Chemistry and Biology Multiple Choice Questions

1
A reaction with a delta G of zero:
Choose one answer.
a. Requires energy
b. Is at equilibrium
c. Is spontaneous
d. None of the above
Question2
A solution with a pH of 5 is:
Choose one answer.
a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Neutral
Question3
Alcohols contain a _________ group.
Choose one answer.
a. Hydroxyl
b. Sulfur
c. Phenol
Question4
Biologically important noncovalent bonds include:
Choose one answer.
a. Van der Waals interactions
b. Hydrogen bonds
c. Electrostatic interactions
d. All of the above
Question5
Entropy is ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. The degree of disorder of a system
b. The degree of energy of a system
c. A type of noncovalent bond
d. A type of covalent bond
Question6
The DNA of a eukaryotic cell is stored within the _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Lysosome
b. Nucleus
c. Ribosome
d. Endoplasmic Reticulum
Question7
The term "kinetics" refers to:
Choose one answer.

a. The energy required for a reaction
b. The disorder of a system
c. The speed at which a reaction will occur
d. The pH of a solution
Question8
______ is the process by which the information in DNA is transferred to RNA.
Choose one answer.
a. Translation
b. Replication
c. Transcription
d. Ubiquitination
Question9
The strongest bonds that are present in biochemical compounds are ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. Ionic bonds
b. Covalent bonds
c. Hydrogen bonds
d. Van der Waals interactions
Question10
A chiral compound _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Is non-superimposable on its mirror image

b. Is the same as its mirror image
c. Is inorganic
d. Contains a sulfur atom
Question11
A zwitterion ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Has a positive charge
b. Has a negative charge
c. Overall, has no charge
d. All of the above
Question12
All amino acids contain both a(n) ______ and a(n) ________ group.
Choose one answer.
a. Hydrogen, carbohydrate
b. Amine, carboxylic acid
c. Sulfur, amine
Question13
Essential amino acids:
Choose one answer.
a. Are made by organisms
b. Must be obtained from dietary sources

c. Are made from DNA
d. Include proline
Question14
The first reaction of amino acid degradation is?
Choose one answer.
a. Deamination
b. Decarboxylation
c. Cyclization
Question15
The only amino acid without a chiral center is _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Proline
b. Methionine
c. Alanine
d. Glycine
Question16
There are ______ common amino acids.
Choose one answer.
a. 15
b. 25
c. 20
d. 10
Question17
______ is the initiating amino acid of most newly synthesized proteins.
Choose one answer.
a. Proline
b. Alanine
c. Glycine
d. Methionine
Question18
_____________ is an example of a hydrophilic amino acid.
Choose one answer.
a. Lysine
b. Leucine
c. Methionine
d. Tryptophan
Question19
_____________ is an example of a hydrophobic amino acid.
Choose one answer.
a. Glutamic acid
b. Lysine
c. Arginine
d. Leucine
Question20
Nonessential amino acids are:
Choose one answer.
a. Provided in the diet
b. Synthesized by mammals
c. Both A and B
Question21
A(n) _________ is a short protein tag that attaches to and targets proteins for degradation.
Choose one answer.
a. Peptide
b. Ubiquitin
c. Alanine
d. Urea
Question22
Protein secondary structures include:
Choose one answer.
a. Loops
b. alpha helices
c. beta sheets
d. All of the above
Question23
Protein synthesis is carried out by __________.
Choose one answer.
a. Mitochondria
b. Chromosomes
c. Ribosomes
d. Lysosomes
Question24
The amino acid _______ places certain constraints on the protein backbone.
Choose one answer.
a. Leucine
b. Alanine
c. Proline
d. Glycine
Question25
The difference between a peptide and a protein is ____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Length
b. Bond formation
c. Subunits
d. All of the above
Question26
The formation of a dimer refers to a protein’s ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. Primary structure
b. Tertiary structure
c. Secondary structure
Question27
The tertiary structure of a protein refers to its __________.
Choose one answer.
a. Overall 3D shape
b. Multisubunit composition
c. Amino acid sequence
Question28
The ______ carries out protein degradation.
Choose one answer.
a. Proteosome
b. Lysosome
c. Ribosome
d. Chromosome
Question29
________ aid in protein folding.
Choose one answer.
a. Chromosomes
b. Chaperones
c. Proteosome
Question30
Amino acids are linked by a(n) _______ bond to form a protein.
Choose one answer.
a. Hydrophobic
b. Peptide
c. Ionic
d. All of the above
Question31
Each of the following is one of the six classes of enzyme catalysts, except:
Choose one answer.
a. Ligases
b. Kinases
c. Transferases
d. Isomerases
Question32
Enzymes within metabolic pathways can be regulated by ____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Allosteric enzymes
b. Post translational modifications

c. Localization
d. All of the above
Question33
In competitive inhibition, the competitor binds to ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. The substrate
b. The substrate binding site
c. Distant to the substrate binding site
Question34
kcat refers to _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. The maximum rate at which an enzyme can convert substrate to product
b. The maximum amount of product produced in a reaction
c. The free energy of a reaction
Question35
Kinases are enzymes that add a(n) _____ group to proteins.
Choose one answer.
a. Hydrogen
b. Nitrogen
c. Phosphoryl
d. Alcohol
Question36
The rate of an enzymatic reaction can be regulated by __________.
Choose one answer.
a. pH
b. Temperature
c. Concentration
d. All of the above
Question37
_______ are derived from vitamins and are necessary for the function of some enzymes.
Choose one answer.
a. Helicases
b. Cofactors
c. Carbohydrates
Question38
________ is an example of a post translational modification of a protein.
Choose one answer.
a. Acetylation
b. Phosphorylation
c. Ubiquitination
d. All of the above

Question39
Enzymes act as catalysts to ___________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Decrease the activation energy of a reaction
b. Increase the rate of a reaction
c. Mediate the conversion of substrate to product
d. All of the above
Question40
An important product of glycolysis is ____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Glucose
b. ATP
c. Lectins
d. Both A and B
Question41
Carbohydrates are also known as ____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Sugars
b. Starches
c. Fats
d. A and B
Question42
Carbohydrates are commonly used as ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. A source of energy
b. An amino acid source
c. A source of nitrogen
Question43
Disaccharides are formed by ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. The condensation of two monosaccharides
b. Hydrolysis of a polysaccharide
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A or B
Question44
In animals, the process of gluconeogenesis occurs in the __________.
Choose one answer.
a. Fat
b. Liver
c. Spleen
d. Gall bladder
Question45
Lectins are ____________.
Choose one answer.

a. DNA binding proteins
b. Lipid binding proteins
c. Carbohydrate binding proteins
Question46
Protein glycosylation takes place in the ____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Nucleus
b. Cell membrane
c. Golgi apparatus
d. Lysosome
Question47
Starch is an example of a ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. Monosaccharide
b. Disaccharide
c. Polysaccharide
d. Trisaccharide
Question48
Sucrose, aka table sugar, is composed of ____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A or B
Question49
Fischer projections convey useful information about _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Electron positions
b. 3D structural positioning
c. Resonance
d. Bond lengths
Question50
ATP facilitates the occurrence of energetically unfavorable reactions via ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. Phosphoryl transfer
b. Energy coupling
c. ATP to ADP conversion
d. All of the above
Question51
Both DNA and RNA are composed of three important parts, which are:
Choose one answer.
a. Glucose, side chains, phosphate group
b. Nitrogenouse base, phosphate group, sugar

c. Nitrogenous base, peptide bond, lipid
d. Phosphate group, sugar, side chain
Question52
Cytosine makes _______ with guanine when base paired in DNA.
Choose one answer.
a. Three hydrogen bonds
b. Two hydrogen bonds
c. Three peptide bonds
d. Three covalent bonds
Question53
DNA is synthesized in a _____ direction.
Choose one answer.
a. 3' to 5'
b. 5' to 3'
c. Top to bottom
d. Left to right
Question54
Double stranded DNA takes on a __________ structure.
Choose one answer.
a. Beta sheet
b. Looped
c. Double helix
d. A-form helix
Question55
In the cell, _____ is used as energy currency.
Choose one answer.
a. UTP
b. Fat
c. ATP
d. AMP
Question56
The correct pairing of bases in DNA is __________.
Choose one answer.
a. A-G; C-T
b. A-C; G-T
c. A-T; C-G
d. A-U; C-G
Question57
The DNA chromosome of bacteria consists of ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. A circular double stranded DNA
b. A circular single stranded DNA
c. A linear double stranded DNA
d. A linear single stranded DNA

Question58
What is the base that is used by RNA but not DNA?
Choose one answer.
a. Guanine
b. Uracil
c. Thymine
d. Cytosine
Question59
What type of base is adenine?
Choose one answer.
a. Purine
b. Pyrimidine
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A and B
Question60
The sugar used in RNA is ____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Deoxyribose
b. Dideoxyribose
c. Ribose
d. Glucose
Question61
Fatty acids contain ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. A carboxyl group and hydrocarbon chain
b. A phosphate group and hydrocarbon chain
c. A sugar group and hydrocarbon chain
d. Only a hydrocarbon chain
Question62
Glycerolphospholipids create a double layer lipid membrane, such as the cell membrane, because of _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Their high energy phospho group
b. Their hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails
c. Their unsaturated tails
d. Their ability to covalently bond to each other
Question63
Lipids are the starting material of important biological molecules, including ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. Steroids
b. DNA
c. Carbohydrates
d. All of the above
Question64
Lipids play a role in which of the following?
Choose one answer.

a. Energy storage
b. Membrane structure
c. Cell signaling
d. All of the above
Question65
Phospholipids can be composed of _______________.
Choose one answer.
a. Fatty acids
b. Glycerol
c. Sphingomyelin
d. All of the above
Question66
The difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids is ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. The number of hydrocarbon chains
b. The length of the hydrocarbon chain
c. The presence of single or double bonds in the hydrocarbon chain
d. All of the above
Question67
The fluidity of the cell membrane is determined by ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. The lipid content

b. The amount of cholesterol present
c. The number of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids present
d. All of the above
Question68
Triacylglycerol is composed of ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. Glycerol and fatty acids
b. Glycerol and long chain alcohols
c. Glycerol and cholesterol
Question69
Which of the following are composed of lipids?
Choose one answer.
a. Waxes
b. Cholesterol
c. Triacylglecerols
d. All of the above
Question70
Glycolysis gives a net yield of __________.
Choose one answer.
a. 8 moles ATP per glucose
b. 1 mole ATP per glucose

c. 2 moles ATP per glucose
d. 3 moles ATP per glucose
Question71
Glycolysis takes place in the _________.
Choose one answer.
a. Cytosol
b. Mitochondria
c. Nucleus
d. Golgi
Question72
In the citrate cycle, energy from the oxidation of acetyl-CoA is converted to _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. 4 moles ATP, 6 moles FADH2
b. 3 moles, NADH, 1 mole FADH2, 1 mole GTP, 2 CO2
c. 2 moles NADH, 2 moles FADH2, 2 ATP
d. 1 mole NADH, 1 mole GTP, 4 CO2
Question73
Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the _______.
Choose one answer.
a. Nucleus
b. Cytosol
c. Mitochondria
d. Cell membrane
Question74
The complete oxidation of glucose to CO2 and H2O results in a yield of __________.
Choose one answer.
a. 38 ATP/glucose
b. 42 ATP/glucose
c. 60 ATP/glucose
d. 32 ATP/glucose
Question75
The electron transport system links oxidation of NADH and FADH2 to _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Glucose synthesis
b. Ethanol fermentation
c. ATP synthesis
d. GTP synthesis
Question76
The input and output of glycolysis is ____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Two molecules glucose, 6 molecules CO2
b. One molecule glucose, 2 molecules pyruvate
c. One molecule glucose, 4 molecules pyruvate
d. One molecule glycogen, 2 molecules pyruvate

Question77
The sugar on ATP is _______________.
Choose one answer.
a. Deoxyribose
b. Glucose
c. Cholesterol
d. Ribose
Question78
The __________ is a hub of cellular metabolism because it links the oxidation of carbohydrates, fatty acids, and proteins to ATP synthesis.
Choose one answer.
a. TCA/citrate cycle
b. Urea cycle
c. Glycolysis cycle
d. Pentose pathway
Question79
True or False: Glycolysis requires oxygen.
Choose one answer.
a. True
b. False
Question80
Under aerobic conditions, the pyruvate produced during glycolysis can go on to ________.
Choose one answer.
a. The pentose pathway

b. Oxidative phosphorylation
c. The urea cycle
d. All of the above
Question81
Rank the following, from highest to lowest, in terms of energy: AMP, ATP, ADP?
Choose one answer.
a. ATP, ADP, AMP
b. AMP, ADP, ATP
c. ADP, ATP, AMP
d. ATP, AMP, ADP
Question82
A Holliday Junction structure occurs during which process?
Choose one answer.
a. Recombination
b. Replication
c. Transcription
d. Translation
Question83
DNA is synthesized in a _______ direction.
Choose one answer.
a. Left to right
b. Top to bottom
c. 5' to 3'
d. 3' to 5'
Question84
DNA replication is carried out by a ________ enzyme.
Choose one answer.
a. Helicase
b. Polymerase
c. Kinase
d. Topoisomerase
Question85
DNA replication is semi-conservative. What does this mean?
Choose one answer.
a. Half the total DNA is copied
b. Each DNA strand serves as a template during replication
c. Only some base pairs are altered during replication
Question86
DNA serves as a template for which type of RNA?
Choose one answer.
a. mRNA
b. rRNA
c. tRNA
d. All of the above
Question87
There are three types of RNA polymerases in eukaryotic cells. RNA polymerase I transcribes ______, RNA polymerase II transcribes _______, and RNA polymerase III mainly transcribes
_________.
Choose one answer.
a. Introns, mRNA, rRNA
b. rRNA, mRNA, tRNA
c. tRNA, introns, rRNA
d. mRNA, tRNA, rRNA
Question88
Which of the following are post-transcriptional modifications of RNA?
Choose one answer.
a. Cap addition
b. Poly A tail addition
c. Intron removal
d. All of the above
Question89
_________ enzymes maintain the torsional stress of DNA.
Choose one answer.
a. Helicase
b. Topoisomerase
c. Kinase
d. Restriction
Question90
Activation of receptor tyrosine kinases results in ____________.
Choose one answer.
a. The opening of ion channels
b. The phosphorylation of the receptor
c. Membrane potential alterations
d. The exchange of GTP for GDP
Question91
Intracellular pathways are altered through extracellular molecules binding to __________.
Choose one answer.
a. Polymerases
b. Ligases
c. Receptors
d. All of the above
Question92
Molecules that play an important role in cell adhesion and structure include _________.
Choose one answer.
a. Integrins
b. Cadherins
c. Selectins
d. All of the above
Question93
Steroids act as signaling molecules by __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Binding to extracellular domains of receptor molecules
b. Binding to the plasma membrane
c. Binding to receptors internal to the cell
Question94
True or false: Ligand binding to receptors can result in wide-spread gene expression changes via signal amplification.
Choose one answer.
a. True
b. False
Question95
Stimulation of a G protein coupled receptor results in __________.
Choose one answer.
a. The flow of ions through the receptor
b. Phosphorylation of the receptor
c. The exchange of GDP for GTP
Question96
ELISAs use __________, enabling the measurement of specific proteins in a solution.
Choose one answer.
a. PCR
b. Purification
c. Antibodies
Question97
In a Southern blot, probes are used to _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Hybridize to a specific sequence of DNA
b. Hybridize to a specific sequence of RNA
c. Amplify a specific piece of DNA
d. Degrade a specific piece of RNA
Question98
PCR is a valuable tool for analyzing DNA because ___________________.
Choose one answer.
a. It allows for the exponential amplification of a small amount of starting material
b. It takes a short amount of time
c. The DNA sequence amplified need not be known
d. All of the above
Question99
During SDS-PAGE, proteins are primarily separated according to their _______________.
Choose one answer.
a. Mass
b. Shape
c. Charge
d. All of the above
1
A reaction with a delta G of zero:
Choose one answer.
a. Requires energy
b. Is at equilibrium
c. Is spontaneous
Question2
A solution with a pH of 5 is:
Choose one answer.
a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Neutral
Question3
Alcohols contain a _________ group.
Choose one answer.
a. Hydroxyl
b. Sulfur
c. Phenol

Question4
Biologically important noncovalent bonds include:
Choose one answer.
a. Van der Waals interactions
b. Hydrogen bonds
c. Electrostatic interactions
d. All of the above
Question5
Entropy is ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. The degree of disorder of a system
b. The degree of energy of a system
c. A type of noncovalent bond
d. A type of covalent bond
Question6
The DNA of a eukaryotic cell is stored within the _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Lysosome
b. Nucleus
c. Ribosome
d. Endoplasmic Reticulum
Question7
The term "kinetics" refers to:
Choose one answer.

a. The energy required for a reaction
b. The disorder of a system
c. The speed at which a reaction will occur
d. The pH of a solution
Question8
______ is the process by which the information in DNA is transferred to RNA.
Choose one answer.
a. Translation
b. Replication
c. Transcription
d. Ubiquitination
Question9
The strongest bonds that are present in biochemical compounds are ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. Ionic bonds
b. Covalent bonds
c. Hydrogen bonds
d. Van der Waals interactions
Question10
A chiral compound _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Is non-superimposable on its mirror image

b. Is the same as its mirror image
c. Is inorganic
d. Contains a sulfur atom
Question11
A zwitterion ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Has a positive charge
b. Has a negative charge
c. Overall, has no charge
d. All of the above
Question12
All amino acids contain both a(n) ______ and a(n) ________ group.
Choose one answer.
a. Hydrogen, carbohydrate
b. Amine, carboxylic acid
c. Sulfur, amine
Question13
Essential amino acids:
Choose one answer.
a. Are made by organisms
b. Must be obtained from dietary sources

c. Are made from DNA
d. Include proline
Question14
The first reaction of amino acid degradation is?
Choose one answer.
a. Deamination
b. Decarboxylation
c. Cyclization
Question15
The only amino acid without a chiral center is _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Proline
b. Methionine
c. Alanine
d. Glycine
Question16
There are ______ common amino acids.
Choose one answer.
a. 15
b. 25
c. 20
d. 10
Question17
______ is the initiating amino acid of most newly synthesized proteins.
Choose one answer.
a. Proline
b. Alanine
c. Glycine
d. Methionine
Question18
_____________ is an example of a hydrophilic amino acid.
Choose one answer.
a. Lysine
b. Leucine
c. Methionine
d. Tryptophan
Question19
_____________ is an example of a hydrophobic amino acid.
Choose one answer.
a. Glutamic acid
b. Lysine
c. Arginine
d. Leucine
Question20
Nonessential amino acids are:
Choose one answer.
a. Provided in the diet
b. Synthesized by mammals
c. Both A and B
Question21
A(n) _________ is a short protein tag that attaches to and targets proteins for degradation.
Choose one answer.
a. Peptide
b. Ubiquitin
c. Alanine
d. Urea
Question22
Protein secondary structures include:
Choose one answer.
a. Loops
b. alpha helices
c. beta sheets
d. All of the above
Question23
Protein synthesis is carried out by __________.
Choose one answer.

a. Mitochondria
b. Chromosomes
c. Ribosomes
d. Lysosomes
Question24
The amino acid _______ places certain constraints on the protein backbone.
Choose one answer.
a. Leucine
b. Alanine
c. Proline
d. Glycine
Question25
The difference between a peptide and a protein is ____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Length
b. Bond formation
c. Subunits
d. All of the above
Question26
The formation of a dimer refers to a protein's ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. Primary structure
b. Tertiary structure
c. Secondary structure
Question27
The tertiary structure of a protein refers to its __________.
Choose one answer.
a. Overall 3D shape
b. Multisubunit composition
c. Amino acid sequence
Question28
The ______ carries out protein degradation.
Choose one answer.
a. Proteosome
b. Lysosome
c. Ribosome
d. Chromosome
Question29
________ aid in protein folding.
Choose one answer.
a. Chromosomes
b. Chaperones
c. Proteosome
Question30
Amino acids are linked by a(n) _______ bond to form a protein.
Choose one answer.
a. Hydrophobic
b. Peptide
c. Ionic
d. All of the above
Question31
Each of the following is one of the six classes of enzyme catalysts, except:
Choose one answer.
a. Ligases
b. Kinases
c. Transferases
d. Isomerases
Question32
Enzymes within metabolic pathways can be regulated by ____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Allosteric enzymes
b. Post translational modifications
c. Localization
d. All of the above
Question33
In competitive inhibition, the competitor binds to ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. The substrate
b. The substrate binding site
c. Distant to the substrate binding site
Question34
kcat refers to _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. The maximum rate at which an enzyme can convert substrate to product
b. The maximum amount of product produced in a reaction
c. The free energy of a reaction
Question35
Kinases are enzymes that add a(n) _____ group to proteins.
Choose one answer.
a. Hydrogen
b. Nitrogen
c. Phosphoryl
d. Alcohol
Question36
The rate of an enzymatic reaction can be regulated by __________.
Choose one answer.
a. pH
b. Temperature
c. Concentration
d. All of the above
Question37
_______ are derived from vitamins and are necessary for the function of some enzymes.
Choose one answer.
a. Helicases
b. Cofactors
c. Carbohydrates
Question38
________ is an example of a post translational modification of a protein.
Choose one answer.
a. Acetylation
b. Phosphorylation
c. Ubiquitination
d. All of the above
Question39
Enzymes act as catalysts to ___________________.
Choose one answer.

a. Decrease the activation energy of a reaction
b. Increase the rate of a reaction
c. Mediate the conversion of substrate to product
d. All of the above
Question40
An important product of glycolysis is ____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Glucose
b. ATP
c. Lectins
d. Both A and B
Question41
Carbohydrates are also known as ____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Sugars
b. Starches
c. Fats
d. A and B
Question42
Carbohydrates are commonly used as ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. A source of energy
b. An amino acid source
c. A source of nitrogen
Question43
Disaccharides are formed by ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. The condensation of two monosaccharides
b. Hydrolysis of a polysaccharide
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A or B
Question44
In animals, the process of gluconeogenesis occurs in the __________.
Choose one answer.
a. Fat
b. Liver
c. Spleen
d. Gall bladder
Question45
Lectins are ____________.
Choose one answer.
a. DNA binding proteins
b. Lipid binding proteins

c. Carbohydrate binding proteins
Question46
Protein glycosylation takes place in the ____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Nucleus
b. Cell membrane
c. Golgi apparatus
d. Lysosome
Question47
Starch is an example of a ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. Monosaccharide
b. Disaccharide
c. Polysaccharide
d. Trisaccharide
Question48
Sucrose, aka table sugar, is composed of ____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A or B
Question49
Fischer projections convey useful information about _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Electron positions
b. 3D structural positioning
c. Resonance
d. Bond lengths
Question50
ATP facilitates the occurrence of energetically unfavorable reactions via ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. Phosphoryl transfer
b. Energy coupling
c. ATP to ADP conversion
d. All of the above
Question51
Both DNA and RNA are composed of three important parts, which are:
Choose one answer.
a. Glucose, side chains, phosphate group
b. Nitrogenouse base, phosphate group, sugar
c. Nitrogenous base, peptide bond, lipid
d. Phosphate group, sugar, side chain
Question52
Cytosine makes _______ with guanine when base paired in DNA.
Choose one answer.
a. Three hydrogen bonds
b. Two hydrogen bonds
c. Three peptide bonds
d. Three covalent bonds
Question53
DNA is synthesized in a _____ direction.
Choose one answer.
a. 3' to 5'
b. 5' to 3'
c. Top to bottom
d. Left to right
Question54
Double stranded DNA takes on a __________ structure.
Choose one answer.
a. Beta sheet
b. Looped
c. Double helix
d. A-form helix
Question55
In the cell, _____ is used as energy currency.
Choose one answer.

a. UTP
b. Fat
c. ATP
d. AMP
Question56
The correct pairing of bases in DNA is __________.
Choose one answer.
a. A-G; C-T
b. A-C; G-T
c. A-T; C-G
d. A-U; C-G
Question57
The DNA chromosome of bacteria consists of ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. A circular double stranded DNA
b. A circular single stranded DNA
c. A linear double stranded DNA
d. A linear single stranded DNA
Question58
What is the base that is used by RNA but not DNA?
Choose one answer.
a. Guanine
b. Uracil
c. Thymine
d. Cytosine
Question59
What type of base is adenine?
Choose one answer.
a. Purine
b. Pyrimidine
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A and B
Question60
The sugar used in RNA is ____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Deoxyribose
b. Dideoxyribose
c. Ribose
d. Glucose
Question61
Fatty acids contain ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. A carboxyl group and hydrocarbon chain
b. A phosphate group and hydrocarbon chain

c. A sugar group and hydrocarbon chain
d. Only a hydrocarbon chain
Question62
Glycerolphospholipids create a double layer lipid membrane, such as the cell membrane, because of _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Their high energy phospho group
b. Their hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails
c. Their unsaturated tails
d. Their ability to covalently bond to each other
Question63
Lipids are the starting material of important biological molecules, including ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. Steroids
b. DNA
c. Carbohydrates
d. All of the above
Question64
Lipids play a role in which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Energy storage
b. Membrane structure
c. Cell signaling
d. All of the above
Question65
Phospholipids can be composed of _______________.
Choose one answer.
a. Fatty acids
b. Glycerol
c. Sphingomyelin
d. All of the above
Question66
The difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids is ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. The number of hydrocarbon chains
b. The length of the hydrocarbon chain
c. The presence of single or double bonds in the hydrocarbon chain
d. All of the above
Question67
The fluidity of the cell membrane is determined by ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. The lipid content
b. The amount of cholesterol present
c. The number of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids present
d. All of the above
Question68
Triacylglycerol is composed of ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. Glycerol and fatty acids
b. Glycerol and long chain alcohols
c. Glycerol and cholesterol
Question69
Which of the following are composed of lipids?
Choose one answer.
a. Waxes
b. Cholesterol
c. Triacylglecerols
d. All of the above
Question70
Glycolysis gives a net yield of __________.
Choose one answer.
a. 8 moles ATP per glucose
b. 1 mole ATP per glucose
c. 2 moles ATP per glucose
d. 3 moles ATP per glucose
Question71
Glycolysis takes place in the _________.
Choose one answer.

a. Cytosol
b. Mitochondria
c. Nucleus
d. Golgi
Question72
In the citrate cycle, energy from the oxidation of acetyl-CoA is converted to _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. 4 moles ATP, 6 moles FADH2
b. 3 moles, NADH, 1 mole FADH2, 1 mole GTP, 2 CO2
c. 2 moles NADH, 2 moles FADH2, 2 ATP
d. 1 mole NADH, 1 mole GTP, 4 CO2
Question73
Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the _______.
Choose one answer.
a. Nucleus
b. Cytosol
c. Mitochondria
d. Cell membrane
Question74
The complete oxidation of glucose to CO2 and H2O results in a yield of __________.
Choose one answer.
a. 38 ATP/glucose
b. 42 ATP/glucose
c. 60 ATP/glucose
d. 32 ATP/glucose
Question75
The electron transport system links oxidation of NADH and FADH2 to _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Glucose synthesis
b. Ethanol fermentation
c. ATP synthesis
d. GTP synthesis
Question76
The input and output of glycolysis is ____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Two molecules glucose, 6 molecules CO2
b. One molecule glucose, 2 molecules pyruvate
c. One molecule glucose, 4 molecules pyruvate
d. One molecule glycogen, 2 molecules pyruvate
Question77
The sugar on ATP is _______________.
Choose one answer.
a. Deoxyribose
b. Glucose
c. Cholesterol
d. Ribose
Question78
The __________ is a hub of cellular metabolism because it links the oxidation of carbohydrates, fatty acids, and proteins to ATP synthesis.
Choose one answer.
a. TCA/citrate cycle
b. Urea cycle
c. Glycolysis cycle
d. Pentose pathway
Question79
True or False: Glycolysis requires oxygen.
Choose one answer.
a. True
b. False
Question80
Under aerobic conditions, the pyruvate produced during glycolysis can go on to ________.
Choose one answer.
a. The pentose pathway
b. Oxidative phosphorylation
c. The urea cycle
d. All of the above
Question81
Rank the following, from highest to lowest, in terms of energy: AMP, ATP, ADP?
Choose one answer.

a. ATP, ADP, AMP
b. AMP, ADP, ATP
c. ADP, ATP, AMP
d. ATP, AMP, ADP
Question82
A Holliday Junction structure occurs during which process?
Choose one answer.
a. Recombination
b. Replication
c. Transcription
d. Translation
Question83
DNA is synthesized in a _______ direction.
Choose one answer.
a. Left to right
b. Top to bottom
c. 5' to 3'
d. 3' to 5'
Question84
DNA replication is carried out by a ________ enzyme.
Choose one answer.
a. Helicase
b. Polymerase
c. Kinase
d. Topoisomerase
Question85
DNA replication is semi-conservative. What does this mean?
Choose one answer.
a. Half the total DNA is copied
b. Each DNA strand serves as a template during replication
c. Only some base pairs are altered during replication
Question86
DNA serves as a template for which type of RNA?
Choose one answer.
a. mRNA
b. rRNA
c. tRNA
d. All of the above
Question87
There are three types of RNA polymerases in eukaryotic cells. RNA polymerase I transcribes ______, RNA polymerase II transcribes _______, and RNA polymerase III mainly transcribes
_________.
Choose one answer.
a. Introns, mRNA, rRNA
b. rRNA, mRNA, tRNA

c. tRNA, introns, rRNA
d. mRNA, tRNA, rRNA
Question88
Which of the following are post-transcriptional modifications of RNA?
Choose one answer.
a. Cap addition
b. Poly A tail addition
c. Intron removal
d. All of the above
Question89
_________ enzymes maintain the torsional stress of DNA.
Choose one answer.
a. Helicase
b. Topoisomerase
c. Kinase
d. Restriction
Question90
Activation of receptor tyrosine kinases results in ____________.
Choose one answer.
a. The opening of ion channels
b. The phosphorylation of the receptor
c. Membrane potential alterations

d. The exchange of GTP for GDP
Question91
Intracellular pathways are altered through extracellular molecules binding to __________.
Choose one answer.
a. Polymerases
b. Ligases
c. Receptors
d. All of the above
Question92
Molecules that play an important role in cell adhesion and structure include _________.
Choose one answer.
a. Integrins
b. Cadherins
c. Selectins
d. All of the above
Question93
Steroids act as signaling molecules by __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Binding to extracellular domains of receptor molecules
b. Binding to the plasma membrane
c. Binding to receptors internal to the cell
Question94
True or false: Ligand binding to receptors can result in wide-spread gene expression changes via signal amplification.
Choose one answer.
a. True
b. False
Question95
Stimulation of a G protein coupled receptor results in __________.
Choose one answer.
a. The flow of ions through the receptor
b. Phosphorylation of the receptor
c. The exchange of GDP for GTP
Question96
ELISAs use __________, enabling the measurement of specific proteins in a solution.
Choose one answer.
a. PCR
b. Purification
c. Antibodies
Question97
In a Southern blot, probes are used to _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Hybridize to a specific sequence of DNA
b. Hybridize to a specific sequence of RNA

c. Amplify a specific piece of DNA
d. Degrade a specific piece of RNA
Question98
PCR is a valuable tool for analyzing DNA because ___________________.
Choose one answer.
a. It allows for the exponential amplification of a small amount of starting material
b. It takes a short amount of time
c. The DNA sequence amplified need not be known
d. All of the above
Question99
During SDS-PAGE, proteins are primarily separated according to their _______________.
Choose one answer.
a. Mass
b. Shape
c. Charge
d. All of the above
Organic chemistry
1
Which of the following accurately represents the hybridizations for the carbon atoms in C 2H6 (ethane), C2H4 (ethene), and C2H2 (ethyne)?
Choose one answer.

A. sp, sp3 and sp2, respectively
B. sp3, sp2, and sp, respectively
C. sp2, sp, and sp3, respectively
D. sp, sp, and sp2, respectively
Question2
Which of the following accurately represents the molecular geometry for the carbon atoms in C2H6 (ethane), C2H4 (ethene), and C2H2 (ethyne)?
Choose one answer.
A. Linear, tetrahedral, and planar, respectively
B. Tetrahedral, Linear, and planar, respectively
C. Linear, Linear, and planar, respectively
D. Tetrahedral, planar, and linear, respectively
Question3
What are the formal charges on the nitrogen and boron atoms in H3N - BH3, respectively?
Choose one answer.
A. +1, -1
B. +1, +1
C. -1, -1
D. -1, +1
Question4
What is the term used to describe the electrostatic attraction of the electrons of one molecule or atom for the nuclei of another?
Choose one answer.
A. Van der Waals attraction

B. Hydrogen bonding
C. Ionic bonding
D. Covalent bonding
Question5
Fill in the blank. The strongest type of intermolecular force occurring between neutral molecules is the __________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Covalent bond
B. Ionic bond
C. Van der Waals force
D. Hydrogen bond
Question6
When the products of a chemical reaction are more stable energetically than the reactants, energy is released as heat. This type of reaction is referred to as which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Exothermic
B. Endothermic
C. Analgesic
D. Endodermic
Question7
Fill in the blank. A high energy transition state must be reached for chemical bonds to be broken and products formed in a chemical reaction. The amount of energy needed to reach this transition
state is known as the _________________.
Choose one answer.

A. Trans energy
B. Static energic
C. Kinetic energy
D. Activation energy
Question8
Fill in the blank. In an acid-base reaction, proton donors are __________________.

Choose one answer.
A. Bronsted acids
B. Lowry Bases
C. Bronsted-Lowry Acids
D. Bronsted-Lowry Bases
Question9
In general, what is the strongest effect on the acidity of a molecule, even more important than bond strength?
Choose one answer.
A. Anion effect
B. Cation effect
C. Hydrogen effect
D. Hydroxide effect
Question10
In a chemical reaction, what is the species that supplies a pair of electrons to form a covalent bond called?
Choose one answer.
A. Lewis acid
B. Hydrogen species
C. Lewis protons
D. Lewis base
Question11
The molecular formula CnH2n-2 is the general formula for which group of hydrocarbons?
Choose one answer.
A. Alkanes
B. Alkenes
C. Cycloalkanes
D. Alkynes
See Section 2.1
Question12
The prefixes eth-, but-, hex-, and hept, represent hydrocarbon chains having how many carbon atoms?
Choose one answer.
A. 2, 4, 6, 7, respectively
B. 2, 6, 4, 7, respectively
C. 4, 2, 7, 6, respectively
D. 2, 7, 6, 4, respectively
See Section 2.1
Question13
In which reaction type does the number of σ-bonds in the substrate decrease as new π-bonds are formed?
Choose one answer.
A. Elimination
B. Substitution
C. Addition
D. Combustion
See Section 2.3
Question14
In the which of the following reaction types does the number of σ-bonds in the substrate molecule increase? In addition, in this reaction type, one or more π-bonds are usually lost.
Choose one answer.
A. Elimination
B. Addition
C. Substitution
D. Combusion
See Section 2.3
Question15
Which type of reaction is characterized by replacement of an atom or group by another; in this reaction type, the number of bonds does not change except for the added groups?
Choose one answer.
A. Elimination
B. Addition
C. Substitution
D. Free radical
See Section 2.3
Question16
What is the product of a rearrangement reaction called?
Choose one answer.
A. A free radical
B. A carbocation
C. An isotope
D. An isomer
See Section 2.3
Question17
Carbon radicals are characterized by a lone electron on the carbon atom and have a total of how many valence electrons?
Choose one answer.
A. Seven
B. Four
C. Eight
D. One
See Section 2.3
Question18
Electrophiles are attracted to which of the following molecules?

Choose one answer.
A. Both NH3 and NH4+
B. Both CH3 O- and NH3
C. Both CH3O- and K +
D. NH3, NH4+, CH3O-, and K +
See Section 2.4
Question19
Nucleophiles are electron rich species or groups. Which of the following is an example of a nucleophile?
Choose one answer.
A. NH4+
B. H3O+
C. NH3
D. CH3OH
See Section 2.4.
Question20
A base is defined by its ability to accept which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. An electron
B. A free radical
C. A neutron
D. A proton
See Section 2.4

Question21
Which of the followingis the correct line formula for3-methylpentane?
Answer:
See Section 3.1
Correct answer: CCC(C)CC
Question22
Which of the followingis the correct line formula for tert-butylcyclopentane?
Answer:
See Section 3.1

Correct answer: CC(C)(C)C1CCCC1
Question23
WWhich of the followingis the correct formula for 3-ethyl-5-methyloctane?
Answer:
See Section 3.1
Correct answer: CCCC(C)CC(CC)CC
Question24
Which of the followingis the correct formula for sec-butylcyclobutane?
Answer:
See Section 3.1
Correct answer: CCC(C)C1CCC1
Question25
The stereoisomer trans-1,3-dimethylcyclopentane is represented by which of the following structures?
Answer:
See Sections 3.3 and 3.4
Correct answer: C[C@@H]1CC[C@@H](C)C1
Question26
In which of the following cyclohexane structures is a Cl group cis to a methyl group?
Answer:
See Sections 3.3 and 3.4
Correct answer: C[C@@H]1CCCC[C@@H]1Cl
Question27
Which of the following statements is true concerning conformations of ethane?
Choose one answer.
A. The staggered conformation is the most stable.
B. The eclipsed form is the most stable.
C. The staggered and the eclipsed form have the same energy.
D. There are three stable staggered forms and two unstable eclipsed forms.
See section 3.2
Question28
What is the reactivity order of halogens from most reactive to least reactive?
Choose one answer.
A. Cl, F, Br, I
B. Cl, Br, I, F
C. F, Cl, Br, I
D. I, Br, Cl, F
See Section 3.5
Question29
Which of the following is the most stable conformationof ethane?
Choose one answer.
A. Anti
B. Gauche
C. Eclipsed
D. Fully eclipsed
See Section 3.2
Question30
The product of the reaction of CH4 + O2 + heat yields which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. 2 CO2+ 2H2O + heat
B. CO2+ 2H2O + heat
C. 2 CO2+ 3H2O + heat
D. CO2+ 3H2O + heat
See Section 3.5
Question31
What is the major product from the reaction of butane with chlorine gas in the presence of heat or light?
Answer:
See Sections 3.5
Correct answer: CCC(C)Cl
Question32
2-isopropylpentane reacts with Br2 + energy to produce several monohalogenated isomeric products. What is the least stable product produced?
Answer:
See Sections 3.5
Correct answer: CC(C)C(C)CCBr
Question33
Carbocation intermediates can react further to do which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Give a substitution product when the cation bonds to a nucleophile

B. Give an alkene product when the cation transfers a beta-proton to a base
C. Produce a substitution or an elimination after carbocation rearrangement
D. All of the above
See Section 4.2.4
Question34
Complete the sentence: Elimination from 2-iodobutane produces all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer:
See Section 4.2.4
Correct answer: CC=CC
Question35
Complete the sentence. The SN2 mechanism is favored by all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. Primary alkyl halides
B. Nonpolar aprotic solvent
C. Tertiary alkyl halides
D. Less substituted alkyl halides
See Section 4.2.3
Question36
Which of the following nucleophilic mechanisms is bimolecular and occurs via a single step with an inversion of configuration at the alpha carbon?
Choose one answer.
A. SN3
B. SN1
C. SN2
D. E2
See 4.2.3
Question37
What is the correct molecular structure for isobutylbromide?
Answer:
See Section 4.1.1
Correct answer: CC(C)(C)Br
Question38
What is the molecular structure of 1,2-dibromocyclohexane?
Answer:
See Section 4.1.1.
Correct answer: BrC1CCCCC1Br
Question39
The SN1 reaction mechanism is unimolecular, goes through a carbocation intermediate, and follows a rate law equation that is of what order?
Choose one answer.
A. First order
B. Zero order
C. Third order
D. One half order
See Section 4.2.3
Question40
Fill in the blank. Compounds that have the same sequence of covalent bonds but differ in the relative position of the atoms in space are __________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Constitutional isomers
B. Stereoisomers
C. Tautomers
D. Stable structural isomers
See Section 4.1.3.
Question41
Which of the following are stereoisomers that are non-superimposable mirror images?
Choose one answer.
A. Diastereomers
B. Meso compounds
C. Enantiomers
D. A racemic mixture
See Section 4.1.3.
Question42
What are stereoisomers that are NOT enantiomers called?
Choose one answer.
A. Meso compounds
B. Racemates
C. Diastereoisomers
D. Chiral centers
See Section 4.1.3
Question43
What are molecules that are non-superimposable mirror images called?
Choose one answer.
A. Enantiomers
B. Diastereoisomers
C. Meso compounds
D. Racemates
See Section 4.1.3
Question44
Fill in the blank. An achiral compound having chiral atoms is a(n) __________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Chiral compound
B. Achiral compound
C. Racemic mixture
D. Meso compound
See Section 4.1.3
Question45
What is a mixture containing equal parts of each enantiomer of a pair called?
Choose one answer.
A. An achiral mixture
B. A stereoisomeric mixture
C. A meso compound
D. A racemate
See Section 4.1.3
Question46
Which of the following statements about optically active compounds is false?
Choose one answer.
A. Racemates are not optically active.

B. Individual enantiomers are not optically active.
C. Achiral compounds are not optically active.
D. Meso compounds are not optically active.
See Section 4.1.3
Question47
Which of the following structures is chiral?
Answer:
See Section 4.1.3
Correct answer: C[C@@]1(Cl)CCCC(Br)C1
Question48
Which of the following carbocations is the most stable?
Answer:
See 4.2.1
Correct answer: CCC[C+](C)C
Question49
This secondary carbocation, (CH3)3 CC+CH2CH3, rearranges to which of the following tertiary carbocations that is the most stable?
Answer:
See 4.2.1
Correct answer: CCC(C)[C+](C)C
Question50
What are the products of the reaction of CH3Br + NaSH?
Choose one answer.
A. CH3SH + NaBr
B. CH3SH only
C. CH3OH + NaBr
D. NaBr only
See Section 4.2.3

Question51
Why are the functional carbons of organolithium and Grignard reagents effective as reducing agents?
Choose one answer.
A. Because they are basic and nucleophilic
B. Because they are basic and electrophilic
C. Because they are acidic and electrophilic
D. Because they are positively charged
See Section 4.2.6
Question52
The reaction of 1,2-dibromopentane with magnesium in ether yields which of the following?
Answer:
See Section 4.2.6
Correct answer: C=CCCC
Question53
What is the molecular structure for 2,2-dimethyl-1-butanol?
Answer:
See section 5.1
Correct answer: CCC(C)(C)CO
Question54
What is the molecular structure for 1-cyclopenten-1-ol?
Answer:
See Section 5.1
Correct answer: OC1=CCCC1
Question55
Why are alcohols are much stronger acids than alkanes?
Choose one answer.

A. Because both carbon and hydrogen are electrophilic in alcohols
B. Because the electronegativity of oxygen is substantially greater than that of carbon and hydrogen
C. Because the covalent bonds of the alcohol functional group are polarized
D. All of the above
See Section 5.2
Question56
What is the product of the addition of (CH3)2C=CH2 to H20 in the presence of H+ (strong acid)?
Answer:
See Section 5.3
Correct answer: CC(C)(C)O
Question57
What does the reaction of CH3(CH2)2CH2OH + TsCl with pyridine and then NaBr yield?
Answer:
See Section 5.3
Correct answer: CCCCBr
Question58
What is the product of the reaction of (CH3)3C(CH2)2 Br with PBr3?
Answer:
See Section 4.3
Correct answer: CC(C)(C)CCBr
Question59
What is the major product of the reaction of (CH3)3-CH(OH)CH2CH3 plus H3PO4?
Answer:
See Section 5.3
Correct answer: CCC(C)=C(C)C
Question60
What is the product for the reaction of (CH3)3COH with H3PO4?
Answer:
See Section 5.3
Correct answer: C=C(C)C
Question61
The products of the reaction of (CH3)2CHCH(OH)CH3 + HBr are H2O and which of the following?
Answer:
See Section 5.3
Correct answer: CCC(C)(C)Br
Question62
The products of the reaction of (CH3)3CBr + CH3CH2OH are HBr plus which of the following?
Answer:
See Section 5.3
Correct answer: CCOCC(C)(C)C
Question63
The reaction of 4-hexen-4-methyl-1-ol with PCC in CH2Cl2 yields which of the following?
Answer:
See Section 5.3
Correct answer: CC=C(C)CCC=O
Question64
What does the reaction of 3-ethyl-cyclohexanol with H2CrO4 and acetone (Jones Reagent) yield?
Answer:
See Section 5.3
Correct answer: CCC1CCCC(=O)C1
Question65
What is the structure for 3-ethyl-2-pentene?
Answer:
See Section 6.1.1
Correct answer: CC=C(CC)CC
Question66
What is the structure for trans-3-nonane?
Answer:
See Section 6.1.2
Correct answer: CCC=CCCCCC
Question67
What is the molecular structure of E-1-bromo-1-chloro-2-methyl-1-butene?
Answer:
See Section 6.1.2
Correct answer: CCC(C)=C(Cl)Br
Question68
What is the C=C double bond in alkenes made of?
Choose one answer.
A. Two pi bonds
B. One sigma and two pi bonds
C. Two sigma bonds
D. One sigma and one pi bond
See Section 6.1.2.
Question69
Complete the sentences. Two degrees of unsaturation could be equivalent to all of the following EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. One ring and one double bond.
B. Two rings and one double bond.
C. Two rings.
D. One triple bond.
Question70
What is the major alkene product synthesized through the reaction of
2-methyl-2-butanol in the presence of H2SO4 at 80 degrees?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: CC=C(C)C
Question71
What does the reaction of 1-methyl-1-cyclohexene with H2 gas in the presence of Pd/C yield?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: [H][C@@H]1CCCC[C@@]1([H])C
Question72
In disubstituted alkenes, why are cis isomers less stable than trans isomers?
Choose one answer.
A. Because alkenes have pi bonds
B. Because of hyperconjugation
C. Because of steric hindrance
D. Because cis isomers typically do not react in reactions
See Section 6.2
Question73
What is the product of the reaction of 2-methyl-propene with HBr in the presence of H2O2 ?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: CC(C)CBr
Question74
When the carbene methylene reacts with cis-2-pentene, what are the resulting products?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: CC[C@@H]1C[C@@H]1C
Question75
The reaction of 2-butene with Br2 in CCl4 yields?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: [H][C@](C)(Br)[C@]([H])(C)Br
Question76
The reaction of 3,3-dimethyl-1-butene with HCl occurs via the most stable carbocation. What is the product of this reaction?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: [H]C(C)(C)C(C)(C)Cl
Question77
What is the two-step reaction of 1-methyl-cyclobutene with BH3 and then H2O2 in NaOH and H2O yield?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: CC1CCC1O
Question78
The reaction of trans-2-hexene with MCPBA CH2Cl2 yields a pair of entantiomers with what formula?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: [H][C@]1(C)O[C@]1([H])CCC
Question79
What is one of the products of the reaction of 2,3-dimethyl-2-pentene with O3 followed by reductive workup?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: CCC(C)=O
Question80
Which of the following is NOT a step in the allylic bromination mechanism?
Choose one answer.
A. Propagation
B. Initiation
C. Bromine preparation
D. Termination
See Section 6.2
Question81
What does the reaction of 1-methyl-1-cyclopentene with Osmium tetroxide in H2S produce?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: [H][C@]1(O)CCC[C@@]1(C)O
Question82
What is the major product of the reaction of 4-methyl-1-cyclohexane with NBS?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: CC1CC=CC(Br)C1
Question83
Which of the following statements about hydroboration reactions of alkenes is false?
Choose one answer.
A. The reaction is a one-step reaction.
B. The geometry of the reaction is syn.
C. It occurs via a carbocation intermediate.
D. It takes place with a retention of configuration.
See Section 6.2
Question84
At room temperature, alkenes can exist in which of the following phases?
Choose one answer.
A. Solids and liquids
B. Liquids and gases
C. Solids and gases
D. Solids, liquids, and gases
See Section 6.2
Question85
Which of the following line drawings represents 3-methyl-1-butyne?
Answer:
See Section 7.1
Correct answer: [H]C#CC(C)C
Question86
What is the correct formula for 1-cyclopentyl-3,3-dimethyl-1-butyne?
Answer:
See Section 7.1
Correct answer: CC(C)(C)C#CC1CCCC1
Question87
Alkynes are the most acidic hydrocarbon due to which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. sp2 hybridation of the carbons
B. sp3 hybridation of the carbons
C. sp hybridation of the carbons
D. sp3 d hybridation of the carbons
See Section 7.1
Question88
The triple bond of alkynes contributes to the which of the following characteristics?
Choose one answer.
A. The nonpolar bonding strength
B. The linear geometry
C. Acidity
D. All of the above
See Section 7.1
Question89
What is the structure of the alkyne produced produced by the reaction of 2,2-dimethyl-5,6-dichloroheptane with RO-?
Answer:
See Section 7.2
Correct answer: CC#CCCC(C)(C)C
Question90
What does the reaction of 1,2-dibromopentane with 3 NaNH2 in NH3(l) followed by H2O yield?
Answer:
See Section 7.2

Correct answer: [H]C#CCCC
Question91
What does the reaction of acetylene with nBuLi in THF and HMPA followed by chloroethane yield?
Answer:
See Section 7.2
Correct answer: [H]C#CCC
Question92
What is a good starting material to produce 3,3-dimethyl-1-butyne in the lab?
Answer:
See Section 7.2
Correct answer: CC(C)(C)C(Br)CBr
Question93
What does the reaction of 2-butyne with Lindlar Catalyst yield?
Answer:
See Section 7.2
Correct answer: [H]C(C)=C([H])C
Question94
What does the reaction of 2-butyne with Lindlar Na/NH3 Catalyst yield?
Answer:
See
Correct answer: [H]C(C)=C([H])C
Question95
What does the reaction of 3,3-dimethyl-1-butyne with two equivalents of Br2 in a slow reaction yield?
Answer:
See Section 7.2.
Correct answer: CC(C)(C)C(Br)(Br)C(Br)Br
Question96
The reaction of 3-hexyne with H20, H+ and HgSO4 produces two products in equilibrium with each other. What is the more stable of the two products?
Answer:
See Section 7.2.
Correct answer: CCCC(=O)CC
Question97
What does the reaction of 4-cyclopropyl-1-pentyne with BH3 followed by H2O2 in NaOH yield as a final product?
Answer:
Correct answer: CC(CCC=O)C1CC1
Question98
Alkynes can be oxidized by reacting with KMnO4 in the presence of H2O or ozone to produce carboxylic acids. What does the oxidation of 3-hexyne in this manner yield?
Answer:
See Section 7.2.
Correct answer: CCC(=O)O
Question99
What does the reaction of acetylene with 2 NaNH2 in NH3(l) followed by the addition of 2 moles of 1-bromopropane yield?
Answer:
See Section 7.2.
Correct answer: CCCC#CCCC
Question100
What does the reaction of HC≡C-CH2CH2Br + Mg (in ether) yield?
Answer:
See Section 7.2
Correct answer: CCC#C[MgBr]
1
Which of the following accurately represents the hybridizations for the carbon atoms in C2H6 (ethane), C2H4 (ethene), and C2H2 (ethyne)?
Choose one answer.
A. sp, sp3 and sp2, respectively
B. sp3, sp2, and sp, respectively
C. sp2, sp, and sp3, respectively
D. sp, sp, and sp2, respectively
Question2
Which of the following accurately represents the molecular geometry for the carbon atoms in C2H6 (ethane), C2H4 (ethene), and C2H2 (ethyne)?
Choose one answer.
A. Linear, tetrahedral, and planar, respectively
B. Tetrahedral, Linear, and planar, respectively
C. Linear, Linear, and planar, respectively
D. Tetrahedral, planar, and linear, respectively
Question3
What are the formal charges on the nitrogen and boron atoms in H3N - BH3, respectively?
Choose one answer.
A. +1, -1
B. +1, +1
C. -1, -1
D. -1, +1
Question4
What is the term used to describe the electrostatic attraction of the electrons of one molecule or atom for the nuclei of another?
Choose one answer.
A. Van der Waals attraction
B. Hydrogen bonding
C. Ionic bonding
D. Covalent bonding
Question5
Fill in the blank. The strongest type of intermolecular force occurring between neutral molecules is the __________________.
Choose one answer.

A. Covalent bond
B. Ionic bond
C. Van der Waals force
D. Hydrogen bond
Question6
When the products of a chemical reaction are more stable energetically than the reactants, energy is released as heat. This type of reaction is referred to as which of the following?
Choose one answer.

A. Exothermic
B. Endothermic
C. Analgesic
D. Endodermic
Question7
Fill in the blank. A high energy transition state must be reached for chemical bonds to be broken and products formed in a chemical reaction. The amount of energy needed to reach this transition
state is known as the _________________.
Choose one answer.

A. Trans energy
B. Static energic
C. Kinetic energy
D. Activation energy
Question8
Fill in the blank. In an acid-base reaction, proton donors are __________________.
Choose one answer.

A. Bronsted acids
B. Lowry Bases
C. Bronsted-Lowry Acids
D. Bronsted-Lowry Bases
Question9
In general, what is the strongest effect on the acidity of a molecule, even more important than bond strength?
Choose one answer.

A. Anion effect
B. Cation effect
C. Hydrogen effect
D. Hydroxide effect
Question10
In a chemical reaction, what is the species that supplies a pair of electrons to form a covalent bond called?
Choose one answer.

A. Lewis acid
B. Hydrogen species
C. Lewis protons
D. Lewis base
Question11
The molecular formula CnH2n-2 is the general formula for which group of hydrocarbons?
Choose one answer.

A. Alkanes
B. Alkenes
C. Cycloalkanes
D. Alkynes
Question12
The prefixes eth-, but-, hex-, and hept, represent hydrocarbon chains having how many carbon atoms?
Choose one answer.

A. 2, 4, 6, 7, respectively
B. 2, 6, 4, 7, respectively
C. 4, 2, 7, 6, respectively
D. 2, 7, 6, 4, respectively
Question13
In which reaction type does the number of σ-bonds in the substrate decrease as new π-bonds are formed?
Choose one answer.

A. Elimination
B. Substitution
C. Addition
D. Combustion
Question14
In the which of the following reaction types does the number of σ-bonds in the substrate molecule increase? In addition, in this reaction type, one or more π-bonds are usually lost.
Choose one answer.

A. Elimination
B. Addition
C. Substitution
D. Combusion
Question15
Which type of reaction is characterized by replacement of an atom or group by another; in this reaction type, the number of bonds does not change except for the added groups?
Choose one answer.

A. Elimination
B. Addition
C. Substitution
D. Free radical
Question16
What is the product of a rearrangement reaction called?
Choose one answer.
A. A free radical
B. A carbocation
C. An isotope
D. An isomer
Question17
Carbon radicals are characterized by a lone electron on the carbon atom and have a total of how many valence electrons?
Choose one answer.

A. Seven
B. Four
C. Eight
D. One
Question18
Electrophiles are attracted to which of the following molecules?
Choose one answer.

A. Both NH3 and NH4+
B. Both CH3 O- and NH3
C. Both CH3O- and K +
D. NH3, NH4+, CH3O-, and K +
Question19
Nucleophiles are electron rich species or groups. Which of the following is an example of a nucleophile?
Choose one answer.

A. NH4+
B. H3O+
C. NH3
D. CH3OH
Question20
A base is defined by its ability to accept which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. An electron
B. A free radical
C. A neutron
D. A proton
Question21
Which of the followingis the correct line formula for3-methylpentane?
Answer:
Question22
Which of the followingis the correct line formula for tert-butylcyclopentane?
Answer:
Question23
WWhich of the followingis the correct formula for 3-ethyl-5-methyloctane?
Answer:
Question24
Which of the followingis the correct formula for sec-butylcyclobutane?
Answer:
Question25
The stereoisomer trans-1,3-dimethylcyclopentane is represented by which of the following structures?
Answer:
Question26
In which of the following cyclohexane structures is a Cl group cis to a methyl group?
Answer:
Question27
Which of the following statements is true concerning conformations of ethane?
Choose one answer.
A. The staggered conformation is the most stable.
B. The eclipsed form is the most stable.
C. The staggered and the eclipsed form have the same energy.
D. There are three stable staggered forms and two unstable eclipsed forms.
Question28
What is the reactivity order of halogens from most reactive to least reactive?
Choose one answer.
A. Cl, F, Br, I
B. Cl, Br, I, F
C. F, Cl, Br, I
D. I, Br, Cl, F
Question29
Which of the following is the most stable conformationof ethane?
Choose one answer.
A. Anti
B. Gauche
C. Eclipsed
D. Fully eclipsed
Question30
The product of the reaction of CH4 + O2 + heat yields which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. 2 CO2+ 2H2O + heat
B. CO2+ 2H2O + heat
C. 2 CO2+ 3H2O + heat
D. CO2+ 3H2O + heat
Question31
What is the major product from the reaction of butane with chlorine gas in the presence of heat or light?
Answer:
Question32
2-isopropylpentane reacts with Br2 + energy to produce several monohalogenated isomeric products. What is the least stable product produced?
Answer:
Question33
Carbocation intermediates can react further to do which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Give a substitution product when the cation bonds to a nucleophile
B. Give an alkene product when the cation transfers a beta-proton to a base
C. Produce a substitution or an elimination after carbocation rearrangement

D. All of the above
Question34
Complete the sentence: Elimination from 2-iodobutane produces all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer:
Question35
Complete the sentence. The SN2 mechanism is favored by all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. Primary alkyl halides
B. Nonpolar aprotic solvent
C. Tertiary alkyl halides
D. Less substituted alkyl halides
Question36
Which of the following nucleophilic mechanisms is bimolecular and occurs via a single step with an inversion of configuration at the alpha carbon?
Choose one answer.
A. SN3
B. SN1
C. SN2
D. E2
Question37
What is the correct molecular structure for isobutylbromide?
Answer:
Question38
What is the molecular structure of 1,2-dibromocyclohexane?
Answer:
Question39
The SN1 reaction mechanism is unimolecular, goes through a carbocation intermediate, and follows a rate law equation that is of what order?
Choose one answer.
A. First order
B. Zero order
C. Third order
D. One half order
Question40
Fill in the blank. Compounds that have the same sequence of covalent bonds but differ in the relative position of the atoms in space are
__________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Constitutional isomers
B. Stereoisomers
C. Tautomers
D. Stable structural isomers
Question41
Which of the following are stereoisomers that are non-superimposable mirror images?
Choose one answer.
A. Diastereomers
B. Meso compounds
C. Enantiomers
D. A racemic mixture
Question42
What are stereoisomers that are NOT enantiomers called?
Choose one answer.
A. Meso compounds
B. Racemates
C. Diastereoisomers
D. Chiral centers
Question43
What are molecules that are non-superimposable mirror images called?
Choose one answer.
A. Enantiomers
B. Diastereoisomers
C. Meso compounds
D. Racemates
Question44
Fill in the blank. An achiral compound having chiral atoms is a(n) __________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Chiral compound
B. Achiral compound
C. Racemic mixture
D. Meso compound
Question45
What is a mixture containing equal parts of each enantiomer of a pair called?
Choose one answer.
A. An achiral mixture
B. A stereoisomeric mixture
C. A meso compound
D. A racemate
Question46
Which of the following statements about optically active compounds is false?
Choose one answer.
A. Racemates are not optically active.
B. Individual enantiomers are not optically active.
C. Achiral compounds are not optically active.
D. Meso compounds are not optically active.
Question47
Which of the following structures is chiral?
Answer:
Question48
Which of the following carbocations is the most stable?
Answer:
Question49
This secondary carbocation, (CH3)3 CC+CH2CH3, rearranges to which of the following tertiary carbocations that is the most stable?
Answer:
Question50
What are the products of the reaction of CH3Br + NaSH?
Choose one answer.
A. CH3SH + NaBr
B. CH3SH only
C. CH3OH + NaBr
D. NaBr only
Question51
Why are the functional carbons of organolithium and Grignard reagents effective as reducing agents?
Choose one answer.
A. Because they are basic and nucleophilic
B. Because they are basic and electrophilic
C. Because they are acidic and electrophilic
D. Because they are positively charged
Question52
The reaction of 1,2-dibromopentane with magnesium in ether yields which of the following?
Answer:
Question53
What is the molecular structure for 2,2-dimethyl-1-butanol?
Answer:
Question54
What is the molecular structure for 1-cyclopenten-1-ol?
Answer:
Question55
Why are alcohols are much stronger acids than alkanes?
Choose one answer.

A. Because both carbon and hydrogen are electrophilic in alcohols
B. Because the electronegativity of oxygen is substantially greater than that of carbon and hydrogen
C. Because the covalent bonds of the alcohol functional group are polarized
D. All of the above
Question56
What is the product of the addition of (CH3)2C=CH2 to H20 in the presence of H+ (strong acid)?
Answer:
Question57
What does the reaction of CH3(CH2)2CH2OH + TsCl with pyridine and then NaBr yield?
Answer:
Question58
What is the product of the reaction of (CH3)3C(CH2)2 Br with PBr3?
Answer:
Question59
What is the major product of the reaction of (CH3)3-CH(OH)CH2CH3 plus H3PO4?
Answer:
Question60
What is the product for the reaction of (CH3)3COH with H3PO4?
Answer:
Question61
The products of the reaction of (CH3)2CHCH(OH)CH3 + HBr are H2O and which of the following?
Answer:
Question62
The products of the reaction of (CH3)3CBr + CH3CH2OH are HBr plus which of the following?
Answer:
Question63
The reaction of 4-hexen-4-methyl-1-ol with PCC in CH2Cl2 yields which of the following?
Answer:
Question64
What does the reaction of 3-ethyl-cyclohexanol with H2CrO4 and acetone (Jones Reagent) yield?
Answer:
Question65
What is the structure for 3-ethyl-2-pentene?
Answer:
Question66
What is the structure for trans-3-nonane?
Answer:
Question67
What is the molecular structure of E-1-bromo-1-chloro-2-methyl-1-butene?
Answer:
Question68
What is the C=C double bond in alkenes made of?
Choose one answer.
A. Two pi bonds
B. One sigma and two pi bonds
C. Two sigma bonds
D. One sigma and one pi bond
Question69
Complete the sentences. Two degrees of unsaturation could be equivalent to all of the following EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. One ring and one double bond.
B. Two rings and one double bond.
C. Two rings.
D. One triple bond.
Question70
What is the major alkene product synthesized through the reaction of
2-methyl-2-butanol in the presence of H2SO4 at 80 degrees?
Answer:
Question71
What does the reaction of 1-methyl-1-cyclohexene with H2 gas in the presence of Pd/C yield?
Answer:
Question72
In disubstituted alkenes, why are cis isomers less stable than trans isomers?
Choose one answer.
A. Because alkenes have pi bonds
B. Because of hyperconjugation
C. Because of steric hindrance
D. Because cis isomers typically do not react in reactions
Question73
What is the product of the reaction of 2-methyl-propene with HBr in the presence of H2O2 ?
Answer:
Question74
When the carbene methylene reacts with cis-2-pentene, what are the resulting products?
Answer:
Question75
The reaction of 2-butene with Br2 in CCl4 yields?
Answer:
Question76
The reaction of 3,3-dimethyl-1-butene with HCl occurs via the most stable carbocation. What is the product of this reaction?
Answer:
Question77
What is the two-step reaction of 1-methyl-cyclobutene with BH3 and then H2O2 in NaOH and H2O yield?
Answer:
Question78
The reaction of trans-2-hexene with MCPBA CH2Cl2 yields a pair of entantiomers with what formula?
Answer:
Question79
What is one of the products of the reaction of 2,3-dimethyl-2-pentene with O3 followed by reductive workup?
Answer:
Question80
Which of the following is NOT a step in the allylic bromination mechanism?
Choose one answer.
A. Propagation
B. Initiation
C. Bromine preparation
D. Termination
Question81
What does the reaction of 1-methyl-1-cyclopentene with Osmium tetroxide in H2S produce?
Answer:
Question82
What is the major product of the reaction of 4-methyl-1-cyclohexane with NBS?
Answer:
Question83
Which of the following statements about hydroboration reactions of alkenes is false?
Choose one answer.
A. The reaction is a one-step reaction.
B. The geometry of the reaction is syn.
C. It occurs via a carbocation intermediate.

D. It takes place with a retention of configuration.
Question84
At room temperature, alkenes can exist in which of the following phases?
Choose one answer.
A. Solids and liquids
B. Liquids and gases
C. Solids and gases
D. Solids, liquids, and gases
Question85
Which of the following line drawings represents 3-methyl-1-butyne?
Answer:
Question86
What is the correct formula for 1-cyclopentyl-3,3-dimethyl-1-butyne?
Answer:
Question87
Alkynes are the most acidic hydrocarbon due to which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. sp2 hybridation of the carbons
B. sp3 hybridation of the carbons

C. sp hybridation of the carbons
D. sp3 d hybridation of the carbons
Question88
The triple bond of alkynes contributes to the which of the following characteristics?
Choose one answer.
A. The nonpolar bonding strength
B. The linear geometry
C. Acidity
D. All of the above
Question89
What is the structure of the alkyne produced produced by the reaction of 2,2-dimethyl-5,6-dichloroheptane with RO-?
Answer:
Question90
What does the reaction of 1,2-dibromopentane with 3 NaNH2 in NH3(l) followed by H2O yield?
Answer:
Question91
What does the reaction of acetylene with nBuLi in THF and HMPA followed by chloroethane yield?
Answer:
Question92
What is a good starting material to produce 3,3-dimethyl-1-butyne in the lab?
Answer:
Question93
What does the reaction of 2-butyne with Lindlar Catalyst yield?
Answer:
Question94
What does the reaction of 2-butyne with Lindlar Na/NH3 Catalyst yield?
Answer:
Question95
What does the reaction of 3,3-dimethyl-1-butyne with two equivalents of Br2 in a slow reaction yield?
Answer:
Question96
The reaction of 3-hexyne with H20, H+ and HgSO4 produces two products in equilibrium with each other. What is the more stable of the two
products?
Answer:
Question97
What does the reaction of 4-cyclopropyl-1-pentyne with BH3 followed by H2O2 in NaOH yield as a final product?
Answer:
Question98
Alkynes can be oxidized by reacting with KMnO4 in the presence of H2O or ozone to produce carboxylic acids. What does the oxidation of 3-hexyne
in this manner yield?
Answer:
Question99
What does the reaction of acetylene with 2 NaNH2 in NH3(l) followed by the addition of 2 moles of 1-bromopropane yield?
Answer:
Question100
What does the reaction of HC≡C-CH2CH2Br + Mg (in ether) yield?
Answer:
Organiz 2
1
Alcohols react using both acid and base catalysis: please elaborate.
Choose one answer.
a. Acids catalyze hydrolysis and ether formation from alcohols. Bases polarize the OH bond, even to the point of
forming an alkoxide salt.
b. Acids are used as catalysts in the Williamson ether synthesis and for hydrolysis of ethers. Bases dissolve in
ethers for use in other reactions.
c. Acids and bases will react in alcohols to form salts that are useful for ether synthesis.
d. Acids catalyze alcohol dimerization to ethers while bases hydrolyse them.
Question2
The Williamson ether synthesis involves which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. The two Williamson reagents normally used in combination with heat and light.
b. An alkyl alcohol heated up with acid to distill off water.
c. An alkoxide salt of an alcohol reacted with a primary or secondary halide.
d. An alkoxide salt of an alcohol reacted with the alcohol it was made from.
Question3
Epoxides are a special kind of ether that:
Choose one answer.
a. are reactive because of ring string (3 membered ring).
b. react faster with acid or base catalysis.
c. can react with amines, alcohols and acids.
d. all of the above.
Question4
Ethers can react with which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. With base and water to give two alcohols.
b. With acid and another alcohol to give transetherification- another ether and a different alcohol from the starting one.
c. With ethyl bromide to give an ethyl ether and a new alkyl bromide.
d. With a carboxylic acid and heat to give an ester and an alcohol.
Question5
Alcohols are unique in forming ethers because:
Choose one answer.
a. they can react with themselves in the presence of heat and acid to give ethers.
b. they have an exchangeable hydrogen (the OH one).

c. they have higher boiling points than hydrocarbons or ethers with the same number of carbon atoms.
d. they are all of the above.
Question6
Ether alcohols (molecules with both an ether and a beta alcohol) can best be made by:
Choose one answer.
a. acid catalyzed reaction of an epoxide and an alcohol with maybe a little heat.
b. addition of an alcohol to an alkene with base catalysis and heat.
c. acid catalyzed addition of water to a vinyl ether (ether with a double bond next to the oxygen).
d. addition of an alcohol to a ketone in the presence of acid and heat.
Question7
There are many ways to make an ether including:
Choose one answer.
a. reaction of two alcohols with base and heat catalysis.
b. reaction of an epoxide with an alkene using acid catalysis.
c. reaction of an alkoxide and an alkyl bromide.
d. addition of water to an epoxide with base catalysis.
Question8
Pick the synthetic conditions that will make an ether.
Choose one answer.
a. Reaction of an epoxide with a carboxylic acid.
b. Conversion of an alcohol with base catalysis and heat, distilling off the ether as it forms.
c. Reaction of an alkyl halide with NaOH in water.

d. the conditions for a Williamson synthesis (alkoxide plus halide).
Question9
An epoxide reacts with an alkoxide to give an ether plus something else:
Choose one answer.
a. and the something else is another alkoxide.
b. and the something else is NaOH.
c. and the something else is another epoxide.
d. and there is nothing else formed.
Question10
Ethers are pretty good solvents for:
Choose one answer.
a. alkyl halides.
b. lithium alkyl and sodium alkoxide salts.
c. alcohols.
d. all of the above to some extent.
Question11
Why are thiols and their anionic conjugate bases more reactive than their oxygen analogs?
Choose one answer.
a. They aren't really, since alcohols and acids are more reactive.
b. Because the sulfur is big, and the bigger an atom is with unpaired outer shell electrons, the more reactive it is.
c. Because sulfur has a bigger, less tightly packed nucleus.
d. Because it's smaller than oxygen and has more localized outer shell electrons which are more nucleophilic.
Question12
Why does sulfur oxidize so easily to sulfoxides, sulfones, sulfonic and sulfuric acid?
Choose one answer.
a. No one knows, it's one of the mysterious of the universe.
b. Oxygen is more electron rich, and wants to share electrons with any atom it can bind to.
c. Oxidation is just "burning," and we know that sulfur burns well (high sulfur coal?).
d. Sulfur just loves to share its outer shell electrons, and the more sharing it does, the happier it is.
Question13
Do eletrophilic compounds always react at the sulfur, no matter what?
Choose one answer.
a. Yes, except when oxygens are attached to the sulfur, then the oxygens react first.
b. Yes, except when carbons are attached to the sulfur, then substitution occurs at the carbon.
c. Yes, except when bromine is involved.
d. Pretty much, yes, even when oxygens are attached to the sulfur.
Question14
The Swern oxidation involves using DMSO (remember this great solvent?) to do what?
Choose one answer.
a. React with oxygen to form dimethylsulfone, the di-oxygen derivative of sulfur.
b. React with primary or secondary alcohols to give aldehydes or ketones.
c. Convert a primary alcohol to a carboxylic acid using oxygen as the co-reactant.
d. Convert amines to oxides such as nitric oxide using peroxide as co-reactant.
Question15
What is the difference between a thiol and a mercaptan?
Choose one answer.

a. There is none; they're the same and they both have SH bonds.
b. A thiol is the sulfur analog of an ether; a mercaptan is like an alcohol (SH bond).
c. A mercaptan is like an alcohol (SH bond) while a thiol is like an ether.
d. There is none; they're both ether analogs (C-S-C bonds).
Question16
It's possible to make a polymer from a conjugated double bond diene. Pick the right diene below and the polymer that it forms.
Choose one answer.
a. 1, 5-hexadiene (gives a polymer with four carbon backbone and two-carbon pendent group).
b. 2-methyl-1, 3-butadiene (also called isoprene), gives polyisoprene like the natural rubber used in tires.
c. 2, 4-hexadiene (gives a polymer with four carbon backbone and two pendent methyl groups).
d. 1, 2-propadiene (gives a polymer with three carbon backbone).
Question17
Diels-Alder reactions usually involve:
Choose one answer.
a. some kind of diene with pendent ester groups reacting with some kind of alkene to give a substituted
cyclohexene.
b. 1, 3-butadiene reacting with ethylene to give cyclohexene.
c. 1, 3-cyclohexadiene reacting with carbon monoxide to give a cyclic ether-alkene.
d. some kind of alkene with pendent ester groups (e.g., maleic acid diethyl ester) reacting with some kind of diene (like
1, 3-hexadiene) to give a substituted cyclohexene.
Question18
Dienes can react with bromine (the diatomic molecule, that is) to give a product; which combination below is correct?
Choose one answer.

a. 1, 3-butadiene plus 1 equivalent of bromine gas to give mostly 1, 3-dibromo-3-butene.
b. 1, 3-butadiene plus 1 equivalent of bromine gas to give mostly 1, 4-dibromo-2-butene.
c. 1, 5-hexadiene plus excess bromine to give mainly 1, 2-dibromo-5-hexene.
d. 1, 2-propadiene plus one equivalent of bromine to give 1, 3-dibromopropene.
Question19
Dienes will readily react with chlorine, especially under the right conditions: which is the best answer below?
Choose one answer.
a. 2, 4-hexadiene with chlorine gas under a strong uv light to give the dichlorohexene.
b. 1, 3-butadiene added dropwise to liquid chlorine to give 1, 2-dichloro-3-butene.
c. 1equivalent of frozen chlorine (solid) added to cold 1, 4-cyclohexadiene to give 2, 5-dichloro-1, 4-cyclohexadiene..
d. chlorine gas dissolved in cold water with 1, 3-butadiene added dropwise to give dichlorobutanediols.
Question20
Conjugated double bonds in dienes often lead to an especially stable intermediate during reactions; pick a good explanation below for why.
Choose one answer.
a. Any reactive species whether radical, cationic or anionic will give a resonance stabilized "allylic" intermediate.
b. The first step in the reaction of conjugated double bonds is the same as for isolated double bonds, and the radical,
cation or anion formed will be stabilized by the alkyl substituent.
c. The intermediate will have both the 1- and the 4-carbons of the starting conjugated double bonds attached to the
attacking electrophile.
d. Actually, the reactions are so fast that no intermediate is expected no matter what electrophile is involved.
Question21
Reaction of 1, 3-butadiene with maleic anhydride gives a single product that is:
Choose one answer.

a. 3-vinylcyclobutane-1, 2-dicarboxylic acid anhydride.
b. 3-(3-butenyl)succinic anhydride.
c. 4-cyclohexene-cis-dicarboxylic acid anhydride.
d. a 1:1 copolymer of the two reactants.
Question22
You unexpectedly are given hundreds of tons of 1, 3-cyclohexadiene. You decide to convert it to benzene by:
Choose one answer.
a. first reacting with chlorine gas and UV light followed by KOH in alcohol.
b. treating with NaOH in water to make the alcohol followed by distillation from concentrated sulfuric acid.
c. carefully adding excess chlorine followed by excess KOH in alcohol.
d. heating it in the presence of a hydrogen and a catalyst such as palladium.
Question23
You can make butene alcohol by:
Choose one answer.
a. simply heating 1, 3-butadiene with NaOH in water.
b. carefully adding one equivalent of HCl followed by NaOH in water.
c. carefully adding one equivalent of bromine followed by NaOH in water.
d. reacting with hydrogen peroxide and acetic acid.
Question24
How would you best make a conjugated diene?
Choose one answer.

a. Starting with a linear alkane with at least four carbons, first halogenate once and dehydrohalogenate to an alkene; do
radical allylic halogenation to give an allyl halide; then dehydrohalogenate again with KOH in alcohol to the diene.
b. Take any 4-carbon alkene, add bromine across the double bond and dehydrohalogenate twice with KOH in alcohol.
c. React a four carbon (at least) linear alkane with two equivalents of chlorine under UV light, then dehydrohalogenate twice
with KOH in alcohol.
d. First chlorinate and dehydrochlorinate butane, then deprotonate with butyl lithium or concentrated KOH in alcohol, and
pour the mixture into dilute acid to neutralize the base.
Question25
You decide to make 1, 3-cyclopentadiene from cyclopentene you happen to have by:
Choose one answer.
a. first reacting with one equivalent of chlorine gas and uv light followed by treating with KOH in alcohol.
b. treating with concentrated NaOH in water followed by dehydration with concentrated sulfuric acid.
c. adding one equivalent of bromine and treating the product with two equivalents of KOH in alcohol.
d. reacting it with HOCl (bleach) to give the halohydrin, and dehydrating with concentrated sulfuric acid.
Question26
Please name the diene that is a cyclic six-carbon ring with two double bonds (conjugated).
Choose one answer.
a. 1, 2-cyclohexadiene.
b. 1, 4-cyclohexadiene.
c. 1, 5-cyclohexadiene
d. 1, 3-cyclohexadiene
Question27
Huckel was one of the first scientists to describe aromaticity, and he used which simple rule?
Choose one answer.

a. involving 4n + 2 carbon atoms in a cyclic array.
b. involving 4n + 2 electrons in a continuous cyclic array of pi-bonds and/or p-orbitals.
c. requiring conjugated carbon atoms in a cyclic array like benzene or naphthalene.
d. with a continuous cyclic array of pi-bonds.
Question28
Aromatic molecules include which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Benzene, naphthalene and higher analogs with 4n + 2 electrons in the conjugated pi-bonds.
b. Furan which has four carbons and one sp2 hybridized oxygen totalling five atoms and 6 pi or non-bonded electrons.
c. Cycloheptatriene possessing 7 carbon atoms with three conjugated pi-bonds containing 6 pi electrons.
d. Cyclopentadiene cation with 5 carbons, two pi-bonds and one sp2 carbon containing 0 electrons in a p-orbital.
Question29
Naphthalene (10 carbons with two fused benzene rings) is aromatic according to Huckel because:
Choose one answer.
a. there is a continuous array of p-orbitals from pi-bonds around the outside of the fused rings AND there are
4n + 2 electrons in them (10).
b. fused benzene rings are always aromatic.
c. 10 carbons are an even number and there are 5 double bonds with 8 pairs of electrons in them.
d. none of the above.
Question30
Cyclopropene has three carbons in a ring with one double bond: is it aromatic?
Choose one answer.

a. No because there's only 2 electrons in the pi-bond (2 p-orbitals).
b. No, because there's no continuous array of p-orbitals around the ring.
c. No, because there needs to be a positive charge somewhere in the ring.
d. No, because the ring is too small.
Question31
Substituents on aromatic molecules can have long-range effects: explain why.
Choose one answer.
a. Sigma bonds transmit electronic effects by electronic polarization effects.
b. Resonance causes spreading of the electronic effects of various substituents throughout the ring through
sigma bonds.
c. Resonance of the electron donating or withdrawing affects of a substituent can stabilize or destabilize charge
at ortho and para positions.
d. Through space interactions of a substituent with sigma bonds in the ring affect individual carbon electron
densities.
Question32
A good explanation of aromatic stabilization involves which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. A more even distribution of pi electrons occurs in aromatic molecules.
b. Rapid resonance of pi electrons spreads the electron density over more atoms.
c. The molecular orbitals that form from a conjugated cyclic array of p-orbitalswith just the right number of
electrons in them are substantially lower in energy than for non-conjugated systems.
d. There is no good explanation that we know of, it's just a fact of nature.
Question33
Because of their unique resonance stabilization and molecular structures, aromatic molecules possess unique properties: select the best description below.
Choose one answer.

a. They are more stable and less reactive then non-aromatic molecules.
b. They react with unique mechanisms such as electrophilic aromatic substitution and nucleophilic aromatic
substitution.
c. They do not undergo simple addition reactions that occur with simple alkanes.
d. All of the above.
Question34
Benzene possess a unique structure: select from those below.
Choose one answer.
a. It has six carbons like cyclohexane and therefore has both chair and boat confirmations.
b. It consists of two fused cyclobutadiene rings that are basically flat.
c. The six carbons in the ring all occupy the same plane with pi bond orbitals above and below that plane.
d. Benzene has carbons connected by six sigma and three pi bonds, with the pi bonds being significantly shorter than the
ordinary sigma bonds in the benzene ring.
Question35
Heteroatom's and charges on atoms can affect aromaticity in what way?
Choose one answer.
a. Their orbitals can be hybridized in such a way as to participate in the cyclic array of p-orbitals needed for
4n+2 electrons.
b. They can certainly change the stability of an aromatic ring.
c. They modify the behavior of the ring in strange and mysterious ways.
d. They decrease the reactivity of the rings in which they are located.
Question36
Substituents on aromatic ring can affect each other: Pick the answer that best illustrates this.
Choose one answer.

a. Meta-nitrobenzoic acid is more acidic than the para-nitro isomer because the nitro is closer to the acid group.
b. 3, 4-Dinitrobenzoic acid is readily made by nitration of benzoic acid with excess fuming nitric acid.
c. The order of acidity of substituted benzoic acid increases for para-substituents nitro, chloro, hydroxy.
d. The more electron withdrawing groups on the ring, the more acidic is benzoic acid; i.e., trichloro more than dichloro more
than monochlorobenzoic acid.
Question37
Phenol is an aromatic alcohol and differs from aliphatic alcohols in what ways?
Choose one answer.
a. The OH group is less acidic and less easily exchanged with deuterium because of resonance.
b. The OH Group has an enormous effect on reactivity and aliphatic alcohols but not in phenols.
c. Reactions on carbons alpha or beta to the OH in phenols is strictly controlled by electronegativity affects.
d. Because of resonance stabilization of intermediates, phenols are more easily brominated and nitrated.
Question38
The reactivities of substituents on aromatic rings are affected by the aromatic ring as illustrated by which of the following answers?
Choose one answer.
a. The methyl group of toluene readily undergoes free radical reaction and oxidation.
b. Benzoic acid is more acidic than acetic acid.
c. Styrene or vinylbenzene is a better free radical monomer then propene.
Question39
The acidity of phenol is greater than cyclohexanol because:
Choose one answer.
a. an aromatic ring is inherently electron withdrawing, pulling electrons away from the O-H bond.
b. resonance stabilization of the ring bond to oxygen makes the bond between O and H weaker.
c. resonance stabilization of the conjugate base (phenolate anion) is greater than is stabilization of the
cyclohexanol alkoxide by the attached ring.
d. alkyl carbons are electron donating compared to an aromatic ring, baking the cyclohexanol OH bond
stronger than that of phenol.
Question40
Compare the reactivity of the oxygen to acetylation with acetic anhydride for phenol versus cyclohexanol by picking the best answer below.
Choose one answer.
a. Electron donation by the cyclohexane ring increases nucleophilic attack by the oxygen of cyclohexanol versus
phenol.
b. Resonance is greater for the phenol acetyl oxonium intermediate than for the cyclohexanol analog.
c. Base catalyzed formation of the phenolate is faster than for cyclohexanol due to resonance stabilization, and
the anion formed is more reactive.
d. In fact, they both react at the same rate.
Question41
You find to your surprise that the reaction of phenol with acetic anhydride and aluminum trichloride gives a mixture of two disubstituted products. Pick the best reason for why.
Choose one answer.
a. The OH oxygen reacts twice to give the bisester derivative.
b. Ring acylation occurs twice in the ortho-ortho' and ortho-para positions.
c. The first acylation product is in the ortho and para positions which deactivates the ring and causes meta-substitution with
the second acetyl group to give ortho-meta and meta-para diacetylphenols.
d. The first reaction is at the oxygen to give phenyl acetate followed by acetylation in the ortho and para positions to give a
mixture of products.
Question42
EAS reactions involve attack by something seeking:
Choose one answer.

a. all of the below.
b. electrons, and those are almost always relatively "available" ones in pi-orbitals.
c. a nucleus to bond to, making the reaction also a "nucleophilic" attack.
d. a one-step reaction involving loss of leaving group at the same time the attacking group makes a new
bond.
Question43
All EAS reactions involve a "tetrahedral" or Td intermediate. Which of the following is true of this statement?
Choose one answer.
a. Can't happen with an aromatic ring carbon which by definition is sp2 or trigonal planar.
b. There is no intermediate in EAS which simple involves attack at electrons.
c. No, the leaving group leaves at the same time the attacking group forms a bond.
d. Almost all do: an sp2 carbon becomes sp3 in the intermediate.
Question44
The best way to describe the "arrow" showing the mechanism of EAS is:
Choose one answer.
a. it goes from the attacking atom (electrophile) to the carbon being attacked.
b. it goes from the attacking atom to the new bond being formed.
c. it goes from the electron pair in the pi-bond on the ring to the new sigma bond being formed.
d. it involves a half-head arrow from the attacking species and a half-head arrow from the pi-bond to the new
sigma bond to be formed.
Question45
In general, electrophilic aromatic substitution (EAS) happens:
Choose one answer.

a. between any aromatic molecule and an appropriate electrophile, assuming aromaticity follows the 2(n + 2) rule.
b. with any pi-bond containing molecule and an electrophile.
c. with chlorine or bromine and iron catalysis on any pi-bond species.
d. when an electrophile bonds to a nucleophile of some kind.
Question46
EAS with chlorine gas bubbled into chlorobenzene containing aluminum trichloride would:
Choose one answer.
a. not happen because chlorine is deactivating.
b. gives mostly meta-dichlorobenzene with mild heating.
c. gives mostly ortho-dichlorobenzene with mild heating.
d. generates HCl and mostly para-dichlorobenzene.
Question47
47. Fuming nitric acid converts phenol into:
Choose one answer.
a. pure trinitrophenol (also called "picric acid" which has a really low pKa for a phenolic compound).
b. 2, 4-dinitrophenol because of deactivation with each nitro group added.
c. para-nitrophenol since the OH group on an aromatic ring is activating and ortho-para directing.
d. a complex mixture of ortho- and para-substituted phenols with di- and trinitro derivatives predominating.
Question48
48. Friedel-Crafts acylation of ortho-nitrotoluene with acetyl chloride and aluminum trichloride gives:
Choose one answer.
a. a mixture of acetophenones with the nitro group always ortho or para to the carbonyl.
b. almost exclusively a single product, 3-nitro-4-methyl-acetophenone.
c. 2-methyl-acetophenone by nitro group displacement.
d. no reaction since the nitro group is so deactivating.
Question49
49. Common explosives developed by Alfred Nobel use trinitro-aromatics such as:
Choose one answer.
a. trinitrophenol made by low-temperature nitration of phenol.
b. trinitrobenzene made by heating benzene in fuming nitric acid.
c. 2, 5-dinitro-1, 4-dichlorobenzene made by chloronating the dinitrobenzene with ferric chloride as catalyst.
d. TNT or trinitrotoulene made by careful exhaustive nitration of toluene.
Question50
50. Friedel-Crafts alkylation of benzene with 1-chloro-2-methylpropane and aluminum trichloride gives:
Choose one answer.
a. isobutylbenzene (or 1-phenyl-2-methylpropane).
b. t-butylbenzene (or 1-phenyl-1, 1-dimethylethane).
c. dimethylstyrene (or phenyl-dimethylethene).
d. paramethylpropylbenzene.
Question51
51. You decide to make meta-nitrophenol by doing which of the following steps?
Choose one answer.
a. Reacting phenol with fuming nitric acid in an ice bath.
b. Reacting benzene with fuming nitric acid, then reacting the product with chlorine/iron, and last heating with
NaOH in water.
c. Reacting benzene with chlorine/iron, then reacting the product with nitric acid followed by NaOH in water.
d. Reacting benzene with fuming nitric acid to make trinitrobenzene and then with NaOH in water.
Question52
52. You acquire a mixture of meta- and para-fluoronitrobenzene and want to react it with a nucleophile. What should you do first?
Choose one answer.
a. You pick sodium methoxide because it's more reactive than a sulfur anion, sodium hydrosulfide
(NaSH).
b. You choose NaCl in ethanol since that's a pretty good nucleophile system.
c. You decide on sodium methoxide dissolved in water to make the para-nitrophenyl methyl ether.
d. You mix NaSH with ethanol and then add the aromatic molecule to make the aryl sulfide.
Question53
53. You want to make para-hydroxybenzoic acid, so you decide to do both EAS and NAS as follows:
Choose one answer.
a. You react para-chlorotoulene with hot KMnO4, isolate the product and then react it with hot methanol and HCl
catalyst. The product of this you react with neat NaOH in the melt.
b. You react toluene with concentrated NaOH in water at reflux to do NAS formation of the hydroxide, and then
oxidize the methyl group with hot permanganate to give the acid.
c. You first react toluene with hot permanganate to make benzoic acid, then react that with chlorine/iron to make
the para-chlorobenzoic acid which you heat with NaOH in water.
d. You react benzoic acid with chlorine and iron catalyst, then treat with concentrated NaOH in water and
heat.
Question54
54. There are two components to a nucleophilic aromatic substitution reaction with the order of reactivity of:
Choose one answer.
a. halide leaving groups on the aromatic ring being F>Cl>Br, I not reactive.
b. the nature of the attacking nucleophile being unimportant.
c. other activating groups that are NOT displaced but stay on the ring such as ester, nitro, sulfone and carbonyl.
Question55
55. The Kolbe and Riemer-Tieman reactions are special types of EAS reaction in which:
Choose one answer.
a. chloroform is the electrophile and it reacts with the sodium salt of phenol (sodium phenolate).
b. bubbling carbon dioxide through a solution of phenol in water generates the para-hydroxybenzoic acid.
c. sodium phenolate (sodium salt of phenol) reacts directly with carbon dioxide (high temperature and pressure) to
give ortho- and para-hydroxybenzoic acids as their sodium salts.
d. phenol dissolved in ethanol with iron chloride reacts rapidly with carbonic acid to form the ortho- and para-
hydroxybenzoic acids.
Question56
56. The key intermediate in electrophilic aromatic substitution (e.g., bromination of benzene) can be described best by which answer below?
Choose one answer.
a. Bezene-derived anion adduct with delocalization of the charge around the ring.
b. Bezenonium ion, the cation formed by attack of the electrophile (e.g., bromine cation) on the ring to give an sp3
hybridized carbon.
c. There is no intermediate, just a transition state with the H-atom leaving as the electrophile forms a bond to that
carbon.
d. A complex salt with the catalyst bound to the pi-cloud of the ring while the electrophile is attached to one of the
bezene hydrogens.
Question57
57. Almost all EAS reactions require a catalyst because (pick the best answer below):
Choose one answer.

a. EAS is a difficult reaction since your going uphill energetically from an aromatic molecule, and the catalyst helps do
this by forming a more reactive electrophile.
b. The catalyst complexes with the aromatic ring to activate it for attack.
c. The catalyst brings the aromatic ring and the electrophile together so that they can react.
d. Actually, a catalyst is rarely used and this is a false statement.
Question58
58. Nucleophilic aromatic substitution (NAS) is very similar to Sn2 substitution of alkanes because:
Choose one answer.
a. Displacement occurs in a single step.
b. It is a process involving an attacking species and a leaving group, although for NAS there is also an intermediate.
c. In both cases, a highly active nucleophile is the attacking species.
d. Inversion of the stereochemistry at the substituted carbon occurs during reaction.
Question59
59. The NAS mechanism is special in what regard?
Choose one answer.
a. It requires a much more nucleophilic attacking species than in alkyl substitution reactions.
b. The aromatic nucleus being attacked must have electron donating groups attached.
c. A 3-center Intermediate exists involving the catalyst, nucleophile and aromatic ring.
d. It involves nucleophilic attack at an sp2 carbon which only occurs with strong electron withdrawing groups
attached at or in resonance with the substituted carbon.
Question60
60. The two types of aromatic substitution reactions (electrophilic and nucleophilic) are complementary in that (pick the best answer):
Choose one answer.

a. The same types of substituents on the aromatic ring are activators in both cases.
b. The arrow showing electron motion in both cases always starts at one of the pi bonds on the ring.
c. EAS is enhanced by electron donating groups on the ring while NAS is enhanced by electron withdrawing
groups.
d. Both use Lewis acid catalysts like iron chloride or aluminum chloride.
Question61
Based on the outer shell hybridization of the nitrogen, amines have what geometry?
Choose one answer.
a. Modified structure with three sp2 orbitals in a trigonal planar array and one p-orbital with 2 electrons.
b. Two electrons in the 2s orbital and three bonding pairs of electrons in the three 2p orbitals.
c. It is incorrect to equate hybridization with molecular geometry.
d. Tetrahedral, just like carbon and oxygen, with four energetically equivalent orbitals pointing at the apexes of a
tetrahedron.
Question62
Amines are "basic" in a Bronstead scheme because of what?
Choose one answer.
a. They have a lone pair of electrons in an sp3 orbital just sitting there waiting for something to happen, like
protonation.
b. They have a conjugated set of orbitals capable of forming dative bonds.
c. A proton can bind to one of the attached atoms through the excess electron density in the bonding orbital.
d. That's just the way they roll.
Question63
Amines can be made from aldehydes by doing what?
Choose one answer.

a. Displacing the oxygen through an Sn2 reaction.
b. Protonating the oxygen of the aldehyde and attacking with a neutral amine of some kind in an Sn2
reaction.
c. Mixing ammonia or a primary or secondary amine with the aldehyde, forming the imine and reducing with
hydrogen and a nickel catalyst.
d. Reduce the aldehyde to the alcohol with hydrogen and a catalyst, then reacting with an amine or ammonia at
high temperature in an Sn2 reaction.
Question64
How would you convert a carboxylic acid to an amine?
Choose one answer.
a. First reduce the acid with lithium aluminum hydride to the alcohol, convert to an alkyl chloride with thionyl
chloride, then heat with excess amine.
b. Heat the acid with ammonium hydroxide under high pressure and temperature, isolate the amide and reduce
it with lithium aluminum hydride.
c. Convert the acid to the acid chloride with thionyl chloride and heat, add sodium cyanide to form the nitrile
and reduce with lithium aluminum hydride.
d. All three of the above but with careful consideration of conditions and structure of the reactants.
Question65
Aniline is an aromatic amine that can be made how?
Choose one answer.
a. Reacting benzene with chlorine gas and iron chloride catalyst, then nitrating with nitric acid in sulfuric acid,
isolating the product and reducing with hydrogen using a palladium catalyst.
b. Heating benzene with ammonia under high heat and pressure; once the first amine adds, further reaction stops
because the amine is such a strong electron donator.
c. Reacting phenol with thionyl chloride to form chlorobenzene, then heating with ammonia under high temperature
and pressure.
d. By treating benzene with nitric acid in sulfuric acid, isolating the nitrobenzene and reducing with hydrogen and a
palladium catalyst.
Question66
In terms of basicity, what is the order for alkyl amines?
Choose one answer.
a. Secondary > tertiary > primary > ammonia due to steric effects for the tertiary putting it "out of order."
b. Tertiary amine > secondary > primary > ammonia due to electron donating ability of alkyl substituents.
c. Ammonia > primary amine > secondary > tertiary due to electron withdrawing ability of any heteroatom.
d. It will depend on whether we're talking about Lewis or Bronstead acid-base chemistry.
Question67
Reaction of isopropyl bromide (2-bromopropane) with amines varies how with amine structure?
Choose one answer.
a. In a non-regular manner, with secondary amines often being more reactive than either primary or tertiary
amines.
b. Only primary and secondary amines react due to steric inhibition with tertiary amines.
c. Because of steric inhibition caused by the huge isopropyl group, there is no reaction with any amines.
d. It doesn't vary at all since all amines and ammonia have the same basic reactivity.
Question68
Pyridine is an aromatic amine: what is its structure and is it basic?
Choose one answer.
a. Pyridine is a benzene ring with an NH2 group attached that is basic like any amine.
b. It is a seven-membered ring with the six sp2 hybridized carbons accounting for the aromaticity and the
nitrogen in the ring providing basicity.
c. It is like benzene with one carbon replaced with nitrogen that also has a lone pair of electrons (basic) in an
sp2 orbital within the plane of the ring.
d. Pyridine is one of the nucleic acid bases possessing two nitrogens in the aromatic (benzene-like) ring and
one nitrogen NH2 attached.
Question69
Quanidine (CN3H5 with three nitrogens attached to the carbon) is a very strong base for protonation for what reason?
Choose one answer.
a. Each of the amines has a lone pair of electrons making it three times more likely that a proton can
bond to one pair.
b. Once one of the nitrogens is protonated, hydrogen bonding with the other nitrogens stabilizes the
charge.
c. The proton in the protonated quandinium ion sits on top of and bonded to all three nitrogens at the
same time.
d. Mainly because the protonated form has a positive charge resonance delocalized onto all three
nitrogens through the central carbon.
Question70
Nitrogen is similar to carbon and oxygen (adjacent 2nd row elements) in what unique way?
Choose one answer.
a. All three have two electron in the 1s orbital.
b. It combines outer shell s and p electrons into four sp3 orbitals that are tetrahedral in shape.
c. It can form three bonds to other atoms in a neutral molecule.
d. It has a pair of electrons in a non-bonding sp3 orbital.
Question71
Amines and acids both have:
Choose one answer.
a. basic characters- they make water have a higher pH value when dissolved in it.
b. acidic characters- they make water have a lower pH value when dissolved in it.
c. exchangable hydrogens that can be converted to deuterium with heavy water (D2O).
d. greater volatility than alkanes with the same number of carbons.
Question72
Amines can be made from:
Choose one answer.
a. the reaction of ammonia with alkyl chloride with maybe heat to speed it up.
b. reaction of ammonium hydroxide with an alkyl bromide.
c. two-step reaction involving imine formation (amine plus aldehyde) followed by hydrogen reduction (with
catalyst).
d. All of the above, more or less.
Question73
There are three types of amines that include:
Choose one answer.
a. primary, secondary, and tertiary, referring to the type of carbon directly attached to the nitrogen.
b. primary, secondary, and tertiary, referring to how many alkyl carbons are directly attached to the
nitrogen.
c. alkyl, aryl (aromatic), and ammonium salts.
d. substituted amines, unsubstituted amines, and amides.
Question74
An alkyl carboxylic acid can be made by:
Choose one answer.
a. heating a methyl ketone with acid and iodine.
b. treating an alkyl halide with hydrogen gas and platinum.
c. reacting an alcohol with ozone.
d. oxidation of a primary alcohol with hot permanganate or chromate.
Question75
Butyl amine and acetic acid will react:
Choose one answer.
a. with heat to drive off water and make N-butyl acetamide.
b. in ethanol to form an ester and amine salt.
c. with an butyl bromide to form dibutyl amine.
d. hydrochloric acid to form an amide.
Question76
The name of a tertiary amine with one butyl and two methyl groups is:
Choose one answer.
a. butyl amine dimethyl.
b. methyl butyl aminomethane.
c. dimethylaminobutane.
d. butyl dimethyl amine.
Question77
The carboxylic acid made by oxidation of n-butanol is called:
Choose one answer.
a. butanoic acid.
b. propyl carboxylic acid.
c. carbonic acid.
d. benzoic acid.
Question78
Reacting 2-butene with peracetic acid (a peroxy acid) would lead to:
Choose one answer.

a. 2, 3-butanediol.
b. tetrahydrofuran (four carbon cyclic ether).
c. 2-butanol.
d. 2, 3-butene epoxide or 2, 3-epoxybutane.
Question79
Carboxylic acids can be converted to primary amines by:
Choose one answer.
a. decarboxylation with HBr and peroxide, then reaction of the alkyl bromide with ammonia.
b. reduction of the acid to the alcohol with NaOH/formaldehyde, then reaction with ammonium chloride and heat.
c. a two-step conversion, first to the amide with ammonia and heat, and then by reduction with litium aluminum hydride or
hydrogen plus catalyst.
d. using lactase fermentation in the presence of ammonia atmosphere.
Question80
Primary amines of primary alkanes can be converted to alcohols using the Hoffman-type reaction involving:
Choose one answer.
a. reaction first with the Hoffman reagent and then heat with NaOH.
b. Exhaustive methylation with methyl iodide followed by heat with NaOH in water.
c. Conversion of the amine to an acetamide with acetic anhydride followed by reduction with hydrogen and
catalyst.
d. Exhaustive ethylation with ethyl bromide followed by heat with KOH in ethanol.
Question81
Why is a hydrogen attached to the carbon next to a carbonyl so reactive?
Choose one answer.

a. The carbonyl polarization pushes electrons onto the alpha-carbon and hydrogen through sigma bonds.
b. In the anionic intermediate formed, delocalization of charge onto the more electronegative oxygen occurs through
pi-bonds.
c. Enol-keto tautomers equilibrate and the hydrogen isn
d. The double bond to oxygen from the alpha carbon is conjugated to the intermediate carbanion through a double
bond to that carbon as well.
Question82
The acidity of a proton (hydrogen) alpha to most carbonyl compounds is around pKa = 25, but drops to what with two carbonyls attached to the same sp3 carbon with a hydrogen?
Choose one answer.
a. Less than 20 but just barely.
b. Less than 14 or so which means that aqueous base can deprotonate such compounds.
c. Less than 10 which makes them weak acids.
d. Less than 6 which makes them about as acidic as carboxylic acids.
Question83
What is the best way to draw (describe) the sodium salt of 2, 4-pentadione (two acetyls on the same methylene)?
Choose one answer.
a. Since only one hydrogen on the carbon is lost to form this, the sodium cation should be on the alpha
carbon.
b. Since only one of the oxygens can undergo enol-keto tautomerism, the sodium cation should be on one
oxygen.
c. Since both oxygens can equilibrate with the carbanion, why not put the sodium cation between them in a
chelate?
d. Since the carbonyl oxygen lone pairs repel each other, one carbonyl will be twisted out of plane with the
other, and will have the sodium attached.
Question84
Reaction of almost any aldehyde or ketone with ethylene glycol (1, 2-ethanediol) and acid catalyst with water distillation does what?
Choose one answer.

a. Reduces the carbonyl to an alcohol while oxidizing the ethylene glycol to acetaldehyde.
b. Dehydrates the glycol to vinyl alcohol which forms a C-C bond to the carbon alpha to the carbonyl.
c. Transfers one of the hydroxyl groups from the glycol to the carbonyl to form a hydrate (two OH groups on the same
carbon).
d. Well, if you're careful, in the end you form the acetal or ketal with no change in oxidation state.
Question85
A fairly general synthesis of a ketone would involve what steps?
Choose one answer.
a. Reaction of an alkane with chlorine and UV light to form an alkyl chloride, conversion to an alcohol with NaOH
and water, and oxidation with CrO3 in sulfuric acid.
b. Treating an alkane with peroxide and acid to give an alcohol, followed by in situ (one-pot) oxidation to the
carbonyl with the same reagents.
c. Treating an alkene with potassium permanganate in refluxing aqueous acid.
d. Reacting an alkyl carboxylic acid with thionyl chloride followed by treating the product with an alcohol and
aluminum trichloride.
Question86
A neat way to make a symmetrical dialdehyde from cyclohexene is done how?
Choose one answer.
a. Reacting the alkene with hydrogen peroxide in acetic acid followed by adding water plus heat to give a
glycol that is then cleaved with more peroxide and heat.
b. Treating first with osmium tetroxide in pyridine, then adding hydrogen sulfide and extracting the
product.
c. Reacting the alkene with ozone (O3) in chloroform (CHCl3) followed by treatment with peroxide.
d. All of the above, I hope.
Question87
In a different problem (somewhere here) you oxidized an alcohol to an aldehyde or ketone; now you want the alcohol back so you:
Choose one answer.
a. Add concentrated NaOH in water and heat to drive off the water, then extract with methylene chloride to obtain
the alcohol.
b. Add to the carbonyl compound in ethanol concentrated sulfuric acid containing sodium borohydride, then
neutralizing and extracting with ether.
c. Dissolve the ketone or aldehyde in ethanol (maybe with a little water and NaOH added) and then slowly adding
sodium borohydride followed by neutralization and extraction.
d. Treat with hot potassium permanganate (KMnO4) in aqueous acid, then neutralize and extract.
Question88
The Claissen-Schmidt reaction is a simple reaction (cyclohexanone plus 1 equivalent formaldehyde and sodium ethoxide catalyst) that forms what product?
Choose one answer.
a. Since the formaldehyde is more reactive, it adds the ethoxide and the resulting carbanion adds to the ketone carbonyl followed by loss
of water to give cyclohexenylmethanal.
b. Abstraction of proton alpha to the ketone followed by attack at the formaldehyde carbonyl followed by a two-step proton exchange
and water loss to form the alpha methylene of cyclohexanone.
c. The cyclohexanone dimerizes and then formaldehyde donates a hydride to reduce the remaining ketone to give the diol.
d. The ethoxide attacks the formaldehyde first (more reactive carbonyl) and the adduct attacks the ketone to form the acetal.
Question89
Ketones and aldehydes react with HCN to give what?
Choose one answer.
a. Poisonous materials that are extremely dangerous due to reversible release of the HCN.
b. A member of the family of adducts called cyanohydrins, which can be hydrolyzed to the alpha-hydroxy
acid.
c. The dicyano compound with both CN's attached to the carbonyl carbon and one equivalent of water
released.
d. Reaction at the alpha-position of the enol form of the carbonyl to give a beta-cyano ketone or aldehyde.
Question90
The aldol reaction of acetaldehyde (2 carbons) with sodium ethoxide catalyst gives what?
Choose one answer.
a. Addition of two equivalents of the ethoxide to the carbonyl carbon to form the acetal.
b. No reaction- ethoxide is not a strong enough base to actually catalyze any reaction of acetaldehyde.
c. A dimer joined at what were the carbonyl carbons, the product named as 2, 3-butandiol.
d. A dimer of the aldehyde (kind of) that could be named 3-hydroxy-1-butanal.
Question91
Cyclopentanone reacts with the non-nucleophilc but very strong base NaH to form an anion that then reacts with methyl iodide to give what product?
Choose one answer.
a. The base removes an alpha proton to give the enolate anion which nucleophilically attacks MeI to displace the iodide and form the
alpha-methylcyclopentanone.
b. The initial enolate anion formed adds the iodine to the alpha carbon while the methyl ends up on the oxygen.
c. Initial enolate anion abstracts a proton from the methyl iodide carbon, which then attacks the carbonyl to form alpha- iodomethyl-
hydroxycyclopentane.
d. No reaction occurs- NaH is not a strong enough base to deprotonate a carbon alpha to a carbonyl.
Question92
You try to react 1, 5-cyclooctadione with chlorine using NaH as catalyst. You forget to weigh the NaH and end up using 2 equivalents which gives you a product with no chlorine but different
from the starting material: what is it?
Choose one answer.
a. The first step goes fine to give 2, 6-dichloro-1, 5-cyclooctadione. The second NaH dehydrohalogenates to give a double bond
conjugated to each of the ring carbonyls.
b. The NaH reduces both carbonyls to alcohols.
c. The first step gives 2-chloro-1, 5-cyclooctadione but the second NaH reduces off the chlorine to give back the starting
material.
d. The first step works fine, with deprotonation alpha to one carbonyl followed by reaction with chlorine to give the alpha-
chloro species. However, the second NaH dehydrochlorinates to give the cyclooctadione with a double bond conjugated to one
of the ketones.
Question93
Why are carboxamides are such wonderful and useful derivatives of carboxylic acids?
Choose one answer.
a. Didn't know they were, but if you say so, it must be because they are so reactive.
b. Well, if nature uses them in peptides and proteins, they most offer something useful, like maybe hydrolytic
stability and intermolecular hydrogen bonding?
c. The sp3 hybridized nitrogen is almost as basic as a simple amine but with the added contribution of the
attached carbonyl to enhance metal binding.
d. There so easy to make that all living creatures can just ingest amines from food and convert them to amides in
the stomach.
Question94
Which of the following statements is true about a carboxylic derivative or reaction?
Choose one answer.
a. Nitriles have a carbon-nitrogen "double bond" and are also called Shiff bases.
b. An imide is a carbonyl with two nitrogens attached (like ureas).
c. The key atoms of an amide bond (carbon and oxygen of the carbonyl plus the amide of the nitrogen and its
hydrogen) all lie in the same plane making for a rigid, conformationally restrained segment (like in an enzyme).
d. Nature uses acid chlorides (acyl halides) in the body to make natural amides such as peptides.
Question95
Even without a topic on polymers, can you pick out which of the following is not true?
Choose one answer.
a. The common polymer cellulose is found in virtually all living organisms.
b. Polyester used in clothing and soda bottles is made from terephthalic acid and ethlene glycol (the same chemical
used in antifreeze).
c. Lipids are long-chain alkyl esters (of fatty acids) found in many living organisms.
d. RNA and DNA are polyesters made from inorganic phosporic acid and substituted sugar molecules.
Question96
Carboxylic acids can react by:
Choose one answer.
a. electrophilic attack of an amine on the central carbon of the acid group.
b. nucleophilic attack of the polarized central carbon of the acid group on alcohols and amines.
c. conversion to acid chlorides with thionyl chloride, a high-energy and very reactive inorganic acid chloride.
d. rehybridization of the central sp2 carbon to an sp3 one.
Question97
Synthesis of a carboxylic acid can occur by:
Choose one answer.
a. reaction of an alcohol with a strong oxidizing agent like KMnO4.
b. reaction with oxygen in the air catalyzed by heat.
c. conversion of the alcohol OH to an alkyl halide with thionyl chloride.
d. reaction of an alkene with a peracid or peroxide plus acid catalyst.
Question98
Amides are derivatives of carboxylic acids that:
Choose one answer.
a. can be formed by simple mixing of an amine with an acid.
b. first reacting the amine with thionyl chloride and then adding the acid.
c. first reacting the acid with sodium hydroxide and then adding the amine.
d. first reacting the acid with thionyl chloride and then adding the amine.
Question99
Carboxylic acids have a unique combination of:
Choose one answer.
a. a central sp2 hybridized carbon, one sp2 hybridized oxygen and one sp3 hybridized oxygen.
b. an sp2 hybridized carbon that can accept a proton from another acid's sp3 hybridized OH moiety.
c. basicity and nucleophilicity to substitution reactions.
Question100
Carboxylic acids can react to:
Choose one answer.
a. form alcohols by oxidation with peracids.
b. form alkyl bromides by reaction with PBr3.
c. form amides by reaction with amines, heat and water removal by distillation.
d. form an ester by reaction with an ether.
Question101
A general synthesis of carboxylic acids involves:
Choose one answer.
a. first conversion of an alcohol to an alkyl iodide and then reaction with oxygen.
b. alcohol reaction with strong oxidizing agents like hydrogen gas and platinum catalyst.
c. conversion of an alkyl iodide to a Grignard reagent with magnesium followed by quenching with dry ice.
d. reaction of an alkyl bromide with sodium hydroxide in water.
Question102
Esters can be made from carboxylic acids by:
Choose one answer.
a. none of the answers below.
b. mixing the acid with excess primary alcohol and distilling off water.
c. mixing an acid with a tertiary alkyl bromide and KOH in t-butyl alcohol.
d. first converting to the acid chloride with thionyl chloride and then adding alcohol and dilute base.
Question103
Ketones can be made from carboxylic acids by:
Choose one answer.
a. first converting the acid to an acid chloride then mixing with toluene and iron chloride, and heating for a
while.
b. adding a nail to a mixture of a tertiary bromide and benzene, and heating.
c. simple reduction with hydrogen and a transition metal catalyst.
d. reacting the acid with KOH and then heating with phenyl bromide.
Question104
Acid chlorides are highly reactive derivatives of carboxylic acids that can:
Choose one answer.
a. be made from alkyl alcohols by reaction with thionyl chloride.
b. react with themselves to form ketones.
c. be reduced to ketones with hydrogen and a platinum catalyst.
d. react with amines and alcohols to give amides and esters.
Question105
The basic order of stability of carboxylic acids is (pick one).
Choose one answer.
a. acids > acyl halides > esters > anhydrides > amides
b. amides >> acids ~ esters > anhydrides > acyl halides
c. esters > amides > acids >> anhydrides > acyl halides
d. amides >> acids > esters > acyl halides > anhydrides
Question106
Which is the best way to make an amide from a carboxylic acid derivative?
Choose one answer.
a. Use two equivalents of amine with one equipment of acid chloride.
b. React an ester with an amine through heat-induced transamidation.
c. Use an anhydride with two equivalents of amine, one for each of the acid equivalents (oh, and add heat).
d. Use the classic Shotten-Baumen conditions of one equivalent of acid chloride in an organic solvent and one equivalent of
amine plus one equivalent of dilute inorganic base in water, stir rapidly, chill as needed.
Question107
Carboxylic acids form salts with amines that can be useful how?
Choose one answer.
a. They're more water soluble as the salt, and if one is a medication, this can help in delivery.
b. You can heat the salt up under vacuum and form an amide (usually).
c. You can extract impurities away using water plus an organic solvent.
d. All of the above, in a practical sense.
Question108
Under what conditions can hydrolysis of a carboxylic ester or amide lead back to the acid?
Choose one answer.

a. Simply mixing with water and stirring at room temperature.
b. Boiling with alcohol and acid catalyst.
c. Boiling with water and base catalyst.
d. Treating with NaH and ethanol.
Question109
Which acid derivative and what reaction conditions would give an aryl ketone?
Choose one answer.
a. Heating an anhydride with the aromatic in refluxing water containing a strong acid catalyst.
b. Slowly adding a carboxylic acid to a mixture of concentrated nitric acid and the aromatic compound.
c. Carefully adding an aryl Grignard reagent to a carboxylic acid dissolved in an organic solvent.
d. Reaction of an acid chloride with a reasonably activated aromatic using a strong Lewis acid catalyst.
Question110
What is the key intermediate(s) of the reactions of many acid derivatives?
Choose one answer.
a. That would have to be the Td or tetrahedral intermediate involved in the most common type, the addition-
elimination mechanism.
b. Trick question: there is only a transition state in most acid reactions.
c. Acid reaction mechanisms are very much like an Sn2 reaction with simultaneous bond-formation and bond-
breaking.
d. Acid reaction mechanisms are very much like an Sn1 mechanism with the loss of the leaving group occurring first to
give an acylonium ion.
Question111
How would you most efficiently (key word) convert an acid derivative to a primary amine?
Choose one answer.

a. Reduce an acid to an alcohol, treat with thionyl chloride and add excess ammonia.
b. Make a primary-nitrogen amide and then reduce with excess hydrogen and a very reactive transition metal
catalyst.
c. Mix ammonia and a carboxylic acid together with rapid stirring in water, then distill the water under
vacuum.
d. Heat an alkyl ether or alcohol with ammonium hydroxide, then distill.
Question112
Carboxylic acids are different than alcohols because:
Choose one answer.
a. they have an exchangeable hydrogen on the OH.
b. their OH proton is easily removed by bases even as weak as water.
c. both oxygens attached to the acid carbon are sp2 hybridized.
Question113
The genetic code of all plants and animals is composed of what polymer?
Choose one answer.
a. Natural (what else?) polyamides called DNA and RNA which contain nucleic acid bases in the repeat units.
b. Natural polyamides making up collegen, proteins and peptides.
c. Lipid polymers that contain nucleic acid bases organized in three-unit sequences.
d. Polymers of nucleic acid bases with phophoric acid to give complex polyesters abbreviated RNA and DNA.
Question114
Sucrose is an excellent example of what kind of natural material?
Choose one answer.

a. Natural monosaccharides such as hexoses and pentoses, although sucrose is a dimer sugar with two different
monosaccharides.
b. Oligomers and polymers of glucose, the most common of the sugars, with sucrose composed of two glucose
monosaccharides.
c. An artificial sweetener made of glucose and fructose units with non-natural stereochemistry at the anomeric carbons.
d. The monosaccharide that forms part of the polymer chain in RNA and DNA.
Question115
Proteins are complex oligomers and polymers made up of what?
Choose one answer.
a. Sugar units (ribose with pendent nucleic bases) joined to each other with phosphate ester linkages to make
RNA and DNA molecules.
b. Complex carbohydrates containing both saccharide units linked with amino acid groups.
c. Oligomers and polymers of the group of 23 or so natural amino acids linked through amide bonds.
d. Ester- and amide-linked units of various combinations of the natural materials we ingest in our diets such as
citric acid and lysine.
Question116
Trees and cotton are made of what natural polymer?
Choose one answer.
a. The polysaccharide of glucose called starch; it's also found in legumes and potatoes.
b. The polysaccharide of glucose called cellulose, a polymer with strong intermolecular hydrogen bonds that give
these materials such excellent physical properties.
c. Proteins such as collagen that are strong and have extensive intermolecular hydrogen bonding holding them
together.
d. The polysaccharide with sucrose repeat units, which is why sucrose is so cheap and readily available.
Question117
Hair and skin are made of the same natural polymer as rhino horns: what is it?
Choose one answer.
a. A complex carbohydrate containing both saccharides and amino acids in the polymer repeat units.
b. A natural polymer called starch made up of glucose repeat units.
c. A complex mixture of inorganic phosphate and cellulose that has extremely strong intermolecular forces
holding the chains together.
d. A natural polyamide or protein with a unique arrangement intra- and intermolecular hydrogen bonds along the
chains.
Question118
If you wanted to make your own soap, how would you do it?
Choose one answer.
a. Take cotton fibers and mix with a strong base such as lye, add water, boil till the fibers dissolve,
filter and evaporate the water.
b. Add fur or wool to water containing strong acid, boil till everything dissolves, filter and evaporate
the water to give the slippery crude soap.
c. Start with animal fat or a plant oil, mix with lye (strong inorganic base) and water, heat till all the fat
or oil dissolves, filter and evaporate the water to give the fatty acid salt (soap).
d. Clot cream with acetic acid, mix the curds you get with yeast and let ferment until the bubbling
stops; evaporate the water to get soap.
Question119
There are 23 or so natural amino acids: name a few.
Choose one answer.
a. Lysine, alanine, glycine and aspartic acid for starters.
b. Serine, glutamic acid, thymine and adenine are the less common ones.
c. Steric acid, glucose, alanine and citric acid are the most common ones.
d. Lipoic acid, proline, lysergic acid and pyridine are the essential amino acids, meaning we must have
them in our diet or we get sick.
Question120
RNA is fundamentally different from DNA in what ways?
Choose one answer.
a. RNA is the genetic material passed from parents to offspring while DNA transfers that genetic code into
components of cells and human bodies.
b. RNA uses different nucleic acid bases (different than adenine and thymine, for example) to carry the
genetic information to the enzymes that construct our bodies.
c. The sugar in RNA is ribose and the one in DNA is deoxyribose, but more important, DNA makes up our
genes while RNA does other stuff.
d. There is no chemical difference in terms of nucleic acid bases and sugar units, although DNA is a much
higher molecular weight polymer than RNA.
Question121
Of the 20 natural amino acids listed in the reading, 10 are called "essential", meaning what?
Choose one answer.
a. That without them, you would die a slow, painful death.
b. You must take vitamins to make sure you get enough of these essential amino acids to survive.
c. Your body doesn't really need or use the non-essential ones, while the essential ones make up all the proteins
your body needs.
d. While your body can "manufacture" the non-essential ones from what you eat, it can't make the essential ones
so you have to make sure you eat the right balance of foods to get them in your diet.
Question122
Peptides and proteins are polymers of amino acids, and what is their basic structure?
Choose one answer.
a. Peptides and proteins contain alpha-amino acids forming a two-carbon plus one-nitrogen polyamide with
each repeat unit usually having a pendent or attached side chain of some kind.
b. The amine group of each amino acid is protonated by the acid group of the one next to it forming a long
chain of ammonium-carboxylate salts.
c. The acid groups react with alcohol groups of other amino acids to form polyesters with amine-containing
pendent groups along the chains.
d. The amines, alcohols and thiols of the pendent groups all react with the acid groups to form complex 3D
structures that each have unique properties such as in enzymes.
Question123
The amide groups of peptides, proteins and enzymes have what unique property?
Choose one answer.
a. The nitrogen group is basic and can form ammonium salts with carboxylic acids of other amino acids.
b. Like ketones, they can tautomerize to switch the hydrogen on nitrogen over onto the carbonyl oxygen,
leading to enhanced hydrogen bonding.
c. Because of the sp2 hybridization of the carbonyl and attached nitrogen, the amide group is "flat" and
capable of strong hydrogen bonding with other amide groups.
d. The free rotation around the carbonyl bond to the nitrogen allows these amino acid polymers to flex and
bend as needed in the body.
Question124
Lipids can best be described as what?
Choose one answer.
a. The main constiuents of natural oils (e.g., canola oil) that are polymers of long-chain hydroxyacids.
b. Triglycerides, or long-chain acid triesters of glycerine (1, 2, 3-propanetriol).
c. Unsaturated long-chain aliphatic alcohols that form organized structures such as cell walls in plants and animals.
d. The main components of animal fats (ours included), milk fats and butter.
Question125
Basically, all spectroscopic methods can be described as what?
Choose one answer.
a. Using the interaction of radio waves with molecules to understand molecular structure and properties.
b. Using energy to force molecules to change shape or structure in such a way that we can observe it with a microscope.
c. Using visible or ultraviolet light to illuminate molecules so we can see them with a microscope.
d. Exciting molecules with heat and light so that they emit vibrational energy that can be detected and analyzed with
spectrometers.
Question126
The relative energies used in various kinds of spectroscopic methods vary how?
Choose one answer.
a. From low energy ultraviolet rays to infrared and then to microwaves used in NMR analysis and finally high energy
electrons in mass spectrometry.
b. From high frequency radio waves to lower frequency electrons for NMR to infrared to UV to mass spectrometry.
c. You can't really compare the energies since each type of spectroscopy uses a unique mixture of frequencies.
d. It's not really the energy used, since this can vary independently of frequency or wavelength.
Question127
Mass spectroscopy can best be described as:
Choose one answer.
a. mass analysis of whole molecules that have been given a static electricity charge using a voltameter.
b. fragmentation of molecules with a magnetic field followed by analysis by charge.
c. breakdown and ionization of molecules with high energy electrons followed by magnetic separation and analysis of mass-to-
charge ratios of the ions.
d. careful weighing of the molecules with super-sensitive nano-balances constructed with microlithography.
Question128
Fragmentation "patterns" in mass spectrometry tell us what about the molecules?
Choose one answer.
a. What kinds of impurities were present and how much of each was there.
b. How many atoms of each kind were present in the original molecule.
c. What functional groups were present so that we can determine the functionality of the original molecules.
d. The atomic compositions of segments of the molecule that we re-assemble virtually to determine the original
structure.
Question129
Ultraviolet spectroscopy looks at what kinds of molecular segments?
Choose one answer.
a. All types of bonding from sigma bonds to pi bonds to conjugated and aromatic bonding.
b. Double bonds, aromatic rings and conjugated unsaturation, and non-bonded heteroatoms all absorb in the
UV spectrum and can be detected.
c. We can see the fragments that give us broad peaks or humps in the spectrum and this tells us what kinds of
bonds are involved.
d. It is most sensitive to carbonyl bonds and less to aromatic and conjugated double bonds.
Question130
UV spectroscopy generally shows a combination of broad peaks and sharper ones that tell us what?
Choose one answer.
a. What atoms are attached to a double bond or aromatic ring.
b. How many heteroatoms are in the molecule.
c. The degree of conjugation (pi electron delocalization) and something about substitution patterns.
d. What the elemental composition of the molecule is.
Question131
Infrared is used mainly for determining what about a molecule?
Choose one answer.
a. What kinds of functional groups like amides, ethers and alkene double bonds are present in the molecule.
b. Its purity and what kinds of impurities are present in the mixture.
c. The exact kind and number of each functional group comprising the molecular composition.
d. The total number of atoms and what kind of each are in the molecule.
Question132
Infrared was one of the first spectroscopic methods and is still widely used today to characterize molecules because:
Choose one answer.
a. You can sample solids, liquids or gases although the information obtained isn't useful without combining with
other techniques of analysis.
b. It tells you more about the molecule than any other technique we've studied.
c. It is easy to do, takes very little sample and gives specific information about what functional groups are
present in the molecule.
d. It used the least expensive analytical equipment available.
Question133
How is infrared spectroscopy is different from UV and NMR?
Choose one answer.
a. It uses a different energy range from UV but the same range differently from NMR.
b. Infrared overlaps with UV in the electromagnetic spectrum providing complimentary information on functional
groups while NMR looks at electronic configuration and bonding.
c. They all see different parts of the molecule, and specifically, different atoms and how they're joined together.
d. Infrared detects vibrational motions of functional groups while UV "sees" electronic transitions and NMR looks at
the nuclei and infers bonding based on reference tables.
Question134
NMR involves what kind of analysis?
Choose one answer.
a. Spinning nuclei in such a way that they can be seen with infrared radiation and functional groups determined from
the frequency.
b. Using radio waves to detect nuclei present in a molecule (such as H or C) and based on extensive data bases of
"chemical shifts, " determine what each type is bonded to.
c. Magnetizing the molecules so they can be separated by traveling through a vacuum down a long tube surrounded
by static magnets.
d. Using high energy beams to excite the electrons so they can be detected by magnetic field fluctuations.
Question135
Proton NMR tells you what about a molecule?
Choose one answer.
a. What kind of hydrogens are present (what each kind is bonded to) and exactly how many there are relative to each
other.
b. Whether there are any hydrogens present in the molecule and what their chemical shift is with respect to a standard
(TMS).
c. Whether electron donating or withdrawing groups are present in the molecule.
d. What kind of heteratoms are near the hydrogens you observe in the spectrometer.
Question136
Carbon NMR is harder to do than proton NMR because:
Choose one answer.
a. It has a higher atomic mass which makes it slower to move and relax on the NMR time scale.
b. The mechanism of interaction of the isotopes of carbon (number 13) with a magnetic field is dependent on
how many hydrogens are attached to it.
c. The actual atoms of carbon observed (the isotope we can detect) is of lower relative abundance than for
hydrogen.
d. The gyromagnetic ratio (NMR sensitivity factor) is much less for carbon 13 than for hydrogen 1.
Question137
The chemical shift range for carbon 13 in NMR is different from proton NMR how?
Choose one answer.
a. It's about the same but the relative intensity of the peaks are less, making it much harder to detect.
b. Carbon covers about a 200 pm range while hydrogen has a range of only about 10 ppm and this makes carbon
more sensitive to its chemical environment (groups present).
c. It's more sensitive to solvation and hydrogen bonding which provides key information about molecular motion and
interactions.
d. It's actually much less, and thus provides less specific information about what kinds of functional groups are present
in the molecule.
1
Alcohols react using both acid and base catalysis: please elaborate.
Choose one answer.
a. Acids catalyze hydrolysis and ether formation from alcohols. Bases polarize the OH bond, even to the
point of forming an alkoxide salt.
b. Acids are used as catalysts in the Williamson ether synthesis and for hydrolysis of ethers. Bases dissolve
in ethers for use in other reactions.
c. Acids and bases will react in alcohols to form salts that are useful for ether synthesis.
d. Acids catalyze alcohol dimerization to ethers while bases hydrolyse them.
Question2
The Williamson ether synthesis involves which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. The two Williamson reagents normally used in combination with heat and light.
b. An alkyl alcohol heated up with acid to distill off water.
c. An alkoxide salt of an alcohol reacted with a primary or secondary halide.
d. An alkoxide salt of an alcohol reacted with the alcohol it was made from.
Question3
Epoxides are a special kind of ether that:
Choose one answer.
a. are reactive because of ring string (3 membered ring).
b. react faster with acid or base catalysis.

c. can react with amines, alcohols and acids.
Question4
Ethers can react with which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. With base and water to give two alcohols.
b. With acid and another alcohol to give transetherification- another ether and a different alcohol from the starting one.
c. With ethyl bromide to give an ethyl ether and a new alkyl bromide.
d. With a carboxylic acid and heat to give an ester and an alcohol.
Question5
Alcohols are unique in forming ethers because:
Choose one answer.
a. they can react with themselves in the presence of heat and acid to give ethers.
b. they have an exchangeable hydrogen (the OH one).
c. they have higher boiling points than hydrocarbons or ethers with the same number of carbon atoms.
d. they are all of the above.
Question6
Ether alcohols (molecules with both an ether and a beta alcohol) can best be made by:
Choose one answer.
a. acid catalyzed reaction of an epoxide and an alcohol with maybe a little heat.
b. addition of an alcohol to an alkene with base catalysis and heat.
c. acid catalyzed addition of water to a vinyl ether (ether with a double bond next to the oxygen).
d. addition of an alcohol to a ketone in the presence of acid and heat.
Question7
There are many ways to make an ether including:
Choose one answer.
a. reaction of two alcohols with base and heat catalysis.
b. reaction of an epoxide with an alkene using acid catalysis.
c. reaction of an alkoxide and an alkyl bromide.
d. addition of water to an epoxide with base catalysis.
Question8
Pick the synthetic conditions that will make an ether.
Choose one answer.
a. Reaction of an epoxide with a carboxylic acid.
b. Conversion of an alcohol with base catalysis and heat, distilling off the ether as it forms.
c. Reaction of an alkyl halide with NaOH in water.
d. the conditions for a Williamson synthesis (alkoxide plus halide).
Question9
An epoxide reacts with an alkoxide to give an ether plus something else:
Choose one answer.
a. and the something else is another alkoxide.
b. and the something else is NaOH.
c. and the something else is another epoxide.
d. and there is nothing else formed.
Question10
Ethers are pretty good solvents for:
Choose one answer.
a. alkyl halides.
b. lithium alkyl and sodium alkoxide salts.
c. alcohols.
d. all of the above to some extent.
Question11
Why are thiols and their anionic conjugate bases more reactive than their oxygen analogs?
Choose one answer.
a. They aren't really, since alcohols and acids are more reactive.
b. Because the sulfur is big, and the bigger an atom is with unpaired outer shell electrons, the more
reactive it is.
c. Because sulfur has a bigger, less tightly packed nucleus.
d. Because it's smaller than oxygen and has more localized outer shell electrons which are more
nucleophilic.
Question12
Why does sulfur oxidize so easily to sulfoxides, sulfones, sulfonic and sulfuric acid?
Choose one answer.
a. No one knows, it's one of the mysterious of the universe.
b. Oxygen is more electron rich, and wants to share electrons with any atom it can bind to.
c. Oxidation is just "burning," and we know that sulfur burns well (high sulfur coal?).
d. Sulfur just loves to share its outer shell electrons, and the more sharing it does, the happier it is.
Question13
Do eletrophilic compounds always react at the sulfur, no matter what?
Choose one answer.

a. Yes, except when oxygens are attached to the sulfur, then the oxygens react first.
b. Yes, except when carbons are attached to the sulfur, then substitution occurs at the carbon.
c. Yes, except when bromine is involved.
d. Pretty much, yes, even when oxygens are attached to the sulfur.
Question14
The Swern oxidation involves using DMSO (remember this great solvent?) to do what?
Choose one answer.
a. React with oxygen to form dimethylsulfone, the di-oxygen derivative of sulfur.
b. React with primary or secondary alcohols to give aldehydes or ketones.
c. Convert a primary alcohol to a carboxylic acid using oxygen as the co-reactant.
d. Convert amines to oxides such as nitric oxide using peroxide as co-reactant.
Question15
What is the difference between a thiol and a mercaptan?
Choose one answer.
a. There is none; they're the same and they both have SH bonds.
b. A thiol is the sulfur analog of an ether; a mercaptan is like an alcohol (SH bond).
c. A mercaptan is like an alcohol (SH bond) while a thiol is like an ether.
d. There is none; they're both ether analogs (C-S-C bonds).
Question16
It's possible to make a polymer from a conjugated double bond diene. Pick the right diene below and the polymer that it forms.
Choose one answer.
a. 1, 5-hexadiene (gives a polymer with four carbon backbone and two-carbon pendent group).
b. 2-methyl-1, 3-butadiene (also called isoprene), gives polyisoprene like the natural rubber used in tires.
c. 2, 4-hexadiene (gives a polymer with four carbon backbone and two pendent methyl groups).
d. 1, 2-propadiene (gives a polymer with three carbon backbone).
Question17
Diels-Alder reactions usually involve:
Choose one answer.
a. some kind of diene with pendent ester groups reacting with some kind of alkene to give a substituted
cyclohexene.
b. 1, 3-butadiene reacting with ethylene to give cyclohexene.
c. 1, 3-cyclohexadiene reacting with carbon monoxide to give a cyclic ether-alkene.
d. some kind of alkene with pendent ester groups (e.g., maleic acid diethyl ester) reacting with some kind of diene
(like 1, 3-hexadiene) to give a substituted cyclohexene.
Question18
Dienes can react with bromine (the diatomic molecule, that is) to give a product; which combination below is correct?
Choose one answer.
a. 1, 3-butadiene plus 1 equivalent of bromine gas to give mostly 1, 3-dibromo-3-butene.
b. 1, 3-butadiene plus 1 equivalent of bromine gas to give mostly 1, 4-dibromo-2-butene.
c. 1, 5-hexadiene plus excess bromine to give mainly 1, 2-dibromo-5-hexene.
d. 1, 2-propadiene plus one equivalent of bromine to give 1, 3-dibromopropene.
Question19
Dienes will readily react with chlorine, especially under the right conditions: which is the best answer below?
Choose one answer.
a. 2, 4-hexadiene with chlorine gas under a strong uv light to give the dichlorohexene.
b. 1, 3-butadiene added dropwise to liquid chlorine to give 1, 2-dichloro-3-butene.

c. 1equivalent of frozen chlorine (solid) added to cold 1, 4-cyclohexadiene to give 2, 5-dichloro-1, 4-cyclohexadiene..
d. chlorine gas dissolved in cold water with 1, 3-butadiene added dropwise to give dichlorobutanediols.
Question20
Conjugated double bonds in dienes often lead to an especially stable intermediate during reactions; pick a good explanation below for why.
Choose one answer.
a. Any reactive species whether radical, cationic or anionic will give a resonance stabilized "allylic"
intermediate.
b. The first step in the reaction of conjugated double bonds is the same as for isolated double bonds, and the
radical, cation or anion formed will be stabilized by the alkyl substituent.
c. The intermediate will have both the 1- and the 4-carbons of the starting conjugated double bonds attached
to the attacking electrophile.
d. Actually, the reactions are so fast that no intermediate is expected no matter what electrophile is involved.
Question21
Reaction of 1, 3-butadiene with maleic anhydride gives a single product that is:
Choose one answer.
a. 3-vinylcyclobutane-1, 2-dicarboxylic acid anhydride.
b. 3-(3-butenyl)succinic anhydride.
c. 4-cyclohexene-cis-dicarboxylic acid anhydride.
d. a 1:1 copolymer of the two reactants.
Question22
You unexpectedly are given hundreds of tons of 1, 3-cyclohexadiene. You decide to convert it to benzene by:
Choose one answer.
a. first reacting with chlorine gas and UV light followed by KOH in alcohol.
b. treating with NaOH in water to make the alcohol followed by distillation from concentrated sulfuric acid.
c. carefully adding excess chlorine followed by excess KOH in alcohol.

d. heating it in the presence of a hydrogen and a catalyst such as palladium.
Question23
You can make butene alcohol by:
Choose one answer.
a. simply heating 1, 3-butadiene with NaOH in water.
b. carefully adding one equivalent of HCl followed by NaOH in water.
c. carefully adding one equivalent of bromine followed by NaOH in water.
d. reacting with hydrogen peroxide and acetic acid.
Question24
How would you best make a conjugated diene?
Choose one answer.
a. Starting with a linear alkane with at least four carbons, first halogenate once and dehydrohalogenate to an alkene; do
radical allylic halogenation to give an allyl halide; then dehydrohalogenate again with KOH in alcohol to the diene.
b. Take any 4-carbon alkene, add bromine across the double bond and dehydrohalogenate twice with KOH in alcohol.
c. React a four carbon (at least) linear alkane with two equivalents of chlorine under UV light, then dehydrohalogenate twice
with KOH in alcohol.
d. First chlorinate and dehydrochlorinate butane, then deprotonate with butyl lithium or concentrated KOH in alcohol, and
pour the mixture into dilute acid to neutralize the base.
Question25
You decide to make 1, 3-cyclopentadiene from cyclopentene you happen to have by:
Choose one answer.
a. first reacting with one equivalent of chlorine gas and uv light followed by treating with KOH in alcohol.
b. treating with concentrated NaOH in water followed by dehydration with concentrated sulfuric acid.
c. adding one equivalent of bromine and treating the product with two equivalents of KOH in alcohol.
d. reacting it with HOCl (bleach) to give the halohydrin, and dehydrating with concentrated sulfuric acid.
Question26
Please name the diene that is a cyclic six-carbon ring with two double bonds (conjugated).
Choose one answer.
a. 1, 2-cyclohexadiene.
b. 1, 4-cyclohexadiene.
c. 1, 5-cyclohexadiene
d. 1, 3-cyclohexadiene
Question27
Huckel was one of the first scientists to describe aromaticity, and he used which simple rule?
Choose one answer.
a. involving 4n + 2 carbon atoms in a cyclic array.
b. involving 4n + 2 electrons in a continuous cyclic array of pi-bonds and/or p-orbitals.
c. requiring conjugated carbon atoms in a cyclic array like benzene or naphthalene.
d. with a continuous cyclic array of pi-bonds.
Question28
Aromatic molecules include which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Benzene, naphthalene and higher analogs with 4n + 2 electrons in the conjugated pi-bonds.
b. Furan which has four carbons and one sp2 hybridized oxygen totalling five atoms and 6 pi or non-bonded electrons.
c. Cycloheptatriene possessing 7 carbon atoms with three conjugated pi-bonds containing 6 pi electrons.
d. Cyclopentadiene cation with 5 carbons, two pi-bonds and one sp2 carbon containing 0 electrons in a p-orbital.
Question29
Naphthalene (10 carbons with two fused benzene rings) is aromatic according to Huckel because:
Choose one answer.

a. there is a continuous array of p-orbitals from pi-bonds around the outside of the fused rings AND
there are 4n + 2 electrons in them (10).
b. fused benzene rings are always aromatic.
c. 10 carbons are an even number and there are 5 double bonds with 8 pairs of electrons in them.
Question30
Cyclopropene has three carbons in a ring with one double bond: is it aromatic?
Choose one answer.
a. No because there's only 2 electrons in the pi-bond (2 p-orbitals).
b. No, because there's no continuous array of p-orbitals around the ring.
c. No, because there needs to be a positive charge somewhere in the ring.
d. No, because the ring is too small.
Question31
Substituents on aromatic molecules can have long-range effects: explain why.
Choose one answer.
a. Sigma bonds transmit electronic effects by electronic polarization effects.
b. Resonance causes spreading of the electronic effects of various substituents throughout the ring through
sigma bonds.
c. Resonance of the electron donating or withdrawing affects of a substituent can stabilize or destabilize charge
at ortho and para positions.
d. Through space interactions of a substituent with sigma bonds in the ring affect individual carbon electron
densities.
Question32
A good explanation of aromatic stabilization involves which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. A more even distribution of pi electrons occurs in aromatic molecules.

b. Rapid resonance of pi electrons spreads the electron density over more atoms.
c. The molecular orbitals that form from a conjugated cyclic array of p-orbitalswith just the right number of
electrons in them are substantially lower in energy than for non-conjugated systems.
d. There is no good explanation that we know of, it's just a fact of nature.
Question33
Because of their unique resonance stabilization and molecular structures, aromatic molecules possess unique properties: select the best description below.
Choose one answer.
a. They are more stable and less reactive then non-aromatic molecules.
b. They react with unique mechanisms such as electrophilic aromatic substitution and nucleophilic aromatic
substitution.
c. They do not undergo simple addition reactions that occur with simple alkanes.
Question34
Benzene possess a unique structure: select from those below.
Choose one answer.
a. It has six carbons like cyclohexane and therefore has both chair and boat confirmations.
b. It consists of two fused cyclobutadiene rings that are basically flat.
c. The six carbons in the ring all occupy the same plane with pi bond orbitals above and below that plane.
d. Benzene has carbons connected by six sigma and three pi bonds, with the pi bonds being significantly shorter
than the ordinary sigma bonds in the benzene ring.
Question35
Heteroatom's and charges on atoms can affect aromaticity in what way?
Choose one answer.
a. Their orbitals can be hybridized in such a way as to participate in the cyclic array of p-orbitals
needed for 4n+2 electrons.
b. They can certainly change the stability of an aromatic ring.

c. They modify the behavior of the ring in strange and mysterious ways.
d. They decrease the reactivity of the rings in which they are located.
Question36
Substituents on aromatic ring can affect each other: Pick the answer that best illustrates this.
Choose one answer.
a. Meta-nitrobenzoic acid is more acidic than the para-nitro isomer because the nitro is closer to the acid group.
b. 3, 4-Dinitrobenzoic acid is readily made by nitration of benzoic acid with excess fuming nitric acid.
c. The order of acidity of substituted benzoic acid increases for para-substituents nitro, chloro, hydroxy.
d. The more electron withdrawing groups on the ring, the more acidic is benzoic acid; i.e., trichloro more than dichloro more
than monochlorobenzoic acid.
Question37
Phenol is an aromatic alcohol and differs from aliphatic alcohols in what ways?
Choose one answer.
a. The OH group is less acidic and less easily exchanged with deuterium because of resonance.
b. The OH Group has an enormous effect on reactivity and aliphatic alcohols but not in phenols.
c. Reactions on carbons alpha or beta to the OH in phenols is strictly controlled by electronegativity affects.
d. Because of resonance stabilization of intermediates, phenols are more easily brominated and nitrated.
Question38
The reactivities of substituents on aromatic rings are affected by the aromatic ring as illustrated by which of the following answers?
Choose one answer.
a. The methyl group of toluene readily undergoes free radical reaction and oxidation.
b. Benzoic acid is more acidic than acetic acid.
c. Styrene or vinylbenzene is a better free radical monomer then propene.

Question39
The acidity of phenol is greater than cyclohexanol because:
Choose one answer.
a. an aromatic ring is inherently electron withdrawing, pulling electrons away from the O-H bond.
b. resonance stabilization of the ring bond to oxygen makes the bond between O and H weaker.
c. resonance stabilization of the conjugate base (phenolate anion) is greater than is stabilization of the
cyclohexanol alkoxide by the attached ring.
d. alkyl carbons are electron donating compared to an aromatic ring, baking the cyclohexanol OH bond
stronger than that of phenol.
Question40
Compare the reactivity of the oxygen to acetylation with acetic anhydride for phenol versus cyclohexanol by picking the best answer below.
Choose one answer.
a. Electron donation by the cyclohexane ring increases nucleophilic attack by the oxygen of cyclohexanol versus
phenol.
b. Resonance is greater for the phenol acetyl oxonium intermediate than for the cyclohexanol analog.
c. Base catalyzed formation of the phenolate is faster than for cyclohexanol due to resonance stabilization, and
the anion formed is more reactive.
d. In fact, they both react at the same rate.
Question41
You find to your surprise that the reaction of phenol with acetic anhydride and aluminum trichloride gives a mixture of two disubstituted products. Pick the best reason for why.
Choose one answer.
a. The OH oxygen reacts twice to give the bisester derivative.
b. Ring acylation occurs twice in the ortho-ortho' and ortho-para positions.
c. The first acylation product is in the ortho and para positions which deactivates the ring and causes meta-
substitution with the second acetyl group to give ortho-meta and meta-para diacetylphenols.
d. The first reaction is at the oxygen to give phenyl acetate followed by acetylation in the ortho and para positions to
give a mixture of products.
Question42
EAS reactions involve attack by something seeking:
Choose one answer.
a. all of the below.
b. electrons, and those are almost always relatively "available" ones in pi-orbitals.
c. a nucleus to bond to, making the reaction also a "nucleophilic" attack.
d. a one-step reaction involving loss of leaving group at the same time the attacking group makes a new bond.
Question43
All EAS reactions involve a "tetrahedral" or Td intermediate. Which of the following is true of this statement?
Choose one answer.
a. Can't happen with an aromatic ring carbon which by definition is sp2 or trigonal planar.
b. There is no intermediate in EAS which simple involves attack at electrons.
c. No, the leaving group leaves at the same time the attacking group forms a bond.
d. Almost all do: an sp2 carbon becomes sp3 in the intermediate.
Question44
The best way to describe the "arrow" showing the mechanism of EAS is:
Choose one answer.
a. it goes from the attacking atom (electrophile) to the carbon being attacked.
b. it goes from the attacking atom to the new bond being formed.
c. it goes from the electron pair in the pi-bond on the ring to the new sigma bond being formed.
d. it involves a half-head arrow from the attacking species and a half-head arrow from the pi-bond to the new
sigma bond to be formed.
Question45
In general, electrophilic aromatic substitution (EAS) happens:
Choose one answer.
a. between any aromatic molecule and an appropriate electrophile, assuming aromaticity follows the 2(n +
2) rule.
b. with any pi-bond containing molecule and an electrophile.
c. with chlorine or bromine and iron catalysis on any pi-bond species.
d. when an electrophile bonds to a nucleophile of some kind.
Question46
EAS with chlorine gas bubbled into chlorobenzene containing aluminum trichloride would:
Choose one answer.
a. not happen because chlorine is deactivating.
b. gives mostly meta-dichlorobenzene with mild heating.
c. gives mostly ortho-dichlorobenzene with mild heating.
d. generates HCl and mostly para-dichlorobenzene.
Question47
47. Fuming nitric acid converts phenol into:
Choose one answer.
a. pure trinitrophenol (also called "picric acid" which has a really low pKa for a phenolic compound).
b. 2, 4-dinitrophenol because of deactivation with each nitro group added.
c. para-nitrophenol since the OH group on an aromatic ring is activating and ortho-para directing.
d. a complex mixture of ortho- and para-substituted phenols with di- and trinitro derivatives predominating.
Question48
48. Friedel-Crafts acylation of ortho-nitrotoluene with acetyl chloride and aluminum trichloride gives:
Choose one answer.

a. a mixture of acetophenones with the nitro group always ortho or para to the carbonyl.
b. almost exclusively a single product, 3-nitro-4-methyl-acetophenone.
c. 2-methyl-acetophenone by nitro group displacement.
d. no reaction since the nitro group is so deactivating.
Question49
49. Common explosives developed by Alfred Nobel use trinitro-aromatics such as:
Choose one answer.
a. trinitrophenol made by low-temperature nitration of phenol.
b. trinitrobenzene made by heating benzene in fuming nitric acid.
c. 2, 5-dinitro-1, 4-dichlorobenzene made by chloronating the dinitrobenzene with ferric chloride as catalyst.
d. TNT or trinitrotoulene made by careful exhaustive nitration of toluene.
Question50
50. Friedel-Crafts alkylation of benzene with 1-chloro-2-methylpropane and aluminum trichloride gives:
Choose one answer.
a. isobutylbenzene (or 1-phenyl-2-methylpropane).
b. t-butylbenzene (or 1-phenyl-1, 1-dimethylethane).
c. dimethylstyrene (or phenyl-dimethylethene).
d. paramethylpropylbenzene.
Question51
51. You decide to make meta-nitrophenol by doing which of the following steps?
Choose one answer.
a. Reacting phenol with fuming nitric acid in an ice bath.

b. Reacting benzene with fuming nitric acid, then reacting the product with chlorine/iron, and last heating with
NaOH in water.
c. Reacting benzene with chlorine/iron, then reacting the product with nitric acid followed by NaOH in water.
d. Reacting benzene with fuming nitric acid to make trinitrobenzene and then with NaOH in water.
Question52
52. You acquire a mixture of meta- and para-fluoronitrobenzene and want to react it with a nucleophile. What should you do first?
Choose one answer.
a. You pick sodium methoxide because it's more reactive than a sulfur anion, sodium hydrosulfide (NaSH).
b. You choose NaCl in ethanol since that's a pretty good nucleophile system.
c. You decide on sodium methoxide dissolved in water to make the para-nitrophenyl methyl ether.
d. You mix NaSH with ethanol and then add the aromatic molecule to make the aryl sulfide.
Question53
53. You want to make para-hydroxybenzoic acid, so you decide to do both EAS and NAS as follows:
Choose one answer.
a. You react para-chlorotoulene with hot KMnO4, isolate the product and then react it with hot methanol and HCl
catalyst. The product of this you react with neat NaOH in the melt.
b. You react toluene with concentrated NaOH in water at reflux to do NAS formation of the hydroxide, and then
oxidize the methyl group with hot permanganate to give the acid.
c. You first react toluene with hot permanganate to make benzoic acid, then react that with chlorine/iron to make
the para-chlorobenzoic acid which you heat with NaOH in water.
d. You react benzoic acid with chlorine and iron catalyst, then treat with concentrated NaOH in water and heat.
Question54
54. There are two components to a nucleophilic aromatic substitution reaction with the order of reactivity of:
Choose one answer.
a. halide leaving groups on the aromatic ring being F>Cl>Br, I not reactive.
b. the nature of the attacking nucleophile being unimportant.

c. other activating groups that are NOT displaced but stay on the ring such as ester, nitro, sulfone and
carbonyl.
Question55
55. The Kolbe and Riemer-Tieman reactions are special types of EAS reaction in which:
Choose one answer.
a. chloroform is the electrophile and it reacts with the sodium salt of phenol (sodium phenolate).
b. bubbling carbon dioxide through a solution of phenol in water generates the para-hydroxybenzoic acid.
c. sodium phenolate (sodium salt of phenol) reacts directly with carbon dioxide (high temperature and pressure) to
give ortho- and para-hydroxybenzoic acids as their sodium salts.
d. phenol dissolved in ethanol with iron chloride reacts rapidly with carbonic acid to form the ortho- and para-
hydroxybenzoic acids.
Question56
56. The key intermediate in electrophilic aromatic substitution (e.g., bromination of benzene) can be described best by which answer below?
Choose one answer.
a. Bezene-derived anion adduct with delocalization of the charge around the ring.
b. Bezenonium ion, the cation formed by attack of the electrophile (e.g., bromine cation) on the ring to give an sp3
hybridized carbon.
c. There is no intermediate, just a transition state with the H-atom leaving as the electrophile forms a bond to that
carbon.
d. A complex salt with the catalyst bound to the pi-cloud of the ring while the electrophile is attached to one of the
bezene hydrogens.
Question57
57. Almost all EAS reactions require a catalyst because (pick the best answer below):
Choose one answer.
a. EAS is a difficult reaction since your going uphill energetically from an aromatic molecule, and the catalyst
helps do this by forming a more reactive electrophile.
b. The catalyst complexes with the aromatic ring to activate it for attack.
c. The catalyst brings the aromatic ring and the electrophile together so that they can react.
d. Actually, a catalyst is rarely used and this is a false statement.
Question58
58. Nucleophilic aromatic substitution (NAS) is very similar to Sn2 substitution of alkanes because:
Choose one answer.
a. Displacement occurs in a single step.
b. It is a process involving an attacking species and a leaving group, although for NAS there is also an intermediate.
c. In both cases, a highly active nucleophile is the attacking species.
d. Inversion of the stereochemistry at the substituted carbon occurs during reaction.
Question59
59. The NAS mechanism is special in what regard?
Choose one answer.
a. It requires a much more nucleophilic attacking species than in alkyl substitution reactions.
b. The aromatic nucleus being attacked must have electron donating groups attached.
c. A 3-center Intermediate exists involving the catalyst, nucleophile and aromatic ring.
d. It involves nucleophilic attack at an sp2 carbon which only occurs with strong electron withdrawing groups
attached at or in resonance with the substituted carbon.
Question60
60. The two types of aromatic substitution reactions (electrophilic and nucleophilic) are complementary in that (pick the best answer):
Choose one answer.
a. The same types of substituents on the aromatic ring are activators in both cases.
b. The arrow showing electron motion in both cases always starts at one of the pi bonds on the ring.
c. EAS is enhanced by electron donating groups on the ring while NAS is enhanced by electron withdrawing
groups.
d. Both use Lewis acid catalysts like iron chloride or aluminum chloride.
Question61
Based on the outer shell hybridization of the nitrogen, amines have what geometry?
Choose one answer.
a. Modified structure with three sp2 orbitals in a trigonal planar array and one p-orbital with 2 electrons.
b. Two electrons in the 2s orbital and three bonding pairs of electrons in the three 2p orbitals.
c. It is incorrect to equate hybridization with molecular geometry.
d. Tetrahedral, just like carbon and oxygen, with four energetically equivalent orbitals pointing at the apexes of a
tetrahedron.
Question62
Amines are "basic" in a Bronstead scheme because of what?
Choose one answer.
a. They have a lone pair of electrons in an sp3 orbital just sitting there waiting for something to happen,
like protonation.
b. They have a conjugated set of orbitals capable of forming dative bonds.
c. A proton can bind to one of the attached atoms through the excess electron density in the bonding
orbital.
d. That's just the way they roll.
Question63
Amines can be made from aldehydes by doing what?
Choose one answer.
a. Displacing the oxygen through an Sn2 reaction.
b. Protonating the oxygen of the aldehyde and attacking with a neutral amine of some kind in an Sn2 reaction.
c. Mixing ammonia or a primary or secondary amine with the aldehyde, forming the imine and reducing with
hydrogen and a nickel catalyst.
d. Reduce the aldehyde to the alcohol with hydrogen and a catalyst, then reacting with an amine or ammonia at
high temperature in an Sn2 reaction.
Question64
How would you convert a carboxylic acid to an amine?
Choose one answer.
a. First reduce the acid with lithium aluminum hydride to the alcohol, convert to an alkyl chloride with thionyl
chloride, then heat with excess amine.
b. Heat the acid with ammonium hydroxide under high pressure and temperature, isolate the amide and
reduce it with lithium aluminum hydride.
c. Convert the acid to the acid chloride with thionyl chloride and heat, add sodium cyanide to form the nitrile
and reduce with lithium aluminum hydride.
d. All three of the above but with careful consideration of conditions and structure of the reactants.
Question65
Aniline is an aromatic amine that can be made how?
Choose one answer.
a. Reacting benzene with chlorine gas and iron chloride catalyst, then nitrating with nitric acid in sulfuric acid,
isolating the product and reducing with hydrogen using a palladium catalyst.
b. Heating benzene with ammonia under high heat and pressure; once the first amine adds, further reaction stops
because the amine is such a strong electron donator.
c. Reacting phenol with thionyl chloride to form chlorobenzene, then heating with ammonia under high temperature
and pressure.
d. By treating benzene with nitric acid in sulfuric acid, isolating the nitrobenzene and reducing with hydrogen and a
palladium catalyst.
Question66
In terms of basicity, what is the order for alkyl amines?
Choose one answer.
a. Secondary > tertiary > primary > ammonia due to steric effects for the tertiary putting it "out of order."
b. Tertiary amine > secondary > primary > ammonia due to electron donating ability of alkyl substituents.
c. Ammonia > primary amine > secondary > tertiary due to electron withdrawing ability of any heteroatom.
d. It will depend on whether we're talking about Lewis or Bronstead acid-base chemistry.
Question67
Reaction of isopropyl bromide (2-bromopropane) with amines varies how with amine structure?
Choose one answer.
a. In a non-regular manner, with secondary amines often being more reactive than either primary or
tertiary amines.
b. Only primary and secondary amines react due to steric inhibition with tertiary amines.
c. Because of steric inhibition caused by the huge isopropyl group, there is no reaction with any
amines.
d. It doesn't vary at all since all amines and ammonia have the same basic reactivity.
Question68
Pyridine is an aromatic amine: what is its structure and is it basic?
Choose one answer.
a. Pyridine is a benzene ring with an NH2 group attached that is basic like any amine.
b. It is a seven-membered ring with the six sp2 hybridized carbons accounting for the aromaticity and
the nitrogen in the ring providing basicity.
c. It is like benzene with one carbon replaced with nitrogen that also has a lone pair of electrons
(basic) in an sp2 orbital within the plane of the ring.
d. Pyridine is one of the nucleic acid bases possessing two nitrogens in the aromatic (benzene-like)
ring and one nitrogen NH2 attached.
Question69
Quanidine (CN3H5 with three nitrogens attached to the carbon) is a very strong base for protonation for what reason?
Choose one answer.
a. Each of the amines has a lone pair of electrons making it three times more likely that a proton can
bond to one pair.
b. Once one of the nitrogens is protonated, hydrogen bonding with the other nitrogens stabilizes the
charge.
c. The proton in the protonated quandinium ion sits on top of and bonded to all three nitrogens at the
same time.
d. Mainly because the protonated form has a positive charge resonance delocalized onto all three
nitrogens through the central carbon.
Question70
Nitrogen is similar to carbon and oxygen (adjacent 2nd row elements) in what unique way?
Choose one answer.
a. All three have two electron in the 1s orbital.
b. It combines outer shell s and p electrons into four sp3 orbitals that are tetrahedral in shape.
c. It can form three bonds to other atoms in a neutral molecule.
d. It has a pair of electrons in a non-bonding sp3 orbital.
Question71
Amines and acids both have:
Choose one answer.
a. basic characters- they make water have a higher pH value when dissolved in it.
b. acidic characters- they make water have a lower pH value when dissolved in it.
c. exchangable hydrogens that can be converted to deuterium with heavy water (D2O).
d. greater volatility than alkanes with the same number of carbons.
Question72
Amines can be made from:
Choose one answer.
a. the reaction of ammonia with alkyl chloride with maybe heat to speed it up.
b. reaction of ammonium hydroxide with an alkyl bromide.
c. two-step reaction involving imine formation (amine plus aldehyde) followed by hydrogen reduction
(with catalyst).
d. All of the above, more or less.
Question73
There are three types of amines that include:
Choose one answer.
a. primary, secondary, and tertiary, referring to the type of carbon directly attached to the nitrogen.
b. primary, secondary, and tertiary, referring to how many alkyl carbons are directly attached to the nitrogen.
c. alkyl, aryl (aromatic), and ammonium salts.
d. substituted amines, unsubstituted amines, and amides.
Question74
An alkyl carboxylic acid can be made by:
Choose one answer.
a. heating a methyl ketone with acid and iodine.
b. treating an alkyl halide with hydrogen gas and platinum.
c. reacting an alcohol with ozone.
d. oxidation of a primary alcohol with hot permanganate or chromate.
Question75
Butyl amine and acetic acid will react:
Choose one answer.
a. with heat to drive off water and make N-butyl acetamide.
b. in ethanol to form an ester and amine salt.
c. with an butyl bromide to form dibutyl amine.
d. hydrochloric acid to form an amide.
Question76
The name of a tertiary amine with one butyl and two methyl groups is:
Choose one answer.
a. butyl amine dimethyl.

b. methyl butyl aminomethane.
c. dimethylaminobutane.
d. butyl dimethyl amine.
Question77
The carboxylic acid made by oxidation of n-butanol is called:
Choose one answer.
a. butanoic acid.
b. propyl carboxylic acid.
c. carbonic acid.
d. benzoic acid.
Question78
Reacting 2-butene with peracetic acid (a peroxy acid) would lead to:
Choose one answer.
a. 2, 3-butanediol.
b. tetrahydrofuran (four carbon cyclic ether).
c. 2-butanol.
d. 2, 3-butene epoxide or 2, 3-epoxybutane.
Question79
Carboxylic acids can be converted to primary amines by:
Choose one answer.
a. decarboxylation with HBr and peroxide, then reaction of the alkyl bromide with ammonia.
b. reduction of the acid to the alcohol with NaOH/formaldehyde, then reaction with ammonium chloride and heat.
c. a two-step conversion, first to the amide with ammonia and heat, and then by reduction with litium aluminum hydride or
hydrogen plus catalyst.
d. using lactase fermentation in the presence of ammonia atmosphere.
Question80
Primary amines of primary alkanes can be converted to alcohols using the Hoffman-type reaction involving:
Choose one answer.
a. reaction first with the Hoffman reagent and then heat with NaOH.
b. Exhaustive methylation with methyl iodide followed by heat with NaOH in water.
c. Conversion of the amine to an acetamide with acetic anhydride followed by reduction with hydrogen and
catalyst.
d. Exhaustive ethylation with ethyl bromide followed by heat with KOH in ethanol.
Question81
Why is a hydrogen attached to the carbon next to a carbonyl so reactive?
Choose one answer.
a. The carbonyl polarization pushes electrons onto the alpha-carbon and hydrogen through sigma bonds.
b. In the anionic intermediate formed, delocalization of charge onto the more electronegative oxygen occurs through
pi-bonds.
c. Enol-keto tautomers equilibrate and the hydrogen isn
d. The double bond to oxygen from the alpha carbon is conjugated to the intermediate carbanion through a double
bond to that carbon as well.
Question82
The acidity of a proton (hydrogen) alpha to most carbonyl compounds is around pKa = 25, but drops to what with two carbonyls attached to the same sp3 carbon with a hydrogen?
Choose one answer.
a. Less than 20 but just barely.
b. Less than 14 or so which means that aqueous base can deprotonate such compounds.
c. Less than 10 which makes them weak acids.

d. Less than 6 which makes them about as acidic as carboxylic acids.
Question83
What is the best way to draw (describe) the sodium salt of 2, 4-pentadione (two acetyls on the same methylene)?
Choose one answer.
a. Since only one hydrogen on the carbon is lost to form this, the sodium cation should be on the alpha
carbon.
b. Since only one of the oxygens can undergo enol-keto tautomerism, the sodium cation should be on one
oxygen.
c. Since both oxygens can equilibrate with the carbanion, why not put the sodium cation between them in a
chelate?
d. Since the carbonyl oxygen lone pairs repel each other, one carbonyl will be twisted out of plane with the
other, and will have the sodium attached.
Question84
Reaction of almost any aldehyde or ketone with ethylene glycol (1, 2-ethanediol) and acid catalyst with water distillation does what?
Choose one answer.
a. Reduces the carbonyl to an alcohol while oxidizing the ethylene glycol to acetaldehyde.
b. Dehydrates the glycol to vinyl alcohol which forms a C-C bond to the carbon alpha to the carbonyl.
c. Transfers one of the hydroxyl groups from the glycol to the carbonyl to form a hydrate (two OH groups on the
same carbon).
d. Well, if you're careful, in the end you form the acetal or ketal with no change in oxidation state.
Question85
A fairly general synthesis of a ketone would involve what steps?
Choose one answer.
a. Reaction of an alkane with chlorine and UV light to form an alkyl chloride, conversion to an alcohol with NaOH
and water, and oxidation with CrO3 in sulfuric acid.
b. Treating an alkane with peroxide and acid to give an alcohol, followed by in situ (one-pot) oxidation to the
carbonyl with the same reagents.
c. Treating an alkene with potassium permanganate in refluxing aqueous acid.

d. Reacting an alkyl carboxylic acid with thionyl chloride followed by treating the product with an alcohol and
aluminum trichloride.
Question86
A neat way to make a symmetrical dialdehyde from cyclohexene is done how?
Choose one answer.
a. Reacting the alkene with hydrogen peroxide in acetic acid followed by adding water plus heat to give
a glycol that is then cleaved with more peroxide and heat.
b. Treating first with osmium tetroxide in pyridine, then adding hydrogen sulfide and extracting the
product.
c. Reacting the alkene with ozone (O3) in chloroform (CHCl3) followed by treatment with peroxide.
d. All of the above, I hope.
Question87
In a different problem (somewhere here) you oxidized an alcohol to an aldehyde or ketone; now you want the alcohol back so you:
Choose one answer.
a. Add concentrated NaOH in water and heat to drive off the water, then extract with methylene chloride to obtain
the alcohol.
b. Add to the carbonyl compound in ethanol concentrated sulfuric acid containing sodium borohydride, then
neutralizing and extracting with ether.
c. Dissolve the ketone or aldehyde in ethanol (maybe with a little water and NaOH added) and then slowly adding
sodium borohydride followed by neutralization and extraction.
d. Treat with hot potassium permanganate (KMnO4) in aqueous acid, then neutralize and extract.
Question88
The Claissen-Schmidt reaction is a simple reaction (cyclohexanone plus 1 equivalent formaldehyde and sodium ethoxide catalyst) that forms what product?
Choose one answer.
a. Since the formaldehyde is more reactive, it adds the ethoxide and the resulting carbanion adds to the ketone carbonyl followed
by loss of water to give cyclohexenylmethanal.
b. Abstraction of proton alpha to the ketone followed by attack at the formaldehyde carbonyl followed by a two-step proton
exchange and water loss to form the alpha methylene of cyclohexanone.
c. The cyclohexanone dimerizes and then formaldehyde donates a hydride to reduce the remaining ketone to give the diol.
d. The ethoxide attacks the formaldehyde first (more reactive carbonyl) and the adduct attacks the ketone to form the acetal.
Question89
Ketones and aldehydes react with HCN to give what?
Choose one answer.
a. Poisonous materials that are extremely dangerous due to reversible release of the HCN.
b. A member of the family of adducts called cyanohydrins, which can be hydrolyzed to the alpha-hydroxy acid.
c. The dicyano compound with both CN's attached to the carbonyl carbon and one equivalent of water released.
d. Reaction at the alpha-position of the enol form of the carbonyl to give a beta-cyano ketone or aldehyde.
Question90
The aldol reaction of acetaldehyde (2 carbons) with sodium ethoxide catalyst gives what?
Choose one answer.
a. Addition of two equivalents of the ethoxide to the carbonyl carbon to form the acetal.
b. No reaction- ethoxide is not a strong enough base to actually catalyze any reaction of acetaldehyde.
c. A dimer joined at what were the carbonyl carbons, the product named as 2, 3-butandiol.
d. A dimer of the aldehyde (kind of) that could be named 3-hydroxy-1-butanal.
Question91
Cyclopentanone reacts with the non-nucleophilc but very strong base NaH to form an anion that then reacts with methyl iodide to give what product?
Choose one answer.
a. The base removes an alpha proton to give the enolate anion which nucleophilically attacks MeI to displace the iodide and form
the alpha-methylcyclopentanone.
b. The initial enolate anion formed adds the iodine to the alpha carbon while the methyl ends up on the oxygen.
c. Initial enolate anion abstracts a proton from the methyl iodide carbon, which then attacks the carbonyl to form alpha- iodomethyl-
hydroxycyclopentane.
d. No reaction occurs- NaH is not a strong enough base to deprotonate a carbon alpha to a carbonyl.
Question92
You try to react 1, 5-cyclooctadione with chlorine using NaH as catalyst. You forget to weigh the NaH and end up using 2 equivalents which gives you a product with no chlorine but different
from the starting material: what is it?
Choose one answer.
a. The first step goes fine to give 2, 6-dichloro-1, 5-cyclooctadione. The second NaH dehydrohalogenates to give a double bond
conjugated to each of the ring carbonyls.
b. The NaH reduces both carbonyls to alcohols.
c. The first step gives 2-chloro-1, 5-cyclooctadione but the second NaH reduces off the chlorine to give back the starting
material.
d. The first step works fine, with deprotonation alpha to one carbonyl followed by reaction with chlorine to give the alpha-
chloro species. However, the second NaH dehydrochlorinates to give the cyclooctadione with a double bond conjugated to one
of the ketones.
Question93
Why are carboxamides are such wonderful and useful derivatives of carboxylic acids?
Choose one answer.
a. Didn't know they were, but if you say so, it must be because they are so reactive.
b. Well, if nature uses them in peptides and proteins, they most offer something useful, like maybe hydrolytic
stability and intermolecular hydrogen bonding?
c. The sp3 hybridized nitrogen is almost as basic as a simple amine but with the added contribution of the
attached carbonyl to enhance metal binding.
d. There so easy to make that all living creatures can just ingest amines from food and convert them to amides in
the stomach.
Question94
Which of the following statements is true about a carboxylic derivative or reaction?
Choose one answer.
a. Nitriles have a carbon-nitrogen "double bond" and are also called Shiff bases.
b. An imide is a carbonyl with two nitrogens attached (like ureas).
c. The key atoms of an amide bond (carbon and oxygen of the carbonyl plus the amide of the nitrogen and its
hydrogen) all lie in the same plane making for a rigid, conformationally restrained segment (like in an enzyme).
d. Nature uses acid chlorides (acyl halides) in the body to make natural amides such as peptides.
Question95
Even without a topic on polymers, can you pick out which of the following is not true?
Choose one answer.
a. The common polymer cellulose is found in virtually all living organisms.
b. Polyester used in clothing and soda bottles is made from terephthalic acid and ethlene glycol (the
same chemical used in antifreeze).
c. Lipids are long-chain alkyl esters (of fatty acids) found in many living organisms.
d. RNA and DNA are polyesters made from inorganic phosporic acid and substituted sugar molecules.
Question96
Carboxylic acids can react by:
Choose one answer.
a. electrophilic attack of an amine on the central carbon of the acid group.
b. nucleophilic attack of the polarized central carbon of the acid group on alcohols and amines.
c. conversion to acid chlorides with thionyl chloride, a high-energy and very reactive inorganic acid chloride.
d. rehybridization of the central sp2 carbon to an sp3 one.
Question97
Synthesis of a carboxylic acid can occur by:
Choose one answer.
a. reaction of an alcohol with a strong oxidizing agent like KMnO4.
b. reaction with oxygen in the air catalyzed by heat.
c. conversion of the alcohol OH to an alkyl halide with thionyl chloride.
d. reaction of an alkene with a peracid or peroxide plus acid catalyst.
Question98
Amides are derivatives of carboxylic acids that:
Choose one answer.
a. can be formed by simple mixing of an amine with an acid.
b. first reacting the amine with thionyl chloride and then adding the acid.
c. first reacting the acid with sodium hydroxide and then adding the amine.
d. first reacting the acid with thionyl chloride and then adding the amine.
Question99
Carboxylic acids have a unique combination of:
Choose one answer.
a. a central sp2 hybridized carbon, one sp2 hybridized oxygen and one sp3 hybridized oxygen.
b. an sp2 hybridized carbon that can accept a proton from another acid's sp3 hybridized OH moiety.
c. basicity and nucleophilicity to substitution reactions.
Question100
Carboxylic acids can react to:
Choose one answer.
a. form alcohols by oxidation with peracids.
b. form alkyl bromides by reaction with PBr3.
c. form amides by reaction with amines, heat and water removal by distillation.
d. form an ester by reaction with an ether.
Question101
A general synthesis of carboxylic acids involves:
Choose one answer.

a. first conversion of an alcohol to an alkyl iodide and then reaction with oxygen.
b. alcohol reaction with strong oxidizing agents like hydrogen gas and platinum catalyst.
c. conversion of an alkyl iodide to a Grignard reagent with magnesium followed by quenching with dry ice.
d. reaction of an alkyl bromide with sodium hydroxide in water.
Question102
Esters can be made from carboxylic acids by:
Choose one answer.
a. none of the answers below.
b. mixing the acid with excess primary alcohol and distilling off water.
c. mixing an acid with a tertiary alkyl bromide and KOH in t-butyl alcohol.
d. first converting to the acid chloride with thionyl chloride and then adding alcohol and dilute base.
Question103
Ketones can be made from carboxylic acids by:
Choose one answer.
a. first converting the acid to an acid chloride then mixing with toluene and iron chloride, and heating
for a while.
b. adding a nail to a mixture of a tertiary bromide and benzene, and heating.
c. simple reduction with hydrogen and a transition metal catalyst.
d. reacting the acid with KOH and then heating with phenyl bromide.
Question104
Acid chlorides are highly reactive derivatives of carboxylic acids that can:
Choose one answer.
a. be made from alkyl alcohols by reaction with thionyl chloride.

b. react with themselves to form ketones.
c. be reduced to ketones with hydrogen and a platinum catalyst.
d. react with amines and alcohols to give amides and esters.
Question105
The basic order of stability of carboxylic acids is (pick one).
Choose one answer.
a. acids > acyl halides > esters > anhydrides > amides
b. amides >> acids ~ esters > anhydrides > acyl halides
c. esters > amides > acids >> anhydrides > acyl halides
d. amides >> acids > esters > acyl halides > anhydrides
Question106
Which is the best way to make an amide from a carboxylic acid derivative?
Choose one answer.
a. Use two equivalents of amine with one equipment of acid chloride.
b. React an ester with an amine through heat-induced transamidation.
c. Use an anhydride with two equivalents of amine, one for each of the acid equivalents (oh, and add heat).
d. Use the classic Shotten-Baumen conditions of one equivalent of acid chloride in an organic solvent and one
equivalent of amine plus one equivalent of dilute inorganic base in water, stir rapidly, chill as needed.
Question107
Carboxylic acids form salts with amines that can be useful how?
Choose one answer.
a. They're more water soluble as the salt, and if one is a medication, this can help in delivery.
b. You can heat the salt up under vacuum and form an amide (usually).
c. You can extract impurities away using water plus an organic solvent.
d. All of the above, in a practical sense.
Question108
Under what conditions can hydrolysis of a carboxylic ester or amide lead back to the acid?
Choose one answer.
a. Simply mixing with water and stirring at room temperature.
b. Boiling with alcohol and acid catalyst.
c. Boiling with water and base catalyst.
d. Treating with NaH and ethanol.
Question109
Which acid derivative and what reaction conditions would give an aryl ketone?
Choose one answer.
a. Heating an anhydride with the aromatic in refluxing water containing a strong acid catalyst.
b. Slowly adding a carboxylic acid to a mixture of concentrated nitric acid and the aromatic compound.
c. Carefully adding an aryl Grignard reagent to a carboxylic acid dissolved in an organic solvent.
d. Reaction of an acid chloride with a reasonably activated aromatic using a strong Lewis acid catalyst.
Question110
What is the key intermediate(s) of the reactions of many acid derivatives?
Choose one answer.
a. That would have to be the Td or tetrahedral intermediate involved in the most common type, the addition-
elimination mechanism.
b. Trick question: there is only a transition state in most acid reactions.
c. Acid reaction mechanisms are very much like an Sn2 reaction with simultaneous bond-formation and bond-
breaking.
d. Acid reaction mechanisms are very much like an Sn1 mechanism with the loss of the leaving group
occurring first to give an acylonium ion.
Question111
How would you most efficiently (key word) convert an acid derivative to a primary amine?
Choose one answer.
a. Reduce an acid to an alcohol, treat with thionyl chloride and add excess ammonia.
b. Make a primary-nitrogen amide and then reduce with excess hydrogen and a very reactive transition
metal catalyst.
c. Mix ammonia and a carboxylic acid together with rapid stirring in water, then distill the water under
vacuum.
d. Heat an alkyl ether or alcohol with ammonium hydroxide, then distill.
Question112
Carboxylic acids are different than alcohols because:
Choose one answer.
a. they have an exchangeable hydrogen on the OH.
b. their OH proton is easily removed by bases even as weak as water.
c. both oxygens attached to the acid carbon are sp2 hybridized.
Question113
The genetic code of all plants and animals is composed of what polymer?
Choose one answer.
a. Natural (what else?) polyamides called DNA and RNA which contain nucleic acid bases in the repeat
units.
b. Natural polyamides making up collegen, proteins and peptides.
c. Lipid polymers that contain nucleic acid bases organized in three-unit sequences.
d. Polymers of nucleic acid bases with phophoric acid to give complex polyesters abbreviated RNA and
DNA.
Question114
Sucrose is an excellent example of what kind of natural material?
Choose one answer.
a. Natural monosaccharides such as hexoses and pentoses, although sucrose is a dimer sugar with two different
monosaccharides.
b. Oligomers and polymers of glucose, the most common of the sugars, with sucrose composed of two glucose
monosaccharides.
c. An artificial sweetener made of glucose and fructose units with non-natural stereochemistry at the anomeric carbons.
d. The monosaccharide that forms part of the polymer chain in RNA and DNA.
Question115
Proteins are complex oligomers and polymers made up of what?
Choose one answer.
a. Sugar units (ribose with pendent nucleic bases) joined to each other with phosphate ester linkages to make
RNA and DNA molecules.
b. Complex carbohydrates containing both saccharide units linked with amino acid groups.
c. Oligomers and polymers of the group of 23 or so natural amino acids linked through amide bonds.
d. Ester- and amide-linked units of various combinations of the natural materials we ingest in our diets such as
citric acid and lysine.
Question116
Trees and cotton are made of what natural polymer?
Choose one answer.
a. The polysaccharide of glucose called starch; it's also found in legumes and potatoes.
b. The polysaccharide of glucose called cellulose, a polymer with strong intermolecular hydrogen bonds that give
these materials such excellent physical properties.
c. Proteins such as collagen that are strong and have extensive intermolecular hydrogen bonding holding them
together.
d. The polysaccharide with sucrose repeat units, which is why sucrose is so cheap and readily available.
Question117
Hair and skin are made of the same natural polymer as rhino horns: what is it?
Choose one answer.
a. A complex carbohydrate containing both saccharides and amino acids in the polymer repeat units.
b. A natural polymer called starch made up of glucose repeat units.
c. A complex mixture of inorganic phosphate and cellulose that has extremely strong intermolecular forces
holding the chains together.
d. A natural polyamide or protein with a unique arrangement intra- and intermolecular hydrogen bonds along the
chains.
Question118
If you wanted to make your own soap, how would you do it?
Choose one answer.
a. Take cotton fibers and mix with a strong base such as lye, add water, boil till the fibers dissolve,
filter and evaporate the water.
b. Add fur or wool to water containing strong acid, boil till everything dissolves, filter and evaporate
the water to give the slippery crude soap.
c. Start with animal fat or a plant oil, mix with lye (strong inorganic base) and water, heat till all the
fat or oil dissolves, filter and evaporate the water to give the fatty acid salt (soap).
d. Clot cream with acetic acid, mix the curds you get with yeast and let ferment until the bubbling
stops; evaporate the water to get soap.
Question119
There are 23 or so natural amino acids: name a few.
Choose one answer.
a. Lysine, alanine, glycine and aspartic acid for starters.
b. Serine, glutamic acid, thymine and adenine are the less common ones.
c. Steric acid, glucose, alanine and citric acid are the most common ones.
d. Lipoic acid, proline, lysergic acid and pyridine are the essential amino acids, meaning we must
have them in our diet or we get sick.
Question120
RNA is fundamentally different from DNA in what ways?
Choose one answer.
a. RNA is the genetic material passed from parents to offspring while DNA transfers that genetic code into
components of cells and human bodies.
b. RNA uses different nucleic acid bases (different than adenine and thymine, for example) to carry the
genetic information to the enzymes that construct our bodies.
c. The sugar in RNA is ribose and the one in DNA is deoxyribose, but more important, DNA makes up our
genes while RNA does other stuff.
d. There is no chemical difference in terms of nucleic acid bases and sugar units, although DNA is a much
higher molecular weight polymer than RNA.
Question121
Of the 20 natural amino acids listed in the reading, 10 are called "essential", meaning what?
Choose one answer.
a. That without them, you would die a slow, painful death.
b. You must take vitamins to make sure you get enough of these essential amino acids to survive.
c. Your body doesn't really need or use the non-essential ones, while the essential ones make up all the proteins
your body needs.
d. While your body can "manufacture" the non-essential ones from what you eat, it can't make the essential ones
so you have to make sure you eat the right balance of foods to get them in your diet.
Question122
Peptides and proteins are polymers of amino acids, and what is their basic structure?
Choose one answer.
a. Peptides and proteins contain alpha-amino acids forming a two-carbon plus one-nitrogen polyamide
with each repeat unit usually having a pendent or attached side chain of some kind.
b. The amine group of each amino acid is protonated by the acid group of the one next to it forming a
long chain of ammonium-carboxylate salts.
c. The acid groups react with alcohol groups of other amino acids to form polyesters with amine-
containing pendent groups along the chains.
d. The amines, alcohols and thiols of the pendent groups all react with the acid groups to form complex
3D structures that each have unique properties such as in enzymes.
Question123
The amide groups of peptides, proteins and enzymes have what unique property?
Choose one answer.
a. The nitrogen group is basic and can form ammonium salts with carboxylic acids of other amino acids.
b. Like ketones, they can tautomerize to switch the hydrogen on nitrogen over onto the carbonyl oxygen,
leading to enhanced hydrogen bonding.
c. Because of the sp2 hybridization of the carbonyl and attached nitrogen, the amide group is "flat" and
capable of strong hydrogen bonding with other amide groups.
d. The free rotation around the carbonyl bond to the nitrogen allows these amino acid polymers to flex and
bend as needed in the body.
Question124
Lipids can best be described as what?
Choose one answer.
a. The main constiuents of natural oils (e.g., canola oil) that are polymers of long-chain hydroxyacids.
b. Triglycerides, or long-chain acid triesters of glycerine (1, 2, 3-propanetriol).
c. Unsaturated long-chain aliphatic alcohols that form organized structures such as cell walls in plants and animals.
d. The main components of animal fats (ours included), milk fats and butter.
Question125
Basically, all spectroscopic methods can be described as what?
Choose one answer.
a. Using the interaction of radio waves with molecules to understand molecular structure and properties.
b. Using energy to force molecules to change shape or structure in such a way that we can observe it with a
microscope.
c. Using visible or ultraviolet light to illuminate molecules so we can see them with a microscope.
d. Exciting molecules with heat and light so that they emit vibrational energy that can be detected and analyzed
with spectrometers.
Question126
The relative energies used in various kinds of spectroscopic methods vary how?
Choose one answer.

a. From low energy ultraviolet rays to infrared and then to microwaves used in NMR analysis and finally high
energy electrons in mass spectrometry.
b. From high frequency radio waves to lower frequency electrons for NMR to infrared to UV to mass
spectrometry.
c. You can't really compare the energies since each type of spectroscopy uses a unique mixture of frequencies.
d. It's not really the energy used, since this can vary independently of frequency or wavelength.
Question127
Mass spectroscopy can best be described as:
Choose one answer.
a. mass analysis of whole molecules that have been given a static electricity charge using a voltameter.
b. fragmentation of molecules with a magnetic field followed by analysis by charge.
c. breakdown and ionization of molecules with high energy electrons followed by magnetic separation and analysis of
mass-to-charge ratios of the ions.
d. careful weighing of the molecules with super-sensitive nano-balances constructed with microlithography.
Question128
Fragmentation "patterns" in mass spectrometry tell us what about the molecules?
Choose one answer.
a. What kinds of impurities were present and how much of each was there.
b. How many atoms of each kind were present in the original molecule.
c. What functional groups were present so that we can determine the functionality of the original molecules.
d. The atomic compositions of segments of the molecule that we re-assemble virtually to determine the
original structure.
Question129
Ultraviolet spectroscopy looks at what kinds of molecular segments?
Choose one answer.
a. All types of bonding from sigma bonds to pi bonds to conjugated and aromatic bonding.
b. Double bonds, aromatic rings and conjugated unsaturation, and non-bonded heteroatoms all absorb in the
UV spectrum and can be detected.
c. We can see the fragments that give us broad peaks or humps in the spectrum and this tells us what kinds
of bonds are involved.
d. It is most sensitive to carbonyl bonds and less to aromatic and conjugated double bonds.
Question130
UV spectroscopy generally shows a combination of broad peaks and sharper ones that tell us what?
Choose one answer.
a. What atoms are attached to a double bond or aromatic ring.
b. How many heteroatoms are in the molecule.
c. The degree of conjugation (pi electron delocalization) and something about substitution patterns.
d. What the elemental composition of the molecule is.
Question131
Infrared is used mainly for determining what about a molecule?
Choose one answer.
a. What kinds of functional groups like amides, ethers and alkene double bonds are present in the molecule.
b. Its purity and what kinds of impurities are present in the mixture.
c. The exact kind and number of each functional group comprising the molecular composition.
d. The total number of atoms and what kind of each are in the molecule.
Question132
Infrared was one of the first spectroscopic methods and is still widely used today to characterize molecules because:
Choose one answer.
a. You can sample solids, liquids or gases although the information obtained isn't useful without
combining with other techniques of analysis.
b. It tells you more about the molecule than any other technique we've studied.
c. It is easy to do, takes very little sample and gives specific information about what functional groups
are present in the molecule.
d. It used the least expensive analytical equipment available.
Question133
How is infrared spectroscopy is different from UV and NMR?
Choose one answer.
a. It uses a different energy range from UV but the same range differently from NMR.
b. Infrared overlaps with UV in the electromagnetic spectrum providing complimentary information on functional
groups while NMR looks at electronic configuration and bonding.
c. They all see different parts of the molecule, and specifically, different atoms and how they're joined together.
d. Infrared detects vibrational motions of functional groups while UV "sees" electronic transitions and NMR looks at
the nuclei and infers bonding based on reference tables.
Question134
NMR involves what kind of analysis?
Choose one answer.
a. Spinning nuclei in such a way that they can be seen with infrared radiation and functional groups determined
from the frequency.
b. Using radio waves to detect nuclei present in a molecule (such as H or C) and based on extensive data bases of
"chemical shifts, " determine what each type is bonded to.
c. Magnetizing the molecules so they can be separated by traveling through a vacuum down a long tube
surrounded by static magnets.
d. Using high energy beams to excite the electrons so they can be detected by magnetic field fluctuations.
Question135
Proton NMR tells you what about a molecule?
Choose one answer.
a. What kind of hydrogens are present (what each kind is bonded to) and exactly how many there are relative to
each other.
b. Whether there are any hydrogens present in the molecule and what their chemical shift is with respect to a
standard (TMS).
c. Whether electron donating or withdrawing groups are present in the molecule.
d. What kind of heteratoms are near the hydrogens you observe in the spectrometer.
Question136
Carbon NMR is harder to do than proton NMR because:
Choose one answer.
a. It has a higher atomic mass which makes it slower to move and relax on the NMR time scale.
b. The mechanism of interaction of the isotopes of carbon (number 13) with a magnetic field is dependent on
how many hydrogens are attached to it.
c. The actual atoms of carbon observed (the isotope we can detect) is of lower relative abundance than for
hydrogen.
d. The gyromagnetic ratio (NMR sensitivity factor) is much less for carbon 13 than for hydrogen 1.
Question137
The chemical shift range for carbon 13 in NMR is different from proton NMR how?
Choose one answer.
a. It's about the same but the relative intensity of the peaks are less, making it much harder to detect.
b. Carbon covers about a 200 pm range while hydrogen has a range of only about 10 ppm and this makes
carbon more sensitive to its chemical environment (groups present).
c. It's more sensitive to solvation and hydrogen bonding which provides key information about molecular
motion and interactions.
d. It's actually much less, and thus provides less specific information about what kinds of functional groups
are present in the molecule.
Anal chem
1
When potassium iodide reacts with lead(II) nitrate, a yellow precipitate (PbI 2) is produced. If 0.78 g of lead(II) iodide was produced, how many grams of lead(II) nitrate was used? You may
assume the reaction yield was 100%, and an excess of potassium iodide was used.
Choose one answer.
A. 0.78 g
B. 1.6 g
C. 0.46 g
D. 0.56 g
E. Not enough information is given.
Question2
If 4.94 grams of KOH is dissolved in water to make a final volume of 2.0 L, what is the molarity of the solution?
Choose one answer.
A. 0.088 M
B. 0.044 M
C. 2.5 M
D. 0.025 M
E. 0.18 M
Question3
If 21.3 g of glucose (C6H12O6) is dissolved in 5.00 L of deionized water, what is the molality of the solution? (The density of water is 1.00 g/mL.)
Choose one answer.
A. 0.0237 m
B. 0.592 m
C. 0.118 m
D. 4.26 m
E. 0.00426 m
Question4
Which of the following is the equivalent of 4.3 ppm sodium ion (Na +) concentration?
Choose one answer.
A. 0.0043 ppb
B. 0.043 ppb
C. 430 ppb
D. 4300 ppb
E. None of the above
Question5
How many milliliters of a 0.100 M potassium permanganate stock solution would be needed to make 100 mL of 0.0250 M potassium permanganate?
Choose one answer.
A. 10.0 mL
B. 4.00 mL
C. 40.00 mL
D. 2.50 mL
E. 25.0 mL
Question6
The concentration of a solution is known to be 0.101 M. A student determines the concentration to be 0.088 M, 0.087 M, and 0.089 M for each titration performed. Which of the following best
describes these results?
Choose one answer.
A. The results are accurate but not precise.

B. The results are precise but not accurate
C. The results are neither accurate nor precise.
D. The results are both accurate and precise.
E. The results are not enough information is given to determine accuracy or precision.
Question7
Concentrated hydrochloric acid is 12 M and has a density of 1.18 g/mL. What is the weight percent (% w/w) of concentrated HCl?
Choose one answer.
A. 14%
B. 5.1%
C. 12%
D. 98%
E. 37%
Question8
A stock solution of sodium acetate is 1.0 M. To make Solution A, 2.00 mL of the stock solution is transferred and diluted to a total volume of 100 mL. Solution B is made by transferring 5.0 mL
of Solution A and diluting it to a total volume of 250 mL. Solution C is made by transferring 1.0 mL of Solution B and diluting it to a total volume of 25 mL. What is the concentration of
solution C?
Choose one answer.
A. 1.6 µM
B. 16 µM
C. 1.6 mM
D. 0.16 mM
Question9
The equation for a normal calibration curve for the detection of iron(II) is determined experimentally to be: S = 12.93 M - 1 * C + 0.0017. Analysis of a sample with unknown concentration
gives an absorbance reading of 0.106. What is the concentration of iron(II) in the unknown?
Choose one answer.
A. 1.37 M
B. 6.50 mM
C. 9.90 mM
D. 8.06 mM
E. 8.83 mM
Question10
When performing calculations for standard additions, which of the following must be true?
Choose one answer.
A. The volume of the standard added must be added with the volume of the sample used to give a new sample
volume.
B. The volume of the standard added is subtracted from the total volume of the sample used.
C. The volume of the standard added can be ignored, because it is so small.
D. The volume of the standard added can be ignored, because volumes are not used in the calculations.
E. The volume of the standard added can be ignored, because it is part of the blank correction.
Question11
Which of the following statements about the sensitivity of an analytical method is true?
Choose one answer.
A. The sensitivity of an analytical method is the same as its detection limit.
B. The sensitivity of an analytical method is a measure of ability to determine whether slight differences in
experimental results are significant.
C. The sensitivity of an analytical method is the smallest amount of analyte that the instrument is able to
measure.
D. The sensitivity of an analytical method is the response of the instrument to human error.
Question12
Which of the following statements is true of the detection limit of an instrument?
Choose one answer.
A. The detection limit of an instrument is the same as its sensitivity.
B. The detection limit of an instrument is a measure of ability to determine whether slight differences in
C. The detection limit of an instrument is the smallest amount of analyte that the instrument is able to
measure.
D. The detection limit of an instrument is the ability of the instrument to respond to an error.
Question13
Fill in the blank. Precipitation, volatilization, and particulation are all types of ____________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Electrochemical analysis methods
B. Gravimetric analysis methods
C. Tritrimetric analysis methods
D. Spectroscopic analysis methods
E. Photochemical analysis methods
Question14
Fill in the blank. Gravimetric analysis relies heavily on the principle of __________________.
Choose one answer.

A. Conservation of energy
B. Conservation of mass
C. Constant compostition
D. Definite proportions
E. The law of gravity
Question15
Coprecipitates (inclusions, occlusions, and surface adsorbates) are a common problem in gravimetric analysis, but can be controlled by which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Carefully controlling the solution conditions
B. Reprecipitation of the solid
C. Digestion of the precipitate
D. Thoroughly washing and drying the filtrate
E. All of the above
Question16
Volatilization gravimetry would be most useful in determining which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. The amount of silver in a solution of silver nitrate
B. The acidity of a water sample
C. The amount of water in eposom salts
D. All of the above
Question17
Which of the following statements about the equivalence point of an acid-base titration is true?
Choose one answer.
A. The equivalence point of an acid-base titration is the same as the indicator endpoint.
B. The equivalence point of an acid-base titration is the point where there is an equivalent amount of titrant and
titrand.
C. The equivalence point of an acid-base titration is where the pH = 7.0 (neutral).
D. The equivalence point of an acid-base titration is where the entire volume of the buret has been used.
E. The equivalence point of an acid-base titration is the average value of the dissociation constants.
Question18
What is the stoichiometry of EDTA with metal ions?
Choose one answer.
A. It is 1:6, because EDTA is a hexaprotic weak acid with six distinct acid dissociation values.
B. It is 1:4, because EDTA has four binding sites upon loss of the four carboxylic acid protons.
C. It is 1:2, because EDTA has two binding sites upon loss of the two ammonium protons.
D. It is 1:1, because EDTA forms a cage-like structure around the metal ion.
E. It is dependent on the metal ion present.
Question19
A 58.3 mg sample containing Sn2+ is dissolved in 1.0 M HCl. If 23.6 mL of 0.010 M Tl3+ was required to titrate to endpoint, what is the mass percent (w/w%) of tin in the original sample?
Choose one answer.
A. 48%
B. 28%
C. 24%
D. 40%
E. 14%
Question20
A 0.357 g sample contains only lead(II) iodide and sodium iodide in 100 mL of distilled water. Titration to the Fajan's end point requires 22.37 mL of 0.050 M silver nitrate. What is the mass
percent (w/w%) of lead(II) iodide in the sample?
Choose one answer.
A. 18%
B. 36%
C. 1.6%
D. 53%
E. 47%
Question21
Which variable in Beer's law represents how well a chemical species absorbs light at a given wavelength?
Choose one answer.
A. c - concentration
B. ε - molar absorptivity coefficient
C. A - absorbance
D. b - path length of the sample
E. λ - wavelength
Question22
According to Beer's Law, what happens to the absorbance reading if the concentration of the solution is halved?
Choose one answer.
A. The absorbance will double.

B. The absorbance will quadruple.
C. The absorbance will be halved.
D. The absorbance will be quartered.
E. There is no way to tell, because concentration and absorbance are not a linear relationship.
Question23
Why must solutions with high concentrations be diluted prior to analysis via Beer's Law?
Choose one answer.
A. The relationship between absorbance and concentration is not linear at high concentrations.
B. The detector will reach its detection threshhold.
C. The photon source is too weak to provide accurate results.
D. The molar absorptivity of a compound is dependent on its concentration.
E. There is no need to work with dilute concentrations; any concentration will work.
Question24
Which of the following transitions is NOT possible in UV-Vis absorption?
Choose one answer.
A. σ → σ*
B. σ → n
C. σ → π*
D. n → π*
Question25
Which of the following typically exhibits the largest molar absorptivities?
Choose one answer.

A. σ → σ* absorbances
B. σ → n absorbances
C. σ* → π* absorbances
D. π → π* absorbances
E. Metal to ligand charge transfer (MLCT) absorbances
Question26
Which of the following is the correct order in which light passes through a UV-Vis spectrometer?
Choose one answer.
A. Detector, sample, source, monochromator
B. Source, monochromator, sample, detector
C. Source, sample, monochromator, detector
D. Monochromator, source, sample, detector
E. Sample, source, monochromator, detector
Question27
What is the purpose of a monochromator?
Choose one answer.
A. To remove stray light from the room
B. To serve as a polychromatic light source
C. To interpret the photon signal into a digital readout
D. To allow only light of a certain wavelength to pass from the source to the sample
E. To focus light from the sample onto the detector
Question28
The regression line from a plot of absorbance vs. concentration yields: A = 2.31 c + 0.002. If the absorbance of an unknown is measured to be 0.124, what is the concentration of the analyte?
Choose one answer.
A. 0.29 M
B. 0.053 M
C. 1.86 M
D. 0.093 M
E. 2.43 M
Question29
The method of continuous variations, also known as Job's method, uses the intersection of the ligand-line and the metal-line to determine which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. The concentration at which the detector can no longer respond to the signal
B. The mole ratio between the metal and ligand in a complex
C. The maximum intensity of source photons transmitted
D. The number of dimeric molecules formed
E. The oxidation number of the metal
Question30
Ultraviolet and visible radiation affect which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Core electrons
B. Valence electrons
C. Nuclear spin
D. Molecular vibrations
E. Molecular rotations
Question31
Infrared radiation affects which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Core electrons
C. Molecular vibrations
D. Molecular rotations
E. Nuclear spin
Question32
Complete the sentence. All of the following are used to describe the bending modes in infrared spectroscopy, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. In-plane rocking.
B. In-plane scissoring.
C. Assymetric stretching.
D. Out-of-plane twisting.
E. Out-of-plane wagging.
Question33
What is the advantage of using a silver chloride sample cell rather than a sodium chloride sample cell for IR spectroscopy?
Choose one answer.
A. Aquesous samples can be measured; AgCl is not water soluble.

B. There is no advantage.
C. Silver chloride does not absorb IR radiation.
D. Silver chloride is translucent.
E. Sodium chloride is less expensive.
Question34
In order for a compound to be IR active, it must undergo which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. A change in polarizability
B. A change in dipole moment
C. Emission of an electron
D. Transfer of an electon
E. Metal-ligand charge transfer
Question35
Complete the sentence. All of the following are infrared sources, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. The Nernst glower.
B. The Globar source.
C. An incandescent wire.
D. A pyroelectric glower.
Question36
Complete the sentence. All of the following are detectors used in infrared spectroscopy, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.

A. A charge-coupled diode.
B. A thermocouple.
C. A pyroelectric detector.
D. A photoelectric detector.
Question37
Fill in the blank. NMR affects a molecule's ________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Nuclear spin
C. Core electrons
Question38
In 1H-NMR spectroscopy, if a CH2 neighbors a CH3, the hydrogen nuclei of the CH3 will appear as which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. A doublet, with a peak integration of 2
B. A doublet, with a peak integration of 3
C. A triplet, with a peak integration of 2
D. A triplet, with a peak integration of 3
E. A single peak, with an integration of 5
Question39
Where does spin-lattice relaxation occur?
Choose one answer.
A. It occurs between neighboring nuclei with identical frequencies but different quantum states via energy
transfer.
B. It occurs between the excited nuclei and nuclei within the sample matrix.
C. It occurs between atoms in the same molecule.
D. It occurs between the nuclei of the sample and the signal source.
E. All of the above
Question40
The value of the chemical shift in NMR spectroscopy is directly related to which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. The amount of shielding
B. The applied magnetic field
C. The identity of the reference sample
D. The electronegativity of the nucleus
E. All of the above
Question41
Fluorescence occurs as a result of which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Relaxation from a singlet excited state to a singlet ground state
B. Relaxation from a triplet excited state to a singlet ground state
C. Nonradiative (vibrational) relaxation
D. Intersystem crossing (isc)

E. All of the above
Question42
Phosphorescence occurs as a result of which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Relaxation from a singlet excited state to the singlet ground state
B. From a triplet excited state to the singlet ground state
C. Intersystem crossing (isc)
D. Nonradiative (vibrational) relaxation
E. All of the above
Question43
Why are flourescence and phosphorescence spectra measured at a 90 degree angle to the source?
Choose one answer.
A. To ensure that incident (source) photons are not observed
B. Because the sample cell is darkened on two adjacent sides
C. Because the monochromator directs the light at a 90 degree angle
D. Because the process of fluorescence and phosphorescence are too intense to observe directly
E. To make the overall instrument smaller
Question44
Complete the sentence. Fluorescence and phosphorescence can be used for detection of all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. Vitamins.
B. Environmental pollutants.
C. Uncomplexed metal ions.
D. Pharmaceuticals.
E. Aromatic amino acids.
Question45
A fluorescence quantum yield of 0.93 would suggest that most excited state molecules are doing which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Returning to the ground state by fluorescence
B. Returning to the ground state by non-radiative decay
C. Returning to the ground state by intersystem crossing
D. Remaining in the excited state past the experimental timeframe
Question46
Why are photomultiplier tubes often used in fluorescence spectroscopy?
Choose one answer.
A. Because the photon sources are too weak to vibrationally excite the samples
B. Because sample cells are small
C. Because they supply a reference signal
D. Because fluorescence intensities are usually low
Question47
Why is fluorescence spectroscopy often carried out in a liquid nitrogen environment?
Choose one answer.

A. Phosphorescence is more likely to coccur at low temperatures in a viscous medium.
B. Phosphorescent molecules tend to also have explosive properties.
C. The monochromator slows down the radiation before it hits the sample.
D. The detector requires lower temperatures for operation.
E. The source radiation can overheat and destory the analyte.
Question48
How does turbidimetry differ from nephelometry?
Choose one answer.
A. Turbidimerty measures the decrease in transmittance of incident radiation; nephelometry measures the intensity of
scattered radiation.
B. Nephelometry measures the decrease in transmittance of incident radiation; turbidimetry measures the intensity of
C. Nephelometry measures the total metal ion, or inorganic, content; turbidimetry measures total organic content.
D. Turbidimetry measures the total metal ion, or inorganic, content; nephelometry measures total organic content.
E. The terms are synonymous; there is no difference.
Question49
Turbidimetry and nephelometry are analytical methods based on which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Light scattering
B. Photon emission
C. Photon absorption
D. Nuclear repulsion
E. Paramagnetism
Question50
What is the advantage of an inductively coupled plasma source rather than a flame?
Choose one answer.
A. Better atomiza higher population of excited statestion and a
B. Lower operating temperatures and less expensive replacement costs
C. Minimization of scattering and ionization of analytes
D. All of the above
Question51
Atomic absorption spectroscopy results are highly reproducible but have low sensitivity and efficiency. This is due to which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. The small amount of analyte that actually reaches the flame
B. The high temperatures of analysis often destroy the atoms
C. The amount of dilution due to mixing with large volumes of combustion gases
D. A and B only
E. A and C only
Question52
Fill in the blank. The relationship between the analyte concentration and the intensity of measured radiation from thermal excitation methods, such as a flame or plasma, is
________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Linear
B. Exponential
C. Parabolic
D. Polynomial
E. Asymptopic
Question53
Flame atomic absorption measures absorption of radiation of analytes in which phase?
Choose one answer.
A. Solid phase
B. Liquid (neat) phase
C. Gas phase
D. Aquesous phase
E. Plasma phase
Question54
Why is a hollow cathode tube lamp necessary in atomic absorption?
Choose one answer.
A. Because cathode lamps are cheaper to operate and maintain
B. Because continuous spectrum lamps do not emit at the proper intensity
C. Because the width of an atom's absorption band is narrow
D. Because continuous spectrum lamps cause ionization of the molecules
E. All of the above
Question55
Fill in the blank. Background correction in flame atomic absorption spectroscopy can minimize the effect of ___________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Ionization of the analyte

B. Scattering and absorption by the matrix of the analyte
C. Reactions between the analyte and matrix
D. Non-volatilization of the analyte
Question56
Chemical interferences in atomic absorption that cannot be accounted for using a background correction, but can be minimized, include which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Nonvolatilization of the analyte
B. Ionization of the analyte
C. Absorption or scattering of radiation by the matrix
D. All of the above
E. A and B only
Question57
Which of the following are forms of radiationless deactivation of an excited state?
Choose one answer.
A. Intersystem crossing
B. Internal conversion
C. External conversion
D. Vibrational relaxation
E. All of the above
Question58
When does intersystem crossing occur?
Choose one answer.

A. When a molecule transfers to a higher vibrational energy level of a lower energy electronic state
with a different spin
B. When a molecule moves to a lower vibrational energy level in the same electronic state
C. When a molecule transfers to a higher vibrational energy level of a lower energy electronic state
with the same spin
D. energy is emitted as a photon from a singlet or triplet spin state
E. When energy is passed to the solvent or to another component of the sample’s matrix
Question59
Fill in the blank. The lowest vibrational energy level of the lowest electronic singlet state (S0) is referred to as the ___________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Ground state
B. Zero state
C. Newtonian state
D. Bohring state
E. Non-excited state
Question60
Whether an electron is in the triplet state or singlet state depends on which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Its spin-pairing with the ground state
B. The amount of radiation it was exposed to
C. Its ability to undergo radiationless decay
D. Its initial energy level before absorption
E. Its availability to become excited

Question61
In a chromatographic analysis of an unknown mixture, compound A has a retention time of 5.56 minutes and a baseline width of 0.87, and compound B has a retention time of 6.32 minutes
and a baseline width of 0.53 minutes. Are these peaks resolved, and what is the resolution between the two peaks?
Choose one answer.
A. Yes, 0.54
B. No, 0.54
C. Yes, 1.09
D. No, 1.09
E. There is not enough information given to determine resolution.
Question62
The "void peak" in a chromatogram corresponds to which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Components that had no interaction with the stationary phase
B. The peak that arises from poor selection of a stationary phase
C. The peak that arises from the mobile phase only
D. Components that had no interaction with the mobile phase
E. All peaks after the first peak in the chromatogram
Question63
If a compound has a retention time of 5.30 minutes with a baseline width of 0.64 minutes on a 2.0 m silica gel column, what is the average height of a theoretical plate?
Choose one answer.
A. 1.8 mm/plate
B. 15 mm/plate
C. 29 mm/plate
D. 0.24 mm/plate
E. 2.7 mm/plate
Question64
Which of the following statements about columns containing more theoretical plates is true?
Choose one answer.
A. Columns containing more theoretical plates make separations imposssible.
B. Columns containing more theoretical plates take a long time to perform separations.
C. Columns containing more theoretical plates are better suited to separate a complex mixture.
D. Columns containing more theoretical plates interact irreversibly with the analyte.
E. Columns containing more theoretical plates lend themselves to component mixing.
Question65
"Tailing" of a chromatographic peak is a result of which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Interactions of the solute with the stationary phase
B. Overloading the column with sample
C. Interactions between the stationary and mobile phases
D. Too many theoretical plates
E. Small theortetical plate heights
Question66
"Fronting" of a chromatographic peak is a result of which of the following?
Choose one answer.

A. Interactions between the stationary and mobile phase
C. Interactions of the solute with the stationary phase
D. Small theortetical plate heights
Question67
Band broadening in column chromatography is a result of which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Mass transfer in the stationary phase
B. Mass transfer in the mobile phase
C. Longitudinal diffusion
D. Variations in path lengths (Eddy diffusion)
E. All of the above
Question68
Complete the sentence. All of the following are common carrier gases from gas chromatography, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. Oxygen.
B. Nitrogen.
C. Helium.
D. Argon.
E. Carbon dioxide.
Question69
When using gas chromatography, how is optimum column efficiency obtained?
Choose one answer.
A. When the samples are injected slowly and in large quantities
B. When the samples are injected slowly and in small quantities
C. When the samples are injected quickly and in large quantities
D. When the samples are injected quickly and in small quantities
Question70
What is the most common support material for a packed GC column?
Choose one answer.
A. Silica gel
B. Alumina
C. Fused silica
D. Glass
E. Diatomaceous earth
Question71
WCOT, SCOT, PLOT, and FSOT are all types of which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Open tubular GC columns
B. Capillary GC columns
C. Packed GC columns
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
Question72
Which of the following GC detectors would most likely allow recovery of a sample after analysis?
Choose one answer.
A. Flame ionization detector (FID)
B. Thermal conductivity detector (TCD)
C. Flame photometric detector (FPD)
D. Hall electrolytic conductivity detector
E. Nitrogen-phosphorus detector
Question73
Which of the following GC detectors would be least affected by the carrier gas?
Choose one answer.
A. Thermal conductivity detector (TCD)
B. Electron capture detector (ECD)
C. Photoionization detector (PID)
D. Flame photometric detector (FPD)
E. None of these detectors would be affected by the carrier gas.
Question74
In size exclusion chromatography, what happens to the larger particles?
Choose one answer.
A. They elude first, before smaller particles.
B. They are broken down into smaller particles.

C. They become oxidized as they move through the column.
D. They remain on the column longer than smaller particles.
E. They bind permanently to the stationary phase.
Question75
Fill in the blank. Ion exchange chromatography is best suited to separate ___________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Hydrophilic molecules
B. Hydrophobic molecules
C. Mixed metal sulfides and oxides
D. Large molecules, such as DNA and RNA
E. Cations and anions
Question76
Which of the following statements about the mobile phase in Supercritical fluid chromatography (SFC) is false?
Choose one answer.
A. It requires lower pressures than those needed for HPLC.
B. It gives better resolution than GC.
C. It has densities similar to a liquid.
D. Its mobile phase has the viscosity properties of a gas.
E. It has solvent properties of a liquid.
Question77
The stationary phase in ion exchange chromatography is a cross-linked polymer resin with covalently attached functional groups. Which of the following is NOT a typical functional group used
for IEC?
Choose one answer.

A. Sulfonic acid (-SO3-)
B. Carboxylic acid (-COO-)
C. Quarternary amine (-CH2N(CH3)3+)
D. Amine (-NH3+)
E. Hydroxyl (-OH-)
Question78
Reversed-phase chromatography refers to which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. A stationary phase and mobile phase of similar polarities
B. A nonpolar stationary phase and a nonpolar mobile phase
C. A polar stationary phase and a nonpolar mobile phase
D. A nonpolar stationary phase and a polar mobile phase
E. A polar stationary phase and a polar mobile phase
Question79
Which of the following would elute first when using capillary zone electrophoresis?
Choose one answer.
A. Ca2+
B. CH3NH3+
C. Cl-
D. HCOO-
E. CH3COO-
Question80
How are separations by electrophoresis carried out?
Choose one answer.
A. Via applying an electric current
B. Via saponification of the analyte
C. Via polymerization of the analyte
D. Via oxidation reactions at stationary phase sites
E. Via reduction reactions at stationary phase sites
Question81
Fill in the blank. Cd wire used to measure the concentration of cadmium ion is an example of a _______________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Metallic electrode of the second kind
B. Metallic electrode of the first kind
C. Saturated calomel electrode
D. Reference electrode
E. Silver/silver chloride electrode
Question82
Fill in the blank. Ag wire used to measure the concentration of Br- ion is an example of a ______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Saturated calomel electrode
b. Metallic electrode of the first kind
c. Metallic electrode of the second kind
d. Silver/silver chloride electrode

e. Reference electrode
Question83
What is the process of the loss of an electron called?
Choose one answer.
A. Oxidation
B. Reduction
C. Transference
D. Sublimation
E. Neutralization
Question84
What is the process of the gain of an electron called?
Choose one answer.
A. Oxidation
B. Reduction
C. Sublimation
D. Transference
E. Neutralization
Question85
Which of the following is a substrate that is oxidized?
Choose one answer.
A. Cationic species
B. Anionic species
C. Neutral species
D. Reducing agent
E. Oxidizing agent
Question86
Which of the following is a substrate that is reduced?
Choose one answer.
A. Oxidizing agent
B. Reducing agent
C. Cationic species
D. Anionic species
E. Neutral species
Question87
What is the purpose of the salt bridge in a galvanic (voltaic) cell?
Choose one answer.
A. To complete the electrochemical circuit
B. To provide free electrons for redox processes
C. To provide a site for oxidative reduction
D. To serve as a working electrode
E. To serve as a reference electrode
Question88
If a redox couple is at equilibrium in an electrochemical cell, then which of the following statements about the current and potential is most accurate?
Choose one answer.

A. The current is zero, and the potential is given by the Nernst equation.
B. The current and potential are both zero.
C. The current is negative, and the potential is zero.
D. The current is positive, and the potential is zero.
E. The potential is zero, and the current is given by the Nernst equation.
Question89
Complete the sentence. The basic setups for electrochemical measurement include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. Measure the potential at zero current.
B. Measure the potential while controlling the current.
C. Measure the potential and current simultaneously.
D. Measure the current while controlling the potential.
E. All of the above
Question90
Which of the following is a static (i = 0) electrochemical technique?
Choose one answer.
A. Potentiometry
B. Controlled-current coulometry
C. Controlled-potential coulometry
D. Cyclic voltammetry
E. Amperometry
Question91
Where does the reduction reaction occur?
Choose one answer.
A. At the anode
B. At the cathode
C. Within the potentiometer
D. Within the salt bridge
E. Within the bulk solution
Question92
Where does the oxidation reaction occur?
Choose one answer.
A. Within the potentiometer
B. Within the salt bridge
C. At the anode
D. At the cathode
Question93
The use of the Nerst equation to calculate potentials is really a simplistic model. Which of the following does it ignore?
Choose one answer.
A. Matrix effects
B. Temperature effects
C. Junction potentials
D. All of the above

Question94
Fill in the blank. The potential that develops at the interface of two solutions due to differences in concentrations and ionic mobility is called the _________________ potential.
Choose one answer.
A. Osmotic
B. Bridging
C. Coulombic
D. Reference
E. Junction
Question95
Which of the following statements about the standard hydrogen electrode, the calomel electrode, and the silver/silver chloride electrode is true?
Choose one answer.
A. These electrodes combine to make a complete electrochemical cell.
B. These electrodes are typically used as reference electrodes.
C. These electrodes are typically used as working (indicator) electrodes.
D. These electrodes are examples of membrane electrodes.
E. These electrodes have the same electrochemical potential.
Question96
A pH meter is an example of which type of membrane electrode?
Choose one answer.
A. Glass ion selective electrode
B. Potentiometric biosensor (enzyme electrode)

C. Solid-state ion selective electrode
D. Liquid-based ion selective electrode
E. Gas-sensing electrode
Question97
In a cyclic voltammogram, the peak current(i) is directly related to which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. The concentration of anayte
B. The surface area of the working electrode
C. The number of electrons involved in the redox process
D. The diffusion coefficient of the electroactive species
E. All of the above
Question98
One electrochemical technique involves first depositing an analyte on the surface of an electrode, then using an applied current to remove the analyte via a reduction or oxidation reaction.
What is this method called?
Choose one answer.
A. Hydrodynamic voltammetry
B. Stripping voltammetry
C. Amperometry
D. Polarography
E. Cyclic voltammetry
Question99
Which of the following is NOT a variable in voltammetric methods?
Choose one answer.

A. Type of working electrode
B. How the potential is applied
C. The inclusion of convection
D. How the current is applied
E. All of the above
Question100
Fill in the blank. Coulometric techniques result in a plot of ____________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Current versus time
B. Electrochemical potential versus time
C. Current versus electrochemical potential
D. Current only
E. Potential only
1
When potassium iodide reacts with lead(II) nitrate, a yellow precipitate (PbI 2) is produced. If 0.78 g of lead(II) iodide was produced, how many grams of lead(II) nitrate was used? You may
assume the reaction yield was 100%, and an excess of potassium iodide was used.
Choose one answer.

A. 0.78 g
B. 1.6 g
C. 0.46 g
D. 0.56 g
E. Not enough information is given.
Question2
If 4.94 grams of KOH is dissolved in water to make a final volume of 2.0 L, what is the molarity of the solution?
Choose one answer.
A. 0.088 M
B. 0.044 M
C. 2.5 M
D. 0.025 M
E. 0.18 M
Question3
If 21.3 g of glucose (C6H12O6) is dissolved in 5.00 L of deionized water, what is the molality of the solution? (The density of water is 1.00 g/mL.)
Choose one answer.
A. 0.0237 m
B. 0.592 m
C. 0.118 m
D. 4.26 m
E. 0.00426 m
Question4
Which of the following is the equivalent of 4.3 ppm sodium ion (Na +) concentration?
Choose one answer.
A. 0.0043 ppb
B. 0.043 ppb
C. 430 ppb
D. 4300 ppb
Question5
How many milliliters of a 0.100 M potassium permanganate stock solution would be needed to make 100 mL of 0.0250 M potassium permanganate?
Choose one answer.
A. 10.0 mL
B. 4.00 mL
C. 40.00 mL
D. 2.50 mL
E. 25.0 mL
Question6
The concentration of a solution is known to be 0.101 M. A student determines the concentration to be 0.088 M, 0.087 M, and 0.089 M for each titration performed. Which of the following best
describes these results?
Choose one answer.
A. The results are accurate but not precise.
B. The results are precise but not accurate
C. The results are neither accurate nor precise.
D. The results are both accurate and precise.

E. The results are not enough information is given to determine accuracy or precision.
Question7
Concentrated hydrochloric acid is 12 M and has a density of 1.18 g/mL. What is the weight percent (% w/w) of concentrated HCl?
Choose one answer.
A. 14%
B. 5.1%
C. 12%
D. 98%
E. 37%
Question8
A stock solution of sodium acetate is 1.0 M. To make Solution A, 2.00 mL of the stock solution is transferred and diluted to a total volume of 100 mL. Solution B is made by transferring 5.0 mL
of Solution A and diluting it to a total volume of 250 mL. Solution C is made by transferring 1.0 mL of Solution B and diluting it to a total volume of 25 mL. What is the concentration of
solution C?
Choose one answer.
A. 1.6 µM
B. 16 µM
C. 1.6 mM
D. 0.16 mM
Question9
The equation for a normal calibration curve for the detection of iron(II) is determined experimentally to be: S = 12.93 M - 1 * C + 0.0017. Analysis of a sample with unknown concentration
gives an absorbance reading of 0.106. What is the concentration of iron(II) in the unknown?
Choose one answer.
A. 1.37 M
B. 6.50 mM
C. 9.90 mM
D. 8.06 mM
E. 8.83 mM
Question10
When performing calculations for standard additions, which of the following must be true?
Choose one answer.
A. The volume of the standard added must be added with the volume of the sample used to give a new
sample volume.
B. The volume of the standard added is subtracted from the total volume of the sample used.
C. The volume of the standard added can be ignored, because it is so small.
D. The volume of the standard added can be ignored, because volumes are not used in the calculations.
E. The volume of the standard added can be ignored, because it is part of the blank correction.
Question11
Which of the following statements about the sensitivity of an analytical method is true?
Choose one answer.
A. The sensitivity of an analytical method is the same as its detection limit.
B. The sensitivity of an analytical method is a measure of ability to determine whether slight differences in
C. The sensitivity of an analytical method is the smallest amount of analyte that the instrument is able to
measure.
D. The sensitivity of an analytical method is the response of the instrument to human error.
Question12
Which of the following statements is true of the detection limit of an instrument?
Choose one answer.
A. The detection limit of an instrument is the same as its sensitivity.
B. The detection limit of an instrument is a measure of ability to determine whether slight differences in
C. The detection limit of an instrument is the smallest amount of analyte that the instrument is able to
measure.
D. The detection limit of an instrument is the ability of the instrument to respond to an error.
Question13
Fill in the blank. Precipitation, volatilization, and particulation are all types of ____________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Electrochemical analysis methods
B. Gravimetric analysis methods
C. Tritrimetric analysis methods
D. Spectroscopic analysis methods
E. Photochemical analysis methods
Question14
Fill in the blank. Gravimetric analysis relies heavily on the principle of __________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Conservation of energy
B. Conservation of mass
C. Constant compostition
D. Definite proportions
E. The law of gravity

Question15
Coprecipitates (inclusions, occlusions, and surface adsorbates) are a common problem in gravimetric analysis, but can be controlled by which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Carefully controlling the solution conditions
B. Reprecipitation of the solid
C. Digestion of the precipitate
D. Thoroughly washing and drying the filtrate
E. All of the above
Question16
Volatilization gravimetry would be most useful in determining which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. The amount of silver in a solution of silver nitrate
B. The acidity of a water sample
C. The amount of water in eposom salts
D. All of the above
Question17
Which of the following statements about the equivalence point of an acid-base titration is true?
Choose one answer.
A. The equivalence point of an acid-base titration is the same as the indicator endpoint.
B. The equivalence point of an acid-base titration is the point where there is an equivalent amount of
titrant and titrand.
C. The equivalence point of an acid-base titration is where the pH = 7.0 (neutral).

D. The equivalence point of an acid-base titration is where the entire volume of the buret has been used.
E. The equivalence point of an acid-base titration is the average value of the dissociation constants.
Question18
What is the stoichiometry of EDTA with metal ions?
Choose one answer.
A. It is 1:6, because EDTA is a hexaprotic weak acid with six distinct acid dissociation values.
B. It is 1:4, because EDTA has four binding sites upon loss of the four carboxylic acid protons.
C. It is 1:2, because EDTA has two binding sites upon loss of the two ammonium protons.
D. It is 1:1, because EDTA forms a cage-like structure around the metal ion.
E. It is dependent on the metal ion present.
Question19
A 58.3 mg sample containing Sn2+ is dissolved in 1.0 M HCl. If 23.6 mL of 0.010 M Tl3+ was required to titrate to endpoint, what is the mass percent (w/w%) of tin in the original sample?
Choose one answer.
A. 48%
B. 28%
C. 24%
D. 40%
E. 14%
Question20
A 0.357 g sample contains only lead(II) iodide and sodium iodide in 100 mL of distilled water. Titration to the Fajan's end point requires 22.37 mL of 0.050 M silver nitrate. What is the mass
percent (w/w%) of lead(II) iodide in the sample?
Choose one answer.

A. 18%
B. 36%
C. 1.6%
D. 53%
E. 47%
Question21
Which variable in Beer's law represents how well a chemical species absorbs light at a given wavelength?
Choose one answer.
A. c - concentration
B. ε - molar absorptivity coefficient
C. A - absorbance
D. b - path length of the sample
E. λ - wavelength
Question22
According to Beer's Law, what happens to the absorbance reading if the concentration of the solution is halved?
Choose one answer.
A. The absorbance will double.
B. The absorbance will quadruple.
C. The absorbance will be halved.
D. The absorbance will be quartered.
E. There is no way to tell, because concentration and absorbance are not a linear relationship.
Question23
Why must solutions with high concentrations be diluted prior to analysis via Beer's Law?
Choose one answer.
A. The relationship between absorbance and concentration is not linear at high concentrations.
B. The detector will reach its detection threshhold.
C. The photon source is too weak to provide accurate results.
D. The molar absorptivity of a compound is dependent on its concentration.
E. There is no need to work with dilute concentrations; any concentration will work.
Question24
Which of the following transitions is NOT possible in UV-Vis absorption?
Choose one answer.
A. σ → σ*
B. σ → n
C. σ → π*
D. n → π*
Question25
Which of the following typically exhibits the largest molar absorptivities?
Choose one answer.
A. σ → σ* absorbances
B. σ → n absorbances
C. σ* → π* absorbances
D. π → π* absorbances
E. Metal to ligand charge transfer (MLCT) absorbances
Question26
Which of the following is the correct order in which light passes through a UV-Vis spectrometer?
Choose one answer.
A. Detector, sample, source, monochromator
B. Source, monochromator, sample, detector
C. Source, sample, monochromator, detector
D. Monochromator, source, sample, detector
E. Sample, source, monochromator, detector
Question27
What is the purpose of a monochromator?
Choose one answer.
A. To remove stray light from the room
B. To serve as a polychromatic light source
C. To interpret the photon signal into a digital readout
D. To allow only light of a certain wavelength to pass from the source to the sample
E. To focus light from the sample onto the detector
Question28
The regression line from a plot of absorbance vs. concentration yields: A = 2.31 c + 0.002. If the absorbance of an unknown is measured to be 0.124, what is the concentration of the analyte?
Choose one answer.
A. 0.29 M
B. 0.053 M
C. 1.86 M
D. 0.093 M
E. 2.43 M
Question29
The method of continuous variations, also known as Job's method, uses the intersection of the ligand-line and the metal-line to determine which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. The concentration at which the detector can no longer respond to the signal
B. The mole ratio between the metal and ligand in a complex
C. The maximum intensity of source photons transmitted
D. The number of dimeric molecules formed
E. The oxidation number of the metal
Question30
Ultraviolet and visible radiation affect which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Core electrons
C. Nuclear spin
Question31
Infrared radiation affects which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Core electrons
C. Molecular vibrations
D. Molecular rotations
E. Nuclear spin
Question32
Complete the sentence. All of the following are used to describe the bending modes in infrared spectroscopy, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. In-plane rocking.
B. In-plane scissoring.
C. Assymetric stretching.
D. Out-of-plane twisting.
E. Out-of-plane wagging.
Question33
What is the advantage of using a silver chloride sample cell rather than a sodium chloride sample cell for IR spectroscopy?
Choose one answer.
A. Aquesous samples can be measured; AgCl is not water soluble.
B. There is no advantage.
C. Silver chloride does not absorb IR radiation.
D. Silver chloride is translucent.
E. Sodium chloride is less expensive.
Question34
In order for a compound to be IR active, it must undergo which of the following?
Choose one answer.

A. A change in polarizability
B. A change in dipole moment
C. Emission of an electron
D. Transfer of an electon
E. Metal-ligand charge transfer
Question35
Complete the sentence. All of the following are infrared sources, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. The Nernst glower.
B. The Globar source.
C. An incandescent wire.
D. A pyroelectric glower.
Question36
Complete the sentence. All of the following are detectors used in infrared spectroscopy, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. A charge-coupled diode.
B. A thermocouple.
C. A pyroelectric detector.
D. A photoelectric detector.
Question37
Fill in the blank. NMR affects a molecule's ________________.
Choose one answer.

A. Nuclear spin
C. Core electrons
Question38
In 1H-NMR spectroscopy, if a CH2 neighbors a CH3, the hydrogen nuclei of the CH3 will appear as which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. A doublet, with a peak integration of 2
B. A doublet, with a peak integration of 3
C. A triplet, with a peak integration of 2
D. A triplet, with a peak integration of 3
E. A single peak, with an integration of 5
Question39
Where does spin-lattice relaxation occur?
Choose one answer.
A. It occurs between neighboring nuclei with identical frequencies but different quantum states via energy
transfer.
B. It occurs between the excited nuclei and nuclei within the sample matrix.
C. It occurs between atoms in the same molecule.
D. It occurs between the nuclei of the sample and the signal source.
E. All of the above
Question40
The value of the chemical shift in NMR spectroscopy is directly related to which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. The amount of shielding
B. The applied magnetic field
C. The identity of the reference sample
D. The electronegativity of the nucleus
E. All of the above
Question41
Fluorescence occurs as a result of which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Relaxation from a singlet excited state to a singlet ground state
B. Relaxation from a triplet excited state to a singlet ground state
C. Nonradiative (vibrational) relaxation
D. Intersystem crossing (isc)
E. All of the above
Question42
Phosphorescence occurs as a result of which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Relaxation from a singlet excited state to the singlet ground state
B. From a triplet excited state to the singlet ground state
C. Intersystem crossing (isc)
D. Nonradiative (vibrational) relaxation

E. All of the above
Question43
Why are flourescence and phosphorescence spectra measured at a 90 degree angle to the source?
Choose one answer.
A. To ensure that incident (source) photons are not observed
B. Because the sample cell is darkened on two adjacent sides
C. Because the monochromator directs the light at a 90 degree angle
D. Because the process of fluorescence and phosphorescence are too intense to observe directly
E. To make the overall instrument smaller
Question44
Complete the sentence. Fluorescence and phosphorescence can be used for detection of all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. Vitamins.
B. Environmental pollutants.
C. Uncomplexed metal ions.
D. Pharmaceuticals.
E. Aromatic amino acids.
Question45
A fluorescence quantum yield of 0.93 would suggest that most excited state molecules are doing which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Returning to the ground state by fluorescence
B. Returning to the ground state by non-radiative decay

C. Returning to the ground state by intersystem crossing
D. Remaining in the excited state past the experimental timeframe
Question46
Why are photomultiplier tubes often used in fluorescence spectroscopy?
Choose one answer.
A. Because the photon sources are too weak to vibrationally excite the samples
B. Because sample cells are small
C. Because they supply a reference signal
D. Because fluorescence intensities are usually low
Question47
Why is fluorescence spectroscopy often carried out in a liquid nitrogen environment?
Choose one answer.
A. Phosphorescence is more likely to coccur at low temperatures in a viscous medium.
B. Phosphorescent molecules tend to also have explosive properties.
C. The monochromator slows down the radiation before it hits the sample.
D. The detector requires lower temperatures for operation.
E. The source radiation can overheat and destory the analyte.
Question48
How does turbidimetry differ from nephelometry?
Choose one answer.

A. Turbidimerty measures the decrease in transmittance of incident radiation; nephelometry measures the intensity of
B. Nephelometry measures the decrease in transmittance of incident radiation; turbidimetry measures the intensity of
C. Nephelometry measures the total metal ion, or inorganic, content; turbidimetry measures total organic content.
D. Turbidimetry measures the total metal ion, or inorganic, content; nephelometry measures total organic content.
E. The terms are synonymous; there is no difference.
Question49
Turbidimetry and nephelometry are analytical methods based on which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Light scattering
B. Photon emission
C. Photon absorption
D. Nuclear repulsion
E. Paramagnetism
Question50
What is the advantage of an inductively coupled plasma source rather than a flame?
Choose one answer.
A. Better atomiza higher population of excited statestion and a
B. Lower operating temperatures and less expensive replacement costs
C. Minimization of scattering and ionization of analytes
D. All of the above
Question51
Atomic absorption spectroscopy results are highly reproducible but have low sensitivity and efficiency. This is due to which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. The small amount of analyte that actually reaches the flame
B. The high temperatures of analysis often destroy the atoms
C. The amount of dilution due to mixing with large volumes of combustion gases
D. A and B only
E. A and C only
Question52
Fill in the blank. The relationship between the analyte concentration and the intensity of measured radiation from thermal excitation methods, such as a flame or plasma, is
________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Linear
B. Exponential
C. Parabolic
D. Polynomial
E. Asymptopic
Question53
Flame atomic absorption measures absorption of radiation of analytes in which phase?
Choose one answer.
A. Solid phase
B. Liquid (neat) phase
C. Gas phase
D. Aquesous phase
E. Plasma phase
Question54
Why is a hollow cathode tube lamp necessary in atomic absorption?
Choose one answer.
A. Because cathode lamps are cheaper to operate and maintain
B. Because continuous spectrum lamps do not emit at the proper intensity
C. Because the width of an atom's absorption band is narrow
D. Because continuous spectrum lamps cause ionization of the molecules
E. All of the above
Question55
Fill in the blank. Background correction in flame atomic absorption spectroscopy can minimize the effect of ___________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Ionization of the analyte
B. Scattering and absorption by the matrix of the analyte
C. Reactions between the analyte and matrix
D. Non-volatilization of the analyte
Question56
Chemical interferences in atomic absorption that cannot be accounted for using a background correction, but can be minimized, include which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Nonvolatilization of the analyte
B. Ionization of the analyte
C. Absorption or scattering of radiation by the matrix

D. All of the above
E. A and B only
Question57
Which of the following are forms of radiationless deactivation of an excited state?
Choose one answer.
A. Intersystem crossing
B. Internal conversion
C. External conversion
D. Vibrational relaxation
E. All of the above
Question58
When does intersystem crossing occur?
Choose one answer.
A. When a molecule transfers to a higher vibrational energy level of a lower energy electronic state
with a different spin
B. When a molecule moves to a lower vibrational energy level in the same electronic state
C. When a molecule transfers to a higher vibrational energy level of a lower energy electronic state
with the same spin
D. energy is emitted as a photon from a singlet or triplet spin state
E. When energy is passed to the solvent or to another component of the sample's matrix
Question59
Fill in the blank. The lowest vibrational energy level of the lowest electronic singlet state (S 0) is referred to as the ___________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Ground state
B. Zero state
C. Newtonian state
D. Bohring state
E. Non-excited state
Question60
Whether an electron is in the triplet state or singlet state depends on which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Its spin-pairing with the ground state
B. The amount of radiation it was exposed to
C. Its ability to undergo radiationless decay
D. Its initial energy level before absorption
E. Its availability to become excited
Question61
In a chromatographic analysis of an unknown mixture, compound A has a retention time of 5.56 minutes and a baseline width of 0.87, and compound B has a retention time of 6.32 minutes
and a baseline width of 0.53 minutes. Are these peaks resolved, and what is the resolution between the two peaks?
Choose one answer.
A. Yes, 0.54
B. No, 0.54
C. Yes, 1.09
D. No, 1.09
E. There is not enough information given to determine resolution.
Question62
The "void peak" in a chromatogram corresponds to which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Components that had no interaction with the stationary phase
B. The peak that arises from poor selection of a stationary phase
C. The peak that arises from the mobile phase only
D. Components that had no interaction with the mobile phase
E. All peaks after the first peak in the chromatogram
Question63
If a compound has a retention time of 5.30 minutes with a baseline width of 0.64 minutes on a 2.0 m silica gel column, what is the average height of a theoretical plate?
Choose one answer.
A. 1.8 mm/plate
B. 15 mm/plate
C. 29 mm/plate
D. 0.24 mm/plate
E. 2.7 mm/plate
Question64
Which of the following statements about columns containing more theoretical plates is true?
Choose one answer.
A. Columns containing more theoretical plates make separations imposssible.
B. Columns containing more theoretical plates take a long time to perform separations.
C. Columns containing more theoretical plates are better suited to separate a complex mixture.
D. Columns containing more theoretical plates interact irreversibly with the analyte.
E. Columns containing more theoretical plates lend themselves to component mixing.

Question65
"Tailing" of a chromatographic peak is a result of which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Interactions of the solute with the stationary phase
C. Interactions between the stationary and mobile phases
D. Too many theoretical plates
E. Small theortetical plate heights
Question66
"Fronting" of a chromatographic peak is a result of which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Interactions between the stationary and mobile phase
C. Interactions of the solute with the stationary phase
D. Small theortetical plate heights
Question67
Band broadening in column chromatography is a result of which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Mass transfer in the stationary phase
B. Mass transfer in the mobile phase
C. Longitudinal diffusion
D. Variations in path lengths (Eddy diffusion)

E. All of the above
Question68
Complete the sentence. All of the following are common carrier gases from gas chromatography, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. Oxygen.
B. Nitrogen.
C. Helium.
D. Argon.
E. Carbon dioxide.
Question69
When using gas chromatography, how is optimum column efficiency obtained?
Choose one answer.
A. When the samples are injected slowly and in large quantities
B. When the samples are injected slowly and in small quantities
C. When the samples are injected quickly and in large quantities
D. When the samples are injected quickly and in small quantities
Question70
What is the most common support material for a packed GC column?
Choose one answer.
A. Silica gel
B. Alumina
C. Fused silica
D. Glass
E. Diatomaceous earth
Question71
WCOT, SCOT, PLOT, and FSOT are all types of which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Open tubular GC columns
B. Capillary GC columns
C. Packed GC columns
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
Question72
Which of the following GC detectors would most likely allow recovery of a sample after analysis?
Choose one answer.
A. Flame ionization detector (FID)
B. Thermal conductivity detector (TCD)
C. Flame photometric detector (FPD)
D. Hall electrolytic conductivity detector
E. Nitrogen-phosphorus detector
Question73
Which of the following GC detectors would be least affected by the carrier gas?
Choose one answer.

A. Thermal conductivity detector (TCD)
B. Electron capture detector (ECD)
C. Photoionization detector (PID)
D. Flame photometric detector (FPD)
E. None of these detectors would be affected by the carrier gas.
Question74
In size exclusion chromatography, what happens to the larger particles?
Choose one answer.
A. They elude first, before smaller particles.
B. They are broken down into smaller particles.
C. They become oxidized as they move through the column.
D. They remain on the column longer than smaller particles.
E. They bind permanently to the stationary phase.
Question75
Fill in the blank. Ion exchange chromatography is best suited to separate ___________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Hydrophilic molecules
B. Hydrophobic molecules
C. Mixed metal sulfides and oxides
D. Large molecules, such as DNA and RNA
E. Cations and anions
Question76
Which of the following statements about the mobile phase in Supercritical fluid chromatography (SFC) is false?
Choose one answer.
A. It requires lower pressures than those needed for HPLC.
B. It gives better resolution than GC.
C. It has densities similar to a liquid.
D. Its mobile phase has the viscosity properties of a gas.
E. It has solvent properties of a liquid.
Question77
The stationary phase in ion exchange chromatography is a cross-linked polymer resin with covalently attached functional groups. Which of the following is NOT a typical functional group used
for IEC?
Choose one answer.
A. Sulfonic acid (-SO3-)
B. Carboxylic acid (-COO-)
C. Quarternary amine (-CH2N(CH3)3+)
D. Amine (-NH3+)
E. Hydroxyl (-OH-)
Question78
Reversed-phase chromatography refers to which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. A stationary phase and mobile phase of similar polarities
B. A nonpolar stationary phase and a nonpolar mobile phase
C. A polar stationary phase and a nonpolar mobile phase
D. A nonpolar stationary phase and a polar mobile phase

E. A polar stationary phase and a polar mobile phase
Question79
Which of the following would elute first when using capillary zone electrophoresis?
Choose one answer.
A. Ca2+
B. CH3NH3+
C. Cl-
D. HCOO-
E. CH3COO-
Question80
How are separations by electrophoresis carried out?
Choose one answer.
A. Via applying an electric current
B. Via saponification of the analyte
C. Via polymerization of the analyte
D. Via oxidation reactions at stationary phase sites
E. Via reduction reactions at stationary phase sites
Question81
Fill in the blank. Cd wire used to measure the concentration of cadmium ion is an example of a _______________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Metallic electrode of the second kind
B. Metallic electrode of the first kind

C. Saturated calomel electrode
D. Reference electrode
E. Silver/silver chloride electrode
Question82
Fill in the blank. Ag wire used to measure the concentration of Br- ion is an example of a ______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Saturated calomel electrode
b. Metallic electrode of the first kind
c. Metallic electrode of the second kind
d. Silver/silver chloride electrode
e. Reference electrode
Question83
What is the process of the loss of an electron called?
Choose one answer.
A. Oxidation
B. Reduction
C. Transference
D. Sublimation
E. Neutralization
Question84
What is the process of the gain of an electron called?
Choose one answer.

A. Oxidation
B. Reduction
C. Sublimation
D. Transference
E. Neutralization
Question85
Which of the following is a substrate that is oxidized?
Choose one answer.
A. Cationic species
B. Anionic species
C. Neutral species
D. Reducing agent
E. Oxidizing agent
Question86
Which of the following is a substrate that is reduced?
Choose one answer.
A. Oxidizing agent
B. Reducing agent
C. Cationic species
D. Anionic species
E. Neutral species
Question87
What is the purpose of the salt bridge in a galvanic (voltaic) cell?
Choose one answer.
A. To complete the electrochemical circuit
B. To provide free electrons for redox processes
C. To provide a site for oxidative reduction
D. To serve as a working electrode
E. To serve as a reference electrode
Question88
If a redox couple is at equilibrium in an electrochemical cell, then which of the following statements about the current and potential is most accurate?
Choose one answer.
A. The current is zero, and the potential is given by the Nernst equation.
B. The current and potential are both zero.
C. The current is negative, and the potential is zero.
D. The current is positive, and the potential is zero.
E. The potential is zero, and the current is given by the Nernst equation.
Question89
Complete the sentence. The basic setups for electrochemical measurement include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. Measure the potential at zero current.
B. Measure the potential while controlling the current.
C. Measure the potential and current simultaneously.
D. Measure the current while controlling the potential.

E. All of the above
Question90
Which of the following is a static (i = 0) electrochemical technique?
Choose one answer.
A. Potentiometry
B. Controlled-current coulometry
C. Controlled-potential coulometry
D. Cyclic voltammetry
E. Amperometry
Question91
Where does the reduction reaction occur?
Choose one answer.
A. At the anode
B. At the cathode
C. Within the potentiometer
D. Within the salt bridge
Question92
Where does the oxidation reaction occur?
Choose one answer.
A. Within the potentiometer
B. Within the salt bridge

C. At the anode
D. At the cathode
Question93
The use of the Nerst equation to calculate potentials is really a simplistic model. Which of the following does it ignore?
Choose one answer.
A. Matrix effects
B. Temperature effects
C. Junction potentials
D. All of the above
Question94
Fill in the blank. The potential that develops at the interface of two solutions due to differences in concentrations and ionic mobility is called the _________________ potential.
Choose one answer.
A. Osmotic
B. Bridging
C. Coulombic
D. Reference
E. Junction
Question95
Which of the following statements about the standard hydrogen electrode, the calomel electrode, and the silver/silver chloride electrode is true?
Choose one answer.

A. These electrodes combine to make a complete electrochemical cell.
B. These electrodes are typically used as reference electrodes.
C. These electrodes are typically used as working (indicator) electrodes.
D. These electrodes are examples of membrane electrodes.
E. These electrodes have the same electrochemical potential.
Question96
A pH meter is an example of which type of membrane electrode?
Choose one answer.
A. Glass ion selective electrode
B. Potentiometric biosensor (enzyme electrode)
C. Solid-state ion selective electrode
D. Liquid-based ion selective electrode
E. Gas-sensing electrode
Question97
In a cyclic voltammogram, the peak current(i) is directly related to which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. The concentration of anayte
B. The surface area of the working electrode
C. The number of electrons involved in the redox process
D. The diffusion coefficient of the electroactive species
E. All of the above
Question98
One electrochemical technique involves first depositing an analyte on the surface of an electrode, then using an applied current to remove the analyte via a reduction or oxidation reaction.
What is this method called?
Choose one answer.
A. Hydrodynamic voltammetry
B. Stripping voltammetry
C. Amperometry
D. Polarography
E. Cyclic voltammetry
Question99
Which of the following is NOT a variable in voltammetric methods?
Choose one answer.
A. Type of working electrode
B. How the potential is applied
C. The inclusion of convection
D. How the current is applied
E. All of the above
Question100
Fill in the blank. Coulometric techniques result in a plot of ____________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Current versus time
B. Electrochemical potential versus time
C. Current versus electrochemical potential
D. Current only
E. Potential only
PhysicL CHEM
1
A 5.00 L sample of N2(g) is held at a pressure of 2.00 atm and a temperature of 315 K. Assuming ideal-gas behavior, how many moles of N2(g) are present in this sample?
Choose one answer.
a. 2.69 mol
b. 0.208 mol
c. 0.387 mol
d. 0.004 mol
Question2
At a temperature of 500oC and a pressure of 699 Torr, sulfur vapor has a density of 3.71 g/dm 3. What molecular formula for sulfur is compatible with this set of conditions?
Choose one answer.
a. S2
b. S3
c. S8
d. (S2)3
Question3
Consider a gas for which the equation of state P(Vm – b) = RT (with b = 0.04 dm3/mol) can be used to describe its P-V-T behavior. Suppose a 2-mol sample of this gas is compressed
isothermally and reversibly from an initial volume of 10 dm 3 to a final volume of 1 dm3. How much work (w) is done on the gas sample in this compression process, and how much is the
internal energy (U) of the gas changed?
Choose one answer.
a. w = 11.7 kJ and ∆U = 11.7 kJ
b. w = 11.9 kJ and ∆U = 0
c. w = 5.85 kJ and ∆U = -5.85 kJ
d. w = 5.85 kJ and ∆U = 0
Question4
Consider a process in which a sample of water vapor expands reversibly and adiabatically from a state in which its pressure is 60 Torr and its volume is 0.5 dm 3 to a state in which its volume
is 3 dm3. If it is assumed that the water vapor behaves as an ideal gas (with respect to its P-V-T properties) and that the ratio of its Cp,m and Cv,m heat-capacity quantities is given by γ =
Cp,m/Cv,m = 1.3, what will be the final pressure of the vapor sample?
Choose one answer.
a. 5.83 bar
b. 230 Torr
c. 5.84 Torr
d. There is not enough information provided to answer this question.
Question5
Consider a process in which exactly 107 J of heat is added to 1 mol of CH 3OH(g) under constant-volume conditions. If the initial temperature of the methanol vapor sample is 298 K, what will
be the temperature of the vapor after the 107 J of heat is added? You may assume ideal-gas behavior and use a value of 43.89 J/K-mol for Cp,m (the molar heat capacity of methanol vapor
under constant-pressure conditions).
Choose one answer.
a. 301.0 K
b. 300.4 K
c. 295.0 K
d. None of the above answers is correct.
Question6
If a person breathes at a rate of 14 respirations per minute, and each respiration involves 0.5 dm 3 of air, what will be the total mass of air breathed in a day? (Take T = 300 K and P = 101.3
kPa, and assume that the air behaves as an ideal gas with a molar mass of 0.029 kg/mol).
Choose one answer.
a. 11.9 kg
b. 119 g
c. 238 g
d. 14.6 kg
Question7
If you have 1.55 mol of F2(g) at 1.11 atm pressure and a temperature of 0oC, what is the volume of this gas sample, assuming ideal-gas behavior?
Choose one answer.
a. 31.3 L
b. 22.4 L
c. 3170 L
d. 0.0821 L
Question8
The density of ice, H2O(s), at 273 K, is 0.915 kg/dm3, and that of liquid water is 0.99987 kg/dm3. How much thermodynamic work must be done to melt 1 mol of ice at 1 bar pressure?
Choose one answer.
a. 0.167 J
b. 0.167 kJ
c. 1.67 J
d. 39.9 cal
Question9
The heat capacity of a substance can be measured under either constant-volume or constant-pressure conditions. Which of the following sets of relationships between C v (heat capacity under
constant-volume conditions) and Cp(heat capacity under constant-pressure conditions) are always true?
Choose one answer.
a. Cp (gas) > Cv (gas); Cp (solid) ≈ Cv (solid); and Cp (gas) >> Cp (solid)
b. Cv (gas) ≈ Cv (solid) and Cp (liquid) ≈ Cv (liquid)
c. Cv (gas) > Cv (liquid) > Cv (solid) and Cv > Cp in all phases
d. Cp approaches a value of 0 as the sample temperature approaches 0 K but increases without bound as the sample
temperature is increased.
Question10
The Van der Waals equation-of-state for real gases may be written as P = RT(Vm – b)-1 – a(Vm)-2, where P denotes pressure, T is temperature, Vm denotes molar volume, and ‘a’ and ‘b’ are
parameters (sometimes referred to as the Van der Waals coefficients) that reflect properties of the individual molecules (or atoms) in the gas. Which of the following statements regarding the
‘a’ and ‘b’ parameters is not true?
Choose one answer.
a. The Van der Waals ‘a’ parameter reflects the existence and strength of attractive intermolecular interactions in
the gas, and the value of ‘a’ is always ≥0.
b. The van der Waals ‘b’ parameter is related to the physical sizes of the constituent molecules (or atoms) of the
gas.
c. The magnitude of the ‘a’ parameter for N2(g) is expected to be greater than that for NH3(g).
d. The magnitude of the ‘b’ parameter for Ar(g) is larger than that for He(g).
Question11
Which of the following corresponds to a concise statement of the zeroth law of thermodynamics?
Choose one answer.
a. Three solid bodies that are all in thermal equilibrium will have the same temperature.
b. Gas molecules in motion tend to stay in motion in the absence of applied forces.
c. Two material bodies that are separately in thermal equilibrium with a third body are in thermal equilibrium with each
other.
d. Molecules can be treated as non-interacting point-masses when contained in gaseous samples at very low pressures
and number densities.
Question12
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Choose one answer.
a. The most probable value of a velocity component is equal to the most probable speed of the molecules in a dilute
gas.
b. The average kinetic energy of the molecules in a gas is independent of the molecular mass.
c. The ratio of the most probable speed to the mean speed has the same value for all gases at all temperatures.
d. Derivation of the ideal-gas equation-of-state from the kinetic-molecular theory of gases requires that the gas molecules
be treated as non-interacting point masses.
Question13
Choose one answer.
a. The molar heat capacities of He(g) and Ne(g) have identical values at T = 500 K.
b. The average kinetic energy of the atoms in an He(g) sample is the same as the average kinetic energy
of the atoms in an Ne(g) sample.
c. The average speed of the atoms in an He(g) sample is the same as the average speed of the atoms in
an Ne(g) sample.
d. The average speed of the atoms in an He(g) sample is greater than the average speed of the atoms in
an Ar(g) sample.
Question14
The first law of thermodynamics states that:
Choose one answer.
a. The energy of a system always increases in any physical or chemical process.
b. The energy of a system always decreases in any physical or chemical process.

c. The entropy of a system always increases in any spontaneous process.
d. The energy of the universe (encompassing system + surroundings) is always conserved in any physical or
chemical process.
Question15
A 1.50-mol sample of an ideal gas at 245 K and 0.75 bar pressure is altered by some process that takes it to a state in which its temperature is increased to 295 K and its pressure is increased
to 0.90 bar. What will be the enthalpy change (∆H) of the gas in this process?
Choose one answer.
a. 1.56 kJ
b. 1.40 kJ
c. -1.56 kJ
d. 0.62 kJ
Question16
A process in which there is no thermal energy exchanged between a system and its surroundings is called:
Choose one answer.
a. An isothermal process
b. An isobaric process
c. A diathermic process
d. An adiabatic process.
Question17
Consider 0.1 mol of an ideal gas contained in a cylinder of volume 2.5 dm 3 at a pressure of 1 bar and a temperature of 301 K. Next, suppose you consider three different processes for
changing the state of the gas sample to one in which the volume is reduced to 0.25 dm 3, the pressure is increased to 10 bar, and the temperature is 301 K (the same as the temperature in
the initial state). The paths of the three alternative processes are specified as follow:
Process #1 is a two-step process in which the gas sample is first heated at constant volume until the pressure reaches a value of 10 bar, and then the gas is cooled under constant pressure
(10 bar) until its equilibrium volume is reduced to 0.25 dm 3 and its temperature is 301 K.
Process #2 is a two-step process in which the gas sample is first cooled under constant pressure (1 bar) until its equilibrium volume is reduced to 0.25 dm3, and then the gas is heated under
constant volume conditions until its pressure reaches a value of 10 bar and its temperature is 301 K.
Process #3 is a single-step process in which the gas is isothermally compressed from its initial state to its final state at a fixed temperature of 301 K.
Which of the three processes above would require the least amount of work in effecting the specified change of state, and what would be the ∆U (change in internal energy) for this process?
Choose one answer.
a. Process #1; ∆U = 0
b. Process #2; ∆U = 0
c. Process #2; ∆U > 0
d. Process #3; ∆U = 0
Question18
Consider a cyclic process in which a system performs a net amount of work on its surroundings (i.e., w net < 0, corresponding to the net work done by the system). Would this process be
endothermic (qnet > 0), exothermic (qnet < 0), or adiabatic (qnet = 0) with respect to the net heat (qnet) exchange between system and surroundings? And what would be the relationship
between qnet and wnet?
Choose one answer.
a. Endothermic, with |qnet | > |wnet|
b. Exothermic, with qnet = wnet < 0
c. Endothermic, with qnet = -wnet
d. Adiabatic, with qnet = 0 and wnet < 0
Question19
Consider a process in which a gas is expanded adiabatically and reversibly under constant-pressure conditions, and the amount of work done by the gas in this process is 10 kJ. What changes
in the internal energy (U) and entropy (S) of the gas will accompany this process?
Choose one answer.
a. ∆U = -10 kJ and ∆S = 0
b. ∆U = 10 kJ and ∆S = 0
c. ∆U = 0 and ∆S = 10 J/K
d. There is not enough information to determine the values of ∆U and ∆S.

Question20
Consider a process in which a system undergoes a change from some initial thermodynamic state (1) to some final thermodynamic state (2). Suppose that the thermodynamic variables of
state are well-characterized for both the initial and final states, but the path (through the variable space) between the two states is not well-characterized. Which of the following quantities
associated with the (1) → (2) change-of-state process cannot be determined without a detailed specification of path?
Choose one answer.
a. The change in the entropy of the system (∆S)
b. The change in the Gibbs free energy of the system (∆G)
c. The change in the internal energy of the system (∆U)
d. The work done and heat exchanged during the process
Question21
Consider the reaction 2 C(s) + Cl2(g) + 2 F2(g) → CF2ClCF2Cl(g), for which the standard reaction enthalpy has a value of ∆ rH0 = -890.4 kJ/mol at a temperature of 298 K. What is the value of
∆rU0 for this reaction at T = 298 K?
Choose one answer.
a. 4064 kJ/mol
b. -895.4 kJ/mol
c. -890.4 kJ/mol
d. -885.4 kJ/mol
Question22
In a free expansion (or Joule expansion) of a gas, no work is done either on or by the gas system. If the gas in such a process behaves as an ideal gas, which of the following statements is
also true for the free-expansion process?
Note: In the answer options below, U denotes the internal energy of the gas, S denotes the entropy of the gas, q denotes the heat exchanged between the gas and its
surroundings, Vinitial denotes the initial volume of the gas (before expansion), and Vfinal denotes the final volume of the gas (after expansion).
Choose one answer.
a. ∆U = 0; q > 0; and ∆S = nR ln (Vfinal/Vinitial)
b. ∆U > 0; q > 0; and ∆S = nR ln (Vfinal/Vinitial)

c. ∆U = 0; q = 0; and ∆S = nR ln (Vfinal/Vinitial)
d. ∆U = 0; q = 0; and ∆S = 0
Question23
Suppose a 1-mol sample of an ideal gas is expanded isothermally and reversibly from a volume of 10 L to a volume of 20 L at a temperature of 298 K. How much work (w) is done in this
process, and what are the changes in the internal energy (∆U) and entropy (∆S) of the gas?
Choose one answer.
a. w = 1.717 kJ; ∆U = 0; ∆S = 5.76 J/K
b. w = -1.717 kJ; ∆U = -1.717 kJ; ∆S = 0
c. w = 0; ∆U = 1717 J; ∆S = 5.76 J/K
d. w = -1717 J; ∆U = 0; ∆S = 5.76 J/K
Question24
Suppose you want to cool a sample of N2(g) from 25oC to -195oC by a one-step process involving a Joule-Thomson expansion in which the final pressure is 1 bar. The Joule-Thomson
coefficient for N2(g) over the specified temperature range may be taken to be μJ-T = 0.75 K/bar. Calculate the enthalpy change (∆H) associated with this cooling process and determine what
the initial pressure (Pinitial) of the gas must be in order to realize the desired temperature change. Which of the following equations gives correct results for Pinitial and ∆H?
Choose one answer.
a. Pinitial = 292 bar and ∆H > 0
b. Pinitial = 292 bar and ∆H = 0
c. Pinitial = 225 bar and ∆H = 0
d. Pinitial = 292 bar and ∆H < 0
Question25
The Joule-Thomson experiment involves an isenthalpic thermodynamic process, and the measurements performed in a Joule-Thomson experiment permit evaluation of the quantity μJ-T =
(∂T/∂P)H ≈ ∆T/∆P. The observed values of μJ-T are:
Choose one answer.
a. < 0 for nearly all gases.

b. > 0 for nearly all gases.
c. > 0 only for gases that exhibit ideal-gas P-V-T behavior.
d. independent of the initial temperature and pressure of the gas undergoing the Joule-Thomson expansion
process.
Question26
The standard heat of combustion of solid glucose (C6H12O6) at 298 K is ∆cH0(298 K) = -2801 kJ/mol. What is the value of ∆cU0(298 K) for glucose (where ∆cU0 denotes the change in internal
energy accompanying the combustion of glucose at 1 bar pressure)?
Choose one answer.
a. -2801 kJ/mol
b. 3455 kJ/mol
c. 2801 kJ/mol
d. 0
Question27
Choose one answer.
a. In cyclic thermodynamic processes, it is always true that the net changes in internal energy (∆U), entropy (∆S),
and enthalpy (∆H) of a system are zero (i.e., ∆Unet = ∆Snet = ∆Hnet = 0).
b. The entropy of a system always increases with an increase in temperature under either constant-volume or
constant-pressure conditions.
c. In reversible adiabatic processes, it is always true that ∆S = 0 and ∆U = w (work).
d. An isothermal expansion of an ideal gas always gives ∆U > 0 and ∆S = 0.
Question28
Consider a heat engine that operates on a Carnot cycle and uses an ideal gas as a working fluid. Suppose that the heat reservoir of the engine supplies 1 kJ of heat to the system during an
isothermal expansion process at a temperature of 900 K, and the system subsequently gives up heat to heat sink during an isothermal compression process at a temperature of 300 K. What
would be the maximum efficiency (ηmax) achievable with this engine, and what would be the maximum net work (w net,max) that one could derive from this engine?
Choose one answer.

a. ηmax = 0.333; maximum net work from engine = 300 J
b. ηmax = 0.667; maximum net work from engine = 900 J
c. ηmax = 0.333; maximum net work from engine = 200 J
d. ηmax = 0.667; maximum net work from engine = 600 J
Question29
Consider the following chemical reactions and their standard reaction enthalpies (∆ rHo) at 298 K.
NH3 + HCl(g) → NH4Cl(s) ∆rH0 = -176 kJ/mol

N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g) ∆rH0 = -92 kJ/mol
N2(g) + 4 H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2 NH4Cl(s) ∆rH0 = -629 kJ/mol
Use this thermochemical data to calculate the standard heat of reaction for the synthesis of hydrogen chloride gas from H 2(g) and Cl(g) at a temperature of 298 K. The value of ∆rHo (at 298
K) for the reaction H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2 HCl(g) is:
Choose one answer.
a. -242 kJ/mol
b. -897 kJ/mol
c. -185 kJ/mol
d. 391 kJ/mol
Question30
Consider the reaction C6H5COOH(s) + (15/2) O2(g) → 7 CO2(g) + 3 H2O(l), for which the standard reaction enthalpy is ∆rHo = -3228.2 kJ. Calculate the ∆rUo for this reaction and determine
whether any thermodynamic work would be done on (w > 0) or by (w < 0) the reaction system if the reaction is carried out at a constant pressure. (Assume that the gases in this reaction
exhibit ideal-gas behavior at T = 298.15 K and P = 1 bar.)
Choose one answer.
a. ∆rUo = -3230.7 kJ and w > 0
b. ∆rUo = -3230.7 kJ and w = 0
c. ∆rUo = -3228.2 kJ and w = 0

d. ∆rUo = -3227.0 kJ and w < 0
Question31
Consider the reaction N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g), and the following thermodynamic data: standard heat of formation of NH 3(g), ∆fHo = -46.11 kJ/mol; standard molar entropy of N2(g),
SSmo = 191.61 J/K-mol; standard molar entropy of H2(g), Smo = 130.684 J/K-mol; and standard molar entropy of NH3(g), Smo = 192.45 J/K-mol. Calculate the ∆H, ∆S, and ∆G for this reaction
carried out under standard pressure and temperature conditions. Which of the following are the correct values for ∆H, ∆S, and ∆G?
Choose one answer.
a. ∆H = -92.22 kJ; ∆S = -198.76 J/K; ∆G = -32.99 kJ
b. ∆H = 92.22 kJ; ∆S = 198.76 J/K; ∆G = 32.99 kJ
c. ∆H = -46.11 kJ; ∆S = -99.38 J/K; ∆G = -16.49 kJ
d. ∆H = -46.11 kJ; ∆S = -129.8 J/K; ∆G = -7.43 kJ
Question32
The Carnot heat engine operates on a thermodynamic cycle comprised of the following sequence of processes:
Choose one answer.
a. An isothermal expansion, an adiabatic expansion, an isothermal compression, and an adiabatic compression
b. An isothermal expansion, an isochoric expansion, an isothermal compression, and an isochoric compression
c. An isentropic expansion, an isoenthalpic expansion, an isothermal compression, and an adiabatic compression
d. An isobaric heating, an isothermal expansion, an isobaric cooling, and an isothermal compression
Question33
The standard heat of reaction for the decomposition of ZnO(s) is ∆ rHo = 348 kJ/mol. What does this information tell you about the formation of ZnO(s) under standard STP conditions?
Choose one answer.
a. The formation of ZnO(s) is an endothermic process.
b. The formation of ZnO(s) is an exothermic process.
c. No thermal energy is either taken up or given off in the formation process.

Question34
Which of the following statements regarding a Carnot-cycle engine is incorrect?
Choose one answer.
a. Increasing the temperature of the hot reservoir (i.e., the heat source) will increase the efficiency of the
engine.
b. Decreasing the temperature of the cold reservoir (i.e., the heat sink) will increase the efficiency of the
engine.
c. A Carnot cycle is by definition a reversible cycle.
d. Since the Carnot cycle is a cyclic process, the net work done is zero.
Question35
Consider a 2-mol sample of an ideal gas, with a molar heat capacity Cv,m = 12.5 J/K-mol, confined to a volume of 5 dm3 at a temperature of 300 K. If this gas sample is heated to 373 K and
its volume is allowed to expand to 10 dm3, how much heat (q) is required to perform this process, and what is the entropy change (of the gas) that accompanies this process?
Choose one answer.
a. ∆S = 16.97 J/K; the value of q depends on whether the process is carried out reversibly or irreversibly
b. ∆S = 5.44 J/K; q = 1825 J
c. ∆S = 11.53 J/K; q = 1825 J
d. ∆S = 16.97 J/K; q = 1825 J
Question36
Consider a container with rigid, adiabatic walls that is fitted with a partition that separates the container into two chambers (one having twice the volume of the other). The larger chamber
contains a 2-mol sample of N2(g) at 298 K and 1 bar pressure, and the smaller chamber contains a 1-mol sample of He(g) at 298 K and 1 bar pressure. Now suppose that the partition
between the chambers is removed and the N2 and He gases are allowed to mix. This mixing process is isothermal and also adiabatic. Assuming that the gases behave ideally, what would be
the ∆U (change in internal energy), ∆H (enthalpy change), and ∆S (entropy change) that accompany this mixing process?
Choose one answer.
a. ∆U = ∆H = ∆S = 0
b. ∆U = 0; ∆S = 15.88 J/K; and there is not enough information to determine ∆H

c. ∆U = 0; ∆H = 0; ∆S = -15.88 J/K
d. ∆U = 0; ∆H = 0; ∆S = 15.88 J/K
Question37
Consider a process in which a 2-mol sample of a certain gas is heated reversibly from 275 K to 375 K under a constant pressure of 1 bar, and the entropy change for the gas is ∆S = 13.3 J/K.
What will be the value of ∆S for a process in which the same gas sample is heated irreversibly from 275 K to 375 K under a fixed pressure of 1 bar?
Choose one answer.
a. ∆S > 13.3 J/K
b. ∆S = 13.3 J/K
c. ∆S < 13.3 J/K
Question38
Suppose 2 moles of water at 333 K are added to 4 moles of water at 293 K. What would be the entropy change associated with this process, assuming that there is no exchange of heat with
the surroundings? (The heat capacity of water is C p,m = 75.3 J/K-mol and may be considered to be independent of temperature.)
Choose one answer.
a. 26 J/K
b. 0.8 J/K
c. -12.6 J/K
d. -0.8 J/K
Question39
The enthalpy of vaporization of methanol is 35.27 kJ/mol at its normal boiling point of 64.1 oC. What is the entropy of vaporization of methanol at this temperature, and what is the entropy
change in the surroundings when a mole of methanol is vaporized at a temperature of 64.1 oC and a pressure of 1 bar?
Choose one answer.
a. ∆vapS0 = 104.6 J/K-mol for methanol; ∆S(surroundings) = -104.6 J/K-mol
b. ∆vapS0 = -104.6 J/K-mol for methanol; ∆S(surroundings) = 104.6 J/K-mol

c. ∆vapS0 = 104.6 J/K-mol for methanol; ∆S(surroundings) = 0
d. ∆vapS0 = 550.2 J/K-mol for methanol; ∆S(surroundings) = 0
Question40
The heat of fusion for H2O at 273.15 K and 1 bar pressure is 6.008 kJ/mol; the heat of vaporization for H2O at 373.15 K and 1 bar pressure is 40.656 kJ/mol; and the molar heat capacity
(Cp,m) of liquid water between 273 K and 373 K has a nearly constant value of 75.29 J/K-mol (under a pressure of 1 bar). Given these conditions, which of the following processes will result in
the largest increase in entropy of a 1-mol sample of H2O?
Choose one answer.
a. Vaporizing H2O(l) at 373 K and 1 bar pressure
b. Melting H2O(s) at 273 K and 1 bar pressure
c. Heating H2O(l) from 273 K to 373 K under a constant pressure of 1 bar
d. Melting H2O(s) at 273.15 K and 1 bar pressure, and then heating the liquid water from 273.15 K to just
short of the boiling point at 373.15 K under a constant pressure of 1 bar
Question41
Two 1-mol blocks of aluminum, one at 273 K and the other at 373 K, are brought into thermal contact. What will be the temperature of the two blocks when they have reached thermal
equilibrium, and what will be the total entropy change (∆S tot) that accompanies the thermal equilibration process? (Assume that the two blocks of aluminum are in a container with walls that
keep them completely isolated from outside surroundings, and take the heat capacity of the aluminum blocks to be C p,m = 24.35 J/K-mol.)
Choose one answer.
a. Tequil = 323 K and ∆Stot = 0
b. Tequil = 323 K and ∆Stot = 0.59 J/K
c. Tequil = 323 K and ∆Stot = -0.59 J/K
d. Tequil = 373 K and ∆Stot = 6.21 J/K
Question42
What is the change in the molar entropy of Ar(g) when it undergoes the following process: Ar(298 K, 1 bar) → Ar(100 K, 10 bar)? (You may assume that the argon behaves as an ideal gas
and its heat capacity has a fixed value of Cp,m = 20.8 J/K-mol.)
Choose one answer.
a. 41.8 J/K-mol
b. -17.5 J/K-mol
c. -41.8 J/K-mol
d. 24.2 kJ/mol
Question43
Which of the following processes carried out on a 1-mol sample of a monatomic gas (assumed to exhibit ideal-gas P-V-T behavior) will result in the greatest increase in the entropy of the gas?
Choose one answer.
a. Isothermal expansion from a volume of 5 L to a volume of 10 L
b. Heating the gas from 300 K to 600 K under constant-volume conditions
c. Isothermal expansion from a volume of 10 L to a volume of 15 L
d. Reversible adiabatic expansion from a volume of 5 L to a volume of 10 L
Question44
Which of the following provides a succinct statement of the Clausius Inequality?
Choose one answer.
a. dS ≥ dq/T for all isothermal processes carried out reversibly or irreversibly at a constant temperature
T.
b. dS ≥ dqrev/T for any reversible process carried out at a constant temperature T.
c. dS ≥ 0 for all spontaneous processes occurring in any kind of system.
d. dG ≤ 0 for a spontaneous process occurring in an isolated system.
Question45
Which of the following represents a necessary condition for a chemical reaction to proceed from reactants to products spontaneously?
Choose one answer.
a. The reaction must be endothermic.
b. The reaction must be exothermic.

c. The total entropy of the reacting chemical system and its surroundings must increase.
d. The standard entropy change, ∆rS0, for the chemical reaction must be ≥ 0.
Question46
Which of the following statements is correct?
Choose one answer.
a. For a closed system, ∆S can never have a negative value.
b. For a reversible process in a closed system, ∆S must be zero.
c. For an adiabatic process in a closed system, ∆S cannot have a negative value.
d. For an adiabatic process in a closed system, ∆S must be zero.
Question47
Identify the FALSE statement among the following choices:
Choose one answer.
a. Calorimetry involves the measurement of heat transfer during a physical or chemical process.
b. According to the third law of thermodynamics, the entropies of all perfectly crystalline substances must be the same at
the absolute zero of temperature (i.e., at T = 0 K).
c. For any given change of state, the work done by a system in an irreversible process is always greater than that in a
reversible process.
d. The Joule-Thompson effect relates to the temperature change occurring in a gas during an isenthalpic expansion of
the gas.
Question48
The translational motions of the molecules in a gas contribute to the total entropy of the gas. What is the translational contribution to the total entropy of a 1-mol sample of N2(g) at a
temperature of 298 K and a pressure of 1 bar?
Choose one answer.
a. 15.03 J/K
b. -15.03 J/K
c. 150.3 J/K
d. 198.1 J/K
Question49
What is the standard molar entropy (Sm0) of oxygen atoms at 298 K (assumed to behave as an ideal gas)?
Choose one answer.
a. 143.4 J/K-mol
b. 1.43 J/K-mol
c. 1550 J/K-mol
d. -143.4 J/K-mol
Question50
Which of the following played a significant role in developing the concept of entropy and in formulating the second law of thermodynamics?
Choose one answer.
a. The Nernst heat theorem
b. The equipartition-of-energy principle
c. The formulation and analysis of the Carnot cycle and heat engine
d. The Heisenberg uncertainty principle
Question51
Which of the following statements does NOT conform to the laws of thermodynamics?
Choose one answer.
a. The entropy of the universe always increases in a spontaneous change-of-state process.
b. The energy of the universe always remains constant in any change-of-state process.
c. The entropy of a system always decreases with a decrease in the temperature of the system.
d. The entropy of any chemically pure substance approaches a value of zero as the temperature of the
substance approaches a value of 0 K, and at T = 0 K, S = 0.
Question52
Among the following processes, which would have a ∆Gm value > 0?
Choose one answer.
a. Solid water (ice) melts at 1 bar pressure and a temperature of 0 oC.
b. Solid water (ice) melts at 1 bar pressure and a temperature of 5 oC.
c. Liquid water is vaporized at 1 bar pressure and a temperature of 105 oC.
d. Liquid water is vaporized at 1 bar pressure and a temperature of 95 oC.
Question53
At what pressure will (G – G0) be 2000 J/mol for an ideal gas at 25oC?
Choose one answer.
a. 2.1 kPa
b. 21 atm
c. 2.24 Pa
d. 2.24 bar
Question54
Calcium carbonate can exist in two distinctly different crystalline forms, called calcite and aragonite. The standard Gibbs free energy of formation for calcite at 298 K is ∆fG0 = -1128.79 kJ/mol,
and the standard Gibbs free energy of formation for aragonite at 298 K is ∆fG0 = -1127.75 kJ/mol. Which crystalline form is the more thermodynamically stable at a temperature of 298 K and
a pressure of 1 bar, and what would be the value of ∆rG0 for the calcite → aragonite transformation at 298 K?
Choose one answer.
a. Calcite is more stable; ∆rG0 = -1.04 kJ/mol
b. Aragonite is more stable; ∆rG0 = 1.04 kJ/mol
c. Aragonite is more stable; ∆rG0 = -1.04 kJ/mol

d. Calcite is more stable; ∆rG0 = 1.04 kJ/mol
Question55
Consider a chemical reaction that is exothermic. If you increase the temperature of the reaction mixture, how will this action change the equilibrium constant for the reaction?
Choose one answer.
a. It will increase its value.
b. It will decrease its value.
c. It will have no effect on its value.
Question56
Consider a process in which 1 mol of an ideal gas is isothermally expanded from 0.01 m 3 to 0.10 m3 at a temperature of 25oC. What is the ∆G for this process?
Choose one answer.
a. 5.7 kJ
b. -479 J
c. -5.70 kJ
d. 479 J
Question57
Consider the dimerization reaction 2 NO2(g) → N2O4(g). This reaction is exothermic, since the major chemical change is the formation of a new bond (the N-N bond). The value of ∆rH0 for this
reaction carried out at a temperature of 298 K is -57.2 kJ. The standard molar capacity of N2O4(g) is Cp,m = 77.28 J/K-mol, and the standard molar heat capacity of NO2(g) is Cp,m = 37.2 J/K-
mol. Given this information, what is the value of ∆rH0 for the dimerization reaction carried out at a temperature of 1298 K?
Choose one answer.
a. -54.3 kJ
b. -60.1 kJ
c. -43.2 kJ
d. 12.2 kJ
Question58
Consider the exothermic reaction CO(g) + 2H2(g) ↔ CH3OH(g) at equilibrium at 500 K and 10 bar. Which of the following actions would lead to a decrease in the amount of methanol in the
equilibrium reaction mixture?
Choose one answer.
a. The temperature is raised from 500 K to 600 K.
b. The pressure is increased from 10 bar to 12 bar.
c. An inert (unreactive) gas is pumped into the reaction mixture under constant-volume conditions.
d. Hydrogen (H2) gas is added to the mixture at constant pressure.
Question59
Consider the following reaction between glycine and nitrous acid in an aqueous solution: NH2CH2COOH(aq) + HNO2(aq) ↔ HOCH2COOH(aq) + N2(g) + H2O(l). What would be the difference
between the ∆rG0 and ∆rA0 for this reaction at 298 K, assuming that the N2(g) product can be treated as an ideal gas?
Choose one answer.
a. 2478 J
b. -2478 kJ
c. 12.22 kJ
Question60
Consider the following reaction for the decomposition of sodium bicarbonate:
2 NaHCO3(s) → Na2CO3(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
The ∆rH0 and ∆rS0 for this reaction have values of 85.2 kJ/mol and 215 J/K-mol, respectively. What is the minimum temperature required for an NaHCO 3(s) sample to spontaneously
decompose into the products shown above (under 1 bar pressure conditions)?
Choose one answer.
a. 275 K
b. 396 K
c. 479 K
d. 301 K
Question61
Consider the following two reactions: (1) glutamate + NH 4+ ↔ glutamine, for which ∆rG0 = 15.7 kJ/mol at 37oC; and (2) ATP ↔ ADP + Pi, for which ∆rG0 = -31.0 kJ/mol at 37oC. (In reaction
(2), ATP denotes adenosine triphosphate, ADP denotes adenosine diphosphate, and Pi represents inorganic phosphate.) These two reactions can be coupled by an enzyme catalyst (glutamine
synthetase), which leads to the following reaction: (3) glutamate + NH4+ + ATP ↔ glutamine + ADP + Pi. What is the equilibrium constant for reaction (3) at a temperature of 37 oC?
Choose one answer.
a. 2.3 x 10-3
b. 1.1
c. 3.8 x 102
Question62
Consider the reaction Cu2+(aq) + 4NH3(aq) ↔ Cu(NH3)42+(aq), for which ∆rG0 = -70.54 kJ at 298 K. Now suppose you make up a reaction mixture in which the activities ( a) of the various
species have the following values: a(Cu2+) = 0.01; a(NH3) = 0.01; and a(of the cupric complex product) = 0.01. What will be the value of ∆ rG (at 298 K) for the reaction in the mixture you
have prepared?
Choose one answer.
a. -116 kJ
b. -24.9 kJ
c. 24.9 kJ
Question63
Consider the reaction glycerol(aq) + HPO42-(aq) ↔ DL-glycerol-1-phosphate2-(aq) + H2O(l). The equilibrium constant for this reaction at 37 oC is 0.012, and the value of ∆rG0 at 25oC is 9.37 kJ.
Given this information, what is the equilibrium constant (K eq) for the reaction at 25oC, and what is the value of ∆rH0 for the reaction? (You may assume that the ∆rH0 of the reaction is
independent of temperature.)
Choose one answer.

a. Keq = 0.462 at 25oC; ∆rH0 = 40.1 kJ
b. Keq = 0.046 at 25oC; ∆rH0 = 21.2 kJ
c. Keq = 0.003 at 25oC; ∆rH0 = -40.1 kJ
d. Keq = 0.023 at 25oC; ∆rH0 = -40.1 kJ
Question64
Consider the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) → 2 HI(g). It is reported that an equilibrium mixture of this reaction system contains the following concentrations of the reacting species: [H 2] = 1.14 x 10-
2
M; [I2] = 1.2 x 10-3 M; and [HI] = 2.52 x 10-2 M. Given this information, the equilibrium constant for this reaction may be calculated to have a value of:
Choose one answer.
a. 1842
b. 46.4
c. 18.4
d. 12.6
Question65
Consider the reaction N2(g) + O2(g) ↔ 2NO(g). The equilibrium constant for this reaction has a value of 2.5 x 10 -3 at a temperature of 2400 K. What would be the partial pressure of NO in an
equilibrium mixture that is at 2400 K and contains N2(g) at a partial pressure of 0.1 bar and O2(g) at a partial pressure of 0.1 bar?
Choose one answer.
a. 2.5 x 10-5 bar
b. 5.0 x 10-3 bar
c. 0.2 bar
Question66
For the process H2O(l) → H2O(s), occurring at a temperature of -10oC, the ∆Sm has a value of -20.54 J/K-mol. Which of the following would reflect the values of ∆H m and ∆Gm associated with
the freezing of water at a temperature of -10oC?
Choose one answer.

a. ∆Hm < 0; ∆Gm < 0
b. ∆Hm < 0; ∆Gm = 0
c. ∆Hm < 0; ∆Gm > 0
d. ∆Hm > 0; ∆Gm = 0
Question67
Methanol boils at a temperature of 337.2 K under standard pressure (P = 1 bar) conditions, and its standard enthalpy of vaporization is ∆ vapH0 = 35.27 kJ/mol. What is the standard entropy of
vaporization of methanol?
Choose one answer.
a. 104.6 kJ/K-mol
b. 104.6 J/K-mol
c. -104.6 J/K-mol
Question68
Suppose you wanted to shift the equilibrium position of the reaction 2 NO 2(g) → N2O4(g) in the direction that favors more dimer formation. Which of the following changes in reaction
conditions would help achieve that goal?
Choose one answer.
a. An increase in the total pressure of the reaction mixture, with temperature held constant
b. An increase in the temperature of the reaction mixture, with total pressure held constant
c. A decrease in the total pressure of the reaction mixture, with temperature held constant
d. A simultaneous increase in temperature and increase in pressure
Question69
The enzyme catalase catalyzes the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide by the exothermic reaction H2O2(aq) → H2O(l) + ½ O2(g). Suppose that a small amount of solid catalase is added to a
0.1 M aqueous solution of hydrogen peroxide in a calorimeter, with the initial temperature of the solution being 25 oC. If all the heat liberated in the reaction is retained by the solution, what
will be the final temperature of the solution after the reaction mixture has reached its final equilibrium state? (The relevant heats of formation for H2O2(aq) and H2O(l) are: ∆fH = -191.17
kJ/mol (for aqueous H2O2) and ∆fH = -285.83 kJ/mol (for liquid H2O). (The heat capacity of the solution may be taken as having a value of 4.18 kJ/K-L (i.e., 4.18 kJ/K per liter of solution).)
Choose one answer.
a. 47.6oC
b. 27.3oC
c. 25.2oC
d. 22.7oC
Question70
The equilibrium constant (Kc) for the hydrolysis of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and phosphate is 1.67 x 10 5 mol/dm3 at 37oC, and the ∆rH0 for this reaction
has a value of -20.1 kJ/mol. Given this information, what is the value of ∆rS0 for the reaction?
Choose one answer.
a. 35.1 J/K-mol
b. 35.1 J/mol
c. 295 J/K-mol
d. -35.1 J/K-mol
Question71
The equilibrium constant for the dimerization reaction 2 NO 2(g) → N2O4(g) has a value of 6.75 at a temperature of 298 K. What is the value of ∆rG0 for this reaction at 298 K?
Choose one answer.
a. 4.73 kJ
b. 9.46 kJ
c. -4.73 kJ
d. -2.85 kJ
Question72
The equilibrium constant for the reaction H2(g) + ½O2(g) ↔ H2O(l) is reported to have a value of 3.5 x 1041 at a temperature of 298 K. Given this information, what is the value of ∆ rG0 for
this reaction at 298 K?
Choose one answer.

a. 237 kJ
b. -237 kJ
c. 237 J
d. -116 kJ
Question73
What is the equilibrium pressure of NH3(g) over a sample of NH4Cl(s) as a result of decomposition at 25hoC, given that ∆rG0 = 91.12 kJ for the reaction NH4Cl(s) ↔ NH3(g) + HCl(g)?
Choose one answer.
a. 1.03 x 10-8 bar
b. 1.06 x 10-16 bar
c. 0.65 bar
d. 0.81 bar
Question74
What is the equilibrium pressure of O2(g) over a sample of NiO(s) at 298 K, given that ∆rG0 = 211.7 kJ for the reaction NiO(s) ↔ Ni(s) + ½O2(g)?
Choose one answer.
a. 0.843 bar
b. 7.78 x 10-38 bar
c. 6.05 x 10-75 bar
d. 8.05 x 10-5 bar
Question75
What is the pressure of CO2(g) over a sample of CaCO3(s) at a temperature of 1000 K, given that ∆rG0 = 22.9 kJ for the reaction CaCO3(s) ↔ CaO(s) + CO2(g)?
Choose one answer.
a. 0.99 bar
b. 15.7 bar
c. 6.4 x 10-4 bar
d. 6.4 x 10-2 bar
Question76
Consider a process in which liquid water is vaporized under constant pressure and temperature conditions, with P = 1 atm and T = 373.15 K. Which of the following would be true for the
∆Am and ∆Gm quantities associated with this process? (Note that Am denotes the molar Helmholtz free-energy function and Gm denotes the molar Gibbs free-energy function.)
Choose one answer.
a. ∆Am < 0; ∆Gm = 0
b. ∆Am > 0; ∆Gm = 0
c. ∆Am = 0; ∆Gm = 0
d. ∆Am < 0; ∆Gm < 0
Question77
Consider the phase transformation process C(graphite) → C(diamond). The ∆G for this process at 1 bar pressure and a temperature of 298 K has a value of 2.900 kJ/mol, and the ∆S for the
process under these same pressure and temperature conditions has a value of -3.36 J/K-mol. If you raised the temperature from 298 K to 1000 K, but kept the pressure constant at 1 bar,
would this increase, decrease, or not change the thermodynamic stability of graphite versus diamond?
Choose one answer.
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Not change
Question78
For H2O(s) at 0oC and 1 atm and H2O(l) at 0oC and 1 atm, which of the following quantities must be equal for the two phases?
Choose one answer.
a. The molar entropy (Sm)

b. The molar enthalpy (Hm)
c. The molar Gibbs free energy (Gm)
d. The molar volume (Vm)
Question79
The equilibrium vapor pressure of water at 298 K is 24 Torr. Is the chemical potential of H 2O(l) at 298 K and 20 Torr less than, equal to, or greater than the chemical potential of H 2O(g) at the
same temperature and pressure?
Choose one answer.
a. Greater than
b. Equal to
c. Less than
Question80
The molar enthalpy of sublimation of CO2(s) is 25.23 kJ/mol at the standard sublimation temperature, 194.6 K. What is the molar entropy of sublimation of CO 2(s) at the standard sublimation
temperature?
Choose one answer.
a. 0.13 J/K-mol
b. 129.7 J/K-mol
c. -129.7 J/K-mol
Question81
The normal boiling point of Br2 is 331.9 K, and its vapor pressure at 298 K is 0.287 bar. Within the approximations inherent to the Clausius-Clapeyron equation, what value of ∆vapHm (the
molar enthalpy of vaporization) for Br2would be compatible with this data?
Choose one answer.
a. -30.7 kJ/mol
b. 30.7 kJ/mol
c. 70.6 kJ/mol
d. -12.6 kJ/mol
Question82
Choose one answer.
a. For a one-component system, the maximum number of phases that can coexist in equilibrium is three.
b. When three phases coexist in equilibrium in a one-component system, one of the phases must be a gas, one must be
a liquid, and one must be a solid.
c. For a one-component system, the most stable phase at a given T and P is the phase with the lowest G m (molar Gibbs
free energy).
d. For a pure substance, the vapor pressure of the solid is equal to the vapor pressure of the liquid at the triple-point
temperature.
Question83
Choose one answer.
a. It is impossible for four phases of a single pure substance to coexist at equilibrium.
b. The maximum number of phases that can coexist in a system composed of four components is equal to six.
c. The Clausius-Clapeyron equation can be used in the characterization of solid-liquid phase equilibria.
d. Two phases at equilibrium must have the same pressure.
Question84
Consider a 0.01 M aqueous solution of KCl. How will the vapor pressure of this solution compare with the vapor pressure of pure liquid water?
Choose one answer.
a. It will be higher.
b. It will be lower.
c. It will be the same.
Question85
Consider a binary liquid solution in which the constituent species are labeled A and B. Suppose that the A-B pairwise attractive interactions are stronger than the average of the A-A and B-B
pairwise attractive interactions. Which of the following statements about the properties of this solution is incorrect?
Choose one answer.
a. The vapor pressure of the solution will exhibit negative deviations from Raoult’s law behavior.
b. The vapor pressure of the solution will be less than ½(PA* + PB*) when species A and B are present in equimolar
amounts (where PA* and PB* denote the vapor pressures of pure liquid A and pure liquid B, respectively).
c. The vapor pressure of the solution will exhibit positive deviations from Raoult’s law behavior.
d. If the mole-fraction of species A (XA) is much larger than the mole-fraction of species B (XB), then the vapor pressure
of B will follow Henry’s law behavior.
Question86
Consider a dilute benzene-in-ethanol solution in which the mole-fraction of benzene is 0.013. The partial vapor pressure of the benzene component of this solution has a value of 12.8 Torr.
Given this information, what would be the value of the Henry’s law constant for the benzene in this solution?
Choose one answer.
a. 0.166 Torr
b. 1.02 L-atm
c. 985 Torr
d. 985 Torr/mol
Question87
Consider a dilute liquid solution comprised of solvent A and solute B. For this system, which of the following statements is incorrect?
Choose one answer.

a. The chemical potential of A in solution is always less than the chemical potential of pure liquid A (at fixed values of
pressure and temperature).
b. Additions of more solute to the solution will always lower the chemical potential of the solvent.
c. Additions of a nonvolatile solute to the solution will always lower the vapor pressure of the solution.
d. At any given temperature, the vapor pressure of the solution will always be less than the vapor pressure of the pure
solvent.
Question88
Consider a process in which 0.2 mol of liquid acetone is mixed with 0.8 mol of liquid chloroform at a temperature of 35oC and a pressure of 1 bar. Under these conditions, measurements show
that the activity coefficients of the acetone and chloroform constituents of the mixture have the values 0.544 (for acetone) and 0.957 (for chloroform). Given this information, what would be
the ∆G associated with the mixing process?
Choose one answer.
a. 1683 J
b. -1683 J
c. -1282 J
d. 440 J
Question89
Consider a real gas which, at a temperature of 298 K and some particular pressure P, has a fugacity coefficient with a value of 1.75. At the given pressure P, what is the difference between
the chemical potential of the real gas versus that of an ideal gas? That is, what is the value of μ(real gas) – μ(ideal gas)?
Choose one answer.
a. -1.39 kJ/mol
b. 0
c. 1.39 kJ/mol
Question90
Consider a solution made by dissolving 342 g of sucrose in 127 ml of water at 45 oC. The vapor pressure of water at 45oC is 0.095 atm and the density of water at 45oC is 0.992 g/ml. What is
the vapor pressure of the sucrose/water solution? (Note: The molar mass of sucrose is 180.2 g/mol.)
Choose one answer.
a. 0.075 atm
b. 0.115 atm
c. 0.224 atm
d. 0.008 atm
Question91
Consider a toluene-benzene solution in which the mole-fraction of toluene is 0.33. At a temperature of 300 K, the total vapor pressure of this solution is 7.89 kPa, and the partial pressures of
the toluene and benzene constituents of the vapor are P toluene = 1.214 kPa and Pbenzene = 6.677 kPa, respectively. At 300 K, the vapor pressure of pure liquid toluene is P* = 3.572 kPa and the
vapor pressure of pure liquid benzene is P* = 9.657 kPa. What are the activities (a) and activity coefficients (γ) of the toluene and benzene constituents of the solution?
Choose one answer.
a. a(toluene) = 0.3399; a(benzene) = 0.6914; γ(toluene) = 1.03; γ(benzene) = 1.03
b. a(toluene) = 0.77; a(benzene) = 0.23; γ(toluene) = 1.11; γ(benzene) = 0.89
c. a(toluene) = 0.46; a(benzene) = 0.54; γ(toluene) = 0.79; γ(benzene) = 0.93
Question92
If 5.0 g of glucose, C6H12O6, is dissolved in 1.0 L of water at 300 K, what osmotic pressure will the solution exhibit?
Choose one answer.
a. 0.69 bar
b. 0.012 atm
c. 6.9 atm
d. 69 Pa
Question93
If a 1-molal solution of NaCl in water shows a freezing-point depression of 3.7oC, what is the freezing-point depression observed for a 1-molal solution of CaCl2 in water? (Recall that both NaCl
and CaCl2 are completely dissociated in aqueous solution.)
Choose one answer.
a. 5.55oC
b. 11.1oC
c. 2.47oC
Question94
The solubility of argon in water is 5.15 x 10 -3 g of Ar per 100 g of H2O at 25oC and an argon pressure of 1 atm. Given this information, what is the value of the Henry’s law constant for an
argon-water mixture at 25oC?
Choose one answer.
a. 4.31 atm
b. 4.31 x 105 Pa
c. 12.4 bar/mol
d. 4.31 x 104 atm
Question95
The vapor pressure of pure liquid toluene at 300 K is P* = 3.572 kPa, and the vapor pressure of pure liquid benzene at 300 K is P* = 9.657 kPa. Assuming that mixtures of toluene and
benzene behave as ideal solutions, what will be the total vapor pressure (P T) of a toluene-benzene mixture containing 0.60 mole-fraction of toluene at a temperature of 300 K, and what will
be the mole-fraction of toluene (Xtoluene) in the vapor over this mixture?
Choose one answer.
a. PT = 7.219 kPa; Xtoluene = 0.643 (in vapor)
b. PT = 6.006 kPa; Xtoluene = 0.643 (in vapor)
c. PT = 6.006 kPa; Xtoluene = 0.357 (in vapor)
Question96
When 2.8 x 10-4 kg of a certain chemical compound is dissolved in 0.579 L of water at 27 oC, the osmotic pressure of the resultant solution is measured and found to have a value of 0.1625
atm. What is the molar mass of the chemical compound?
Choose one answer.
a. 107.5 g/mol
b. 6.602 g/mol
c. 73.3 g/mol
d. 57.9 g/mol
Question97
When 6.29 g of a certain nonvolatile solute is dissolved in 500 g of water, the freezing point of the resultant aqueous solution is 0.646oC lower than that of pure water. The cryoscopic
constant for water is Kf = 1.856 K-kg/mol. Given this information, what is the molar mass of the solute species?
Choose one answer.
a. 36.1 g/mol
b. 72.2 g/mol
c. 36.1 kg/mol
d. 18.1 g/mol
Question98
Which of the following will have the highest boiling-point temperature?
Choose one answer.
a. A 0.01 M aqueous solution of BaCl2
b. A 0.1 M aqueous solution of CaCl2
c. A 0.1 M aqueous solution of sucrose
d. A 0.1 M aqueous solution of KCl
Question99
Which of the following will have the lowest boiling-point temperature?
Choose one answer.

a. Pure liquid water
b. A 0.01 M aqueous solution of NaHCO3
c. A 12 M solution of sulfuric acid
d. A 0.1 M aqueous solution of glucose
Question100
Which of the following will have the lowest freezing-point temperature?
Choose one answer.
a. A 0.01 M aqueous solution of NaCl
b. A 0.01 M aqueous solution of BaCl2
c. A 0.01 M aqueous solution of KBr
d. A 0.01 M aqueous solution of FeCl3
Question101
Among the following statements, which one is incorrect?
Choose one answer.
a. The molar entropy of a substance is an extensive property.
b. The molar entropy of a substance always increases with an increase in temperature.
c. The molar entropy of a molecular gas depends on the molar mass of the constituent molecules.
d. The entropy of a molecular system depends on the spacings between the rotational and vibrational energy levels of
the constituent molecules.
Question102
Consider two systems that are identical in all respects, except that in one the molecules are distinguishable, whereas in the other the molecules are indistinguishable. What would be the
difference between the molar entropies of these two systems?
Choose one answer.

a. 446.9 J/K-mol
b. 53.8 J/K-mol
c. There is no difference.
Question103
The electronic ground state of molecular oxygen is three-fold degenerate, and the first electronic excited state is two-fold degenerate and is located at an energy 15.72 x 10 -20 J above the
ground state. In a sample of O2(g), maintained at an equilibrium temperature of 298 K, what would be the ratio of the populations of O2 molecules in the first electronic excited state versus
the electronic ground state?
Choose one answer.
a. 2.50 x 10-17
b. 3.75 x 10-17
c. 1.67 x 10-17
d. 1.67 x 1017
Question104
The fundamental vibrational frequency of an oxygen molecule (O2) is 4.741 x 1013 s-1. What would be the value of the vibrational partition function for O 2 at a temperature of 1000 K,
assuming that the molecular vibrational motion can be treated in the harmonic oscillator approximation?
Choose one answer.
a. 1115
b. 1.115
c. 10.15 s-1
d. 10.15 J
Question105
The ground electronic state of atomic oxygen is five-fold degenerate, the first electronic excited state is three-fold degenerate and is located 3.142 x 10-24 J above ground, and the second
electronic excited state is nondegenerate and is located 4.498 x 10 -24 J above ground. No other electronic excited states of atomic oxygen are thermally accessible at 300 K. Given this
information, what is the value of the electronic partition function for atomic oxygen at a temperature of 300 K?
Choose one answer.
a. 9
b. 6.74 x 10-24
c. 4.03 x 10-24
d. 6.743
Question106
What is the value of the molecular translational partition function for the nitrogen molecules in a sample of N2(g) confined to a container of volume 1 m3 and a temperature of 300 K?
Choose one answer.
a. 2.41 x 108
b. 1.45 x 1032
c. 1.45 x 1032 J/m3
d. 2.41 x 108 kJ/molecule
1
A 5.00 L sample of N2(g) is held at a pressure of 2.00 atm and a temperature of 315 K. Assuming ideal-gas behavior, how many moles of N2(g) are present in this sample?
Choose one answer.
a. 2.69 mol
b. 0.208 mol
c. 0.387 mol
d. 0.004 mol
Question2
At a temperature of 500oC and a pressure of 699 Torr, sulfur vapor has a density of 3.71 g/dm 3. What molecular formula for sulfur is compatible with this set of conditions?
Choose one answer.
a. S2
b. S3
c. S8
d. (S2)3
Question3
Consider a gas for which the equation of state P(Vm - b) = RT (with b = 0.04 dm3/mol) can be used to describe its P-V-T behavior. Suppose a 2-mol sample of this gas is compressed
isothermally and reversibly from an initial volume of 10 dm 3 to a final volume of 1 dm3. How much work (w) is done on the gas sample in this compression process, and how much is the
internal energy (U) of the gas changed?
Choose one answer.
a. w = 11.7 kJ and ∆U = 11.7 kJ
b. w = 11.9 kJ and ∆U = 0
c. w = 5.85 kJ and ∆U = -5.85 kJ
d. w = 5.85 kJ and ∆U = 0
Question4
Consider a process in which a sample of water vapor expands reversibly and adiabatically from a state in which its pressure is 60 Torr and its volume is 0.5 dm3 to a state in which its volume
is 3 dm3. If it is assumed that the water vapor behaves as an ideal gas (with respect to its P-V-T properties) and that the ratio of its Cp,m and Cv,m heat-capacity quantities is given by γ =
Cp,m/Cv,m = 1.3, what will be the final pressure of the vapor sample?
Choose one answer.
a. 5.83 bar
b. 230 Torr
c. 5.84 Torr
Question5
Consider a process in which exactly 107 J of heat is added to 1 mol of CH 3OH(g) under constant-volume conditions. If the initial temperature of the methanol vapor sample is 298 K, what will
be the temperature of the vapor after the 107 J of heat is added? You may assume ideal-gas behavior and use a value of 43.89 J/K-mol for Cp,m (the molar heat capacity of methanol vapor
under constant-pressure conditions).
Choose one answer.
a. 301.0 K
b. 300.4 K
c. 295.0 K
Question6
If a person breathes at a rate of 14 respirations per minute, and each respiration involves 0.5 dm 3 of air, what will be the total mass of air breathed in a day? (Take T = 300 K and P = 101.3
kPa, and assume that the air behaves as an ideal gas with a molar mass of 0.029 kg/mol).
Choose one answer.
a. 11.9 kg
b. 119 g
c. 238 g
d. 14.6 kg
Question7
If you have 1.55 mol of F2(g) at 1.11 atm pressure and a temperature of 0oC, what is the volume of this gas sample, assuming ideal-gas behavior?
Choose one answer.
a. 31.3 L
b. 22.4 L
c. 3170 L
d. 0.0821 L
Question8
The density of ice, H2O(s), at 273 K, is 0.915 kg/dm3, and that of liquid water is 0.99987 kg/dm3. How much thermodynamic work must be done to melt 1 mol of ice at 1 bar pressure?
Choose one answer.
a. 0.167 J
b. 0.167 kJ
c. 1.67 J
d. 39.9 cal
Question9
The heat capacity of a substance can be measured under either constant-volume or constant-pressure conditions. Which of the following sets of relationships between C v (heat capacity under
constant-volume conditions) and Cp(heat capacity under constant-pressure conditions) are always true?
Choose one answer.
a. Cp (gas) > Cv (gas); Cp (solid) ≈ Cv (solid); and Cp (gas) >> Cp (solid)
b. Cv (gas) ≈ Cv (solid) and Cp (liquid) ≈ Cv (liquid)
c. Cv (gas) > Cv (liquid) > Cv (solid) and Cv > Cp in all phases
d. Cp approaches a value of 0 as the sample temperature approaches 0 K but increases without bound as the sample
temperature is increased.
Question10
The Van der Waals equation-of-state for real gases may be written as P = RT(Vm - b)-1 - a(Vm)-2, where P denotes pressure, T is temperature, Vm denotes molar volume, and 'a' and 'b' are
parameters (sometimes referred to as the Van der Waals coefficients) that reflect properties of the individual molecules (or atoms) in the gas. Which of the following statements regarding the
'a' and 'b' parameters is not true?
Choose one answer.
a. The Van der Waals 'a' parameter reflects the existence and strength of attractive intermolecular interactions in
the gas, and the value of 'a' is always ≥0.
b. The van der Waals 'b' parameter is related to the physical sizes of the constituent molecules (or atoms) of the
gas.
c. The magnitude of the 'a' parameter for N2(g) is expected to be greater than that for NH3(g).
d. The magnitude of the 'b' parameter for Ar(g) is larger than that for He(g).
Question11
Which of the following corresponds to a concise statement of the zeroth law of thermodynamics?
Choose one answer.
a. Three solid bodies that are all in thermal equilibrium will have the same temperature.
b. Gas molecules in motion tend to stay in motion in the absence of applied forces.
c. Two material bodies that are separately in thermal equilibrium with a third body are in thermal equilibrium
with each other.
d. Molecules can be treated as non-interacting point-masses when contained in gaseous samples at very low
pressures and number densities.
Question12
Choose one answer.
a. The most probable value of a velocity component is equal to the most probable speed of the molecules in a
dilute gas.
b. The average kinetic energy of the molecules in a gas is independent of the molecular mass.
c. The ratio of the most probable speed to the mean speed has the same value for all gases at all temperatures.
d. Derivation of the ideal-gas equation-of-state from the kinetic-molecular theory of gases requires that the gas
molecules be treated as non-interacting point masses.
Question13
Choose one answer.
a. The molar heat capacities of He(g) and Ne(g) have identical values at T = 500 K.
b. The average kinetic energy of the atoms in an He(g) sample is the same as the average kinetic
energy of the atoms in an Ne(g) sample.
c. The average speed of the atoms in an He(g) sample is the same as the average speed of the
atoms in an Ne(g) sample.
d. The average speed of the atoms in an He(g) sample is greater than the average speed of the
atoms in an Ar(g) sample.
Question14
The first law of thermodynamics states that:
Choose one answer.
a. The energy of a system always increases in any physical or chemical process.
b. The energy of a system always decreases in any physical or chemical process.
c. The entropy of a system always increases in any spontaneous process.
d. The energy of the universe (encompassing system + surroundings) is always conserved in any physical or
chemical process.
Question15
A 1.50-mol sample of an ideal gas at 245 K and 0.75 bar pressure is altered by some process that takes it to a state in which its temperature is increased to 295 K and its pressure is increased
to 0.90 bar. What will be the enthalpy change (∆H) of the gas in this process?
Choose one answer.
a. 1.56 kJ
b. 1.40 kJ
c. -1.56 kJ
d. 0.62 kJ
Question16
A process in which there is no thermal energy exchanged between a system and its surroundings is called:
Choose one answer.
a. An isothermal process
b. An isobaric process
c. A diathermic process
d. An adiabatic process.
Question17
Consider 0.1 mol of an ideal gas contained in a cylinder of volume 2.5 dm 3 at a pressure of 1 bar and a temperature of 301 K. Next, suppose you consider three different processes for
changing the state of the gas sample to one in which the volume is reduced to 0.25 dm 3, the pressure is increased to 10 bar, and the temperature is 301 K (the same as the temperature in
the initial state). The paths of the three alternative processes are specified as follow:
Process #1 is a two-step process in which the gas sample is first heated at constant volume until the pressure reaches a value of 10 bar, and then the gas is cooled under constant pressure
(10 bar) until its equilibrium volume is reduced to 0.25 dm 3 and its temperature is 301 K.
Process #2 is a two-step process in which the gas sample is first cooled under constant pressure (1 bar) until its equilibrium volume is reduced to 0.25 dm 3, and then the gas is heated under
constant volume conditions until its pressure reaches a value of 10 bar and its temperature is 301 K.
Process #3 is a single-step process in which the gas is isothermally compressed from its initial state to its final state at a fixed temperature of 301 K.
Which of the three processes above would require the least amount of work in effecting the specified change of state, and what would be the ∆U (change in internal energy) for this process?
Choose one answer.
a. Process #1; ∆U = 0
b. Process #2; ∆U = 0
c. Process #2; ∆U > 0
d. Process #3; ∆U = 0
Question18
Consider a cyclic process in which a system performs a net amount of work on its surroundings (i.e., w net < 0, corresponding to the net work done by the system). Would this process be
endothermic (qnet > 0), exothermic (qnet < 0), or adiabatic (qnet = 0) with respect to the net heat (qnet) exchange between system and surroundings? And what would be the relationship
between qnet and wnet?
Choose one answer.
a. Endothermic, with |qnet | > |wnet|
b. Exothermic, with qnet = wnet < 0
c. Endothermic, with qnet = -wnet
d. Adiabatic, with qnet = 0 and wnet < 0
Question19
Consider a process in which a gas is expanded adiabatically and reversibly under constant-pressure conditions, and the amount of work done by the gas in this process is 10 kJ. What changes
in the internal energy (U) and entropy (S) of the gas will accompany this process?
Choose one answer.
a. ∆U = -10 kJ and ∆S = 0
b. ∆U = 10 kJ and ∆S = 0
c. ∆U = 0 and ∆S = 10 J/K
d. There is not enough information to determine the values of ∆U and ∆S.
Question20
Consider a process in which a system undergoes a change from some initial thermodynamic state (1) to some final thermodynamic state (2). Suppose that the thermodynamic variables of
state are well-characterized for both the initial and final states, but the path (through the variable space) between the two states is not well-characterized. Which of the following quantities
associated with the (1) → (2) change-of-state process cannot be determined without a detailed specification of path?
Choose one answer.
a. The change in the entropy of the system (∆S)
b. The change in the Gibbs free energy of the system (∆G)
c. The change in the internal energy of the system (∆U)
d. The work done and heat exchanged during the process
Question21
Consider the reaction 2 C(s) + Cl2(g) + 2 F2(g) → CF2ClCF2Cl(g), for which the standard reaction enthalpy has a value of ∆ rH0 = -890.4 kJ/mol at a temperature of 298 K. What is the value of
∆rU0 for this reaction at T = 298 K?
Choose one answer.
a. 4064 kJ/mol
b. -895.4 kJ/mol
c. -890.4 kJ/mol
d. -885.4 kJ/mol
Question22
In a free expansion (or Joule expansion) of a gas, no work is done either on or by the gas system. If the gas in such a process behaves as an ideal gas, which of the following statements is
also true for the free-expansion process?
Note: In the answer options below, U denotes the internal energy of the gas, S denotes the entropy of the gas, q denotes the heat exchanged between the gas and its
surroundings, Vinitial denotes the initial volume of the gas (before expansion), and Vfinal denotes the final volume of the gas (after expansion).
Choose one answer.
a. ∆U = 0; q > 0; and ∆S = nR ln (Vfinal/Vinitial)
b. ∆U > 0; q > 0; and ∆S = nR ln (Vfinal/Vinitial)
c. ∆U = 0; q = 0; and ∆S = nR ln (Vfinal/Vinitial)
d. ∆U = 0; q = 0; and ∆S = 0
Question23
Suppose a 1-mol sample of an ideal gas is expanded isothermally and reversibly from a volume of 10 L to a volume of 20 L at a temperature of 298 K. How much work (w) is done in this
process, and what are the changes in the internal energy (∆U) and entropy (∆S) of the gas?
Choose one answer.
a. w = 1.717 kJ; ∆U = 0; ∆S = 5.76 J/K
b. w = -1.717 kJ; ∆U = -1.717 kJ; ∆S = 0
c. w = 0; ∆U = 1717 J; ∆S = 5.76 J/K
d. w = -1717 J; ∆U = 0; ∆S = 5.76 J/K
Question24
Suppose you want to cool a sample of N2(g) from 25oC to -195oC by a one-step process involving a Joule-Thomson expansion in which the final pressure is 1 bar. The Joule-Thomson
coefficient for N2(g) over the specified temperature range may be taken to be μJ-T = 0.75 K/bar. Calculate the enthalpy change (∆H) associated with this cooling process and determine what
the initial pressure (Pinitial) of the gas must be in order to realize the desired temperature change. Which of the following equations gives correct results for Pinitial and ∆H?
Choose one answer.
a. Pinitial = 292 bar and ∆H > 0
b. Pinitial = 292 bar and ∆H = 0
c. Pinitial = 225 bar and ∆H = 0

d. Pinitial = 292 bar and ∆H < 0
Question25
The Joule-Thomson experiment involves an isenthalpic thermodynamic process, and the measurements performed in a Joule-Thomson experiment permit evaluation of the quantity μJ-T =
(∂T/∂P)H ≈ ∆T/∆P. The observed values of μJ-T are:
Choose one answer.
a. < 0 for nearly all gases.
b. > 0 for nearly all gases.
c. > 0 only for gases that exhibit ideal-gas P-V-T behavior.
d. independent of the initial temperature and pressure of the gas undergoing the Joule-Thomson expansion
process.
Question26
The standard heat of combustion of solid glucose (C6H12O6) at 298 K is ∆cH0(298 K) = -2801 kJ/mol. What is the value of ∆cU0(298 K) for glucose (where ∆cU0 denotes the change in internal
energy accompanying the combustion of glucose at 1 bar pressure)?
Choose one answer.
a. -2801 kJ/mol
b. 3455 kJ/mol
c. 2801 kJ/mol
d. 0
Question27
Choose one answer.
a. In cyclic thermodynamic processes, it is always true that the net changes in internal energy (∆U), entropy (∆S),
and enthalpy (∆H) of a system are zero (i.e., ∆Unet = ∆Snet = ∆Hnet = 0).
b. The entropy of a system always increases with an increase in temperature under either constant-volume or
constant-pressure conditions.
c. In reversible adiabatic processes, it is always true that ∆S = 0 and ∆U = w (work).

d. An isothermal expansion of an ideal gas always gives ∆U > 0 and ∆S = 0.
Question28
Consider a heat engine that operates on a Carnot cycle and uses an ideal gas as a working fluid. Suppose that the heat reservoir of the engine supplies 1 kJ of heat to the system during an
isothermal expansion process at a temperature of 900 K, and the system subsequently gives up heat to heat sink during an isothermal compression process at a temperature of 300 K. What
would be the maximum efficiency (ηmax) achievable with this engine, and what would be the maximum net work (w net,max) that one could derive from this engine?
Choose one answer.
a. ηmax = 0.333; maximum net work from engine = 300 J
b. ηmax = 0.667; maximum net work from engine = 900 J
c. ηmax = 0.333; maximum net work from engine = 200 J
d. ηmax = 0.667; maximum net work from engine = 600 J
Question29
Consider the following chemical reactions and their standard reaction enthalpies (∆ rHo) at 298 K.
NH3 + HCl(g) → NH4Cl(s) ∆rH0 = -176 kJ/mol

N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g) ∆rH0 = -92 kJ/mol
N2(g) + 4 H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2 NH4Cl(s) ∆rH0 = -629 kJ/mol
Use this thermochemical data to calculate the standard heat of reaction for the synthesis of hydrogen chloride gas from H2(g) and Cl(g) at a temperature of 298 K. The value of ∆rHo (at 298
K) for the reaction H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2 HCl(g) is:
Choose one answer.
a. -242 kJ/mol
b. -897 kJ/mol
c. -185 kJ/mol
d. 391 kJ/mol
Question30
Consider the reaction C6H5COOH(s) + (15/2) O2(g) → 7 CO2(g) + 3 H2O(l), for which the standard reaction enthalpy is ∆rHo = -3228.2 kJ. Calculate the ∆rUo for this reaction and determine
whether any thermodynamic work would be done on (w > 0) or by (w < 0) the reaction system if the reaction is carried out at a constant pressure. (Assume that the gases in this reaction
exhibit ideal-gas behavior at T = 298.15 K and P = 1 bar.)
Choose one answer.

a. ∆rUo = -3230.7 kJ and w > 0
b. ∆rUo = -3230.7 kJ and w = 0
c. ∆rUo = -3228.2 kJ and w = 0
d. ∆rUo = -3227.0 kJ and w < 0
Question31
Consider the reaction N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g), and the following thermodynamic data: standard heat of formation of NH 3(g), ∆fHo = -46.11 kJ/mol; standard molar entropy of N2(g),
SSmo = 191.61 J/K-mol; standard molar entropy of H2(g), Smo = 130.684 J/K-mol; and standard molar entropy of NH3(g), Smo = 192.45 J/K-mol. Calculate the ∆H, ∆S, and ∆G for this reaction
carried out under standard pressure and temperature conditions. Which of the following are the correct values for ∆H, ∆S, and ∆G?
Choose one answer.
a. ∆H = -92.22 kJ; ∆S = -198.76 J/K; ∆G = -32.99 kJ
b. ∆H = 92.22 kJ; ∆S = 198.76 J/K; ∆G = 32.99 kJ
c. ∆H = -46.11 kJ; ∆S = -99.38 J/K; ∆G = -16.49 kJ
d. ∆H = -46.11 kJ; ∆S = -129.8 J/K; ∆G = -7.43 kJ
Question32
The Carnot heat engine operates on a thermodynamic cycle comprised of the following sequence of processes:
Choose one answer.
a. An isothermal expansion, an adiabatic expansion, an isothermal compression, and an adiabatic compression
b. An isothermal expansion, an isochoric expansion, an isothermal compression, and an isochoric compression
c. An isentropic expansion, an isoenthalpic expansion, an isothermal compression, and an adiabatic

compression
d. An isobaric heating, an isothermal expansion, an isobaric cooling, and an isothermal compression
Question33
The standard heat of reaction for the decomposition of ZnO(s) is ∆ rHo = 348 kJ/mol. What does this information tell you about the formation of ZnO(s) under standard STP conditions?
Choose one answer.
a. The formation of ZnO(s) is an endothermic process.

b. The formation of ZnO(s) is an exothermic process.
c. No thermal energy is either taken up or given off in the formation process.
Question34
Which of the following statements regarding a Carnot-cycle engine is incorrect?
Choose one answer.
a. Increasing the temperature of the hot reservoir (i.e., the heat source) will increase the efficiency of the
engine.
b. Decreasing the temperature of the cold reservoir (i.e., the heat sink) will increase the efficiency of the
engine.
c. A Carnot cycle is by definition a reversible cycle.
d. Since the Carnot cycle is a cyclic process, the net work done is zero.
Question35
Consider a 2-mol sample of an ideal gas, with a molar heat capacity C v,m = 12.5 J/K-mol, confined to a volume of 5 dm3 at a temperature of 300 K. If this gas sample is heated to 373 K and
its volume is allowed to expand to 10 dm3, how much heat (q) is required to perform this process, and what is the entropy change (of the gas) that accompanies this process?
Choose one answer.
a. ∆S = 16.97 J/K; the value of q depends on whether the process is carried out reversibly or
irreversibly
b. ∆S = 5.44 J/K; q = 1825 J
c. ∆S = 11.53 J/K; q = 1825 J
d. ∆S = 16.97 J/K; q = 1825 J
Question36
Consider a container with rigid, adiabatic walls that is fitted with a partition that separates the container into two chambers (one having twice the volume of the other). The larger chamber
contains a 2-mol sample of N2(g) at 298 K and 1 bar pressure, and the smaller chamber contains a 1-mol sample of He(g) at 298 K and 1 bar pressure. Now suppose that the partition
between the chambers is removed and the N2 and He gases are allowed to mix. This mixing process is isothermal and also adiabatic. Assuming that the gases behave ideally, what would be
the ∆U (change in internal energy), ∆H (enthalpy change), and ∆S (entropy change) that accompany this mixing process?
Choose one answer.

a. ∆U = ∆H = ∆S = 0
b. ∆U = 0; ∆S = 15.88 J/K; and there is not enough information to determine ∆H
c. ∆U = 0; ∆H = 0; ∆S = -15.88 J/K
d. ∆U = 0; ∆H = 0; ∆S = 15.88 J/K
Question37
Consider a process in which a 2-mol sample of a certain gas is heated reversibly from 275 K to 375 K under a constant pressure of 1 bar, and the entropy change for the gas is ∆S = 13.3 J/K.
What will be the value of ∆S for a process in which the same gas sample is heated irreversibly from 275 K to 375 K under a fixed pressure of 1 bar?
Choose one answer.
a. ∆S > 13.3 J/K
b. ∆S = 13.3 J/K
c. ∆S < 13.3 J/K
Question38
Suppose 2 moles of water at 333 K are added to 4 moles of water at 293 K. What would be the entropy change associated with this process, assuming that there is no exchange of heat with
the surroundings? (The heat capacity of water is C p,m = 75.3 J/K-mol and may be considered to be independent of temperature.)
Choose one answer.
a. 26 J/K
b. 0.8 J/K
c. -12.6 J/K
d. -0.8 J/K
Question39
The enthalpy of vaporization of methanol is 35.27 kJ/mol at its normal boiling point of 64.1 oC. What is the entropy of vaporization of methanol at this temperature, and what is the entropy
change in the surroundings when a mole of methanol is vaporized at a temperature of 64.1 oC and a pressure of 1 bar?
Choose one answer.

a. ∆vapS0 = 104.6 J/K-mol for methanol; ∆S(surroundings) = -104.6 J/K-mol
b. ∆vapS0 = -104.6 J/K-mol for methanol; ∆S(surroundings) = 104.6 J/K-mol
c. ∆vapS0 = 104.6 J/K-mol for methanol; ∆S(surroundings) = 0
d. ∆vapS0 = 550.2 J/K-mol for methanol; ∆S(surroundings) = 0
Question40
The heat of fusion for H2O at 273.15 K and 1 bar pressure is 6.008 kJ/mol; the heat of vaporization for H 2O at 373.15 K and 1 bar pressure is 40.656 kJ/mol; and the molar heat capacity
(Cp,m) of liquid water between 273 K and 373 K has a nearly constant value of 75.29 J/K-mol (under a pressure of 1 bar). Given these conditions, which of the following processes will result in
the largest increase in entropy of a 1-mol sample of H2O?
Choose one answer.
a. Vaporizing H2O(l) at 373 K and 1 bar pressure
b. Melting H2O(s) at 273 K and 1 bar pressure
c. Heating H2O(l) from 273 K to 373 K under a constant pressure of 1 bar
d. Melting H2O(s) at 273.15 K and 1 bar pressure, and then heating the liquid water from 273.15 K to just
short of the boiling point at 373.15 K under a constant pressure of 1 bar
Question41
Two 1-mol blocks of aluminum, one at 273 K and the other at 373 K, are brought into thermal contact. What will be the temperature of the two blocks when they have reached thermal
equilibrium, and what will be the total entropy change (∆S tot) that accompanies the thermal equilibration process? (Assume that the two blocks of aluminum are in a container with walls that
keep them completely isolated from outside surroundings, and take the heat capacity of the aluminum blocks to be C p,m = 24.35 J/K-mol.)
Choose one answer.
a. Tequil = 323 K and ∆Stot = 0
b. Tequil = 323 K and ∆Stot = 0.59 J/K
c. Tequil = 323 K and ∆Stot = -0.59 J/K
d. Tequil = 373 K and ∆Stot = 6.21 J/K
Question42
What is the change in the molar entropy of Ar(g) when it undergoes the following process: Ar(298 K, 1 bar) → Ar(100 K, 10 bar)? (You may assume that the argon behaves as an ideal gas
and its heat capacity has a fixed value of Cp,m = 20.8 J/K-mol.)
Choose one answer.

a. 41.8 J/K-mol
b. -17.5 J/K-mol
c. -41.8 J/K-mol
d. 24.2 kJ/mol
Question43
Which of the following processes carried out on a 1-mol sample of a monatomic gas (assumed to exhibit ideal-gas P-V-T behavior) will result in the greatest increase in the entropy of the gas?
Choose one answer.
a. Isothermal expansion from a volume of 5 L to a volume of 10 L
b. Heating the gas from 300 K to 600 K under constant-volume conditions
c. Isothermal expansion from a volume of 10 L to a volume of 15 L
d. Reversible adiabatic expansion from a volume of 5 L to a volume of 10 L
Question44
Which of the following provides a succinct statement of the Clausius Inequality?
Choose one answer.
a. dS ≥ dq/T for all isothermal processes carried out reversibly or irreversibly at a constant temperature T.
b. dS ≥ dqrev/T for any reversible process carried out at a constant temperature T.
c. dS ≥ 0 for all spontaneous processes occurring in any kind of system.
d. dG ≤ 0 for a spontaneous process occurring in an isolated system.
Question45
Which of the following represents a necessary condition for a chemical reaction to proceed from reactants to products spontaneously?
Choose one answer.
a. The reaction must be endothermic.

b. The reaction must be exothermic.
c. The total entropy of the reacting chemical system and its surroundings must increase.
d. The standard entropy change, ∆rS0, for the chemical reaction must be ≥ 0.
Question46
Which of the following statements is correct?
Choose one answer.
a. For a closed system, ∆S can never have a negative value.
b. For a reversible process in a closed system, ∆S must be zero.
c. For an adiabatic process in a closed system, ∆S cannot have a negative value.
d. For an adiabatic process in a closed system, ∆S must be zero.
Question47
Identify the FALSE statement among the following choices:
Choose one answer.
a. Calorimetry involves the measurement of heat transfer during a physical or chemical process.
b. According to the third law of thermodynamics, the entropies of all perfectly crystalline substances must be the same at
the absolute zero of temperature (i.e., at T = 0 K).
c. For any given change of state, the work done by a system in an irreversible process is always greater than that in a
reversible process.
d. The Joule-Thompson effect relates to the temperature change occurring in a gas during an isenthalpic expansion of
the gas.
Question48
The translational motions of the molecules in a gas contribute to the total entropy of the gas. What is the translational contribution to the total entropy of a 1-mol sample of N2(g) at a
temperature of 298 K and a pressure of 1 bar?
Choose one answer.
a. 15.03 J/K
b. -15.03 J/K
c. 150.3 J/K
d. 198.1 J/K
Question49
What is the standard molar entropy (Sm0) of oxygen atoms at 298 K (assumed to behave as an ideal gas)?
Choose one answer.
a. 143.4 J/K-mol
b. 1.43 J/K-mol
c. 1550 J/K-mol
d. -143.4 J/K-mol
Question50
Which of the following played a significant role in developing the concept of entropy and in formulating the second law of thermodynamics?
Choose one answer.
a. The Nernst heat theorem
b. The equipartition-of-energy principle
c. The formulation and analysis of the Carnot cycle and heat engine
d. The Heisenberg uncertainty principle
Question51
Which of the following statements does NOT conform to the laws of thermodynamics?
Choose one answer.
a. The entropy of the universe always increases in a spontaneous change-of-state process.
b. The energy of the universe always remains constant in any change-of-state process.
c. The entropy of a system always decreases with a decrease in the temperature of the system.
d. The entropy of any chemically pure substance approaches a value of zero as the temperature of the
substance approaches a value of 0 K, and at T = 0 K, S = 0.
Question52
Among the following processes, which would have a ∆Gm value > 0?
Choose one answer.
a. Solid water (ice) melts at 1 bar pressure and a temperature of 0 oC.
b. Solid water (ice) melts at 1 bar pressure and a temperature of 5 oC.
c. Liquid water is vaporized at 1 bar pressure and a temperature of 105 oC.
d. Liquid water is vaporized at 1 bar pressure and a temperature of 95 oC.
Question53
At what pressure will (G - G0) be 2000 J/mol for an ideal gas at 25oC?
Choose one answer.
a. 2.1 kPa
b. 21 atm
c. 2.24 Pa
d. 2.24 bar
Question54
Calcium carbonate can exist in two distinctly different crystalline forms, called calcite and aragonite. The standard Gibbs free energy of formation for calcite at 298 K is ∆ fG0 = -1128.79 kJ/mol,
and the standard Gibbs free energy of formation for aragonite at 298 K is ∆fG0 = -1127.75 kJ/mol. Which crystalline form is the more thermodynamically stable at a temperature of 298 K and
a pressure of 1 bar, and what would be the value of ∆rG0 for the calcite → aragonite transformation at 298 K?
Choose one answer.
a. Calcite is more stable; ∆rG0 = -1.04 kJ/mol
b. Aragonite is more stable; ∆rG0 = 1.04 kJ/mol
c. Aragonite is more stable; ∆rG0 = -1.04 kJ/mol

d. Calcite is more stable; ∆rG0 = 1.04 kJ/mol
Question55
Consider a chemical reaction that is exothermic. If you increase the temperature of the reaction mixture, how will this action change the equilibrium constant for the reaction?
Choose one answer.
a. It will increase its value.
b. It will decrease its value.
c. It will have no effect on its value.
Question56
Consider a process in which 1 mol of an ideal gas is isothermally expanded from 0.01 m 3 to 0.10 m3 at a temperature of 25oC. What is the ∆G for this process?
Choose one answer.
a. 5.7 kJ
b. -479 J
c. -5.70 kJ
d. 479 J
Question57
Consider the dimerization reaction 2 NO2(g) → N2O4(g). This reaction is exothermic, since the major chemical change is the formation of a new bond (the N-N bond). The value of ∆rH0 for this
reaction carried out at a temperature of 298 K is -57.2 kJ. The standard molar capacity of N2O4(g) is Cp,m = 77.28 J/K-mol, and the standard molar heat capacity of NO2(g) is Cp,m = 37.2 J/K-
mol. Given this information, what is the value of ∆rH0 for the dimerization reaction carried out at a temperature of 1298 K?
Choose one answer.
a. -54.3 kJ
b. -60.1 kJ
c. -43.2 kJ
d. 12.2 kJ
Question58
Consider the exothermic reaction CO(g) + 2H2(g) ↔ CH3OH(g) at equilibrium at 500 K and 10 bar. Which of the following actions would lead to a decrease in the amount of methanol in the
equilibrium reaction mixture?
Choose one answer.
a. The temperature is raised from 500 K to 600 K.
b. The pressure is increased from 10 bar to 12 bar.
c. An inert (unreactive) gas is pumped into the reaction mixture under constant-volume conditions.
d. Hydrogen (H2) gas is added to the mixture at constant pressure.
Question59
Consider the following reaction between glycine and nitrous acid in an aqueous solution: NH 2CH2COOH(aq) + HNO2(aq) ↔ HOCH2COOH(aq) + N2(g) + H2O(l). What would be the difference
between the ∆rG0 and ∆rA0 for this reaction at 298 K, assuming that the N2(g) product can be treated as an ideal gas?
Choose one answer.
a. 2478 J
b. -2478 kJ
c. 12.22 kJ
Question60
Consider the following reaction for the decomposition of sodium bicarbonate:
2 NaHCO3(s) → Na2CO3(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
The ∆rH0 and ∆rS0 for this reaction have values of 85.2 kJ/mol and 215 J/K-mol, respectively. What is the minimum temperature required for an NaHCO3(s) sample to spontaneously
decompose into the products shown above (under 1 bar pressure conditions)?
Choose one answer.
a. 275 K
b. 396 K
c. 479 K
d. 301 K
Question61
Consider the following two reactions: (1) glutamate + NH4+ ↔ glutamine, for which ∆rG0 = 15.7 kJ/mol at 37oC; and (2) ATP ↔ ADP + Pi, for which ∆rG0 = -31.0 kJ/mol at 37oC. (In reaction
(2), ATP denotes adenosine triphosphate, ADP denotes adenosine diphosphate, and Pi represents inorganic phosphate.) These two reactions can be coupled by an enzyme catalyst (glutamine
synthetase), which leads to the following reaction: (3) glutamate + NH 4+ + ATP ↔ glutamine + ADP + Pi. What is the equilibrium constant for reaction (3) at a temperature of 37oC?
Choose one answer.
a. 2.3 x 10-3
b. 1.1
c. 3.8 x 102
Question62
Consider the reaction Cu2+(aq) + 4NH3(aq) ↔ Cu(NH3)42+(aq), for which ∆rG0 = -70.54 kJ at 298 K. Now suppose you make up a reaction mixture in which the activities ( a) of the various
species have the following values: a(Cu2+) = 0.01; a(NH3) = 0.01; and a(of the cupric complex product) = 0.01. What will be the value of ∆ rG (at 298 K) for the reaction in the mixture you
have prepared?
Choose one answer.
a. -116 kJ
b. -24.9 kJ
c. 24.9 kJ
Question63
Consider the reaction glycerol(aq) + HPO42-(aq) ↔ DL-glycerol-1-phosphate2-(aq) + H2O(l). The equilibrium constant for this reaction at 37 oC is 0.012, and the value of ∆rG0 at 25oC is 9.37 kJ.
Given this information, what is the equilibrium constant (K eq) for the reaction at 25oC, and what is the value of ∆rH0 for the reaction? (You may assume that the ∆rH0 of the reaction is
independent of temperature.)
Choose one answer.
a. Keq = 0.462 at 25oC; ∆rH0 = 40.1 kJ
b. Keq = 0.046 at 25oC; ∆rH0 = 21.2 kJ

c. Keq = 0.003 at 25oC; ∆rH0 = -40.1 kJ
d. Keq = 0.023 at 25oC; ∆rH0 = -40.1 kJ
Question64
Consider the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) → 2 HI(g). It is reported that an equilibrium mixture of this reaction system contains the following concentrations of the reacting species: [H2] = 1.14 x 10-
2
M; [I2] = 1.2 x 10-3 M; and [HI] = 2.52 x 10-2 M. Given this information, the equilibrium constant for this reaction may be calculated to have a value of:
Choose one answer.
a. 1842
b. 46.4
c. 18.4
d. 12.6
Question65
Consider the reaction N2(g) + O2(g) ↔ 2NO(g). The equilibrium constant for this reaction has a value of 2.5 x 10-3 at a temperature of 2400 K. What would be the partial pressure of NO in an
equilibrium mixture that is at 2400 K and contains N2(g) at a partial pressure of 0.1 bar and O2(g) at a partial pressure of 0.1 bar?
Choose one answer.
a. 2.5 x 10-5 bar
b. 5.0 x 10-3 bar
c. 0.2 bar
Question66
For the process H2O(l) → H2O(s), occurring at a temperature of -10oC, the ∆Sm has a value of -20.54 J/K-mol. Which of the following would reflect the values of ∆H m and ∆Gm associated with
the freezing of water at a temperature of -10oC?
Choose one answer.
a. ∆Hm < 0; ∆Gm < 0
b. ∆Hm < 0; ∆Gm = 0

c. ∆Hm < 0; ∆Gm > 0
d. ∆Hm > 0; ∆Gm = 0
Question67
Methanol boils at a temperature of 337.2 K under standard pressure (P = 1 bar) conditions, and its standard enthalpy of vaporization is ∆vapH0 = 35.27 kJ/mol. What is the standard entropy of
vaporization of methanol?
Choose one answer.
a. 104.6 kJ/K-mol
b. 104.6 J/K-mol
c. -104.6 J/K-mol
Question68
Suppose you wanted to shift the equilibrium position of the reaction 2 NO 2(g) → N2O4(g) in the direction that favors more dimer formation. Which of the following changes in reaction
conditions would help achieve that goal?
Choose one answer.
a. An increase in the total pressure of the reaction mixture, with temperature held constant
b. An increase in the temperature of the reaction mixture, with total pressure held constant
c. A decrease in the total pressure of the reaction mixture, with temperature held constant
d. A simultaneous increase in temperature and increase in pressure
Question69
The enzyme catalase catalyzes the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide by the exothermic reaction H 2O2(aq) → H2O(l) + ½ O2(g). Suppose that a small amount of solid catalase is added to a
0.1 M aqueous solution of hydrogen peroxide in a calorimeter, with the initial temperature of the solution being 25oC. If all the heat liberated in the reaction is retained by the solution, what
will be the final temperature of the solution after the reaction mixture has reached its final equilibrium state? (The relevant heats of formation for H2O2(aq) and H2O(l) are: ∆fH = -191.17
kJ/mol (for aqueous H2O2) and ∆fH = -285.83 kJ/mol (for liquid H2O). (The heat capacity of the solution may be taken as having a value of 4.18 kJ/K-L (i.e., 4.18 kJ/K per liter of solution).)
Choose one answer.
a. 47.6oC
b. 27.3oC
c. 25.2oC
d. 22.7oC
Question70
The equilibrium constant (Kc) for the hydrolysis of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and phosphate is 1.67 x 10 5 mol/dm3 at 37oC, and the ∆rH0 for this reaction
has a value of -20.1 kJ/mol. Given this information, what is the value of ∆ rS0 for the reaction?
Choose one answer.
a. 35.1 J/K-mol
b. 35.1 J/mol
c. 295 J/K-mol
d. -35.1 J/K-mol
Question71
The equilibrium constant for the dimerization reaction 2 NO 2(g) → N2O4(g) has a value of 6.75 at a temperature of 298 K. What is the value of ∆rG0 for this reaction at 298 K?
Choose one answer.
a. 4.73 kJ
b. 9.46 kJ
c. -4.73 kJ
d. -2.85 kJ
Question72
The equilibrium constant for the reaction H2(g) + ½O2(g) ↔ H2O(l) is reported to have a value of 3.5 x 1041 at a temperature of 298 K. Given this information, what is the value of ∆ rG0 for
this reaction at 298 K?
Choose one answer.
a. 237 kJ
b. -237 kJ
c. 237 J
d. -116 kJ
Question73
What is the equilibrium pressure of NH3(g) over a sample of NH4Cl(s) as a result of decomposition at 25hoC, given that ∆rG0 = 91.12 kJ for the reaction NH4Cl(s) ↔ NH3(g) + HCl(g)?
Choose one answer.
a. 1.03 x 10-8 bar
b. 1.06 x 10-16 bar
c. 0.65 bar
d. 0.81 bar
Question74
What is the equilibrium pressure of O2(g) over a sample of NiO(s) at 298 K, given that ∆rG0 = 211.7 kJ for the reaction NiO(s) ↔ Ni(s) + ½O2(g)?
Choose one answer.
a. 0.843 bar
b. 7.78 x 10-38 bar
c. 6.05 x 10-75 bar
d. 8.05 x 10-5 bar
Question75
What is the pressure of CO2(g) over a sample of CaCO3(s) at a temperature of 1000 K, given that ∆rG0 = 22.9 kJ for the reaction CaCO3(s) ↔ CaO(s) + CO2(g)?
Choose one answer.
a. 0.99 bar
b. 15.7 bar
c. 6.4 x 10-4 bar

d. 6.4 x 10-2 bar
Question76
Consider a process in which liquid water is vaporized under constant pressure and temperature conditions, with P = 1 atm and T = 373.15 K. Which of the following would be true for the
∆Am and ∆Gm quantities associated with this process? (Note that Am denotes the molar Helmholtz free-energy function and Gm denotes the molar Gibbs free-energy function.)
Choose one answer.
a. ∆Am < 0; ∆Gm = 0
b. ∆Am > 0; ∆Gm = 0
c. ∆Am = 0; ∆Gm = 0
d. ∆Am < 0; ∆Gm < 0
Question77
Consider the phase transformation process C(graphite) → C(diamond). The ∆G for this process at 1 bar pressure and a temperature of 298 K has a value of 2.900 kJ/mol, and the ∆S for the
process under these same pressure and temperature conditions has a value of -3.36 J/K-mol. If you raised the temperature from 298 K to 1000 K, but kept the pressure constant at 1 bar,
would this increase, decrease, or not change the thermodynamic stability of graphite versus diamond?
Choose one answer.
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Not change
Question78
For H2O(s) at 0oC and 1 atm and H2O(l) at 0oC and 1 atm, which of the following quantities must be equal for the two phases?
Choose one answer.
a. The molar entropy (Sm)
b. The molar enthalpy (Hm)
c. The molar Gibbs free energy (Gm)

d. The molar volume (Vm)
Question79
The equilibrium vapor pressure of water at 298 K is 24 Torr. Is the chemical potential of H 2O(l) at 298 K and 20 Torr less than, equal to, or greater than the chemical potential of H 2O(g) at the
same temperature and pressure?
Choose one answer.
a. Greater than
b. Equal to
c. Less than
Question80
The molar enthalpy of sublimation of CO2(s) is 25.23 kJ/mol at the standard sublimation temperature, 194.6 K. What is the molar entropy of sublimation of CO 2(s) at the standard sublimation
temperature?
Choose one answer.
a. 0.13 J/K-mol
b. 129.7 J/K-mol
c. -129.7 J/K-mol
Question81
The normal boiling point of Br2 is 331.9 K, and its vapor pressure at 298 K is 0.287 bar. Within the approximations inherent to the Clausius-Clapeyron equation, what value of ∆vapHm (the
molar enthalpy of vaporization) for Br2would be compatible with this data?
Choose one answer.
a. -30.7 kJ/mol
b. 30.7 kJ/mol
c. 70.6 kJ/mol
d. -12.6 kJ/mol
Question82
Choose one answer.
a. For a one-component system, the maximum number of phases that can coexist in equilibrium is three.
b. When three phases coexist in equilibrium in a one-component system, one of the phases must be a gas,
one must be a liquid, and one must be a solid.
c. For a one-component system, the most stable phase at a given T and P is the phase with the lowest
Gm (molar Gibbs free energy).
d. For a pure substance, the vapor pressure of the solid is equal to the vapor pressure of the liquid at the
triple-point temperature.
Question83
Choose one answer.
a. It is impossible for four phases of a single pure substance to coexist at equilibrium.
b. The maximum number of phases that can coexist in a system composed of four components is equal to six.
c. The Clausius-Clapeyron equation can be used in the characterization of solid-liquid phase equilibria.
d. Two phases at equilibrium must have the same pressure.
Question84
Consider a 0.01 M aqueous solution of KCl. How will the vapor pressure of this solution compare with the vapor pressure of pure liquid water?
Choose one answer.
a. It will be higher.
b. It will be lower.
c. It will be the same.
Question85
Consider a binary liquid solution in which the constituent species are labeled A and B. Suppose that the A-B pairwise attractive interactions are stronger than the average of the A-A and B-B
pairwise attractive interactions. Which of the following statements about the properties of this solution is incorrect?
Choose one answer.
a. The vapor pressure of the solution will exhibit negative deviations from Raoult's law behavior.
b. The vapor pressure of the solution will be less than ½(PA* + PB*) when species A and B are present in
equimolar amounts (where PA* and PB* denote the vapor pressures of pure liquid A and pure liquid B,
respectively).
c. The vapor pressure of the solution will exhibit positive deviations from Raoult's law behavior.
d. If the mole-fraction of species A (XA) is much larger than the mole-fraction of species B (XB), then the vapor
pressure of B will follow Henry's law behavior.
Question86
Consider a dilute benzene-in-ethanol solution in which the mole-fraction of benzene is 0.013. The partial vapor pressure of the benzene component of this solution has a value of 12.8 Torr.
Given this information, what would be the value of the Henry's law constant for the benzene in this solution?
Choose one answer.
a. 0.166 Torr
b. 1.02 L-atm
c. 985 Torr
d. 985 Torr/mol
Question87
Consider a dilute liquid solution comprised of solvent A and solute B. For this system, which of the following statements is incorrect?
Choose one answer.
a. The chemical potential of A in solution is always less than the chemical potential of pure liquid A (at fixed
values of pressure and temperature).
b. Additions of more solute to the solution will always lower the chemical potential of the solvent.
c. Additions of a nonvolatile solute to the solution will always lower the vapor pressure of the solution.
d. At any given temperature, the vapor pressure of the solution will always be less than the vapor pressure of
the pure solvent.
Question88
Consider a process in which 0.2 mol of liquid acetone is mixed with 0.8 mol of liquid chloroform at a temperature of 35 oC and a pressure of 1 bar. Under these conditions, measurements show
that the activity coefficients of the acetone and chloroform constituents of the mixture have the values 0.544 (for acetone) and 0.957 (for chloroform). Given this information, what would be
the ∆G associated with the mixing process?
Choose one answer.
a. 1683 J
b. -1683 J
c. -1282 J
d. 440 J
Question89
Consider a real gas which, at a temperature of 298 K and some particular pressure P, has a fugacity coefficient with a value of 1.75. At the given pressure P, what is the difference between
the chemical potential of the real gas versus that of an ideal gas? That is, what is the value of μ(real gas) - μ(ideal gas)?
Choose one answer.
a. -1.39 kJ/mol
b. 0
c. 1.39 kJ/mol
Question90
Consider a solution made by dissolving 342 g of sucrose in 127 ml of water at 45 oC. The vapor pressure of water at 45oC is 0.095 atm and the density of water at 45oC is 0.992 g/ml. What is
the vapor pressure of the sucrose/water solution? (Note: The molar mass of sucrose is 180.2 g/mol.)
Choose one answer.
a. 0.075 atm
b. 0.115 atm
c. 0.224 atm
d. 0.008 atm
Question91
Consider a toluene-benzene solution in which the mole-fraction of toluene is 0.33. At a temperature of 300 K, the total vapor pressure of this solution is 7.89 kPa, and the partial pressures of
the toluene and benzene constituents of the vapor are P toluene = 1.214 kPa and Pbenzene = 6.677 kPa, respectively. At 300 K, the vapor pressure of pure liquid toluene is P* = 3.572 kPa and the
vapor pressure of pure liquid benzene is P* = 9.657 kPa. What are the activities (a) and activity coefficients (γ) of the toluene and benzene constituents of the solution?
Choose one answer.
a. a(toluene) = 0.3399; a(benzene) = 0.6914; γ(toluene) = 1.03; γ(benzene) = 1.03
b. a(toluene) = 0.77; a(benzene) = 0.23; γ(toluene) = 1.11; γ(benzene) = 0.89
c. a(toluene) = 0.46; a(benzene) = 0.54; γ(toluene) = 0.79; γ(benzene) = 0.93
Question92
If 5.0 g of glucose, C6H12O6, is dissolved in 1.0 L of water at 300 K, what osmotic pressure will the solution exhibit?
Choose one answer.
a. 0.69 bar
b. 0.012 atm
c. 6.9 atm
d. 69 Pa
Question93
If a 1-molal solution of NaCl in water shows a freezing-point depression of 3.7oC, what is the freezing-point depression observed for a 1-molal solution of CaCl2 in water? (Recall that both NaCl
and CaCl2 are completely dissociated in aqueous solution.)
Choose one answer.
a. 5.55oC
b. 11.1oC
c. 2.47oC
Question94
The solubility of argon in water is 5.15 x 10 -3 g of Ar per 100 g of H2O at 25oC and an argon pressure of 1 atm. Given this information, what is the value of the Henry's law constant for an
argon-water mixture at 25oC?
Choose one answer.
a. 4.31 atm
b. 4.31 x 105 Pa
c. 12.4 bar/mol
d. 4.31 x 104 atm
Question95
The vapor pressure of pure liquid toluene at 300 K is P* = 3.572 kPa, and the vapor pressure of pure liquid benzene at 300 K is P* = 9.657 kPa. Assuming that mixtures of toluene and
benzene behave as ideal solutions, what will be the total vapor pressure (P T) of a toluene-benzene mixture containing 0.60 mole-fraction of toluene at a temperature of 300 K, and what will
be the mole-fraction of toluene (Xtoluene) in the vapor over this mixture?
Choose one answer.
a. PT = 7.219 kPa; Xtoluene = 0.643 (in vapor)
b. PT = 6.006 kPa; Xtoluene = 0.643 (in vapor)
c. PT = 6.006 kPa; Xtoluene = 0.357 (in vapor)
Question96
When 2.8 x 10-4 kg of a certain chemical compound is dissolved in 0.579 L of water at 27 oC, the osmotic pressure of the resultant solution is measured and found to have a value of 0.1625
atm. What is the molar mass of the chemical compound?
Choose one answer.
a. 107.5 g/mol
b. 6.602 g/mol
c. 73.3 g/mol
d. 57.9 g/mol
Question97
When 6.29 g of a certain nonvolatile solute is dissolved in 500 g of water, the freezing point of the resultant aqueous solution is 0.646 oC lower than that of pure water. The cryoscopic
constant for water is Kf = 1.856 K-kg/mol. Given this information, what is the molar mass of the solute species?
Choose one answer.
a. 36.1 g/mol
b. 72.2 g/mol
c. 36.1 kg/mol
d. 18.1 g/mol
Question98
Which of the following will have the highest boiling-point temperature?
Choose one answer.
a. A 0.01 M aqueous solution of BaCl2
b. A 0.1 M aqueous solution of CaCl2
c. A 0.1 M aqueous solution of sucrose
d. A 0.1 M aqueous solution of KCl
Question99
Which of the following will have the lowest boiling-point temperature?
Choose one answer.
a. Pure liquid water
b. A 0.01 M aqueous solution of NaHCO3
c. A 12 M solution of sulfuric acid
d. A 0.1 M aqueous solution of glucose
Question100
Which of the following will have the lowest freezing-point temperature?
Choose one answer.

a. A 0.01 M aqueous solution of NaCl
b. A 0.01 M aqueous solution of BaCl2
c. A 0.01 M aqueous solution of KBr
d. A 0.01 M aqueous solution of FeCl3
Question101
Among the following statements, which one is incorrect?
Choose one answer.
a. The molar entropy of a substance is an extensive property.
b. The molar entropy of a substance always increases with an increase in temperature.
c. The molar entropy of a molecular gas depends on the molar mass of the constituent molecules.
d. The entropy of a molecular system depends on the spacings between the rotational and vibrational energy
levels of the constituent molecules.
Question102
Consider two systems that are identical in all respects, except that in one the molecules are distinguishable, whereas in the other the molecules are indistinguishable. What would be the
difference between the molar entropies of these two systems?
Choose one answer.
a. 446.9 J/K-mol
b. 53.8 J/K-mol
c. There is no difference.
Question103
The electronic ground state of molecular oxygen is three-fold degenerate, and the first electronic excited state is two-fold degenerate and is located at an energy 15.72 x 10 -20 J above the
ground state. In a sample of O2(g), maintained at an equilibrium temperature of 298 K, what would be the ratio of the populations of O2 molecules in the first electronic excited state versus
the electronic ground state?
Choose one answer.

a. 2.50 x 10-17
b. 3.75 x 10-17
c. 1.67 x 10-17
d. 1.67 x 1017
Question104
The fundamental vibrational frequency of an oxygen molecule (O2) is 4.741 x 1013 s-1. What would be the value of the vibrational partition function for O 2 at a temperature of 1000 K,
assuming that the molecular vibrational motion can be treated in the harmonic oscillator approximation?
Choose one answer.
a. 1115
b. 1.115
c. 10.15 s-1
d. 10.15 J
Question105
The ground electronic state of atomic oxygen is five-fold degenerate, the first electronic excited state is three-fold degenerate and is located 3.142 x 10-24 J above ground, and the second
electronic excited state is nondegenerate and is located 4.498 x 10 -24 J above ground. No other electronic excited states of atomic oxygen are thermally accessible at 300 K. Given this
information, what is the value of the electronic partition function for atomic oxygen at a temperature of 300 K?
Choose one answer.
a. 9
b. 6.74 x 10-24
c. 4.03 x 10-24
d. 6.743
Question106
What is the value of the molecular translational partition function for the nitrogen molecules in a sample of N2(g) confined to a container of volume 1 m3 and a temperature of 300 K?
Choose one answer.

a. 2.41 x 108
b. 1.45 x 1032
c. 1.45 x 1032 J/m3
d. 2.41 x 108 kJ/molecule
Gen chem
1
A certain reaction is zero order in reactant A and second order in reactant B. What happens to the reaction rate when the concentrations of both reactants are doubled?
Choose one answer.
a. The reaction rate remains the same.
b. The reaction increases by a factor of two.
c. The reaction increases by a factor of four.
d. The reaction increases by a factor of eight.
Question2
A rate law relates which of the following?
Choose one answer.

a. Reaction rate and temperature
b. Reaction rate and concentration
c. Temperature and concentration
d. Energy and concentration
Question3
Determine the overall balanced equation for a reaction that has the following proposed mechanism. Which of the following is the acceptable rate law?
Step 1: B2 + B2 → E3 + D slow
Step 2: E3 + A → B2 + C2 fast
Choose one answer.
a. B2 + B2 → E3 + D and R = [B2]2
b. A + B2→ C2 + D and R = [A] [B2]2
c. A + B2 → C2 + D and R = [B2]2
d. A + B2→ C2+ D and R = [E3] [A]
Question4
Fill in the blank. A species that changes the rate of a reaction but is neither consumed nor changed in that reaction is a(n) ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Catalyst
b. Activated complex
c. Intermediate
d. Reactant
Question5
If two molecules collide softly, what will most likely happen to the molecules?
Choose one answer.

a. The molecules will be oriented favorably.
b. The molecules will not be oriented favorably.
c. The molecules are likely to react.
d. The molecules may rebound without reacting.
Question6
The decomposition of nitrogen dioxide 2 NO2 → 2 NO + O2 occurs in a two-step sequence at elevated temperatures. The first step is NO2 → NO + O. Which of the following accurately predicts
the second step that, when combined with the first step, gives the complete reaction?
Choose one answer.
a. NO2 + O → NO + O2
b. O → NO + O2
c. NO2→ NO
d. O2→ NO + 3 O2
Question7
To be effective, a collision requires which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Enough energy
b. Favorable orientation
c. A reaction mechanism
d. Both A and B
Question8
What is the slowest step in a reaction mechanism called?
Choose one answer.

a. The rate-determining step
b. The uncatalyzed reaction
c. The activation step
Question9
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the energy of the activated complex also called transition state?
Choose one answer.
a. The transition state is lower than the energy of the reactants but higher than the energy of the
products.
b. The transition state is lower than the energy of both the reactants and the products.
c. The transition state is higher than the energy of the reactants but lower than the energy of the
products.
d. The transition state is higher than the energy of both the reactants and the products.
Question10
Fill in the blank. The sequence of steps that occurs in a reaction process is called the _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Order of the reaction
b. Reaction mechanism
c. Overall reaction
d. Rate law
Question11
A silver chloride solution is prepared with the following ion concentrations [Ag +] = 1.0 x 10-6 M and [Cl-] = 1.0 x 10-2 M. If Ksp for AgCl = 1.8 x 10-10, then which of the following is true?
Choose one answer.

a. A precipitate will form.
b. A precipitate will not form.
c. The system is at equilibrium.
Question12
Acetic acid is a weak electrolyte, because it does which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Becomes miscible with water
b. Forms hydronium and hydroxide ions in aqueous solution
c. Lowers the freezing point of water
d. Ionizes only slightly in aqueous solution
Question13
How can one prepare a 1.00 L of a 0.125 M H2SO4 solution?
Choose one answer.
a. Dilute 36.0 mL of 1.25 M H2SO4 to a volume of 1.00 L.
b. Dilute 20.8 mL of 6.00 M H2SO4 to a volume of 1.00 L.
c. Add 950. mL of water to 50.0 mL of 3.00 M H2SO4.
d. Add 500. mL of water to 500. mL of 0.500 M H2SO4.
Question14
How many grams of Na3PO4 are there in 500. mL of a 0.250 M solution of Na3PO4 (molar mass = 163.94 g/mol)?
Choose one answer.
a. 2.05 g
b. 20.5 g
c. 0.125 g
d. 0.168 g
Question15
Solution A contains 0.1 mol of sucrose, C12H22O11, dissolved in 500 g of water. Solution B contains 0.1 mol of sodium chloride, NaCl, in 500 g of water. Which of the following statements about
these solutions is true?
Choose one answer.
a. Both solutions have the same vapor pressure.
b. Solution A would boil at a higher temperature than solution B would.
c. Solution A would freeze at higher temperature than solution B would.
d. Both solutions would boil at the same temperature.
Question16
The solubility of AgCl is 1.22 x 10-8 mol/L. What is the value of Ksp for AgCl?
Choose one answer.
a. 1.1 x 10⁻4
b. 1.2 x 10⁻8
c. 5.7 x 10⁻2
d. 1.5 x 10⁻16
Question17
To make a water-soluble salt using the silver cation, Ag+, what anion should be chosen?
Choose one answer.
a. NO3⁻
b. CO32⁻
c. Cl⁻
d. PO43⁻
Question18
Use the solubility rules. Which salt is insoluble in water?
Choose one answer.
a. NaBr
b. NH4Cl
c. FeS
d. (NH4)2S
Question19
Use the solubility rules. Which salt is soluble in water?
Choose one answer.
a. Fe(OH)3
b. AgCl
c. CaCl2
d. BaSO4
Question20
What is the balanced, net ionic equation for the reaction of nickel(II) chloride and sodium phosphate to give nickel(II) phosphate and sodium chloride?
Choose one answer.
a. 2 Na3PO4(aq) + 3 NiCl2(aq) → Ni3(PO4)2(s) + 6 NaCl(aq)
b. 2 Na3PO4(aq) + 3 NiCl2(aq) → Ni3(PO4)2(aq) + 6 NaCl (aq)
c. 2 PO43⁻(aq) + 3 Ni2⁺(aq) → Ni3(PO4)2(s)

d. Na⁺(aq) + Cl⁻(aq) → NaCl(aq)
Question21
What is the balanced, net ionic equation for the reaction of aluminum sulfate with sodium hydroxide?
Choose one answer.
a. Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 6 NaOH(aq) → 2 Al(OH)3(s) + 3 Na2SO4(aq)
b. Al3⁺(aq) + 3 OH⁻(aq) → Al(OH)3(s)
c. Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 6 NaOH(aq) → 2 Al(OH)3(aq) + 3 Na2SO4(s)
d. 2 Na⁺(aq) + SO42⁻(aq) → Na2SO4(s)
Question22
What is the correct expression for the solubility product constant, K sp, for FePO4?
Choose one answer.
a. Ksp = [Fe3⁺] / [PO43⁻]3
b. Ksp = [Fe3⁺][P5⁻][O2⁻]3
c. Ksp = [Fe3⁺][PO43⁻]
d. Ksp = [Fe3⁺][PO43⁻] / [FePO4]
Question23
What is the molality of a 0.907 M Pb(NO3)2 solution? (Molar mass of Pb(NO3)2 = 331.2 g/mol; density of the solution = 1.252 g/mL.)
Choose one answer.
a. 0.953 m
b. 0.724 m
c. 0.907 m
d. 1.98 m
Question24
What is the molality of a solution containing 5.67 g glucose, C 6H12O6, dissolved in 25.2 g of water? (Molar mass of C6H12O6 = 180.2 g/mol.)
Choose one answer.
a. 0.00125 m
b. 0.225 m
c. 1.25 m
d. 0.762 m
Question25
What is the molarity of a 0.273 m KCl? (Molar mass of KCl = 74.6 g/mol; density of the solution = 1.011 g/L.)
Choose one answer.
a. 20.6 M
b. 1.0 M
c. 0.273 M
d. 0.271 M
Question26
What is the new concentration of a nitric acid made by diluting 50. mL of a 12.0 M solution to 250. mL?
Choose one answer.
a. 2.4 M
b. 60. M
c. 10. M
d. 24 M
Question27
What is the total concentration of ions in a 0.0360 M solution of Na3PO4?
Choose one answer.
a. 0.108 M
b. 0.144 M
c. 0.0360 M
d. 0.0720 M
Question28
What volume in mL of 0.453 M NaCl solution contains 25.0 g of NaCl (molar mass = 58.5 g/mol)?
Choose one answer.
a. 193 mL
b. 1000 mL
c. 943 mL
d. 453 mL
Question29
Which of the following is NOT a colligative property?
Choose one answer.
a. Molality
b. Vapor-pressure lowering
c. Boiling-point elevation
d. Osmotic pressure
Question30
Which one of the following compounds is a nonelectrolyte when dissolved in water?
Choose one answer.

a. Sodium chloride
b. Calcium chloride
c. Copper sulfate
d. Sugar
Question31
A buffer is prepared by adding 45.0 mL of 0.15 M NaF to 35.0 mL of 0.10 HF. What is the pH of the final solution? The value of Ka for HF is 6.8 x 10-4.
Choose one answer.
a. 4.65
b. 2.20
c. 7.00
d. 3.45
Question32
A solution contains 0.0128 g of HCl in 450. mL of solution. What is the pH of this solution at 25 °C?
Choose one answer.
a. 1.00
b. 7.00
c. 3.10
d. 10.89
Question33
A solution contains 0.384 g of KOH in 250. mL of solution. What is the pH of this solution at 25 °C?
Choose one answer.
a. 1.56
b. 12.44
c. 2.67
d. 11.33
Question34
An important component of blood is the buffer combination of dihydrogen phosphate ion and the hydrogen phosphate ion. The pH of blood is 7.44. What is the pH of blood, if 25% of the
hydrogen phosphate is converted to dihydrogen phosphate? The value of Ka for H2PO4- is 6.2 x 10-2.
Choose one answer.
a. 2.90
b. 6.59
c. 7.44
d. 7.16
Question35
At 10 °C, Kw = 2.9 x 10-15. What is [OH-] in neutral water at 10 °C?
Choose one answer.
a. 4.44 x 10⁻6 M
b. 1.00 x 10⁻7 M
c. 1.70 x 10⁻7 M
d. 5.39 x 10⁻8 M
Question36
At 50 °C, Kw = 5.48 x 10-14. What is [OH-] in water of pH = 3 at 50 °C?
Choose one answer.
a. 1.00 x 10⁻3 M
b. 5.48 x 10⁻11 M
c. 5.48 x 10⁻7 M
d. 2.74 x 10⁻7 M
Question37
HC2Cl3O2 is a stronger acid than HCHO2. What is the direction of the equilibrium of the following reaction?
HC2Cl3O2(aq) + CHO2-(aq) → C2Cl3O2-(aq) + HCHO2(aq)
Choose one answer.
a. The equilibrium lies to the left.
b. The equilibrium lies to the right.
c. The equilibrium is perfectly balanced left and right.
d. This cannot be determined from the information given.
Question38
H3PO4 is a stronger acid than NH4+. What is the direction of the equilibrium of the following reaction?
NH4+(aq) + H2PO4-(aq) → NH3(aq) + H3PO4(aq)
Choose one answer.
Question39
The following solutions are mixed in equimolar portions. Will the resulting solution be acidic, basic, neutral, or is there not enough information given?
HCl(aq) + NaHCO3(aq) → ?
Choose one answer.
a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Neutral
Question40
What are the products of the following acid-base reaction?
HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → ?
Choose one answer.
a. H3O⁺(aq) + OH⁻(aq)
b. Na⁺(aq) + Cl⁻(aq)
c. H2O(l) + NaCl(aq)
d. No reaction takes place.
Question41
What is a Brønsted-Lowry acid?
Choose one answer.
a. A proton donor
b. A proton acceptor
c. An electron pair donor
d. An electron pair acceptor
Question42
What is a Lewis acid?
Choose one answer.
a. A proton donor

Question43
What is a Lewis base?
Choose one answer.
a. A proton donor
c. An electron pair acceptor
d. An electron pair donor
Question44
What is the pH of a buffer solution that is 0.15 M chloroacetic acid and 0.10 M sodium chloroacetate? The value of K a for chloroacetic acid is 1.3 x 10-3.
Choose one answer.
a. 11.3
b. 3.76
c. 2.68
d. 3.91
Question45
What is the pH of the buffer solution that consists of 0.15 M pyridine and 0.10 M pyridinium bromide? The value of K b for pyridine is 1.4 x 109.
Choose one answer.
a. 6.60
b. 3.50
c. 5.32
d. 7.00
Question46
What is the [OH-] of a 5.43 x 10-4 M solution of HNO3 at 25 °C?
Choose one answer.
a. 1.84 x 10⁻11 M
b. 5.43 x 10⁻10 M
c. 5.43 x 10⁻4 M
d. 3.67 x 10⁻8 M
Question47
What will happen to the pH a solution of NH3 by adding HCl?
Choose one answer.
a. The pH will increase.
b. The pH will decrease.
c. The addition of HCl will not change the pH of the solution.
d. There is not enough information given to determine this.
Question48
Which of the following is an acid-base conjugate pair?
Choose one answer.
a. HF and F⁻
b. HNO2 and NO3⁻
c. HClO and Cl⁻
d. H2CO3 and CO32⁻
Question49
Which of the following is NOT an acid-base conjugate pair?
Choose one answer.
a. HCN and CN⁻
b. HNO3 and NO3⁻
c. HCl and ClO⁻
d. NH4⁺ and NH3
Question50
What is a Brønsted-Lowry base?
Choose one answer.
a. A proton donor
c. A hydroxide donor
Question51
A particular voltaic cell operates on the following reaction.
Zn(s) + Cl2(g) → Zn2+(aq) + 2 Cl-(aq)
Given an emf of 0.853 V, calculate the maximum electrical work generated when 20.0 g of zinc metal is consumed.
Choose one answer.
a. -8.23 x 104 J
b. -1.65 x 105 J
c. -5.03 x 104 J
d. -2.51 x 104 J
Question52
A voltaic cell has the following reaction.
Zn(s) + 2 Fe3+(aq) → 2 Fe2+(aq) + Zn2+(aq) E° = 0.72 V
What is the maximum electrical work that can be obtained from this cell per mole of iron (III) ion?
Choose one answer.
a. +69 kJ
b. -140 kJ
c. -69 kJ
d. 1.4 J
Question53
Cadmium reacts spontaneously with copper(II) ion.
Cd(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Cd2+(aq) + Cu(s)
What are the half reactions for this reaction?
Choose one answer.
a. Cd(s) + 2e⁻ → Cd2⁺(aq) and Cu2⁺(aq) + 2e⁻ → Cu(s)
b. Cd(s) → Cd2⁺(aq) + 2e⁻ and Cu2⁺(aq) → Cu(s) + 2e⁻
c. Cd(s) → Cd2⁺(aq) + e⁻ and Cu2⁺(aq) + e⁻ → Cu(s)
d. Cd(s) → Cd2⁺(aq) + 2e⁻ and Cu2⁺(aq) + 2e⁻ → Cu(s)
Question54
Calculate the emf for a cell operating with the following reaction:
Cr2O72-(aq) + 6 I-(aq) + 14 H+(aq) → 2 Cr3+(aq) + 3 I2(s) + 7 H2O(l),
where [Cr2O72-] = 0.020 M, [I-] = 0.015 M, [Cr3+] = 0.20 M and [H+] = 0.50 M, using the following standard reduction potentials:
Cr2O72-(aq) + 14 H+(aq) + 6 e- → 2 Cr3+(aq) + 7 H2O(l) E° = +1.33 V
I2(s) + 2 e- → 2 I-(aq) E° = +0.54 V
Choose one answer.
a. +1.87 V
b. -1.87 V
c. +0.79 V
d. +0.64 V
Question55
Calculate the equilibrium constant K for the following reaction at 25 °C.
2 Fe3+(aq) + Cu(s) → 2 Fe2+(aq) + Cu2+(aq) E° = +0.43 V
Choose one answer.
a. 7.26
b. 0.43
c. 3.4 x 1014
d. 1.7 x 107
Question56
Calculate ΔG° for the following reaction at 25 °C.
3 Cu(s) + 2 NO3-(aq) + 8 H+(aq) → 3 Cu2+(aq) + 2 NO(g) + 4 H2O(l) E° = +0.62 V
Choose one answer.
a. -3.6 x 105 J
b. -6.0 x 104 J
c. 3.6 x 105 J
d. 1.2 x 105 J
Question57
Fill in the blank. When a piece of iron is left outside, it will rust. In this situation, the iron atoms are _______________.
Choose one answer.
a. Losing electrons
b. Gaining electrons
c. Staying neutral
d. Combining with nitrogen gas from the air
Question58
Given the following two half reactions,
Cd2+(aq) + 2e- → Cd(s) E° = -0.40 V
2 Ag+(aq) + 2e- → 2 Ag(s) E° = 0.80 V
determine E° and the spontaneity of the following reaction:
2 Ag+(aq) + Cd(s) → 2 Ag(s) + Cd2+(aq)
Choose one answer.
a. +0.40 V and not spontaneous
b. +1.20 V and spontaneous
c. +1.20 V and not spontaneous
d. -0.40 V and spontaneous
Question59
Given the two following half reactions,
Cl2(g) + 2e- → 2 Cl-(aq) E° = +1.36 V
I2(g) + 2e- → 2 I-(s) E° = +0.54 V
calculate ΔG° for the following reaction:
2 I-(aq) + Cl2(g) → 2 Cl-(aq) + I2(s).
Choose one answer.
a. -1.6 kJ
b. -7.9 x 104 J
c. -1.6 x 105 J
d. -79 kJ
Question60
Sn2+(aq) + 2e- → Sn(s) E° = -0.14 V
Cu2+(aq) + 2e- → Cu(s) E° = +0.34 V
calculate the standard emf for the following reaction:
Sn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Sn2+(aq) + Cu(s).
Choose one answer.
a. 0.96 V
b. -0.48 V
c. +0.20 V
d. 0.48 V
Question61
Cr3+(aq) + 3e- → Cr(s) E° = -0.74 V
Hg22+(aq) + 2e- → Hg(l) E° = +0.80 V
calculate the standard emf for the following cell:
Cr | Cr3+|| Hg22+| Hg
Choose one answer.
a. -0.06 V
b. -1.54 V
c. +1.54 V
d. +0.06 V
Question62
How many coulombs of charge are required to form 1.00 pound of Al(s) from an Al 3+ salt?
Choose one answer.
a. 4.87 x 106
b. 50.5
c. 1.62 x 106
d. 454
Question63
If we wish to convert 1.00 g of Au3+(aq) ion into Au(s) in a “gold-plating" process, how long must we electrolyze a solution if the current passing through the circuit is 2.00 amps?
Choose one answer.

a. 245 sec
b. 0.50 sec
c. 0.015 sec
d. 735 sec
Question64
Of the following four reactions, how many are oxidation-reduction reactions?
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
Cu + 2 AgNO3 → 2 Ag + Cu(NO3)2
Mg(OH)2 → MgO + H2O
N2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3
Choose one answer.
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
Question65
The voltaic cell Cd | Cd2+|| Ni2+| Ni has an E° of 0.170 V. If the standard reduction potential of Ni 2+/Ni is E° = -0.23 V, what is the standard reduction potential for Cd2+/Cd?
Choose one answer.
a. +0.06 V
b. -0.06 V
c. -0.40 V
d. +0.40 V
Question66
The voltaic cell Cd | Cd2+|| Ni2+ (1.0M)| Ni has an electromotive force of 0.240 V at 25 °C. What is the concentration of cadmium ion? (Please note that E° = 0.170 V.)
Choose one answer.

a. 0.06 M
b. 0.04 M
c. 0.004 M
d. 1.0 M
Question67
What are the half reactions for the electrolysis of LiCl(l)?
Choose one answer.
a. Cathode: Li⁺(l) → Li(l) + e⁻ and Anode: 2 Cl⁻(l) → Cl2(g) + 2 e⁻
b. Cathode: Li⁺(l) → Li(l) + e⁻ and Anode: 2 Cl⁻(l) + 2 e⁻ → Cl2(g)
c. Cathode: 2 Cl⁻(l) → Cl2(g) + 2 e⁻ and Anode: Li⁺(l) + e⁻ → Li(l)
d. Cathode: Li⁺(l) + e⁻ → Li(l) and Anode: 2 Cl⁻(l) → Cl2(g) + 2 e⁻
Question68
What is the cell notation for a voltaic cell with the following equation?
Pb2+(aq) + Cd(s) → Pb(s) + Cd2+(aq)
Choose one answer.
a. Pb | Pb2⁺|| Cd2⁺| Cd
b. Pb2⁺ | Pb || Cd | Cd2⁺
c. Cd | Cd2⁺|| Pb2⁺ | Pb
d. Cd | Pb2⁺|| Pb | Cd2⁺
Question69
What is the correct balanced equation for the following oxidation-reduction reaction?
Cr2O72- + C2O42- → Cr3+ + CO2
Choose one answer.

a. Cr2O72⁻ + 3 C2O42⁻ → 2 Cr3⁺ + 6 CO2
b. 28 H⁺ + 2 Cr2O72⁻ + 3 C2O42⁻ → 4 Cr3⁺ + 6 CO2 + 14 H2O
c. 14 H⁺ + Cr2O72⁻ + C2O42⁻ → Cr3⁺ + 2 CO2 + 7 H2O
d. 14 H⁺ + Cr2O72⁻ + 3 C2O42⁻ → 2 Cr3⁺ + 6 CO2 + 7 H2O
Question70
What is the overall cell reaction for the following voltaic cell?
Fe | Fe2+|| Ag+| Ag
Choose one answer.
a. Ag⁺(aq) + Fe(s) → Ag(s) + Fe2⁺(aq)
b. 2 Ag⁺(aq) + Fe(s) → 2 Ag(s) + Fe2⁺(aq)
c. 2 Ag(s) + Fe2⁺(aq) → 2 Ag⁺(aq) + Fe(s)
d. Fe(s) + Fe2⁺(aq) → Ag⁺(aq) + Ag(s)
Question71
Fill in the blank. In the reaction Cu(s) + 4HNO3(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2NO2(g) + 2H2O(l), copper is __________.
Choose one answer.
a. Reduced
b. Electrolyzed
c. Synthesized
d. Oxidized
Question72
Beta decay of the nucleus of produces which of the following nuclide?
Choose one answer.

a. Ra
b. Ac
c. Pa
d. U
Question73
Sodium is a very reactive metal. Its ion is found in table salt. While non-radioactive sodium is abundant, there exists a radioactive isotope of sodium, Sodium-24. Its half life is 15 hours. If
after 60 hours, about 6 grams remain, then what was the original mass of the sodium-24 sample?
Choose one answer.
a. 50 g
b. 40 g
c. 100 g
d. 60 g
Question74
Technetium-99 has a half-life of 6.0 hrs. What fraction of Technetium-99 in the sample will remain undecayed after 36 hours?
Choose one answer.
a. 1/8
b. 1/64
c. 1/32
d. 1/16
Question75
The half life of Colbalt-60 is 5.2 years. What happens to an aliquot of cobalt-60 after 5.2 years?
Choose one answer.

a. The concentration decreases by half.
b. The cobalt changes to cobalt-30.
c. The cobalt-60 atom breaks in half.
d. The concentration doubles.
Question76
What are beta particles?
Choose one answer.
a. Highly active electrons diffused from radioactive nuclei
b. Less active protons diffused from standard nuclei
c. Highly active neutrons in radioactive nuclei
d. X-rays that allow radioactive nuclei’s to be viewed
Question77
What is the amount of radioactive sample that has NOT decayed after three-half lives have elapsed?
Choose one answer.
a. 1/3 the original amount
b. 1/9 the original amount
c. ¼ the original amount
d. 1/8 the original amount
Question78
What is the correct alternate notation for gold-197?
Choose one answer.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Question79
What is the half-life of a radioactive nuclide?
Choose one answer.
a. The period of time in which 25% of the original number of atoms undergoes radioactive decay
b. The time at which the isotope becomes non radioactive
c. The period of time in which 50% of the original number of atoms undergoes radioactive
d. The period of time it takes to reduce radioactivity by 100%
Question80
Which nuclide contains 11 protons, 11 electrons, and 14 neutrons?
Choose one answer.
a. Silicon-11
b. Silicon-14
c. Sodium-11
d. Sodium-25
Question81
Which of the following best describes how the atomic number changes when a nucleus captures an electron?
Choose one answer.
a. It will increase by one.
b. It will decrease by one.

c. It will not change, because the electron has such a small mass.
d. It will increase by two.
Question82
Which of the following elements is the daughter nuclide for the alpha decay of polonium-212?
Choose one answer.
a. Lead-208
b. Lead-216
c. Radon-208
d. Radon-216
Question83
Which type of radiation has the most penetrating ability?
Choose one answer.
a. An alpha particle
b. A beta particle
c. A gamma ray
d. A neutron
Question84
Which of the following processes is NOT an example of a spontaneous radioactive process?
Choose one answer.
a. Alpha-decay
b. Auto ionization
c. Positron production
d. Beta-decay
Question85
Fill in the blank. CH3CH2CH2C≡CCH2CH2Cl is named __________.
Choose one answer.
a. 7-chloro-4-heptyne
b. 5-chloro-2-heptene
c. 1-acetylenenyl-3-chloropropane
d. 1-chloro-3-heptyne
Question86
How many structural isomers does butane have?
Choose one answer.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Question87
How many types of alkyl groups can arise from propane?
Choose one answer.
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
Question88
Kira was doing some organic chemistry nomenclature problem. She gave a molecule the following name: 2-Methyl-4-methylhexane. While one can correctly draw the molecule from the name
she gave, the name violates the IUPAC rules. What is the IUPAC name of the molecule?
Choose one answer.
a. 2,4-dimethylhexane
b. 3-Methyl-5-methylhexane
c. 3,5-dimethylhexane
d. 1-isopropyl-2-methylbutane
Question89
Nylon is an example of which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Copolymer
b. Homopolymer
c. Dimer
Question90
Teflon is an example of which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Copolymer
b. Homopolymer
c. Dimer
Question91
The name methanal is the IUPAC name for which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Acetone
b. Formaldehyde
c. Water
d. Rubbing alcohol
Question92
What is the general name given to hydrocarbons with double bonds?
Choose one answer.
a. Alkenes
b. Alkynes
c. Alkanes
d. Aromatic hydrocarbons
Question93
What is the name of the following molecule?
CH3-(CH2)7-CH3
Choose one answer.
a. Heptane
b. Hexane
c. Octane
d. Nonane
Question94
Which of the following accurately provides the generalized molecular formulas for alkanes and alkenes respectively?
Choose one answer.
a. CnH2n+2 and CnH2n
b. CnH2n and CnH2n+2
c. CnH2n+2 and CnH2n-2
d. CnH2n and CnH2n+1
Question95
Which of the following CANNOT form alkenes?
Choose one answer.
a. Methane
b. Ethane
c. Propane
d. All of the above
Question96
Which of the following has the greatest number of C-O bonds?
Choose one answer.
a. Ketone
b. Ester
c. Alcohol
d. Amine
Question97
Which of the following has the least number of C-O bonds?
Choose one answer.

a. Ketone
b. Alcohol
c. Ether
d. Ester
Question98
Which of the following is known as rubbing alcohol?
Choose one answer.
a. Methanol
b. Ethanol
c. Propanol
d. Isopropanol
Question99
Which of the following is known as wood alcohol?
Choose one answer.
a. Methanol
b. Ethanol
c. Propanol
d. Isopropanol
Question100
In a triple bond, how many electrons are shared?
Choose one answer.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
1
A certain reaction is zero order in reactant A and second order in reactant B. What happens to the reaction rate when the concentrations of both reactants are doubled?
Choose one answer.
a. The reaction rate remains the same.
b. The reaction increases by a factor of two.
c. The reaction increases by a factor of four.
d. The reaction increases by a factor of eight.
Question2
A rate law relates which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Reaction rate and temperature
b. Reaction rate and concentration
c. Temperature and concentration

d. Energy and concentration
Question3
Determine the overall balanced equation for a reaction that has the following proposed mechanism. Which of the following is the acceptable rate law?
Step 1: B2 + B2 → E3 + D slow
Step 2: E3 + A → B2 + C2 fast
Choose one answer.
a. B2 + B2 → E3 + D and R = [B2]2
b. A + B2→ C2 + D and R = [A] [B2]2
c. A + B2 → C2 + D and R = [B2]2
d. A + B2→ C2+ D and R = [E3] [A]
Question4
Fill in the blank. A species that changes the rate of a reaction but is neither consumed nor changed in that reaction is a(n) ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Catalyst
b. Activated complex
c. Intermediate
d. Reactant
Question5
If two molecules collide softly, what will most likely happen to the molecules?
Choose one answer.
a. The molecules will be oriented favorably.
b. The molecules will not be oriented favorably.
c. The molecules are likely to react.
d. The molecules may rebound without reacting.

Question6
The decomposition of nitrogen dioxide 2 NO2 → 2 NO + O2 occurs in a two-step sequence at elevated temperatures. The first step is NO2 → NO + O. Which of the following accurately
predicts the second step that, when combined with the first step, gives the complete reaction?
Choose one answer.
a. NO2 + O → NO + O2
b. O → NO + O2
c. NO2→ NO
d. O2→ NO + 3 O2
Question7
To be effective, a collision requires which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Enough energy
b. Favorable orientation
c. A reaction mechanism
d. Both A and B
Question8
What is the slowest step in a reaction mechanism called?
Choose one answer.
a. The rate-determining step
b. The uncatalyzed reaction
c. The activation step
Question9
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the energy of the activated complex also called transition state?
Choose one answer.
a. The transition state is lower than the energy of the reactants but higher than the energy of
the products.
b. The transition state is lower than the energy of both the reactants and the products.
c. The transition state is higher than the energy of the reactants but lower than the energy of
the products.
d. The transition state is higher than the energy of both the reactants and the products.
Question10
Fill in the blank. The sequence of steps that occurs in a reaction process is called the _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. Order of the reaction
b. Reaction mechanism
c. Overall reaction
d. Rate law
Question11
A silver chloride solution is prepared with the following ion concentrations [Ag +] = 1.0 x 10-6 M and [Cl-] = 1.0 x 10-2 M. If Ksp for AgCl = 1.8 x 10-10, then which of the following is true?
Choose one answer.
a. A precipitate will form.
b. A precipitate will not form.
c. The system is at equilibrium.
Question12
Acetic acid is a weak electrolyte, because it does which of the following?
Choose one answer.

a. Becomes miscible with water
b. Forms hydronium and hydroxide ions in aqueous solution
c. Lowers the freezing point of water
d. Ionizes only slightly in aqueous solution
Question13
How can one prepare a 1.00 L of a 0.125 M H2SO4 solution?
Choose one answer.
a. Dilute 36.0 mL of 1.25 M H2SO4 to a volume of 1.00 L.
b. Dilute 20.8 mL of 6.00 M H2SO4 to a volume of 1.00 L.
c. Add 950. mL of water to 50.0 mL of 3.00 M H2SO4.
d. Add 500. mL of water to 500. mL of 0.500 M H2SO4.
Question14
How many grams of Na3PO4 are there in 500. mL of a 0.250 M solution of Na3PO4 (molar mass = 163.94 g/mol)?
Choose one answer.
a. 2.05 g
b. 20.5 g
c. 0.125 g
d. 0.168 g
Question15
Solution A contains 0.1 mol of sucrose, C12H22O11, dissolved in 500 g of water. Solution B contains 0.1 mol of sodium chloride, NaCl, in 500 g of water. Which of the following statements about
these solutions is true?
Choose one answer.
a. Both solutions have the same vapor pressure.

b. Solution A would boil at a higher temperature than solution B would.
c. Solution A would freeze at higher temperature than solution B would.
d. Both solutions would boil at the same temperature.
Question16
The solubility of AgCl is 1.22 x 10-8 mol/L. What is the value of Ksp for AgCl?
Choose one answer.
a. 1.1 x 10⁻4
b. 1.2 x 10⁻8
c. 5.7 x 10⁻2
d. 1.5 x 10⁻16
Question17
To make a water-soluble salt using the silver cation, Ag+, what anion should be chosen?
Choose one answer.
a. NO3⁻
b. CO32⁻
c. Cl⁻
d. PO43⁻
Question18
Use the solubility rules. Which salt is insoluble in water?
Choose one answer.
a. NaBr
b. NH4Cl
c. FeS
d. (NH4)2S
Question19
Use the solubility rules. Which salt is soluble in water?
Choose one answer.
a. Fe(OH)3
b. AgCl
c. CaCl2
d. BaSO4
Question20
What is the balanced, net ionic equation for the reaction of nickel(II) chloride and sodium phosphate to give nickel(II) phosphate and sodium chloride?
Choose one answer.
a. 2 Na3PO4(aq) + 3 NiCl2(aq) → Ni3(PO4)2(s) + 6 NaCl(aq)
b. 2 Na3PO4(aq) + 3 NiCl2(aq) → Ni3(PO4)2(aq) + 6 NaCl (aq)
c. 2 PO43⁻(aq) + 3 Ni2⁺(aq) → Ni3(PO4)2(s)
d. Na⁺(aq) + Cl⁻(aq) → NaCl(aq)
Question21
What is the balanced, net ionic equation for the reaction of aluminum sulfate with sodium hydroxide?
Choose one answer.
a. Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 6 NaOH(aq) → 2 Al(OH)3(s) + 3 Na2SO4(aq)
b. Al3⁺(aq) + 3 OH⁻(aq) → Al(OH)3(s)
c. Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 6 NaOH(aq) → 2 Al(OH)3(aq) + 3 Na2SO4(s)

d. 2 Na⁺(aq) + SO42⁻(aq) → Na2SO4(s)
Question22
What is the correct expression for the solubility product constant, Ksp, for FePO4?
Choose one answer.
a. Ksp = [Fe3⁺] / [PO43⁻]3
b. Ksp = [Fe3⁺][P5⁻][O2⁻]3
c. Ksp = [Fe3⁺][PO43⁻]
d. Ksp = [Fe3⁺][PO43⁻] / [FePO4]
Question23
What is the molality of a 0.907 M Pb(NO3)2 solution? (Molar mass of Pb(NO3)2 = 331.2 g/mol; density of the solution = 1.252 g/mL.)
Choose one answer.
a. 0.953 m
b. 0.724 m
c. 0.907 m
d. 1.98 m
Question24
What is the molality of a solution containing 5.67 g glucose, C 6H12O6, dissolved in 25.2 g of water? (Molar mass of C6H12O6 = 180.2 g/mol.)
Choose one answer.
a. 0.00125 m
b. 0.225 m
c. 1.25 m
d. 0.762 m
Question25
What is the molarity of a 0.273 m KCl? (Molar mass of KCl = 74.6 g/mol; density of the solution = 1.011 g/L.)
Choose one answer.
a. 20.6 M
b. 1.0 M
c. 0.273 M
d. 0.271 M
Question26
What is the new concentration of a nitric acid made by diluting 50. mL of a 12.0 M solution to 250. mL?
Choose one answer.
a. 2.4 M
b. 60. M
c. 10. M
d. 24 M
Question27
What is the total concentration of ions in a 0.0360 M solution of Na3PO4?
Choose one answer.
a. 0.108 M
b. 0.144 M
c. 0.0360 M
d. 0.0720 M
Question28
What volume in mL of 0.453 M NaCl solution contains 25.0 g of NaCl (molar mass = 58.5 g/mol)?
Choose one answer.

a. 193 mL
b. 1000 mL
c. 943 mL
d. 453 mL
Question29
Which of the following is NOT a colligative property?
Choose one answer.
a. Molality
b. Vapor-pressure lowering
c. Boiling-point elevation
d. Osmotic pressure
Question30
Which one of the following compounds is a nonelectrolyte when dissolved in water?
Choose one answer.
a. Sodium chloride
b. Calcium chloride
c. Copper sulfate
d. Sugar
Question31
A buffer is prepared by adding 45.0 mL of 0.15 M NaF to 35.0 mL of 0.10 HF. What is the pH of the final solution? The value of Ka for HF is 6.8 x 10-4.
Choose one answer.
a. 4.65
b. 2.20
c. 7.00
d. 3.45
Question32
A solution contains 0.0128 g of HCl in 450. mL of solution. What is the pH of this solution at 25 °C?
Choose one answer.
a. 1.00
b. 7.00
c. 3.10
d. 10.89
Question33
A solution contains 0.384 g of KOH in 250. mL of solution. What is the pH of this solution at 25 °C?
Choose one answer.
a. 1.56
b. 12.44
c. 2.67
d. 11.33
Question34
An important component of blood is the buffer combination of dihydrogen phosphate ion and the hydrogen phosphate ion. The pH of blood is 7.44. What is the pH of blood, if 25% of the
hydrogen phosphate is converted to dihydrogen phosphate? The value of K a for H2PO4- is 6.2 x 10-2.
Choose one answer.
a. 2.90
b. 6.59
c. 7.44
d. 7.16
Question35
At 10 °C, Kw = 2.9 x 10-15. What is [OH-] in neutral water at 10 °C?
Choose one answer.
a. 4.44 x 10⁻6 M
b. 1.00 x 10⁻7 M
c. 1.70 x 10⁻7 M
d. 5.39 x 10⁻8 M
Question36
At 50 °C, Kw = 5.48 x 10-14. What is [OH-] in water of pH = 3 at 50 °C?
Choose one answer.
a. 1.00 x 10⁻3 M
b. 5.48 x 10⁻11 M
c. 5.48 x 10⁻7 M
d. 2.74 x 10⁻7 M
Question37
HC2Cl3O2 is a stronger acid than HCHO2. What is the direction of the equilibrium of the following reaction?
HC2Cl3O2(aq) + CHO2-(aq) → C2Cl3O2-(aq) + HCHO2(aq)
Choose one answer.

Question38
H3PO4 is a stronger acid than NH4+. What is the direction of the equilibrium of the following reaction?
NH4+(aq) + H2PO4-(aq) → NH3(aq) + H3PO4(aq)
Choose one answer.
Question39
The following solutions are mixed in equimolar portions. Will the resulting solution be acidic, basic, neutral, or is there not enough information given?
HCl(aq) + NaHCO3(aq) → ?
Choose one answer.
a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Neutral
Question40
What are the products of the following acid-base reaction?
HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → ?
Choose one answer.
a. H3O⁺(aq) + OH⁻(aq)
b. Na⁺(aq) + Cl⁻(aq)
c. H2O(l) + NaCl(aq)
d. No reaction takes place.
Question41
What is a Brønsted-Lowry acid?
Choose one answer.
a. A proton donor
Question42
What is a Lewis acid?
Choose one answer.
a. A proton donor
Question43
What is a Lewis base?
Choose one answer.
a. A proton donor
c. An electron pair acceptor
Question44
What is the pH of a buffer solution that is 0.15 M chloroacetic acid and 0.10 M sodium chloroacetate? The value of K a for chloroacetic acid is 1.3 x 10-3.
Choose one answer.
a. 11.3
b. 3.76
c. 2.68
d. 3.91
Question45
What is the pH of the buffer solution that consists of 0.15 M pyridine and 0.10 M pyridinium bromide? The value of K b for pyridine is 1.4 x 109.
Choose one answer.
a. 6.60
b. 3.50
c. 5.32
d. 7.00
Question46
What is the [OH-] of a 5.43 x 10-4 M solution of HNO3 at 25 °C?
Choose one answer.
a. 1.84 x 10⁻11 M
b. 5.43 x 10⁻10 M
c. 5.43 x 10⁻4 M
d. 3.67 x 10⁻8 M
Question47
What will happen to the pH a solution of NH3 by adding HCl?
Choose one answer.

a. The pH will increase.
b. The pH will decrease.
c. The addition of HCl will not change the pH of the solution.
d. There is not enough information given to determine this.
Question48
Which of the following is an acid-base conjugate pair?
Choose one answer.
a. HF and F⁻
b. HNO2 and NO3⁻
c. HClO and Cl⁻
d. H2CO3 and CO32⁻
Question49
Which of the following is NOT an acid-base conjugate pair?
Choose one answer.
a. HCN and CN⁻
b. HNO3 and NO3⁻
c. HCl and ClO⁻
d. NH4⁺ and NH3
Question50
What is a Brønsted-Lowry base?
Choose one answer.
a. A proton donor
c. A hydroxide donor
Question51
A particular voltaic cell operates on the following reaction.
Zn(s) + Cl2(g) → Zn2+(aq) + 2 Cl-(aq)
Given an emf of 0.853 V, calculate the maximum electrical work generated when 20.0 g of zinc metal is consumed.
Choose one answer.
a. -8.23 x 104 J
b. -1.65 x 105 J
c. -5.03 x 104 J
d. -2.51 x 104 J
Question52
A voltaic cell has the following reaction.
Zn(s) + 2 Fe3+(aq) → 2 Fe2+(aq) + Zn2+(aq) E° = 0.72 V
What is the maximum electrical work that can be obtained from this cell per mole of iron (III) ion?
Choose one answer.
a. +69 kJ
b. -140 kJ
c. -69 kJ
d. 1.4 J
Question53
Cadmium reacts spontaneously with copper(II) ion.
Cd(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Cd2+(aq) + Cu(s)
What are the half reactions for this reaction?
Choose one answer.

a. Cd(s) + 2e⁻ → Cd2⁺(aq) and Cu2⁺(aq) + 2e⁻ → Cu(s)
b. Cd(s) → Cd2⁺(aq) + 2e⁻ and Cu2⁺(aq) → Cu(s) + 2e⁻
c. Cd(s) → Cd2⁺(aq) + e⁻ and Cu2⁺(aq) + e⁻ → Cu(s)
d. Cd(s) → Cd2⁺(aq) + 2e⁻ and Cu2⁺(aq) + 2e⁻ → Cu(s)
Question54
Calculate the emf for a cell operating with the following reaction:
Cr2O72-(aq) + 6 I-(aq) + 14 H+(aq) → 2 Cr3+(aq) + 3 I2(s) + 7 H2O(l),
where [Cr2O72-] = 0.020 M, [I-] = 0.015 M, [Cr3+] = 0.20 M and [H+] = 0.50 M, using the following standard reduction potentials:
Cr2O72-(aq) + 14 H+(aq) + 6 e- → 2 Cr3+(aq) + 7 H2O(l) E° = +1.33 V
I2(s) + 2 e- → 2 I-(aq) E° = +0.54 V
Choose one answer.
a. +1.87 V
b. -1.87 V
c. +0.79 V
d. +0.64 V
Question55
Calculate the equilibrium constant K for the following reaction at 25 °C.
2 Fe3+(aq) + Cu(s) → 2 Fe2+(aq) + Cu2+(aq) E° = +0.43 V
Choose one answer.
a. 7.26
b. 0.43
c. 3.4 x 1014
d. 1.7 x 107
Question56
Calculate ΔG° for the following reaction at 25 °C.
3 Cu(s) + 2 NO3-(aq) + 8 H+(aq) → 3 Cu2+(aq) + 2 NO(g) + 4 H2O(l) E° = +0.62 V
Choose one answer.
a. -3.6 x 105 J
b. -6.0 x 104 J
c. 3.6 x 105 J
d. 1.2 x 105 J
Question57
Fill in the blank. When a piece of iron is left outside, it will rust. In this situation, the iron atoms are _______________.
Choose one answer.
a. Losing electrons
b. Gaining electrons
c. Staying neutral
d. Combining with nitrogen gas from the air
Question58
Given the following two half reactions,
Cd2+(aq) + 2e- → Cd(s) E° = -0.40 V
2 Ag+(aq) + 2e- → 2 Ag(s) E° = 0.80 V
determine E° and the spontaneity of the following reaction:
2 Ag+(aq) + Cd(s) → 2 Ag(s) + Cd2+(aq)
Choose one answer.
a. +0.40 V and not spontaneous
b. +1.20 V and spontaneous
c. +1.20 V and not spontaneous
d. -0.40 V and spontaneous
Question59
Cl2(g) + 2e- → 2 Cl-(aq) E° = +1.36 V
I2(g) + 2e- → 2 I-(s) E° = +0.54 V
calculate ΔG° for the following reaction:
2 I-(aq) + Cl2(g) → 2 Cl-(aq) + I2(s).
Choose one answer.
a. -1.6 kJ
b. -7.9 x 104 J
c. -1.6 x 105 J
d. -79 kJ
Question60
Sn2+(aq) + 2e- → Sn(s) E° = -0.14 V
Cu2+(aq) + 2e- → Cu(s) E° = +0.34 V
calculate the standard emf for the following reaction:
Sn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Sn2+(aq) + Cu(s).
Choose one answer.
a. 0.96 V
b. -0.48 V
c. +0.20 V
d. 0.48 V
Question61
Cr3+(aq) + 3e- → Cr(s) E° = -0.74 V
Hg22+(aq) + 2e- → Hg(l) E° = +0.80 V
calculate the standard emf for the following cell:
Cr | Cr3+|| Hg22+| Hg
Choose one answer.
a. -0.06 V
b. -1.54 V
c. +1.54 V
d. +0.06 V
Question62
How many coulombs of charge are required to form 1.00 pound of Al(s) from an Al 3+ salt?
Choose one answer.
a. 4.87 x 106
b. 50.5
c. 1.62 x 106
d. 454
Question63
If we wish to convert 1.00 g of Au3+(aq) ion into Au(s) in a "gold-plating" process, how long must we electrolyze a solution if the current passing through the circuit is 2.00 amps?
Choose one answer.
a. 245 sec
b. 0.50 sec
c. 0.015 sec
d. 735 sec
Question64
Of the following four reactions, how many are oxidation-reduction reactions?
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
Cu + 2 AgNO3 → 2 Ag + Cu(NO3)2
Mg(OH)2 → MgO + H2O
N2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3
Choose one answer.
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
Question65
The voltaic cell Cd | Cd2+|| Ni2+| Ni has an E° of 0.170 V. If the standard reduction potential of Ni 2+/Ni is E° = -0.23 V, what is the standard reduction potential for Cd2+/Cd?
Choose one answer.
a. +0.06 V
b. -0.06 V
c. -0.40 V
d. +0.40 V
Question66
The voltaic cell Cd | Cd2+|| Ni2+ (1.0M)| Ni has an electromotive force of 0.240 V at 25 °C. What is the concentration of cadmium ion? (Please note that E° = 0.170 V.)
Choose one answer.
a. 0.06 M
b. 0.04 M
c. 0.004 M
d. 1.0 M
Question67
What are the half reactions for the electrolysis of LiCl(l)?
Choose one answer.
a. Cathode: Li⁺(l) → Li(l) + e⁻ and Anode: 2 Cl⁻(l) → Cl2(g) + 2 e⁻
b. Cathode: Li⁺(l) → Li(l) + e⁻ and Anode: 2 Cl⁻(l) + 2 e⁻ → Cl2(g)
c. Cathode: 2 Cl⁻(l) → Cl2(g) + 2 e⁻ and Anode: Li⁺(l) + e⁻ → Li(l)

d. Cathode: Li⁺(l) + e⁻ → Li(l) and Anode: 2 Cl⁻(l) → Cl2(g) + 2 e⁻
Question68
What is the cell notation for a voltaic cell with the following equation?
Pb2+(aq) + Cd(s) → Pb(s) + Cd2+(aq)
Choose one answer.
a. Pb | Pb2⁺|| Cd2⁺| Cd
b. Pb2⁺ | Pb || Cd | Cd2⁺
c. Cd | Cd2⁺|| Pb2⁺ | Pb
d. Cd | Pb2⁺|| Pb | Cd2⁺
Question69
What is the correct balanced equation for the following oxidation-reduction reaction?
Cr2O72- + C2O42- → Cr3+ + CO2
Choose one answer.
a. Cr2O72⁻ + 3 C2O42⁻ → 2 Cr3⁺ + 6 CO2
b. 28 H⁺ + 2 Cr2O72⁻ + 3 C2O42⁻ → 4 Cr3⁺ + 6 CO2 + 14 H2O
c. 14 H⁺ + Cr2O72⁻ + C2O42⁻ → Cr3⁺ + 2 CO2 + 7 H2O
d. 14 H⁺ + Cr2O72⁻ + 3 C2O42⁻ → 2 Cr3⁺ + 6 CO2 + 7 H2O
Question70
What is the overall cell reaction for the following voltaic cell?
Fe | Fe2+|| Ag+| Ag
Choose one answer.
a. Ag⁺(aq) + Fe(s) → Ag(s) + Fe2⁺(aq)
b. 2 Ag⁺(aq) + Fe(s) → 2 Ag(s) + Fe2⁺(aq)
c. 2 Ag(s) + Fe2⁺(aq) → 2 Ag⁺(aq) + Fe(s)

d. Fe(s) + Fe2⁺(aq) → Ag⁺(aq) + Ag(s)
Question71
Fill in the blank. In the reaction Cu(s) + 4HNO3(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2NO2(g) + 2H2O(l), copper is __________.
Choose one answer.
a. Reduced
b. Electrolyzed
c. Synthesized
d. Oxidized
Question72
Beta decay of the nucleus of produces which of the following nuclide?
Choose one answer.
a. Ra
b. Ac
c. Pa
d. U
Question73
Sodium is a very reactive metal. Its ion is found in table salt. While non-radioactive sodium is abundant, there exists a radioactive isotope of sodium, Sodium-24. Its half life is 15 hours. If
after 60 hours, about 6 grams remain, then what was the original mass of the sodium-24 sample?
Choose one answer.
a. 50 g
b. 40 g
c. 100 g
d. 60 g
Question74
Technetium-99 has a half-life of 6.0 hrs. What fraction of Technetium-99 in the sample will remain undecayed after 36 hours?
Choose one answer.
a. 1/8
b. 1/64
c. 1/32
d. 1/16
Question75
The half life of Colbalt-60 is 5.2 years. What happens to an aliquot of cobalt-60 after 5.2 years?
Choose one answer.
a. The concentration decreases by half.
b. The cobalt changes to cobalt-30.
c. The cobalt-60 atom breaks in half.
d. The concentration doubles.
Question76
What are beta particles?
Choose one answer.
a. Highly active electrons diffused from radioactive nuclei
b. Less active protons diffused from standard nuclei
c. Highly active neutrons in radioactive nuclei
d. X-rays that allow radioactive nuclei's to be viewed
Question77
What is the amount of radioactive sample that has NOT decayed after three-half lives have elapsed?
Choose one answer.

a. 1/3 the original amount
b. 1/9 the original amount
c. ¼ the original amount
d. 1/8 the original amount
Question78
What is the correct alternate notation for gold-197?
Choose one answer.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Question79
What is the half-life of a radioactive nuclide?
Choose one answer.
a. The period of time in which 25% of the original number of atoms undergoes radioactive decay
b. The time at which the isotope becomes non radioactive
c. The period of time in which 50% of the original number of atoms undergoes radioactive
d. The period of time it takes to reduce radioactivity by 100%
Question80
Which nuclide contains 11 protons, 11 electrons, and 14 neutrons?
Choose one answer.
a. Silicon-11
b. Silicon-14
c. Sodium-11
d. Sodium-25
Question81
Which of the following best describes how the atomic number changes when a nucleus captures an electron?
Choose one answer.
a. It will increase by one.
b. It will decrease by one.
c. It will not change, because the electron has such a small mass.
d. It will increase by two.
Question82
Which of the following elements is the daughter nuclide for the alpha decay of polonium-212?
Choose one answer.
a. Lead-208
b. Lead-216
c. Radon-208
d. Radon-216
Question83
Which type of radiation has the most penetrating ability?
Choose one answer.
a. An alpha particle
b. A beta particle
c. A gamma ray
d. A neutron
Question84
Which of the following processes is NOT an example of a spontaneous radioactive process?
Choose one answer.
a. Alpha-decay
b. Auto ionization
c. Positron production
d. Beta-decay
Question85
Fill in the blank. CH3CH2CH2C≡CCH2CH2Cl is named __________.
Choose one answer.
a. 7-chloro-4-heptyne
b. 5-chloro-2-heptene
c. 1-acetylenenyl-3-chloropropane
d. 1-chloro-3-heptyne
Question86
How many structural isomers does butane have?
Choose one answer.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Question87
How many types of alkyl groups can arise from propane?
Choose one answer.
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
Question88
Kira was doing some organic chemistry nomenclature problem. She gave a molecule the following name: 2-Methyl-4-methylhexane. While one can correctly draw the molecule from the name
she gave, the name violates the IUPAC rules. What is the IUPAC name of the molecule?
Choose one answer.
a. 2,4-dimethylhexane
b. 3-Methyl-5-methylhexane
c. 3,5-dimethylhexane
d. 1-isopropyl-2-methylbutane
Question89
Nylon is an example of which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Copolymer
b. Homopolymer
c. Dimer
Question90
Teflon is an example of which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Copolymer
b. Homopolymer
c. Dimer
Question91
The name methanal is the IUPAC name for which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Acetone
b. Formaldehyde
c. Water
d. Rubbing alcohol
Question92
What is the general name given to hydrocarbons with double bonds?
Choose one answer.
a. Alkenes
b. Alkynes
c. Alkanes
d. Aromatic hydrocarbons
Question93
What is the name of the following molecule?
CH3-(CH2)7-CH3
Choose one answer.

a. Heptane
b. Hexane
c. Octane
d. Nonane
Question94
Which of the following accurately provides the generalized molecular formulas for alkanes and alkenes respectively?
Choose one answer.
a. CnH2n+2 and CnH2n
b. CnH2n and CnH2n+2
c. CnH2n+2 and CnH2n-2
d. CnH2n and CnH2n+1
Question95
Which of the following CANNOT form alkenes?
Choose one answer.
a. Methane
b. Ethane
c. Propane
d. All of the above
Question96
Which of the following has the greatest number of C-O bonds?
Choose one answer.
a. Ketone
b. Ester
c. Alcohol
d. Amine
Question97
Which of the following has the least number of C-O bonds?
Choose one answer.
a. Ketone
b. Alcohol
c. Ether
d. Ester
Question98
Which of the following is known as rubbing alcohol?
Choose one answer.
a. Methanol
b. Ethanol
c. Propanol
d. Isopropanol
Question99
Which of the following is known as wood alcohol?
Choose one answer.
a. Methanol
b. Ethanol
c. Propanol
d. Isopropanol
Question100
In a triple bond, how many electrons are shared?
Choose one answer.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

Chemistry and Biology Multiple Choice Questions

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Chemistry and Biology Multiple Choice Questions

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1

A reaction with a delta G of zero:

Choose one answer.

d. None of the above

Choose one answer.

d. None of the above

Choose one answer.

d. None of the above

a. Van der Waals interactions

d. All of the above

Choose one answer.

a. The degree of disorder of a system

b. The degree of energy of a system

c. A type of noncovalent bond

d. A type of covalent bond

Choose one answer.

Choose one answer.

b. The disorder of a system

c. The speed at which a reaction will occur

Choose one answer.

Choose one answer.

d. Van der Waals interactions

Choose one answer.

a. Is non-superimposable on its mirror image

d. Contains a sulfur atom

Choose one answer.

a. Has a positive charge

b. Has a negative charge

c. Overall, has no charge

d. All of the above

Choose one answer.

b. Amine, carboxylic acid

d. None of the above

Choose one answer.

a. Are made by organisms

b. Must be obtained from dietary sources

Choose one answer.

d. None of the above

Choose one answer.

Choose one answer.

Choose one answer.

Choose one answer.

Choose one answer.

Choose one answer.

a. Provided in the diet

d. None of the above

Choose one answer.

Choose one answer.

d. All of the above

Choose one answer.

Choose one answer.

d. All of the above

Choose one answer.

d. None of the above

Choose one answer.

c. Amino acid sequence

d. None of the above

Choose one answer.

Choose one answer.

d. None of the above

Choose one answer.

d. All of the above