1 IRC recommends lateral coefficient of friction on horizontal curve is

A 0.35 B 0.4
C 0.15 D 0.25
2 Pavement surface may be considered very uncomfortable when
unevenness index is
A >3500 mm/km B <400mm/km
C between 1500 to 2500mm/km D <3000mm/km
3 IRC recommends minimum camber on thin bituminous pavement surface
in light rainfall area is
A 4% B 3%
C 2.50% D 2%
4 Height of crown with respect to edges of 3.3m wide WBM pavement for
the heavy rainfall shall be
A 0.04m B 0.05m
C 0.06m D 0.03m
5 As per IRC standards, minimum width of two-lane carriageway with raised
kerbs is
A 7.5m B 7.0m
C 5.5m D 6.0m
6 Head-on collision between vehicles moving in opposite directions on
adjacent lanes can be avoided by
A Camber B Signals
C Medians D Sign board
7 Recommended minimum width of cycle track in urban areas is
A 3m B 1m
C 1.2m D 2m
8 The minimum shoulder width recommended by IRC is
A 2.5m B 2m
C 1.5m D 1.85m
9 The recommended minimum footpath width on urban roads is
A 1.2m B 1.5m
C 1.8m D 2m
10 As per IRC standards, minimum roadway width of single-lane ODR in
plain and rolling terrain is
A 9m B 7.5m
C 12m D 7m
11 In PIEV theory, I stands for
A Information B Intention
C Interpretation D Intellection
12 IRC recommends total reaction time for SSD calculation is
A 2 sec B 1.8 sec
C 2.5 sec D 2.3 sec
13 IRC has specified a design friction coefficient for finding braking distance
for SSD ranges between
A 0.25 to 0.30 B 0.4 to 0.5
C 0.35 to 0.4 D 0.15 to 0.35
14 SSD required on descending gradients is
A higher than on levelled road B lower than on levelled road
C lower than up gradient D none of above
15 Head light sight distance shall be kept equal to
A 2 SSD B 1.5 SSD
C 0.5 SSD D SSD
16 Intermediate sight distance shall be kept equal to
A SSD B 2 SSD
C 3 SSD D 2.5 SSD
17 Cross slope of the country for the Rolling terrain ranges between
A 0 to 10% B 25 to 30%
C 10 to 25% D 5 to 10%
18 The recommended design speed for arterial roads is
A 60 kmph B 80 kmph
C 50 kmph D 100 kmph
19 The value of rate of superelevation shall not exceed than
A 0.07 B 0.15
 C 0.28 D 0.01
20 The safe or allowable speed in kmph on horizontal curve of 100m radius is
A √2200 B √2156
C √2534 D √2794
21 Excessive camber on pavements may cause
slip of the speedy vehicles
A deterioration of central portion B
towards the edges
C erosion of berms D all the above
22 If the elevations along a road increse, the slope of the road along the
longitudinal direction is known as
A gradient B grade
C positive grade D negative grade
23 An exceptional grade may be provided upto 1 in 12 along hill roads, if the
length does not exceed
A 45 m/km B 60 m/km
C 75 m/km D 100 m/km
24 Floating gradients are generally provided
A along maximum gradients B along minimum gradients
C at summit curves D at valley curves
25 Psychological widening required on horizontal curve of highway of radius
R metre and design speed of V kmph is

A V/9.5√R B R/9.5√V
C V²/9.5R D R²/9.5V
26 As a transition curve on horizontal curve of highway, IRC recommends
A Lemniscate B Cubic parabola
C Parabola D Spiral
27 IRC recommends allowable rate of change of centrifugal acceleration
(m/sec³) on highways is
A 0.4 to 0.6 B 0.2 to 0.5
C 0.5 to 0.8 D 0.15 to 0.35
28 The maximum value of Limiting gradient, recommended by IRC in plain
and rolling terrain is
 A 3.30% B 5%
C 6.70% D 8%
29 According to the IRC, the grade compensation is not necessary for
gradients flatter than
A 4% B 5%
C 3% D 6%
30 Before providing super-elevation on roads, the portion of the carriageway
between the crown and the outer edge is made
A
to have slope of the camber on
C the other half of the D none of these

31 carriageway
In cement conrete pavements, tensile stress is due to
bending or deflection under difference in temperature of the
A B
wheel loads top and bottom of pavement
contraction of slab during
C D all the above
falling temperature
32 The grain size distribution of the soils passing 75 micron sieve is carried out by
A Sieve analysis B Sedimentation analysis
C Shrinkage analysis D Consistency analysis
33 Plasticity Index (PI) of soil equals numerical difference between
A Shrinkage and plastic limit B Shrinkage and liquid limit
Field moisture and centrifuge
C Liquid and plastic limit D
moisture equivalent
34 Subgrade soil strength depends on
dry density and internal
A Soil type and moisture content B
structure of the soil
C type and mode of stress application D all the above
35 CBR test on soil is type of
A bearing test B shear test
C penetration test D none of above
36 The modulus of subgrade reaction of soil can be found by
A Plate bearing test B CBR test
C Triaxial test D Unconfined compression test
37 The modulus of subgrade reaction of soil can be calculated for the pressure
corresponding to a mean settlement of
A 0.25cm B 0.125cm
C 0.15cm D 0.2cm
38 The standard load value on standard crushed aggregates for CBR test at
2.5 mm penetration is
A 1450kg B 2055kg
C 2000kg D 1370kg
39 IRC recommends standard test to evaluate hardness of road aggregates is
A Impact test B Shape test
C Los-angeles abrasion test D Crushing test
40 Standard Impact test on road aggregates evaluates
A Strength B Hardness
C Durability D Toughness
41 The specified numbers of blows of hammer in standard impact test machine are
A 15 B 25
C 10 D 20
42 As per IRC, in wearing course of pavements, the aggregate impact value
should not exceed
A 35% B 30%
C 40% D 50%
43 The flakiness index of aggregate is the percentage by weight of aggregate
particles whose least dimension/thickness is less than
A 1.8 times their mean dimension B 1.2 times their mean dimension
C 0.6 of their mean dimension D 0.8 times their mean dimension
44 For the penetration test of bituminous material, the sample is maintained at
standard temperature of
A 22ºC B 25ºC
C 20ºC D 27ºC
45 The standard rate of pull in ductility test of bitumen is
A 30mm/minute B 25mm/minute
C 40mm/minute D 50mm/minute
46 For the bituminous materials, the ring and ball apparatus determines
A Softening point B Specific gravity
C Ductility D Viscosity
47 The preferable material to use in bituminous road patch repair work during
rainy season is
A Tar B Emulsions
C Asphalt D Cutbacks
48 The rigidity factor is greater than one, when
A Tyrepressure=Contact pressure B Tyrepressure > Contact pressure
C Tyre pressure < Contact pressure D None of above
49 The analysis of rigid pavements by Westergaard's approach requires determination of
A Modulus of subgrade reaction B CBR value
C California resistance value D Shear strength of subgrade soil
50 Theoretical method of design of flexible pavement is
A Group Index method B CBR method
C McLeod method D Burmister method
51 The radius of relative stiffness in rigid pavement increses with
Increse in modulus of elasticity
A B Increase in slab thickness
of cement concrete
Decrease in modulus of
C D all the above
subgrade reaction
52 The tie bars provided for rigid pavements in
A Expansion joints B Longitudinal joints
C Contraction joints D None of above
53 Road user's driving skill is
A Physical characteristic B Mental characteristic
C Psychological charecteristic D None of above
54 The structural design of pavement depends on vehicle's
A Dimensions B Speed
C Weight D Acceleration
55 Generally the hourly volume of traffic taken for economic traffic facility design is
 A Thirtieth highest hourly volume B Annual average hourly volume
C Peak hourly volume D None of above
56 Maximum allowable height of double-decked vehicle as per IRC standard is
A 2.5m B 3.8m
C 4.75m D 4.2m
57 On rural highways under typical speed conditions, space-mean speed is
A more than time-mean speed Bslightly lower than time-mean speed
C equals the time-mean speed D None of above
58 From the spot-speed study and cumulative speed distribution, for the
highway geometric design purpose, the speed considered is the
A 85 th percentile speed B 15 th percentile speed
C 50 th percentile speed D 98 th percentile speed
59 The unit of traffic density on highway is usually expressed in
A veh/hour B veh/km
C km/hour D km/veh
60 Usually the traffic volume on highway is
A traffic density / traffic speed B traffic speed/traffic density
C traffic density x traffic speed D None of above
61 If the minimum time headway is 2 sec on highway lane, then the maximum
theoretical capacity of traffic lane is
A 2000 veh/hour B 1800 veh/hour
C 900 veh/hour D 1000 veh/hour
62 PCU value of bullock cart is usually comes
A >1 B <1
C =1 D None of above
63 On a right angled four arm road intersection with two-way traffic, the total
number of conflict points are
A 12 B 20
C 16 D 24
64 On a right angled four arm road intersection with one-way traffic on both
the roads, the total number of conflict points are
A 11 B 4
 C 6 D 8
65 "STOP" sign is the
A Informatory sign B Regulatory sign
C Warning sign D None of above
66 Usually the Warning signs are located in advance of the hazard warned
against on urban roads at the distance of
A 120m B 90m
C 60m D 50m
67 The amber or yellow light on traffic signal means for
A Go B Stop
C Clearance time D All stop
68 On a right angled four arm signalised road intersection with two-way
traffic, the minimum number of phases required in signal design for no
conflict condition are
A 4 B 2
C 3 D 6
69 The objective of providing rotary intersection:
to eliminate the necessity of
A Bto eliminate the crossing of vehicles
stopping the vehicles
C to reduce the area of conflict D all the above
70 For achieving continuous traffic flow without any conflicts and stopping
on crossing of two highways carrying very heavy traffic flow, all the
requirements of turning traffic involves smoothly on
A Diamond interchange B Full cloverleaf interchange
C Rotary interchange D Partial cloverleaf interchange
71 Rail section is generally designated by its
A total weight B total length
C weight per metre length D area of its cross section
72 On Indian Railways standard length of rails for M.G. track is
A 33ft (10.06m) B 36ft (10.97m)
C 39ft (11.89m) D 42ft (12.8m)
73 Staggered rail joints are generally provided on
A on curves B on tangents
 C on bridges D in tunnels
74 Coning of wheels
Aprevent lateral movements of wheelsB provide smooth running of trains
avoid excessive wear of inner
C D all the above
faces of rail
75 If L is length of rail and R is the radius of horizontal curve, the versine h for the curve is
A L/4R B L²/4R
C L²/8R D L²/18R
76 Widening of gauge is provided if degree of curve is
A 3º or less B 3º to 4.5º
C more than 4.5º D None of above
77 Bending of rail ends due to loose packing under a joint and loose fish
bolts, is known as
A buckling B hogging
C creeping D None of above
78 If n is the length of a rail in metres, the number of sleepers per rail length
generally varies from
A n to (n+2) B (n+2) to (n+4)
C (n+3) to (n+6) D (n+4) to (n+5)
79 For points and crossings, maximum size of ballast is
A 50mm B 40mm
C 30mm D 25mm
80 The grade compensation on B.G. tracks on Indian Railways is
A 0.02% B 0.03%
C 0.04% D 0.05%
81 If G is gauge in metres, V is speed of trains in kmph, and R is radius of
horizontal curve in metres, the equilibrium superelevation in metre is
A GV²/R B GV²/17R
C GV²/127R D GV²/1.27R
82 The angle between the gauge faces of the stock rail and tongue rail is called
A switch angle B angle of crossing
C angle of turnout D None of above
83 According to Indian Railway Board, no diamond crossing should be flatter than
A 1 in 6 B 1 in 8.5
C 1 in 12 D 1 in 16
84 The overall length of a turnout is the distance between the end of stock rail and
A heel of crossing B actual nose of crossing
C throat of crossing D toe of crossing
85 A scissors cross over consists of one diamond and
A one turn out B two turn outs
C three turn outs D four turn outs
86 According to the ICAO, the runway lengths of aerodromes have been coded by
A Seven English alphabates B Last Seven English alphabates
C First Seven English alphabates D First seven natural numbers
87 The maximum value of the angle of turning of the nose gear of large jet aircrafts is
A 20º B 30º
C 45º D 60º
88 Airport elevation is the reduced level above M.S.L. of
A control tower B highest point of the landing area
C lowest point of the landing area D None of above
89 The length of runway is increased per 300m rise above M.S.L.
A 4% B 5%
C 6% D 7%
90 The runway orientation is made so that landing and take off are
A against the wind direction B along the wind direction
C perpendicular to wind direction D None of above
91 For night landing, the thresholds are lighted
A green B red
C white D yellow
92 Total correction for elevation and temperature for a runway should not be
more than
A 20% B 25%
 C 35% D 30%
93 Beaufort scale is used to determine
A strength of winds B direction of winds
C height of air crafts D None of above
94 A monolithic structure provided at the tip of brek water is called
A Wharf B Quay
C Jetty D Pier head
95 A structure built out from the shore to reduce silting and dredging, used
for cargo handling is called
A Wharf B Quay
C Jetty D Break water
96 Ship's total measured inner cubical capacity in units of 2.83 cum is called
A NRT B GRT
C DWT D DT
97 Carrying capacity of ship by weight in units of 1.016 tonne is called
A NRT B GRT
C DWT D DT
98 The place where the ships are brought for repairing, cleaning, painting at bottom is
A Dry dock B Wet dock
C Tidal basin D Wharf
99 If L is the length of design vessel, then minimum radius of turning basin shall be
A 2L B 3L
C 4L D 5L
100 If B is the beam of design vessel, then minimum berthing width for two vessels shall be
A 2B B 3B
C 2.5B D 2.2B
1 An overhang beam AB is having span L between supports and overhang
length L/2 beyond support B. If a UDL ‘w’ is applied on length L/2 on either
side of support B, the reaction at support A will be
A wL/2 B 1.5wL/2
C Zero D wL
2 The slope of bending moment diagram represents,
A Maximum bending moment B Shear force
C Maximum shear force D Bending moment
3 Point of contraflexure is where
A Bending moment is zero B Shear force is zero
C Shear force diagram changes its D Bending moment diagram
sign changes its sign
4 Maximum bending moment exists where
A Reaction is zero B Shear force is zero
C Deflection is minimum D At hinged supports
5 A plane carrying shear stress will induce complementary shear stress on a
plane which is at
A 45o B 135o
o
C 90 D 0o
6 A thrust diagram indicates
A Transverse force B Axial force
C Shear force D None of the above
7 Volumetric strain of a sphere is
A Equal to diametric strain B Twice the diametric strain
C Thrice the diametric strain D One half of the diametric strain
8 When a rod is heated, its length increases. The stress due to temperature will
A Be zero B Depends on type of material
C Directly proportional to original D Depends on cross section
length
9 Shear strain is generally defined in terms of
A Deformation angle B Increase in length
C Modulus of elasticity D Shear modulus
10 A material under pure shear ultimately leads to
A Uniaxial stress condition B Triaxial condition
C Biaxial stress condition D Zero stress condition
11 A brittle material exhibits
A Large plastic deformation B Large yield plateau
C Large elastic deformation D No plastic deformation
12 In a biaxial tension-tension stress condition, maximum shear stress is
A Difference of magnitude of B One half of difference of
applied tensile stresses magnitude of applied tensile
stresses
C Average of magnitude of D Sum of applied tensile stresses
applied tensile stresses
13 If a Mohr’s Circle for biaxial stress has center at (0,0), it shows
A Tension- tension condition B Compression – Compression
condition
C Tension-compression condition D Tension – Shear condition
14 Radius of Mohr’s circle of stress represents
A Shear stress B Principal stress
 C Normal stress D Maximum normal stress
15 In case of pure shear condition, principal planes lie at
A 45o and 135o B 90o and 135o
o o
C 0 and 90 D 90o and 180o
16 In biaxial stress condition, principal stress are
A At 45o and 135o B Applied stress itself
C Average of applied stress D None of the above
17 A point on a Mohr’s circle represents
A Normal and shear stress B Principal stress and shear stress
C Major and minor principal D Maximum shear and Principal
stress stress
18 Maximum ordinate of all the points lying on a Mohr’s circle represents
A Major principal stress B Minor principal stress
C Maximum shear stress D None of the above
19 In a biaxial stress condition, if the nature of applied stress is reversed,
magnitude of maximum shear stress will
A Change B Not change
C Depends on magnitude of D Be zero
applied stress
20 A shaft carries both bending moment and torsional moment. An element near
the outer surface will have stress condition
A Uniaxial stress and shear stress B Biaxial stress and shear stress
condition condition
C Biaxial stress condition D Pure shear condition
21 A cantilever circular section carries point load at free end alongwith uniform
torsion. An element at the center of cross-section will be under
A Biaxial stress condition B Pure shear condition
C Uniaxial stress and shear stress D Biaxial stress and shear stress
condition condition
22 A plane section remains plane after bending indicates that
A Axial deformation are neglected B Axial deformation are
accounted
C Shear deformation are D Shear deformation are
neglected accounted
23 If diameter of a circular section of beam is doubled, the bending stress due to
applied bending moment will
A Increase by 16 times B Be doubled
C Reduce by 8 times D Be one half
24 A circular section of beam having diameter D is replaced by square section of
side D, the bending stress will,
A Not change B Increase
C reduce D Depend on size D
25 A cantilever beam carrying UDL over its entire span is to be replaced by a
simply supported beam of same span. The maximum bending stress will be
A Reduced by two times B Reduced by four times
C Increased by two times D Increased by four times
26 A cantilever beam carrying UDL over its entire span is to be replaced by a
simply supported beam of same span. Nature of stress at top and bottom
fiber of cross section will
A Not change B Reverse
 C Depend on intensity of UDL D Depend on span length
27 A cantilever beam carrying a point load at its free end, will have
A Pure shear condition at bottom B Pure shear condition at top
fiber near support fiber near support
C Uniaxial stress condition at D None of the above
neutral axis near support
28 In case of a hollow rectangular section, the moment of inertia is given by
I = I1 – I2, the section modulus Z
A Z = Z1 – Z2 B Z ≠ Z1 – Z2
C Z = Z1 + Z2 D Z = ( Z1 – Z2)/2
29 A cantilever carrying UDL over its entire span and a point moment at free end,
maximum shear force will be
A wL + M B wL + M/L
C (wL + M)/L D wL
30 A load is known as point load if
A It acts over small area B It acts over large area
C It acts over negligibly small area D It acts over moderate size area
31 A roller support provides reaction to
A Vertical movement B Horizontal movement
C Rotation D Rotation and horizontal
movement
32 A linear spring is provided at one end of beam as support. The reaction at
spring support will depend on
A Direction of applied load B Stiffness coefficient of spring
C Diameter of spring D Length of spring
33 A propped cantilever will have ...................... reactions
A 2 B 3
C 1 D 4
34 A fixed beam....................... be analysed using stiffness method
A Cannot be B Can be
C Is certain conditions only D None of the above
35 A simply supported beam is replaced by a fixed beam carrying UDL over its
entire span. The maximum deflection will
A Increase to four folds B Increase to five folds
C Reduce to four folds D Reduce to five folds
36 A simply supported beam is replaced by a fixed beam carrying UDL over its
entire span. The maximum bending stress will
A Increase B Reduce
C Not change D Depend on span length
37 In a simply supported beam carrying central point load, a support is provided
at the center of span, the bending moment will
A increase B Reduce
C Be zero D Depend on magnitude of point
load
38 In a simply supported beam carrying UDL over its entire span, supports are
pulled inside to make it overhang beam. Then across the length of beam , the
bending stress at top and bottom fiber
A Nature will change but B Nature will not change but
magnitude remain same magnitude will change
C Nature and magnitude both will D Nature and magnitude both will
 change change
39 The self weight of beam will be taken as
A Point load B Uniformly distributed load
C Uniformly varying load D None of the above
40 A cantilever beam having span length lesser than the depth of cross section
and carrying very heavy point load at the free end will most likely fail in
A Bending stress and bending B Bending stress
shear stress
C Direct shear D Bending shear
41 Cutting paper using scissor is an example of
A Bearing failure B Tearing failure
C Shearing failure D Bending failure
42 Making hole in paper using punch machine is an example of
A Compression failure B Shearing failure
C Tearing failure D Bearing failure
43 A simply supported beam is made by attaching number of layers using glue.
After loading, separation failure was observed at central layer. It was due to
A Bending stress B Combined bending and shear
stress
C Shear stress D None of the above
44 In a diamond shape cross section, maximum shear stress lies at
A Neutral axis B Above and below neutral axis
C Extreme fiber D Central fiber
45 Ratio of average shear stress to maximum shear stress in a rectangular cross
section beam is
A 2 B 3/2
C 2/3 D 4/3
46 A cantilever beam carrying point moment at free end
A Can fail in shear stress at B Cannot fail in shear stress
support anywhere in the beam
C Cannot fail in bending stress at D Cannot fail in bending stress
support anywhere in the beam
47 A simply supported beam carrying a point load W at L/3 span. The maximum
bending moment will be
A WL/4 B WL2/8
C 2WL/9 D 3WL/4
48 Two shafts are connected by a coupling to transfer torsional moment from
one end to another, the connector bolts will be under
A Torsion B Tension
C Bending D Shear
49 A lever is connected to end of cantilever beam. It forms a L shape
configuration in plan. A perpendicular point load is applied at free end of
lever. The support will have to resist
A Bending moment and shear B Bending moment, torsional
force moment and shear force
C Bending moment only D Tosional moment only
50 The effective length of column having fixed support at one end and hinged
support at another end shall be
A L B 2L
C L/2 D L/√2
51 As per the Euler’s theory, failure in column will be by
A Buckling B Crushing
C Crippling D Crippling and buckling
52 Euler’s formula for mild steel column is not applicable if slenderness ratio is
less than
A 80 B 160
C 240 D 320
53 Euler’s critical load for a column which is cantilever is
A π2EI/L2 B π2EI/2L2
2 2
C 4π EI/L D π2EI/4L2
54 Euler’s Crippling load of a square column cross section will be............... if its
side is doubled
A 2 times B ½ times
C 16 times D ¼ times
55 Euler’s column theory is applicable only if ................... stress are negligible in
comparison to ................. stress
A Bending , axial B Axial, bending
C Shear, bending D Axial, shear
56 A rectangular column has dimensions B x D (whereD > B) and different end
conditions in both directions. The column will buckle in the direction
A In which slenderness ratio is B In which slenderness ratio is
Larger Smaller
C of B D of D
57 Factor of safety and safety factors are .........................
A Same B Different
C Equal D None
58 A column is having initial curvature and is loaded by axial load. The axial load
carrying capacity of column ......................... due to initial curvature
A Increases B Remains same
C Decreases D Depends on modulus of
elasticity
59 A column is made by two channel sections. The load carrying capacity of
section will be maximum if
A Channels are welded back to B Channels are welded face to
back face
C Channels are back to back and D Channels are face to face and
are separated by certain are separated by certain
distance distance
60 The formula which can be used for column load to account combined effect of
bending and direct stresses is
A Perry’s formula B Euler’s formula
C Rankine’s formula D Straight line formula
61 Euler’s theory is applicable for
A Short column B Intermediate column
C Long column D Any column
62 Term [ EI * d2y/dx2] represents
A Bending moment B Shear force
C Slope of bending moment D Maxima/minima condition for
diagram deflection
63 Eulesr’s theory is applicable when
 A Column is initially straight B Self weight of column is
accounted in analysis
C Column fails by crushing D Cross section is non-prismatic
64 If a column has length π m, its Young’s modulus is 200GPa and moment of
inertia 1 x 106 mm4 and is hinged at both ends. The Euler’s load shall be
A 100000 N B 200000 N
C 400000 N D 20000 N
65 A column carries an axial load concentrically. Due to wind, a UDL acts all along
its height. Due to wind load, the axial load carrying capacity of column will
A Increase B Decrease
C Remain same D Depends on the direction of
wind
66 The angle between line of action of resultant stress and axis normal to the
plane in Mohr’s circle is called
A Angle of maximum shear B Angle of resultant
C Angle of obliquity D Principal angle
67 The points of intersection between Mohr’s circle and X-axis represents
A Major principal stress only B Major shear stress
C Minor principal stress only D Both major and minor principal
stress
68 If YY axis is tangential to Mohr’s circle, it represents
A Uniaxial stress condition B Biaxial stress condition
C Pure shear condition D Shear and uniaxial stress
condition
69 Mohr’s circle will be a point, if
A Magnitude of applied biaxial B Magnitude and nature of
stress and shear stress is same applied stress in biaxial state is
different
C Magnitude of applied uniaxial D Magnitude and nature of
stress and shear stress is same applied stress in biaxial state is
same
70 An inclined stress on given plane induces,
A Biaxial stress B Uniaxial stress
C Pure shear D Uniaxial and shear stress
71 Angle between principal planes and plane containing maximum shear
A B
C D
o o
72 Planes making an angle 45 and 135 with major principal plane shall have
A maximum shear stress having B minimum shear stress having
same direction same direction
C maximum shear stress having D minimum shear stress having
opposite direction opposite direction
73 A square plate with circular hole at center is loaded by pure shear along its
edges. The shape of hole will
A Circular with reduced diameter B Become ellipse with major axis
parallel to one diagonal
C Become ellipse with major axis D Circular with increased
parallel to one edge diameter
74 A shaft carrying 3 kNm bending moment and 4 kNm torsional moment.
Equivalent torsional moment producing same shear stress shall be
 A 3.5 kNm B 7 kNm
C 5 kNm D 1 kNm
75 If a thin walled hollow spherical ball is placed in a pressure chamber, the
stress in its wall will be
A Maximum along horizontal axis B Uniform all over the shell
C Minimum along vertical axis D Non uniform over the shell
76 In a thin walled cylindrical pipe section having diameter 200mm and thickness
1mm, carries water at 5 N/mm2 pressure, hoop stress shall be
A 250 MPa B 500 MPa
C 125 MPa D Zero
77 In a thin walled cylindrical pipe section having radius 200mm and thickness
1mm, carries water at 5 N/mm2 pressure, longitudinal stress shall be
A 250 MPa B 500 MPa
C 125 MPa D Zero
78 A long closed cylindrical pressure vessel is made by joining different
cylindrical parts using lap joint all along the periphery. The rivets shall be
under
A Bending shear B Direct compression
C Direct shear D Tosional shear
79 A thin walled cylindrical pressure pipe is made by welding two semi circular
parts along the length. Under working condition, the weld shall be under
A Direct shear B Direct tension
C Direct compression D Torsional shear
80 In a thin walled closed cylindrical pressure vessel, bending moment will be
A Maximum near the end B Maximum at the mid section
C Zero everywhere D Uniform everywhere
81 In all cylindrical pressure vessels, the ends are kept in form of hemisphere
instead of circular plates. It is done to
A Avoid stress concentration B Increase the capacity
C Reduce longitudinal stress D Reduce hoop stress
82 The variation of shear per unit length is known as
A Shear stress B Bending moment
C Shear flow D Shear force
83 The point in the plane of cross section of beam at which if load is applied,
beam will bend without twist is known as
A Centroid B Centre of gravity
C Shear center D None of the above
84 Shear center of a symmetric I – section will lie
A Outside the section B At centriod
C At bottommost fiber D At topmost fiber.
85 Shear center of a channel section placed as C will
A Pass through web B Pass through flange
C Pass through centroid D None of the above
86 If case of beam having only one axis of symmetry, shear center will lie
A Away from line of symmetry B At centroid of section
C Always on axis of symmetry D At center of gravity
87 In case of beam having channel cross section placed as C, the direction of
shear flow in flanges shall be
A In same direction B In opposite direction
C Dependent on thickness of D Dependent on width of flange
 flange
88 A channel section is having overall depth 200mm, overall width 100mm,
uniform thickness 10mm. If the section is placed as C and its moment of
inertia about centroidal XX axis is I mm4, the shear center will be at
eccentricity
A !08/ I mm B !08 x I mm
8
C I/!0 mm D 2 x !08/ I mm
89 In a thin closed cylindrical pressure vessel, the ratio of hoop stress to
longitudinal stress shall be
A 1 B 2
C ½ D 1/4
90 In case of thin closed cylindrical pressure vessel, maximum shear stress shall
be
A Pd/2t B Pd/4t
C Pd/6t D Pd/8t
91 In a thin spherical shell, the ratio of radial to circumferential stress is
A 1 B 2
C 1/2 D 1/4
92 Direct and bending stress occurs due to
A Axial loading B Concentric loading
C Eccentric loading D Any of the above
93 The diameter of kern section of a circular cross section column is
A d/2 B d/3
C d/4 D d/6
94 Strain rosettes are used for direct measuring of ..........................
A Shear strain B Volumetric strain
C Linear strain D None of the above
95 Ratio of modulus of elasticity to modulus of rigidity for a material having
Poisson’s ratio 0.25 is
A 1.5 B 2.5
C 4.5 D 1.0
96 The property of material to store strain energy is called
A Ductility B Modulus of rupture
C Strain hardening D resilience
97 In case of two point loading test, bending moment between the loads is
A Zero B Constant
C Varying D Data insufficient
98 Bending stress across the section at point of inflexion is
A Vary linearly B Constant
C Zero D Depends on moment of inertia
99 In case of H section beam, maximum shear stress will
A Be at neutral axis B Not be at neutral axis
C Be at top and bottom fibers D None of the above
100 The torsional capacity of a hollow shaft in comparison to solid shaft having
same cross sectional area is
A Less B More
C Same D Has no relation with sectional
area
101 Two forces under equilibrium must be
A collinear B like parallel
 C unlike parallel D non parallel
102 What is the limiting value of Poisson’s ratio?
A 0 and 0.5 B 1 and -0.5
C -1 and 0.5 D -1 and -0.5
103 An increase in load at the free end of a cantilever is likely to cause failure
A At free end B At the mid of its length
C At the fixed support end D Anywhere on the beam
104 For self locking machines, the efficiency of machine should be
A 50% B less than 50%
C more than 50% D none of above
105 Numbers of unknowns in case of spatial hinge support are
A one B two
C three D any one of above
106 The property of material by which it can be drawn in to wires.
A Plasticity B Ductility
C Elasticity D Malleability
107 The bending moment for a simply supported beam with central load
will be
A Maximum at support B Least at support
C Least at centre D Maximum at the centre
108 Relation between dynamic coefficient of friction (μd) and static coefficient of
friction ( μs) is
A μd >μs B μd <μs
C μd =μs D none of above
109 Struts are load currying members of a truss structure which are subjected to
A axial tensile loads B axial compressive loads
C torsional loads D transverse loads
110 A diagram which shows the variations of the axial load for all sections of the
span of a beam is called
A stress diagram B thrust diagram
C shear force diagram D bending moment diagram
111 The number of equilibrium conditions required for analysis of a concurrent
force system shall be
A 1 B 2
C 3 D 6
112 The moment diagram for a cantilever whose free end is subjected to moment
will be
A Rectangle B Triangle
C Parabola D Cubic curve
113 The number of members (m) and number of joints (j) in a plane perfect truss
is given by
A m = (3j - 3) B j = (2m – 3)
C m = (2j – 3) D j = (3m – 2)
114 Moment of inertia of triangle having base b and height h about apex is.
A bh 3 B b3h
3 48
C b3h D bh 3
12 12
115 Impact test measures ………… of maternal
 A Toughness B Hardness
C Brittleness D Ductility
116 Principal stress on maximum shear stress plane is
A Maximum B Zero
C Minimum D None of the above
117 Poisson’s ratio is ratio of
A lateral strain to linear strain B stress strain within elastic limit
C shear stress to shear strain D direct stress to corresponding
volumetric strain
118 When the temperature of a fixed beam is increased, the stress induced will be
A tensile B compressive
C shear D zero
119 The maximum frictional force which comes into play, when a body just begins
to slide over the surface of another body is known.
A sliding friction B rolling friction
C limiting friction D none of the above
120 The material which have the same elastic properties in all directions are
A Brittle B Anisotropic
C Isotropic D Homogeneous
121 A rod is enclosed centrally in a tube and assembly is tightened by rigid
washers, then
A rod is subjected to a B tube is subjected to a
compressive load compressive load
C both are subjected to D rod is subjected to
compressive compressive, tube is subjected
to tensile
122 If a composite bar is cooled, then the nature of stress in the part with high
coefficient of thermal expansion will be
A tensile B compressive
C zero D none of these
123 The forces, whose lines of action does not lie in the same plane but are
meeting at one point, are known as
A coplanar concurrent forces B non - coplanar concurrent
forces
C non – coplanar non concurrent D none of these
forces
124 Three coplanar non – parallel forces in equilibrium will ………… be concurrent.
A always B never
C some times D any of above
125 On oiling the lifting machine ………… is not affected
A velocity ratio B mechanical advantage
C efficiency D law of machine
126 The shape of shear force diagram for cantilever beam subjected to couple at
free end is.
A horizontal straight line B zero
C parabola D inclined straight line
127 Lateral strains are ………… longitudinal strains.
A always less than B sometimes less than
C always equal D always more than
128 Law of transmissibility is applicable for ………… only
 A Deformable bodies B Solid bodies
C Rigid bodies D Any of these
129 The centre of gravity of a homogeneous body is the point at which the whole
A Volume of the body is assumed B Area of surface of the body is
to be concentrated assumed to be concentrated
C Weight of the body is assumed D All the above
to be concentrated
130 Which of the following beam is likely to have the point of contraflexure when
loaded by UDL over its entire span
A Cantilever beam B Beam with overhangs
C Simply supported beam D None of the above
131 Two forces P and Q are acting at an angle θ, their resultant R is given by
A 2 2 B 2 2
R= P + Q + 2 PQSin 2θ R = P + Q + 2 PQCos θ
C D
R = P 2 + Q 2 − 2 PQCos θ R = P 2 + Q 2 + 2 PQCos 2θ
132 Varignon’s theorem is used to find
A Resultant of coplanar B Resultant of coplanar non
concurrent forces concurrent forces
C Location of resultant of D Location of resultant of
coplanar coplanar Non concurrent
concurrent forces forces
133 The C.G. of a hemisphere from its base measured along the vertical radius is
at a distance of
A 4R B 3R
3π 8
C 3πR D 8R
4 3
134 When a simply supported beams with overhangs on both sides is subjected to
point loads at free end of both side overhangs, the nature of bending stress
along top fibers at the central span shall be
A flexural compressive B flexural tensile
C Axial compressive D Axial tensile
135 The section modulus of a square section is proportional to
A Modulus of elasticity B Modulus of rigidity
C Half moment of inertia of the D Product of area and side
section
136 A smooth rectangular box lying on a convex surface remains
A in neutral equilibrium B in stable equilibrium
C in unstable equilibrium D out of equilibrium
137 As the elastic limit reaches, tensile strain
A increase more quickly B decreases more quickly
C increases in proportional to the D decreases in proportion to the
stress stress
138 Bending stress on a section is maximum where shearing force
A is maximum B changes sign
C is minimum D is equal
139 The shear force on a simply supported beam is proportional to
A Algebraic sum of the transverse B sum of the forces
forces
 C displacement of the neutral axis D algebraic sum of all forces
140 Bending stress at point of contraflexure in an overhang beam shall be
A Zero at top fiber B Zero at neutral axis fiber
C Zero at bottom fiber D Zero at all fibers
141 If two forces of 3N and 4N act at right angles to each other their resultant
force will be equal to
A 7N B 1
N
7
C 1N D 5N
142 The following is not a law of static friction
A the force of friction always acts B the force of friction depends
in a direction opposite to that in upon the roughness of the
which the body tends to move surface
C the force of friction is depend D the magnitude of the limiting
upon the area of contact friction bears a constant ratio
to the normal reaction between
two surface
143 Every maternal obeys the Hook’s low within it’s
A Elastic limit B Plastic limit
C Limit of proportionality D None of above
144 Within limit of proportionality ratio of stress to strain is known as
A Bulk Modulus B Young’s modulus
C Modulus of rigidity D Poisson’s ratio
145 There will be vertical component of reaction at the supports if the beam
structure rests on.
A Roller Support B Hinge support
C Fixed supports D All the above
146 Three members of a truss are meeting at a joint and joint is loaded by a point
force. If two members are in straight line, force in third member will be
A Zero B Equal to forces in other
members
C Difficult to predict D None of the above
147 In a beam, the neutral plane
A may be at its centre B Is independent of cross
sectional dimensions
C does not change during D passes through the centre of
deformation beam
148 A beam is said to be of uniform strength if
A deflection is same throughout B B.M is same throughout the
the beam beam
C shear stress is same throughout D bending stress is same
the beam throughout the beam
149 On a ladder resting on the ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall,
the force of friction acts
A Downwards at its upper end B Upwards at its upper end
C Away from the wall at its lower D None of the above
end
150 A beam is said to be completely analyzed , when
A support reactions are B shear and moment diagrams
determined are found
 C the moment of inertia is D none of the above
uniform throughout the length
151 A pin jointed frame with number of joints j, and number of members n will
be a perfect frame, if
A n = (2j + 3) B n > (2j - 3)
C n < (2j - 3) D n = (2j - 3)
152 The shape factor of the equilateral triangle is
A 1.5 B 1.12
C 2 D 1.7
153 The area under the stress-strain curve represents
A breaking strength of material B toughness of material
C hardness of materials D energy required to cause failure
154 A three hinged arch will have three hinges
A two at the two ends and one B two at the two ends the third at
anywhere in between the two the crown only
ends
C one hinge at the crown D none of the above
essentially and the other two
any where
155 Number of unknowns to be determined in the stiffness method is equal to
A Static indeterminacy B Kinematic indeterminacy
C Sum of static and kinematic D None of these
indeterminacy
156 Size of member stiffness matrix of a plane truss member would be
A 3x3 B 6x6
C 4x4 D 12 x 12
157 Maximum number of unknown forces that can be determined in concurrent
force system under equilibrium is
A Zero B 2
C 3 D 6
158 The amount of deflection of a beam subjected to some type of loading
depends upon
A Cross section B Bending moment
C Either (a) or (b) D Both (a) and (b)
159 Cables resist external loads by
A Tension B Compression
C Bending D Compression & bending
160 Which of the following does not fall in the category of displacement method?
A Method of consistent B Equilibrium method
deformation
C Moment distribution method D Stiffness method
161 Castigliano’s theorem fall under the category of
A Displacement method B Equilibrium method
C Force method D Stiffness method
162 Maximum number of unknown forces that can be determined in non-
concurrent force system under equilibrium is
A Zero B 2
C 3 D 6
163 The moment distribution method is best suited for
A Indeterminate pin jointed truss B Rigid frames
 C Space frames D Composite structure
164 The stability of dam is checked for
A Tension at the base, B Compression at the base,
overturning & sliding overturning &sliding
C Overturning and sliding only D none of above
165 An arch resist the external load by
A Normal thrust B Normal thrust and bending
moment
C Bending moment and radial D Normal thrust, radial shear and
shear bending moment
166 If area of cross section of tie of a tied arch is increased, then tension in the tie
will
A Increase B Decrease
C Remains same D Increase or decrease
167 Fixed end moment over simply supported end is
A Zero B Negative
C Positive D Infinity
168 The shape of cable under horizontal uniformly distributed load is
A Parabolic B Catenary
C Circular D Triangular
169 Simply supported beam having span L undergoes a vertical deflection y at its
centre. Rotation at the hinged end will be
A 3y/L B 4y/L
C y/L D 2y/L
170 The rectangular section with sides 3 m and 6 m has a core,
A Parallelogram of sides 2 m, 4 m B Square diagonal of sides 1 m,3
m
C Circular of radius 3 m D Rhombus diagonal of sides 1
m,2m
171 The maximum slope of a cantilever carrying a point load at its free end is at
the
A Fixed end B Centre of span
C Free end D None of these
172 Plane stress at any point in the body is defined by principal stresses 3 σ and σ.
The ratio of normal stress to the maximum shear stress on the plane of
maximum shear stress is
A 1 B 3
C 2 D 4
173 If the end B of continuous beam ABC sinks down, then the moment at A will
be
A zero B anticlockwise
C clockwise D infinity
174 A circular three pinned arch of span 20 m and a rise of 5 m is hinged at a
crown and springing. It carries a load of u.d.l. of 10 kN/m over entire span.
The horizontal thrust at the right springing will be
A 200kN B 600kN
C 400kN D 800Kn
175 If the moment applied at the hinged end of a prismatic propped cantilever,
then the moment at the fixed end will be
A M B M/2
 C M/3 D M/4
176 The shape factor of the equilateral triangle is
A 1.5 B 1.12
C 2 D 1.7
177 The ratio of the stiffness of the beam at near end when far end is hinged to
the stiffness when far end is fixed is
A ½ B ¾
C 1 D 4/3
178 The shape of influence line diagram for reaction in a simply supported beam
is
A Rectangular B Triangular
C Parabolic D Circular
179 A cantilever of length L has flexural rigidity EI up to length L/2 from the fixed
end and EI/2 for the rest. It carries a moment M at the free end. The slope at
the free end is given by
A ML2 B ML2
2 EI 2 EI
C 3ML D 2 ML
2 EI 3EI
180 For a fixed beam with span ’L’ ,having plastic moment capacity of Mp, the
ultimate central concentrated load will be
A 4Mp/L B 6Mp/L
C 8Mp/L D 11.7Mp/L
181 simply supported beam of constant flexural rigidity and length ‘2L’ carries a
concentrated load ‘P’ at its midspan and the deflection under the load is ‘δ’. If
a cantilever beam of the same flexural rigidity and length ‘L’ is subjected to
load ‘P’ at its free end, then the deflection at the free end will be
A δ/2 B 2δ
C δ D 4δ
182 The shear force at a section in the conjugate beam corresponds to
A shear force multiplied by EI at B deflection at that section
that section in real beam multiplied by EI in real beam
C EI times slope at that section in D slope at that section in real
real beam beam
183 The degree of static indeterminacy of the rigid portal frame having one
internal hinge is
A 8 B 7
C 2 D 5
184 When a solid shaft is subjected to torsion ,the shear stress induced in the
shaft at its centre is
A zero B Minimum
C Maximum D average
185 Section shear centre is point through which ,if the resultant load passes the
section will not be subjected to any
A Bending B Tesion
C Compression D Torsion
186 If propped cantilever beam carries uniformly distributed load w kN/m
throughout the span, then the reaction at propped end is
A 5/8 wL B 3/8 wL
 C ½ wL D ¾ wL
187 Displacement co-ordinates for a beam are shown in the given figure. The
stiffness matrix is given by
A 3EI EI  B 3EI − 0.5 EI 
 EI 2 EI  − 0.5 EI 2 EI 
   
C 3EI 0  D 3EI 0.5 EI 
0 2 EI  0.5 EI 2 EI 
   
188 A fixed beam is subjected to a couple of moment M0 at the centre. The
corresponding fixed moment at each end is equal to
A M0 B M0
2
C M0 D M0
4 8
189 A simply supported beam with rectangular cross-section is subjected to
central concentrated load. If the width and depth of the beam are doubled,
then the deflection at the centre of the beam will be reduced to
A 50% B 25%
C 12.5% D 6.25%
190 If a section divides the span of a simply supported beam as c and (l – c), the
ordinate of influence line diagram, for B.M. at the section, will be
A maximum at the section and B maximum at the section and
equal to c (l − c ) c (l − c )
equal to l
C maximum at the supports and D none of the above
equal to unity
191 The maximum shear stress in a solid shaft of circular cross-section having
diameter subjected to a torque T is ς. If the torque is increased by four times
and the diameter of the shaft is increased by two times, the maximum shear
stress in the shaft will be
A 2ς B ς
C ς /2 D ς /4
192 A vertical PQ of length L is fixed at its top end P and has a flange to the
bottom end Q. A weight W is dropped vertically from a height h (<L) on to the
flange. The axial stress in the rod will be ……………. In comparison to weight
placed at end gently
A Equal B Double
C Triple D Has no relation
193 Staad uses ............................. method of analysis for Plate elements.
A Finite element method B Finite difference method
C Stiffness method D Flexibility method
194 Bending moment and slope at the end of fixed support of a fixed beam loaded
by UDL is..................... and ............................ respectively
A Minimum, zero B Maximum, Zero
C Zero, maximum D Zero, minimum
195 In a simply supported beam, maximum deflection exists where
A Bending moment is maximum B Slope is maximum
C Slope is zero D Bending moment is zero
196 In a two span continuous beam loaded by UDL, point of contraflexure exist
 A At mid support B In both spans near middle
support
C Near end support D At the end support
197 For no tension condition, resultant of all horizontal and vertical loads must
pass through middle .................. of base of dam.
A 1/6th B 1/8th
C 1/3rd D 1/4th
198 Wind force acting of chimney will try to induce
A Overturning B Sliding
C Subsidence in soil D All of the above
199 Drawing torsional moment diagram is similar to
A Drawing shear force diagram B Drawing bending moment
carrying point loads diagram carrying point loads
C Drawing shear force diagram D Drawing bending moment
carrying UDL diagram carrying UDL
200 Total reactions in 3D space at a fixed end support are
A 3 B 4
C zero D 6
1 If the minimum dimension of element to be cast in PCC is 75mm, the
maximum size of aggregate can be
A 20mm B 10mm
C 25mm D 40mm
2 As per IS 456:2000 designation, concrete having characteristic strength
varying from M25 to M55 is known as
A Ordinary concrete B Standard concrete
C Nominal concrete D Normal concrete
3 Tensile strength of concrete is given as
A 5000 √fck B 0.7 √fck
C 0.7 x fck D 0.1 x fck
4 The medium degree of workability is defined as
A 50 – 100mm slump B 25 – 75mm slump
C 100 – 150mm slump D 150 – 200mm slump
5 In self compacted concrete, slump will be,
A 150 – 200 mm slump B Collapse slump
C Flowing slump D Shear slump
6 A building is within the tidal zone of sea, the environmental exposure
condition to be assumed in concrete mix design shall be,
A Bad B Moderate
C Very bad D Extreme
7 In internal columns of a closed building situated near sea shore,
A 300 B 340
C 320 D 360
8 Maximum W/C ratio for RCC work is
A 0.45 B 0.50
C 0.55 D 0.60
9 Minimum cement content for mild environment using 10mm size
aggregate, shall be ....................... kg per cubic meter of concrete
A 300 B 320
C 340 D 360
10 In a designed mix, the quantity of concrete ingredient is defined in terms
of ................
A Cement by weight but B Weight
aggregates by volume
C Volume D Either of weight or volume can
be taken
11 As per IS 456:2000, in case of nominal mix, proportioning of ingredients is
based on
A Volume B Weight
C density D Specific gravity
12 As per IS 456:2000, in case of nominal mix, water cement ratio varies from
A 0.38 to 0.60 B 0.45 to 0.75
C 0.50 to 1.0 D 0.6 to 1.2
13 In design mix of concrete, if sand is wet, correction is made for
A Increase in volume due to B Access quantity of water in sand
bulking of sand
C Both (A) and (B) D Either of (A) or (B)
14 Side formwork of beam can be removed after
A 72 hrs B 16 – 24 hrs
 C 24 – 48 Hrs D 7 days
15 In slabs, distance between negative and positive reinforcement near
support is maintained by inserting
A Spacer bars B Cover blocks
C Chair bars D Hooks
16 Moist curing of concrete in case of concrete made by OPC and PPC shall be
........... days and .............. days respectively
A 7,14 B 10,14
C 7,10 D 14,28
17 Number of samples of concrete test specimen prescribed by IS 456:2000
depends on
A Grade of concrete B Quantity of concrete
C Placement method of D None of the above
concrete
18 The test result of individual concrete specimen should not vary more than
A ±5% B ± 10 %
C ± 15 % D ±20 %
19 In case of doubt of concrete quality, flexural members are tested by
................ loading
A DL + LL B 1.5 x (DL + LL)
C DL + 1.5 LL D DL + 1.25LL
20 In case of core test, the average strength of core should be ............. of
cube strength
A Atleast 50% B Atleast 85%
C Atleast 100% D Atleast 1.5 times
21 In load test of flexural members, observation are made for
A Deflection only B Deflection and elastic recovery
C Cracks only D Deflection and cracks
22 In case of ultrasonic pulse velocity test, we get
A Equivalent compressive B Qualitative results
strength in MPa
C Both (A) and (B) D Neither (A) nor (B)
23 Snow loads are accounted in design as per
A IS 875 (Part I) B IS 875 (Part III)
C IS 875 (Part IV) D IS 875 (Part V)
24 While determining stability of structure under overturning, the restoring
moment should not be less than overturning moments provided by
A 1.5 (DL + LL) B 1.2 ( DL + LL)
C 1.2 DL + 1.4 LL D DL + LL
25 Fire resistance of RC structural element depends upon
A Member size B Concrete Cover
C Type of aggregates D All of the above
26 Effective span of end span of a continuous beam supported on walls is
A Clear span + effective depth B Clear span + 1/2 effective depth
C Clear span + support width D Center to center distance
27 The transformed moment of inertia of RC section depends on
A Amount of steel B Grade of concrete
C Grade of steel D All of the above
28 To get maximum design negative bending moment in a multispan
continuous beam, live load arrangement shall be
 A Alternate spans loaded B Spans randomly loaded
C Two adjacent span loaded D Cannot be predicted
29 Moment and shear in a continuous beam can be determined by coefficient
method given in IS 456:2000, provided there are minimum ........... spans
and span length does not vary more than .............. %
A 2, 10 B 3, 15
C 4, 20 D 5, 25
30 Critical section for beam hanged between two suspender columns shall be
A At distance ‘d’ from B At distance ‘d/2’ from support
support face face
C At face of support D At distance ‘d’ from center of
support
31 Redistribution of moments represents
A Plastic analysis B Elastic analysis
C Homogeneous material D Isotropic material analysis
analysis
32 A continuous beam supports a monolithic slab at top. The effective flange
width at support section shall be
A Less than beam width B More than beam width
C Equal to beam width D Insufficient data
33 Deflection of beam is usually limited to
A Span / 350 B 20mm
C (A) Or (B) whichever is D (A) Or (B) whichever is less
more
34 Basic value of span to depth ratio for limit of deflection for a simply
supported beam having span 20m shall be
A 7 B 10
C 20 D 26
35 A cantilever will be laterally stable if total length between free end and
lateral support is
A less than 25 times width B B less than 100 B2/D
C Lesser of (A) and (B) D Less than 60 times width B
36 In calculation of span to depth ratio for two way slab, span shall be
A Shorter span B Longer span
C Average span D Diagonal distance
37 Two way slabs can be analyzed using
A Pigaud’s theory B Westergaurd’s theory
C Johnson’s yield line theory D All of the above
38 A compression is called pedestal if its effective length is less than ..........
times its least lateral dimension
A 2 B 3
C 4 D 5
39 In a building, distance between floor level and soffit of flat slab roof is 5m
and between floor level and bottom of capital is 4m. The unsupported
length of column shall be
A 4m B 4.5m
C 5m D 2m
40 A column 300 x 600 is considered to be fixed at top and bottom and has
unsupported length 15m. The minimum eccentricity to be considered in
design of column shall be
 A 20mm B 40mm
C 30mm D 50mm
41 Development length of reinforcement depends on
A Diameter of bar B Strength of concrete
C Yield stress of steel D All of the above
42 Bond stress of concrete .................. when steel is embedded in
compression zone
A Reduces B Remains unchanged
C Increases D Has no relation with location
43 Anchoring is done by hooks normally in case of
A HYSD bars B Prestressing steel
C Plain mild steel bars D TMT bars
44 Actual curtailment beyond theoretical cut off point shall be .................. or
................. times the diameter whichever is more.
A Effective depth, 16 B 0.75 times effective depth, 16
C Effective depth, 12 D 0.75 times effective depth, 16
45 Minimum spacing between the bars is governed by
A Diameter of bars B Nominal size of aggregate
C Size of vibrator needle to D All of the above
be used
46 Maximum horizontal distance between temperature and shrinkage
reinforcement in a slab is limited to minimum of
A 3 d or 300mm B 3d or 450mm
C 5d or 300mm D 5d or 450mm
47 For footing , minimum cover thickness is prescribed as
A 40mm B 50mm
C 75mm D 100mm
48 Concrete cover in a beam with one hour fire rating and moderate
environmental condition shall be
A 20mm B 25mm
C 30mm D 40mm
49 Area of tension reinforcement in beam is limited to ................ of cross
section
A 0.8% B 2.5%
C 4% D 4.5%
50 In a T – beam side face reinforcement shall be
A 1 % of cross sectional area B 0.1 % of cross sectional area
C 0.1 % of flange area D 0.1 % of web area
51 Maximum spacing of stirrups of given area and legs in a beam depends on
A Amount of compression B Strength of concrete
reinforcement
C Cross – sectional D All of the above
dimensions B and D
52 Torsion reinforcement is provided in form of
A Development length B Stirrups
C Minimum reinforcement D Side face reinforcement
53 Minimum amount of HYSD bar reinforcement in slab shall be ..................
of cross section
A 0.15 % B 0.12%
C 0.25 % D 0.08%
54 Maximum diameter of bars which can be used in a slab of 100mm
thickness is
A 10mm B 12mm
C 16mm D 20mm
55 Minimum number of steel bars in a circular column shall be
A 4 B 5
C 6 D 8
56 Spacing of longitudinal bars along the periphery of a concrete column is
limited to
A 75mm B 10 times diameter
C 300mm D Effective depth of column
57 Nominal HYSD reinforcement in a pedestal shall not be ................. its cross
section
A More than 0.12% B Less than 0.12%
C More than 0.15% D Less than 0.15%
58 Pitch of ties in a column for seismic zone II shall be equal to
A Least lateral dimension B 16 times diameter of smallest
longitudinal bar
C 300mm D All of the above
59 Diameter of lateral ties should not be less than
A ¼ times diameter of largest B ½ times diameter of largest
longitudinal bar longitudinal bar
C ¼ times diameter of D ½ times diameter of smallest
smallest longitudinal bar longitudinal bar
60 The expansion joints are provided after every ............... length of structure
A 30m vertical B 30m vertical
C 30m horizontal D 45m horizontal
61 A beam is called a deep beam if it L/D ratio is ................ in simply
supported condition and .............. in continuous beam structure
A 2, 2.5 B 2, 2
C 2.5, 2 D 1.5, 2.5
62 In case of flat slab, thickness of slab is increased around the column is
known as
A Column strip B Drop panel
C Column head D None of the above
63 Minimum thickness of flat slab should be
A 75mm B 100mm
C 125mm D 150mm
64 The design of flat slab is carried out based on
A Grid analysis B Johnson’s theory
C Equivalent grid method D Equivalent frame method
65 Punching shear strength of concrete in Limit state method is taken as
A 0.7√fck B 0.25√fck
C 0.16√fck D 5000√fck
66 The effective height to thickness ratio of RC wall is limited to
A 6 B 20
C 26 D 30
67 The span of stair having going length 3m, and landing 1.2m and 0.8m 0n
either side shall be
A 5.0m B 4.2m
 C 4.8m D 3.8m
68 Edge thickness of a rectangular footing resting on soil will not be less than
A 100mm B 150mm
C 200mm D 300mm
69 In IS 456, limit state of durability of concrete structure is accounted in
terms of
A Strength of concrete B Deflection
C Crack width D IS 456 does not account
durability of structure
70 The surface crack width in general should not exceed,
A 1mm B 2mm
C 0.5mm D 0.3mm
71 Llimit state of serviceability for DL + LL condition is checked for
A 1.5 (DL + LL) B Working loads
C 1.2 (DL + LL) D 0.9 (DL + LL)
72 The factor 0.67 introduced in concrete strength is to account
A Variation in concrete B Variation in type of steel in RC
strength structure
C Size effect D Partial safety factor
73 The failure in case of limit state of collapse is defined in terms of
A Failure stress B Failure strain
C Failure load D All of the above
74 The idealized stress - strain curve for concrete adopted by IS 456 shows
constant strength equal to fck after reaching ultimate. The practical stress –
strain graph shows
A Similar pattern B Drooping curve after ultimate
C Rising curve after ultimate D Uncertain behaviour
75 The maximum compressive strain in combined axial compression and
bending case is given as,
A 0.0035 B 0.002
C 0.002 + 0.87fy/Es D 0.002 + 0.75 strain of most
compressed fiber
76 A column is design as axial member if the minimum eccentricity is
................ than ................ times lateral dimension.
A More, 0.1 B Less, 0.05
C More, 0.05 D Less, 0.1
77 Maximum allowable shear stress in concrete depends on,
A Amount of reinforcement B Grade of reinforcement
C Grade of concrete D All of the above
78 Shear strength of concrete in case of solid slab depends on
A Concrete grade B Percentage of reinforcement
C Overall depth of slab D All of the above
79 Equivalent shear force in case of combined shear and torsion, depends on
A Depth of section B Width of section
C Length of element D All of the above
80 Shear reinforcement for torsion shall be in form of
A Two legged stirrup only B Stirrups with two or more legs
C Additional longitudinal D Helical reinforcement only
steel
81 Equivalent bending moment to applied torsional moment depends on
 A Overall depth to breadth B Effective depth to breadth ratio
ratio
C Breadth only D Depth only
82 In a two way solid slab, moments in longer direction and shorter direction
are given as ........................... respectively using coefficient method
A αxw lx2 and αyw ly2 B αxw lx2 and αyw lx2
C αxw lx2 and αxw ly2 D αxw ly2 and αxw ly2
83 The width of middle strip of solid slab in RC is
A ½ of span length B ¾ of span length
C 1/8 of span length D ¼ of span length
84 An over - reinforced beam fails by
A Yielding of steel B Crushing of steel
C Crushing of concrete D None of the above
85 If a flanged beam, if neutral axis lies in flange, it will be designed as ...........
section
A Flanged section B Rectangular section having
width equal to web
C Rectangular section having D Web section
width equal to flange
86 In case of prestressed concrete higher grade of concrete is required
because of
A High bearing stresses B High compressive stresses
C High bursting stresses D All of the above
87 Ultimate strength of commercially available prestressing tendons is about
..............
A 250 MPa to 500MPa B 500MPa to 1200 MPa
C 1200 MPa to 2000 MPa D 2000 MPa to 3000 MPa
88 Minimum grade of concrete in prestressing is
A M20 B M30
C M35 D M50
89 In prestressed concrete element, high strength steel is required due to
A Longer span structures B High strength concrete
C Heavy prestress losses D Low tensile strength of concrete
90 Pre – tensioning is usually adopted for
A Cast – in – situ construction B Pre – cast construction
C Any type of construction D Composite construction
91 In prestressed concrete member, tension is
A Permitted under working B Not permitted under working
load condition load condition
C Permitted limited to tensile D Permitted limited to rupture
strength under working modulus under working load
load condition condition
92 Best tendon profile to account applied load is
A Shape of shear force B Shape of bending moment
diagram diagram
C Shape of axial force D Shape of torsional moment
diagram diagram
93 Frictional losses during tensioning of prestressed concrete is accounted as
A Length effect B Curvature effect
C Anchorage slip D Both (A) and (B)
94 In post – tensioning, shrinkage strain is
A 3 x 10-4 B Dependent on concrete grade
C Varies with age of concrete D Dependent on steel grade
at transfer
95 The loss of prestress in pre – tension concrete due to shrinkage is
A 60 MPa B 63 MPa
C 100 MPa D 200 MPa
96 The loss of prestress in a prestressed concrete member usually varies
between
A 2 to 5% B 6 to 12%
C 12 to 20% D 20 to 25%
97 In case of continuous prestressed beam, the cable is placed as
A Parabolic B Straight
C Eccentric straight D Concordant
98 In case of multistage prestressing, first stage prestressing is usually account
A Prestressing force B Self weight
C Live load D Vehicular load
99 Additional steel meshes are provided behind the anchor block of a
prestressed beam to account
A Compressive stress B Bearing stress
C Bursting stress D Flexural stress
100 The moment resisting capacity in an RC element is controlled by varying
..................... and in prestressed section it is controlled by varying
......................
A Reinforcement, Lever arm B Concrete strength,
Reinforcement
C Reinforcement, concrete D Stirrups spacing, Lever arm
strength
101 The ratio of compressive strength of concrete to the tensile strength is
usually

A 5 B 10

C 15 D 20

102 To which one of the following mixes by volume would M 25 grade of

concrete approximate,

A 1:1:2 B 1 : 1.5 : 3

C 1:2:4 D 1:2:6

103 In working stress, the factor of safety applied to the stress in concrete is
usually about,

A 2 B 3

C 4 D 5

104 The partial factor of safety for concrete as per IS: 456 – 2000 is,

A 1.50 B 1.15

C 0.87 D 0.446

105 In reality, most of the connections in concrete structures are.

A Simple B Rigid

C Hinged D Partially restrained

106 For dynamic load it is better to use,

A Steel structure B RC structure

C Prestressed structure D Any one of above

107 The four span continuous beam ABCD is to be analysed for moment due
to DL and LL. The span moment will be maximum when LL is placed on
spans.

A AB, BC and CD B AB and BC

C AB and CD D BC and CD

108 In a reinforced concrete section, if the area of the tension steel is more
than that required for a balanced section and there is no compression
steel, the moment of the section as compared to that of balanced section
 A Will remain the same B Will be less

C Will be more D Depends on other factors

109 Normally maximum value of span / depth ratio for simply supported
beams is taken as,

A 10 B 12

C 15 D 20

110 Increased depth of a beam leads to,

A Economy in steel B Reduction in deflection

C Increased stiffness of the D All of the above

section

111 Effective length of column fixed at one ends and hinged at the other as
per IS : 456 shall be,

A 0.65 L B 2.0 L

C 1.0 L D 0.85 L

112 Which of the following slab is built monolithically with the supporting
columns and is reinforced in two or more directions, without any
provision of beams?

A Grid slab B Flat slab

C Two way slab D Circular slab

113 The total residual shrinkage strain for pre-tensioned members is,

A 3 10-4 B 3 10-5

C 3 10-6 D 3 10-8

114 In which case the maximum value of span / depth ratio would be least,

A Simply supported slabs B Simply supported slabs

spanning in one direction spanning in two direction

C Continuous slabs spanning D Cantilever slab

in one direction

115 An axially loaded column is of 300 300 mm size. Unsupported length

of column is 3 m. what is the minimum eccentricity of the axial load for
the column?
 A 0 B 10 mm

C 16 mm D 20 mm

116 In a RCC beam of carrying shear force and bending moment will have side
face reinforcement if the overall depth D exceedis

A 450mm B 750mm

C 300mm D 500mm

117 In case of pre-tensioned

tensioned beams, the preferred steel is

A Fe 250 B Fe415

C Fe500 D None of the above

118 Generally plastic hinges occur at,

A At the points of maximum B At the connection involving

moment change in geometry

C Under the concentrated D At all of above

load

119 A concrete beam of rectangular c/s of 100 mm 100 mm is prestressed

with a force 100kN at eccentricity 10 mm. The maximum compressive
stress in the concrete is,

A 10 MPa B 6 MPa

C 12 MPa D 16 MPa

120 In case of cube testing of concrete, the strength of individual cube should
not vary more than ………………….. of average strength

A ± 5% B ± 10%

C ± 15% D ± 20%

121 The approximate ratio of the permissible stress at the time of jacking to
the ultimate stress of high tensile steel in prestressed concrete is closer
to,

A 0.8 B 0.33

C 0.6 D 0.5

122 Section is known as partial collapse when, no. of plastic hinges are ………
than degree of redundancy of the structure plus 1.
 A < B >

C = D None of above

123 Why are normal cement normally called "Portland" Cement

A It was named after the B It is the name of a type of

inventor limestone in England
C In the olden days, it was D It contains portlands as part
used for ports of its ingredients
124 Who are considered as having developed and use the predecessor of
Modern concrete
A Egypt B Romans

C Greek D Indian

125 The reaction of cement with -------- is called hydration

A Water B aggregate
C gypsum D Pozzolana

126 Reaction products after hydration is called

A Oxide compounds B Gel

C CaOH D C3S

127 Particle size of an aggregate particle is determined by:

A Scale B Sieves
C Thickness gauge D Length gauge

128 Concrete making can be compared to which of the below:

A Knitting B Exercising

C Baking D Bolting
129 One bag of cement weighs ------- kgs
A 35 B 50
C 100 D 70
130 One micron is ---------- mm

A 0.00001 B 0.001

C 1000 D 0.000001
131 One ton production of cement produces about …………. ton of Co2
A 0.1 B 1

C 10 D 12
132 Which of the below hardens quickly when exposed to water
A Lime B Silica

C Alumina D Gypsum
133 The first law of concrete known as:
A Hooke’s law B Newton’s law

C Abram’s law D Law of workability

134 Which is the most desirable property of concrete:

A Laitance B Hydration
C Bleeding D Honeycombing
135 Which of the apparatus is used to determine the soundness of cement
A Vicat’s apparatus B Briquette apparatus

C Le-Chatlier’s apparatus D Cubes

136 The expansion of cement takes place due to presence of which of the
below:
A Free Lime B Fresh Lime
C Coarse aggregates D Sand
137 Slump test is a measure of which of the following:
A Durability B Consistency

C Strength D Mouldability

138 Workability of concrete is inversely proportional to:

A w/c ratio B Size of the aggregate

C Time of transit D Amount of superplasticizer
139 Separation of ingredients from concrete during transportation is called:
A Bleeding B Creep
C Segregation D Laitance

140 When the aggregates are of single size fraction, the grading is termed as:

A Continuous graded B Gap graded

C Well Graded D Uniformly graded
141 Which grade of concrete is also represented as mix with volume
proportion 1:2:4
A M15 B M10
C M25 D M30

142 By what percentage the strength of concrete shall get reduced due to the
presence of 5% voids
A 30% B 45%
C 25% D 5%
143 Increase in quantity of C3S will convert the ordinary cement to which of
the below:
A High strength cement B Low heat cement
C Rapid hardening cement D Slow setting cement
144 Which of the ingredients below has the least specific gravity

A Coarse aggregates B Sand

C Water D Cement

145 Sieve analysis of Portland cement is performed on IS sieve No:

A No: 1 B No: 9
C No: 5 D No. 6
146 Heat of hydration is determined by an apparatus called:

A Hydrometer B Pyconometer
C Calorimeter D Hydratometer
147 In terms of oxide composition, the maximum percentage of ingredient in
cement is that of:
A Lime B Silica

C Alumina D Gypsum
148 Who developed the first Portland cement by burning limestone and clay
at high temperatures:
A Newton B Aspdin

C Duff Abram D Le - Chatellier

149 Which of the below is not the property of Cement:

A Consistency B Workability
C Soundness D Setting
150 “Green concrete” can also be referred to as which of the concrete below:
A Hardened concrete B Eco-friendly concrete
C Few hours old concrete D Concrete of green colour

151 What is the volume of 1 bag of cement:

A 50 litres B 35 litres
C 25 litres D 100 litres

152
What is “Cast-in-Place” Concrete?
A Refers to concrete already B Concrete is casted in one
casted in its place in the location only
formwork
 C Concrete is poured D One continuous pour without
directly into where it any construction
forms the structure
153
Which shapes of aggregates produce the best workability in concrete?
A Spherical & Cubicle B Needle-shaped (Angular)

C D
Prismatic Flat
154 “Water Reducing Admixture” are often used in concrete for:
(a) Reducing water requirement (b) Plasticizing (c) Lowering the amount
of Cement without affecting strength and workability
A B
(a) & (c) (a) & (b)
C Only (b) D
(a), (b) & (c)
155 Controlling of which content in Clinker produces White Cement?
A Alumina (Al2O3) B Iron Oxide (Fe2O3)

C D Silica
Magnesia (MgO)
156 In Carbon Cast Precast Concrete, C-GRID carbon-fibre-epoxy grid replaces
what concrete reinforcement?
A Steel strand B Rebar
C Mild steel mesh D Stone
157 How can you make concrete set faster?
A Adding Alcohol B Adding Calcium Chloride

C D Adding extra cement

Adding Sugars
158 How can you make concrete set slower?

A B
Adding Alcohol Adding Calcium Chloride
C D Adding water
Adding Sugars
159 Who pioneered the development of Reinforced Concrete?
A B
John Smeaton Francois Coignet
C D
Hennebique James Parker
160 Which country pioneered the development of Self-compacting Concrete
(SCC)?
A United States B England
C D
Germany Japan
161 Quenched & Tempered Rebars’ are also known as:

A TMT Bars B TOR Steel Bars

 C D High carbon steel bars
HYSD Bars
162 What does ‘Dormancy Period of Concrete’ means?

A Time period till the first B Time period that concrete

crack develops in the retains its workability
hardened concrete
C Time period between D Final setting time
appearance of first crack
and final failure
163 What’s the main concern about adding waste glass as ingredient into
Concrete?
A B Excessive expansion of
Reduces Workability
concrete sections leading to
severe cracking
C Increased Creep D Reduced strength
164 How do mineral admixtures (Silica Fume, Slag, Fly Ash) help increasing
Concrete strength?
A Reducing cement content B By making concrete
microstructure denser
C D By increasing Fluidity
By reducing workability
165 What mode of failure is observed with Concrete?
A B Quasi-Brittle Failure
Brittle Failure
C Ductile Failure D Malleable failure
166 Which admixture is added to concrete to improve its ability to resist
freezing and thawing of concrete?
A Retarding admixtures B Accelerating admixtures

C Super plasticizers D Air-entraining admixtures

167 Kelly Ball Penetration Test is carried out for:

A Consistency & Workability B Hardness of set concrete
of fresh concrete
C Brittleness of set concrete D Durability of set concrete
168 The correct characteristics of fly ash concrete is
A High Energy Demand B High Heat of Hydration
C Low early-age D
None of the above
compressive strength
169 What would be the impact on rate of creep in Concrete under the effect
of constant stress.
A B
Remains constant with Increases with time
time
C D Independent of time
Reduces with time
1. Which one of the following does not fit in with the
rest?
A Rain B Snow
C Frost D Sleet
2. The convective precipitation result from
A Frontal of B The rising of colder
disturbances during air into warmer
the cyclonic surroundings
movement of
barometric low
C The rising of D The interface of
warmer air in water and air on
colder denser surface due to
surroundings sudden change of
temperature
3. Isohyets are
A Areas of equal B Lines of equal
precipitation precipitation on
maps
C Lines of equal D Lines of equal
temperature on barometric
maps preasure on maps
4. The intensity-duration-frequency curves for
precipitation indicate that
A The greater the B The days on which
intensity of rainfall rainfall occurs at a
the shorter length location
of time it continues
C Cumulative rainfall D The intensity of
over a period with rainfall increases as
frequency of the duration
periodic peaks, is increases
ultimately constant
5. The phenomenon of evaporation from water
surface, from the soil and from plants is generally
known as
A Vaporisation B Boiling
C Transpiration D Hydration
6. Evapo-transpiration is
A Water equivalent of B Unaccounted loss
moisture contained of water by
in air which is lost evaporation at a
through location
evaporation
C Evaporation from D The total
 plants in a evaporation and
catchment area transpiration from
the catchment area
7. For the growth of plants, the useful soil moisture
is
A Rain water B Gravity water
C Capillary water D Chemically treated
water
8. Intensity of a rainfall is
A Total rainfall in a B Rainfall per unit
period area
C Volume of water D Depth of rainfall per
collected per unit unit time during
time which it fell
9. Cyclonic precipitation results from
A Thermal B Orographic
convection currents convection currents
C Frontal D None of the above
disturbances during
the movement of
barometric low
10. Convective storm rainfall caused from
A Thermal or B Sudden barometric
orographic drops
convection
C Gradual barometric D Isolated barometric
drops fall in area
11. Convective storm rainfall generally
A Of long duration B Of short duration
and of high but of high intensity
intensity
C Of short duration D Of long duration
and of low and of low
intensity intensity
12. A double mass curve of rain is plot between
A The total annual B The total annual
rainfall at a station rainfall at a station
and the total and the total
annual rainfall of annual rainfall at a
the previous year neighbouring
station
C The cumulative D The actual rainfall
total annual rainfall and the cumulative
at a station and the rainfall
 cumulative annual
rainfall at a number
of nearby station
13. The movement of water in a channel is influenced
by
A Force of gravity B Slope
C Friction of water D All of the above
with channel bed
14. The flow in an open channel is called steady if
A The channel always B The velocity of fluid
run full remains constant
with respect to time
C The discharge D The head does not
remains constant change with respect
to time
15. A current meter measures, the velocity of flow, if
it is held
A At the bottom B At the surface of
surface of the the channel
channel
C At the centroid of D At any point within
the channel section the cross-section
16. Which one of the following is not a
hydrometeorological factor influencing the surface
run off and characteristics of stream flow?
A Precipitaion B Vegetation cover
C Evapo-transpiration D Air temperature
and air humidity
17. A hydrograph is plot of
A Pricipitaion B Stream flow against
against time time
C Surface run off D Recorded run off
against time against time
18. A 100 years peak discharge means
A A maximum B A maximum
discharge which discharge of 100
occurs in 101st year year recurrence
interval
C The peak discharge D A maximum
during preceding discharge with
years will occur 100 100% probability of
years after that reoccurring next 99
years
19. The infiltration capacity is
A Maximum rate of B (Precipitaion-
 accumulation of evaporation loss)
water in an area per unit time
C Maximum rate at D Rainfall water
which water enters entering subsoil
the soil
20. The instrument used for measurement of wind
speed is
A Anemometer B Rotameter
C Odometer D Atmometer
21. The number of rain gauges required per unit area
to give fairly reliable result on rainfall over an area
is
A Small where B Large where rainfall
rainfall gradient is gradient is steep
steep
C Small For Hilly D Large for
Areas terrain
22. The snow fall is expressed in terms of
A Weight of snow B Depth of snow
fallen per unit area fallen
C Depth of snow D Water after
fallen and its the snow melts
equivalent in water
depth
23. The site of snow measurement of snow fall should
be
A Horizontal B Open to snow fall
and its isolation
C Shettered against D All of the above
strong winds and
drifting snow
24. In the analysis of the data if the value of one
variate is independent of any other the variable in
question is termed as
A Independent B Random variable
variable
C Population D Limit variable
25. In statistical analysis of data the difference
between the maximum and the minimum values
of the variable in a series is termed as
A Standard B Confidence limit
deviation
C Amplitude D Mean deviation
26. Thiesson polygons
A Define the zone of B Define the zone of
the influence of equal precipitation
 each station
C Area graphical D An accurate
representation of method of
arithmetic mean estimating rainfall
data data
27. A unit hydrograph gives correlation between
A The total rainfall B The cumulative
and the total runoff rainfall and the
total runoff
C The effective D The effective
rainfall and the rainfall and the
total runoff direct runoff
28. If the duration of the unit hydrograph decrease
infinitely, approaching zero, the unit hydrograph
becomes
A Instantaneous unit B Constant unit
hydrograph hydrograph
C Straight line D Poly unit
hydrograph hydrograph
29. The S-curve can be used to obtain a unit
hydrograph from that of
A A longer duration B Normal duration
C Shorter duration D Both (A) and (C)
above
30. DAD ( depth-area-duration) studies for a particular
storm indicate that the average depth of rainfall
A Remains constant B Decreases as the
area decreases
C Decreases as the D Increases as the
area increases duration of rainfall
increases
31. Identify the incorrect statement
A For a given basin, B Volume of direct
the duration of surface run off with
runoff from rain fall in the same time
of the same increments are
duration and directly
uniform intensity in proportional the
time and space are total volumes of
the same and do run off
not depend on the
total effective
rainfall depth
C A unit hydrograph D The concept of the
is the hydrograph unit hydrograph is,
of a base time typically, not
 duration and of a correct. Indeed no
unit run off volume two rainfall have
the same pattern in
time and space
32. In a synthetic unit hydrograph as proposed by
Synder and Nash the relation between the base
period (T) in days in terms of basin lag(tp) in hours
is
A T = 3 + 3 (tp/24) B T= 3 + (tp/24)
C T = 1 + 3(tp/24) D T=1 + (tp/24)
33. It is not ordinarily possible to get unit hydrograph
A From an ungauged B By superposition
catchment area from a unit
hydrograph of a
large duration
C From hydrograph D From hydrograph
due to a single due to a single
complex storm isolated storm
34. Run off can be estimated by
A Infiltration method B Unit hydrograph
C Rational method D Any of the above
35. Which of the following formula is used for Ghat
area of Bombay?
A Inglis formula B Lacey’s formula
C Khosla’s formula D Parker’s formula
36. Which of the following formula for computation of
run off takes into account the temperature of
catchment area?
A Inglis formula B Lacey’s formula
C Khosla’s formula D Parker’s formula
37. Most of the formula for flood discharge are of the
form
A Q = CAn B Q = Cen
C Q = Cloge (n) D Q=C+A+n
38. A 10% flood frequency means
A Flood will increase B Every tenth year
by 10% every year there will be flood
C Flood has 10 out of D Any of the above
100 chances of
being equaled or
exceeded
39. Which of the following is the assumption of unit
hydrograph theory?
A The effective B The effective
rainfall is uniformly rainfall is uniformly
 distributed within distributed
its duration throughout the
whole area of the
drainage basin
C The ordinates or D All of the above
direct rain off of
common base time
are directly
proportional to the
total amount of
direct run off
represented by
each hydrograph
40. Maximum surface run off is favoured due to
A A flash storm B Leah shaped
catchment
C Improved land D Presence of forest
management area
41. Interception loss is,
A More towards the BMore at the
end of a storm beginning of a
storm
C Uniform D Low in the
throughout the beginning of a
storm storm and gradually
increases
42. Evaporation from water surface
A Increases with B Decreases with
humidity wind speed
C Is proportional to D Increases if there is
the deficit of salinity or pollution
vapour pressure
43. Infiltration occurs at capacity rate
A Due to watershed B If there had been
leakage antecedent rain fall
C If the intensity of D During a first flash
rain fall is lower storm following
than the capacity summer
rate
44. A self recording rain gauge
A Records the cloud B Records the
cover snowmelt
C Records the rainfall D Records the
intensity cumulative depth of
 rainfall
45. A double mass analysis is made
A To find the missing B To direct any
rainfall at a station change in exposure
in a particular area of a station
C To study change in D To predict rainfall in
rainfall pattern the following years
46. Precipitation includes all of the following except
A Snow melt B Frost
C Stream flow D Mist and fog
47. Isohyetal method gives accurate mean areal depth
of rainfall
A In a basin consisting B In a gently sloping
of plains and hills basin
C When there are D When the
optimum number precipitation
of rain gauge includes snow melt
station
48. A double mass analysis is made for all of the
following EXCEPT
A To compute the B To adjust the record
average annual at a station to the
rainfall consistent changed
with the changed environment
environment
C To find the missing D To detect any
rainfall at a station change in exposure
in a particular area of a station
49. Evapo-transportation depends on
A Hours of bright sun B Type of crop
shine
C Method of D All of above
irrigation
A B
C D
50. If a cold air mass drives out a warm air mass it is
called a cold front. A cold front causes
A No precipitation B Intense
precipitation on
small area
C Intense D Light precipitation
precipitation on on large area
large area
51. What is the probability that only one flood equal
to or exceeding the 50 year flood will occur in 50
 year
A 2 B 5
C 25 D 50
52. What is the probability that one or more floods
equal to or exceeding the “50- year” flood will
occur in a 50 year period?
A 5% B 50%
C 64% D 88%
53. Unit hydrograph method for flood estimation is
usually applied to
A Large besins B Hilly areas
C Small and medium D All of above
sized basins
54. The channel velocity given by Mannings’ formula is
affected by
A Hydraulic mean B Slope of the river
radius bed
C Roughness of the D All of the above
bed and sides
55. The methods of mitigating floods are
A By temporary B By construction of
evacuation of low leaves, flood banks
lying areas and and dykes
flood warnings
C By channel D All of above
improvement
56. All of the following are the methods of estimating
high flood discharge except
A From the percent B By stochastic
flood risk that can method
be allowed in the
project
C By flood frequency D By empirical
studies formula developed
for the region
57. The methods of estimating high flood discharge
are
A By empirical B By applying rational
formula developed formula
for the region
C By flood frequency D All of the above
studies
58. The shape of the hydrograph is effected by
A Shape of the basin B Direction of storm
movement
 C Non-uniform areal D All of the above
distribution of
rainfall
59. A synthetic unit hydrograph is developed
A By measuring the B By taking certain
main stream constant from
lengths and area of another basin
the basin which is hydro
meteorologically
homogeneous
C For a basin having a D All of the above
rain gauge network
60. The shape of the hydrograph of run off is affected
by
A The duration of the B A real distribution
storm of the storm
C The intensity of the D All of the above
storm
61. The basic assumptions of the unit-hydrograph
theory are
A Non-linear B Non-linear time
response and time variance and linear
invariance response
C Linear response and D Time invariance and
linear time variance linear response
62. In case a 4 hour unit-hydrograph area catchment
has a peak ordinate of 60m3/s, the peak ordinate
of an 8 hour unit hydrograph for the same
catchment will be
A 60m3/s B Less than 60m3/s
C More than 60m3/s D None of the above
63. The diameter of the area of a standard symon’s
type rain gauge
A 5.0 cm B 7.5 cm
C 10 cm D 12.7 cm
64. The slope-area method is extensively used on
A Development of B Areas where
rating curve shifting control is
predominant
C Estimate of flood D All of the above
discharge based on
high water marks
65. Virgin flow
A The flow unaffected B A flow in a river
works of man downstream of a
 gauging station
C The flow in a river D None of the above
upstream of a
gauging station
66. Base flow
A The annual B The flow not
minimum flow in a obstructed by man
stream made structures
C Delayed ground D None of the above
water flow reaching
a stream
67. An aquifer that is confined at the bottom but not
at the top is known as
A Paritally confined B Aquiclude
aquifer
C semiconfined D Unconfined aquifer
68. A sand sample was found to have a porosity of
30%. For an aquifer of this material, the specific
yield is
A 30% B Less than 30 %
C More than 30 % D Unpredictable
69. Unit hydrograph method is usually adopted for
estimating floods when the catchment area is
A 100 sq-km only B Less than 5000 sq-
km
C More than 7500 sq- D More than 10000
km sq-km
70. In India the water year starts from
A 1st January B 1st April
C 1st June D 1st October
71. The water equivalent of snowfall is taken as
A 10 % B 30 %
C 60 % D 75 %
72. A plot of accumulated precipitation V/S time in
chronological order is called
A Hyetograph B Unit hydrograph
C Mass curve D Hydrograph
73. A plot of rainfall intensity versus time is known as
A Hyetograph B Mass flow curve
C Duration curve D Unit hydrograph
74. A line joining places of equal rainfall depth in a
given duration is known as
A Isogonic line B Isohyets
C Wet counter D None of the above
1 Irrigation is needed where rainfall is
A abundant B Just enough and timely
C Scarce D None of them
2 Bhakra dam is built on
A Beas river B Sutlej river
C Ganga river D None of them
3 Flow irrigation is done from
A Canals B Wells
C Tube wells D None of them
4 Over irrigation results in
A Water-logging B Wilting
C Fertility D None of them
5 Art of irrigation is practiced in India since
A Ancient times B Moghul times
C British times D Independence
6 Jawaharlal Nehru lift irrigation scheme is located in
A Rajasthan B U.P
C Haryana D Punjab
7 Presently percentage of area irrigated to that of total cultivated area is
A 80 % B 33 %
C 27% D 40%
8 Irrigation schemes in drought area are generally constructed as
A Productive schemes B Protective schemes
C Multi-purpose D All of them
schemes
9 Furrow irrigation is
A Very common B Unpopular
C Costly method of D All of them
irrigation in India
10 To reduce salinity by leading the best methods of irrigation is
A Sprinkler irrigation B Furrow irrigation
C Check flooding D All of them
11 In arid areas with uneven land surface most suitable method of
irrigation is
A Basin method B Check flooding
C Furrow irrigation D Sprinkler irrigation
12 Best method of assessment of irrigation water is
A Crop rate B Batterment levy
C Seasonal rate D Volumetric rate
13 In nature every soil sample contains
A Air, water, solid B Sand, silt and clay
material
14 Heavy soil is
A Porous B Impermeable
C Water tight D All of above
15 River plains are made of
A Alluvium B Red soils
C Black soils D All of above
16 Soil is called saline when pH value is
A 10 B 7
C Less than 7 D 8
17 For plant growth it is always available
A Gravitational water B Hygroscopic water
C Capillary water D All of them
18 Plants develop their roots and derive moisture mostly from
A Upper portion B Middle portion
C Lower portion of D All of them
the root-zone
19 Most fertile soil is
A Alluvium B Black soil
C Laterite soil D Red soil
20 Intensity of irrigation means
A Total depth of B Percent area irrigated of C.C.A
water applied to a
crop
C Area left D Percent area irrigated of G.C.A
uncultivated during
year
21 First watering to a crop is called
A Paleo B Kor
C Flooding D Duty
22 Cash crop is generally to grown during
A Kharif season B Rabi season
C Hot weather season D All of them
23 Duty of the outlet is
A High as compared B Low as compared to gross duty
to gross duty
C Same as to gross D None of them

Page 2 of 31
 duty
24 Delta of a crop means
A Area under the crop B Crop period
C Depth of water D Crop production
required by the
crop
25 Wheat belongs to same crop season as
A Gram, mustard, B Rice, maize, spiked, millet
potato, tobacco
C Cotton,Rice,Bajjara D None of them
26 Rabi crops pertain
A Winter season B Summer season
C Monsoon season D None of them
27 Duty of the canal water is expressed in
A cumec B Centimeters
C Ha per cumec D None of them
28 When you grow two crops in one year on the same field is it called
A Cash crop B Mixed crop
C Double crop D All of them
29 Perennial crop is one which lasts
A During rabi season B For eight months
C All the year D All of them
30 C.C.A means
A gross commanded B culturable commanded area
area
C irrigated area D uncultivated area
31 Duty of canal water is calculated
A only at the outlet B only at the head works
C at any important D Only at the fall
point on the canal
system.

32 Mixed crop of the following is

A rice B Wheat
C sugarcane D wheat and gram.
33 Duty of well water is more than canal water because
A conveyance loss in B well water is clear than canal
well irrigation are water
less

Page 3 of 31
 C lifting of water D well water is used
increases cost of uneconomically.
well water
34 Hydrology deals with
A all aspects of water B irrigation water requirement of
available on the crop
earth
C mechanics of D All of them
motion of water.
35 Hydrological cycle represents
A circulation of water B circulation process of entire
through a canal moving waters of the earth
system
C water utilization by D Water utilization on earth
a plant structure. surface
36 Water year ranges in the Indian sub-continent
A January 1 to B April 1 to March 31
December 31
C June 1 to May 31 D All of them
37 Precipitation is the term used to denote
A all forms of falling B sedimentation in the reservoirs.
moisture.

C some chemical D Rain fall only

reaction that takes
place in curing
saline and alkali
soils.
38 Isohyets are
A contours of equal B elevation of areas above mean
precipitation sea level
C depth of ground D All of them
water below
ground surface.
39 Runoff denotes
A amount of B surplus rainfall flowing through
evaporation the streams
C canals discharge D Flow in pipe line
wasted after
irrigation
40 Evaporation taking place from plant surfaces is called
A interception B Interflow

Page 4 of 31
 C infiltration D Transpiration
41 Rainfall is measured in
A cubic meter B Centimeter
C Square meter D All of them
42 Rain gauges are used to
A measure volume of B depth of rainfall
precipitation
C predict occurrence D None of them
of rainfall.
43 Rainfall records are maintained on
A daily basis. B monthly basis.
C yearly basis. D All of them
44 In India maximum rainfall occurs at
A Barmer in West B Amritsar in Punjab
Rajasthan
C Cherapunji in D Bombay in Maharashtra.
Assam
45 Runoff is measured as
A total volume of B average depth of water over a
water gone through catchment
a stream
C average rate of flow D All of them
through a stream.
46 Hydrograph of a stream is
A a graphical B a graphical representation of
representation of hydrological cycle
discharge variation
arranged
corresponding to
time
C a graphical D a graphical representation of run
representation of off record
rainfall record.
47 Peak flow is
A canal discharge at B maximum rate of flood flow
normal condition
C discharge through D None of them
a pipe in normal
condition
48 A current meter is used to measure
A depth of flow B velocity of flow

Page 5 of 31
 C peak flow D Discharge of flow
49 Echo sounder is used to measure
A width of river B velocity of flow
C depth of flow D Discharge of flow
50 Velocity is measured by
A Anemometer B current meter
C Odometer D Rotameter
51 Popular method of river discharge measurement is
A area-velocity B Weir
method
C venture flume D Current meter
52 Common method of depth measurement are
A sounding rod B rod float
C echo- sounder D All of them
53 A reservoir used for
A controlling floods B generating hydro power
C irrigation D All of them
54 Characteristics of a good reservoir site are
A it is watertight B Outlet is narrow.
C it does not D All of them
submerge valuable
property
55 M.W.L. means
A mean water B minimum water
C maximum water D None of them
56 Free board in a dam is
A a type of shutter B name of storage
C margin between D None of them
water and
top of dam
57 Gross storage capacity is given by
A live storage + flood B live storage + dead storage
absorpation
capacity
C live storage – dead D None of them
storage
58 Gallery is
A a passage left in a B an observation tower
completed dam
C Water exit from a D None of them

Page 6 of 31
 dam
59 silting of reservoir
A reduces efficiency B reduces storage capacity
of dam
C raises reservoir D Increase storage capacity
water
60 Mass curve of inflow is
A always a straight B Never a straight line
line
C a line parallel to D All of them
time axis

61 Mass curve of demand could be

A a straight line B a curve
C a line parallel to D All of them
time axis
62 Economical height of dam is the one for which
A cost of dam is B cost of dam per unit storage is
minimum minimum
C storage is maximum D storage is minimum
63 Shape of elementary gravity dam is roughly
A triangular B Square

C Trapezoidal D None of them

64 Storage dam are generally

A gravity dams B earth dams
C Arch dams D All of them
65 Arch dams are constructed in
A narrow valleys with B narrow valleys with sound
good abutment foundation
C wide valleys with D None of them
weak foundation
66 Gravity dam is most suitable when foundation is
A weak B Strong
C with heavy over D rocky but cracked
burden
67 Gravity dams can be constructed with
A concrete B soil

Page 7 of 31
 C sand D Soil and sand
69 Uplift is
A vertical movement B upward thrust of seepage water
during earthquake
C vertical component D Vertical component of self
of standing water weight
column
70 Earthquake
A reduce dam failure B increases horizontal water
by over topping pressure
C causes dam failure D None of them
by crushing
71 Elementary profile of a gravity dam is
A a trapezoidal figure B a pyramid
C a right angled D None of them
triangle
72 Rock Fill dam is
A non-rigid type B rigid type
C high dam D None of them
73 Breaching section in earth dam is provided
A in the body of the B by the side of the dam
dam
C on the periphery of D None of them
the reservoir basin
away from the dam
74 Blanket in earth dams is provided
A at the ground B at the ground in the body
on the u/s side of the dam
C at the ground D on the D/s slope
on the D/s side of
dam
75 Earth dam when over topped by flood water
A may not fail B must fail
C never fails D All of them
76 Earth dam could be constructed with only
A clay B Sand
C rock D None of them
78 The spillway in which water spills and flows over the body of the dam
are
A solid gravity B siphon spillway
spillway

Page 8 of 31
 C shaft spillway D None of them
79 Spillway performs the function of a
A safety valve B measuring device
C observation D All of them
opening in case of a
dam
80 Common methods of protection of stream bed below spillways are
A creation of B Grouting of body of dam
hydraulic jump on
the d/s face
C provision of sluices D grouting of stream bed
81 Sluices are provided in a dam to
A supply water to d/s B reduce flood
area
C remove sediment D All of them
from reservoir
82 In earth dams spillways are provided
A in the body of the B in the foundation of the dam
dam
C by the side of the D All of them
dam structure
83 Crest of an emergency spillway is fixed at
A dead storage B F.R.L
C M.W.L D top of the dam
84 Cut-off in earth dams is provided to
A check free flow of B decrease path of percolation
seepage water
C make foundation D All of them
water-tight
85 Canals constructed to give employment to the people during famines
are called
A permanent canals B inundation canals
C productive canals D protective canals
86 Permanent canals run
A perennially B Intermittently
C don’t run at all D All of them
87 The canal aligned along the water shed know as
A ridge canal B contour canal
C side slope canal D All of them
88 Balancing depth of excavation of a canal is one for which
A section is B volume of excavation is equal to

Page 9 of 31
 uneconomical volume of filling in banks
C water flow under D depth of flow is equal to height
gravity of banks
89 Main canal takes-off from
A a head regulator B a cross regulator
C a reservoir D a well
90 Inundation canals are
A perennial B non-perennial
C productive D All of them
91 Bandhara irrigation is
A run-off the river B minor scheme
scheme
C unproductive D the only efficient scheme
scheme
92 Berms are provide to
A remove the silt B strengthen the canal bank
from the canal
C to increase the D allow traffic along the canal
seepage from canal
93 Dowel on the canal bank serves the purpose of
A a drainage B a foot path
C a road curb D None of them
94 Spoil bank is a term used to designate
A a canal bank B damaged canal bank
constructed
wrongly

C additional D None of them

embankment
construct to
dispose off excess
excavated material
95 Pushta is additional cover provided on the canal bank to
A make the bank B provide additional cover over
water-tight saturation line
C permit inspection D cover the breaches in the canal
of the canal bank
96 The most serious type of water loss from a canal is
A evaporation B Absorption

C Percolation D All of them

Page 10 of 31
97 The purpose of canal lining is to
A control seepage B strengthen canal section
C increase capacity of D All of them
the canal
98 Concrete lining can be done
A with machinery B manually only
only
C equally by D None of them
machinery and
manually

99 In brick lining the layer which makes the canal water-tight is

A lower layer of the B sandwiched layer of the cement
bricks mortar
C upper layer of the all layers together
bricks
100 When excavated soil is in excess it is deposited in spoil banks. When
extra amount of the earth is required it is obtained from
A silt traps B Berms
C borrow pits D Dowel
101 To strengthen the canal banks artificial silting is induced in the canal.
Even then silting of canal poses a problem because

A silting has manorial B silting deforms the canal section

property
C silting reduces the D silting reduces the canal capacity
velocity by
increasing
resistance to flow
102 Sand core is provided in the canal banks to
A make the bank B plug the rate holes
porous to allow
quick drainage of
seepage water
C reduce clay content D All of them
in the banks
103 Canal breach occurs when
A piping takes place B canal banks are over-topped by
through a canal excess flows
bank
C cultivators cut the D All of them
embankment to
derive additional

Page 11 of 31
 supply or to make
way for flood water
104 Remodeling of irrigation canals is done when
A A canal section is B A canal system has become very
extremely old
deformed
C The scope of D None of them
irrigation in the
scheme is proposed
to be decreased
105 Headwork's is an assemblage of the following hydraulic structures
A ( i ) A weir ( ii ) B ( i ) A dam ( ii ) Embankments ( iii
Guide banks ( iii ) ) Spillway
Head regulator
C ( i ) A siphon ( ii ) D All of them
Spurs ( iii ) Bank
revetment
106 Head works is an assemblage of the following river reach
A Hilly B Sub-mountainous
C Plain D Tidal
107 Site of headwork's is good when
A It is situated on a B It is close to irrigate area
river bend
C Good foundation is D River section is wide
available for the
structures
108 Waste weirs are generally used as
A Low storage dams B Diversion structures
C Spillways D All of them
109 Weir and barrage are both low barriers built across the river to raise
the water but
A Barrage has gates B Weir has shutters to control flow
to control flow
C Weir has gates to D All of them
control flow
110 On previous foundations following type of structure is suitable
A Masonry weir B Rock-fill weir
C Waste weir D Concrete barrage with cut off
111 Divide wall is a structure constructed to
A Divide the river B Distribute canal discharge into
channel into bigger two canals

Page 12 of 31
 and smaller
compartment
C Facilitate D None of them
construction of
weirs
112 Under sluices are the openings in the weir constructed to
A Flush the silt from a B Reduce peak flood in the
still pond river
C Supply irrigation D All of them
water
113 Fish ladder is a structure in the body of the weir used for
A Catching fish B Providing free passage to fish
C To restrict D All of them
movement of fish
114 Head regulator
A Regulates river flow B
Supplies measured quantity of
water to irrigation canal
C Regulates silt entry D None of them
115 Weirs constructed on permeable foundation are likely to fail due to
A Piping of B Crushing
undermining
C Sliding D None of them
116 River training works serve the following purposes
A Increase or B Protect the river bed and banks
decrease the river from erosion
discharge
C Direct the river flow D Protect the important hydraulic
in desired direction structures
117 Some rivers are called Himalayan rivers because
A They are hilly rivers B They originate from Himalaya
and therefore they are perennial
C They are snow fed. D None of them
118 The river which builds up its bed progressively is called
A Aggrading river B Degrading river
C Boulder river D all of them
119 Generally a river becomes degrading type below a dam because
A The river carries B The river width is much less
very less discharge
C The river water is D None of them
clear and can pick
up silt particles.

Page 13 of 31
120 When a river departs from irs straight course and follows a sinuous
path the river is said to form meanders. The main causes for this
occurrence are
A The river wants to B The river carries heavy silt load
travel longer length
C The equilibrium D (B) & (C)
condition of river
flow is disturbed to
induce unequal
erosion.
Extreme condition of the meanders is called

A Cut off B Spur

C Island D All of them
The embankments are constructed parallel to the river channel. The
embankments built considerably away from the river bank are known
as
A Marginal B Guide banks
embankments
C Retired D All of them
embankments.
Guide banks induce the flow through a confined waterway,. They can
be provided only
A In pairs B Singly
C Parallel to each D none of them
other.
Guide banks converging in the down stream direction are called
A Divergent guide B Parallel guide banks
banks
C Convergent guide D All of them
banks
A spur pointing upstream forms a still pocket against its upstream
face. Ir has an affect of
A Repelling the flow B Attracting the flow towards the
from the bank bank
C Deflecting the flow D All of them
at the site.
River generally from meanders in
A Delta stage of river B Trough stage of river
C Boulder stage of D All of them
river
The stone cover laid to protect the face of the guide bank at river bed
is called
A Launching apron B Blanket

Page 14 of 31
C Cut off D Curtain
Selection of type of cross drainage work depends on
A Bed s of a B Water s of a canal and a
canal and a drainage
drainage
C Discharge of a canal D All of them
and a drainage
In both the structure the canal is carried below drainage. But when the
canal barrel runs full it is called
A Siphon B Super passage
C Canal aqueduct D None of them
A structure constructed to carry drainage water under pressure
through an inverted siphon below a canal is known as

A Aqueduct B Siphon aqueduct

C Super passage D All of them
In a canal siphon the flow is under
A Atmospheric B Negative pressure
pressure
C Positive pressure D None of them
When a small irrigation canal has to cross over a medium drain we
construct
A Pipe aqueduct B Box Culvert
C Irrigation Culvert D Aqueduct.
When a small irrigation canal has to cross over a medium drain and if
the size of canal and of the drain is interchanged we provide

A Super passage B Pipe super passage

C Canal siphon D None of them
When a drain flows below a canal such that its H.F.L. touches the
underside of the supporting structure, the structure is known as
A Siphon aqueduct B Siphon super passage

C Aqueduct D Super passage

Super passage is a structure in which

A Canal flows over a B Drainage channel flows over a

drainage channel canal
C Both flow at the D All of them
same level .
When a canal and a drain cross each other at the same we
provide crossing. This structure consists of following
components:

Page 15 of 31
A (i) Escape weir ( ii ) B ( i ) Barrage ( ii ) Regulator ( iii )
Regulator ( iii ) Guide banks
Cross regulator ( iv )
Guide banks
C ( i ) Dam ( ii ) D None of them
Spillway ( iii )
Sluices
Inlet and outlet are provided as cross drainage measure when the
discharge of the drain is :

A Medium B High
C Low D None of them
To reduce the cost of the cross drainage work we resort to
A Fluming B Blocking of drain
C Lifting of canal water
Cross drainage works are the structures constructed to
A Carry a canal across B Carry a roadway over the drain
the drain
C Control flow of silt D None of them
in the drainages
Hydraulic structure constructed across a canal are callled

A Cross drainage B Cross communication works

works
C Regulatory works D None of them
A regulator regulates the flow of water into a canal. It also performs
following function.
A Prevents silt entry B Affords measurement of inflow
into a canal discharge
C Affords facility for D All of them
road transport
A regulator constructed on a canal at an intermediate point is called.
A Cross regulator B Head regulator
C Distributor head D None of them
regulator

The entry of water through canal head regulator will be smooth when
the regulator vent way is constructed
A Inclined B at right angles to the flow of
water
C declined D None of them
A cross regulator is often combined with
A A fall B A road bridge

Page 16 of 31
C A distributory off D All of them
take
Falls are provided in a canal to
A Lower the canal B Increase the discharge
bed
C Increase driving D None of them
head of flow of
wate
Sarda type fall is one with a crest

A At bed of a canal B Above the bed

C Above the F.S.L. of D All of them

a canal
When length of the body wall of a fall is less then normal width of a
canal it is called
A Notch fall B Sarda fall
C Flumed fall D Ogee fall
Hydraulic jump is created on the glacis of a fall to

A Increase depth of B Dissipate excess energy of flow

flow
C Reduce difference D All of them
of water
between upstream
and downstream of
fall
Canal escapes are essential safety valves for a canal. They

A Relieve canal of B Provide structure strength to the

excess discharges canal banks
C Take out silt from D All of them
the canal
A structure which takes out silt from a canal is called
A Silt excluder B Silt ejector
C Gibb's groyne wall D King's vanes
A good outlet satisfies following conditions
A It is low in cost B It draws proportionate amount
of silt
C It is independent of D All of them
discharge
fluctuations

Page 17 of 31
In a proportional module outlet discharge

A Is not dependent B Is dependent on the water

on the water in the parent channel only.
s in the parent and
field channels

C Is dependent on D None of them

both
Crump's A.P.M. outlet is
A A modular outlet B A semi-modular outlet
C A non-modular D All of them
outlet
Tail cluster is an assemblage of
A ( i) Weir ( ii ) Head B More then similar outlet
regulator ( iii ) constructed at a tail of a canal
Guide banks
constructed at the
head or a canal
C ( i) Escape weir (ii ) D None of them
Cross regulator
constructed at
intermediate point
of a canal
A tract is said to be water logged when

A It is flooded with B It comes under water

water for quite permanently
sometime

C Crop root zone gets D None of them

deprived of
aeration due to the
pressure of
excessive moisture
Main cause of water logging is
A Excessive seepage B Heavy rainfall
and percolation of
water.
C Porosity of soil D All of them
Owing to water logging the land is finally rendered infertile and
unproductive. The conditions which lead the situation to this state are
A Creation of B Accumulation of harmful salts
anaerobic

Page 18 of 31
 conditions in the
crop root-zone
C Lowering of soil D All of them
temperature

A problem of water logging manifests fully in a slow mannet. The first

sumptom of water logging is

A Appearance of B Water table fises and almost

harmful salts on the reaches ground
fields.
C Comparative D None of them
reduction in crop
yield inspite of
irrigation and
fertilization
Best way of keeping watch over the problem of occurrence of water
logging in practice is to
A Observe well water B Chemically analyse soil to
at regular interval determine accumulation of slats

C Compare crop D All of them

yields from year to
year
Seepage loss from irrigation canals can be reduced by
A Maintaining the B Lining the canal
canal regularly
C Introducing D All of them
intercepting drains
Remedial measures adopted to control water logging are
A Introduction of lift B Quick disposal of rain fall
irrigation scheme
C Implementation of D Preventing loss of water in
a drainage scheme percolation from fields
Drainage schemes are required to
A Reclaim water B Remove flood waters
logged lands
C Tap ground water D None of them
for utilization

Main Benefits obtained from drainage schemes, after the water logged
conditions are removed, are
A Improvement of B Improvement of soil productivity
soil structure

Page 19 of 31
C Improvement of D All of them
micro climate
Surface drains are of three types. They are
A storm water drains B Storm-cum-seepage drains

C Seepage drains D All of them

A tube well is suitable when the subsoil formation is made up of

A Cracked and faulted B Alluvium

rock
C Clayey soil D None of them

Water table is
A Top of the B Water surface of a
zone of saturation reservoir
underground
C Depth of water D All of them
standing on the
ground

Well irrigation is introduced in canal irrigated tract to

A augment canal B remove deficiency of canal

irrigation area. irrigation
C replace canal or D All of them
flow irrigation
slowly
open well has big diameter than tube well because

A Open well has to B water contribute to the well is

irrigate more area natural and, therefore,
percolation area has to be more
C a storage of water D All of them
has to be made
before irrigation is
done
Discharge of an open well is less than a tube well because
A water is lifted from B only stored water is lifted from
the open well the open well
generally without
using electrical or
diesel energy
C strainers are not D All of them

Page 20 of 31
 provided in the
open well

An open well is called shallow well when

A the depth of well is B the water table is high
small

C it does not D None of them

encounter mota
formation

Rate of water contribution to a well increases when depression head

of draw-down is
A high B Negligible
C medium D All of them
Specific yield is also called specific capacity of a well. It is expressed in
A m3/sec B m3
C m3/hour under a D All of them
head of one meter
Draw-down or depression head is

A difference of water B difference between the water

before and after in the well after pumping and
pumping the of unaffected water
table
C depth of water D All of them
below ground
after pumping
A household tube well is called Abyssinian tube well. It falls under

A strainer type B cavity type

C slotted type D All of them
In a tube well strainers are used to

A reduce the area of B prevent average soil particles

percolation from entering the bored hole
C improve the quality D None of them
of water
Two tube wells are said to interfere when
A pumping from one B command of one well overlaps
well lowers the the command of the other well
discharge of the
other well
C circles of influence D All of them

Page 21 of 31
 of the two wells
under maximum
draw down
conditions cross
each other
Duty of wells expressed in hectares the well can irrigate to bring a crop
to maturity because
A well irrigation is a B well water is lifted intermittently
minor scheme and cannot be expressed in
ha/m3/sec
C well is situated in D well are owned by cultivators
the middle of the and so the source of supply is
commanded area private one
It is seen that delta for a crop from well water is 66 percent that of
canal water. The reason for this is that
A a well is situated in B well water is used economically
the field itself and as energy is required to lift the
therefore water
conveyance losses
are minimum

C well water is used D All of them

at a right time in
right quantity
Tube well do not derive water from the over burden though it is
pervious because
A top layers do not B top layer contain contaminated
have more water water

C top layer are above D All of them

ground water table
The unit of hydraulic men radius or hydraulic mean depth is
A length B Area
C Volume D All of them
A canal section is called most economical when
A depth of cutting is B depth of filling in banks is least
least
C depth of cutting is D All of them
such that excavated
soil is sufficient to
construct banks
A line canal is in
A initial regime B permanent regime
C final regime D None of them

Page 22 of 31
C.V.R is a short form of

A current velocity B Chezy’s velocity ratio

ratio
C constant volume D critical velocity ratio
ratio
Chezy’s equation gives velocity of flow. Chezy’s constant is given by
A manning formula B Kutter’s formula
C Bazin’s formula D lacey’s regime perimeter
formula

Design procedure of canals on non-alluvial soils and alluvial soils is

different because

A on alluvial soils B on alluvial soils there is more

canal carries silt percolation loss
along- with water
C in alluvial tracts D All of them
construction of
canal bank poses a
difficulty
The snow fed rivers are the following :-
A The Ganga B The Chambal
C The Sutlej D All of them
Irrigation water performs following functions.
A acts as a solvent B acts as a nutriment carrier
for nutrients
C Keeps the Soils D All of them
temperature under
limits
Water becomes unsuitable for irrigation due to presence of

A toxic chemicals B Sediment

C bacteria D All of them
Maintenance of drainage system is similar to canal system in many
ways for
A storm water drains B seepage drains
C tile drains D All of them
Coefficient of permeability indicates case with which water can flow
through a soil mass. The soil type which has less permeability is
A gravelly soil B clayey soil
C sandy soil D All of them

Page 23 of 31
Dracy’s low of flow through soil assumes that the flow is

A steady and laminar B non uniform

C turbulent D All of them

Rotary boring method is also called hydraulic rotary boring method
because

A it uses drilling fluid B its working is based on principle

to remove the of hydraulics
cuttings
C it is used to drill D All of them
water supply wells
Unlike open wells water can be lifted from tube wells by pumps only
because
A water is available at B diameter of tube well is small
great depths

C tube well does not D All of them

have storage and
therefore high rates
of withdrawal are
to be maintained

Development of tube well is done to

A Clear the water B Stabilize the sub soil

bearing formation formation around the filter
of mud and fire
particles
C Derive clear water D All of them
Impulse turbine is suitable for
A Low head B High head
C Medium head D None of them
Forebay provides temporary storage before water goes to
turbines. Following perform the function of forebay
A River B Tailrace channel
C Reservoir D None of them
When without storing water power plant is constructed it is
called
A Low head B Storage installation
installation
C Run-of-the river D None of them

Page 24 of 31
 installation
The surge tank serves following purposes
A It allows the B It prevents debris from
sediment to settle entering power house
down
C It controls D None of them
pressure
variations in
pipelines
Pondage means
A Pond level B Permanent storage made in
pond.
C Temporary D None of them
storage to meet
peak demands.
A turbine in which all the potential is charged to kinetic energy is
called

A Impulse turbine B Reaction turbine

C Propeller turbine D All of them
Protective project is generally taken up in
A Desert areas B Hilly areas where
where water is communications are difficult
not available
C Periods of famine D None of them
to provide
employment to
people
Multi purpose project is one which combines
A Irrigation and B Hydro power and flood
hydro power control benefits
benefits
C Flood control and D All of them
water supply
benefits
B.C. ratio is the test of
A Economic B Factor of safety of the dam
feasibility of
project
C Success of D None of them

Page 25 of 31
 irrigation
application
Bhakra nangal project is
A Located in Punjab B Multi purpose project
C The highest D All of them
gravity dam in
India
Minor irrigation serves
A 20 hectares only B Upto 500 hectares
C upto 2000 hectors D None of them
Dam stone is
A The material with B A type of stone
which dam is
constructed
C Is a stone pillar D All of them
embedded on top
of bund
Sprinkler irrigarion is adopted in
A Uneven terrain B Extreme drought and cold
conditions
C Erodable soils D All of them
A discharge of a cumec is flowing in a rectangular channel one
meter wide at a depth of 20 cm. The bed slope of the channel is

A Mild B Critical
C Steep D Average
Water table drops by 3 m in an irrigable land of 50 hectare. If
Porosity and specific retention are 0.30 and 0.10 respectively,
the change in storage in hectare-meter is

A 15 B 30
C 45 D 60
The repeating variables in dimensional analysis should
A Include the B Have amongst the me selves
dependent all the basic dimensions
variable
C Be derivable from D Exclude one of the basic
one another dimensions
The water surface profile resulting from flow underneath the
gate in Fig. 9.20 below is (FIGURE)

Page 26 of 31
A H3 B M1
C H2 D S2
At a rated capacity of 44 cumecs, a centrifugal pump develops 36
m of head when operating at 1450 RMP, Its specific speed is
A 654 B 509
C 700 D 90
Delta in cm, Duty (D) in hectare/ Cumec and Base period ( B ) in
days are related as
A Triangle = 864 B/D B B= 864 D/ Triangle
C B= 864 Triangle/ D D D= 8.64 B/ Triangle
Water flows in a rectangular channel at a depth of 1.20 m and a
velocity of 2.4 m/s. A local rise in the bed of 0.60 m will cause
A The surface to rise B The surface to fall
C A stationary jump D A surge to travel upstream
to form
The design flood for a culvert should be preferably
A The probable B Obtained from statistical
maximum flood considerations, say a flood of
50 years return period
C The highest D Obtained from a flood
observed flood formula
The live storage requirement for a reservoir is to be determined
by

A Topographical B Annual demand

survey
C Double mass D Mass curve analysis
curve analysis
A tropical cyclone in a northern hemisphere is a wind stream
with
A High pressure B High pressure zone of
zone of anti- clockwise rotation
clockwise rotation
C Low pressure D Low pressure zone of
zone of clockwise clockwise rotation
rotation
The standard project flood is
A The same as the B The same as the design flood
probable
maximum flood

Page 27 of 31
C Smaller than the D Larger than the probable
probable maximum flood by a factor
maximum flood implying safety factor
The volume of water that can be released by gravitational effects
from a unit volume of an aquifer is its

A Specific storage B Specific yield

C Specific capacity D Specific porosity
In a siphon aqueduct, the most sever condition of uplift on the
floor occurs when

A The canal and B The canal runs full; the

drainage run full drainage channel is dry; and
the water table is at the
stream be.
C the canal is dry. The D the canal runs full; and the
drainage floor is at drainage is dry
HFL,and the water
table is at the HFL,
of the drainage flow
A forebay ina hydel system is provided at the junction of
A the tail race B the power channel and the
channel and the trailrace channel
penstock
C the power channel D the penstock and the turbine
and the penstock
Dickens formula predicts maximum flood discharge. O, in terms of the
area, a, and the coefficient, c, as o=cA, The value of n is

A 0.25 B 0.50
C 0.67 D 0.75
For the head regulator the most severe condition of uplift pressure on
the floor occurs when

A the flow in the river B the canal runs and the river flow
is at flood is at high flood
and canal is running
at full supply depth
C the canal runs at D the canal runs dry the river flow
full supply depth is pond
and the river flow is
at pond
The expression for the specific speed of a pump
A does not include B yields large value for radial

Page 28 of 31
 the diameter of the pumps than for axiasl flow
impeller pumps
C in necessarily no D includes power as one of the
dimensional variables
If D= scour depth measured below high flood and d= depth of
225 scour below the original bed, then the width of the lunching
apron at the toe of the guide bank will generally be equal to

A 1.5 D B 1.5 d
C 2.0 D D 20.0 d
Which of the following pairs are correct matched?
226
1. Device to receive and eject drainage from canal …… Inlet & outlet
2 Cross drainage structure when canal bed and ….. canal siphon
drain bed are same
3 Gross masonary work to facilitate road transport …. Bridge
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A 1,2, and 3 B 1 and 3

C 2 and 3 D 1 and 2
As per the recommendation of IS, the shape of lined canal is

A traperoidal B Semicircular
C parabolic D Elliptic
A lysimeter is used to measure
A infiltration B evaporation

C evapotranspiration D Radiation
The dimensions of a pressure gradient in a fluid flow are
A ML-1 T2 B ML-3 T-2
C ML-2 T-2 D M-1L-3 T-2
In deriving the equation for the hydraulic jump in a rectangular
channel in terms of the conjugate depth and the initial Froude
number,
A continuity equation B continuity equation and
and energy momentum equation are used
equation are used
C equation of D gradually varied flow equation is
continuity, used.
momentum and
energy are used
The peak discharge of the instantaneous unit hydrograph of a basin,
when compared to the peak discharge of a 4-hour unit hydrograph of
that basin would be

Page 29 of 31
A greater B Equal
C equal or lesser D Lesser

The base period for a particular crop is 100 days and the duty of the
canal is 1000 hactres per cumec, the depth of water will be

A 0.864 c B 8.64 cm
C 86.4 cm D 864
If one wants to be 90% sure that the design flood in a dam project will
not occur during the design life period of 100 years the recurrence
interval for such a flood would he

A About 90 years B equal to 100 years

C about 110 years D roughly 1000 years
A channel designed by Lacey’s theory has a mean velocity of 1 m/s.
The silt factor is unity. The hydraulic mean radius will be

A 1.5 m B 2.0 m
C 2.5 m D 1.0 m
A 4-hour rainfall in a catchment of 250 km2 produces rainfall depth of
6.2 as & 5.0 cm in successive 2- hour unit periods. Assuming the
o=index of soil to be 1.2 cm/hour, the runoff volume in ha-m will be

A 1 B 22
C 1600 D 2200
A sunmerged pipe outlet from a minor feeds into a will chamber across
the bank. Water from the well chamber overflows a weir like face into
the field channel. The flow into the field channel

A Will chamber with B Will not be much affected by any

any drop in the change in the water in
water in the the minor
minor’
C will decrease with D will be proportional to the flow
any drop in the in the minor when the minor
water in the flows between set ranges
minor
Depth-area-duration curves would seem to resemble

A arcs of a circle B first quadrant limbs of

concave upwards hyperbolae with duration
with duration increasing outward
increasing outward

C third quadrant D first quadrant limbs of

limbs of hyperbolae hyperbolae with duration

Page 30 of 31
 with duration decreasing outward
decreasing outward
When a river starts meandering, the sediment carrying capacity
A first decreases and B first increases and ultimately
ultimately increases decreases
C remains unaffected D changes erratically all the time
as the plan shape leaching permanent braids
changes continue
Storage of water by impounding is required where
A plenty of water is B excess of suspended and
available in the dissolved matter are present in
stream in all the water
seasons
C there is a large D the flow is uniform throughout
variation in the year but is insufficient.
quantity of the river
flow from time to
time

In a wide rectangular channel, the small surface waves caused due to

disturbance by a suddenly thrown heavily weighted log of wood,
thrown parallel to the cross=section, were seen to move at 1.2 m/s
downstream and 1.4 m/s upstream (with reference to the banks). The
depth of flow and the mean flow velocity are, respectively, nearly

A 0.2 m and 1.4 m/s B 0.3 m and 1.4 m/s

C 0.2 m and 1.5 m/s D 0.3 m and 1.5 m/s……

Page 31 of 31
 A slope of infinite extent is made in dense layer at an angle of 30° to
1 horizontal. The factor of safety of slope against shear failure, if the angle
of internal friction is 36°.
A 1.0 B 1.258
C 1.5 D 1.558
2 A strip footing of width 1.0m is resting on soft clay at a depth of 1.0m.
Cohesion of clay is 20 kN/m2.Water table is at a great depth. The ultimate
bearing capacity of soil according to Terzaghi’s equation is
A 120 kN/m2 B 57 kN/m2
C 114 kN/m2 D None of this
3 A deep cut is made in a soft clay having c = 20 kN/m2. The depth of cut is
7 m and width is 3.2m. The lengthy is fairly long. The factor of safety
against the heave of the bottom of the cut. Assume unit weight the
saturated clay as 20 kN/m2.
A 2 B 3
C 1.03 D 1.07
4 A rectangular footing 1 m X 2 m is placed at a depth of 2 m in a saturated
clay having an unconfined compressive strength of 100 kN/m2 . According
to Skempton, the net ultimate bearing capacity is
A 385 kN/m2 B 420 kN/m2
C 412.5 kN/m2 D 350 kN/m2
5 The gross bearing capacity of footing is 450 kN/m2, if the footing is 1.5 m
wide at a depth of 1m in clayey soil with Γ = 20 kN/m3, then net bearing
capacity (in kN/m3) will be
A 400 B 430
C 435 D 440
6 A 30 cm diameter friction is embedded 10 m into homogenous consolidated
deposit. Unit adhesion developed between clay and pile shaft is 4 t/m2 and
adhesion factor is 0.7. The safe load for factor of safety of 2.5 will be?
A 21.5 t B 11.57 t
C 10.55 t D 6.35 t

7 A single acting steam hammer weighing 82.5 kN and falling through a height of
1.2 m drives pile. If the final set is 12.5 mm then according to ENR
A Allowable load for pile is 300kN B Ultimate bearing capacity of
pile is 300 kN
C Allowable load for the pile is 120 D Ultimate bearing capacity of
kN pile is 120 kN
The bearing capacity of a strip footing on saturated clay is 120 kN/m2. The
8 bearing capacity of a circular footing (diameter = width) will be
A More than 120 kN/m2 B Equal to 120 kN/m2
C Less than 120 kN/m2 D Any of the above
9 The net ultimate bearing capacity of a soil is 25 t/m2 and density 1.7 t/m3. The
safe bearing capacity at 1.0 m below ground surface taking FoS = 2.5 will be
A 10 t/m2 B 25 t/m2
C 11.7 t/m2 D 62.5 t/m2

A cast in situ bored pile of 0.50 m diameter and 10 m deep is placed in a purely
10 cohesive soil. If the cohesion of the soil is 4 t/m2 and adhesion between the
pile and the soil is half the value of cohesion, then the ultimate bearing
capacity of pile will be given by
A ଵଽ గ B ଶଽ గ
tonnes tonnes
ସ ସ
C ଷଽ గ D ସଽ గ
tonnes tonnes
ସ ସ
11 A plate load test conducted on a clayey soil with square plate of 30 cm yielded
ultimate bearing capacity of 22.2 t/m2 with corresponding settlement of 5.0
mm. A 3m X 3m footing placed on that soil can safely carry with a factor of
safety of 3.0
A 22.2 t/m2with expected B 14.8 t/m2with expected
settlement of 50 mm settlement of 34 mm
2
C 7.4 t/m with expected settlement D 7.4 t/m2with expected
of 50 mm settlement of 17 mm
12 The allowable bearing capacity at 25 mm allowable settlement for a footing in
a sandy soil is 15 t/m2. The allowable bearing capacity for the same footing
permitting a settlement of 40 mm is
A 24 t/m2 B 30 t/m2
C 34 t/m2 D 40 t/m2

13 A pile embedded quite deep in a clay stratum. The clay has cohesion = 3.5
t/m2. The ultimate point resistance of pile will be
 A 19.6 t/m2 B 24.5 t/m2
C 21.0 t/m2 D 31.5 t/m2

14 The unit cohesion of saturated clay is 1 kg/cm2. The net ultimate bearing
capacity of a square footing in this clay will be approximately
A 2 t/m2 B 10 t/m2

C 15 t/m2 D 40 t/m2
15 A RC pile is driven with a drop hammer weighing 18 kN and having a free fall of
1.5m. The penetration in last blow is 5 mm. The load carrying capacity of the
pile as per ENR will be
A 100 kN B 150 kN
C 90 kN D 180 kN
16 In a group of piles with pile diameter 20 cm and C/C spacing 1 m and length of
each pile 10m. The value of load carrying capacity of pile group if c= 20 kN/m2
will be
A 1600 kN B 1760 kN
C 2000 kN D 1800 kN
17 The total passive earth pressure per unit length against a retaining wall of 3 m
height with backfill of unit wt. 1.8 t/m3 and angle of internal friction 30° will be
A 21.2 t/m2 B 22.8 t/m2
C 24.3 t/m2 D 26.5 t/m2
18 Saturated stiff clay has unit weight 2 gm/cm3 and unconfined compressive
strength 2 kg/cm2. The depth of tension crack that would develop in this clay is
A 2m B 5m

C 10 m D 20 m
19 A residual factor is important in investigation of slopes. If the peak, residual
and in situ shear strength of clay are 1, 0.6 and 0.4 kg/cm2, then residual factor
of clay will be
A 1.5 B 0.67
C 0.60 D 0.40
20 The ratio of total passive earth pressure to total active earth pressure for
saturated clay deposit on a retaining wall of 10 m height will be (Γ =2 t/m2 and
c = 1 t/m2)
A 2:3 B 1:2
C 3:2 D 2:1

21 A gravity retaining wall of top width 1 m and base width 3 m and total height
of 10 m is retaining dry cohesion less backfill of unit weight 20 kN/m3 and
angle of shearing resistance 30°. Then the factor of safety against sliding will
 be (Γsoil = 22 kN/m3)
A 2.3 B 1.3

C 3.3 D 2.5
22 A retaining wall retains a sand strata with φ = 30° up to its top. If a uniform
surcharge of 9 t/m2is subsequently put on sand strata, then increase in the
lateral earth pressure intensity on the wall will be
A 3 t/m2 B 8 t/m2
C 4 t/m2 D 1 t/m2
23 Taylor’s stability number curves are used for the analysis of stability of slopes.
The angle of shearing resistance used in chart is the
A Mobilized angle B Weighted angle
C Effective angle D Apparent angle
24 Negative skin friction on a pile under vertical compressive load acts
A Downwards and increases the B Downwards and reduces the
load carrying capacity of the pile load carrying capacity of the
pile
C Upwards and increases the load D Downwards and maintaining
carrying capacity of the pile the load carrying capacity of
the pile
25 Which of the following statement is valid for arriving at the standardized value
of N in a standard penetration test?
A For a constant density index, N B Density index decreases
value increases with increase in with depth
overburden pressure
C Density index increases with D Angle of shearing resistance
depth increases with depth
26 Pile caps are used on a pile group to
A Increase the load bearing capacity B Protect the pile from lateral
of each pile displacement
C Protect in case of off shore D Spread the horizontal and
structures vertical load on all piles
27 For any given sample, µ1 denotes Poisson’s ratio for sample 1, µ2 denotes
Poisson’s ratio for sample 2, k1 denotes coefficient of earth pressure at rest
for sample 1, k2 denotes coefficient of earth pressure at rest for sample 2,
ஜଵ ଷ ଵିஜଵ ଵ଼ ୩ଵ
If = and = , then what will be the value of ?
ஜଶ ଶ ଵିஜଶ ଶ଴ ୩ଶ
A 1.3125 B 1.7143
C 1.9687 D 1.8213
28 The group efficiency of pile group
 A Will be always less than 100% B Will be always greater than
100%
C May be less than 100% or more D Will be more than 100 % for
than 100% pile group in cohesion less
soil an less than 100% for
those in cohesive soil
29 Two criteria for determination of allowable bearing pressure of a foundation
are
A Tensile failure and compressive B Tensile failure and
failure settlement
C Bond failure and shear failure D Shear failure and settlement
30 The ultimate bearing capacity of a soil is 300 kN/m2. The depth of a foundation
is 1 m and unit weight of soil is 20 kN/m3. Choosing factor of safety of 2.5 the
net safe bearing capacity is
A 100 kN/m2 B 112 kN/m2
C 80 kN/m2 D 100.5 kN/m2

31 A deep cut of 7m is to be made in a clay with unit weight 16 V kN/m3 and

cohesion 25 kN/m2. What will be factor of safety if one has to give a slope
angle of 30°? Consider Taylor’s stability number is 0.178 for a depth factor of 3.
A 0.80 B 1.1

C 1.25 D 1.0
32 Two footings, one circular and the other square are founded on the surface of
a purely cohesion less soil. The diameter of circular footing is same as that of
side of the square footing. The ratio of their ultimate bearing capacities is
A 3/4 B 4/3
C 1 D 1.3

33 To have zero active pressure intensity at the tip of a wall in cohesive soil one
should apply a uniform surcharge intensity of
A 2c tanα B 2c cotα
C -2c tanα D -2c cotα
34 The following two statements are made with reference to the calculation of
net bearing capacity theory. Identify if they are true or false, (I)
Increase in footing width will result in higher bearing capacity (II) Increase in
depth of foundation will result in higher bearing capacity
A Both statements are true B Both statements are false
C (I) is true but (II) is false D (II) is true but (I) is false
35 The width and depth of footing are 2 and 1.5 m respectively. The water table
at the site is 3 m below ground level. The water table correction factor for
calculation of bearing capacity of soil is
A 0.875 B 1.000
 C 0.925 D 0.500
36 With respect to c-φ soil in an infinite slope, identify if the following two
statements are true or false (i) The stable slope angle can be greater than φ (ii)
The factor of safety of slope does not depend on the height of soil in slope.
A Both statements are false B (I) is true but (II) is false
C (II) is true but (I) is false D Both statements are true

37 A plate load test was conducted in sand on a 300 mm diameter plate. If the
plate settlement was 5 mm at a pressure of 100kPa, the settlement (in mm) of
a5 m x 8 m rectangular footing at the same pressure will be
A 9.4 mm B 18.6 mm

C 12.7 mm D 17.8 mm
38 The specific gravity and in situ voids ratio of a soil de[posit are 2.71 and 0.85
respectively. The value of critical hydraulic gradient is
A 0.82 B 0.85
C 0.92 D 0.95
39 The observed N value at 10 m depth of a silty sand deposit is 13. The unit
weight of soil is 16 kN/m3. The n value after correcting the presence of fines
will be
A 12 B 13
C 14 D 15
40 An infinite slope is to be constructed in soil with effective stress parameters c
and φ as 0 and 30° respectively. The saturated unit weight of soil is 20 kN/m3.
Assuming that seepage is occurring parallel to the slope, the maximum slope
angle with a factor of safety of 1.5 will be
A 10.89° B 11.30°
C 12.48° D 14.73°
41 A masonry dam is founded on pervious sand having porosity equal to 45 % and
specific gravity of sand particles is 2.65. For a desired factor of safety of 3
against sand boiling, the maximum permissible upward gradient will be
A 0.225 B 0.302
C 1.0 D None of these

42 A granular soil possesses saturated density of 20 kN/m3. Its effective angle of

internal friction is 35 degrees. If the desired factor of safety is 1.5 the safe
angle of slope for this soil, when seepage occurs parallel to the slope surface
will be
A 25° B 23°
C 20° D 13°
43 In a plate load test conducted on cohesion less soil, a 600 mm square plate
settles by 15 mm under a load intensity of 0.2 N/mm2. All conditions remaining
same settlement of a 1 m square footing will be
A Less than 15 mm B Greater than 25 mm
C 15.60 mm D 20.50 mm
44 A 25 kN point load acts on the surface of an infinite elastic medium. The
vertical pressure intensity in kN/m2 at a point 6.0 m below and 4.0m away
from the load will be
A 132 B 13.2
C 1.32 D 0.132

45 If Taylor’s stability number is 0.08 and if the canal flows full the factor of safety
with respect to cohesion against failure of canal bank slope will be
A 3.7 B 1.85
C 1.0 D None of these
If the is a sudden drawdown of water in the canal and if Taylor’s stability
46 number for reduced value of φv is 0.16, the factor of safety with respect to
cohesion against failure of bank slope will be
A 1.85 B 1.18
C 0.84 D 0.53
47 If elastic modulus and Poisson’s ratio of the clay layer are 50 x 103 kPa and 0.4
respectively and if the influence factor for strip footing is 1.75 the elastic
settlement of footing will be
A 0.41 mm B 1.41 mm
C 14.1 mm D None of these
48 Two circular footings of diameters D1 and D2are resting on the surface of the
same cohesive soil. The ratio of their gross ultimate bearing capacities is
A D1/ D2 B 1.0
C D12 / D22 D D2/ D1

49 In context of collecting undisturbed soil samples of high quality using a spoon

sampler, following statements are made,
(I) Area ratio should be less than 10 %
(II) Clearance ratio should be less than 1%
With reference to above statements, which of the following applies?
A Both statements are true B Statement II is true but I is
false
C Statement I is true but II is false D Both statements are false
50 An unsupported excavation is made to the possible maximum depth in clay soil
having Γ = 18 kN/m3, φ =30°. The active earth pressure according to Rankine’s
theory at the base level of the excavation is
 A 115.47 kN/m2 B 54.36 kN/m2
C 27.18 kN/m2 D 13 kN/m2

51 A retaining wall of height 8 m retains dry sand. In the initial stage, soil is loose
and has a voids ratio of 0.5, Γd = 17.8 kN/m3 and φ 30°. Subsequently the
backfill is compacted to a state where voids ratio is 0.4 and Γd = 18.8 kN/m3
and φ 35°. The ration of initial passive thrust to final thrust according to
Rankine’s earth pressure theory is
A 0.38 B 0.64
C 0.77 D 1.55
52 Negative soil friction in a soil is considered when a pile is constructed through
a
A Fill material B Dense coarse sand

C Over consolidated stiff clay D Dense fine sand

53 There are two footings resting on the ground surface. One is square of
dimension “B”. The other is strip footing of width ‘B’. Both of them are
subjected to loading intensity of ‘q’. The pressure intensity at any depth below
base of the footing along the centre line will be
A Equal in both footings B Large for square footing and
small for strip footing
C Large for strip footing and small D More for strip footing at
for square footing shallow depth (≤B) and
more for square footing at
large depth (≥ B)
54 For two infinite slopes (one in dry condition and other in submerged
condition)in a sand deposit having φ = 30°, factor of safety was determined as
1.5 (for both slopes). The slope angles would have been
A 21.05° for dry slope and 21.05° for B 19.47° for dry slope and
submerged slope 18.4° for submerged slope
C 18.4° for dry slope and 21.05° for D 22.6° for dry slope and
submerged slope 19.47° for submerged slope
55 Which of these corrections are required for ‘N’ value
A Overburden B dilatancy
C Ground water D All of these

56 Active earth pressure will be developed in backfill when

1. Horizontal strain is ≤ .05%
2. Horizontal strain is ≥ 1 %
3. Mobilized shearing resistance along failure plane is minimum
4. Mobilized shearing resistance along failure plane is maximum
Which of the following statements are correct?
A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4
 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4
57 Plate load test is useful to estimate

A Bearing capacity of foundation B Settlement of footing

C Both A and B D Depth of footing
58 Capillary water in soils
A Causes negative pore pressure B Reduces effective stresses
C Reduces bearing capacity D All of these
59 The active earth pressure of a soil is proportional to (where φ is the angle of
friction of the soil)
A tan (45° - φ) B tan2 (45° + φ)
C tan2 (45° - φ) D tan (45° + φ)

60 The lateral earth pressure on a retaining wall

A is equal to mass of the soil B proportional to the depth
retained of the soil
C proportional to the square of D proportional to the internal
the depth of the soil friction of the soil
61 The maximum value of effective stress in the past divided by the present
value, is defined as over consolidation ratio (OCR). The O.C.R. of an
over consolidated clay is
A less than 1 C 1
B more than 1 D None of these.
62 Under-reamed piles are generally
A driven piles B board piles
C precast piles D all the above
63 Factor of safety against sliding of a slope, is the ratio of
A actual cohesion to that required B shear strength to shear
to maintain stability of slope stress along the surface
C neither (a) nor (b) D both (a) and (b).
64 According to Coulomb's wedge theory, the active earth pressure slides
the wedge
A down and outwards on a slip B up and inwards on a slip
surface surface
C horizontal upward and parallel D horizontal inward and
to base parallel to base.
65 Rankine's theory of active earth pressure assumes
 A soil mass is homogeneous, dry B ground surface is a plane
and cohesionless which may be horizontal
or inclined
C back of the wall is vertical and D all the above.
smooth
66 Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A When water table is above the B When water table is
base of a footing, the dry located somewhat below
weight m should be used for the base of a footing, the
soil below water table elastic wedge is partly of
moist soil and partly of
submerged soil, and a
suitable reduction factor is
used
C When water table is just at the D None of these
base of the footing, no
reduction factor is used
67 If S, L and R are the arc length, long chord and radius of the sliding circle
then the perpendicular distance of the line of the resultant cohesive force,
is given by
A B

C D none of these.

68 Back fill with a sloping surface exerts a total active pressure Pa on the
wall of height H and acts at
A H/4 above the base parallel to B H/2 above the base
base parallel to base
C H/3 above the base parallel to D H/5 above the base
base parallel to base.
69 The ultimate Settlement of a soil is directly proportional to:
A depth of the compressible soil B compressive index
strata
C void ratio D both (a) and (b)
70 The fluid generally used for grouting is
A cement and water mix B clay suspension

C sodium silicate D all the above.

71 A coarse-grained soil has a voids ratio 0.75, and specific gravity as 2.75.
The critical gradient at which quick sand condition occurs, is
A 0.25 B 0.50
 C 0.75 D 1.00
72 Failure of the stability of slopes, generally occurs along
A slip plane B a horizontal surface
C a curved surface D all the surfaces.
73 Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A Failure plane carries maximum B Failure plane does not
shear stress carry maximum shear
stress
C Failure plane carries shear D None of these.
stress equal to maximum shear
stress
74 The Westergaard analysis is used for
A sandy soils B cohesive soils

C stratified soils D clayey soils.

75 If L and B are the length and breadth of a footing, e the eccentricity along
the length and P and Q are the axial force and bearing capacity of the
soil, then, to avoid tension,
A B

C D

76 Number of piles required to support a column, is

A 1 B 2
C 3 D 4
77 For a clay slope of height of 10 m, the stability number is 0.05, γ = 2.0
t/m3, C = 2.5 t/m2, the critical height of the slope of the soil, is
A 4.0 m B 12.5 m

C 25.0 m D 15.0 m
78 If σ0' and σ' represent initial and increased pressure ; e0 and e void ratios
corresponding to initial and increased pressure ; and C0 the compression
index (dimensionless), then, the virgin compression curve as expressed
by Terzaghi empirical formula is
A e = e0 + Cc log10 σ'/σ0' e = e0 - Cc log10 σ'/σ0'
C e0 = e - Cc log10 σ'/σ0' e0 = e + Cc log10 σ'/σ0'
79 The maximum load carried by a pile, when it continues to sink without
further increase of load, is known as
A ultimate load carrying capacity ultimate bearing capacity
C ultimate bearing resistant all the above.
80 If C is cohesion, F is factor of safety, γ is unit weight of soil and H is the
maximum height of embankment, the stability number, is
A B

C D

81 The coefficient of passive earth pressure for loose sand with φ = 30°
A 1/3 B 3
C 1 D 1/2
82 Pick up the correct statement applicable to plate load test
A Width of the test pit for plate load At the centre of the test pit,
test is made five times the width a hole is dug out whose size
of the plate is kept equal to the size of
the test plate
C Bottom level of the hole dug at All of above
the centre of the test pit, is kept
at the level of the actual
formation
83 The ultimate bearing capacity of a soil, is
A total load on the bearing area B safe load on the bearing
area
C load at which soil fails D load at which soil
consolidates.
89 The minimum centre to centre distance of friction piles of 1 m diameter,
is
A 2m 2 to 3 m
C 3 to 4 m 5m
90 The specific gravity of sands, is approximately
A 1.6 2.0
C 2.6 2.4
91 The compression resulting from a long term static load and consequent
escape of pore water, is known as
A compaction B consolidation
 C swelling D None of these.
92 The method of the slices is applicable to
A Homogenous soil B Stratified soil
C Saturated soil D Non-uniform slopes
93 The inventor of the term soil mechanics, was
A Kray B Dr. Karl Terzaghi
C Leygue D Fellenius.
94 If drainage is permitted throughout the test, during the application of both
normal, and shear stresses so that full consolidation occurs and no excess
pore pressure is set up at any stage of the test, is known as
A quick test B drained test

C consolidated undrained test D None of these

95 For a base failure of a slope, depth factor

A Df = 1 B Df < 1
C Df > 1 D none of these
96 The zero atmospheric pressure is at
A sea level B mean sea level
C water table D All of these

97 In a purely cohesive soil, the critical centre lies at the intersection of

A perpendicular bisector of slope B perpendicular drawn at
and the locus of the centre l/3rd slope from toe and the
locus of the centre
C perpendicular drawn at 2/3rd D directional angles
slope from toe and the locus of
the centre

98 In non-cohesive soil in passive state of plastic equilibrium

A major principal stress is horizontal minor principal stress is
vertical
C major principal stress is vertical minor and major principal
stresses are equally inclined
to the horizontal.
99 In active state of plastic equilibrium in a non cohesive soil with
horizontal ground surface
A major principal stress is horizontal minor principal stress is
vertical
 C major principal stress is vertical
100 A pycnometer is used to determine
A Voids ratio
minor and major principal
stresses are equally inclined
to the horizontal.
B Dry density

C Water content D Density index

101 The ultimate bearing capacity of a soil, is
A total load on the bearing B safe load on bearing area
area
C load at which soil fails D Load at which soil consolidates
102 Pick up the correct statement from the following
The minimum depth of building foundations on
A Sandy soils is 80 cm to 100 B Clay soils is 90 cm to 160 cm
cm
C Rocky soils is 5 cm to 50 D All the above
cm
103 A grillage foundation
A Is provided for heavily B Is treated as spread
loaded isolated columns foundation
C Consists of two sets of D All A, B and C
perpendicularly placed
steel beams
104 For a vertical concentrated load acting on the surface of a semi-infinite
elastic soil mass , the vertical normal stress at depth z is
A Directly proportional to z B Inversely proportional to z
C Directly proportional to z² D Inversely proportional to z²
105 For Φ=26° suggested shear failure in the soil is
A General shear failure B Local shear failure
C Punching shear failure D Any of above
106 For Φ= 38° suggested shear failure in the soil is
A General shear failure B Local shear failure
C Punching shear failure D Any of above
107 Which of the following IS code will you use for determination of bearing
capacity of shallow foundation
A IS : 6403-1981 B IS:456-2000
C IS : 1893-1975 D IS:8009(Part 1)-1976
108 Which type of soil sample give most appropriate result for soil test?
A Disturbed sample B Non-uniform sample
C Undisturbed sample D Any of the above
109 If D1=ID of cutting edge , D2= OD of cutting edge, D3= ID of sampling tube
and D4=OD of the sampling tube then area ratio of the sample is given by
A (D2²-D1²)/D1² B (D2-D4)/D4
C (D3-D1)/D1 D (D2²-D1²)/D2²
110 If D1=ID of cutting edge , D2= OD of cutting edge, D3= ID of sampling tube
and D4=OD of the sampling tube then Inside clearance of the sample is
given by
A (D2-D1)/D1 B (D2-D4)/D4
C (D3-D1)/D1 D (D2²-D1²)/D2²
111 If D1=ID of cutting edge , D2= OD of cutting edge, D3= ID of sampling tube
 and D4=OD of the sampling tube then outside clearance of the sample is
given by
A (D2²-D1²)/D1² B (D2-D4)/D4
C (D3-D1)/D1 D (D2-D1)/D2
112 Which sampler we are using at the time of finding the N-value in SPT?
A Core cutter B Thin walled sampler
C Split spoon sampler D Stationary piston
113 What is the apex angle of cone in static cone penetration test?
A 60° B 30°
C 45° D 65°
114 What is plan area of cone in static cone penetration test ?
A 10 cm² B 15 cm²
C 5 cm² D 100 cm²
115 For obtaining the cone resistance, the cone (in SCPT) is pushed downward
at a steady rate of ____ through a depth of ____ each time.
A 10 mm/sec , 35 mm B 10 mm/sec, 150 mm
C 15 mm/sec , 50 mm D 20 mm/sec , 150 mm
116 What will be the diameter of cone used in DCPT with bentonite slurry?
A 50 mm B 70 mm
C 60 mm D 65 mm
117 For electrical resistivity method electrodes are placed at
A Equal distance B Outer electrodes are kept at
far
C Different distance D None of above
118 The results of electrical resistivity method are fairly good for
A Depth up to spacing of B Depth more than spacing of
electrodes electrodes
C Depth double than D All of above
spacing of electrodes
119 If the depth of foundation is (Df) is less than width of foundation (B) then
it is called
A Shallow foundation B Pile foundation
C Deep foundation D All of above
120 A foundation provided commonly for two column is called
A Spread footing B Combined footing
C Raft footing D Caisson
121 Value of σz ______ with z on vertical through the point of application
of point load (i.e. at r=0)
A Decreases B Remains constant
C Increases D None of above
122 Geophysical method is used for determining
A Engineering properties of B Depth of bad rock rapidly
sands
C Engineering properties of D Soil conditions in situ by visual
clays inspection
123 Drilling and sampling method is used for determining
 A Engineering properties of B Depth of bad rock rapidly
sands
C Engineering properties of D Soil conditions in situ by visual
clays inspection
124 Pit investigation method is used for determining
A Engineering properties of B Depth of bad rock rapidly
sands
C Engineering properties of D Soil conditions in situ by visual
clays inspection
125 Insitu method of investigation is used for determining
A Engineering properties of B Depth of bad rock rapidly
sands
C Engineering properties of D Soil conditions in situ by visual
clays inspection
126 The basic requirement in seismic refraction method is that the wave
velocity in the upper layer must be _____ that in the lower layer.
A Less than B Greater than
C Equal to D Twice than
127 The standard penetration test is most frequently used to measure the
A Shear strength of soft clay B Undrained strength of fissured
clay
C Relative density of D Consistency of clay
granular soils
128 In order to minimize sampling disturbance, the area ratio should be
A zero B As high as possible
C As low as possible D Equal to unity
129 Block samples are recommended in a situation when
A The soil is highly fissured B The soil is precompressed
C Samples below water D Soft clay is encountered
table are required
130 Auger having drilling action of
A High speed rotation B Slow speed rotation
C chiselling D Up-down action
131 σ z is the vertical stress at a depth equal to z in the soil mass due to a
surface point load Q. The vertical stress at depth equal to 2z will be
A 0.25σz B 0.50σz
C 1.0σz D 2.0σz
132 The change in the vertical stress in the soil mass estimated by
Boussinesq’s equation when poisoon’s ratio of soil changes from 0.3 to
0.5 will be
A Reduction by 30% B Increase by 50%
C Reduction by 20% D No change
133 The contact pressure distribution under a rigid footing on a cohesionless
soil would be
A Uniform throughout B Zero at centre and maximum
at edges
C Zero at edges and D Maximum at edges and
 maximum at centre minimum at centre
134 The bulb of pressure under a strip footing forms in the direction of its
A Length B Both
C width D None of above
135 In the case of stratified soil layers, the best equation that can be adopted
for computing the pressure distribution is
A Prandtl’s B Skemptons
C Westergaard’s D Boussinesq’s
136 A combined footing is generally used when
A Number of column is two B Number of column is two and
and they are spaced close they are spaced far apart
to each other
C Number of column is D There is only one column
more than two and they
are spaced far apart
137 Terzaghi’s bearing capacity factors are function of
A Only Φ B Φ and width of foundation
C Φ and depth of D Φ and both depth and width
foundation of foundation
138 Standard penetration resistance in very stiff clays lies between
A 2 and 4 B 4 and 8
C 8 and 15 D 15 and 30
139 For plate load test, the width of the test pit shall be at least
A 2 times the width of plate B 4 times the width of plate
C 5 times the width of plate D 10 times the width of plate
140 By plate load test we finally determine ______ of soil.
A Shear parameters B Compressive strength
C Bearing capacity D Tensile strength
141 The approximate depth at which the effective vertical pressure is equal to
100 kN/m² in a typical deposit of submerged soil is
A 5m B 10 m
C 20 m D 100 m
142 What will be the value of shape factor Sc for isolated rectangular
foundation of size 6 m x 3 m?
A 1.25 B 1.5
C 1.1 D 1.2
143 What is the value of Nc as per IS:6403 for Φ = 0°?
A 0 B 3.24
C 9.42 D 5.16
144 Which type of shear failure generally occur in loose/soft soil ?
A General shear failure B Local shear failure
C Punching shear failure D Any of above
145 Which type of shear failure generally occur in dense/stiff soil ?
A General shear failure B Local shear failure
C Punching shear failure D Any of above
146 Which of the following statement is true for General shear failure in soil?
 A Failure pattern is well B Failure pattern is well defined
defined & clear & but not clear
C Failure pattern is not well D Failure pattern is not well
defined & clear defined & not clear
147 Which of the following statement is true for General shear failure in soil?
A Failure pattern is well B Failure pattern is well defined
defined & clear & but not clear
C Failure pattern is not well D Failure pattern is not well
defined & clear defined
148 What will be the inside diameter of split spoon sample used in the SPT?
A 45 mm B 38 mm
C 150 mm D 50 mm
149 What will be the inside diameter of split spoon sample used in the SPT?
A 45 mm B 38 mm
C 150 mm D 50 mm
150 The correlation between dynamic cone resistance (Ncbr) and SPT value (N)
for 50 mm diameter cone is (for depth upto 3m)
A Ncbr = 2.0 N B Ncbr = 1.5 N
C Ncbr = 1.75 N D Ncbr = 3.0 N
151 The correlation between dynamic cone resistance (Ncbr) and SPT value (N)
for 65 mm diameter cone is (for depth > 9m)
A Ncbr = 1.5 N B Ncbr = 1.75 N
C Ncbr = 3.0 N D Ncbr = 2.0 N
152 Boussinesq’s equation for vertical normal stress (σz) under point load is
given by
A (3Q/2πZ²)*[1/{1+(r/z)²}]5/2 B (q/π)*(α + sinα)
3
C (2Q/π)*{Z /(x²+z²)²} D {q/(2πn²z²)}*[1/{1=(r/nz)²}]3/2
153 Boussinesq’s equation for vertical normal stress (σz) under line load is
given by
A (3Q/2πZ²)*[1/{1+(r/z)²}]5/2 B (q/π)*(α + sinα)
C (2Q/π)*{Z3/(x²+z²)²} D {q/(2πn²z²)}*[1/{1=(r/nz)²}]3/2
154 Boussinesq’s equation for vertical normal stress (σz) for uniform load on a
strip area is given by
A (3Q/2πZ²)*[1/{1+(r/z)²}]5/2 B (q/π)*(α + sinα)
3
C (2Q/π)*{Z /(x²+z²)²} D {q/(2πn²z²)}*[1/{1=(r/nz)²}]3/2
155
A (3Q/2πZ²)*[1/{1+(r/z)²}]5/2 B (q/π)*(α + sinα)
3
C (2Q/π)*{Z /(x²+z²)²} D {q/(2πn²z²)}*[1/{1=(r/nz)²}]3/2
156 The intensity of vertical pressure at a depth z directly below the point
load Q on its axis of loading is
A 0.4775Q/z B 0.4775Q/z²
C 0.4775Q/z3 D 0.4775Q/√z
157 The Westergaard analysis is used for
A Sandy soils B Cohesive soils
C Stratified soils D Clayey soils
158 The net ultimate bearing capacity of a purely cohesive soil
 A Depends on width of B Depends on depth of footing
footing and independent and independent of width of
of depth of footing footing
C Depends on both depth D Is independent of both depth
and width of footing and width of footing
159 When water level rises to ground level from a great depth, the ultimate
capacity of a strip footing in sandy soils decreases approximately to
A 30% B 40%
C 50% D 100%
160 For determining the ultimate bearing capacity of soil, the recommended
size of a square bearing plate to be used in plate load test should be 30 to
75 cm square with a minimum thickness of
A 5 mm B 20 mm
C 15 mm D 25 mm
161 Newmark’s chart will be used to find out vertical stress on
A Circular area B Square area
C Rectangular area D Area of any shape
162 In which type of shear failure we observe tilting of footing?
A General shear B Punching shear
C Local shear D All of these
163 Which of the following will not affect more on the value of bearing
capacity?
A Type of soil B Size of footing
C Surcharge load D Free swell index
164 Split spoon sampler is penetrated up to _____ depth for finding the N
value in standard penetration test.
A 450 mm B 300 mm
C 375 mm D 500 mm
165 Which of the following have not given the theory to determine bearing
capacity of soil?
A Terzaghi B Skempton
C Meyerhof D Darcy
166 Which IS you will use to find out settlement of foundation?
A IS : 6403-1981 B IS:456-2000
C IS : 1893-1975 D IS:8009(Part 1)-1976
167 Which of the following method is not applicable for design of mat
foundation ?
A Terzaghi’s method B Truly elastic foundation
method
C Conventional D Simplified elastic (flexible)
(rigid)method method
168 Line or contour joining points inside soil mass at which the vertical stress
have same value is called
A Isomer B Mohr circle
C Isobar D Swedish circle
169 The standard size of the plate for the coefficient of sub grade reaction test
 is
A 50 cm B 75 cm
C 100 cm D 125 cm
A
C
170 Bearing capacity of a soil strata supporting a footing of size 3m x 3m will
not be affected by presence of ground water table located at a depth
which is
A 1 m below the base of B 1.5 m below the base of
footing footing
C 2.5 m below the base of C 3 m below the base of footing
footing
171 A plate load test was conducted in sand on a 300 mm diameter plate. If
the plate settlement was 5 mm at pressure of 100 kPa, the settlement (in
mm) of a 5 m x 8 m rectangular footing at the same pressure will be
A 9.4 B 18.6
C 12.7 D 17.8
172 A concentrated load of 50 t acts vertically at a point on the soil surface. If
Boussinesq’s equation is applied for computation of stress, then the ratio
of vertical stresses at depths of 3 m and 5 m respectively vertically below
the point of application of load will be
A 0.36 B 0.6
C 1.66 D 2.77
173 Main difference betqeen Boussinesq’s and Westergaard theory is due to
1. Modulus of Elasticity
2. Poisson’s ratio
3. Homogeneity of soil
A (1) alone B (2) alone
C (1) and (3) D (3) and (3)
174 Pick up the incorrect statement
1. The vertical stress distribution on a horizontal plane is bell
shaped.
2. The vertical stress first increases and then decreases with depth
asymptotically.
3. New mark chart can be used to compute vertical stress,
horizontal stress and shear stress.
A (1) Only B (2) Only
C (3) And (3) D None of these
175 Westergaard’s formula for vertical stress gives greater value of stress than
that by the Boussinesq’s formula, when r/z exceeds
A 1.5 B 2.5
C 3.5 D 4.0
176 A point load of 650 kN is applied on the surface of a thick layer of clay.
Using Boussinesq’s elastic analysis, what is approximate value of the
estimated vertical stress at a depth 2 m and radial distance of 1 m from
the point of application of load?
A 55 kN/m² B 44 kN/m²
 C 41 kN/m² D 37 kN/m²
177 A line load of infinite length has an intensity q per unit length. What is the
vertical stress σ z at a depth z below the earth at the centre of the load?
A 2qz/π B 2q/(πz)
C 2qz²/π D 2q/(πz²)
178 The rise of water table below a foundation influences the bearing capacity
of the foundation soil by decreasing the
A Cohesion and effective B Cohesion and effective unit
angle of shearing weight of soil
resistance
C Effective angle of shearing D Effective angle of shearing
resistance and effective resistance
unit weight of soil
179 The net ultimate bearing capacity of a soil is 25 t/m² and density 1.7 t/m².
The safe bearing capacity at 1 m below ground surface taking FOS=2.5 will
be
A 10 t/m² B 25 t/m²
C 11.7 t/m² D 62.5 t/m²
180 What is the size of plate used for determining the sub grade modulus?
A 50 cm B 75 cm
C 125 cm D 100 cm
181 A 2 m wide strip footing rests at a depth of 2 m below ground surface in a
clay deposit where water table is at ground surface, c=3 t/m² and
Υsat = 2 t/m3. The best of net ultimate load which the footing can carry is
A 18 t/m B 30 t/m
C 34.2 t/m D 48 t/m
182 Increasing the depth of foundation in saturated clays results in an
increased ultimate bearing capacity for strip footing

A Because the bearing B Because the bearing capacity

capacity factor Nγ factor Nc , increases as the
decreases depth increases.
C The term in the bearing D Because the angle of internal
capacity equation qNq, friction decreases as the depth
increases with depth of foundation increases.
183 As per Terzaghi’s equation, the bearing capacity of strip footing resting on
cohesive soil (c = 10 kN/m²) for unit depth and unit width (assume Nc =
5.7) is
A 47 kN/m² B 57 kN/m²
C 67 kN/m² C 77 kN/m²
184 A strip footing having 1.5 m width founded at a depth of 3 m below
ground level in a clay soil having c=20 kN/m², Φ=0° and unit weight Υ=20
kN/m3. What is the net ultimate bearing capacity using Skempton’s
analysis with Skempton’s factor Nc = 5.
A 30 kN/m² B 60 kN/m²
C 100 kN/m² D 140 kN/m²
185 Two circular footing of diameters D1 and D2 are resting on the surface of
purely cohesive soil. The ratio D1/D2 = 2. If the ultimate load carrying
capacity of the footing of diameter D1 is 200 kN/m² then the ultimate
bearing capacity of the footing of diameter D2 will be
A 100 kN/m² B 200 kN/m²
C 314 kN/m² C 571 kN/m²
186 A rectangular footing 1 m x 2m is placed at a depth of 2m in a saturated
clay having an unconfined compressive strength of 100kN/m². According
to skempton, the net ultimate bearing capacity is (Nc =5)
A 420 kN/m² B 412.5 kN/m²
C 385 kN/m² D 350 kN/m²
187 Consider the following statements:
Criteria for satisfactory performance of footing are that the
1. Soil supporting the footing must be safe against shear failure
2. Footing must not settle more than a prespecified value.
3. Footing must be rigid
4. Footing should be above water table
Which of these statement are correct?
A 3 and 4 B 1 and 2
C 1 and 3 D 2 and 4
188 If two foundations are narrow and another wide, are resting on a bed of
sand carrying the same intensity of load per unit area, then which one is
likely to fail early?
A Narrow foundation B Wide foundation
C Both will fail D Difficult to judge since other
simultaneously conditions are unknown
189 In a plate load test how is the ultimate load estimated from the load
settlement curve on a log log graph?
A Directly B By drawing tangents to the
curves at the initial and final
points
C By the secant method D At 0.2% of maximum
settlement
190 In a plate test on sandy soil the test plate of 60cm x 60cm undergoes
settlement of 5 mm at a pressure of 12x104 N/m² what will be expected
settlement of 3m x 3m footing under same pressure?
A 25 mm B 20 mm
C 15 mm D 9 mm
191 In water logged area, by draining the soil, bearing capacity of the soil
A decreases B Increases
C Remain unchanged D None of these
192 According to IS: 1904 - 1966, maximum safe bearing capacity for coarse
sand, medium sand and fine sand are respectively(in kg/cm2)
A 4.5, 2.5, 1.5 B 33, 16.5, 9
C 16.5, 9.0, 4.5 D none of these
1 In a oven-drying method for determination of water content the sample
is kept at _____ temperature for 24 hrs.
A 105-1100c B <500c
C >2000c D None of the above
2 _________ method of determination of water content can be used only
when specific gravity of soil solids is known in advance.
A Pynometer method B Calcium carbide method
C Sand bath method D Oven drying method

3 For a uniform graded soil the coefficient of uniformity (Cu) is ______

A 1 B 4
C 6 D 8
4 For gravels coefficient of uniformity (Cu) should be
A 1 B 2
C Greater than 4 D Greater than 6
5 The shape of the particle size curve can be represented by

A Cu B Cc
C Ip D If
6 Consistency of soil is used to describe firmness of___________ soils
related to water content.
A Coarse grained soils B Fine grained soils
C Coarse sand D Fine sand
7 The water content which arbitrarily define the boundary between the
four states of consistency are called as
A Atterberg’s limits B Shrinkage limit
C Casagrande limits D Darcy limit

8 At _____ limits it is minimum water at which the soil mass still flows like
a liquid.
A liquid B plastic

C shrinkage D None of these

9 At ______ limit, it is the maximum water content at which there is no
reduction in volume of soil mass accompanying reduction in water
content.
A liquid B plastic
C shrinkage D None of these
10 For determination of liquid limit in laboratory the soil sample passing
through_____ IS sieve Is used.
A 75µ B 425µ
C 1000µ D 2000µ
11 In a liquid limit test the height of fall of cup of the liquid limit device is
kept as________
A 1cm B 2cm

C 3cm D 1mm
12 In a liquid limit test, the handle is rotated at a __________ for giving
impact to the cup.
A 2rps B 1rps
C 4rps D None of above
13 From the plot of water content vs. no of blows on semi log graph the
liquid limit is obtained as water content corresponding to ____ blows.
A 25 B 50
C 35 D 15
14 In a plastic limit test the ball is rolled on a smooth place into a thread of
_______ diameter
A 10mm B 2mm
C 6mm D 3mm

15 Shrinkage ratio (SR) is defined as the ratio of reduction in volume of soil

mass expressed in percentage of its dry volume to the
corresponding________
A Reduction in water B Reduction in weight of soil
content mass
C Reduction in volume of D Reduction in volume of dry
dry soil mass soil mass
16 ________gave the wedge theory of earth pressure.

A Coulomb B Darcy

C Poncelet D Stroke

17 ___________gave the theory for determining stresses inside soil mass

due to surface point loads.
A Rankine B Boussinesq

C Casagrande D Bell
_______ is called as father of soil mechanics.
18
A Rankine B Darcy
 C Casagrande D Terzaghi
19 ________ gave the theory of plastic equilibrium for determining bearing
capacity of soil.
A Prandtl B Coulomb
C Newton D Bell

20 ________ gave solutions to problems of seepage below hydraulic

structures.
A Pavlovsky B Terzaghi
C Casagrande D Laplace
21 ________gave the theory of compaction of soil.
A Casagrande B Terzaghi
C Proctor D Rankine
22 Mathematically Void ratio(e) is defined as ratio of________

A Vs/Vv B Vv/Vs
C V/Vv D Vv/v
23 Mathematically porosity(n) is defined as ratio of _____

A Vs/Vv B Vv/Vs
C V/Vv D Vv/V
24 Void ratio ’e’ for soil lies in the range of ______

A 0 to 1 B 1 to 2
C 0 to ∞ D 0 to 0.1
25 For a given same volume of soil mass the higher void ratio is observed in
________ soils.
A fine grained B coarse grained
C medium coarse grained D none of these
26 Porosity for soil lies in the range of
A 0 to 1 B 0 to ∞

C 1 to 2 D 0 to 0.1
27 Degree of saturation for dry soil is _______
A 0 B 1

C 100 D ∞
28 Water content for soil lies in the range of ____
A 0 to ∞ B 0 to 100%

C 100 to 1000% D 10 to 20%

29 Higher the specific gravity of soil particles more ________is the particles.
A denser B thicker
C lighter D none of these
30 Specific gravity of soil mass is the ratio of _______
A γ / γw B γs / γw

C γw / γ s D γw / γ
31 Air content (ac) is the ratio of ______

A Va/Vv B 1 - Sr
C both ‘A’ & ‘B’ D Va/V
32 Percentage air voids(ηa) is defined as the ratio of _________
A Va/Vv B Va/V

C Va/Vw D Vv/V
33 Plasticity index (Ip) is defined as _____
A WL-Wp B WL-WS
C WP-WS D None of these
34 Toughness index is defined as the ratio of _______
A IP/IF B IF/IP

C IC/IP D IL/IP
35 Consistency index is defined as the ratio of ________

A WL-W/IP B W-WP/IP
C W-WP/IP D W-WP/IL
36 When soil is at liquid limit, (W= WL) , Ic= ____
A 0 B 1

C ∞ D None of these
37 When soil is at plastic limit (W=Wp), Ic= ____
A 0 B 1
 C ∞ D None of these
38 Liquidity index is defined as ratio of natural water content minus plastic
limit to _______
A Plasticity index B Flow index
C Consistency index D None of these

39 If the value of Ic varies from 0 to 1 , the soil is at _____ stage

A Plasticity state B Liquidity state
C Solid state D Semi solid state
40 If value of Ic is negative the soil mass is at ________ state.
A liquid B plasticity
C solid state D semi-solid

41 If the value of Ic is greater than 1 the soil mass will be in _______

A Semi solid or solid B liquid

C plastic D None of these

42 When the soil mass is at plastic limit (W=Wp), IL=________
A 0 B 1
C ∞ D None of these

43 When soil is at liquid limit (W=WL), IL= _________

A 0 B 1
C ∞ D None of these
44 If the value of IL>1 then soil mass is in ___________ state
A liquid B plastic
C solid D Semi solid

45 If the value of IL lies in the range of 0 to 1 , then soil mass is in _______

state
A Liquid B Plastic
C Solid D Semi solid

46 As per Atterberg, if the value of plasticity index is less than 7 , the soil is
classified as _______
A Low plastic B Non plastic

C Medium plastic D Highly plastic

47 As per Atterberg, if the value of plasticity index is greater than 17 the soil
is classified as
A Low plastic B Non plastic
C Medium plastic D Highly plastic
48 The value of toughness index for clays lies in the range of

A 0 to 3 B 0 to 1
C >6 D >8
49 As per Skempton, for clays if the value of activity no.(Ac) is less than
0.75, the soil is classified as _________
A Inactive B Normal
C Active D None of these
50 As per Schedig, if the degree of shrinkage of clayey soil is less than 5%
the resistance to shrinkage is ___________
A Good B Medium
C Poor D Very poor

51 In-site bulk density of a soil deposit for cohesive soils can determined
by_______
A Core cutter method B Sand replacement method
C Calcium carbide method D Pycnometer method
52 In-site bulk density for cohesion less soils can be determined by
_________
A Core cutter method B Sand replacement method
C Calcium carbide method D Pycnometer method
53 Density index is the ratio of _______
A emax- e/emax- emin B e - emax/emax- e

C emax- emin/emax- e D emin- e/emax

54 Generally the (Density Index)ID lies between _________ for soils.

A 0 to 100% B ∞
C <0 D >100%
55 If the value of(Density Index) ID is less than 35% ,coarse grained soils can
be classified as _______ type.
A Loose B Medium dense
C Dense D Very dense
56 As per IS soil classification system the sand particle size ranges from
_________
A 75µ-4.75mm B 4.75mm-20mm
C 2µ-75µ D 2mm-20mm
58 IS soil classification system is based on __________

A Unified soil classification B MIT

system
C HRB D PRA
59 As per IS soil classification system GW and GP are classified as
___________
A Well graded sand, poorly B Well graded silts, poorly
graded gravels graded silts
C Well graded gravels, D Well graded clays, poorly
poorly graded gravels graded clays
60 As per IS soil classification, SW and SC are classified as ___________
A Well graded sands & B Well graded silts &silty clays
clayey sands
C Poorly graded sands D Silty gravels & clayey gravels
&silty sands
61 As per IS soil classification system the gravels are defined as
_____________
A If more than 50% by mass B If more than 50% by mass of
of the coarse grained the grained fraction retained
fraction passes through on 4.75mm IS sieve
4.75mm IS
C If less than 50% by mass D If less than 50% by mass of
of the coarse grained the grained fraction retained
fraction retained on on 4.75mm IS sieve
4.75mm IS sieve
62 A soil having liquid limit= 60% and Plasicity Index (Ip )=40 the given soil
can be classified as __________as per Casagrande plasticity chart
A CL B CH
C SM D CL-ML

63 Liquid limit is considered as good index of compressibility for _____ soils.

A Fine grained B Coarse grained

C Well graded gravely sandy D None of these

64 As per IS soil classification system, when liquid limit lies between 35%-
50% the given soil is classified as
A Soil with medium B Soil with high compressibility
compressibility
 C Soil with low D None of these
compressibility
65 IS plasticity chart is a plot of
A IP vs. WL B IL vs. WL
C WL vs. WS D IF vs. IC

66 Casagrande equation for IS plasticity chart to determine IP is

__________
A 0.63( WL-20) B 0.9(WL-40)
C 0.73(WL-20) D 0.73(WL-WP)
67 As per IS classification, coarse gravel (G) size ranges from _________
A 80 to 20mm B 20mm – 4.75mm
C 425µ to 75µ D 80mm- 300mm
68 Silt particle size as per IS classification system is

A 0.075 to 4.75 mm B > 4.75 mm

C 0.002 to 0.075 mm D <0.002 mm
69 As per IS soil classification system SM soil is designated as

A Silty clay B Sandy gravel

C Silty gravel D Silty sand
70 The soil deposit on earth’s surface is due to geological cycle of events
continuously taking place because of ________
A Weathering B Transportation and upheaval

C Deposition D All of the above

71 Following are the agencies for transportation and deposition of soils.
A Gravity B Wind
C Ice D (a) and(b)
72 _________ types of soils are the soils which are transported and
deposited by flowing water.
A Glacial soils B Dune sand
C Loess D Alluvial soil

73 Following type of soil is not Glacier deposited

A Bentonite B Drift
C Till D None of these
74 When the products of rock weathering are not transported as sediments
but remain in place the soil is known as
A Alluvial B Residual soil
C loess D Dune sand
75 Generally the soil structure of any soil depends on the following

A Mineralogical B Shape & orientation of

composition particle
C Properties of soil water D All of these
76 Generally single grained structure is observed in case of _________ soil
deposits.
A Coarse grained B Fine grained
C Cobbles D Boulders
77 Generally honeycomb structure is observed in case of __________
deposits
A Silt B Clay
C Boulders D Gravels
78 Generally flocculated structure and dispersed structure is observed in
case of ________deposits.
A Silt B Clay
C Sand D Gravels

79 From engineering point of view the following clay minerals are

important for study
A Kaolinite B montmorillonite
C illite D All of the above
80 The ______ clay minerals has high swelling and shrinkage characteristics
A Kaolinite B montmorillonite
C illite D None of the above
81 Generally the montmorillonite is the primary constituent for_______
type of soil.
A Sandy B Gravelly

C Black cotton D Silty

82 Kaolinite is the primary constituent of____________

A Black cotton soil B Bentonite
C China clay D Gravelly sand
83 Clay particles carry ___________ charges on their faces.
A Positive B Negative

C Neutral D None of these

84 When clay platelets are in edge to face contact they are said to have
________structure.
A Single grained B honeycomb
C flocculated D Cohesive matrix
85 _________and_________ are the types of structure found in composite
soils.
A Flocculated & dispersed B Single grained & honeycomb
C Coarse grained skeleton & D None of the above
cohesive matrix
86 The arrangement or state of aggregation of particles in a soil mass is
referred to as
A Soil structure B Soil suction
C Soil fabric D Soil type
87 Water that is free to move through a soil mass under the influence of
gravity is known as
A Held water B Free water
C Capillary water D Structural water

88 ___________water is not free to move under influence of gravitational

force.
A Held water B Free water
C Capillary water D All of above
89 ___________ is the water which is held by fine grained soil particles due
to electro chemical forces of adhesion
A Adsorbed water B Capillary water
C Free water D None of the above
90 Adsorbed water is also referred as ______
A Structural water B Free water

C Held water D Hygroscopic water

91 Held water is also classified as

A Structural water B Adsorbed water
C Capillary water D All of these
92 A tension of 1kN/m2 corresponds to a capillary potential of
A 1kJ/kg B 10 kJ/kg

C 100 kJ/kg D 1000 kJ/kg

93 Capillary rise in a small tube is due to
A Cohesion B Both (a) and (b)
C Adhesion D Neither (a) nor (b)
94 The zone of soil strata saturated with capillary water is called
A Capillary fringe B Structural fringe

C Adsorbed fringe D All of above

95 The liquid limit of soil mass is 20% and it’s plastic limit is 25% then
plasticity index of soil is
A 5 B -5
C 0 D None of the above

96 A soil sample has shrinkage limit of 10 % and specific gravity of soil

sample is 2.7. The porosity of the soil at shrinkage limit is______
A 27% B 21.2%

C 70.5% D 73%
97 The pressure transmitted through soil mass by soil particles through
their points of contact is called
A Effective stress B Total stress
C Pore stress D All of the above

98 The total stress is the sum of effective stress and ________

A Pore pressure B Soil pressure
C Soil suction D Surcharge pressure
99 With the increase in water content soil suction__________
A Increases B Decreases
C Remains same D All of above

100 The total and effective stress at a depth of 8 m below the water surface
line in swimming pull are respectively given as
A 78.5 kN/m2 and zero B 78.5 kN/m2 and 78.5 kN/m2
C Zero and zero D None of the above
101 A flownet is drawn for a weir ,the total head lose is 6m, number of
potential drop is 10 and length of flow path for the last square is 1 m.
The exit gradient is_______
A 0.7 B 1.6
C 1 D 0.6
102 Which are the possible mechanisms for attractive forces between
particles
A Vander walls force & B Cation linkage & dipole cation
hydrogen bonds linkage & ionic bond
C Both a&b D None of these
103 Temporary strength is imparted to clayey as well as to sandy soil in wet
condition due to
A Increase in intergranular B Decrease in intergranular
pressure exerted by pressure exerted by capillary
capillary tension tension
C Increase in pore pressure D Decrease in pore pressure
104 Coarse grained soil has a void ratio of 0.75 and G= 2.75. The critical
gradient at which quick sand condition occurs is
A 0.75 B 1

C 0.5 D 0.25
105 The weakest bond in soil is
A Ionic bond B Covalent bond
C Hydrogen bond D Secondary valance bond
106 A flow net is drawn to obtain
A Seepage and uplift B Coefficient of permeability
pressure and exit gradient
C Exit gradient, uplift D Exit gradient and seepage
pressure and seepage
quantity
107 A pF value of zero corresponds to soil section of
A 1m B 0m

C 1cm D 10cm
108 The permeability of soil varies
A Inversely as square of B As square of grain size
grain size
C As grain size D Inversely as void ratio
109 The coefficient of permeability of clay is generally
 A Between 10-4and 10- B Between 10-5and 10-4mm/s
2
mm/s
C Between 10-5and 10- D Less than 10-8mm/s
8
mm/s
110 A constant head permeameter is used for

A Coarse grained soils B Silty soil

C Clayey soil D Organic soil

111 The pressure on a phreatic line is

A Equal to atmospheric B Greater than atmospheric
pressure pressure
C Less than atmospheric D Not related to the
pressure atmospheric pressure
112 The coefficient of permeability of soil
A Increase with increase in B Increase with decrease in
temperature temperature
C decrease with increase in D Increase with decrease in unit
void ratio weight of water
113 Maximum particle size for which Darcy’s law is applicable is
A 0.2mm B 0.5mm
C 1mm D 2mm
114 The critical gradient of a soil increases
A With increase in void B Decrease in void ratio
ratio
C Decrease in specific D None of the above
gravity
115 In a shear box test the failure plane is

A Weakest plane B Horizontal plane

C Vertical plane D Major principal plane
116 The pressure on phreatic line is
A Equal to atmospheric B Less than atmospheric
pressure pressure
C Greater than atmospheric D Not related to atmospheric
pressure pressure
117 Cohesion less soils are formed due to
A oxidation B hydration
C Physical disintegration D Chemical decomposition
118 A flow net has 4 flow channels and 20 equipotential drops, the shape
factor is
A 5 B 1/5
C 80 D 10
119 The starting point of horizontal drainage is usually taken as _____ of
parabola.
A focus B origin

C Vertex D Both (a) and (b)

120 The symbol for silt soil component is ___
A C B M
C G D S
121 For a dense sand, relative density is
A Between 25 and 65 B Between 65 and 85

C Between 85 and 100 D Greater than 100

122 For a flow net with Nf = 5 and Nd =20 the shape factor is
A 0.5 B 80

C 5 D 0.25
123 The horizontal permeability is ______than the vertical permeability
A More B less

C Equal to D None of this

124 Two soils A and B have 85% and 65% respectively as the degree of
saturation. The permeability of A ______than that of B.
A More B less
C Equal to D None of this
125 The critical gradient of soil increases
A With increase in void B Decrease in void ratio
ratio
C Decrease in specific D None of above
gravity
126 The exit gradient is equal to ratio of
A Slope of flow line B Head loss to length of flow
field at exit
C Total head to total length D Slope of equipotential line
127 The permeability of a particular soil is not significantly affected by
A Void ratio B saturation

C Secific gravity of soil D Fabric or structure

solids
128 If the soil is dried beyond its shrinkage limit, it will show

A Large volume change B Moderate volume change

C Low volume change D No volume change
129 The effective stress is
A Actual contact stress B Equal to total stress
C An abstract quantity D None of above
130 The effective stress controls the following properties of soils

A Shear strength B compressibility

C permeability D All of the above

131 Quick sand is

A A type of sand B A condition in which a
cohesion less soil loses its
strength because of upward
flow of water
C A condition in which a D None of the above.
cohesive soil loses its
strength
132 The seepage pressure is proportional to

A Unit weight of water B Hydraulic gradient

C Length of specimen D All the above
133 For a void ratio of 0.6, the relationship between the specific gravity of
soilds (G) and hydraulic gradient (i) for quick sand condition is
A G= 0.6 i+1 B G= 1.6 i+1
C G= i+0.6 D G= 1.6 i-1

134 With an increase in the liquid limit, compression index

A Decreases B increases
C Remain constant D May increase or decrease
135 When the consolidation of a saturated soil sample occurs, degree of
saturation
A Increases B decreases
 C Remains constant D May increase or decrease
136 The ultimate settlement of a soil deposit increase with

A An increase in the B An increase in the initial void

compression index ratio
C Decrease in thickness of D Increase in time
stratum
137 When drainage is permitted throughout the triaxial test, test is known as

A Quick test B Drained test

C Consolidated undrained D None of above
test
138 The angle of failure plane with major principal plane is given by
A 45.+Ø’ B 45.+Ø’/2
C 45.-Ø’/2 D 45.-Ø’
139 Coulomb’s equation for shear strength can be represented as
A C=S+ σ tanØ B C=S- σ tanØ

C S= σ +C tanØ D S=C+ σ tanØ

140 The phreatic line in homogeneous dam is
A Circular B Elliptical
C Hyperbolic D Parabolic

141 Principal involved in the relationship between submerged unit weight

and saturated weight of soil is based on
A Equilibrium of floating B Archimedes’ principle
bodies
C Strokes’ law D Darcy’s law
142 The coefficient of compressibility is the ratio of

A Change in void ratio to B Volumetric strain to change in

change in effective stress effective stress
C Change in thickness to D Stress to strain
change in effective stress
143 The recompression index is about _________of compression index

A 1/2 B 1/20

C 1/5 D 5 times
144 Consolidation time of a soil sample
A Increase with decrease in B Increase with decrease in
unit weight of water permeability
 C Increase with increase in D Increase with decrease in
permeability compressibility
145 Coefficient of consolidation for clays generally
A Increase with increase in B Decrease with increase in
liquid limit liquid limit
C Remains constant at all D Does not depend on liquid
values of liquid limit limit
146 The ultimate settlement of soil deposit increase with

A An increase in B An increase in initial void ratio

compression index
C A decrease in thickness of D An increase in time
stratum
147 The coefficient of compressibility (av)

A Different for different B Different for different type of

type of soils and is soils and but same for a soil
different for a soil under under different states of
different states of consolidation
consolidation
C Constant for any type of D Depends on stress history of
soil soil
148 For better strength and stability coarse grained soils and fine grained
soils are respectively compacted as
A Dry of OMC and Dry of B Wet of OMC and Dry of OMC
OMC
C Wet of OMC and Wet of D Dry of OMC and Wet of OMC
OMC
149 Pneumatic-tyred rollers are useful for compacting
A Cohesive soils B Cohesion less soils

C Both a) and b) D For soils in confined space

150 Vibroflotation technique is best suited for compacting
A Coarse sand and gravel B Silt
C Clays D Organic soils
151 Precompression method is useful for compacting
A Silts B Clays

C Organic soils D All of above

152 The line of optimums generally corresponds to percentage air void of
about
A zero percent B 5 percent
 C 10 percent D 20 percent
153 The range of optimum water contents for the standard proctor test for
clayey soils is
A 6 to 10 % B 8 to 12 %
C 12 to 15% D 14 to 20%

154 Soil compacted dry of the optimum as compared to that wet of the
optimum
A has less permeability B swells less
C shrink less D has less resistance to
compression
155 For a standard compression test the mass of hammer and the drop of
hammer are as follows:
A 2.6 Kg and 450 mm B 2.6 Kg and 310 mm
C 4.8 Kg and 310 mm D 4.89 Kg and 450 mm
156 Select the correct statement
A Relative compaction is the B Zero air void line and 100 %
same as relative density saturation lines are identical
C Vibroflotation is effective D None of above
in the case of highly
cohesive soils
157 With increase in compaction energy in compaction test
A Maximum dry density and B Maximum dry density increase
OMC both increase and OMC decrease
C Maximum dry density D Maximum dry density and
decrease and OMC OMC remains constant
increase
158 When drainage is not permitted throughout the triaxial test, the test is
known as
A quick test B drain test
C consolidated undrained D none of a)b) and c)
test
159 The shear strength of a cohesion less soil is
A proportional to angle of B inversely proportional to angle
shearing resistance of shearing resistance
C proportional to tangent D none of above
of angle of shearing
resistance
160 A shear strength of plastic undrained clay depends upon
A Cohesion B Angle of internal friction
 C Both (a) and (b) D Neither (a) and (b)
161 For heavy consolidated clay, the pore pressure co-efficient Af is in the
range of
A 0.7 to 1.3 B 0.3 to 0.7
C – 0.5 to 0 D -1 to -0.5

162 If the angle of modified failure envelope is α’, the angle of shearing
resistance Ø’ is given by
A cos Ø’ = tan α’ B sin Ø’ = tan α’
C tan Ø’ = sin α’ D none of above
163 Cement stabilization is generally used for
A clays B silts
C sands D All the above
164 For saturated, normally consolidated soils, Skempton’s pore pressure co-
efficient can be represented
A A < 1, B=1 B A>1, B>1

C A>1, B<1 D A<1, B>1

165 In an undrained triaxial compression test, the sample failed at a deviator
stress of 200kN/m2 when the cell pressure was 100 kN/m2 .The cohesion
intercept is
A 200 kN/m2 B 100 kN/m2
C 300 kN/m2 D 50 kN/m2
166 A dry sand specimen was tested in a triaxial machine with the cell
pressure of 50 kPa. if the deviator stress at failure was 100 kPa , the
angle of shearing resistance is
A a) 30 ° B b) 15 °
C c) 45 ° D d) 60 °

167 For stabilization of heavy clays, the following method is generally most
effective
A mechanical stabilization B thermal stabilization

C chemical stabilization D electrical stabilization

168 Increase in effective stress on a soil mass

A Increase the void ratio and B Increase the void ratio and
decrease the permeability increase the permeability
C Decrease the void ratio D Decrease the void ratio and
and increase the decrease the permeability
permeability
169 Loose uniform sand with rounded grains has effective grain size of
0.05cm. Coefficient of permeability of sand is
A 0.25cm/sec B 0.5cm/sec

C 1cm/sec D 1.25cm/sec
170 A soil has liquid limit of 60%, plastic limit of 35%, shrinkage limit of
20% and it has natural moisture content of 50%, liquidity index of
the soil is
A 1.5 B 0.6
C 0.4 D 0.25

171 Rise of ground water table above the ground surface causes
A Equal increase in pore B Equal decrease in pore water
water pressure and total pressure and total stress
stress
C Decrease in pore water D Increase in pore water
pressure but increase in pressure but decrease total
total stress stress
172 The peak value of internal friction of a dense sample of a given
sand is found to be more than that loose one due to
A interlocking B friction
C Both (a) and (b) D None of this
173 The ultimate angle of internal friction of a given sandy soil
depends upon
A Denseness of soil deposit B Shape and gradation of its
particle
C Both (a) and (b) D None of this
174 For normally consolidated clays, compression index can be
determine from empirical formula
A Cc = 0.009 (WL– 10) B Cc = 0.009 (WL– 20)
C Cc = 0.007 (WL– 10) D Cc = 0.007 (WL– 20)
175 For routine consolidation test in laboratory the thickness of specimen is
A 10mm B 30mm
C 20mm D 40mm

176 The formation which contains water but is not able to transmit it is
called
A aquifer B aquiclude
C aquifuge D None of above
177 Coefficient of consolidation is used for evaluating
A Total settlement B Time rate of settlement

C Degree of consolidation D Over consolidation ratio

178 Geological formation which contains an readily yields water to our
tube well is an
A aquifer B aquiclude
C aquifuge D None of above
179 If kx and kz are the horizontal and vertical permeability respectively
of a stratified deposit, the effective permeability will be
A (kx + kz)/2 B (kx - kz)/2
C (kx - kz)1/2 D (kx + kz)1/2
180 The slope of the e-log p curve for a soil mass gives
A Coefficient of B Coefficient of consolidation, cv
permeability, k
C Compression index , cc D Co efficient of volume
compressibility, mv
181 In hydrometer analysis for soil mass
A Both meniscus correction B Both meniscus correction and
and dispersing agent dispersing agent correction
correction are additive are subtractive
C Meniscus correction is D Meniscus correction is
additive and dispersing subtractive and dispersing
agent correction is agent correction is additive
subtractive
182 Which of the following properties of a soil is measure of particle
size range?
A Effective size B Uniformity coefficient
C Coefficient of curvature D None of the above
183 Uniformity coefficient of soil is defined as

A (D30)2/D60 – D10 B D60/ D10

C D30/ D10 D D60/ D30
184 Slope of isochrones at any point at a given time indicates rate of
change of
A Effective stress with time B Effective stress with depth
C Pore water pressure with D Pore water pressure with
time depth
185 Clay which behaves like dense sand is the
A Over-consolidated clay B Over-consolidated clay with a
with a low value of over high value of over
consolidation ratio consolidation ratio
C Normally consolidated D Under consolidated clay
clay
186 If time required for 60% consolidation of a remolded sample of clay with
single drainage is T, then the time required to consolidate the same
sample of clay with the same degree of consolidation but with double
drainage is
A T/4 B T/2
C 2T D 4T
187 A soil has discharge velocity of 3 x 10-7m/sec and void ratio of 0.5.
Its seepage velocity is
A 6 x 10-7m/sec B 9 x 10-7m/sec
C 12 x 10-7m/sec D 18 x 10-7m/sec
188 If in a soil sample piping phenomenon occurs, what is the most
prominent condition to be satisfied
A Soil is fine grained B Void ratio is more than 2
C Specific gravity of solids is D Hydraulic gradient is closed to
more than 2 unity
189 The correct order of capillary rise in increasing order in different
types of soil is
A Fine sand, silt, clay, B Silt, fine sands, clay, colloids
colloids
C Fine sands, clay, silt, D Fine sand, clay, colloids, silt
colloids
190 Soils are arranged face-to-face orientation. This type of soil structure is
A dispersed B Cohesive matrix
C Honey comb D Flocculent
Q.1 What is true about Plane surveying

A The curvature of earth is B The curvature of earth is not

taken into consideration taken into consideration

C The survey extends over D None of these

large areas

Q.2 The curvature of the earth is taken into consideration, if the limit
of survey is

A 50 to 100 Km2 B 50 to 100 Km2

C 200 to 250 Km2 D More than 250Km2

Q. 3 in order to determine the natural features like lakes, river,

valley etc. the surveying preferred is
A City Surveying B Geological surveying
C Cadastral surveying D Topographical surveying
Q 4 The type of surveying used to determine the details of
boundaries, fields etc, is known as
A City Surveying B Geographical surveying
C Cadastral surveying D Topographical surveying
Q 5 The principle of surveying is to work from
A Whole to part B Part to whole
C Lower elevation to D Higher elevation to lower
higher elevation elevation
Q.6 The working from whole to part is done in surveying to achieve

A Survey work is B Number of errors is

completed in time minimum
C Plotting is done more D Errors and mistake of one
quickly portion do not affect the
remaining portion
Q.7 Surveying is an art of determining the relative positions of
points on, above or below the earth surface by measuring

A Horizontal and vertical B Horizontal and vertical

distances angles
C Either A or B D Both A and B

Q. 8 The method of measuring distance by pacing is chiefly used in

A Reconnaissance survey B Preliminary survey
C Location survey D All of these
Q 9 The invar tape is generally used for accurate measurement of
distance, because its coefficient of thermal expansion is
A Zero B High
C Low D Negative
Q 10 The stepping method gives more convenient and better results
while measuring the distance
A Down the hill B Up the hill
C In plane areas D Either A or B
Q11 Which of the following units of dimension can be measured in
the case of plain scale?

A Meter and centimeter B Meter and millimeter

C Kilometer and meter D Meter and decimeter

Q12 Using RF of 1/5000, the distance between two points A and B
on the map was found to be 500m. The distance between the same
points when measured with a scale of RF 1/1000 will be
A 1000m B 100 m

C 10m D 10000m
Q13 Which of the following units of dimension can be measured in
the case of diagonal scale?

A Meter and decimeter and B Yard, feet and inch

millimeter

C Meter centimeter and D none of these

millimeter
Q14 Direct ranging is only possible when the end stations are
A Close to each other B More than 100 m apart
C Mutually inter-visible D Located at highest point
Q15 When the length of chain used in measuring distance is longer
than the standard length, the error in measured distance will be
A Positive error B Negative error
C Compensating error D None of these
Q16 Which of the following statement is correct?
A The error in measured B If the chain used in
length due to bad measuring distance is too
ranging is compensating short, the error is positive
error error
C The error in measured D The error due to sag in chain
length due to careless is always positive
holding of chain is
cumulative error
Q17 The sag correction for a tape of length (L) and weight w N/m is
stretched at its end with a pull of P (N) will be
A B w2 L2
wL 24P 2
24 P
C w2 L2 D w3 L3
24P 3 24P 3
Q18 Reciprocal ranging is applied when
A Both ends of survey line B A high intervening ground
are not inter-visible is found in between two end
stations

C Long distance between D All of the above

two end stations

Q19 A line joining the apex of a triangle to some fixed point on the
opposite side is called a
A Check line B Tie line
C Base line D None of these
Q 20 Which of the following instruments has two pairs of fine slits
at right angles to each other?

A Line ranger B French cross-staff

French cross-staff

C Open cross-staff D Ranging rod

Q 21 A base line in a chain survey
A Checks the accuracy of B Enables the surveyor to
the framework locate the interior details
which are far away from the
main chain lines
C Fixes up the direction of D All of the above
all other lines
Q22 The distance between two points is measured with a 30 m
chain and was found to be 1840 m. The same distance was measured
with a 20 m chain and found to be 1848 m. What is the error in 20 m
chain if the 30 m chain was 10 cm too short.

A 16 cm too short B 16 cm too long

C 19.84 m too long D 19.84 m too short

Q 23 Which of the following is obstacle to chaining but not to
ranging
A River B Lake
C Pond D Hill

Q. 24 A 50 m tape is suspended between two end supports under a

pull of 150 N. What is the horizontal distance between two points if
weight of tape is 15 N?

A 50 m B 50.02 m

C 49.98 m D None of these

Q25 The line passing through geographic north and south pole is
termed as
A Magnetic meridian B True Meridian
C Arbitrary meridian D None of these
Q 26 Prismatic compass gives

A Whole circle bearing B Reduced bearing

C True bearing D Quadrantal bearing

Q27 In a whole circle bearing system, the bearing of line is

measured
A Always clockwise from B Clockwise or anti-clockwise
the south point of the from north point of
reference meridian reference meridian

C Clockwise or D None of these

anticlockwise from
north or south
whichever is nearer the
line towards eat or west
Q28 In a Quadrantal or reduced bearing system, the bearing of a line
is measured as
A Always clockwise from B Clockwise or anti-clockwise
the south point of the from north point of
reference meridian reference meridian

C Clockwise or D None of these

anticlockwise from
north or south
whichever is nearer the
line towards eat or west
Q 29 The bearing taken in the opposite direction of progress of
survey is known as
A Fore bearing B Arbitrary bearing

C Arbitrary bearing D Back bearing

Q30 The back bearing of a line is 3460, its fore bearing will be

A 140 B 1660

C 1800 D N 140 W
Q.31 The whole circle bearing of two lines AB and AC are 1150 and
410 respectively, the angle BAC will be
A 410 B 740

C 1150 D 1560
Q.32 Which of the following statement is wrong?
A B The magnetic meridian does
The magnetic meridian not vary from place to place
coincides with true on earth surface
meridian at all the
places
C The magnetic D All of these
declination at a place is
constant
Q33 The whole circle bearing of a line 2890. What is its reduced
bearing?

A N 710 E B S 1090 W

C S 1090 E D N 710 W
Q34 The angle between true meridian and magnetic meridian is
termed as
A Declination B Dip of needle
C Bearing D None of these
Q35 The imaginary lines joining the points of equal magnetic
declination are called

A Agonic lines B Isoclinic lines

C Isogonic line D none of the above

Q.36 The Magnetic bearing of a line is 350 30’ and declination is
2030’W. The true baring will be

A 330 B 350

C 380 D 360
Q.37 The imaginary lines joining the points of zero magnetic
declination are called
A Agonic lines B Isoclinic lines

C Isogonic line D none of the above

Q.38 When the magnetic declination is 5020’east, the magnetic
bearing of the sun at noon will be
A 95020’ B 174040’
C 185020’ D 354040’
Q. 39 When the magnetic bearing of the sun at noon is 185020’, the
magnetic declination will be
A 5020’ east B 5020’ west
C 5020’ north D 5020’ south
Q.40 Pick the in-correct statements out of these.
A The difference between B If the difference between
fore bearing and back fore bearing and back
bearing of a line is bearing of a line AB is 1800
always 1800 in WCB in WCB system, when
system. stations A and B are free
from local attraction
C The numerical value of D Angle of dip is 900 at
the back bearing of a equator
line remains same as
fore bearing in case of
Reduced bearing
system.
Q.41 The process of turning the telescope of a theodolite over its
supporting axis through 1800 in a vertical plane
A Transiting B Reversing
C Plunging D Any of these
Q.42 Which one of the following is termed as minus sight?

A Back sight B Fore sight

C Intermediate sight D All of the above

Q. 43 An imaginary line joining the point of intersection of cross-hairs of
the diaphragm and the optical centre of object glass is known as
A Fundamental line B Axis of telescope
C Axis of level tube D Line of collimation
Q 44 A line joining the optical centre of the object glass and the centre of
eye piece is termed as
A Fundamental line B Axis of telescope
C Axis of level tube D Line of collimation

Q 45 When the image formed by the objective is not situated in the plane
of cross-hairs
A The cross-hair should be B The eye-piece should be
adjusted focused
C The objective should be D The parallax should be
focused removed
Q.46 The reading taken on a point of known elevation is known as

A Back sight B Fore sight

C Intermediate sight D All of the above

Q.47 Which of the following readings are taken on change point or

turning point?

A B FS and IS
BS and IS

C BS,IS, FS D BS and FS

Q .48 An imaginary line joining the points of same elevation on the

surface of earth is known as
A Contour B Isogonic line

C Ridge line D Contour interval

Q.49 The RL of factory floor is 100.0m and staff reading on the floor is
4.62m. Staff reading when staff held inverted with bottom touching the
tie beam of the roof truss is 12.16 m. The height of tie beam above the
floor is
A 104.62m B 112.16m

C 16.78m D 116.78m

Q.50 The constant vertical distance between two contours is called as

A Contour gradient B Horizontal equivalent

C Contour interval D None of these

Q.51 Which of the following factors affect the contour interval

A Scale of map B Nature of terrain

C Extent of survey D All of these
Q.52 The contour map is applicable in
A Selection of suitable site B Estimation of reservoir
capacity
C Calculation of catchment D All of theses
area
Q.53 A deflection angle in a traverse equal to the
A Difference between the B Difference between 3600 the
0
included angle and 180 included angle
C Sum of the included angle D None of these
and 1800
Q.54 An angle measured clockwise from the preceding survey line to the
following survey line is called
A Direct angle B Vertical angle
C Horizontal angle D Deflection angle
Q. 55 The traversing by the method of deflection angle is chiefly used in

A Canals B Highways
C Railways D All of the these
Q.56 The projection of traverse line on a line perpendicular to the
meridian is known as
A Latitude of the line B Departure of the line
C Bearing of the line D Co-ordinate of the line
Q.57 Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A The distance measured B The distance measured

parallel to the north-south parallel to the east-west line is
line is called latitude of called departure of the line
the line
C The latitude is positive D The departure is negative
when measured when measured to the left or
downward or southward westward
Q. 58 In any closed traverse, if the survey work is correct, then
A The algebraic sum of B The algebraic sum of
latitude should be equal departures should be equal to
to zero zero
C The sum of northings D All of these
should be equal to the
sum of southings
Q. 59 When the whole circle bearing of a traverse line is between 900 and
1800, then
A The latitude is positive B The departure is positive and
and departure is negative latitude is negative
C Both latitude and D Both latitude and departure
departure are positive are negative
Q. 60 When the latitude and departure of a traverse line is so adjusted
that the algebraic sum of the latitude and departure are equal to zero,
the operation is called
A Balancing the latitude B Balancing the departure
C Balancing the traverse D Balancing the base line
Q. 61 When the angular and linear measurements are equally precise in
traversing, the balancing of traverse is done by
A Transit rule Empirical rule
C Bowditch’s rule None of these
Q.62 When the angular method is more precise than the linear
measurements, the balancing of traverse is done by
A Transit rule Empirical rule
C Bowditch’s rule None of these
Q.63 The co-ordinate length measured parallel to an assumed meridian is
termed as
A Latitude of a line B Bearing of a line
C Departure of a line D Angle of a line

Q.64 The co-ordinate length measured parallel to an assumed meridian is

termed as
A Latitude of a line B Bearing of a line
C Departure of a line D Angle of a line
Q. 65 The length of line AB is 232 m and whole circle bearing is 32012’.
What will be the co-ordinate of point B, if point A has co-ordinate equal
to 400, 400
A 596.32, 400 B 400, 523.63
C 596.32, 523.63 D 523.63, 596.32
Q. 66 The method of surveying in which field work and plotting are done
simultaneously is called
A Compass surveying B Leveling
C Plane tabling D Chain surveying
Q.67 The plane table surveying is

A Most suitable for B Particularly advantageous in

preparing small scale magnetic areas
maps

C Less costly than theodolite D All of the above

survey
Q.68 The operation of turning the table so that all the lines on the paper
are parallel to the corresponding lines on the ground is termed as
A Radiation B Centering

C Setting D Orientation
Q.69 The method of intersection in plane tabling is commonly used for
A Locating the distance and B Locating the broken
inaccessible points boundaries
C Locating the points which D All of these
may be used subsequently
as the instrument station
Q.70 According to Lehman’s rule of plane tabling, which one is applicable
A The distance to point B When looking in the direction
sought from each of the of the reference point, the
three rays is not point sought is on opposite
proportional to the side of each of three rays
distance of the three
known points from the
instrument station
C When the instrument D None of these
station is outside the great
circle, the point sought is
always on the same side
of ray drawn to the most
distance point as the
intersection of the other
two rays
Q.71 Which is not the method of plane table survey

A Cross-sectioning B Radiation
C Traversing D Intersection
Q.72 The plotting of small areas which can be commanded from single
station, is usually done on the plane table by the method of

A Resection B Radiation
C Traversing D Intersection
Q.73 The method of plane tabling used commonly for establishing the
instrument stations only is a
A Method of radiation B Method of intersection
C Method of traversing D Method of resection
Q.74 A Simple circular curve is designated by the

A Radius of curve B Curvature of the curve

C Angle subtended at the D Angle subtended at the centre
centre by a chord of any by a chord of particular length
length
Q.75 The angle by which forward tangents deflects from the back tangent
is known as
A Deflection angle B Central angle
C Angle of intersection D None of these
Q. 76 If D is the degree of curve, R is the radius of curve, what will be the
relation between R and D for given length of chord equal to 30m?
A R= 1520/D R= 1720/D
C R= 4500/D R= 5400/D
Q.77 Two theodolite method of setting out a curve involves

A Linear measurements only B Angular measurements only

C Both A and B D None of these
Q.78 A reverse curve consists of
A A single curve of circle B Two arcs of different radii
connecting two straights bending in the same direction
C Two arcs of equal radii D Two arcs of different or same
bending in the same radii bending in opposite
direction direction
Q. 79 A transition curve when inserted between tangent and the circular
curve
A Should meet the original B Should meet circular curve
straight tangentially tangentially
C The rate of increase of D All of these
curvature along the
transition curve should be
same as that of increase
of super-elevation
Q. 80 The curve used for ideal transition curve is a
A Cubic parabola B Clothoid spiral
C Cubic spiral D Leminscate
Q.81 The shift for a curve (L =length of transition curve and R is radius) is
equal to
A L/6R B L/24R
C L2/6R D L2/24R
Q.82 A compound curve consists of

A A single curve of circle B Two arcs of different radii

connecting two straights bending in the same direction
C Two arcs of equal radii D Two arcs of different or same
bending in the same radii bending in opposite
direction direction
Q.83 In a terrain, rising grade is 1.2% and falling grade is 0.8%. What is the
length of vertical curve for 0.1% rate of change of grade per 20 m chain?
A 300 m B 400 m

C 20 m D 200 m
Q. 84 A transition curve is needed for a circular curve of 200m radius,
railway gauge being 1.5 m and maximum super-elevation is limited to 15
cm. What will be the design speed?
A 48 kmph B 50.4 kmph
C 15 kmph D 55 kmph
Q. 85 The principal of tacheometry is used
A For locating contours B On hydrographic survey

C For filling in details in D All of these

topographic survey
Q.86 The additive constant for tacheometer is (f = focal length of the
object, i= interval between stadia lines or hairs, d = horizontal distance
from the optical centre to the vertical axis of the tacheometer)

A f/i B i/f

C f/d D f+d
Q.87 Which is not the method of tacheometry
A Fixed hair method B Movable hair method

C Tangential method D Resection method

Q.88 The error which remains of same size and sign under the same
condition is called
A Mistakes B Compensating error
C Systematic error D Accidental error
Q.89 The error which follows the mathematical law of probability is

A Mistakes B Compensating error

C Systematic error D Accidental error
Q.90 The quantity which has more chances of being true than any other
quantity is
A Most probable value B True value
C Observed value D Independent value
Q.91 The trustworthiness and precision of any observation is given by

A Conditional equation B Weight of observation

C True error D Residual error
Q.92 Which rule the most probable value of series of error follows?

A Algebric equation B Principle of least squares

C Trial and error D Fourier series

Q.93 In carrying a line of levels across a river, the following eight readings
were taken with a level under identical condition: 2.322, 2.346, 2.352,
2.306, 2.312, 2.300, 2.306, 2.326 meters. What is the probable error of
single observation?
A 0.001295m B 0.01295m
C 0.1295m D None of these

Q. 94 Which survey tool is specially meant for distance

measurements?

A GPS B Total station

C EDM D Theodolite

Q. 95 Minimum number of satellites required to locate a point using

GPS are

A 1 B 2
C 3 D 4
Q.96 The intersection of camera axis with either picture plane or camera
plate is called
A Principal point B Focal Length
C Nodal point D Nadir point
Q.97 The point where plumb line dropped from the front nodal point
pierces the photograph is known as

A Principal point B Focal Length

C Nodal point D Nadir point
Q. 98 An aerial photograph taken with camera axis directed intentionally
between horizontal and vertical is
A Tilted photograph B Oblique photograph
C Normal photograph D Perspective photograph
Q.99 A camera having focal length of 20 cm is used to take a vertical
photograph to a terrain having an average elevation of 1500m. What is
the height above sea level at which an air-craft must fly in order to get
the photograph at a scale of 1:800?
A 1500m B 3100m
C 1600m D 4600m

Q.100 Which statement is true about relief statement

A The relief displacement
decreases with increase in
flying height
C Relief displacement
decreases as the distance
from the principal point
increases
B The relief displacement
increases with increase in
flying height
D Relief displacement increases
as the distance from the
principal point decreases
 1 The heaviest I-section for same depth is

A ISMB B ISLB

C ISHB D ISWB
2 compressive and tensile stresses respectively are calculated based on

A net area and gross area B gross area and net area

C net area in both cases D gross area in both cases

3 If the thickness of thinnest outside plate is 10 mm, then the maximum pitch of rivets in tension will be
taken as
A 120mm B 160mm

C 200mm D 300mm
4
In a gusseted base, When the end of the column is machined for complete bearing on the base plate,
then the axial load is assumed to be transferred to base plate

A fully by direct bearing B fully through fastenings

50% by direct bearing and 50 % through

C D 75% by direct bearing and 25 % through
fastenings fastenings
5
When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the rivets are subjected to

A Only shear stresses B Only tensile stresses

C both (a) and (b) D none of the above

6 Bolts are most suitable to carry

A shear B bending

C axial tension D shear and bending

7
When the bolts are subjected to reversal of stresses, the most suitable type of bolt is

A black bolt B Ordinary unfinished bolt

C turned and fitted bolt D high strength bolt

8 In the cross-section of a weld, throat is the

A minimum dimension B average dimension

C maximum dimension D none of the above

9 The effective length of a fillet weld should not be less than

A two times the weld size B four times the weld size

SUJJECT CODE: 1/11 PGCET

 C six times the weld size D none of the above
10
actual thickness of butt weld as compared to the thickness of plate is usually

A more B less

C equal D none of the above

11 According to IS specifications, the maximum pitch of rivets in compression is (Where t is thickness of
thinnest outside plate or angle)

A lesser of 200 mm and 12 t B lesser of 200 mm and 16 t

C lesser of 300 mm and 32 t D lesser of 300 mm and 24 t

12
Which of the following types of riveted joint is free from bending stresses ?

A lap joint B butt joint with single cover plate

C butt joint with double cover plates D none of the above

13 Efficiency of a riveted joint, having the minimum pitch as per IS 800, is

A 40% B 50%

C 60% D 70%
14 The slenderness ratio of a column supported throughout its length by a masonry wall is

A 0 B 10

C 100 D infinity
15 A circular column section is generally not used in actual practice because

A it is uneconomical B it can not carry the load safely

C it is difficult to connect beams to the round sections

D all of the above
16 The effective length of a battened strut effectively held in position at both ends but not restrained in direction is taken as

A 1.8L B L

C 1.1L D 1.5L
17 The maximum slenderness ratio of a compression member carrying both dead and superimposed load is

A 80 B 200

C 250 D 350
18 The maximum slenderness ratio of a steel column, the design of which is governed by wind or seismic force is

A 150 B 180

C 250 D 350

SUJJECT CODE: 2/11 PGCET

 19 The best arrangement to provide unified behavior in built up steel column is by

A lacing B battening

C tie plates D perforated cover plates

20 The use of tie plates in laced column is

A permitted B not permitted

C permitted at start and end of lacing system D permitted between two parts of lacing
21 Battening is preferable when the (i)column carries axial load only (ii)space between the two main
components is not very large and (iii)column is eccentrically loaded the correct answer is
A only (i) B only (iii)

C (i) and (ii) D (ii) and (iii)

22 Economical depth of a plate girder corresponds to

A minimum weight B minimum depth

C maximum weight D minimum thickness of web

23 Shear buckling of web in a plate girder is prevented by using

A vertical intermediate stiffener B horizontal stiffener at neutral axis

C bearing stiffener D none of the above

24 Minimum thickness of web in a plate girder, when the plate is accessible and also exposed to weather, is

A 5mm B 6mm

C 8mm D 10mm
25 The web crippling due to excessive bearing stress can be avoided by

A increasing the web thickness B providing suitable stiffeners

C increasing the length of the bearing plates D none of the above

26 The forces acting on the web splice of a plate girder are

A axial forces B shear and axial forces

C shear and bending forces D axial and bending forces

27 Gantry girders are designed to resist

A lateral loads B longitudinal loads and vertical loads

C lateral, longitudinal and vertical loads D lateral and longitudinal loads

28 Minimum spacing of vertical stiffeners is limited to (Where d is the distance between flange angles)

A d/4 B d/3

SUJJECT CODE: 3/11 PGCET

 C d/2 D 2d/3
29 The range of economical spacing of trusses varies from (where L is span)

A L/3 to L/5 B L/4 to 2L/5

C L/4 TO 2L/5 D 2L/5 to 3L/5

30 To minimize the total cost of a roof truss, the ratio of the cost of truss to the cost of purlins shall be

A 1 B 2

C 3 D 4
31 Generally the purlins are placed at the panel points so as to avoid

A axial force in rafter B shear force in rafter

C deflection of rafter D bending moment in rafter

32 The live load for a sloping roof with slope 15 degree , where access is not provided to roof, is taken as

A 0.65 kN/m2 B 0.75 kN/m2

C 1.35 kN/m2 D 1.50 kN/m2

33 The risk coefficient k, depends on

A mean probable design life of structures B basic wind speed

C both (A) and (B) D none of the above

34 The basic wind speed is specified at a height ‘h’ above mean ground level in an open terrain. The value of ‘h’ is

A 10m B 20m

C 25m D 50m
35 Area of openings for buildings of large permeability is more than

A 10 % of wall area B 20 % of wall area

C 30 % of wall area D 50 % of wall area

36 As per IS :875, for the purpose of specifying basic wind velocity, the country has been divided in to

A 4 zones B 5 zones

C 6 zones D 7 zones
37 Which of the following sections preferably be used at places where torsion occurs?

A angle section B channel section

C box type section D Any of above

38 The least dimension in case of a circular column of diameter D is taken as

A 0.5D B D

SUJJECT CODE: 4/11 PGCET

 C 0.88 D D 0.68D
39 The moment – curvature relation at a plastic hinge is

A linear B parabolic

C constant moment for all curvatures D constant curvatures for all moments
40 In case of plastic design, the calculated maximum shear capacity of a beam ae per IS:800 shall be (Where
Aw= effective cross- sectional area resisting shear fy= yield stress of the steel)

A 0.55Awfy B 0.65Awfy

C 0.75Awfy D 0.85Awfy
41 Cold-formed steel sections are made from steel strip having thickness

A 1mm to 5mm B 2mm to 4mm

C 4mm to 6mm D 3mm to 6mm

42 Wide flange sections are used as

A beam B column

C beam and column D none of the above

43 Stepped steel angles are economical when element subjected to

A Tensile force B Bending moment

C compressive force D Torsional moment

44 To mesure persentage of elongation gauge lenth should be kept ( where Ao = original cross sectional area)

A 5.65 √Ao B 5.50 √Ao

C 5.56 √Ao D 5.45 √Ao

45 The design of steel sections is governed by the

A cross-sectional area B section modulas

C radius of gyration D all of the above

46 Hollow steel sections are more efficient in

A shear B compression

C tension D bending
47 Number of storeyed possible for Tall building with Bundled tube system is

A 110 B 75

C 60 D 25
48 IS:800:2007 is based on

SUJJECT CODE: 5/11 PGCET

 A working stress method B limit state method

C ultimate strength design D none of the above

49 Vertical deflection limit for purlin supporting elastic cladding in industrial building is

A span/180 B span/200

C span/240 D span/150
50 Lateral deflection limit for column supporting masonry is

A Height/250 B Height/180

C Height/240 D height/300
51 The value of Poisson's ratio in plastic range is

A 0.3 B 0.4

C 0.5 D 0.6
52 Accidental loads of short duration due to

A impacts B explosions

C fire D All of the above

53 Cross-sections which can develop plastic moment of resistance, but have inadequate plastic hinge
rotation capacity due to local buckling is classified as
A plastic section B compact section

C semi-compact section D slender section

54 Stockey and buildup column in building is called

A Strut B Column

C stanchion D post
55 Member in truss and bracing member is called

A strut B column

C stanchion D post
56 The capacity of short column depends on

A yield stress B gross cross-sectional area

C slenderness ratio D both (A) and (B)

57 From following bolts type , one bolts type is belong to another group.

A Unfinished bolts B Black bolts

C C grade bolts D Precision bolts

SUJJECT CODE: 6/11 PGCET

 58 As per IS:800-2007, the effective length of a column fixed at both ends is ( L= Length of column)

A 0.5L B 0.65L

C 0.85L D L
59 As per IS:800-2007, the effective length of a column fixed at one end and guided roller at other end is ( L= Length of colum

A L B 1.2L

C 0.8L D 2L
60 Requrements of welds and welding shall conform to

A IS:816 and IS:9595 B IS:875 and IS:9596

C IS:800 and IS:9595 D IS:456 and IS:9596

61 Fillet welds terminating at the ends or sides of parts should be returned continuously around the corners
for a distance of not less than
A 3 time size of weld B 1 time size of weld

C 2 time size of weld D 4 time size of weld

62 In case of lap joints, the minimum lap should not be less than 'X' times the thickness of the thinner part joined or 'Y' mm

A X=3, Y=30 B X=2.5, Y= 40

C X=4, Y=30 D X=4, Y= 40

63 The size of fillet weld should not less than

A 2 mm B 3 mm

C 4 mm D 5 mm
64 The effective throat thickness of a fillet weld shall generally not exceed ( t is thickness of thinner plate)

A 0.7t B 0.6t

C t D 1.2t
65 The effective length of butt weld shall be taken as the length of the continuous full size weld, but not less than

A size of weld B three times the weld size

C two times the weld size D four times the weld size
66 Limit state method based on level of relaibility is

A 1 B 2

C 3 D 4
67 As compare to field rivats, shop rivets are

A stonger B weaker

SUJJECT CODE: 7/11 PGCET

 C equally strong D any of above
68 Sufficient edge distance avoid following failure

A tension failure of plate B shear failure of rivet

C shear failure of plate D crushing failure of plate

69 A butt weld is specified by

A effective throat thickness B plate thickness

C size of weld D penetration thickness

70 Load on connection is not eccentic for

A lap joint B single cover butt joint

C double cover butt joint D any of above

71 How many 20mm diameter bolts are accomadeted in 140 mm wide plate?

A 2 B 3

C 6 D 1
72 Highest efficiency for same number of bolts can be achived in pattern

A chain B staggered

C diamond D staggered diamond

73 Minimum pitch of the rivets shall not be less than, where d is gross diameter of rivet

A 1.5d B 2.0d

C 2.5d D 3.0d
74 If the 20mm rivets are used in lacing bars, then the minimum width of lacing bar should be

A 40 mm B 60 mm

C 80 mm D 100 mm
75 Lacing bars in a steel column should be designed to resist

A bending moment due to 2.5% of the column loadB shear foece due to 2.5% of the column load

C 2.5% of the column load D both (A) and (B)

76 The effective length of a battened column is increased by

A 5% B 10%

C 15% D 20%
77 The overlap of batten plates with the main members in welded connections should be more than, where
t= thickness of batten plate

SUJJECT CODE: 8/11 PGCET

 A 3t B 4t

C 6t D 8t
78 Horizontal stiffener in a plate girder is provided to safeguard against

A shear buckling of web plate B compression buckling of web plate

C yeilding D All of the above

79 Intermidiate vertical stiffener in a plate gieder need be provided if the depth of web exceeds,where t is thickness of web

A 50t B 85t

C 200t D 250t
80 The maximum spacing of vertical stiffeners is ,where d is the distance between flange angles

A 1.33d B 1.25d

C 1.5d D 1.75d
81 Load factor is

A always equal to factor of safety B always less than factor of safety

C always greater than factor of safety D sometimes greater than factor of safety
82 The ratio of plastic section modulus to elastic section modulus

A is equal to 1 B is always less than 1

C is always greater than 1 D can be less than 1

83 Other conditions being same, the load factor in indeterminate structure is

A equal to load factor in determinate structures B more than the load factor in determinate structures

C less than the load factor in determinate structures

D unpredectable
84 Which of the following conditions is to be satisfied both in elastic and plastic analysis?

A Equilibrium condition B yeild condition

C plastic moment condition D mechanism condition

85 The minimum thickness of a steel plate, which is directly exposed to weather and is not accessible for
clening and repairing, should be:
A 4.5 mm B 6 mm

C 8 mm D 10 mm
86 The connection of intermideate vertical stiffeners to the web, not subjected to external loads, shall be
designed for a minimum shear force (kN/m) of, where t= the web thickness in mm, h= the out stand of
stiffener in mm
A 75 t2/h B 125 t3/h2

C 125 t2/h D 175t2/h

SUJJECT CODE: 9/11 PGCET

 87 For a compression member with double angle section, which of the following section will give larger
value of minimum radius of gyration?
A equal angles back to back B unequal legged angles with long legs back to back

C unequal legged angles with short legs back to back

D both (A) and (C)
88 Lug angles

A are used to reduce the length of connection B are unequal angles

C increases shear lag D All of the above

89 Pitch of tacking rivets,when double angles connected back to back and acting as tension members should not be more tha

A 500 mm B 600 mm

C 1000mm D 300 mm
90 A steel beam supporting loads from the floor slab as well as from the wall is termed as

A stringer beam B lintel beam

C spandrel beam D header beam

91 In moment resistant connections, the moment resistance of riveted connection depends upon

A shear in rivets B compression rivets

C tension in rivets D strength of rivets in bearing

92 The allowable shear stress in the web of mild steel beams decreases with, where 'h' is height and 't' is thickness

A decrease in h/t ratio B increase in h/t ratio

C decrease in thickness D increase in height

93 The external wind pressure acting on a roof depends on

A degree of permeability of roof B slope of roof

C both (A) and (B) D none of the above

94 shape factor is a property which depends

A only on the ultimate stress of the material B only the yeild stress of the material

C only on the geometry of the section D both on the yeild stress and ultimate stress of material
95 The mechanism mehod of plasic analysis satisfies

A equilibrium and mechanism conditions B equilibrium and plastic moment conditions

C mechanism and plastic moment conditions D equilibrium conditions only

96 Corrosion in Steel girder bridges may be prevented by :

A Protective coatings by painting B Metallising

SUJJECT CODE: 10/11 PGCET

 C Use of epoxy based paints D all of the above
97 What is the clear distance between two consecutive steel channel sleepers on Girder bridges?

A 450 mm B 510 mm

C 500 mm D 460 mm
98 According to Is specifications, the effective length of a column effectively held in position at both ends
and restrained in direction at one end is taken as
A 0.67 L B 0.8 L

C L D 1.5 L
99 Angle of inclination of the lacing bar with the longitudinal axis of the column should preferably be between

A 10o to 30 o B 30o to 40 o

C 40o to 70 o D 90o
100 As per IS :800, for compression flange, the out stand of flange plates should not exceed, where t =
thickness of thinnest flange plate
A 12 t B 16 t

C 20 t D 25 t
101 Bearing stiffener in a plate girder is used to

A transfer the load from top to the bottom flangeB prevent buckling of web

C decrease the effective depth of web D prevent excessive deflection

SUJJECT CODE: 11/11 PGCET