GATE CHEMICAL ENGINEERING 2016-2018 QUESTION PAPER & ANSWER KEY

GATE
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
2016-2018
QUESTION PAPER & ANSWER KEY

GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-4
Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 “When she fell down the _______, she received many _______ but little help.”
The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are
(A) stairs, stares (B) stairs, stairs

(C) stares, stairs (D) stares, stares
Q.2 “In spite of being warned repeatedly, he failed to correct his _________ behaviour.”
The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is
(A) rational (B) reasonable (C) errant (D) good
Q.3 For 0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 2𝜋, sin 𝑥 and cos 𝑥 are both decreasing functions in the interval ________.
𝜋 𝜋 3𝜋 3𝜋
(A) (0, 2 ) (B) ( 2 , 𝜋) (C) (𝜋, ) (D) ( 2 , 2𝜋)
2
Q.4 The area of an equilateral triangle is √3. What is the perimeter of the triangle?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
Q.5 Arrange the following three-dimensional objects in the descending order of their volumes:
(i) A cuboid with dimensions 10 cm, 8 cm and 6 cm
(ii) A cube of side 8 cm
(iii) A cylinder with base radius 7 cm and height 7 cm
(iv) A sphere of radius 7 cm
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(C) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
(D) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.
Q.6 An automobile travels from city A to city B and returns to city A by the same route. The
speed of the vehicle during the onward and return journeys were constant at 60 km/h and
90 km/h, respectively. What is the average speed in km/h for the entire journey?
(A) 72 (B) 73 (C) 74 (D) 75
GA 1/2
GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-4
Q.7 A set of 4 parallel lines intersect with another set of 5 parallel lines. How many
parallelograms are formed?
(A) 20 (B) 48 (C) 60 (D) 72
Q.8 To pass a test, a candidate needs to answer at least 2 out of 3 questions correctly. A total of
6,30,000 candidates appeared for the test. Question A was correctly answered by 3,30,000
candidates. Question B was answered correctly by 2,50,000 candidates. Question C was
answered correctly by 2,60,000 candidates. Both questions A and B were answered
correctly by 1,00,000 candidates. Both questions B and C were answered correctly by
90,000 candidates. Both questions A and C were answered correctly by 80,000 candidates.
If the number of students answering all questions correctly is the same as the number
answering none, how many candidates failed to clear the test?
(A) 30,000 (B) 2,70,000 (C) 3,90,000 (D) 4,20,000
1
Q.9 If 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 − 1 = 0 what is the value of 𝑥 4 + ?
𝑥4
(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9
Q.10 In a detailed study of annual crow births in India, it was found that there was relatively no
growth during the period 2002 to 2004 and a sudden spike from 2004 to 2005. In another
unrelated study, it was found that the revenue from cracker sales in India which remained
fairly flat from 2002 to 2004, saw a sudden spike in 2005 before declining again in 2006.
The solid line in the graph below refers to annual sale of crackers and the dashed line refers
to the annual crow births in India. Choose the most appropriate inference from the above
data.
(A) There is a strong correlation between crow birth and cracker sales.
(B) Cracker usage increases crow birth rate.
(C) If cracker sale declines, crow birth will decline.
(D) Increased birth rate of crows will cause an increase in the sale of crackers.
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
GA 2/2
GATE 2018 CHEMICAL ENGINEERING

Q.1 Consider the following two equations:
dx
 x y 0
dt
dy
x0
dt
The above set of equations is represented by
d 2 y dy d 2 x dx
(A)  y0 (B)  y0
dt 2 dt dt 2 dt
d 2 y dy d 2 x dx
(C)  y0 (D)   y0
dt 2 dt dt 2 dt
Q.2 The fourth order Runge-Kutta (RK4) method to solve an ordinary differential equation
dy
 f ( x, y ) is given as
dx
1
y ( x  h)  y ( x)   k1  2k2  2k3  k4 
6
k1  h f ( x, y )
 h k 
k2  h f  x  , y  1 
 2 2
 h k 
k3  h f  x  , y  2 
 2 2
k 4  h f  x  h, y  k 3 
For a special case when the function f depends solely on x, the above RK4 method reduces
to
(A) Euler’s explicit method (B) Trapezoidal rule
(C) Euler’s implicit method (D) Simpson’s 1/3 rule
Q.3 A watch uses two electronic circuits (ECs). Each EC has a failure probability of 0.1 in one
year of operation. Both ECs are required for functioning of the watch. The probability of
the watch functioning for one year without failure is
(A) 0.99 (B) 0.90 (C) 0.81 (D) 0.80
CH 1/17
Q.4 sin x
The figure which represents y  for x > 0 (x in radians) is
x
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
CH 2/17
Q.5 The terminal velocity of a spherical particle in gravitational settling under Stokes’ regime
varies
(A) linearly with the particle diameter
(B) linearly with the viscosity of the liquid
(C) directly with the square of particle diameter
(D) inversely with the density of particle
Q.6 Critical speed of a ball mill depends on
(A) the radius of the mill (shell) and the radius of the particles
(B) the radius of the mill (shell) and the density of the particles
(C) the radius of the balls and the radius of the particles
(D) the radius of the balls and the radius of the mill (shell)
Q.7 Economy of evaporators used for concentrating sugarcane juice is
kg of concentrated juice produced

(A) kg of steam supplied
kg of steam supplied
(B)
kg of sugarcane juice fed
kg of water vaporized
(C)
kg of steam supplied
kg of sugarcane juice fed

(D)
kg of water vaporized
CH 3/17
Q.8 Segmental baffles in a 2-4 shell and tube heat exchanger
(A) change the flow pattern of the tube side fluid and increase the overall heat transfer co-
efficient
(B) increase the heat transfer coefficient in the shell side and support the tubes
(C) help to reduce the thermal expansion of the tubes and increase the heat transfer
coefficient in the tube side
(D) increase the number of passes in the shell side and increase the heat transfer coefficient
in the tube side
Q.9 In connection with petroleum refining, identify the incorrect statement among the
following options.
(A) Desalting of crude oil is done before processing it in atmospheric distillation unit
(B) A stream of hydrogen is produced in catalytic reforming of naphtha
(C) Asphalt used for paving is a petroleum product
(D) Cetane number indicates the quality of petrol / motor spirit
Q.10 Polyvinyl chloride is produced by
(A) co-polymerization
(B) addition-type kinetics
(C) reacting chlorine with polyethylene
(D) reacting hydrochloric acid with polyethylene
Q.11 The molecular formula of the predominant chemical compound in commercial sugar is
(A) C12H22O11 (B) C12H24O12 (C) C6H10O5 (D) C6H12O6
CH 4/17
Q.12 Two packed towers are designed for the same mass velocity of the gas. The first has liquid
and gas flow rates of 30 kg/s and 1.2 kg/s, respectively, while the corresponding flow rates
in the second tower are 67.5 kg/s and 1.8 kg/s. The ratio of the design diameter of the wider
tower to that of the narrower tower is
(A) 2 (B) 1.8 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.225
Q.13 The Annual Fixed Charges (AFC) and Annual Utilities Costs (AUC) of a distillation
column being designed are expressed in terms of the reflux ratio (R) as
AFC (Rs. Lakh) = 641 R 2  1796  R  1287  1/  R  1.16 

AUC (Rs. Lakh) = 80  62.5  R
The reflux ratio (Ropt) for optimizing the total cost of the distillation column may be found
by solving
 
2
(A) 1282  R opt  1796  1/ R opt –1.16 0
 
2
(B) 62.5  1282  R opt  1796  1/ R opt –1.16 0
(C) 80  62.5  R opt  641 R opt

2
 1796  R opt  1287  1/  R opt –1.16   0
(D) 80  62.5  R opt  641 R opt

2
 1796  R opt  1287  1/  R opt –1.16   0
Q.14 Consider the following properties:
(P) temperature (Q) specific gravity

(R) chemical potential (S) volume
The option which lists ALL the intensive properties is
(A) P (B) P and Q
(C) P, Q and R (D) P, Q, R and S
CH 5/17
Q.15 Liquid phase isomerization of o-xylene to p-xylene using a zeolite catalyst was carried out
in a CSTR. Three sets of kinetic data at different temperatures and stirring speeds were
obtained as shown below.
The operating condition at which the reaction rate is not controlled by external mass
transfer resistance is
(A) T = 500 K; rpm = 3000
(B) T = 600 K; rpm = 1000
(C) T = 700 K; rpm = 1000
(D) T = 700 K; rpm = 2000
Q.16 Choose the correct statement
In viscose rayon manufacturing process,
(A) carbon disulphide used as reactant for xanthate formation is regenerated in a later step
(B) caustic soda used as reactant for steeping of cellulose is regenerated in a later step
(C) sulphuric acid is used in steeping process of cellulose
(D) the spun viscose rayon is hardened in an alkali bath
CH 6/17
Q.17 The reactant (M) is converted into product (N) in the presence of catalyst in a fixed bed
reactor. All the flow rates (F, G, H, P and R) in mol/s, and mole fraction of reactant (M) in
these streams (xF, xG, xH, xP and xR) are shown in the diagram.
The overall fractional conversion is
xG G  xH H xG G  xP P
(A) (B)
xG G xG G
xF F  xH H xF F  x P P
(C) (D)
xF F xF F
Q.18 2
A first-order process having a transfer function, G p  is controlled by a proportional
7s  1
controller with gain of 3.2 . The process time constant is in minutes. Addition of the
integral control action with an integral time constant of 5 minutes leads to increase in
(A) offset (B) speed of response
(C) order of the closed loop system (D) proportional band
Q.19 According to the surface renewal theory, the unit of fractional rate of surface renewal is
(A) m2 s-2 (B) m2 s-1 (C) m s-1 (D) s-1
CH 7/17
Q.20 For absorption of H2S from a mixture with hydrocarbon vapour into an aqueous
alkanolamine solution, the liquid phase mass transfer resistance is
(A) significantly higher than that of the gas phase
(B) negligible compared to that of the gas phase
(C) equal to that of the gas phase
(D) dependent on the gas phase mass transfer resistance
Q.21 For a chemical reaction, the ratio of rate constant at 500 K to that at 400 K is 2.5. Given R
= 8.314 J mol-1 K-1, the value of activation energy (in kJ/mol) is
(A) 10.5 (B) 12.0 (C) 15.2 (D) 18.4
Q.22 Pitot tube is used to measure
(A) liquid level in a tank
(B) flow velocity at a point
(C) angular deformation
(D) vorticity
Q.23 A venturi meter is installed to measure the flow rate of water in a 178 mm diameter (ID)
pipe. The throat diameter is 102 mm. The differential pressure measured using a
manometer is 154.3 kN/m2. The data given are:
discharge coefficient = 0.98; water density = 1000 kg/m3.
The volumetric flow rate of water (in m3/s) is _________.
Q.24 The ammonia (NH3) oxidation process occurs over a catalyst as
4 NH 3  5O2  6 H 2O  4 NO
Air is supplied such that oxygen (O2) is 20% in excess of that required for complete
conversion of NH3. The mole fraction of O2 in inlet gas mixture (NH3 + air) is ______
(rounded off to third decimal place)
CH 8/17
Q.25 The initial water level in a tank is 4 m. When the valve located at the bottom is opened, the
dL
rate of change of water level (L) with respect to time (t) is,  k t , where
dt
k  0.6 m s 3/2 . The level of water (in m) in the tank at time 0.5 s after opening the valve is
____________ (rounded off to second decimal place).
Q.26 Match the equipment in Column A with the corresponding process in Column B
Column A Column B
(P) Centrifugal sifter (I) Mixing
(Q) Bowl mill (II) Sedimentation
(R) Gravity thickener (III) Screening
(S) Two-arm kneader (IV) Grinding
(A) P-I, Q-IV, R-II, S-III (B) P-III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I
(C) P-IV, Q-I, R-II, S-III (D) P-IV, Q-III, R-I, S-II
Q.27 In the year 2005, the cost of a shell and tube heat exchanger with 68 m 2 heat transfer area
was Rs. 12.6 Lakh. Chemical Engineering Index for cost in 2005 was 509.4 and now the
index is 575.4. Based on index of 0.6 for capacity scaling, the present cost (in Lakhs of
rupees) of a similar heat exchanger having 100 m2 heat transfer area is estimated to be
(A) 17.94 (B) 19.94 (C) 20.94 (D) 22.94
Q.28 A furnace installed at a cost of Rs. 24 Lakh is expected to serve its useful life of 5 years.
Salvage value of the furnace is Rs. 8 Lakh. The interest rate compounded annually is 8%.
The estimated capitalized cost (in Lakhs of rupees) is
(A) 30 (B) 34.09 (C) 34.9 (D) 58.09
CH 9/17
Q.29 G denotes the Gibbs free energy of a binary mixture, nT denotes the total number of moles
present in the system, i is the chemical potential of the ith component
( i  0 and 1   2 ) and xi is the mole fraction of the ith component. The correct variation
of G/nT (in J/mol) at constant temperature and pressure is given by
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
CH 10/17
Q.30 A person is drowning in sea at location R and the lifeguard is standing at location P. The
beach boundary is straight and horizontal, as shown in the figure.
The lifeguard runs at a speed of VL and swims at a speed of VS. In order to reach to the
drowning person in optimum time, the lifeguard should choose point Q such that
sin 2 θ L VS sin θ L VS
(A)  (B) 
sin 2 θ S VL sin θ S VL
sin 2 θ L VL sin θ L VL
(C)  (D) 
sin 2 θ S VS sin θ S VS
Q.31 The decay ratio for a system having complex conjugate poles as
 1 2  1 2
   j  and    j  is
 10 15   10 15 
(A) 7 101 (B) 8 102 (C) 9 103 (D) 10 104
CH 11/17
Q.32 Match the items in Column A with the items in Column B
Column A Column B
(P) Pure dead-time (I)   90 0
(Q) Pure capacitive (II) K 1  K 2 with K 2   K 1

s  s 1
(R) Inverse response
(III) 0 < AR < 1
(S) First-order process with unit gain (IV) AR = 1
Here,  denotes the phase shift, K1 and K2 the process gains,  the time constant, and AR
the amplitude ratio.
(A) P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I (B) P-III, Q-II, R-IV, S-I
(C) P-I, Q-IV, R-II, S-III (D) P-IV, Q-I, R-II, S-III
Q.33 In a laboratory batch setup, reaction of P over a catalyst was studied at various
temperatures. The reactions occurring are
P  2Q ; P  R
At the end of one hour of operation, the batch contains xP, xQ and xR mole fractions of P, Q
and R components, respectively. The mole fractions of product components (xQ and xR)
were found to vary linearly with temperature as given in the figure.
If the yield of Q based on reactant P consumed (YQ) at 25 oC was found to be 0.40, then the
value of YQ at 60 oC is ____________ (rounded off to second decimal place).
CH 12/17
Q.34 An insulated storage tank contains 1000 kg liquid of specific heat 10 kJ kg-1 K-1. The liquid
is heated by saturated steam, condensing in a helical coil at a temperature of 180 oC. The
heat transfer area of the coil is 0.1 m2. If the overall heat transfer coefficient is constant at
1000 W m-2 K-1, then the time (in hours) required to raise the temperature of the liquid in
the tank from 20 oC to 80 oC is ____________ (rounded off to second decimal place).
Q.35 The wall of a pipe of radius 1 m is at a uniform temperature of 200 oC, and is covered by
insulation of thickness 0.1 m. The ambient air outside the insulated pipe is at 20 oC and has
heat transfer coefficient of 10 W m-2 K-1. The thermal conductivity of the insulation
material is 0.05 W m-1 K-1. If the heat transfer occurs at steady state, the temperature (in
o
C) of the outer surface of insulation is __________ (rounded off to second decimal place).
Q.36 Vapour bubbles are formed in the nucleate boiling regime at a frequency of 10 bubbles per
second per nucleation site. There are 100 nucleation sites per m2 of heating area. The latent
heat of vapourization and the density of vapour under the operating condition are
1000 kJ/kg and 1 kg/m3 respectively. The diameter of each bubble is 10-3 m. Assume that
the entire heat supplied is used for vapour generation. The heat flux (in Watt per m2 of
heating area) is ______________ (rounded off to third decimal place).
Q.37 Under isothermal condition, a vertical tube of length L = 100 m contains a gas of molecular
weight equal to 60. The pressure and temperature at the top of the tube are 100 kPa and
25 oC respectively. Consider the universal gas constant and acceleration due to gravity as
8.314 J mol-1 K-1 and 9.81 m s-2 respectively. If the gas is ideal, the pressure (in kPa) at the
bottom of the tube will be ____________ (rounded off to third decimal place).
Q.38 At a shear rate of 10 s-1, the apparent viscosity of a non-Newtonian liquid was found to be
1 Pa s. At a shear rate of 100 s-1, the apparent viscosity of the same liquid was found to be
0.5 Pa s. If the liquid follows power law behavior, the apparent viscosity (in Pa s) at a shear
stress of 10 N m-2 is _____________ (rounded off to two decimal place).
CH 13/17
Q.39 A CSTR and a PFR of equal volume are connected in series as shown below to carry out a
first-order, isothermal, liquid phase reaction
A→P
The rate constant is 0.2 s-1. The space-time is 5 s for both the reactors. The overall
fractional conversion of A is ____________ (rounded off to third decimal place).
Q.40 The elementary second-order liquid phase reaction A + B → C + D is carried out in an

isothermal plug flow reactor of 2 m3 volume. The inlet volumetric flow rate is 10 m3/h. The
initial concentrations of both A and B are 2 kmol/m3. The rate constant is given as
2.5 m3 kmol-1 h-1. The percentage conversion of A is ____________.
Q.41 It is decided to extract A from a feed containing 20 mol% A and 80 mol% B in two ideal
cross-current stages as shown below, using equal amount of pure solvent C in each stage.
Components B and C are immiscible. 60% of A in the feed is extracted in Stage 1. The
equilibrium relation is given by Y* = 1.5 X where,
X = moles of A per mole of B in raffinate
Y* = moles of A per mole of C in extract in equilibrium with raffinate
The mol % of A in raffinate from Stage 2 is __________ (rounded off to second decimal
place).
CH 14/17
Q.42 A binary distillation column is designed by McCabe-Thiele method to get a distillate mole
fraction of 0.9. The enriching section operating line has an intercept with y-axis at 0.3 mole
fraction. The ratio of liquid to vapour molar flow rate in the enriching section is
_____________ (rounded off to third decimal place).
Q.43 A fiberboard sheet (1.5 m × 2.0 m × 15 mm) is being dried by suspending it horizontally in
a current of hot, dry air. The edges are insulated so that drying takes place only from the
top and bottom surfaces. The wet sheet weighing 16 kg with initial moisture content of
60% loses moisture at a constant rate of 1.25 × 10-5 kg m-2 s-1 until the moisture content
falls to 30%. All moisture contents are on dry basis. The time required for drying during
constant rate period (in hour) is _____________ (rounded off to third decimal place).
Q.44 Consider the following transfer function:
3
G( s) 
(5s  1)
2
where, the natural period of oscillation is in min. The amplitude ratio at a frequency of 0.5
rad/min is_____________ (rounded off to second decimal place).
Q.45 For a closed-loop system, consider the following transfer functions:

process Gp(s), controller Gc(s), measuring device Gm(s), and final control element Gf(s)
2
G p( s)  ; G c(s)  2 ; G m(s)  1 ; G f ( s)  1
7s  1
The offset in the closed loop response due to a unit step change introduced in the set point
of the output variable is ________.
1 dy
If y  e x then the value of lim
2
is ________
Q.46 x  x dx
Q.47  cos   sin  

For the matrix A   T
 if det stands for the determinant and A is the
 sin  cos  
transpose of A then the value of det( AT A ) is ____________
CH 15/17
Q.48 An azeotropic mixture of ethanol and water is to be separated in a distillation column using
benzene as an entrainer. At the column operating conditions, two liquid phases are formed
on a tray. The degree(s) of freedom of the system for the choice of intensive properties at
equilibrium is(are) ___________
Q.49 The volume of liquid filled in a spherical storage tank of radius R is computed from height
of liquid, h, in the outside tube (neglecting the volume of liquid in the outside tube) as
V = π h2
 3R - h  .
3
The estimate of liquid height (in m) to store V = 30 m3 of water in R = 3 m tank, after

performing ONE iteration of Secant method, using 1 m and 3 m as two initial guesses of
liquid height is ______________ (rounded off to second decimal place).
Q.50 In a closed piston-cylinder system, methane was observed to obey the following equation
of state
P (V  nb)  nRT
where b = 0.029 m /mol. The temperature and volume are 500 ºC and 5 m3 respectively for
3
100 moles of methane. At this state of the system, the isobaric rate of change of
temperature with volume (in ºC/m3) is __________ (rounded off to second decimal place).
Q.51 A set of standard stainless steel pipes, each of internal diameter 26.65 mm and 6000 mm
length, is used to make a plug flow reactor by joining them in series to carry out
degradation of polyethylene. Seven such pipes are required to obtain a conversion of 66%
at 450 K. The minimum number of standard 8000 mm long pipes of the same internal
diameter to be procured for obtaining at least 66% conversion under the same reaction
conditions is ___________.
CH 16/17
Q.52 Hydrogenation of benzene is to be carried out using Ni (density = 8910 kg/m3) as catalyst,
cast in the form of non-porous hollow cylinders, as shown below. The reaction occurs on
all the surfaces of the hollow cylinder. During an experiment, one such cylinder
is suspended in the reactant stream. If the observed rate of reaction is
0.39 mol (m2 of catalyst surface)-1 min-1, then the rate of reaction in
mol (kg of catalyst)-1 min-1 is _____________ (rounded off to three decimal places).
Q.53 The humidity of air at a dry-bulb temperature of 65 oC is 0.025 kg water/kg dry air. The
latent heat of vaporization of water at 0 oC is 2500 kJ/kg. The psychrometric ratio of air is
0.95 kJ (kg dry air)-1 K-1. Considering 0 oC as reference temperature, the enthalpy of air (in
kJ/kg) at its adiabatic saturation temperature of 35 oC is ___________ (rounded off to two
decimal places).
Q.54 In a roll crusher, rolls of diameter 1 m each are set in such a manner that minimum
clearance between the crushing surfaces is 15 mm. If the angle of nip is 31o, the maximum
diameter of the particle (in mm) which can be crushed is ____________ (rounded off to
third decimal place).
Q.55 A hot liquid is to be cooled in a 1-1 shell and tube heat exchanger from 80 oC to 50 oC.
Cooling water enters the tube side at 30 oC, and exits at 45 oC. The properties of the liquids
are constant. Also, the overall heat transfer coefficient is same for counter-current and co-
current modes. The percentage saving in heat transfer area for counter-current option with
respect to the area of co-current option is __________ (rounded off to third decimal place).
CH 17/17
Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks
1 MCQ GA A 1
2 MCQ GA C 1
3 MCQ GA B 1
4 MCQ GA C 1
5 MCQ GA D 1
6 MCQ GA A 2
7 MCQ GA C 2
8 MCQ GA D 2
9 MCQ GA C 2
10 MCQ GA A 2
1 MCQ CH C 1
2 MCQ CH D 1
3 MCQ CH C 1
4 MCQ CH B 1
5 MCQ CH C 1
6 MCQ CH D 1
7 MCQ CH C 1
8 MCQ CH B 1
9 MCQ CH D 1
10 MCQ CH B 1
11 MCQ CH A 1
12 MCQ CH D 1
13 MCQ CH B 1
14 MCQ CH C 1
15 MCQ CH A 1
16 MCQ CH A 1
17 MCQ CH D 1
18 MCQ CH C 1
19 MCQ CH D 1
20 MCQ CH B 1
21 MCQ CH C 1
22 MCQ CH B 1
23 NAT CH 0.145 to 0.155 1
24 NAT CH 0.170 to 0.200 1
25 NAT CH 3.7 to 3.9 1
26 MCQ CH B 2
27 MCQ CH A 2
28 MCQ CH D 2
29 MCQ CH C 2
30 MCQ CH D 2
31 MCQ CH C 2
32 MCQ CH D 2
33 NAT CH 0.40 to 0.40 2
34 NAT CH 12.75 to 13.25 2
35 NAT CH 27.8 to 28.6 2
36 NAT CH 0.51 to 0.54 2
37 NAT CH 102.37 to 102.44 2
38 NAT CH 0.98 to 1.02 2
39 NAT CH 0.80 to 0.84 2
40 NAT CH 50 to 50 2
41 NAT CH 3.75 to 3.95 2
42 NAT CH 0.65 to 0.68 2
43 NAT CH 11.0 to 11.3 2
44 NAT CH 0.41 to 0.42 2
45 NAT CH 0.2 to 0.2 2
46 NAT CH 0 to 0 2
47 NAT CH 1 to 1 2
48 NAT CH 2 to 2 2
49 NAT CH 1.80 to 2.00 2
50 NAT CH 367 to 369 2
51 NAT CH 6 to 6 2
52 NAT CH 0.034 to 0.043 2
53 NAT CH 124 to 125 2
54 NAT CH 52 to 54 2
55 NAT CH 26.5 to 27.5 2
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017
Question Paper Name: Chemical Engineering 12th Feb 2017

Subject Name:
Duration: 180
Total Marks: 100
Question Number : 1 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0
Question Number : 4 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33





















Q. No. Type Section Key Marks
1 NAT CH 1 to 1 1
2 NAT CH 2.99 to 3.01 1
3 NAT CH 3 to 3 1
4 MCQ CH C 1
5 MCQ CH C 1
6 MCQ CH C 1
7 MCQ CH D 1
8 MCQ CH B 1
9 MCQ CH A 1
10 MCQ CH D 1
11 NAT CH 0.52 to 0.56 1
12 MCQ CH B 1
13 NAT CH 298 to 302 1
14 MCQ CH D 1
15 NAT CH 119 to 121 1
16 MCQ CH B 1
17 MCQ CH A 1
18 MCQ CH B 1
19 MCQ CH C 1
20 MCQ CH C 1
21 MCQ CH A 1
22 NAT CH 15900 to 16100 1
23 MCQ CH B 1
24 MCQ CH B 1
25 MCQ CH A 1
26 NAT CH 0.49 to 0.51 2
27 MCQ CH B 2
28 MCQ CH D 2
29 NAT CH 0.35 to 0.37 2
30 NAT CH 198 to 202 2
31 NAT CH 0.59 to 0.61 2
32 NAT CH 2440 to 2460 2
33 NAT CH 0.90 to 0.92 2
34 NAT CH 14.7 to 15.1 2
35 NAT CH 0.30 to 0.33 2
36 MCQ CH C 2
37 NAT CH 9.9 to 10.1 2
38 NAT CH 12.99 to 13.01 2
39 MCQ CH C 2
40 MCQ CH C 2
41 MCQ CH B 2
42 NAT CH 0.86 to 0.90 2
43 MCQ CH B 2
44 NAT CH 3.9 to 4.1 2
45 NAT CH 13.0 to 13.5 2
46 NAT CH 1.0 to 1.0 2
47 NAT CH 0.79 to 0.81 2
48 NAT CH 20.2 to 20.6 2
49 NAT CH 3.9 to 4.1 2
50 NAT CH 0.36 to 0.38 2
51 NAT CH 0.77 to 0.80 2
52 NAT CH 10 to 10 2
53 NAT CH 16300 to 16600 2
54 NAT CH 90.0 to 93.0 2
55 MCQ CH A 2
56 MCQ GA C 1
57 MCQ GA C 1
58 MCQ GA D 1
59 MCQ GA C 1
60 MCQ GA D 1
61 MCQ GA B 2
62 MCQ GA B 2
63 MCQ GA B 2
64 MCQ GA A 2
65 MCQ GA C 2
GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-2

Q.1 The volume of a sphere of diameter 1 unit is ________ than the volume of a cube of side 1 unit.
(A) least (B) less (C) lesser (D) low
Q.2 The unruly crowd demanded that the accused be _____________ without trial.
(A) hanged (B) hanging (C) hankering (D) hung
Q.3 Choose the statement(s) where the underlined word is used correctly:
(i) A prone is a dried plum.

(ii) He was lying prone on the floor.
(iii) People who eat a lot of fat are prone to heart disease.
(A) (i) and (iii) only (B) (iii) only (C) (i) and (ii) only (D) (ii) and (iii) only
Q.4 Fact: If it rains, then the field is wet.
Read the following statements:

(i) It rains
(ii) The field is not wet
(iii) The field is wet
(iv) It did not rain
Which one of the options given below is NOT logically possible, based on the given fact?
(A) If (iii), then (iv). (B) If (i), then (iii).
(C) If (i), then (ii). (D) If (ii), then (iv).
Q.5 A window is made up of a square portion and an equilateral triangle portion above it. The base of
the triangular portion coincides with the upper side of the square. If the perimeter of the window is
6 m, the area of the window in m2 is ___________.
(A) 1.43 (B) 2.06 (C) 2.68 (D) 2.88
1/3

Q.6 Students taking an exam are divided into two groups, P and Q such that each group has the same
number of students. The performance of each of the students in a test was evaluated out of 200
marks. It was observed that the mean of group P was 105, while that of group Q was 85. The
standard deviation of group P was 25, while that of group Q was 5. Assuming that the marks were
distributed on a normal distribution, which of the following statements will have the highest
probability of being TRUE?
(A) No student in group Q scored less marks than any student in group P.
(B) No student in group P scored less marks than any student in group Q.
(C) Most students of group Q scored marks in a narrower range than students in group P.
(D) The median of the marks of group P is 100.
Q.7 A smart city integrates all modes of transport, uses clean energy and promotes sustainable use of
resources. It also uses technology to ensure safety and security of the city, something which critics
argue, will lead to a surveillance state.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above paragraph?
(i) All smart cities encourage the formation of surveillance states.

(ii) Surveillance is an integral part of a smart city.
(iii) Sustainability and surveillance go hand in hand in a smart city.
(iv) There is a perception that smart cities promote surveillance.
(A) (i) and (iv) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (iv) only (D) (i) only
Q.8 Find the missing sequence in the letter series.
B, FH, LNP, _ _ _ _.
(A) SUWY (B) TUVW (C) TVXZ (D) TWXZ
Q.9 The binary operation □ is defined as a □ b = ab+(a+b), where a and b are any two real numbers.
The value of the identity element of this operation, defined as the number x such that a □ x = a, for
any a, is .
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 10
2/3
Q.10 | (| |)|
Which of the following curves represents the function = ln(| |) for | |<2 ?
Here, represents the abscissa and represents the ordinate.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

3/3
GATE 2016 Chemical Engineering
Q.1 Which one of the following is an iterative technique for solving a system of simultaneous linear
algebraic equations?
(A) Gauss elimination (B) Gauss-Jordan
(C) Gauss-Seidel (D) LU decomposition
Q.2 The Laplace transform of eat sin  bt  is
(A)
b  s  a
(B)
 s  a   b2
2
 s  a   b2
2
 s  a (D)
b
(C)
 s  a
2
 s  a   b2  b2
2
Q.3 What are the modulus  r  and argument   of the complex number 3  4i ?
4 3
(A) r  7,   tan 1   (B) r  7,   tan 1  
3
  4
 
3 4
(C) r  5,   tan 1   (D) r  5,   tan 1  
4 3
Q.4 A liquid mixture of ethanol and water is flowing as inlet stream P into a stream splitter. It is split
into two streams, Q and R, as shown in the figure below.
Q
P
The flowrate of P, containing 30 mass% of ethanol, is 100 kg/h. What is the least number of
additional specification(s) required to determine the mass flowrates and compositions (mass%) of
the two exit streams?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
Q.5 The partial molar enthalpy (in kJ/mol) of species 1 in a binary mixture is given by
2 60 100 , where and are the mole fractions of species 1 and 2,
respectively. The partial molar enthalpy (in kJ/mol, rounded off to the first decimal place) of
species 1 at infinite dilution is _______
CH 1/15
Q.6 For a flow through a smooth pipe, the Fanning friction factor is given by Re . in the
turbulent flow regime, where Re is the Reynolds number and is a constant. Water flowing
through a section of this pipe with a velocity 1 m/s results in a frictional pressure drop of 10 kPa.
What will be the pressure drop across this section (in kPa), when the velocity of water is 2 m/s?
(A) 11.5 (B) 20 (C) 34.8 (D) 40
Q.7 In a cyclone separator used for separation of solid particles from a dust laden gas, the separation
factor is defined as the ratio of the centrifugal force to the gravitational force acting on the particle.
Sr denotes the separation factor at a location (near the wall) that is at a radial distance r from the
centre of the cyclone. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?
(A) Sr depends on mass of the particle
(B) Sr depends on the acceleration due to gravity
(C) Sr depends on tangential velocity of the particle
(D) Sr depends on the radial location ( r ) of the particle
Q.8 A vertical cylindrical vessel has a layer of kerosene (of density 800 kg/m3) over a layer of water (of
density 1000 kg/m3). L-shaped glass tubes are connected to the column 30 cm apart. The interface
between the two layers lies between the two points at which the L-tubes are connected. The levels
(in cm) to which the liquids rise in the respective tubes are shown in the figure below.
20
Kerosene
30 42
Water
The distance (x in cm, rounded off to the first decimal place) of the interface from the point at
which the lower L-tube is connected is _______
Q.9 A composite wall is made of four different materials of construction in the fashion shown below.
The resistance (in K/W) of each of the sections of the wall is indicated in the diagram.
0.25
Direction of heat flow Direction of heat flow

3 0.7
The overall resistance (in K/W, rounded off to the first decimal place) of the composite wall, in the
direction of heat flow, is _______
CH 2/15
Q.10 Steam at 100oC is condensing on a vertical steel plate. The condensate flow is laminar. The average
Nusselt numbers are Nu1 and Nu2, when the plate temperatures are 10oC and 55oC, respectively.
Assume the physical properties of the fluid and steel to remain constant within the temperature
range of interest. Using Nusselt equations for film-type condensation, what is the value of the ratio
Nu2
?
Nu1
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.84 (C) 1.19 (D) 1.41
Q.11 A binary liquid mixture of benzene and toluene contains 20 mol% of benzene. At 350 K the vapour
pressures of pure benzene and pure toluene are 92 kPa and 35 kPa, respectively. The mixture
follows Raoult’s law. The equilibrium vapour phase mole fraction (rounded off to the second
decimal place) of benzene in contact with this liquid mixture at 350 K is _______
Q.12 Match the dimensionless numbers in Group-1 with the ratios in Group-2.
Group-1 Group-2
buoyancy force
P Biot number I
viscous force
internal thermal resistance of a solid
Q Schmidt number II
boundary layer thermal resistance
momentum diffusivity
R Grashof number III
mass diffusivity
(A) P-II, Q-I, R-III (B) P-I, Q-III, R-II
(C) P-III, Q-I, R-II (D) P-II, Q-III, R-I
Q.13 For what value of Lewis number, the wet-bulb temperature and adiabatic saturation temperature are
nearly equal?
(A) 0.33 (B) 0.5 (C) 1 (D) 2
Q.14 For a non-catalytic homogeneous reaction A ⟶ B, the rate expression at 300 K is

– mol m , where is the concentration of A (in mol/m3). Theoretically, the
upper limit for the magnitude of the reaction rate (– in mol m , rounded off to the first
decimal place) at 300 K is _______
CH 3/15
Q.15 The variations of the concentrations (CA, CR and CS) for three species (A, R and S) with time, in an
isothermal homogeneous batch reactor are shown in the figure below.
1
Concentration (mol/m3)
0.5
CR, CS
CA
0
t (s)
Select the reaction scheme that correctly represents the above plot. The numbers in the reaction
schemes shown below, represent the first order rate constants in unit of s‒1.
(A) (B)
R R
A A
S S
(C) (D)
R R
A A
S S
Q.16 Hydrogen iodide decomposes through the reaction 2HI ⇋ H2 + I2. The value of the universal gas
constant R is 8.314 J mol‒1K‒1. The activation energy for the forward reaction is 184000 J mol‒1.
The ratio (rounded off to the first decimal place) of the forward reaction rate at 600 K to that at 550
K is _______
Q.17 Match the instruments in Group-1 with process variables in Group-2.
Group-1 Group-2
P Conductivity meter I Flow

Q Turbine meter II Pressure
R Piezoresistivity element III Composition
(A) P-II, Q-I, R-III (B) P-II, Q-III, R-I
(C) P-III, Q-II, R-I (D) P-III, Q-I, R-II
CH 4/15
Q.18 What is the order of response exhibited by a U-tube manometer?

(A) Zero order (B) First order
(C) Second order (D) Third order
Q.19 A system exhibits inverse response for a unit step change in the input. Which one of the following
statement must necessarily be satisfied?
(A) The transfer function of the system has at least one negative pole
(B) The transfer function of the system has at least one positive pole
(C) The transfer function of the system has at least one negative zero
(D) The transfer function of the system has at least one positive zero
Q.20 Two design options for a distillation system are being compared based on the total annual cost.
Information available is as follows:
Option P Option Q
Installed cost of the system (Rs in lakhs) 150 120
Cost of cooling water for condenser (Rs in lakhs/year) 6 8
Cost of steam for reboiler (Rs in lakhs/year) 16 20
The annual fixed charge amounts to 12% of the installed cost. Based on the above information,
what is the total annual cost (Rs in lakhs /year) of the better option?
(A) 40 (B) 42.4 (C) 92 (D) 128
Q.21 Standard pipes of different schedule numbers and standard tubes of different BWG numbers are
available in the market. For a pipe / tube of a given nominal diameter, which one of the following
statements is TRUE?
(A) Wall thickness increases with increase in both the schedule number and the BWG number
(B) Wall thickness increases with increase in the schedule number and decreases with increase in
the BWG number
(C) Wall thickness decreases with increase in both the schedule number and the BWG number
(D) Neither the schedule number, nor the BWG number has any relation to wall thickness
Q.22 Terms used in engineering economics have standard definitions and interpretations. Which one of
the following statements is INCORRECT?
(A) The profitability measure ‘return on investment’ does not consider the time value of money
(B) A cost index is an index value for a given time showing the cost at that time relative to a
certain base time
(C) The ‘six-tenths factor rule’ is used to estimate the cost of an equipment from the cost of a
similar equipment with a different capacity
(D) Payback period is calculated based on the payback time for the sum of the fixed and the
working capital investment
Q.23 India has no elemental sulphur deposits that can be economically exploited. In India, which one of
the following industries produces elemental sulphur as a by-product?
(A) Coal carbonisation plants (B) Petroleum refineries
(C) Paper and pulp industries (D) Iron and steel making plants
CH 5/15
Q.24 Two paper pulp plants P and Q use the same quality of bamboo as a raw material. The chemicals
used in their digester are as follows:
Plant P Plant Q
NaOH Yes No
Na2S Yes No
Na2CO3 Yes Yes
NaHCO3 No Yes
Na2SO3 No Yes
Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

(A) Plant P and Plant Q both use the Sulfite process
(B) Plant P and Plant Q both use the Kraft process
(C) Plant P uses Sulfite process
(D) Plant P uses Kraft process
Q.25 Match the industrial processes in Group-1, with the catalyst materials in Group-2.
Group-1 Group-2
P Ethylene polymerisation I Nickel
Q Petroleum feedstock cracking II Vanadium pentoxide
R Oxidation of SO2 to SO3 III Zeolite
S Hydrogenation of oil IV Aluminium triethyl with titanium chloride promoter
(A) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I (B) P-I, Q-IV, R-III, S-II
(C) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV (D) P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I
Q.26 A set of simultaneous linear algebraic equations is represented in a matrix form as shown below.
0 0 0 4 13  x1   46 
2
 5 5 2 10  x2  161
0 0 2 5 3   x3    61 
    
0 0 0 4 5   x4   30 
 2 3 2 1 5   x5   81 
The value (rounded off to the nearest integer) of x3 is _______
Q.27 d2y
What is the solution for the second order differential equation  y  0, with the initial
dx 2
dy
conditions y x 0  5 and  10 ?
dx x0
(A) y  5  10sin x (B) y  5cos x  5sin x

(C) y  5cos x  10 x (D) y  5cos x  10sin x
CH 6/15
Q.28 The model y  mx 2 is to be fit to the data given below.
x 1 2 3
y 2 5 8
Using linear regression, the value (rounded off to the second decimal place) of m is _______
Q.29 The Lagrange mean-value theorem is satisfied for f  x   x 3  5 , in the interval 1, 4  at a value
(rounded off to the second decimal place) of x equal to _______
Q.30 Values of f  x  in the interval [0, 4] are given below.
x 0 1 2 3 4
f x 3 10 21 36 55
Using Simpson’s 1/3 rule with a step size of 1, the numerical approximation (rounded off to the
4
second decimal place) of  f  x  dx is _______
0
Q.31 A jacketed stirred tank with a provision for heat removal is used to mix sulphuric acid and water in
a steady state flow process. H2SO4 (l) enters at a rate of 4 kg/h at 25oC and H2O (l) enters at a rate
of 6 kg/h at 10oC. The following data are available:
Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 kJ kg‒1K‒1.

Specific heat capacity of aqueous solution of 40 mass% H2SO4 = 2.8 kJ (kg solution)‒1 K‒1.
Assume the specific heat capacities to be independent of temperature.
Based on reference states of H2SO4 (l) and H2O (l) at 25oC, the heat of mixing for aqueous solution
of 40 mass% H2SO4 = ‒ 650 kJ (kg H2SO4)‒1.
If the mixed stream leaves at 40oC, what is the rate of heat removal (in kJ/h)?
(A) 1802 (B) 2558 (C) 5702 (D) 6458
Q.32 An ideal gas is adiabatically and irreversibly compressed from 3 bar and 300 K to 6 bar in a closed
system. The work required for the irreversible compression is 1.5 times the work that is required for
reversible compression from the same initial temperature and pressure to the same final pressure.
The molar heat capacity of the gas at constant volume is 30 J mol‒1 K‒1 (assumed to be independent
of temperature); universal gas constant, R is 8.314 J mol‒1 K‒1; ratio of molar heat capacities is
1.277. The temperature (in K, rounded off to the first decimal place) of the gas at the final state in
the irreversible compression case is _______
CH 7/15
Q.33 A gas obeying the Clausius equation of state is isothermally compressed from 5 MPa to 15 MPa in
a closed system at 400 K. The Clausius equation of state is where P is the pressure, T is
the temperature, is the molar volume and R is the universal gas constant. The parameter b in the
above equation varies with temperature as with 4 10 m3mol‒1 and
3 ‒1 ‒1
1.35 10 m mol K . The effect of pressure on the molar enthalpy (h) at a constant
temperature is given by . Let hi and hf denote the initial and final molar
enthalpies, respectively. The change in the molar enthalpy (in J mol‒1, rounded off to the
first decimal place) for this process is _______
Q.34 A binary system at a constant pressure with species ‘1’ and ‘2’ is described by the two-suffix
Margules equation, 3 , where is the molar excess Gibbs free energy, R is the universal
gas constant, T is the temperature and , are the mole fractions of species 1 and 2, respectively.
At a temperature T, = 1 and = 2, where and are the molar Gibbs free energies of pure
species 1 and 2, respectively. At the same temperature, represents the molar Gibbs free energy of
the mixture. For a binary mixture with 40 mole % of species 1, the value (rounded off to the
second decimal place) of is _______
Q.35 Water (density=1000 kg m‒3) is pumped at a rate of 36 m3/h, from a tank 2 m below the pump, to an
overhead pressurized vessel 10 m above the pump. The pressure values at the point of suction from
the bottom tank and at the discharge point to the overhead vessel are 120 kPa and 240 kPa,
respectively. All pipes in the system have the same diameter. Take acceleration due to gravity,
g = 10 m s‒2. Neglecting frictional losses, what is the power (in kW) required to deliver the fluid?
(A) 1.2 (B) 2.4 (C) 3.6 (D) 4.8
Q.36 An agitated cylindrical vessel is fitted with baffles and flat blade impellers. The power number for
this system is given by where P is the power consumed for the mixing, ρ is the
density of the fluid, n is the speed of the impeller and D is the diameter of the impeller. The
diameter of the impeller is 1/3rd the diameter of the tank and the height of liquid level is equal to the
tank diameter. The impeller speed to achieve the desired degree of mixing is 4 rpm. In a scaled up
design, the linear dimensions of the equipment are to be doubled, holding the power input per unit
volume constant. Assuming the liquid to be Newtonian and to be independent of Reynolds
number, what is the impeller speed (in rpm) to achieve the same degree of mixing in the scaled up
vessel?
(A) 0.13 (B) 1.26 (C) 2.52 (D) 3.82
Q.37 Consider a rigid solid sphere falling with a constant velocity in a fluid. The following data are
known at the conditions of interest: viscosity of the fluid = 0.1 Pa s, acceleration due to gravity =
10 m s‒2, density of the particle = 1180 kg m‒3 and density of the fluid = 1000 kg m‒3. The diameter
(in mm, rounded off to the second decimal place) of the largest sphere that settles in the Stokes’ law
regime (Reynolds number 0.1), is _______
CH 8/15
Q.38 The characteristics curve (Head – Capacity relationship) of a centrifugal pump is represented by the
equation ∆ 43.8 0.19 , where ∆ is the head developed by the pump (in m) and
Q is the flowrate (in m3/h) through the pump. This pump is to be used for pumping water through a
horizontal pipeline. The frictional head loss ∆ piping (in m) is related to the water flowrate (in
m3/h) by the equation ∆ 0.0135 0.045 . The flowrate (in m3
/h, rounded off to the
first decimal place) of water pumped through the above pipeline, is _______
Q.39 Water flows through a smooth circular pipe under turbulent conditions. In the viscous sub-layer, the
velocity varies linearly with the distance from the wall. The Fanning friction factor is defined as,
⁄ where is the shear stress at the wall of the pipe, is the density of the fluid and is
the average velocity in the pipe. Water (density = 1000 kg m‒3, viscosity = 1 10‒3 kg m‒1 s‒1) flows
at an average velocity of 1 m s‒1 through the pipe. For this flow condition, the friction factor f is
0.005. At a distance of 0.05 mm from the wall of the pipe (in the viscous sub-layer), the velocity (in
m s‒1, rounded off to the third decimal place), is _______
Q.40 In a 1-1 pass shell and tube exchanger, steam is condensing in the shell side at a temperature (Ts) of
135oC and the cold fluid is heated from a temperature (T1) of 20oC to a temperature (T2 ) of 90oC.
The energy balance equation for this heat exchanger is
Ts  T1 UA
ln 
Ts  T2 mc
 p
 is the mass flow rate

where U is the overall heat transfer coefficient, A is the heat transfer area, m
of the cold fluid and c p is its specific heat. Tube side fluid is in a turbulent flow and the heat
transfer coefficient can be estimated from the following equation:
Nu  0.023 (Re)0.8 (Pr)1/3
where Nu is the Nusselt number, Re is the Reynolds number and Pr is the Prandtl number. The
condensing heat transfer coefficient in the shell side is significantly higher than the tube side heat
transfer coefficient. The resistance of the wall to heat transfer is negligible. If only the mass flow
rate of the cold fluid is doubled, what is the outlet temperature (in oC) of the cold fluid at steady
state?
(A) 80.2 (B) 84.2 (C) 87.4 (D) 88.6
CH 9/15
Q.41 In an experimental setup, mineral oil is filled in between the narrow gap of two horizontal smooth
plates. The setup has arrangements to maintain the plates at desired uniform temperatures. At these
temperatures, ONLY the radiative heat flux is negligible. The thermal conductivity of the oil does
not vary perceptibly in this temperature range. Consider four experiments at steady state under
different experimental conditions, as shown in the figure below. The figure shows plate
temperatures and the heat fluxes in the vertical direction.
30C 60C 40C 70C
flux = 39 Wm-2 flux = 26 Wm-2 flux = 42 Wm-2 flux = ? Wm-2
60C 30C 70C 40C
Experiment 1 Experiment 2 Experiment 3 Experiment 4
What is the steady state heat flux (in W m‒2) with the top plate at 70oC and the bottom plate at
40oC?
(A) 26 (B) 39 (C) 42 (D) 63
Q.42 The space between two hollow concentric spheres of radii 0.1 m and 0.2 m is under vacuum.
Exchange of radiation (uniform in all directions) occurs only between the outer surface (S1) of the
smaller sphere and the inner surface (S2) of the larger sphere. The fraction (rounded off to the
second decimal place) of the radiation energy leaving S2, which reaches S1 is _______
Q.43 A binary distillation column is to be designed using McCabe Thiele method. The distillate contains
90 mol% of the more volatile component. The point of intersection of the q-line with the
equilibrium curve is (0.5, 0.7). The minimum reflux ratio (rounded off to the first decimal place) for
this operation is _______
CH 10/15
GATE
G 2016 Chemical Enggineering
Q.44 Solutte C is extraccted in a batchh process from

m its homogeenous solutionn of A and C,, using solvennt B.
The combined composition off the feed andd the extractin ng solvent is shown in thee figure below w as
pointt M, along with
w the tie linne passing thrrough it. The ends of the ttie line are onn the equilibrrium
curvee.
What is the selectivity for C?

(A) 3.5 (B) 7 (C) 10.5 (D) 21
Q.45 At 300oC, the amou unts of acetonne adsorbed aat partial presssures of 10 aand 100 mmH Hg are 0.1 andd 0.4
kg accetone/kg acttivated carbon n, respectivelly. Assume Langmuir
L isothherm describbes the adsorpption
of accetone on actiivated carbon n. What is thee amount of acetone
a adsorrbed (in kg peer kg of activvated
carboon) at a partiaal pressure off 50 mmHg annd 30oC?
(A) 0.23 (B) 0.25 0
(C) 0.30 (D) 0.35
Q.46 Conssider the follo owing two caases for a binnary mixture of ideal gasees A and B underu steady state
s
condditions. In Caase 1, the difffusion of A occurs throuugh non-diffuusing B. In Case C 2, equim
molal
counnter diffusion of A and B occurs.
o In botth the cases, the
t total presssure is 100 kPPa and the paartial
presssures of A at two points seeparated by a distance of 10 1 mm are 100 kPa and 5 kPa.
k Assume that
the Fick’s
F first law he ratio of moolar flux of A in Case 1 to that
w of diffusionn is applicablle. What is th
in Caase 2?
(A) 0.58 (B) 1.08 (C) 1.5
58 (D) 2.18
Q.47 The liquid phase reversible reaaction ⇌ is carried out o in an isothhermal CSTR R operating under
u
steaddy state condiitions. The in
nlet stream dooes not contaiin B and the concentrationn of A in the inlet
stream is 10 mol/lit. The conccentrations off A at the reacctor exit, for residence tim
mes of 1 s andd 5 s
are 8 mol/lit andd 5 mol/lit, respectivelyy. Assume the t forward and backwaard reactions are
elemmentary followwing the firstt order rate law. Also asssume that thhe system haas constant molar
m
t forward rreaction (in s‒1, rounded ooff to the thirrd decimal pllace)
densiity. The rate constant of the
is ________
Q.48 A liquid phase irreversible reaction → is carried out in an adiabatic CSTR operating under
steady state conditions. The reaction is elementary and follows the first order rate law. For this
reaction, the figure below shows the conversion (XA) of A as a function of temperature (T) for
different values of the rate of reaction ( in mol m s ) denoted by the numbers to the left of
each curve. This figure can be used to determine the rate of the reaction at a particular temperature,
for a given conversion of A.
1.0
0.9
0.8
0.7
0.6 1
0.5 2
XA
5
0.4
10
0.3
20
0.2
50
0.1
0.0
300 325 350 375 400 425 450
T (K)
The inlet stream does not contain B and the concentration of A in the inlet stream is 5 mol/m3. The
molar feed rate of A is 100 mol/s. A steady state energy balance for this CSTR results in the
following relation: 350 25 where T is the temperature (in K) of the exit stream and XA is
the conversion of A in the CSTR. For an exit conversion of 80 % of A, the volume (in m3, rounded
off to the first decimal place) of CSTR required is _______
CH 12/15
Q.49 A porous pellet with Pt dispersed in it is used to carry out a catalytic reaction. Following two
scenarios are possible.
Scenario 1: Pt present throughout the pores of the pellet is used for catalyzing the reaction.
Scenario 2: Pt present only in the immediate vicinity of the external surface of the pellet is used for
catalyzing the reaction.
At a large value of Thiele modulus, which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) Since the reaction rate is much greater than the diffusion rate, Scenario 1 occurs
(B) Since the reaction rate is much greater than the diffusion rate , Scenario 2 occurs
(C) Since the reaction rate is much lower than the diffusion rate, Scenario 1 occurs
(D) Since the reaction rate is much lower than the diffusion rate, Scenario 2 occurs
Q.50 A CSTR has a long inlet pipe. A tracer is injected at the entrance of the pipe. The E-curve obtained
at the exit of the CSTR is shown in the figure below.
0.06
0.05
0.04
E (t), 1/minutes
0.03
0.02
0.01
0.00
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50 55 60 65 70 75 80
Time (minutes)
Assuming plug flow in the inlet pipe, the ratio (rounded off to the second decimal place) of the
volume of the pipe to that of the CSTR is _______
Q.51 A liquid flows through an “equal percentage” valve at a rate of 2 m3/h when the valve is 10% open.
When the valve opens to 20% the flowrate increases to 3 m3/h. Assume that the pressure drop
across the valve and the density of the liquid remain constant. When the valve opens to 50%, the
flowrate (in m3/h, rounded off to the second decimal place) is_______
CH 13/15
Q.52 A PI controller with integral time constant of 0.1 min is to be designed to control a process with
transfer function
10
2 100
Assume the transfer functions of the measuring element and the final control element are both unity
1, 1 . The gain (rounded off to the first decimal place) of the controller that will
constitute the critical condition for stability of the PI feedback control system is _______
Q.53 For a unit step input, the response of a second order system is
1 1
1 sin
1
where, is the steady state gain, is the damping coefficient, is the natural period of
oscillation and is the phase lag. The overshoot of the system is exp . For a unit step
input, the response of the system from an initial steady state condition at t = 0 is shown in the figure
below.
450
430
410
390
370
y (t)
350
330
310
290
270
250
0 200 400 600 800 1000 1200
Time, t (minutes)
What is the natural period of oscillation (in seconds) of the system?

(A) 15.9 (B) 50 (C) 63.2 (D) 100
Q.54 A vertical cylindrical tank with a flat roof and bottom is to be constructed for storing 150 m3 of
ethylene glycol. The cost of material and fabrication for the tank wall is Rs 6000 per m2 and the
same for the roof and the tank bottom are Rs 2000 and Rs 4000 per m2, respectively. The cost of
accessories, piping and instruments can be taken as 10% of the cost of the wall. 10% of the volume
of the tank needs to be kept free as vapour space above the liquid storage. What is the optimum
diameter (in m) for the tank?
(A) 3.5 (B) 3.9 (C) 7.5 (D) 7.8
CH 14/15
Q.55 A catalytic reforming plant produces hydrogen and benzene from cyclohexane by de-hydro
aromatisation. In order to increase the production of hydrogen, the owner plans to change the
process to steam reforming of the same feedstock that produces hydrogen and carbon dioxide.
Stoichiometrically, what is the maximum ratio of pure hydrogen produced in the proposed process
to that in the existing process?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 6
CH 15/15
Q. No Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ GA B 1
2 MCQ GA A 1
3 MCQ GA D 1
4 MCQ GA C 1
5 MCQ GA B 1
6 MCQ GA C 2
7 MCQ GA C 2
8 MCQ GA C 2
9 MCQ GA A 2
10 MCQ GA C 2
1 MCQ CH C 1
2 MCQ CH A 1
3 MCQ CH D 1
4 MCQ CH B 1
5 NAT CH -58.1 : -57.9 1
6 MCQ CH C 1
7 MCQ CH A 1
8 NAT CH 9.9 : 10.1 1
9 NAT CH 3.88 : 3.92 1
10 MCQ CH C 1
11 NAT CH 0.39 : 0.41 1
12 MCQ CH D 1
13 MCQ CH C 1
14 NAT CH 1.99 : 2.01 1
15 MCQ CH C 1
16 NAT CH 28.0 : 29.0 1
17 MCQ CH D 1
18 MCQ CH C 1
19 MCQ CH D 1
20 MCQ CH A 1
21 MCQ CH B 1
22 MCQ CH D 1
23 MCQ CH B 1
24 MCQ CH D 1
25 MCQ CH A 1
26 NAT CH 14.9 : 15.1 2
27 MCQ CH D 2
28 NAT CH 2.52 : 2.62 2
29 NAT CH 2.6 : 2.7 2
30 NAT CH 94.5 : 94.8 2
31 MCQ CH A 2
32 NAT CH 371.0 : 375.0 2
33 NAT CH 399.9 : 400.1 2
34 NAT CH 1.63 : 1.67 2
35 MCQ CH B 2
36 MCQ CH C 2
37 NAT CH 2.05 : 2.25 2
38 NAT CH 48.5 : 49.5 2
39 NAT CH 0.12 : 0.13 2
40 MCQ CH B 2
41 MCQ CH A 2
42 NAT CH 0.245 : 0.255 2
43 NAT CH 0.98 : 1.02 2
44 MCQ CH C 2
45 MCQ CH C 2
46 MCQ CH B 2
47 NAT CH 0.255 : 0.280 2
48 NAT CH 7.9 : 8.1 2
49 MCQ CH B 2
50 NAT CH 0.23 : 0.27 2
51 NAT CH 10.00 : 10.25 2
52 NAT CH 2.49 : 2.51 2
53 MCQ CH MTA 2
54 MCQ CH D 2
55 MCQ CH D 2

GATE CHEMICAL ENGINEERING 2016-2018 QUESTION PAPER & ANSWER KEY

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QUESTION PAPER & ANSWER KEY

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

(A) stairs, stares (B) stairs, stairs

(A) rational (B) reasonable (C) errant (D) good

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

(A) 72 (B) 73 (C) 74 (D) 75

(A) 20 (B) 48 (C) 60 (D) 72

(A) 30,000 (B) 2,70,000 (C) 3,90,000 (D) 4,20,000

(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

The above set of equations is represented by

(A) Euler’s explicit method (B) Trapezoidal rule

(C) Euler’s implicit method (D) Simpson’s 1/3 rule

(A) 0.99 (B) 0.90 (C) 0.81 (D) 0.80

(B) linearly with the viscosity of the liquid

(C) directly with the square of particle diameter

(D) inversely with the density of particle

Q.6 Critical speed of a ball mill depends on

Q.7 Economy of evaporators used for concentrating sugarcane juice is

kg of concentrated juice produced

kg of sugarcane juice fed

Q.8 Segmental baffles in a 2-4 shell and tube heat exchanger

(B) A stream of hydrogen is produced in catalytic reforming of naphtha

(C) Asphalt used for paving is a petroleum product

(D) Cetane number indicates the quality of petrol / motor spirit

Q.10 Polyvinyl chloride is produced by

(B) addition-type kinetics

(C) reacting chlorine with polyethylene

(D) reacting hydrochloric acid with polyethylene

(A) C12H22O11 (B) C12H24O12 (C) C6H10O5 (D) C6H12O6

(A) 2 (B) 1.8 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.225

AFC (Rs. Lakh) = 641 R 2  1796  R  1287  1/  R  1.16 

(C) 80  62.5  R opt  641 R opt

(D) 80  62.5  R opt  641 R opt

Q.14 Consider the following properties:

(P) temperature (Q) specific gravity

The option which lists ALL the intensive properties is

(A) P (B) P and Q

(C) P, Q and R (D) P, Q, R and S

(B) T = 600 K; rpm = 1000

(C) T = 700 K; rpm = 1000

(D) T = 700 K; rpm = 2000

Q.16 Choose the correct statement

In viscose rayon manufacturing process,

(C) sulphuric acid is used in steeping process of cellulose

(D) the spun viscose rayon is hardened in an alkali bath

The overall fractional conversion is

(A) offset (B) speed of response

(C) order of the closed loop system (D) proportional band

(A) m2 s-2 (B) m2 s-1 (C) m s-1 (D) s-1

(A) significantly higher than that of the gas phase

(B) negligible compared to that of the gas phase

(C) equal to that of the gas phase

(D) dependent on the gas phase mass transfer resistance

(A) 10.5 (B) 12.0 (C) 15.2 (D) 18.4

Q.22 Pitot tube is used to measure

(A) liquid level in a tank

(B) flow velocity at a point

(C) angular deformation