C.
The role of the teacher can be changed
St. Louis Review Center, Inc.
Eneelsus Bldg. Gen. Luna St., Davao City
Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 or 222-8732
ED-TECH
POST – TEST
1. Which of the following statements is correct
about the domains of educational technology?
A. Design is the production stage while
development is the planning stage.
B. Both the design and development are the
planning stage,
C. Evaluation is synonymous with
implementation.
D. Utilization is the action phase.
2. Ms. Cruz was hired in a well-equipped school
but she has to start preparing her
instructional materials before classes begin.
Which of the following is a systematic process
in preparing her materials?
A. design – utilization – evaluation -
development
B. design – development – utilization –
evaluation
C. development – design – utilization –
evaluation
D. development – utilization – evaluation –
design
3. Ms. Briones is planning to integrate
technology in her Mathematics class. Which of
the following would be her second step?
A. set the objectives
B. analyze the learners
C. utilize the materials with showmanship
D. evaluate the performance of the students
4. Which of the following should Ms. Gomez
primarily consider in determining her teaching
and learning objectives and use
instructional media?
A. the learner C. the instructional activity
B. the teacher D. the instructional strategy
5. Which is the best reason why teachers state
the objectives before using instructional
media?
A. To be able to practice how to operate the
equipment.
B. To determine which media to use best.
C. To prepare the materials beforehand.
D. To secure available materials.
6. Ms. Villegas is thinking of an educational
technology that can relay information clearly
to her class. Which principle will guide her in
the selection of the material?
A. interest C. cost effectiveness
B. meaningfulness D. communication
effectiveness
7. Mrs. Zinampan presented real samples of
rocks when she discussed the different forms
of rocks. What principle in the selection of
instructional material did she apply?
A. interest C. cost effective
B. B authenticity D. responsiveness
8. Which of the following is a limitation of
conventional technologies in teaching and
learning?
A. They pose problems on storage..
B. They are less abstract and more concrete.
C. They are readily available in the
environment, around school, and in the
home.
D. They provide hands-on learning
experiences and emphasize real-world
E. applications
9. which of the following is not a contribution of
technology to the learning process? .
A. The quality of learning can be improved
B. The delivery of instructions can be more
interesting
into a demonstrator.
D. The method of teaching and learning
becomes more interactive
10. In what way can instructional aids foster
learning?
A. Reinforce learning
B. Entertain students
C. Take the place of the teacher
D. Holds students in the classroom
11. With the pervasiveness of technologies
nowadays, a learner-centered instruction can
be promoted. Which of the following
statements support this approach to
teaching?
I. It focuses on transformation of facts.
II. It supports the use of lecture and drill
methods.
III. It gives emphasis on collaboration and
authentic assessment.
IV. Students work on tasks determined and
controlled by the teacher.
A. I and II only C. II and IV only
B. I and III only D. III and IV only
12. Prof. Villamin’s students use cooperative
learning, inquiry based and project-based
learning approaches in creating their digital
unit plans. What can be developed among the
learners through these approaches?
A. repetition and active learning
B. repetition & information delivery
C. information processing and active learning
D. construction of knowledge and information
exchange
13. Which of these technologies are arranged
from the most symbolic to multisensory?
A. real objects, print, audio-visual materials,
and visual materials
B. visual materials, audio visual materials,
of print and computers
C. visual materials, print, audio-visual
materials and realia
D. print, audio, visual materials, and
computers
14. Which group of technologies has the highest
degree of abstraction?
A. book, imaginative literature, programmed
instruction
B. digital video, film, versatile compact disc
C. video, pictures and television
D. realia and computer
15. Mrs. Soriano, a Grade V teacher prefers to use
textbooks than other instructional materials.
What could be her reason for using it?
A. Textbooks can be easily duplicated.
B. Textbooks quickly become updated.
C. Textbooks address the needs of diverse
students.
D. Textbooks contain most of the materials
they need to learn in the course.
16. It is impractical to bring real objects to the
classroom so Ms. Simangan constructed a
threedimensional visual instead. Which of the
following did she construct?
A. cartoon C. graphic
B. chart D. model
17. If a teacher wants to teach her pupils the skill
to organize and integrate related concepts,
which of the following is the most appropriate
graphic organizer to use?
A. timeline C. venn diagram
B. fishbone D. semantic webbing
18. Which graphic organizer is used to show how
a series of events interact to produce a set of
results again and again?
A. Series of events chart C. cycle
B. Web D. timeline
19. Which instructional aid requires pupils to
verbalize?
A. graphic C. . model
 B. diorama D. . video
20. Which of the following is inappropriate in
using printed visuals such as charts, graphs,
and drawings?
A. Provide written or verbal cues to highlight
important aspects of visuals.
B. Allow the students to pass the materials
from one person to another.
C. Use materials that everyone can see.
D. Present the material one at time.
21. Under what category will a globe as an
instructional material fall?
A. Realia C. solid model
B. mock up D. cutaway model
22. Prof. Agustin would like to provide hands-on
experience on the expansion and contraction
of matter. Which of the following materials
would be the best to use?
A. models C. realias
B. pictures D. slides
23. Ms. Sarah finds the chalkboard an effective
instructional material up to present. However,
just like any other materials, it also has its
limitations. Which one is it?
A. It allows spontaneity, speed and change.
B. Absent students cannot keep up with their
assignments.
C. It is valuable for emphasizing the major
points of the lesson.
D. It can be used for displaying pictures and
important clippings.
24. With which learning style group are
manipulatives MOST effective?
A. Master style group
B. Interpersonal style group
C. Understanding style group
D. Self- expressive style group
25. Which does a pupil use when s/he sings a
concept to a familiar tune in order to help
himself commit the concept to memory?
A. rap C. pop
B. jingle D. lullaby
26. Prof. Arcilla would like to use audiocassette
tape in teaching a lesson in English. In which
activity is audiocassette tape very effective in
the teaching-learning process?
A. in developing listening skills
B. in teaching creative writing
C. in composing poems
D. in building concepts
27. Romalyn is going to discuss about The ADDIE
Model to a big class. She is planning to use a
technology by which parts of her presentation
could be partly hidden to make it more
exciting and interesting. What do you think
shall she use?
A. model C. transparency
B. realia D. video
28. Marife wants to make a presentation material
wherein more additional transparent sheets
with information can be placed over a base
transparency. Which one should she make?
A. cut-out C. silhouette
B. puppet D. overlay
29. Which one is used with 2D and 3D materials?
A. Opaque projector C. digital projector
B. overhead projector D. slide projector
30. After watching the film, “Muro Ami’, the
students of Mrs. Tamaray are expected to
show a demonstrative proof of what they have
learned. How is the technology used in
thissituation?
A. entertainment C.
instructional
B. informational D. entertainment and
informational
31. Self made charts and illustrations serve as
universal aid for bringing fascinating and
exciting experiences in the classroom. To tap
the optimum potentials of these materials,
which of the following should be avoided?
A. Giving due consideration to lettering.
B. Presenting materials with accurate facts.
C. Giving more importance to austerity over
legibility.
D. Focusing on the main idea of the lesson
presented.
32. Kamyl used overhead transparencies when
she presented her assigned topic to class.
What type of educational technology are
transparencies?
A. printed material C. projected
material
B. graphic material D. non-projected
material
33. Which instructional material/s is/are MOST fit
in contextualized learning?
A. TV C. pictures
B. Slides D. field trip
34. Ms. Villanueva wants to teach the students
the performance of a certain skill such as
dancing. Which technology would be the most
appropriate and convenient to use?
A. film C. television
B. video D. printed material
35. Slides are miniature transparencies. They can
be created with simple cameras and simple
equipment. They display color in a realistic
manner. However, they also have some
limitations. Which one is it?
A. They can be easily updated and revised.
B. They can be adapted to group or to
individual use.
C. They can get out of sequence if handled
individually.
D. They can be combined with taped
narration for greater effectiveness.
36. Mrs. Santos used a film clip in teaching
science concepts to her Grade Six class.
However, she found out that it was
inefficiently used in the classroom. When is a
technology considered inefficient?
A. When it makes viewing more interesting.
B. When it increases the time to master the
lesson.
C. When it helps attain the objectives of the
lesson.
D. When it enhances understanding of new
lesson.
37. Prof. Manantan’s lesson in EPP is about
“Pagtatanim ng halaman” to her students.
How can she make her lesson more
interesting and meaningful?
A. Have a viewing activity about the lesson.
B. Have them read their EPP book.
C. Give them a collaborative work.
D. Let them listen to a gardener.
38. Prof. Delos Santos would like her students to
give more accurate observations about plants
in the environment. Which technique would
help her attain her objective?
A. Bring them to the garden.
B. Bring actual plants to class.
C. Show colorful pictures to the class.
D. Let the class read books about the topic.
39. Which of the following should be avoided in
presenting visuals?
A. Show visuals with an element of suspense.
B. Shut off the overhead projector when
explaining lengthily.
C. Present all the materials simultaneously to
hold the learners’ interest.
D. Erase any writing on the chalkboard or
whiteboard when you no longer need it.
40. After listing down the advantages and
disadvantages of computers, Mrs. Muñoz
decided to purchase a computer for her class.
 Which do you think is the last consideration in
purchasing the equipment?
A. Computers can make her more efficient.
B. Computers can be a form
entertainment.
C. Computers can enhance teaching and
learning.
D. Computers can be used for interactive
presentations.
41. Marnel prepares his school research works
using computer to submit his requirements on
time. Does the computer make him productive
and efficient? Why?
I. Yes, because it can generate its own data.
II. Yes, because it can make one’s work easier.
III. Yes, because it can perform tasks fast and
accurately.
A. I and II C. II and III
B. I and III D. I, II and III
42. Prof. Aguinaldo would like to integrate
technology in writing a friendly letter. How
can he do it effectively?
A. Let the pupils surf a friendly letter from
the Internet.
B. Have the pupils write a friendly letter and
send it through an email.
C. Have the pupils forward a downloaded
friendly letter to others via email.
D. Let the pupils write a friendly letter using
word processing and have it critiqued by
E. their peers.
43. Which of the following is known for its
strength of giving immediate feedback?
A. video C. digital encyclopedia
B. story book D. computer-assisted
instruction
44. Which of the following computer-based
instructional material can be used to learn
new concepts?
A. games C. simulation
B. tutorial D. drill and practice
45. 45. Prof. Natividad would like to create a
presentation material for his lesson on the
types of computer-assisted Instruction. Which
tool should he use?
A. communicative tool C. productivity tool
B. Informative tool D. situating
tool
46. Prof. De Guzman uses an online learning
approach by which content provides links to
information at other locations and serves as a
focal point for a distance education
experience. Which of the following does he
use?
A. computer-aided instruction
B. web-based instruction
C. self-paced program
D. teleconferencing
47. Mr. Villena searches for related literature by
accessing several databases in the library
computer that is connected with other
computers that have databases. How is this
termed?
A. CD ROM search C. mechanical
search
B. computer search D.
search
48. Which pair of tools provide synchronous
communication?
A. chatroom and email
B. email and bulletin board
C. video conferencing and blogs
D. instant messaging and chatroom
49. Should Mrs. Reyes allow her pupils to surf the
Internet in creating a group newsletter during
her English class? Why?
A. No, because pupils may just
exchanging messages via email.
B. No, because the pupils might open
undesirable websites.
C. Yes, to allow the pupils to chat with their
friends.
D. Yes, as long as it is used effectively.
of 50. Which of the following should you ask yourself
in evaluating the content of an instructional
material?
A. Do the materials reinforce learning
effectively?
B. Are the materials of high technical quality?
C. Does the content match the curriculum?
D. Is it appropriate for the students?
51. Which of the following statements does NOT
describe educational technology?
i. It includes hardware and software.
ii. It refers to the efficiency of teachers in
using computers
iii. It is the development, application, and
evaluation of systems, techniques and aids to
improve human learning.
A. i only C. Both ii and iii
B. ii only D. Both i and iii
52. What should Mr. Asuncion determine first in
the selection of media in teaching?
A. needs of the students C. technique to be
used
B. availability of the media D. objectives of
the lesson
53. Which is the most important reason why
teachers preview materials to be used in
class?
A. To gain confidence in using them.
B. To encourage viewers to be more focused.
C. To avoid potential problems that might
occur while materials are in use.
D. To ensure appropriateness of the materials
with the objectives and target audience.
54. After Ms. Raca planned her lesson in English,
she found out that the materials at hand do
not match her objectives. Which is the best
thing that she can do?
A. Modify the available materials.
B. Teach the lesson the following day.
C. Change the objectives to match with the
available materials.
D. Carry out the lesson as planned and use
the materials at hand.
55. Prof. Balagtas used worksheets, manipulatives
and models in teaching math to help her
students understand the lesson and love the
subject. What did she bear in mind when she
used these materials?
A. appropriateness C. breadth
B. balance D. variety
56. Ms. Torres always makes sure that text,
animation and color do not confuse students
in her presentation materials. Which principle
is applied?
A. simplicity C. responsiveness
B. variety D. cost
effectiveness
57. Mrs. Reyes, a librarian, informed the students
as well as the teachers that several software
are available for classroom instruction and
individual learning. Which material is she
referring to?
online A. Computers C. Television set
B. CD-ROM D. VCD and
DVD players
58. Susan’s mother tongue is a vernacular. Which
of the following materials would be the most
efficient and effective material to learn a
second language?
A. interactive multimedia
B. pictures and print materials
C. audio compact discs and radio
D. printed materials and real objects
be 59. Computer can be a good tool for
individualized instruction. Which of the
following aspects can be a deterrent for its full
utilization in the classrooms?
 A. economic C. social
B. physical D. technical
60. With the increasing use of educational
technology inside the classroom, what roles
are expected of the teacher?
A. facilitator C. knowledge giver
B. demonstrator D. source of
information
61. Which of the following technologies are
properly classified?
A. computers, compact discs, film, television
B. imaginative literature, book, programmed
instruction
C. versatile compact disc, printed material,
diagram, sketches
D. digital video, phonograph, compact discs,
radio, audio tape
62. Which of the following technologies are
arranged from the most concrete to the most
abstract?
A. motion pictures, verbal symbols, visual
symbols, radio, realias
B. realias, visual symbols, television, motion
pictures, still pictures
C. realias, motion pictures, still pictures,
visual symbols, verbal symbols
D. verbal symbols, still pictures, visual
symbols, models, motion pictures
63. Which is the best way to present instructional
materials?
A. concrete ->semi-concrete-> abstract-
>semi-abstract
B. semi-concrete-> concrete -> abstract->
semi-abstract
C. abstract->semi-abstract-> semi-concrete-
> concrete
D. concrete ->semi-concrete-> semi-abstract
-> abstract
64. Which of the following technologies provide
iconic experiences?
A. videos and computer
B. books and periodicals
C. audio and audio materials
D. printed and verbal symbols
65. How can Prof. Ubiña best promote the use of
multimedia in teaching Science to her
coteachers?
A. Sell multimedia at low cost.
B. Demonstrate its use to them.
C. Explain the literature supporting its use.
D. Convince the principal to require the use
of technology.
66. There are countless things in the environment
that you and your students can use to learn
from such as trees, globes, pebbles, blocks
etc. These real objects and models are really
effective if they are utilized properly. Which of
the following is incorrect about the use of real
objects and models?
A. Familiarize yourself with the object or
model.
B. Allow passing of a single object around the
class.
C. Make sure that objects/models are large
enough to be seen by the whole class.
D. Encourage students’ participation through
questioning and having students
E. decide the next step.
67. Aaron constructed a three dimensional
material to simulate the circulation of blood.
Which of the following did he construct?
A. A solid model C. mock-up model
B. cutaway model D. cross-
sectional model
68. Which is a two-dimensional representation of
the earth’s geographic and/or political
features?
A. globe C. mock-up
B. map D. model
69. You asked your students to illustrate what
they have understood from what they have
read. Which of the following non-projected
visuals are you referring to?
A. printed visuals C. models
B. graphics D. realias
70. Which software should Dr. Balagtas to
manipulate numerical data in the computer?
A. Spreadsheet C. word processing
B. desktop publishing D. multimedia
71. Prof. Silva uses projected visuals such as OHP
in presenting her lesson. What could be her
main reason in using such an educational
technology?
A. The materials are readily available.
B. Most visuals can be obtained at no cost.
C. It is more abstract than any other visuals.
D. She can easily prepare her own
transparencies in advance.
72. Ms. Pacheco showed a segment of matter in
“sine skwela” to her pupils without a follow-up
activity. Thus, the pupils got low in the test.
What does this imply?
A. TV makes viewing enjoyable.
B. TV promotes mastery of the lesson.
C. TV induces alienation on the part of the
learners.
D. TV is effective when learners attain the
lesson objectives.
73. Which activity is closest to the real thing?
A. hear C. watch a demonstration
B. view images D. perform in a presentation
74. Your department would like to purchase a
computer set as your project. Which of the
following advantages of computer will be your
last consideration in purchasing it?
A. It can enhance the teaching and learning
process.
B. It can be used for interactive presentation.
C. It can be used for research activity
D. It can be used for entertainment.
75. Prof. Orencia will have a digitized presentation
to pre-service teachers. Which of the following
will make her presentation appealing and
effective?
A. Observe maximum use of animations and
graphics together.
B. Apply as many computer effects per slide
as possible.
C. Reinforce textual information with graphic
organizers.
D. Use as many color as possible.
76. Why are computers increasingly becoming
pervasive in schools nowadays?
A. Schools advocate the use of computers.
B. They increase efficiency and productivity.
C. Anybody can operate computers without
formal training.
D. Students have access to computers in
school and at home.
77. There are several reasons why teachers are
reluctant in using electronic media in the
teaching-learning process. Which is the most
common reason?
A. The difficulty in integrating them in the
curriculum.
B. The limited exposure of teachers to new
equipment.
C. Their incompatibility to diverse needs of
the learners.
D. The excessive availability of local
technology in the community.
78. With the number of senses to be stimulated
as criterion, which one should be first in
thelist?
 A. multi sensory aid C. visual aid
B. audio-visual aid D. audio aid
79. Which of the following is considered in terms
of technical quality of a material?
A. stereotyping C. color and size of
text
B. vocabulary level D. students’
achievement
80. Which statement is true about the opaque
projector and overhead projector?
A. An opaque projector allows more flexibility
than an overhead projector.
B. An overhead projector allows more
flexibility than an opaque projector.
C. Opaque and overhead projectors can
instantaneously project 3D visuals well.
D. The series of still visuals in an opaque
projector are arranged in a fixed pattern
but not in an overhead projector.
81. A grade II teacher wanted to show the parts of
a seed by using a large, wooden seed visual
aid with detachable cotyledons and tiny seed.
Under what classification does wooden
structure fall?
A. assembly model C. realia
B. cutaway model D. solid model
82. Which term refers to a model which is
constructed so as to emphasize a particular
part or function?
A. audio recording C. mock-up
B. simulation D, realia
83. Which is the best use of computers to
students like you?
A. They are used for chatting and surfing the
net.
B. They are used for research
collaboration.
C. They are used for playing online games.
D. They are used for watching movies.
84. Which statement makes technology
ineffective in student learning?
A. It develops higher thinking skills.
B. It prepares students for the workforce.
C. It enhances students’ collaborative skills.
D. It decreases achievement in content
learning.
85. You plan to use instructional materials to a big
class-size. Which of these will you not use?
A. pictures C. 27-inch television
B. projection device D. computer with LCD
projector
86. Computers can be classified according to the
roles they play namely communicative tool,
informative tool, and constructive tool. What
is the other role of computes in the options
below?
A. instructional tool C. utility tool
B. situating tool D, application tool
87. Which of the following categories of CAI will
you use in your class if your objective is to
increase proficiency in a newly learned skill or
refresh an existing one?
A. tutorial C. simulation
B. drill and practice . D. Instructional game
88. Which of the following is an ineffective use of
presentation software?
A. Darken the room
B. Use appropriate pacing
C. Read directly from the slides.
D. Allow interaction with the learner.
89. Which of the following is NOT an example of
communicative tool?
A. multimedia encyclopedia
B. teleconferencing
C. electronic mail
D. chat
90. Which is a characteristic of the teaching
machines of B. F. Skinner?
A. It does not need any feedback.
B. It requires teacher’s assistance.
C. It is meant for a collaborative work.
D. It allows a student to learn at his/her own
pace.
91. Why is one-way delivery of information a
misuse of communication tools?
A. because the teacher expects the student
to study more
B. because it requires activities that focus on
thinking than responding
C. because it enables the users to focus more
on higher level cognitive activities
D. because this kind of practice lessens
interaction capabilities of communication
tools
92. Internet consists of thousands of connected
computer networks around the world. Which
term does NOT refer to Internet?
A. A. NET C. “Cyberspace”
B. B. Online D. “Information
Superhighway”
93. Your class adviser is planning to have an
asynchronous communication with your
classmates. Which technology tools can she
use?
A. chat and blog
B. chat and instant messaging
C. blog and video conferencing
D. electronic bulletin board and email
94. In your computer subject, you allow your class
to chat as a part of your motivation before
discussing them the roles of computer. How is
chat used in this context?
A. Communicative tool C. Application tool
B. Informative tool D. Situating
tool
and 95. Your mother wanted to finish her long
dreamed course but she wanted to do it at
home during her free time. How could you
help your mother in pursuing her dream?
A. Encourage her to hire a helper so that she
can attend regularly to her class.
B. Give up your study so that your mother
can attend her classes.
C. Enroll her to the school where you
enrolled.
D. Enroll her in distance education
96. The following statements are true about
computer conferencing. Which is an
exception?
A. It refers to live student interaction with an
expert.
B. It is also known as discussion forum or
bulletin board.
C. It also refers to online class discussions,
forums or debates
D. It permits two or more individuals to
engage in asynchronous text-based
dialogue.
97. Which instructional tool application will you
introduce to your class if your objective is to
help them find and use information resources
available in the internet?
A. Webquests C. Scavenger Hunt
B. Hybrid course D. Distance
education
98. Maryjane is looking for an organized
instructional program in which the teacher
and learners can be physically separated.
Which of the following will she choose?
A. Distance Education
B. Uniform Resource Locator
C. Web Quests
D. Computer-Based Instruction
99. Prof. Ruscoe would like to show Rizal’s
museum to the students but due to financial
constraint, she couldn’t bring them there.
What should she do to make the
teachinglearning process more realistic?
A. Conduct a virtual tour.
B. Use DVD with less resolution.
 C. Show pictures of the museum to the whole
class.
D. Go to the museum and relate all
observations made.
100. Which of the following should you avoid if
you were asked to evaluate the effectiveness FILIPINO
of an instructional game after using it in POST – TEST
teaching a lesson in high school science?
A. Present problems which are relevant to I. Panuto: Bilugan ang titik ng wastong
learning objectives. sagot.
B. Allow learners to select different content 1. Agad na sumigaw ang bata ____ makitang
materials. dumating ang kanyang kapatid
C. Provide a cooperative learning a. ng b. nang
atmosphere. 2. Ang mga mag-aaral ay nagkasundo _____ sa
D. Provide a scoring system. iminungkahi ng guro.
a. din b. rin
3. Ang bawat tao _____ ay kailangang
***** THE END ***** isakatuparan ang kanyang mithiin sa buhay.
a. Daw b. raw
POST TEST 4. Ang kirot ay unti-unti ______ nawawala.
ED-TECH a. ng b. nang
1. Which of the following statements is correct 5. Ayon kay Jose Rizal, ang mga bata _____ ang
about the domains of educational technology? siyang pag –asa ng bansa.
a. daw b. raw
1. D 51. B 6. Sa Sabado _____ gabi mawawalan ng
2. B 52 A kuryente.
3 A 53 D a. ng b. nang
4 A 54 A 7. Hindi na nakaramdam ng gutom si Kuya mula
5 B 55 D _____ siya ay natulog.
6 D 56 A a. ng b. nang
7 B 57 B 8. _____ dalang pusa ang Inay nang umuwi.
8 A 58 A a. May b. Mayroon
9 C 59 A 9. Maya-maya ay sisingaw _____ ang amoy ng
Patay.
10 A 60 A
a. din b. rin
11 B 61 B
10. Ang dunong ay kailangan ng tao ngunit
12 D 62 C
kailangan _____ niya ang tulong ng Maykapal.
13 D 63 D
a. din b. rin
14 A 64 A 11. Sino ba ang sumisigaw _____ at
15 D 65 B nagtatakbuhan ang mga tao.
16 D 66 B a. doon b. roon
17 D 67 C 12. _____ tainga ang lupa, may pakpak ang balita.
18 C 68 B a. May b. Mayroon
19 A 69 B 13. Ang bawat tao sa mundo ___ ay dapat
20 B 70 A magkaunawaan para sa kanilang ikabubuti.
21 C 71 D a. Daw b. raw
22 C 72 D 14. Ang Pilipinas ay malakas ____ tulad ng
23 B 73 D Singapore kung karapatan ang Pag-uusapan.
24 C 74 D a. din b. rin
25 B 75 C 15. Unti- unti ____ humuhupa ang kanyang galit.
26 A 76 B a. Ng b. nang
27 C 77 B
28 D 78 A II. Ibinigay ang kahulugan ng salitang may
29 A 79 C salungguhit.
30 C 80 A 16. Narinig ko ang alawat ng mga bata sa silid ng
31 C 81 A mag-asawang Maria at Jose.
32 C 82 C a. ingay c. sigaw
33 D 83 B b. mahinang alingawngaw d. tawanan
17. Ang Itay ay alimbuyaw nang dumating kanina.
34 B 84 D
a. Aburido c. Patakbo
35 C 85 A
b. Masaya d. sumigaw
36 B 86 B
18. Si Tj ay isang anluwagi nang mapangasawa ni
37 C 87 B Luisa.
38 A 88 C a. Guro c. karpintero
39 C 89 A b. katulong d. pulis
40 B 90 D 19. Kakarampot ang nakuha kong ulam sa mesa.
41 C 91 D a. marami c. malalaki
42 D 92 B b. katiting d. mamhahaba
43 D 93 D 20. Alumpihit ang Itay habang hinihintay ang Inay.
44 B 94 A a. Kabang-kaba c. Di-mapalagay
45 C 95 D b. Siyang- siya d. Tuwang-
46 B 96 A tuwa
47 D 97 C 21. Iyon ang kinamihasnan ng babaeng iyon sa
48 D 98 A bundok kaya di-makaunawa sa iyo.
49 D 99 A a. natutuhan c. napag-
50 B 100 B aralan
b. kinagawian d. nagustuhan
22. Ang alipustahin ang mga dukha ay di kanais-
nais na pag-uugali.
a. layuan c. talikdan
 b. apihin d. kagalitan b. Tomas Pinpin d. Emilio Aguinaldo
23. Nakita kong pakimod na sumagot ang babae 41. Ang tawag sa ating unang alpabeto
sa dalaga nang mag-usap sila. a. Alpabetong Romano c. Kartilya
a. Paismid c. patawa b. Alibata d. Romanisasyon
b. Pangiti d. pasigaw 42. Ang taong may “memorya fotograpica”
24. Isang indihente ang tumawag ng aking pansin a. Jose Maria Panganiban
dahil sa nakakatawang ayos nito. b. Jose Garcia Villa
a. Maralita c. mag-asawa c. Jose Corazon de Jesus
b. Matanda d. paslit d. Jose Rizal
25. Naging Cum Laude si Memi dahil siya ay
nagsunog ng kilay gabi-gabi. 43. “Ama ng Dulang Pilipino”
a. nagbubunot c. nag-aahit a. Julian Balmaceda c. Lope K. Santos
b. puspos sa pag-aaral d. nag-aayuno b. Severino Reyes d. Emilio
26. Parang balat-sibuyas ang kutis ng babaeng Jacinto
ito. 44. Siya ay tinaguriang Joseng Sisiw
a. namumula sa bilog c. mahaba at payat a. Jose Villa Panganiban c. Jose dela Cruz
b. napakaputi at malinis d. pino at b. Pedro Paterno d. Modesto
malambot de Castro
27. Kapit-tuko sa isat’-isa habang naglalakad ang 45. Ang kilalang epiko ng mga Muslim
magkasintahang Heart at Echo. a. Hudhud c. Hinalawod
a. away nang away b. Darangan d. Bantugan
b. mahigpit na magkahawak-kamay 46. Ang kauna-unahang aklat na nalimbag sa
c. malayo ang agwat pilipinas
d. patakbo a. Pasyon c. Doctrina
28. Ang langitngit ng mga bintana ay gumigising Christiana
nang lubos sa katahimikan ng silid-aralan. b. Barlaan at Josaphat d. Florante at Laura
a. Alatiit c. dekorasyon 47. Ama ng Wikang Pambansa
b. kulay d. sira a. Emilio Aguinaldo c. Aurelio Tolentino
29. Mataginting na tinanggap ng batang paslit b. Manuel L. Quezon d. Florante at Laura
ang pangaral ng guro. 48. Ang “ Orator ng Pagbabago”
a. maingay c. mapayapa a. Graciano Lopez Jaena c. Urbana at
b. pasigaw d. paismid Feliza
30. Ang paswit ay sa aso, ang Oo ay sa tao. b. Mariano Ponce d. Jose Buhain
a. Palo c. buto 49. Isang dulang nagwagi ng kauna-unahang
b. Sipol d. sigaw Gatimpalang Palanca
a. Medusa c. Urbana at Feliza
III. Ibinigay ang tamang sa mga tulang b. Tibag d. Hulyo 4, 1946 A.D
bayani 50. Ang may-akda ng “Ang Cadaquilaan ng Dios”
31. Ang tawag sa mga tulang bayani a. Emilio Aguinaldo c. Julian Felipe
a. dalit c. senakulo b. Marcelo H. del Pilar d. Lopez Jaena
b. epiko d. duplo 51. Baston ni Adan Hindi mabilang-bilang
32. Tinaguriang Joseng Batute ng Pilipinas a. buhok c. dahon
a. Jose Garcia Villa c. Jose Corazon de b. ulan d. palay
Jesus 52. Ang dalawa’Y tatlo na,
b. Francisco Baltazar d. Modesto de Castro Ang maitim ay maputi na
33. Mga sagisag na ginamit ni Rizal Ang bakod ay lagas na
a. Piping Dilat c. Pudpod at Plaridel a. aso c. matandang tao
b. Dolores Manapat d. Dimasalang at b. kalabaw d. punong kahoy
laong laan 53. Ang anak ay nakaupo na
34. Ang “ prinsipe” ng makatang Tagalog Ang ina’y gumagapang pa
a. Modesto de Castro a. kalabasa c. sanggol
b. Francisco Baltazar b. saging d. aso
c. Fernando bagong Lanta 54. Kung araw ay bumbong
d. Jose Garcia Villa Kung gabi ay dahon
35. Siya ay tinaguriang “ Ama ng Balarila ng a. saging c. atip ng
Wikang Pambansa” bahay
a. Jose Villa Panganiban c. Severino b. banig d. paying
Reyes 55. Isang reyna
b. Lope K. Santos d. Rafael Nakaupo sa tasa
Palma a. kandila c. kasoy
36. Isang dula noong panahon ng Hapon na b. kapa d. santol
isinulat ni Francisco Soc Rodrigo 56. Dalawang magkaibigan,
a. Panibugho c. Panday Pira unahan nang unahan.
b. Sa pula, Sa Puti d. Luha ng a. trak c. bibig
Buwaya b. paa d. mata
37. Ama ng Katipunan 57. Dalawang bolang sinulid
a. Emilio Jacinto c. Apolinario Mabini Umaabot hanggang langit
b. Andres Bonifacio d. Marcelo H. a. bola c. lobo
del Pilar b. mata d. saranggola
38. Isang uri ng panitikan na nagsasaad ng 58. May ulong walang mukha
simulain ng mga bagay o tao sa daigdig May katawan, walang sikmura
a. tula c. alamat Namamahay nang sadya
b. tibag d. maikling kwento a. pako c. upo
39. Pinakabantog at pinakamahalagang awit na b. palito ng posporo d. talong
nasulat ni Francisco Baltazar 59. Bumili ako ng alipin
a. Senakulo c. duplo Mataas pa sa akin
b. epiko d. Florante at Laura a. payong c. sombrero
40. Ang kauna-unahang Pilipinong manlilimbag b. atip d. bahay
a. Marcelo del Pilar c. Jose Maria 60. Tubig sa ining-ining
Panganiban Di mahipan ng hangin
 a. ilog c. ulan 78. Sa akda niyang “Guryon”, ipinalintulad ni
b. balon d. dagat Idelfonso Santos ang Guryon sa:
61. a. buhay ng tao c. anyo ng pagpapalipad
a. eskursiyon c. exkursion b. tibay ng pisi d. hanging habagat
b. iskursiyon d. excursion 79. “Unupo si Itim, sinulot ni Pula, heto na si Puti
62. na bubuga-buga.” Ito ay halimbawa ng isang:
a. scout c. iskawt a. bugtong c. alamat
b. escout d. skawt b. salawikain d. kuwentong bayan
63. 80. “Ang sinuman ay makabubuo ng matibay na
a. colisiyon c. koliseum lubid kung pagsasamahin ang sinulid.” Ang
b. kolisiyum d. coliseum ibig sabihin ng kasabihang ito ay:
64. a. Mahirap magkaisa ang mga tao.
a. Istadyum c. Estadyum b. Madali ang gumawa ng lubid kung may
b. Stadium d. estadium sinulid
c. Kailangan natin ang lubid sa ating mga
65.
Gawain.
a. Matematika c. matimatika
d. Magkakaroon tayo ng lakas kung tayo’y
b. Mathematica d. matemateka
magkakaisa.
66. Karamihan sa mga sugapa ay mula sa wasak
81. “Ang taong nagigipit sa patalm kumapit.” Ano
na tahanan.
ang ibig sabihin ng salawikaing ito:
a. malaki ang sita ng bahay
a. Ang kaligtasan ng taong nagigipit ay sa
b. maliit lamang ang bahay
tapang ng dibdib
c. magkahiwalay ang magulang
b. Susuungin ng tao kahit ani mang panganib
d. walng magulang
upang malunasan ang kanyang problema
67. Matagal na lumagay sa tahimik si Marcia. Ang
c. Malapit sa panganib ang mga taong
ibig sabihinay _______.
nagigipit.
a. matagal na namatay c. hindi na nagpakita
d. Huwag makiharap sa taong nagigipit
b. nag-asawa na d. nanganak
sapagkat siya ay siguradong galit
na
82. Alin sa sumusunod ang hindi tuluyang anyo
68. Alin ang salawikain sa sumusunod:
ng panitikan?
a. Nasa Diyos ang awa
a. korido c. kuwentong bayan
Nasa Tao ang gawa
b. alamat d. maikling
b. Di-maliparang uwak
kuwento
c. May puno walang bunga
83. Tukuyin kung anong uri ng panitikan ang
May dahon walang sanga
“Isang bayabas, pito ang butas.”
d. Nag-bubuhat ng sariling bangko
a. Sawikain c. Salawikain
69. Ang bagong alpabetong Filipino ay may ______
b. Idyoma d. Bugtong
ng letra.
84. “Ano man ang tibay ng piling abaka ay wala
a. 20 b. 24 c. 28 d. 30
ring lakas kapag nag-iisa.” Isinasasaad ng
70. Ito ay bahagi ng aklat na makikita sa likod. Ito
salawikaing ito ang kahalagaan ng :
ay talaan ng lahat na mahalagang paksa
a. pagkakaisa’t pagtutulungan
kasama ang pahina. Ang mga paksa ay
b. tibay ng dibdib at lakas kahit nag-iisa
nakasulat sa paalpabeto.
c. pagkakaroon ng lakas kahit nag-iisa
a. Talatuntunan c. Talahulugan
d. pagpapalakas ng loob lalo’t nag-iisa
b. Talatinigan d. Talaan ng
85. Sa akin lipain doon nagmula
nilalaman
Lahat ng pagkain nitong ating bansa
71. Isang kuwento ng ang gumagapang ay mga
Ang lahat ng tao mayaman o dukha
hayop na kumikilos at nagsasalita na parang
Sila’y umaasa sa pawis ko’t gawa.
tao.
Ano ang ipinahihiwatig ng saknong?
a. Parabola c. kuwento
a. Lahat ng pagkain ay sa magsasaka
b. pabula d. alamat
nagmumula
72. Ito ay isang uri ng dula na nawawakas a
b. Lahat ng magsasaka ay may lupang
pagkamatay ng pangunahing tauhan.
sinasaka
a. komedya c. melodrama
c. Lahat ng tao’t bagay ay galling sa lupa
b. epiko d. trahedya
d. Lahat ng umaasa sa biyayang galling sa
73. Isang kuwento hango sa banal na kasulatan
magsasaka.
na umaakay sa tao sa matuwid na landas ng
86. Ang kaibigan ko ay isa lamang maralita.
buhay. Ito ay may aral.
a. mangmang c. mabait
a. Anekdota c. parabola
b. maliliit na tao d. mahirap
b. alamat d. sanaysay
87. Si Nena ay inaruga ng kanyang lola mula pa
74. Isang tagisan ng mga talino sa pamamagitan
noong siya’y maulila.
ng katwiran sa pamamaraang patula.
a. pinabayaan c. inalagaan
a. balagtasan c. tula
b. pinamigay d. kinuha
b. talumpati d. duplo
88. Palasak na ang desenyong iyan.
75. Si severino Reyes na lalong kilala sa tawag na
a. pambihira c. magastos
Lola Basyang ay higit na kilala sa larangan ng:
b. pangkaraniwan d. wala sa
a. dulaan c. pag-awit
moda
b. pagtula d. balagtasan
89. Ang mga salbahe ay kinamuhian niya
76. Ang Kumitang ay isang uri ng awiting bayan.
a. kinakalinga c. kinatatakutan
Ito ay may karaniwang inaawit sa:
b. kinukumusta d. kinasusuklaman
a. paghaharana c. paghehele
90. Ang mga kawal na lumabag sa utos ay
b. pakikidigma d. pamamangka
binigyan ng babala.
77. Ang senakulo ay isang panrelihiyon; ito ay
a. sundalo c. kusinero
naglalayon na
b. kaibigan d. pulis
a. ipaala ang kapanganakan ni Hesukristo
91. Nangangamba ka ba na hindi ka niya
b. ipakita ang pagkakapatiran ng mga
pagbibigyan?
Kristiyano at Muslim
a. nasisiyahan c. nababanas
c. magsalarawan ngmga pinagdaanang
b. natatakot d. naiinis
buhay at kamatayan ni Hesukristo
92. Ang pagpunta sa Saudi Arabia ay di-gawang
d. magligtas sa mga kasalanan
biro.
 a. Madali c. mahirap 30 B 80 D
b. masayang Gawain d. maayos 31 A 81 B
93. Si Miguel ay sumakabilang buhay na noong 32 C 82 A
Linggo. 33 D 83 D
a. nagpaalam c. nagpunta sa
34 B 84 A
siyudad
35 B 85 D
b. namatay d. nagbayad ng
utang 36 B 86 D
94. Bakit mukhang Biyernes Santo si Marko. 37 B 87 C
a. malungkot c. mukhang masaya 38 C 88 B
b. lumuluha d. tumatawa 39 D 89 D
95. Nakaririmarim ang nangyaring sakuna sa 40 B 90 A
dagat. 41 A 91 B
a. nakalulungkot c. nakaiinis 42 A 92 C
b. nakatatakot d. nakapangingilabot 43 B 93 B
96. Ang dayuhang siyang pinakamatalik na 44 C 94 A
kaibigan ni Rizal ay
45 B 95 D
a. Austin Craig c. Otley beyer
b. Ferdinand Blumentritt d. Don 46 C 96 B
Eulogio Despujl 47 B 97 A
97. Dahil sa tulong at pagmamalasakit ni 48 A 98 D
a. Dona Aurora A. Quezon 49 D 99 D
b. Tandang Sora 50 B 100 B
c. Luz B. Magsaysay
Sa kapakanan ng mga sinalanta ng sakuna,
siyay tinaguriang Ina ng Kruz na Pula.
HUMAN GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT
98. Kung ano ang “Urbana at felisa” sa mga POST-TEST April 2010
tagalog ang
a. Lagda c. Bidasari Multiple Choices:
b. Maragtas d. Hudhud
ay siya naman sa mga Bisaya. 1. The process by which certain potentials are
99. Sa mga tauhan ng Noli Me Tangere ni Rizal, si inherited from the parents for his
a. Basilio c. Capitan Tiago development
b. Elias d. Simon a. Life c. Heredity
Ang nagligtas kay Ibarra sa kapahamakan b. Birth d. Character
100. Ang aklat ng mga tinipong tula sa Tagalog 2. This theory states that there are 8 basic
ni Lope K. Santos ay pinamagatang development stages that the individual has to
a. Damdamin c. Tungkos ng Alaala pass through his life
b. Puso at Diwa d. Mga Dahong Ginto a. Learning Theory
b. Psychoanalytic Theory
***** THE END ***** c. Psychosocial Theory
d. Cognitive Development
WORK HARD, DREAM HARDER 3. Transition age from childhood to adulthood
where rapid physical changes and sex
maturity occur resulting in changes in ways of
filipino feelings, thinking and acting.
1 B 51 B a. Puberty c. Early adulthood
2 B 52 C b. Adolescence d. Stage V
4. Modifying an existing scheme after an
3 B 53 A
individual’s interaction with the environment,
4 B 54 B
resulting in the creation of a new scheme.
5 B 55 C a. Assimilation c. Recognition
6 A 56 B b. Interaction d. Accommodation
7 B 57 B 5. Theory stating that a person’s behavior can
8 A 58 B be motivated by urges towards self
9 B 59 C satisfaction.
10 A 60 B a. Psychoanalytic Theory
11 A 61 B b. Cognitive development theory
12 A 62 C c. Psychosocial Theory
13 B 63 B d. Moral development theory
6. The ability of a child to conceptualize the
14 A 64 A
retention and preservation of the same
15 B 65 A quantity under various changes.
16 B 66 C a. Recognition c. Assimilation
17 A 67 B b. Reversibility d. Conservation
18 C 68 A 7. Refers to the idea that no individual are
19 B 69 C exactly the same or alike.
20 C 70 A a. Cognitive theory c. Individual
21 B 71 B differences
22 B 72 D b. Exclusivity theory d. Emotional
23 A 73 C quotient
8. He is known as the Father of Modern I.Q. Test
24 A 74 A
a. Lewis Terman c. Laurence Kohlberg
25 B 75 A
b. Erick Erickson d. Martin Lesley
26 D 76 B 9. “Intellectual appreciative Experience” is …
27 B 77 C a. base on the premise that all learning has
28 A 78 A emotional correlates
29 C 79 A b. obtained in the field of music, art and
literature
 c. the acquisition and retention o acts and d. Voluntary accreditation
information 21. The period of physical, especially sexual, and
d. assumes that human activities are based mental maturation which is characterized by
on stimulus and response rapid somatic growth is known as
10. These statements imply that children at the a. infancy c. puberty
early learning stage consider parents and b. early childhood d. adulthood
teachers as authorities and models. 22. Claustrophobia is an irrational fear of
a. Parents and teachers should always a. Darkness c. closed space
coordinate children’s activities b. strangers d. height
b. Parents should enforce strict discipline at 23. An eye defect characterized by clear vision in
home and teachers in school one dimension but unfocused vision on the
c. Parents and teachers should be the role other is called
models at all times a. myopia c. hyperopia
d. Parents and teachers should always b. astigmatism d. presbyopia
consult each other with regards the child’s 24. Which of the following statements does not
intellectual development apply to adolescents?
11. Any change in the behavior of an individual a. they desire the approval of their peers
a. Learning c. Change b. they seek dependence on their parents
b. Response d. Development c. they have a marked sex development
12. Which of the following principles IS NOT d. none of the above
considered under Classical Conditioning by 25. As young people mature, society expects
Ivan Pavlov? them to develop competencies and assume
a. Excitation social roles in a conventional manner.
b. Adhesive Principle a. expectation of parents
c. Stimulus Generalization b. influence of peers groups
d. None of the above c. influence of formal education
13. The reinforcement of a person’s responses by d. cultural demands
presentation or removal of rewards and 26. The founder of the theory of psychology called
punishment. psychoanalysis was
a. Operant conditioning c. Feedback Principle a. Lock c. Freud
b. Transfer of learning d. Discipline b. Hume d. leibnitz
14. This stimulation of action best explains the 27. When the learner reaches a point where no
behavior of an individual to take what he further improvement can be expected, he is in
perceives to be the shortest route to his goals. a so-called
a. Recognition c. Response a. development crisis c. regression
b. Assimilation d. Motivation b. learning plateau d. depression
15. The process by which an individual acquires 28. Regarding the sexual maturation o boys and
the social and cultural heritage o the society girls, teachers should bear in mind that:
where he belongs. a. girls mature at a late stage than boys
a. Socialization c. Integration b. girls mature at an earlier stage than boys
b. Internalization d. Acquisition c. boys and girls mature at the same time
16. Philosophy of education’s main function. d. there are no marked differences in heir
a. Aid the leaner to build his own personal time of maturity
philosophy 29. Rationalization is used by student who
b. Definition o goals and setting of directions a. always give explanation or reason for their
from which education failures rather than own their faults
c. Educations carries on a lifetime cycle b. like to take the blame for their faults
d. Provision of academic background c. bribe their elders with promises
prerequisite to learning d. substitute words for deeds
17. According to Froebel, kindergarten is also 30. Which of the following is true of Abnormal
known as “____________? Psychology?
a. children have fun and enjoyment a. it studies the cause of personality defects
b. Garden where children could grow b. it measures the accomplishments of the
c. He learning Center for Life individual
d. Where new beginnings begin c. it concentrates on the scholastic
18. Which of the following statements is given performance of the individual
emphasis by “humanistic education?” d. it investigates the educational background
a. The great works of man such as the of the individual
classics should be enjoyed. 31. Which of the following is a continuous
b. Man should learn the different variable?
philosophies of education a. weight c. nationality
c. “Build a man who is distinctly civilized, b. sex d. race
educations and refined” 32. Which of the following is true about one’s IQ?
d. Develop man into a thinking individual a. it remains fairly constant
19. A teacher who advocates the pragmatic b. it is highly changeable
philosophy of education believes that c. it is affected by attitude
experience should follow learning, thus, she d. it is never constant
has to? 33. Transfer of training easily takes place if the
a. require her student mastery of the lessons activities involved
b. encourage her students to memorize facts a. Are different
c. equip her students with basic skills and b. Have identical element
abilities c. Occur in the same place
d. provide her student with opportunities to d. Vary in difficulty
apply their skills and abilities 34. When the learner is well-motivated, he
20. How are institutions of learning encouraged to performs his task
set higher standards over and above the a. with indifference c. with arrogance
minimum requirement for state recognition? b. with disinterest d. with enthusiasm
a. Scholastic achievement 35. A six-year-old child who has a mental age of
b. Faculty development eight years has an IQ of
c. Academic freedom
 a. 120 b. 130 c. 132 d. d. set up norms of conduct or the member of
133 the gang
36. The ratio obtained by dividing mental age by 49. In an intelligence test, a 13-year old girl got a
chronological age times 100 is called score equivalent to that of a 15-year old. This
a. derived quotient means:
b. deviation a. that the girl must be accelerated
c. intelligence quotient or IQ b. that the girl is 2-years older mentally
d. intelligence ratio c. that the girl has a chronological age of 15
37. Which of the following was written by Plato? d. that she has a mental age of 13
a. Sic et Non c. The Republic 50. Which statement is not necessary to achieve
b. The School and Society d. Emile the learner’s interest in a learning activity?
38. Who among those below asserted that a. the activity must lead to a practical end
“Education is for complete living” b. the activity must be within the ability of
a. Dewey c. Kant the learner
b. Spencer d. Froebel c. the activity must fill a need recognized by
39. The right of an educational institution and its the learner
faculty to prescribe the methods/strategies of d. the learner must have the experience that
teaching refers to: will furnish the background for the activity
a. building style 51. He is responsible for the theory which
b. choice of curriculum recognizes the importance of developing
c. academic freedom multiple intelligence
d. co and extra curricular program a. Jean Piaget c. Frederick Freobel
40. The 1987 Constitution provides that religious b. Howard Gardner d. Sigmund Freud
institution can be given 52. The need to recognize and develop special
a. with the students’ consent sensitivity to language, thus helping the
b. with the parent/guardian approval learners to use the right word, phrase and/ or
c. with mayor’s permit graph to grasp new meaning refers to
d. with the school’s support a. visual intelligence c. feelings
41. Public schools in the Philippines are the sensitivity
contribution of which colonizer? b. linguistic intelligence d. jargon
a. American c. Japanese 53. The sensitivity to tone and pitch, allowing
b. British d. Spanish one to produce musical scoring is intelligence
in?
a. musical c. quantitative
42. Hardship allowance is given to a teacher when exercises
a. he’s assigned in a depressed area b. verbal ability d. qualitative
b. he’s given additional teaching load analysis
c. he’s in lahar area 54. One’s ability to do abstract reasoning and
d. he’s assigned in a hazardous area manipulate symbols refers to what type of
43. The ability for quantitative learning of the intelligence?
relations of facts taken from newspaper a. musical
readings, letter writing and the like is called: b. personality identification
a. functional literacy c. Knowledge c. mental ability
outcome d. mathematical-logical
b. adjustment learning d. Social competence
44. A teacher who gives a uniform assignment to
be worked out by all learners in Arithmetic is 55. The ability to perceive how objects are related
not observing a characteristic of a good in order to mentally perceive what is seen,
assignment. Which characteristic is thus creating concrete visual images from
overlooked? memory refers to?
a. It should be definite a. visual-spatial intelligence
b. It should be stimulating b. musical
c. It should emphasize the essential c. language
d. It should provide for individual differences d. logical reasoning
45. If a student ask a question which the teacher 56. The capacity to analyze one’s feelings and
does not have a ready answer, the latter thus be able to understand and be able to
should: know the motives of other people’s actions.
a. dismiss the question as irrelevant a. spatial c. logical
b. offer a bluff b. personal d. diametric
c. admit the fact that he doesn’t know the 57. The type of intelligence which enables a
answer person to understand other person’s feelings,
d. ask volunteers to answer the question and behavior and motivation.
do research on it later. a. emotional c. social intelligence
46. The heredity traits acquired by a person in his b. spatial d. quantitative and
lifetime; qualitative
a. are transmissible to his offspring 58. The type of intelligence which characterizes
b. reappear in his future grandparent actress, actors, mimes, dancers and people of
c. Have no influence on the offspring the Arts?
d. Become recessive traits a. bodily-kinesthetic c. research
47. When student are given a chance to settle b. scientific d. emotions
differences of opinion by discussion, they 59. An emerging thrust in determining one’s
develop: personality, whether pleasant or
a. fair play c. irritants unwholesome, this type of personality
b. tolerance d. sociability measurement is the wholesomeness of one’s
48. The school’s responsibility towards teenagers virtues, i.e., values, relationships with other,
“gang age” is: adjustments to varying situations, behavior an
a. provide the gang all the freedom it needs motivations
b. gives classroom activities to give direction a. emotional quotient (E.Q.)
to out-of-school youth activities b. intelligence quotient (I.Q.)
c. supervise gang activities c. maladjustment personality
 d. anticipated behavior
60. It is a measurement of personality which is
the result by dividing the mental age by the
chronological age.
a. emotional quotient (E.Q.)
b. intelligence quotient (I.Q.)
c. multiple Intelligence
d. forecasted behavior quotient
61. The teacher must be aware that both heredity
and environment represent complex factors,
exerting many specific influences on an
individual’s growth. Which of the following
statements best represents the influence of
heredity and environment?
a. Heredity counts; environment is less
important.
b. If the environment is changed, heredity
becomes less important.
c. The relative influences of heredity and
environment can vary widely in an
individual’s growth.
d. In the long run, both tend to cancel each
other’s influences
e. None of the above
62. The best possible way to measure the
influence of heredity is by:
a. keeping the environment constant.
b. Ignoring the environment
c. Studying only fraternal o normal capability
d. Studying only identical twins of normal
capability
e. Doing none of the above
63. Educators who contributed to the “open
education” movement includes:
a. Neill and piaget c. Bruner and
Silberman
b. Kohl and kozol d. All of the above
64. A child’s social skills can be measured by:
a. direct observation and parent-teacher
conferences
b. psychological test
c. adaptive behavior scales
d. A and C above
65. A teacher uses behavioral modification
techniques in his classes. Which of the
following student behaviors would he find
most difficult to change?
a. Aggressive tendencies toward classmates
b. Poor habits in organizing work materials
c. Interrupting a speaker
d. Abandoning a project before it is finished
66. Learning-disabled children most
characteristically have:
a. low IQ
b. poor socio-economic backgrounds
c. an average level of intelligence
d. minimal brain damage
67. Which of the following is true about educable
mentally retarded children?
a. Their IQ range between 50 and 70
b. They have short attention spans and
experience difficulty in generalizing
c. Their reading, writing, and arithmetic skills
cannot be improved
d. A and B above
68. Which of the following is characteristics of a
dyslexic child
a. Mirror writing
b. listlessness
c. Below-average intelligence
d. Hyperactivity
69. Primary reading retardation is presumed to be
neurologically based, related to parietal lobe
dysfunction?
a. Inability to relate sound to letter symbols
b. Inadequate auditory information
processing
c. Left-right directional confusion
d. Speech aphasia
70. Students with secondary reading problems
have capacity to read, but are non-readers
because of:
a. auditory problems
b. congenital defects
c. visual-acuity impairment
d. environmental or emotional actors
71. If a teacher accepts Maslow’s theory on the
hierarchy of needs, he or she will probably
structure objectives to:
a. meet both the physiological and
intellectual needs of students
b. eliminate testing
c. eliminate extrinsic motivations
d. maintain a certain anxiety level for
increased competition
72. The knowledge explosion has led to crowding
more and more information into curriculum
courses. A likely result is that:
a. the textbook will no longer be the main
instructional medium in many classes
b. the child may spend more time in school
c. the teacher may have to rely more on the
se of multimedia materials
d. all of the above
73. During the learning process the teacher has
most control over:
a. the learners
b. the learning environment
c. the learning process
d. the behavior of the learners
74. Which of the following conditions does NOT
contribute to a climate psychologically suited
to learning?
a. The teacher acts like a “real person.”
b. The teacher makes all of the decisions
about students’ learning activities.
c. The teacher accepts students as they are
d. The teacher shows trust in students’
decisions
75. William Glasser advocates the frequent use of
classroom meetings, with teacher and
students sitting in a small circle. Which one of
the following types of discussion would NOT
be appropriate in such a setting?
a. An educational-diagnostic conference on
the learning weaknesses of individual
students.
b. An open-ended meeting for the purpose of
exploring and discussing student’s ideas
about the curriculum
c. A social-problem-solving meeting to
resolve teacher or student problems
elating to the school, the class, or any
individual member.
d. A sensitivity-training meeting for the
purpose of helping students ace their
school-related problems and learn how
their actions can affect others
76. Which of the following does NOT represent a
teacher’s contribution to the emotional
environment of the classroom?
a. A strident, compelling voice.
b. A sustained sense of expectation where
student achievement is concerned
c. A well-written lesson plan
 d. A sense of humor in a tense situation
77. According to Jones, student commitment to
accomplishing a learning goal depends on all
of the following EXCEPT:
a. how interesting the goal is
b. how likely it seems that the goal can be
accomplished
c. what degree of challenge the goal
presents
d. whether the learner will be able to tell if
the goal has been accomplished
e. whether materials are ready assembled
for undertaking the goal
78. The teacher who understands the
adolescent’s need to conform will:
a. use sarcasm as a disciplinary device
b. disregard unique responses in discussion
and on examinations
c. establish a learning climate that fosters
feelings of security
d. lecture students on their weakness o
character
79. The best public relations agents for a school
are the:
a. pupils c. PTA members
b. Teachers and pupils d. principals
80. The structured curriculum is in decided
contrast to the child-centered curriculum,
which:
a. emphasizes fundamental education
b. is changeable and is built around student
interest and needs
c. is oriented to the needs of a democratic
society.
d. Utilizes the theory of mental discipline
81. According to Bruner, teacher working with
young children should
a. Push the children to maximum cognitive
development as rapidly as possible
b. Present all information verbally so the
children will listen well
c. Present new material from the concrete to
the abstract
d. Present new information from the abstract
to the concrete
82. from the educational viewpoint, intelligence
is:
a. an abstract concept
b. a trait that can be manipulated
c. good judgment
d. a form of behavior
83. Every taxonomy of educational objectives:
a. describes increasingly difficult learning
activities
b. describes levels of goals for learner
development
c. suggest evaluation measure for teacher
use
d. Classifies learning outcomes
84. A mathematics teacher following Gagne’s
theory of learning believes that:
a. learning can take place under all
conditions
b. learning is mainly a mater of accurate
discrimination
c. learning takes place only when the
student is in a receptive state
d. learning is reinforced chiefly by classical
conditioning
85. Under which of the following conditions is a
child’s IQ more likely to increase?
a. If the emotional climate in the classroom
improves
b. If the child is given a large “research”
project.
c. If the child enjoys problem solving and is
given ample opportunity for it
d. If A and C are true
86. Intelligence is the basis of education.
Education is the effective means for national
development, hence, a country spends a large
portion of its budget for the systematic
training of the learner to attain full
development
Why is education one major concern of
every c country? Because
a. intelligence has many facets
b. intelligence is useful in testing
c. intelligence is a safe gauge for budgetary
allocation
d. intelligence test when carefully conducted,
can help in determining need for future
facilities for national building
87. There are no two individuals who are the
same. Individual differences, when early
recognize and provided for, enable the
teacher to provide different motivations and
approaches in guiding the learning process.
Each pupil differs physically, mentally, socially
and emotionally from other children. Unless
the teacher provides for this nature of the
learner, no amount of modern approaches in
teaching can elicit favorable results.
a. The paragraph highlights the need or
motivating learning
b. Individual differences is an important
consideration in guiding the learner
c. The above paragraph focuses on teacher-
pupil relationship
d. It takes about the nature of the learning
process
88. Robert Craig, et al, wrote of the phase of
steps in every learning process. These
include: 1.) the focusing of attention to the
stimulation at hand, 2.) the interplay of the
learner and the social factors that surround
him, 3.) the acquisition of a new response or
behavior he gives to the new learning and 4.)
Retention which presupposes that the new
learning is acquired.
The above paragraph emphasizes
a. the learning process
b. the steps/phase of how individuals learn
c. the manifestations of learning
d. why learning is a difficult process
89. Approaches in teaching change from time to
time depending on the traditional of
sophistication attached to the course being
taught. Some mentors believe that the tie
tested ways to teaching is effective. Other are
easily carried away to use modern approaches
in imparting new subject matter. It maybe
safe to conclude that once results are realized
in teaching, no specific method can be
considered the one-and-only method to use.
When teaching a subject area, it is safe to
a. stick to the traditional way
b. be modern and most recent
c. get results in teaching
d. to try any method as they are all theories
after all
90. In the early 1980’s programmed teaching
became popular in helping teachers to
provide for individual differences in learners.
The chunks of the subject matter which are
divided into units are supposed to help the
learner master the lesson, since it is simply to
understand the frame of the lessons. No test o
mastery of the units are done because the
 purpose is to provide information on certain ***** THE END *****
subject matter
Would you as a teacher use programmed WORK HARD, DREAM HARDER
instruction if you handle a subject on
Values Education?
a. yes, definitely human growth and development
b. no, not important for the subject matter 1 c 51 c
c. I don’t know 2 c 52 b
d. Why not if the subject matter calls for it 3 b 53 a
91. The data/subject matter to teach are gathered
4 d 54 d
in different ways, These include historical
5 a 55 a
sources like surveys, systematic observations,
experimentation, interviews, etc. to be 6 d 56 b
reliable and valid, the data collected must be 7 c 57 c
organized, properly analyzed and interpreted. 8 a 58 a
From these processes, some conclusion or 9 a 59 a
generalization are done to reveal certain 10 c 60 b
relationships like cause & effect. Data 11 a 61 c
gathering involves: 12 d 62 d
a. tedious and serious study 13 c 63 d
b. easy does it 14 d 64 d
c. data gathered are tested and filed, then
15 a 65 a
verified before being used
d. no follow-up needed 16 b 66 c
92. Heredity and environment play important 17 a 67 d
roles in the function of human beings. DNA or 18 c 68 a
Deoxyribonucleic Acid is the biological 19 d 69 d
(heredity) band of our genes. Our 20 d 70 d
environment includes the house, school and 21 c 71 a
the community where we live. Whether we 22 c 72 d
become successful or a failure will depend on 23 b 73 b
the interplay of both nature and nurture. 24 b 74 b
If heredity and environment affect the
25 d 75 a
individual, thus, we can conclude that
26 c 76 c
a. both actors play equal roes in one’s life
b. one factor, either heredity or environment 27 b 77 e
exerts more influence than the other 28 b 78 c
c. neither factor is important 29 a 79 b
d. nurture and nature are the same 30 a 80 b
93. The first systematic philosopher to work in 31 a 81 c
the field of education was 32 a 82 a
a. Socrates c. Plato 33 b 83 b
b. Aristotle d. Rousseau 34 d 84 c
94. The first state in the world’s history where all 35 d 85 d
human capabilities were allowed to develop
36 c 86 d
freely
a. Rome c. Sparta 37 c 87 b
b. Athens d. Germany 38 b 88 b
95. They are the most practical, pragmatic people 39 c 89 c
who absorbed themselves in the management 40 b 90 b
of their state affairs 41 a 91 a
a. Spartans c. Romans 42 c 92 a
b. Athens d. Chinese 43 d 93 c
96. Invented the first system of writing in the 44 d 94 b
orient 45 a 95 c
a. Phoenicians c. Greeks
46 a 96 b
b. Chinese d. Romans
47 b 97 b
97. first to introduce the use of printing press in
the Philippines 48 b 98 c
a. Romans c. Greeks 49 b 99 b
b. Chinese d. Japanese 50 a 100 b
98. conducted the world’s first civil service test
a. Greeks c. Chinese
b. Romans d. English
99. To develop the capacity of man only for war
was the educational aim of the ancient
a. Romans c. Athenians
b. Spartans d. Chinese
100. To produce a young man who would be
charming in person and graceful in manner,
e.g. a beautiful soul in a beautiful body is the
educational aim of education of the
a. Romans c. Spartans
b. Athens d. Italians
 LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET)

Refresher Course

Content Area: MATHEMATICS

Focus: ANALYTIC GEOMETRY
Prepared by: Daisy de Borja-Marcelino
Competencies:
1. Solve problems involving coordinates of a point, midpoint of a line segment, and
distance between two points.
2. Determine the equation of the line relative to given conditions: slope of a line given its
graph, or its equation, or any two points on it.
3. Determine the equation of a non-vertical line given a point on it and the slope of a line,
which is either parallel or perpendicular to it.
4. Solve problems involving
a. the midpoint of a line segment, distance between two points, slopes of lines,
distance between a point and a line, and segment division.
b. a circle, parabola, ellipse, and hyperbola.
5. Determine the equations and graphs of a circle, parabola, ellipse and hyperbola.

I. The Cartesian Plane

Below is a diagram of a Cartesian plane or a rectangular coordinate system, or a coordinate plane.

The two axes separate the plane

into four regions called quadrants.
Points can lie in one of the four
quadrants or on an axis. The points on
the x-axis to the right of the origin
correspond to positive numbers; while
to the left of the origin correspond to
negative numbers. The points on the y-
axis above the origin correspond to
An ordered pair of real numbers, called thepositive numbers;
coordinates of a point,while
locatesbelow
a pointthe
in the
Cartesian plane. Each ordered pair corresponds to exactly one point in the Cartesian plane.

The following are the points in the figure on the right:

A(-6,3), B(-2,-3), C (4,-2), D(3,4), E(0,5), F(-3,0).

For numbers 1-2, use the following condition: Two insects M and T are initially at a point
A(-4, -7) on a Cartesian plane.

1. If M traveled 7 units to the right and 8 units downward, at what point is it now?
Solution: (-4+7, -7-8) or (-3,-15)
2. If T traveled 5 units to the left and 11 units downward, at what point is it now?
Solution: (-4-5, -7-11) or (-9, -18)

II. The Straight Line

A. Distance Between Two Points

( x1  x2 ) 2  ( y1  y2 ) 2
A. The distance between two points (x1,y1) and (x2,y2) is given by .
Example: Given the points A(2,1) and B(5,4). Determine the length AB.

 2  5  2  1  4  2    9  2    3 2  9  9  18 92 3 2
Solution: AB = or or .
Exercises: For 1-2, use the following condition: Two insects L and O are initially at a point (-1,3) on
a Cartesian plane.
1. If L traveled 5 units to the left and 4 units upward, at what point is it now?
A) (-6, 7) B) (4, 7) C) (-6, -1) D) (4, -7)

2. If O traveled 6 units to the right and 2 units upward, at what point is it now?
A) (7, 5) B) (5,5) C) (-7, 5) D) (-5, -5)

St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 15

3. Two buses leave the same station at 9:00 p.m. One bus travels at the rate of 30 kph and the
other travels at 40 kph. If they go on the same direction, how many km apart are the buses at
10:00 p.m.?
A) 70 km B) 10 km C) 140 km D) 50 km

4. Two buses leave the same station at 8:00 a.m. One bus travels at the rate of 30 kph and the
other travels at 40 kph. If they go on opposite direction, how many km apart are the buses at 9:00
a.m.?
A) 70 km B) 10 km C) 140 km D) 50 km

5. Two buses leave the same station at 7:00 a.m. One bus travels north at the rate of 30 kph and
the other travels east at 40 kph. How many km apart are the buses at 8:00 a.m.?
A) 70 km B) 10 km C) 140 km D) 50 km

6. Which of the following is true about the quadrilateral with vertices A(0,0), B(-2,1), C(3,4) and
D(5,3)?
i) AD and BC are equal
ii) BD and AC are equal
iii) AB and CD are equal

A) both i and iii B) ii only C) both ii and iii D) i, ii, and

iii

7. What is the distance between (-5,-8) and (10,0)?

A) 17 B) 13 C) 23 D) -0.5

B. Slope of a line
y1  y2
m
x1  x2
a) The slope of the non-vertical line containing A(x 1,y1) and B(x2,y2) is or
y y
m 2 1
x2  x1
.
b) The slope of the line parallel to the x-axis is 0.
c) The slope of the line parallel to the y-axis is undefined.
d) The slope of the line that leans to the right is positive.
e) The slope of the line that leans to the left is negative.

C. The Equation of the line

In general, a line has an equation of the form ax + by + c = 0 where a, b, c are real
numbers and that a and b are not both zero.

D. Different forms of the Equation of the line

 General form: ax + by + c = 0.
 Slope-intercept form: y = mx + b, where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept.
y  y1  m( x  x1 )
 Point slope form: where (x1, y1) is any point on the line.
y y
y  y1  2 1 ( x  x1 )
x2  x1
 Two point form: where (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) are any two points on the
line.
x y
 1
a b
 Intercept form: where a is the x-intercept and b is the y-intercept.

Reminders:
 A line that leans to the right has positive slope. The steeper the line, the higher the slope
is.

p q r
The slopes of lines p, q, r are all positive. Of the three slopes, the slope of line p is the
lowest, the slope of r is the highest.

St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 16

  A line that leans to the left has negative slope. The steeper the line, the lower the slope is.

t s u

The slopes of lines t, s, u are all negative. Of the three slopes, t is the highest, while u has the
lowest (because the values are negative.)

Exercises
5x - 4 y +12 = 0
1. What is the slope of ?
A)1.25 B) -1.25 C) 0.8 D) -0.8

2. What is the slope of x = -9?

A) 4 B) 1 C) 0 D) undefined

3. What is the slope of y= 12?

A) 7 B) 1 C) 0 D) undefined

x y
+ =1
4 9
4. What is the slope of ?
0.4 0.4
A) B) 2.25 C) - D) -
2.25

E. Parallel and Perpendicular lines

Given two non-vertical lines p and q so that p has slope m 1 and q has slope m2.
 If p and q are parallel, then m1 = m2.
 If p and q are perpendicular to each other, then m1m2 = -1.

F. Segment division
Given segment AB with A(x1,y1) and B(x2,y2).
x1  x2 y1  y2
M( , )
2 2
 The midpoint M of segment AB is .
r1 AP r1

AB r2 PB r2
 If a point P divides in the ratio so that , then the coordinates of P(x,y) can
rx r x r y r y
x 1 2 2 1 y 1 2 2 1
r1  r2 r1  r2
be obtained using the formula and .
G. Distance of a point from a line

The distance of a point A(x1,y1) from the line Ax + By + C = 0 is given by

Ax1  By1  C
d
A2  B 2
.
Exercises

1. Write an equation in standard form for the line passing through (–2,3) and (3,4).
a. 5x – y = -13 b. x – 5y = 19 c. x – y = -5 d. x – 5y =
–17

2. Write an equation in slope intercept form for the line with a slope of 3 and a y-intercept of 28.
a. y = –3x + 28 b. y = 0.5x + 28 c. y = 3x + 28 d. y
= 3x + 21

3. Write the equation in standard form for a line with slope of 3 and a y-intercept of 7.
a. 3x – y = –7 b. 3x + y = 7 c. 3x + y = 7 d. –3x + y = –7

4. Which of the following best describes the graphs of 2x – 3y = 9 and 6x – 9y = 18?

a. Parallel b. Perpendicular c. Coinciding d. Intersecting

5. Write the standard equation of the line parallel to the graph of x – 2y – 6 = 0 and passing
through (0,1).
a. x + 2y = –2 b. 2x – y = –2 c. x – 2y = –2 d. 2x + y = –2
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 17
6. Write the equation of the line perpendicular to the graph of x = 3 and passing through (4, –1).
a. x – 4 = 0 b. y + 1 = 0 c. x + 1 = 0 d. y – 4 = 0
7. For what value of d will the graph of 6x + dy = 6 be perpendicular to the graph 2x – 6y = 12?
a. 0.5 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5

III. Conic Section

A conic section or simply conic, is defined as the graph of a second-degree equation in x
and y.

In terms of locus of points, a conic is defined as the path of a point, which moves so that its
distance from a fixed point is in constant ratio to its distance from a fixed line. The fixed point is
called the focus of the conic, the fixed line is called the directrix of the conic, and the constant
ratio is called the eccentricity, usually denoted by e.

If e < 1, the conic is an ellipse. (Note that a circle has e=0.)

If e = 1, the conic is a parabola.
If e > 1, the conic is hyperbola.

A. The Circle

1. A circle is the set of all points on a plane that are equidistant from a fixed point on the
plane. The fixed point is called the center, and the distance from the center to any point of
the circle is called the radius.

2. Equation of a circle

a) general form: x2 + y2 + Dx + Ey + F = 0
b) center-radius form: (x – h)2 + (y – k)2 = r2 where the center is at (h,k) and the radius
is equal to r.

3. Line tangent to a circle

A line tangent to a circle touches the circle at exactly one point called the point of
tangency. The tangent line is perpendicular to the radius of the circle, at the point of
tangency.

Exercises y
For items 1-2, use the illustration on the right. 2

1.5

1. Which of the following does NOT lie on the circle?

a. (3,-1) b. (3,0)
1

c. (2,-1) d. (3,-2) 0.5

0 x

2. What is the equation of the graph?

-3.5 -3 -2.5 -2 -1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5

y 2   x  3  1 ( y  1) 2   x  3  1
-0.5

-1

a. b. -1.5

( y  1) 2   x  3  1 ( y  1) 2   x  3  1 -2

c. d.

B. The Parabola

1. Definition. A parabola is the set of all points on a plane that are equidistant from a
fixed point and a fixed line of the plane. The fixed point is called the focus and the fixed line is
the directrix.

2. Equation and Graph of a Parabola

a) The equation of a parabola with vertex at the origin and focus at (a,0) is y2 = 4ax.
The parabola opens to the right if a > 0 and opens to the left if a < 0.

b) The equation of a parabola with vertex at the origin and focus at (0,a) is x2 = 4ay.
The parabola opens upward if a > 0 and opens downward if a < 0.

c) The equation of a parabola with vertex at (h , k) and focus at (h + a, k) is (y – k)2 =

4a(x – h).
The parabola opens to the right if a > 0 and opens to the left if a < 0.

d) The equation of a parabola with vertex at (h , k) and focus at (h, k + a) is (x – h)2 =

4a(y – k).

e) The parabola opens upward if a > 0 and opens downward if a < 0.

f) Standard form: (y – k)2 = 4a(x – h) or (x – h)2 = 4a(y – k)

g) General form: y2 + Dx + Ey + F = 0, or x2 + Dx + Ey + F = 0
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 18
3. Parts of a Parabola

a) The vertex is the point, midway between the focus and the directrix.

b) The axis of the parabola is the line containing the focus and perpendicular to the
directrix. The parabola is symmetric with respect to its axis.

c) The latus rectum is the chord drawn through the focus and parallel to the directrix
(and therefore perpendicular to the axis) of the parabola.

d) In the parabola y2=4ax, the length of latus rectum is 4a, and the endpoints of the latus
rectum are (a, -2a) and (a, 2a).

In the figure at the right, the vertex of the parabola is the origin,
LL'
the focus is F(a,o), the directrix is the line containing ,
CC '
the axis is the x-axis, the latus rectum is the line containing .

16
x2   y
3
The graph of . The graph of (y-2)2 = 8 (x-3).

C. Ellipse

1. An ellipse is the set of all points P on a plane such that the sum of the distances of P from two
fixed points F’ and F on the plane is constant. Each fixed point is called focus (plural: foci).

2. Equation of an Ellipse

a) If the center is at the origin, the vertices are at ( a, 0), the foci are at ( c,0), the
b2  a2  c2
endpoints of the minor axis are at (0,  b) and , then the equation is
2 2
x y
2
 2 1
a b
.
b) If the center is at the origin, the vertices are at (0,  a), the foci are at (0,  c), the
b2  a 2  c2
endpoints of the minor axis are at ( b, 0) and , then the equation is
2 2
x y
2
 2 1
b a
.
c) If the center is at (h, k), the distance between the vertices is 2a, the principal axis is
( x  h) 2 ( y  k ) 2
 1
b2  a 2  c2 a2 b2
horizontal and , then the equation is .
d) If the center is at (h, k), the distance between the vertices is 2a, the principal axis is
( y  k ) 2 ( x  h) 2
 1
b2  a2  c2 a2 b2
vertical and , then the equation is .

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 y

B(0,b) 2
(c, ba )
2
(c, ba )

V’(-a,0)F’(-c,0) O F(c,0) V(a,0) x

2
(c, ba )
2
(c, ba )
B’(0,-b)

4. Parts of an Ellipse
For the terms described below, refer to the ellipse
shown with center at O, vertices at V’(-a,0) and V(a,0),
foci at F’(-c,0) and F(c,0), endpoints of the minor axis
at B’(0,-b) and B(0,b), endpoints of one latus rectum
b2 b2

a a
at G’ (-c, ) and G(-c, ) and the other at
2 2
b b

a a
H’ (c, ) and G(c, ).

a) The center of an ellipse is the midpoint of the segment joining the two foci. It is the
intersection of the axes of the ellipse. In the figure above, point O is the center.
b) The principal axis of the ellipse is the line containing the foci and intersecting the
ellipse at its vertices. The major axis is a segment of the principal axis whose endpoints
V 'V
are the vertices of the ellipse. In the figure, is the major axis and has length of 2a
units.
c) The minor axis is the perpendicular bisector of the major axis and whose endpoints are
B' B
both on the ellipse. In the figure, is the minor axis and has length 2b units.
G' G
d) The latus rectum is the chord through a focus and perpendicular to the major axis.
2b 2
H'H a
and are the latus rectum, each with a length of .

(0, 3)
(-4,9) (4, 9)
5 5

(-5,0) (-4,0) (4,0) (5,0)

O x
y
(-4,- 9) (4,- 9)
5 5
(0, -3)
(2,6)
(8,5)
(-6,4)

(2,1)
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(-8,1) 224-2515 (12,1) 20
O x
(8,3)
(2,-4)
 x2 y2 ( x  2) 2 ( y  1) 2
 1  1
25 9 100 25
The graph of . The graph of .

4. Kinds of Ellipses
a) Horizontal ellipse. An ellipse is horizontal if its principal axis is horizontal. The graphs above
are both horizontal ellipses.
b) Vertical ellipse. An ellipse is vertical if its principal axis is vertical.

D. The Hyperbola

1. A hyperbola is the set of points on a plane such that the difference of the distances of each
point on the set from two fixed points on the plane is constant. Each of the fixed points is
called focus.
2. Equation of a hyperbola
a) If the center is at the origin, the vertices are at ( a, 0), the foci are at ( c,0), the endpoints
x2 y2
 1
b2  c 2  a 2 a 2 b2
of the minor axis are at (0,  b) and , then the equation is .
b) If the center is at the origin, the vertices are at (0,  a), the foci are at (0,  c), the
y2 x2
 1
b2  c2  a2 a2 b2
endpoints of the minor axis are at ( b, 0) and , then the equation is
.
c) If the center is at (h, k), the distance between the vertices is 2a, the principal axis is
( x  h) 2 ( y  k ) 2
 1
b2  c 2  a 2 a2 b2
horizontal and , then the equation is .
d) If the center is at (h, k), the distance between the vertices is 2a, the principal axis is
( y  k ) 2 ( x  h) 2
 1
b2  c2  a2 a2 b2
vertical and , then the equation is

2. Parts of a hyperbola

For the terms described below, refer to the hyperbola shown which has its center at O,
vertices at V’(-a,0) and V(a,0), foci at F’(-c,0) and F(c,0) and endpoints of one latus rectum at
b2 b2 b2 b2
 
a a a a
G’ (-c, ) and G(-c, ) and the other at H’ (c, ) and H(c, ).

a) The hyperbola consists of two separate parts called branches.

b) The two fixed points are called foci. In the figure, the foci are at ( c,0).

c) The line containing the two foci is called the principal axis. In the
figure, the principal axis is the x-axis.
d) The vertices of a hyperbola are the points of intersection of the
hyperbola and the principal axis. In the figure, the vertices are at ( a,0).

St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 21

 V 'V
e) The segment whose endpoints are the vertices is called the transverse axis. In the figure
is the transverse axis.

b2  c2  a2
f) The line segment with endpoints (0,b) and (0,-b) where is called the conjugate
axis, and is a perpendicular bisector of the transverse axis.
g) The intersection of the two axes is the center of the hyperbola .

h) The chord through a focus and perpendicular to the transverse axis is called a latus rectum. In

b2 b2

G' G a a
the figure, is a latus rectum whose endpoints are G’ (-c, ) and G(-c, ) and has a

2b 2
a
length of .

3. The Asymptotes of a Hyperbola

Shown in the figure on the right is a hyperbola

with two lines as extended diagonals of the
rectangle shown.

These two diagonal lines are said to be the asymptotes of the curve, and are helpful in
x2 y2
 1
a 2 b2
sketching the graph of a hyperbola. The equations of the asymptotes associated with
b b y 2 x2
y x y x  1
a a a 2 b2
are and . Similarly, the equations of the asymptotes associated with
a a
y x y x
b b
are and .

y
y
(6,9)

(-9,6) F(0,6) (9,6)

3y  x  0
(0,3)
F’(-6,0) (-3,0) O (3,0) F(6,0) x
O x
(0,-3)
3y  x  0
(6,-9)
F’(0,-6)

St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 22

 x2 y2 y2 x2
 1  1
9 27 9 27
The graph of . The graph of .

PRACTICE EXERCISES

Directions: Choose the best answer from the choices given and write the corresponding letter of
your choice.

For items 1-5, use the illustration on the right.

3
M
1. Which of the following are the coordinates of A? 2
a. (1,2) b. (2,1) c. (-3,3) d. (2,-3)
x 1 A
2. What is the distance between points M and T? -3 -2 -1 1 2 3
-10
61 51 H
a. units b. 6 sq. units c. units d. 8 units -3
-2
3. Which of the following points has the coordinates (-3,-1)
a. M b. A c. T d. H T
4. Which of the following is the area of the triangle formed with vertices M, A and H? y
a. 5 sq. units b. 10 sq. units c. 5 units d. 10 units
5. Which of the following is the equation of the line containing points A and T? O(0,b) V
a. y= 2 b. x=2 c. y+2x=3 d. y-2x+3=0 x
6. Suppose that an isosceles trapezoid is placed on the Cartesian plane as shown 0 D(a,0)
E(b,0)
On the right, which of the following should be the coordinates of vertex V?
a. (a,b) b. (b+a, 0) c. (b-a,b) d. (b+a,b)
7. The points (-11,3), (3,8) and (-8,-2) are vertices of what triangle?
a. Isosceles b. Scalene c. Equilateral d. Right

8. What is the area of the triangle in #7?

a. 40.5 sq units b. 41.8 sq units c. 42 sq units d. 46.8 sq
units
9. Which of the following sets of points lie on a straight line?
a. (2,3), (-4,7), (5,8) b. (-2,1), (3,2), (6,3) c. (-1,-4), (2,5), (7,-2) d. (4,1), (5,-2), (6,-5)
3
7
10. If the point (9,2) divides the segment of the line from P 1(6,8) to P2(x2,y2) in the ratio r = ,
give the coordinates of P2.
a. (16,–12) b. (–16, 15) c. (14,15) d. (12,–12)
11. Give the fourth vertex, at the third quadrant, of the parallelogram whose three vertices are (-
1,-5), (2,1) and (1,5).
a. (-3,-2) c. (-3,-4) c. (-4,-1) d. (-2,-1)
12. The line segment joining A(-2,-1) and B(3,3) is extended to C. If BC = 3AB, give the
coordinates of C.
a. (17,12) b. (15,17) c. (18,15) d. (12,18)
13. The line L2 makes an angle of 600 with the L1. If the slope of L1 is 1, give the slope of L2.
a. (3 + 20.5) b. (2 + 20.5) c. –(2 + 30.5) d. –(3 + 30.5)
14. The angle from the line through (-4,5) and (3,m) to the line (-2,4) and (9,1) is 135 0. Give the
value of m.
a.7 b. 8 c. 9 d. 10
15. Which equation represents a line perpendicular to the graph of 2x + y = 2?
a. y = -0.5x – 2 b. y = –2x + 2 c. y = 2x – 2 d. y
= 0.5x + 2
16. Which of the following is the y – intercept of the graph 2x – 2y + 8 = 0?
a. -4 b. -2 c. 2 d. 4
17. Which of the following may be a graph of x – y = a where a is a positive real number?
a. b. y c. y d. y
y

x x x x
y
2

1.5

18. Write an equation in standard form for a line with a slope of –1 passing through (2,1). 1

a. x + y = –3 b. –x + y = 3 c. x + y = 3 d. x – y = –3
b. 0.5

For items 19-22, use the illustration on the right. 0 x

19. Which of the following are the coordinates of A?

-3.5 -3 -2.5 -2
T -1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5

A
-0.5

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-1

-1.5

-2
 a. (1,1) b. (1,-1)
c. (-1,1) d. (-1,-1)
20. What is the distance between points A and H?
61
a. units b. 6 sq. units
51
c. units d. 8 units
21. Which of the following points has the coordinates (-2,-2)?
a. M b. A H
M
c. T d. H

22. Which of the following is the equation of the given graph?

y   x2   2 y   x 2   2  
y  x2  2
a. . b. . c. . d.
y   x   2 2

.
23. Which of the following is the equation of the line containing points M and T?
a. y= 2 b. x=2 c. y-2x-2=0 d. y+2x+2=0
x2  8 y x3
24. What is the shortest distance of from ?
a. 1 unit b. 2 units c. 3 units d. 8 units
2 2
y x
 1
12 4
25. Which of the following is a focus of ?
a. (0,-4) b. (-4,0) c. (0,4) d. (4,0)
2 2
x y
 1
4 9
26. What are the x-intercepts of ?
2 3 4
a. none b. c. d.

27. Which of the following is a graph of a hyperbola?

a. y
b. 15
y

15

10

10

0 x
-30 -25 -20 -15 -10 -5 0 5 10 15 20 25 30
0 x
-30 - 25 -20 - 15 -10 -5 0 5 10 15 20 25 30
-5

-5

-10

-10
-15

-15

y
c. d.
2 y
2

1 .5
1.5

1
1

0 .5
0.5

0 x
0 x
-3 .5 -3 -2 .5 -2 -1 .5 -1 - 0. 5 0 0. 5 1 1. 5 2 2 .5 3 3 .5
-3.5 -3 -2.5 -2 -1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5
-0 .5
-0.5

-1 -1

-1 .5 -1.5

-2 -2

28. Which of the following is an equation of an ellipse that has 10 as length of the major axis and
has foci which are 4 units away from the center?
y2 x2 y2 x2 y2 x2 y2 x2
 1  1  1  1
25 9 9 16 5 3 16 25
a. b. c. d.

For items 29-31, consider the graph on the right.

29. Which of the following is the equation of y
the graph?
100 y 2  25 x 2  2500 10

a.
100 x 2  25 y 2  2500
0 x
b. -30 -20 -10 0 10 20 30
100 y 2  25 x 2  2500
c.
100 x 2  25 y 2  2500 -10

d.
30. What are the x-intercepts of the graph?

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 2
a. none b.
5  10
c. d.

31. What kind of figure is shown on the graph?

a. circle b. ellipse c. hyperbola d. Parabola

32. Which of the following is the center of the graph

shown on the right? y

a. (0,0) b. (0,10)
10
c. (10,0) c. (0,-10)

33. Which of the following is a focus of the graph

shown on the right? 0 x
-30 -20 -10 0 10 20 30
a. (0,0) b. (0,10)
c. (0,5) c. (0,-10)
-10
34. What is the area of the shaded region?
a. 4 units b. 4 square units
c. 16 units d. 16 square units

LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET)

Refresher Course

Content Area: MATHEMATICS

Focus: ADVANCED ALGEBRA
Prepared by: Daisy de Borja-Marcelino
Competencies: Show mastery of the basic terms, concepts and equations in Advanced Algebra
involving radicals, rational exponents and functions. Solve, evaluate and manipulate symbolic and
numerical problems in above areas by applying fundamental principles and processes.

KEY IDEAS
Some Helpful Tips in Answering the LET

1 Read the question/s or the items carefully and understand what they say.
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 25
 2 Determine what is/are wanted or what is/are asked for.
3 Find out what is/are given and which data are needed to solve the problem.
4 Reason out what processes (operations) to apply and the order in which they are to be
applied.
5 Summarize the problem by means of an open number sentence.
6 Compute carefully. Check each step in the computations.
7 Decide the reasonableness of the result.
8 Check the result by seeing to it that the result satisfies all the conditions of the problem.

RATIONAL EXPONENTS
an
If a is a real number and n is any positive integer, the symbol denotes the nth power of
a. The real number a is called the base and n is called the exponent. In symbols,

a n  a  a  a  ...  a
.
n factors

 3 3 3 3  34   2m  3    2m   2m   2m .

Examples: a) or 81. b)
4
 1 1 1 1 1
      .
 2 2 2 2 2 1.31.3  1.3 2 .
c) d)
 math 2
  math math 2 m  m   2 m  .
2

e) . e)
Note that any base raised to the power of 1, is just the base. Moreover, any base raised to
the power of 0 is 1, while 00 is indeterminate.
9 0  1. 41  4.
Examples: a) b) c) (-m)1 = - m. d) z0 = 1.
1 0 1 1
 h op e
2 3 0
1   38.23 0  1 j o y 
2 3 5 1
 j 2o3 y 5 4
m a  a
4
e) . f) . g) . h) .

Laws of Exponents

If a and b are real numbers and m and n are positive real numbers, then the following are
true.

a m a n  a mn a 
n m
 a nm
 .  .
m
a
 a mn
mn a0 a n  ab  n  a nb n
 If and , then .  .
n
am 1  a an
 n m    n
nm a0 a n
a b0  b b
 If and , then .  If , then .
n
a
 a0  1
a0 a n

If , then .
4  2 3
4. 6
 2  2   2
3 2 3 2
 25  32.
Examples: a) b) c) (3 x 4 )2 = 32 x 42.
32 35
 1.  352  33  27.
32 32
d) e) f).
2
3 1 1
5
 325  33  3  .
3 3 27
Exercises
1. In the expression 8m5, 5 is called the ________.
A. base B. coefficient C. constant D. exponent
25 m 0

2
20 m n s  9 3 14 0


 5m 10s 6 n8 m 10
0
0

2. Evaluate .

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 m 2  20
A. 5 B. 23m n s 12 4 -2
C. D. undefined

1 1
 3a  4b  4  4b 4
1
( 3a ) 4
3. Anthony wrote = + . Which of the following is his misconception?
A. It is possible to factor out the exponent.
B. It is possible to distribute exponents over a sum.
C. The exponents should be multiplied with the base.
D. The coefficient inside the parentheses should be added.
2
 5r 4  25r 6
 3  ?
 3s  9s 5
4. Is equal to Why or why not?
A. Yes, for the exponents inside the parenthesis and the numerical coefficients should be
added to 2.
B. No, for the exponents inside the parenthesis and the numerical coefficients should be
subtracted from 2.
C. Yes, for the exponents inside the parenthesis should be added and the numerical
coefficients should be
raised to 2.
D. No, for the exponent inside the parenthesis should be multiplied by 2 and the
numerical coefficients should
be raised to 2.
x12
x3
5. Explain why is not equal to x4?
A. Because the exponents should be added.
B. Because the exponents should be multiplied.
C. Because the numerator should be divided by the denominator.
D. Because the exponent of the numerator should be subtracted by the exponent of the
denominator.
6. Which of the following is the product of x5y3z and x2y4z2?
A. 2x102y122z2 B. x10y12z2 C. 2x72y72z3 D. x7y7z3
5a a 3  2a 5  11a.
7. Give the product of and
5a  10a  55a 2
4 5
5a 3  10a 6  55a
A. C.
5a  10a  55a
4 6 2
5a 3  10a 5  55a
B. D.
 2  2 
3 5
2 8

8. Marlon claims that is equal to . Is he correct? Why or why not?

A. Yes, for the exponents inside the parenthesis and the numerical coefficients should be
added to 5.
B. No, for the exponents inside the parenthesis should be multiplied by 2 and the
numerical coefficients should be raised to 5.
C. No, for the exponents should be multiplied.
D. Yes, for the exponents should be added.

The mentioned laws of exponents also hold when m and n are positive rational numbers.
Examples: The following are true if there is no zero denominator.
 1
  1 1 1
  2
  5 2 5

7
 3 2   3 2   3 2 2  31  3  m3   m3   m3 3  m3
     
     
a) . b) .
2 5
5 3 2
5 3 2 1

1
p 7 
5 3 3
5 3
3
p 7 7
p 7
1
5 3 p 7

c) . d) .
2
 e   e  23  23   e  0  1
3

3x y 
2
 e 3 2 3 4
 314 x 24 y 34  34 x 8 y12
e) . f) .

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 2 2 5y
 art 
 
5

 art  5  x 4  1  1  1
2 11 y 11 y 5 y 6y 3y
 xy   xy 5  x 4  x 4  4  x 4  x 2
g) . h) .
Negative Exponents
1
an
If a is a nonzero real number and n is any rational number, then a-n = .
To simplify algebraic expressions with negative exponents is just to express the given
expression into an equivalent quantity where the exponents become positive.
Examples: Simplify the following such that they only have positive exponents.
1 3 1
3

2
7

4  2m   4
a) b) c)
1 3
 1  1 1 1
3 2
 1
. 7 4
 3
.  2m   4  1
.
3 2
7 4  2m  4
Solution: a) b) c)
Examples: Simplify the following such that they only have positive exponents. Assume nonzero
bases and no denominator is zero.

16 2 m 4 a t 3
4 4 m 3 a 2 t 3
a) b) c) d)

16 2 m 4 at 3 m 4 g 3
 3 2
1

4 4 m 3a 2t 3 g 1h 3 5

 x  2 2
e) f) g) h)
Solution:
16 2 4  2 2

4 4
1
m 4
m 4 3   m 43  m 1 
1
4
4 4 4 4 4 m 3 m
a) = . b) = .

a t 3
a 2 a1 2   a1 2  a 3 t 3
c) = d) = 1.

16 2 m 4 at 3 4 4 m 3 aa 2t 3 4 4 m3 a 3t 3 a 3
 4 43  .
4 4 m 3 a 2t 3 16 2 m 4t 3 4 mt m
e) =

m 4 g 3 m 4 g 3 1 1 g 3 1 h 3 g 4 h 3
 1  3  4  g 3 1  h3  4
g 1h 3 1 g h m m4 m
f) = = .
5
1 1 3

5 2
( 5)( ) ( 3)( )
 2
 2
 2 2

 
1 3
5
 3 2
2
g) = .
1 1 1
 x  2 2
 x  2 2  x  2 x  2 x  4x  4
2

h) = or or .
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
  
 x  2 x  2  x  2  x  2 x  4x  4
2
x 2
4x 4
Note that is equal to but is not equal to .
a
b
Whenever the exponent of a base is in rational form where b  0, the expression can
always be expressed in radical form.

RADICALS

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 1
an
If n is a positive integer and a is a real number for which is defined, then the expression
1
n n
a a a n

is called a radical, and = .

The symbol is a radical sign, the number a is the radicand and n is the index of the
n
a
radical .
3
5
Examples: a) In the expression , the number 3 is called the index and 5 is the radicand.
1
4
27 4 27
b) The expression can be written as .
When a radical notation has no index, it is understood that n=2 or we are going to extract
the square roots of the radicand.
1
2
49  49 . 3  2 3  3.
2

Examples: a) b)

Simplified radicals

An expression with radicals is simplified when all of the following conditions are satisfied.
 Exponents of the radicand and index of the radical have no common factor except 1.
 The radicand has no factor raised to a power greater than or equal to the index.
 All indicated operations have been performed (if possible).
 No denominator contains a radical.
 The radicand has no fractions.

m
a n

Radical notation of

 a
m m
n n
n
a an am
If a is a real number, m is an integer and is a real number, then = = .
Examples: Write each exponential expression using radical notation.
1 3 3
a3 m4 52
a) b) c)

 5
1 3 3 3
a 3 3
a m 4 ( 4 m ) 3 5 2 2
53 2
53
Solution: a) = . b) = . c) = = or .

Examples: Write each radical expression using exponential notation and simplify.
22
3
 27 3
x6
a) b) c)
1
 3 
1 1 6
22 22 2 3
 27 (27) 3 3 3
 3 3
x6 x3 x2
Solution: a) = . b) = = . c) = = .

an = a a
n

If n is an even positive integer, then = and if n is an odd positive integer then

n
a =an

Examples: Simplify each of the following and give all the roots.
625 4
81 169x 6
3
27 x 6 y 9
a) b) c) d)

Solution:
625  252  25 4
81 4
34 
a) . b) = = 3.

St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 29

 132  x 3 
2
169x 6 
c) = = 13x3.

33  x 2   y 3 
3 3 3
3
27 x 6 y 9
d) = =3x2y3.

For all real numbers a and b, and positive integers m and n for which the indicated roots
are real numbers, the following are true.

( a )( b ) =
n n n
ab
m n
a  mn a
 .  .
n
a a
n 
b n
b
 where b is not equal to zero.

Examples: The following are true.

3  5  15. 4
81x  24 81x  8 81x 12  x 6   x 12
3
 
a) b) . c) .

Examples: Simplify each of the following.

3
8 4
32 y 5
125 243
a) b)

3
8
 3
8

( 2)

  2   2 .
3 3 3

125 53 5 5 5
Solution: a)

32y 5 
4
16  2 y 4 y

4
24  2 y 4 y

 2 y4 2 y 
2y 

2y 
 
2 y 4 54 y 
 
4
4
3  3  
243
4
81  3 4
3 3
4
3 3 4
3
b) = = = .

Operations on Radical Expressions

Addition and Subtraction

Radicals with the same radicand and the same index are called like radicals. Like radicals
are added or subtracted by using the distributive property of real numbers. Moreover, only like
radicals can be combined.
3 3 3 3
7 7 7 7
Examples: a) Give the sum of ,3 ,2 and 4 .
15 15 15
b) Evaluate 10 +3 - .
24 2 6
c) If the lengths of the sides of a triangle is cm, cm and 4cm, give its
perimeter.

3 3 3 3 3
7 7 7 7 7
Solution: a) +3 +2 +4 =10 .
15 15 15 15
b) 10 +3 - = 12 .
c) Given a triangle, its perimeter is determined by adding the lengths of its sides.
Hence,

24 2 6 46 2 6
cm + + 4cm = cm + cm + 4cm
2 6 2 6 4 6
= cm + cm+ 4cm = cm + 4cm.

Multiplication of Radicals
n n
ab a nb
Note that = allows multiplication of radicals with the same index.

Examples: Give the product of the following in simplest form. Take only the positive roots.
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 30
  6 8  9 10  2 3 m 2 (3 m  33 m 2 ) (3 7 8 ) (3 7 8)
a) b) c) + -

 6 8  9 10   6 9 8  10  54 80  54 16  5  54 4  5  216 5

Solution: a) = .

 2  3 m 2 [3 m   3 3 m 2 ]  
2 3 m 2 m   2   3 3 m 2 m 2   2  3 m 3 3
m4
b) = -(6)

2m   6m  3 m
= .

(3 7 8 ) (3 7 8 ) 9 7 2  82 9 7    8
c) + - = = =63-8=55.
Exercises

34 5
1. In the expression , 5 is called the ________.
A. base B. index C. radicand D. root
2
3 5

2. Write as a radical expression.

2 5 3
35 32 3 25 3
A. B. C. D.
3
5
5y
3. Write as an exponential expression.

5y  5y    5y 

1 3
3 5 3 5
5 5y3 3 5

A. B. C. D.
15 15 15
4. The sides of a triangle measure 3 m, 5 m and m. What is the perimeter of the
triangle?
15 15 15 15
A. 5 cm B. 8 cm C. 10 cm D. 12 cm
3
5. The side of a square measures 4 m. Give its perimeter.
3 3 3 3
A. 4 m B. 8 m C. 16 m D. 20 m

FUNCTIONS
A relation is a set of ordered pairs (x, y) such that for every first element x, there
corresponds at least one y. The set of all first elements is called the domain of the relation,
whereas the set of second elements is the codomain of the relation.
A function is a relation such that for every first element x of the ordered pair (x, y), there
corresponds a unique second element y. The set of all first elements is called the domain of the
function, whereas the set of second elements is the range of the function.
Tests for a Function
There are some tests that can determine whether a relation is a function or not. We have a
function if no two pairs in the set consisting of ordered pairs have the same first components.

Examples: a) The relation {(Mr. Cruz, Mark), (Mr. Cruz, Mary), (Mr. Gonzales, Art), (Mrs. Tan, Alice),
(Miss Peralta, Niko)} is not a function because more than one ordered pair have the same first
component- Mr. Cruz.
b) The relation {(-1,0), (0, 1), (1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 4)} has no ordered pair that has the same
first component. Thus, it is a function. Moreover, its domain is the set {-1,0,1,2,3} and its range is
{0,1,2,3,4}.
c) Consider the relation {(-3, -9), (-2, -4), (-1, -1), (0, 0),(1, -1), (2, -4), (3, -9)}. This
relation is considered a function because it has no ordered pair that has the same first component.

A relation may be described by a set of ordered pairs. A function is described by a set of

ordered pairs with no two pairs having the same first components.
Example: The table below shows the relation of the distance traveled by a car for a given length of
time.
d = rt
Number of Hours 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Distance 60 120 180 240 300 360 420 480 540 600

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 It can be observed that the distance traveled depends upon the number of hours or time.
We say that distance is a function of time. The relation can be expressed as d = rt or d = 60t in
this particular example.

Example: The area of a square is a function of the length of its side.

A = s2
Side 1 2 3 4 5
Area 1 4 9 16 25

If a relation described by an equation or defined by a rule, a functional relationship exists if

a change in the independent variable x causes a change in the dependent variable y.

Another method of showing the relationship between the elements of two sets is by means of an
arrow diagram.

0 0
Example: An arrow diagram for the relation y = 8x, where x is in set
of whole numbers from 0 to 3, is shown on the right. 1 8

2 16

3 24
x

0 2

Example: An arrow diagram for the relation {(x, y) │y = x2 + 2} -1

is
shown on the right where x = -3, -2,-1,0,1,2,3 and y = 2,3,6,11. 3
1

-2
2 6

-3
3 11
A relation described by an arrow diagram is a function if:

1 there exists a one-to-one correspondence between the elements of the two sets
2 there exists a many-to-one correspondence between the elements of the two sets.

Another method of identifying a function from a mere relation is through its graph. A graph
of a relation is a function if a vertical line is drawn through the graph will intersect the graph in no
more than one point.
The most fundamental way to graph a function is to plot points. Once the behavior of the
graph of the function becomes familiar, graphing becomes easier. Note that in graphing functions,
we include all possible real numbers in the domain.
We may start by creating a table of values in order to find out the behavior of the function.
It is very important to choose different numbers to get a clear picture of the graph. That is, it is
helpful to generate as many points possible.
1
f    x, y  y  3 x  
2
Example: Graph .
1
f    x, y  y  3 x  
2
Solution: We note that can be expressed in terms of slope and m = 3 and
intercept
0.5
b= . By plotting of points, we consider first a table of values.
X -2 -1 0 1 2 3
f(x) -6.5 -3.5 2.5 5.5 8.5
-0.5

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 y
8

0 x
-14 -12 -10 -8 -6 -4 -2 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14

-2

-4

-6

-8

Note that the when a vertical line is drawn through the graph, it will intersect the graph in
no more than one point. Hence, the given relation is a function.

Example: If we have f(x) = x, this function is called an identity function defined by f = {(x, y) │y
= x}.
Let us graph the identity function by assigning to x the values 0, 1, 2. Hence, the
corresponding values of y are 0, 1 and 2 respectively. Moreover, the line is determined by the
following points.
X -2 -1 0 1 2 3
f(x) -2 -1 0 1 2 3

We now have the graph on the right. 8

y

0 x
-14 -12 -10 -8 -6 -4 -2 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14

-2

If f is defined by f = {(x, y) │y = b} where the range of the function f consists of one -4

number, then f is a constant function whose graph is a straight line parallel to the x-axis. -6

-8

Example: Graph f(x) = 4.

Solution: We now have first a table of values.

x -2 -1 0 1 2 3
f(x) 4 4 4 4 4 4

6 y

0 x
-7 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

-1

-2

y2  x
-3

Non-example: Graph .

Solution: We now have first a table of values.

x 0 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4
y 0 1 -1 2 2 3 3 2 2
- -
y
4

0 x
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12

-1

-2

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-3

-4
 Observe that the graph of the said set of points shows that if any vertical line drawn
through the graph intersects the graph at more than one point. Hence, it is not a function.

The graph of a relation shows a function if any vertical line drawn through the graph
intersects the graph at no more than one point.

Non-examples: The graphs below do not define functions.

5
y
y
2.5
4

2
3

1.5
2

1
1

0.5
0 x
-8 -7 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 x
0

-1 -4.5 -4 -3.5 -3 -2.5 -2 -1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3

-0.5

-2
-1

-3
-1.5

-4

PRACTICE EXERCISES

Directions: Choose the best answer from the choices given. Write the corresponding letter of
your choice.

1. In the expression 9m3, 3 is called the ________.

A. base B. coefficient C. constant D. exponent

 1
  3
 77   77 
  
  
2. Evaluate ?
2 4

72 7 7
77
A. 7 B. C. D.
2
 1 3

 m2n 2 
 
 
3. Which of the following is equal to ?
mn3 m 2 n3
A. 0 B. 1 C. D.
3
2 4

4. Which of the following is equal to ?

3 3 4
4
2 2 24 23
A. B. C. D.
3
34m
5. Give the index of the expression .
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 34 m
888tm
6. In the expression , 888tm is called the __________.
A. Index B. Radicand C. Radical sign D. Exponent
5
5
7. Which of the following is equal to ?
5 2 5
A. 0 B. 1 C. D.
3 3 2 2
8. The length of a rectangle is m and its width is m. Which of the following is the area of
the rectangle?
5 6 9 6 6 6
A. 10 m2 B. m2 C. m2 D. m2

St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 34

 5
9. Rosalinda was asked to get the perimeter of a rectangle whose width is 2 mm and whose
5 5
length is mm. Which of the following should be her answer?
7 10 10 5 10 5
A. mm B. 14 mm C. 14 mm D. mm
2 3 7 42
10. Is the sum of , , and equal to ? Why or why not?
A. No, because the indices should be multiplied.
B. No, because the terms should not be combined for these are not like radicals.
C. Yes, because the radicands should be added and the indices should be copied.
D. Yes, because the terms have no coefficient and the radicands should be added.
3
3x 2
11. Write as an exponential expression: .

3x  3x   
1 2
2 3 2 3
3 3x 2  3x  3
A. B. C. D.
7 7 28
12. The sides of a triangle measure 2 m, 3 m and m. Give the perimeter of the triangle.
7 7 7 7
A. 5 m B. 7 m C. 9 m D. 35 m
22
13. The side of a square measures 5 cm. Give its perimeter.
22 22 22 11
A. 10 cm B.15 cm C. 20 cm D. 20 cm
14. A secretary can type 324k words in 32k minutes. How many words can she type in a minute?
23k 23
 1  1
   
 3  3
A. 322k B. 326k C. D.
7 6
3
8x y
27
15. Simplify .
 2 x y  x 
2 2 3
 2x y  2 2 3
x 8x3 y 3 x 2x y  2 3
x
3 3 27 3
A. B. - C. D.
h 3o 4 p 3e 5
16. Which of the following is the index of the expression ?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
3
8m
17. In the expression , 8m is called the __________.
A. Index B. Radicand C. Radical sign D. Exponent
  4 2
 3  3  5 5
  
  
18. Which of the following is equal to ?
6 6 6 8
3 10
6 10
35 3 25
A. B. C. D.
4
3 5

4
3 5

19. Which of the following is equal to ?

4 8
35 35
A. 0 B. 1 C. D.

3
 2 1

 x y  3 3
 
 
20. Evaluate .

St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 35

 5
x2 y x3 y
A. 0 B. 1 C. D.

21. Which of the following sets of ordered pairs describes a function?

A. {(-1, 4), (2, 8), (2, 20), (9, 36), (-3, -12)}
B. {(24, 6), ( 20, 5), (16, 4), (12, 3)}
C. {(1, 2), (-1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 3), (2, 4)}
D. {(1, -1), (-1, 1), (4, -2), (4, 2), (9, 3), (9, -3)}
22. Which of the following sets of ordered pairs DOES NOT describe a function?
A. {(-1, 4), (2, 8), (5, 20), (9, 36), (5, -12)}
B. {(-3, -2), (-2, -1), (-1, 0), (0, 1)}
C. {(24, 6), ( 20, 5), (16, 4), (12, 3)}
D. {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 4), (2, 3), (2, 4)}
23. Which of the following sets of ordered pairs describes a function?
A. {(0.5, 4), (1, 8), (1.5, 20), (2, 36), (-1, -12)}
B. {(4, 6), ( 4, 5), (16, 4), (3, 3)}
C. {(-1, 2), (-1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 3), (2, 4)}
D. {(0.25, -1), (0.5, 1), (0.75, -2), (1, 2), (9, 3), (9, -3)}
24. Which of the following sets of ordered pairs DOES NOT describe a function?
A. {(1.5, 1), (2, 1), (2.5, 1), (3, 1), (3.5, 1)}
B. {(-3, -2), (-2, -1), (-1, 0), (0, 1)}
C. {(24, 6), ( 20, 5), (16, 4), (12, 3)}
D. {(9, 1), (9, 2), (9, 4), (9, 3), (9, 4)}
25. Which of the following describes a function?
A.
x 1 1 2 4 4 6 6
y -2 -4 -6 -8 -10 -12 -14
B.
x 1 3 5 7 9 11 13
y -2 4 -6 8 -10 12 -14
C.
x 1 2 3 1 2 3 4
y 2 4 6 8 10 12 14
D.
x 1 2 3 4 5 1 2
y 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5

26. Which of the following describes a function?

A.
x -1 -2 -3 -4 -5 -6 7
y 2 4 6 8 10 12 14
B.
x -1 1 -2 2 3 3 4
y 2 4 6 8 10 12 14
C.
x 1 -2 3 -1 -2 -3 4
y -2 -4 -6 8 10 12 14
D.
x 1 2 3 4 5 1 2
y -0.5 -1 -1.5 -2 -2.5 -3 -3.5

27. Which of the following arrows or mapping diagrams DOES NOT specify a function?

A. B.

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 1 6
-2 9
2 7
-1 4
3 8
0 0
4 9

C. D.
-2 3 2
4
2
-3 9 6 3
3
-4 9
4 16 4

28. Which of the following arrows or mapping diagrams specifies a function?

A. B.

2 1
4 2 9 4
6 5
C. D.

4
1 1 8
2 4
9
4 2
0
16
C.
7

29. Which of the following arrows or mapping diagrams DOES NOT specify a function?
A. B.

6 6
-1 9
7 7
0 4
8 8
1 0
9 9

C. D.

-2 -4 2
3
2
-3 9 -9
3
3
-4 -16
4 12
4

30. Which of the following graphs is a function?

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 A. C.
3 y
y
2
2.5

1.5
2

1
1.5

0.5

1
0 x
-3.5 -3 -2.5 -2 -1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5
0.5
-0.5

0 x
-1 -3.5 -3 -2.5 -2 -1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5

-0.5
-1.5

-1
-2

B. D.
-1.5

y y
3
2.5

2
2

1.5

1
1

0.5 0 x
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3

0 x
-3.5 -3 -2.5 -2 -1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5
-1
-0.5

-1 -2

-1.5

-3

31. Which is NOT a graph of a function?

A. B. C. D.

100 30 4
80 25 2
60
40 20 0
20 15 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4
0 -2
10
-6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1
-20 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 -4
-40 5
-60 0 -6
-80 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
-5 -8
-100
-120 -10 -10

30
25
20
15
10
5
0
-6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
-5
-10

32. Which of the following is NOT a graph of a function?

A. y C.
2 2.5
y

1.5 1.5

1
0.5

0 x

0.5 -3.5 -3 -2.5 -2 -1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5

-0.5

x -1
0
-1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5
-1.5

-0.5 -2

B. D.
1 y
3 y

0.5
2

0 x
-1.5 -1 -0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5 1

-0.5
0 x
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3

-1
-1

-1.5
-2

-2
-3

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33. Which of the following graphs represents a function?

A. 3 y
C.
3 y

2
2

1
1

0 x
0 x
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3

-1
-1

-2
-2

-3
-3

C.
3 y
5
D. y

2
4

1
3

0 x
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 2

-1
1

-2
0 x
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3

-3

34. Which of the graphs below best represents the following scenario? Chok was at home when he
decided to visit his friend. After a few hours, he was already at his friend’s house which is a few
kilometers away from his home. He stayed there for a few hours and went back home.

A. C.

Distance Distance

Time
Time

B. D.

Distance Distance

Time Time
35. Which of the graphs below best represents the following scenario? Avel is running at a steady
rate and then comes to a hill, which causes him to run at a slower rate. Once he reaches the top
of the hill, he runs down the hill very fast. Upon reaching the bottom of the hill, he resumes his
original pace.

A. B.

Speed Speed

Time
Time

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C. D.

Speed Speed

Time Time

Content Area: MATHEMATICS

Focus: Probability and Statistics
Prepared by: Daisy de Borja-Marcelino
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 40
LET Competencies:

Counting Techniques

Experiment: any activity that can be done repeatedly (e.g. tossing a coin, rolling a die).

Sample space: the set of all possible outcomes in an experiment.

Example: In rolling a die, the sample space is S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}.

Sample point: an element of the sample space.

Example: In rolling a die, there are 6 sample points.

Counting Sample Points

1. Fundamental Principle of Counting (FPC)

If a choice consists of k steps, of which the first can be performed in n 1 ways, for each of
these the second can be performed in n 2 ways, for each of these the third can be
performed in n3 ways…, and for each of these the kth can be made in n k ways, then the
whole choice can be made in n1n2n3…nk ways.
Example: In how many ways can two dice fall? Ans. : 6 · 6 = 36 ways
2. Permutation
Permutation is an arrangement of objects wherein the order is important.

a. Linear Permutation
If n objects are to be arranged r objects at a time, then the number of distinct arrangements is
given by
n!
, n≥ r
n Pr = ( n−r ) ! .

Example: In how many ways can the first, second and third winners may be chosen with 10
contestants?
10 !
=10 · 9· 8=720 ways
10P3 = ( 10−3 ) !
b. Circular Permutation
If n objects are to be arranged in a circular manner, then the number of distinct arrangements
is (n - 1)!

Example: In how many ways can 6 people be arranged around a circular table?

Answer: (6 - 1)! = 5!

c. Permutation with Repetitions

The number of permutations of n things of which n1 are one of a kind, n2 second of a kind, …, nk of
a kth kind is
n!
n1! n2 !...nk !

Example: How many different permutations are there in the word WAGAYWAY if all letters are to be
taken?
8!
2 !3!2 !
Answer:
3. Combination

Combination is the arrangement of objects regardless of order. In other words, the order of
arranging the objects is not important. If n objects are to be arranged r at a time, the number of
distinct combinations is given by:
n!
,n ≥ r
n Cr = r ! ( n−r ) ! .

Example: In how many ways can a committee of 3 be chosen from 7 persons?

7!
3!4 !
Answer:
Probability

Probability: the likelihood of occurrence of an event.

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 If E is any event, then the probability of an event denoted by P(E) has a value between 0
and 1, inclusive. In symbols,
0 ≤ P (E) ≤ 1
If P(E) = 1, then E is sure to happen.
If P(E) = 0, then E is impossible to happen.
Moreover, if the probability that E will not happen is P(E’), then P (E) + P (E’) = 1.

Theoretical Probability
Theoretically, the probability of an event E, denoted by P(E), is defined as
n( E )
n(S )
P(E) =
where n(E) = number of favorable outcomes
n(S) = number of possible outcomes

Exercises

1. A coin is flipped once.

a. How many possible outcomes are there?

b. What are these outcomes?
c. How many of these outcomes consist of a face facing up?
d. What is the probability that a tail faces up?
2. A spinner can land on any of the numbers 1 through 12 with equal likelihood. What is the
probability that the spinner lands on a/an
a. odd number? b. number greater than 12?
c. prime number? d. number divisible by 3 or 4?
e. number divisible by 3 and 4? f. number between 3 and 9?

3. A box contains cards printed with the letters of the word “PHILIPPINES,” so that “P” is one 3
cards, “H” is on one card, and so on. A card is drawn from the box.
a. How many possible outcomes are there?
b. What are these outcomes?
c. Are these outcomes equally likely?
d. What is the probability that the card drawn is
i. a “P” ii. a “H”
ii. a “I” iv. not a “P”

STATISTICS
Statistics is the branch of mathematics used to summarize quantities of data and help
investigators draw sound conclusions. Its two main branches are descriptive statistics and
inferential statistics.
A sample is a specified set of measurements or data, which is drawn from a much larger
body of measurements or data called the population.

Kinds of Sampling
1. Random sampling techniques are used to ensure that every member of the population has
an equal chance of being included in the sample. A random sample is said to be representative
of the entire population. The two methods of random sampling are lottery method and the use
of the table of random numbers.
2. Systematic sampling is a technique which selects every nth element of the population for the
sample, with the starting point determined at random from the first n elements.
3. Stratified random sampling is a technique of selecting simple random samples from
mutually exclusive groupings or strata of the population.
Graphical Representations of Data
Graphs are used in mathematics to show relationships between sets of numbers. Graphs
are useful in the field of statistics because they can show the relationships in a set of data.
1. Histogram - a graphical picture of a frequency distribution consisting of a series of vertical
columns or rectangles, each drawn with a base equal to the class interval and a height
corresponding to the class frequency. The bars of a histogram are joined together, that is, there
are no spaces between bars.
2. Bar Chart- uses rectangles or bars to represent discrete classes of data. The length of each
bar corresponds to the frequency or percentage of the given class or category. The categories are
in turn placed in either horizontal
3. Frequency Polygon- a special type of line graph, where each class frequency is plotted
directly above the midpoint or class mark of its class interval and lines are then drawn to connect
the points.
4. Pie Chart- an effective way of presenting categorized (qualitative) distributions, where a circle
is divided into sectors - pie-shaped pieces - which are proportional in size to the corresponding
frequencies or percentages.
5. Pictogram- known as picture graph where picture symbols are used to represent values.
MEASURES OF CENTRAL TENDENCY

A measure of central tendency is a single, central value that summarizes a set of

numerical data. It describes a set of data by locating the middle region of the set.
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Measure Definition How to find Advantages Disadvantages
s of
Central
Tendenc
y
Mean The sum of the data Ungrouped data: A single, unique Not appropriate
divided by the value that is for skewed
number of data
x́
∑x representative
of all the scores
distribution as it
is affected by
= N extreme scores
Stable from or outliers
group to group
Grouped Data:
May be used in
x́
∑ xf further
= computations
N

Median The middle number Ungrouped data: More stable Not necessarily
of the set when the from group to representative
data are arranged in The middle for the group than the of all scores
numerical order mode
( N 2+ 1 )t h score Appropriate for
Unstable from
group to group
skewed
distribution Cannot be used
Grouped Data:
in further
analyses
Mdn = L +
n

( )
2
−cf
f
i

Mode The number that Ungrouped data: Easy to obtain Not necessarily
occurs most The most frequent representative
frequently in the score of all scores
data
Grouped Data: Cannot be used
The class mark of in further
the class interval analyses
with the highest
frequency
Example: The scores for five students on a quiz are 40, 20, 30, 25, and 15. To find the mean score
for this group of students, we first find the sum of the scores:

40+20+30+25+15=130

We then divide the sum by 5, the number of scores:

130
 26
5
.

Example: Determine the median for the set of scores

82, 81, 80, 87, 20

Solution: We arrange the scores in Example 1 in order fro lowest to highest:

20, 80, 81, 82, 87

The middle number in this arrangement is 81 and it is the median.

Exercises

1. The mean score on a set of 10 scores is 71. What is the sum of the 10 test scores?

2. The mean score on a set of 13 score is 77. What is the sum of the 13 test scores?

3. The mean score on four of a set of five scores is 75. The fifth score is 90. What is the sum
of the five scores? What is the mean of the five scores?

4. Two sets of data are given. The first set of data has 10 scores with a mean of 70, and the
second set of data has 20 scores with a mean of 80. what is the mean for both sets of data
combined?

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MEASURES OF VARIABILITY

A measure of variation or variability describes how large the differences between the
individual scores. The common measures of variability are range and standard deviation.

Measure Definition How to find Advantages Disadvantages

s of
Variation

Range The difference between Ungrouped Easy to compute Unstable

the highest score and data:
the lowest score R = HS - LS Gives a unique Not
value representative
Grouped Data: of the set of
Easy to data
R = Upper Limit understand
of the Highest
Class Interval - Not used in
Lower Limit of further
the Lowest Class computations
Interval
Standard The square root of the Ungrouped Most stable Affected by
deviation variance of the set of data: extreme scores
data Gives a unique
S = value More difficult to
compute and

√
2
∑ ( x− x́ ) Most understand
n representative

Grouped Data: Used in further

computations
S =

√
2
∑ f ( x −x́ )
n

Exercises

1. On a quiz, the following scores were made in a class of 10 students: 72, 83, 86, 97, 90, 70, 65,
71, 80, 86. For this set of scores, give the
a. mean b. median
c. mode d. range
e. midrange f. standard deviation

2. Jao, Dhei, Nelfe, Dada and Ched are all in the same statistics class. Their scores for the first two
exams in the class are listed in the accompanying table. The first exam had a mean of 84 and a
standard deviation of 6, whereas the second exam had a mean of 78 and a standard deviation of
4.
__________________________________
Exam 1 Exam 2
__________________________________
Jao 84 78
Dhei 90 74
Nelfe 66 78
Dada 78 70
Ched 84 78
__________________________________

a. Who improved on the second exam?

b. Who improved the most on the second exam?
c. Who did not improve on the second exam?
d. Considering both exams, who did the poorest?
e. Who performed the same on both exams?

PRACTICE EXERCISES
1. In a political science survey, voters are classified into six income categories and five education
categories. In how many different ways can a voter be classified?
A. 11 B. 25 C. 30 D. 45
2. The number of permutations of the word “probabilities” is
A. 13 B. 2!3! C. 13! D. 13!/(2!3!)
3. The number of ways seven visitors can be seated on a round table is
A. 6! B. 7! C. 6!7! D. 6!/2

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4. In a certain town, 40% of the people have brown hair, 25% have brown eyes, and 15% have
both brown hair and brown eyes. A person is selected at random from the town. If he has brown
eyes, what is the probability that he does not have brown hair?
A. 3/8 B. 2/5 C. ½ D. none of these
5. A die is tossed. If the number is odd, what is the probability that it is prime?
2 3 2 1
3 4 5 3
A. B. C. D.
6. An accounting professor can assign grades of A, B, C, D, or F to student’s examinations. In how
many ways can the professor assign grades to three different student examinations?
A. 120 ways B.125 ways C. 25 ways D. 50 ways
7. A bag contains 15 red beads, 30 white beads, 20 blue beads, and 7 black beads. If one of the
beads as drawn at random, what is the probability that it will be white or blue?
25 15 13 17
36 42 40 52
A. B. C. D.
8. A whole number is chosen at random from the whole numbers from 1 to 50. What is the
probability that it is an even square?
A. 0.07 B. 0.06 C. 0.02 D. 0.09
9. A pair of dice is tossed. If the numbers appearing are different, find the probability that the sum
is even.

1 2 2
2 3 5
A. B. C. D. none of these
10. If repetitions are not permitted, how many 3 digits number less than 400 can be formed from
the digits 2, 3, 5, 6, 7 and 9?
A.30 B.126 C.40 D. 162
11. In how many different ways can a true-false test be answered if there are five items, assuming
that the student give an answer for each item.
52 25
A.5! B.2! C. D.
12. There are five musical numbers in a program. The number of ways these numbers can be
presented is
25 5!/  3!2!
A. 5 B.5! C. D.
13. The numbers of permutations of the word “probabilities” is
13!/  2!3!
A.13 B. 13! C.2! 3! D.

14. The number of ways seven students can be seated on a round table is
A. 6! B.6! 7! C.7! D. 6! /2
15. How many different signals, each consisting of 6 flags hung in a vertical line, can be formed
from 4 identical red flags and 2 identical blue flags?
 6  4!  4!2!
A. 6! B. C.4! 2! D. 6!
16. The probability of getting a black heart is
14 1 52
A.0 B. C.1 D.
17. In a certain town, 40% of the people have brown hair, 25% have brown eyes, and 15% have
both brown hair and brown eyes. A person is selected at random from the town. I he has brown
eyes, what is the probability that he does not have brown hair?
38 12 25
A. B. C. D. None of these
For items 18-20: The scores of 10 students in a Math quiz are as follows:

Student A B C D E F G H I J
Score 18 32 10 15 27 18 23 28 29 30

18. What is the median score?

A. 18 B. 20 C. 23 D. 25
19. What is the mode of the scores?
A. 18 B. 20 C. 23 D. 25
20. What is the range of scores?
A. 18 B. 22 C. 23 D. 25
21. Jojo aims to get an average of 90 in 5 unit tests. The results of the first four unit tests are as
follows: 89, 92, 86, and 91. What should his grade in the fifth unit be for his average to be at least
90?
A. 91 B. 92 C. 93 D. 94

St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 45

LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET)

Refresher Course

Content Area: MATHEMATICS

Focus: Calculus
Prepared by: Daisy de Borja-Marcelino
LET Competencies:

 Solve for the roots of a given quadratic equation

 Solve problems on quadratic equations
 Determine an equation given a set of roots which are imaginary/complex numbers
 Perform operations involving exponential and logarithmic functions
 Solve for the solution set of a given inequality
 Determine the rth term of the expansion (a + b)n
 Solve problems involving variations
 Determine the number of positive and negative roots of a given polynomial

Equations
An equation that contains at least one variable is called an open sentence. Equations
b&c
above are examples of open sentences. In equation b, only -1 makes the sentence true or
satisfies the equation. However, more than one number might satisfy an equation. For example,
x2  4  0
+2 and -2 satisfy the equation . Any number that satisfies an equation is called a
solution or root to the equation. The set of numbers from which you can select replacements for

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the variable is called the replacement set. The set of all solutions to an equation is called the
solution set to the equation. To solve an equation means to find all of its solutions.

QUADRATIC EQUATION

An equation of the form ax2 + bx + c = 0 where a 0, a ,b, and c are constants, is a
quadratic equation.

ROOTS OF QUADRATIC EQUATIONS

To solve a quadratic equation means to find the value of x (unknown) that will satisfy the
given equation. The values of x that will make the equation true are called the roots or solution of
the quadratic equation.

Methods of Finding the Roots of a Quadratic Equation

1. Factoring (Use this method if the quadratic equation is factorable)

Example: Determine the roots of x2 -8x - 15 = 0

Solution: Factoring the left side of the equation,

(x - 5) (x – 3) = 0

Equating each factor to zero,

(x - 5) = 0 (x – 3) = 0
x=5 x=3
2. Quadratic Formula
 b  b 2  4ac
x
2a
The quadratic formula is

BINOMIAL FORMULA

To obtain the terms of the binomial expansion (a + b)n, we use the binomial formula:

n (n  1)a n  2 b 2 n (n  1)( n  2)a n 3 b 3

a n  na n 1 b    ...  nab n 1  b n
2! 3!
(a + b)n =

THE rth TERM OF THE EXPANSION (a + b)n

n (n  1)( n  2)...( n  r  2)a n  r 1 b r 1

(r  1)!
rth term =

EXPONENTIAL FUNCTIONS

The exponential function f with base b is denoted by f(x) =


bx, where b > 0 , b 1, and x is any real number.
Properties of f(x) = bx

 f has the set of real numbers as its domain.

 f has the set of positive real numbers as its range.

 f has a graph with a y-intercept of (0,1).

 f is a one-to-one function.

 f has a graph asymptotic to the x-axis.

 f is an increasing function if b>1 and f is a decreasing function if 0<b<1.

An exponential function has a constant base and a variable exponent.

The Natural Exponential Function

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 f ( x)  e x
For all real numbers x, the function defined by is called the natural exponential
function. Note that e is an irrational number and its accurate value to eight places is 2.71828183.

EXPONENTIAL EQUATIONS
An equation where the unknown quantity appears in an exponent is called an exponential
equation.

SOLVING EXPONENTIAL EQUATIONS

To solve an exponential equation is to find the value of the unknown quantity in the given
equation.

LOGARITHMIC FUNCTIONS


For x > 0, b > 0, and b 1, we have y = log a(x) if and
Note: only if ay = x.
1. If the base of the logarithm is not indicated it is understood that the base is 10.
2. If the base of the logarithm is the number e, then it is called a natural logarithm and it is
written as f(x) = ln x.
f  x   log b x
Properties of

 f has the set of positive real numbers as its domain.

 f has the set of real numbers as its range.

 f has a graph with a x-intercept of (1,0).

 f is a one-to-one function.

 f has a graph asymptotic to the y-axis.

 f is an increasing function if b>1 and f is a decreasing function if 0<b<1.

Remarks

 Logarithmic functions are the inverse of exponential functions.

 We can use the rules of exponents with logarithms.

 The two most common logarithms are called common logarithms and natural logarithms.
Common logarithms have a base of 10, and natural logarithms have a base of e.

 Equation in exponential form can be rewritten in logarithmic form, and vice versa.

y  log b x by  x
The exponential form of is .

Example1: The exponential equation 72 = 49 may be written in terms of a logarithmic equation as

log7 (49) = 2.

1 1
93 729
Example 2: The exponential equation 9-3 = or may be written in terms of a logarithmic
 1 
 
 729 
equation as log9 = -3

Basic Properties of Logarithms

Property 1 : loga (1) = 0 because a0 = 1.

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Example 1: In the equation 220 = 1, the base is 22 and the exponent is 0. Remember that a
logarithm is an exponent, and the corresponding logarithmic equation is log 22 (1) = 0, where the 0
is the exponent.
0
 2 2
 
 5 5
Example 2: In the equation = 1, the base is and the exponent is 0. Remember that a
log 2
5
logarithm is an exponent, and the corresponding logarithmic equation is 1 = 0.

Property 2: loga (a) = 1 because a1 = a

Example 3: In the equation 71 = 7, the base is 7, the exponent is 1, and the answer is 7. Since a
logarithm is an exponent, and the corresponding logarithmic equation is log 7 7 = 1
Example 4: Use the exponential equation m1 = m to write a logarithmic equation. If the base m is
greater than 0, then logm (m) = 1.

Property 3: loga (a)x = x because ax = ax

Example 5: Since 92=92, we may write the logarithmic equation with base 9 as log9 92 = 2.

Example 6: Since you know that 112=112, we may write the logarithmic equation with base 11 as
log11112 = 2.

INEQUALITIES
Any relation expressed using the symbols <, >, > or < is called an inequality.
An absolute inequality is an inequality which is always true. A conditional inequality is one
which is true only for certain values of the variable involved.
1. 4 > 3 is an absolute inequality
2. x > 3 is a conditional inequality

PROPERTIES OF INEQUALITIES
Let a, b, c, & d be real numbers. The following hold.
1. Trichotomy Property
a > b or a < b or a = b
2. a > b if a - b > 0
a < b if a – b < 0
3.
a. If a> 0 and b> 0, then a + b> 0 and ab>0.
b. If a < 0 and b < 0, then a+b< 0 and ab> 0

4. Transitivity

If a < b and b < c then a < c.

5. Addition Property

If a < b and c < d, then a + c < b+ d

6. Multiplication Property

If a < b and c > 0, then ac < bc

If a < b and c < 0, then ac > bc

SOLVING INEQUALITIES

To solve an inequality means to find the value of the unknown that will make the inequality
true.

POLYNOMIAL FUNCTION
The function defined by the equation
f(x) = a0xn +a1xn-1 + a2xn-2 + . . .+ an-2x2 + an-1x + an
0
where n is a nonnegative integer and a 0, a1, . . ., an are constants, a0, is a polynomial
function in x of degree n. The zeros or roots of f(x) are the numbers that will make f(x) = 0.

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The Number of Positive and Negative Roots of a Polynomial Function
If f(x) is a polynomial function with real coefficients, then the following are true.
 The number of positive real zeros of f(x) is either equal to the number of variations in sign in
f(x), or to that number diminished by a positive even integer.

 The number of negative real zeros of f(x) is either equal to the number of variations in sign in f(-
x), or to that number diminished by a positive even integer.

LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET)

Refresher Course

Content Area: MATHEMATICS

Focus: ARITHMETIC, NUMBER THEORY AND BUSINESS MATH
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 50
Prepared by: Daisy de Borja-Marcelino
Competencies:

1. Simplifying expressions involving series of operations

2. Solve problems involving
a. GFC and LCMF
b. prime and composite
c. divisibility
d. inverse and partitive proportions
e. compound interest
f. congruence
g. linear Diophantine Equation
3. Apply Euler’s function and theorems, or Fermat’s theorem in solving problem.

THE NUMBER SYSTEM

 25 ,  49 , negative numbers
Example: Some examples of imaginary numbers are: , 3i, -7i.

Example: Simplify: 2 (3 + 2i) – 5 (4 – 6i)

Solution: 2 (3 + 2i) – 5 (4 – 6i) = ( 6 + 4i) – (20 – 30i) = 6 + 4i – 20 + 30i = -16 + 34i.

Rational numbers are numbers which can be expressed as quotient of two integers, or can be
2
3
expressed as fractions in simplest forms. Examples are 8, -3, 3.45, and .
Irrational numbers are numbers which cannot be expressed as fractions in simplest forms.
3
3 7 3
Examples are ,4 , , e and .
Set of Natural/Counting numbers: {1, 2, 3, 4, … }. This set contains the numbers that we use in
counting; also called natural numbers.
Set of Whole Numbers: { 0 , 1, 2, 3, …}. This set is the union of the number zero and the set of
counting numbers.

Set of Integers: { … , -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, …}. This set is the union of the set of counting numbers,
their negatives, and zero

II. THE COUNTING NUMBERS

A. Divisibility. An integer is divisible by a certain divisor (also an integer) if it can be divided

exactly by that divisor. That is, the remainder is zero after the division process is completed.
To illustrate, the integer 12 is divisible by 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, and 12.

To determine whether the integer is divisible by a certain integer or not, you may use the
following divisibility rules.

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An integer is divisible by
a) 2 if it ends with 0, 2, 4, 6, or 8. (Examples: 134 or 12 or 12,330 or 4)
b) 3 if the sum of the digits is divisible by 3. (Examples: 132 or 18 or 12,330 or 45)
c) 4 if the last two digits form a number which is divisible by 4. (Examples: 13,412 or 12,332)
d) 5 if it ends with 0 or 5. (Examples: 135 or 10 or 12,330 or 495)
e) 6 if it ends with 0, 2, 4, 6, 8 and the sum of the digits is divisible by 3.(Examples: 134 or
12)
f) 7 if the difference obtained after subtracting twice the last digit from the number formed
by the remaining digits is divisible by 7. (Examples: 14 or 364)
g) 8 if the last three digits form a number which is divisible by 8. (Examples: 24160 or 5328)
h) 9 if the sum of the digits is divisible by 9. (Examples: 9, 432 or 18,504 or 270)
i) 10 if it ends with 0. (Examples: 120 or 7, 890 or 1, 230)
j) 11 if the difference between the sum of the digits on the even powers of 10 and the sum of
the digits on the odd powers of 10 is divisible by 11. (Examples: 2123 or 2816 or 94369 or
36465)
k) 12 if it is both divisible by 3 and 4. (Examples: 413,412 or 112,332)
l) 15 if it is both divisible by 3 and 5. (Examples: 150 or 350)

Remarks: Divisibility rules for two or more relatively prime numbers (GCF is 1) may be combined
to serve as a divisibility rule for their product.

Example: The rules for 3, 4, and 5 may be combined to serve as the rule for their product which is
60 since 3, 4, and 5 are relatively prime.

Exercises: Put a check mark on the space provided for, if the integer on the first column divides exactly the integer on the
top row.

456 36,720 800,112 456 36,720 800,112

2 10
3 11
4 12
5 14
6 24
7 32
8 45
9 77

Even numbers are whole numbers which can be divided exactly by two whole numbers.

Odd numbers are whole numbers which cannot be divided exactly by two whole numbers.

Example: If n3 is odd, which of the following is true?

I. n is odd II. n2 is odd III. n2 + 1 is odd

A) II only C) I only
B) I and II only D) I and III only

Example: If x is an odd integer and y is an even integer, which of the following is an odd integer?
x 2 +3y
A. 2x-y C.
2
x +y- 1 x- 1
B. D.
B. Factors and Multiples. In the number sentence 2 x 3 = 6, the numbers 2 and 3 are called
factors, while 6 is their product. Or we say, 2 and 3 are divisors of 6. Moreover, we say that 6 is a
multiple of 2 and 3.

Example: How many factors does 42 have?

A) 2 B) 4 c) 5 D) 16
Answer: (C). The factors of 42= 16 are {1, 2, 4, 8, 16}.
Example: What are the multiples of 6?
Answer: The multiples of 12 are {12, 24, 36, 48, …}

Exercises Fill in the blanks with either 7 or 42.

a. ______ is a factor of ______.
b. ______ is divisible by ______.
c. ______ is a divisor of ______.
d. ______ is a multiple of ______.
e. ______ divides _______.

C. Prime and Composite Numbers

Prime numbers are counting numbers that have exactly two factors in the set of counting
numbers: 1 and itself.

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Composite numbers are counting numbers that have more than two factors in the set of counting
numbers.

The numbers 0 and 1 are special numbers. They are neither prime nor composite.

Example: What is the sum of prime numbers less than 15?

A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 14
Answer: The number 2,3,5,7, 11 and 13 are prime number less than 15. Hence, the answer is C.

D. Prime Factorization. This is a process of expressing a number as product of prime factors.

Example: Express 24 as product of prime factors.

Solution: 24= 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 = 23 x 3 or 3 x 23 .

Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic

Every composite whole numbers can be expressed as the product of primes in exactly one
way (the order of the factors is disregarded).

E. The Greatest Common Factor (GCF)

The GCF of two or more numbers is the largest possible divisor of the given numbers.

Example: Determine the GCF of 12 and 42.

Solution: 24 = 2 x 2 x 3
42 = 2 x 3 x 7
GCF: 2x3=6

Example: What is the greatest integer that can divide the numbers 18, 24 and 36?
Solution: 18 = 3 x 3 x 2
24 = 3 x 2 x 2 x 2
36 = 3 x 3 x 2 x 2
GCF: 3 x 2 = 6

F. Least Common Multiple (LCM). The LCM of two or more numbers is the smallest possible
number that can be divided by the given numbers.
Example: Give the LCM of 20 and 30.
Solution: 20 = 2 x 2 x 5 = 22 x 5
30 = 2 x 3 x 5
LCM: 22 x 3 x 5 = 60.

Example: What is the smallest integer that can be divided by the numbers 24, 36 and 54?
Solution: 24 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 = 23 x 3
36 = 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 = 22 x 32
54 = 2 x 3 x 3 x 3 = 2 x 33
LCM: 23 x 33 = 216
G. Relatively Prime. Two numbers are relatively prime if their GCF is 1. The numbers themselves
may not be prime. The numbers 12 and 49 are relatively prime.

Example: Which of the following pairs are relatively prime to each other?
A)15 and 36 B) 23 and 51 C) 231 and 27 D) 121 and 330

III. INTEGERS

Consecutive integers are two or more integers, written in sequence, in which each integer after
the first is 1 more than the preceding integer.
Examples: 1,2,3,4,5, 6

3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
–
4, –3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3

x, x+1, x+2, x+3, x+4, x+5

The absolute value of a number x, denoted by  x  , is the undirected distance between x and 0
on the number line.

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 –
5 –
4 –
3 –
2 –
1 0 1 2 3 4 5

It is also defined as

x if x ≥ 0

 x = –x if x < 0

Examples:

Evaluate each of the following.

a) │2│ = 2 c) │0│ = 0

b) │– 7│ = 7 d) – │–15│ = –15

A. Multiplication. The product of two integers with like signs is a positive while the product of
two integers with unlike signs is negative.

Example: (-4) x 7 = (-28) or (-4) (7) = (-28) or (-4)  7 = (-28)

Example: (-8) x (-5) = 40 or (-8) (-5) = 40 or (-8)  (-5) = 40

B. Division. The quotient of two integers with like signs is a positive while the quotient of two
integers with unlike signs is negative.

Example: (-72) (-8) = 9

Example: (-123)  3 = - 41

C. Addition. The sum of two integers with like signs is the sum of their absolute values with the
common sign prefixed before it.

The sum of two integers with unlike signs is the difference of their absolute values with the
sign of the integer with the larger absolute value prefixed before the difference.

Example: (-3) + (-23) = (-26)

Example: (-34) + 12 = (-22)

D. Subtraction. Express subtraction statements as addition statements and follow the procedure
in addition. (That is, change the sign of the subtrahend to its opposite, and proceed to addition.)
Example: (-12) – (-3) = (-12) + 3 = -9

Exercise: What number should

a) be added to (-12) to yield 26?
b) be subtracted from (-2) to yield 5?
c) be multiplied by (-4) to yield (-36)?
d) be divided by (-2) to yield 30?
E. P-E-MDAS. P-E-MDAS stands for “Parenthesis-Exponent-Multiplication Division Addition
Subtraction.

When two or more operations are involved in a single expression, operations are performed
in the order of P-E-MDAS. That is, we perform first the operation inside the parenthesis (or any
grouping symbol), then followed by determining the power of the number which is raised to a
given exponent, then followed by multiplication/division, and lastly by the addition/subtraction.
Should there be multiplication and division only, perform the operation from left to right.
Should there be addition and subtraction only, perform the operation from left to right.

Example: Simplify 20 + 100  ( 5 – 63  32 + 12)

Solution: 20 + 100  ( 5 – 63  32 + 12)

= 20 + 100  ( 5 – 63  9 + 12)
= 20 + 100  ( 5 – 7+ 12)
= 20 + 100  ( (–2) + 12)
= 20 + 100  10
= 20 + 10
= 30.

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1. Two bells ring at 5 P.M. For the rest of the day, one bell rings every half hour whereas the other
rings every 45 minutes. When is the first time, on that same day, that both bells ring at the same
time again?
a. 6:30 P.M. b. 8:30 P.M. c. 8:45 P.M. d. 9:00 P.M.

2. Which is true?
a. The set of prime factors of 6 is {1,2,3} c. All prime numbers are odd
numbers.
b. The product of irrational and rational is irrational. d. 3.14 is a rational number.

3. Which of the two-digit numbers below when inserted in the blank will make 38__09 divisible by
3?
a. 98 b. 84 c. 34 d. 60

4. Which of the following number is divisible by 45?

a. 300,000,000,450 b.600,000,000,045 c. 100,200,600,090 d. 400,450,000,000

5. On its anniversary, a certain store offers a free sandwich for every 4 th customer and a free
softdrink for every 6th customer. After 75 customers, how many had received both free sandwich
and softdrink?
a. 30 b. 18 c. 12 d. 6

IV. FRACTIONS

Kinds of Fractions

As to relation between the numerator and the denominator

a. Proper – the numerator is less than the denominator
b. Improper – the numerator is equal to or greater than the denominator

As to relation of the denominators of two or more fractions

1 3 4
, ,
5 5 5
a. Similar – the denominators are equal. Examples:
3 5 5
, ,
4 8 6
b. Dissimilar – the denominators are not equal. Examples:

Other classes
3 6 12
, ,
4 8 14
a. Equivalent – fractions having the same value. Examples: .
3 5
2 , 5 .
4 8
b. Mixed – composed of a whole number and a proper fraction . Examples:
Rules involving Zero
a. Zero numerator and non-zero denominator – the value is zero
b. Zero denominator – no value, undefined
c. Zero value – the numerator is zero

A. Multiplication of Fractions. Multiply numerator by numerator and denominator by

denominator to get the numerator and denominator respectively of the product
12 5 60 2
 
25 6 150 5
Example: or .

B. Division of Fractions. Multiply the supposed dividend by the reciprocal of the supposed
divisor.
36 6 36 10 360 12 2
   2
25 10  25 6 150 5 5
Example: = or .
1 2 19 3
2 3 2 5
4 5 21 20
Exercises: Evaluate the following. a) b)
1 7 5 1
2 1 3 1
3 18 15 6
c) d)

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D. Changing Dissimilar Fractions to Similar Fractions. Determine the LCM of the
denominators. Then with the said LCM as the denominator, express each fraction to its equivalent.

1 3 5
3 4 6
Example: Express , , to similar fractions.

1 4 4 3 3 9 5 2 10
  
3 4 12 4 3 12 6 2 12
Solution: = , = and =
4 9 10
, .
12 12 12
Therefore, the similar fractions are and

E. Addition of fractions. Convert the fractions to similar fractions. Then add the numerators to
obtain the numerator of the sum and copy the denominator.
1 3 5
3 4 6
Example: Evaluate + + .

Solution: The LCM is 12, so convert the addends to similar fractions with 24 as the
denominator.
1 3 5 4 9 10 23 11
  1 .
3 4 6 12 12 12 12 12
+ + = + or

F. Subtraction of Fractions. Convert the fractions to similar fractions. Then subtract the
numerators to obtain the numerator of the difference and copy the denominator.

7 1
12 2
Example: What number should be subtracted from to obtain ?

Solution: Let the desired number be x. Then, the equation is given by

7 1 7 1 7 6 1

12 2  12 2 12 12 12
-x= x= - = = .

G. Fraction as Part of a Whole

3
4
Example: What is of 28?
Solution: Let the desired number be m. Then, the equation is given by
3 3 28 84
 28     21
4 4 1 4
M = .

Example: What part of 24 is 4?

Solution: Let the desired number be q. Then, the equation is given by
q  24 = 4

4 1
or
 24 6
q= .
H. Simplifying Fractions
A fraction is in simplest form if the numerator and the denominator are relatively prime
(their GCF is 1). Thus, to simplify fractions, multiply by the fraction whose numerator and
denominator are the reciprocal of the GCF of the numerator and the denominator of the given
fraction.

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 12 2 12 2  6 2
 
18 3 18 3  6 3
Example: The simplest form of is because .

I. Ordering Fractions

Two fractions are equivalent if their cross products are equal. Otherwise, that fraction the
numerator of which was used to get the greater of the two cross products is the larger fraction.

Exercises

1. A 100-m wire is cut into two parts so that one part is ¼ of the other. How long is the shorter
piece of wire?
a. 120m b. 80m c. 25m d.
20m

2. Luis left ½ pan of a cake on the table. Dada ate ¾ of it. What fraction of cake was left?
a. 1/8 b. 3/8 c. ¼ d. ½

21 n
39 26
3. If and are equivalent fractions, what is the value of n?
a. 13 b. 14 c. 20 d. 21
5 1
8 5
4. Mr. dela Cruz owned of a business. He sold of his share in the business at a cost of P1M.
What is the total cost of the business?
a. P 6M b. P7M c. P 8M d. P 9M
5. Arrange the fractions 5/8, 4/5, 3/4 in increasing order.
a. 5/8, 4/5, 3/4 c. 3/4, 4/5, 5/8
b. 4/5, 3/4, 5/8 d. 4/5, 5/8, 3/4

6. Which of these fractions has the largest value?

a. 3/5 b. 11/16 c. 7/10 d. 5/8
7. Mark spent his monthly salary as follows: 3/5 for food and allowances, 1/3 for his child’s
education and house rental. If his monthly salary is P15, 000, how much would he left at the end
of the month?
a. P 1,000 b. P2,000 c. P5,000 d. P 14,000

8. Chedy and Dada run for President for their organization. Chedy got 1/3 of the votes. If Dada got
300 votes, how many students voted for Chedy?
a. 900 b. 200 c. 150 d. 100

V. DECIMAL NUMBERS

A. The Decimal Numbers and the place value chart

The place value chart

Hundred Thousands
Hundred Thousand

Ten Thousandths
Hundredths
Ten Thousand

Thousandths
Thousands

Hundreds

Tens
Ones

Tenths

100 000 10 000 1 000 100 10 1 0.1 0.01 0.001 0.0001 0.00001

The number 0.8 is read as “eight tenths” and .214 as “two hundred fourteen thousandths”.
The number 0.8 is equal to .800.
The number 0.8 is greater than 0.214.
Exercise: a) Arrange the following decimal numbers in ascending order:
0.5, 0.343, 0.142, 0.5254

b) In 2.3456, what digit is in the thousandths place?

B. Addition and Subtraction of Decimal Numbers. Addition of decimals is done by writing

them in a column so that their decimal points are aligned. Thus aligned, digits with the same place
values would be in the same column, and the addends (or the minuend and the subtrahend) are
added (or subtracted) as if they were whole numbers.
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C. Multiplication of Decimal Numbers. To multiply decimals, multiply the numbers as if they
were whole and so place the decimal point in the result as to have as many decimal places in it as
there are in the factors combined.
D. Division of Decimal Numbers.

To divide a
i. decimal by a whole number, do as in dividing whole numbers but writing the decimal point
directly above that of the dividend.
ii. number by a decimal, multiply both dividend and divisor by that power of ten such that the
divisor becomes the least whole number, and then proceed as in (i) above.

VI. CONVERSION

A. Fraction to Decimal. Divide the numerator by the denominator.

Exercises: Convert the following to decimal:

a) 3/5 = ______
b) 5/6 = ______
c) 7/8 = ______

B. Decimal to fraction

a) Terminating – multiply the number by a fraction (equal to one) whose numerator and
denominator is a multiple of 10 such that the numerator of the product is a whole number.

Example: Convert 0.15 to fraction.

100 15 3

100 100 20
Solution: 0.15  =

b) Repeating decimal number

0.5
Example: Convert to fraction
0.5 0.5555555.
Solution: Let n = =

5.5555555.
10 n =
0.5555555.
- n=
-----------------------------------
9n= 5
5
9
n=
5
0.5 9
Hence, is equal to .

Exercises

1. Jeepney fares are computed as follows: P7.50 for the four kilometers plus P0.50 for every
additional kilometer thereof. How much should Au pay for a ride that covers 10 kilometers?
a. P8.00 b. P9.50 c. P10.00 d. P10.50
2. Which of the following is 0.3 of ♠ ♠ ♠ ♠ ♠ ♠ ♠ ♠ ♠ ♠?
a. ♠ ♠ ♠♠ ♠ ♠ b. ♠ ♠ ♠ c. ♠ ♠ d. ♠
3. Which of the following is between 3 and 4?
15
5 π 2
a. b. -3.5 c. d.
4. Evaluate 14.8 + 3.95 + .003.
a. 5433 b. 753 c. 446 d. 18.753
5. Carmen bought 4 kilograms of rice at P31.45 per kilo and 6 kilograms of salt at P22.35 per kilo.
If she gave a P1000 bill to the cashier, how much change did she get?
a. P8.00 b. P9.50 c. P120.10 d. P740.10

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6. Each capsule of a certain commercial vitamins contains 0.6 mg of calcium. In how many pieces
of capsules can 22.2 mg of calcium be distributed?
a. 8 b. 37 c. 50 d. 105
7. Which of the following is equal to 2.4545454545… ?
5 5 44 44
11 11 45 45
a. b. 2 c. d. 2

1 1 1
100 1000 25
8. The expression + + is equal to _____________.
a. 0.0051 b. 0.006 c. 0.51 d. 0.051
9. Which of these numbers is greater than ¼?
a. .04 b. (1/2)2 c. 1/8 d. 1/0.04

VII. PERCENT

Per Cent – literally meaning “per hundred”, it is one way of writing fractions in which the
denominator which is required to be 100 is written as “%”, and read as “per cent”.
3 75 1

4 100 4
Since 1 = 100% hence = 75%

A. CONVERSION
Percent to Decimal Number. Divide the number by 100%. Note that 100% = 1.

Example: Convert the following to decimal:

a) 35% c) 8.37%
1 1
4 4
b) 6 % d) %

Solution: a) (35%) 100% = 0.35


b) (6 ¼ %)  100% (6.25%)  100% = .0625
c) (8.37)  100% = .0837

d) (1/4%)  100% (0.25%)  100% = .0025

Decimal Numbers to Percent. Multiply the decimal number by 100%. Note that 100% = 1.

Example: Convert the following to percent.

a) 0.25 b) 0.143 c) 2.03 d) .005

Solution: a) 0.25 x 100% = 25% b) 0.143 x 100% = 14.3%

c) 2.03 x 100% = 203% d) .005 x 100% = 0.5%

Exercises: Fill in the blanks so that the entries in each row are equal.
Fraction Decimal Percent
A 4/7
B 160%
C 0.95
D 6/11
E ½%
B. Percentage. Percentage is a percent of a given number. The given number is called the base.
The percent is called the rate.

Formula: Percentage (P) = Base (B) x Rate (R)

Percentage Percentage
Base  Rate   100%
Rate Base
and
Example: What is 50% of 140?
Solution: N = 0.50 x 140 = 70.00 = 70

Example: 36 is 10% of what number?

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 36
 N  360
 0.10
Solution: 36 = 0.10 N

Example: 22 is what percent of 88?


Solution: 22 = P 88
22
 P  0.25  100%  25%
88
Example: Mr. Ballaran receives a 10% increase in his salary. With the increase, he now
receives P22, 000. How much is his monthly salary before the increase?
Solution: present salary = previous salary + increase
22, 000 = previous salary + (10% of previous salary)
22,000= previous salary (1 + .10)
22 000  1.1 = previous salary
20,000 = previous salary

C. Discount

The discussion on DISCOUNT is very similar with the discussion on PERCENTAGE.

Original Price/ Marked Price/ List price - as the Base
Rate of Discount - as the Rate
Discount - as the Percentage
Selling Price - Original Price minus Discount

Example: A skirt with an original price of P250 is being sold at 40% discount. Find its selling
price.

Solution: S.P. = Original price - Discount

= 250 – (0.40 x 250)
= 250 - 100
= 150

Example: An item has a selling price of P 210.00. If the selling price is 70% of the original
price, what is its original price?
Solution: Selling price is 70% of the original price
210 = 0.70  O.P.

O.P. = 210  0.70 = 300.
Therefore, the original price is P300.

Example: A shirt is being sold at P 199.95. If its original price is P 430, find the rate of
discount.
Solution: Discount = O.P. – S.P.
= 430 – 199.95 = 230.05
230.05
 100%  53.5%
430
Rate of Discount =

D. Simple Interest
 Interest (I) is the amount paid for the use of money or the money earned for depositing
the money.
 Principal (P) is the money that is borrowed or deposited.
 Time (t) is the number of days/months/years for which the money is being

I I
rt Pr
I = Prt, P= t= r=
borrowed/deposited and interest is calculated.

Example: Give the simple interest of P10,000 for three years at 5.5% per year.
Solution: I=Prt
I = (10 000) (.055) (3)
I = P1 100.

Example: Determine the amount of the principal if the interest at 10% per annum after 8
months is
P3,600.
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 I 3600
 P
rt (0.10)(8 / 12)
Solution: I=Prt = = 45,000

Compound Interest ( Final Amount = P[ 1 + r ]n )

Compound interest is different from simple interest because after the first interest calculation, the interest is added
to the principal, so interest is earned on previous interest in addition to the principal. Compound Interest rates may be
given as annual (1 time a year), semiannual (2 times a year), quarterly (4 times a year), monthly (12 times a year), and daily
(365 times a year).
Example: If P500is invested at 8% compounded semiannually, what will the final amount be after three years?
Final Amount = P[ 1 + r ]n = 500[ 1 + (8% / 2)]3 * 2 = 500[ 1 + 0.04 ]6
= 500[1.27]
= 635
Exercises

1. John bought a jacket for Php 850.00. If he was given a discount of 15%, what was the original
price?
a. P8,500.00 b. P1,000.00 c. P900.00 d.P765.00
2. In a basket, there are 15 santol, 12 balimbing, and 3 durian. What percent of the fruits are
durian?
a. 10% b. 12.5% c. 12% d. 15%
3. A certain mobile phone model was sold for P4,000 in 2000. Two years later, the same mobile
phone model sold for P2,800. What was the percent decrease of the price?
a. 15% b. 30% c. 20% d.
35%
4. If ♥♥♥♥ is 50% of a larger figure, which of the following is the larger figure?
a. ♥ b. ♥♥ c. ♥♥♥♥ d. ♥♥♥♥♥♥♥♥
5. A senior class of 50 girls and 70 boys sponsored a dance. If 40% of the girls and 50 % of the
boys attended the dance, approximately what percent attended?
a 44 b. 46 c. 42 d. 40
1
2 %
2
6. Which of the following is equal to ?
5
2
a. 2.5 b. 0.25 c. d. 0.025
7. Sarah’s earning P 9,200 a month will receive a 15% increase next month. How much
will her new salary be?
a. P 10,500 b. P 10,530 c. P 10,580 d. P 10,560
8. How much is 37% of 80% of 24?
a. 7.1 b. 1.92 c. 19.2 d. 71
9. According to the latest survey, 60% of the cancer patients were smokers. If there were 180
smoking cancer patients, how many cancer patients are there in all?
a. 90 b. 108 c. 240 d. 300
10. Which of the following is 70% of 50?
a. 7 b. 17.5 c. 35 d. 71
11. Twenty four is 12% of what number?
a. 40 b. 150 c. 200 d. 400
12. Thirty six is what percent of 90?
a. 32.4% b. 40% c. 45% d. 76%
13. In a mathematics test of 40 items, Mavic got 90%. How many items did Mavic get?
a. 7 b. 28 c. 36 d. 360
14. Mr. Mabini receives a 10% increase in his salary. With the increase, he now receives P13,200.
How much is his monthly salary before the increase?
a. P12 000 b. P 13, 500 c. 14, 100 d. P14, 520

15. According to the latest survey, 60% of the cancer patients were smokers. If there were 180
smoking cancer patients, how many cancer patients are there in all?
a. 70 b. 150 c. 300 d. 360

VIII. RATIO AND PROPORTION

 A ratio is a comparison of two or more quantities.

 A proportion is a number sentence stating the equivalence of two ratios.

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 Note that in ratio, we are comparing quantities of the same units and that the ratio is
expressed in terms of integers.
Examples: a) The ratio of 12 days to 3 weeks is 12:21 or 4:7.
b) The ratio of 3 meters to 180 cm is 300:180 or 5:3.
c) The ratio of 2 hours to 25 minutes is 120:25 or 24:5.
d) The ratio of 1 ½ to 4 ½ is 1:3.

A. Direct Proportion. As one quantity increases, the other increases also.

Example: Find the value of x if 15:20 = 14 : x.

Solution: Equate the product of the means and the product of the extremes. Then solve for x.
Thus,

(15) (n) = (20) (14)

x
 2014 18
2
15 18.6 3
= or .

Example: A car travels at an average rate of 260 km in 5 hours. How far can it go in 8 hours,
if traveling at the same rate?

Solution: 260 : 5 = x : 8 (5) x = (260) (8)

x
 260 8
5
= 416.
Example: If the ratio of teachers to students in a school is 1 to 18 and there are 360 students, how
many teachers are there?
Solution: Let x be the number of teachers,

1 x

18 360
or 1 : 18 = x : 360
(18)x = (360)1

x = 360/18 = 20 teachers

B. Inverse Proportion. As one quantity increases, the other decreases.

Example: If the food is sufficient to feed 10 flood victims in 15 days, how many days would it
last for 8 flood victims?

Solution: Equate the product of the terms in the first condition to the product of the terms in
the second condition. Thus, we have:

(10 victims)(15 days) = (x) (8 victims)

x
1015
8
= 18.75 days

C. Partitive Proportion. One quantity is being partitioned into different proportions.

Example: A wood 120 m long is cut in the ratio 2:3:5. Determine the measure of each part.
2 120 24
· = = 24
10 1 1
Solution: m

3 120 36
· = = 36
10 1 1
m

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 5 120 60
· = = 60
10 1 1
m

Example: A wire is cut into three equal parts. The resulting segments are then cut into 4, 6, and 8
equal parts respectively. If each of the resulting segments has an integer length, what is the
minimum length of the wire?
A) 24 B) 48 C) 72 D) 96

Solution: Each third of the wire is cut into 4,6 and 8 parts respectively, and all the resulting
segments have integer lengths. This means that each third of the wire has a length that is evenly
divisible by 4, 6, and 8. The smallest positive integer that is divisible by 4, 6, and 8 is 24, so each
third of the wire has a minimum length of 24. So, the minimum length of the whole wire is three
times 24, or 72.

Exercises
1. A 300 m ribbon is cut into four pieces in the ratio 1:2:3:4. Give the length of the shortest
piece.2. If there are 18 boys and 45 girls in the gym, what is the ratio of the girls to the boys?
a. 2:5 b. 2:3 c. 5:2 d. 3:7
2. What one number can replace x in 2: x = x: 32?
a. 2 b. 6 c. 4 d. 8
3. If 5 men can do a job in 12 days, how long will it take 10 men to complete this task, assuming
that they work at the same rate?
a. 20 days b. 6 days c. 2 days d. 0.06 day
4. If 3 kg of oranges cost as much as 5 kg of chicos, how many kg of oranges would cost as much
as 60 kg of chicos?
A. 100 B. 36 C. 7.5 D. 4
5. If 2/5 mm in a map represents 120 km, how many km will be represented by 2 mm?
A. 600 km B. 300 km C. 96 km D. 24 km
6. In a Mathematics Club, the ratio of boys to girls is 3:5. If there are 240 members, how many are
girls?
A. 90 B. 144 C. 150 D. 450
7. A photographer wishes to enlarge a picture 18 cm long and 12 cm wide so that it will be
36 cm wide. How long will the enlarged picture be?
A. 54 cm B. 72 cm C. 24 cm D. 6 cm
8. If 8 secretaries can type 800 pages in 5 hours, how long would it take for 12 secretaries to
type 800 pages at the same rate?
A. 7 1/2 hours B. 3 1/3 hours C. 10 hours D. 2 1/2 hours

THE THEORY OF CONGRUENCES

If a and b are integers, m a positive integer and m (a – b), we say that “a is

congruent to b modulo m”. In symbols, we write this as a  b (mod m). CONGRUENCE
was invented by Karl Friedrich Gauss at the beginning of the 19 th century and is a
convenient statement about divisibility.

The following are equivalent and may be used interchangeably.

 a  b (mod m).
 m  (a – b) or (a – b) is divisible by m.
 a = b + mk, k  Z.

Theorem: If a and b are integers and m a positive integer then a  b (mod m) if and only if a and b
leave the same remainder upon division by m.

{ a , a ,..., a }
1 2 n

Let m be a positive integer. A collection of m integers is called a complete residue

system modulo m if every integer b modulo m is congruent to exactly one of the elements in the
collection.

Properties of Congruence
Congruence is an equivalence relation in the set of integers; that is, congruence is reflexive,
symmetric and transitive with respect to integers.
In the following, let a, b, c, and d be integers and m a positive integer.
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 If a  b (mod m) then
 a+c  b+c (mod m).
 ac  bc (mod m).
 ar  br (mod m) where r is a positive integer.

If a  b (mod m) and c  d (mod m), then

 a + c  (b + d) (mod m).
 ac  (bd) (mod m).
 m
a  b mod 
 d
 If ac  bc (mod m), then where d = (c, m).

The following are some applications of congruence.

a) Finding the units digit (or hundreds digits) of a very large number written in
exponential form; and
b) Finding the remainder when a very large number is divided by another number.

Two of the most prolific mathematicians in Number Theory are Pierre de Fermat and
Leonhard Euler.

FERMAT’S AND EULER’S THEOREMS

Theorem 5. (Fermat’s Little Theorem) Let p be a prime number and a  Z . If p does not divide a,
then
ap – 1  1 (mod p) .

Theorem 6. (Fermat’s Second Theorem). Let p be a prime number and a  Z . If p and a are
relatively prime, then
ap  a (mod p) .

 (m)
DEFINITION OF

Let m be a positive integer greater than 1. The number of positive integers less than and
  (m)
relatively prime to m is the value of Euler’s totient or function at m and is denoted by .

 ( p)
Remarks: If p is prime, then = p – 1.

Theorem 7. Euler’s Theorem: If n is a positive integer and the greatest common divisor of a and
n is 1, then
a  n   1 mod n 
.

LINEAR DIOPHANTINE EQUATIONS

 An equation in one or more unknowns having integral solutions is called a Diophantine

equation, in honor of Diophantus of Alexandria.

Theorem 8. Given two integers a and b where (a , b) = d. The linear Diophantine equation
ax + by = c has an integral solution if and only if d c.

Theorem 9. If the equation ax + by = c has a solution x = x0 , y = y0, then any other solutions
can be expressed in the form
b
x  x0  t
d
, t  Z and
a
y  y0  t
d
, t  Z.
Example: To determine the integral solution of 24x + 138y = 18, we note that since (24,138) = 6
and 6 18. Then we know that it has solution. We now have the following.

138 = 5 (24) + 18
24 = 1 (18) + 6
18 = 6 (3).
Observe that,
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 6 = 24 – 1(18)
= 24 – [138 - 5 (24)]
= (-1)(138) + 6(24)

Moreover,
18 = 3(6)
= 3[(-1)(138) + 6(24)]
=(-3)(138) +(18)(24)

Thus, y0 = -3 and x0 = 18

Hence, the solution of the equation is of the form y = -3+23t and x = 18– 4t where t is an
integer.
There are problems which can be solved using linear Diophantine equations as working
equations.

The following steps may be used in solving word problems which involve linear Diophantine
equations in two unknowns/variables:

Step 1. Represent the unknown values using any two variables.

Step 2. Form the equation using the condition given in the problem.

Step 3. Solve the resulting linear Diophantine equation.

Step 4. Determine the solution/s to the problem using the results in step 3.

 1 mod p 
Theorem: (Wilson’s Theorem) If p is a prime, then (p-1)! .

Exercises

1. Which of the following is true?

34  3 mod 5 54  5 mod 25 308  0 mod 11 3  4 mod 15
A. B. C. D.
15  9 mod 6 
2. Mavic argues that . Is she correct? Why?
A. Yes, because 6 divides 15 - 9. C. No, because 6 does not divide 15 + 9.
15  9  61
B. Yes, because 6 divides 15 + 9. D. No, because .
3. Which of the following is congruent to 11 modulo 13?
A. -7 B. -5 C. -2 D. 4
n 6  1  0 mod 7 
4. Which of the following must be the value of n if ?
A. x is divisible by 7 C. x is relatively prime with 7
B. x is prime D. x is any integer greater than 7
5105
5. What is the remainder when is divided by 3?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5
100
3
6. What is the units digit of ?
A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 9
 12
7. What is ?
A. 1 B.4 C.6 D. 11

SET A Exercises. Choose the letter of the best answer.

1. What is the sum of the first four prime numbers?

a. 11 b. 26 c. 17 d. 28
2. Which of the following is NOT true about the sum of two consecutive positive odd integers?
a. it is even b. it is only divisible by 12
c. it is divisible by 4 d. it is always divisible by 1
3. In a sequence of starts and stops, an elevator travels from the first floor to the fourth floor and
then to the second floor. From there, the elevator travels to the third floor and then to the first
floor. If the floors are 3 meters apart, how far has the elevator traveled?

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 a. 21 m b. 24 m c. 28 m d. 32
m
4. An orange light blinks every 4 seconds. A blue one blinks every 5 seconds while a red one
blinks every 6 seconds. How many times will they blink together in two hours?
a. once b. 2 times c. 10 times d. 60 times
5. If one prime factor of 84 is 3, what are the other prime factors?
a. 2 and 3 b. 2 and 7 c. 3 and 5 d. 4 and 7

6. A television show reports the following temperature for 5 cities:

Beijing London Chicago Philippines Moscow
2 0C -6 0C 0 0C 300C -9 0C
Which city is the coldest?
a. Beijing b. Chicago c. London d. Moscow
7. If the sum of a certain number and 7 is divided by 4, the quotient is 3. What is the number?
a. 5 b. 12 c. 15 d. 18
8. Which of the following numbers has the largest value?
a. –22 b. –10 c. –75 d.3
9. Which of the following numbers has the least value?
a. –22 b. –10 c. –75 d.3
10. What is the difference in the elevation between the top of a mountain 51 meters above sea
level and a location 28 meters below sea level.
a. 23 m b. 33 m c. 79 m d. 89 m
11. A pack of P50-bills is numbered from RV628 to RV663. What is the total value of the pack of
bills, in pesos?
a. 35 b. 36 c. 1750 d. 1800
12. Simplify: [ 5  81  32 – 5  3 + 2] (42 – 23)
a. 15 ¼ b. 4 c. -6 d. – 15 1/4
2
5
3
13. If each container contains kg of flour, how many kg of flour are there in 12 container?
b. 68 kg b. 70kg c. 72 kg d. 80
kg

14. Eighteen is 2/3 of what number?

a. 6 b. 12 c. 6 d. 27
15. What part of an hour has passed from 2:48 am to 3:20 am?
a. 7/8 b. 1/3 c. 8/15 d. 8/25
16. Clarita spent one-sixth of her money in one store. In the next store, she spent three times as
much as she spent in the first store. If she had 80 pesos left, how much money did she have from
the start?
a. 240 pesos b. 252 pesos c. 300 pesos d. 360 pesos
17. Philip has obtained the following grades: 1.4, 1.7, 1.8 and 2.5. What must be his fifth grade so
that his average is 1.7?
a. 2.1 b. 1.9 c. 1.5 d. 1.1
18. Out of the 20 numbers, 6 were 2.5’s, 4 were 3.25’s and the rest were 2.2’s. Give the
arithmetic mean of the numbers.
a. 2.5 b. 2.65 c. 10 d. 22
19. Ron bought X number of notebooks at P23.00 each, Y pad papers at 18.45 each, and Z
ballpens at P8.25 each. If he gave an amount of P1000 to the cashier, how much change did he
receive?
a. P 434.25 c. 1000 – [(23.00)(X) + (18.45) (Y) + (8.25) (Z)]
b. P 334.25 d. none of these
20. A bag has a selling price of P60.00. If the selling price is 75% of the original price, what is its original price?
a. P80 b. P120 c. P200 d. P280
21. Mr. de Borja, a store owner, advertises a polo-shirt originally sold for P200 for P170 only. What
rate of discount is he giving?
a. P 30 b. P15 c. 30% d. 15%
22. Ja bought an article for P400 and sold it for P500. What rate of profit did she enjoy in that
deal?
a. P100 b. 100% c. 25 % d. 20%
23. The price of an item is increased by 70% and then offered at 40% discount. What happened
to the original price?
a. There is an increase of 30%. c. There is an increase of 2 %.
b. There is an increase of 28%. d. There is a decrease of 32%.
24. How much should Allan invest so that his money earns P2,250 deposited at 6% for 9 months?
a. P 50,000 b. 37,500 c. P 135 d. P 101.25
25. Dan sells a real estate. He receives a monthly salary of P10,000 plus a commission of 1/5 %
of his net sales for that month. Find his gross pay for a month during which his net sale is one
million pesos.
a. P 2,000 b. P 12,000 c. P 200,000 d. P 210,000
26. There are 20 million Filipinos who are qualified voters. If 25% of the population are qualified
voters, how many are not qualified voters?
a. 80 million b. 60 million c. 15 million d. 5 million
27. Three cavans of rice for a family of six members last for 5 weeks. At this rate, how many
weeks will 4 cavans of rice last a family of 8 members?
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 A. 4 B. 5 C. 5 1/3 D. 6
28. If the assembly, ratio of boys to girls is 1:4. What percent of the assembly are the boys?
A. 10% B. 20% C. 25 % D. 80%
1130
29. What is the remainder when is divided by 31?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 10 D. 101
2061
5
30. Which of the following is the remainder when is divided by 7?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 6
31. If y is the remainder when 47 is divided by 6, what is the remainder when 19 is divided by y?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5
3 z  1 mod 13
32. Which of the following is a value of z such that the congruence is NOT true?
A. 9 B. 22 C. 30 D. 48
33. What is the remainder when 18! + 2 is divided by 19?
A. 0 B. 1 C.3 D. 97
34. A certain number of sixes and nines are added to give a sum of 126. If the numbers of sixes
and nines are interchanged, the new sum is 114. How many of each were there after the switch?
A. Ten sixes and 6 nines B. Four sixes and Twelve nines
C. Seven sixes and nine nines D. Six sixes and Ten nines

SET B Exercises. Choose the letter of the best answer.

1. How many prime numbers are less than 37?

a. 9 b. 10 c. 11 d. 12
2. In a series of card games. Marlon starts out with P200 and wins a total of P450. If he later loses
P350, wins P60 and loses P150, how much cash does Marlon have?
a. 0 b. P150 c. P210 d. P300
3. Your score in a game is -6. How many points must you earn to get a score of 10?
a. -6 b 15 c. 16 D. 22
4. Arrange the fractions 5/12, 3/7, 2/5 in decreasing order.
a. 2/5, 5/12, 3/7 c. 3/7, 5/12, 2/5
b. 5/12, 2/5, 3/7 d. 2/5, 3/7, 5/ 12
1 3
11 13
5 4
5. Edwin, Doms and Lon weigh 45 kg. If Edwin and Doms weigh kg and kg,
respectively, what is the weight of Lon in kilograms?
1 19 9 19
20 24 42 69
20 20 20 20
a. b. c. d.
3
4
4
6. Which of the following should be multiplied to so that the product is 57?
a. 6 b. 12 c. 6 d. 75
15  1 mod m 
7. Which of the following is a value of m if ?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 23 D. 32
1
3
3
8. Alex works on his assignment hours a day, what part of the day does he spend doing his
assignment?
a. 1/8 b. 1/7 c. 5/36 d. 15/28
9. What value of p will satisfy the equation 0.2 (2p + 1470) = p?
a. 294 b. 490 c. 560 d. 1470
10. A blouse originally priced at P600 is being sold at a discount of 30%. How much would you
pay if you buy that blouse?
a. P 30 b. P180 c. P 420 d. P 570
11. A pair of slippers with a selling price of P120 is sold at 40% discount. What is its original price?
a. P 48 b. P72 c. P 200 d. P 300
12. An item is offered at 20% discount. Later, it is offered at 30% discount. If the new selling price
is P112, what is the first original price?
a. P162 b. P200 c. P224 d. P1866.67
13. To have a 25% profit, the vendor should sell the item at P80.00. How much is his profit?
a. P20.00 b. P60.00 c. P16.00 d. P64.00
1
14
5
14. Minda deposited P50,000 in a bank that pays a simple annual interest of %. How much
money will she have in the bank after five years.
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 67
 a. P 85,500 b. P35,500 c. P36,250 d. P86,250
15. The ratio of cows and carabaos in the field is 4:9. If there are 468 cows and carabaos in the
field, how many are carabaos?
A. 52 B. 117 C. 144 D. 324
16. In the class, the ratio of boys to girls is 6:5. If there are 90 girls, how many persons are in the
class?
A. 75 B. 108 C. 165 D. 198
17. Edwin painting a wall at 9:00 a.m. and was able to finish painting 3/5 of it at 10:30 a.m.
Continuing at this rate, at what time will he finish?
A. 10:45 a.m. B. 11:30 a.m. C. 11:45 a.m. D. 12:15 a.m.
4 200
18. What is the remainder when is divided by 15?
A. -1 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4
19. If x is any positive integer, then 23x + 1 is _______ divisible by 8.
A. Always B. Never C. Sometimes D. Equivalently
  29
20. What is ?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 28
2 1
50

21. Which of the following is the remainder when is divided by 7?

A. 0 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5
x  1 mod 4  x  2 mod 3
22. Which of the following is equivalent to the pair of congruence and ?
x  1 mod 12  x  2 mod 12 
A. B.
x  3 mod 12 x  5 mod 12
C. D.
23. Which of the following is NOT true if a is a positive integer?
a5 a 5  a mod 10 
A. a divides C.
a 5
a 1 a 5

B. divides . D. a and have the same units digit

24. Which of the following gives a remainder of 2 when divided by 5 and a remainder of
12 when divided by 13?
A. 22 B.38 C. 77 D. 92
2!4!6!...  2008!2010!
25. What is the remainder upon dividing the sum by 5?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
26. What is the least residue if 17109 is a multiple of 6?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5
27. Which of the following has an integral solution?
21x  13 mod 77  3 x  4 mod 81
A. B.
3 x  5 mod 36  3 x  4 mod 5
C. D.
18 x  21 mod 24
28. How many integral solutions does have?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 6 D. 10

29. Which of the following has a solution if the variables are positive integers?
A. 5x + 30y = 18 B. 8x + 10y = 15
101x  37 y  3819
C. 22x + 4y = 28 D.
30. When 16! is divided by 17, the remainder is ______.
A. 0 B. 1 C. 17 D. 18
31. A John’s transcript shows x number of 3-unit courses and y number of 5-unit courses for a total
of 64 units. Which of the following may appear in the transcript?
A. 2 x’s and 18 y’s B. 13 x’s and 5 y’s
C. 11 x’s and 3 y’s D. 9 x’s and 8 y’s
x 2  1 mod 8
32. Which of the following is a value of x if ?
A. 2 B. 5 C. 6 D. 10
33. When students in a certain college are grouped by 2’s, 3’s, 4’s, 5’s or 6’s at a time, there
remain, 1,2,3,4, or 5 students respectively. When the students are grouped by 7’s, no is student
left. What is the smallest possible number of students in the school?

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A. 227 B.1,534 C. 1,379 D. 2,778

LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET)

Refresher Course

Content Area: MATHEMATICS

Focus: Plane and Solid Geometry
Prepared by: Daisy de Borja-Marcelino

Basic Ideas

The undefined terms, point, line, and plane are geometric ideas and they are visually
represented by a tiny dot, a thin wire, and a smooth flat surface, respectively. Points are labeled
by means of capital letters, lines by naming any two of its points, and planes by naming at least
three of its points. The subsets of a line are ray, segment, and the line itself. Space is the set of all
points.
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 69
 A
.. B
. A
. B. A. B.
Line Ray Line segment

AB AB AB

Some postulates on points, lines and planes:

The Distance Postulate. To every pair of different points there corresponds a unique positive number.

The Ruler Postulate. The point of a line can be placed in correspondence with the real numbers in such
a way that
(1) to every point of the line there corresponds exactly one real number;
(2) to every real number there corresponds exactly one point of the line; and
(3) the distance between any two points is the absolute value of the difference of the
corresponding numbers.

The Ruler Placement Postulate. Given two points P and Q of a line, the coordinate system can be chosen in
such a way that the coordinate of P is zero and the coordinate of Q is positive.

The Line Postulate. For every two points there is exactly one line that contains both points.

The Plane Postulate. Any three points lie in at least one plane, and any three noncollinear points lie in
exactly one plane.

The Plane Separation Postulate. Given a line and a plane containing it. The points of the plane that
do not lie on the line form two sets such that
(1) each of the sets is convex, and
PQ
(2) if P is in one of the sets and Q is in the other, then the segment intersects the line.

The Space Separation Postulate. The points of space that do not lie in a given plane form two sets,
such that
(1) each of the sets is convex, and
PQ
(2) if P is in one of the sets and Q is in the other, then the segment intersects the
plane.

The following are also true.

(a) Every plane contains at least three noncollinear points.
(b) Space contains at least four noncoplanar points.
(c) If two points of a line lie in a plane, then the line lies in the same plane.
(d) If two different planes intersect then, their intersection is a line.

Some theorems on points, lines and planes:

 If A,B, and C are three different points of the same line, then exactly one of them is between the
other two.
AB
 The Point-Plotting Theorem. Let be a ray, and let X be a positive number. Then there is
AB AP  x
exactly one point P of such that .
 Every segment has exactly one mid-point.
 If two different lines intersect, their intersection contains only one point.
 If a line intersects a plane not containing it, then the intersection contains only one point.
 Given a line and a point not on the line, there is exactly one plane containing both.
 Given two intersecting lines, there is exactly one plane containing both.
 The First Minimum Theorem. The shortest segment joining a point to a line is the perpendicular
segment.
 In a given plane, through a given point of a given line, there is one and only one line
perpendicular to the given line.
 The Perpendicular Bisector Theorem. The perpendicular bisector of a segment, in a plane, is
the set of all points of the plane that are equidistant from the end points of the segment.
 Through a given external point there is at least one line perpendicular to a given line.
 Through a given external point there is at most one line perpendicular to a given line.
 If M is between A and C on a line L, then M and A are on the same side of any other line that
contains C.

St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 70

 If B and C are equidistant from P and Q, then every point between B and C is equidistant from p
and Q.
 If a line is perpendicular to each of two intersecting lines at their point of intersection, then it is
perpendicular to the plane that contains them.
 Through a given point of a given line there passes a plane perpendicular to the given line.
 If a line and a plane are perpendicular, then the plane contains every line perpendicular to the
given line at its point of intersection with the given plan.
 Through a given point of a given line there is only one plane perpendicular to the line.
 The Perpendicular Bisecting Plane Theorem. The perpendicular bisecting plane of a segment is
the set of all points equidistant from the end points of the segment.
 Two lines perpendicular to the same plane are coplanar.
 Through a given point there passes one and only one plane perpendicular to a given line.
 Through a given point there passes one and only one line perpendicular to a given plane.
 The Second Minimum Theorem. The shortest segment to a plane from an external point is the
perpendicular segment.
 Two parallel lines lie in exactly one plane.
 In a plane two lines are parallel if they are both perpendicular to the same line.
 Let L be a line and let P be a point on L. Then there is at least one line through P, parallel to L.

Angle. It is a union of two non-collinear rays that have a common endpoint.

An acute angle measures more than 0o but less than 90o.

A right angle measures exactly 90o.
An obtuse angle measures more than 90o but less than 180o.
Two angles are complementary if the sum of their measures is 90o.
Two angles are supplementary if the sum of their measures is 180o.
Two angles are adjacent if they have a common vertex, common side but no common
interior points.
Two angles form a linear pair if they are both adjacent and supplementary.

Some postulates on angles:

 The Angle Measurement Postulate. To every angle there corresponds a real number
between 0 and 180.
AB
 The Angle Construction Postulate. Let be a ray on the edge of the half-plane H. for
AP
every number r between 0 and 180 there is exactly one ray , with P in H, such that
mPAB  r
.
BAC
 The Angle Addition Postulate. If D is in the interior of , then
mBAC  mBAD  mDAC
.
 The Supplement Postulate. If two angles form a linear pair, then they are supplementary.

The transversal line is a line intersecting two or more coplanar lines at different points

1 2 Interior angles:  3,  4,  5,  6
3 4 Exterior angles:  1,  2,  7,  8
5 6 Corresponding angles:  1 and  5,  2 and  6
7 8  3 and  7,  4 and  8
Alternate interior angles:  3 and  6,  4 and  5
Alternate exterior angles: 1 and  8,  2 and  7
Same-side interior angles:  3 and 5,  4 and 6

Some theorems on angles and transversal lines:

 Given two lines cut by transversal. If a pair of alternate interior angles are congruent, then the
lines are parallel.
 Given two lines cut by transversal. If a pair of corresponding angles are congruent, then a pair
of alternate interior angles are congruent.
 Given two lines cut by transversal. If a pair of corresponding angles are congruent, then the
lines are parallel.

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  Given two lines cut by transversal. If a pair of interior angles on the same side of the
transversal are supplementary, the lines are parallel.
 If two parallel lines cut by transversal, each pair of corresponding angles are congruent.
 In a plane, if a line intersects one of two parallel lines in only one point, then it intersects the
other.
 Every right angle has measure 90, and every angle with measure 90 is a right angle.
 If two angles are complementary, then both are acute.
 Any two right angles are congruent.
 If two angles are both congruent and supplementary, then each is a right angle.
 The Supplement Theorem. Supplements of congruent angles are congruent.
 The Complement Theorem. Complements of congruent angles are congruent.
 The Vertical Angle Theorem. Vertical angles are congruent.
 If two intersecting lines form one right angle, then they form four right angles.
 The Angle Bisector Theorem. Every angle has exactly one bisector.
 The Isosceles Triangle Theorem. If two sides of a triangle are congruent, then the angles
opposite these sides are congruent.
 If two angles of a triangle are congruent, then the sides opposite them are congruent.
BC BAC
 If M is between B and C, and A is any point not on , then M is in the interior of .
 The Exterior Angle Theorem. An exterior angle of a triangle is greater than each of its remote
interior angles.

Polygon. It is a closed plane figure with three or more sides, consists of segments (sides) that
meet only at their endpoints (vertices) such that every side contains only two vertices, and every
vertex is on exactly two sides.

Name of Polygon Number of Exact Name of Polygon Number of Exact

Sides sides
Triangle 3 nonagon 9
Quadrilateral 4 decagon 10
Pentagon 5 undecagon 11
Hexagon 6 dodecagon 12
Heptagon 7 pentadecagon 15
Octagon 8

Notes: a) In a triangle, the sum

of the lengths of two sides is
always greater than the length
of the third side.
b) In a right triangle with
legs x, y and hypotenuse z: x2 +
y2 = z2 (Pythagorean triple)
c) The sum of the interior
angles of an n-gon is (n-
2) 180o. The sum of the
interior angles of a
triangle is 180o while the
sum of the interior
angles of a quadrilateral
is 360o.

 A polygon is equilateral if the measures of all its sides are equal.

 A polygon is equiangular if the measures of all its angles are equal.
 A polygon is regular if all its sides and angles are correspondingly congruent.

Some postulates on polygons

 The SAS Postulate. Every SAS correspondence is a congruence.
 The ASA Postulate. Every ASA correspondence is a congruence.
 The SSS Postulate. Every SSS correspondence is a congruence.
 The Parallel Postulate. Through a given external point there is only one parallel to a given
line.
 The Area Postulate. To every polygonal region there corresponds a unique positive real
number.
 The Congruence Postulate. If two triangles are congruent, then the triangular regions
determined by them have the same area.

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 The Area Addition Postulate. If two polygonal regions intersect only in edges and vertices
(or do not intersect at all), then the area of their union is the sum of their areas.
 The Unit Postulate. The area of a square region is the square of the length of its edge.
 The Unit Postulate. The volume of a rectangular parallelepiped is the product of the
altitude and the area of the base.
 The Cavalieri’s Principle. Given two solids and a plane. Suppose that every plane parallel
to the given plane, intersecting one of the two solids, also intersects the other, and gives cross
sections with the same area. Then the two solids have the same volume.
 The SAA Theorem. Every SAA correspondence is a congruence.
 The Hypotenuse-Leg Theorem. Given a correspondence between two right triangles, if the
hypotenuse and one leg of one of the triangles are congruent to the corresponding parts of the
second triangle, then the correspondence is a congruence.
 If two sides of a triangle are not congruent, then the angles opposite them are not
congruent, and the larger angle is opposite the longer side.
 If two angles of a triangle are not congruent, then the sides opposite them are not
congruent, and the longer side is opposite the larger angle.
 The Triangle Inequality. The sum of the length of any two sides of a triangle is greater than
the length of the third side.
 The Hinge Theorem. If two sides of one triangle are congruent, respectively, to two sides
of a second triangle, and the included angle of the first triangle is larger than the included angle
of the second, then the third side of the first triangle is larger than the included angle of the
second.
 The Converse Hinge Theorem. If two sides of one triangle are congruent respectively to
two sides of a second triangle, and the third side of the first triangle is longer than the third side
o the second, then the included angle of the first triangle is larger than the included angle of the
second.
 For every triangle, the sum of the measures of the angles is 180.
 Each diagonal separates a parallelogram into two congruent triangles.
 In a parallelogram, any two opposite sides are congruent.
 In a parallelogram, any two opposite angles are congruent.
 In a parallelogram, any two consecutive angles are supplementary.
 The diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other.

Exercises

1. Which of the following has a definite length?

A) ray B) line C) angle D) line segment

2. A plane is determined by ______________.

i. a line and a point. ii. two intersecting lines.
iii. any three points. iv. a line and a point not on it.

A) ii only B) iv only C) ii and iii D) ii and iv

3. In angle LON, what is the vertex?
A) L B) O C) N D) cannot be determined

4. These shapes are arranged in a pattern.

Which of these shapes are arranged in the same pattern?

A)

B)

C)

D)

5. Which of these triangles cannot be isosceles?

A) acute B) right C) obtuse D) scalene

6. Two angles that are complementary _____________________.

i. are each acute. ii. are congruent.
iii. have equal measures. iv. have measures that add up to 900.

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 A) ii only B) iv only C) ii and iii D) i and iv
7. Refer to the figure on the right. Given: m  1 = 57° and m  3 = 80°. What is m  5?
A) 43° B) 63° C) 137° D) 180°

8. A quadrilateral MUST be a parallelogram if it has ________________________.

A) one pair of adjacent sides equal B) one pair of parallel sides
C) two pairs of parallel sides C) two adjacent angles equal
9. NCTE is a parallelogram. If m  N = 67°, then m  T = _____.
A) 113° B) 90° C) 67° D) 23°
10. Which two properties of the rhombus do not hold true for other parallelograms?
A) Diagonals are perpendicular and congruent.

B) Diagonals are congruent and bisect each other.

C) Diagonals are perpendicular and bisect each other.

D) Diagonals are perpendicular and each bisects the angles of the parallelogram.

11. The supplement of an angle is three times its measure. What is the measure of its
supplement?
A) 22.5° B) 45° C) 67.5° D) 135°

12. Refer to the figure on the right. If lines r and s are parallel,
which of the following pairs of angles are congruent?

A)  4 and  5 B)  4 and  3 C)  1 and  8 D)  3 and  5

13. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2: 3: 5. What is the largest angle?
A) 36° B) 54° C) 90° D) 99°

14. An angle measures 65.5°. What is the measure of its supplement?

A) 24.5° B) 25. 5° C) 114.5° D) 124.5°

15. Which refers to a pair of lines that intersect and form 4 right angles?
A) parallel lines B) perpendicular lines C) intersecting lines D) skew lines

16. Which of the following quadrilaterals best describes a square?

A) Its diagonals are perpendicular to each other. B) It is an equiangular rhombus.
C) Its diagonals are congruent. D) It has four right angles.
17. If ABC is an isosceles triangle with a right angle at B, then
´
BC
a A) is the hypotenuse. B) AC = BC
C) angle BCA measures 45°. D) AB = ½ AC
18. What is the measure of each interior angle of a regular pentagon?
A) m
108° B) 140° C) 180° D) 540°
h t
19. What is the sum of the measures of the interior angles of a regular heptagon?
A) 1260° B) 1080° C) 900° D) 112.5°

20. In the adjoining figure, if m = 63° and h = 134°, then a must be equal to _____.
A) 46° B) 71° C) 109° D) 117°

21. Which of the following statements is true about parallel lines?

A) They form a right angle. B) They do not intersect at all.
C) They are skew. D) None of these.
22. In the adjoining figure, the quadrilateral is a parallelogram. What is the value of x?
A) 150 B) 75 C) 60 D) 50

23. Which of the following can be lengths of the sides of a triangle?

A) {3, 4, 9} B) {5, 5, 10} C) {-12, 6, 8} D) {3, 18, 20}
24. The measures of the exterior angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2:3:4. What is the measure of
the widest angle?
A) 40° B) 80° C) 160° D) 170°
G. Perimeter. The distance around a polygon is called a perimeter. To obtain this, we just add the
length of all the sides of the polygon. In the case of equilateral polygons, we just multiply the
length of one side to the number of sides.

Example: Determine the perimeter of a triangle with sides 7, 12, 18.

Solution: P = 7 + 12 + 18 = 37 units.

Exercises: Complete the table below.

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Regular Polygon Length of a Side Perimeter
a) square 13 cm
b) 7 cm 56 cm
c) nonagon 54 cm
d) 9 cm 45 cm
e) heptagon 28 cm

H. Areas of Triangles and Quadrilaterals

a) triangle = (1/2) (base) (height)

b) rectangle = (length) (width) or (base) height)
c) square = (side)(side) or (1/2)(d1)(d2)
d) parallelogram = (base) height)
e) rhombus = (1/2)(d1)(d2)
f) trapezoid = (1/2) (upper base + lower base)(height)

Example: Give the area of a square whose perimeter is 100 m?

Solution: Since the perimeter of the square is 100 cm, then each side measures 25 m. Hence,
its area is (25 m)2 = 625 m2.
Example: Determine the area of a triangle whose base is 10 mm and its altitude is thrice its
base.
1 1
bh  (10) [(3) (10)]  150
2 2
Solution: A= mm2 .

Example: Give the area of a rectangle whose width is 5 cm and its length exceeds 4 times the
width by 3.
Solution: A = lw = [4w + 3] (w)
= [(4)(5) + 3] (5)
= (23) (5) = 115 sq. cm.

Example: Determine the area of the trapezoid whose bases are 6 cm and 10 m, while the
altitude is 7 m.

Solution: A = (1/2) (b1 + b2) (height) = (1/2) (6 + 10) (7) = 56 m2

I. Circle. This is a set of points in a plane, equidistant from a fixed point. The fixed point is
called the center, and the fixed distance is the length of the radius.

 Circumference is the distance around the circle. Formula: 2 r

 Area is the interior region bounded by the circle. Formula:  r2
 Terms related to a circle:
Center – the fixed point
Radius – segment (or distance) drawn from the center to any point on the circle
Chord – segment whose endpoints are any two points on the circle
Diameter – a chord that passes through the center (the longest chord)
Secant – a line/ray/segment that cuts the circle in two points
Tangent – a line that touches the circle in only one point

Note: The diameter is twice as long as the radius.

Exercises: In the figure on the right, identify the following:

center, radius, chord, diameter, secant, tangent.

Example: Determine the circumference of a circle with radius 10 mm.

Solution: C = 2 r = 2 (3.1416) (10 cm) = 62.832 mm

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Example: Give the area of the circle if its circumference is 18  m.
Solution: Since the circumference is 18 cm, then its radius is 9 m. Hence,
A =  r2 = (3.1416) (9m)2 = 254.4696 or 254.47 m2

Exercises

1. Complete the table below.

Radius Diameter Circumference (in  ) Area (in  )
1. 2 cm
2. 6 dm
3. 50  m
4. 36  km2
5. 9 m

2. A diameter of a circle is also a ________.

A) radius B) secant C) chord D) tangent
3. Which of the following sets of numbers can be sides of a right triangle?
6 , 6 ,2 3 3, 6 ,3 2
A. 4, 5, 6 B. C. D. 2, 2, 3
4. The length and width of a rectangle are (3x – 2) and (2x + 1). What is its perimeter?
A. 5x-1 B. 10 x - 2 C. 6x2 –x -2 D. 6x2 –x +2

5. The area of a square is 32x. Which of the following could be the value of x?
A. 2 B. 6 C. 3 D. 4
6. If the area of one circle is twice of another circle, what is the ratio of the area in percent of the
smaller to larger circle?
A. 70% B. 25% C. 75% D. 50%

J. Volume of Solids. It describes how much space a three dimensional figure occupies.

a) cube = (side)3
b) rectangular prism = (length)(width)(height) or (area of the base)(height)
c) pyramid = (1/3) (area of the base) (height)
d) sphere = (4/3)( )(radius)3
e) cylinder =  (radius)2 (height)
f) cone = (1/3)  (radius)2 (height)

Example: What is the volume of a cube whose edge is 4 mm?

Solution: V = (side)3
= (4 mm)3
= 64 mm3

Example: The length of a rectangular box is 20 cm. Its width exceeds 1/4 of the length by 5
cm, while the height is 7 cm less than 1/2 of the length. What is its volume?

Solution: Volume = (length)(width)(height)

 1   1 
  20cm  5cm    20cm  7cm 
 4   2 
= (20 cm)
= (20 cm) (10 cm) (3 cm) = 600 cm3

Example: The area of the base of a pyramid is 48 cm2 while the height is 6 cm. What is its
volume?

Solution: V = (1/3) (area of the base) (height)

= (1/3) (48 cm2) (6 cm ) = 96 cu. cm.

Example: Determine the volume (in ) of a sphere whose diameter is 12 m.

Solution: V = (4/3)( )(radius)3 and since diameter is 12 cm, then the radius is 6 m.
= (4/3)( )(6 cm)3 = 288  m3

Example: A cone has a base diameter of 32 cm and its height is 3 cm less than 3/4 of the
radius. What is its volume?

Solution: V = (1/3)  (radius)2 (height)

 1  3 
    16cm  3cm 
 3  4 
=  (16 cm)2
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 = 768  cm3

K. Lateral and Total Surface Areas of Solids.

Solids Lateral area Total surface area

a) cube 4 s2 6s2
b) rectangular (perimeter of the base)x height 2B + ph
prism
c) pyramid 1/2 (perimeter of the base) slant height B + 1/2 p (slant
height)
d) sphere None 4r2
e) cylinder (Circumference of the base) (slant height) 2r2 + 2r (slant height)
f) cone 1/2 (Circumference of the base) (slant r2 + r (slant height)
height)

Exercise

1. Determine the volume, lateral and surface area of the following: (All units are in cm.) Express
your answers in , if possible.

edge = 2 mm
length =
10cm, base edge = 10 m
width = 3cm, slant height = 13m
height = 4cm altitude = 12m

radius = 5 radius = 5 radius = 5

height = 12 slant height = 5
altitude = 4

Volume (in cm3) Lateral Area (in cm2) Total Surface Area (in cm2)
a) cube

b) rectangular
prism
c) square pyramid

d) sphere

e) cylinder

f) cone

PRACTICE EXERCISES

1. What will happen to the area of a circle if its radius is doubled?

a. The area will be doubled. c. The area will be quadrupled.
b. The area will remain the same. d. The area will be reduced to half.

2. What is the reason for your answer in item number 1?

a. The area of the circle varies directly to the radius.
b. The area of the circle varies inversely to the radius.
c. The area of the circle varies directly to the square of its radius.
d. The area of the circle varies inversely to the square of its radius.
3. If a side of square measures 5mm, which of the following is its perimeter?
a. 20mm b. 25mm c. 20 mm2 d. 25mm2
2
4. If a square has an area of 144m , which of the following is the measure of its side?
a. 12mm b. 12cm c. 1,200 cm d. 1.2m

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5. If the base of a triangle measures 20 centimeters and its height measures 1 inch, which of
the following is its area?
a. 20 cm b. 25.4 cm c. 20 cm2 d. 25.4 cm2
6. A string 1mm long is used to form a shape that would give a maximum area. What shape is
it?
a. square b. rectangle c. circle d. parallelogram
7. If the length of the side of a square is reduced to half, what will happen to its perimeter?
a. It will be tripled. c. It will be doubled.
b. It will remain the same. d. It will be reduced to half.
8. The area of a new circle is nine times its original area. What made this happen?
a. The radius was tripled. c. The value of π was squared.
b. The radius was multiplied by 9. d. The radius was reduced to half.
9. A regular polygon is inscribed in a circle. Suppose we increase continuously the number of
its sides, what do you think will happen?
a. The regular polygon with infinitely many sides will never exist.
b. It is impossible for a regular polygon with infinitely many sides to be inscribed in a
circle.
c. The perimeter of the regular polygon will be greater than the circumference of the
circle.
d. The perimeter of the regular polygon will be approximately equal to the
circumference of the circle.
10. Which of the following is the most reasonable weight of an adult woman?
a. 12 lbs b. 120 lbs c. 1,200 lbs d. 12,000 lbs
11. Which of the following is the nearest approximation of 10 kilometers?
a. 5 miles b. 10miles c. 16 miles d. 20 miles
12. Consider a rectangle with a fixed perimeter. Assume that we allow continuous variations of
either its width of length. Which of the following is NOT possible?
a. The area of the new rectangle will be greater than the original area.
b. The area of the new rectangle will be smaller than the original area.
c. The area of the original rectangle will be equal to the area of all new rectangles that
can be formed.
d. The area of the original rectangle will be equal to the area of some new rectangles
that can be formed.
13. What is the reason for your answer in item number 12?
a. Rectangles possibly have the same perimeter but of different area.
b. Rectangles with the same perimeter always have the same area.
c. If rectangles have larger perimeter, then their area is wide.
d. If rectangles have small perimeter, then their area is small.
14. A largest circle is to be made out of a square having sides of 20 cm. Approximate the
materials that will be wasted.
a. 400.00 sq. cm b. 314.00 sq. cm c. 86.00 sq. cm d. 22.80 sq.
cm
15. A circle with radius 12 cm and a rectangle with width 16 cm have equal areas. Which of the
following is the approximation of the length of the rectangle?
a. 4.19 cm b. 9.00 cm c. 4.71 cm d. 28.26 cm
16. 2. One hectare is equivalent to 10,000 square meters. How many hectares are in a
rectangular field which is 750 m wide and 800 m long?
A. 120 B. 56 C. 60 D. 40
17. An aquarium is 40 cm high. Its length is twice its height, while its width is half its height.
How much water is needed to fill in the aquarium in cu. cm.?
A. 64,000 B. 32,000 C. 16,000 D. 8,000
18. What is the volume of a cube if one face has a perimeter of 36 cm?
A. 729 cu. cm.B. 216 cu. cm. C. 46,656 cu. cm D. 5,832 cu. cm
19. How much water can be filled with a cone whose diameter is 24 cm and whose height
exceeds 2/3 of the radius by 2 cm?
A. 480  cu. cm. B. 540  cu. cm. C. 660  cu. cm. D.
900  cu. cm.

LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET)

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 Refresher Course

Content Area: MATHEMATICS

Focus: Algebra
Prepared by: Daisy de Borja-Marcelino
LET Competencies:

 Solve for the roots of a given quadratic equation

 Solve problems on quadratic equations
 Determine an equation given a set of roots which are imaginary/complex numbers
 Perform operations involving exponential and logarithmic functions
 Solve for the solution set of a given inequality
 Determine the rth term of the expansion (a + b) n
 Solve problems involving variations
 Determine the number of positive and negative roots of a given polynomial

Equations

An equation that contains at least one variable is called an open sentence. Equations
b&c
above are examples of open sentences. In equation b, only -1 makes the sentence true or
satisfies the equation. However, more than one number might satisfy an equation. For example,
x2  4  0
+2 and -2 satisfy the equation . Any number that satisfies an equation is called a
solution or root to the equation. The set of numbers from which you can select replacements for
the variable is called the replacement set. The set of all solutions to an equation is called the
solution set to the equation. To solve an equation means to find all of its solutions.

QUADRATIC EQUATION

An equation of the form ax2 + bx + c = 0 where a 0, a ,b, and c are constants, is a
quadratic equation.

ROOTS OF QUADRATIC EQUATIONS

To solve a quadratic equation means to find the value of x (unknown) that will satisfy the
given equation. The values of x that will make the equation true are called the roots or solution of
the quadratic equation.

Methods of Finding the Roots of a Quadratic Equation

1. Factoring (Use this method if the quadratic equation is factorable)

Example: Determine the roots of x2 -8x - 15 = 0

Solution: Factoring the left side of the equation,

(x - 5) (x – 3) = 0

Equating each factor to zero,

(x - 5) = 0 (x – 3) = 0
x=5 x=3
2. Quadratic Formula
 b  b 2  4ac
x
2a
The quadratic formula is

BINOMIAL FORMULA

To obtain the terms of the binomial expansion (a + b)n, we use the binomial formula:

n 1 n (n  1)a n  2 b 2 n (n  1)( n  2)a n 3 b 3

a  na
n
b   ...  nab n 1  b n
2! 3!
(a + b)n =

THE rth TERM OF THE EXPANSION (a + b)n

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 n (n  1)( n  2)...( n  r  2)a n  r 1 b r 1
(r  1)!
rth term =

EXPONENTIAL FUNCTIONS

The exponential function f with base b is denoted by f(x) =


bx, where b > 0 , b 1, and x is any real number.
Properties of f(x) = bx

 f has the set of real numbers as its domain.

 f has the set of positive real numbers as its range.

 f has a graph with a y-intercept of (0,1).

 f is a one-to-one function.

 f has a graph asymptotic to the x-axis.

 f is an increasing function if b>1 and f is a decreasing function if 0<b<1.

An exponential function has a constant base and a variable exponent.

The Natural Exponential Function

f ( x)  e x
For all real numbers x, the function defined by is called the natural exponential
function. Note that e is an irrational number and its accurate value to eight places is 2.71828183.

EXPONENTIAL EQUATIONS
An equation where the unknown quantity appears in an exponent is called an exponential
equation.

SOLVING EXPONENTIAL EQUATIONS

To solve an exponential equation is to find the value of the unknown quantity in the given
equation.

LOGARITHMIC FUNCTIONS


For x > 0, b > 0, and b 1, we have y = log a(x) if and
Note: only if ay = x.
1. If the base of the logarithm is not indicated it is understood that the base is 10.
2. If the base of the logarithm is the number e, then it is called a natural logarithm and it is
written as f(x) = ln x.
f  x   log b x
Properties of

 f has the set of positive real numbers as its domain.

 f has the set of real numbers as its range.

 f has a graph with a x-intercept of (1,0).

 f is a one-to-one function.

 f has a graph asymptotic to the y-axis.

 f is an increasing function if b>1 and f is a decreasing function if 0<b<1.

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Remarks

 Logarithmic functions are the inverse of exponential functions.

 We can use the rules of exponents with logarithms.

 The two most common logarithms are called common logarithms and natural logarithms.
Common logarithms have a base of 10, and natural logarithms have a base of e.

 Equation in exponential form can be rewritten in logarithmic form, and vice versa.

y  log b x by  x
The exponential form of is .

Example1: The exponential equation 72 = 49 may be written in terms of a logarithmic equation as

log7 (49) = 2.

1 1
93 729
Example 2: The exponential equation 9-3 = or may be written in terms of a logarithmic
 1 
 
 729 
equation as log9 = -3

Basic Properties of Logarithms

Property 1 : loga (1) = 0 because a0 = 1.

Example 1: In the equation 220 = 1, the base is 22 and the exponent is 0. Remember that a
logarithm is an exponent, and the corresponding logarithmic equation is log 22 (1) = 0, where the 0
is the exponent.
0
 2 2
 
 5 5
Example 2: In the equation = 1, the base is and the exponent is 0. Remember that a
log 2
5
logarithm is an exponent, and the corresponding logarithmic equation is 1 = 0.

Property 2: loga (a) = 1 because a1 = a

Example 3: In the equation 71 = 7, the base is 7, the exponent is 1, and the answer is 7. Since a
logarithm is an exponent, and the corresponding logarithmic equation is log 7 7 = 1
Example 4: Use the exponential equation m1 = m to write a logarithmic equation. If the base m is
greater than 0, then logm (m) = 1.

Property 3: loga (a)x = x because ax = ax

Example 5: Since 92=92, we may write the logarithmic equation with base 9 as log9 92 = 2.

Example 6: Since you know that 112=112, we may write the logarithmic equation with base 11 as
log11112 = 2.

INEQUALITIES
Any relation expressed using the symbols <, >, > or < is called an inequality.
An absolute inequality is an inequality which is always true. A conditional inequality is one
which is true only for certain values of the variable involved.
1. 4 > 3 is an absolute inequality
2. x > 3 is a conditional inequality

PROPERTIES OF INEQUALITIES
Let a, b, c, & d be real numbers. The following hold.

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 1. Trichotomy Property
a > b or a < b or a = b
2. a > b if a - b > 0
a < b if a – b < 0
3.
a. If a> 0 and b> 0, then a + b> 0 and ab>0.
b. If a < 0 and b < 0, then a+b< 0 and ab> 0

4. Transitivity

If a < b and b < c then a < c.

5. Addition Property

If a < b and c < d, then a + c < b+ d

6. Multiplication Property

If a < b and c > 0, then ac < bc

If a < b and c < 0, then ac > bc
SOLVING INEQUALITIES

To solve an inequality means to find the value of the unknown that will make the inequality
true.

POLYNOMIAL FUNCTION
The function defined by the equation
f(x) = a0xn +a1xn-1 + a2xn-2 + . . .+ an-2x2 + an-1x + an
0
where n is a nonnegative integer and a 0, a1, . . ., an are constants, a0, is a polynomial
function in x of degree n. The zeros or roots of f(x) are the numbers that will make f(x) = 0.

The Number of Positive and Negative Roots of a Polynomial Function

If f(x) is a polynomial function with real coefficients, then the following are true.
 The number of positive real zeros of f(x) is either equal to the number of variations in sign in
f(x), or to that number diminished by a positive even integer.

 The number of negative real zeros of f(x) is either equal to the number of variations in sign in f(-
x), or to that number diminished by a positive even integer.
LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS (LET)

Refresher Course

Majorship: MATHEMATICS
Prepared by: Daisy de Borja-Marcelino
FOCUS: Mathematical Investigation and Problem Solving
LET COMPETENCIES:
1. Cite differences between problem solving and mathematical investigations.
2. State patterns observed as conjectures.
3. Solve non-routine problems.

CONTENT UPDATE
I. Problem Solving

Problem solving is defined as a set of actions to be done to perform the task or to solve the
problem. It is a process of applying acquired knowledge to a new or unfamiliar situation.

I. Polya’s Problem-Solving Principles

1. Understand the problem

Understanding the given problem is a very important principle in order to solve it correctly.
The following questions may be helpful in the analysis of a given problem:
 Do you understand all the words used in stating the problem?

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  What are you asked to find or show?
 Can you restate the problem in your own words?
 Could you work out some numerical examples that would help make the problem clear?
 Could you think of a picture or diagram that might help you understand the problem?
 Is there enough information to enable you to find a solution?
 Is there extraneous information?
 What do you really need to know to find a solution?
 Is there yet another way to state the problem?
 What does key word really mean?

2. Devise a plan

The following strategies may be of great help as you learn the art of problem solving.
● guess and check ● make a table
● make an orderly list ● use a variable
● draw a diagram ● work backward
● look for a pattern ● eliminate possibilities

3. Carry out the plan

To carry out the plan you devised earlier be careful and be patient to make it work. If it
doesn’t work after several trials, then discard it and try a new strategy.

4. Look back

Looking back is an important step in developing problem-solving skills. Once you have
solved the problem make it a habit to go over your solution and polish it.

II. Mathematical Investigation

A mathematical investigation of a problem or of an open-ended situation is a sustained

exploration of
the problem or situation.

Stages in a Mathematical Investigation

1. Getting Started
- Attaining familiarity with the situation to be investigated.
- Producing instances, maybe starting from the simplest or whatever is interesting.
- Deciding on what is worth pursuing.
2. Exploring Systematically
- Systematic listing/ drawing;
- Organizing relationships in tables or graphs; and
- Looking for a pattern or relationship.

3. Making Conjecture
- Making general statements about patterns or relationships observed in the cases
considered.

A conjecture is a generalization obtained inductively, which has not been validated or proven
true.

4. Testing/ Verifying Conjectures

- Checking consistency of conjectures using existing cases;
- Predicting results for untried cases for which data are available.

5. Explaining/ Justifying Conjectures - Explaining why the conjectures made will work for new or all
cases

6. Reorganizing
- Simplifying/ generalizing the approach
- Seeing the connection among the conjectures

7. Elaborating - Extending the investigation by considering other aspects of the investigation

8. Summarizing - Involves an account or summary, written or oral, of what has been obtained in
stages 2 – 7, with some reference on the experiences in stage 1.

MAJORSHIP: MODERN GEOMETRY

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LET COMPETENCIES:
1. Give characteristics of non-Euclidean geometry which are not found in Plane Euclidean
Geometry.

2. Define and illustrate concepts in linear algebra

3. Apply properties of matrices in performing matrix operations

4. Evaluate determinants

5. Perform modular clock arithmetic

MODERN GEOMETRY

Non-Euclidean geometry
Non-Euclidean Geometry is any geometry that is different from Euclidean geometry. The two most
common non-Euclidean geometries are elliptic geometry and hyperbolic geometry.

A. Hyperbolic Geometry

Hyperbolic geometry is known as saddle geometry or Lobachevskian geometry. It differs in many

ways from Euclidean geometry, often leading to quite counter-intuitive results. Some of the
remarkable consequences of this geometry's unique fifth postulate include: Moreover, in this field,
more than one distinct line through a particular point will not intersect another given line..

1. The sum of the three interior angles of a triangle is strictly less than 180°. Moreover, the angle
sums of two distinct triangles are not necessarily the same.

2. Two triangles with the same interior angles have the same area.

B. Elliptic Geometry

In Elliptic geometry there are no lines that will not intersect,

Some theorems in Elliptic Geometry

1. The angle sum of any triangle is more than 180o.

2. Given two lines perpendicular to line CG. By the parallel postulate for elliptic geometry,
these two lines meet at a point A. Then every line through A is perpendicular to line CG.

C. Projective Geometry

Projective geometry is the most general and least restrictive in the hierarchy of fundamental
geometries. It is an intrinsically non-metric geometry, whose facts are independent of any metric
structure. Under the projective transformations, the incidence structure and the cross-ratio are
preserved. In particular, it formalizes one of the central principles of perspective art: that parallel
lines meet at a point called an ideal point. Consequently, the five initial axioms in Euclidean
Geometry resulted to the following axioms.
1. Any two distinct points determine one and only one line.

2. Any two distinct coplanar lines intersect in one and only one point.

3. Any line not in a given plane intersects the plane in one and only one point.

4. Any two distinct planes intersect in one and only one line.

5. Any three noncollinear points, also any line and a point not on the line, determine one and
only one plane.

MATRICES AND MATRIX OPERATIONS

Definition

A matrix is defined as a rectangular array of elements. The entries, also called elements, may
be real, complex or functions. If the arrangement has m rows and n columns, then the matrix is of
order m x n (read as m by n). A matrix is enclosed by a pair of parameters such as ( ) or [ ]. It is
denoted by a capital letter.

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  a11 a12  a1n 
 a a22  a2 n 
A   21
   aij 
 
 am1 am 2  amn 

A = [ a ij ]

TYPES OF MATRICES

1. The ROW MATRIX: This matrix has only one row.

Example: [1 6 4 3] This is a 1 X 4 row matrix

2. The COLUMN MATRIX: This matrix has only one column.

 10 
  2
 
 7 
 
  8
Example: This is 4 x 1 column matrix

3. The RECTANGULAR MATRIX: This has two or more rows with two or more columns.

Example
  2 3 5  2
0 8 1 4 

This is a 2 X 4 matrix, because it contains two rows and four
columns

  8  11 22 0 
7 6  95 10 

 0 45 49 68
This is a 3 X 4 matrix

4. The SQUARE MATRIX: This is a special case of a Rectangular Matrix; here the
number of rows is equal to the number of columns.
1 3 2 4
 a b c 5 1 3 1
 d e 
 f  8 1 1 1
 g h i   
8 5 3 1
Example: A = B=

Here A and B are square matrices of order 3 and 4 respectively

5. The DIAGONAL MATRIX: This is a square matrix where all its non-diagonal elements are 0
Example:
5 0 0 0
 8 0 0 0 6 0 0 
 0  1 0 
 92 0    0 0 3 0
 0 1  0 0 8  
  0 0 0 10
(a) (b) (c)

These are diagonal matrices of order 2, 3 and 4 respectively.

6. The SCALAR MATRIX: This is a diagonal matrix where all the elements on its leading
diagonal to bottom right are of equal value.
Example:

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 6 0 0 0
 3 0 0 0 6 0 0
 0 3 0 
 2 0   0 0 6 0
 0 2  0 0 3  
  0 0 0 6
(a) (b) (c)
7. The IDENTITY MATRIX: This is a scalar matrix where the elements on its leading diagonal
(the diagonal running from top left to bottom right) are 1 and the rest are of value 0
Example:
1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0
 
0 0 0 1
This is an identity matrix I4 of order 4.

PROPERTIES OF MATRIX ADDITION

Theorem Let A, B, C, and D be matrices of the same size, m x n.

1. A + B = B + A (Commutativity)

2. A + (B + C) = (A + B ) + C (Associativity)

3. There is a unique m x n matrix O such that A+ 0 = A for any m x n matrix A. The

matrix O is called the m x n additive identity or zero matrix.

4. To each m x n matrix A, there is a unique m x n matrix D such that

A+D=0

We write D as (- A), so that A + D = 0 can be written as A + (-A) = 0. The matrix (-A) is called the
additive inverse or negative of A.

PROPERTIES OF MATRIX MULTIPLICATION

Theorem Let A, B, and C be matrices of the appropriate sizes.

1. A(BC) = (AB)C (Associativity)

2. A(B + C) = AB + AC (Right Distributivity)

3. (A + B)C = AC + BC (Left Distributivity)

PROPERTIES OF MULTIPLICATION BY A SCALAR

Theorem Let A and B be matrices of the appropriate sizes, and let r and s be scalars.

1. r(sA) = (rs)A (Associativity)

2. (r + s)A = rA + sA (Distributivity I)

3. r(A + B) = rA + rB (Distributivity II)

4. A(rB) = r(AB) = (rA)B

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Definition Let A = [ai j ] be an n x n matrix. We define the determinant of A (written
A
det(A) or ) by

A  ()a 1 j1 a 2 j ...a n j
2 n

det A = =

where the summation ranges over all permutations j 1 j2 …jn of the set S =
{1,2,…n}.The sign is taken as + or – according to whether the permutation j1 j2…
jn is even or odd.

Second-order Determinant

 a1 b1 
 a b2 
 2
If A is the square matrix of order two then the determinant of A, denoted by

a1 b1 a1 b1
a2 b2 a2 b2
either det A or ,is defined by = a1b2 – a2b1

Example:

Compute the determinant:

PROPERTIES OF DETERMINANT

1. The determinant of a matrix and its transpose are equal, that is, det(AT ) = det(A).

2. If two rows (columns) of A are equal, then det (A) = 0

3. If a row (column) of A consists entirely of zeros, then det (A) = 0

4. The determinant of a diagonal matrix is the product of the entries on its main diagonal.

5. If matrix A = [ai j] is upper (lower) triangular, then det (A) =a11a22…ann; that is
The determinant of a triangular matrix is the product of the elements on the main diagonal.

6. If a multiple of one row of A is added to another row to produce a matrix B,

then det B = det A.

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7. If two rows of A are interchanged to produce B, then det B = - det A.

8. If one row of A is multiplied by k to produce B, then det B = k  det A.

9. The determinant of a product of two matrices is the product of their determinants; That is,
det(A B) = det(A) det(B)

MODULAR CLOCK ARTITHMETIC

Clock (or modular) arithmetic is arithmetic you do on a clock instead of a number line. On a 12-
hour clock, there are only twelve numbers in the whole number system. However, every number
has lots of different names. For example, the number before 1 is 0, so 12 = 0 on a 12-hour clock

In clock arithmetic, you can add, subtract, and multiply, you can divide by some numbers.

Addition and Subtraction

Addition and subtraction work the same as on number line. For example, to add 9 and 7, start at
0, count 9 along the line, and then count 7 more. You are at 16.If you count on a 12-hour clock,
you will be at 4.

To add negative numbers, use the minus (-) sign to change direction. To subtract on a clock, first
find standard (positive) names for the two numbers, count clockwise for the first one, and count
counter clockwise for the second.

 In ordinary arithmetic, the additive inverse of 4 is -4. In mod 12 arithmetic, the additive
inverse of 4 is 8. In either system, the sum of a number and its additive inverse is zero.

 Rows corresponding to additive inverses are opposites of one another, save for the
number 0.

Addition Mod 12 ( 12- hour clock)

St. Louis Review Center, Inc. POST TEST SOCIAL SCIENCES

3RD Flr. La Suerte Bldg., Rizal
Ave., San Pablo City L.E.T APRIL 2010
Tel. no. (049) 562-2239/0929-688-4348
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1 What branch of philosophy is closely a. Reconstructionism c.Philosophical
related to education because it is analysis
concerned with human knowledge in b. Existentialism d. Social
general and the criteria of truth? traditionalism
a. Metaphysics c. Epistemology 13 The educational theory, in response to
b. Logic d. Ethics progressivism, which concerns with the
2 This is the philosophical study of the revival of effort in the direction of
universe and everything in it teaching the fundamental tools of
a. Cosmology c. Metaphysics learning as the most indispensable type
b. Ethics d. Axiology of education
3 What philosophy posits that a social a. Essentialism c. Philosophical analysis
teacher is a revered person, central to the b. Perennialism d. Social traditionalism
educative process and therefore must be 14 This philosophy believes that the schools
excellent mentally and morally in should originate policies and progress
personally conduct and conviction? which would bring about reform of the
a. Realism c. Essentialism social order
b. Idealism d. Progressivism a. reconstructionism c.
4 What would the aim of a realist education Existentialism
likely be? b. Progressivism d.
a. Contribute to the development of Perennialism
mind and self 15 This is the logical conclusion if we are to
b. Provide students with the knowledge apply the philosophy of martin Buber to
he will need to survive in the natural education
world a. Education will be characterize by
c. Give students insights into their imposition and rules
traditions and adapting students to b. Education will be characterize by
society mutual unfolding of persons
d. Meet the need of a growing child c. Education will be characterize by
rather than emphasize the subject pretensions
matter d. Education will be characterize by self
5 This philosophy emphasizes the teaching motivation
of controversial issues to prepare 16 Man as an embodied spirit means
students for a progressive structuring of a. Man is a body and soul
the social order b. Man is a rational animal
a. Progressivism c. c. Man is a totally, unique core or center,
Reconstructionism source wellspring of initiative and
b. Social traditionalism d. Social meaning
Experimentalism d. Man is subjective
6 The philosophy whose criterion of truth is 17 Man as an embodied sprit implies that
“ seeing is believing” education should
a. Essentialism c. Progressivism a. Develop the intellect / mind
b. Native realism d. b. Develop man’s individuality
Existentialism c. Develop essential physical and
7 This is the systematic consistent intellectual skills
explanation of all the facts of experience. d. Develop the total man
Its technical term is reason which is 18 human beings are living in a human world
considered as the best criterion of truth implies that
a. Pragmatism c. a. Education must help man give
Correspondence meaning to his world of others
b. Consistency d. b. Education must develop skills to
Coherence survive in this world
8 This philosophy contends that truth is c. Education must be relevant to this
universal an unchanging and therefore a world
good education is also universal and d. Education must be in the context of
constant societal needs
a. Perennialism c. Existentialism 19 This philosophy contends that the
b. Progressivism d. Essentialism intellectual faculty of man is higher that
9 Which philosophy has for its curriculum a the physical faculties
body intellectual subject matter that are a. Idealism c.
conceptual on subject, essential for the Existentialism
realization of mental and moral b. Realism d. Logical
development? Positivism
a. Realism c. Existentialism 20 The philosophical study of the essence
b. Idealism d. Pragmatism and nature of man
10 A branch of Philosophy that studies the a. Rational psychology
morality of human action b. Epistemology
a. Epistemology c. Ethics c. Philosophy of human person
b. Metaphysics d. Cosmology d. Social Philosophy
11 The area of Philosophy that specifically 21 The branch of philosophy that studies the
deals with the problem of human values morality of human acts
a. criteriology c. Theodicy a. Aesthetics c. Ethics
b. Epistemology d. Axiology b. Cosmology d. Theodicy
12 The aim of this philosophy is to reduce 22 This is the philosophical study of human
statements about education to empirical knowledge and the criteria of truth
terms a. Axiology c. Logic
b. Epistemology d. Metaphysics
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23 This contemporary philosophical theme in d. To meet the needs of the growing
education contends that education must child
involve in its processes the total human 33 The philosophical belief that reality is
being-his subjectivity, the rational, the precisely what as it appear to be and
material and the emotional aspect for adheres to the belief that “seeing is
man is a unity and not a duality believing”
a. Genuine dialogue a. Coherence c. Naïve Realism
b. Man as a being in the world b. Consistency d. Pragmatism
c. Man as an embodied spirit 34 It is belief that when an idea agrees with
d. The socials and the inter human being its object, it is proof of its truth. However,
24 This philosophy proclaims the spiritual it is definition of truth not a criteria
nature and the universe. It holds that the a. Coherence c. Naïve Realism
good, the true and the beautiful are b. Consistency d.
permanently part of the structure of an Correspondence
unchanging universe 35 The belief that the ultimate criterion of
a. Existentialism c. Materialism truth is if an idea works then it is true
b. Idealism d. Realism a. Coherence c. Naïve Realism
25 This philosophy posits the know ability of b. Consistency d. Pragmatism
the world and everything in its as they
are in themselves and their existence
independent of human mind 36 It is a systematic consistent explanation
a. Existentialism c. Materialism of all the facts of experience. Its technical
b. Idealism d. Realism name is reason. This is believed to be the
26 “The central aim of education should be ultimate criterion of truth
to develop the power of thought” this a. Coherence c. Naïve Realism
would likely be the aim of what b. Consistency d. Pragmatism
educational practitioner? 37 This educational philosophy encourages
a. Existentialism c. Progressivist accumulation of knowledge and thinking
b. Perennialist d. and must apply criteria for moral
Reconstructivist evaluation. Suggested methods are
27 This educational theory is based on the questioning and discussion, lecture and
philosophy grounded on experience and the project, whether done singly or in
the interaction of the person with his group
environment. It posits that education a. Existentialism c. Materialism
must use past experiences to direct b. Idealism d. Pragmatism
future experiences 38 This theory views education as a
a. Existentialism c. Realism recurring process based on eternal truths;
b. Idealism d. progressivism thus, the school’s curriculum should
28 This philosophy is a way of viewing and emphasize the recurrent themes of
thinking about life in the world so that human life
priority is given into individualism and a. Perennialism c. Progressivism
subjectivity. It believes that human beings b. Pragmatism d.
are the creator of their own experiences Reconstructionism
a. Existentialism c. Realism 39 The philosophical study of human mind
b. Idealism d. a. Axiology c. Metaphysics
Reconstruction b. Epistemology d. Rational psychology
29 This emerging social values in education 40 The philosophical study of being, its
stresses that man exist through the other nature and essence
and for others for he becomes actuated a. Axiology c. Metaphysics
through relations b. Epistemology d. Rational
a. Existential Dialogue c. Socialization Psychology
b. Personalization d. 41 A sociologist would be most interested in
Vigilance studying
30 To what particular concept must a. Artifacts of the fast civilization
education be based according to b. Group behavior
contemporary philosophy? c. Psychological problems
a. Existential dialogue d. Economic institution
b. Social Change 42 Interrelated social structures that fit
c. Supremacy of the human person together to form an integrated whole
d. Synergy a. Structural functionalism
31 This emerging social value in education b. Conflict theory
stresses the importance if the “we- c. Symbolic Interactionism
experience” ad the converging of the d. Disruptive Functionalism
worlds 43 Development of self and adaptation of
a. Authentic being c. individual to society
Personalization a. Structural functionalism
b. Existential dialogue d. Synergy b. Conflict theory
32 The essentialist would likely have this as c. Symbolic Interactionism
the ultimate aim of education d. Disruptive Functionism
a. To fit man to perform, justly, skillfully 44 Which is NOT a method in sociological
and magnanimous in all times in inquiry
peace and war a. Experimental study c. Intuitive
b. To develop the power of thought. To study
search for an disseminate the truth b. Longitudinal Study d. Ex-post Facto
c. To give all pupils insight into their study
traditions
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45 Which of the following give some d. Some deviation are due to the failure
difficulties to a sociological researcher? of the socialization process to
a. Complexity of phenomena integrate the cultural norms into
b. Constant change individual’s personality
c. Unpredictability of behavior 59 A teenager in a “good” neighborhood of
d. All of the above stable families and conventional people
46 A cluster of behavior patterns related to who rejects middle class norms and
the general culture of a society and yet become a delinquent is an example of
distinguishable from it a. Individual deviation c. Counter
a. Sub-culture c. Norm deviation
b. Culture shock d. mores b. Group deviation d. Relative
47 Which group would most likely have a deviation
counter culture? 60 A case of compulsive drug addict is an
a. Musician c. Singers example if a
b. Drugs users d. Dancers a. Primary deviant c.
48 The complex whole which includes Tertiary deviant
knowledge, beliefs, arts moral, laws, b. Secondary deviant d. All of the
customs and other capabilities and habits above
acquired by man as a member of the 61 Which is NOT a characteristic of a social
society group?
a. Norm c. Culture a. Physical collection of people
b. Folkways d. Mores b. Shares a common purpose and
49 When one consider the culture of another conscious of each other
group as inferior to his own, this connotes c. Share some common characteristics
a. Ethnocentrism c. d. Member interact with one another
Assimilation 62 Which is NOT a characteristic of the
b. Cultural relativism d. Acculturation relationship among members of a primary
50 The rightness or wrongness of what one group?
does depend on where he is doing it a. Personal c. Segmental
a. Cultural integration c. Cultural b. Informal d. Sentimental
relativism 63 Which is an example of members if a
b. Cultural lag d. Cultural traits primary group?
51 The culture that includes undesirable a. Peer group c. School
behavior of the member of society. administration
Formally condemned but widely practiced b. Family d. Neighbors
a. Real culture c. Sub-culture
b. Ideal culture d.
Counter culture
52 The process by which a member learns
the norms of the group 64 Which of the following statements is NOT
a. Accommodation c. true about Filipino families today?
Compartmentalization a. Male authority has declined
b. Aggregation d. Socialization b. Division of labor has changed
53 A role or status assigned according to c. Separation has become more common
heredity traits without regard to individual d. Has cease to be socialization unit in
preference, ability or performance society
a. Achieved c. Attached 65 Which of the following is NOT an ethical
b. Ascribed d. Applied issue that must be confronted when doing
54 An achieved position in a society social research?
a. Heir to the throne c. Movie actor a. Are the subjects being paid enough?
b. Presidential son d. First b. What degree of risk, pain or harm is
lady involved?
55 Refers to the difficulty people have in c. To what extent are the subjects being
meeting their role obligations deceived?
a. Role conflict c. Role strain d. Will there be disclosure of confidential
b. Role set d. Role or personally harmful information?
ambiguity 66 In most instances of participant
56 When a supervisor is tasked to report observation the researchers:
unsatisfactory performance of her co- a. Hide their true identity
workers who are also her friends. She b. Do not hide their true identity
may experience c. Pay their informants for information
a. Role play c. Role strain d. Acts as therapist to the subject
b. Role conflict d. Role 67 A research technique in which the
ambiguity investigators enter to the activities of the
57 Social control imposed on social deviants group at the same time they study the
to maintain groups behavior is
a. Social stigma c. Social order a. Participants observation
b. Social strata d. Social mobility b. A semi-structured (open-ended)
58 Which of the following is NOT true? Interview
a. The deviant behavior of one c. A structured interview
generation may become the norm of d. A data discussion
the next 68 Participant observation:
b. All forms of deviant are bad a. A research tool used to follow-up on
c. Deviant behavior is one way of expected findings
adapting a culture to a social change b. A research interview in which the
investigators ash a list of questions,
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 91
 but is free to vary them or make up certain variables among large number
new ones that become important of people
during the course of the interview d. Procedures having cross-cultural
c. A research technique in which the applications needed
investigators enter into activities of 77 A research method is which a population,
the group at the same time they study or portion thereof, is questioned in order
the group’s behavior to reveal specific facts itself is known as:
d. A research interview determined a. A survey c. Experiments
entirely in advance and followed b. Participant observation d.
rigidly Residual analysis
69 A research interview determined entirely 78 Which of the following is NOT one of the
in advance and followed rigidly is: three main methods of research used by
a. Participants observation sociologists?
b. A semi structured (open-ended) a. A survey c. Experiments
interview b. Participants observation d.
c. A structured interview Residual analysis
d. A data discussion 79 A statistical technique to make all
70 A research interview in which the significant groups in as society
investigators ask a list of questions, but is represented in a sample proportion to
free to vary them or make up new ones their numbers in the large society is
that become important during the course known as:
interview, that is a. Random sampling
a. Participant observation b. A stratified random sample
b. A semi structured (open-ended) c. Sampling
interview d. Randomized response
c. Structured interview 80 The goal in designing a research project
d. A data discussion should be:
71 A conversation between two or more a. To prove a point
individuals in which one party attempts to b. To provide a collection for all
gain information from others(s) by asking necessary and sufficient data to test
of questions is known as; the stated hypothesis
a. A survey c. Participant c. To selectively isolate the variables in
observation order to prove the hypotheses are
b. An interview d. Hypothesis testing either correct or incorrect
72 Sociological and anthropological be d. To prove hypothesis false. If they
misused because it: cannot proven false, they must be
a. Is hard to understand true
b. Is often used selectively by groups or 81 An independent variable is
individuals to support certain motives a. A testable statements about the
c. Is often ambiguous relationship between two or more
d. Has few applicants empirical variables
73 A survey by their nature usually b. Anything that can be change
a. Are cross-sectional c. A variable that changes for reason
b. Are longitudinal that have nothing to do with another
c. Involve secondary methodology variable
d. Involve participants observation d. A variable that changes in response to
changes in another variable
82 Which of the following is not a sign?
74 A cross-sectional study is a. A clenched first c. A flag
a. A research technique in which b. A knock on the door d. Yawning
investigators enter into activities of 83 The most important symbols are
the group at the same time they study a. Action c. Actions
the groups behavior b. Words d. Behavior
b. Research examines a population at a 84 The principal means through which
given point in a time culture is transmitted from generation to
c. Research which examines a generation is
population, or portion thereof, is a. Actions c.
questioned in order to reveal specific Language
facts about itself b. Diffusion d. Behaviors
d. Research that investigates a 85 If apes can be taught to use language, it
population at several intervals over denies the views that:
relatively a long period of time a. Only human can think
75 Research that investigates a population at b. Only human have culture
several intervals over a relatively long c. Apes do not have history to pass on
period of time is called d. Apes are stupid
a. A cross-sectional study c. 86 Which of the following statements about
Secondary Analysis culture is not true?
b. A residual analysis d. Longitudinal a. Every social group must have a
research culture on its own in order to function
76 Survey are used when: b. Every individual participates in a
a. Other measure do not produce number of different culture
statistical significance c. Meeting the social expectation of
b. The findings of the study must be several cultures is often source of tree
repeatable d. Families do not have their own culture
c. It is desirable to discover he but instead reflect the culture of the
contribution and interrelations of larger society
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 92
87 Promised to “make this country great a. Rizal c. Kawal
again.” Ruled for about twenty years b. Gomburza d. Sundalo
a. Diosdado Macapagal c. Ramon 99 Pre-colonial trade in the Philippines was
Magsaysay prosperous. Business transactions made
b. Ferdinand Marcos d. Carlos Garcia use of:
88 The form of government established by a. Money system c. Credit system
Aguinaldo was change from dictatorial to: b. Barter system d. Banking
a. Democratic c. Republic System
b. Sociologist d. Revolutionary 100 The use of magic charms was very
89 Which provides he Tagalog shall be the common among pre-Spanish Filipinos.
official language of the republic? One of these is the anting-anting or
a. Constitution of 1935 c. Biyak na Bato agimat which is meant to:
b. Makabula d. Malolos a. Insure a man against a weapon of
90 Which of the following were the greatest every kind
naval battles in history during Japanese b. Made a man lovable to all ladies
occupation of the Philippines? c. Made a man invisible
a. Battle of Leyte gulf c. Claveri d. Made him walk in storm or sea
b. Surigao Strait d. Dela Torre without getting wet
91 The most cultured of the reformist, wrote ***** THE END *****
a socio-historical novel based on facts he
gathered in the Philippines WORK HARD, DREAM HARDER
a. Marcelo H. Del Pilar c. Mariano Ponce Social science
b. Jose Rizal d. Jose Ma. 1 C 51 a
Paganiban 2 A 52 d
92 The editor of La Solaridad and a great 3 B 53 b
orator, he initiated the reform movement
4 B 54 c
a. Marcelo H. Del Pilar c. Emilio Jacinto
5 C 55 c
b. Jose Rizal d. Graciano
Lopez-Jaena 6 B 56 b
93 The generation of the spirits was common 7 D 57 c
among ancient Filipinos. Memories of 8 A 58 b
their dead relatives were kept alive 9 A 59 a
through craved idol. This practice was 10 C 60 a
called 11 D 61 a
a. Cult of the dead c. Nature 12 C 62 c
Worship 13 A 63 c
b. Mass of the dead d. Divination 14 A 64 d
94 The practice of having surnames was
15 B 65 a
started during Spanish regime through
the order of 16 C 66 a
a. Gov. Gen Jaudenes c. Gov. Gen 17 D 67 a
Claveria 18 A 68 c
b. Gov. Gen Dela Torre d. Gov. Gen 19 A 69 c
Polavejia 20 C 70 b
95 As promised by Gen. Mc Arthur- he would 21 C 71 b
return to liberate the Filipinos after he 22 B 72 b
could train troops, in Australia. The Leyte 23 C 73 c
landing signified the liberation of the 24 B 74 b
Philippines, was well as the return of the
25 d 75 d
commonwealth government. Who was the
26 b 76 c
commonwealth president who came with
Mc Arthur? 27 d 77 a
a. Romulo c. 28 a 78 d
Osmeňa 29 c 79 b
b. Roxas d. Quezon 30 c 80 b
96 Men and women of pre-colonial times had 31 d 81 c
weakness for personal adornment. A side 32 a 82 c
from jewels, tattooing of the body was 33 c 83 d
common. In the Visayas tattooed men 34 c 84 d
were called 35 d 85 b
a. Umalohokan c. Abi
36 a 86 d
b. Pintados d. Plista
37 b 87 b
97 Memories of brutality which was so in 38 a 88 d
human during the Japanese regime were 39 d 89 a
always associated with a particular 40 c 90 a
Japanese group called 41 b 91 b
a. Kalibapi c. 42 a 92 d
Kamikaze 43 c 93 a
b. Kempetai d. Samurai 44 c 94 c
98 Membership in the Katipunan come in 45 d 95 d
grades: first (katipon’s); second (kawal);
46 c 96 a
and third (bayani). Each grade designed
47 b 97 b
as well as password so they could
maintain their secrecy of the movement. 48 c 98 b
The password for the kawal grade was? 49 a 99 b
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 93
 50 c 100 a a. Cosmology c. Metaphysics
b. Ethics d. Axiology
103 What philosophy posits that a social
teacher is a revered person, central to the
educative process and therefore must be
excellent mentally and morally in
personally conduct and conviction?
a. Realism c. Essentialism
b. Idealism d. Progressivism
104 What would the aim of a realist
education likely be?
a. Contribute to the development of
mind and self
b. Provide students with the knowledge
he will need to survive in the natural
world
c. Give students insights into their
traditions and adapting students to
society
d. Meet the need of a growing child
rather than emphasize the subject
matter
105 This philosophy emphasizes the
teaching of controversial issues to
prepare students for a progressive
structuring of the social order
a. Progressivism c.
Reconstructionism
b. Social traditionalism d. Social
Experimentalism
106 The philosophy whose criterion of
truth is “ seeing is believing”
a. Essentialism c. Progressivism
b. Native realism d.
Existentialism
107 This is the systematic consistent
explanation of all the facts of experience.
Its technical term is reason which is
considered as the best criterion of truth
a. Pragmatism c.
Correspondence
b. Consistency d.
Coherence
108 This philosophy contends that truth is
universal an unchanging and therefore a
good education is also universal and
constant
a. Perennialism c. Existentialism
b. Progressivism d. Essentialism
109 Which philosophy has for its
curriculum a body intellectual subject
matter that are conceptual on subject,
essential for the realization of mental and
moral development?
a. Realism c. Existentialism
b. Idealism d. Pragmatism
110 A branch of Philosophy that studies
the morality of human action
a. Epistemology c. Ethics
b. Metaphysics d. Cosmology
111 The area of Philosophy that
specifically deals with the problem of
human values
a. criteriology c. Theodicy
POST TEST SOCIAL SCIENCES b. Epistemology d. Axiology
112 The aim of this philosophy is to reduce
L.E.T APRIL 2010 statements about education to empirical
terms
101 What branch of philosophy is closely a. Reconstructionism c. Philosophical
related to education because it is analysis
concerned with human knowledge in b. Existentialism d. Social
general and the criteria of truth? traditionalism
a. Metaphysics c. Epistemology 113 The educational theory, in response to
b. Logic d. Ethics progressivism, which concerns with the
102 This is the philosophical study of the revival of effort in the direction of
universe and everything in it teaching the fundamental tools of
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 94
 learning as the most indispensable type c. Man as an embodied spirit
of education d. The socials and the inter human being
a. Essentialism c. Philosophical analysis 124 This philosophy proclaims the spiritual
b. Perennialism d. Social traditionalism nature and the universe. It holds that the
114 This philosophy believes that the good, the true and the beautiful are
schools should originate policies and permanently part of the structure of an
progress which would bring about reform unchanging universe
of the social order a. Existentialism c. Materialism
a. reconstructionism c. Existentialism b. Idealism d. Realism
b. Progressivism d. Perennialism
115 This is the logical conclusion if we are
to apply the philosophy of martin Buber 125 This philosophy posits the know ability
to education of the world and everything in its as they
a. Education will be characterize by are in themselves and their existence
imposition and rules independent of human mind
b. Education will be characterize by a. Existentialism c. Materialism
mutual unfolding of persons b. Idealism d. Realism
c. Education will be characterize by 126 “The central aim of education should
pretensions be to develop the power of thought” this
d. Education will be characterize by self would likely be the aim of what
motivation educational practitioner?
116 Man as an embodied spirit means a. Existentialism c. Progressivist
a. Man is a body and soul b. Perennialist d.
b. Man is a rational animal Reconstructivist
c. Man is a totally, unique core or center, 127 This educational theory is based on
source wellspring of initiative and the philosophy grounded on experience
meaning and the interaction of the person with his
d. Man is subjective environment. It posits that education
117 Man as an embodied sprit implies that must use past experiences to direct
education should future experiences
a. Develop the intellect / mind a. Existentialism c. Realism
b. Develop man’s individuality b. Idealism d. progressivism
c. Develop essential physical and 128 This philosophy is a way of viewing
intellectual skills and thinking about life in the world so
d. Develop the total man that priority is given into individualism
118 human beings are living in a human and subjectivity. It believes that human
world implies that beings are the creator of their own
a. Education must help man give experiences
meaning to his world of others a. Existentialism c. Realism
b. Education must develop skills to b. Idealism d.
survive in this world Reconstruction
c. Education must be relevant to this 129 This emerging social values in
world education stresses that man exist through
d. Education must be in the context of the other and for others for he becomes
societal needs actuated through relations
119 This philosophy contends that the a. Existential Dialogue c. Socialization
intellectual faculty of man is higher that b. Personalization d.
the physical faculties Vigilance
a. Idealism c. 130 To what particular concept must
Existentialism education be based according to
b. Realism d. Logical contemporary philosophy?
Positivism a. Existential dialogue
120 The philosophical study of the b. Social Change
essence and nature of man c. Supremacy of the human person
a. Rational psychology d. Synergy
b. Epistemology 131 This emerging social value in
c. Philosophy of human person education stresses the importance if the
d. Social Philosophy “we-experience” ad the converging of the
121 The branch of philosophy that studies worlds
the morality of human acts a. Authentic being c.
a. Aesthetics c. Ethics Personalization
b. Cosmology d. Theodicy b. Existential dialogue d. Synergy
122 This is the philosophical study of 132 The essentialist would likely have this
human knowledge and the criteria of as the ultimate aim of education
truth a. To fit man to perform, justly, skillfully
a. Axiology c. Logic and magnanimous in all times in
b. Epistemology d. Metaphysics peace and war
123 This contemporary philosophical b. To develop the power of thought. To
theme in education contends that search for an disseminate the truth
education must involve in its processes c. To give all pupils insight into their
the total human being-his subjectivity, traditions
the rational, the material and the d. To meet the needs of the growing
emotional aspect for man is a unity and child
not a duality 133 The philosophical belief that reality is
a. Genuine dialogue precisely what as it appear to be and
b. Man as a being in the world
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 95
 adheres to the belief that “seeing is 145 Which of the following give some
believing” difficulties to a sociological researcher?
a. Coherence c. Naïve Realism a. Complexity of phenomena
b. Consistency d. Pragmatism b. Constant change
134 It is belief that when an idea agrees c. Unpredictability of behavior
with its object, it is proof of its truth. d. All of the above
However, it is definition of truth not a 146 A cluster of behavior patterns related
criteria to the general culture of a society and yet
a. Coherence c. Naïve Realism distinguishable from it
b. Consistency d. a. Sub-culture c. Norm
Correspondence b. Culture shock d. mores
135 The belief that the ultimate criterion 147 Which group would most likely have a
of truth is if an idea works then it is true counter culture?
a. Coherence c. Naïve Realism a. Musician c. Singers
b. Consistency d. Pragmatism b. Drugs users d. Dancers
136 It is a systematic consistent 148 The complex whole which includes
explanation of all the facts of experience. knowledge, beliefs, arts moral, laws,
Its technical name is reason. This is customs and other capabilities and habits
believed to be the ultimate criterion of acquired by man as a member of the
truth society
a. Coherence c. Naïve Realism a. Norm c. Culture
b. Consistency d. Pragmatism b. Folkways d. Mores
149 When one consider the culture of
another group as inferior to his own, this
connotes
a. Ethnocentrism c.
137 This educational philosophy Assimilation
encourages accumulation of knowledge b. Cultural relativism d. Acculturation
and thinking and must apply criteria for 150 The rightness or wrongness of what
moral evaluation. Suggested methods are one does depend on where he is doing it
questioning and discussion, lecture and a. Cultural integration c. Cultural
the project, whether done singly or in relativism
group b. Cultural lag d. Cultural traits
a. Existentialism c. Materialism 151 The culture that includes undesirable
b. Idealism d. Pragmatism behavior of the member of society.
138 This theory views education as a Formally condemned but widely practiced
recurring process based on eternal truths; a. Real culture c. Sub-culture
thus, the school’s curriculum should b. Ideal culture d.
emphasize the recurrent themes of Counter culture
human life 152 The process by which a member
a. Perennialism c. Progressivism learns the norms of the group
b. Pragmatism d. a. Accommodation c.
Reconstructionism Compartmentalization
139 The philosophical study of human b. Aggregation d. Socialization
mind 153 A role or status assigned according to
a. Axiology c. Metaphysics heredity traits without regard to individual
b. Epistemology d. Rational psychology preference, ability or performance
140 The philosophical study of being, its a. Achieved c. Attached
nature and essence b. Ascribed d. Applied
a. Axiology c. Metaphysics 154 An achieved position in a society
b. Epistemology d. Rational a. Heir to the throne c. Movie actor
Psychology b. Presidential son d. First
141 A sociologist would be most interested lady
in studying 155 Refers to the difficulty people have in
a. Artifacts of the fast civilization meeting their role obligations
b. Group behavior a. Role conflict c. Role strain
c. Psychological problems b. Role set d. Role
d. Economic institution ambiguity
142 Interrelated social structures that fit 156 When a supervisor is tasked to report
together to form an integrated whole unsatisfactory performance of her co-
a. Structural functionalism workers who are also her friends. She
b. Conflict theory may experience
c. Symbolic Interactionism a. Role play c. Role strain
d. Disruptive Functionalism b. Role conflict d. Role
143 Development of self and adaptation of ambiguity
individual to society 157 Social control imposed on social
a. Structural functionalism deviants to maintain
b. Conflict theory a. Social stigma c. Social order
c. Symbolic Interactionism b. Social strata d. Social mobility
d. Disruptive Functionism 158 Which of the following is NOT true?
144 Which is NOT a method in sociological a. The deviant behavior of one
inquiry generation may become the norm of
a. Experimental study c. Intuitive the next
study b. All forms of deviant are bad
b. Longitudinal Study d. Ex-post Facto c. Deviant behavior is one way of
study adapting a culture to a social change
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 96
 d. Some deviation are due to the failure
of the socialization process to
integrate the cultural norms into
individual’s personality
159 A teenager in a “good” neighborhood
of stable families and conventional people
who rejects middle class norms and
become a delinquent is an example of
a. Individual deviation c. Counter
deviation
b. Group deviation d. Relative
deviation
160 A case of compulsive drug addict is an
example if a
a. Primary deviant c.
Tertiary deviant
b. Secondary deviant d. All of the
above
161 Which is NOT a characteristic of a
social group?
a. Physical collection of people
b. Shares a common purpose and
conscious of each other
c. Share some common characteristics
d. Member interact with one another
162 Which is NOT a characteristic of the
relationship among members of a primary
group?
a. Personal c. Segmental
b. Informal d. Sentimental
163 Which is an example of members if a
primary group?
a. Peer group c. School
administration
b. Family d. Neighbors
164 Which of the following statements is
NOT true about Filipino families today?
a. Male authority has declined
b. Division of labor has changed
c. Separation has become more common
d. Has cease to be socialization unit in
society
165 Which of the following is NOT an
ethical issue that must be confronted
when doing social research?
a. Are the subjects being paid enough?
b. What degree of risk, pain or harm is
involved?
c. To what extent are the subjects being
deceived?
d. Will there be disclosure of confidential
or personally harmful information?
166 In most instances of participant
observation the researchers:
a. Hide their true identity
b. Do not hide their true identity
c. Pay their informants for information
d. Acts as therapist to the subject
167 A research technique in which the
investigators enter to the activities of the
group at the same time they study the
groups behavior is
a. Participants observation
b. A semi-structured (open-ended)
Interview
c. A structured interview
d. A data discussion
168 Participant observation:
a. A research tool used to follow-up on
expected findings
b. A research interview in which the
investigators ash a list of questions,
but is free to vary them or make up
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515
new ones that become important
during the course of the interview
c. A research technique in which the
investigators enter into activities of
the group at the same time they study
the group’s behavior
d. A research interview determined
entirely in advance and followed
rigidly
169 A research interview determined
entirely in advance and followed rigidly is:
a. Participants observation
b. A semi structured (open-ended)
interview
c. A structured interview
d. A data discussion
170 A research interview in which the
investigators ask a list of questions, but is
free to vary them or make up new ones
that become important during the course
interview, that is
a. Participant observation
b. A semi structured (open-ended)
interview
c. Structured interview
d. A data discussion
171 A conversation between two or more
individuals in which one party attempts to
gain information from others(s) by asking
of questions is known as;
a. A survey c. Participant
observation
b. An interview d. Hypothesis testing
172 Sociological and anthropological be
misused because it:
a. Is hard to understand
b. Is often used selectively by groups or
individuals to support certain motives
c. Is often ambiguous
d. Has few applicants
173 A survey by their nature usually
a. Are cross-sectional
b. Are longitudinal
c. Involve secondary methodology
d. Involve participants observation
174 A cross-sectional study is
a. A research technique in which
investigators enter into activities of
the group at the same time they study
the groups behavior
b. Research examines a population at a
given point in a time
c. Research which examines a
population, or portion thereof, is
questioned in order to reveal specific
facts about itself
d. Research that investigates a
population at several intervals over
relatively a long period of time
175 Research that investigates a
population at several intervals over a
relatively long period of time is called
a. A cross-sectional study c.
Secondary Analysis
b. A residual analysis d. Longitudinal
research
176 Survey are used when:
97
 a. Other measure do not produce b. Every individual participates in a
statistical significance number of different culture
b. The findings of the study must be c. Meeting the social expectation of
repeatable several cultures is often source of tree
c. It is desirable to discover he d. Families do not have their own culture
contribution and interrelations of but instead reflect the culture of the
certain variables among large number larger society
of people 187 Promised to “make this country great
d. Procedures having cross-cultural again.” Ruled for about twenty years
applications needed a. Diosdado Macapagal c. Ramon
177 A research method is which a Magsaysay
population, or portion thereof, is b. Ferdinand Marcos d. Carlos Garcia
questioned in order to reveal specific 188 The form of government established
facts itself is known as: by Aguinaldo was change from dictatorial
a. A survey c. Experiments to:
b. Participant observation d. a. Democratic c. Republic
Residual analysis b. Sociologist d. Revolutionary
178 Which of the following is NOT one of 189 Which provides he Tagalog shall be
the three main methods of research used the official language of the republic?
by sociologists? a. Constitution of 1935 c. Biyak na Bato
a. A survey c. Experiments b. Makabula d. Malolos
b. Participants observation d. 190 Which of the following were the
Residual analysis greatest naval battles in history during
179 A statistical technique to make all Japanese occupation of the Philippines?
significant groups in as society a. Battle of Leyte gulf c. Claveri
represented in a sample proportion to b. Surigao Strait d. Dela Torre
their numbers in the large society is 191 The most cultured of the reformist,
known as: wrote a socio-historical novel based on
a. Random sampling facts he gathered in the Philippines
b. A stratified random sample a. Marcelo H. Del Pilar c. Mariano Ponce
c. Sampling b. Jose Rizal d. Jose Ma.
d. Randomized response Paganiban
180 The goal in designing a research 192 The editor of La Solaridad and a great
project should be: orator, he initiated the reform movement
a. To prove a point a. Marcelo H. Del Pilar c. Emilio Jacinto
b. To provide a collection for all b. Jose Rizal d. Graciano
necessary and sufficient data to test Lopez-Jaena
the stated hypothesis 193 The generation of the spirits was
c. To selectively isolate the variables in common among ancient Filipinos.
order to prove the hypotheses are Memories of their dead relatives were
either correct or incorrect kept alive through craved idol. This
d. To prove hypothesis false. If they practice was called
cannot proven false, they must be a. Cult of the dead c. Nature
true Worship
181 An independent variable is b. Mass of the dead d. Divination
a. A testable statements about the 194 The practice of having surnames was
relationship between two or more started during Spanish regime through
empirical variables the order of
b. Anything that can be change a. Gov. Gen Jaudenes c. Gov. Gen
c. A variable that changes for reason Claveria
that have nothing to do with another b. Gov. Gen Dela Torre d. Gov. Gen
variable Polavejia
d. A variable that changes in response to 195 As promised by Gen. Mc Arthur- he
changes in another variable would return to liberate the Filipinos after
182 Which of the following is not a sign? he could train troops, in Australia. The
a. A clenched first c. A flag Leyte landing signified the liberation of
b. A knock on the door d. Yawning the Philippines, was well as the return of
183 The most important symbols are the commonwealth government. Who was
a. Action c. Actions the commonwealth president who came
b. Words d. Behavior with Mc Arthur?
184 The principal means through which a. Romulo c.
culture is transmitted from generation to Osmeňa
generation is b. Roxas d. Quezon
a. Actions c. 196 Men and women of pre-colonial times
Language had weakness for personal adornment. A
b. Diffusion d. Behaviors side from jewels, tattooing of the body
185 If apes can be taught to use language, was common. In the Visayas tattooed
it denies the views that: men were called
a. Only human can think a. Umalohokan c. Abi
b. Only human have culture b. Pintados d. Plista
c. Apes do not have history to pass on
d. Apes are stupid 197 Memories of brutality which was so in
186 Which of the following statements human during the Japanese regime were
about culture is not true? always associated with a particular
a. Every social group must have a Japanese group called
culture on its own in order to function
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 a. Kalibapi c. 41 b 91 b
Kamikaze 42 a 92 d
b. Kempetai d. Samurai 43 c 93 a
198 Membership in the Katipunan come in 44 c 94 c
grades: first (katipon’s); second (kawal);
45 d 95 d
and third (bayani). Each grade designed
46 c 96 a
as well as password so they could
maintain their secrecy of the movement. 47 b 97 b
The password for the kawal grade was? 48 c 98 b
a. Rizal c. Kawal 49 a 99 b
b. Gomburza d. Sundalo 50 c 100 a
199 Pre-colonial trade in the Philippines
was prosperous. Business transactions
made use of:
a. Money system c. Credit system
b. Barter system d. Banking
System
200 The use of magic charms was very
common among pre-Spanish Filipinos.
One of these is the anting-anting or
agimat which is meant to:
a. Insure a man against a weapon of
every kind
b. Made a man lovable to all ladies
c. Made a man invisible
d. Made him walk in storm or sea
without getting wet
***** THE END *****

WORK HARD, DREAM HARDER

Social science
1 c 51 a
2 a 52 d
3 b 53 b
4 b 54 c
5 c 55 c
6 b 56 b
7 d 57 c
8 a 58 b
9 a 59 a
10 c 60 a
11 d 61 a
12 c 62 c
13 a 63 c
14 a 64 d
15 b 65 a
16 c 66 a
17 d 67 a
18 a 68 c
19 a 69 c
20 c 70 b
21 c 71 b
22 b 72 b
23 c 73 c
24 b 74 b
25 d 75 d
26 b 76 c
27 d 77 a
28 a 78 d
29 c 79 b
30 c 80 b
31 d 81 c
32 a 82 c
33 c 83 d
34 c 84 d
35 d 85 b
36 a 86 d
37 b 87 b
38 a 88 d
39 d 89 a
40 c 90 a PRINCIPLES AND STRATEGIES OF
TEACHING
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 99
POST-TEST SEPTEMBER 2010 a. Simulation Game c.
Demonstration
1. It has reference to what teachers do in b. Role Playing d. Inquiry Process
planning, implementing and evaluating 13. Encouraging students to search for and
instruction. see relationships that are not obvious;
a. Teaching c. Teaching strategies also it stretches the intellect of students
b. Curriculum d. Instruction a. Open-ended Questions
2. The orderly process directing learners to b. Recall Questions
develop their skills and habits so that c. Explanatory Questions
they will be assisted in acquiring d. Descriptive Question
knowledge and attitudes. 14. It is “control by enforcing obedience or
a. Instructional Media orderly conduct or training that corrects
b. Instructional Method and strengthens?
c. Teaching Techniques a. Management c. Techniques
d. Instructional System b. Discipline d. Strategies
3. Facial Expression, writing on the board, 15. When students are asked to respond to
and oral expression of the teacher is an incomplete statements or questions that
example of are presented in oral/ written form
a. Teaching Behavior a. Open-ended Statement
b. Technical Skills of teachers b. Close-procedure
c. Instruction c. PAC Strategy
d. Instructional System d. Structured Activity
4. Learning to draw, drive a car, play 16. These are all the experience which
tennis, cook and type a poem often children have under the direction of a
taught in is an example of school
a. Cognitive Learning c. Verbal a. Curriculum c. Learning
Learning b. Instruction d. Socialization
b. Motor Skill Learning d. Social 17. The subjects mater, not the child is
Learning important in this type of curriculum
5. Responding to telephone calls, writing a. Correlated curriculum
one’s name, reading a book orally is an b. Subject-centered curriculum
example c. Experience curriculum
a. Cognitive Learning c. Verbal d. Fused curriculum
Learning 18. The child-instead of the subject-matter is
b. Motor skill learning d. Serial important in this kind of curriculum
Learning a. Correlated curriculum
6. A process wherein the pupil’s attention b. Core curriculum
and interest are aroused and directed to c. Experience curriculum
a definite purpose. d. Fused curriculum
a. Learning c. Method 19. It is a unified curriculum where subject
b. Motivation d. Principle matters from different subject field are
7. Contains a statement of results to be treated unitary of the same curriculum
accomplished and specific means by a. Core curriculum
which these results are to be attained b. Integrated Curriculum
under direction and guidance. c. Broad field curriculum
a. Method c. Technique d. Fused curriculum
b. Lesson Plan d. Principle 20. Teacher’s initiative, imagination, puppet
8. Could be the means of developing good shows, play, reading and animated
study habits and independence in work cartoons can be examples of enriching
as well as preparing the pupils for the job the curriculum under these resources
to be done a. Specializing Resources
a. Review c. b. Creative Resources
Assignment c. Human Resources
b. Drill d. Recitation d. Reading Resources
9. The act of repeating from memory the 21. A curriculum considered basics for all
reciting of a lesson and often described students, that all must get them
as a session lesson hearing a. Broad field curriculum
a. Review c. Assignment b. Core curriculum
b. Recitation d. Drill c. Integrated Curriculum
10. A teaching procedure dealing with first- d. Experience Curriculum
hand experiences pertaining to material 22. The whole body of experience utilized by
obtained from experimentation the school to attain the aims of
a. Demonstration Method education
b. Laboratory Method a. Psychology c. Socialization
c. Discovery Method b. Curriculum d. Methods
d. Deductive Method 23. Formal education starts when the child
11. Starts with generalization and principles a. begins to talk
or from general to particular b. reaches the age of six years old
a. Inductive Method c. Classical c. first enters school
Method d. begins to be inquisitive
b. Deductive Method d. Problem 24. That aspect of curriculum that has to do
Method with the preservation of the best in our
12. Students enact situations that arise in culture, customs and traditions has been
daily living, where values may be borrowed from
clarified, insights are developed and a. Sociology c. Psychology
decision-making is practiced b. Sociometry d. Ethics
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25. The curriculum must take into d. organizing the unit or study
consideration the 37. A statement of objectives, learning
a. aim of education experience and the means of attaining
b. learning process results of teaching is called
c. motives and incentives a. procedure c. outcomes
d. instincts b. lesson plan d. strategy
26. The curriculum is 38. Teaching aids which the teacher uses to
a. all-embracing c. all power make learning meaningful, productive
b. encompassing d. selective and interesting is known as:
a. device
27. In the traditional school, the focus of b. technique
attention was on the c. method
a. child c. method d. learning continuum
b. subject matter d. book
28. Curriculum objects are formulated in the 39. Teaching method which proceeds from
light of our the details of a lesson towards the
a. past history generalization is called:
b. educational policy and philosophy a. Inductive c. problem-
c. experience as a nation solving
d. needs in school b. deductive d. debate
29. Which of the following questions 40. A teaching method which proceeds from
encourages reflective thinking? a generalization, principle or rule is:
a. What are the parts of a complete a. inductive c. project
flower? b. deductive d. process
b. What do we use to observe matter? 41. The recent approach in teaching Social
c. In what ways can help his community Studies is called
d. Why are machine-made goods a. discovery c. process
cheaper than those made by hands? b. conceptual d. formal-
30. The success of the pupils in formulating education
generalization greatly depends on: 42. A method of teaching which aptly applies
a. the interest of the pupils to lessons needing experiments is called:
b. the devices used a. problem-solving c. observation
c. the subjects matter b. laboratory d. demonstration
d. the teacher’s skillful questioning 43. What type of lesson is presented wherein
31. In the inquiry method, the initiation the learner meets the learning
phase calls for the teacher to set the experience through understanding,
stage for: analysis, and generalizations of facts
a. finding solutions to problem presented?
b. raising of problems a. review c.
c. gathering data developmental
d. formulating generalization b. drill d. deductive
32. Method is dependent upon: 44. What lesson is presented when the
a. classroom techniques teacher takes up the previous learning
b. teacher’s expectation experiences of the learners in a
c. theoretical assumptions recognized pattern of presentation?
d. available textbooks a. Drill
33. To lead the students to the desired b. developmental
behavior, method must be implemented c. review
through: d. discussion procedure
a. selected technique 45. A lesson which aims to focalize skills to
b. the curriculum make them fixed to the point of mastery
c. the discussion of the teacher is
d. careful observation a. problem-type c. review
34. Which is not true regarding the project b. drill d. experimental
method? 46. The law of exercise is aptly applied in a
a. Many worthwhile projects are a. review lesson c. drill lesson
impossible because of the materials b. assignment d. check-up
needed 47. A type of review which presents the sum-
b. The project method should be used total of all activities previously presented
occasionally but not regularly a. integrated c. daily
c. The pupil or the class should carry b. cumulative d. drill
the chief responsibility of planning 48. What recent technique o teaching calls
the project for acting out of a situation where the
d. The project method is adaptable to participants aim to uncover a problem of
all units in the curriculum great importance to the class?
35. The laboratory method is also called: a. panel c. role-playing
a. the research methods b. debate-form d. lecture-form
b. the deductive method 49. What technique of in-service training for
c. the development method teachers involves the identification and
d. the problem method solution of common problems by them,
36. In the unit method, actual learning takes thru live-in sessions, conferences, and
place in: speeches of consultants?
a. orienting the pupils a. buzz session c. seminar
b. collecting, discovering and recording b. workshop d. professional meeting
data 50. The non-verbal symbols used to
c. summarizing the unit maximize learning are referred to as
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 a. Instructional devices 61. Which of these is not a quality of a good
b. Classrooms techniques teacher?
c. Field trips a. mastery o the subject matter
d. Educational media b. broad background of liberal
51. Graphic material which are eye-catching education
and which use slogans and topics c. aims to enrich himself thru teaching
presented in bold letterings and strong d. understand the nature of the learners
colors to serve as reminders of standards 62. Which of these is a good personal
and / or important events are called qualification of a teacher?
a. poster c. a. resourceful, creative and intelligent
projector b. rich, capricious and luxurious
b. film strips d. objects c. complaining, demanding and scornful
52. What contemporary aid to teaching d. materialistic
utilizes carefully-planned materials 63. Which of these is included among the
where each step of learning requires professional ethics o school teachers?
repetition and practice until such step is a. professional jealousy
thoroughly learned? b. integrity
a. programmed instruction c. engaging in business pre-judicial to
b. Keypunching his teaching duties
c. Educational Television d. gossip mongering
d. Educational hardware
53. The Stimulus-Response theory of
learning which involves the association
between a conditioned stimulus and a
response thru the repeated presentation
of the stimulus was advocated by whom?
a. Edward Thorndike c. Burrhus 64. What teaching method helps the learners
Skinner draw generalization from a discipline
b. Ivan Pavlov d. Wolfgang with the end in view of applying the
Kohler same similar situations in the future?
54. What plan of promoting pupils is a. discovery approach
committed to encouraging the learners b. process approach
to progress from grade to grade without c. conceptual approach
needless repetition d. problem-solving approach
a. non-graded scheme 65. Which subjects is in the elementary and
b. individualized secondary school levels mostly
c. heterogeneous grouping concerned with the study of societal
d. acceleration problems and issues which are
55. Differentiated assignments, tutorial and significant to the learners as member of
remedial work to would-be-failures are society?
not considered in the individualized a. Modern Mathematics
Instruction Scheme b. Social Studies
a. Yes c. Maybe c. Filipino
b. No d. Sometimes d. Character Education
56. A part of a daily lesson which serves as 66. Which of these are considered with two
a carry-over for the next day of what has essential dimension of science teaching?
been presented is the a. observing and inferring
a. review b. seeing and observing
b. drill c. reading and researching
c. assignment or agreement d. knowledge and performance
d. lesson proper 67. Which of these is not a process in
57. A good learning environment is one science teaching?
a. free from distraction c. a. Measurement
disturbing noise b. Communication skill
b. aver decorated d. c. Controlling variables
dilapidated d. None of these
58. The proper handling of the physical 68. Of the process involve in the modern
condition ad instructional materials in approach to science instruction, which
the classroom to effect learning refers to one utilizes the most number of scientific
a. teaching method processes.
b. Classroom management a. prediction c. inference
c. Discipline grouping b. experimentation d. hypothesis
d. Guidance-oriented 69. Give the main difference of these two
59. What refers to the process o directing objectives:
immediate personal desires, interests or  “ to teach the importance of proper
wishes for the purpose of achieving an nutrition for good health “
effective action?  “ to give the importance of proper
a. discipline c. supervision nutrition for good health”
b. teaching d. management a. The first objective is general while
60. What characteristics an effective type of the second is specific.
discipline? b. The first objective is hard to do while
a. vital, sympathetic, humane the second is easy
b. formal and strict c. The first objective needs a longer
c. inhibited time while the second doesn’t
d. imposed d. The first objective is teacher behavior
while the second pupil behavior.
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70. Which of the objectives below show 83. Which objective below is not realistic?
overt behavior? a. To respect places of worship
a. To appreciate the value of democracy. b. To sing the national anthem correctly
b. To understand the importance of a c. To give the importance of cleanliness
constitution d. To cite ways to show love one’s
c. To recite he preamble of the country
constitution 84. Which objective below is not specific?
d. To show love to one’s country a. To describe some of farming
71. The basis by which content is outlined procedures
and institutional procedures are b. To define terms comprehensively
developed is the: c. To pay tax promptly
a. lesson plan c. objectives d. To know the life cycle of a moth.
b. basic text d. instructional 85. What phrase below is a standard of
materials performance?
72. An objective MUST specify: a. Solve the problem correctly within 10
a. What the learner must do or say. minutes
b. What the teacher must do or say b. Identify and sketch the curve
c. What projects are to be accomplished c. With the use of a ruler
d. What the learner must understand d. After several examples
73. “Given ten photographs of biological 86. A visible activity shows :
cells, the pupils will be able to identify a. overt behavior
six of them as plant or animal cells.” The b. covert behavior
underlined phrase is a : c. confident behavior
a. terminal behavior d. artificial behavior
b. standard or acceptable performance 87. Which infinite below is not behavioral?
c. condition for learning a. to describe c. to compare
d. an accomplishment to be realized. b. to select d. To believe
88. Which objective below needs
improvement
74. “ To make statement” as an objective in a. To prepare a seed box
an English Lesson that is: b. To develop skill in embroidery
a. specific c. correct c. To plan a noon meal
b. vague d. none of the above d. To make an apron
75. What is the most fitting condition of
learning for this behavior: “to conclude 89. Which of the following statements is
that plants need sunlight in order to correct?
live”? a. Method is probably more important in
a. with the must of materials college than in the elementary
b. given a set of pictures b. Method is more important in the
c. after reading the book elementary than in high school or
d. realistic college
76. Which of the following is not a criterion c. Method is more important in college
of a well-formulated objective? than in high school
a. attainable c. interesting d. Method is less important than a
b. observable d. realistic lesson plan
77. Which task below is not in the 90. What encourages the child to think,
psychomotor domain? rationalize and make proper decisions?
a. imitation c. manipulation a. drill
b. evaluation d. articulation b. Appreciation lesson
78. The growth of attitudes or values is in c. Memorization
the: d. Problem- oriented strategies
a. cognitive domain 91. The following except one are the factors
b. psychomotor domain that determine the choice of a method.
c. affective domain Which is the exception?
d. behavioral domain a. nature o the learners
79. The domains of behavior do not come in b. school equipment and facilities
isolation. This statements is : c. educational background of the
a. True c. False teacher
b. Acceptable d. Partly true d. Subject matter
80. “Will a person do it freely without any 92. How well a teacher tells a story depends
type of coercion?” This is: on:
a. a cognitive question a. Techniques c. the method used
b. an affective question b. the plot d. classroom
c. a psychomotor question 93. Which of the following statements is
d. a behavioral question correct?
81. “ To develop appreciation of poetry” is a : a. Method is synonymous with
a. general aim c. nature aim technique
b. specific aim d. serious aim b. A device is a teaching method
82. Which aim below does not belong to the c. Method can be standardized
group? d. There is no single best method
a. To enumerate the uses of common 94. When a teacher reviews a lesson, she is
garden tools utilizing the law of:
b. To express opinion politely a. Readiness c. effect
c. To explain the significance of the b. exercise d. multiple
story response
d. To identify the parts of a flower.
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95. In which situation is the law of readiness 14 b 64 b
best applied? 15 a 65 b
a. The teacher gives the aims of the 16 a 66 a
lessons to be taken up 17 b 67 d
b. The teacher announces he subject
18 c 68 b
matter at the start of the period
19 b 69 d
c. The teacher waits or the children to
be ready before teaching her lesson 20 b 70 c
d. The teacher presents a song, related 21 b 71 c
to the lesson 22 b 72 a
96. Which of the glowing is not an am in the 23 c 73 c
inductive method 24 a 74 b
a. To delay judgments until truth is 25 b 75 d
given 26 a 76 d
b. To enable pupils discover important 27 b 77 b
truths for themselves. 28 b 78 c
c. To help student/pupil to carry out an
29 d 79 a
investigation by themselves
independent of the teacher 30 d 80 b
d. To make relationship of ideas clear to 31 b 81 a
pupils 32 c 82 b
97. In the inductive method, what does the 33 a 83 a
child do during the comparison and 34 d 84 d
“abstraction” step? 35 a 85 a
a. Recalls information and directs 36 b 86 a
himself to the activities to be 37 b 87 d
accomplished 38 a 88 b
b. Perceives the common element
39 a 89 b
present in the cases given
40 b 90 d
c. Applies the principles learned to
other problems or exercises 41 a 91 c
d. Draw conclusion in his own words 42 b 92 a
98. The deductive method uses the following 43 c 93 d
steps: 44 c 94 b
a. statement of the problem, 45 c 95 d
generalization, inference, verification 46 b 96 a
b. statement of the problem, inference , 47 b 97 b
generalization, verification 48 c 98 a
c. inference, statement of the problem,
49 a 99 a
generalization, verification
50 b 100 a
d. inference, statement of the problem,
verification, generalization

99. In reality, the type of study method is:

a. an inductive procedure
b. a deductive procedure
c. a traditional method
d. a question and answer method
100. The Herbartian formal steps
corresponds to the steps of:
a. the inductive method
b. teaching an appropriate lesson
c. the deductive method
d. the project method

“A thing becomes wasted when you fail to

take advantage of it

Principle and strategies

1 c 51 a
2 b 52 a
3 a 53 b
4 b 54 a
5 c 55 c
6 b 56 a
7 b 57 a
8 c 58 b
9 b 59 c
10 b 60 c
11 b 61 a
12 b 62 a
13 a 63 b
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 104

PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION
Pre-board EXAM
April 2010
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. You are very much interested in a quality
professional development program for
teachers. What characteristic should you
look for?
a. Prescribe by top educational teachers
b. Dependent on the availability of funds
c. Required for renewal of professional
license
d. Responsive to identified teacher’s
needs.
2. To ensure high standards of teachers’
personal and professional development,
which of the following measures must be
implemented?
I. A school head plans the professional
development of his/her teachers.
II. Every teacher formulates his/her own
professional development plan
III. The implementation of what is leaned
in a training must be monitored.
a. I only II and III
b. I and III d. II only
3. As a community leader, which of the
following should a teacher NOT do?
a. Support effort of the community to
improve their status in life.
b. Make herself aloof to ensure that her
decisions will not be influenced bu the
community politics.
c. Solicit donation from philanthropists in
the community.
d. Play an active part in the activities of
the community.
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515
4. In a highly pluralistic society, what type of
learning environment is the responsibility
of the teacher?
I. Safe
II. Gender-biased
III. Secure
a. I and II c. II only
b. I, II and III d. I and III
5. A teacher is said to be “trustee of the
cultural and educational heritage of the
nation and is under obligation to transmit
to learners such heritage”. Which practice
makes the teacher fulfill such obligation?
a. Use interactive teaching strategies.
b. Use the latest educational technology.
c. Observe continuing professional
education
d. As a class, study the life of Filipino
heroes.
6. Which actions show that political factors
affect schools as agents of change?
I. The strengthening of the teaching of
English in Philippines school.
II. The introduction of mandated subjects
such as Rizal in the curriculum
III. The practice of mainstreaming
IV. The turnover of day care centers for
DSWD to DepEd for supervision.
a. I and III c. II and III
b. I and II d. II and IV
7. For more efficient and effective
management of school as agents of
change, one proposal is for the DepEd to
cluster remote stand-alone schools under
one lead school head. Which factor has
the strongest influence on this proposal?
a. Psychological c. Geographical
b. Historical d. Social
8. What does the acronym EFA imply for
schools?
a. The acceptance of exclusive schools
for boys and for girls.
b. The stress on the superiority of formal
education over that of alternative
learning system.
c. Practice of inclusive education
d. The concentration on formal
education system
9. The wide acceptance of “bottom up”
management style has influenced schools
to practice which management practice?
a. Exclusion of politicians from the pool
of guest speakers during graduation
exercises.
b. Prescription of what ought to be done
from the Center Office.
c. Involvement of students, parents,
teachers, and community in school
planning
d. Allowing schools to do what they think
is best
10. Large class size in congested cities is a
common problem in our public schools.
Which measure/s have schools taken to
offset the effects of large class?
I. The deployment of more teachers
II. The implementation of 1:1 pupil
textbook ratio
III. The conduct of morning and
afternoon sessions
a. I, II and III c. III only
b. I and II d. II only
105
11. The failure of independent study with
most Filipino students may be attributed
to students’
a. unpreparedness fro schooling
b. ambivalence
c. high degree of independence
d. high degree of independence on
authority
12. The schooling incidents in school
campuses abroad have made school to
rethink the curriculum. Which is believed
to counteract such incidents and so is
being introduced in schools?
I. Inclusion of socio-emotional teaching
II. The emphasis on the concept of
competition against self and not
against others
III. Focus on academic achievement and
productivity
a. I and III c. I and II
b. II and III d. I, II and III
13. Widespread abuse of Mother Earth
prompted schools to teach sustainable
development. which one does this prove
about schools?
a. The curricula of schools are centered
on Mother Earth.
b. Schools can easily integrate sustained
development in their curriculum.
c. Sustained development cannot be
effectively taught in the classroom.
d. Environment factors influence the
school as an agent of change.
14. A father tells his daughter “You are a
woman. You are meant for the home and
so for you, going to school is not
necessary.” Is the father CORRECT?
a. It depends on the place when the
daughter and the father live.
b. Yes, women are meant to be a mother
only.
c. No. today women can take on the jobs
of men.
d. No, there is gender equality in
education.
15. Is there a legal basis for increasing the
teacher’s starting salary to P18,000 an
months?
a. No, it is a gift to teachers from
Congress
b. Yes, R.A 7836
c. No, it is simply an act of benevolence
from President GMA
d. Yes, the Phil. Constitution
16. As provided for the Educational Act of
1982, how are the institutions of learning
encourage to set higher standards of
equality over the minimum standards
required for state recognition?
a. Granting of Special Permit
b. Academic freedom
c. Continuing Professional Education
d. Voluntary accreditation
17. Despite of opposition from some school
official, DepEd has continuously enforced
the “no collection of fees” policy during
enrolment period in public schools. In this
policy in accordance with EFA goals?
a. No, it violates the mandate of equality
education
St. Louis Review Center-Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515
b. Yes, it somewhat eliminates gender
disparities
c. Yes, it supports equitable access to
basic education
d. No. it does not support parent of
adult education
18. “Specialization is knowing more and more
about less and less”. Hence, it is better to
be a generalist, claims Teacher F. Which
Philosophy does Teacher F. subscribe to?
a. Existentialism c. Essentialism
b. Perennialism d. Progressivism
19. Mencius believed that all people are born
good. This thought on the innate
goodness of people makes it easier to
our pupils.
a. teach c. like
b. Respect d. motivate
20. The specialization requires of every
professional teacher for him/her to be
competent is in line with which pillar of
learning?
a. Learning to know
b. Learning to be
c. Learning to live together
d. Learning to do
21. Which pillar of learning is aimed at the
wholistic development of man and his
complete fulfillment?
a. Learning to be
b. Learning to know
c. Learning to live together
d. Learning to do
22. Material development at the expense of
human development points to the need to
do more in school.
a. “Learning to do”
b. “Learning to know”
c. “Learning to live together”
d. “Learning to be”
23. A student complains to you about his
failing grade. When you recomputed you
found out that you committed an error in
this grade computation. Your decision is
not accept the erroneous computation
before the student and so leave the
failing grade as is for fear that you may
lose credibility. Is this morally right?
a. No, the reason for not accepting the
error before the students in flimsy.
b. No, the end does not justify the
means
c. Yes, the end justifies the means
d. Yes, as a teacher you must maintain
your credibility
24. Which violate(s) the principle of respect?
I. Teacher A tells her students that what
Teacher B taught is wrong.
II. To retaliate, Teacher B advises
students not to enroll in Teacher A’s
class.
III. Teacher C secretly gives way to a
special favor (e.g. add 2 points to
grade) requested by student A who is
vying for honors.
a. II and III c. I and II
b. I, II and III d. I and III
25. Which is/are in accordance with the
principle of pedagogical competence?
I. Communication of objectives of the
course to students
II. Awareness of alternative instruction
strategies
III. Selection of appropriate methods of
instruction
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 a. I and III c. III only
b. I, II and III d. II and III
26. With a death threat over his head,
Teacher D is directed to pass an
undeserving student. Which will a
utilitarianist do?
a. Pass the student, why suffer the
threat?
b. Don’t pass him; live by your principle
of justice. You will get reward, if not in
this life, in the next.
c. Pass the student. That will be of use to
the student, his parents and you.
d. Don’t pass him. You surely will not like
someone to give you a death threat in
other to pass.
27. Teacher A knows of the illegal activities of
a neighbor but keeps quiet in order not to
be involved in any investigation. Which
foundational principle of morality does
Teacher A fail to apply?
a. The end does not justify the means
b. The end justifies the means
c. Always do what is right
d. Between two evils, do the lesser evil
28. To earn units for promotion, a teacher
pays her fee but does not attend class at
all. Does this constitute professional
growth?
a. Not immediately but yes after
promotion
b. It depends on the school she is
enrolled in
c. No, it is simply earning MA units for
promotion
d. Yes, just enrolling in an MA program is
already professional growth
29. If a teacher asks more higher-order
questions, he has to ask more questions.
a. fact c. convergent
b. close d. concept
30. Misdemeanor has a “ripple effect”. This
implies that as a classroom manager, a
teacher
a. reinforces positive behavior
b. responds to misbehavior promptly
c. is consistent in her classroom
management practice
d. count 1 to 10 before she deals with a
misbehaving student
31. Based on Edgar Dale’s “Cone of
Experience”, which activity is farthest
from the real thing?
a. Watching demo c. Video disc
b. Attending exhibit d. Viewing
images
32. The students of Teacher Y scan an
electronic encyclopedia, view a film on
subject, or look at related topics at the
touch of a button right there in the
classroom. Which device/s des teacher
Y’s class have?
a. Teaching machines
b. CD
c. Video disc
d. Videotaped lesson
33. Which is an INAPPROPIATE way to
manage off-task behavior?
a. Redirect a child’s attention to task and
check his progress to make sure he is
continuing work
b. Make eye contact to communicate
what you wish to communicate
c. Move closer to the child to make him
feel your presence
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d. Stop your class activity to correct a
child who is no longer on task
34. To be an effective classroom manager, a
teacher must be friendly but must at the
same time be .
a. confident c. analytical
b. businesslike d. buddy-buddy
35. Which software is needed when one
wants to perform automatic calculations
on numerical data?
a. Database
b. Spreadsheet Program
c. Microsoft Word
d. Microsoft Powerpoint
36. Which of the following questions must be
considered in evaluating teacher-made
materials?
a. In the material new?
b. Does the material simulate
individualism?
c. Is the material expensive?
37. Kounin claims that “with-it-ness” is one of
the characteristics of an effective
classroom manager. What is one sign of
“with-it-ness”?
a. Giving attention to students who are
having difficulty with school work
b. Seeing only a portion of the class but
intensively
c. Knowing where instructional materials
are kept
d. Aware of what’s happening in all parts
of the classroom
38. Which of these is one of the ways by
which the internet enables people to
browse documents connected by
hypertext links?
a. URL
b. Browser
c. Welcome page
d. World Wide Web
39. Which characteristics must be primary
considered as a choice of instructional
aids?
a. Stimulate and maintain students
interests
b. Suited to the lesson objectives
c. Updated and relevant to Filipino
setting
d. New and skillfully made
40. You can exhibit referent power on the first
day of school by
a. telling them the importance of good
grades
b. giving your students a sense of
belongingness and acceptance
c. making them feel you know what you
are taking about
d. reminding your students your
authority over them again and again
41. I would like to use a model to emphasize
particular part. Which of these would be
MOST appropriate?
a. Regalia c. Stimulation
b. Audio recording d. Mock up
42. What must a teacher do to ensure orderly
transitions between activities?
a. Allow time for the students to
socialize in between activities
b. Have the materials ready at the start
of the activity
c. Assign fewer exercise to fill the
allotted time
d. Wait for students who lag behind
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43. The task of setting up routine activities
for effective classroom management is a
task that a teacher should undertake
a. as soon as the students have adjusted
to their schedules
b. on the very first day of school
c. every day at the start of the session
d. every homeroom day
44. Teacher S uses the low-profile classroom
control technique most of the time. what
does this imply?
a. She is reactive in her disciplinary
orientation
b. She manages pupils personalities
c. She reacts severely to a misbehaving
student
d. She stops misbehaving without
disrupting lesson flow
45. When teacher tries to elicit clarification
on a student response or solicits
additional information, which of these
should be use?
a. Directing c. Structuring
b. Probing d. Cross
examining
46. Which priority criterion should guide a
teacher in the choice of instructional
devices?
a. Novelty c. Attractiveness
b. Cost d.
Appropriateness
47. Which learning activity is MOST
appropriate if a teacher’s focus is
attitudinal change?
a. Fieldtrip c. Role play
b. Exhibit d. Game
48. Teacher H strives to draw participation of
every student into her classroom
discussion. Which of these student needs
is she trying to address? The need to
. 55. School curriculum reflects the world’s
a. shoe one’s oral abilities to the rest of
the class
b. feel significant and be part of a group
c. get everything and be part of a group
d. be creative
49. Instead of teacher giving this comment a
student response. “You’re on the wrong
track!”, what should be teacher do?
a. Change the question to an easier one
b. Redirect the question by calling
another student to recite
c. Probe to redirect the response into a
more productive area
d. Pause, ask the question, lecture, then
ask the question again
50. If curriculum is designed following the
traditional approach, which feature(s)
apply(ies)?
I. The aims of the curriculum are set by
professionals and experts
II. Interested groups (teachers,
students, communities) are assumed
to agree with the aims of the
curriculum
III. Consensus building in not necessary
a. III only c. I, II
b. I, II, III d. I, III
51. I want my student to develop the ability
to look at a problem from various
perspectives. Which approach will be
MOST fit?
a. Behaviorist approach
b. Computer-based Education
c. Modular approach
d. Cognitive approach
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52. One’s approach to teaching is influenced
by Howard Gardner’s MI Theory. What is
he/she challenged to do?
I. To come up with 9 different ways of
approaching lesson to cater to the 9
multiple intelligence
II. To develop all student’s skill in all nine
intelligences
III. To provide worthwhile activities that
acknowledge individual difference in
children
a. I, II and III c. II only
b. II, III d. III only
53. If my approach to my lesson is
behaviorist, what features will dominate
my lesson?
I. Copying notes III. Lecturing
II. Reasoning IV.
Demonstration
a. III, IV c. I, II, III, IV
b. I, III, IV d. II, III, IV
54. You practice inclusive education. Which of
these applies to you?
I. You accept every student as full and
valued member of the class and
school community
II. Your special attention is on learners
with specific learning or social needs
III. Your address the needs of the class as
a whole within the context of the
learners with specific learning or
social needs
a. II only c. I only
b. I and II d. I and III
economic and political integration and
industrialization. What does this point in
curriculum development?
a. The trend towards the classical
approach to curriculum development
b. The trend toward the globalization
and localization
c. The trend toward participatory
curriculum development
d. The shift in the paradigm of
curriculum development from a
process-oriented to a product-oriented
one
56. You choose cooperative learning as a
teaching approach. What thought is
impressed on your students?
a. Interaction is a must, but not
necessarily face to-face interaction
b. Student’s success depends on the
success of the group
c. Student’s individuality evaluate how
effectively their group worked.
d. The accountability for learning is on
the group not on the individual
57. What principle is violated by overusing
the chalkboard, as though it is the only
education technology available?
a. Isolated use c. Variety
b. Flexibility d. Uniformity
58. Which statement applies a CORRECTLY to
Edgar Dale’s ”Cone of Experience”
a. The farther you are from the base, the
more direct the learning experience
becomes.
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 b. The farther you are from the bottom,
the more direct the learning
experience becomes.
c. The closer you are from the base, the
more indirect the learning experience
becomes
d. The closer you are from the base, the
more direct the learning experience
becomes
59. “When more senses are stimulated,
teaching and learning become more
effective.” What is an application of this
principle?
a. Appeal to student’s sense of
imagination
b. Use multisensory aids
c. Make your students touch the
instructional material
d. Use audiovisual aids because the eyes
and the eras are the most important
senses in learning.
60. Which is a classroom application of the
theory of “operant conditioning”?
a. Help student see the connectedness
of facts, concepts, and principles
b. Create a classroom atmosphere that
elicits relaxation
c. Reinforce a good behavior to increase
the likelihood that the learner will
repeat the response
d. Make students learn by operating
manipulatives
Read the following teacher-student
situation
61. TEACHER: Why is the process called
photosynthesis?
STUDENT: I don’t know
Which questioning technique should
be the teacher use?
a. Clarification c. Prompting
b. Multiple response d. Concept
review
62. Here is the test item.
“From the data presented in the
table, from generalizations that
are supported by the data”.
Under what type of question
does this item fall?
a. Convergent c. Application
b. Evaluative d. Divergent
63. I want to teach concepts, patterns and
abstractions. Which method will be MOST
appropriate?
a. Discovery c. Direct
instruction
b. Indirect instruction d. Problem
solving
64. Teacher A teaches English as a Second
Language. She uses vocabulary cards, fill-
in-the-blanks sentences, dialogues,
dictation and writing exercises in teaching
a lesson about grocery shopping. Based
on this information, which of the following
is a valid conclusion?
a. The teacher wants to make her
teaching easier by having les talk
b. The teacher emphasizing reading and
writing skills
c. The teacher is teaching in a variety of
ways because not all students learn in
the same manner
d. The teacher is applying Bloom’s
hierarchy of cognitive learning
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65. Teacher A an experienced teacher, does
daily review of past lessons in order to
a. introduce a new lesson
b. reflect on how he presented the
previous lessons
c. provide his pupils with a sense of
continuity
d. determine who among his pupils are
studying
66. I combined several subject areas in order
to focus on a single concept for
interdisciplinary teaching. Which strategy
did I use?
a. Reading-writing activity
b. Thematic introduction
c. Unit method
d. Problem-centered learning
67. To teach the democratic process to the
pupils, Biag Elementary School decided
that the election of class officers shall be
patterned after local elections. There are
qualifications set for candidates, limited
period for campaign and rules for posting
campaign materials, etc. Which of the
following did the school use?
a. Symposium c. Pole playing
b. Simulation d. Philips 66
68. Which are effective methods in teaching
student critical reading skills?
I. Interpret editorial
II. Read and interpret three different
movie reviews
III. Read a position paper and deduce
underlying assumptions of the
position papers
a. II and III c. I and II
b. I and III d. I, II and III
69. Here is a test item
“The improvement of basic
education should be the top
priority of the Philippine
government. Defend or refute
this position”.
Under what type of question
does this test item fall?
a. Low-level c. Analysis
b. Evaluative d. Convergent
70. When I teach, I often engage in
brainstorming. Which do I avoid?
a. Break down barriers
b. Increase creativity
c. Generate many ideas
d. Selectively involves pupils
71. Teacher S teaches a lesson in which
students must recognize that ¼ is the
same 0.25. They use this relationship to
determine that 0.15 and 0.20 are slightly
less than ¼. Which of the following
concept/s is/are being taught?
a. Numeration skills
b. Place value of decimals
c. Numeration skills of decimals and
relationships between fractions and
decimals
d. Relationship between fraction and
decimals
72. What is the best way to develop math
concept?
a. Solving problems using multiple
approaches
b. Solving problems by looking for
correct answer
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 c. Learning math as applied to
situations, such as being a tool of
science
d. solving problems by applying learned
formulas
73. After the reading of a selection in the
class, which of these activities can
enhance students creativity.
I. Reader’s theater
II. Reading aloud
III. Silent reading
a. I and II c. I only
b. II only d. III only
74. Teacher C, a Reading teacher, advised he
class to “read between the lines”. What
does she want her pupils to do?
a. Make an educated guess
b. Determine what is meant by what is
stated
c. Apply the information read
d. Describe the characters in the story
75. To nurture students’ creativity, which
activity should a teacher AVOID?
a. Ask “hat if…” questions
b. Ask divergent thinking questions
c. Emphasize the need to give right
answers
d. Be open to “out-of-this-world” ideas
76. Teacher R wants to develop his student’s
creativity. Which type of questions will be
MOST appropriate?
a. Synthesis questions
b. Fact questions
c. “What if….” questions
d. Analysis questions
77. In my attempt to develop creative
thinking skills, I want to test fluency of
ideas. Which activity for my students will
be MOST appropriate?
a. Solve this math problem
b. List animals covered with hair in 1
minute
c. Solve this puzzle
d. Compare pictures 1 and 2. Where are
the differences?
78. You want your students to answer the
questions at the end of a reading lesson.
“What did I learn did?”,”What still puzzle
me?”, “What did I enjoy, hate accomplish
in the class today”?,”How did I learn from
the lesson?”.Which of the following are
you asking them to do?
a. Work on an assignment
b. Make journal entry
c. Work on a drill
d. Apply what they learned
79. After reading an essay. Teacher B wants
to help sharpen her students’ ability to
interpret. Which of these activities will be
most appropriate?
a. Drawing conclusions
b. Making inferences
c. Getting the main idea
d. Listing facts separately from opinion
Read the following then answer the question
80. A man and his son are driving in a car.
The car crashes into a tree, killing the
father and seriously injury his son. At the
hospital, the boy needs to have surgery.
Looking at the boy, the doctor says
(telling the truth),”I cannot operate on
him. He is my son. How can this be?
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ASWER: The doctor is the boy’s
mother.
The above brain twister helps
develop critical reading skills. Which
activity was used?
a. Comparing
b. Classifying
c. Inferring meaning
d. Looking for cause and effect
81. Research says that mastery experiences
increase confidence and willingness to try
similar or more challenging tasks as
reading. What does this imply for
children’s reading performance?
a. Children who have not mastered the
basic skills are more likely to be
motivated to read in order to gain
mastery over basic skills.
b. Children who have mastered basic
skills are more likely to be less
motivated to read because they get
fed up with too much reading.
c. Children who have a high sense of
self-confidence are not necessarily
those who can read
d. Children who have gained mastery
over basic skills are more motivated
to read
82. The value that students put on reading is
critical to their success. In what way/s can
teachers inculcate his value for reading?
I. Sharing the excitement of read-aloud
II. Showing their passion for reading
III. Being rewarded to demonstrate the
value of reading
a. II and III c. I, II and III
b. I and II d. II only
83. Bruner’s theory on intellectual
development moves from enactive to
iconic and symbolic stages. Applying
Bruner’s theory. How would you teach?
a. Be interactive in approach
b. Begin with the abstract
c. Begin with the concrete
d. do direct instruction
84. A person who has painful experiences at
the dentist’s office may become fearful at
the mere sight of the dentist’s office
building. Which theory can explain this?
a. Generalization
b. Operant Conditioning
c. Attribution theory
d. Classical conditioning
85. Which is/are the basic assumption/s of
behaviorists?
I. The mind of newborn child is a blank
state.
II. all behaviors are determined by
environmental events
III. The child has a certain degree of
freedom not to allow himself to be
shaped by his environment.
a. III only c. II only
b. I and II d. I and II
86. If a student is encourage to develop
himself to the fullest and must satisfy his
hierarchy of needs, the highest needs to
satisfy according to Maslow is .
a. psychological need c. belongingness
b. self-actualization d. safety needs
87. In a Social studies class. Teacher I
presents a morally ambiguous situation
and asks student what they would do. On
whose theory is Teacher I’s technique
based?
a. Bandura c. Kohberg
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 b. Piaget d. Bruner
88. Teacher F is convinced that whatever a
student performs a desired behavior,
provide reinforcement and soon the
student learns to perform the behavior on
his own. On which principle is Teacher F’s
conviction based?
a. Environmentalism c. Cognitivism
b. Behaviorism d.
Constructivism
89. Bandura’s social learning theory, states
that children often imitate those who
I. have substantial influence over their
lives
II. belong their peer group
III. belong to other races
IV. are successful and seem admired
a. IV only c. I and II
b. I and IV d. II and IV
90. According to Erikson, what years are
critical for the development of self-
confidence?
a. High school years
b. College years
c. Preschool years
d. Elementary school years
91. Which of the following does NOT describe
the development of children aged 11 to
13?
a. They exhibit increased objectivity in
thinking
b. They shift from impulsivity to adaptive
ability
c. Sex difference in IQ become more
evident
d. They show abstract thinking and
judgment
92. Teacher H begins a lesson on tumbling,
demonstrating front and back
somersaults in slow motion and physically
guiding his students through the correct
movements. As his students become
more skillful, he stands back from the
man and gives verbal feedback about
how to improve. With Vygotsky’s theory in
mind, what did Teacher H do?
a. Apprenticeship
b. Guided participation
c. Peer interaction
d. Scaffolding
93. What does Gagne’s hierarchy theory
propose for effective instruction?
a. Be concerned with the socio-
emotional climate in the classroom
b. Teach beginning with the concrete
c. Sequence instruction
d. Reward good behavior
94. William Glasser’s control theory states
that behavior in inspired by what satisfies
a person’s want at any given time. What
then must a teacher do to motivate
students to learn?
a. Make teaching-leaning interactive
b. Avoid giving assignments
c. Organize a curriculum in a spiral
manner
d. Make schoolwork relevant to students’
basic human needs.
95. Soc exhibit fear response to freely
roaming dogs but does not show fear
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when a dog is on a leash or confined to a
pen. Which conditioning process is
illustrated?
a. extinction c. acquisition
b. generalization d. discrimination
96. Based on Freud’s theory, which operate/s
when a student strikes a classmates at
the height of anger?
a. Ego c. Id and Ego interact
b. Id d. Superego
97. Bernadette enjoyed the roller coaster
when he and her family went to
Enchanted Kingdom. The mere sight of a
roller coaster gets her excited. Which
theory explains Bernadette’s behavior?
a. Operant conditioning
b. Social learning theory
c. Attribution theory
d. Pavlovian conditioning
98. According to Frued, with which should one
be concerned if he/she has to develop in
the students a correct sense of right and
wrong?
I. Super-ego II. Ego III. Id
a. I and II c. I
b. II d. III
99. When small children call animals “dog”,
what process is illustrated on Piaget’s
cognitive development theory?
a. reversion c.
accommodation
b. assimilation d. conservation
100. Researchers found that when a child is
engaged in a learning experience a
number of areas of the brain are
simultaneously activated. Which of the
following is/are implication/s of this
research finding?
I. Make use of field trips, guest speakers
II. Do multicultural units of study
III. Stick to the “left brain and right brain”
approach
a. I and III c. I and II
b. I only d. II only
101. Which appropriate teaching practice
flows from this research finding on the
brain: “The brain’s emotional center is
tied into its ability to learn”.
a. Establish the discipline of being
judgmental in attitude
b. Come up with highly competitive
games where winners will feel happy
c. Tell the students to participate in class
activities or else won’t receive plus
points in class recitation
d. Create a learning environment that
encourages students to explore their
feeling and ideas freely
102. Research on Piagetian tasks indicates
that thinking becomes more logical and
abstract as children reach the formal
operations stage. What is an educational
implication of this finding?
a. Engage children in analogical
reasoning as early as preschool to
train them for higher order thinking
skills (HOTS)
b. Learners who are not capable of
logical reasoning from ages 8 to 11
lag behind in their cognitive
development
c. Let children be children
111
 d. Expect hypothetical reasoning for III. the language used in the question is
learners between 12 to 15 years of not precise
age IV. The blank is near the beginning of a
103. Research says: “People tend to sentence
attribute their successes to internal A. I and III
causes and their failures to external B. II and IV
causes.”Based on this finding, what C. I and IV
should be taught to students for them to D. I and II
be genuinely motivated to succeed? 111.
a. Tell them the research finding when What follows is a multiple choice type of
applied will make them genuinely test.
motivated Some test items .
b. Convince them that genuine a. are too difficult
motivation is the only factor that b. are objective
matters for a person to succeed
c. Make them realize that failure is a part c. are poorly constructed
of life d. have multiple defensible answers
d. Make them realize that both success
and failure are more a function of What makes the multiple choice type
internal causes. of test poor?
104. Which characterize/s a learning a. The options are not grammatically
environment that promotes fairness connected to the stem
among learners of various cultures, family b. The stem fails to present a problem
background and gender? c. There are grammatical clues
I. Inclusive d. The options are not parallel
II. Exclusive 112. If a teacher wants to measure her
III. Gender-sensitive students’ ability to discriminate, which of
a. I only c. I and III these is an appropriate type of test item
b. III only d. II and III as implied by the direction?
105. Which of the following steps should be a. “Outline the Chapter on The Cell”.
completed first in planning an b. “Summarize the lesson yesterday”.
achievement test? c. “Group the following items according
a. Define the instructional objective to shape”.
b. Set up a table of specialization d. “State a set of principle that can
c. Select the types of test items to use explain the following events”.
d. Decide on the length of the test 113. A test item has a difficult index of
106. The computed r fro scores in Math and 0.89 and a discrimination index of 0.44.
Science in 0.92. What does this mean? What should the teacher do?
a. Math score is positive related to a. Reject the item
Science score b. Retain the item
b. The higher the Math score, the lower c. Make it a bonus item
the Science score d. Make it a bonus item and reject it
c. Math score is not in any way related 114. Which form of assessment is
to Science score consistent with the saying “The proof of
d. Science score is slightly related to the pudding is in the eating”.
math score a. Contrived c. Traditional
107. Which types of test is most b. Authentic d. Indirect
appropriate if Teacher Y wants to measure 115.
student’s ability to organize thoughts and Who is best admired for outstanding
ideas? contribution to world peace?
a. Short answer type of test a. Kissinger c. Kennedy
b. Extended response essay b. Clinton d. Mother Teresa
c. Modified alternative response
d. Limited response essay What is WRONG with this item?
a. Item is overly specific
b. Content is trivial
108. With assessment of affective learning c. Test item is option-based
in mind, which does NOT belong to the d. There is a cue to the right answer
group? 116. Student’s score were as follows: 82,
a. Cloze test c. Reflective 83, 84, 86, 88, 84, 83, 85. The score 86 is
writing the.
b. Moral dilemma d. Diary entry a. mode c. median
109. I want to test student’s synthesizing b. average d. mean
skills. Which has the highest diagnostic 117. Which text form would you choose if
value? you want to have a valid and reliable test
a. multiple choice test c. Essay test based on the table below?
b. Performance test d. Completion Test Form Validity Index
test A .47
110. B .87
is an example of a leafy
C .20
vegetable.
D .40
Why is this test item poor? E .63
I. The test item does not pose a problem
to the examinee a. A only c. A and D
II. There are variety of possible correct b. B only d. B and E
answer to this item
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118. A mathematicians test was given to
all Grade V pupils to determine the
contestants for the Math Quiz Bee. Which
statistical measure should be used to
identify the top 15?
a. Mean percentage score
b. Quartile Deviation
c. Percentile Rank
d. Percentage Score
119. Nellie’s score is within x±1 SD. To
which of the following groups does she
belong?
a. Below average
b. Average
c. Needs Improvement
d. Above average
120. Use the inbox below to answer the
question that follows:
Percentage Grades for Final
Examination
40 70 80 90
100
Which of the following statement is
TRUE about the plot of grades above?
a. The median is a score of 80 and the
range is 60.
b. The median is a score of 70 and the
range is 60.
c. The median is a score of 80 and the
range is 20.
d. The median is a score of 70 and the
range is 20.
121. Which can be said of Arielle who
obtained a score of 75 out of 100 items in
a Grammar objective test?
a. She performed better than 25% of her
classmates
b. She answered 75 items in the test
correctly
c. Her rating is 75
d. She answered 75% of the test items
correctly
122. The criterion of success in Teacher D’s
objective is that “the pupils must be able
to spell 90% of the words correctly”. Ana
and 24 others in the class spelled only 40
out of 50 words correctly while the rest
scored 45 and above. This means that
Teacher D
a. attained her lesson objective
b. did not attain her lesson objective
because of the pupils’ lack of
attention
c. failed to attain her lesson objective as
far as the 25 pupils are concerned
d. attained her lesson objective because
of her effective spelling drill
123. If the scores of your test follow a
negatively skewed score distribution,
what should you do?
Find out ? conducive for learning
a. why your items were easy
b. why most of the scores are high
c. why most of the scores are low
d. why some pupils scored high
124. Principal A is talking about “grading
on the curve” in a faculty meeting. What
does this expression refer to?
a. A student mark compares his
achievement to his effort.
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b. A student’s grade or mark depends on
how his achievement compares with
the achievement of other students in
a class.
c. A student’s grade determines whether
or not a student attains a defined
standard of achievement
d. A student mark tells how closely he is
achieving to his potential.
125. Which tests determine whether
students accept responsibility for their
own behavior or pass on responsibility for
their own behavior to other people?
a. Thematic tests
b. Sentence-completion tests
c. Stylistic test
d. Locus-of-control tests
126. Which of the one weakness of self-
supporting personality checklists?
a. Many personality measures have
built-in lie scales
b. They lack stability
c. They may not get true information
because individuals can hide or
disguise feelings
d. They have poor internal consistency
127. Which of these can measure
awareness of values?
a. Sociogram
b. Moral dilemmas
c. Projective techniques
d. Rating scales
128. Marking on a normative basis means
that
a. the normal distribution curve should
be followed
b. some should fall
c. some get high marks
d. the grading is based on a present
criteria
129. Which process enhances the
comparability of grades?
a. Using a table specifications
b. Determining the level of difficulty of
the tests
c. Giving more HOTS (higher order
thinking skills)
d. Constructing departmentalized
examinations for each subject area.
SITUATIONAL
Situation 1- In a faculty meeting, the
principle told his teacher: “We need to
improve our school performance in the
National Achievement Test. What should we
do?
The teacher gave varied answers as
follows:
1. Let’s give incentives and rewards to
students who get a rating of 85%
2. Let’s teach them to accept
complete responsibility for their
performance
3. Let’s make the school environment
130. Which response/s come/s from a
behaviorist?
a. #2 and #4 c. #3 and #4
b. #1 and #2 d. #1 and #3
131. On which educational philosophy is
response #1 anchored?
a. Existentialism c. Progressivism
b. Essentialism d. Bahaviorism
113
132. If you learned toward a progressivist II. Students are construct and
philosophy, with which response would reconstruct meaning based on
you agree? experiences
a. #2 b. #3 c. #4 d. #1 III. Students derive meaning from the
meaning that the teacher gives
a. II only c. I, II, and III
Situation 2- One principle in the utilization of b. I and II d. I only
technology of the classroom is appropriateness 140. Which materials will her teachers
of material or activity. LEAST prefers?
a. Controversial issues
133. Teacher C wants his students to b. Open-ended topics
master the concept of social justice. c. Unquestionable laws
Which series of activities will be most d. Problem or cases
effective? 141. Which concept/s of the learner will
a. Pretest-teaching-posttest Principal E NOT accept?
b. Pretest-teaching-posttest-re-teaching I. “Empty vesse!”
for unlearned concepts-posttest II. “Tabula rasa”
c. Review-pretest-teaching-posttest III. Candle to be lighted
d. Teaching-posttest a. III only c. II only
134. Teacher A likes to show how the b. I only d. I and II
launching of spaceships takes place.
Which of the following materials available Situation 5- Study the matching type of test then
is most fit? answer the 3 questions that follow:
a. Model c. Replica Column A Column B
b. Mock-up d. Realia 1. equilateral triangle A. With 3 equal sides
135. Teacher B likes to concretize the 2. right triangle B. With 5 equal sides
abstract concepts of an atom. She came
3. octagon C. Has 90- degree
up with a concrete presentation of the
atom by using wire and plastic balls. How angle
would you classify Teacher B’s visual 4. pentagon D. Means many
aids? 5. heptagon E. with 7 sides
a. Chart c. Model 6. poly F. with 8 sides
b. Replica d. Realia
142. How can you make the items
Situation 3- After reading and paraphrasing homogeneous?
Robert frost’s “Stopping by the Wood on a a. Increase the number of items in
snowy Evening”. Mr. Sales asked the class to Column B
share any insight derived from the poem. b. All items should be on polygons
c. Remove the word triangle in items #1
136. The class was asked to share their and #2 in column A
insights about the poem. The ability to d. The word “gon” must be included in
come up with a n insight stems from the column B
ability to 143. What is the main defect of this
a. analyze the parts of a whole matching test?
b. evaluate the worthiness of a thing a. the matching type is an imperfect
c. relate and organize things and ideas type
d. comprehend the subject that is being b. the items are NOT homogeneous
studied c. the items quite easy
137. To ask the class any insight derived d. an obvious pattern is followed in the
from the poem is based on the theory of answering
a. realism c. conditioning 144. Which should be done to improve the
b. behaviorism d. constructivism matching type of test?
138. On which assumption about the a. Capitalize the items in Column A
learner is Mr. Marquez’s act of asking the b. Items in Column A and B should be
class to share their insight based? exchanged
a. Learners are like empty receptacles c. Drop #6 item in Column A
waiting to be filled up d. The item in Column A should be
b. Learners are meant to interact with increased
one another
c. Learners have multiple intelligence Situation 6- Below the template for Scoring
and varied learning styles Rubric.
d. Learners are producers of knowledge
not only passive recipients of 5-Demonstrate complete understanding of the problem.
information
in response
Situation 4- Principal E wants her teachers 4-Demonstrate considerable understanding of the pro
to apply constructivism in teaching included
3- Demonstrate partial understanding of the problem. M
2- Demonstrate little understanding of the problem. Ma
1- Demonstrate no understanding
139. On which assumption/s is the 0-No response/task not att
principal’s action anchored?
I. Students learn by personally
constructing meaning of what is
taught.

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145. Which of these is/are essential in
constructing a scoring rubric?
I. Description of criteria to serve as 10
standard 1 C 51 D 1 D
II. Clear descriptions of performance at 10
each level 2 B 52 B 2 D
III. Levels of achievement (mastery) 10
IV. Rating scheme 3 C 53 B 3 C
a. I, II, III c. I, II, III, IV 10
b. I, II d. I only 4 D 54 D 4 C
146. Which statement is TRUE of the 10
rubric? 5 D 55 D 5 A
a. It is developmental 10
b. It is analytical 6 D 56 C 6 A
c. It is both holistic and developmental 10
d. It is holistic 7 C 57 C 7 B
147. Which is TRUE of the scoring rubric? 10
I. It describes criteria of levels of 8 C 58 D 8 A
achievement 10
II. It has a rating scheme 9 C 59 B 9 B
III. It limit itself to 4 levels of 1 11
achievement 0 A 60 C 0 D
a. I and II
1 11
b. I and III
1 D 61 A 1 B
c. II and III
1 11
d. I, II and III
2 D 62 B 2 C
Situation 7- Study the table on item 1 11
3 B 63 A 3 B
analysis for non-attractiveness and non-
1 11
plausibility of distracters based on the
4 D 64 D 4 B
results of a try-out test in Science. The
1 11
letter marked with a asterisk is the correct
5 D 65 C 5 D
answer.
1 11
6 C 66 B 6 D
Item No. 1 A B C D E 1 C 67 B 11 A
Upper 27% 10 4 1 1 0 7 7
Lower 27% 6 5 2 2 0 1 11
148. The table shows that the test item 8 C 68 D 8 C
analyzed . 1 11
a. has a positive discrimination index 9 A 69 C 9 D
b. has a negative discrimination index 2 12
c. is extremely easy 0 A 70 D 0 A
d. is extremely difficult 2 12
149. Based on the table, which is the most 1 A 71 D 1 B
effective distracter? 2 12
a. Option D 2 A 72 C 2 C
b. Option A 2 12
c. Option C 3 B 73 C 3 B
d. Option B 2 12
150. Based on the table, which group got 4 B 74 B 4 B
more correct answer? 2 12
a. Upper group 5 B 75 C 5 D
b. It cannot be determined 2 12
c. Lower group 6 C 76 C 6 C
d. Data are not sufficient to give an 2 12
answer 7 C 77 B 7 B
2 12
8 C 78 C 8 D
2 12
9 D 79 B 9 D
When you get right down to the root of 3 13
the meaning of the word "succeed," you 0 B 80 D 0 B
find that it simply means to follow 3 13
through. 1 D 81 D 1 D
3 13
2 A 82 C 2 B
3 13
3 D 83 A 3 B
3 13
4 B 84 D 4 D
3 13
5 B 85 C 5 B

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3 13 7. Is a group of interacting plants, animals
6 C 86 B 6 A and human in a particular area.
3 13 a. ecological community c. living
7 D 87 C 7 D organism
3 13 b. environment d. food
8 A 88 D 8 B chain
3 13 8. Excessive presence of carbon dioxide in
9 B 89 C 9 B the air, trapping heat near the earth’s
4 14 surface causing a rise in temperature in
0 C 90 D 0 C the environment.
4 14 a. El Nino c. Deforestation
1 D 91 C 1 A b. “Greenhouse Effect” d. Weather
4 14 disturbance
2 B 92 B 2 B 9. The Earth’s shield against sun’s harmful
4 14 radiation.
3 C 93 C 3 B a. Atmosphere c. Ozone layer
4 14 b. Air d. Forest
4 A 94 D 4 C 10. The use of product containing ______ is
discouraged because they contribute to
4 14
the depletion of_____.
5 B 95 D 5 C
a. Chlorofluorocarbon-solar radiation
4 14
b. Gas-ozone layer
6 D 96 B 6 C
c. Ozone layer air
4 14
d. Chlorofluorocarbon-ozone layer
7 C 97 A 7 A
11. What causes high and low tides?
4 14
a. Earth’s rotation on its axis
8 B 98 C 8 D
b. Moon’s gravitational pull
4 14 c. Sun’s solar energy
9 B 99 D 9 D d. Earth’s gravitational pull
5 10 15 12. How is coral a tool formed?
0 B 0 C 0 C a. Volcanic eruption
b. Corals growing around a volcanic
island
c. Underwater bedrock formations
d. Earthquake
13. What is a long shore drift?
a. Movement o sand and shingles along
the coast
b. Sand bars
c. Accumulation o sad at the river mouth
GENERAL SCIENCE
d. Island formed by volcanic eruptions
POST – TEST 14. How does an occlusion form?
Multiple Choices: a. Cold air moving up from the ground
b. Cold front pushing warm air up of the
1. These are living things that use sunlight, ground
chlorophyll, water and carbon dioxide to c. Unbalance electrical reaction in the air
produce food. d. Cold and warm air mixing in the
a. Autotrophs c. Heterotrops atmosphere
b. Consumers d. Food chain 15. What is a eat haze?
2. It is describe as the lifeline of the body. IT a. A reflection caused by pollutants in the
is the body’s “pickup” and delivery air
system.” b. A distorted image resulting from the
a. Blood c. circulatory system bending o sun’s light rays by changes
b. nervous system d. heart in air temperature
3. It carries the oxygen-rich blood to the c. A movement o warm air over a vast
head, arms, chest and down to the waist expanse of land
and the legs. d. Caused by extremely high temperature
a. heart c. aorta common in dessert areas
b. ventricles d. arteries 16. What sort of rock formation do the world’s
4. They are the transmitters of message greatest mountain ranges consist of?
from the different parts of the body to the a. Magma c. Fold eruptions
brain and vice versa. b. Chalk deposit d. Slip formation
a. spinal cord c. brain 17. What is the fore that wears down
b. neurons or nerve cells d. mountains?
arteries a. Earthquake c. Volcanic eruptions
5. Which part of the brain controls the b. Erosion d. Deforestation
following activities: breathing, blood 18. How are volcanic island formed?
pressure, heart rate, alertness. a. Collision of two oceanic plates
a. brainstem c. cerebrum b. Cooling of lava by seawater
b. hypothalamus d. spinal cord c. Volcanic eruptions
6. Refers to a sequence of organism in a d. Accumulation of corals
community that constitutes a feeding 19. When the Theory of plate Tectonics was
chain. generally accepted?
a. photosynthesis c. consumers a. 1900’s c. 1950’s
b. ecosystem d. food chain b. 1930’s d. 1980’s

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20. The weathering away of rocks by water, b. Ionization potential d. Electron
wind and ice. affinity
a. Denudation c. Volcanic rock 37. A molecule is said to be polar or dipole if?
b. Erosion d. Metamorphic a. Its positive and negative charges are
rock at different places
21. How do hormones work? b. It possesses polar bonds
a. By releasing adrenaline c. Its’ polar bond have unsymmetrical
b. By controlling cell chemistry charge distribution
c. By regulating water loss d. All of the above
d. By controlling blood pressure 38. Which of the following is NOT a physical
22. Name the male and female sex hormones property of water?
a. Sperm cell & Ovum c. Chromosomes a. freezing point at 0 degree C
b. Testosterone d. Red & white b. boiling point at 100 degrees C
blood cells c. its’ heat of fusion at 80 cal/g.
23. The unit of measurement of energy in a d. its’ density at 4 degrees at 1 lb/cu. Ft
given an mount of food 39. Which of the following statements is
a. Pound c. Olfactory system true?
b. Kilo d. calorie a. Molecular weight does not influence
24. Nitrogen compounds known as the boiling and melting point of a
building blocks of proteins substance
25. The growth of roots towards water is an b. Boiling and melting point tend to
example of? increase with molecular weight
a. Chemotropism c. Hydrotropism c. Boiling and melting point tend to
b. Geotropism d. Phototropism decrease with molecular weight
26. DNA means d. None o the above
a. Data nurturing analysis c. 40. A Mole is the amount of substance or a
Deoxyribonucleic acid mass of a substance that contains?
b. Deoxytribonucleic acid d. a. 6.02 x 1023 particles c. 6.02 x 1023
Deotrixyl nucleic acid particles
27. What are the three products of oxygen b. 60.2 x 1023 particles d. 60.2x 1023
when it has been burned? particles
a. Water, carbon dioxide and air 41. It is the measure of the amount of matter
b. Energy, water and carbon dioxide in an object
c. Energy, carbon and oxide a. Weight c. Volume
d. Energy, air and water b. Mass d. Quantity
28. In flowering plants, fertilization happens 42. It is the distance traveled by the body per
in the? unit time and tell how fast or slow the
a. Pollen tube c. Ovules body moves
b. Stamen d. Pollen grain a. Velocity c. Acceleration
29. The development of egg without b. Speed d. None of the above
fertilization 43. The rate of change of the distance
a. Mitosis c. Spermatogenesis traveled per unit time in a stated
b. Parthenogenesis d. Mitochondria direction
30. Which of the following is a source of a. Velocity c. Acceleration
energy needed for photosynthesis? b. Speed d. None of the above
a. Water c. Light 44. This law states that the force acting upon
b. Soil d. Fertilizer an object is equal to the product o the
31. Chemistry is primarily concerned with the mass and acceleration of the object
composition and changes of? a. Newton’s 2nd law of motion
a. Nature c. Man b. Newton’s 3rd law of motion
b. Matter d. Earth c. Newton’s 1st law of motion
32. A scientific theory is d. None of the amount
a. A hypothesis not yet subjected to
experimental test
b. An idea that correctly predict the result
c. An imagination 45. When a force is applied to a body, several
d. A guess effects are possible. Which one of the
33. Which of the following units of measure is following effect CAN”T occur?
equivalent to cubic centimeter? a. the body rotates
a. Milligram c. Millimeter b. the body changes direction
b. Milliliter d. c. the body increase its mass
Centiliter d. the body changes shape
34. Which of the following is NOT a 46. It is the reluctance of the object to
compound? change either its’ state of rest or uniform
a. acetic acid c. magnesium motion in a straight line
b. alcohol d. Zinc Oxide a. Force c. Inertia
35. The easier the atom to receive electrons b. Friction d. Motion
is measured by its? 47. This law states that energy cannot be
a. Elecrtonegativity c. Number of created nor destroyed but only changes
shells from one form to another
b. Atomic radius d. Valence a. Energy law
electrons b. Kinetic Theory of Matter
36. The willingness o an atom to receive c. Law of Conservation Energy
electron is measured by its? d. None of the above
a. Electronegativity c. Atomic
size
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48. This law states that matter is made up of a. stratosphere c. Ozone layer
a large number of molecules which are in b. Troposphere d. Ionosphere
continuous motion 63. The point in the earth’s orbit nearest to
a. Boyles’s Law c. Law of Conservation the sun
Energy a. Solstice c. Aphelion
b. Kinetic Theory d. None of the above b. Eclipse d. Perihelion
49. The lowest possible temperature that a 64. A property of minerals which gives off
substance can reach rays of light when exposed to ultraviolet
a. Freezing point c. Steam point light.
b. Absolute Zero d. Threshold a. Luminescence c. Radiation
50. It is the amount of heat required to raise b. Phosphorescence d. Fluorescence
the temperature of kg. of a substance by 65. Which process involves chemical
degree C weathering?
a. Calorie c. Specific heat capacity a. Carbonation c. Hydration
b. Watt d. Joule b. Oxidation d. All of the
51. The relationship of give-and-take of living above
organism in the biosphere is a balance of 66. How long does it take for the earth to
nature called________. complete one rotation
a. universal relationship a. 365 days c. 24 hours
b. symbiotic relationship b. 30 days d. 12 hours
c. spontaneous relationship 67. What is the principal function of gravity in
d. abiogenetic relationship the universe?
52. Process of removing excess odor in water. a. Provision for energy
a. sedimentation c. distillation b. Keeps the stars and other heavenly
b. chlorination d. aeration bodies in orbit
53. Which of the following statement is c. Causes movement in space
CORRECT? d. Part of universal design
a. As altitude increases, atmospheric 68. What does the word “monsoon” mean?
pressures corresponding a. Moon will soon come c.
b. Throughout the available space, gas Seasons
tends to contract b. Rains d. Wet
c. Equal chances are always given to all weather
in life 69. Its’ discovery enable geologist to date
d. Shadow is formed when a colored rocks accurately
object is projected against the wall a. layering c.
54. The earth rotates on its axis from west to Radioactivity
east. This causes the sun to _______? b. Evolutionary staging d.
a. appear with a fiery orange color Carbon-dating
b. cause the appearance of solar eclipse 70. It occurs when the earth is between the
c. rise room the east and sets in the west sun and the moon, with the earth’s
d. emit solar radiation shadow cast over the moon.
55. One of these planets has the greatest a. Total eclipse c. Eclipse
gravitational pull. Which one is it? b. Lunar eclipse d. Partial Eclipse
a. Mars b. Earth c. Mercury d. 71. Male and female reproductive part of a
Jupiter flower
56. It is the law which explains why one can a. Pollen grains and ovules c. Pollen
pull a piece without topping a glass in a grains and pistil
quick motion. b. Stamen and pistil d. Stamen and
a. energy in motion c. law of inertia ovules
b. gravity d. force 72. In the human body, the cell that most
57. Which of the following is NOT a source of nearly resembles a one-celled animals
energy? a. Red Blood cell c. Nerve cell
a. water c. geothermal heat b. White Blood cell d.
b. nuclear d. inertia at rest Antibodies
58. Which instrument will one use to convert 73. The main energy source of a plant-eating
mechanical energy to electrical energy? animals
a. rotor b. generator c. motor d. a. Glucose b. Starch c. Cellulose
circuit d. Glycogen
74. These are cellular secretions which help
regulate the breakdown and buildup of
various substance in the body
a. Enzymes c. Plasma
59. Sun’s energy is generated by? b. Amino Acids d. Hormones
a. nuclear fission 75. It is the energy source of the cell which it
b. sun enacting with gravity uses for growing, reproducing and other
c. nuclear fusion reaction activities
d. reaction with magnetic field a. Adenosine Triphosphate c.
60. Application of energy is called _______? Chloroplast
a. work c. kinetics b. Amino Acids d.
b. inertia d. simulation Sunlight
61. The falling of any form of water from the 76. It is a segment of DNA molecule which
air to the earth’s surface controls the appearance of a given trait
a. Condensation c. Water vapor a. Chromosomes c.
b. Precipitation d. Rainwater Gametes
62. The part of the atmosphere that filters b. Genes d.
the ultraviolet rays of the sun Zygotes
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77. Group of similar cells performing similar 91. It is the union of two light nucleus to form
functions together a heavier nucleus, resulting in a mass
a. Organs b. System c. Nucleus d. defect and release of energy
Tissue a. Radiation c. Nuclear Fusion
78. The diffusion of water through a semi b. Nuclear Fission d.
permeable membrane Radioactivity
a. osmosis c. 92. Which of the following statements is a
Transfusion characteristic of an electronic spectrum?
b. permeability d. a. They all travel at the same speed in
Capillary fire space
79. It shows the complex food relationship of b. The exhibit diffraction and interference
organism in a given area and the cyclic phenomena
flow of food through organisms c. They follow the laws of refraction and
a. Food chain c. Food pyramid reflection
b. Food web d. Biological d. All of the above
cycle 93. The term “RADAR” is derived from the
80. Which of the following does NOT occur to phrase?
both respiration and fermentation? a. “Radiation Detection and Ranging “
a. energy is released b. “Radiation Diffusion and Ranging”
b. sugar is broken down c. “Radio Diffraction and Resolution”
c. carbon dioxide is produced d. “Radiation Diffraction and Resolution”
d. alcohol is formed 94. A material whose ability to conduct
81. Energy removal is best illustrated in electricity lies between those of
a. boiling of liquid substances conductors and insulators
b. changing water to ice a. Integrated Circuits c.
c. changing water to stem Semiconductors
d. none of the above b. Silicon Chips d. Insulators
82. Refers to the maximum amount of solute 95. “LASER” is derived from the phrase?
expressed in grams that can be dissolved a. Light Amplification by Stimulated
in 100 grams of water at a specific Emission of Radiation
temperature b. Light Application by Simulated
a. Solubility c. Molarity Emission of Radiation
b. Stability d. c. Light Amplification by Simulated
Molality Ejection of Radiation
83. Compounds with the same molecular d. None of the above
formula but with different structural 96. What is the color of a transparent
formulas substance?
a. Cellulose c. Polymers a. The color of the light it absorbs
b. Isomers d. Monomers b. The color of light it reflects
84. The most penetrating type of radiation c. The color of light it transmit
given of by radioactive elements d. The color of light it refracts
a. Alpha particle c. Gamma particle 97. What is a rotating electromagnetic called?
b. Beta particle d. None of the above a. Motor b. Rotor c. Phasor d.
85. The basic unit for expressing the masses Sensor
o individual atoms 98. What happens with the centripetal force
a. Atomic number c. when sped is doubled?
Nucleus a. remains the same c. triples
b. Atomic mass unit d. Atomic b. force is increase 4x d. force is
weight doubled
86. A substance that speeds up a chemical 99. What is an electrochemical cell in which
reaction without itself undergoing a the reacting materials can be renewed by
chemical change the use o reverse current
a. catalyst c. a. Storage cell c. Fuel cell
Electrolytes b. Primary cells d. Chemical cell
b. Enhancer d. Ionizer 100. What will make an object move in a
87. The temperature at which the vapor circular path?
pressure of the liquid is equal to the a. Central force c. Frictional force
pressure of the surroundings atmosphere b. Gravitational d.
a. Melting point c. Boiling Point Electromagnetic force
b. Critical point d. None of the above
88. the warming of the earth’s surface due to ***** THE END *****
an increase in atmospheric carbon
dioxide WORK HARD, DREAM HARDER
a. “Greenhouse effect” c. Atmospheric
pressure
b. Ozone d. El Nino
phenomena
89. Describe the force of gravity on an object
a. mass c. capacity
b. weight d. pressure
90. When gaseous molecules are
compressed, they tend to?
a. increase in volume c. repel each other
b. decrease in volume d.attract and
liquefy

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science and health
1 a 51 b
2 c 52 d
3 d 53 a
4 b 54 c
5 a 55 d
6 d 56 c
7 a 57 d
8 b 58 b
9 c 59 c
10 d 60 a
11 b 61 b
12 b 62 c
13 a 63 d
14 b 64 b
15 b 65 d
16 c 66 c
17 b 67 b
18 a 68 c
19 c 69 c
20 b 70 b
21 b 71 b
22 b 72 b
23 d 73 c
24 d 74 d
25 c 75 a
26 c 76 b
27 b 77 d
28 c 78 a
29 b 79 b
30 c 80 d
31 b 81 b
32 a 82 a
33 b 83 b
34 c 84 c
35 d 85 b
36 d 86 a
37 b 87 c
38 b 88 a
39 b 89 b
40 c 90 a
41 b 91 c
42 b 92 d
43 c 93 a
44 a 94 c
45 c 95 a
46 d 96 c
47 b 97 b
48 b 98 d
49 b 99 a
50 c 100 a

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