GATE PETROLEUM ENGINEERING QUESTION PAPER & KEY 2016-2018

GATE
PETROLEUM ENGINEERING
2016-2018
QUESTION PAPER & ANSWER KEY

GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-1
Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 “Going by the _________ that many hands make light work, the school _______ involved
all the students in the task.”
The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are
(A) principle, principal (B) principal, principle

(C) principle, principle (D) principal, principal
Q.2 “Her _______ should not be confused with miserliness; she is ever willing to assist those in
need.”
The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is
(A) cleanliness (B) punctuality (C) frugality (D) greatness
Q.3 Seven machines take 7 minutes to make 7 identical toys. At the same rate, how many
minutes would it take for 100 machines to make 100 toys?
(A) 1 (B) 7 (C) 100 (D) 700
Q.4 A rectangle becomes a square when its length and breadth are reduced by 10 m and 5 m,
respectively. During this process, the rectangle loses 650 m2 of area. What is the area of the
original rectangle in square meters?
(A) 1125 (B) 2250 (C) 2924 (D) 4500
Q.5 A number consists of two digits. The sum of the digits is 9. If 45 is subtracted from the
number, its digits are interchanged. What is the number?
(A) 63 (B) 72 (C) 81 (D) 90
Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.
Q.6 For integers 𝑎, 𝑏 and 𝑐, what would be the minimum and maximum values respectively of
𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 if log |𝑎| + log |𝑏| + log |𝑐| = 0?
(A) -3 and 3 (B) -1 and 1 (C) -1 and 3 (D) 1 and 3
GA 1/2
GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-1
Q.7 Given that 𝑎 and 𝑏 are integers and 𝑎 + 𝑎2 𝑏 3 is odd, which one of the following
statements is correct?
(A) 𝑎 and 𝑏 are both odd (B) 𝑎 and 𝑏 are both even
(C) 𝑎 is even and 𝑏 is odd (D) 𝑎 is odd and 𝑏 is even
Q.8 From the time the front of a train enters a platform, it takes 25 seconds for the back of the
train to leave the platform, while travelling at a constant speed of 54 km/h. At the same
speed, it takes 14 seconds to pass a man running at 9 km/h in the same direction as the
train. What is the length of the train and that of the platform in meters, respectively?
(A) 210 and 140 (B) 162.5 and 187.5

(C) 245 and 130 (D) 175 and 200
Q.9 Which of the following functions describe the graph shown in the below figure?
(A) 𝑦 = ||𝑥| + 1| − 2 (B) 𝑦 = ||𝑥| − 1| − 1

(C) 𝑦 = ||𝑥| + 1| − 1 (D) 𝑦 = ||𝑥 − 1| − 1|
Q.10 Consider the following three statements:

(i) Some roses are red.
(ii) All red flowers fade quickly.
(iii) Some roses fade quickly.
Which of the following statements can be logically inferred from the above statements?
(A) If (i) is true and (ii) is false, then (iii) is false.

(B) If (i) is true and (ii) is false, then (iii) is true.
(C) If (i) and (ii) are true, then (iii) is true.
(D) If (i) and (ii) are false, then (iii) is false.
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
GA 2/2
GATE 2018 Petroleum Engineering

Q.1 The Taylor series expansion of the function,
−1
𝑓(𝑥) = ,
1+𝑥
around 𝑥 = 0 (up to 4th order term) is:

(A) 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 3 + 𝑥 4
(B) −1 + 𝑥 − 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 3 − 𝑥 4
(C) −1 − 𝑥 + 𝑥 2 − 𝑥 3 + 𝑥 4
(D) −1 + 𝑥 − 2𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 3 − 4𝑥 4
Q.2 1 3
The inverse of the matrix [ ] is,
1 2
2 3 −2 1 −2 3 2 −3
(A) [ ] (B) [ ] (C) [ ] (D) [ ]
1 1 3 −1 1 −1 −1 1
Q.3 The line integral of a vector function 𝐹̅ (𝑟̅ ) over a curve C in a simply connected domain D
in space, is defined by:
∫ 𝐹̅ (𝑟̅ ). 𝑑𝑟̅ = ∫ (𝐹1 𝑑𝑥 + 𝐹2 𝑑𝑦 + 𝐹3 𝑑𝑧)

𝐶 𝐶
The line integral is independent of path in D. 𝐹1 , 𝐹2 , and 𝐹3 are continuous, and have
continuous first partial derivatives in D. 𝐶 ′ is a closed curve in D.
Which one of the following is NOT ALWAYS true in domain D?

̅ × 𝐹̅ = 0̅
(A) ∇ ̅. 𝐹̅ = 0
(B) ∇
(C) ∮𝐶 ′ 𝐹̅ (𝑟̅ ). 𝑑𝑟̅ = 0 (D) 𝐹̅ × 𝐹̅ = 0̅
Q.4 Which one of the following is the integrating factor (IF) for the differential equation,
𝑑𝑦
(cos 2 𝑥) + 𝑦 = cos 𝑥 ?
𝑑𝑥
(A) 𝑒 tan 𝑥 (B) 𝑒 cos 𝑥

(C) 𝑒 − tan 𝑥 (D) 𝑒 sin 𝑥
PE 1/17
Q.5 A phase diagram of a black oil is shown in the figure (Y is the critical point).
Match the following:

(P) Curve XY (I) Dew point curve
(Q) Curve YZ (II) Single phase liquid
(R) Phase I (III) Bubble point curve
(S) Phase II (IV) Single phase gas
(A) P-I, Q-III, R-II, S-IV (B) P-III, Q-I, R-II, S-IV
(C) P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II (D) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV
Q.6 Match the following chemicals to their respective oilfield applications:

(P) Hydrate inhibitor (I) Formaldehyde
(Q) Well stimulation (II) Xanthan gum
(R) Drilling fluid biocide (III) Methanol
(S) Viscosifier (IV) Hydrochloric acid
(A) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I (B) P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II
(C) P-I, Q-III R-IV, S-II (D) P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II
PE 2/17
Q.7 The CH4-hydrate equilibrium curve (dashed) and CO2-hydrate equilibrium curve (solid) on
a pressure-temperature plane above 0°C are shown in the figure. The two curves divide the
plane in four non-overlapping regions. In which region are CO2-hydrates stable and CH4-
hydrates unstable?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV
Q.8 Plot of ratio of pressure to gas compressibility factor (P/Z) vs. cumulative gas production
(Gp) for a gas reservoir (represented by solid curve in the figure) was shown to a reservoir
engineering student.
P/Z
Gp
The student made the following statements:
(I) A water aquifer is attached to this gas reservoir.
(II) P/Z vs. Gp curve must always be a straight line for water encroachment in a gas
reservoir.
(III) The ultimate gas recovery is diminished due to water encroachment.
Which of the above statements are TRUE?

(A) Only I and II (B) Only II and III (C) Only I and III (D) I, II, and III
Q.9 Waste water from oil industry consists of oil in free and emulsified forms. The oil in the
free form can be recovered by:
(A) Aerated lagoons
(B) Trickling filters
(C) Gravity separators
(D) Biological oxygen pond
PE 3/17
Q.10 A reservoir model consisting of two porous matrices M and N, separated by a fracture, is
shown in the figure. The matrices are strongly water-wet and are saturated with oil of
specific gravity 0.8. Water is injected only in the fracture at injection well A. If the
Reynolds number for the flow in the fracture conduit is assumed to be less than unity, which
one of the following force will dominate oil recovery from the porous matrix M during the
water-flood operation?
Matrix M
Injection well A Production well B
Matrix N
Fracture
(A) Capillary force (B) Gravity force

(C) Viscous force (D) Inertial force
Q.11 A fractional flow curve is given for a core for which the irreducible water saturation is 0.2
and the residual oil saturation is 0.3. The initial water saturation in the core is 0.3. If
Welge’s method is applied to find the breakthrough saturation and fraction flow of water at
breakthrough, which point should be used in the figure to draw a tangent line to the
fractional flow curve.
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV
PE 4/17
Q.12 Which one of the following curves represents behavior of oil phase viscosity as a function
of pressure in the reservoir (where, Pb is the bubble point pressure of oil)?
(A) Curve I (B) Curve II (C) Curve III (D) Curve IV
Q.13 Pick out the INCORRECT statement.

(A) Flash point is always lower than fire point.
(B) Pour point of lube oil can be reduced by removing the wax from it.
(C) Fracturing is a well stimulation technique.
(D) Coal bed methane typically contains more than 60% CO2.
Q.14 Which one of the following phenomena encountered during flooding is desirable for
increasing oil recovery from a reservoir?
(A) Viscous fingering (B) Formation damage
(C) Increase in mobility ratio (D) Decrease in capillary pressure
Q.15 CO2 foams are used for enhanced oil recovery due to which of the following reasons?
(I) It can be used for CO2 sequestration
(II) CO2 can exist in the form of a dense fluid at reservoir conditions
(III) CO2 can convert to hydrocarbon at the reservoir temperature and pressure
(IV) Solubility of CO2 in oil is higher compared to gases like N2
(A) Only I, II, and III (B) Only I, II, and IV

(C) Only II, III, and IV (D) Only I, III, and IV
PE 5/17
Q.16 Which one of the following is FALSE about a typical offshore deepwater oil spill?
(A) Using boom boats to prevent spilled oil from spreading
(B) Allowing the spill to reach the shore before clearing
(C) Burning of spilled oil
(D) Using a skimmer to collect the oil
Q.17 Which one of these methods is NOT commonly used to deal with the problem of soil
contamination by oil spillage?
(A) Biodegradation
(B) Leaching out the oil
(C) Soil recycling
(D) Using rain water to wash the contaminants
Q.18 The factor on which the selection of an offshore platform for the reservoir does NOT
depend:
(A) Water depth
(B) Reservoir fluid properties
(C) Sea bed conditions
(D) Best case weather forecast
Q.19 Which one of the following options is correct about the effects of steam stimulation in
increasing the oil production rate?
(I) Reduces the oil viscosity
(II) Increases the formation damage
(III) Reduces the interfacial tension
(IV) Increases the oil viscosity
(A) Only I and II
(B) Only II and III
(C) Only III and IV
(D) Only I and III
Q.20 Which one of the following is INCORRECT about oil based drilling muds?
(A) Good rheological properties at higher temperatures (as high as 250oC)
(B) Effective against corrosion
(C) Detection of gas kick is difficult
(D) Less inhibitive than water based muds
Q.21 Assume that viscous, gravity, and capillary are the only dominant forces for fluid flow in a
given reservoir, a cone formed around the perforation zone will break into the well, when
(A) capillary forces are more than viscous and gravity forces.
(B) viscous forces are more than gravity forces.
(C) gravity forces are more than capillary forces.
(D) viscous and gravity forces are equal.
PE 6/17
Q.22 Two complex numbers, 𝑘̃ and 𝜀̃ are related as follows:
𝜀̃
𝑘̃ =
𝑖𝜔
2𝜋
where, 𝑖 = √−1 and 𝜔 is a scalar. Given principal argument of 𝜀̃, Arg(𝜀̃) = − 3 , the
principal argument of 𝑘̃, Arg(𝑘̃) =______________. (rounded-off to two decimal places.
Use 𝜋 = 3.14)
Q.23 A cylindrical sandstone core, 7.5 cm long and 3.5 cm diameter has grain density of
3 g/cm3. If the mass of the dry core is 200 g, the porosity of the core is __________%.
(rounded-off to two decimal places)
Q.24 In an oil reservoir the current average pressure is below bubble point pressure of the oil.
The current oil production rate is 103 m3/day and total gas production rate is 105 m3/day at
STP conditions (25°C and 1 atm). The formation volume factor of the oil is
m3 at reservoir pressure m3 at reservoir pressure
1.2 and that of gas is 0.01 . The
m3 at STP m3 at STP
m3 of gas at STP
dissolved gas oil ratio is 10 of oil.
m3 of oil at STP
The gas flow rate at bottom-hole conditions is ______× 102 m3 per day. (rounded-off to
two decimal places)
Q.25 Exponential decline curve is to be used to estimate the oil reserves of a well. The current
oil production rate is 1000 m3 per day and yearly decline rate is 6% per year. If the
minimum oil flow rate economically sustainable for the well is 1 m3 per day, the reserves
(economically producible) associated with the well are _____ × 106 m3. (rounded-off to
two decimal places. Use 1 year = 365 days)
PE 7/17
Q.26 The probability density for three binomial distributions (D1, D2, and D3) is plotted against
number of successful trials in the given figure.
D1
0.15
D2
D3
Probability density
0.1
0.05
0
0 10 20 30
Number of successful trials
Each of the plotted distributions corresponds to a unique pair of (n, p) values, where, n is
the number of trials and p is the probability of success in a trial. Three sets of (n, p) values
are provided in the table.
Set (n, p)
I (60, 0.3)
II (60, 0.2)
III (24, 0.5)
Pick the correct match between the (n, p) set and the plotted distribution.
(A) Set I – D1, Set II – D2, Set III – D3

(B) Set I – D3, Set II – D1, Set III – D2
(C) Set I – D2, Set II – D3, Set III – D1
(D) Set I – D2, Set II – D1, Set III – D3
Q.27 Which of the following statements are true about Natural Gas Hydrates?
Natural gas hydrates:

(I) are formed under low temperature and high pressure.
(II) can store approximately 160 m3 of gas per m3 of hydrate at 25 oC and 1 atm.
(III) formation is an endothermic process.
(IV) are potential sources of methane.
(A) Only II, III & IV (B) Only I, II & III

(C) Only I, II & IV (D) Only I, III & IV
PE 8/17
Q.28 Pwf (bottom-hole well flowing pressure) vs. Q (flow rate) plots show the inflow
performance relation (IPR) and vertical lift performance (VLP) curves. Figure I shows
VLP curves for two well head pressures Phw1 and Phw2. Figure II shows VLP curves for two
well diameters D1 and D2. Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) Phw1 > Phw2 and D1 < D2 (B) Phw1 > Phw2 and D1 > D2
(C) Phw1 < Phw2 and D1 < D2 (D) Phw1 < Phw2 and D1 > D2
Q.29 Match the following:

(P) Weber Number (I) Ratio of inertial force to viscous force
(Q) Froude Number (II) Ratio of convective heat transfer to conductive heat
transfer
(R) Reynolds number (III) Ratio of inertial force to interfacial force
(S) Nusselt number (IV) Ratio of inertial force to gravitational force
(A) P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II (B) P-III, Q-II, R-I, S-IV
(C) P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I (D) P-IV, Q-III, R-I, S-II
Q.30 A dilute mixture of coal and sand particles, both of diameter 100 µm and densities
1800 kg/m3 and 2600 kg/m3, respectively, is to be classified by elutriation technique using
water (density 1000 kg/m3, viscosity 10-3 Pa.s). Assuming Stokes law is applicable, the
minimum settling velocity of the particles in the mixture is (g = 9.81 m/s2):
(A) 4.36 × 10-3 m/s (B) 8.72 × 10-3 m/s

(C) 2.18 × 10-3 m/s (D) 1.29 × 10-3 m/s
PE 9/17
Q.31 Oil flow rate and flowing bottom-hole pressure (FBHP) recorded with time during a multi-
rate well test are shown.
Let k is the reservoir permeability, h is the formation thickness and µ is the viscosity of the
oil. ∆𝑃𝐷 (𝑡) is constant-rate dimensionless pressure drop as a function of time. The total
pressure drop till time, t, where t > t1, will be:
𝑞1 𝜇 (𝑞2 −𝑞1 )𝜇
(A) ∆𝑃𝐷 (𝑡) + ∆𝑃𝐷 (𝑡 − 𝑡1 )
2𝜋𝑘ℎ 2𝜋𝑘ℎ
𝑞1 𝜇 (𝑞2 −𝑞1 )𝜇
(B) ∆𝑃𝐷 (𝑡1 ) + ∆𝑃𝐷 (𝑡 − 𝑡1 )
𝑞1 𝜇 𝑞2 𝜇
(C) ∆𝑃𝐷 (𝑡) + ∆𝑃𝐷 (𝑡 − 𝑡1 )
𝑞1 𝜇 𝑞2 𝜇
(D) ∆𝑃𝐷 (𝑡1 ) + ∆𝑃𝐷 (𝑡)
Q.32 Which one of the following options presents the correct combination?
(P) Reservoir limit test (I) Communication between wells
(Q) Modified isochronal test (II) Ideally zero flowing bottom hole pressure
(R) Interference test (III) Extended drawdown test
(S) Absolute open flow potential (IV) Drawdown and build-up test of equal duration
(A) P-II, Q-III, R-I, S-IV (B) P-IV, Q-I, R-III, S-II
(C) P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II (D) P-I, Q-III, R-IV, S-II
PE 10/17
Q.33 Which one of the following options presents the correct combination?
(P) Roller Cone bits (I) Long and widely spaced teeth
(Q) PDC bits (II) Journal (Pin) angle
(R) Soft formation (III) Short and wider teeth
(S) Hard formation (IV) Size of the cutting
(T) Back rake angle (V) 1400oC and 6x105 psi
(A) P-II, Q-V, R-I, S-III, T-IV

(B) P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II, T-V
(C) P-III, Q-II, R-IV, S-I, T-V
(D) P-II, Q-V, R-III, S-I, T-IV
Q.34 Primary and secondary indicators of kick in a well where the indicators are:
1) flow rate increase,
2) gas, oil or water-cut muds,
3) pit volume increase,
4) flowing well with mud pump shut-off,
5) reduction in drill-pipe weight,
6) drilling break.
Which one of the following presents the correct combination?

(A) Primary (1, 3, 5) and Secondary (2, 4, 6)
(B) Primary (1, 2, 3) and Secondary (4, 5, 6)
(C) Primary (1, 2, 4) and Secondary (3, 5, 6)
(D) Primary (1, 3, 4) and Secondary (2, 5, 6)
PE 11/17
Q.35 Relative permeability curve for the two rock types (X: solid line and Y: dashed line) are
shown in the diagram, where Sw is the fractional water saturation. Which one of the
following statements is correct about wettability and consolidated nature of the two rock
types?
(A) X is more consolidated and mixed wet, Y is less consolidated and water wet
(B) X is more consolidated and water wet, Y is less consolidated and mixed wet
(C) X is less consolidated and mixed wet, Y is more consolidated and water wet
(D) X is less consolidated and water wet, Y is more consolidated and mixed wet
Q.36 Which one of the following options presents correct combinations of exploration methods
with their respective frequency of operation?
(P) Seismic (I) ~106 Hz
(Q) Sonic (II) ~102 Hz
(R) Controlled Source EM (III) ~104 Hz
(S) Ultrasonic (IV) ~1 Hz
(A) P-IV, Q-II, R-I, S-III

(B) P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I
(C) P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III
(D) P-IV, Q-I, R-II, S-III
PE 12/17
Q.37 Which one of the following options presents the correct combinations?
(P) Borisov’s (I) Critical rate correlation in vertical wells with coning
(Q) Schols’ (II) Horizontal well performance relation
(R) Efros’ (III) Vertical well performance relation
(S) Wiggins’ (IV) Critical rate correlation in horizontal wells with coning
(A) P-II, Q-IV, R-I, S-III

(B) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I
(C) P-IV, Q-II, R-III, S-I
(D) P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III
Q.38 Which one of the following options represents the typical sequence of applying cut-offs for
pay zone identification in a conventional reservoir?
(A) porosity, saturation, shale
(B) porosity, permeability, saturation
(C) shale, porosity, saturation
(D) shale, porosity, permeability
Q.39 Which one of the following options represents the correct sequence of arrival of acoustic
wave energy recorded in a sonic log?
(A) shear, surface, compressional
(B) compressional, shear, surface
(C) surface, shear, compressional
(D) compressional, surface, shear
Q.40 The variation of the amount of salt in a tank with time is given by,
𝑑𝑥
+ 0.025𝑥 = 20 ,
𝑑𝑡
where, 𝑥 is the amount of salt in kg and 𝑡 is the time in minutes. Given that there is no salt
in the tank initially, the time at which the amount of salt increases to 200 kg is __________
minutes. (rounded-off to two decimal places)
Q.41 Solve the given differential equation using the 2nd order Runge-Kutta (RK2) method:
𝑑𝑦
= 𝑡 − √𝑦 ; Initial condition: 𝑦(𝑡 = 0) = 4
𝑑𝑡
Use the following form of RK2 method with an integration step-size, ℎ = 0.5:
𝑘1 = 𝑓(𝑡𝑖 , 𝑦𝑖 ) ; 𝑘2 = 𝑓(𝑡𝑖 + 0.5ℎ, 𝑦𝑖 + 0.5𝑘1 ℎ)

𝑦𝑖+1 = 𝑦𝑖 + 𝑘2 ℎ
The value of 𝑦(𝑡 = 0.5) =__________________. (rounded-off to two decimal places)
PE 13/17
Q.42 A box contains 100 balls of same size, of which, 25 are black and 75 are white. Out of 25
black balls, 5 have a red dot. A trial consists of randomly picking a ball and putting it back
in the same box, i.e., sampling is done with replacement. Two such trials are done.
The conditional probability that no black ball with a red dot is picked given that at least
one black ball is picked, is __________. (in fraction rounded-off to two decimal places)
Q.43 A cylindrical pipeline of length 30 km is transporting naphtha. Pressure sensors are

attached along pipe length to detect leaks. Under steady-state, leak-free operation, there is a
linear pressure drop along the length (z) of the pipeline. If a leak occurs, the pressure
profile develops a kink at the leak point 𝑧leak .
Assume that there is only one leak-point (4 km < 𝑧leak < 27 km) and a new steady-state is
reached. The steady-state pressure measurements at four locations along the pipe-length are
provided in the table. The location of the leak-point using the gradient intersection method
is _______________km. (rounded-off to two decimal places)
𝑧 (km) Pressure
0 𝑝0
4 0.84𝑝0
27 0.31𝑝0
30 0.25𝑝0
PE 14/17
Q.44 A dry core was subjected to the mercury injection test in the laboratory. Following are the
related details:
Average formation porosity = 0.2
Formation volume factor, BO = 1.2 reservoir-bbl/STB
Oil APIo = 32, Specific gravity of water = 1.1
Hydrostatic gradient = 0.433 psi/ft
(𝜎𝑂𝑊 cos 𝜃)res = 26 dyne/cm, where 𝜎𝑂𝑊 is the oil-water interfacial tension and 𝜃 is the
contact angle
(𝜎𝐴𝑀 cos 𝜃)lab = 367 dyne/cm, where 𝜎𝐴𝑀 is air- mercury interfacial tension and 𝜃 is the
contact angle
Average drainage area = 80 acres
(1 acre-ft = 7758 bbl)
The Table shows the laboratory data for capillary pressure at different mercury saturations.
Pc (psia) Mercury saturation (SHg)

10 0.0075
17 0.25
30 0.50
108 0.70
2000 0.85
2𝜎 cos 𝜃
𝑃𝑐 = and the average water saturation (𝑆𝑊 ) for the productive column is 0.25. The
𝑟
Original Oil in Place (OOIP) in the productive column where 𝑆𝑊 ≤ 0.5 is ___________
MMSTB. (rounded-off to one decimal place)
Q.45 A well is drilled with water based mud. The water saturation in the completely flushed
zone (no formation fluid residual) is given by,
𝑎 𝑅𝑚𝑓 1/2
𝑆𝑥𝑜 = ( 2 × ) ,
ϕ 𝑅𝑥𝑜
where, Rmf and Rxo are the mud filtrate resistivity and flushed zone resistivity, respectively.
Use, a = 1.0 and Rxo = 25 Rmf.
The calculated porosity (ϕ) of the formation is ______. (in fraction rounded-off to two
decimal places)
Q.46 An oil well is tested at a flow rate (Q) of 50 BOPD. The bottom hole flowing pressure (Pwf)
is 500 psia. The shut-in pressure is 1000 psia. If Pwf is lowered to 300 psia and assuming
the Vogel’s correlation holds, the estimated flow rate in the oil well is ______BOPD
(rounded-off to two decimal places). The Vogel’s correlation is:
𝑄 𝑃𝑤𝑓 𝑃𝑤𝑓 2
= 1 − 0.2 ( ) − 0.8 ( )
𝑄𝑚𝑎𝑥 𝑃̅ 𝑃̅
PE 15/17
Q.47 Using Miller, Dyes and Hutchinson (MDH) method, the skin factor of an oil well is found
to be 𝑠 = – 3.5.
The reservoir and fluid properties are:

Formation porosity is 0.20
Total compressibility is 2.5 × 10-5 psia-1
Oil viscosity is 1.5 cP
Wellbore radius is 0.5 ft
Flowing bottom hole pressure at Δt = 0 is 2830 psia
Shut in pressure at Δt = 1 hr (PΔt=1hr) is 3000 psia
Slope of middle time region (MTR) line in MDH plot is 190 psia/cycle.
The permeability of the reservoir is __________mD. (rounded-off to two decimal places)
Q.48 An oil well (producing under expansion drive only) in a reservoir is subjected to two
pressure build-up tests. The average formation thickness of the reservoir is 13 ft, the total
compressibility is 1×10-5 psia-1, and porosity is 0.2. The average formation volume factor
of oil is 1.3 reservoir-bbl/STB. Average reservoir pressure during the first test and the
second test was found to be 3500 psia and 3200 psia, respectively.
If the oil produced between the two pressure build-up tests in 180 days is 250 STB/day, the
area of the reservoir is __________acres. (rounded-off to two decimal places)
(Use: 1 acre = 43560 ft2, 1 bbl = 5.615 ft3)
Q.49 A well in a very large reservoir has a wellbore radius of 10 cm. The sandstone, with a
porosity of 0.25 and 12% (by grain volume) calcite (CaCO3), is to be acidized with a
preflush (HCl solution) so as to dissolve all the calcite upto a distance of 1 m from the
wellbore. 1 m3 of preflush is able to dissolve 0.082 m3 CaCO3. Assume that the reaction
between HCl and CaCO3 is instantaneous.
The minimum preflush volume required per meter of the formation thickness is
______________m3. (rounded-off to two decimal places)
Q.50 At a particular temperature, the vapour pressure of benzene and toluene are 4 atm and
1.2 atm, respectively. The composition of the liquid at equilibrium is 0.5 moles of benzene
and 0.5 moles of toluene. Assuming ideal gas and ideal solution, the equilibrium vapour
phase mole fraction of benzene is ________ . (rounded-off to two decimal places)
Q.51 Saturated steam at 0.7 atm and 90°C condenses on a vertical pipe of 2 cm outside diameter
and 40 cm length. The average condensation heat transfer coefficient on the tube is
12000 W/m2K. The outside surface temperature of the pipe is maintained constant at 85°C.
The enthalpy values for saturated steam and condensate are 2660 kJ/kg and 375 kJ/kg,
respectively. The rate of steam condensation is ____ kg/h. (rounded-off to two decimal
places)
PE 16/17
Q.52 Oil is being transported between two reservoirs with the help of three parallel pipes at
steady state. The diameters of these pipes are 2 cm, 3 cm and 4 cm, respectively. The pipes
are equal in length and the flow is laminar. The discharge through the 4 cm diameter pipe is
50 liters/s. The discharge through the 2 cm diameter pipe is _____ liters/s. (rounded-off to
two decimal places)
Q.53 A driller finds an oil reservoir with a gas cap starting at a depth of 1000 m from the surface.
The gas-oil contact was found at 1100 m depth and water-oil contact was found at 1300 m
depth. The water pressure in the aquifer below the oil zone varies with depth from the
surface (h, in meters) as, P = h×104 Pa. The density of the oil is 900 kg/m3 and that of the
gas is 5 kg/m3 at the reservoir condition. The minimum density of the mud needed to stop
the gas kick when the driller reaches at the top of the gas cap is _____kg/m 3. (rounded-off
to two decimal places. Use g = 9.81 m/s2)
Q.54 The viscosity, µ (in Pa.s) of a power law fluid as a function of shear rate, 𝛾̇ (in s-1) is given
by the following relation:
1
𝜇 = |𝛾̇ |
2
This power law fluid lies between two infinitely large horizontal parallel plates separated
by a distance (h) of 10-3 m. The top plate is moving horizontally at a velocity (v) of
10-3 m/s and the bottom plate is held stationary. Assuming laminar flow and neglecting
gravity, the absolute value of steady-state shear stress acting on the bottom plate
is ______ Pa. (rounded-off to two decimal places)
Q.55 A heterogeneous rectangular rock of cross-sectional area 1 m2 perpendicular to the flow is

being flooded by water to measure the effective permeability from cross-section AA’ to
cross-section CC’.
2m B 3m C
A
1m 1 mD 3 mD Flow direction
1m 2 mD 4 mD
A’ B’ C’
The pressure at the cross-sections AA’, BB’, and CC’ is 2 bar, 1.5 bar, and 1 bar,
respectively. The permeability in mili-Darcy and lengths AB and BC in meters are given in
the figure. The effective permeability of the rock from AA’ to CC’ is ______mD.
(rounded-off to two decimal places)

PE 17/17
Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks
1 MCQ GA A 1
2 MCQ GA C 1
3 MCQ GA B 1
4 MCQ GA B 1
5 MCQ GA B 1
6 MCQ GA A 2
7 MCQ GA D 2
8 MCQ GA D 2
9 MCQ GA B 2
10 MCQ GA C 2
1 MCQ PE B 1
2 MCQ PE C 1
3 MCQ PE B 1
4 MCQ PE A 1
5 MCQ PE B 1
6 MCQ PE D 1
7 MCQ PE B 1
8 MCQ PE C 1
9 MCQ PE C 1
10 MCQ PE A 1
11 MCQ PE D 1
12 MCQ PE D 1
13 MCQ PE D 1
14 MCQ PE D 1
15 MCQ PE B 1
16 MCQ PE B 1
17 MCQ PE D 1
18 MCQ PE D 1
19 MCQ PE D 1
20 MCQ PE D 1
21 MCQ PE B 1
22 NAT PE 2.50 to 2.70 1
23 NAT PE 7.25 to 7.75 1
24 NAT PE 8.90 to 9.10 1
25 NAT PE 5.80 to 6.20 1
26 MCQ PE B 2
27 MCQ PE C 2
28 MCQ PE A 2
29 MCQ PE A 2
30 MCQ PE A 2
31 MCQ PE A 2
32 MCQ PE C 2
33 MCQ PE A 2
34 MCQ PE D 2
35 MCQ PE C 2
36 MCQ PE B 2
37 MCQ PE D 2
38 MCQ PE C 2
39 MCQ PE B 2
40 NAT PE 10.50 to 12.50 2
41 NAT PE 3.12 to 3.26 2
42 NAT PE 0.76 to 0.80 2
43 NAT PE 7.20 to 7.80 2
44 NAT PE 105.00 to 109.00 2
45 NAT PE 0.19 to 0.21 2
46 NAT PE 61.00 to 63.00 2
47 NAT PE 25.00 to 29.00 2
48 NAT PE 960.00 to 970.00 2
49 NAT PE 4.40 to 5.50 2
50 NAT PE 0.72 to 0.80 2
51 NAT PE 2.10 to 2.60 2
52 NAT PE 3.00 to 3.20 2
53 NAT PE 1115.00 to 1160.00 2
54 NAT PE 0.49 to 0.51 2
55 NAT PE 2.00 to 2.50 2
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017
Question Paper Name: Petroleum Engineering 5th Feb 2017

Subject Name:
Duration: 180
Total Marks: 100
Question Number : 1 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0
Question Number : 3 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33


















Q. No. Type Section Key Marks
1 NAT PE 3.70 to 3.79 1
2 NAT PE 31.5 to 32.5 1
3 MCQ PE D 1
4 MCQ PE C 1
5 MCQ PE D 1
6 MCQ PE B 1
7 MCQ PE C 1
8 MCQ PE B 1
9 MCQ PE B 1
10 NAT PE 17.00 to 18.00 1
11 MCQ PE C 1
12 MCQ PE A 1
13 MCQ PE B 1
14 MCQ PE C 1
15 MCQ PE B 1
16 MCQ PE D 1
17 MCQ PE A 1
18 MCQ PE D 1
19 NAT PE 61.0 to 63.0 1
20 MCQ PE A 1
21 MCQ PE C 1
22 MCQ PE D 1
23 MCQ PE D 1
24 MCQ PE C 1
25 MCQ PE A or D 1
26 NAT PE -2.05 to -1.95 2
27 NAT PE 0.720 to 0.730 2
28 NAT PE 10.5 to 11.5 2
29 NAT PE 72.0 to 75.0 2
30 NAT PE 999.0 to 1001.0 2
31 NAT PE 1080.0 to 1095.0 2
32 NAT PE 1990 to 2010 2
33 NAT PE 7.5 to 8.2 2
34 NAT PE 14.20 to 14.90 2
35 MCQ PE C 2
36 NAT PE 101.00 to 104.00 2
37 NAT PE 3.50 to 3.80 2
38 MCQ PE C 2
39 NAT PE 140.0 to 150.0 2
40 MCQ PE C 2
41 MCQ PE B 2
42 MCQ PE B 2
43 MCQ PE D 2
44 NAT PE 60.0 to 65.0 2
45 NAT PE 13.5 to 15.5 2
46 MCQ PE A 2
47 NAT PE 25.00 to 28.00 2
48 NAT PE 38200.0 to 38500.0 2
49 NAT PE 0.55 to 0.65 2
50 NAT PE 50.0 to 54.0 2
51 MCQ PE C 2
52 MCQ PE B 2
53 MCQ PE C 2
54 MCQ PE A 2
55 MCQ PE C 2
56 MCQ GA C 1
57 MCQ GA A 1
58 MCQ GA B 1
59 MCQ GA A 1
60 MCQ GA D 1
61 MCQ GA A 2
62 MCQ GA D 2
63 MCQ GA C 2
64 MCQ GA C 2
65 MCQ GA B 2
GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-4

Q.1 An apple costs Rs. 10. An onion costs Rs. 8.
Select the most suitable sentence with respect to grammar and usage.
(A) The price of an apple is greater than an onion.
(B) The price of an apple is more than onion.
(C) The price of an apple is greater than that of an onion.
(D) Apples are more costlier than onions.
Q.2 The Buddha said, “Holding on to anger is like grasping a hot coal with the intent of throwing it at
someone else; you are the one who gets burnt.”
Select the word below which is closest in meaning to the word underlined above.
(A) burning (B) igniting (C) clutching (D) flinging
Q.3 M has a son Q and a daughter R. He has no other children. E is the mother of P and daughter-in-
law of M. How is P related to M?
(A) P is the son-in-law of M. (B) P is the grandchild of M.
(C) P is the daughter-in law of M. (D) P is the grandfather of M.
Q.4 The number that least fits this set: (324, 441, 97 and 64) is ________.
(A) 324 (B) 441 (C) 97 (D) 64
Q.5 It takes 10 s and 15 s, respectively, for two trains travelling at different constant speeds to
completely pass a telegraph post. The length of the first train is 120 m and that of the second train is
150 m. The magnitude of the difference in the speeds of the two trains (in m/s) is ____________.
(A) 2.0 (B) 10.0 (C) 12.0 (D) 22.0
1/3
GATE 2016 General Ap
ptitude - GA Set-44
Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry tw
wo marks each.
Q.6 Thee velocity V of a vehiclle along a sttraight line is
i measured in m/s and plotted as shown
s with
resppect to timee in seconds. At the endd of the 7 seconds,
s howw much willl the odomeeter reading
incrrease by (in m)?
(A)) 0 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Q.7 Thee overwhelm ming numberr of people innfected with h rabies in Inndia has beenn flagged by
y the World
Heaalth Organizzation as a soource of conncern. It is esstimated thatt inoculatingg 70% of petts and stray
doggs against rabbies can leadd to a significcant reductio
on in the num
mber of peoplle infected with
w rabies.
Whhich of the foollowing can be logicallyy inferred from

m the above sentences?
(A)) The numbber of people in India infeected with raabies is high.
(B)) The number of people in other partts of the world who are innfected with rabies is low
w.
(C)) Rabies cann be eradicated in India by

b vaccinatin
ng 70% of strray dogs.
(D)) Stray dogss are the main source of rabies

r worldw
wide.
Q.8 f is shared by four firstt year underggraduate stud

A flat dents. They agreed
a to alloow the oldestt of them to
enjoy some exttra space in the flat. Maanu is two months
m olderr than Sravann, who is thhree months
youunger than Trrideep. Pavaan is one monnth older than
n Sravan. Who
W should occcupy the ex xtra space in
the flat?
(A)) Manu (B) Sravan (C) Trideep (D) Pavan
Q.9 Finnd the area boounded by thhe lines 3x+22y=14, 2x-3y

y=5 in the firrst quadrant.
(A)) 14.95 (B) 15.25 (C) 15.70 (D) 20.35
2/33
GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-4
Q.10 A straight line is fit to a data set (ln x, y). This line intercepts the abscissa at ln x = 0.1 and has a
slope of −0.02. What is the value of y at x = 5 from the fit?
(A) −0.030 (B) −0.014 (C) 0.014 (D) 0.030
3/3
GATE 2016 Petroleum Engineering - PE

Q.1
 ex −1 
The value of lim   is equal to______.
x → 0  sin x 
Q.2 1
The function f ( x) = is
1+ x
(A) continuous and differentiable.

(B) continuous but not differentiable.
(C) not continuous but differentiable.
(D) not continuous and not differentiable.
Q.3 e
The value of the definite integral ∫1 (ln x) dx is equal to _____.
Q.4 1 3 
For a complex number Z = 
 + i  , the value of Z6 is
2 2 
1 3  1 3 
(A) −  + −
 2 2 i  (B) −1 (C)  i (D) 1
 2 
  2
Q.5
The Laplace transform of the function e −2t is
(A)
1
(B)
2
(C)
1
(D) e −2s
2s s s+2
Q.6 Which of the following is preferred fast neutron source in neutron logging?
(A) Americium-Beryllium
(B) Radium-Beryllium
(C) Deuterium-Tritium
(D) Thorium-Beryllium
1/11
Q.7 Using the gamma ray log given in the figure, the shaliness index for point S is __________%.
Q.8 Identify the logging device that is based on the concept of longitudinal and transverse relaxation
times.
(A) Thermal neutron decay

(B) Induced gamma ray spectroscopy
(C) Neutron
(D) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR)
Q.9 The three main stages of evolution of organic matter in sediments are Catagenesis (C), Diagenesis
(D) and Metagenesis (M). Their chronological order is
(A) D - C - M (B) C - D - M
(C) D - M - C (D) C - M - D
Q.10 For a kick off operation, a directional well has to be drilled for an arc-length of 2500 ft to achieve
an inclination of 50°.
The radius of curvature will be ______ ft.
Q.11 Which of the following is the MOST COMMON cause for a fishing job?
(A) Differential sticking (B) Use of oil based mud

(C) Lost circulation (D) Well kick
2/11
Q.12 The figure shows the producing gas oil ratio (GOR) behaviour with time for an oil reservoir under
primary production. At initial reservoir condition, Pb is the bubble point pressure of the crude oil.
PR(t) represents the reservoir pressure at time ‘t’. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) PR(t1) > Pb, PR(t2) > Pb (B) PR(t1) > Pb, PR(t2) < Pb
(C) PR(t1) < Pb, PR(t2) > Pb (D) PR(t1) < Pb, PR(t2) < Pb
Q.13 A core, with a length of 10 cm, breadth of 4 cm and width of 4 cm, weighs 282.4 g in its dry form.
The core is then saturated 100% with brine of density 1.1 g/cm3. The brine saturated core weighs
300 g.
The porosity of this core sample is ___________%.
Q.14 A hydraulic line of a subsurface safety valve has a fluid of specific gravity 1.2 to operate the valve.
The valve closing pressure is 1,200 psia and the recommended safety margin is 200 psia.
The maximum depth at which the valve can be positioned is____________ ft.
Q.15 A sucker rod pump unit is designated by C-228D-200-74. Here, ‘D’ represents
(A) double reduction gear box. (B) diameter of sucker rod.

(C) diameter of plunger. (D) stroke length.
Q.16 The three translational motions for a floating vessel are
(A) Roll-Pitch-Yaw. (B) Heave-Pitch-Sway.

(C) Surge-Sway-Heave. (D) Roll-Sway-Heave.
Q.17 Jack-up rigs are typically used for off-shore drilling when the water depth is in the range
(A) < 25 ft (B) 50 - 500 ft (C) 1000 - 2000 ft (D) > 2000 ft
3/11
Q.18 Interference tests can be used for
I. determining communication between two or more wells.

II. mature oil wells having skin damage.
III. determining permeability in tested wells.
IV. providing inputs for secondary and tertiary oil recovery methods
(A) only I and II (B) only I, II and IV (C) only II, III and IV (D) I, II, III and IV
Q.19 For an effective hydraulically-fractured well, the skin factor would GENERALLY be
(A) negative. (B) positive. (C) zero. (D) indeterminate.
Q.20 The maximum discharge limit of oil and grease in a marine coastal area as per Environmental
(protection) Rules, 1986 in India is
(A) 0.1 mg/L. (B) 20 mg/L. (C) 500 mg/L. (D) 4000 mg/L.
Q.21 Which of the following gases is NOT responsible for global warming?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Methane
(C) Water vapour (D) Nitrogen
Q.22 In an oil reservoir flooded with water, the volumetric sweep efficiency is 70%. The connate water
saturation in the reservoir is 0.4 and the residual oil saturation for the water flood is 0.3.
The overall efficiency of the reservoir is ____________ %.
Q.23 Identify the pair of CORRECT statements for surfactant-micellar-polymer flooding.
I. It reduces interfacial tension between crude oil and water.

II. It influences mobility ratio unfavorably.
III. It improves microscopic displacement efficiency.
IV. It increases isothermal compressibility of the crude oil.
(A) I & II (B) I & III
(C) III & IV (D) II & IV
4/11
Q.24 Gas hydrate forms at
(A) low pressure and low temperature conditions.

(B) low pressure and high temperature conditions.
(C) high pressure and low temperature conditions.
(D) high pressure and high temperature conditions.
Q.25 Production of coal bed methane (CBM) is based on
(A) distillation. (B) underground coal gasification.

(C) desorption. (D) coal liquefaction.

Q.26 The divergence of the velocity field V = ( x 2 + y ) iˆ + ( z − 2 xy ) ˆj + ( xy ) kˆ at (1, 1, 1) is
_________.
Q.27 For a function f(x), the values of the function in the interval [0, 1] are given in the table below.
x f(x)
0.0 1.0
0.2 1.24
0.4 1.56
0.6 1.96
0.8 2.44
1.0 3.0
1
The value of the integral ∫ f ( x) dx according to the trapezoidal rule is ________.

0
Q.28 A box has a total of ten identical sized balls. Seven of these balls are black in colour and the rest
three are red. Three balls are picked from the box one after another without replacement.
The probability that two of the balls are black and one is red is equal to ______.
5/11
Q.29 5 3
Consider the matrix, M =   . The normalized eigen-vector corresponding to the smallest
3 5
eigen-value of the matrix M is
 3  3  1   1 
     2   2 
(A)  2  (B)  2  (C)  (D) 
 1   −1   −1   1 
       
 2   2   2  2
Q.30 For the differential equation

d2y dy
x2 2
− 2x + 2 y =
0
dx dx
the general solution is
(A)=y C1 x + C2 e x =
(B) y C1 sin x + C2 cos x
=
(C) y C1 e x + C2 e − x =
(D) y C1 x 2 + C2 x
Q.31 The porosities of cubic and hexagonal packings, respectively, are
(A) 47.6% and 25.9%. (B) 39.5% and 29.5%.

(C) 47.6% and 39.5%. (D) 39.5% and 25.9%.
Q.32 In sonic logging, the sonic velocities in the formation and drilling mud are 50,000 ft/s and 500 ft/s,
respectively.
The critical angle is ____ radians.
Q.33 A section of a clean sandstone reservoir was logged and found to have a porosity of 10%. The
cementation (m) and saturation (n) exponents are equal to 2. The constant ‘a’ in Archie’s saturation
equation is 1. The formation water resistivity is 0.036 ohm-meter and the formation resistivity is 10
ohm-meter.
The water saturation in the reservoir is______%.
6/11
Q.34 Match the entries in Group 1 with those in Group 2
Group 1 Group 2
P. Blow Out Preventer I. Horizontal well problem
Q. Diamond bit II. Reverse ballooning
R. Tubing elongation III. Well control
S. Eccentricity IV. Crown
V. Ballooning
(A) P-III, Q-IV, R-V, S-II (B) P-V, Q-IV, R-I, S-II
(C) P-III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I (D) P-IV, Q-III, R-V, S-I
Q.35 One thousand sacks of cement are required for cementing a protection casing of setting depth of
12,000 ft (top float collar) and annular capacity of 0.40 ft3 per linear ft. The cementing truck has a
mixing capacity of 20 sacks per min. A 1.15 ft3/cycle capacity rig mud pump having an 18 inch
1
stroke and a 6 inch liner operating at 60 rpm with 90% efficiency is used for the cementing job.
2
The total cementing time is ______________ min.
Q.36 It is desired to increase the density of 200 bbl of 10 ppg mud to 12 ppg mud using API Barite of
density 35 ppg. The final volume is not limited.
[1 bbl = 42 gallons]
The amount of API Barite required is ________ lbm.
Q.37 Using the High Pressure High Temperature (HPHT) filter press data given below, the estimated
API filtration loss is _________ cm3.
Data given: Time (min) Filtrate volume (cm3)

1.0 6.5
7.5 14.0
Q.38 A Differential Liberation Experiment (DLE) and a Constant Composition Expansion (CCE)/Flash
liberation experiment were performed in a laboratory for a crude oil to find the formation volume
factor (Bo) and the dissolved gas oil ratio (Rs). The pressure stages for both experiments were kept
the same. At a pressure less than the bubble point pressure of the crude oil, which of the following
statements is TRUE?
(A) Bo (CCE) > Bo (DLE), Rs (CCE) > Rs (DLE)
(B) Bo (CCE) > Bo (DLE), Rs (CCE) < Rs (DLE)
(C) Bo (CCE) < Bo (DLE), Rs (CCE) > Rs (DLE)
(D) Bo (CCE) < Bo (DLE), Rs (CCE) < Rs (DLE)
7/11
Q.39 The production of a gas well was found to decline exponentially. The observed production rate on
1st January, 2014 was 0.6×1010 SCF/month and on 1st January, 2015, it was 0.4×1010 SCF/month.
The economic production limit for the well is estimated to be 0.002×1010 SCF/month.
The remaining reserves for the well as on 1st January, 2015 were ______ × 1010 SCF.
Q.40 A 30 ft thick gas reservoir has an area of 3,000 acres (1 acre = 43,560 ft2). The porosity of the
reservoir is 15% and the connate water saturation is 20%. Initial reservoir pressure and temperature
are 2,600 psig and 150°F (= 610°R), respectively. The compressibility factor (Z) at initial
conditions is 0.82. The gas in the reservoir can be produced till it attains the final pressure of
1,000 psig (Z = 0.88) under isothermal conditions.
The gas recovery factor is ______ %.
Q.41 Brine is used to measure the absolute permeability of a core plug. The rock sample is 4 cm long and
its cross-sectional area is 4 cm2. The brine has a viscosity of 2 cp and is flowing at a constant rate of
0.5 cm3/s under a 4 atm pressure differential.
The absolute permeability is _________________ Darcy.
Q.42 An oil well is drilled to cover a circular drainage area of radius 700 ft. The well is completed with a
7 inch production casing. Assume reservoir pressure of 1000 psig, permeability of 50 md, pay zone
thickness of 20 ft, oil viscosity of 3 cp and oil formation volume factor of 1.25 reservoir-bbl/STB.
For a flowing bottom-hole pressure of 500 psig, the primary production rate is _______ STB/day.
Q.43 An Electric Submersible Pump (ESP) is installed at a depth of 1000 ft from the surface. The ESP
gives 20 ft water head per stage. The wellhead requires 100 psi pressure.
Minimum number of stages of the ESP required for this well is _____.
Q.44 The schematic figure shows a two-phase horizontal separator designed for an oil and water system.
The oil specific gravity is 0.8. The oil pad height is ho.
The vertical distance between the oil and the water weirs (Δh) at steady state is
(A) 0.2 ho (B) 0.8 ho (C) 1.0 ho (D) 1.2 ho
8/11
Q.45 The vertical lift performance (VLP) and the inflow performance relationship (IPR) curves are used
to find the production operating conditions. If Pwf is the flowing bottom-hole pressure and Q is the
oil flow rate, select the CORRECT statement.
(A) Point 3 is absolute open flow, Curve 1 is VLP curve.

(B) Point 2 is at reservoir pressure, Curve 2 is VLP curve.
(C) Point 1 is operating condition, Curve 2 is IPR curve.
(D) Point 2 is absolute open flow, Curve 1 is IPR curve.
Q.46 A ground station has a pump, which delivers a head of 1,000 m water. It is pumping oil of specific
gravity 0.8 into a horizontal pipe of diameter 0.5 m with an average velocity of 2 m/s. The
efficiency of the pump is 80%. Density of water is 1,000 kg/m3 and acceleration due to gravity is
9.8 m/s2.
The power required to operate the pump is _______________ Mega Watts.
Q.47 For a floating vessel, match the CORRECT pairs from Group 1 and Group 2 among the options
given below. (B = Centre of buoyancy; G = Centre of gravity and M = Metacentre)
Group 1 Group 2
P. M is above G I. Stable equilibrium condition
Q. M is below G II. Critically stable condition
R. M is coinciding with G III. Unstable condition
S. B is below G
(A) P-II, Q-III, R-I and S-II (B) P-I, Q-III, R-II and S-I
(C) P-III, Q-I, R-II and S-III (D) P-I, Q-II, R-III and S-I
9/11
Q.48 Match the following
Group 1 Group 2
P. Master valve I. Drill stem testing tool
Q. Breather valve II. Heater-treater
R. Tester valve III. Christmas tree
S. Dump valve IV. Positive displacement motor
V. Storage tank
(A) P-III, Q-V, R-II and S-I (B) P-III, Q-V, R-I and S-IV
(C) P-II, Q-III, R-I and S-V (D) P-I, Q-III, R-II and S-IV
Q.49 A 50 ft thick reservoir has a porosity (φ) of 20% and a total isothermal compressibility ( Ct ) of
2.4×10-5 psi-1. The oil in the reservoir has a viscosity 0.75 cp and formation volume factor of
1.25 reservoir-bbl/STB. A pressure build-up test is carried out on a well of radius 0.50 ft in the
reservoir which was producing at 500 STB/day for 500 hours. The flowing bottom-hole pressure at
the start of build-up test (∆t = 0) was found to be 3,535 psia. The schematic of the pressure build-up
data is shown in the figure.
The skin factor is ____________________.
Q.50 During a production test in an oil reservoir, the oil production rate is 200 STB/day. The producing
gas oil ratio (GOR) is 800 SCF/STB and dissolved GOR is 200 SCF/STB. The formation volume
factor of gas is 0.01 ft3/SCF and the formation volume factor of oil is 1.2 reservoir-bbl/STB.
3
The down-hole GOR is __________ ft /reservoir-bbl.
10/11
Q.51 A productivity test was conducted on a single-phase crude oil well. The well is capable of
producing 100 STB/day at a flowing bottom-hole pressure of 1000 psig. The 24-hour shut-in static
pressure is found to be 1500 psig.
The maximum oil flow rate (Qmax) is_______ STB/day.
Q.52 An oil well of wellbore radius 0.5 ft is shown to develop a skin due to formation damage. The
damaged zone radius is 2.25 ft around the well. The formation permeability is 300 md and the
permeability of the damaged zone is 100 md.
The effective well bore radius for this well is___________ft.
Q.53 A producing well has a shut-in tubing pressure of 3,950 psig for crude oil of specific gravity 0.69.
[1 g/cm3 = 8.33 ppg]
The kill fluid density for a workover job at 11,600 ft (TVD) is ___________ ppg.
Q.54 For a water-flood operation in a one-dimensional reservoir, the following data are given.
Porosity, ϕ = 0.25; Cross-sectional area, A = 25,000 ft2; Horizontal distance between the vertical
production and injection well = 600 ft; Water injection rate, iw = 900 bbl/day; Slope of fractional
flow curve at shock front water saturation = 1.97; Water formation volume factor = 1.0 bbl/STB.
[ 1 bbl = 5.615 ft3 ]
The cumulative water volume injected at breakthrough is __________ × 105 bbl.
Q.55 A heavy oil reservoir is being flooded with a line drive (assume one-dimensional flooding). The
fractional flow of water is found to be 0.75 bbl/bbl at water saturation (SW) of 60%. A polymer
solution with twice the viscosity of water is used as displacing phase. Assume the relative
permeability curves for water flooding and polymer flooding are the same.
The fractional flow of polymer solution at a saturation of 60% is _________bbl/bbl.
11/11
Q. No Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ GA C 1
2 MCQ GA C 1
3 MCQ GA B 1
4 MCQ GA C;D 1
5 MCQ GA A 1
6 MCQ GA D 2
7 MCQ GA A 2
8 MCQ GA C 2
9 MCQ GA B 2
10 MCQ GA A 2
1 NAT PE 1.0 : 1.0 1
2 MCQ PE B 1
3 NAT PE 1.0 : 1.0 1
4 MCQ PE D 1
5 MCQ PE C 1
6 MCQ PE A 1
7 NAT PE 74.0 : 76.0 1
8 MCQ PE D 1
9 MCQ PE A 1
10 NAT PE 2860.0 : 2870.0 1
11 MCQ PE A 1
12 MCQ PE B 1
13 NAT PE 9.0 : 11.0 1
14 NAT PE 1850.0 : 2000.0 1
15 MCQ PE A 1
16 MCQ PE C 1
17 MCQ PE B 1
18 MCQ PE D 1
19 MCQ PE A 1
20 MCQ PE B 1
21 MCQ PE D 1
22 NAT PE 34.0 : 36.0 1
23 MCQ PE B 1
24 MCQ PE C 1
25 MCQ PE C 1
26 NAT PE 0.0 : 0.0 2
27 NAT PE 1.8 : 1.9 2
28 NAT PE 0.50 : 0.55 2
29 MCQ PE C 2
30 MCQ PE D 2
31 MCQ PE A;C 2
32 NAT PE 0.009 : 0.011 2
33 NAT PE 59.0 : 61.0 2
34 MCQ PE C 2
35 NAT PE 116.0 : 122.0 2
36 NAT PE 24000.0 : 27000.0 2
37 NAT PE 49.0 : 54.0 2
38 MCQ PE A 2
39 NAT PE 11.0 : 13.0 2
40 NAT PE 63.0 : 65.0 2
41 NAT PE 0.24 : 0.26 2
42 NAT PE 116.0 : 126.0 2
43 NAT PE 60.0 : 63.0 2
44 MCQ PE A 2
45 MCQ PE D 2
46 NAT PE 4.6 : 5.0 2
47 MCQ PE B 2
48 MCQ PE B 2
49 NAT PE 6.5 : 7.5 2
50 NAT PE 4.9 : 5.1 2
51 NAT PE 297.0 : 303.0 2
52 NAT PE 0.021 : 0.027 2
53 NAT PE 12.0 : 12.5 2
54 NAT PE 3.3 : 3.5 2
55 NAT PE 0.58 : 0.62 2

GATE PETROLEUM ENGINEERING QUESTION PAPER & KEY 2016-2018

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GATE PETROLEUM ENGINEERING QUESTION PAPER & KEY 2016-2018

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QUESTION PAPER & ANSWER KEY

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

(A) principle, principal (B) principal, principle

(A) cleanliness (B) punctuality (C) frugality (D) greatness

(A) 1 (B) 7 (C) 100 (D) 700

(A) 1125 (B) 2250 (C) 2924 (D) 4500

(A) 63 (B) 72 (C) 81 (D) 90

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

(A) -3 and 3 (B) -1 and 1 (C) -1 and 3 (D) 1 and 3

(A) 210 and 140 (B) 162.5 and 187.5

(A) 𝑦 = ||𝑥| + 1| − 2 (B) 𝑦 = ||𝑥| − 1| − 1

Q.10 Consider the following three statements:

(A) If (i) is true and (ii) is false, then (iii) is false.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

around 𝑥 = 0 (up to 4th order term) is:

∫ 𝐹̅ (𝑟̅ ). 𝑑𝑟̅ = ∫ (𝐹1 𝑑𝑥 + 𝐹2 𝑑𝑦 + 𝐹3 𝑑𝑧)

Which one of the following is NOT ALWAYS true in domain D?

(A) 𝑒 tan 𝑥 (B) 𝑒 cos 𝑥

Match the following:

Q.6 Match the following chemicals to their respective oilfield applications:

(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

Which of the above statements are TRUE?

(A) Capillary force (B) Gravity force

(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

(A) Curve I (B) Curve II (C) Curve III (D) Curve IV

Q.13 Pick out the INCORRECT statement.

(A) Only I, II, and III (B) Only I, II, and IV

Q.22 Two complex numbers, 𝑘̃ and 𝜀̃ are related as follows:

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

(A) Set I – D1, Set II – D2, Set III – D3

Natural gas hydrates:

(A) Only II, III & IV (B) Only I, II & III

Q.29 Match the following:

(A) 4.36 × 10-3 m/s (B) 8.72 × 10-3 m/s

(A) P-II, Q-V, R-I, S-III, T-IV

Which one of the following presents the correct combination?

(A) P-IV, Q-II, R-I, S-III

(A) P-II, Q-IV, R-I, S-III

𝑘1 = 𝑓(𝑡𝑖 , 𝑦𝑖 ) ; 𝑘2 = 𝑓(𝑡𝑖 + 0.5ℎ, 𝑦𝑖 + 0.5𝑘1 ℎ)

The value of 𝑦(𝑡 = 0.5) =__________________. (rounded-off to two decimal places)

Q.43 A cylindrical pipeline of length 30 km is transporting naphtha. Pressure sensors are

Pc (psia) Mercury saturation (SHg)

The reservoir and fluid properties are:

The permeability of the reservoir is __________mD. (rounded-off to two decimal places)

Q.55 A heterogeneous rectangular rock of cross-sectional area 1 m2 perpendicular to the flow is

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

Question Paper Name: Petroleum Engineering 5th Feb 2017

Question Number : 2 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 3 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 4 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 6 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 7 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 9 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 10 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 11 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 13 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 14 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 15 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 17 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 18 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33