
(3) (a)-,dchti=kh rus esa lkekU;r;k vuqifLFkr gksrh gS
(4) Main Seta Rhizoids Capsule
axis (4) (d)-nkcizo.krk dks cuk;s j[krh gS
7. What is common between active transport and
fuEu fp=k dks nsf[k, o fn, pkj Hkkxksa esa (a, b,c o d) lgh facilitated diffusion.
fodYi dk pquko dhft, (1) Require ATP as energy
d (2) Uphill transport
(3) Respond to inhibitors & are under hormonal
b regulation
lfØ; ifjogu rFkk lqlk/; folj.k esa D;k mHk;fu"B gS&
(1) ATP ds :i esa ÅtkZ dh vko';drk
(2) vifgy ifjogu
(3) fujks/kdksa ds izfr vuqfØ;k djrs gSa rFkk gkekZsUk fu;eu
a
esa gksrs gS
c (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
8. Chlamydomonas, rhizopus, mycoplasma,

12. Which of the following is not correct
nitrobacter, spirogyra, methanogens, gonyaulax,
(1) Both Bryophytes and pteridophytes bear
volvox, porphyra, chlorella, pinus, marchantia,
zooliogamy
albugo, euglena
(2) Aplanogamy is observed in spirogyra
above groups of organisms can be placed in
(3) Secondary protonema forms leafy stage in
how many kingdoms
mosses
DysekbMkseksukWl] jkbtksil] ekbdksIykWTek] ukbVªkscSDVj] (4) chl - a, c,d r-phycoerythrin pigment are found
Likbjksxk;jk] feFksukstUl] xksfu;ksysDl] okWyokWDl] in brown algae
iksjQk;jk] Dyksjsyk] ikbul] ekdsZfU'k;k] ,Ycqxks] ;qXyhuk fuEu esa ls dkSulk lgh ugha gSa&
thoksa ds mijksDr lewgksa dks fdrus txr~ esa j[kk tk ldrk (1) czk;ksQkbV~l rFkk VsfjMksQkbV~l nksuksa esa twfM;ksxseh
gS& ik;h tkrh gS
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2 (2) Likbjksxk;jk esa ,Iysuksxseh ik;h tkrh gS
9. Give below the following statements (3) ekWl esa f}rh;d izksVksfuek if.kZy izkoLFkk cukrh gS
(a) Cell wall in many members of phycomycetes (4) chl-a, d, r-QkbdksbfjfFkzu o.kZd Hkwjs 'kSokyksa esa ik;s
is composed of cellulose. tkrs gSa
(b) The mycelium of deuteromycetes is aseptate
& unbranched & Asexual reproduction is 13. During cell division, sister chromatids separate
performed by conidia. during
(c) In ascomycetes, conidia are produced (1) Telophase-I (2) Anaphase-I
exogenously on conidiophores. (3) Mataphase-II (4) Anaphase-II
(d) Trichoderma is used to control fungal dksf'kdk foHkktu ds nkSjku flLVj ØksesfVM~l fdl le;
diseases in plants. i`Fkd gksrh gSa&
(e) Bread and beer are manufactured by yeast (1) VhyksQst-I (2) ,ukQst-I
How many statements are correct (3) esVkQst-II (4) ,ukQst-II
(1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 4
uhps fuEu dFku fn;s x;s gS& 14. Select the wrong pair
(a) QkbdksekbflVht ds vusd lnL;ksa esa dksf'kdk fHkfÙk (A) (B)
(1) Mo Activator of nitrogenase
lsY;wykst dh cuh gksrh gS
(2) sulphur Constituent of ferredoxin &
(b) M~;wVsjksekbflVht dk dodtky iVghu rFkk 'kkf[kr chlorophyll
gksrk gS rFkk vySafxd tuu dksfufM;k }kjk gksrk gS (3) Calcium Formation of spindle
(c) ,LdksekbflVht esa dksfufM;k] dksfufM;ksQkslZ ij (4) Iron activator of catalase & required
cfgZtkr :i ls mRiUu gksrs gSa for chlorophyll formation
(d) VªkbdksMekZ ikniksa esa dod jksxksa ds fu;a=k.k esa iz;qDr
gksrk gS xyr ;qXe dks pqfu;s&
(e) czsM rFkk ch;j ;hLV }kjk fufeZr gksrh gaS (A) (B)
fdrus dFku lgh gSa& (1) Mo ukbVªksftust dk lfØ;d
(1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 4 (2) lYQj QsfjMkWfDlu rFkk DyksjksfQy dk ?kVd
(3) dsfY'k;e rdqZ dk fuekZ.k
10. By which character of euglena show
resemblance with plants (4) ykSg dsVkyst dk lfØ;d rFkk DyksjksfQy
(1) Presence of same reserve food fuekZ.k ds fy;s vko';d
(2) Presence of pigments chl a, b
(3) presence of cellulosic cell wall 15. Filteration of sugar and fruit juice is utilisation of
(4)presence of holophytic and holozoic nutrition. (1) Slime mould (2) Diatomous earth
;qXyhuk fdl y{k.k ds }kjk ikniksa ds lkFk lekUkrk n'kkZrk (3) Spirulina (4) Dinoflagellates
gS& 'kdZjkvksa rFkk Qyksa ds jl dk fQYVªs'ku fdldk mi;ksx
(1) leku lafpr HkksT; inkFkZ dh mifLFkfr esa gS&
(2) chl a, b o.kZdksa dh mifLFkfr esa (1) Lykbe eksYM~l dk (2) MkbVe i`Foh dk
(3) lsY;wyksftd dksf'kdk fHkfÙk dh mifLFkfr esa (3) Likb:fyuk dk (4) Mkbuks¶ysfTkysV~l dk
(4) gksyksQkbfVd rFkk gksykstksbd iks"k.k dh mifLFkfr esa 16. Whenaver the elements are relatively immobile
11. In which type of chromosome the centromere is and are not transperted out of the mature
situated close to its end forming one extremely organs, the deficiency symptoms tend to appear
short and one very long arm. first in
(1) sub metacentric (2) Telocentric (1) Older tissues
(3) metacentric (4) Acrocentric (2) Young tissues
fdl izdkj ds xq.klw=k esa lsUVªksfe;j fljs ds utnhd gksrk (3) Both older and young tissues simultaneous
gSftlls ,d vR;ar NksVh o ,d cgqr yEch Hkqtk curh gS& (4) None of the above
(1) lcesVklsfUVªd (2) VhykslsfUVªd
(3) esVklsfUVªd (4) ,ØkslsfUVªd
tc dHkh Hkh rRo vkisf{kd :i ls vpy gksrs gSa rFkk (1) i-c, ii-a iii-b, iv-c, v-d
ifjiDo vaXkksa ls ckgj ifjofgr ugha gksrs gSa rks U;wurk ds (2) i-a, ii-d iii-c, iv-b, v-a
y{k.k fdlesa lcls igys izdV gksrs gSa& (3) i-e, ii-a iii-d, iv-b, v-c
(4) i-e, ii-a iii-b, iv-c, v-d
(1) iqjkus ÅÙkdksa esa
(2) ;qok ÅÙkdksa esa 21. What is common between bryophytes and
(3) iqjkus ÅÙkdkssa rFkk ;qok ÅÙkdksa nksuksa esa pteridophytes
(1) Absence of roots
(4) mijksDr dksbZ ugha
(2) requirement of water for fertilization
17. Stroma lamellae membranes lack (3) Presence of vascular tissues
(1) PS-II (4) Presenced of independent sporophyte and
(2) PS-I independent gametophyte
(3) PS-I and NADP reductase enzyme czk;ksQkbV~l rFkk VsfjMksQkbV~l esa D;k mHk;fu"B gS
(4) PS-II and NADP-reductase enzyme (1) ewyksa dh vuqifLFkfr
LVªksek ysfeyh dh dykvksa esa D;k vuqifLFkr gksrk gS& (2) fu"kspu ds fy;s ty dh vko';drk
(1) PS-II (3) laogu ÅÙkdksa dh mifLFkfr
(2) PS-I (4) Lora=k LiksjksQkbV rFkk Lora=k xsfeVksQkbV dh
(3) PS-I rFkk NADP fjMDVst ,Utkbe
mifLFkfr
(4) PS-II rFkk NADP fjMDVst ,Utkbe
22. Which of the following pair is wrongly matched
18. Which of the following is function of auxins while the remaining three are correct
(1)IAA is used to spead up the malting process (1) Deuteromycetes - Fungi imperfecti
in brewing insdustry (2) Strawberry - Stolon
(2) They initiate lateral shoot growth and (3) Stilt roots - Sugarcane
adventitius shoot formation (4) Pea seeds - Coleorrhiza
(3) IBA promotes female flowers in cucumbers fuEu esa ls dkSu lk ;qXe xyr gS tcfd 'ks"k rhu lgh gS
(4) 2, 4-D is widely used to kill dicotyledonous
(1) M~;wVsjksekbflVht - QtkbZ bEijQSDVh
weeds.
fuEu esa dkSulk vkWfDlu dk dk;Z gS& (2) LVªkcsjh - HkwLrkjh
(1) IAA dk mi;ksx e| O;olk; esa ekfYVax izØe dh nj (3) fLVYV ewysa - xUuk
c<+kus esa fd;k tkrk gS (4) eVj ds cht - dksfy;ksjkbtk
(2) ;s ik'oZ izjksg dh o`f) rFkk viLFkkfud izjksg fuekZ.k 23. Alternate, simple leave with reticulate venation
dks izsfjr djrk gS are present in
(3) IBA ddM+h esa eknk iq"iu dks izsfjr djrk gS (1) Mustard (2) Guava
(4) 2, 4-D dk mi;ksx cMs+ iSekus ij f}chti=kh; (3) Alstonia (4) Nerium
[kjirokjksa dks u"V djus esa fd;k tkrk gS fuEu esa fdlesa ,dkUrfjr] lk/kkj.k i.kZ o tkfydkor
f'kjkfoU;kl iznf'kZr gksrk gSA
19. Stem tendrils are found in (1) ljlksa (2) ve:n
(1) Grapevines (2) Pea (3) vkYlVksfu;k (4) uhfj;e
(3) Smilax (4) Glory lily
izjksg izrku fdlesa ik;s tkrs gSa& 24. Select the wrong statements
(1) vaxwj (2) eVj (a) Reserve food material is floridian starch in
(3) LekbysDl (4) Xyksjhfyfy brown algae
(b) Alginic acid obtains from Chondrus crispus
20. Match the column (red algae)
(A) (B) (c) The no. of flagella of Phaeophyceae is two,
(i) Bacteriophage a. Mycorrhiza heterokont & lateral in position
(ii) Pinus b. Ustilago (d) Oogamy is observed in Volvox & Fucus
(iii) Smut c.Gelidium & gracillaria (1) a, d (2) a, c
(iv) Agar-agar d. Gammae (3) b, c (4) a, b
(v) Marchantia e. Double stranded DNA vlR; dFku Nk¡fV;sa
(1) i-c, ii-a iii-b, iv-c, v-d (a) Hkwjs 'kSokyksa esa lafpr HkksT; inkFkZ ¶yksfjfM;u LVkpZ
(2) i-a, ii-d iii-c, iv-b, v-a gksrk gS
(3) i-e, ii-a iii-d, iv-b, v-c
(b) ,fYtfud vEy] dkWUMªl fØLil ¼yky 'kSoky½ ls izkIr
(4) i-e, ii-a iii-b, iv-c, v-d
dkWye lqesfyr dhft,& gksrk gS
(A) (B) (c) fQ;ksQkblh esa d'kkHkksa dh la[;k nks gksrh gS rFkk os
(i) thok.kqHkksth a. ekbdksjkbtk gsVsjksdkWUV o ik'oZ fLFkfr esa gksrs gSa
(ii) ikbul b. vfLVysxks (d) v.M;qXedrk okWYkokWDl rFkk ¶;wdl esa ik;h tkrh gS
(iii) daM c.fxfyfM;e rFkk xzsflysfj;k (1) a, d (2) a, c
(iv) vxj&vxj d. xSeh (3) b, c (4) a, b
(v) ekdsZfU'k;k e. f}lw=kh DNA
25. Ginger is homologous to tUrqvksa ds fuEu leqPP;ksa esa ls fdl ,d esa lHkh pkjksa
(1) Sweet potato (2) Turnip v.Mtud ugh gSa\
(3) Onion (4) Mango ginger (1) NNqanj] pexknM+] fcYyh] dhoh
vnjd fuEu esa fdlds letkr gS (2) 'ksj] pexknM+] àsy] 'krqjewxZ
(1) 'kdjdUn (2) pqdUnj
(3) daxk:] gstgksx] MkfYQu] yksfjl
(3) I;kt (4) vkek gYnh
(4) IysfVil] isaxqbu] pexknM+] nj;kbZ ?kksM+k
26. What would happen if oxygen availability to
31. There will be almost no regeneration after
activated sludge flocs is reduced?
destruction of
(1) It will slow down the rate of degradation of
(1) Areolar tissue (2) Blood
organic matter.
(3) epidermis (4) Cochlea
(2) The centre of flocs will become anoxic,
fdlds u"B gksus ds i'pkr~ dksbZ ih<+h ugh gksxh\
which would cause death of bacteria and
eventually breakage of flocs. (1) ok;oh; Ård (2) jä
(3) Flocs would increase in size as anaerobic (3) vf/kpeZ (4) dksfDy;k
bacteria would grow around flocs. 32. Which of the following is true w.r.t. shafts of long
(4) Protozoa would grow in large numbers bones of mammals?
D;k ?kfVr gksxk ;fn lfØr Lyt ¶ykWDl dks vkWDlhtu (1) Yellow bone marrow
dh miyC/krk ?kV tkrh gS\ (2) Cancellous bone
(1) ;g dkcZfud inkFkZ ds vi?kVu dh nj dks de dj (3) Scattered bone marrow
nsxk (4) Both (2) and (3)
(2) ¶ykWDl dk dsUnz vukWDlh gks tk;sxk] ftlds dkj.k fuEu esa ls dkSulk] Lrfu;ksa dh yach vfLFk;ksa dh 'kk¶V ds
thok.kq dh e`R;q vkSj lkFk gh ¶ykWDl dk fo?kVu gks tk;sxk lEcU/k esa lgh gSa&
(3) ¶ykWDl vkdkj esa c<+ tk;sxsa D;ksafd ¶ykWDl ds pkjksa (1) ihyk vfLFk eTtk
vksj vukWDlh thok.kq o`f) dj tk;saxs (2) dsUlsyl vfLFk
(4) cM+h la[;k esa izksVkstksvk o`f) djsaxsA (3) fc[kjk gqvk vfLFk eTTkk
(4) (2) rFkk (3) nksuksa
27. Which of the following sponge can bore through
the oyster shell and is harmful for pearl 33. Unfertilized eggs of honey bees develop into.
industry? (1) sterile males (2) fertile males
(1) Chalina (2) Cliona (3) sterile females (4) fertile females
(3) Ciona (4) Hyalonema e/kqefD[k;ksa ds vfu"ksfpr v.Msa fodflr gksrs gSa&
fuEu esa ls dkSulk Liat vkW,LVj ds dop esa Nsn dj (1) ca/; ujksa esa (2) tuu{ke ujksa esa
ldrk gS] rFkk ;g eqDrk m|ksx ds fy, gkfudkjd gksrk (3) ca/; eknkvksa esa (4) tuu{ke eknkvksa esa
gS? 34. Which of the following glands in the cockroach
(1) dsfyuk (2) fDyvksuk are active in the adult and secrete gonadotropic
(3) lhvksuk- (4) gk;yksuhek hormone to regulate development and
28. Botryoidal tissue is found in functioning of the reproductive organs?
(1) Hirudinaria (2) Pheretima (1) Inter-cerebral gland cells
(3) Rabbit (4) Ascaris (2) Corpora cardiaca
cksfVª;ksMy Ård ik;k tkrk gS& (3) Corpora allata
(4) Prothoracic gland
(1) fg:fMusfj;k esa (2) QsjsfVek esa
frypês esa fuEu esa ls dkSulh xzfUFk o;Ld esa lfØ; gksrh
(3) [kjxks'k esa (4) ,sLdsfjl esa
gSa rFkk tuu vaxksa ds fodkl rFkk dk;Ziz.kkyh dks fu;fer
29. Which is not an aerial adaptation of birds? djus ds fy, xksusMksVªksfid gkeksZu dk óko.k djrh gS\
(1) Gizzard (2) Single ovary (1) varj&izefLr"d xzfUFk dksf'kdk,sa
(3) Pneumatic bone (4) Keeled sternum (2) dkWiksZjk dkfMZ;dk
if{k;ksa dk fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d ok;oh; vuqdwyu ugh (3) dkWiksZjk ,ykVk
gSa\ (4) izksFkksjsfld xzfUFk
(1) is"k.kh (2) ,dy v.Mk'k;
(3) U;wesfVd vfLFk (4) uksryuqeh mjksfLFk 35. Which of the following homopolymer of fructose
is not metabolised in human body and is readily
30. In which one of the following sets of animals do filtered through the kidney?
all the four are not oviparous? (1) Amylopectin (2) Inulin
(1) Shrew, Bat, Cat, Kiwi (3) Chitin (4) Glycogen
(2) Lion, Bat, Whale, Ostrich fuEu esa ls dkSulk ÝDVkst dk lecgqyd gS rFkk ekuo
(3) Kangaroo, Hedgehog, Dolphin, Loris 'kjhj esa mikipf;r ugh gksrk gS vkSj o`ô }kjk iw.kZr%
(4) Platypus, Penguin, Bat, Hippopotamus
fuL;afnr gks tkrk gS\
(1) ,ekbyksisfDVu (2) buwfyu
(3) dkbfVu (4) XYkkbdkstu
36. Which of the following is sulphur containing

41. A ,B and C are certainly coplanar vectors if
amino acid?
(1) Glutamate (2) Serine A ,B vkSj C dh rhu leryh; lfn'k gksxsa ;fn
(3) Methionine (4) Arginine
fuEu esa ls dkSulk] lYQj;qä vehuks vEy gS\ (1) 
A . B C 0 (2) A  B C  0
(1) XywVkesV (2) lsjhu
(3) ehfFkvksfuu (4) vkftZuhu
(3) A  B .C 0 (4) 
A . B .C 0
37. Which of the following property can't be linked to 42. Work done in time t on a body of mass m which
the secondary metabolites? is accelerated from rest to a speed v in time t1 as
(1) Derivatives of primary metabolites a function of time t is given by
(2) Produced in small quantities m æO;eku dk ,d fi.M fojke ls t1 le; esa v osx çkIr
(3) Not part of basic molecular structure dj ysrk gSA bl fi.M ij t le; esa fd;k x;k dk;Z] le;
(4) Found from the start of plant life t ds Qyu ds #i esa gksxk
fuEu esa ls dkSulk xq.k f}rh;d mikip;tkssa ls ugh tksM+k
1 v 2 v 2
tk ldrk\ (1) m t (2) m t
(1) izkFkfed mikip;tks ds O;qRié 2 t1 t1
(2) de ek=kkvksa esa mRikfnr gksrs gSa 2

1m v  2
2
1 v 2
(3) v/kkjHkwr lajpuk dk Hkkx ugh (3)   t (4) m
2
t
2  t1  2 t1
(4) ikni thou ds izkjEHk ls ik;s tkrs gS
38. Which one is different form the category of other 43. Slope of Velocity - time graph of an object (mass
three? = 5 kg) is zero from
(1) Gastrin (2) Glucagon fdlh oLrq (nzO;eku = 5 kg) ds osx≤ xzkQ dk <yku
(3) Ptyalin (4) Secretin 'kwU; dc gksxkA
fuEu esa ls dkSu ,d] rhu vU; dh Js.kh ls fHké gS\ V
(1) xsLVªhu (2) XywdsxkWu 30
(3) Vk;fyu (4) lhØsfVu

t
0 10 20 30 40 55
39. Which of the following enzyme is responsible for
activation of chymotrypsinogen into –30
chymotrypsin?
(1) Enterokinase (2) Enteropeptidase (1) 0-10 sec (2) 10-20 sec
(3) Trypsin (4) Enterocrinin (3) 20-30 sec (4) 30-40 sec
fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,UTkkbe] dkbeksfVªfIlukstu dk 44. A body of mass 2 kg slides down a curved track
dkbeksfVªfIlu esa lfØ;.k ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gS\ which is quadrant of a circle of radius 1 metre. All
(1) ,UVsjksdkbust (2) ,UVsjksisIVkbMst the surfaces are frictionless. If the body starts
(3) fVªfIlu (4) ,UVsjksØkbfuu from rest, its speed at the bottom of the track is
,d 2 kg æO;eku dk fi.M] 1 m f=kT;k ds o`Ùkh; prqFkk±'k
40. What volume of oxygen is transported by one ds oØh; iFk ij (fp=kkuqlkj) fQlyrk gSA lHkh i`"B ?k"kZ.k
litre of oxygenated blood under normal jfgr gSaA ;fn fi.M fojkekoLFkk ls pyuk çkjEHk djs] rks iFk
condition?
(1) 150ml (2) 15 ml dh ryh ij bldh pky gS
1m
(3) 200ml (4) 50 ml
lkekU; fLFkfr esa vkWDlhtu;qä jä ds ,d yhVj }kjk
vkWDlhtu ds fdrus vk;ru dk ifjogu fd;k tkrk gS\
1m
(1) 150 feyh yhVj (2) 15 feyh yhVj
(3) 200 feyh yhVj (4) 50 feyh yhVj
(1) 4.43 m/sec (2) 2 m/sec

PART - II (PHYSICS) : Hkkx - II (HkkSfrd&foKku) (3) 0.5 m/sec (4) 19.6 m/sec
45. Slope of this curve is : bl oØ dk <ky %
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
bl [k.M esa 20 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u ds 4
(1) continuously increasing
fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa, ftuesa ls flQZ ,d lgh
(2) continuously decreasing
gSA (3) first increases and then decreases
(4) first decreases and then increases
(1) yxkrkj c<+ jgk gSA 49. In the one-dimensional motion of a particle, the
(2) yxkrkj ?kV jgk gSA relation between position x (in meter) and time t
(3) igys c<+ jgk gS fQj ?kV jgk gSA is given by x = t2 –4t + 6. Then the displacement
(4) igys ?kV jgk gS fQj c<+ jgk gSA in the interval from t = 0 to t = 4 sec. is
1 fdlh ,d foeh; xfr esa d.k dh fLFkfr x (ehVj esa) rFkk
46. The mass of the moon is of the earth but the
81 le; t esa lEcU/k x = t2 –4t + 6 ds }kjk fn;k tkrk gSA t
1 = 0 ls t = 4 sec. le;vUrjky esa r; dh xbZ foLFkkiu
gravitational pull is of the earth. It is due to gksxhA
6
the fact that (1) 2 m (2) 0 m
(3) 6 m (4) 8 m
81
(1) The radius of the moon is of the earth 50. There are two identical small holes of area of
6
cross-section a on the opposite sides of a tank
9 containing a liquid of density . The difference in
(2) The radius of the earth is of the moon
6 height between the holes is h. Tank is resting on
a smooth horizontal surface. Horizontal force
(3) Moon is the satellite of the earth
which will has to be applied on the tank to keep it
in equilibrium is
pUnzek dk nzO;eku i`Foh ds nzO;eku dk
1
rFkk fdlh æo ¼?kuRo ½ ls Hkjs ik=k dh nhokjksa esa foijhr vksj
81 leku {ks=kQy a ds nks fNæ ¼fp=kkuqlkj½ gSaA fNæksa dh
1 Å¡pkbZ;ksa esa vaarj h gSA ik=k {kSfrt ?k"kZ.k jfgr ry ij j[kk
xq#Rokd"kZ.k cy i`Foh ds xq#Rokd"kZ.k cy dk gSA bldk
6 gSA og {kSfrt cy tks ik=k dks lkE;koLFkk esa j[kus ds fy,
rkRi;Z gS fd vko';d gS, gksxk
81
(1) pUnzek dh f=kT;k] i`Foh dh f=kT;k dh gS
6
h
9
(2) i`Foh dh f=kT;k pUnzek dh f=kT;k dh gS
6
(3) pUnzek i`Foh dk mixzg gS 2gh
(4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha (1) gha (2)
a
47. A balloon is at a height of 10 m and is ascending
gh
upwards with a velocity of 5 m/s. A body of 2 kg (3) 2agh (4)
a
weight is dropped from it. If g = 10 m/s 2, the
body will reach the surface of the earth in 51. An astronaut is on the surface of other planet
(1) 1sec (2) 4 sec whose air resistance is negligible. To measure
(3) 5 sec (4) None of these the acceleration due to gravity (g), he throws a
,d xqCckjk 10 m dh Å¡pkbZ ij gS rFkk ;g Åij dh vksj stone vertically upwards. He observer that the
stone reaches to a maximum height of 20m and
5 m/s ds osx ls mB jgk gSA mlls 2 kg Hkkj dh ,d oLrq
reaches the surface 8 second after it was thrown.
fxjk;h tkrh gSA ;fn g = 10 m/s2 gks rks ;g oLrq i`Foh The acceleration due to gravity (g) on the surface
ry ij fdrus le; esa igq¡psxh of that planet will be (in m/s2):
(1) 1sec (2) 4 sec ,d vUrfj{k ;k=kh vU; xzg dh lrg ij gS ftldk ok;q
(3) 5 sec (4) bues ls dksbZ ugh izfrjks/k ux.; gSA xq:Ro ds dkj.k Roj.k (g) ds ekiu ds
48. A uniform rod of density  is placed in a wide fy, og ,d iRFkj dks Å/okZ/kj Åij Qasdrk gSA og izsf{kr
tank containing a liquid of density 0(0 > ). The djrk gS fd iRFkj }kjk izkIr vf/kdre~ ÅWpkbZ 10m gS rFkk
depth of liquid in the tank is half the length of the ;g lrg ij Qsadus ds 4 lSds.M i'pkr~ okil vkrk gSA bl
rod. The rod is in equilibrium, with its lower end
resting on the bottom of the tank. In this position xzg dh lrg ij xq:Ro ds dkj.k Roj.k (g) dk eku m/s2
the rod makes an angle  with the horizontal esa gksxk%
,d ,dleku NM+ ftldk ?kuRo  gS, 0 ?kuRo ds 0 >  (1) 5 (2) 2.5
æo ls Hkjs gq;s ,d VSad esa j[kh gSA VSad esa æo NM+ dh (3) 10 (4) 8
yEckbZ ls vk/kh Å¡pkbZ rd Hkjk gSA NM+ bl çdkj
lkE;koLFkk esa gS fd mldk fupyk fljk VSad ds iasnsa dks Nw
jgk gS o NM+ {kSfrt ls 60º dks.k cuk jgh gSA rks
1 1 0
(1) s in   0 /  (2) s in   .
2 2 
(3) s in    / 0 (4) s in    0 / 
52. Which of the following graph represents (2) fdlh fi.M dk osx 'kwU; gksus ij Roj.k fuf'pr #i ls
retardation ? [v : velocity, t : time ; x : position] 'kwU; gksxk
fuEu esa ls dkSulks vkjs[k eanu çnf'kZr djrs gS ? [ v : osx, (3) dksbZ fi.M tc ,d leku pky ls xfr djrk gS rc
t : le; ; x : fLFkfr ] mldk Roj.k ,d leku gksxk
v
(4) dksbZ fi.M tc vleku osx ls xfr djrk gS rc mldk
v Roj.k 'kwU; gksxk
56. Newton's first law of motion describes the
(1) t (2) t
following
(1) Energy (2) Work
(3) Inertia (4) Moment of inertia
x x U;wVu dk xfr dk izFke fu;e fuEu dks O;ä djrk gS
(1) ÅtkZ (2) dk;Z
(3) tM+Ro (4) tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ
(3) (4)
t t 57. A wooden block, with a coin placed on its top,
floats in water as shown in fig. the distance l and
53. A wooden block of mass M rests on a horizontal h are shown there. After some time the coin falls
surface. A bullet of mass m moving in the into the water. Then
horizontal direction strikes and gets embedded in Coin
it. The combined system covers a distance x on
the surface. If the coefficient of friction between l
wood and the surface is , the speed of the bullet
at the time of striking the block is (where m is h
mass of the bullet)
ydMh dk ,d CykWd ftldk æO;eku M gS ,d {kSfrt lrg
(1) l decreases and h increases
ij j[kk gSA ,d cUnwd dh xksyh {kSfrt fn'kk esa xfr djrh (2) l increases and h decreases
gqbZ blls Vdjkdj mlesa /k¡l tkrh gS, ftlls xksyh lfgr (3) Both l and h increase
CykWd lrg ij x nwjh rd xfr djrk gSA ;fn lrg vkSj (4) Both l and h decrease
CykWd ds chp ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad  gks] rks CykWd ls Vdjkrs le; ydM+h dk ,d xqVdk ikuh esa fp=kkuqlkj rSj jgk gSA mlds
xksyh dk osx gS (tgk¡ m xksyh dk æO;eku gS) mPp ry ij ,d flDdk j[kk gSA nwfj;k¡ l o h çnf'kZr gSaA
;fn dqN le; i'pkr~ flDdk ikuh esa fxj tk;s rks
2M g 2m g
(1) (2) fl Ddk
m Mx
M  m  2m x l
(3) 2gx   (4)
 m  M  m h
54. A stretched wire of length 110 cm is divided into

three segments whose frequencies are in ratio
1 : 2 : 3. Their lengths must be (1) l dk eku ?kVsxk o h c<+sxk
,d ruh gq;h Mksjh dh yEckbZ 110 cm gSA ;g Mksjh rhu (2) l dk eku c<+sxk o h ?kVsxk
[k.Mks esa dfEir gksrh gS ftudh vko`fÙk;ksa dk vuqikr (3) l o h nksuksa c<+saxs
1 : 2 : 3 gSA bu [k.Mksa dh yEckbZ;ksa dk vuqikr gksxk (4) l o h nksuksa ?kVsaxs
(1) 20 cm ; 30 cm ; 60 cm 58. An object will continue moving uniformly until
(2) 60 cm ; 30 cm ; 20 cm (1) The resultant force acting on it begins to
(3) 60 cm ; 20 cm ; 30 cm decrease
(4) 30 cm ; 60 cm ; 20 cm (2) The resultant force on it is zero
55. The correct statement from the following is (3) The resultant force is at right angle to its
(1) A body having zero velocity will not rotation
necessarily have zero acceleration (4) The resultant force on it is increased
(2) A body having zero velocity will necessarily continuously
have zero acceleration ,d oLrq rc rd ,dleku xfr djrh jgsxh] tc rd
(3) A body having uniform speed can have only (1) ml ij yxus okys ifj.kkeh cyksa dk eku ?kVus yxrk gS
uniform acceleration (2) ml ij ifj.kkeh cy 'kwU; gS
(4) A body having non-uniform velocity will have (3) ifj.kkeh cy mlds ?kweus dh fn'kk ds yEcor~ gS
zero acceleration (4) ifj.kkeh cy dk eku yxkrkj c<+rk pyk tk;s
fuEu dFkuksa esa ls lR; dFku gS
(1) fdlh fi.M dk osx 'kwU; gksus ij mldk Roj.k 'kwU; gks
;g vko’;d ugha gS
59. A small mass slides down an inclined plane of eqDr ÅtkZ ifjorZu (G) D;k gS] tc 100ºC o 1 atm
inclination  with the horizontal. The co-efficient nkc ij 1.0 eksy ty dks Hkki ¼100ºC o 1 atm nkc ij½
of friction is  = 0 x where x is the distance esa ifjofrZr fd;k tkrk gS \
through which the mass slides down and 0, a (1) 80 cal (2) 540 cal
constant. Then the speed is maximum after the (3) 620 cal (4) 'kwU;
mass covers a distance of 62. In view of their ionisation energies, the alkali
,d NksVk nzO;eku {kSfrt ls  dks.k cukus okys urry ij metals are :
uhps fQlyrk gSA ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad  = 0 x gS tgk¡ x og nwjh (1) weak oxidising agents
gS ftruk nzO;eku uhps fQlyrk gS ,oa 0 ,d fu;rkad gSA (2) strong reducing agents
(3) strong oxidising agents
nzO;eku }kjk r; dh xbZ og nwjh] ftlds ckn pky (4) weak reducing agents
vf/kdre gS] gksxh & vk;uu ÅtkZvksa ds vk/kkj ij {kkjh; /kkrq,sa gksrh gS :
cos  s in  (1) nqcZy vkWDlhdkjd vfHkdeZd
(1) (2)
0 0 (2) izcy vipk;d vfHkdeZd
(3) izcy vkWDlhdkjd vfHkdeZd
ta n  2 ta n 
(3) (4) (4) nqcZy vipk;d vfHkdeZd
0 0
63. Sodium metal can be stored under :
60. A particle of mass 5 kg is moving on rough fixed (1) benzene (2) kerosene
inclined plane (making an angle 30° with (3) alcohol (4) water
horizontal) with constant velocity of 5 m/s as lksfM;e /kkrq dk laxzg.k (stored) fd;k tkrk gSA
shown in the figure. Find the friction force acting (1) csUthu esa (2) dsjkslhu esa
on a body by the inclined plane.(take g = 10m/s2) (3) ,YdksgkWy esa (4) ty esa
5 kg nzO;eku dk ,d d.k ,d fLFkj [kqjnjs ur ry ¼tks
64. The most electropositive amongst the alkaline
{kSfrt ls 30° dk dks.k cukrk gS½ ij fn[kk;s fp=kkuqlkj 5
earth metals is :
m/s ds fu;r osx ls xfr djrk gSA ur ry }kjk d.k ij {kkjh; e`nk /kkrqvksa esa vf/kdre fo|qr /kukRed /kkrq gS %
yxus okyk ?k"kZ.k cy Kkr dhft,A ( g = 10m/s2) (1) Be (2) Mg
(3) Ca (4) Ba
65. The oxidation states of Sulphur in the anions
SO32– , S2O42– and S2O62– follow the order :
SO32– , S2O42– rFkk S2O62– esa lYQj dh vkWDlhdj.k
voLFkk dk Øe gS %
(1) 25 N (2) 20 N (1) S2O62– < S2O42 < SO32–
(3) 30 N (4) none of these buesa ls dksbZ ugh (2) S2O42– < SO32– < S2O62–
(3) SO32– < S2O42– < S2O62–
PART - III (CHEMISTRY):Hkkx-III (jlk;u foKku) (4) S2O42 < S2O62– < SO32–
66. Boric acid is polymeric due to :
Atomic masses (ijek.kq Hkkj) : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C (1) its acidic nature
= 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, (2) the presence of hydrogen bonds
Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, (3) its monobasic nature
Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, (4) its geometry
Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, cksfjd vEy fdlds dkj.k cgqyd gS %
Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207] (1) bldh vEyh; izd`fr ds dkj.k
(2) gkbMªkstu cU/k dh mifLFkfr ds dkj.k
Straight Objective Type (3) bldh ,dy {kkjh; izd`fr ds dkj.k
(4) bldh T;kferh ds dkj.k
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 67. The structural unit present in pyrosillicates is :
lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj ik;jksflfydsV esa mifLFkr lajpukRed bdkbZ fuEu gSa %
bl [k.M esa 20 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u ds 4 (1) Si3O96– (2) SiO44–
fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa, ftuesa ls flQZ ,d lgh (3) Si2O76– (4) (Si2O52–)n
gSA 68. For the reaction 4NO2(g)+O2(g) 2N2O5(g),
which of the following facts holds good ?
61. What is the free energy change (G) when 1.0 (1) Kp = Kc
mole of water at 100ºC and 1 atm pressure is (2) Kp > Kc
converted into steam at 100ºC and 1 atm (3) Kp< Kc
pressure ? (4) Kp and Kc cannot be correlated unless
(1) 80 cal (2) 540 cal pressure of the system is provided
(3) 620 cal (4) Zero
vfHkfØ;k 4NO2(g) + O2(g) 2N2O5(g) ds fy,] 73. Temperature of one mole of a gas is increased
dkSulk rF; lgh gS\ by 1º at constant pressure. The work done on the
(1) Kp = Kc system is:
(2) Kp > Kc fLFkj nkc ij ,d xSl ds ,d eksy dk rki 1º c<+k;k x;k]
(3) Kp< Kc ra=k ij fd;k x;k dk;Z gS %
(4) fudk; ds nkc dh vuqifLFkfr esa Kp rFkk Kc dks lEcaf/kr (1) R (2) 2R
ugha dj ldrs gSA (3) R/2 (4) – R
69. For the reaction N2O4(g) 2NO2(g) H = 74. Which electronic level would allow the hydrogen
57.49 kJ /mole, the vapour density of equilibrium atom to absorb a photon but not to emit a photon
mixture............. with increases of temperature. dkSulk bySDVªkWfud Lrj gkbMªkstu ijek.kq dks QksVkWu
(1) increases (2) decreases vo'kks"k.k djus nsxk fdUrq QksVkWu dk mRltZu ugha %
(3) Remain same (4) can not be predicted (1) 3s (2) 2p
vfHkfØ;k N2O4(g) 2NO2(g) ds fy, H = (3) 2s (4) 1s
57.49 kJ /mole gS rks rki c<+kus ds lkFk lkE; feJ.k ds 75. Number of nodal planes (planes of zero electron
ok"i ?kuRo esa ............. gksrh gSA density) in the orbital is
(1) o`f) (2) deh dxy d{kd esa uksMy ryksa dh la[;k ¼'kwU; bySDVªkWu ?kuRo ds
(3) leku (4) O;k[;k ugha dj ldrs ry½ gS %
(1) 1 (2) 2
70. A child bought a balloon which became very (3) 0 (4) 4
small in size the next day. Which is correct
statement about ballon ? 76. Element with electronic configuration as [Ar]3d5
(1) It is isolated system 4s2 is placed in :
(2) It is an open system. (1) 1st group, s-block (2) 2nd group, s-block
(3) It is a closed system (3) 5th group, d-block (4) 7th group, d-block
(4) It exchanges only energy with the bysDVªkWfud vfHkfoU;kl [Ar]3d5 4s2 okyk rRo fLFkr gSA
surrounding. (1) 1st lewg, s-CykWd (2) 2nd lewg, s-CykWd
,d ckyd ,d xqCckjk yk;k tks fd vxys fnu cgqr NksVk (3) 5 lewg, d-CykWd
th (4) 7th lewg, d-CykWd
gks x;kA xqCckjs ds laca/k esa dkSulk dFku lgh gS\
(1) ;g ,d foyfxr ra=k gSA 77. If ionisation energy of an atom is 10 eV & EA is
6.8 eV electronegativity of the species on pauling
(2) ;g [kqyh ra=k (open system) gSA
scale.
(3) ;g cUn ra=k gSA ;fn ,d ijek.kq dh vk;uu ÅtkZ 10 eV rFkk EA 6.8 eV
(4) ;g okrkoj.k ls dsoy ÅtkZ dk fofu;e djrk gSA gks rks ikWfyax iSekus ij Lih'kht dh fo|qr _.krk fuEu gS
71. In the isothermal reversible compression of 52.0 (1) 4 (2) 3
m mol of a perfect gas at 260 K, the volume of (3) 2 (4) 1
the gas is reduced to one-third of its initial value.
Calculate w for this process. 78. A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment of
260 K rki ij ,d iw.kZ xSl ds 52.0 m mol ds lerkih; 1.2 D. If bond length is 1.0 Å, what percentage of
an electronic charge exists on each atom ?
mRØe.kh; lEihM+u esa] xSl dk vk;ru ?kVdj blds ,d f}ijekf.od v.kq dk f}/kqzo vk?kw.kZ 1.2 D gSA ;fn ca/k
çkjfEHkd eku dk ,d&frgkbZ jg tkrk gSA bl çØe ds yEckbZ 1.0 Å gS] rc çR;sd ijek.kq ij fLFkr bysDVªkWfud
fy, w dk eku D;k gS % vkos'k dk çfr'kr D;k gS\
(1) 0 (2) +123 J
(1) 30% (2) 25%
(3) –123 J (4) +246 J
(3) 12.5% (4) 50%
72. It the following processes, identify the irreversible
process : 79. PCl5 is 10% dissociated at 1 atm. What is %
fuEu izfØ;k dks nsf[k;s] vuqRØe.kh; izfØ;k dks igpkfu;sA dissociation at 4 atm.
PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2(g)
(1) 40% (2) 2.5%
(1) (2) (3) 5% (4) 10%
;fn 1 atm nkc ij PCl5 10% fo;ksftr gksrk gS rks
4 atm nkc ij % fo;kstu gksxk
PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2(g)
(1) 40% (2) 2.5%
(3) 5% (4) 10%
(3) (4)
80. A gas in an open container is treated from 27ºC Directions : (85) Answer the questions based on the
to 127ºC. The fraction of original amount of gas following information.
remaining in the container will be. 6 men R,S,T,U,V and W sat around a circular
,d [kqys ik=k esa ,d xSl 27ºC ls 127ºC rd mipkfjr table playing cards. It was noticed that no two
dh tkrh gSA ik=k esa 'ks"k cph xSl dh ewy ek=kk dk izHkkt men the initial letters of whose names are
gksxk% adjacent in the alphabetical order, sat next to
each other, U was opposite of R. V was not to
(1) 3/4 (2) ¼ (3) 1/2 (4) 1/8
the immediate right of R.
funsZ'k % (85) fuEu lwpukvksa ds vk/kkj ij iz'uksa ds mÙkj nhft,
6 O;fDr R,S,T,U,V vkSj W ,d o`Ùkkdkj est ds pkjksa
PART - IV (MENTAL ABILITY)
rjQ cSBdj rk'k [ksy jgs gSA dksbZ Hkh nks O;fDr ftuds
Hkkx - IV (ekufld ;ksX;rk) uke ds izFke v{kj vaxzsth o.kZekyk Øe ds vuqlkj vklUu
Straight Objective Type ¼Øekxr½ gS oks ,d nwljs ds ikl esa ugha cSBs gSA U ,R ds
This section contains 20 multiple choice foijhr vkSj gSA V, R ds rRdky nk;sa dks ugha gSA
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), 85. Who sat to the immediate left of R ?
(3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. R ds rRdky ck;sa dks dkSu cSBk gS \
lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj (1) S (2) T
bl [k.M esa 20 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u ds 4 (3) V (4) W
fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa, ftuesa ls flQZ ,d lgh Direction : (86) In each question, two or more
gSA statements are followed by two or more than two
conclusions. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they appear to be at
Direction (81 to 83) : Find the missing term ? variance with commonly known facts, and then
funsZ'k (81 ls 83) % fuEu Js.kh esa yqIr in D;k gksxk \ decide which of the conclusions logically
follow(s) from the given statements. For each
81. 5, 18, 48, 112, ?
question, mark out an appropriate answer choice
(1) 245 (2) 244
that you think is correct.
(3) 442 (4) 424
funsZ'k % (86) izR;sd iz'u esa nks ;k nks ls T;knk dFku gS tks nks ;k
82. CFIJ, RUXY, EHKL, PSVW, ? nks ls T;knk dFkuksa dk vuqlj.k djrs gSA fn;s x;s dFkuksa
(1) HILM (2) UXZA dks lR; ekurs gq,] pkgs oks Kkr rF;ksa ls fHkUUk gks] fu.kZ;
(3) SVZY (4) YBEF djuk gS fd dkSuls fu"d"kZ rfdZd :i ls fn;s x;s dFkuksa
dk vuqlj.k djrs gSA izR;sd iz'u ds fy, fn, x;s fodYiksa
24X 40N 512R
esa ls lksp dj lgh mÙkj dk p;u djsaA
6F 10J 32F
86. Statements : 1. All lamps are books.
80B 100V ?
83. 2. No book is coloured.
(1) 320 T (2) 400 G lHkh ySEi] fdrkcsa gSA
(3) 1800 K (4) 1800 F dksbZ fdrkc jaxhu ugha gSA
Directions : (84) There is a word written in capital Conclusions : I. Some lamps are coloured.
letters with one letter underlined. For each letter II. No lamp is coloured.
in that word there is a code written in small dqN ysEi jaxhu gSA
letters. That code is denoted by either (1), (2), dksbZ ysEi] jaxhu ugha gSA
(3), (4) not in the same order. You have to find (1) Only conclusion I follows.
out the exact code for the underlined letter in the (2) Only conclusion II follows
word. The number of that code is the answer. (3) Both I and II follow.
Please note that the same letter appearing in (4) Neither I nor II follows.
other word (s) may be coded differently. (1) dsoy I fu"d"kZ vuqlj.k djrk gSA
funsZ'k % (84) ;gk¡ ,d 'kCn fn;k x;k gS] ftlesa vaxzsth ds cM+s (2) dsoy II fu"d"kZ vuqlj.k djrk gSA
v{kj fy[ks gS] vkSj ,d v{kj ds uhps ykbZu gSA 'kCn ds (3) I vkSj II nksuksa fu"d"kZ vuqlj.k djrs gSA
izR;sd v{kj dk dksM+ vaxzsth o.kZekyk ds NksVs v{kjksa ls (4) u rks I vkSj uk fg II vuqlj.k djrs gSA
fd;k x;k gSA dksfMax dks fodYi (1), (2), (3), (4) esa
fy[kk x;k gS] ij bl Øe esa ughaA vkidks og v{kj ftlds
uhps ykbZu gS dk dksM+ <w¡<uk gSA og dksM+ vkidk mÙkj gSA
;kn jgs fd fdlh nwljs 'kCn esa mlh v{kj dk dksM+ dqN
vkSj Hkh gks ldrk gSA
PAGE
(1) b (2) r
(3) x (4) i
Directions : (87) A, B, C, E, F, G and H are seven

89.
employees in an organisation working in the
departments of Administration, Accounts and
Operations. There are at least two employees in
each department. There are three females, one
in each department. Each of seven employees
earns different amount. The only bearded
employee F works in administration and his only (1) (2)
other colleague G earns the maximum. C, the
least earner works in Accounts. B and E are
brothers and do not work in the same
department. A, husband of H. works in Accounts (3) (4)
and earns more than each of F, B and E. The
wife in the couple earns more than the husband.
funsZ'k % (87) ,d dEiuh ds 7 deZpkjh A, B, C, E, F, G vkSj H Direction (90 to 92) : Find the missing term ?
iz'kklu] [kkrksa ds vkSj lapkyu foHkkx esa dk;Z djrs gSA funsZ'k (90 ls 92) % fuEu Js.kh esa yqIr in D;k gksxk \
de ls de nks deZpkjh izR;sd foHkkx esa dk;Zjr gSA buesa ls 90. 2, 3, 4, 6, 12, ?, 156
rhu deZpkjh efgyk;sa gS] tks lHkh ,d&,d foHkkx esa gSA (1) 36 (2) 42
lkrksa deZpkjh vyx&vyx osru vftZr djrs gSaA <k<+h okyk (3) 24 (4) 27
deZpkjh F iz'kklu foHkkx esa vkSj mldk lgdeZpkjh G
91. DOZ, ZFJ, VWT, RND, ?
lcls T;knk osru vftZr djrk gSA C ,ftldk osru lcls (1) ENE (2) MEM
de gS] [kkrksa ds foHkkx esa gSA B vkSj E HkkbZ&HkkbZ gS vkSj os (3) NEN (4) NNE
,d gh foHkkx esa dk;Zjr ugha gSA A, H dk ifr gS vkSj oks
[kkrksa ds foHkkx esa gS] vkSj og F, B vkSj E ls T;knk osru 92. From among the four alternatives given below,
dekrk gSA iRuh] ifr ls T;knk osru dekrh gSA which numbr replaces the question mark ?
fn;s x;s pkj fodYiksa esa dkSulk vad iz'ufpUg dks
87. Which of the following is a group of females : izfrLFkkfir djsxk&
fuEu esa ls dkSulk efgykvksa dk lewg gS & 4 7 7
(1) GCE (2) GEH 7 66 8 3 38 9 11 ? 9
(3) GCH (4) GHB 6 4 2
(1) 91 (2) 108
(3) 116 (4) 119
88. There are 30 days in a month and 1st day of this
month is Monday. If alternate Monday starting 93. If FEED is coded as 80,TREE is coded as 154,
from second and each Sunday is a holiday then what will be the code number for MEET ?
how many working days are there in the month : ;fn FEED dks 80 vkSj TREE dks 154 ls dksM+ fd;k
fdlh efgus esa 30 fnu gS] ftldh igyh rkjh[k dks lkseokj tk;s rks MEET ds fy;s D;k dksM+ gksxk ?
gSA ;fn ,dkarj lkseokj] f}rh; ls 'kq:vkr djrs gq,] vkSj (1) 205 (2) 180
izR;sd jfookj dks Nqêh gS rks eghus esa fdrus dk;Zjr fnu (3) 118 (4) 206
gksaxsA
(1) 23 (2) 22 94. In question no. 85 Who sat to the immediate right
(3) 24 (4) 21 of R ?
iz'u la[;k 5 esa] R ds rRdky nk;sa dks dkSu cSBk gS ?
Directions : (89) The figure given below is the
(1) S (2) T
unfolded position of a cubical dice. In each of
(3) V (4) W
the following questions this unfolded figure
is followed by four different figures of dice.
You have to select the figure which is
identical to the figure.
funsZ'k : (89) vkd`fr ,d ?kuh; ikls ds lHkh Qydks dks [kksydj
fn[kk;k x;k gSA fuEu izR;sd iz'u esa ikls dh ;g [kqyh
vkd`fr pkj fofHkUu iklks dks iznf'kZr djrh gSA vkidks ml
ikls dk pquko djuk gS tks vkd`fr vuqlkj lgh gksA
Direction :(95) In each question, two or more 98. Which letter is opposite Q ?
statements are followed by two or more than two dkSulk v{kj Q ds foijhr vkSj gS ?
conclusions. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they appear to be at
variance with commonly known facts, and then
decide which of the conclusions logically
follow(s) from the given statements. For each
question, mark out an appropriate answer choice (1) L (2) M
(3) N (4) P
that you think is correct.
izR;sd iz'u esa nks ;k nks ls T;knk dFku gS tks nks ;k nks ls
99. If BREAKFAST is coded as 11,LUNCH is coded
T;knk dFkuksa dk vuqlj.k djrs gSA fn;s x;s dFkuksa dks as 13, what will be the code number for
lR; ekurs gq,] pkgs oks Kkr rF;ksa ls fHkUUk gks] fu.kZ; djuk BRUNCH ?
gS fd dkSuls fu"d"kZ rfdZd :i ls fn;s x;s dFkuksa dk ;fn BREAKFAST dks 11 vkSj LUNCH dks 13 ls dksM+
vuqlj.k djrs gSA izR;sd iz'u ds fy, fn, x;s fodYiksa esa fd;k tk;s rks BRUNCHds fy;s D;k dksM+ gksxk ?
ls lksp dj lgh mÙkj dk p;u djs (1) 12 (2) 24
(3) 15 (4) 11
95. Statements : 1. All envelopes are umbrellas.
2. All umbrellas are chalks. 100. In question no. 85 Who sat to the immediate right
lHkh fyQkQsa Nkrsa gSA of U ?
lHkh Nkrsa pkWd gSA iz'u la[;k 85 esa] U ds rRdky nk;sa dkSu cSBk gS ?
Conclusions : (1) S (2) T
I. Some chalks are envelopes. (3) V (4) W
II. Some umbrellas are not envelopes.
I. dqN pkWd fyQkQsa gSA
II. dqN Nkrsa] fyQkQsa ugha gSA ANSWER KEY TO SAMPLE TEST PAPER-2
(1) Only conclusion I follows.
(2) Only conclusion II follows. 1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (4)
(3) Both I and II follow 6. (4) 7. (3) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (2)
(4) Neither I no II follows. 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (2)
(1) dsoy fu"d"kZ I vuqlj.k djrk gSA 16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (4)
(2) dsoy fu"d"kZ II vuqlj.k djrk gSA 21. (2) 22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (4) 25. (3)
(3) I vkSj II nksuksa vuqlj.k djrsa gSA 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (1) 29. (1) 30. (3)
(4) u rks I vkSj uk fg II vuqlj.k djrs gSA 31. (4) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (2)
96. In question no.87 In which department(s) do 36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (4)
three people work ? 41. (1) 42. (4) 43. (2) 44. (1) 45. (2)
(1) Operations 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (1) 49. (2) 50. (3)
(2) Accounts 51. (2) 52. (4) 53. (3) 54. (2) 55. (1)
(3) Operation or Account 56. (3) 57. (4) 58. (2) 59. (3) 60. (1)
(4) Data inadequate 61. (4) 62. (2) 63. (2) 64. (4) 65. (3)
iz'u la[;k 87 esa] dkSuls foHkkx esa rhu O;fDr dk;Zjr gSa \ 66. (2) 67. (3) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (2)
71. (2) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (4) 75. (2)
(1) lapkyu esaA
76. (4) 77. (2) 78. (2) 79. (3) 80. (1)
(2) [kkrksa ds foHkkx esaA 81. (2) 82. (4) 83. (4) 84. (1) 85. (3)
(3) lapkyu ;k [kkrksa esaA 86. (4) 90. (1) 91. (3) 93. (4) 94. (2)
(4) tkudkjh iwjh ugha gSA 99. (1) 100. (1)
97. In U.P. on 17th Oct. 1996, the president rule was

declared. Find the day of week on that date.
(1) Tuesday (2) Friday
(3) Wednesday (4) Thrusday
mÙkj izns'k esa 17 vDVwcj 1996 dks jk"Vªifr fu;e ykxq
gqvk Fkk] ml fnu lIrkg dk dkSulk fnu FkkA
(1) eaxyokj (2) 'kqØokj
(3) cq/kokj (4) xq:okj
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
03
(For Class-XII Appearing / Passed Students)
COURSE : SAMPOORN(MD)&SAFAL(MR)
Marks to be awarded
Correct Wrong Total
Questions
1 to 40 40 3 0 120
41 to 70 30 3 0 90
71 to 100 30 3 0 90
Total 100 300
PART - I (BIOLOGY) : Hkkx - I (tho&foKku) 4. Which of the following occurs due to monosomy
of sex chromosome?
(1) Down's syndrome (2) Turners's syndrome
Straight Objective Type (3) Haemophilia (4) Sickle cell anaemia
This section contains 40 multiple choice fuEu esa ls dkSulk fyax xq.klw=k dh ,dU;wulw=krk ds dkj.k
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), gksrk gS \
(2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is (1) MkÅUk dk flUMªkse (2) VuZj dk flUMªkse
correct.
(3) gheksfQfy;k (4) fldy lsy ,fufe;k
bl [k.M esa 40 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u ds 4 5. In HGP, the enormous amount of data expected
fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa, ftuesa ls flQZ ,d to be generated also necessitated the use of high
lgh gSA speed computational devices for data storage
and retrieval, and analysis. It is known as
(1) Genetic engineering (2) Biotechnology
1. Protista differs from Monera in having (3) Bioinformatics (4) Bio fortification
(1) Nucleolus (2) Cell wall HGP esa visf{kr vk¡dMksa dh vR;kf/kd ek=kk mRiUUk fd;s
(3) Flagella (4) Autotrophic nutrition tkus ds fy,] MkVk ds laxzg.k] iqu%izkfIr RkFkk fo'ys"k.k ds
izksfVLVk fdldh mifLFkfr esa eksusjk ls fHkUu gS& fy, rst xfr okyh lax.kd ;qfDr;ksa dk mi;ksx Hkh vfuok;Z
(1) dsfUnzdk (2) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk gksrk gSA bls bl :i esa tkuk tkrk gSaA
(3) d'kkHk (4) Loiks"kh iks"k.k (1) vkuqokaf'kd vfHk;kaf=kdh (2) tSo izkS|ksfxdh
2. Nucellar or integument cells form new embryos (3) ck;ks bUQksesZfVDl (4) ck;ks QksfVZfQds'ku
in 6. The complete oxidation of a pyruvate by the
(1) Banyan (2) Citrus stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms,
(3) Coconut (4) Maize leaving
chtk.Mdk;h ;k v/;koj.kh dksf'kdk,¡ fdlesa u;s Hkzw.k cukrh (1) two molecules of CO2
gSA (2) three molecules of CO2
(1) cjxn esa (2) flVªl esa (3) four molecules of CO2
(2) ukfj;y (4) eDdk esa (4) six molecules of CO2
lHkh gkbMªkstu v.kqvksa ds inokj fu"dklu ds }kjk ,d
3. In human, the number of genes presents on ik;:osV dk iw.kZ vkWDlhdj.k eqä djrk gS
chromosome 1 and Y respectively (1) CO2 ds nks v.kqvksa dks
(1) 5386, 61 (2) 5960, 329
(3) 1.4 million, 729 (4) 2968, 231 (2) CO2 ds rhu v.kqvksa dks
euq"; esa xq.klw=k 1 rFkk Y ij mifLFkr thal dh la[;k (3) CO2 ds pkj v.kqvksa dks
Øe'k% gSaA (4) CO2 ds N% v.kqvksa dks
(1) 5386, 61 (2) 5960, 329
(2) 1.4 million, 729 (4) 2968, 231
STP2019MDMR-PAGE # -32
7. Select the wrong pair? --------------(i)------------ln`'k lajpuk ØksesfVu esa dksf"Br gksdj---------
(1) Clarius gariepinus – Removal of Cichlid fish in -----(ii)-----------¼lw=kksa½ dk fuekZ.k djrh gS tks vkxs dq.Mfyr o
Victoria lake of Africa la?kfur gksdj dksf'kdk foHkktu dh ---------------(iii)--------------esa
(2) Rice – Maximum genetic diversity in India
xq.klw=k dk fuekZ.k djrs gSaA
(3) Frequent Gleization – Temperate forest
(4) Indo Burma – One of the Hot spot of India (1) (i)  U;wfDy;kslkse, (ii)  ØksesfVM, (iii)  i'p
xyr ;qXe dks pqfu;s izksQst izkoLFkk
(1) Dysfj;l xsjhikbul & vÝhdk dh foDVksfj;k >hy esa (2) (i)  Mksjh ij chM~l, (ii)  ØksesfVu èkkxksa, (iii) 
flpfyM eNyh dh foyqfIr i'p izksQst izkoLFkk
(2) pkoy & Hkkjr esa vf/kdre vkuqokaf'kd fofo/krk (3) (i)  U;wfDy;kslkse, (ii)  ØksesfVM, (iii)  esVkQst
(3) lrr~ fgeunhdj.k & le'khrks".k ou (4) (i)  Mksjh ij chM~l, (ii)  ØksesfVu èkkxksa, (iii) 
(4) b.Mks-cekZ & Hkkjr dk ,d rIrLFky esVkQst
8. Which of the following are taken for source of 13. In plants, cells are bombarded with high velocity
DNA in DNA fingerprinting? micro-particles of ...................coated with DNA in
(1) Blood, Skin (2) Saliva, Hair follicle a method known as biolistics or gene gun.
(3) Bone, Sperm (4) All of the above (1) gold or silver
fuEu esa ls fdldks DNA vaxqyhNkiu esa DNA ds L=kksr ds (2) gold or tungsten
fy, fy;k tkrk gSa ? (3) copper or gold
(1) jDr] Ropk (2) ykj] jkseiqfVdk (4) platinum or plutonium
ikS/kksa esa] dksf'kdkvksa ij Mh,u, ls foysfir] ---------------------------ds
(3) vfLFk] 'kqØk.kq (4) mijksDr lHkh
mPp osx lw{e d.kksa ls ceckjh djrs gSa ftls ck;ksfyfLVd
9. The first stable compound of C4 cycle is ;k thu xu dgrs gSaA
(1) 3-PGA (2) Oxalo acetic acid (1) Lo.kZ ;k jtr (2) Lo.kZ ;k VaxLVu
(3) Malic acid (4) 3-PGAL (3) rkack ;k Lo.kZ (4) IysfVue ;k IywVksfu;e
C4 pØ dk izFke LFkk;h mRikn gSA
(1) 3-PGA (2) vkWDtsyks,flfVd vEy 14. Cymose inflorescence, epipetalous stamens,
(3) eSfyd vEy (4) 3-PGAL axile placentation and swollen placenta are found
in
10. Which of the following is not used as bio- (1) Tomato, Tulip, Tobacco, Sesbania
fertilizer? (2) Ashwagandha, smilax, Indigophora, Chilli
(1) Nostoc (2) Rhizobium (3) Brinjal, belladonna, Petunia, Tomato
(3) Azotobacter (4) Agrobacterium (4) Tobacco, Potato, Lupin, Datura
fuEu esa ls fdls tSo moZjd ds :i esa mi;ksx ugh fd;k llhek{k iq"iØe] nyyXu iqadslj] v{kh; chtk.MU;kl rFkk
tkrk gS\ Qwyk gqvk chtk.Mlu fdlesa ik;s tkrs gSa
(1) ukWLVkWd (2) jkbtksfc;e (1) VekVj] V~;wfyi] rackdw] lsLcsfu;k
(3) ,stksVkscSDVj (4) ,xzkscSfDVfj;e (2) v'oxU/kk] LekbySDl] bf.MxksQksjk] fepZ
11. Which of the following is absent in dicot root? (3) cSaxu] csykMksuk] fiVwfu;k] VekVj
(1) Casperian strips in endodermis (4) rackdw] vkyw] Y;wfiu] /krwjk
(2) Open vascular bundles 15. A plant has ovules, presence of archegonium. It
(3) Xylem diarch to hexarch may be
(4) Secondary growth (1) Bryophyte (2) Angiosperm
fuEu esa ls dkSulk f}chti=kh ewy esa vuqifLFkr gksrk gS\ (3) Pteridophyte (4) Gymnosperm.
(1) vUr%LRopk esa dsLisfj;u ifê;k¡ ,d ikni esa chtk.M gSa rFkk vkdhZxksfu;e dh mifLFkfr
(2) [kqyk laogu iwy gSA ;g gks ldrk gSA
(3) tkbye] f}vkfnnk:d ls "kVvkfnnk:d (1) czk;ksQkbV (2) vko`rchth
(4) f}rh;d o`f) (3) VsfjMksQkbV (4) vuko`Ùkchth
12. The ..........(i)...........structure in chromatin is 16. Which of the following statement is false.
packaged to form ..........(ii)............that are further (1) Flagellated stage is absent in the life history
coiled and condensed at .............(iii).............of of blue green algae & red algae.
cell division to form chromosomes. (2) The haplodiplontic life cycle is found in algae
(1) (i)  Nucleosome, (ii)  chromatid, (iii)  like Ectocarpus, Kelps
late prophase stage (3) Filamentous algae involve Ulothrix, Spirogyra,
(2) (i)  beads-on-string, (ii)  chromatin Chlorella
fibers, (iii)  late prophase stage (4) Agar-agar obtains from Gelidium & Gracillaria
red algae.
(3) (i)  Nucleosome, (ii)  chromatid, (iii) 
metaphase stage
(4) (i)  beads-on-string, (ii)  chromatin
fibers, (iii)  metaphase stage
fuEu eas ls dkSulk dFku vlR; gS& 20. Which of the following is wrong about marchantia
(1) uhygfjr 'kSoky rFkk yky 'kSoky ds thoupØ esa (1) It is dioecous
d'kkfHkdh; voLFkk vuqifLFkr gksrh gSA (2) It performs asexual reproduction by gammae
(3) It shows indirect germination of spore
(2) gsIyksfMIyksfUVd thou pØ 'kSokyksa tSls ,DVksdkWiZl]
(4) It has elators in sporophyte
dsYIl esa ik;k tkrk gSA fuEu esa ls dkSulk ekdsZfU'k;k ds ckjs esa xyr gS&
(3) rarqe; 'kSokyksa esa ;wyksfFkzDl] Likbjksxk;jk] Dyksjsyk (1) ;g ,dfyaxkJ;h gS
'kkfey gSa (2) ;g tSeh }kjk vySafxd tuu lEiUu djrk gS
(4) vxj&vxj fxfyfM;e rFkk xzsflysfj;k yky 'kSokyksa ls (3) ;g chtk.kq ds ijks{k vadqj.k dks n'kkZrk gS
izkIr gksrk gSA (4) blds LiksjksQkbV esa bysVlZ gksrs gSa
17. Which of the following is not a feature of plasma 21. During double fertilization which of the following
membrane? will not proceed
(1) Polar molecules can pass through the (1) Fusion of First male gamete and egg cell to
nonpolar lipid bilayer without carrier protein. form diploid zygote
(2) Quasifluid nature of lipid enables lateral (2) Five gametes take part in double
movement of proteins within the overall lipid fertilization.
bilayer. (3) Second male gamete is fused with
(3) Fluid nature of the membrane helps in secondary nucleus. It is called triple fusion
some functions like secretion, endocytosis, cell (4) It is unique feature of Angiospermic plants.
growth. f}fu"kspu ds nkSjku fuEu esa ls dkSulk ugha gksxk&
(4) Polar arrangement of lipid molecules
(1) izFke uj ;qXed rFkk v.Mdksf'kdk ds lay;u ls
ensure that the nonpolar tail of satured
hydrocarbons is protected from the aqueous f}xqf.kr tkbxksV curk gSA
environment. (2) f}fu"kspu esa ik¡p ;qXed Hkkx ysrs gSA
fuEu esa ls dkSulk IykTek f>Yyh dk ,d y{k.k ugh gSa\ (3) f}rh; uj ;qXed f}rh;d dsUnzd ls layf;r gksrk gS
(1) /kzqoh; v.kq fcuk okgd izksVhu ds v/kqzoh; fyfiM bls f=kd lay;u dgrs gSaA
f}Lrj ls gksdj xqtj ldrs gSa (4) ;g vko`Ùkchth; ikniksa dk ,d fof'k"V y{k.k gSA
(2) fyfiM dh v)Z rjy izÑfr laiw.kZ fyfiM f}Lrj esa
22. Which of the following one is a part of
izksVhuksa dh ik'ohZ; xfr dks c<+krh gSA endomembrane system and performs osmotic
(3) f>Yyh dh rjy izÑfr dqN dk;k±s tSls óko.k] expansion of a cell in hypotonic solution
,.MkslkbVksfll] dksf'kdk o`f) esa lgk;rk djrh gSA (1) ER (2) Lysosome
(4) fyfiM v.kqvksa dh /kqzoh; O;oLFkk lqfuf'pr djrh gS (3) Golgibody (4) Vacuole
fd vlarÌr gkbMªksdkcZuksa dh v/kqzoh; iwaN dks tyh; fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d vUr%dyk ra=k dk ,d Hkkx gS rFkk
i;kZoj.k ls lqjf{kr fd;k tkrk gSA vYiijkljh foy;u esa ,d dksf'kdk ds ijklj.kh; izlkj dks
lEiUu djrk gSA
18. Vernalisation is related to plants growing in - (1) ER (2) ykblkslkse
(1) tropical areas
(3) xkWYthdkW; (4) fjfDrdk
(2) sub tropical areas
(3) temperate areas 23. Vitamin A rich golden rice was created by
(4) hot areas/ arctic region transforming rice with beta carotene biosynthesis
olarhdj.k fdu {kss=kksa esa o`f) djrs gq, ikniksa ls lEcaf/kr genes
gksrk gS \ (1) nif, lyc, fix
(1) m".kdfVca/kh; {ks=kksa esa (2) crt I, lyc, psy
(2) miks".k dfVca/kh; {ks=kksa esa (3) bsy & fix, crt I
(3) le'khrks".kh; {ks=kksa esa (4) lyc, nif, psy
foVkfeu A izpqj lqugjs pkoy dks dkSuls chVk dsjksfVu tSo
(4) xeZ {ks=kksa@vkdZfVd {ks=k esa
la'ys"k.k thu ds lkFk pkoy ds :ikarj.k }kjk mRié fd;k
19. What is common among plum, peach and rose? x;k Fkk
(1) nif, lyc, fix
(1) Trimerous flower (2) (2) crt I, lyc, psy
(2) Drupe fruit (3) bsy & fix, crt I
(3) Ovary half inferior (4) lyc, nif, psy
(4) Epigynous flower
vkyw cq[kkjk] vkMw rFkk xqykc esa mHk;fu"B D;k gS\
(1) f=kr;h iq"i
(2) vf"By Qy
(3) v.Mk'k; v/kZ v/kksorhZ
(4) tk;kaxksifjd iq"i
26. Below are given four pulmonary capacities (A -

D) and jumbled volumes (P - S) for a normal
human adult. Which option has correctly
matched pulmonary capacities and their
respective volumes?
Pulmonary capacities Volumes
24. A. Functional residual capacity P. 3000-3500 ml
On the basis of above diagram, select the correct B. Vital capacity Q. 5800 ml
option for a, b, c & d. C. Total lung capacity R. 2500 ml
(1) a Reptiles, b Mammals, c D. Inspiratory capacity S. 3000-4500 ml
Amphibians, d Birds Options
(2) a Amphibians, b Mammals, c A B C D
(1) P Q R S
Reptiles, d Birds
(2) R S Q P
(3) a Reptiles, b Birds, c Amphibians,
(3) R P Q S
d Mammals (4) S P Q R
(4) a Mammals, b Reptiles, c Birds, d uhps ,d lkekU; o;Ld euq"; ds fy, pkj Qq¶lh; lkeF;Z
Amphibians
(A - D) rFkk vfu;fer :i ls O;ofLFkr vk;ru
(P - S) fn;s x, gSaA dkSu lk fodYi Qq¶lh; lkeF;ksZ
rFkk muds lEcaf/kr vk;ruksa ds fy, lqesfyr gSa \
Qq¶lh; lkeF; vk;ru
A. dk;kZRed vo'ks"k lkeF;Z P.3000-3500 feyh
B. ltho lkeF;Z Q. 5800 feyh
C. dqy Qq¶lh; lkeF;Z R. 2500 feyh
mijksä fp=k ds vk/kkj ij] a, b, c rFkk d ds fy, lgh
D. var% / 'oklh; lkeF;Z S. 3000-4500 feyh
fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
fodYi
(1) a ljhlì, b Lru/kkjh, c mHk;pj, d i{kh
A B C D
(2) a mHk;pj, b Lru/kkjh, c ljhlì, d i{kh (1) P Q R S
(3) a ljhlì, b i{kh, c mHk;pj, d Lru/kkjh (2) R S Q P
(4) a Lru/kkjh, b ljhlì, c i{kh, d mHk;pj (3) R P Q S
(4) S P Q R
27. Which one of the following options has correct
set of dioecious and eucoelomate animals in
which anus develops from embryonic
blastopore?
25.
Which of the following is correct about above

diagram of age pyramid of human population?
(1) It is bell shaped pyramid for expanding
population
(2) It has maximum number of reproductive
(A) (B) (C)
individuals
(3) It is urn shaped pyramid for declining
population
(4) It has approximately equal number of pre
reproductive and reproductive individuals and (D) (E)
shows stable population.
Options
(1) A, B and D (2) B and D
(3) A, C and E (4) A, D and E
fuEufyf[kr fodYiksa esa ls fdl ,d esa ,dfyaxh rFkk
lqnsgxqgk okys ,sls tUrqvksa dk lewg gSa ftuesa xqnk dk
ekuo lef"V ds vk;q fijkfeM ds mijksä fp=k ds ckjs esa fodkl Hkz.keq[k ls gksrk gSa?
fuEu esa ls dkSulk lgh gS\ fodYi
(1) c<+rh gqbZ lef"V ds fy, ;g ?k.Vkdkj fijkfeM gS (1) A, B rFkk D (2) B rFkk D
(2) blesa tuukRed lnL;ksa dh vf/kdre la[;k gSa (3) A, C rFkk E (4) A, D rFkk E
(3) ?kVrh gqbZ lef"V ds fy, ;g dy'kkdkj gksrk gS
(4) ;g iwoZtuukRed ,oa tuukRed lnL;ksa dh yxHkx
leku la[;k j[krk gS rFkk fLFkj lef"V dks n'kkZrk gS
28. Sphincter of Boyden which helps in the filling up

of the gall bladder is present in
(1) Ductus choledochus
(2) Duct of Wirsung
(3) Ampulla of Vater
(4) Hepato-pancreatic ampulla
ckW;Mu dk ladkspd tks fiÙkk'k; dks Hkjus esa lgk;rk djrk
gS] mifLFkr gksrk gSa &
(1) MDV~l dkWyhMksdl
(2) folZx dh ufydk
(3) osVj dh rqafcdk
(4) fgiSVksiSafØ;kfVd rqafcdk
Incisors Canines Premolars Molars
29. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla (1) 1 1 1 2
is controlled by the action of (2) 1 1 2 3
(1) Postganglionic sympathetic nerves (3) 1 1 3 3
(2) Preganglionic sympathetic nerves (4) 1 1 2 2
(3) Preganglionic parasympathetic nerves fn;k x;k fp=k ,d rjQ mijh tcM+s esa fofHkUu çdkj ds
(4) Postganglionic parasympathetic nerves narksa dh rFkk nwljh rjQ xrksZ dh O;oLFkk dks fpf=kr djrk
vf/ko`Dd eTtk ls dsVsdksysfeUl eqDr gksus dk fu;a=k.k gSaA mijh nk¡rksa ds ÑUrd]jn~ud]iwoZpo.kZd rFkk po.kZd narksas
blds fØ;k }kjk gksrk gSa & esa ewyksa dh la[;k ds fy, lgh fodYi D;k gSa \
(1) mÙkj xqPNdh; vuqdaih raf=kdk,aA
(2) iwoZxqPNdh; vuqdaih raf=kdk,A
(3) iwoZxqPNdh; ijkvuqdaih raf=kdk,A
(4) mÙkjxqPNdh; ijkvuqdaih raf=kdk,A
30. Absence of which of the following in the
alimentary caual may lead to the anaemia?
(1) Pepsinogen (2) CCK-PZ
(3) Castle's intrinsic factor
(4) Chymotrypsinogen
vkgkjuky esa fdldh vuqifLFkfr ls jDrkYirk gksrh gSa?
(1) isfIlukstu (2) CCK-PZ ÑUrd jn~ud iwoZpo.kZd po.kZd
(3) dsLVy ds varjLFk dkjd
(4) dkbeksfVªfIlukstu (1) 1 1 1 2
(2) 1 1 2 3
31. In human beings, tympanic membrane is (3) 1 1 3 3
composed of connective tissue and covered by (4) 1 1 2 2
(1) Skin on its outside and mucus membrane
inside 33. Below are given some statements about
(2) Mucus membrane both on its inside and industrial melanism with reference to the
outside peppered moth, Biston bitularia. Analyse the
(3) Skin both on its outside as well as inside statements and select the option having correct
(4) Mucus membraneon its outside and skin set of statements.
inside A. With the advent of industrial revolution, the
euq";ksa esa d.kZiVg f>Yyh la;ksth mÙkd dh cuh gksrh gSa frequency of black coloured moths in the
rFkk vkPNkfnr jgrh gSa& population decreased while that of white
(1) ckgj dh vksj Ropk rFkk vUnj dh vksj 'ys"e f>Yyh coloured moths increased.
B. This is an example of evolution by
lsA anthropogenic action.
(2) ckgj rFkk vUnj nksuksa vksj 'ys"e f>Yyh lsA C. In areas where industrialization did not occur
(3) ckgj dh vksj Ropk ls rFkk vUnj dh vksj 'ys"e e.g., in rural areas the count of melanic moths
f>YYkh lsA was low.
(4) ckgj dh vksj 'ys"e f>Yyh rFkk vUnj dh vksj 'ys"e D. With the advent of industrial revolution, the
f>YYkh lsA frequency of black coloured moths in the
population abruptly increased and white coloured
32. The following diagram depicts the arrangement moths were completely wiped out.
of different types of teeth in the upper jaw on one Options
side and the sockets on the other side. What is (1) A, C and D (2) B and C
the correct option for the number of roots in (3) A, B and D (4) All correct
incisors, canines, premolars and molars of upper
jaw?
uhps] fcLVu fcVqysfj;k ds laUnHkZ esa vkS|ksfxd lk¡oysiu ds 36. Recently, Professor Y. D. Tyagi discovered a
ckjsa es dqN dFku fn;s x, gSaA dFkuksa dk fo'ys"k.k dhft, bioindicator plant having metal tolerance growing
rFkk dFkuksa ds lgh leqP; okys fodYi dk p;u dhft, A near Zwar Zinc mines in Udaipur, Rajasthan
(India). This plant is-
A. vkS|ksfxd Økafr ds vkxeu ds lkFk vkcknh esa dkys jax
(1) Impatiens balsamina
HkWHkhjks dh la[;k ?kVh tcfd lQsn jax ds HkHkhjksa dh la[;k (2) Agrotis tenuis
c<+h A (3) Prosopis cineraria
B. ;g ,d ekuoÑr mf}dkl dk mnkgj.k gSaA (4) Syzygium cumini.
C. mu {ks=ksa esa tgka vkS|ksfxdj.k ugha gqvk mnkgj.kkFkZ] gky gh esa çksQslj okbZ. Mh. R;kxh us tokj ftad [kknku]
xzkeh.k {ks=kksa esa] ogk¡ lkoysa Hk¡Hkhjks dh la[;k de FkhA mn;iqj]jktLFkku ¼Hkkjr½ ds vkl-ikl mxus okys /kkrq
D. vkS|ksfxd Økafr ds vkxeu ds lkFk vkcknh esa dkys jax lfg".kqrk okys ,d tSolwpd ikS/ks dh [kkst dh gSaA ;g ikS/kk
ds HkaHkhjks dh la[;k vpkud c<+ x;h tcfd lQsn jax ds gSa &
HkHkhjsa iwjh rjg ls lekRr gS x;sA (1) bEisfl,Ul ckylsekbuk (2) ,xzksfVl Vsfuvl
(1) A, C rFkk D (2) B rFkk C (3) çkslksfil flujsfj;k (4) flftft;e D;wfeuh
(3) A, B rFkk D (4) lHkh lgh gSA
37. Which one of the following is not an N-1
34. When radiolarians die, their skeletons sink to the glycoside?
ocean floor, forming thick ooze that can
eventually harden to form colourful rock, called
as
(1) Chert (2) Fringe (3) Coral (4) Calcite
jsfM;ksaysfj;u ds e`R;ksijkUr muds ddkay leqnzh lrg ij
,d eksVs xkn ds :i esa cSB tkrs gSa rFkk dBksj gksdj jaxhu
'kSy dk fuekZ.k djrs gSa& ftUgs dgk tkrk gS]
(1) pVZ (2) >Cck (3) ewaxk (4) dSYlkbV
A B
35. In cnidarians, certain cells considered as --(A)---
can divide and transform into different types of
cells present in their body. Some cnidarians
exhibit metagenesis which is not a true
alternation of generation because both the
polypoid and medusoid stages are --(B). Hydra,
which is a polypoid cnidarian, can regenerate
into a complete animal even from its small piece
by the process called -(C). In the paragraph
given above, the blanks in form of A, B and C are C D
respectively are (1) A (2) D (3) B (4) C
(1) Archaeocytes, haploid and epimorphosis. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu lk ,d N-1 XykbdkslkbM ugha gSa&
(2) Interstitial cells, haploid and morphollaxis. (1) A (2) D (3) B (4) C
(3) Embryonic reserve cells, diploid and
morphollaxis. 38. Read the following four statements A, B, C and D
(4) Embryonic reserve cells, haploid and which are the descriptions of events in the life
epimorphosis. cycle of Plasmodium. Select the option in which
fuMsfj; es dqN fuf'pr dksf'kk,a ftUgs--(A)---le>k tkrk both statements are correct.
gS] foHkkftr gks dj rFkk muds 'kjhj esa ik;h okys okyh A. Encystation in parasite takes place inside the
fdlh Hkh izdkj dh dksf'vksa eas :ikUrfjr gks ldrh gSA dqN wall of mosquitos's stomach.
B. Sexual stages (gametocytes) develop in the
fuMsfj;k esVktsusfll iznf'kZr djrs gSa tks ,d lR; ih<+h
intestine of man.
,dkUrj.k ugha gSa D;ksafd blesa ikfyikW,M rFkk esM~;wlk,M C. Fertilisation and development takes place in
nksuksa gh izoLFkk,a --(B---) gksrh gSaA gkbMªk tks ,d ikWyhik,M the mosquito's stomach.
fuMsfj;k gS vius ,d NksVs VqdMs l Hkh iw.kZ tUrq esa ---- D. Female mosquito takes up the gametocytes
(C)----ds }kjk iqu:n~Hkfor gks ldrk gSA with blood meal.
mijksDr ifjPNsn [kaM easA, B rFkk C ds :i eas [kkyh 'kCn Options
Øe'k% gSA (1) A and B
(2) B and C
(1) vkfdZvkslkbV~l] ,d xqf.kr] ,ihekQksZfll
(3) A and D
(2) vUrjkyh dksf'kdk,a ] ,dxqf.kr rFkk ekQksZySfDll (4) C and D
(3) Hkzq.k vkjf{kr dksf'kdk,a f}xqf.kr rFkk ekQksZySfDll
(4) Hkzq.k vkjf{kr dksf'kdk,a ,dxqf.kr rFkk ,ihekQksZfll
uhps fn, x;s pkj dFkuksa ds ckjs esa if<+;sa tks IrkTeksafM;e lwph-I (tUrq) dks lwph-II (thou vof/k) ls feykb, rFkk
ds thou pØ dh ?kVukvksa dks fooj.k gSaA dFkuksa ds lgh lqesfyr fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
leqP; okys fodYi dk p;u dhft, & lwph-I (tUrq) lwph-II (thou vof/k o"kZ esa)
A. ijthoh esa ifjdks"Bu ePNj ds vkek'k; dh fHkfÙk esa A. fcYyh 1. 150
gksrk gSa A B. rksrk 2. 20
B. ySfxax çkoLFkk,a ¼;qXed tud½ euq"; ds vkar eas fodflr C. dNqvk 3. 62
gksrh gSa A D. dqÙkk 4. 28
C. fu"kspu ,oa fodkl ePNj dh vkar esa vkek'k; gksrk gSaA E. ?kksM+k 5. 140
D. eknk ePNj :f/kj vkgkj ds lkFk ;qXed tudksa dks xzg.k Options
fodYi A B C D E
(1) A rFkk B (2) B rFkk C (1) 4 3 1 2 5
(2) 4 5 1 2 3
(3) A rFkk D (4) C rFkk D
(3) 5 4 2 1 3
39. Listed below are some periods/epochs (A-D) and (4) 5 2 3 4 1
jumbled important events (P-S). Which one
option has correct matching of the PART - II (PHYSICS) : Hkkx - II (HkkSfrd&foKku)
periods/epochs and their corresponding events?
Periods / Epochs Events Straight Objective Type
A. Permian P. Origin of amphibians This section contains 30 multiple choice
B. Pleistocene Q. Appearance of ape like questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
ancestors of humans (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
C. Devonian R.Origin of most modern lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj
mammalian orders bl [k.M esa 30 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u ds 4
D. Oligocene S. Origin of therapsids fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa, ftuesa ls flQZ ,d lgh
Options
A B C D
gSA
(1) P Q R S
(2) S R P P 41. The v – t plot of an object moving in a straight
(3) P R S Q line is shown in the figure. The average velocity
(4) S Q P R of the object during the first8 seconds is
uhps dqN dYi @ ;qx(A-D) rFkk vfu;fer :i ls ,d xfreku oLrq dk v – t xzkQ fuEu fp=k esa iznf'kZr gSA
O;ofLFkr egRoiw.kZ ?kVuk,a (P-S) lwphc) gSaA fdl ,d izFke 8 lSd.M ds nkSjku oLrq dk vkSlr osx gSA
fodYi esa @ dYiksa ;qxksa rFkk muls lEcf/kr ?kVukvksa dk
lqesy gSa?
di / ;qx ?kVuk,a 6
4 8
A. ijfe;u P. mHk;pjksa dh mRifÙkA
B. IyhLVkslhu Q. ekuo ds dfile~ iwoZtksa dk çdVuA
C. fMoksfu;u R.vR;k/kqfud Lru/kkjh x.kksa dh mRifÙkA
D. vksfyxkslhu S. fFkjsfIlM~l dh mRifÙkA (1) 0 (2) 0.83 ms–1
fodYi (3) 2.5 ms–1 (4) 3.67 ms–1
A B C D
(1) P Q R S 42. A particle has initial velocity, v = a î  b ˆj and a
(2) S R P P constant force F = b î  a ˆj acts on the particle.
(3) P R S Q
(4) S Q P R The path of the particle is :
40. Match List-I (Animals) to the List-II (Life spans)

,d d.k dk izkjfEHkd osx] v = a î  b ˆj gSa ,oa ,d fu;r
and select the option with correct matching. cy F = b î  a ˆj d.k ij dk;Zjr gSA d.k dk iFk gS :
List-I (Animals) List-II (Life spans in years)
(1) straight line
A. Cat 1. 150
(2) parabolic
B. Parrot 2. 20
(3) circular
C. Tortoise 3. 62
(4) elliptical
D. Dog 4. 28
(1) ljy js[kk
E. Horse 5. 140
Options (2) ijoy;
A B C D E (3) o`Ùkkdkj
(1) 4 3 1 2 5 (4) nh?kZo`Ùkkdkj
(2) 4 5 1 2 3
(3) 5 4 2 1 3
(4) 5 2 3 4 1
43. The retardation experienced by a moving motor 0.3 fdxzk nzO;eku dh fdlh oLrq ij cy F = – kx
boat after its engine is cutoff is givenby d v =–kv3, dk;Zjr gS] tgk¡ k = 15 N/m. gSA oLrq dk izkjafHkd Roj.k
dt D;k gksxk] tc bls ewyfcUnq ls 20 lseh nwjLFk fcUnq ls
where k is a positive constant. If initial velocity of NksM+k tkrk gS
the motor boat is v0 (magnitude of velocity at cut (1) 5 m/s2 (2) 10 m/s2
off is v0 ). The magnitude of the velocity at time t (3) 3 m/s2 (4) 15 m/s2
after the cut off is : 49. A force F = k  y î  x ˆj  , where k is a positive
,d xfreku eksVjcksV dk batu cUn gksus ds i'pkr~
constant, acts on a particle moving in the xy
eksVjcksV ij vkjksfir eUnu dv = –kv3 ds }kjk fn;k plane. Starting from the origin, the particle is
dt taken along the positive xaxis to the point (a, 0)
tkrk gSA ;gkW k /kukRed fLFkjkad gSA ;fn eksVj cksV dk and then parallel to the yaxis to the point (a, a).
izkjfEHkd osx v0 gks (batu cUn gksrs le; osx dk ifjek.k The total work done by the force on the particle is
v0 gks) rks batu cUn gksus ds t le; i'pkr~ eksVjcksV dk xy ry esa xfr djrs gq, d.k ,d cy
osx gksxkA F =  ky î  x ˆj
 dk;Zjr gSA tgk¡ k ,d fu;rkad gSA
v0 ;g d.k ewy fcUnq ls izkjEHk gksrk gSA d.k dks /kukRed
(1) v0 (2)
2 xv{k ds vuqfn'k fcUnq (a, 0) rd ys tk;k tkrk gS rFkk
(3) v0e–kt (4) v0 blds i'pkr~ yv{k ds lekUrj fcUnq (a, a) rd ys tk;k
2
2v0 kt  1 tkrk gS %
44. A particle moves such that s = 4t2 + 6t + 4 the (1)  2 ka2 (2) 2 ka2 (3)  ka2 (4) ka2
accelearation of the particle is 50. In the track shown in figure section AB is a
quadrant of a circle of 1 metre radius. A block is
,d fcUnq dk foLFkkiu s = 4t2 + 6t + 4 gSA fcUnq dk released at A and slides without friction until it
Roj.k Kkr djsA reaches B. After B it moves on a rough horizontal
(1) 4 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 16 floor and comes to rest at distance 3 metres from
B. What is the coefficient of friction between floor
45. A boat is sent across a river with a velocity of
and body ? (fp=k esa n'kkZ;s x;s iFk esa [k.M AB, 1
8 km/hr. If the resultant velocity of boat is
10 km/hr, then velocity of the river is : ehVj f=kT;k ds o`Ùk dk ,d prqFkkZa'k gSA A ij ,d CykWd
,d uko 8 fdeh/?k.Vs ds osx ls unh ikj djrh gSA ;fn NksM+k tkrk gS tks fcuk ?k"kZ.k ds rc rd fQlyrk gS tc
uko dk ifj.kkeh osx 10 fdeh/?k.Vk gks] rc unh dk osx rd fd ;g B ij ugha igq¡p tkrk gSA B ij igq¡pus ds ckn
gksxk ;g ,d [kqjnjs {kSfrt ry ij xfr djrk gS vkSj B ls 3
(1) 10 km/hr (2) 8 km/hr ehVj dh nwjh ij tkdj :d tkrk gSA CykWd o ry ds chp
(3) 6 km/hr (4) 4 km/hr ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad D;k gS ?)
46. Newton's second law gives the measure of
(1) Acceleration (2) Force
(3) Momentum (4) Angular momentum
U;wVu dh xfr dk f}rh; fu;e ekiu djrk gS
(1) Roj.k dk (2) cy dk (1) 1/3 (2) 2/3 (3) 1/4 (4) 3/8
(3) laosx dk (4) dks.kh; laosx dk
47. An object will continue moving uniformly until 51. In the Figure, the ball A is released from rest
(1) The resultant force acting on it begins to when the spring is at its natural length. For the
decrease block B, of mass M to leave contact with the
(2) The resultant force on it is zero ground at some stage, the minimum mass of A
(3) The resultant force is at right angle to its must be : (fp=k essa xsan A fojke ls NksM+h tkrh gS tc
rotation fLçax viuh lkekU; yEckbZ esa gSA M nzO;eku ds CykWd B
(4) The resultant force on it is increased dk fdlh fLFkfr ij lrg ls lEidZ NwV tkrk gS rks A dk
continuously U;wure nzO;eku gksuk pkfg, :)
,d oLrq rc rd ,dleku xfr djrh jgsxh] tc rd
(1) ml ij yxus okys ifj.kkeh cyksa dk eku ?kVus yxrk gS
(2) ml ij ifj.kkeh cy 'kwU; gS
(3) ifj.kkeh cy mlds ?kweus dh fn'kk ds yEcor~ gS
(4) ifj.kkeh cy dk eku yxkrkj c<+rk pyk tk;s
48. A particle of mass 0.3 kg is subjected to a force
F = – kx with k = 15 N/m. What will be its initial (1) 2 M (2) M (3) M/2
acceleration if it is released from a point 20 cm (4) A function of M and the force constant of the
away from the origin spring.
nzO;eku M rFkk fLçax ds cy fu;rkad dk Qyu gksxkA
52. In the figure shown a ring A is rolling without 55. A pendulum of length L and bob of mass M has a
sliding with a velocity v on the horizontal surface spring of force constant k connected horizontally
of the body B (of same mass as A). All surfaces to it at a distance h below its point of suspension.
are smooth. B has no initial velocity. What will be The rod is in equilibrium in vertical position. The
the maximum height (from initial position) rod of length L used for vertical suspension is
reached by A on B. rigid and massless. The frequency of vibration of
fp=kkuqlkj oy; A fi.M B dh {kSfrt lrg ij fcuk fQlys the system for small values of  is :
yq<+d jgh gSA ;fn B dk nzO;eku A ds leku gS rFkk lHkh ,d NM+ yksyd ftldh yEckbZ L rFkk xksys dk nzO;eku M
lrg fpduh gks rFkk B dk çkjfEHkd osx 'kwU; gSA A }kjk B gS] ds fuyEcu fcUnq ls h nwjh uhps dh vksj k fLizax fu;rkad
dh lrg ij çkIr vf/kdre Åpk¡bZ Kkr djks \ dh ,d fLizax {kSfrt :i ls tqM+h gqbZ gSA NM+ m/oZfn'kk esa
lkE;koLFkk esa gSA L yEckbZ dh NM+ tks m/oZ fuyacu ds fy,
mi;ksx esa yh xbZ gS] n`<+ rFkk nzO;eku jfgr gSA  ds
y?kqekuksa ds fy, dEiUuksa dh vko`fÙk gksxhA
2 2
3 v v
(1) (2)
4 g 4 g
2 2
v v
(3) (4)
2 g 3 g (1) 1 kh (2) 1 m gL  k
gL 
53. A sphere rolls without sliding on a rough inclined 2 L m 2 L m
plane (only mg and constant forces are acting on 2

(3) 2
mL (4) 1  kh2 
the body). The angular momentum of the body: m gL  kh
gL  
 m


2L  
(1) about centre is conserved
(2) is conserved about the point of contact 56. Two particles execute SHM on same straight line
(3) is conserved about a point whose distance with same mean position, same time period
from the inclined plane is greater than the radius 6 sec. and same amplitude 5 cm. Both the
of the sphere particles start SHM from their mean position (in
(4) is not conserved about any point. same direction) with a time gap of 1 second. Find
,d xksyk [kqjnjs ur ry ij fcuk fQlys yq<+drk gSA oLrq the maximum separation between the two
dk dks.kh; laosx & particles during their motion :
nks d.k ,d gh ljy js[kk ij ,d gh ek/; fLFkfr ls leku
(1) dsUnz ds lkis{k lajf{kr gSA
vkorZ dky 6 lSd.M rFkk leku vk;ke 5 cm ls ljy
(2) laidZ fcUnq ds lkis{k lajf{kr gSA
vkorZ xfr djrs gSaA nksuksa d.k viuh ek/; fLFkfr ls (leku
(3) ml fcUnq ds lkis{k lajf{kr gksxk ftldh ur ry ls
fn'kk esa) 1 lsd.M ds le; vUrjky ls ljy vkorZ xfr
nwjh xksys dh f=kT;k ls vf/kd gksxh
izkjEHk djrs gSaA xfr ds nkSjku nksuksa d.kksa ds chp vf/kdre
(4) fdlh Hkh fcUnq ds lkis{k lajf{kr ugha gS
nwjh gS &
54. Suppose in gravity free space a disc of mass m 0 (1) 2 cm (2) 3 cm (3) 4 cm (4) 5 cm
rotates freely about a fixed horizontal axis
57. Two interferring waves have the same
through its centre. A thin cotton pad is fixed to its
wavelength, frequency and amplitude. They are
rim, which can absorb water. The mass of water
dripping onto the pad is  kg per second. After travelling in the same direction but 90 0 out of
what time will the angular velocity of the disc get phase compared to individual waves. The
reduced to half of its initial value? resultant wave will have the same.
ekuk fdlh xq:Roghu LFkku ij ,d m0 nzO;eku dh pdrh (1) amplitude and velocity but different
wavelength
viuh {kSfrt v{k tks dsUnz ls xqtjrh gS] ds lkis{k ?kw.kZu (2) frequency and velocity but different
xfr dj jgh gSA ,d diM+s dk isM (thin cotton pad) wavelength
bldh ifjf/k ij tqM+k gqvk gS tks ikuh dks lks[k ysrk gSA (3) wavelength and velocity but different
ikuh dk nzO;eku  kg per sec. dh nj ls isM ij fxj amplitude
jgk gSA fdrus le; ds i'pkr~ pdrh dk dks.kh; osx (4) amplitude and frequency but different
çkjfEHkd osx ls vk/kk gks tk;sxk ? wavelength
O;frdj.k djus okys nks rjaxs leku rajx nS/;Z leku vko`fÙk
o leku vk;ke dh gS rFkk og leku fn'kk esa xfr dj jgh
gS ijUrq ,d nwljs ds lkis{k dyk esa 900 dk vUrj gS rks
ifj.kkeh rjax j[ksxh
(1) leku vk;ke o osx ysfdu fHkUu rjaxnS/;Z
(1) 2m0/ (2) 3m0/ (2) leku vko`fÙk o osx ysfdu fHkUu rjaxnS/;Z
(3) m0/ (4) m0/2 (3) leku rjaxnS/;Z o osx ysfdu fHkUu vk;ke
(4) leku vk;ke o vko`fÙk ysfdu fHkUu rjaxnS/;Z
58. How long will it take sound waves to travel a 61. Water of mass m2 = 1 kg is contained in a
distance  between points A & B if the air copper calorimeter of mass m1 = 1 kg. Their
temperature between them varies linearly from
common temperature t = 10°C. Now a piece of
T1 to T2 ? (The velocity of sound in air at
ice of mass m3 = 2 kg and temperature is –11°C
temperature T is given by v =  T , where  is a dropped into the calorimeter. Neglecting any heat
constant) loss, the final temperature of system is. [specific
A rFkk B nks fcUnqvksa ds e/; nwjh  gS rFkk buds e/; gok heat of copper = 0.1 Kcal/ kg°C, specific heat of
dk rkieku T1 ls T2 rd js[kh; :i ls ifjofrZr gksrk gSA water = 1 Kcal/kg°C, specific heat of ice = 0.5
Kcal/kg°C, latent heat of fusion of ice = 78.7
rks /ofu rjaxks dks  nwjh r; djus esa yxk le; gksxk Kcal/kg]
&(rkieku T ij gok esa /ofu dk osx v =  T ls iznf'kZr ,d rkacs ds ,d dSyksjhehVj ftldk nzO;eku m1 = 1kg gS]
gS] tgk¡  ,d fu;rkad gS) ikuh ftldk nzO;eku m2 = 1 kg gS] dks dSyksjhehVj esa
2 T1 Hkjk x;k gSA mudk mHk;fu"B rkieku t = 10°C gSA vc
(1) (2)  cQZ dk VqdM+k ftldk nzO;eku m3 = 2 kg rFkk ftldk
 T1 T 2 T2
rki –11°C gS] dks dSyksjhehVj esa fxjk;k tkrk gSA fdlh
(3)
2
(4)
2 Hkh izdkj dh Å"ek gkfu ux.; ekuksA fudk; dk vfUre
 ( T 2  T1 )   T2  T1  rkieku gS & [rk¡cs dh fof'k"V Å"ek = 0.1 Kcal/ kg°C,
ikuh dh fof'k"V Å"ek = 1 Kcal/kg°C, cQZ dh fof'k"V
59. Figure shown is a graph, at a certain time t, of Å"ek = 0.5 Kcal/kg°C, cQZ ds xyu dh xqIr Å"ek =
the displacement function S(x,t) of three sound
78.7 Kcal/kg]
waves 1,2 and 3 as marked on the curves that
(1) 0°C (2) 4°C
travel along x–axis through air. If P1,P2 and P3
(3) – 4°C (4) – 2°C
represent their pressure amplitudes respectively,
62. A satellite with mass 2000 kg and angular
then correct relation between them is :
gok esa x-v{k ds vuqfn'k xfr dj jgh rhu /ofu rjaxksa momentum magnitude 2 × 1012 kg.m2/s is
¼ftudksa oØksa ij 1, 2, 3 }kjk n'kkZ;k x;k gS½ dk fdlh moving in an elliptical orbit around a planet. The
rate at which area is being swept out by the
le; t ij foLFkkiu Qyu S(x, t) oØ fp=k esa iznf'kZr gSA
satellite around the planet, is equal to
vxj P1, P2 rFkk P3 Øe'k% buds nkc vk;ke gSa rks buds ,d xzg ds pkjks vksj nh?kZo`Ùkkdkj d{kk esa pDdj yxk jgs
e/; lgh lEcU/k gS & ,d mixzg dk nzO;eku 2000 kg gS rFkk dks.kh; laosx dk
ifjek.k 2 × 1012 kg.m2/s gSA xzg ds pkjks vksj mixzg
}kjk izliZ {ks=kQy dh nj fdlds cjkcj gSA
(1) 1 × 109 m2/s (2) 5 × 109 m2/s
(3) 5 × 108 m2/s (4) 4 × 1015 m2/s
63. A certain quarternary star system consists of
three stars, each of mass m, moving in same
(1) P1 > P2 > P3 (2) P3 > P2 > P1 circular orbit about a stationary central star of
(3) P1 = P2 = P3 (4) P2 > P3 > P1 mass M. The three identical stars orbit in same
sense and are symmetrically located with respect
60. A current of 2.50 A passing through a heating to each other. Considering gravitational force of
coil immersed in 180g of paraffin (specific heat all remaining bodies on every star, the time
capacity 2J g–1K–1)contained in a 100g period of each of three stars is :
calorimeter(specific heat capacity 0.400Jg–1K–1) ,d fdlh pkj rkjk fudk; esa rhu rkjsa gS ftudk izR;sd dk
raises the temperature from 5ºC below room nzO;eku m gS] M nzO;eku ds dsUnzh; fLFkj rkjs ds pkjksa vksj
temperature to 5ºC above room temperature in ,d gh o`Ùkkdkj d{kk esa xfr djrs gSaA rhu leku rkjs
100 s. The reading of the voltmeter connected leku fn'kk esa pDdj yxkrs gS rFkk ,d nwljs ds lkis{k
across the heating coil is lefer :i ls fLFkr gSA izR;sd rkjs ij lHkh 'ks"k oLrqvksa ds
180 xzke, iSjkQhu ¼fof'k"V Å"ek 2.00 twy × xzke–1 × dkj.k xq:Rokd"kZ.k cy dks ekurs gq;s] rhuksa rkjksa esa izR;sd
dsfYou–1 ½ ls Hkjs 100 xkzke ds dSyksjhekih esa ¼fof'k"V dk vkorZdky gS &
Å"ek 0.400 twy × xzke–1 × dsfYou–1 ½ Mqoh rkih; r
3
r
3
dq.Myh esa 2.5 ,sfEi;j /kkjk izokfgr dh tkrh gSA ftlls (1) 2 (2) 2
 m   m 
rki] dejs ds rki ls 5ºC uhps ls ] dejs ds rki ls 5ºC G M   G M  
Åij rd 100 lS0 esa c<+ tkrk gSA rkih; dq.Myh ds fljks  3   3 
ij yxs oksYVehVj dk ikB;kad gS & 3 3

r r
(1) 8.0 V (2) 16.0 V (3) 2 (4) 2
(3) 24.0 V (4) 32.0 V G M  3m  G (M  3m )
64. Loop A of radius (r << R) moves towards loop B (2) An electron placed at B experiences a
with a constant velocity V in such a way that their larger force at B than that at C.
planes are always parallel. What is the distance B ij j[kk bysDVªkWu C dh rqyuk esa T;knk cy vuqHko
between the two loops (x) when the induced emf djsxkA
in loop A is maximum (3) An electron shot with a velocity towards D,
(r << R) f=kT;k dk ywi A ywi B dh rjQ fu;r osx V ls perpendicular to the lines of induction at
bl çdkj xfr djrk gS fd muds ry ges'kk lekUrj jgrs B in the plane of the figure will emerge from its
gSA nksuksa ?ksjksa ds e/; nwjh (x) dk eku D;k gksxk tcfd ywi opposite corner.
A esa çsfjr fo0ok0cy vf/kdre gks % ,d bysDVªkWu dks B ij izsj.k js[kkvksa ds yEcor~ fp=k ds ry
esa fdlh osx ls D dh rjQ nkxrs gS] rks ;g blds foijhr
dksus ls ckgj fudysxkA
(4) An electron shot with a velocity along the
line ABC will continue to be moving in the
same direction.
R
,d bysDVªkWu dks fdlh osx ls js[kk ABC ds vuqfn'k nkxk
(1) R (2) tk;s] rks og mlh fn'kk esa xfr djrk jgsxkA
2
68. A convex mirror of focal length f forms an image
R  1 
(3) (4) R  1   1
2 which is times the object. The distance of the
 2 
n
65. A long straight current carrying wire is placed object from the mirror is
along the axis of a current carrying circular ring f Qksdl nwjh okys mÙky niZ.k }kjk cus çfrfcEc dk vkdkj
of radius R. The mutual inductance of this
1
system is oLrq ds vkdkj ls xquk gSA oLrq dh niZ.k ls nwjh gksxh
,d yEcs lh/ks /kkjkokgh rkj dks R f=kT;k dh ,d /kkjkokgh n
o`Ùkkdkj oy; ds v{k ds vuqfn'k j[kk tkrk gSA rks bl  n  1
fudk; dk vU;ksU; izsjdRo gSA (1) (n – 1) f (2)  f
 n 
 0R  0 R
(1) (2)  n  1
2 2 (3)  f (4) (n + 1) f
 n 
0
(3) (4) 0 69. When a white light passes through a hollow
2
prism, then
66. The magnetic induction and the intensity of (1) There is no dispersion and no deviation
magnetic field inside an iron pole of an (2) Dispersion but no deviation
electromagnetic are 10 Wb m–2 and 250 Am–1 (3) Deviation but no dispersion
respectively. What is the relative permeability of (4) There is dispersion and deviation both
iron ? (0 = 4 × 10–7 Hm–1) dkWp ds [kks[kys fizTe esa ls lQsn izdk'k dh dksbZ fdj.k
,d oS|qr pqEcdh; ykSg [kEHksa (Iron pole) ds vUnj tc xqtjrh gS] rks mlesa gksrk gS
pqEcdh; izsj.k rFkk pqEcdh; {ks=k dh rhozrk Øe'k% (1) u rks o.kZ fo{ksi.k vkSj u gh fopyu
(2) o.kZ fo{ksi.k ijUrq fopyu ugha
10 Wb m–2 rFkk 250 Am–1 gSA ykSgs dh lkis{k
(3) fopyu ijUrq fo{ksi.k ugh
ikjxE;rk D;k gksxh ? (0 = 4 × 10–7 Hm–1) (4) fo{ksi.k vkSj fopyu nksuksa
5 5 5 5
10 10 10 10 70. A large sheet carries uniform surface charge
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6  3 5 density . A rod of length 2 has a linear charge
density  on one half and - on the second half.
67. A space has magnetic field in which the lines of The rod is hinged at mid-point O and makes
induction are as shown in the figure chose angle  with the normal to the sheet. The electric
incorrect : force experienced by the rod is
fdlh pqEcdh; {ks=k esa mifLFkr izsj.k js[kk;sa fp=k esa n'kkZ;h ,d cgqr cM+h 'khV dk ,d leku i`"Bh; vkos'k ?kuRo  gSA
x;h gSA vlR; dFku pqus
2 yEckbZ] dh ,d NM+ ds vk/ks Hkkx ij jsf[kd vkos'k ?kuRo
o nwljs vk/ks Hkkx ij jsf[kd vkos'k ?kuRo –gSA NM+ dks
e/; fcUnq O ls dhyfdr gS vkSj ;g 'khV ds vfHkyEc ds
lkFk  dks.k cukrh gSA NM+ ds }kjk vuqHko fd;k x;k fo|qr
cy gS &
(1) The magnetic induction at B is greater than
the magnetic induction at C.
B ij pqEcdh; izsj.k C ij pqEcdh; izsj.k ls T;knk gksxkA
74. Match the compounds in the List – I with that in

List – II
List – I List–II
(A) XeO3 (1) Planar triangular
(B) XeOF4 (2) T-shape
(C) BO33– (3) Trigonal pyramid
(D) CIF3 (4) Square pyramid
2
 –
(1) 0 (2) s in  (E) I3 (5) Linear
2 0
(6) Bent

2 lwph-I ds ;kSfxdksa dks lwph-II ls lqesfyr dhft,A
(3) s in  (4) None of these buesa ls dksbZ ugha lwph-I lwph-II
0
(A) XeO3 (1) leryh; f=kHkqth;
(B) XeOF4 (2) T-vkd`fr
PART - III (CHEMISTRY): Hkkx - III (jlk;u&foKku) (C) BO3 3– (3) f=kHkqth; fijSfeMh;
Atomic masses (ijek.kq Hkkj) : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, (D) CIF3 (4) oxZ fijSfefM;
C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, (E) I3– (5) js[kh;
Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39,
(6) eqMh gqbZ vkd`fr
Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5,
Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, (1) A–1, B–4, C–3, D–2, E–5
Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207] (2) A–2, B–4,C–1, D–2, E–6
(3) A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2, E–5
(4) A–3, B–4, C–2, D–1, E–5
This section contains 30 multiple choice 75. A reaction mixture containing H2, N2 and NH3
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), has partial pressure 2 atm, 1 atm and 3 atm
(3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. respectively at 725 K. If the value of KP for the
bl [k.M esa 30 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u ds 4 reaction, N2 + 3H2 2NH3 is 4.2810–5
fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa, ftuesa ls flQZ ,d lgh atm–2 at 725 K, in which direction the net
gSA reaction will go :
(1) Forward (2) Backward
(3) No net reaction
71. The orbit having Bohr radius equal to 1st Bohr (4) Direction of reaction cannot be predicted
orbit of H–atom is 725 K ij] ,d vfHkfØ;k feJ.k esa H2, N2 rFkk NH3 ds
(1) n = 2 of He+ (2) n = 2 of B+4 vkaf'kd nkc Øe'k% 2 atm, 1 atm rFkk 3 atm gS ;fn
(3) n = 3 of Li+2  (4) n = 2 of Be+3 725 ij] vfHkfØ;k N2 + 3H2 2NH3 ds fy, Kp
og cksj f=kT;k okyh d{kk tks H-ijek.kq ds 1st cksj d{kk ds dk eku 4.28  10–5 atm–2 gS rc ifj.kkeh vfHkfØ;k
cjkcj gSA fdl fn'kk esa xfr djsxhA
(1) He+ ds fy, n = 2 (2) B+4 ds fy, n = 2 (1) vxz fn'kk esa
(3) Li+2 ds fy, n = 3 (4) Be+3 ds fy, n = 2 (2) i'p fn'kk esa
(3) fdlh Hkh fn'kk esa ugha
72. The order of first electron affinity of O, S and Se
(4)vfHkfØ;k dh fn'kk dk vuqeku ugha yxk;k tk ldrk gSA
is :
O, S vkSj Se dh çFke bysDVªkWu ca/kqrk dk Øe gksxkA 76. The density of neon will be highest at :
(1) O > S > Se (2) S > Se > O fu;kWu dk ?kuRo fuEu ij mPpre gksxk %
(3) Se > O > S (4) S > O > Se (1) STP (2) 0°C, 2 atm
73. If 500 ml of 1 M solution of glucose is mixed with (3) 273°C. 1 atm (4) 273°C. 2 atm
500 m of 1 M solution of glucose final molarity of 77. Which one of the following orders presents the
solution will be : correct sequence of the increasing basic nature
;fn 1 M Xywdksl foy;u ds 500 ml dks] Xywdksl ds gh of the given oxides ?
1 M foy;u ds 500 ml ds lkFk feyk;k tkrk gS] rks fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu&lk Øe fn;s x;s vkWDlkbMksa ds Øe'k%
foy;u dh vfUre eksyjrk fuEu gksxhA c<+rs {kkjh; LoHkko dks izLrqr djrk gS \
(1) 1 M (2) 0.5 M (1) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O
(3) 2 M (4) 1.5 M (2) MgO < K2O < Al2O3 < Na2O
(3) Na2O < K2O < MgO < Al2O3
(4) K2O < Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO
78. Boric acid is polymeric due to : (3) mÙØe.kh; vkSj vuqÙØe.kh; nksuks çØeks ds fy;s
(1) its acidic nature Tf = Ti .
(2) the presence of hydrogen bonds (4) (Tf)vuqÙØe.kh; > (Tf)mÙØe.kh;
(3) its monobasic nature
(4) its geometry
cksfjd vEy fdlds dkj.k cgqyd gS % 82. For the reaction equilibrium, N2O4 (g)
(1) bldh vEyh; izd`fr ds dkj.k 2NO2(g) the concentrations of N2O4 and NO2 at
(2) gkbMªkstu cU/k dh mifLFkfr ds dkj.k equilibrium are 4.8 × 10–2 and 1.2×10–2 mol L–1
(3) bldh ,dy {kkjh; izd`fr ds dkj.k respectively.The value of Kc for the reaction is
(4) bldh T;kferh ds dkj.k vfHkfØ;k lkE; ds fy,] N2O4 (g) 2NO2 (g)
lkE;oLFkk ij N2O4 vkSj NO2 dh lkUnzrk,a Øe'k% 4.8 ×
79. In the reaction X – + XO3– + H+   X2 +
10–2 vkSj 1.2 × 10–2 mol L–1 gSA vfHkfØ;k ds fy,
H2O, the molar ratio in which X – and XO3–
Kc dk eku gksxk %
react is :
(1) 3.3 × 102 mol L–1 (2) 3 × 10–1 mol L–1
vfHkfØ;k X – + XO3– + H+   X2 + H2O esa]
(3) 3 × 10 mol L (4) 3 × 103 mol L–1
–3 –1
X – rFkk XO3– ds vfHkd`r gksus dk eksyj vuqikr gksxk %
83. Assuming the formation of an ideal solution,
(1) 1 : 5 (2) 5 : 1 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2 determine the boiling point of a mixture
containing 1560 g benzene (molar mass = 78)
80. S(rhombic) + O2   SO2, H = – 297.5 kJ and 1125 g chlorobenzene (molar mass = 112.5)
using the following against an external pressure
S(monoclinic) + O2   SO2,H = – 300 kJ of 1000 Torr.
This data indicates : ,d feJ.k dk DFkukad fcUnq Kkr djks ftlesa 1560 g
(1) Rhombic sulphur is yellow in colour csathu(eksyj nzO;eku = 78) vkSj 1125 g Dyksjks csathu
(2) monoclinic sulphur is more stable (eksyj nzO;eku = 112.5) gS rFkk 1000 Vksj ds ckgjh nkc
(3) monoclinic sulphur has metallic lustre j[kk gSA ekuk ,d vkn'kZ foy;u gSA
ben ze ne
(4) The process S(rhombic)  S(monoclinic) is 2200
1800
endothermic Va p o u r
1350 c h lo r o b e n z e n e
P re s s u re
1000
S(v"VQydh;) + O2   SO2,H = – 297.5 kJ 540

400
300
200
S(,durk{k) + O2   SO2, H = – 300 kJ 90 100

t (c º )
11 0 120
;g vkadM+s lwfpr djrs gSa % (1) 90ºC (2) 100ºC

(1) v"VQydh; xa/kd ihys jax dk gksrk gSA (3) 110º (4) 120ºC
(2) ,durk{k xa/kd vf/kd LFkk;h gksrk gSA 84. The best colligative property used for the
determination of molecular masses of polymers
(3) ,durk{k xa/kd dh /kkfRod ped gksrh gSA
is :
(4) izfØ;k S(v"VQydh;)  S(,d urk{k) Å"ek'kks"kh gSA (1) Relative lowering in vapour pressure
(2) Osmotic pressure
81. An ideal gas is allowed to expand both reversibly
(3) Elevation in boiling point
and irreversibly in an isolated system. If Ti is the
(4) depression in freezing point
initial temperature and Tf is the final temperature, cgqyd ds v.kqHkkj dks Kkr djus ds fy, lcls mi;qZDr
which of the following statements is correct ? v.kqla[;d xq.k/keZ fuEu gS :
(1) Tf > Ti for reversible process but Tf = Ti for (1) ok"i nkc esa voueu (2) ijklj.k nkc
irreversible process (3) DoFkukad esa mUu;u (4) fgekad esa voueu
(2) (Tf)rev = (Tf)irrev
(3) Tf = Ti for both reversible and irreversible 85. For a given reaction A  Product, rate is 1×10–4
processes M s–1 when [A] = 0.01 M and rate is 1.41×10–4
(4) (Tf)irrev > (Tf)rev M s–1 when [A] = 0.02 M. Hence, rate law is :
,d foyfxr fudk; esa ,d vkn'kZ xSl dks mÙØe.kh; vkSj nh xbZ vfHkfØ;k A  mRikn ds fy,] nj 1×10–4Ms–1
vuqÙØe.kh; nksuksa rjg çlkfjr gksus fn;k tkrk gSA ;fn gS tc [A] = 0.01 M rFkk nj 1.41 × 10–4 Ms–1 tc
çkjfEHkd rki Ti rFkk vfUre rki Tf gS rks buesa ls [A] = 0.02M. vr% nj fu;e gSA
dkSulk dFku lR; gS \ d [A ] d [A ]
 
(1) mÙØe.kh; çØe ds fy;s Tf > Ti gS] ysfdu (1) dt = k [A]2 (2) dt = k[A]
vuqÙØe.kh; çØe ds fy;s Tf = Ti gSaA d [A ] k d [A ]
  [A ] 
(2) (Tf)mÙØe.kh; = (Tf)vuqÙØe.kh; (3) dt 4 (4) dt = k[A]1/2
86. Select the correct statement about pure water : fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku lgh ugh gS%
(1) On increasing the temperature, pH of water (1) Xe ds ;kSfxdksa ds fuekZ.k esa cVZysV (Bartlett) us
also increases. O2PtF6 dks vkèkkj ;kSfxd fy;k D;ksafd O2 o Xe nksuks
(2) On decreasing the temperature, pOH of water
also decreases. dh yxHkx leku vk;uu ÅtkZ gksrh gSA
pK (2) ukbVªkstu vij:irk iznf'kZr ugha djrk gSA
w
(3) At any temperature 2 = – log10[H+] (3) NO3– vk;u ds ifj{k.k esa Hkwjk oy; curk gSA ;g
(4) [H+] = [OH–] = K w at only 25ºC [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+ ds fuekZ.k ds dkj.k gksrk gSA
'kq) ty ds fy, lgh dFku dk p;u dhft;sA (4) yky QkWLQksjl lkUæ NaOH foy;u ds lkFk CO2
(1) rkieku esa o`f) djus ij] ty ds pH esa Hkh o`f) gksxhA ds vfØ; okrkoj.k esa xeZ djus ij PH3 xSl nsrk gSA
(2) rkieku esa deh djus ij] ty ds pOH esa Hkh deh
gksxhA 91. Na2S2O3. 5H2O Sodium thiosulphate is used in
pK photography to :
w
(3) fdlh Hkh rki ij 2 = – log10[H+] (1) remove reduced silver

(2) remove undecomposed AgBr as soluble silver
(4) [H+] = [OH–] = K w dsoy 25ºC ij thiosulphate complex
(3) convert the metallic silver to silver salt
87. The edge lengths of the unit cells in terms of the (4) reduce the silver bromide grains to metallic
radius of spheres constituting fcc,bcc and simple silver
cubic unit cell are respectively - QksVksxzkQh esa lksfM;e Fkk;kslYQsV Na2S2O3. 5H2O dk
fcc, bcc o ljy ?kuh; bdkbZ lSyksa esa dksj yEckbZ (edge
iz;ksx djrs gS %
length) dks xksys dh f=kT;k ds :i esa fuEu izdkj fy[kk
(1) vipf;r flYoj dks gVkus ds fy,A
tk ldrk gS&
(2) vfo?kfVr AgBr dks foys;'khy flYoj Fkk;kslYQsV
4r 4r
(1) 2r, ,2 2r
(2) ,2 2 r, 2r ladqy ds :i esa gVkus ds fy,A
3 3 (3) /kkfRod flYoj dks flYoj yo.k esa :ikUrfjr djus esa
(4) flYoj czksekbM d.kksa dks /kkfRod flYoj esa vipf;r
4r 4r
(3) 2 r ,2 2 r,
(4) 2 2 r, ,2 r djus ds fy,A
3 3
92. (I) When copper ore is mixed with silica, in a
88. Body centred cubic lattice has co–ordination
reverberatory furnace copper matte is produced.
number of :
The copper matte contains sulphides of copper
dk; dsfUær ?kuh; tkyd esa leUo; la[;k gS :
(II) and iron (II).
(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 6 (4) 4 (II) Zone refining is based on the principle that
89. Which is wrong in case of enzyme catalysis ? impurities are more soluble in molten metal than
(1) Enzymes work best at an optimum in solid metal.
temperature (III) In the metallurgy of aluminium, graphite
(2) Enzymes work at an optimum pH anode is oxidised to carbon monoxide and
(3) Enzymes are highly specific for substrates carbon dioxide.
(4) An enzymes raises activation energy Correct statements amongs the following are-
,sUtkWbe mRizsj.k ds lanHkZ esa dkSulk vlR; gS \ (1) I, II (2) II, III (3) I, III (4) I, II
(1) ,sUtkWbe mi;qDr rki ij Js"Bre dk;Z djrk gS (I) ijkoZruh HkV~Vh esa tc dkWij v;Ld dks flfydk ds lkFk
(2) ,sUTkkWbe mi;qDr pH ij dk;Z djrk gSA fefJr fd;k tkrk gS rks dkWij esV (matte) izkIr gksrh gSA
(3) ,sUtkWbe lCLVªsV ds fy, vfrfof'k"V gksrs gSaA dkWij esV esa dkWij (II) o vkW;ju (II) lYQkbM gksrs gSA
(4) ,sUtkWbe lfØ;.k ÅtkZ dks c<+k nsrs gSA (II) {ks=k ifj"dj.k (zone refining) bl fl)kUr ij
vkèkkfjr gS fd v'kqf);k¡ Bksl èkkrq dh rqyuk esa xfyr èkkrq
90. Among the following statements which is esa vfèkd foys; gksrh gSA
INCORRECT :
(III) ,Y;qfefu;e ds èkkrqdeZ esa xzsQkbV ,uksM dkcZu
(1) In the preparation of compounds of Xe,
Bartlett had taken O2PtF6 as a base compound eksuksvkWDlkbM o dkcZu MkbZvkWDlkbM esa vkWDlhd`r gks tkrk
because both O2 and Xe have almost same
gSA
fuEu esa ls lgh dFku gS&
ionisation enthalpy.
(1) I, II (2) II, III (3) I, III (4) I, II
(2) Nitrogen does not show allotropy.
(3) A brown ring is formed in the ring test for
NO3– ion. It is due to the formation of
[Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+
(4) On heating with concentrated NaOH
solution in an inert atmosphere of CO2, red
phosphorus givesPH3 gas.
93. Electrode potential for Zn electrode varies (3) LiCl  BeCl 2  BCl 3  CCl 4
according to the equation. (4) LiCl  BeCl  CCl  BCl
2 4 3
1
 0 . 059
E  E  2 97. The number of P—O—P bonds in tricyclic
Zn
2
| Zn Zn
2
| Zn 2
log [ Zn ] .
metaphosphoric acid is :
The graph of E
Zn
2
| Zn vs log [Zn2+] is (1) zero (2) two
Zn bysDVªksM ds fy, bysDVªksM foHko fuEu lehdj.k ds (3) three (4) four
vuqlkj ifjofrZr gksrk gS] f=kpØh; esVkQkWLQksfjd vEy esa P—O—P cU/k dh la[;k
 0 . 059 1 gSa %
 E 
E
Zn
2
| Zn Zn
2
| Zn 2 log [ Zn 2  ] rc (1) 'kwU; (2) nks
E
Zn
2
| Zn rFkk log [Zn2+] ds eè; vkjs[k gS : (3) rhu (4) pkj
98. The two forms of D-Glucopyranose obtained
from solution of D-Glucose are known as
(1) (2) (1) Epimers (2) Anomers
(3) Enantiomers (4) Geometrical Isomers
D-Xywdksl ds foy;u ls D-Xywdksik;jsuksl dh nks lajpuk
izkIr gksrh gS] ftUgs dgrs gSa
(3) (4) (1) ,ihej (2) ,uksejl
(3) izfrfcEc :i (4) T;kfefr leko;oh
94. Consider the following statements ; 99. Nylon threads are made up of
S1 : The [Co(ox)3]3 – complex is diamagnetic (1) polyvinyl polymer (2) Polyester polymer
(3) Polyamide polymer (4)Polyethylene polymer
and gains stability through chelation.
ukbykWu /kkxs cus gksrs gS %
S2 : The [Co(NO2)6]4 – is inner orbital complex (1) ikWyhfoukby cgqyd (2) ikWyh,LVj cgqyd
involving d2sp3 hybridisation and is (3) ikfy,ekbM cgqyd (4) ikWfy,fFkyhu cgqyd
paramagnetic.
100. A substance forms zwitter ion. It can have
S3 : The complex [PtCl4]2 – is square planar functional group.
and diamagnetic. (1) – NH2 , – COOH (2) – NH2 , – SO5H
and arrange in the order of true / false (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
(1) T T T (2) F F T ,d inkFkZ tks fToVj vk;u cukrk gS] esa fuEu fØ;kRed
(3) T F T (4) T T F lewg gks ldrs gS
fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft, (
(1) – NH2 , – COOH (2) – NH2 , – SO5H
S1 : [Co(ox)3]3 – ladqy izfrpqEcdh; gS rFkk ;g (3) (1) rFkk (2)nksuksa (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
dhysVhdj.k ds }kjk LFkkf;Ro xzg.k djrk gSA
S2 : [Co(NO2)6]4 – vkUrfjd d{kd ladqy gS] ftlesa
ANSWER KEY TO SAMPLE TEST PAPER-3
d2sp3 ladj.k gksrk gS rFkk ;g vuqpqEcdh; gSA
S3 : [PtCl4]2 – ladqy oxZ leryh; rFkk izfrpqEcdh; 1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (3)
6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (4)
izd`fr dk gksrk gSA 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (4)
rFkk bUgsa lR;@vlR; ds Øe esa O;ofLFkr dhft,A 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (3)
(1) T T T (2) F F T 21. (2) 22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (4)
(3) T F T (4) T T F 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (1) 29. (2) 30. (3)
31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (3)
95. The complex [Pt(NH3)4]2+ has ..... structure : 36. (1) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (4) 40. (2)
41. (1) 42. (2) 43. (4) 44. (3) 45. (3)
(1) square planar (2) tetrahedral
46. (2) 47. (2) 48. (2) 49. (3) 50. (1)
(3) pyramidal (4) pentagonal
51. (3) 52. (2) 53. (3) 54. (4) 55. (4)
ladqy [Pt(NH3)4]2+ ----------------- lajpuk j[krk gS % 56. (4) 57. (3) 58. (4) 59. (2) 60. (2)
(1) oxkZdkj lery (2) prq"Qydh; 61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (2) 64. (3) 65. (4)
(3) fijkfeMh; (4) iapHkqth; 66. (2) 67. (2) 68. (1) 69. (1) 70. (1)
71. (4) 72. (2) 73. (1) 74. (3) 75. (2)
96. Which of the following is in order of increasing 76. (2) 77. (1) 78. (2) 79. (2) 80. (4)
covalent character ? 81. (4) 82. (3) 83. (2) 84. (2) 85. (4)
fuEu es a ls lgla ; ks t d y{k.k dk c<+ r k gq v k Øe 86. (3) 87. (4) 88. (1) 89. (3) 90. (4)
dkS u lk gS \ 91. (2) 92. (2) 93. (2) 94. (1) 95. (1)
(1) CCl  BeCl  BCl  LiCl 96. (3) 97. (3) 98. (2) 99. (3) 100. (3)
4 2 3
(2) LiCl  CCl 4  BeCl 2  BCl 3
SAMPLE TEST PAPER
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER
STP2019-Page # 48

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER

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HOW TO PREPARE FOR THE RESONANCE NATIONAL ENTRANCE TEST (ResoNET)

 For Class-X appearing students (Class-X to Class-XI Moving) :

 For Class-XI appearing students (Class-XI to Class-XII Moving):

  For Maths : Higher Algebra By Hall & Knight; Co-ordinate Geometry By

 For Class-XII appearing students (Class-XII to Class-XIII Moving):

  For Physics : Concepts of Physics by H.C. Verma Vol-I & II

Name : ________________________ Application Form Number : _______________

Syllabus for ResoNET

SAMPLE TEST PAPER

TARGET : NEET/AIIMS 2021

PART - I (BIOLOGY) : Hkkx - I (tho&foKku) 2. According to the 'Unit membrane' model of

36. The lengths of two parallel chords of a circle 1

(1) 112 (2) 122 (3) – 1 (4) 1

51. When a fuse is rated 8A, it means 45º Medium A

(1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 9 (4) 17 (1) 18 × 6.023 × 1023 (2)

80. The saturated heterocyclic compound is : 86. ab — acc — — da — bba —

Direction : In the following figure Manager are

(1) (2) 96. How many persons are only singers ?

(3) (4) (3) 4 (4) 7

97. How many females are there who are managers

98. How many mangers are there, who are neither

(3) a and c only (4) a, b, c and d

Direction : (100) Each of the following questions

(A) (A)(B) (B)(C) (C)

ANSWER KEY TO SAMPLE TEST PAPER-1

1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (4)

SAMPLE TEST PAPER

PART - I (BIOLOGY) : Hkkx - I (tho&foKku) xyr ;qXe dks pqfu;s&

Straight Objective Type

4. Which statement is wrong - a b c d

LFky gSa tks fd lq[kkdj] nckdj rFkk 'khVksa ij ifjjf{kr

8. Chlamydomonas, rhizopus, mycoplasma,

36. Which of the following is sulphur containing

(2) de ek=kkvksa esa mRikfnr gksrs gSa 2

(1) xsLVªhu (2) XywdsxkWu 30

(3) Vk;fyu (4) lhØsfVu

(1) 4.43 m/sec (2) 2 m/sec

54. A stretched wire of length 110 cm is divided into

Directions : (87) A, B, C, E, F, G and H are seven

97. In U.P. on 17th Oct. 1996, the president rule was

SAMPLE TEST PAPER

TARGET : NEET/AIIMS 2020

26. Below are given four pulmonary capacities (A -

Which of the following is correct about above

28. Sphincter of Boyden which helps in the filling up

40. Match List-I (Animals) to the List-II (Life spans)

plane (only mg and constant forces are acting on 2

ij yxs oksYVehVj dk ikB;kad gS & 3 3

74. Match the compounds in the List – I with that in

(4) The process S(rhombic)  S(monoclinic) is 2200

S(v"VQydh;) + O2   SO2,H = – 297.5 kJ 540

S(,durk{k) + O2   SO2, H = – 300 kJ 90 100

;g vkadM+s lwfpr djrs gSa % (1) 90ºC (2) 100ºC

(3) fdlh Hkh rki ij 2 = – log10[H+] (1) remove reduced silver

(2) LiCl  CCl 4  BeCl 2  BCl 3

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