Anachem instru Answer: d

Analytical Instrumentation Questions and Explanation: Mass spectrometer separates ions

Answers – Principle of operation of Mass on the basis of mass to charge ratio. Most of the
Spectrometer ions are singly charged. Hence, the mass to
This set of Analytical Instrumentation Multiple charge ratio is equal to the mass.
Choice Questions & Answers focuses on 5. In mass spectrometer, the ions are sorted out
“Principle of operation of Mass Spectrometer”. in which of the following ways?
1. Mass spectrometers are used to determine a) By accelerating them through electric field
which of the following? b) By accelerating them through magnetic field
a) Composition in sample c) By accelerating them through electric and
b) Concentration of elements in sample magnetic field
c) Relative mass of atoms d) By applying a high voltage
d) Properties of sample View Answer
View Answer Answer: c
Explanation: In mass spectrometer, the ions
Answer: c
are sorted out by accelerating them through
Explanation: Mass spectrometers are used to an electric and magnetic field. A record of
determine the relative mass of atoms and number of different kinds of ions is called
molecules. Aston made the instrument more mass spectrum.
accurate. 6. No two molecules will be fragmented and
2. Who invented mass spectrometers? ionized in exactly the same manner.
a) J.J Thompson a) True
b) Goldstein b) False
c) Nikola Tesla View Answer
Answer: a
d) Aston
Explanation: No two molecules will be
View Answer fragmented and ionized in exactly the same
Answer: a manner. This is how different molecules are
Explanation: J.J Thompson introduced mass identified in a complex mixture.
spectrometers. Aston modified the instrument 7. The procedure for mass spectroscopy
to make it more accurate. starts with which of the following processes?
3. In mass spectrometer, the sample that has to a) The sample is bombarded by electron
be analysed is bombarded with which of the beam
following? b) The ions are separated by passing them
into electric and magnetic field
a) Protons
c) The sample is converted into gaseous state
b) Electrons d) The ions are detected
c) Neutrons View Answer
d) Alpha particles Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: The procedure for mass
Answer: b spectroscopy starts with converting the
Explanation: In mass spectrometer, the sample sample into a gaseous state. This is done by
which is to be analysed is bombarded with chemical processes.
electrons. As a result, ions are produced. 8. In a mass spectrometer, the ion currents
are measured using which of the following?
4. Mass spectrometer separates ions on the
a) Scintillation counter
basis of which of the following? b) Ion counter
a) Mass c) Electrometer tube
b) Charge d) Electric fields
c) Molecular weight View Answer
d) Mass to charge ratio Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: The ion currents are measured
using a sensitive electrometer tube. The ions a) Inlet system
reaching the collecting plate are measured. b) Sweep generator
9. Which of the following ions pass through c) Ion transducer
the slit and reach the collecting plate? d) Mass analyser
a) Negative ions of all masses
View Answer
b) Positive ions of all masses
Answer: b
c) Negative ions of specific mass
Explanation: Sweep generator is not a
d) Positive ions of specific mass
component of a mass spectrometer. It is a
View Answer
component of NMR spectrometer.
Answer: d
Explanation: Positive ions of specific mass 2. Which of the following can be
pass through the slit and reach the collecting introduced into the ionization chamber
plate. These ions are measured. directly?
10. Which of the following statements is not a) Solid samples with low vapour pressure
true about mass spectrometry? b) Solid samples with high vapour
a) Impurities of masses different from the one pressure
being analysed interferes with the result c) Liquid samples with low density
b) It has great sensitivity d) Liquid samples with high density
c) It is suitable for data storage View Answer
d) It is suitable for library retrieval Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Solid samples with low vapour
Answer: a pressure can be introduced into the ionization
Explanation: Impurities of masses different chamber directly.
from the one being analysed does not 3. Inlet system is also known as which of
interfere with the result in mass spectroscopy.
This is a major advantage of this technique.
the following?
a) Initial system
11. In mass spectrometer, the sample gas is b) Sample reservoir
introduced into the highly evacuated c) Sample handling system
spectrometer tube and it is ionised by electron d) Element injection system
beam. View Answer
a) True Answer: c
b) False Explanation: Inlet system introduces the
View Answer sample into the ion source. Hence, it is called
Answer: a a sample handling system.
Explanation: The sample gas is introduced 4. Which of the following is normally done
into the highly evacuated spectrometer tube to convert the sample into the gaseous
and it is ionised by an electron beam. The state?
sample has to be in a gaseous state. a) Sample is pressurized
b) Chemical reactions are made to occur
Analytical Instrumentation c) Sample is heated
d) Sample is cooled
Questions and Answers – View Answer
Components of Mass Answer: c
Explanation: The sample must always be in
Spectrometer the gaseous state. Hence, the liquid sample
This set of Analytical Instrumentation must be heated before introducing them into
Multiple Choice Questions & Answers the ionization chamber.
(MCQs) focuses on “Components of Mass 5. Which of the following probes are used
Spectrometer”. for the introduction of the sample?
1. Which of the following is not a a) Silica
component of mass spectrometer? b) Quartz
c) Graphite Answer: b
d) Silver Explanation: Flame emission detector is not a
View Answer type of ion detector used in mass
Answer: a spectrometers. Ion detectors produce a
Explanation: Solid samples with low vapour current on the output side when there are ions
pressure are introduced into the entrance of on the input side.
the chamber. They are introduced using silica 10. Which of the following is used to inject
or platinum probe. liquid samples?
6. Which of the following is not a type of a) Hypodermic needle
ionisation? b) Glass bulb
a) Field ionisation c) Capillary tube
b) Spontaneous ionisation d) Curvette
c) Spark ionisation View Answer
d) Chemical ionisation Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Liquid samples are injected
Answer: b through hypodermic needles. It is vaporized at
Explanation: Spontaneous ionisation is not a low pressure.
type of ionisation. In mass spectrometer, 11. Under which of the following
ionisation is brought about by thermal or temperatures is the ionisation chamber
electrical energy. maintained?
7. Mass analyser is similar to which of the a) 100oC
following in optical spectrometer? b) 200oC
a) Source c) 300oC
b) Monochromator d) 400oC
c) Detector View Answer
d) Sample Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: The ionisation chamber is
Answer: b maintained at 200oC. It is also maintained at
Explanation: Mass analyser is similar to low pressure.
monochromator in an optical spectrometer. It 12. Given below is the block diagram of
separates ions according to their mass/charge mass spectrometer. Identify the unmarked
ratio. component.
8. Which of the following is not one of the
types of mass analyser?
a) Magnetic sector analyser
b) Frequency sweep analyser
c) Double focussing spectrometer a) Inlet system
d) Time of flight analyser b) Ionisation chamber
View Answer c) Vacuum system
Answer: b d) Ion transducer
Explanation: Frequency sweep analyser is not View Answer
a type of mass analyser. There are many Answer: d
devices available for mass analysis. Explanation: The unmarked component is ion
9. Which of the following is not a type of transducer. It will give current at the output at
ion detector used in mass spectrometers? its output side when ions are present on the
a) Electron multiplier input side.
b) Flame emission detector 13. Which of the following is not a
c) Faraday cup collector characteristic of nebulizers that are commonly
d) Photographic plates used?
a) Low cost
View Answer b) Low uptake rate
c) High efficiency d) Along it
d) High uptake rate View Answer
View Answer Answer: c
Answer: d Explanation: Acceleration in the mass
Explanation: Commonly used nebulizers have spectrometer, is applied perpendicular to the
a low uptake rate. They also have low cost direction of motion. The velocity of the object
and high efficiency. remains constant.
14. In glow discharge ion source, the sample 3. Direct focussing is obtained by
is atomised by which of the following process? deflecting the ion beam along a
a) Evaporation
_________ trajectory through the
b) Sputtering
c) Heating magnetic field.
d) Annealing a) 120o
View Answer b) 150o
Answer: b c) 190o
Explanation: In glow discharge ion source, the d) 180o
sample is atomised by the process of View Answer
sputtering. It not only atomizes the sample but Answer: d
also provides means by which these atoms Explanation: Direct focussing is obtained by
are ionized. deflecting the ion beam along a 180otrajectory
through a magnetic field. The gap between
the poles must be large enough to contain the
Analytical Instrumentation ion source.
Questions and Answers – 4. Which of the following separate the ions
according to their mass-to-charge?
Magnetic Deflection Mass a) Ion source
Spectrometer b) Detector
This set of Analytical Instrumentation c) Magnetic sector
Multiple Choice Questions & Answers d) Electric sector
(MCQs) focuses on “Magnetic Deflection View Answer
Mass Spectrometer”. Answer: c
1. Which of the following produces the Explanation: Magnetic sector will separate the
electron beam in magnetic deflection ions according to their mass-to-charge. The
mass spectrometer? magnet will decide the mass to charge ratio.
a) Tungsten filament 5. Mattauch-Herzog geometry involves a
b) Quartz rod deflection of which of the following radians
c) Silica in a radial electrostatic field analyser?
d) Rhodium filament a) √2Π
View Answer b) Π/2
Answer: a c) Π/3√4
Explanation: Tungsten filament produces the d) Π/4√2
electron beam in magnetic deflection mass View Answer
spectrometer. The electrons are produced by Answer: d
the heated filament. Explanation: Mattauch-Herzog geometry
2. In magnetic deflection mass involves a deflection of Π/4√2 radians in a
spectrometer, in which of the following radial electrostatic field analyser. It is followed
ways is acceleration applied to the by a magnetic deflection of Π/2 radians.
direction of motion? 6. Which of the following leads to the
a) In random manner limitation of resolution?
b) Parallel to it a) All ions do not have same energy
c) Perpendicular to it b) All ions do not have same charge
c) All ions are not of the same size Answer: b
d) All ions do not have the same charge Explanation: Nier-Johnson geometry involves
View Answer a deflection of Π/2 radians in a radial
Answer: a electrostatic field analyser. A magnetic
Explanation: The resolution is limited as all deflection of Π/3 radians follows the analyser.
ions do not have the same energy. Hence, the 11. An accuracy of 1 part in 102 has been
ions would not have the same velocity. obtained in precision mass measurements.
7. The electric sector field is not subject to a) True
b) False
hysteresis.
View Answer
a) True Answer: b
b) False Explanation: An accuracy of 1 part in 109 has
View Answer been obtained in precision mass
Answer: a measurements. Spectrographs with
Explanation: The electric sector field is not photographic reading are used for analysis of
subject to hysteresis. Hence, the relationship solids.
between mass to charge ratio and
accelerating voltage is linear.
8. Which of the following components Analytical Instrumentation
need to be added in order to increase the Questions and Answers –
resolution?
a) Ion source Time of Flight Mass
b) Detector Spectrometer
c) Magnetic sector This set of Analytical Instrumentation
d) Electric sector Questions and Answers for Aptitude test
View Answer focuses on “Time of Flight Mass
Answer: d Spectrometer”.
Explanation: Electric sector needs to be 1. Which of the following is not a
added in order to increase the resolution. This component of the time of flight analyser
compensates for the decrease in resolution
due to varying velocities.
spectrometer?
9. Which of the following is commonly a) Ion source
varied in magnetic deflection mass b) Field free separation region
spectrometer? c) Electron multiplication region
a) Electric sector d) Photo tube
b) Magnetic fold strength View Answer
Answer: d
c) Magnetic constant Explanation: Phototube is not a component of
d) Electric constant time of flight mass spectrometer. Time of flight
View Answer mass analyser is a type of mass
Answer: b spectrometer.
Explanation: Magnetic fold strength is usually 2. Time of flight mass spectrometer has
varied in magnetic deflection mass an unlimited mass range.
spectrometer. Electric sector is kept constant.
a) True
10. Nier-Johnson geometry involves a
b) False
deflection of which of the following radians
View Answer
in a radial electrostatic field analyser? Answer: a
a) Π Explanation: Time of flight mass spectrometer
b) Π/2 is a type of mass spectrometer. It has
c) Π/3 unlimited mass range.
d) Π/4 3. Which of the following is not an
View Answer advantage of mass spectrometer?
a) Simple 7. In the time of flight mass spectrometer,
b) Rugged ions are formed by which of the following
c) High sensitivity methods?
d) Unlimited mass range a) Pulsed ionization method
View Answer b) Acceleration method
Answer: c c) Dynamic method
Explanation: Time of flight mass d) Ion excitation method
spectrometers have limited sensitivity and View Answer
resolution. They are simple and rugged. Answer: a
4. All the ions entering the tube have the Explanation: In the time of flight mass
same kinetic energy. spectrometer, ions are formed by pulsed
a) True ionisation method. It is a type of mass
b) False spectrometer.
View Answer 8. The evacuated tube is also known as
Answer: a which of the following?
Explanation: Separation of ions occurs while a) Pulse tube
they are moving from the ion source to the b) Detector tube
detector. All the ions entering the tube have c) Drift tube
the same kinetic energy. d) Acceleration tube
5. If all the ions have the same kinetic View Answer
energy how are their masses related to Answer: c
their velocities? Explanation: The evacuated tube is also
a) Mass and velocity are equal known as a drift tube. The electrons move
b) Mass and velocity are not related from source to detector through the tube.
c) Mass and velocity are directly 9. The current produced by ions arriving at
proportional the collector necessitates the use of which
d) Mass and velocity are inversely of the following?
proportional a) Wide band amplifier
View Answer b) Narrow band amplifier
Answer: d c) Wide band filter
Explanation: If all the ions have the same d) Narrow band filter
kinetic energy, mass and velocity are View Answer
inversely proportional. This is used in the Answer: a
separation of ions. Explanation: The current produced by ions
6. Which of the following is true about time arriving at the collector has very short
of flight analyser spectrometers? duration. Hence, it necessitates the use of
a) Lighter particles arrive at the detector wide band amplifier.
earlier 10. Which of the following is an ion optic
b) Heavier particle arrive at the detector device in which ions pass through a mirror
earlier and their flight is reversed?
c) Lighter and heavier particles arrive a) Reversal device
together at the detector b) Reflectron
d) Lighter particles do not reach the c) Mirror arrangement
detector d) Separation chamber
View Answer View Answer
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: Lighter particles arrive at the Explanation: Reflectron is an ion optic device
detector earlier than the heavier particles. The in which ions pass through a mirror and their
time difference is used to separate the flight is reversed. It is used in time of flight
electrons according to their mass. mass spectrometer.
11. Which of the following statements about stages. Each stage is a series of three equally
mass spectrometers are not true? spaced parallel grids.
a) Time of flight mass spectrometer has the 3. The alternating voltage rf voltage is
ability to record the entire mass spectrum at a applied to which of the following?
time a) All grids
b) Time of flight mass spectrometers have b) Central grid
poor resolution
c) Alternate grids
c) Conventional spectrometer detects only
one peak at a time d) None of the grids
d) All spectrometers have the ability to record View Answer
the entire mass spectrum at a time Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: The alternating voltage rf voltage
Answer: d is applied to the central grid. All the other grids
Explanation: Conventional spectrometer are kept at ground potential.
detects only one peak at a time. Time of flight 4. The rf spectrometer contains a magnet.
mass spectrometer has the ability to record a) True
the entire mass spectrum at a time. b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Analytical Instrumentation Explanation: Rf spectrometer does not contain
Questions and Answers – a magnet. Rf field is applied for this type of
mass spectrometer.
Radiofrequency Mass 5. The DC ion accelerating voltage is
Spectrometer swept from _________
This set of Analytical Instrumentation a) 0 to 50 V
Multiple Choice Questions & Answers b) 50 to 100 V
(MCQs) focuses on “Radiofrequency c) 200 to 300 V
Mass Spectrometer”. d) 50 to 250 V
1. Which of the following is placed just View Answer
before the detector in a radiofrequency Answer: d
mass spectrometer? Explanation: The DC ion accelerating voltage
a) Ion source is swept from 50 to 250 V. This is done twice
per second.
b) Potential energy selector
6. The resolution of the Bennet tube can
c) Ionisation chamber
be improved by using which of the
d) Reflectron
following?
View Answer
Answer: b
a) Sine wave rf signal
Explanation: A potential energy selector is b) Square wave rf signal
placed before the detector. It balances out the c) Triangular wave rf signal
energy of the ion beam. d) Random signal
2. Which of the following is applied in one View Answer
or more stages where each stage is a Answer: b
series of three equally spaced parallel Explanation: The resolution of the Bennet tube
grids? can be improved by using square wave rf
signal. Usually, sinusoidal wave signal is
a) Ionisation field used.
b) Reflection 7. In Bennet spectrometer, the rf voltage
c) RF field has a fixed frequency.
d) Acceleration a) True
View Answer b) False
Answer: c
Explanation: RF field is applied in one or more
View Answer
Answer: a type spectrometer is primarily based on the
Explanation: In Bennet spectrometer, the rf difference between the individual rf
voltage has a fixed frequency. It is modulated accelerating stages.
at 10 percent at 1kHz.
8. The spurious lines can be reduced to a
minimum by using which of the following?
Analytical Instrumentation
a) Single stage tube Questions and Answers –
b) Two stage tube Quadrupole Mass
c) Three stage tube
d) Reflectron Spectrometer
View Answer This set of Analytical Instrumentation
Answer: c Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
Explanation: The spurious lines can be (MCQs) focuses on “Quadrupole Mass
reduced to a minimum by using three stage Spectrometer”.
tubes. Two stage tubes tend to produce 1. Which of the following is not a feature
spurious lines. of quadrupole mass spectrometer?
9. Which of the following is the a) Low cost
disadvantage of using three stage tubes? b) Light weight
a) Reduced resolution c) Low speed electronic scanning
b) Bulky construction d) Simple in construction
c) Complex View Answer
d) Heavy Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: In quadrupole mass
Answer: a spectrometer, electronic scanning takes place.
Explanation: The spurious lines can be The scanning takes place at high speed.
reduced to a minimum by using three stage 2. Which of the following is not a
tubes. This results in reduced resolving component of quadrupole mass filter?
power. a) Electrodes
10. Which of the following is not the b) Choke
feature of Bennet type spectrometer? c) DC potential
a) Lightweight d) Detector
b) Simple View Answer
c) Absence of spurious lines Answer: d
d) Moderate resolution Explanation: Detector is not a part of the filter.
View Answer The filter uses DC potential.
Answer: c 3. The mass selection scheme uses a dc
Explanation: Absence of spurious lines is not potential and not a radio frequency
a feature of Bennet type spectrometer. potential.
Spurious lines can be reduced by adding new
a) True
features.
11. The resolving power of Bennet type b) False
spectrometer is primarily based on which of View Answer
the following? Answer: b
a) Distance between detector and reflectron Explanation: The mass selection scheme uses
b) Difference between the individual rf a dc potential. It also uses radio frequency
accelerating stages potential.
c) Length of the drift tube 4. If to one pair of electrodes one potential
d) Laser beam used with one sign is applied, which of the
View Answer following is applied to the other pair of
Answer: b electrodes?
Explanation: The resolving power of Bennet a) Same potential with same sign
b) Different potential with same sign
c) Different potential with different sign
d) Same potential with different sign
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If to one pair of electrodes one
potential with one sign is applied, same
potential with a different sign is applied to the
opposite electrodes.
5. Which of the following is the heart of
quadrupole instrument?
a) Electrodes
b) Choke
c) DC potential
d) Detector
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Electrodes are the heart of
quadrupole instrument. Opposite electrodes
are electrically connected.
6. Which of the following has to be done
to increase the resolution of the
quadrupole mass spectrometer?
a) Increasing distance between detector
and reflectron
b) Increasing difference between the
individual rf accelerating stages
c) Increasing the length of the drift tube
d) Increasing the rod length of the
electrode
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The resolution depends upon the
electrode. The length of the electrode has to
be increased for increasing the resolution.
7. Which of the following does not affect
the resolution of the instrument?
a) Changing length of electrode
b) Changing slope of scan line
c) Quality of machining of the rods
d) Changing length of drift tube
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Changing length of drift tube
does not affect the resolution of the
instrument. Increase in resolution results in an
increase in the number of ions reaching the
detector.
8. In cases where differentiation is
required between very similar substances,
which of the following techniques making
use of quadrupole principle is preferred?
a) Evaporation mass spectrometry
b) Pyrolysis mass spectrometry
c) Plasma mass spectrometry
d) Trapped ion mass spectrometry
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In cases where differentiation is
required between very similar substances,
pyrolysis mass spectrometry is used. The
sample is usually solid or involatile liquid in
this case.
9. In pyrolysis spectrometry, heating is
done until which of the following is
reached?
a) Curie point
b) Boiling point
c) Until production of superheated vapour
d) Until 100oC
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In pyrolysis spectrometry,
heating is done until curie point is reached. At
this point, magnetic permeability drops
abruptly.
10. Which of the following is used to cool
the ion source?
a) Liquid sodium shield
b) Liquid nitrogen shield
c) Water
d) Freon
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Liquid nitrogen cooled shield is
used to cool the ion source. It reduces source
contamination.
11. In quadrupole mass spectrometer, the
ratio u/v is mass dependent, where ‘u’ is the
DC voltage and ‘v’ is the peak amplitude.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In quadrupole mass
spectrometer, the ratio u/v is mass
independent, where ‘u’ is the DC voltage and
‘v’ is the peak amplitude. This ratio is kept
constant.
12. When a value of q is kept constant, the
value of m/e is proportional to which of the
following when ‘m’ is the mass number, ‘e’ is d) Electron multiplier transducer
the electric charge, ‘u’ is the DC potential, ‘v’ View Answer
is the peak amplitude and ‘f’ is the frequency? Answer: d
a) u/v ratio Explanation: Electron multiplier transducer is
b) u used in places where ion currents are very
c) v low. Its primary cathode detects ions.
d) f 4. Discrete type electron multiplier
View Answer transducers can provide current gain upto
Answer: c
which of the following?
Explanation: When a value of q is kept
constant, the value of m/e is proportional to a) 102
‘v’. By variation of rf amplitude the m/e ratio b) 105
varies. c) 107
d) 1011
View Answer
Analytical Instrumentation Answer: c
Questions and Answers – Ion Explanation: Discrete type electron multiplier
transducers can provide current gain upto 102.
Transducers Upto 20 dynodes need to be used for this
This set of Analytical Instrumentation purpose.
Multiple Choice Questions & Answers 5. Continuous dynode electron multiplier
(MCQs) focuses on “Ion Transducers”. transducer is a trumpet shaped device
1. Which of the following is not an ion made with which of the following?
transducer or detector? a) Glass doped with lead
a) Faraday cup collector b) Steel doped with bronze
b) Channeltron c) Phosphor bronze doped with iron
c) Micro-channel plate d) Iron doped with calcium
d) Flame ionization detector View Answer
View Answer Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: Continuous dynode electron
Explanation: Flame ionization detector is not multiplier transducer is a trumpet shaped
an ion transducer. It is a detector used in device made of glass. It is heavily doped with
chromatography. lead.
2. Which of the following is similar to 6. The potential maintained across the
photo multiplier transducer? continuous dynode multiplier transducer is
a) Faraday cup collector which of the following?
b) Channeltron a) 1 to 5kV
c) Micro-channel plate b) 5 to 10kV
d) Electron multiplier transducer c) 2.5 to 6.2kV
View Answer d) 1.8 to 2kV
Answer: d View Answer
Explanation: Electron multiplier transducer is Answer: d
similar to photo multiplier transducer. The Explanation: The potential maintained across
difference is that its primary cathode detects the continuous dynode multiplier transducer is
ions rather than photons. 1.8 to 2kV. Electrons cascade down the tube.
3. Which of the following is used in places 7. Which of the following are not the
where ion currents are very low? characteristics of an electron multiplier
a) Faraday cup collector transducer?
b) Channeltron a) Rugged
c) Micro-channel plate b) Reliable
c) Microsecond of response time required
d) High current gain with silver bromide. These are sensitive to
View Answer energetic ions.
Answer: c 12. Which of the following detectors are well
Explanation: Electron multiplier transducer suited for spark source instruments?
requires the only nanosecond of response a) Faraday cup collector
time. It provides a high current gain. b) Photographic plates
8. Which of the following are true about c) Micro-channel plate
dynodes used in discrete dynode electron d) Electron multiplier transducer
multiplier? View Answer
a) The dynodes are all kept at same voltage Answer: b
b) Successive dynodes are held at lower Explanation: Photographic plates are well
potential suited for spark source instruments. It has
c) Successive dynodes are held at higher great sensitivity.
potential 13. Photographic plates have greater
d) All dynodes are held at very low potential sensitivity and resolution than electron
View Answer multipliers.
Answer: c a) True
Explanation: In discrete dynode electron b) False
multiplier, successive dynodes are held at View Answer
higher potential. Dynodes are metal plates Answer: a
with copper or beryllium surfaces. Explanation: Photographic plates have greater
9. In which of the following detectors, the sensitivity and resolution than electron
collector is placed in an inclined manner? multipliers. This is because they integrate the
a) Faraday cup collector ion signals over a period of time.
b) Channeltron 14. Which of the following detectors consist of
c) Micro-channel plate an array of glass capillaries?
d) Electron multiplier transducer a) Faraday cup collector
View Answer b) Photographic plates
Answer: a c) Micro-channel plate
Explanation: The collector is placed in an d) Electron multiplier transducer
inclined manner in a faraday cup collector. View Answer
This is to reflect the ions away from the Answer: c
entrance of the cup. Explanation: Micro-channel plate consists of
10. Which of the following is the least an array of glass capillaries. They are coated
sensitive ion detector? with electron emissive materials.
a) Faraday cup collector 15. Which of the following detectors can be
b) Channeltron used for ions with short life time?
c) Micro-channel plate a) Faraday cup collector
d) Electron multiplier transducer b) Photographic plates
View Answer c) Micro-channel plate
Answer: a d) Electron multiplier transducer
Explanation: Faraday cup collector is the least View Answer
sensitive ion detector. It is used in places Answer: b
where great sensitivity is not required. Explanation: Photographic plates can be used
11. Photographic plates are coated with which for ions with short life time. This is because
of the following? they integrate the ion signal over a period of
a) Lead time.
b) Quartz
c) Silver bromide
d) Mercuric sulphate Analytical Instrumentation
View Answer Questions and Answers –
Answer: c
Explanation: Photographic plates are coated

Inductively Coupled Plasma
Mass Spectrometer
This set of Analytical Instrumentation
online test focuses on “Inductively
Coupled Plasma Mass Spectrometer”.
1. ICP’s principle is similar to which of the
following?
a) Flame emission spectroscopy
b) Fourier transforms spectroscopy
c) Atomic emission spectroscopy
d) Absorption spectroscopy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: ICP’s principle is similar to
atomic emission spectroscopy. Samples are
decomposed to neural elements in argon
plasma in this method.
2. ICP is used to analyse samples in
which of the following states?
a) Solids
b) Liquids
c) Gases
d) Solids and liquids
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ICP is used to analyse samples
in both solid and liquid states. Atomic
emission spectrometer is used to analyse only
solid samples.
3. Solid samples are introduced into the
ICP spectrometer using which of the
following?
a) Nebulizer
b) Curvette having glass windows
c) Probe
d) Laser ablation system
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ICP spectrometer can be used
for solid samples. They are introduced using a
laser ablation system.
4. Liquid samples are introduced into the
ICP spectrometer using which of the
following?
a) Nebulizer
b) Curvette having glass windows
c) Probe
d) Laser ablation system
Answer: a
Explanation: ICP spectrometer can be used
for liquid samples. Aqueous samples are
introduced using the nebulizer.
5. Atomisation or ionisation occurs at which of
the following conditions?
a) Vacuum pressure
b) Atmospheric pressure
c) Low pressure
d) High pressure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Atomization or ionisation occurs
at atmospheric pressure. The interface
between the ICP and MS components are
crucial in creating a vacuum.
6. Ions flow is pumped into the vacuum
system using which of the following?
a) Orifice
b) Nozzle
c) Venturi meter
d) Dall tube
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ions flow is pumped into the
vacuum system using orifice. It expands in the
vacuum system.
7. Which of the following is not the
characteristic of ICP spectrometer?
a) Easy sample introduction
b) It can trace multiple elements
c) High detection limits
d) Accurate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: ICP spectrometer has low
detection limits of a mass spectrometer. It is
capable of tracking multiple elements.
8. ICP spectrometer is a sequential multi-
element analyser that has scan times less
than ____ for one sweep.
a) 10ms
b) 20ms
c) 50ms
d) 100ms
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ICP spectrometer is a sequential
multi-element analyser that has scan times
less than 20ms for one sweep. Quadrupole
mass analyser gives a better unit mass
resolution.
9. Double focussing section analysers offer
better resolution than ICP spectrometry
system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Double focussing section
analysers offer better resolution than ICP
spectrometry system. Their disadvantage is
that they are large and have a high capital
cost.
10. The most common type of ion detector
found in ICP system is which of the following?
a) Faraday cup collector
b) Channeltron
c) Micro-channel plate
d) Flame ionization detector
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The most common type of ion
detector found in ICP system is channel tron
electron multiplier. It is a cone or horn shaped
tube.
11. Which of the following is the most
accurate method of determination of
elemental composition?
a) Spectroscopy
b) Isotope dilution
c) Isobar dilution
d) Chromatography
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The most accurate method of
determination of elemental composition is
isotope dilution. It permits the calculation of
the concentration of an element.
12. Which of the following is the disadvantage
of ICP mass spectroscopy?
a) Incapable of multi-element analysis
b) Less sensitivity
c) Impossible to obtain isotopic information
d) Not useful for detection of non-metals
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ICP mass spectroscopy has a
multi-element capability and high sensitivity. It
is not capable of multi-element analysis.
13. The isobaric interference is not caused in
which of the following elements?
a) Argon
b) Oxygen
c) Helium
d) Nitrogen
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The isobaric interference is not
caused due to isotopes of helium. It is caused
by isotopes of argon, oxygen and nitrogen.
Analytical Instrumentation
Questions and Answers –
Gas Chromatograph- Mass
Spectrometer
This set of Analytical Instrumentation
Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
(MCQs) focuses on “Gas Chromatograph-
Mass Spectrometer”.
1. Which of the following is the most
sensitive of the spectral methods?
a) Absorption spectroscopy
b) Mass spectroscopy
c) Flame emission spectroscopy
d) Atomic emission spectroscopy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mass spectroscopy is the most
sensitive of the spectral methods. It permits
direct introduction of a gas effluent’s stream.
2. Which of the following is the
disadvantage of gas chromatography?
a) It is not a good method
b) It cannot be used for qualitative
analysis
c) It cannot be used for the separation of
volatile components
d) It does not provide direct identification
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Gas chromatography is a very
good method for separation of components of
a mixture. It does not provide direct
identification.
3. Cold tray is provided for liquid N2 or
CO2 but is used only for extremely small
samples.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cold tray is provided for liquid
N2 or CO2. It is used only for mass spectral molecular weight would diffuse at a higher
analysis of very small samples. rate than the higher molecular weight sample.
4. Which of the following is most often The carrier gas would diffuse away from the
used in the chromatograph in gas line of flow.
chromatograph MS? 8. Which of the following is the type of
a) Curvette separator used in commercial GC-MS
b) Paper support systems?
c) Capillary tube a) Jet type molecular separator
d) Flask b) Porous tube
View Answer c) Teflon tube
Answer: c d) Flow type separator
Explanation: Capillary tube is most often used View Answer
in the chromatograph in gas chromatograph Answer: a
MS. This is because low pressure has to be Explanation: Jet type molecular separator is
maintained. the type of separator used in commercial GC-
5. GC- MS has been developed for which MS systems. Other methods are porous tube
of the following systems? and Teflon tube.
a) Packed column 9. The system for measurement of ion
b) Open tubular column intensity in GS-MS system consists of
c) Capillary column which of the following?
d) Porous layer column a) Electrometer
View Answer b) Ion meter
Answer: a c) Ion transducer
Explanation: GC- MS has been developed for d) Intensity meter
packed column system. These allow for View Answer
analyte molecules to be dynamically extracted Answer: a
from the carrier gas stream. Explanation: The system for measurement of
6. Which of the following problems occur ion intensity in GS-MS system consists of
when combining gas chromatography and electrometer. It feeds a direct writing recorder.
mass spectroscopy? 10. The system for measurement of ion
a) Difference in operating pressures intensity in GS-MS system consists of
b) Reduction in sensitivity which of the following?
c) Direct identification is not possible a) Band pass amplifier
d) It does not permit direct introduction of b) Narrow band amplifier
the effluent c) Wide band amplifier
View Answer d) Low pass amplifier
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: The problem that occurs when Answer: c
combining gas chromatography and mass Explanation: The system for measurement of
spectroscopy is the difference in operating ion intensity in GS-MS system consists of a
pressures. The pressure at the exit of the GC wide band amplifier. It feeds a direct writing
column is atmospheric. recorder.
7. The carrier gas with low molecular
weight would diffuse at a higher rate than Analytical Instrumentation
the higher molecular weight sample.
a) True Questions and Answers –
b) False Liquid Chromatograph- Mass
View Answer
Answer: a Spectrometer
Explanation: The carrier gas with low
This set of Analytical Instrumentation make-up gas are introduced coaxially into the
Multiple Choice Questions & Answers heated nebulization region.
(MCQs) focuses on “Liquid 5. Only ______ percent of the effluent of
Chromatograph- Mass Spectrometer”. the liquid chromatography must be
1. Introduction of total HPLC effluent into introduced in the mass spectrometer.
MS is feasible. a) 1-2 %
a) True b) 1-5 %
b) False c) 1-20 %
View Answer d) 1-15 %
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: Introduction of total HPLC Answer: b
effluent into MS is not feasible. The simplest Explanation: Only 1-5 percent of the effluent
method is the introduction of liquid from LC to of the liquid chromatography must be
the MS ion source region. introduced in the mass spectrometer.
2. The gas burden from conventional LC Therefore, the total effluent must be split.
flow rates creates nearly _____ times 6. Which of the following is the normal
more gas than cryo-pumped vacuum nebuliser temperature used in LC mass
system can handle. spectrometry?
a) 5 a) 50-100oC
b) 10 b) 100-200oC
c) 20 c) 125-150oC
d) 40 d) 150-200oC
View Answer View Answer
Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: The gas burden from Explanation: 125-150oC is the normal
conventional LC flow rates creates nearly 20 nebuliser temperature used in LC mass
times more gas than cryo-pumped vacuum spectrometry. It is suitable for a variety of
system can handle. applications.
3. Which of the following should be in a 7. The ions are focussed and de-clustered
position to split the effluent? through which of the following regions?
a) Interface a) Dry helium region
b) Ion source b) Wet oxygen region
c) Makeup gas c) Wet chlorine region
d) Microbore d) Dry nitrogen region
View Answer View Answer
Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: Interface should be in a position Explanation: The ions are focussed and de-
to split the effluent. LC-MS is a very clustered through a dry nitrogen region. It is
advantageous method. then sent into the high vacuum analyser.
4. Which of the following is the most 8. The ions are passed into the high vacuum
commonly used interface? analyser through which of the following?
a) Orifice
a) Nebulizer
b) Nozzle
b) Chopper c) Nebulizer
c) Filter d) Venturi tube
d) Vapourising chamber View Answer
View Answer Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: The ions are sent into the high
Explanation: Nebulizer is the most commonly vacuum analyser through an orifice. It is then
used interface. The nebulizer gas and the mass analysed.
9. Using an interface would reduce detection
limit and sensitivity.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The total effluent must be split.
Using an interface would reduce detection
limit and sensitivity.
10. Gas burden from conventional LC flow
rates is which of the following?
a) 1ml/min of water produces 1.2 l/mm of gas
b) 1ml/min of water produces 2.4 l/mm of gas
c) 2ml/min of water produces 3.2 l/mm of gas
d) 1ml/min of water produces 4.2 l/mm of gas
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In LC-mass spectrometry,
1ml/min of water produces 1.2 l/mm of gas.
This is the gas burden that conventional flow
rates produced.
Analytical Instrumentation
Questions and Answers –
Tandem Mass Spectroscopy
This set of Analytical Instrumentation
Questions and Answers for Campus
interviews focuses on ” Tandem Mass
Spectroscopy”.
1. Tandem mass spectroscopy combines
which of the following devices?
a) Mass spectrometer and gas-solid
chromatograph
b) Mass spectrometer and gas-liquid
chromatograph
c) Mass spectrometer and gas
chromatograph
d) Mass spectrometer and mass
spectrometer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Tandem mass spectroscopy
combines two mass spectrometers. It is
represented as MS/MS.
2. In tandem spectroscopy, the first stage
sepatation device is a mass spectrometer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In tandem spectroscopy, the first
stage sepatation device is a mass
spectrometer. It is represented as MS/MS.
3. Which of the following is used to
separate a single mass that is
characteristic of a given analyte in a
mixture?
a) First mass spectrometer
b) Second mass spectrometer
c) Filter
d) Precursor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: First mass spectrometer is used
to separate a single mass that is characteristic
of a given analyte in a mixture. The single
mass is known as the precursor.
4. The mass-selected ions are activated in
which of the following ways that cause
them to fall apart to produce product ions?
a) Collisional activation
b) Evaporational activation
c) Inert gas activation
d) Thermal activation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The mass-selected ions are
activated by some means that cause them to
fall apart to produce product ions. They are
activated by collisional activation.
5. The final MS/MS spectrum consists
only of product ions from the selected
precursor.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The final MS/MS spectrum
consists only of product ions from the selected
precursor. The chemical background and
other mixture components are absent.
6. In reverse-geometry mass
spectrometer which of the following
precedes the electric sector?
a) Nebulizer
b) Orifice
c) Magnetic sector
d) Mass spectrometer
View Answer
Answer: c a) Same kinetic energy
Explanation: In reverse-geometry mass b) Different kinetic energies
spectrometer magnetic sector precedes the c) Same mass
electric sector. Early work on MS/MS was d) Different mass
done with reverse-geometry double focussing
View Answer
mass spectrometer.
Answer: a
7. A magnetic sector alone can be used Explanation: All ions with the same number of
as a mass spectrometer, with roughly charges will have the same kinetic energy. It
_____ resolution. is assumed that all ions have a single charge.
a) Low 11. A tandem mass spectrometer has
b) High which of the following analysers?
c) Unit a) Time of flight mass analyser
d) Infinite b) Magnetic deflection analyser
View Answer c) Radiofrequency analyser
Answer: c d) Quadrupole analyser
Explanation: A magnetic sector alone can be View Answer
used as a mass spectrometer, with roughly Answer: a
unit resolution. Early work on MS/MS was Explanation: A tandem mass spectrometer
done with reverse-geometry double focussing has a filter. The filter is followed by a time of
mass spectrometer. flight mass analyser.
8. What does the acronym ‘MIKES’ stand 12. Which of the following filters are used
for? in tandem spectrometer?
a) Mass-analysed ion kinetic energy a) Quadrupole mass filter
spectrometer b) Low energy filter
b) Mass-based induced kinetic energy c) High energy filter
spectrometer d) Time of flight mass filter
c) Mass invasive kinetic electric View Answer
spectrometer Answer: a
d) Mass-analyser in a kinetic energy-type Explanation: A tandem mass spectrometer
spectrometer has a quadrupole mass filter. The filter is
View Answer followed by an analyser.
Answer: a 13. B/E scan is which of the following scans?
Explanation: ‘MIKES’ stands for mass- a) Product ion scan
analysed ion kinetic energy spectrometer. It is b) Precursor ion scan
related to spectrometers having magnetic field c) Mass scan
sectors. d) Charge scan
9. In MIKES experiments which of the View Answer
following are measured? Answer: a
a) Product ions Explanation: B/E ratio can be chosen to select
b) Product ion kinetic energies ions with a given velocity. It is a product ion
scan.
c) Product ions mass to charge ratio
14. Which of the following is located in the
d) Product ions masses region between two analysers?
View Answer a) Nebuliser
Answer: b b) Collision cell
Explanation: In MIKES experiments, mass to c) Filter
charge ratios are not measured. Product ion d) Vacuum chamber
kinetic energies are measured in these View Answer
experiments. Answer: b
10. All ions with the same number of Explanation: Collision cell is located in the
charges will have __________
region between two analysers. Low energy
parent ions are mass analysed.
15. Given below is the diagram of the drift
tube of a tandem quadrupole/time of flight
instrument. Identify the unmarked component.
a) Nebuliser
b) Filter
c) Chopper
d) Acceleration lens
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The unmarked component is
acceleration lens. A collision cell is located
before the acceleration lens.
Analytical Instrumentation
Questions and Answers –
Surface Spectroscopic
Techniques
This set of Analytical Instrumentation
Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
(MCQs) focuses on “Surface
Spectroscopic Techniques”.
1. Surface is usually more than _____
atomic layer deep and is a region of
________ atomic potentials.
a) One, uniform
b) One, non-uniform
c) Two, uniform
d) Two, non-uniform
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Surface is more than one atomic
layer deep and is a region of non-uniform
atomic potentials. The outermost layer of
atoms is called a surface.
2. Surface analysis can provide
information that classic methods like
microscopic cannot.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Surface analysis can provide
information that classic methods like
microscopic cannot. It is better than
reflectivity, adsorption isotherms, etc.
3. In surface spectrometer, which of the
following beam is analysed?
a) Reflected beam
b) Absorbed beam
c) Refracted beam
d) Incident beam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When a beam is focussed on a
surface, one beam enters the material and a
second beam is reflected. The reflected beam
is analysed.
4. Which of the following is a type of
electron spectroscopy?
a) MIKES
b) Auger spectroscopy
c) Secondary ion mass spectroscopy
d) Ion scattering spectroscopy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Auger spectroscopy is a type of
electron spectroscopy. Electron spectroscopy
for chemical analysis is also a type of electron
spectroscopy.
5. Surface analysis cannot provide any
chemical information directly.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Surface analysis can provide
chemical information. Electron and ion
spectroscopic techniques are types of surface
analysis.
6. Which of the following is also known as
X-ray photoelectron spectroscopy?
a) Auger electron spectroscopy
b) Electron impact spectroscopy
c) Electron spectroscopy for chemical
analysis
d) Secondary ion mass spectroscopy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Electron spectroscopy for
chemical analysis is also known as X-ray
photoelectron spectroscopy. It is an effective
technique for detecting the elements.
7. Which of the following methods utilizes
the emission of low energy electrons in a
process?
a) Auger electron spectroscopy
b) Electron impact spectroscopy
c) Electron spectroscopy for chemical
analysis
d) Secondary ion mass spectroscopy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Auger electron spectroscopy
utilizes the emission of low energy electrons in
auger process. It is one of the commonly
employed techniques.
8. Which of the following is the
abbreviation of ESCA?
a) Electron scattering chemical analysis
b) Emission spectroscopy combination
analysis
c) Electron spectroscopy for chemical
analysis
d) Electron spectrum chemically analysed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The abbreviation of ESCA is
Electron spectroscopy for chemical analysis. It
is a type of electron spectroscopy.
9. Which of the following methods use soft
X-rays to eject electrons from inner shell
orbitals?
a) Auger electron spectroscopy
b) Electron impact spectroscopy
c) Electron spectroscopy for chemical
analysis
d) Secondary ion mass spectroscopy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Electron spectroscopy for
chemical analysis using soft X-rays to eject
electrons from inner shell orbitals. It is a type
of electron spectroscopy.
10. Which of the following is the
abbreviation of SIMS?
a) Secondary ion mass spectroscopy
b) Spectrum ionization mass spectroscopy
c) Scattering ions mass spectroscopy
d) Spectral ionization mass spectroscopy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Secondary ion mass
spectroscopy is the abbreviation of SIMS. It is
a type of ion spectroscopy.
Analytical Instrumentation
Questions and Answers –
Electron Spectroscopy for
Chemical Analysis
This set of Analytical Instrumentation
Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
(MCQs) focuses on “Electron
Spectroscopy for Chemical Analysis”.
1. The kinetic energy of the photoelectron
energies is dependent on _________ of
the atom, which makes XPS useful to
identify the oxide state.
a) Mass
b) Charge
c) Chemical environment
d) Volume
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The kinetic energy of the
photoelectron energies is dependent on the
chemical environment of the atom, which
makes XPS useful to identify the oxide state.
It also helps to identify the ligands of the atom.
2. Ion etching techniques provides the
depth profiling from the surface.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ion etching techniques provides
the depth profiling from the surface. Binding
energy can also be used.
3. Electron spectroscopy is based on the
ionization phenomenon.
a) True b) 15-40
b) False c) 40-100
View Answer d) 100-200
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: Electron spectroscopy is based Answer: b
on the ionization phenomenon. It can be Explanation: ESCA gives sufficient chemical
ionization of photon or electron. information up to a depth about 15-40
4. The kinetic energy of the ejected armstrong in oxide. ESCA is also known as X-
photoelectron is dependent upon the ray photoelectron spectroscopy.
energy of which of the following? 8. ESCA can identify elements in the
a) Ions around periodic table above which of the
b) Photons around following?
c) Material a) Carbon
d) Impinging photon b) Boron
View Answer c) Helium
Answer: d d) Potassium
Explanation: The kinetic energy of the ejected View Answer
photoelectron is dependent upon the energy Answer: c
of an impinging photon. A free electron is Explanation: ESCA can identify elements in
ejected. the periodic table above helium. Adjacent
5. ESCA gives sufficient chemical elements are clearly distinguished.
information up to a depth about ________ 9. Discrete electrons cannot be observed
armstrong in metals. in electron ionization of an atom due to
a) 5-20 which of the following reasons?
b) 15-40 a) Environmental disturbances
c) 40-100 b) Same mass
d) 100-200 c) Same charge
View Answer d) Electron- electron interaction
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: ESCA gives sufficient chemical Answer: d
information up to a depth about 5-20 Explanation: Discrete electrons cannot be
armstrong in metals. ESCA is also known as observed in electron ionization of an atom
X-ray photoelectron spectroscopy. because of electron-electron interaction.
6. ESCA gives sufficient chemical Therefore, ESCA cannot be observed when
information up to a depth about ________ using electron ionization.
armstrong in polymers. 10. ESCA focusses on which of the
a) 5-20 following information?
b) 15-40 a) Mass of the electron
c) 40-100 b) Charge of the electron
d) 100-200 c) Binding energy of the electron
View Answer d) Mass of atoms
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: ESCA gives sufficient chemical Answer: c
information up to a depth about 40-100 Explanation: ESCA focusses on binding
armstrong in polymers. ESCA is also known energy of the electrons. It focusses on the
as X-ray photoelectron spectroscopy. binding energy which the electrons had before
7. ESCA gives sufficient chemical they left the atom.
information up to a depth about ________ 11. In the spectrum, two main peaks at
armstrong in oxide. _________ and ________ are observed.
a) 5-20 a) 284.6, 532.5
b) 248.6, 523.5
c) 264.8, 535.2 Analytical Instrumentation
d) 246.8, 553.2
View Answer Questions and Answers –
Answer: a
Explanation: In the spectrum, two main peaks
Auger Electron Spectroscopy
at 284.6 and 532.5 are observed. The unit for
This set of Analytical Instrumentation
counting energy is electron-volt. Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
12. 284.6 eV matches which of the (MCQs) focuses on “Auger Electron
following specific atom type? Spectroscopy”.
a) Carbon 1. The characterisation of auger
b) Oxygen spectroscopy can be achieved up to which
c) Nitrogen of the following depths?
d) Argon a) 1 nm
View Answer b) 2 nm
Answer: a c) 4 nm
Explanation: Each energy matches a specific d) 8 nm
atom type. 284.6 eV matches carbon. View Answer
13. 532.5 eV matches which of the following Answer: a
specific atom type? Explanation: The characterisation of auger
a) Carbon spectroscopy can be achieved up to a depth
b) Oxygen of 1nm. Best instruments can characterise few
c) Nitrogen nm.
d) Argon 2. Auger electron spectroscopy can be
View Answer used for surface chemical analysis in a
Answer: b way similar to which of the following?
Explanation: Each energy matches a specific a) ESCA
atom type. 532.5 eV matches carbon. b) SIMS
14. By studying which of the following can we
c) ISS
determine if the surface corresponds to C-O
or C=O chemical form? d) Ion spectroscopy
a) Mass of the electron View Answer
b) Energy of the carbon peak Answer: a
c) Binding energy Explanation: Auger electron spectroscopy can
d) Charge of electron be used for surface chemical analysis in a
View Answer way similar to ESCA. ESCA is also known as
Answer: b X-ray photoelectron spectroscopy.
Explanation: By studying energy of the carbon 3. AES is limited when it comes to very
peak it can be determined if the surface high resolution studies.
corresponds to C-O or C=O chemical form. a) True
Thus, the specimen chemical composition can b) False
be obtained. View Answer
15. Which of the following is the detection limit Answer: a
of ESCA? Explanation: AES is limited when it comes to
a) 0.1% monolayer very high resolution studies. It is very
b) 0.5% monolayer characteristic for various elements.
c) 1% monolayer 4. Qualitative chemical analysis is very
d) 2% monolayer often performed using which of the
View Answer
following?
Answer: a
Explanation: The detection limit of ESCA is
a) ESCA
0.1% monolayer. It has no x-y resolution. b) SIMS
c) AES ejects 1s electron. For X-ray, an electron
d) Ion spectroscopy drops from the 2p orbit.
View Answer 9. In Auger process, an electron drops to
Answer: c fill which of the following?
Explanation: Qualitative chemical analysis is a) 1s hole
very often performed using AES. Auger b) 1p hole
nomenclature follows the old x-ray notation. c) 2s hole
5. Electron ionization can produce which d) 2p hole
of the following? View Answer
a) ESCA electron Answer: a
b) Auger electron Explanation: In Auger process, an electron
c) Ion drops to fill 1s hole. It expels a 2p electron.
d) Photon 10. Auger electron spectroscopy involves
View Answer the irradiation of the surface to be
Answer: b analysed with a beam of electrons of
Explanation: Electron ionization can produce energy in the _________ range.
Auger electron. Photo-ionisation can also a) 1-2 KeV
produce Auger electron. b) 2-4 KeV
6. Electron ionisation can produce ESCA c) 4-8 KeV
electrons. d) 1-8 KeV
a) True View Answer
b) False Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Auger electron spectroscopy
Answer: b involves the irradiation of the surface to be
Explanation: Electron ionisation cannot analysed with a beam of electrons of energy
produce ESCA electrons. It can produce only in the 1-2 KeV range. Auger and X-ray
Auger electrons. emission are competitive processes.
7. Which of the following is an Auger 11. In Auger spectroscopy, beam currents
transition starting from a hole in 1s levels are typically _____ in a beam of diameter
which would be filled up from the 2p level? 0.5mm.
a) KLM transition a) 5-10 µA
b) KLL transition b) 5-20 µA
c) LMN transition c) 5-30 µA
d) LLM transition d) 5-50 µA
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: KLL transition is an Auger Explanation: In Auger spectroscopy, beam
transition starting from a hole in 1s levels currents are typically 5-50 µA in a beam of
which would be filled up from the 2p level. 2p diameter 0.5mm. Auger and X-ray emission
electron would also be emitted. are competitive processes.
8. In ESCA process, the photon ejects 12. Which of the following is the detection
which of the following? limit of Auger Electron Spectroscopy?
a) 1s electron a) 0.1% monolayer
b) 1p electron b) 0.5% monolayer
c) 2s electron c) 1% monolayer
d) 2p electron d) 2% monolayer
View Answer View Answer
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: In ESCA process, the photon Explanation: The detection limit of AES is
0.5% monolayer. It has 0.5µ x-y resolution.
13. Which of the following denotes the sample Answer: a
destruction that occurs in Auger electron Explanation: A basic X-ray source includes a
spectroscopy? large target anode. It also has a heating
a) None in 95% of sample element.
b) None in 99% of sample 2. The anode is held at __________
c) None in 100% of sample positive potential and the filament is held
d) Frequent at ____________ potential.
View Answer a) High, ground
Answer: d
b) Ground, high
Explanation: Frequent sample destruction
occurs in Auger electron spectroscopy. It is c) Low, high
bad for organics. d) High, low
14. How is the specificity of Auger electron View Answer
spectroscopy? Answer: a
a) Very bad Explanation: The anode is held at high
b) Bad potential and the filament is held at ground
c) Good potential. Electrons are accelerated from the
d) Very good filament.
View Answer 3. Which of the following is one of the
Answer: c most commonly used anode material?
Explanation: The specificity of Auger electron a) Carbon
spectroscopy is good. ESCA has very good b) Tungsten
specificity. c) Magnesium
15. AES is more sensitive than XPS because d) Cesium
of which of the following factors? View Answer
a) Binding energies of electrons
Answer: c
b) Kinetic energies of electrons Explanation: Magnesium is one of the most
c) Mass of electrons commonly used anode material. Aluminium is
d) Mass to charge ratio of electrons also commonly used.
View Answer
Answer: b
4. Which is the most intense line in the X-
Explanation: AES is more sensitive than XPS ray spectrum?
because of the difference in kinetic energies a) Kα1
of electrons. Ion etching is sometimes b) Kα2
necessary for AES. c) Kα12
d) Kα22
View Answer
Analytical Instrumentation Answer: c
Questions and Answers – Explanation: Kα12 is the most intense line in
the X-ray spectrum. Different lines have
Instrumentation for Electron specific energies.
Spectroscopy 5. Which of the following must be used
This set of Analytical Instrumentation with the X-ray source to have high energy
online quiz focuses on “Instrumentation resolution?
for Electron Spectroscopy”. a) Chopper
1. A basic X-ray source includes which of b) Vacuum chamber
the following components? c) Accelerator
a) Large target anode d) Monochromator
b) Large target cathode View Answer
c) Small target anode Answer: d
d) Small target cathode Explanation: Monochromator must be used
with the X-ray source to have high energy
View Answer
resolution. It will also remove the satellite semiconducting coating.
lines. a) Quartz
6. Magnetic deflection energy analysers b) Silica
are effective than electrostatic types. c) Lead
a) True d) Cesium
b) False View Answer
View Answer Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: Electron detector has a lead
Explanation: Magnetic deflection energy doped glass tube with a secondary
analysers are effective than electrostatic semiconducting coating. It has a high
types. It is less convenient to design and use. secondary electron shield.
7. Double-pass cylindrical mirror energy 11. The output of the multiplier is fed to
analyser has how many mirrors? which of the following immediately?
a) One a) Pulse amplifier discriminator
b) Two b) DAC
c) Three c) ADC
d) Four d) Multichannel analyser
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: Double-pass cylindrical mirror Explanation: The output of the multiplier is fed
energy analyser has two mirrors. It is to pulse amplifier discriminator. It is then fed
commonly used in electron spectroscopy. to a multichannel analyser.
8. In spherical sector analyser, 12. Which of the following is the ideal
__________ is detected and plotted as a vacuum for electron spectrometers?
function of energy. a) 10-6 torr
a) Mass b) 10-7 torr
b) Charge c) 10-8 torr
c) Number of electrons striking the d) 10-9 torr
detector View Answer
d) Mass to charge ratio Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: 10-6 torr is the ideal vacuum for
Answer: c electron spectrometers. Vacuum below 10-6torr
Explanation: In spherical sector analyser, the can also be used.
number of electrons striking the detector is 13. Which of the following is the most
detected and plotted as a function of energy. It commonly used magnetic shielding?
is detected for a constant potential. a) Helmholtz coils
9. Which of the following is the most b) Ferro-magnetic shielding
commonly used detector in ESCA and c) Faraday shield
AES? d) Magnetometer probe
View Answer
a) Electron multiplier
Answer: b
b) Dynodes Explanation: Ferro-magnetic shielding is the
c) Photovoltaic cell most commonly used magnetic shielding.
d) Photomultiplier Helmholtz coil can be used as alternative.
View Answer 14. Charging effect can be suppressed by
Answer: a supplying flood of electrons having which of
Explanation: Electron multiplier is the most the following?
commonly used detectors in ESCA and AES. a) Uniform low energy
It is similar to photomultiplier. b) Uniform low mass
10. Electron detector has a _______ c) Uniform high energy
doped glass tube with a secondary
d) Uniform high mass
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Charging effect can be
suppressed by supplying flood of electrons
having uniform low energy. It also results in
attainment of additional useful information.
15. Synchroton radiation has several
advantages over conventional radiation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Synchroton radiation has several
advantages over conventional radiation. The
resolution is very high.
Analytical Instrumentation
Questions and Answers – Ion
Spectroscopy
This set of Analytical Instrumentation
Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
(MCQs) focuses on “Ion Spectroscopy”.
1. In Ion spectroscopy, the primary ion is
usually which of the following?
a) Inert gas ion
b) Halogen ion
c) Oxygen group gas ion
d) Hydrogen
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Ion spectroscopy, the primary
ion is usually an inert gas ion. When primary
ion having particular kinetic energy is incident
on a surface certain phenomena can occur.
2. The kinetic energy of the primary ion
should be in which of the following range?
a) 0.1-4 keV
b) 0.2-1 keV
c) 0.4-2 keV
d) 0.3-5 keV
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The kinetic energy of the primary
ion should be 0.3-5 keV. These primary ions
are made incident on the surface.
3. If the primary ion is elastically
scattered, the kinetic energy of the
reflected primary ion will depend on which
of the following?
a) Charge of the primary ion
b) Charge of the surface ion
c) Mass of the surface ion
d) Number of surface ions
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the primary ion is elastically
scattered, the kinetic energy of the reflected
primary ion will depend on the mass of the
surface ion. The reflected ion is measured by
ISS.
4. Which of the following causes the
phenomena of sputtering?
a) Primary ion gets embedded in the solid
b) Primary ion is elastically scattered
c) Primary ion is reflected
d) Primary ion is refracted
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Primary ion may penetrate
through a few layers of the surface and get
embedded in the solid. This causes scattering.
5. The fragments formed during sputtering
can be either neutral atoms or ions. The
ions can only be positive.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The fragments formed during
sputtering can be either neutral atoms or ions.
The ions can be positive or negative.
6. Which of the following is the energy
range of ISS?
a) 1 keV
b) 2 keV
c) 4 keV
d) 8 keV
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The energy range of the ISS is 1
keV. ISS stands for ion scattering
spectroscopy.
7. Which of the following is the spectral
range of SIMS?
a) 0-10 amu
b) 0-100 amu
c) 0-500 amu
d) 0-1000 amu d) 1000 µ
View Answer View Answer
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: The spectral range of SIMS is 0- Explanation: The x-y resolution of SIMS is 1 µ.
500 amu. SIMS stands for secondary ion It has this resolution when used with ion
mass spectroscopy. microprobe.
8. Both ISS and SIMS have depth profiling
capability. Analytical Instrumentation
a) True
b) False Questions and Answers –
View Answer Instrumentation of Ion
Answer: a
Explanation: Both ISS and SIMS have depth Spectroscopy
profiling capability. ISS is slow in depth This set of Analytical Instrumentation
profiling but SIMS is rapid. Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
9. Which of the following is denotes the (MCQs) focuses on “Instrumentation of
absolute quantitative analysis of SIMS? Ion Spectroscopy”.
a) 30% 1. In ion spectroscopy, the positive ions
b) 70% are focussed on the sample at which of
c) 50% the following angles?
d) Not possible a) 20o
View Answer b) 30o
Answer: d c) 45o
Explanation: Absolute quantitative analysis is d) 90o
not possible in SIMS. It is possible in ISS. View Answer
10. Which of the following is the amount of Answer: c
matrix effect that occurs in SIMS? Explanation: In ion spectroscopy, the positive
a) Very low ions are focussed on the sample at 45o. Ions
b) Low are formed by bombardment.
c) Some 2. Only those electrons which are in a
d) Severe selected small solid angle are received in
View Answer the ________ electrostatic analyser.
Answer: d a) 100o
Explanation: Severe matrix effects occur in b) 127o
SIMS. Some matrix effects occur in ISS. c) 180o
11. Which of the following is the x-y resolution d) 263o
of ISS? View Answer
a) 1 µ Answer: b
b) 10 µ Explanation: Only those electrons which are in
c) 100 µ a selected small solid angle are received in
d) 1000 µ the 127o electrostatic analyser. Ions are
View Answer scattered in all directions.
Answer: c 3. Which of the following can be used as
Explanation: The x-y resolution of ISS is 100
the detector in ion spectroscopy?
µ. It has a poor x-y resolution.
12. Which of the following is the x-y resolution a) Faraday cup collector
of SIMS? b) Channel electron multiplier
a) 1 µ c) Micro-channel plate
b) 10 µ d) Flame ionization detector
c) 100 µ View Answer
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: Channel electron multiplier can Explanation: Helium, argon and inert gases
be used as the detector in ion spectroscopy. are usually chosen for ion spectroscopy.
Solid state detector can also be used. These gases are chosen to avoid side effects.
4. In order to obtain ISS spectra, the 8. ISS is sensitive to every element
backscattered primary ions are sampled heavier than which of the following?
by which of the following? a) Helium
a) Faraday cup analyser b) Hydrogen
b) Photographic analyser c) Nitrogen
c) Micro-channel analyser d) Neon
d) Cylindrical mirror analyser View Answer
View Answer Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: ISS is sensitive to every element
Explanation: In order to obtain ISS spectra, heavier than helium. The lightest isotope used
the backscattered primary ions are sampled as a primary ion is that of helium.
by cylindrical mirror analyser. Their kinetic 9. Which of the following is the lightest
energies are then measured. isotope used as a primary ion?
5. Which of the following is the energy a) He
after collision with a surface atom for a b) 2He
scattering angle of 90o when Eo is the c) 3He
energy of the incident ion, M1 is the mass d) 3H
of the incident ion and M2 is the mass of View Answer
the target surface? Answer: c
a) Eo(M2-M1)/(M2+M1) Explanation: 3He is the lightest isotope used
b) Eo(M2+M1)/(M2-M1) as a primary ion. Though hydrogen is lightest
c) Eo(M2×M1)/(M2+M1) it is not used.
d) Eo(M2-M1)/(M2×M1) 10. The specificity will vary depending on
View Answer the scattering gas used.
Answer: a a) True
Explanation: Eo(M2-M1)/(M2+M1) is the energy b) False
after collision with a surface atom for a View Answer
scattering angle of 90o. But, this is valid only Answer: a
when M1<M2. Explanation: The specificity will vary
6. It is advantageous to use ions from a depending on the scattering gas used. Only a
variety of gases. few gases are preferred to avoid side effects.
a) True 11. ISS is less sensitive than which of the
b) False following?
View Answer a) SIMS
Answer: a b) Auger
Explanation: It is advantageous to use ions c) ESCA
from a variety of gases. Few gases are d) AES
chosen to avoid side effects. View Answer
7. Which of the following gases is not Answer: a
often used in ion spectroscopy? Explanation: ISS is less sensitive than SIMS.
a) Helium It is more sensitive than Auger or ESCA.
b) Argon 12. Which of the following is the detection
c) Nitrogen limit of ISS for monolayer?
d) Neon a) 10 -1 %
View Answer b) 10 -2 %
c) 10 -3 %
d) 10 -4 %
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 10-3% of the monolayer is the
detection limit of ISS. It can be effectively
used for depth profiling.
13. After passing through the pre-filter, ions
are passed through which of the following?
a) Quadrupole mass spectrometer
b) Time of flight mass spectrometer
c) Radiofrequency mass spectrometer
d) Magnetic deflection mass spectrometer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: After passing through the pre-
filter, ions are passed through quadrupole
mass spectrometer. Pre-filter is a
discriminator.
14. Which of the following is the range of
quadrupole mass spectrometer used in SIMS?
a) 100-200 amu
b) 200-300 amu
c) 500-1000 amu
d) 200-500 amu
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 500-1000 amu is the range of
quadrupole mass spectrometer used in SIMS.
SIMS shows good specificity.
15. Which of the following is the resolution of
quadrupole mass spectrometer used in SIMS?
a) 1 amu
b) 2 amu
c) 5 amu
d) 3 amu
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 1 amu is the resolution of
quadrupole mass spectrometer used in SIMS.
SIMS shows good specificity.
Analytical Instrumentation
Questions and Answers –
Electron Spin Resonance
This set of Analytical Instrumentation
Question Bank focuses on “Electron Spin
Resonance”.
1. Electron spin resonance involves
detecting the detection of a physical
phenomenon of _________ of
electromagnetic radiation.
a) Adsorption
b) Absorption
c) Radiation
d) Reflection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Electron spin resonance uses the
detection of a physical phenomenon of
absorption of electromagnetic radiation.
Paramagnetic species absorb EM radiation.
2. Electron spin resonance is also known
as which of the following?
a) Electron paramagnetic resonance
b) Electron diamagnetic resonance
c) Electron paramagnetic reoccurrence
d) Electron diamagnetic reoccurrence
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Electron spin resonance is also
known as electron paramagnetic resonance. It
is a valuable research analysis tool.
3. The value of the magnetic moment is
known as which of the following?
a) Thompson magneton
b) Bohr magneton
c) Goldstein magneton
d) Rutherford magneton
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Electron spin resonance is based
on the spin associated with the electron.
There is a magnetic moment the value of
which is known as Bohr magneton.
4. When a strong magnetic field is applied
to the unpaired spins of an electron, the
electrons will be split into two groups.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When a strong magnetic field is
applied to the unpaired spins of an electron,
the electrons will be split into two groups.
Electron spin resonance is based on the spin
associated with the electron.
5. When the electrons are aligned either
parallel or antiparallel to the direction of
the external magnetic field, the electrons
will precess about the axis at a frequency
that is proportional to which of the b) Beer-Lambert law
following? c) Kelvin law
a) Applied magnetic field d) Boltzmann law
b) Electron magnetic moment View Answer
c) Applied magnetic field and electron Answer: d
magnetic moment Explanation: The population ratio can be given
d) Neither applied magnetic field not by Boltzmann law. ‘k’ is the Boltzmann
electron magnetic moment constant.
View Answer 9. The sensitivity of measurement is
Answer: c greatly enhanced by using which of the
Explanation: When the electrons are aligned following?
either parallel or antiparallel to the direction of a) High magnetic field
external magnetic field, the electrons will start b) Low magnetic field
to precess about the axis at a frequency that c) High electric field
is proportional to both applied magnetic field d) Low electric field
and electron magnetic moment. View Answer
6. If a weaker radiofrequency alternating Answer: a
magnetic field, having the frequency of Explanation: The sensitivity of measurement
precession of the electron is applied at is greatly enhanced by using a high magnetic
right angles to fixed magnetic field, which field. Low magnetic field reduces sensitivity.
of the following occurs? 10. ESR sensitivity increases with
a) Fragmentation __________ temperature and with
b) Scattering _________ magnetic field strength.
c) Resonance a) Increasing, increasing
d) Absorption b) Increasing, decreasing
View Answer c) Decreasing, increasing
Answer: c d) Decreasing, decreasing
Explanation: Resonance occurs when a View Answer
weaker radiofrequency alternating magnetic Answer: c
field with the frequency of precession of the Explanation: ESR sensitivity increases with
electron is applied at right angles to a fixed decreasing temperature and with increasing
magnetic field. magnetic field strength. ESR sensitivity means
7. If the population of ground state net absorption.
exceeds the population of the excited 11. ESR is remarkably sensitive when
state a net absorption of __________ compared with NMR.
radiation takes place. a) True
a) Infrared b) False
b) Ultraviolet View Answer
c) Microwave Answer: a
d) X-ray Explanation: ESR is remarkably sensitive
View Answer when compared with NMR. NMR stands for
Answer: c Nuclear Magnetic Resonance spectroscopy.
Explanation: If the population of ground state 12. Reflex klystron is used in which of the
exceeds the population of the excited state a following frequency ranges?
net absorption of microwave radiation takes a) 1000 to 2000 MHz
place. The signal would be proportional to the b) 1000 to 10000 MHz
population difference. c) 1000 to 15000 MHz
8. The population ratio can be given by d) 1000 to 20000 MHz
which of the following laws? View Answer
a) Bohr law
Answer: d 1. Given below is the diagram of Klystron
Explanation: Reflex klystron is used in the tube. Identify the component.
frequency range of 1000 to 20000 MHz. It is a
low power device.
13. Under ideal conditions, a commercial
X-band spectrometer can detect of the
order of which of the following number of
spins at room temperature?
a) 101
b) 105
c) 1010
d) 1012
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Under ideal conditions, a X-band
spectrometer is capable of detecting of the
order of 1012 spins at room temperature. ESR
is very sensitive.
14. Waveguides look like _________ cross- a) Cathode
section pipes with dimensions of the order of b) Anode
the wavelength to be transmitted. c) Grid
a) Triangular d) Reflector electrode
b) Circular View Answer
c) Rectangular Answer: d
d) Square Explanation: The component is the reflector
View Answer electrode. Cathode is on the left side and
Answer: c anode is in the middle.
Explanation: Waveguides look like rectangular 2. Microwave frequency can be tuned
cross-section pipes with dimensions of the over a small range by adjusting the
order of the wavelength to be transmitted.
Waveguides cannot be too small or too large.
distance between which of the following?
15. Klystron can generate power in which of a) Cathode and anode
the following ranges? b) Anode and the reflector
a) 10 – 100 mW c) Cathode and the reflector
b) 10 – 200 mW d) Cathode and grid
c) 10 – 500 mW View Answer
d) 100 – 400 mW Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: Microwave frequency can be
Answer: c tuned over a small range by adjusting the
Explanation: Klystron can generate power in distance between anode and the reflector.
the range of 10-500 mW. It is a low power Reflector voltage can also be adjusted.
device. 3. Microwaves are generated by
__________ and the power level is
Analytical Instrumentation adjusted with the ________
a) Triode, rectifier
Questions and Answers – b) Pentode, attenuator
Basic ESR Spectrometer c) Klystron tube, attenuator
This set of Analytical Instrumentation d) Diode, rectifier
Multiple Choice Questions & Answers View Answer
(MCQs) Answer: c
focuses on “Basic ESR Spectrometer”. Explanation: Microwaves are generated by
klystron tube and the power level is adjusted
with the attenuator. Klystron tube is a low a) Cathode
power device. b) Anode
4. Which of the following is also known as c) Reflector voltage
reflex oscillator? d) Grid
a) Triode View Answer
b) Pentode Answer: c
c) Special tube Explanation: Reflector voltage is adjusted as a
d) Klystron tube fine control for frequency tuning. Distance is
View Answer the coarse frequency adjustment.
Answer: d 9. In basic ESR spectrometer, the cavity
Explanation: Klystron tube is also known as length is adjustable.
the reflex oscillator. It is a low power device. a) True
5. Microwaves reflected back from the b) False
cavity are routed to which of the View Answer
following? Answer: b
a) Attenuator Explanation: In basic ESR spectrometer, the
b) Klystron cavity length is not adjustable. It is of one
c) Load wavelength.
d) Diode detector 10. The cavity resonant frequency should
View Answer be equal to which of the following?
Answer: d a) Frequency of electric field
Explanation: Microwaves reflected back from b) Klystron frequency
the cavity are routed to diode detector. Power c) Frequency of magnetic field
reflected from diode is absorbed by a load. d) Mechanical frequency
6. Which of the following routes are the View Answer
microwaves entering from the klystron Answer: b
towards the cavity? Explanation: The cavity resonant frequency
a) Oscillator should be equal to klystron frequency. It must
b) Attenuator be tuned in this manner.
c) Circulator 11. When klystron frequency is close to
d) Reflector the cavity resonant frequency, much less
View Answer power is reflected from the cavity to the
Answer: c diode.
Explanation: Circulator routes the microwaves a) True
entering from the klystron towards the cavity. b) False
The sample is mounted in the cavity. View Answer
7. By introducing which of the following, Answer: a
signal-to-noise ratio can be improved? Explanation: When klystron frequency is close
a) Small amplitude field modulation to the cavity resonant frequency, much less
b) Large amplitude field modulation power is reflected from the cavity to the diode.
c) Small amplitude field attenuation It results in a dip in a power mode.
d) Large amplitude field attenuation 12. From which of the following are
View Answer electrons emitted in the klystron tube?
Answer: a a) Cathode
Explanation: By introducing small amplitude b) Anode
field modulation, signal-to-noise ratio can be c) Grid
improved. This is because the previous DC d) Reflector electrode
measurement is too noisy. View Answer
8. Which of the following is adjusted as a Answer: a
fine control for frequency tuning? Explanation: The electrons are emitted by the
cathode in the klystron tube. The cathode is d) Silicon quartz rectifier
heated. View Answer
13. Which of the following is the operating Answer: b
frequency of the ESR spectrometer? Explanation: Silicon tungsten rectifier is used
a) 1.7 to 3.4 GHz as detector crystal in ESR spectrometer. This
b) 1.5 to 4.2 GHz is the commonly used detector.
c) 3.2 to 5.4 GHz 2. After detection, the resulting signal will
d) 8.8 to 9.6 GHz have which of the following frequencies?
View Answer
a) 1 kHz
Answer: d
Explanation: The operating frequency of the b) 10 kHz
ESR spectrometer is 8.8 to 9.6 GHz. It is an c) 100 kHz
important parameter. d) 1000 kHz
14. At which of the following frequencies is the View Answer
magnetic field at the sample modulated? Answer: c
a) 1 kHz Explanation: After detection, the resulting
b) 10 kHz signal will have 100 kHz. It contains ESR
c) 100 kHz information.
d) 1000 kHz 3. Which of the following is the modulation
View Answer amplitude range of ESR spectrometer?
Answer: c a) 1mG to 10G
Explanation: The magnetic field at the sample b) 2mG to 15G
is modulated at 100 kHz. The magnetic field is c) 3mG to 20G
kept at a maximum. d) 5mG to 40G
15. The output of the klystron does not pass
through which of the following?
View Answer
Answer: d
a) Isolator
Explanation: 5mG to 40G is the modulation
b) Reflector
amplitude range of ESR spectrometer. It is
c) Power leveller
applied in steps.
d) Directional coupler
View Answer 4. In which of the following ranges will the
Answer: b receiver time constant of the ESR
Explanation: The reflector is inside the spectrometer lie?
klystron tube. The output passes through the a) 0 to 10 s
other three components. b) 0.3 to 1 s
c) 0.03 to 10 s
Analytical Instrumentation d) 0.003 to 100 s
View Answer
Questions and Answers – Answer: d
Instrumentation of ESR Explanation: The receiver time constant of the
ESR spectrometer lies from 0.003 to 100 s. It
Spectrometer is one of the important parameters of ESR
This set of Analytical Instrumentation spectrometer.
Multiple Choice Questions & Answers 5. Which of the following is the
(MCQs) focuses on “Instrumentation of oscilloscope field width of the ESR
ESR Spectrometer”. spectrometer?
1. Which of the following is used as a) 0.2 to 40 G
detector crystal in ESR spectrometer? b) 0.1 to 20 G
a) Silicon rectifier c) 0 to 10 G
b) Silicon tungsten rectifier d) 0.01 to 20 G
c) Silicon boron rectifier View Answer
Answer: a klystron reflector.
Explanation: The oscilloscope field width of a) +400 V, -730 V
the ESR spectrometer lies between 0.2 to 40 b) +650 V, -400 V
G. it is one of the important parameters. c) +200 V,-530 V
6. The magnet used in ESR spectrometer d) +180 V,-270 V
provides a magnetic field which can be View Answer
varied from ________ to _______ Answer: b
a) 20 mgauss, 100mgauss Explanation: Klystron requires +650 V for the
b) 200 mgauss, 20kgauss klystron beam and up to -400 V for the
c) 20 mgauss, 20kgauss klystron reflector. Klystron is also known as
d) 100 mgauss, 10kgauss reflex oscillator.
View Answer 11. The klystron body is insulated from
Answer: b ground by an insulating gas casket.
Explanation: The magnet used in ESR a) True
spectrometer provides a magnetic field which b) False
can be varied from 200 mgauss to 20kgauss. View Answer
It is calibrated in steps. Answer: a
7. Which of the following sensor is used in Explanation: The klystron body is insulated
ESR spectrometer? from ground by an insulating gas casket. It is
a) Hall-effect sensor placed between klystron flange and water
b) Load cell cooling flange.
c) Strain gauge 12. The 100 kHz oscillator acts as which
d) Bourdon gauge of the following?
View Answer a) Transmitter
Answer: a b) Receiver
Explanation: Hall-effect sensor is used in ESR c) Modulator
spectrometer. It is given as an input to the d) Transmitter and receiver
summation circuit. View Answer
8. Which of the following oscillator is used Answer: d
as 1230 Hz oscillator? Explanation: The 100 kHz oscillator acts as
a) Hartley oscillator the transmitter and receiver. It is crystal
b) Crystal oscillator controlled.
c) RC oscillator 13. Which of the following removes residual
d) Wien bridge oscillator harmonics from the phase-detected signal?
View Answer a) High-pass filter
Answer: d b) Low-pass filter
Explanation: Wien bridge oscillator is used as c) Band-pass filter
1230 Hz oscillator. The output level is d) Chopper
internally regulated. View Answer
Answer: b
9. What does AFC stand for?
Explanation: Low-pass filter removes residual
a) Auto frequency correct harmonics from the phase-detected signal. It
b) Automated frequency correct removes the residual 100 kHz if any.
c) Automatic frequency control 14. The oscilloscope is used to display the
d) Automatic frequency circuit klystron mode.
View Answer a) True
Answer: c b) False
Explanation: AFC stands for automatic View Answer
frequency control. A 70 kHz AFC is used. Answer: a
10. Klystron requires _______ for the Explanation: The oscilloscope is used to
klystron beam and up to _____ for the
display the klystron mode. It provides visual b) ADC
observation of rapidly changing signals. c) DAC
15. In the sample cell, which of the following is d) Flip-flops
selected to give maximum optical View Answer
transmission in the UV-visible region? Answer: d
a) Tungsten Explanation: Flip-flops can be used to store
b) Quartz information. They are used in sequential
c) Phosphor circuits.
d) Potassium
4. Which of the following is known as a
View Answer
Answer: b nibble?
Explanation: In the sample cell, quartz is a) 1 bit
selected to give maximum optical b) 4 bits
transmission in the UV-visible region. c) 8 bits
Aqueous sample cells are specially designed. d) 16 bits
View Answer
Answer: b
Analytical Instrumentation Explanation: 4-bit units are known as nibbles.
Questions and Answers – A byte consists of two nibbles.
5. Which of the following is the binary
Digital Circuits equivalent of the decimal number 10?
This set of Analytical Instrumentation a) 1100
Multiple Choice Questions & Answers b) 1010
(MCQs) focuses on “Digital Circuits”. c) 1011
1. In analytical instrumentation, little d) 1110
circuitry is concerned with the View Answer
amplification and processing of signals. Answer: b
a) True Explanation: The binary equivalent of the
b) False decimal number 10 is 1010. The base of
View Answer binary numbers is 2.
Answer: b 6. 1001 is a data presented on a set of
Explanation: In analytical instrumentation, binary coded decimal output lines. What
most circuitry is concerned with the would be the decimal equivalent of this
amplification and processing of signals. The number in the case of negative logic?
signals are usually in analog form.
a) 9
2. Which of the following samples the
b) 6
analog signals to obtain their digital
c) 1
equivalent?
d) 8
a) Analog to digital converter
View Answer
b) Electronic counter Answer: b
c) Comparator Explanation: The decimal equivalent of the
d) Digital to analog converter number 1001 in the case of negative logic is
View Answer 6. In the case of positive logic, the decimal
Answer: a equivalent will be 9.
Explanation: Analog to digital converter 7. Given below is the equivalent circuit of
samples the analog signals to obtain their a logic gate. Identify the logic gate.
digital equivalent. There are different types of
analog to digital converters.
3. Which of the following can be used to
store information?
a) Gates
 c) EX-OR gate
d) NOT gate
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: INHIBIT gate is OR gate with an
inhibiting input. The gate is useful for
controlling the inputs with an inhibiting signal.

Analytical Instrumentation
Questions and Answers –
Logic Families
a) AND gate This set of Analytical Instrumentation
b) OR gate Questions and Answers for Entrance
c) EX-OR gate exams focuses on “Logic Families”.
d) NOT gate 1. Which of the following is the most
View Answer widely employed logic family?
Answer: a a) Emitter-coupled logic
Explanation: The given circuit is the AND b) Transistor-transistor logic
gate. The output of the gate is, Y=X1.X2 c) CMOS logic family
8. Two switches are in parallel and are d) NMOS logic
connected with a lamp and supply in View Answer
series. This represents which of the Answer: b
following logic gate? Explanation: Transistor-transistor logic is the
a) AND gate most widely employed logic family. It is the
b) OR gate most popular logic family.
c) EX-OR gate 2. The basic function of TTL gate is which
d) NOT gate of the following functions?
View Answer a) AND
Answer: b b) OR
Explanation: Two switches are in parallel and c) NOR
are connected with a lamp and supply in d) NAND
series. This forms the OR gate. View Answer
9. The output will be logic ‘1’ only if all the Answer: d
inputs are ‘0’. Which gate must be used to Explanation: The basic function of TTL gate is
execute this condition? a NAND function. It is the most popular logic
a) AND gate family.
b) NAND gate 3. In TTL logic, the input transistor has a
c) NOR gate number of ________ equal to the desired
d) EX-OR gate fan-in of the circuit.
View Answer a) Base
Answer: b b) Collect
Explanation: The output will be logic ‘1’ only if c) Emitter
all the inputs are ‘0’. NAND gate must be used d) Gate
to execute this condition. View Answer
10. INHIBIT gate is ________ gate with Answer: c
an inhibiting input. Explanation: In TTL logic, the input transistor
a) AND gate has a number of emitters equal to the desired
b) OR gate fan-in of the circuit. This is a major advantage.
4. Which of the following is the b) False
propagation delay of TTL circuits? View Answer
a) 1 s Answer: a
b) 1 ms Explanation: We can achieve a high speed of
c) 1 ns gate by sing ECL. ECL stands for emitter-
d) 1 ps coupled logic.
View Answer 9. Which of the following is not the
Answer: c advantage of MOS gates?
Explanation: The propagation delay of the TTL a) Low power dissipation
circuit is 1 ns. It is the main characteristic of b) Small size
the TTL circuit. c) Good immunity to noise
5. The standard TTL gates are marketed d) High switching speeds
as _______ series. View Answer
a) 80 Answer: d
b) 82 Explanation: MOS gates do not have a high
c) 74 switching speed. They have limited switching
d) 08 capability.
View Answer 10. CMOS gates are commercially
Answer: c available as which of the following series?
Explanation: The standard TTL gates are a) 1000
marketed as 74 series. They can operate up b) 2000
to 700C. c) 3000
6. Schottky TTL logic family does not have d) 4000
which of the following features? View Answer
a) Good fan-in Answer: d
b) Good fan-out Explanation: CMOS gates are commercially
c) High speed capability available as 4000 series. This technique is
d) High propagation delay most suitable for commercial circuits.
11. The switching of MOS gates can be
View Answer
improved by using CMOS.
Answer: d
a) True
Explanation: Schottky TTL circuits have
b) False
reduced propagation delay than normal TTL
View Answer
circuits. The propagation delay of 10ns is very
Answer: a
high for some applications.
Explanation: The switching of MOS gates can
7. The logic ‘0’ of ECL is represented as be improved by using CMOS. CMOS stands
______V and logic ‘1’ is represented as for complementary MOS. It is an inverter.
______V.
a) 1, 1.65
b) 0.9, 1.75
c) 1.2, 2.35
d) 1.9, 4.3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The logic ‘0’ of ECL is
represented as 0.9 V and logic ‘1’ is
represented as 1.75 V. ECL stands for
emitter-coupled logic.
8. ECL is a way of achieving a higher
speed of gate.
a) True