1. Refer to Figure 11-1. Identify the triac.

Figure 11-1

Correct Answer: e

2. Refer to Figure 11-1. Which symbol represents a UJT?

Correct Answer: b

3. Refer to Figure 11-1. Identify the symbol for an SCS.

Correct Answer: c

4. Refer to Figure 11-1. Identify the diac symbol.

Correct Answer: d

5. Refer to Figure 11-1. What is the correct symbol for an SCR?

Your Answer: a

6. You have a need to use a device to trigger an SCR. A good one to use might be

Correct Answer: a UJT.

7. Which of the following devices might best be used to control an electric motor?

Your Answer: an SCR

8. An SCR acts to control the speed of an electric motor by _____ the _____ of the pulse
delivered to the motor.

Correct Answer: varying, width

9. You need to design a relaxation oscillator circuit. The most likely device to use might be

Correct Answer: a UJT.

10. You need a very efficient thyristor to control the speed of an AC fan motor. A good device to
use would be

Your Answer: a triac.

11. You have the schematic diagram of several types of circuits. Which of these circuits most
likely uses a triac?

Correct Answer: an ac motor control

12. You have a light-dimmer circuit using an SCR. In testing the circuit, you find that IG = 0 mA
and the light is still on. You conclude that the trouble might be one of the following:

Correct Answer: this is normal; nothing is wrong.

13. Your boss has asked you to recommend a thyristor that will enable you to turn it on with a
pulse and also turn it off with a pulse. Which of the following should you recommend?

Correct Answer: an SCS

14. How many semiconductor layers are thyristors constructed with?

Correct Answer: 4

15. The SCR can be triggered on by a pulse at the

Correct Answer: gate.

16. An application of a(n) _____ is in a lighting system for power interruptions.

Correct Answer: SCR

17. The _____ can conduct current in either direction and is turned on when a breakover voltage
is exceeded.

Your Answer: diac

18. The _____ is like a diac with a gate terminal.

Your Answer: triac

19. The silicon-controlled switch (SCS) is similar in construction to the

Correct Answer: SCR

20. The ______ can be externally programmed to turn on at a desired anode-to-gate voltage
level.

Correct Answer: PUT

21.
Identify the symbol:

Correct Answer: SCS

22.
Identify the symbol:

Correct Answer: PUT

1. Voltage regulation requires

Correct Answer: load and line regulation.

2. In Figure 17-1(a)(see question 6), the purpose of R1 is to

Your Answer: limit current through the diode.

3. What type of regulator offers inherent short-circuit protection?

Your Answer: shunt regulators

4. In a series regulator, what is the purpose of fold-back limiting?

Correct Answer: to provide current up to a maximum, but drop current to a lower value
when the output becomes shorted, to prevent overheating of the device

5. A switching regulator that is configured as a voltage-inverter produces what type of output?

Your Answer: a dc output that is the negative of the dc input voltage

6. Refer to Figure 17-1(a). Determine the output voltage, VOUT.

Figure 17-1

Correct Answer: 20.2 V

7. Refer to Figure 17-1(b). If the load is short-circuited, what would be the maximum current
through R1?

Your Answer: 1.5 A

8. Refer to Figure 17-1(c). This circuit is called

Correct Answer: a step-down switching regulator.

9. Refer to Figure 17-1(b). This circuit is known as

Correct Answer: a shunt voltage regulator.

10. Refer to Figure 17-1(a). This circuit is known as

Your Answer: a series-pass voltage regulator.

11. Refer to Figure 17-1(c). This circuit operates at a _____ frequency, and its efficiency is
_____.

Your Answer: high, high

12. Refer to Figure 17-1(c). The inductor and capacitor are used for

Correct Answer: filtering the dc pulse output.

13. Refer to Figure 17-1(b). The purpose for the zener diode D1 is

Correct Answer: to supply a reference voltage.

14. A voltage regulator has a no-load output of 18 V and a full-load output of 17.3 V. The percent
load regulation is

Correct Answer: 4.05%.

15. A voltage regulator with a no-load output dc voltage of 12 V is connected to a load with a
resistance of 10 . If the load resistance decreases to 7.5 , the load voltage will decrease
to 10.9 V. The load current will be _____, and the percent load regulation is _____.

Correct Answer: 1.45 A, 10.09%

16. Refer to Figure 17-1(b). If the output of the circuit were to be a short circuit, what power
rating would R1 need to have?

Your Answer: (blank)

17. Refer to Figure 17-1(a). If the zener diode had a rating of 1.7 V, the output voltage would be

Your Answer: 8.36 V.

18. Refer to Figure 17-1(a). If the BE junction of Q1 opens, the output voltage VOUT will

Your Answer: decrease.

19. Refer to Figure 17-1(a). If a solder splash shorted the ends of R1 to each other,

Correct Answer: the zener would fail.

20. Refer to Figure 17-1(c). If the output voltage tends to decrease due to an increase in load
current, the transistor will conduct for _____ time each cycle.

Correct Answer: a longer

21. Voltage regulators keep a constant _____ output voltage when the input or load varies within
limits.

Your Answer: dc

22. _____ regulation can be defined as the percentage change in the output voltage for a given
change in the input voltage.

Correct Answer: Line

23. _____ regulation can be defined as the percentage change in the output voltage for a given
change in load current.

Correct Answer: Load

24. In a series linear regulator, the control element is a(n) _____ in series with the load.

Correct Answer: transistor

25. In a shunt linear regulator, the control element is a(n) _____ in parallel with the load.

Correct Answer: transistor

26. The _____ regulator is less efficient than the _____ type, but offers inherent short-circuit
protection.

Correct Answer: shunt, series

27. Switching regulators are more efficient than linear regulators and are particularly useful in
_____-voltage, _____-current applications.

Your Answer: low, high

28. Switching regulator efficiencies can be greater than _____ percent.

Correct Answer: 90

29. How many terminals does a 7800 series IC regulator have?

Correct Answer: 3
1-1. Which of the following electronic devices operates d) Zener diode
by virtue of the movement of electrons within a solid
piece of semiconductor material? 1-8. Which of the following solid-state devices
has both gain and fast-switching capabilities?
a) Transistor
b) Junction diode a) Zener diode
c) Solid-state device b) Tunnel diode
d) Each of the above c) Junction diode
d) Point-contact diode
1-2. Which of the following electronic devices is a
minute piece of semiconductor material that can 1-9. Which of the following advantages, if any, does a
produce complete electronic circuit functions? conventional electron tube have over a semiconductor
device?
a) Zener diode
b) Light-emitting diode a) It is more efficient
c) Integrated circuit b) It has a longer life
d) Field effect transistor c) It is more economical
d) None of the above
1-3. Which of the following terms is used for
the decrease in resistance as the temperature of the 1-10. When compared to an electron tube, the
semiconductor increases? semiconductor device has which of the following
limitations?
a) Positive temperature coefficient
b) Negative temperature coefficient a) The semiconductor is more sensitive to
c) Faraday temperature coefficient temperature
d) Zero temperature coefficient b) The semiconductor is used only in radar
equipment
1-4. In addition to rectifying properties, selenium has c) The semiconductor is difficult to adapt to
the property of being light sensitive. How is selenium's commercial products
resistance affected by light? d) Each of the above

a) It decreases with an increase in light 1-11. Matter can be found in which of the following
intensity forms?
b) It increases with an increase in light intensity
c) It remains constant with variation in light a) Solid
intensity b) Liquid
d) It increases regardless of the variation in light c) Gas
intensity d) Each of the above

1-5. One of the most sensitive elements of 1-12. A substance that cannot be reduced to a
semiconductor materials is galena. Galena is a simpler form by chemical means is called a/an
crystalline form of what material?
a) element
a) Krypton b) mixture
b) Bismuth c) compound
c) Strontium d) solution
d) Lead sulfide
1-13. An atom is the smallest possible particle that
1-6. What significant discovery caused a breakthrough retains the characteristics of which of the following
in the development of semiconductor devices? substances?

a) The junction diode a) An element

b) The junction barrier b) A mixture
c) The extrinsic semiconductor c) A compound
d) The point-contact transistor d) A solution

1-7. Which of the following devices is frequently used 1-14. A molecule is the smallest possible particle that
to regulate power supply voltages at precise levels? retains the characteristics of which of the following
substances?
a) Junction diode
b) Tunnel diode a) An element
c) Esaki diode b) A mixture
 c) A compound a. The separation between the valence
d) A solution and forbidden bands
b. The separation between the
1-15. Which part of the atom has a negative conduction and valence bands
charge and a small mass? c. The separation between the
conduction and forbidden bands
a) Proton d. The separation between the forbidden
b) Electron band and the energy gap
c) Positron
d) Neutron 1-25. Which of the following terms applies to the
process that holds the atom together in a crystal?
1-16. Which part of the atom has a positive
charge and a large mass? a. Suhl effect
b. Superposition
a) Proton c. Boundary defect
b) Electron d. Covalent bonding
c) Positron
d) Neutron 1-26. The movement of electrons in a semiconductor
toward the applied voltage is termed
1-17. Which part of the atom has no electrical charge?
a. hole flow
a) Proton b. positive conduction
b) Electron c. negative conduction
c) Positron d. electron current flow
d) Neutron
1-27. When the theory of semiconductors is discussed,
1-18. What name is given to the outermost shell what term(s) is/are used to describe the current that
of an atom? flows in the semiconductor?

a) First shell a. Hole flow

b) M shell b. Electron flow
c) Valence shell c. Both 1 and 2 above
d) Subshell d. Electromotive flow

1-19. What term is used to describe an atom which has 1-28. What process takes place within the
more than its normal amount of electrons? semiconductor to cause hole flow?

a) Ion a) The breaking of covalent bonds

b) Ionization b) The combining of valence bands
c) Positive ion c) The flexing of the material
d) Negative ion d) The splitting of atoms

1-20. Which of the following terms is defined as the 1-29. A material which has an equal number of
process by which an atom gains or loses electrons? electron-hole pairs and conducting electrons is known
as what type of semiconductor material?
a) Quanta
b) Ionization a. Extrinsic
c) Loss of energy b. Intrinsic
d) Remaining energy c. N-type
d. P-type
1-21. Electrons are NEVER found in which of
the following bands? 1-30. The process of adding impurities to crystals
is known by which of the following terms?
a) Energy band
b) Valence band a. Charging
c) Forbidden band b. Doping
d) Conduction band c. Honing
d. Processing
1-22. What determines whether a substance is an
insulator, semi-conductor, or conductor? 1-31. When doping increases the number of free
electrons in a semiconductor, what type of impurity has
been added?
 1-40. Current flow in a copper wire can be compared to
a. E-type current flow in what type(s) of semiconductor material?
b. N-type
c. O-type a. N-type only
d. P-type b. P-type only
c. N- and P-type
1-32. The semiconductor doping impurities— arsenic, d. All types
antimony, and bismuth—are classified as what type of
impurities? 1-41. What is the overall electrical charge of the
N-material in a semiconductor?
a. Active
b. Neutral a. Zero
c. Trivalent b. Some negative value
d. Pentavalent c. Some positive value
d. Depending upon the balance of
1-33. In the P-type semiconductor, what are the electrons, it will be positive or negative
majority carriers?
1-42. What is the overall electrical charge of the P-
a. The electrons material in a semiconductor?
b. The holes
c. The inactive atoms a. Zero
d. The inert atoms b. Some negative value
c. Some positive value
1-34. What is/are the purpose(s) of the PN junction d. Depending upon the balance of
diode? electrons, it will be positive or negative

a. To rectify only 1-43. What causes the process called junction

b. To amplify only recombination to occur when N and P materials are
c. To rectify and amplify joined together?
d. To switch
a. The diffusion of electrons and holes
1-35. In a schematic diagram of a PN junction diode, moving across the junction into the
which of the following symbols represents the cathode two materials
(N-type material)? b. The generation of heat which causes
the electrons to bombard the holes at
a. The arrow the junction
b. The circle c. The development of an electrostatic
c. The vertical bar field on each side of the junction
d. The horizontal line d. The loss of electrons to the depletion
region
1-38. The placing of an impurity on a semiconductor of
the opposite impurity and fusing the two together 1-44. After the junction recombination process has
produce what type of semiconductor junction? reached equilibrium, what is the area that surrounds
the junction called?
a. Grown junction
b. Alloy Junction a. The anode
c. Barrier junction b. The free ion space
d. Intrinsic junction c. The depletion region
d. The electrostatic field
1-39. A perfect bond at the junction of the two diode
materials is important for which of the following 1-45. A voltage applied to a PN junction so that it
reasons? reduces the junction barrier and aids current flow is
what type of bias?
a. It is the point at which rectification
takes place a. Indirect
b. It is the point at which amplification b. Reverse
takes place c. Forward
c. It is the main structural point from d. Direct
where the diode gets its strength
d. All of the above 1-46. In a forward-biased PN junction, when an
electron leaves the negative terminal of the battery and
enters the N material, it becomes what type of carrier?
 a. Loop 1. Copper-oxide rectifier
b. Signal 2. Half-wave rectifier
c. Majority 3. Metallic rectifier
d. Minority 4. Silicon rectifier

1-48. In the PN junction, which of the following actions 1-61. Signal diodes are used for which of the following
will increase the number of majority carriers and purposes?
increase current flow in a forward-biased condition?
1. As mixers
a. Increasing the size of the P material 2. As switches
b. Decreasing the size of the P material 3. As detectors
c. Increasing battery voltage 4. Each of the above
d. Decreasing battery voltage
1-62. What type of bias makes a diode act as an open
1-49. A voltage applied to a PN junction so that it will switch?
increase the junction barrier and offer a high resistance
to current flow is called what type of bias? 1. Direct
2. Reverse
a. Direct 3. Forward
b. Forward 4. Switching
c. Reverse
d. Indirect 1-63. A standard specification sheet for a diode
contains which of the following information?
1-50. When the negative terminal of a battery is
connected to the P material, and the positive terminal 1. A brief description of the diode
is connected to the N material, what type of bias is 2. Major application of the diode
being used? 3. Special features of the diode
4. All of the above
a. Self
b. Forward 1-67. A matching pair of diodes is indicated by which of
c. Reverse the following numbers?
d. Inverse
1. 2N325
1-51. What provides you with information concerning 2. 1N325C
the voltage-current relationship of a PN junction diode? 3. 2N325M
4. 1N325M
a. The body color of the diode
b. The color coded bands on the diode 1-68. The number 3N345 identifies which of the
c. The printed information on the diode following semiconductors, if any?
d. The characteristic curve graph of
the diode 1. Diode
2. Transistor
1-58. If the input freq to a half-wave rectifier is 120 Hz, 3. Tetrode transistor
what is the output frequency of the rectified dc? 4. None of the above

a. 30 pps 1-69. What type of diode has green, blue, and orange
b. 60 pps bands?
c. 120 pps
d. 240 pps a. 1N463
b. 1N572
1-59. Why are the units (plates) of the metallic c. 1N663
rectifier stacked? d. 1N563

a. To dissipate heat 1-70. One of the prime dangers to the semiconductor

b. To be used in more than one circuit diode is heat. Excessive current generated by heat
c. To prevent inverse voltage which eventually destroys a diode is called
breakdown
d. To handle high current applications a. junction overload
b. thermal runaway
1-60. Which of the following types of rectifiers replaces c. thermoplastic action
the bulky selenium rectifier? 4. thermionic emission
 b. Cathode, base, and collector
1-71. When replacing a diode in a circuit, which of the c. Emitter, collector, and base
following safety precautions should you observe in d. Collector, emitter, and cathode
removing the diode from the circuit?
2-4. In a transistor, the flow of current carriers is
a. Do not pry the diode from the circuit controlled by which element(s)?
b. Do not use excessive heat to remove
the diode a. Emitter
c. Do not remove the diode from the b. Collector
circuit while voltage is applied c. Both 1 and 2 above
4. All of the above d. Base

1-72. As you make a front-to-back ratio check of a 2-6. Junction transistors have replaced pointcontact
diode with an ohmmeter, your first measurement transistors for which of the following reasons?
(forward) is a low resistance reading, and your second
measurement (reverse) is also a low reading. What a. Junction transistors generate less
should be your evaluation of the diode? noise
b. Junction transistors handle more
a. It is open power
b. It is shorted c. Junction transistors provide higher
c. It is good current and voltage gains
d. It is leaky d. All of the above

1-73. What are normally the front-to-back ratio of (a) a 2-7. What is the total number of PN junctions in a
power rectifier and (b) a signal diode? transistor?

a. (a) 10:1 (b) 50:1 a. One

b. (a) 10:1 (b) 300:1 b. Two
c. (a) 300:1 (b) 10:1 c. Three
d. (a) 300:1 (b) 50:1 d. Four

1-74. Of the following tests, which is the most valid for 2-8. What are the two junctions of a transistor?
checking a diode?
a. Emitter-base and emitter-collector
a. A forward and reverse resistance b. Emitter-collector and base-collector
check with an ohmmeter c. Emitter-base and collector-emitter
b. The substitution of a new diode for the d. Emitter-base and base-collector
questionable one
c. A dynamic electrical check with a 2-9. With proper bias applied to a transistor, what
diode test set should be the relative resistance of (a) the emitter-base
d. A forward and reverse resistance junction and (b) the base-collector junction?
check using two different ohmmeters
a. (a) High (b) low
2-1. What term is used for a semiconductor b. (a) High (b) high
that has three or more elements? c. (a) Low (b) low
d. (a) Low (b) high
a. Diode
b. Transistor 2-10. For normal operation of a transistor, what is the
c. Duo-diode bias of the (a) emitter-base junction and (b) base-
d. Point contact collector junction?

2-2. The term transistor was derived from which of the a. (a) Forward (b) reverse
following words? b. (a) Forward (b) forward
c. (a) Reverse (b) forward
a. Resistance and capacitance d. (a) Reverse (b) reverse
b. Transformer and resistor
c. Resistor and transformer 2-16. In a transistor, what percent of the total current
d. Transfer and resistor flows through the emitter lead?

2-3. What are the three elements of a transistor? a. 100

b. 98
a. Anode, base, and collector c. 60
 d. 5
2-35. Which class of amplifier allows collector current
2-17. What are the majority current carriers in (a) the to flow for a full 360 degrees of the input signal?
PNP transistor and (b) the NPN transistor?
a. A
a. (a) Holes (b) holes b. B
b. (a) Holes (b) electrons c. C
c. (a) Elements (b) holes d. AB
d. (a) Electrons (b) electrons
2-36. Which class of amplifier allows collector current
2-18. How will the transistor currents be affected if the to flow for more than 180 degrees of the input signal
forward bias provided by VBB is increased? but less than 360 degrees?

a. IB will decrease, IE will decrease, and IC a. A

will decrease b. B
b. IB will increase, IE will decrease, and IC c. C
will decrease d. AB
c. IB will increase, IE will decrease, and IC
will increase 2-37. Which class of amplifier has the highest fidelity
d. IB will increase, IE will increase, and and lowest efficiency?
IC will increase
a. A
2-19. What device provides an increase in current, b. B
voltage, or power of a signal without appreciably c. C
altering the original signal? d. AB

a. Diode 2-38. Which class of amplifier has the highest

b. Amplifier efficiency?
c. Oscillator
d. Power supply a. A
b. B
2-20. The resistor that provides forward bias for the c. C
emitter-base junction of a transistor is indicated by d. AB
which of the following symbols?
2-39. What are the three transistor configurations?
a. RT
b. Rg a. Common base, common grid, and
c. RL common output
d. RB b. Common anode, common collector,
and common base
2-21. The collector load resistor is represented by c. Common emitter, common base,
which of the following symbols? and common collector
d. Common emitter, common base, and
a) RT common base
b) Rg
c) RL 2-46. Which of the following is a transistor
d) RB configuration that provides a phase reversal?
2-22. In the quiescent state of a transistor circuit, what
does the symbol VC indicate? a. Common bias
b. Common input
a. Collector voltage supply c. Common emitter
b. Collector voltage d. Common collector
c. Current gain
d. Capacitor voltage 2-47. What is the symbol for input current in a
common-emitter configuration?
2-27. What type of bias keeps the base bias constant
and improves thermal stability? a. IE
b. IB
a. Self-bias c. IC
b. Fixed bias d. IT
c. Combination bias
d. Each of the above
2-48. What is the symbol for input current in a c. Microelectronics
common-base configuration? d. Modular Circuitry

a. IE 2-59. A flat insulating surface upon which printed wires

b. IB and miniaturized components are connected in a
c. IC predetermined design and attached to a common
d. IT base.
2-49. What term is used to indicate current gain in a a) Hybrid IC
common-emitter configuration? b) Monolithic IC
c) Printed Circuit Board
a. Alpha d) Integrated Circuit Board
b. Beta
c. Gamma 2-60. An assembly technique in which printed
d. X-ray circuit boards are stacked and connected
to form a module.
2-50. What term is used to indicate current gain in a
common-collector configuration? a) Monolithic IC
b) Microelectronics
a. Alpha c) Modular Circuitry
b. Beta d) Integrated Circuit
c. Gamma
d. X-ray 2-61. A device that integrates both active and passive
components of a complete electronic circuit in a single
2-51. What term is used to indicate current gain in a chip.
common-base configuration?
a) Modular Circuitry
a. Alpha b) Integrated Circuit
b. Beta c) Printed Circuit Board
c. Gamma d) Integrated Circuit Board
d. X-ray
2-62. A plastic card on which integrated circuits are
2-55. The common collector is also referred to by mounted.
which of the following terms?
a) Hybrid IC
a. Low current gain amplifier b) Monolithic IC
b. Voltage amplifier c) Printed Circuit Board
c. Emitter follower d) Integrated Circuit Board
d. Grounded emitter
3-1. What is the total number of connections in a
2-56. Which of the following conditions presents the diode?
greatest danger to a transistor?
a. One
a. Heat b. Two
b. High operating voltage c. Three
c. Excessive reverse current d. Four
d. Handling of the transistor
3-2. When the PN-junction diode is reversed biased,
2-57. What method for checking transistors is what happens to the majority carriers?
cumbersome when more than one transistor is bad in a
circuit? a. They combine with minority carriers at
the junction
a. Ohmmeter b. They move toward the junction
b. Transistor checker c. Both 1 and 2 above
c. Voltage check d. They move away from the junction
d. Substitution
3-3. What causes a small leakage current in a reverse-
2-58. A broad term used to describe the use of biased PN junction?
integrated circuits to miniaturize electronic equipment.
a. Holes
a. Hybrid IC b. Electrons
b. Monolithic IC c. Minority carriers
 d. Majority carriers 3-9. Which breakdown theory explains the action that
takes place in a heavily doped PN junction with a
3-4. At some potential, as you increase the reverse reverse bias above 5 volts?
bias voltage on a PN junction, the reverse current
increases very rapidly. What electronic term is given to a. Zener effect
this voltage potential? b. Avalanche breakdown
c. Energy band effect
a. Breakdown voltage d. Valence band gap crossing
b. Reverse-bias
c. Forward-bias 3-10. Which breakdown theory explains the action that
d. Thermal runaway takes place in a heavily doped PN junction with a
reverse bias below 5 volts?
3-5. Which of the following is a characteristic of the
Zener diode? a. Zener effect
b. Avalanche breakdown
a. A PN-junction diode that operates in c. Energy band effect
the reverse-bias breakdown region d. Valence band gap crossing
b. A PN-junction diode that uses the
avalanche effect 3-11. What happens to a Zener diode that has a
c. A PN-junction diode that uses the reverse bias slightly higher than the breakdown
Zener effect voltage?
d. Each of the above
a. The Zener cuts off
3-6. What determines whether a solid material will act b. The Zener acts like a short circuit
as a conductor, a semiconductor, or an insulator? c. The Zener acts like an open circuit
d. The Zener conduction does not
a. The energy level of the valence band change
b. The energy level of the conductor
band 3-14. Why is the Zener diode an ideal voltage
c. The energy difference across the regulator?
forbidden gap
d. The actual construction of the valence a. It compensates for low supply voltage
electrons b. It uses an unlimited number of carriers
c. Operating in the breakdown region
3-7. In comparing a conductor and an insulator, what is does not harm it
the relative dimension of the forbidden gap of (a) the d. The voltage across the diode
conductor and (b) the insulator? remains almost constant after
breakdown
a. (a) Wide (b) wide
b. (a) Wide (b) narrow 3-15. In the construction of the tunnel diode,
c. (a) Narrow (b) narrow what is the ratio of impurity atoms to
d. (a) Narrow (b) wide semiconductor atoms?

3-8. What is the "tunneling phenomenon" within the a. 10,000,000: 1000

Zener diode? b. 1,000:10,000,000
c. 10,000: 100,000
a. An action where the minority d. 100,000: 10,000
carriers tunnel across the junction
to form the current that occurs at 3-19. The varactor operates like which of the following
breakdown electronic components?
b. An action where the majority carriers
tunnel across the junction to form the a. A capacitor
current that occurs at breakdown b. An inductor
c. An action that separates the c. A variable capacitor
conduction band and the valence band d. A variable inductor
by a large gap
d. An action that removes all the 3-20. An increase in reverse bias of a varactor will
electrons from the conduction band have what effect on the width of the depletion region?
energy level
1. It will stabilize
2. It will fluctuate
3. It will decrease
 4. It will increase
a. The SCR requires a higher input
3-21. What happens to the capacitance of a varactor voltage than the TRIAC
diode as the reverse bias is increased? b. The TRIAC requires a higher input
voltage than the SCR
a) It decreases c. The TRIAC controls and conducts
b) It increases current during both alternations of
c) It remains the same an ac cycle, while the SCR controls
and conducts current during only
3-22. In electronic circuits, how is the varactor used? one alternation
d. The SCR controls and conducts
a) As a tuning device current during both alternations of an
b) As a balancing device ac cycle, while the TRIAC controls
c) As an amplifier and conducts currents during only one
d) As a rectifier alternation

3-23. What is/are the basic purpose(s) of the silicon 3-31. What name is given to a group of devices that
controlled rectifier (SCR)? either produce light or use light in their operation?

a) To function as a switch a. Optoelectronic

b) To function as a regulator b. Ophthalmology
c) To function as a rectifier c. Optokenetic
d) All of the above d. Optometry

3-24. The SCR is equivalent to what electronic device? 3-32. In optoelectronic devices, what do the initials
LED stand for?
a) Diode
b) Tetrode a. Low-emitting diode
c) Thyratron b. Low-emitting device
d) Beam power tube c. Light-emitting diode
d. Light-emitting device
3-25. Which of the following circuits uses an SCR in its
electronic circuitry? 3-33. What determines the color of light emitted by an
LED?
a) Computer logic circuit
b) Voltage comparator circuit a. The type of incandescent bulb used
c) Antenna power amplifier circuit b. The type of material used
d) Each of the above c. The type of bias used
d. The type of fluorescent bulb used
3-28. Once an SCR is turned on by a positive pulse of
current applied to the gate lead, what action turns the 3-34. What is the standard schematic symbol used to
SCR off? designate LEDs?

a) Removing the positive pulse from the gate lead a. An incandescent bulb with arrows
b) Inserting a negative pulse of current on the pointing toward the light
gate lead b. An incandescent bulb with arrows
c) Reducing the collector current to a value pointing away from the light
below that necessary to maintain c. A diode with two arrows pointing
conduction toward the cathode
d) Increasing the collector current to a point that d. A diode with two arrows pointing
the SCR will go into saturation and cut off away from the cathode

3-29. What is the total number of terminals in a 3-35. The circuit symbols for all optoelectronic devices
TRIAC? have arrows pointing either toward them or away from
them. When the arrows point toward the symbol, what
a) One does this indicate?
b) Two
c) Three a. The device produces light
d) Four b. The device uses light
c. The device requires current flow
3-30. What is the main difference between the TRIAC d. The device produces current flow
and the SCR?
3-38. When replacing LED displays, which of the a. Phototransistor
following methods should you use to ensure that the b. Photocell
replacement display is of the same type as the faulty c. LED
display? d. SCR

a. A visual inspection 3-49. Which of the following is a typical light to dark

b. A check of the schematic symbols resistance ratio of a photocell?
c. Both 1 and 2 above
d. A check of the manufacturer's number a. 1: 10
b. 1: 100
3-39. The photodiode acts as what type of electronic c. 1: 1000
device? d. 1:10,000

a. Variable inductor 3-50. Photocells are used in which of the following

b. Variable resistor circuits?
c. Nonvariable inductor
d. Nonvariable resistor a. Controller
b. Oscillator
3-40. When the photodiode is exposed to an external c. Amplifier
light, what happens to (a) resistance and (b) current? d. Detector

a. (a) Increase (b) decreases 3-51. How should photovoltaic cells be coupled
b. (a) Increases (b) increases together to produce a relatively high voltage?
c. (a) Decreases (b) increases
d. (a) Decreases (b) decreases a. Series coupling
b. Parallel coupling
3-41. To conduct, how must a photodiode be biased? c. Inductive coupling
d. Mechanical coupling
a. Reverse biased
b. Forward biased 3-52. What is the total number of terminals in a
c. Either 1 or 2 above, depending on light unijunction transistor (UJT)?
intensity
a. One
3-42. Photodiodes are useful in which of the following b. Two
applications? c. Three
d. Four
a. Computer card readers
b. Photographic light meters 3-53. The UJT has which of the following advantages
c. Optic scanning equipment over the conventional transistor?
d. Each of the above
a. Fewer terminals
3-43. Which of the following optoelectronic devices b. Larger bandpass
provides increased, conduction for a given light c. Less bias is required
intensity? d. Increased temperature stability

a. LED 3-54. How does the UJT differ from a conventional

b. SCR transistor?
c. Phototransistor
d. Phototransformer a. The UJT has a second base instead
of a collector
3-44. To compensate for ambient light, a b. The UJT has a second emitter instead
phototransistor must have a total number of how many of a collector
leads? c. The UJT has two collectors

a) One 3-55. When properly biased, what area(s) of the UJT

b) Two act(s) as a resistor?
c) Three
d) Four a. The area between base 1 and base 2
b. The area between emitter 1 and
3-48. Which of the following devices is similar in emitter 2
operation to a photodiode? c. The area between collector 1 and
collector 2
 d. All of the above c. (a) Base (b) cathode
d. (a) Collector (b) plate
3-56. The emitter of the UJT may be compared to what
electronic component? 3-63. In the JFET, the portion of the bar between the
deposit of gate material is of a smaller cross section
a. A fully charged capacitor than the rest of the bar. What does this cross section
b. The wiper arm of a variable resistor form?
c. The collector of a conventional
transistor a. A gate
d. The secondary winding of a step-down b. A drain
transformer c. A source
d. A channel
3-57. What determines the level of voltage gradient at
the emitter-base material contact point of a UJT? 3-64. If a P-type material is used to construct the gate
of a JFET, what material should be used to construct
a. The bias voltage the remaining part of the JFET?
b. The manufacturer's specifications
c. The base area of the emitter a. N-type
d. The voltage potential between base 2 b. P-type
and emitter c. Mica type
d. Junction type
3-58. The UJT conducts from base 1 to (a) what point
when it is forward biased and from (b) what point to 3-65. What is the key to FET operation?
bass 2 when it is reversed biased?
a. The control of the effective
a. (a) Emitter (b) base 1 crosssectional area of the channel
b. (a) Emitter (b) emitter b. The control of the effective
c. (a) Base 2 (b) base 1 crosssectional area of the gate
d. (a) Base 1 (b) emitter c. Both 1 and 2 above
d. The low input impedance compared
3-59. UJTs may be used in which of the following with the high output impedance
circuits?
3-66. When reverse bias is applied to the gate lead of
a. Switching a JFET, what happens to (a) source-to-drain resistance
b. Waveshaping of the device and (b) current flow?
c. Oscillating
d. Each of the above a. (a) Decreases (b) decreases
b. (a) Decreases (b) increases
3-60. The field-effect transistor (FET) combines what c. (a) Increases (b) decreases
desired characteristic of the vacuum tube with the d. (a) Increases (b) increases
many other advantages of the transistor?
3-67. What is the "pinch off" voltage of an FET?
a. Low output impedance
b. High output impedance a. The voltage required for the FET to
c. Low input impedance conduct
d. High input impedance b. The voltage required to overcome the
FET reverse bias
3-61. What does the FET use to control the c. The voltage required to reduce
electrostatic field within the transistor? drain current to zero
d. The voltage required to reduce gate
a. Current voltage to zero
b. Voltage
c. Low input impedance 3-70. The MOSFET has which of the following
d. High input impedance advantages over the JFET?

3-62. The junction field-effect transistor's (JFET) gate a. Less bias

element corresponds very closely in operation with (a) b. Higher input impedance
what part of a conventional transistor and (b) what part c. Higher output impedance
of the vacuum tube? d. All of the above

a. (a) Emitter (b) cathode 3-71. The MOSFET is normally constructed so that it
b. (a) Base (b) grid operates in either the depletion mode or the
enhancement mode. The depletion mode MOSFET (a)
uses what type of bias and (b) has what type of doped
channel to cause a depletion of current carriers in the
channel?
a. (a) Reverse (b) lightly
b. (a) Forward (b) lightly
c. (a) Reverse (b) heavily
d. (a) Forward (b) heavily
3-72. The enhancement mode MOSFET (a) uses what
type of bias and (b) has what type of doped channel to
enhance the current carriers in the channel?
a. (a) Reverse (b) lightly
b. (a) Forward (b) lightly
c. (a) Reverse (b) heavily
d. (a) Forward (b) heavily
4-4. What is/are the functions of the filter section?
a. To eliminate dc voltage
b. To increase the amplitude of ac
c. To convert pulsating dc to steady
dc
d. All of the above
4-5. The purpose of a center tap in a transformer is to
provide
a. two separate dc voltages to the
rectifier
b. a step-down voltage to the rectifier
c. pulsating dc to the rectifier
d. two equal voltages from one
transformer

3-74. What type metal is used in the construction of a 4-6. A diode is an ideal rectifier for which, if any, of the
MOSFET? following reasons?

a. Oxide a. Current flows through the diode in

b. Copper one direction only
c. Silver b. Current flows through the diode in both
d. Aluminum directions
c. Current will not flow through a diode
3-75. What is the purpose of the shorting spring in a d. None of the above
MOSFET?
4-7. When the anode of a diode is negative with
a. To shunt the substrate to either the respect to the cathode, the diode is said to be in what
source or gate during operation state?
b. To protect the device from static
electricity during replacement a. Conduction
c. To shunt the gates of a dual-gate b. Saturation
MOSFET to make it operate like a c. Remission
single-gate MOSFET d. Cutoff
d. To change the gain characteristics of
the MOSFET 4-8. In a simple half-way rectifier, the diode will
conduct for a maximum of how many degrees of the
4-1. Which of the following is NOT one of the four 360-degree input signal?
sections of a basic power supply?
a. 45
a. Transformer b. 90
b. Oscillator c. 180
c. Rectifier d. 270
d. Filter
4-9. What term is used to describe current pulses that
4-2. The primary purpose of the transformer in an flow in the same direction?
electronic power supply is to isolate the power supply
from ground. a. Average current
b. Secondary current
a. True c. Pure direct current
b. False d. Pulsating direct current

4-3. What is the primary function of the rectifier 4-10. What is the ripple frequency of a half-wave
section? rectifier with an input line frequency of 60 Hz?

a. To convert dc to ac a. 30 Hz
b. To convert ac to pulsating dc b. 60 Hz
c. To increase average voltage output c. 90 Hz
d. To decrease average voltage output d. 120 Hz
 a. True
4-11. In a half-wave rectifier, what is the average b. False
voltage output when the peak voltage is 300 volts?
4-23. To obtain a steady dc output in a simple
a. 190.8 volts capacitor circuit, the capacitor must charge almost
b. 95.4 volts instantaneously to the value of the applied voltage.
c. 19.08 volts
d. 9.4 volts a. True
b. False
4-14. What is the ripple frequency of a fullwave rectifier
with an input line frequency of 60 Hz? 4-24. Which of the following factors, if any, determines
the rate of discharge of the capacitor in a filter circuit?
a. 30 Hz
b. 60 Hz a. The value of the load resistance
c. 90 Hz b. The amount of voltage
d. 120 Hz c. The type of capacitor
d. None of the above
4-15. The full-wave rectifier has which of the following
advantages over the halfwave? 4-25. A half-wave rectifier has an output frequency of
60 hertz, a filter capacitor value of 40 microfarads, and
a. Higher average voltage and current a load resistance of 10 kilohms. What is the value of
b. Larger number of components XC?
c. Higher value of voltage
d. Better regulation a. 133.3 ohms
b. 26.5 ohms
4-16. What is the average voltage output of a full-wave c. 66.3 ohms
rectifier that has an output of 100 volts peak? d. 40.0 ohms

a. 3.18 volts 4-26. A full-wave rectifier has an output frequency of

b. 6.36 volts 120 hertz, a filter capacitor value of 25 microfarads,
c. 31.8 volts and a load resistance of 10 kilohms.What is the value
d. 63.7 volts of XC?

4-17. The primary disadvantage of the conventional a. 5.3 ohms

full-wave rectifier is that the peak output voltage is only b. 53 ohms
one-half that of the half-wave rectifier. c. 106 ohms
d. 1060 ohms
a. True
b. False 4-27. What type of filter is the most basic power supply
filter?
4-20. In filter circuits, inductors are used as what type
of impedance(s)? a. Capacitor
b. LC choke-input
a. Shunt impedance to oppose changes c. LC capacitor-input
in current d. RC capacitor-input
b. Shunt impedances to oppose changes
in voltage 4-28. In a circuit with a capacitor filter, how is the
c. Series impedances to oppose capacitor connected?
changes in current
d. Series impedances to oppose changes a. In series with the load
in voltage b. In parallel with the load
c. In series with the input
4-21. To retain its charge, the capacitor in a simple d. Both 2 and 3 above
capacitor filter must have a long charge time constant
and a short discharge time constant. 4-29. The LC choke-input filter is used primarily where
which of the following types of regulation is/are
a. True important?
b. False
1. Frequency
4-22. If you increase the value of a capacitor, the XC 2. Current only
will increase. 3. Voltage only
4. Voltage and Current
 b. Excessive ripple amplitude
4-30. In an LC choke-input filter circuit, the capacitor c. Abnormally high output voltage
charges only to the average value of the input voltage. d. Each of the above
What component inhibits the capacitor from reaching
the peak value of the input voltage? 4-37. The use of the RC capacitor-input filter is limited
to which of the following situations?
a) The diode
b) The capacitor a) When the load current is large
c) The filter choke b) When the load current is small
d) The load resistor c) When the load voltage is large
d) When the load voltage is small
4-31. In an LC choke-input filter, the larger the value of
the filter capacitor, the better the filtering action. Which 4-42. In a voltage regulator, what percent of regulation
of the following factors represents the major limitation would be ideal?
in obtaining the maximum value of the capacitor used?
a. 1%
a) Cost b. 5%
b) Reliability c. 3%
c) Availability d. 0%
d) Physical size
4-43. If a power supply produces 30 volts with no load
4-32. What is the most common range of values, in and 25 volts under full load, what is the percent of
henries, for a power supply choke? regulation?

a) 1 to 20 a. 5
b) 5 to 25 b. 10
c) 25 to 30 c. 20
d) 10 to 200 d. 30

4-33. If the impedance of the choke in an LC choke- 4-44. If a power supply produces 10 volts with no load
input filter is increased, the ripple will and 9 volts under full load, what is the percent of
regulation?
a) increase
b) decrease a. 8
c) oscillate b. 9
d) remain the same c. 10
d. 11
4-34. A full-wave rectifier has an output frequency of
120 hertz, a filter choke with a value of 10 henries, and 4-45. If a power supply produces 20 volts with no load
a load resistance of 10 kilohms. What is the value of and 20 volts under full load, what is the percent of
XL? regulation?

a) 75 ohms a. 1
b) 7.5 ohms b. 2
c) 75 kilohms c. 3
d) 7.5 kilohms d. 0

4-35. The filter capacitor in the LC choke input filter is 4-46. Basic voltage regulators are classified as either
NOT subject to extreme voltage surges because of the series or shunt. Their classification is determined by
protection provided by what component? which of the following factors?

a) Shunt capacitor a. The type of regulating device used

b) Series resistor b. The type of regulation required
c) Load resistor c. The amount of regulation required
d) Inductor d. The position of the regulating
device in relation to the load (RL)
4-36. Shorted turns in the choke of an LC choke-input
filter may reduce the value of inductance below the 4-47. The simple series voltage regulator was
critical value. When this happens, which of the designed to function as what type of resistance?
following problems may occur?
a. Fixed resistance in series with the load
a. Poor voltage regulation
 b. Fixed resistance in parallel with the a. Low voltage where low current is
load required
c. Variable resistance in series with b. Low voltage where high current is
the load required
d. Variable resistance in parallel with the c. High voltage where low current is
load required
d. High voltage where high current is
4-48. A series voltage regulator is designed so that required
what total percentage of current flows through the
regulating device? 4-58. The classification of voltage multipliers depends
on which of the following ratios?
a. 25
b. 50 a. Input current to output current
c. 75 b. Input current to output voltage
d. 100 c. Output voltage to input voltage
d. Input voltage to output current
4-49. When a series voltage regulator is used to
control output voltages, any increase in input voltage
results in a/an 4-59. A half-wave voltage doubler consists of what total
number of half-wave rectifiers?
a. decrease in the voltage drop across
the load resistance a. One
b. increase in the voltage drop across the b. Two
Zener diode c. Three
c. decrease in the resistance of the d. Four
regulating device
d. increase in the resistance of the 4-60. If a half-wave rectifier circuit is added to a half-
regulating device wave voltage doubler circuit, what will be the resulting
circuit?
4-53. What type of ammeter reading indicates that
current regulator is functioning properly? a. A voltage doubler
b. A voltage tripler
a. Constant c. A voltage quadruplet
b. Deflection in the negative direction d. A voltage quintuplet
c. Deflection in the positive direction
d. Fluctuation around the center line 4-61. Which of the following methods is used by
manufacturers of electronic equipment to reduce the
4-54. A major disadvantage of having good current cost of extensive wiring?
regulation is that good voltage regulation is lost.
a. Grounding the output of the power
a. True supply to the chassis
b. False b. Grounding the return side of the
power transformer to the chassis
4-55. To maintain a constant current flow when there is c. Connecting all components in parallel
an increase in the load resistance (RL), variable d. Connecting all components in series
resistance (RV) must compensate for this change by
4-62. When working on electronic equipment, the
a. increasing its resistance technician should observe which of the following safety
b. decreasing its resistance precautions?
c. remaining the same
a. Make certain that the electronic
4-56. A decrease in the forward bias of a base emitter equipment is properly grounded
junction has which of the following effects on the b. Make certain that the test equipment is
resistance of a transistor? properly grounded
c. Make certain that the rubber mats are
a. It increases in good condition
b. It deceases d. All of the above
c. It remains the same
4-63. Which of the following is/are the most widely
4-57. Voltage multipliers are used primarily to develop used check(s) for testing electronic equipment?
what type of voltage?
a. Smoke
 b. Visual
c. Signal tracing
d. Both 2 and 3 above

4-64. Any connection that is located close to the

chassis or to any other terminal should be examined
for the possibility of which of the following problems?

a. An open
b. A short
c. A low resistance
d. A high resistance

4-65. Which of the following statements applies to a

transformer that is discolored or leaking?

a. It is operational
b. It is cracked
c. It is shorted
d. It is open

4-66. As a technician, you notice that a resistor is

discolored and charred. Which, if any, of the following
conditions most likely caused the damage?

a. Overload
b. Open circuit
c. Ambient temperature
d. None of the above

4-67. You are in the process of energizing a power

supply. You hear a boiling or sputtering noise and
notice smoke coming from a section of the power
supply. Which, if any, of the following actions should
you take first?

a. Secure the power immediately

b. Examine the problem area
c. Remove the defective component
d. None of the above

4-68. Which, if any, of the following is the most rapid

and accurate method for testing electronic circuits after
completing visual inspection?

a. Smoke test
b. Current test
c. Signal tracing
d. None of the above