INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTION

1. The executive officer in charge of each correctional institution is

a. Commissioner or director c. warden or superintendent
b. Correctional or custodial officer d. spy or security guard

2. Upon arrival and before admission, an inmate is given a “shakedown”. Shakedown means
a. Examination for contraband
b. Issuance of billeting materials
c. His commitment papers are delivered to the record clerk
d. Identification by fingerprinting and photographing an inmate

3. The period of quarantine should not be less than

a. 25 days c. ecological
b. 30 days d. 15 days

4. It is designed to help an inmate explore himself encourage himself in the past, present and
future.
a. Diorama c. ecological
b. Melodrama d. psychodrama

5. It serves as the cornerstone of rehabilitation

a. Religion c. education
b. Discipline d. recreational activities

6. Which law provides for the deduction of the offender’s preventive detention from the sentences
imposed by court?
a. R.A. 6039 c. R.A. 6975
b. R.A 8551 d. R.A. 6127

7. A registered nurse that is qualified for a lateral entry in jail management & penology will be
appointed to the rank of
a. J/Sr. inspector c. J/C inspector
b. J/inspector d. J/Superintendent

8. What part of the world was the first jail originated?

a. America c. England
b. Australia d. Europe

9. Who espoused the idea that criminality increases in proportion as one approaches the equator?
a. Montesquieu c. garofalo
 b. Ferri d. lombroso
10. Punishing criminal to serve as an example to others is a theory of
a. Self defense c. exemplary
b. Social defense d. equality

11. If jail officer III pedro de corto was appointed in 2000 with a monthly salary of 10,000 how much
is his longetivity pay in 2014?
a. 1500 c. 1,200
b. 1000 d. 1,100

12. What portion of a prisoner’s sentence is deducted if he voluntarily surrenders within 48 hours
after a conflagration or earthquake?
a. 2/5 c.1/2
b. 1/3 d. 1/5

13. Which of the following is the primary purpose of fencing the surrounding of a minimum security
institution?
a. To keep away the civilian population from entering the instruction
b. It is designed to facilitate open view of the surrounding
c. It is designed for agricultural purposes
d. It is designed to prevent escapes

14. It refers to any person detained for the violation of law or ordinance and has not yet been
convicted is called
a. Lockup prisoner c. detention prisoner
b. Sentence prisoner d. accused

15. It is the theory in crime causation which focuses on the criminal disorders chromosome
irregularity; and abnormal brain activity.
a. Psychological theory c. sociological theory
b. Biological theory d. political theory

16. A prison facility under the bureau of correction established by virtue of proclamation 1101
A. leyte regional prison c. san ramon prison and penal farm
b. iwahig farm & penal colony d. sablayan prison and penal farm

17. all female offenders with a maximum sentence of 3 years or more are committed to what
institution?

a. new bilibid prison c. correctional institution for women

b. provincial jail d. city jail
18. who espoused four (4) correctional principles as follows: security and sanitary structure; systematic
inspection; abolition of fees; and, a reformatory regimen?

a. Jeremy bentham c. james wilson

b.cesare beccaria d. john howard

19. this penal institution is known for its open correctional institution known to be the best and
sometime called “prison without walls”.
a. sablayan prison and penal farm c. iwahig prison and penal farm
b. san ramon prison and penal farm d. davao prison and penal farm

20. a person convicted and sentenced to serve for not more than six months is classified as
a. municipal prisoner c. city prisoner
b. insular prisoner d. colonist

21. what institution conducts training program for uniformed personnel of the bureau of jail
management and penology?
a. police national training institute c. local government academy
b. jail national training institute d. Philippine national police academy

22. it refers to the institutional record of an inmate that consists of the mittimus issued by the court
after conviction that includes other pertinent document of a case.
a. carpeta c. prison records
b. mittimus d. all of these

23. the target of behavior change effort for inmates is not criminality per se but the variety of problem
behavior surrounding criminal lifestyles. Which of the following is NOT a problem behavior?
a. ability to relate with others c. ability to logically and rationally think
b. ability to control anger and frustration d. deficiency in social skills

24. which of the following institutions is included under the corrections sub system?
a. irish system c. drug enforcement units
b. auburn system d. rehabilitation center for drug

25. this system was evaluated as more advantageous because prisoners can be more efficient and
increase output when they work in groups instead of working alone.
a. irish system c. maison de force
b. auburn system d. Pennsylvania system

26. it is a justification for punishment which claims that certain things can be done after the person has
served his sentence will not want to commit another offense.
a. deterrence c. rehabilitation
b. retribution d. incapacitation

27. what correctional institution houses accused persons awaiting trial?

a. detention cell c. jail
b. rehabilitation center d. stockade
28. it is one of the earliest devise for softening brutal severity of punishment through compromise with
the church.
a. parole c. benefit of clergy
b. amnesty d. public humiliation

29. the supreme court or lower court may authorize the release of an inmate in cases of
a. acquittal or grant of bail c. escape of inmate
b. order of the president d. orders of the director

30.which of the following theories assumes that people are law abiding but under great pressure they
will resort to crime and that disparity between goals and means provides that pressure?
a. strain theory c. differential association theory
b. social learning theory d. psychoanalytic theory

31. it is a training school type of correctional institution program, social case work and extensive use of
parole system.
a. borstal system c. Pennsylvania system
b. auburn system d. Elmira reformatory

32. under republic act 6975, it has the power to administer and control all the city and municipal jails in
the country.
a. department of justice
b. Philippine national police
c. bureau of correction
d. bureau of jail management

33. this system was advocated by the americans for the reason that it is cheaper to maintain.
a. auburn system c. borstal system
b. Pennsylvania system d. Elmira reformatory

34. he established agricultural colonies for delinquent boys and his reformation system is based on re
education rather than force.
a. domets of france c. sir walter crofton
b. zr Brockway d. manuel montesinos

35. considered as the highest income earner among the Philippine Correctional institution
a. iwahig prison and penal farm c. sablayan prison and penal farm
b. san ramon prison and penal farm d. davao prison and penal farm

36. a person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three (3) years is a
a. national or insular prisoner c. detention prisoner
b. municipal prisoner d. convicted prisoner

37. an institution that has the general supervision and control of all prisons and penal farms in the
country and charged of the safekeeping of all inmates.
a. bureau of corrections c. bureau of jail management& penology
b. Philippine national police d. national bureau of investigation
38. this group consists of chronic troublemakers but not as dangerous as the super security prisoners,
hence they are not allowed to work outside the institution.
a. minimum security prisoners c. bureau of corrections
b. maximum security prisoners d. bureau of jail management& penology

39. detention prisoners who are awaiting judgment or trial of their case are under the supervision and
control of
a. provincial jails c. bureau of corrections
b. national bilibid prisons d. bureau of jail management& penology

40. which of the following characteristics best described a super maximum security prisoner?
a. incorrigible c. sentenced to serve 20 years or more
b. physically invalid d. work outside the prison with guards

41. when can some prisoners have disciplinary authority over their co inmates?
a. when they show “macho” image
b. when they are of senior age over those to be supervised.
c. when their length of actual prison stay is longer than the others.
d. when they are of good behavior, more technically skilled and properly trained.

42. what correctional goal is referred to when the offender is rendered physically unable to commit a
crime in the future?
a. deterrence c. rehabilitation
b. incapacitation d. retribution

43. refers to a modern justification for punishment which concludes that society will be best protected if
criminal offenders are rehabilitated.
a. expiation c. retribution
b. protection d. reformation

44. provincial jails are under the operational supervision of what agency of the government?
a. bjmp c. bureau of correction
B. DOJ d. provincial government

45. introduced the silent system of correction at the auburn prison in 1831.
a. james Wilson c. Jeremy bentham
b. elam lynds d. john howards

46. in what instances the president of the philippines can authorize release of an inmate?
a. in parole and reprieve c. expiration of the sentence
b. in cases of executive clemency d. in cases of acquittal or grant of bail

47. the oldest existing correctional facility for national prisoners in the country having been established
In 1870.
a.sablayan prison and penal farm c. iwahig prison and penal farm
b. san ramon prison and penal farm d. davao prison and penal farm
48. when does punishment have a deterrent effect?
a. punishment disgraces the offender before the public
b. punishment is serious compared with the nature of offense
c. punishment reduces the capacity of an individual to commit a crime
d. punishment serves as an example to the public thus, discouraging the commission of
offense

49. it refers to commission of another crime during the service of sentences of penalty imposed for
another previous offense.
a. delinquency c. recidivism
b. concurso de delito d. quasi recidivism

50. all penal correction institution in the philippines is under the supervision and control of:
a. BJMP C. BUCOR
b. DILG D. DOJ

NON INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTION

51. after release from jail or prison, when does the parolee present himself to the Parole and Probation
Officer?
a. at least one (1) month from release
b. within three (3) months from release
c. at least three (3) weeks from release
d. within the period prescribed in the release document

52. a system established under the provisions of Presidential Decree 968.

A. Juvenile Justice C. Family welfare
B. Adult Probation D. Civilian Police

53. What agency of the government is responsible to administer Presidential Decree 968, or the
Probation Law?
A. Department of Justice C. Board of Pardon and Parole
B. Bureau of Correction D. Probation and Parole Administration

54. Statutory shortening of the maximum sentence that the prisoner served because of good behavior
called,
a. reprieve c. parole
b. probation d. good conduct time allowance

55. what should the court do if it finds that probation will depreciate the seriousness of the offense
committed?
a. deny the application c. approve the application
 b. reduce the penalty d. dismiss the case
56. The first American probation officer who developed several of the features them later became
characteristics of the problem system.
a. Rufus R. Cook c. Capt. L. H Savage
b. John Augustus d. Barbara Kaye

57. Popularly known as the father of the Philippine Probation System

a. Arcadio Lozada c. Cirilo Tradeo
b. Teodulo Natividad d. Vicente Venarao

58. Mr. A was convicted and sentenced for violation of the custom law or other laws within the of
jurisdiction the Bureau of Customs is Mr. A qualified for parole?
a. Yes c. No
b. Maybe d. None of these

59. A form of executive clemency that is authorized by the Chief Executive? It is an act of grace and the
recipient is not entitled to it as a matter of right.
a. amnesty c. conditional pardon
b. pardon d. absolute pardon

60. Which of the following is exercised by executive clemency with the concurrence of congress?
A. probation c. pardon
b. amnesty d. parole

61. Which of the following is the primary purpose of Adult Probation Law?
a. place the offender outside the police power of the state.
b. coordinate the workings of the agencies of the criminal justice system.
c. foster closer relationship between the offender and the judge who promulgated the
probation
d. promote the correction and the rehabilitation of an offender by providing him with
personalized community based program.

62. It is the total extinction of the criminal liability of the individual to whom it is granted without any
condition and restores his or her civil and political rights and remits the penalty imposed for which he or
she was convicted.
a. reprieve c. conditional pardon
b. pardon d. absolute pardon

63. it refers to the deferment of the implementation of the sentence to an interval time.
a. amnesty c. conditional pardon
b. pardon d. reprieve

64. Joey was convicted to a prison correctional. Will he qualify for probation?
a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) day
b. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one (1) day
c. No, his sentence is more than six (6) years and one (1) day
d. Yes, his sentence is less than six (6) years and one (1) day
65. Which of the following best described as the disposition under which a defendant, after conviction
sentence is released subject to conditions imposed by the court and to the supervision of a probation
officer?
a. parole c. probation
b. pardon d. amnesty

66. The following are circumstances that must be present before the petition for executive clemency will
be considered for approval by the president, EXCEPT
a. the prisoner is seventy (70) years old
b. prisoner who are over 9 but under 18 years of age
c. the trial court denied the granting of executive clemency in its decision
d. none of these

67. Which of the following is a form of executive clemency, which changes or modifies the punishment
which a person has been sentenced to a less severe one?
a. absolute pardon c.conditional pardon
b. commutation of sentence d, reprieve

68. The probationer may be authorized to travel outside the PO’s area of operational jurisdiction for the
court a referral for probation supervision?
a. police officer c. parole officer
b. probation officer d. nbi agent

69. The probationer may be authorized to travel outside the PO’s area of operational jurisdiction for a
period of
a. more than 10 days but not exceeding 30 days
b. more than 30 days but not exceeding 60 days
c. more than 30 days but not more than 6 months
d. not allowed because it is outside of jurisdiction

70. a program specifically designed for the prisoner in order to give him an opportunity to adapt from
life in prison to the life in the community.
a. probation c. pre-release
b. parole d. amnesty

71. how long the Probation officer’s Final Report shall be submitted by the City and Provincial Parole and
Probation Office to the Trial Court?
a. 10 days after the expiration of the period
b. 30 days before the expiration of the period
c. 15 days after expiration of the period
d. 30 days after the expiration of the period

72. a defendant had applied an appeal from the judgment or conviction of his case. What will be the
implication for his application for probation?
a. eligible for probation c. application for probation be entertained
b. approval of probation d. denial of probation
73. probation is a privilege granted to deserving and qualified petitioners, when it becomes a matter of
right?
a. when his probation is approved c. when no appeal was undertaken
b. after the submission of the PSIR d. when the convict files a petition for
probation

74. the law that provides the Rules of Parole, otherwise known as Indeterminate Sentence Law as
amended
a. RA 8551 c. PD 968
b. PD 603 d. RA 4103

75. How many days that a trial court must resolved application for probation from the date of receipt of
the investigation report from the probation officer?
a. 15 days c. 30 days
b. 10 days d. 45 days

76. the central goal of the Probation Administration is to enhance the safety of the community by
reducing the incidence of criminal acts by person’s ________.
a. to be convicted c. under preventive discipline
b. previously convicted d. not yet convicted

77. A French and Belgian innovation to probation which requires no supervision on the condition that
the probationer would not commit an offense within a prescribed period.
a. Furlough c. Parole
b. Sursis d. Split sentence

78. Mr. A was convicted by a court and meted a sentence of 3 years imprisonment. Which of the
following Mr. a must undertake in order that his intention for probation is entertained?
a. Petition congress for amnesty
b. The application be filed with the trial court
c. apply an appeal to modify the decision of final judgment
d. Apply for probation within the period of perfecting an appeal

79. A probationer is mandated to present himself to the Probation Office for suspension within
a. 12 hours c. 48 hours
b. 36 hours d. 72 hours

80. A probationer who violates probation condition, once arrested shall be_
a. detained in a police station
b. immediately brought to the trial court for hearing
c. detained in city/ municipal jail
d. revocation of probation and imprisonment

81. Which of the following probationers may be recommended for the early termination of probation?
a. those recommended for further suspension
b. those physical and mentally fit for travel
c. cooperative and participative probationer in the programs
d. probationers convicted for offenses involving moral turpitude
82. The probation order may also require the probationer in appropriate cases to the following EXCEPT-
a. meet his family representatives
b. comply with a program of payment of civil liability
c. undergo medical or psychological exam when required
d. deny himself to a specific employment

83. Payment of civil liability to the victim by the probationer shall be given to the following EXCEPT the –
a. clerk of court of the Trial Court
b. paid directly to the victim with receipt filed with PO
c. deposited to the victims account
d. supervising Probation Officer on case

84. Immediately upon the issuance of a probation order by the court to the probationer, who among the
following is responsible to inform the probationer the consequences of such order and explain to him
that failure to comply the condition he shall serve the penalty imposed?
a. Judge of the Trial Court c. Jail warden
b. Probation Administrator d. Probation Officer

85. What is the maximum supervision caseload of a Probation Aide to handle at any given time?
a. 3 probationers c. 5 probationers
b. 10 probationers d. 15 probationers

86. The power to grant amnesty is a presidential discretion, which must be with congressional
concurrence. It is usually granted to .
a. political offenders c. suspected offender
b. convicted offenders d. offender under appeal

87. Pardon cannot be exercised in what of the following instances.

a. before conviction c. after conviction
b. before trial d. before conviction and before trial

88. in determining whether an offender may be placed on probation, the court shall consider all
information relative to which of the following?
a. antecedents and environment c. character
b. mental and physical conditions of the offender d. all of these

89. Pedro dela Cuestra applied for probation and he was granted probation by the court. How shall he
serve his sentence?
a. Stays inside the prison
b. It assigned in the penal colony
c. Is detailed in the municipal jail
d. Serves his sentence in the community

90. Under the P.D 603. What happens to the sentence of youthful offender after conviction of a trial
court?
a. His sentenced is serve
b. His sentenced is suspended
c. His sentenced is not suspended
d. HIS SENTENCED IS SESPENDED AND is SENT BACK HOME TO HIS FAMILY

91. This state shares with England, the honor of given the probation system to the world.
a. Massachusetts c. Missouri
b. Illinois d. New Orleans

92. Probation, both in conception and development is detinctve contribution of progressive penology by
a. England c. French
b. America d. Germany

93. Is Mario qualified for probation is his prison term is arresto mayor?
A. Yes, his sentenced is less than 6 years and 1 day
b. Yes, his sentenced is 6 months
c. No, his sentenced is 12 years
d. No, his sentenced is 8 years

94. When can drug user or one who is in possession of drugs be placed on probation?
a. first time offender
b. second time offender
c. first time offender and less than 21 years old
d. second time offender and less than 21 years old

95. it is judicial action or legal disposition that allows the offender to remain in the community subject to
conditions imposed by court order?
a. commutation c. reprieve
b. probation d. parole

96. crimes committed by person who usually occupy key positions, maintains prestige and high social
are referred to as ________.
a. blue collar c. organized
b. economic d. white collar

97. Presidential Decree no. 603 as distinguished from Adult Probation Law, in known as the _______.
a. Revised Penal Code c. Child and Youth Welfare Code
b. Child Welfare Act d. Special Protection for Children Law

98. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Act No. 4103 or otherwise known as the indeterminate
Sentence Law?
a. Uplift valuable human material c. prevent excessive deprivation of liberty
b. redeem valuable human needs d. avail the interest of the law

99. which of the following is known as the conditional release of a prisoner from a confinement after
serving the minimum of his prison term?
a. probation d. reprieve
b. parolee e. parole
c. release on recognizance
100. it is judicial action or legal disposition that allows the offender to remain in the community subject
to conditions imposed by the court?
a. commutation c. reprieve
b. probation d. parole