Physics PDF

JEE SPRINT PHYSICS
QUESTION BANK
FOR WINNERS
CONTENT INDEX
S.NO TOPIC PAGE NO

1. JEE MAIN SYLLABUS 1-6
2. JEE MAIN WEIGHTAGE 2002-1018 7-8
3. KINEMATICS 9-24
4. FORCE & FRICTION 25-36
5. WORK, ENERGY , POWER & CIRCULAR MOTION 37-45
6. CENTRE OF MASS 46-56
7. ROTATIONAL MOTION 57-67
8. GRAVITATION 68-74
9. FLUIDS & PROPERTIES OF MATTER 75-91
10. HEAT & THERMODYNAMICS 92-111
12. SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION 112-121
13. WAVES & SOUND 122-129
14. ELECTROSTATICS 130-141
15. CURRENT ELECTRICITY 142-153
16. CAPACITORS 154-167
17. MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT 168-185
18. CLASSICAL MAGNETISM 186-190
19. EMI & AC 191-205
20. ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES 206-207
21. GEOMETRICAL OPTICS 208-218
22. INTERFERENCE OF WAVES 219-225
23. DIFFRACTION & POLARISATION 226-228
24. ATOMIC & NUCLEAR PHYSICS 229-239
25. SEMICONDUCTORS & COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS 240-250
26. ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS ON DIFFRACTION , 251-254

POLARISATION, EMWAVES AND COMMUNICATION
27. ERRORS AND MEASUREMENTS 255-264

28. JEE MAINS 2018 ONLINE AND OFFLINE 265-336
QUESTIONS AND SOLUTION
29. JEE MAINS 2017 ONLINE AND OFFLINE 337-355
QUESTIONS AND SOLUTION
30. JEE MAINS 2002-2017 CHAPTERWISE ONLINE 356-515
AND OFFLINE QUESTIONS AND SOLUTION
PHYSICS
Syllabus for JEE Main
The detailed syllabus is given as follows:
JEE Main Physics Syllabus:
 The JEE Main syllabus contains two sections. Section A pertains to the Theory Part
having 80% weightage, while Section B contains Practical Components (Experimental
Skills) having 20% weightage.
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SECTION A:
UNIT 1: Physics and Measurement
 Physics, technology, and society

 S.I. units, Fundamental and derived units.

 RI
Least count, accuracy and precision of measuring instruments, Errors in measurement,
Significant figures.
Dimensions of Physical quantities, dimensional analysis, and its applications.
UNIT 2: Kinematics
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 Frames of reference.
 Motion in a straight line: Position-time graph, speed, and velocity. Uniform and non-
uniform motion, average speed and instantaneous velocity
 Uniformly accelerated motion, velocity-time, position- time graphs, relations for
uniformly accelerated motion. Scalars and Vectors, Vector Addition and Subtraction,
Zero Vector, Scalar and Vector products, Unit Vector, Resolution of a Vector.
 Relative Velocity, Motion in a plane, Projectile Motion, Uniform Circular Motion.
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UNIT 3: Laws of Motion
 Force and Inertia, Newton’s First Law of motion; Momentum, Newton’s Second Law of
motion; Impulse; Newton’s Third Law of motion.
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 Law of conservation of linear momentum and its applications, Equilibrium of concurrent

forces.
 Static and Kinetic friction, laws of friction, rolling friction.
 Dynamics of uniform circular motion: Centripetal force and its applications.
UNIT 4: Work, Energy, and Power
 Work done by a constant force and a variable force; kinetic and potential energies, work-
energy theorem, power.
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PHYSICS
 The potential energy of a spring, conservation of mechanical energy, conservative and

non-conservative forces; Elastic and inelastic collisions in one and two dimensions.
UNIT 5: Rotational Motion
 Centre of the mass of a two-particle system, Centre of the mass of a rigid body; Basic
concepts of rotational motion; the moment of a force, torque, angular momentum,
conservation of angular momentum and its applications; a moment of inertia, the radius
of gyration.
 Values of moments of inertia for simple geometrical objects, parallel and perpendicular
axes theorems and their applications. Rigid body rotation, equations of rotational motion.
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UNIT 6: Gravitation
 The universal law of gravitation. Acceleration due to gravity and its variation with
altitude and depth. Kepler’s laws of planetary motion.
 Gravitational potential energy; gravitational potential.
 Escape velocity.
 Orbital velocity of a satellite.
 Geostationary satellites.
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UNIT 7: Properties of Solids and Liquids
 Elastic behaviour, Stress-strain relationship, Hooke’s Law, Young’s modulus, bulk

modulus, modulus of rigidity.
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 Pressure due to a fluid column; Pascal’s law and its applications.
 Viscosity, Stokes’ law, terminal velocity, streamline and turbulent flow, Reynolds
number.
 Bernoulli’s principle and its applications.
 Surface energy and surface tension, the angle of contact, application of surface tension -
drops, bubbles and capillary rise. Heat, temperature, thermal expansion; specific heat
capacity, calorimetry; change of state, latent heat.
 Heat transfer-conduction, convection and radiation, Newton’s law of cooling.
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UNIT 8: Thermodynamics
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 Thermal equilibrium, zeroth law of thermodynamics, the concept of temperature.

 Heat, work and internal energy.
 First law of thermodynamics.
 The second law of thermodynamics: reversible and irreversible processes.
 Carnot engine and its efficiency.
UNIT 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases
 The equation of state of a perfect gas, work done on compressing a gas.

 Kinetic theory of gases - assumptions, the concept of pressure.
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PHYSICS
 Kinetic energy and temperature: RMS speed of gas molecules; Degrees of freedom, Law
of equipartition of energy, applications to specific heat capacities of gases; Mean free
path, Avogadro’s number.
UNIT 10: Oscillations and Waves
 Periodic motion - period, frequency, displacement as a function of time.

 Periodic functions. Simple harmonic motion (S.H.M.) and its equation; phase;
oscillations of a spring -restoring force and force constant; energy in S.H.M. - kinetic and
potential energies; Simple pendulum - derivation of expression for its time period; Free,
forced and damped oscillations, resonance.
 Wave motion. Longitudinal and transverse waves, the speed of a wave.
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 Displacement relation for a progressive wave.
 Principle of superposition of waves, reflection of waves, Standing waves in strings and
organ pipes, fundamental mode and harmonics, Beats, Doppler effect in sound
UNIT 11: Electrostatics
 Electric charges: Conservation of charge, Coulomb’s law-forces between two point

distribution.RI
charges, forces between multiple charges; superposition principle and continuous charge
Electric field: Electric field due to a point charge, Electric field lines, Electric dipole,
Electric field due to a dipole, Torque on a dipole in a uniform electric field.
Electric flux, Gauss’s law and its applications to find field due to infinitely long
uniformly charged straight wire, uniformly charged infinite plane sheet and uniformly
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charged thin spherical shell.
 Electric potential and its calculation for a point charge, electric dipole and system of
charges; Equipotential surfaces, Electrical potential energy of a system of two point
charges in an electrostatic field.
 Conductors and insulators, Dielectrics and electric polarization, capacitor, the
combination of capacitors in series and in parallel, the capacitance of a parallel plate
capacitor with and without dielectric medium between the plates, Energy stored in a
capacitor.
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UNIT 12: Current Electricity

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 Electric current, Drift velocity, Ohm’s law, Electrical resistance, Resistances of different
materials, V-I characteristics of Ohmic and nonohmic conductors, Electrical energy and
power, Electrical resistivity, Colour code for resistors; Series and parallel combinations
of resistors; Temperature dependence of resistance.
 Electric Cell and its Internal resistance, potential difference and emf of a cell, the
combination of cells in series and in parallel. Kirchhoff’s laws and their applications.
Wheatstone bridge, Metre bridge. Potentiometer - principle and its applications.
UNIT 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
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PHYSICS
 Biot - Savart law and its application to current carrying circular loop.
 Ampere’s law and its applications to infinitely long current carrying straight wire and
solenoid.
 Force on a moving charge in uniform magnetic and electric fields.
 Cyclotron.
 Force on a current-carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field.
 Force between two parallel current-carrying conductors-definition of the ampere.
 Torque experienced by a current loop in uniform magnetic field; Moving coil
galvanometer, its current sensitivity and conversion to ammeter and voltmeter.
 Current loop as a magnetic dipole and its magnetic dipole moment.
 Bar magnet as an equivalent solenoid, magnetic field lines; Earth’s magnetic field and
magnetic elements. Para-, dia- and ferromagnetic substances.
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 Magnetic susceptibility and permeability, Hysteresis, Electromagnets and permanent
magnets.
UNIT 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
 Electromagnetic induction; Faraday’s law, induced emf and current; Lenz’s Law, Eddy
currents.
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

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Self and mutual inductance.
Alternating currents, peak and RMS value of alternating current/ voltage; reactance and
impedance; LCR series circuit, resonance; Quality factor, power in AC circuits, wattless
current.
AC generator and transformer.
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UNIT 15: Electromagnetic Waves
 Electromagnetic waves and their characteristics.

 Transverse nature of electromagnetic waves.
 Electromagnetic spectrum (radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, Xrays,
gamma rays).
 Applications of e.m. waves.
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UNIT 16: Optics
 Reflection and refraction of light at plane and spherical surfaces, mirror formula, Total
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internal reflection and its applications, Deviation and Dispersion of light by a prism, Lens
Formula, Magnification, Power of a Lens, Combination of thin lenses in contact,
Microscope and Astronomical Telescope (reflecting and refracting) and their magnifying
powers.
 Wave optics: wavefront and Huygens’ principle, Laws of reflection and refraction using
Huygen’s principle.
 Interference, Young’s double slit experiment and expression for fringe width, coherent
sources and sustained interference of light.
 Diffraction due to a single slit, width of central maximum.
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PHYSICS
 Resolving power of microscopes and astronomical telescopes, Polarisation, plane

polarized light; Brewster’s law uses of plane polarized light and Polaroids.
UNIT 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
 Dual nature of radiation.

 Photoelectric effect, Hertz and Lenard’s observations; Einstein’s photoelectric equation;
particle nature of light.
 Matter waves-wave nature of the particle, de Broglie relation.
 Davisson-Germer experiment.
UNIT 18: Atoms and Nuclei
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 Alpha-particle scattering experiment; Rutherford’s model of atom; Bohr model, energy
levels, hydrogen spectrum.
 Composition and size of the nucleus, atomic masses, isotopes, isobars; isotones.
 Radioactivity-alpha, beta and gamma particles/rays and their properties; radioactive
decay law. Mass-energy relation, mass defect; binding energy per nucleon and its
variation with mass number, nuclear fission and fusion.
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UNIT 19: Electronic Devices
 Semiconductors; semiconductor diode: I-V characteristics in forward and reverse bias;

diode as a rectifier; I-V characteristics of LED, photodiode, solar cell and Zener diode;
Zener diode as a voltage regulator.
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 Junction transistor, transistor action, characteristics of a transistor; transistor as an
amplifier (common emitter configuration) and oscillator.
 Logic gates (OR, AND, NOT, NAND and NOR).
 Transistor as a switch.
UNIT 20: Communication Systems
 Propagation of electromagnetic waves in the atmosphere; Sky and space wave propagation,
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Need for modulation, Amplitude and Frequency Modulation, Bandwidth of signals, Bandwidth of
Transmission medium.
 Basic Elements of a Communication System (Block Diagram only)
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SECTION B
UNIT 21: Experimental Skills
Familiarity with the basic approach and observations of the experiments and activities:
 Vernier callipers - its use to measure the internal and external diameter and depth of a
vessel.
 Screw gauge-its use to determine thickness/diameter of thin sheet/wire.
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PHYSICS
 Simple Pendulum-dissipation of energy by plotting a graph between square of amplitude

and time.
 Metre Scale -mass of a given object by principle of moments.
 Young’s modulus of elasticity of the material of a metallic wire.
 Surface tension of water by capillary rise and effect of detergents.
 Co-efficient of Viscosity of a given viscous liquid by measuring terminal velocity of a
given spherical body.
 Plotting a cooling curve for the relationship between the temperature of a hot body and
time.
 Speed of sound in air at room temperature using a resonance tube.
 Specific heat capacity of a given (i) solid and (ii) liquid by method of mixtures.
 Resistivity of the material of a given wire using metre bridge.
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 Resistance of a given wire using Ohm’s law.
 Potentiometer - (i) Comparison of emf of two primary cells. (ii) Determination of internal
resistance of a cell.
 Resistance and figure of merit of a galvanometer by half deflection method.
 Focal length of: (i) Convex mirror (ii) Concave mirror, and (iii) Convex lens using parallax method.
 Plot of angle of deviation vs angle of incidence for a triangular prism.
 Refractive index of a glass slab using a travelling microscope.
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

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Characteristic curves of a p-n junction diode in forward and reverse bias.
Characteristic curves of a Zener diode and finding reverse break down voltage.
Characteristic curves of a transistor and finding current gain and voltage gain.
Identification of Diode, LED, Transistor, IC, Resistor, Capacitor from mixed collection
of such items.
Using multimeter to: (i) Identify base of a transistor (ii) Distinguish between NPN
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and PNP type transistor (iii) See the unidirectional flow of current in case of a diode and
an LED. (iv) Check the correctness or otherwise of a given electronic component (diode,
transistor or IC).
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JEE (Main)-2018 PHYSICS
Analysis
P HYSICS A NALYSIS
Physics
NO OF TOTAL
UNIT & TOPIC NAME QUESTIONS MARKS (%) WEIGHTAGE
Physics 30 120 100.00%
Electrodynamics 9 36 30.00%
Capacitance 1 4 3.33%
Current Electricity 3 12 10.00%
Electro Magnetic Field 2 8 6.67%
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Alternating Current 2 8 6.67%
Electrostatics 1 4 3.33%
Heat & Thermodynamics 2 8 6.67%
KTG & Thermodynamics 2 8 6.67%
Mechanics 10 40 33.33%
Circular Motion 1 4 3.33%
Elasticity & Viscosity
Error in Measurement
Rigid Body Dynamics
Work, Power & Energy
Friction
Centre of Mass
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1
2
1
1
1
8
4
8
4
4
4
6.67%
3.33%
6.67%
3.33%
3.33%
3.33%
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Rectilinear Motion & Vectors 1 4 3.33%
Modern Physics 6 24 20.00%
Nuclear Physics 1 4 3.33%
Atomic Physics 2 8 6.67%
Semiconductors 1 4 3.33%
Electromagnetic waves &
communication 2 8 6.67%
Optics 2 8 6.67%
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Wave Optics 2 8 6.67%

SHM & Waves 1 4 3.33%
SHM 1 4 3.33%
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Grand Total 30 120 100.00%
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PHYSICS
Weightage Analysis for Physics JEE (Main) 2002 to 2017

Topic 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011-I 2011-II 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 Total No.
of
No. of 75 75 75 75 55 40 35 30 30 30 30 30 30 30 30 30 30 Question
Questions
Electrodynamics 21 21 23 23 19 13 9 8 9 7 6 7 9 6 10 6 8
Electrostatics 3 3 4 3 2 3 1 4 3 2 1 2 2 1 2 1 1 38
Current Electricity 6 7 7 8 7 2 4 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 2 1 3 55
Capacitance 2 1 - 2 1 2 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 19
Electro Magnetic Field 6 5 6 5 3 5 2 2 1 1 2 2 1 2 3 2 1 49
Electro Magnetic Induction 2 3 4 3 4 0 1 1 2 2 1 1 3 1 2 0 1 31
Alternating Current 2 2 2 2 2 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 13
Heat & Thermodynamics 9 6 6 5 3 4 1 5 1 4 4 4 2 3 3 3 4
Calorimetry & Thermal Expansion 9 6 6 5 3 4 1 5 1 1 2 1 0 0 0 0 2 46
KTG & Thermodynamics - - - - 0 0 0 0 0 3 0 2 1 2 3 3 2 16
Heat Transfer - - - - 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 1 1 1 0 0 0 5
SHM & Waves 8 8 6 6 5 5 3 3 1 3 3 3 3 2 2 3 2
Simple Harmonic Motion 3 5 5 4 3 4 0 1 0 2 1 2 2 1 1 1 1 36
Wave on a String 2 2 1 - 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 - 1 0 11
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Sound Waves 3 1 - 2 1 1 2 2 0 1 2 0 0 1 1 1 1 19
Optics 4 3 4 6 1 2 4 3 3 3 4 3 4 3 3 3 2
Geometrical Optics 4 2 3 3 1 1 1 2 3 2 2 2 2 2 1 2 1 34
Wave Optics - 1 1 3 0 1 3 1 0 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 1 21
Mechanics 23 22 24 25 13 9 14 6 10 9 8 6 7 11 8 7 8
Unit & Dimension 1 2 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 - 0 0 7
Error in Measurement - - - - 0 0 2 1 1 1 1 1 0 2 1 2 0 12
Rectilinear Motion & Vectors 3 3 3 4 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 - 0 1 18
Projectile Motion 1 1 2 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 2 - 0 0 12
Relative Motion - - - - 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 1
Newton's Laws of Motion
Friction
Work, Power & Energy
Circular Motion
Centre of Mass
Rigid Body Dynamics
Gravitation
Fluid Mechanics & Properties of
Matter
Modern Physics
6
10
RI 4
15
1
12
2
10
1
14
1
7
0
4
0
5
1
6
0
4
1
5
0
7
0
5
0
5
-
4
0
8
0
6
17
26
19
33
24
26
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Modern Physics 4 10 7 7 9 5 2 3 5 3 2 4 2 2 2 2 4 73
Semiconductors 4 3 4 3 5 2 2 2 1 0 1 1 1 1 - 4 1 35
Electromagnetic waves &
2 2 1 - 0 0 0 0 0 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 19
communication
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PAGE NO : 8
PHYSICS
KINEMATICS LEVEL 1
SELECT THE CORRECT ALTERNATIVE (ONLY ONE CORRECT ANSWER)
1. A bird moves from point (1,  2, 3) to (4, 2, 3) . If the speed of the bird is 10 m/s, then the velocity vector
of the bird is :-

(A) 5 î  2 ˆj  3 kˆ  
(B) 5 4 î  2 ˆj  3 kˆ  (C) 0.6 î  0.8 ˆj (D) 6 î  8 ˆj
2. A particle moves in straight line in same direction for 20 seconds with velocity 3 m/s and then moves with velocity
4 m/s for another 20 sec and finally moves with velocity 5 m/s for next 20 seconds. What is the average velocity
of the particle?
(A) 3 m/s (B) 4 m/s (C) 5 m/s (D) Zero
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3. A particle is moving in x–y–plane at 2 m/s along x–axis. 2 seconds later, its velocity is 4 m/s in a direction
making 60° with positive x–axis. Its average acceleration for this period of motion is:-
(A) 5 m/s 2 , along y–axis (B) 3 m/s 2 , along y–axis
(C) 5 m/s 2 , along at 60° with positive x–axis (D) 3m/s 2 , at 60° with positive x–axis.
4. The velocity of a particle moving along x–axis is given as v = x 2 – 5x + 4 (in m/s) where x denotes the
x–coordinate of the particle in metres. Find the magnitude of acceleration of the particle when the velocity
5.
of particle is zero ?
(A) 0 m/s 2 (B) 2 m/s 2
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The coordinates of a moving particle at time t are given by x = ct2 and y = bt2. The speed of the particle is
given by :–
(A) 2t  c  b  (B) 2t c 2  b 2 (C) t c 2  b 2 (D) 2t c 2  b 2

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6. A particle has an initial velocity of (3î  4 ˆj) m/s and a constant acceleration of (4î  3ˆj) m/s2. Its speed
after one second will be equal to :-
(A) 0 (B) 10 m/s (C) 5 2 m/s (D) 25 m/s
7. A body starts from rest and is uniformly accelerated for 30 s. The distance travelled in the first 10 s is
x 1 , next 10 s is x 2 and the last 10 s is x 3 . Then x 1 : x 2 : x 3 is the same as:-
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(A) 1 : 2 : 4 (B) 1 : 2 : 5 (C) 1 : 3 : 5 (D) 1 : 3 : 9
8. A, B, C and D are points in a vertical line such that AB = BC = CD. If a body falls from rest from A, then the
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times of descend through AB, BC and CD are in the ratio :-
(A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 2 : 3 : 1
(C) 3 : 1 : 2 (D) 1 : ( 2 – 1) : ( 3 – 2 )
9. A particle is projected vertically upwards and it reaches the maximum height H in T seconds . The
height of the particle at any time t will be :-
1 g
(A) H  g(t  T)2 (B) g(t  T)2 (C) H  g(t  T)2 (D) (t  T)2
2 2
10. A parachutist drops freely from an aeroplane for 10 s before the parachute opens out. Then he descends with
a net retardation of 2.5 m/s2. If he bails out of the plane at a height of 2495 m and g = 10 m/s2, hit velocity
on reaching the ground will be :-
(A) 5 m/s (B) 10 m/s (C) 15 m/s (D) 20 m/s
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KINEMATICS
PHYSICS
11. With what speed should a body be thrown upwards so that the distances traversed in 5th second and 6th
second are equal ?
(A) 58.4 m/s (B) 49 m/s (C) 98 m/s (D) 98 m/s
12. A particle is projected vertically upwards from a point A on the ground. It takes t1 time to reach a point B but
it still continues to move up. If it takes further t2 time to reach the ground from point B then height of point B
from the ground is :-
1 2 1 2 1
(A) g  t1  t 2  (B) gt1t 2 (C) g  t1  t 2  (D) gt 1 t 2
2 8 2
13. The velocity – time graph of a linear motion is shown in figure. The displacement & distance from the
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origin after 8 sec. is :-
v(m/s)
4
2
t(s)
0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
-2
14.
(A) 5 m, 19m (B) 16 m,22m RI (C) 8 m,19m
Initially car A is 10.5 m ahead of car B. Both start moving at time t=0 in the
same direction along a straight line. The velocity time graph of two cars is shown
(D) 6 m, 5m
v car B
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10 m/s car A
in figure. The time when the car B will catch the car A, will be :-
45°
(A) t = 21 sec (B) t = 2 5 sec
t
(C) 20 sec (D) None of these
15. A man moves in x–y plane along the path shown. At what point is his average y
velocity vector in the same direction as his instaneous velocity vector. The man
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starts from point P.

C
(A) A P D
B
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(B) B
A
(C) C x
(D) D
16. Which of the following velocity–time graph shows a realistic situation for a body in motion :–
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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KINEMATICS
PHYSICS
17. The graph between the displacement x and time t for a particle moving in a straight line is shown in figure.
During the interval OA, AB, BC and CD, the acceleration of the particle is :
x
OA, AB, BC, CD
displacement
(A) + 0 + + D
(B) – 0 + 0 C
A B
O t
(C) + 0 – + time
(D) – 0 0 +
18. The velocity – time graph of a body falling from rest under gravity and rebounding from a solid surface is
represented by which of the following graphs?
v v
v v
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(A)  t (B)  t (C)  t (D)
t
19. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Which of the following plots represents the speed–time graph of the ball
during its flight if the air resistance is ignored :–
(A)
v
t
(B)
v
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t
(C)
v
t
(D)
v
t
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20. The acceleration–time graph of a particle moving along a straight line is a(m/s2)
as shown in figure. At what time the particle acquires its initial velocity? 10
(A) 12 sec
(B) 5 sec
(C) 8 sec t(s)
4
(D) 16 sec
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21. Which of the following situation is represented by the velocity–time graph as shown in the diagram :–
v
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(A) A stone thrown up vertically, returning back to the ground

(B) A car decelerating at constant rate and then accelerating at the same rate t
(C) A ball falling from a height and then bouncing back
(D) None of the above
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22. A man starts running along a straight road with uniform velocity u  u î feels that the rain is falling
vertically down along ĵ . If he doubles his speed he finds that the rain is coming at an angle  to the
vertical . The velocity of rain with respect to the ground is :-
u ˆ u ˆ
(A) u î  u tan  ˆj (B) u î  j (C) u tan  î  u ˆj (D) i  u ˆj
tan  tan 
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KINEMATICS
PHYSICS
23. A river is flowing from west to east at a speed of 5 meters per minute. A man on the south bank of the river,
capable of swimming at 10 meters per minute in still water, wants to swim across the river in the shortest time.
He should swim in a direction :-
(A) Due north (B) 30° east of north (C) 30° north of west (D) 60° east of north
24. A boat moving towards east with velocity 4 m/s with respect to still water and river is flowing towards north with
velocity 2 m/s and the wind is blowing towards north with velocity 6 m/s. The direction of the flag blown over
by the wind hoisted on the boat is :-
(A) North–west (B) South–east (C) tan–1(1/2) with east (D) North
25. Raindrops are falling vertically with a velocity 10m/s. To a cyclist moving on a straight road the rain drops
appear to be coming with a velocity of 20m/s. The velocity of cyclist is :-
(A) 10m/s (B) 10 3 m/s (C) 20 m/s (D) 20 3 m/s
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26. A man is crossing a river flowing with velocity of 5m/s. He reaches a point directly across at distance of 60 m
in 5s. His velocity in still water should be :–
B

v =5m/s
r 60m
27.
(A) 12 m/s (B) 13 m/s
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(C) 5 m/s (D) 10 m/s
A boat which has a speed of 5km per hour in still water crosses a river of width 1km along the shortest possible
path in fifteen minutes. The velocity of the river water in km per hour is :-
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 41

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28. A river is flowing from east to west at a speed of 5 m/min. A man on south bank of river, capable of swimming
10 m/min in still water, wants to swim across the river in shorter time; he should swim :–
(A) Due north (B) Due north–east
(C) Due north–east with double the speed of river (D) None of the above
29. Two particles P and Q are moving with velocities of î  ˆj  and   î  2 ˆj  respectively. At time t = 0,
P is at origin and Q is at a point with position vector  2 î  ˆj  . Then the shortest distance between P & Q is :-
E
2 5 4 5 3 5
(A) (B) (C) 5 (D)
JE
5 5 5
30. From a motorboat moving downstream with a velocity 2 m/s with respect to river, a stone is thrown. The stone
falls on an ordinary boat at the instant when the motorboat collides with the ordinary boat. The velocity of the
ordinary boat with respect to the river is equal to zero. The river flow velocity is given to be 1 m/s. The initial
velocity vector of the stone with respect to earth is :-
y
x
Take the value of g = 10 m/s2
Initial separation between the two boats is 20m.
(A) 2i + 20j (B) 3i + 40j (C) 3i + 50j (D) 2i + 50j
PAGE NO : 12
KINEMATICS
PHYSICS
31. Graphs I and II give coordinates x(t) and y(t) of a particle moving in the x–y plane. Acceleration of the
particle is constant and the graphs are drawn to the same scale. Which of the vector shown in options
best represents the acceleration of the particle :-
y
x
(I) (II)
t
t –y
y x y
y

a
(A)  (B) (C) (D)  x

a a x a
x y
NT
32. Particle is dropped from the height of 20m on horizontal ground. There is wind blowing due to which horizontal
acceleration of the particle becomes 6 ms –2. Find the horizontal displacement of the particle till it reaches
ground.
(A) 6m (B) 10 m (C) 12m (D) 24 m
6
33.
34.
height . The angle of projection will be :-
(A) 60° (B) 45°
RI
The total speed of a projectile at its greatest height is
(C) 30°
horizontal velocity will equal the magnitude of vertical velocity is :-
7
of its speed when it is at half of its greatest
(D) 50°
A projectile is projected at an angle (>45°) with an initial velocity u. The time t, at which its magnitude of
SP
u u u u
(A) t  (cos   sin  ) (B) t  (cos   sin  ) (C) t  (sin   cos  ) (D) t  (sin 2   cos 2  ) .
g g g g
35. A particle is projected from a horizontal plane (x–z plane) such that its velocity vector at time t is given by

v  aiˆ  (b  ct)ˆj . Its range on the horizontal plane is given by :-
ba 2ba 3ba
E
(A) (B) (C) (D) None

c c c
36. A particle is dropped from a height h . Another particle which was initially at a horizontal distance 'd'
JE
from the first, is simultaneously projected with a horizontal velocity 'u' and the two particles just collide on
the ground . The three quantities h. d and u are related to :-
u2 h 2 u2 h
2 2
(A) d = (B) d = (C) d = h (D) gd2 = u2h
2g g
37. A particle is projected from a tower as shown in figure, then the distance from the foot of the tower
where it will strike the ground will be :- (take g = 10 m/s 2 )
37°
500 m/s
1500m 3
(A) 4000/3 m (B) 5000/3 m (C) 2000 m (D) 3000 m

PAGE NO : 13
KINEMATICS
PHYSICS
38. In the figure, the ends P and Q of an unstrechable string move downwards with uniform speed v. Mass M
moves upward with speed
v A B v
 
P Q
M
v 2
(A) v cos (B) (C) 2v cos  (D)
cos  v cos 
NT
39. A block is dragged on a smooth plane with the help of a rope which moves with a velocity v as shown
in figure. The horizontal velocity of the block is :
v
\\\\\\\\\\\
\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\

40.
(A) v (B)
v
sin 
RI m
\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\
(C) v sin
A weightless inextensible rope rest on a stationary wedge forming an angle  with the horizontal. One end
(D)
v
cos 
SP
of the rope is fixed on the wall at point A. A small load is attached to the rope at point B. The wedge starts
moving to the right with a constant acceleration a. The acceleration of the load is given by:
a

E

(A) a (B) 2a sin (C) 2a sin (D) gsin
2
JE
41. If acceleration of M is a then acceleration of m is
M
m
a
(A) 3a (B) (C) a (D) 10 a
3
PAGE NO : 14
KINEMATICS
PHYSICS
42. If acceleration of A is 2 m/s 2 towards left and acceleration of B is 1 m/s 2 towards left, then acceleration
of C is :–
A B
(A) 1 m/s 2 downwards (B) 1 m/s 2 upwards (C) 2 m/s 2 downwards (D) 2 m/s 2 upwards
43. If angular velocity of a disc depends an angle rotated  as   2  2  , then its angular acceleration  at
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  1 rad is :
(A) 8 rad/s 2 (B) 10rad/s 2 (C) 12 rad/s 2 (D) None of these
44. If the radii of circular path of two particles are in the ratio of 1 : 2, then in order to have same centripetal
acceleration, their speeds should be in the ratio of :
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 :1
45.
(A) 20 ms–2 (B) 12 m/s2

RI
A stone tied to the end of a string 80 cm long is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone
makes 14 revolutions in 25 s, the magnitude of acceleration is :
(C) 9.9 ms–2 (D) 8 ms–2
SP
46. A particle starts moving along a circle of radius (20/)m with constant tangential acceleration. If the velocity of
the particle is 50 m/s at the end of the second revolution after motion has began, the tangential acceleration
in m/s2 is :
(A) 1.6 (B) 4 (C) 15.6 (D) 13.2
47. For a body in circular motion with a constant angular velocity, the magnitude of the average acceleration
over a period of half a revolution is.... times the magnitude of its instantaneous acceleration.
E
2 
(A) (B) (C)  (D) 2
 2
JE
48. The second's hand of a watch has length 6 cm. Speed of end point and magnitude of difference of
velocities at two perpendicular positions will be
(A) 2 & 0 mm/s (B) 2 2  & 4.44 mm/s
(C) 2 2  & 2 mm/s (D) 2 & 2 2 mm/s
49. A particle is kept fixed on a turntable rotating uniformly. As seen from the ground, the particle goes in
a circle, its speed is 20 cm/s and acceleration is 20 cm/s 2 . The particle is now shifted to a new
position to make the radius half of the original value. The new values of the speed and acceleration will
be
(A) 10 cm/s, 10 cm/s 2 (B) 10 cm/s, 80 cm/s 2 (C) 40 cm/s, 10 cm/s 2 (D) 40 cm/s, 40 cm/s 2
PAGE NO : 15
KINEMATICS
PHYSICS
50. A spot light S rotates in a horizontal plane with a constant angular velocity of 0.1 rad/s. The spot of
light P moves along the wall at a distance 3m. What is the velocity of the spot P when =45°?
Wall P

3m
(Top view)
S(spot light)
(A) 0.6 m/s (B) 0.5 m/s (C) 0.4 m/s (D) 0.3 m/s
NT
51. A particle A moves along a circle of radius R=50 cm so that its radius vector r relative to the point O
(figure) rotates with the constant angular velocity =0.40 rad/s. Then modulus of the velocity of the
particle, and the modulus of its total acceleration will be
r R
0
(A) v= 0.4 m/s, a = 0.4 m/s 2

(C) v = 0.32 m/s, a = 0.4 m/s 2
RI (B) v = 0.32 m/s, a = 0.32 m/s 2
(D) v = 0.4 m/s, a = 0.32 m/s 2
SP
E
JE
LEVEL 1
ANSWER KEY
Q u e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An s . D B B A D C C D C A B D A A C B D A C C
Q u e. 2 1 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
An s . A B A A B B C A B C B C C C B B A B B C
Q u e. 4 1 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51
An s . D B C C C C A D A A D
PAGE NO : 16
PHYSICS
KINEMATICS LEVEL 2
SELECT THE CORRECT ALTERNATIVES (ONE OR MORE THEN ONE CORRECT ANSWERS)

1. A particle is moving in a plane with velocity given by u  u 0î  (a  cos t)ˆj , where î and ĵ are unit vectors ors
along x and y axes respectively. If particle is at the origin at t = 0. Calculate the trajectory of the particle
:-
 u0   x  1  u0  1  x 
(A) y  a sin   (B) y  a sin   (C) y  a .sin  x  (D) y  .sin  
x  u0  a  u0 
2. A point moves in a straight line under the retardation av2. If the initial velocity is u, the distance covered in 't'
seconds is :-
1 1
(A) aut (B) n(aut) (C) n(1+aut) (D) an(aut)
a a
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3. The relation between time t and distance x is t=x2+x where  and  are constants. The retardation is :-
(A) 2v3 (B) 2v2 (C) 2v2 (D) 2 2v3
4. A particle is moving with uniform acceleration along a straight line . Its velocities at A & B are respectively
7 m/s & 17 m/s . M is mid point of AB . If t1 is the time taken to go from A to M and t2 the time taken
t1
to go from M to B, the ratio t is equal to :-
5.
(A) 3 : 2
2
(B) 3 : 1
RI (C) 2 : 1 (D) 2 : 3
A, B & C are three objects each moving with constant velocity . A's speed is 10 m/s in a direction

PQ . The velocity of B relative to A is 6 m/s at an angle of, cos 1 (15/24) to PQ . The velocity of

C relative to B is 12 m/s in a direction QP . Then the magnitude of the velocity of C is :-
SP
(A) 5 m/s (B) 2 10 m/s (C) 3 m/s (D) 4 m/s
6. A person drops a stone from a building of height 20 m . At the same instant the front end of a truck passes
below the building moving with constant acceleration of 1 m/s2 and velocity of 2 m/s at that instant. Length
of the truck if the stone just misses to hit its rear part is :-
(A) 6 m (B) 4 m (C) 5 m (D) 2 m
7. In the diagram shown, the displacement of particles is given as a function of time.

E
The particle A is moving under constant velocity of 9 m/s. The particle B is
moving under variable acceleration. From time t = 0 s. to t = 6 s., the
average velocity of the particle B will be equal to :-
(A) 2.5 m/s (B) 4 m/s
JE
(C) 9 m/s (D) None
8. Two trains, which are moving along different tracks in opposite directions, are put on the same track due to a
mistake. Their drivers, on noticing the mistake, start slowing down the trains when the trains are 300 m apart.
Given graphs show their velocities as function of time as the trains slow down. The separation between thee
trains when both have stopped,, is :-
v(m/s)
v(m/s)
40 8
t(s)
20
Train II
t(s) –20
Train I 10
(A) 120 m (B) 280 m (C) 60 m (D) 20 m
PAGE NO : 17
KINEMATICS
PHYSICS

9. The position vector of a particle is given as r =(t2–4t + 6) î + (t2) ĵ . The time after which the velocity vector
and acceleration vector becomes perpendicular to each other is equal to :-
(A) 1 sec (B) 2 sec (C) 1.5 sec (D) Not possible
10. A 2m wide truck is moving with a uniform speed of 8 m/s along a straight horizontal road. A pedestrian starts
crossing the road at an instant when the truck is 4 m away from him. The minimum constant velocity with which
he should run to avoid an accident is :-
2m Truck
4m
(A) 1.6 5 m/s (B) 1.2 5 m/s (C) 1.2 7 m/s (D) 1.6 7 m/s
NT
11. If some function say x varies linearly with time and we want to find its average value in a given time interval we
xi  xf
can directly find it by . Here, xi is the initial value of x and xf its final value.
2
x and y co–ordinates of a particle moving in x–y plane at some instant are : x = 2t2 and y = 3/2 t2. The average
velocity of particle in at time interval from t = 1 s to t = 2s is :-
(A) (8î  5 ˆj) m/s (B) (12iˆ  9ˆj) m/s (C) (6î  4.5ˆj) m/s (D) (10iˆ  6ˆj) m/s
12. RI
A particle moves with uniform acceleration and v, v and vdenote the average velocities in the three successive
intervals of time t1, t2 and t3. Which of the following relations is correct ?
(A) (vvvv(t1 – t2) : (t2 + t3)
(C) (vvvv(t1 – t2) : (t1 – t3)
(B) (vvvv(t1 + t2) : (t2 + t3)
(D) (vvvv(t1 – t2) : (t2 – t3)
SP
13. A particle starts from rest with constant acceleration. The ratio of space–average velocity to the time average velocity
is :–
(A) 1/2 (B) 3/4 (C) 4/3 (D) 3/2
14. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time t (in seconds) the distance x (in metres) of the particle from O is

given by x = 40 + 12t – t3. How long would the particle travel before coming to rest ?
(A) 24 m (B) 40 m (C) 56 m (D) 16 m
E
15. A ball is dropped from the top of a building. The ball takes 0.5 s to fall the 3m length of a window some distance
from the top of the building. If the velocities of the ball at the top and at the bottom of the window are vT
and vB respectively, then (take g = 10 m/s2) :-
JE
vB
(A) vT + vB = 12 ms–1 (B) vB – vT = 4.9 ms–1 (C) vBvT = 1 ms–1 (D) v = 1 ms–1
T
16. A particle is thrown upwards from ground. It experiences a constant resistance force which can produce retardation
2 m/s2. The ratio of time of ascent to the time of descent is :- [g = 10 m/s2]
2 2 3
(A) 1 : 1 (B) (C) (D)
3 3 2
17. Drops of water fall from the roof of a building 9m. high at regular intervals of time, the first drop reaching the
ground at the same instant fourth drop starts to fall. What are the distances of the second and third drops from
the roof ?
(A) 6 m and 2 m (B) 6 m and 3 m (C) 4 m and 1 m (D) 4 m and 2 m
PAGE NO : 18
KINEMATICS
PHYSICS
18. A disc in which several grooves are cut along the chord drawn from a point 'A', is arranged in a vertical
plane, several particles starts slipping from 'A' along the grooves simultaneously. Assuming friction and resistance
negligible, the time taken in reaching the edge of disc will be :-
A
D F
C E
B
(A) Maximum in groove AB (B) Maximum in groove AD

(C) Same in all groove (D) According to the heights of B, C, D, E, F
19. Two boats A and B are moving along perpendicular paths in a still lake at night. Boat A move with a speed of 3 m/s
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and boat B moves with a speed of 4 m/s in the direction such that they collide after sometime. At t = 0, the boats are
300 m apart. The ratio of distance travelled by boat A to the distance travelled by boat B at the instant of collision is:-
(A) 1 (B) 1/2 (C) 3/4 (D) 4/3
20. A trolley is moving horizontally with a constant velocity of v m/s w.r.t. earth. A man starts running from one end of

the trolley with a velocity 1.5v m/s w.r.t. to trolley. After reaching the opposite end, the man return back and continues
running with a velocity of 1.5 v m/s w.r.t. the trolley in the backward direction. If the length of the trolley is L then the
displacement of the man with respect to earth during the process will be :-
(A) 2.5L (B) 1.5 L

RI (C)
5L
3
(D)
4L
3
SP
21. A particle P is projected from a point on the surface of smooth inclined plane (see figure). Simultaneously another particle Q
is released on the smooth inclined plane from the same position. P and Q collide after t = 4 second. The speed of projection
of P is :-
P
Q
60°(
(A) 5 m/s (B) 10 m/s (C) 15 m/s (D) 20 m/s

E
22. A particle is projected from a point P(2,0,0)m with a velocity 10m/s making an angle 45° with the horizontal. The

plane of projectile motion passes through a horizontal line PQ which makes an angle of 37° with positive x–axis, xy
plane is horizontal. The coordi nate s of the poi nt where the par t icle wi ll strike the li ne PQ is :-
JE
(take g = 10 m/s2)

(A) (10,6,0)m (B) (8,6,0)m (C) (10,8,0)m (D) (6,10,0)m
23. A body is thrown horizontally with a velocity 2gh from the top of a tower of height h. It strikes the level ground

through the foot of the tower at a distance x from the tower. The value of x is :-
(A) h (B) h/2 (C) 2h (D) 2h/3
24. A particle A is projected with speed vA from a point making an angle 60° with the horizontal. At the same instant, a
second particle B is thrown vertically upward from a point directly below the maximum height point of parabolic path
of A with velocity vB. If the two particles collide then the ratio of vA/vB should be :-
2 3
(A) 1 (B) (C) (D) 3
3 2
PAGE NO : 19
KINEMATICS
PHYSICS
25. A ball is projected from a certain point on the surface of a planet at a certain angle with the horizontal
surface. The horizontal and vertical displacements x and y vary with time t in second as : x = 10 3 t;
y = 10t – t 2 the maximum height attained by the ball is :-
(A) 100m (B) 75m (C) 50 m (D) 25m
26. A particle moves in the xy plane and at time t is at the point (t 2, t 3  2t) . Then :-
(A) At t = 2/3 s, directions of velocity and acceleration are perpendicular
(B) At t = 0, directions of velocity and acceleration are perpendicular

(C) At t = s, particle is moving parallel to x–axis
3
(D) Acceleration of the particle when it is at point (4, 4) is 2 î  24 ˆj
27. The figure shows the velocity time graph of a particle which moves along a straight line starting with velocity
NT
at 5 m/sec and coming to rest at t = 30s . Then :- (15,10) (20,10)
(A) Distance travelled by the particle is 212.5 m
v(m/s)
(B) Distance covered by the particle when it moves with constant velocity is 100 m (0,5)
(C) Velocity of the particle at t = 25s is 5 m/sec
(D) Velocity of the particle at t = 9s is 8 m/sec .
(30,0)
28. An object may have :- 0 t(s)
(A) Varying speed without having varying acceleration
(B) Varying velocity without having varying speed
29.
RI
(C) Non–zero acceleration without having varying velocity
(D) Non–zero acceleration without having varying speed .
A particle moves with constant speed v along a regular hexagon ABCDEF in the same order . Then the magnitude
of the average velocity for its motion from A to :-
v v v 3
SP
(A) F is (B) D is (C) C is (D) B is v .
5 3 2
30. A particle moves along x–axis according to the law x = (t3–3t2–9t+5)m. Then :-
(A) In the interval 3<t<5, the particle is moving in +x direction
(B) The particle reverses its direction of motion twice in entire motion if it starts at t=0
(C) The average acceleration from 1  t  2 seconds is 6m/s2.
(D) In the interval 5  t  6 seconds, the distance travelled is equal to the displacement.
31. A particle moving along a straight line with uniform acceleration has velocities 7m/s at A and 17m/s at C. B is the

mid point of AC. Then :-
E
(A) The velocity at B is 12m/s

(B) The average velocity between A and B is 10m/s
(C) The ratio of the time to go from A to B to that from B to C is 3 : 2
JE
(D) The average velocity between B and C is 15m/s
32. A particle moves along the X–axis as x = u(t –2s) + a(t –2s)2 :-

(A) The initial velocity of the particle is u (B) The acceleration of the particle is a
(C) The acceleration of the particle is 2a (D) At t = 2s particle is at the origin.
33. The co–ordinate of the particle in x–y plane are given as x = 2 + 2t + 4t2 and y = 4t + 8t2 :-
The motion of the particle is :-
(A) Along a straight line (B) Uniformly accelerated
(C) Along a parabolic path (D) Non-uniformly accelerated

34. A particle leaves the origin with an initial velocity u  3î m/s and a constant acceleration a  ( 1.0iˆ  0.5ˆj) m / s 2 .
 
Its velocity v and position vector r when it reaches its maximum x–co–ordinate are :-
   
(A) v  2ˆj (B) v  1.5ˆj m / s (C) r  (4.5î  2.25ˆj) m (D) r  (3iˆ  2ˆj) m
PAGE NO : 20
KINEMATICS
PHYSICS
35. Pick the correct statements :-
(A) Average speed of a particle in a given time is never less than the magnitude of the average velocity.

(B) It is possible to have a situation in which d u  0 but d  = 0.
| u|
dt dt
(C) The average velocity of a particle is zero in a time interval. It is possible that the instantaneous velocity
is never zero in the interval.
(D) The average velocity of a particle moving on a straight line is zero in a time interval. It is possible that
the instantaneous velocity is never zero in the interval. (infinite acceleration is not allowed)
36. Which of the following statements are true for a moving body ?
(A) If its speed changes, its velocity must change and it must have some acceleration
NT
(B) If its velocity changes, its speeds must change and it must have some acceleration
(C) If its velocity changes, its speed may or may not change, and it must have some acceleration
(D) If its speed changes but direction of motion does not change, its velocity may remain constant
37. If velocity of the particle is given by v = x , where x denotes the position of the particle and initially particle
was at x = 4m, then which of the following are correct.
38.
RI
(A) At t = 2 s, the position of the particle is at x = 9m
(B) Particle acceleration at t = 2 s. is 1 m/s 2
(C) Particle acceleration is 1/2 m/s 2 through out the motion
(D) Particle will never go in negative direction from it's starting position
The velocity – time graph of the particle moving along a straight line is shown. The rate of acceleration
SP
and deceleration is constant and it is equal to 5 ms –2 . If the average velocity during the motion is
20 ms –1 , then the value of t is
v (ms –1 )
E
O t 25 s
(A) 3 sec (B) 5 sec (C) 10 sec (D) 12 sec
JE
39. The figure shows the v–t graph of a particle moving in straight line. Find the time when particle returns
to the starting point.
20
10
t
10 20 25
(A) 30 sec (B) 34.5 sec (C) 36.2 sec (D) 35.4 sec
PAGE NO : 21
KINEMATICS
PHYSICS
40. In a projectile motion assuming no air drag let t0A = t1 and tAB = t2. The horizontal
y
displacement from O to A is R1 and from A to B is R2. Maximum height is H
and time of flight is T. Now if air drag is to be considered, then choose the correct
A
alternative(s).
(A) t1 will decrease while t2 will increase H
(B) H will increase B
x
(C) R 1 will decrease while R 2 will increase O
R1 R2
(D) T may increase or decrease
41. A particle is projected from a point P with a velocity v at an angle  with horizontal. At a certain point
Q it moves at right angle to its initial direction. Then :-
(A) Velocity of particle at Q is vsin (B) Velocity of particle at Q is vcot
(C) Time of flight from P to Q is (v/g)cosec (D) Time of flight from P to Q is (v/g)sec
42. If T is the total time of flight, H the maximum height and R is the horizontal range of a projectile. Then x and y
NT
co–ordinates at any time t are related as :-
 t  t  T  T
(A) y  4H    1   (B) y  4H    1  
T T t t
 x x R R
(C) y  4H    1   (D) y  4H    1  
R R x x
43.
RI
A gun is set up in such a way that the muzzle is at ground level as in figure. The hoop A is located at a horizontal
distance 40m from the muzzle and is 50m above the ground level. Shell is fired with initial horizontal component of
velocity as 40m/s. Which of the following is/are correct?
(A) The vertical component of velocity of the shell just after it is fired is 55m/s,
if the shell has to pass through the hoop A.
(B) The shell will pass through both the hoops if x=40m.
y
40mA
------------
x |
|
|
|
|
SP
|
(C) The shell will pass through both the hoops if x=20m. 50,m |
|
|
|
(D) The vertical component of velocity of the shell just after it is fired is 45m/s, x
gun
if the shell is to pass through both the hoops.
44. Two particles A & B projected along different directions from the same point P on the ground with the same
velocity of 70 m/s in the same vertical plane . They hit the ground at the same point Q such that PQ = 480
m. Then :- (g = 9.8m/s 2]
(A) Ratio of their times of flight is 4 : 5
(B) Ratio of their maximum heights is 9 : 16
E
(C) Ratio of their minimum speeds during flights is 4 : 3

(D) The bisector of the angle between their directions of projection makes 45 0 with horizontal
JE
45. Two particles P & Q are projected simultaneously from a point O on a level ground in the same vertical plane
with the same speed in directions making angle of 300 and 600 respectively with the horizontal.
(A) Both reach the ground simultaneously
(B) P reaches the ground earlier than Q
(C) Both strike the same point on the level ground
(D) The maximum height attained by Q is thrice that attained by P
46. A particle of mass m moves along a curve y = x2. When particle has x – co–ordinate as 1/2 and x–component of
velocity as 4m/s. Then :-
(A) The position coordinate of particle are (1/2, 1/4)
(B) The velocity of particle will be along the line 4x – 4y –1 = 0
(C) The magnitude of velocity at that instant is 4 2 m/s
(D) The magnitude of angular momentum of particle about origin at that position is 0.
PAGE NO : 22
KINEMATICS
PHYSICS
47. A ball is projected on smooth inclined plane in direction perpendicular to line of greatest slope with velocity
of 8m/s. Find it's speed after 1 sec.
8m/s
0
37
(A) 10 m/s (B) 12 m/s (C) 15 m/s (D) 20 m/s
48. The horizontal range of a projectile is R and the maximum height attained by it is H. A strong wind now begins to blow
in the direction of motion of the projectile, giving it a constant horizontal acceleration = g/2. Under the same conditions
of projection. Find the horizontal range of the projectile.
(A) R +H (B) R + 2H (C) R (D) R +H/2
NT
49. Balls are thrown vertically upward in such a way that the next ball is thrown when the previous one is at the maximum
height. If the maximum height is 5m, the number of balls thrown per minute will be :-
(A) 40 (B) 50 (C) 60 (D) 120
a
50. Acceleration versus velocity graph of a particle moving in a straight line starting from
rest is as shown in figure. The corresponding velocity – time graph would be:-
v
(A)
v
t
(B)
v
RI t
(C)
v
t
(*D)
v
t
SP

51. In the figure shown the acceleration of A is, a A = 15 î + 15 ĵ then the acceleration of B is (A remains
in contact with B)
A y
B
x
37°
E
(A) 6 î (B) –15 î (C) –10 î (D) –5 î

t2 t3
52. Block B has a downward velocity in m/s and given by vB = + , where t is in s. Acceleration of A at
2 6
JE
t = 2 second is
2 2
(A) 2 m/s (B) 4 m/s (C) 6 m/s 2 (D) None of these
PAGE NO : 23
KINEMATICS
PHYSICS
2
53. If block A is moving with an acceleration of 5 m/s , the acceleration of B w.r.t. ground is
B
2
5m/s
A
(A) 5 m/s 2 (B) 5 2 m/s 2 (C) 5 5 m/s 2 (D) 10 m/s 2
54. In the figure acceleration of A is 1 m/s 2 upwards, acceleration of B
is 7 m/s 2 upwards and acceler ation of C is 2m/s 2 upwards. Then
ac celerati on of D will be
NT
(A) 7 m/s 2 downwards
Q
(B) 2 m/s 2 downwards
P
(C) 10 m/s 2 downwards
C
D
(D) 8 m/s 2 downwards
A
B
55. Block A and C start from rest and move to the right with acceleration aA=12t m/s2 and aC=3 m/s2 . Here
t is in seconds. The time when block B again comes to rest is
A
RI C
SP
B
3 1
(A) 2s (B) 1s (C) s (D) s
2 2
56. A particle moves with deceleration along the circle of radius R so that at any moment of time its tangential
and normal accelerations are equal in moduli. At the initial moment t =0 the speed of the particle equals v0,
then the speed of the particle as a function of the distance covered S will be
E
(A) v = v 0 e –S/R (B) v = v 0 e S/R (C) v=v 0 e –R/S (D) v=v 0 e R/S
57. A particle moves along an arc of a circle of radius R. Its velocity depends on the distance covered as
JE
v=as, where a is a constant then the angle  between the vector of the total acceleration and the
vector of velocity as a function of s will be
R 2s 2R s
(A) tan   (B) tan   (C) tan   (D) tan  
2s R s 2R
LEVEL 2 - ANSWER KEY
Q u e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B C A A A A C D A A C B C D A,B
Q u e. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B C C C D B A C B D A,B,C,D A,C,D A,B,D A,C,D A,D
Q u e. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. B,C,D C,D A ,B B ,C A,B,C A,C A,C,D B C A,D B,C A,C A,B B,C,D B,C,D
Q u e. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57
Ans. A,B,C A B C D D A C C D A B
PAGE NO : 24
PHYSICS
FORCE & FRICTION LEVEL 1
1. A body of mass m1 exerts a force on another body of mass m2. If the magnitude of acceleration of m2 is a2,
then the magnitude of the acceleration of m1 is (considering only two bodies in space)
m 2 a2 m1a 2
(A) Zero (B) m (C) m (D) a2
1 2
2. A monkey is descending from the branch of a tree with constant acceleration. If the breaking strength of branch
is 75% of the weight of the monkey, the minimum acceleration with which the monkey can slide down without
breaking the branch is
3g g g
(A) g (B) (C) (D)
4 4 2
NT
A B
3. A trolley of mass 5 kg on a horizontal smooth surface is pulled 5kg
by a load of mass 2 kg by means of uniform rope ABC of length
2 m and mass 1 kg. As the load falls from BC=0 to BC=2m. C
2 2kg
its acceleration in m/s changes–
20 20 20 30 20 30
(A) to (B) to (C) to (D) None of the above
4.
6 5 8 8
RI
In the figure, the position–time graph of a particle of
mass 0·1 kg is shown. The impulse at t=2 second is
(A) 0·2 kgms
(C) 0·1 kgms
–1
–1
5
(B) –0·2 kgms

6
(D) –0·4 kgms –1

–1
4
X(m)
2
6
SP
2 4 6
t(sec)
5. Figures I, II, III and IV depicts variation of force with time
F(N) (I) F(N) (II) (IV)

F(N) (III)
F(N)
0·3 1 1
0·25
1
1 2 1 1
E
t(ms)  t(ms)  t(ms)  t(ms) 
In which situation impulse will be maximum

(A) I & II (B) III & I (C)
III & IV (D) Only IV
JE
6. A body kept on a smooth inclined plane inclination 1 in x will remain stationary relative to the inclined plane
if the plane is given a horizontal acceleration equal to :–
x2  1 gx g
(A) x 2  1g (B) g (C) 2 (D) 2
x x 1 x 1
7. A monkey is sitting on the pan of a spring balance which is placed on an elevator. The maximum reading of the
spring balance will be when :
(A) the elevator is stationary
(B) the string of the elevator breaks and it drops freely towards the earth
(C) the elevator is accelerated downwards
(D) the elevator is accelerated upwards.
PAGE NO : 25
FORCE & FRICTION PHYSICS
8. A pulley is attached to the ceiling of a lift moving upwards. Two particles are attached to the two ends of
a string passing over the pulley. The masses of the particles are in the ratio 2 : 1. If the acceleration of
the particles is g/2, then the acceleration of the lift will be
g g g
(A) g (B) (C) (D)
2 3 4
9. Two blocks A and B of masses m & 2m respectively are held at rest such that the spring
is in natural length. What is the acceleration of both the blocks just after release?
g g
(A) g , g  (B) , 
3 3
(C) 0, 0 (D) g , 0 m A B 2m
10. In the arrangement shown in figure, pulley is smooth and massless and all
the strings are light. Let F1 be the force exerted on the pulley in case (i) and (i) (ii)
NT
F2 the force in case (ii). Then
(A) F 1 > F 2
(B) F 1 < F 2
4m 4m
(C) F 1 = F 2 2m m
(D) F 1 = 2F 2 m
11. In the figure, the blocks A, B and C of mass m, each have accelerations
and mg respectively.

(A) a 1 = a 2 = a 3
(B) a 1 >a 3 >a 2
(C) a 1 =a 2 , a 2 >a 3
(D) a 1 >a 2 , a 2 =a 3
RI
a1, a2 and a3 respectively. F1 and F2 are external forces of magnitudes 2mg
m
A
F1=2mg
m
B
2m
m
C
m
SP
F2=mg
12. In the arrangement shown in figure m 1 = 1kg, m 2 = 2kg. Pulleys are massless
and strings are light. For what value of M the mass m1 moves with constant velocity M
( Neglect friction) 1
(A) 6 kg (B) 4 kg
2
(C) 8 kg (D) 10 kg
m2
m1
E
13. A trolley is being pulled up an incline plane by a man sitting on it (as
shown in figure). He applies a force of 250 N. If the combined mass of
the man and trolley is 100 kg, the acceleration of the trolley will be
JE
[sin15° = 0.26]
(A) 2.4 m/ s2 (B) 9.4 m/s2 15°
(C) 6.9 m/s2 (D) 4.9 m/s2
14. A man thinks about 4 arrangements as shown to raise two small bricks each having mass m. Which of the
arrangement would take minimum time?
F F
F
(A) (B) (C) F (D)
m m m
m m m m m
PAGE NO : 26
15. In the arrangement shown in figure neglect the masses of the pulley and string and also
friction. The accelerations of blocks A and B are
(A) g, g/2

C
(B) g/2, g
(C) 3g/2, 3g/4 m1 A
(D) g, g
B m2
A
16. A block is placed on an inclined plane moving towards right horizontally with
a0=g
an acceleration a 0 = g. The length of the plane AC = 1m. Friction is absent
everywhere. The time taken by the block to reach from C to A is
NT
30°
( g = 10 m/s 2 )
B C
(A) 1.2 s (B) 0.74 s
(C) 2.56 s (D) 0.42 s
17. In the arrangement shown in figure pulley A and B are massless and the thread
is inextensible. Mass of pulley C is equal to m. If friction in all the pulleys is B
negligible, then
(A) tension in thread is equal to 1/2 mg RI

(B) acceleration of pulley C is equal to g/2 (downward)
(C) acceleration of pulley A is equal to g/2 (upward)
(D) acceleration of pulley A is equal to 2g (upward)
A
C
SP
18. A block is placed on a rough horizontal plane. A time dependent horizontal force F = kt acts on the block.
Here k is a positive constant. Acceleration–time graph of the block is
a a a a
(A) (B) (C) (D)

t t t t
E
19. In the figure shown if friction coefficient of block 1kg and 2kg with inclined
plane is µ 1=0.5 and µ 2 = 0.4 respectively, then k g
g 1
2k
JE
(A) both block will move together

(B) both block will move separately
) 60°
(C) there is a non zero contact force between two blocks
(D) None of these
B
 3 A
20. A block of mass of 10 kg lies on a rough inclined plane of inclination = sin –1   30N
5
C
O
with the horizontal when a force of 30N is applied on the block parallel to and D
upward the plane, the total force exerted by the plane on the block is nearly

3 2
along (coefficient of friction is µ = ) ( g = 10 m/s )
4
(A) OA (B) OB (C) OC (D) OD
PAGE NO : 27
21. A block of mass 3 kg is at rest on a rough inclined plane as shown in the figure. The magnitude of net force
exerted by the surface on the block will be (g=10 m/s2)
3 kg
30º
(A) 26N (B) 19.5N (C) 10N (D) 30 N
22. A block of mass m = 2 kg is resting on a rough inclined plane of inclination 300 as shown in figure. The coefficient

of friction between the block and the plane is µ = 0.5. What minimum force F should be applied perpendicular
to the plane on the block, so that block does not slip on the plane (g=10m/s 2)
NT
F
A
30°
(A) zero (B) 6.24 N (C) 2.68 N (D) 4.34 N
23. A block of mass 0.1 kg is held against a wall applying a horizontal force of 5N on the block. If the coefficient of
24.
(A) 2.5 N (B) 0.98 N RI
friction between the block and the wall is 0.5, the magnitude of the frictional force acting on the block is :–
(C) 4.9 N (D) 0.49 N
A 40 kg slab rests on a frictionless floor. A 10 kg block rests on top of the slab. The static coefficient
of friction between the block and slab is 0.60 while the kinetic coefficient is 0.40. The 10 kg block
2
is a c t e d u p o n b y a h o r i z o n t a l f o r c e o f 1 0 0 N . I f g = 9 . 8 m / s , t h e r e s u l t i n g a c c e l e r a t i o n o f
SP
the slab will be :–
100N 10kg
No Friction
40kg
2 2 2 2
(A) 0.98 m/s (B) 1.47 m/s (C) 1.52 m/s (D) 6.1 m/s
25. The rear side of a truck is open and a box of mass 20 kg is placed on the truck 4m away from the open end,
 = 0.15 and g=10 m/sec2. The truck starts from rest with an acceleration of 2m/sec2 on a straight road. The
E
distance moved by the truck when box starts fall down.

(A) 4 m (B) 8 m (C) 16 m (D) 32 m
1
JE
26. In the arrangement shown in figure, coefficient of friction between the two blocks is µ = . The force of
2
friction acting between the two blocks is
2kg F1=2N
F2=20N 4kg
(A) 8 N (B) 10 N (C) 6 N (D) 4 N
27.  is the angle of the incline when a block of mass m just starts slipping down. The distance covered by the block
if thrown up the incline with an initial speed v0 is :
v 20 4 v 20 v 20 sin  4 v 20 sin 
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4g sin  g sin  4g g
PAGE NO : 28
28. In the arrangement shown in the figure, mass of the block B and A is 2m and m respectively. Surface between
B and floor is smooth. The block B is connected to the block C by means of a string pulley system. If the
whole system is released, then find the minimum value of mass of block C so that A remains stationary w.r.t.
B. Coefficient of friction between A and B is µ.
NT
m 2m  1 3m 6m
(A) (B) (C) (D)
  1  1  1
29. A car is going at a speed of 6 m/s when it encounters a 15 m slope of angle 30 0. The friction coefficient
between the road and tyre is 0.5. The driver applies the brakes. The minimum speed of car with which it can
reach the bottom is ( g= 10m/s 2)
RI 30°
SP
(A) 4 m/s (B) 3 m/s (C) 7.49 m/s (D) 8.45 m/s
30. In the figure shown a ring of mass M and a block of mass m are in equilibrium. The string is light and pulley
P does not offer any friction and coefficient of friction between pole and M is µ. The frictional force offered
by the pole on M is
E
M
P
JE
(A) Mg directed up (B) µ mg directed up

(C) (M – m) g directed down (D) µ mg direction down
31. If you want to pile up sand onto a circular area of radius R. The greatest height of the sand pile that can
be erected without spilling the sand onto the surrounding area, if µ is the coefficient of friction between sand
particle is :-
R
(A) R (B) µ2R (C) µR (D)

PAGE NO : 29
32. A sphere of mass m is kept in equilibrium with the help of several springs as shown in the figure. Measurement

shows that one of the springs applies a force F on the sphere. With what acceleration the sphere will move
immediately after this particular spring is cut?
 
NT
(A) zero (B) F m (C) F m (D) insufficient information
33. Two forces are simultaneously applied on an object. What third force would make the net force to point to
the left (–x direction)?
RI
SP
(A) (B) (C) (D)
34. Three forces F , F and F act on an object simultaneously. These force vectors are shown in the following free-
E
1 2 3
body diagram. In which direction does the object accelerate?
JE
(A) (B) (C) (D)
PAGE NO : 30
35. The adjoining figure shows a force of 40 N pulling a body of mass 5 kg in a direction 30° above the horizontal.
The body is in rest on a smooth horizontal surface. Assuming acceleration of free-fall is 10 m/s 2. Which of the
following statements I and II is/are correct?
I. The weight of the 5 kg mass acts vertically downwards

II. The net vertical force acting on the body is 30 N.
(A) Only I. (B) Only II. (C) Both I and II. (D) None of them
36. A block of weight W is suspended by a string of fixed length. The ends of the string are held at various positions
NT
as shown in the figures below. In which case, if any, is the magnitude of the tension along the string largest?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
37. RI
An ideal string is passing over a smooth pulley as shown. Two blocks m 1 and m 2 are connected at the ends
of the string. If m 1 = 1 kg and tension in the string is 10 N, mass m 2 is equal to (g=10 m/s 2 )
SP
(A) 1 kg (B) 1.5 kg (C) 2 kg (D) 0.5 kg
E
JE
ANSWER KEY LEVEL -1
Q u e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B C B B C D D B A C B C D A D B D C B B
Q u e. 2 1 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37
Ans. D C B A C A A C C A C C C D A A A
PAGE NO : 31
PHYSICS
FORCE & FRICTION LEVEL 2
Select the correct alternatives (one or more than one correct answers)
1. A light string fixed at one end to a clamp on ground passes over a fixed pulley and hangs at the other side.
It makes an angle of 30° with the ground. A monkey of mass 5 kg climbs up the rope. The clamp can tolerate
a vertical force of 40 N only. The maximum acceleration in upward direction with which the monkey can
climb safely is (neglect friction and take g = 10 m/s 2) :
300
NT
(A) 2 m/s 2 (B) 4 m/s 2 (C) 6 m/s 2 (D) 8 m/s 2
2. An inclined plane makes an angles 30 0 with the horizontal. A groove OA=5m cut in the plane makes
an angle 30 0 with OX. A short smooth cylinder is free to slide down the influence of gravity. The time
taken by the cylinder to reach from A to O is ( g = 10 m/s 2 )
cylinder A
(A) 4s (B) 2s
O
RI 30
0
(C) 2 2 s
30
0
(D) 1s
SP
3. A block is kept on a smooth inclined plane of angle of inclination 30 0 that moves with a constant ac-
celeration so that the block does not slide relative to the inclined plane. Let F 1 be the contact force
between the block and the plane. Now the inclined plane stops and let F 2 be the contact force between
the two in this case. Then F 1 /F 2 is
4 3
(A) 1 (B) (C) 2 (D)
3 2
4. For the system shown in the figure, the acceleration of the mass m 4 immediately
E
after the lower thread x is cut will be, (assume that the threads are weightless and
inextensible, the spring are weightless, the mass of pulley is negligible and there is
no friction)
JE
 m1  m2  m 3  m1 m3
(A) 0 (B) 
 m4  g
k k
 m1  m 2  m 3  m 4  g m2 m4
(C) 
 m4  g (D)
4 x
5. Given mA = 30 kg, mB = 10 kg, mC = 20 kg. The coefficient of friction between A and B µ1 = 0.3, between
B and C µ2 = 0.2 and between C, and ground, µ3 = 0.1. The least horizontal force F to start motion of any
part of the system of three blocks resting upon one another as shown in figure is ( g = 10 m/s 2 )
 A F
 B
 C
(A) 60 N (B) 90 N (C) 80 N (D) 150 N
PAGE NO : 32
6. The system is pushed by a force F as shown in figure. All surfaces are smooth except between B and C.
Friction coefficient between B and C is µ. Minimum value of F to prevent block B from downward slipping is
A B C
F m
2m 2m
 3   5  5  3
(A)   mg (B)   mg (C)   mg (D)   mg
 2   2  2  2
7. A block A is placed over a long rough plank B of same mass as shown in figure. The plank is placed over
a smooth horizontal surface. At time t=0, block A is given a velocity v 0 in horizontal direction. Let v 1 and v 2
be the velocities of A and B at time t. Then choose the correct graph between v 1 or v 2 and t.
NT
A v0
B
v1 or v2 v1 or v2 v1 or v2 v1 or v2

v1 v1 v1 v1
(A) (B) (C) (D) v2
v2
8.
v2
RI t
v2
t t
Three blocks A , B and C of equal mass m are placed one over the other on a smooth horizontal ground as
1
2
. The maximum value of mass
shown in figure. Coefficient of friction between any two blocks of A,B and C is
of block D so that the blocks A, B and C move without slipping over each other is
t
SP
A
B
C
D
E
(A) 6 m (B) 5 m (C) 3 m (D) 4 m

JE
9. In figure shown, both blocks are released from rest. The time to cross each other is
2m
4 kg
4m
1 kg
(A) 2 second (B) 3 second (C) 1 second (D) 4 second
PAGE NO : 33
10. If masses are released from the position shown in figure then time elapsed
before mass m 1 collides with the floor will be :
2m 1 gd 2 m1  m 2  d
(A) (B)
m1  m 2 m1  m 2  g
m1>m2
2 m1  m 2  d d
(C) (D) None of these m2
m1  m 2  g
1 1 . Same spring is attached with 2kg, 3kg and 1 kg blocks in three different cases as shown in figure.
If x 1 , x 2 and x 3 be the extensi ons in the spring in these three cases then
NT
2kg 2kg 3kg 2kg 1kg 2kg
( A) x 1 = 0, x 3 > x 2 ( B ) x 2 > x 1 > x 3 (C) x 3 > x 1 > x 2 ( D ) x 1 > x 2 > x 3
12.
of B relative to A is RI

A block A of mass m is placed over a plank B of mass 2m. Plank B is placed over a smooth horizontal surface.
The coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.5. Block A is given a velocity v 0 towards right. Acceleration
B
A
smooth
v0
SP
g 3g
(A) (B) g (C) (D) zero
2 4
13. Block A of mass m is placed over a wedge B of same mass m. Assuming all surfaces to be smooth. The dis-
placement of block A in 1 s if the system is released from rest is
A
B
E
 Fixed
JE
(1  sin 2 ) g sin  cos 2  sin 2 

(A) g (B) (C) g (D) g
(1  sin 2 ) 2 1  sin 2  1  sin 2 
14. In the figure shown block B moves down with a velocity 10 m/s. The velocity of A in the position shown is
37°
A
(A) 12.5 m/s (B) 25 m/s (C) 6.25 m/s (D) None of these
PAGE NO : 34
15. A particle is moving along the circle x2 + y2 = a2 in anticlockwise direction. The x–y plane is a rough horizontal
stationary surface. At the point  a cos , a sin  , the unit vector in the direction of friction on the particle is
(A) cos  iˆ + sin ˆj 

(B) – cos î  sin ˆj (C) sin î  cos ˆj (D) cos î  sin ˆj
16. A man of mass 50 kg is pulling on a plank of mass 100 kg kept on a smooth floor as shown with force of 100 N.
If both man & plank move together, find force of friction acting on man.
50 kg
µ=1/6
100
µ=0
100 100
(A) N towards left (B) N towards right
3 3
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250 250
(C) N towards left (D) N towards right
3 3
17. In the following arrangement the system is initially at rest. The 5 kg block is now
released. Assuming the pulleys and string to be massless and smooth, the acceleration
of blocks is
g
(A) a A =
5
7
(C) a c= m/s 2

7
RI (B) a B = 0 m/s 2
(D) 2a C =a A
5kg A
10kg
1 8 . In order to raise a mass of 100 kg a man of mass 60 kg fastens a rope to it and passes the rope over
a smooth pulley. He climbs the rope with an acceleration 5g/4 relative to rope. The tension in the
B C 8kg
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rope is ( g = 10m/s 2 )
(A) 1432 N (B) 928 N (C) 1218 N (D) 642 N
19. Two blocks A and B of equal mass m are connected through a massless string and arranged as shown in figure.
Friction is absent everywhere. When the system is released from rest.
E
m
Fixed
30° B
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mg mg
(A) tension in string is (B) tension in string is
2 4
g 3
(C) acceleration of A is (D) acceleration of A is g
2 4
20. In the arrangement shown in figure all surfaces are smooth. Select the correct alternative(s)
(A) for any value of  acceleration of A and B are equal
B
mA A
(B) contact force between the two blocks is zero if =tan Fixed
mB 
(C) contact force between the two is zero for any value of m A or m B
(D) normal reactions exerted by the wedge on the blocks are equal
PAGE NO : 35
21. In the pulley system shown in figure the movable pulleys A,B and C are of D E
mass 1 kg each. D and E are fixed pulleys. The strings are light and inextensible. A
Choose the correct alternative(s). All pulleys are frictionless. B
(A) tension in the string is 6.5 N

C
(B) acceleration of pulley A is g/3 downward
(C) acceleration of pulley B is g/6 upward
(D) acceleration of pulley C is g/3 upward
22. A block is placed over a plank. The coefficient of friction between the block and the plank is µ = 0.2 . Initially
both are at rest, suddenly the plank starts moving with acceleration a0 = 4 m/s2. The displacement of the block
in 1s is (g=10 m/s 2)
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(A) 1 m relative to ground (B) 1 m relative to plank
(C) zero relative to plank (D) 2 m relative to ground
23. If the acceleration of the elevator a 0>g, then

(A) the acceleration of the masses will be a0
(B) the acceleration of the masses will be (a0 –g)
a0
24.
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(C) the tension in the string will be
mM
M m
(g  a 0 )
(D) tension in the string will be zero.

M
m
Two blocks of masses m1 and m2 are connected with a massless spring and placed over a plank moving with
an acceleration ‘a’ as shown in figure. The coefficient of friction between the blocks and platform is µ.
SP
(A) spring will be stretched if a > µg
m1 m2
(B) spring will be compressed if a  µg a
(C) spring will neither be compressed nor be stretched for a  µg
(D) spring will be in its natural length under all conditions
E
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LEVEL2 ANSWER KEY

Qu e . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans . C B B C A B B C C B B C D B C
Qu e . 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
Ans . A A,B,C,D C B,D A,C A,B,D A,B D D
PAGE NO : 36
PHYSICS
WORK , ENERGY & POWER & CIRCULAR MOTION -LEVEL 1

1. A person A of 50 kg rests on a swing of length 1m making an angle 37O with the vertical. Another
person B pushes him to swing on other side at 53 O with vertical. The work done by person B is :
[ g = 10 m/s2 ]
(A) 50 J (B) 9.8 J (C) 100 J (D) 10 J
2. The work done by the frictional force on a pencil in drawing a complete circle of radius r = 1/ metre
on the surface by a pencil of negligible mass with a normal pressing force N = 5 N (µ = 0.5) is :
(A) + 4J (B) –3 J (C) – 2 J (D) – 5J
3. A rope is used to lower vertically a block of mass M by a distance x with a constant downward acceleration
g/2. The work done by the rope on the block is :
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1 1
(A) Mgx (B) Mgx² (C) – Mgx (D) Mgx²
2 2
4. The work done in moving a particle under the effect of a conservative A
force, from position A to B is 3 joule and from B to C is 4 joule. The

work done in moving the particle from A to C is :
(A) 5 joule
(B) 7 joule B C
5.
(C) 1 joule
(D) –1 joule
1 v 2
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Work done in time t on a body of mass m which is accelerated from rest to a speed v in time t1 as a function of
time t is given by :
v 2 1  mv
2
 1 v2 2
SP
(A) 2 m t t (B) m t t (C)  t t2 (D) 2 m t 2 t
1 1 2  t1  1
v (m/s)
6. Velocity–time graph of a particle of mass 2 kg moving in a straight line
20
is as shown in figure. Work done by all the forces on the particle is :
(A) 400 J (B) –400 J
(C) –200 J (D) 200 J t (s)
2
3
E
7. A particle moves on a rough horizontal ground with some initial velocity say v0. If of its kinetic energy is
4
lost due to friction in time t0 then coefficient of friction between the particle and the ground is :
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v0 v0 3v 0 v0
(A) 2gt (B) 4gt (C) 4gt (D) gt
0 0 0 0
8. A block of mass m moving with speed v compresses a spring through distance x before its speed is halved.
What is the value of spring constant ?
3mv 2 mv 2 mv 2 2mv 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 x2 4 x2 2 x2 x2
9. An engine can pull 4 coaches at a maximum speed of 20 m/s. Mass of the engine is twice the mass of
every coach. Assuming resistive forces proportional to the weight, approximate maximum speeds of the
engine when it pulls 12 and 6 coaches are :
(A) 8.5 m/s and 15 m/s respectively (B) 6.5 m/s and 8 m/s respectively
(C) 8.5 m/s and 13 m/s respectively (D) 10.5 m/s and 15 m/s respectively
PAGE NO : 37
WORK ,ENRGY , POWER & CIRCULAR MOTION PHYSICS
10 A small sphere starts falling from a very large height and after falling a distance of 100 m it attains
the terminal velocity and continues to fall with this velocity. The work done by the atmosphere during
the first fall of 100m is :
(A) Greater than the work done for next fall of 100 m
(B) Less than the work done for next fall of 100 m
(C) Equal to 100 mg
(D) Greater than 100 mg
11 A force acts on a 3 gm particle in such a way that the position of the particle as a function of time
is given by x= 3t – 4t2 + t3, where x is in meters and t is in seconds. The work done during the first
4 second is :
(A) 384 mJ (B) 168 mJ (C) 528 mJ (D) 541 mJ
12. A body is moved along a straight line by a machine delivering constant power. The distance moved by the body in
time t is proportional to :
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(A) t1/2 (B) t3/4 (C) t3/2 (D) t2
13. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant radius r such that its centripetal acceleration aC is varying
with time t as aC = k2rt2, where k is a constant. The power delivered to the particle by the force acting on it is :
(mk 4 r 2 t 5 )
(A) 2mk2r2 (B) mk2r2t (C) (D) zero
3
14.
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In the figure shown the potential energy (U) of a particle is plotted against
its position 'x' from origin. Then which of the following statement is correct. A
particle at :
(A) x1 is in stable equilibrium
(C) x3 is in stable equilibrium
(B) x2 is in stable equilibrium
(D) None of these
U
O
X1 X2 X3
X
SP
15. The given plot shows the variation, the potential energy (U) of interaction between two particles with the separating
distance (r) between them. Which of the above statements are correct ?
U A
(1) B and D are equilibrium points
(2) C is a point of stable equilibrium points
(3) The force of interaction between the two particles is attractive between E
points C and D and repulsive between points D and E on the curve. B F
D
C r
(4) The force of interaction between the particles is repulsive between points E
E
and F on the curve.

(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 4 (C) 2 and 4 (D) 2 and 3
16. A weight is hung freely from the end of a spring. A boy then slowly pushes the weight upwards until the
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spring becomes slack. The gain in gravitational poetential energy of the weight during this process is equal
to :
(A) The work done by the boy against the gravitational force acting on the weight.
(B) The loss of the stored energy by the spring minus the work done by the tension in the spring.
(C) The work done on the weight by the boy plus the stored energy lost by the spring.
(D) The work done on the weight by the boy minus the workdone by the tension in the spring plus
the stored energy lost by the spring.
17. A rope ladder with a length  carrying a man of mass m at its end is attached to the basket of balloon
with a mass M. The entire system is in equilibrium in the air. As the man climbs up the ladder into the
balloon, the balloon descends by a height h. Then the potential energy of the man :
(A) Increases by mg (–h) (B) Increases by mg
(C) Increases by mgh (D) Increases by mg (2–h)
PAGE NO : 38
18. A block attached to a spring, pulled by a constant horizontal force, is

kept on a smooth surface as shown in the figure. Initially, the spring is
in the natural state. Then the maximum positive work that the applied k F
force F can do is : [Given that spring does not break]
F2 2F 2 F2
(A) (B) (C)  (D)
k k 2k
19. A simple pendulum has a string of length  and bob of mass m. When the bob is at its lowest position, it
is given the minimum horizontal speed necessary for it to move in a circular path about the point of suspension.
The tension in the string at the lowest position of the bob is :
(A) 3mg (B) 4mg (C) 5mg (D) 6mg
20. In the previous question, when the string is horizontal, the net force on the bob is :
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(A) mg (B) 3mg (C) 10mg (D) 4mg
21. A particle of mass m is fixed to one end of a light rigid rod of length  and rotated in a vertical circular path
about its other end. The minimum speed of the particle at its highest point must be :
(A) zero (B) g (C) 1.5 g (D) 2g
22. A stone tied to a string of length L is whirled in a vertical circle, with the other end of the string at the centre.
23.
(A) u 2  2gL
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At a certain instant of time, the stone is at its lowest position and has a speed u. The magnitude of the change
in its velocity as it reaches a position where the string is horizontal is :
(B) 2gL (C) u 2  gL
A marble of mass m and radius b is placed in a hemispherical bowl of radius r. The minimum velocity to be
given to the marble so that it reaches the highest point is :
(D) 2(u 2  gL )
SP
(A) 2g(r  b) (B) 2gr (C) 2 g (r  b ) (D) g (r  b )
24. A particle is placed at the top of a sphere of radius r. It is given a little jerk so that it just starts slipping down.
Find the point where it leaves the sphere.
(A) r/2 (B) r/3 (C) r/4 (D) r
25. A particle is moving in a circular path with a constant speed v. If  is the angular displacement, then
starting from  = 0 0, the maximum and minimum change in the linear momentum will occur when value
E
of  is respectively :
(A) 45º & 90º (B) 90º & 180º (C) 180º & 360º (D) 90º & 270º
26. In a simple pendulum, the breaking strength of the string is double the weight of the bob. The bob is released
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from rest when the string is horizontal. The string breaks when it makes an angle  with the vertical–
1  1  2
(A)   cos   (B)  = 60° (C)   cos 1   (D)  = 0
 3  3
ANSWER KEY LEVEL– 1
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
C D C B D B A A A B C C B D C
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
C A B D C A D A B C C
PAGE NO : 39
PHYSICS
WORK , ENERGY & POWER & CIRCULAR MOTION -LEVEL 2

1. In the figure shown, the system is released from rest. Find the velocity of block
A when block B has fallen a distance 'l'. Assume all pulleys to be massless
and frictionless.
g
(A) (B) g A m P
5
m B
(C) 5g (D) None of these
2. A block of mass m is attached to two spring of spring constant k1 and k2 as shown in figure. The block is
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displaced by x towards right and released. The velocity of the block when it is at x/2 will be :
k1 k2
m
(k 1  k 2 )x 2 3 (k 1  k 2 )x 2 (k 1  k 2 )x 2 (k 1  k 2 )x 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2m 4 m m 4m
3. RI
An object of mass m slides down a hill of height h of arbitrary shape and after travelling a certain
horizontal path stops because of friction. The friction coefficient is different for different segments for the
entire path but is independent of the velocity and direction of motion. The work that a force must perform
to return the object to its initial position along the same path is :
(A) mgh (B) 2mgh (C) 4mgh (D) –mgh
SP
4. A bob hangs from a rigid support by an inextensible string of length l.
If it is displaced through a distance l (from the lowest position) keeping the
string straight & released, the speed of the bob at the lowest position is:
(A) g (B) 3g (C) 2g (D) 5g

E
1
5. A cube of mass M starts at rest from point 1 at a height 4R, where R is the
radius of the circular track. The cube slides down the frictionless track and
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around the loop. The force which the track exerts on the cube at point 2 is 4R 2
:
(A) 3 mg (B) mg R
(C) 2 mg (D) cube will not reach the point 2.
6. Two bodies of mass m 1 and m 2 (m 2 > m 1) are connected by a light inextensible

string which passes through a smooth fixed pulley. The instantaneous power
delivered by an external agent to pull m 1 with constant velocity v is :
(A) (m 2 – m 1) g/v (B) (m 2 – m 1) v/g
m1
(C) (m 2 – m 1) gv (D) (m 1 – m 2) gv
Fext m
2
PAGE NO : 40
7. A small block slides with velocity 0.5 gr on the horizontal frictionless surface as shown in the figure. The
block leaves the surface at point C. The angle  in the figure is :
v0
B
A
C
r vC
 r mg
O D
14 1 3 1 1 1 4
(A) cos (B) cos (C) cos (D) cos
9 4 2 5
8. A man places a chain of mass 'm' and length '' on a table slowly. Initially the lower end of the chain just
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touches the table. The man drops the chain when half of the chain is in vertical position. Then work done
by the man in this process is :
 mg  3mg  mg 
(A) mg (B)  (C)  (D) 
2 4 8 8
9. The potential energy of a particle of mass m free to move along x–axis is given by U =½ kx 2 for
x < 0 and U = 0 for x  0 (x denotes the x–coordinate of the particle and k is a positive constant). If
2E
10.
(A) zero
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the total mechanical energy of the particle is E, then its speed at x = –
(B)
2E
m
(C)
E
m
The blocks A and B shown in the figure have masses MA = 5 kg and MB = 4 kg.
k
The system is released from rest. The speed of B after A has travelled a distance
is :
(D)
E
2m
\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\
SP
1 m along the incline is :
A
3 3
(A) g (B) g
2 4 5m
g g 37°
B
(C) (D)
2 3 2
11. A collar 'B' of mass 2 kg is constrained to move along a horizontal smooth and fixed circular track of radius
5m. The spring lying in the plane of the circular track and having spring constant 200 N/m is undeformed
E
when the collar is at 'A'. If the collar starts from rest at B' the normal reaction exerted by the track on
the collar when it passes through 'A' is :
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B
5m
A C
7m D
(A) 360 N (B) 720 N (C) 1440 N (D) 2880 N
A
12. A particle is projected along a horizontal field whose coefficient of friction varies as µ = where r is
r2
the distance from the origin in meters and A is a positive constant. The initial distance of the particle is
1 m from the origin and its velocity is radially outwards. The minimum initial velocity at this point so that
particle never stops is :
(A)  (B) 2 gA (C) 2gA (D) 4 gA
PAGE NO : 41
13. Two identical blocks A and B are placed on two inclined planes as shown in diagram. Neglect air resistance
and other friction. Choose the correct statement :
A L N B
h h
Fixed Fixed
J K M O
Statement I: Kinetic energy of 'A' on sliding to J will be greater than the kinetic energy of B on falling
to M.
Statement II: Acceleration of 'A' will be greater than acceleration of 'B' when both are released to slide on inclined
plane.
Statement III : Work done by external agent to move block slowly from position B to O is negative
(A) statement I is true (B) statement II is true
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(C) statement I and III are true (D) statement II and III are true
14. Figure shows the roller coaster track. Each car will start from rest at A
point A and will roll with negligible friction. It is important that there
should be at least some small positive normal force exerted by the track
on the car at all points, otherwise the car would leave the track. With 25m
the above fact, the minimum safe value for the radius of curvature at
point B is (g = 10 m/s 2) :
RI //
//////
//
//
B
/
(A) 20 m (B) 10 m 15m
/ //
//
//
/ //
/
/
/////
(C) 40 m (D) 25 m
10
15. A particle 'A' of mass kg is moving in the positive x–direction. Its initial position is x = 0 & initial velocity
7
is 1 m/s. The velocity at x = 10m is : (use the graph given)
SP
Power
(in watts)
4
2
x
10 (in m)
(A) 4 m/s (B) 2 m/s (C) 3 2m / s (D) 100/3 m/s

E
16. A fire hose has a diameter of 2.5 cm and is required to direct a jet of water to a height of at least 40m.
The minimum power of the pump needed for this hose is :
(A) 21.5 kW (B) 40 kW (C) 36.5 kW (D) 48 kW
JE
17. A particle is projected vertically upwards with a speed of 16 m/s, after some time, when it again passes through
the point of projection, its speed is found to be 8 m/s. It is known that the work done by air resistance is same
during upward and downward motion. Then the maximum height attained by the particle is : (Take g = 10 m/
s 2)
(A) 8 m (B) 4.8 m (C) 17.6 m (D) 12.8 m
 
18.  
A force F  3î  4 ˆj N acts on a 2 kg movable object that moves from an initial position d i  3î  2ˆj m  

 
to final position d f  5î  4 ˆj in 6s. The average power delivered by the force during the interval is
equal to :
50 50
(A) 8 watt (B) watt (C) 15 watt (D) watt
6 3
PAGE NO : 42
19. A wedge of mass M fitted with a spring of stiffness 'k' is kept on

a smooth horizontal surface. A rod of mass m is kept on the
m
wedge as shown in the figure. System is in equilibrium. Assuming k
M
that all surfaces are smooth, the potential energy stored in the (
spring is:
mg 2 tan 2  m 2 g tan 2  m 2 g 2 tan 2  m 2 g 2 tan 2 
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2k 2k 2k k
20. In the figure, a block slides along a track from one level to a higher level, by moving through an
intermediate valley. The track is frictionless untill the block reaches the higher level. There a frictional
force stops the block in a distance d. The block's initial speed v 0 is 6 m/s, the height difference h is 1.1
m and the coefficient of kinetic friction µ is 0.6. The value of d is
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µ=0.6
v0
h
µ=0
(A) 1.17 m (B) 1.71 m (C) 7.11 m (D) 11.7 m
21. A ball rolls down an inclined plane figure. The ball is first released from rest from P and then later from
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Q. Which of the following statement is/are correct ?
(A) The ball takes twice as much time to roll from Q to O as it does to
roll from P to O.
(B) The acceleration of the ball at Q is twice as large as the acceleration at P.
(C) The ball has twice as much K.E. at O when rolling from Q as it does when
rolling from P
(D) None of the above
O
P
h
Q
2h
SP
22. A car of mass m starts moving so that its velocity varies according to the law v  a s , where a is a
constant, and s is the distance covered. The total work performed by all the forces which are acting on
the car during the first t seconds after the beginning of motion is :
(A) ma 4 t 2 /8 (B) ma 2 t 4 /8 (C) ma 4 t 2 /4 (D) ma 2 t 4/4
23. A block of mass m is attached with a massless spring of force constant k.

The block is placed over a rough inclined surface for which the coefficient
E
of friction is  = 3/4. The minimum value of M required to move the

block up the plane is : (Neglect mass of string and pulley and friction in m M
pulley)
37°
JE
3 4 3
(A) m (B) m (C) 2 m (D) m
5 5 2
24. A bob is suspended from a crane by a cable of length  = 5 m. The crane and load are moving at a
constant speed v 0. The crane is stopped by a bumper and the bob on the cable swings out an angle of
60°. The initial speed v 0 is– (g = 9.8 m/s 2 )
v0
(A) 10 m/s (B) 7 m/s (C) 4 m/s (D) 2 m/s
PAGE NO : 43
25. If one of the forces acting on a particle is conservative then :

(A) Its work is zero when the particle moves exactly once around any closed path.
(B) Its work equals the change in the kinetic energy of the particle.
(C) It obeys Newton's second law.
(D) Its work depends on the end points of the motion, not on the path between.
26. A particle of mass m = 1 kg lying on x–axis experiences a force given by law F=x(3x–2) Newton, where x is
the x–coordinate of the particle in meters. The points on x–axis where the particle is in equilibrium are :
(A) x = 0 (B) x = 1/3 (C) x = 2/3 (D) x = 1
27. With what minimum velocity v0 should block be projected from left end A towards end B such that it reaches
the other end B of conveyer belt moving with constant velocity v ? Friction coefficient between block and
belt is .
A m v0 B
 v
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(A) gL (B) 2 gL (C) 3 gL (D) 2 gL
28. A light spring of length 20 cm and force constant 2 N/cm is placed vertically on a table. A small block
of mass 1 kg falls on it. The length h from the surface of the table at which the block will have the maximum
29.
velocity is :
(A) 20 cm RI (B) 15 cm (C) 10 cm
In the figure shown all the surfaces are frictionless, and mass of the block,
m = 1 kg. The block and wedge are held initially at rest. Now wedge is given
a horizontal acceleration of 10 m/s 2 by applying a force on the wedge, so
(D) 5cm
m
10m/s
2
SP
that the block does not slip on the wedge. Then work done by the normal M

force in ground frame on the block in 3 seconds is :
(A) 30J (B) 60 J (C) 150 J (D) 100 3 J
30. When a conservative force does positive work on a body :

(A) The potential energy increases (B) The potential energy decreases
(C) Total energy increases (D) Total energy decreases
E
31. A 1.0 kg block collides with a horizontal weightless spring of force constant 2.75 Nm–1. The block compresses
the spring 4.0 m from the rest position. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and horizontal
surface is 0.25, the speed of the block at the instant of collision is :
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(A) 0.4 ms –1 (B) 4 ms –1 (C) 0.8 ms –1 (D) 8 ms –1
32. Acceleration versus time graph of a particle moving in a straight line is as a

2
(m/s )
shown in adjoining figure. If initially particle was at rest then corresponding
kinetic energy versus time graph will be:
t(s)
KE KE KE KE
(A) (B) (C) (D)

t
t t t
PAGE NO : 44
 y
33. A particle is moved from (0, 0) to (a, a) under a force F  (3î  4ˆj)
P(a, a)
from two paths. Path 1 is OP and path 2 is OQP. Let W 1 and W 2
be the work done by this force in these two paths. Then :
(A) W 1 = W 2 (B) W 1 = 2W 2 45°
(C) W 2 = 2W 1 (D) W 2 = 4W 1 x
O Q
34. A particle of mass m begins to slide down a fixed smooth sphere from the top. What is the tangential
acceleration when it breaks off the sphere?
2g 5g g
(A) (B) (C) g (D)
3 3 3
35. A machine, in an amusement park, consists of a cage of the end of one E
F D
arm, hinged at O. The cage revolves along a vertical circle of radius r
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(ABCDEFGH) about its hinge O, at constant linear speed v= gr . The
G C
cage is so attached that the man of weight 'W' standing on a weighing O
machine, inside the cage, is always vertical. Then which of the following is
H B
correct
A
(A) The weight reading at A is greater than the weight reading at E by 2W
(B) The weight reading at G = W
(C) The ratio of the weight reading at E to that at A = 0
(D) The ratio of the weight reading at A to that at C = 2
36.
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A hollow vertical cylinder of radius r and height h has a smooth internal surface. A small
particle is placed in contact with the inner side of the upper rim, at point A, and
given a horizontal speed u, tangential to the rim. It leaves the lower rim at point
B, vertically below A. If n is an integer then–
(A)
u 2h
n (B)
h
n
A u
h
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2 r g 2 r
B
2 r u
(C) n (D) n
h 2gh
37. The kinetic energy K of a particle moving along a circle of radius R depends upon the distance s, as
K = as². The force acting on the particle is–
1
s²  s²  2
(A) 2a (B) 2as  1  2  (C) 2as (D) 2a
E
R  R 
38. A simple pendulum of length L and mass (bob) M is oscillating in a plane about a vertical line between
angular limits – and . For an angular displacement , [||<] the tension in the string and velocity of
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the bob are T and v respectively. The following relations hold good under the above conditions
Mv 2
(A) T cos   Mg (B) T  Mg cos  
L
(C) Tangential acceleration = g sin  (D) T=Mg cos
LEVEL 2 ANSWER KEY

Q ue. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. A B B A A C B C A C C C D A A
Q ue. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. A A A C A C A A B A,C,D A,C B B C B
Q ue. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
Ans. D A A B A,B,C,D A B B,C
PAGE NO : 45
PHYSICS
CENTRE OF MASS LEVEL 1

1. The centre of mass of a non uniform rod of length L whose mass per unit length varies as  = kx2/L (where
k is a constant and x is the distance measured from one end) is at the following distance from the same
end.
(A) 3L/4 (B) L/4 (C) 2L/3 (D) L/3
2. Centre of mass of two uniform rods of same length but made up of different materials & kept as shown,
if the meeting point is the origin of co–ordinates
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L
x
L
(A) (L/2,L/2) (B) (2L/3,L/2) (C) (L/3,L/3) (D) (L/3,L/6)
3.
the vertex A is
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A uniform wire of length  is bent into the shape of 'V' as shown. The distance of its centre of mass from
A 60
0
B
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C
 3  3
(A)  / 2 (B) (C) (D) None of these
4 8
4. Three man A, B & C of mass 40 kg, 50 kg & 60 kg are standing on a plank of mass 90 kg, which is
kept on a smooth horizontal plane. If A & C exchange their positions then mass B will shift
50kg 60kg
E
40kg
A B C
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(A) 1/3 m towards left (B) 1/3m towards right

(C) will not move w.r.t. ground (D) 5/3 m towards left
5. Considering a system having two masses m 1 and m 2 in which first mass is pushed towards centre of mass by a
distance a, the distance required to be moved for second mass to keep centre of mass at same position is
m1 m2
a
m1 m1m 2 m2  m 2 m1 
(A) m a (B) (C) m a (D)  a
2 a 1  m 1  m 2 
PAGE NO : 46
CENTRE OF MASS PHYSICS
6. An isolated particle of mass m is moving in horizontal plane (x–y), along the x–axis, at a certain height
m 3m
above the ground. It suddenly explodes into two fragment of masses and . An instant later, the
he
4 4
smaller fragment is at y = +15 cm. The larger fragment at this instant is at :–
(A) y = –5 cm (B) y = +20 cm (C) y = +5 cm (D) y = –20 cm
7. Two particles A and B initially at rest, move towards each other under the mutual force of attraction.
At the instant when the speed of A is v and the speed of B is 2v, the speed of the centre of mass of
the system is:–
(A) 3v (B) v (C) 1.5v (D) zero
8. The velocity of centre of mass of the system as shown in the figure
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1kg 2m/s
y
x’ x 2 kg
0
30
y’
2m/s
9.
(A)
(C)
2 2 3


4iˆ
3 

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î  1 ˆj
3
2 2 3
(B) 
 3 

î  2 ˆj
(D) None of these

3
The figure shows the positions and velocities of two particles. If the particles move under the mutual
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attraction of each other, then the position of centre of mass at t =1 s is
5m/s 3m/s
1kg 1kg
x=2m x=8m
(A) x=5m (B) x=6m (C) x=3m (D) x=2m
10. A particle of mass 2m is connected by an inextensible string of length 1.2 m to a ring of mass m which
is free to slide on a horizontal smooth rod. Initially the ring and the particle are at the same level with the
string taut. Both are then released simultaneously. The distance in meters moved by the ring when the string
E
becomes vertical is
(A) 0 (B) 0.4 (C) 0.8 (D) 1.2
JE
11. A ball of mass 1 kg drops vertically on to the floor with a speed of 25 m/s. It rebounds with an initial
velocity of 10 m/s. What impulse acts on the ball during contact?
(A) 35kg m/s downwards (B) 35 kg m/s upwards
(C) 30 kg m/s downwards (D) 30kg m/s upwards
12. A particle of mass m is made to move with uniform speed v 0 along the perimeter of a regular hexagon,
inscribed in a circle of radius R. The magnitude of impulse applied at each corner of the hexagon is
(A) 2mv 0sin/6 (B) mv 0 sin/6 (C)mv 0sin/3 (D) 2mv 0sin/3
13. Two balls of same mass are dropped from the same height h, on to the floor. The first ball bounces to
a height h/4 ,after the collision & the second ball to a height h/16. The impulse applied by the first &
second ball on the floor are I 1 and I 2 respectively. Then
(A) 5I 1 = 6I 2 (B) 6I 1 = 5I 2 (C) I 1 = 2I 2 (D) 2I 1 = I 2
PAGE NO : 47
  
14. An impulse I changes the velocity of a particle from v 1 to v 2 . Kinetic energy gained by the particle is
1   1        
(A) ·(v 1  v 2 ) (B) ·(v 1  v 2 ) (C) ·(v 1  v 2 ) (D) ·(v 1  v 2 )
2 2
15. A particle of mass 4m which is at rest explodes into masses m, m & 2m. Two of the fragments of masses
m and 2m are found to move with equal speeds v each in opposite directions. The total mechanical energy
released in the process of explosion is
(A) mv2 (B) 2mv 2 (C) 1/2 mv 2 (D) 4mv 2
16. Two blocks A(3 kg) and B(2 kg) resting on a smooth horizontal surface is connected by a spring of stiffness
480N/m. Initially the spring is undeformed and a velocity of 2 m/s is imparted to A along the line of the
spring away from B. The maximum extension in meters of the spring during subsequent motion is
1 1
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1
(A) (B) (C) (D) 0.15
10 2 10 2 15
17. A cannon of mass 5m (including a shell of mass m) is at rest on a smooth horizontal ground, fires the shell
with its barrel at an angle  with the horizontal at a velocity u relative to cannon. Find the horizontal distance
of the point where shell strikes the ground from the initial position of the cannon:
4u 2 sin 2  u 2 sin 2  3u 2 sin 2  8 u 2 sin 2 

(A) (B) (C) (D)
5g 5g 5g 5g
18.
(A) 3vcos
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A shell is fired from a cannon with a velocity v (m/s) at an angle  with the horizontal direction. At the highest
point in its path it explodes into two pieces of equal mass. One of the pieces retraces its path to the cannon
and the speed (m/s) of the other piece immediately after the explosion is :–
(B) 2vcos (C)

3
2
vcos (D)
3
2
vcos
SP
19. A ball hits the floor and rebounds after an inelastic collision. In this case :–
(A) the momentum of the ball just after the collision is the same as that just before the collision
(B) the mechanical energy of the ball remains the same in the collision
(C) the total momentum of the ball and the earth is conserved
(D) the total energy of the ball and the earth is conserved
20. Three balls A, B and C (m A = m C = 4m B) are placed on a smooth horizontal surface. Ball B collides
with ball C with an initial velocity v as shown in the figure. Total number of collisions between the balls
E
will be (All collisions are elastic)

v
A B C
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(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
21. A body of mass 1 kg strikes elastically with another body at rest and continues to move in the same direction
with one fourth of the initial velocity. The mass of the other body is –
(A) 0.6 kg (B) 2.4 kg (C) 3 kg (D) 4 kg
22. A small bucket of mass M kg is attached to a long inextensible cord of length L m . The bucket is released
from rest when the cord is in a horizontal position. At its lowest position, the bucket scoops up m kg of
water and swings up to a height h. The height h in meters is
2 2
 M   M  M  m M  m
(A)  L (B)  L (C)  L (D)  L
 M  m  M  m   M  M 
PAGE NO : 48
23. A particle moving horizontally collides with a fixed plane inclined at 60o to the horizontal. If it bounces vertically,
the coefficient of restitution is:
1 2 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
3 3 3
24. A ball of mass 2m impinges directly on a ball of mass m, which is at rest. If the velocity with which the
larger ball impinges be equal to the velocity of the smaller mass after impact then the coefficient of restitution
1 3 1 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 4 2 5
25. A body of mass 2kg is projected upward from the surface of the ground at t = 0 with a velocity of
20m/s. One second later a body B, also of mass 2kg, is dropped from a height of 20m. If they collide
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elastically, then velocities just after collision are
(A) v A = 5 m/s downward, v B = 5 m/s upward (B) v A = 10 m/s downward, v B= 5 m/s upward
(C) v A = 10 m/s upward, v B = 10 m/s downward (D) both move downward with velocity 5 m/s
26. A ball of mass 1 kg strikes a heavy platform, elastically, moving upwards with a velocity 10 m/s
1kg
of 5m/s. The speed of the ball just before the collision is 10m/s downwards. Then
the impulse imparted by the platform on the ball is
27.
(A) 15 N–s
(C) 20 N–s RI (B) 10 N–s
(D) 30 N–s
Two particles of mass m, constrained to move along the circumference of a smooth
circular hoop of equal mass m, are initially located at opposite ends of a diameter
and given equal velocities v0 shown in the figure. The entire arrangement is located
v0
5 m/s
v0
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in gravity free space. Their velocity just before collision is
1 3 2 7
(A) v0 (B) v0 (C) v0 (D) v0
3 2 3 3
28. Two objects move in the same direction in a straight line. One moves with a constant velocity v1 . The other
starts at rest and has constant acceleration a. They collide when the second object has velocity 2v 1. The
distance between the two objects when the second one starts moving is
v 12 v 12 2 v 12
E
(A) zero (B) (C) (D)

2a a a
29. A uniform rope of linear mass density  and length  is coiled on a smooth horizontal
surface. One end is pulled up with constant velocity v. Then the average power applied
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by the external agent in pulling the entire rope just off the ground is :
1  2 g 1 3 vg 1 3
(A)  v 2  (B) gv (C) v  (D) gv  v
2 2 2 2 2
ANSWER KEY LEVEL – 1

Q u e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A D C B A A D B B C B A A A B A A A C B
Q u e. 2 1 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
Ans. A A C C A D D A C
PAGE NO : 49
PHYSICS
CENTRE OF MASS LEVEL 2
 
1. Two particles A and B start moving due to their mutual interaction only. If at any time 't', a A and a B
 
are their respective accelerations, v A and v B are their respective velocities, and upto that time W A and
nd
WB are the work done on A and B respectively by the mutual force, mA and mB are their masses respectively,
then which of the following is always correct.
     
(A) v A  v B  0 (B) m A v A  m B v B  0 (C) W A + W B = 0 (D) a A  a B  0
y
2. On a smooth carom board, a coin moving in negative y–direction with
a speed of 3 m/s is being hit at the point (4, 6) by a striker moving along
negative x–axis. The line joining centres of the coin and the striker just (4,6) u
before the collision is parallel to x–axis. After collision the coin goes into coin
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3m/s
the hole located at the origin. Masses of the striker and the coin are equal.
Considering the collision to be elastic, the initial and final speeds of the (0,0) x
striker in m/s will be–
(A) (1.2, 0) (B) (2, 0) (C) (3, 0) (D) None of these
3. A balloon having mass 'm' is filled with gas and is held in hands of a boy. Then suddenly it gets released
and gas starts coming out of it with a constant rate. The velocity of the ejected gas is 2m/s with respect
4.
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to the balloon. Find out the velocity of the balloon when the mass of gas is reduced to half.
(A) n 2 (B) 2n 4 (C) 2n 2
Two men 'A' and 'B' are standing on a plank. 'B' is at the middle of
the plank and 'A' is at the left end of the plank. Surface of the plank
is smooth. System is initially at rest and masses are as shown in figure.
40kg
A
(D) None of these
60kg
B
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A and B starts moving such that the position of 'B' remains fixed with smooth
40kg
respect to ground then 'A' meets 'B'. Then the point where A meets B
120cm
is located at–
(A) the middle of the plank (B) 30 cm from the left end of the plank
(C) the right end of the plank (D) None of these
5. A gun which fires small balls of mass 20 gm is firing 20
E
balls per second on the smooth horizontal table surface

ABCD. If the collision is perfectly elastic and balls are striking D C
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at the centre of table with a speed 5 m/s at an angle of

60° with the vertical just before collision, then force exerted
A B
by one of the leg on ground is (assume total weight of the
table is 0.2 kg and g = 10 m/ s2 ) :
(A) 0.5 N (B) 1 N
(C) 0.25 N (D) 0.75 N
6. A ball is bouncing down a set of stairs. The coefficient of restitution is e. The height of each step is d
and the ball bounces one step at each bounce. After each bounce the ball rebounds to a height h above
the next lower step. Neglect width of each step in comparison to h and assume the impacts to be effectively
head on. Which of the following relation is correct ?
h h h 1 h 1
(A) = 1 – e2 (B) = 1 – e (C) = (D) =
d d d 1  e2 d 1e
PAGE NO : 50
CENTRE OF MASS
PHYSICS
7. The diagram shows the velocity–time graph for two masses

v(m/s)
R and S that collided elastically. Which of the following
1.2
statements is true ? R S
I. R and S moved in the same direction after the collision 0.8
II. The velocities of R and S were equal at the mid time
0.4
of the collision.
III. The mass of R was greater than mass of S. 1 2 3 4 t(s)
(A) I only (B) II only (C) I and II only (D) I, II and III
8. A system of two blocks A and B are connected by an inextensible massless strings as shown.
The pulley is massless and frictionless. Initially the system is at rest when, a bullet of mass
'm' moving with a velocity 'u' as shown hits the block 'B' and gets embedded into it. The m
impulse imparted by tension force to the block of mass 3m is– u
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mB
5mu 4mu 2mu 3mu A 3m
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 5 5 5
9. A piece of paper (shown in figure1) is in form of a square.

Two corners of this square are folded to make it appear like
2a 2a O
O
figure.2 . Both corners are put together at centre of square 'O'.
If O is taken to be (0,0), the centre of mass of new system will
10.
be at
 a 
(A)   ,0 
8
RI  a 
(B)   , 0 
6
 a 
(C)  , 0 
12
Fig.1
An arrow sign is made by cutting and rejoining a quarter part of a square plate of
 a
12

(D)   , 0 
Fig.2
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side 'L' as shown. The distance OC, where 'C' is the centre of mass of the arrow, is
L L 3L
3 4 8
11. A block of mass M is tied to one end of a massless rope. The other
end of the rope is in the hands of a man of mass 2M as shown
in the figure. The block and the man are resting on a rough wedge 2M
M
of mass M as shown in the figure. The whole system is resting on
E
a smooth horizontal surface. The man pulls the rope. Pulley is 2m M
massless and frictionless. What is the displacement of the wedge

when the block meets the pulley. (Man does not leave his position
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during the pull)

(A) 0.5m (B) 1m (C) Zero (D) 2/3 m
12. A continuous stream of particles of mass m and velocity v, is emitted from a source at a rate of n per second.
The particles travel along a straight line, collide with a body of mass M and get embedded in the body. If
the mass M was originally at rest, its velocity when it has received N particles will be
mvn mvN mv Nm  M
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Nm  n Nm  M Nm  M mv
13. Three particles start from origin at the same time with a velocity 2ms –1 along positive x–axis, the second
with a velocity 6ms–1 along negative y–axis. Find the velocity of the third particle along x=y line so that the
three particles may always lie in a straight line
(A) 3 3 (B) 3 2 (C) 3 2 (D) 2 2
PAGE NO : 51
14. A bead can slide on a smooth straight wire and a particle of mass m 2m
attached to the bead by a light string of length L. The particle is held
in contact with the wire and with the string taut and is then let fall. If m
the bead has mass 2m then when the string makes an angle  with the
wire, the bead will have slipped a distance
L L L

(A) L (1  cos ) (B)   (1  cos ) (C)   (1  cos ) (D)   (1  cos )
2 3 6
15. A body of mass M moves in outer space with velocity v. It is desired to break the body into two parts so
that the mass of one part is one–tenth of the total mass. After the explosion, the heavier part comes to rest
while the lighter part continues to move in the original direction of motion. The velocity of the small part
will be
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 v  v 
(A) v (B)   (C)   (D) 10 v
2 10
A
16. A ball of mass m is released from A inside a smooth wedge of mass m as shown
in the figure. What is the speed of the wedge when the ball reaches point B ? 450
B
1/2 1/2
 gR   5gR  3
(A)  (B) 2gR (C)  (D) gR
 3 2   2 3  2
smooth
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1 7 . . A uniform metallic spherical shell is suspended from ceiling. It has two holes A and B
at top and bottom respectively. Which of the following is/are true:
(A) If B is closed and sand is poured from A, centre of mass first rises and then falls
(B) If shell is completely filled with sand and B is opened then centre of mass falls initially
(C) If shell is slightly filled with sand and B is opened, then centre of mass falls.
A
sand
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(D) None of these B
18. If both the blocks as shown in the given arrangement are given together a 1kg µ=0.1
horizontal velocity towards right. If acm be the subsequent acceleration of 2 kg µ=0.2

the centre of mass of the system of blocks then a cm equals
5 7
(A) 0 m/ s2 (B) m/s 2 (C) m/s 2 (D) 2 m/s 2
3 3
19. A bead of mass m and diameter d is sliding back and forth with velocity v on a wire held between two rigid
E
walls of length L. Assume that the collisions with the wall are perfectly elastic and there is no friction. The
average force that the bouncing bead exerts on the one of the walls is
mv 2 mv 2 2m v2 2m v2
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(A) (B) (C) (D)

L d Ld L d L d
20. A set of n–identical cubical blocks lies at rest parallel to each other along a line on a smooth horizontal surface.
The separation between the near surfaces of any two adjacent blocks is L. The block at one end is given
a speed v towards the next one at time t = 0. All collisions are completely inelastic, then
L
(A) The last block starts moving at t = n (n–1)
2v
L
(B) The last block starts moving at t = (n–1)
v
v
(C) The centre of mass of the system will have a final speed
n
(D) The centre of mass of the system will have a final speed v.
PAGE NO : 52
21. The Fig. shows a string of equally placed beads of mass m, separated by distance d. The beads are free
to slide without friction on a thin wire. A constant force F acts on the first bead initially at rest till it makes
collision with the second bead. The second bead then collides with the third and so on. Suppose that all collisions
are elastic,
F d
(A) Speed of the first bead immediately before and immediately after
2Fd 1 2 3 4
its collision with the second bead is and zero respectively.
m
(B) Speed of the first bead immediately before and immediately after its collision with the secondbead is
2Fd 1 2Fd
and respectively.
m 2 m
(C) Speed of the second bead immediately after its collision with third bead is zero.
1 2Fd
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(D) The average speed of the first bead is .
2 m
22. Two persons A and B of weight 80 kg and 50 kg respectively

are standing at opposite ends of a boat of mass 70 kg and
length 2m at rest. When they interchange their positions then
displacement of the centre of mass of the boat will be:
(A) 60 cm towards left (B) 30 cm towards right
A B
23. RI
(C) 30 cm towards left (D) stationary
In a one dimensional collision between two identical particles A and B, B is stationary and A has momentum
p before impact. During impact, B gives impulse J to A.
(A) The total momentum of the 'A plus B' system is p before and after the impact, and (p–1) during the impact.
(B) During the impact A gives impulse J to B
SP
2J
(C) The coefficient of restitution is 1
p
J
(D) The coefficient of restitution is 1
p
24. Two balls of same mass are dropped from the same height onto the floor. The first ball bounces upwards
from the floor elastically. The second ball sticks to the floor. The first applies an impulse to the floor of I1
and the second applies an impulse I 2 . The impulses obey
E
I1 I1
(A) I 2 = 2I 1 (B) I 2= (C) I 2 = 4I 1 (D) I 2 =
2 4
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4m/s
25. A small ball falling vertically downward with constant velocity 4m/s strikes
elastically a massive inclined cart moving with velocity 4m/s horizontally as
4m/s
shown. The velocity of the rebound of the ball is 45°
(A) 4 2 m/s (B) 4 3 m/s
(C) 4 m/s (D) 4 5 m/s
26. A particle of mass 4m which is at rest explodes into four equal fragments. All v
4 fragments scattered in the same horizontal plane. Three fragments are found to
move with velocity v each as shown in the fig. The total energy released in the process
0
of explosion is 90
v
(A) mv 2 (3– 2 ) (B) mv 2 (3– 2 )/2
1350
(C) 2mv 2 (D mv 2 (1+ 2 )/2 v
PAGE NO : 53
27. The fig. shows the velocity as a function of the time for an object with mass 10
kg being pushed along a frictionless surface by external force. At t= 3s, the force V
stops pushing and the object moves freely. It then collides head on and sticks
15
to another object of mass 25 kg.
(A) External force acting on the system is 50 N 5
nd
(B) Velocity of the 2 particle just before the collision is 1 m/s t
3 4 6
(C) Before collision both bodies are moving in the same direction
(D) Before collision, bodies are moving in opposite direction with respect to each other
28. A particle of mass m = 0.1 kg is released from rest from a point A of a wedge A
of mass M = 2.4 kg free to slide on a frictionless horizontal plane. The particle slides
m
down the smooth face AB of the wedge. When the velocity of the wedge is
0.2 m/s the velocity of the particle in m/s relative to the wedge is v
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V
M 60 0
B
(A) 4.8 (B) 5 (C) 7.5 (D) 10
m=4kg
29. A ball of mass 1 kg is suspended by an inextensible string 1 m long attached
A O B
to a point O of a smooth horizontal bar resting on a fixed smooth supports A 0
30
and B. The ball is released from rest from the position when the string makes
an angle of 30° with the vertical. The mass of the bar is 4 kg. The displacement
30.
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in meters of the bar when the string makes the maximum angle on the other
side of the vertical is
(A) 0 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.25
Find the distance between centre of gravity and centre of mass of a two particle
system attached to the ends of a light rod. Each particle has same mass. Length
m=1kg
(D) 0.5
m
m
SP
of the rod is R, where R is the radius of earth
(A) R (B) R/2 (C) zero (D) R/4
31. After scaling a wall of 3 m height a man of weight W drops himself to the ground. If his body comes to a
complete stop in 0.15 s. After his feet touch the ground, calculate the average impulsive force in the vertical
direction exerted by ground on his feet.
(A) 5W (B) 5.21W (C) 3W (D) 6 W
3
32. An open water tight railway wagon of mass 5 x 10 kg coasts at an initial velocity 1.2 m/s without friction
E
on a railway track. Rain drops fall vertically downwards into the wagon. The velocity of the wagon after it
has collected 10 3 kg of water will be
(A) 0.5 m/s (B) 2m/s (C) 1 m/s (D) 1.5 m/s
JE
33. Three blocks A, B and C each of mass m are placed on a surface as shown in the figure. Blocks B and
C are initially at rest. Block A is moving to the right with speed v. It collides with block B and sticks to it.
The A–B combination collides elastically with block C. Which of the following statement is (are) true about
the velocity, of block B and C.
m m m
(A) Velocity of the block C after collision is 2/3 v towards right
A B C
v
(B) Velocity of the A–B combination after collision is towards leftt
3
2
(C) Velocity of the A–B combination after collision is v towards leftt
3
v
(D) Velocity of the block C after collision is towards right.
3
PAGE NO : 54
34. Two masses A and B of mass M and 2M respectively are connected M A uk̂
by a compressed ideal spring. The system is placed on a horizontal X
frictionless table and given a velocity ukˆ in the z–direction as shown
uk̂ ˆ
i
in the figure. The spring is then released. In the subsequent motion the Z
line from B to A always points along the î unit vector. At some instant k̂
of time mass B has a x–component of velocity as v î . The velocity
x 2M B uk̂

v A of mass A at that instant is
(A) v x î  ukˆ (B) – v x î  ukˆ (C) –2 v x î  ukˆ (D) 2 v x î  ukˆ

A
35. A disk A of radius r moving on perfectly smooth surface at a speed v B
v
undergoes an elastic collision with an identical stationary disk B. Find the
r/2
velocity of the disk B after collision if the impact parameter is r/2 as
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shown in the figure
15 v v 3v
(A) v (B) (C) (D)
4 4 2 2
36. A spherical ball of mass 1 kg moving with a uniform speed of 1 m/s collides symmetrically with two identical spherical
balls of mass 1 kg each at rest touching each other. If the two balls move with 0.5m/s in two directions at the same
angle of 60° with the direction of the first ball, the loss of kinetic energy on account of the collision is :
37.
(A) 0.125 J
RI (B) 0.5J (C) 1.0 J (D) 0.75J

A smooth sphere A of mass m collides elastically with an identical sphere B at rest. The velocity of A before
collision is 8 m/s in a direction making 60° with the line of centres at the time of impact.
(A) The sphere A comes to rest after collision.
(B) The sphere B will move with a speed of 8 m/s after collision.
(C) The directions of motion A and B after collision are at right angles.
SP
(D) The speed of B after collision is 4 m/s.
38. A particle moving with kinetic energy = 3J makes an elastic head–on collision with a stationary particle which
has twice its mass. During the impact,
(A) the minimum kinetic energy of the system is 1J.
(B) the maximum elastic potential energy of the system is 2J.
(C) momentum and total energy are conserved at every instant.
(D) the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy of the system first decreases and then increases.
E
39. Two blocks A and B each of mass m, are connected by a massless

v
spring of natural length L and spring constant k. The blocks are initially
C A B
resting on a smooth horizontal floor with the spring at its natural length,
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as shown in fig. A third identical block C, also of mass m, moves on

the floor with a speed v along the line joining A and B, and collides elastically
with A. Then :–
(A) the kinetic energy of the A–B system, at maximum compression of the spring, is zero
mv 2
(B) the kinetic energy of the A–B system, at maximum compression of the spring, is
4
m
(C) the maximum compression of the spring is v  
k
m
(D) the maximum compression of the spring is v
2k
PAGE NO : 55
CENTRE OF MASS
PHYSICS
40. Assuming potential energy 'U' at ground level to be zero.
Solid Cone Solid Cylinder

Solid Cube Q
Solid sphere Q S
P
D
D D D D
U=0
D D D
All objects are made up of same material.

U P = Potential energy of solid sphere U Q = Potential energy of solid cube
U R = Potential energy of solid cone U S = Potential energy of solid cylinder
(A) U S > U P (B) U Q > U S (C) U P > U Q (D) U S > U R
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41. A bag of mass M hangs by a long thread and a bullet (mass m) comes horizontally with velocity v and gets
caught in the bag. Then for the combined system (bag + bullet) :
(A) Momentum is mMv/(M + m) (B) kinetic energy is (1/2) Mv 2
(C) Momentum is mv (D) kinetic energy is m 2 v 2 /2(M + m)
42.
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A ball moving with a velocity v hits a massive wall moving towards the ball with a velocity u. An elastic
impact lasts for a time t.
(A) The average elastic force acting on the ball is

m (u  v )
t
2m(u  v )
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(B) The average elastic force acting on the ball is
t
(C) The kinetic energy of the ball increases by 2mu(u + v)
(D) The kinetic energy of the ball remains the same after the collision
E
JE

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans . B B C C B C D D D B A B B C D
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans . A B D A A,C A,C C B,C B D A A,B,C D B C
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
Ans . B C A C A A C,D A,B,C,D B,D A,B,D C,D B,C
PAGE NO : 56
PHYSICS
ROTATION (LEVEL 1)
Select the correct alternative (only one correct answer)
1. On account of the earth rotating about its axis :-
(A) the linear velocity of objects at equator is greater than at other places
(B) the angular velocity of objects at equator is more than that of objects at poles
(C) the linear velocity of objects at all places at the earth is equal, but angular velocity is different
(D) at all places the angular velocity and linear velocity are uniform
2. A fly wheel originally at rest is to reach an angular velocity of 36 radian/s in 6 second. The total angle it turns
through in the 6 second is
(A) 54 radian (B) 108 radian (C) 6 radian (D) 216 radian
3. The rotating rod starts from rest and acquires a rotational speed n = 600 revolution/minute in 2 seconds with
constant angular acceleration. The angular acceleration of the rod is
(A) 10  rad/s2 (B) 5  rad/s2 (C) 15  rad/s2 (D) None of these
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4. The number of revolutions must the 60 cm diameter wheel of a car turn as the car travels 2.5 km is
(A) 8000 revolution (B) 1000 revolution (C) 1330 revolution (D) 500 revolution
5. Two gear wheels which are meshed together have radii of 0.50 cm and 0.15 cm. The number of revolutions
does the smaller turns when the larger turns through 3 revolution is
(A) 5 revolution (B) 20 revolution (C) 1 revolution (D) 10 revolution
6. The radius of a wheel of a car is 0.4m. The car is accelerated from rest by an angular acceleration of
7. RI
1.5 rad/s2 for 20s. The linear velocity of the wheel is
(A) 10 m/s (B) 3 m/s (C) 12 m/s
In the adjoining figure along which axis the moment of inertia of
the triangular lamina will be maximum- [Given that AB < BC < AC]
(A) AB
(B) BC
(D) 2 m/s
A
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C
(C) CA B
(D) For all axis
8. Three particles, each of mass m are situated at the vertices of an equilateral X m C

triangle ABC of side  cm (as shown in the figure). The moment of inertia of
the system about a line AX perpendicular to AB and in the plane of ABC, in
gram cm 2 units will be :–
m
5 3 3 m Y
(A) 2 m 2 (B) m 2 (C) m 2 (D) m 2 A B
E
4 2 4
9. A circular disc is to be made by using iron and aluminium so that it acquired maximum moment of inertia about
geometrical axis. It is possible with :–
(A) aluminium at interior and iron surrounded to it.
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(B) iron at interior and aluminium surrounded to it.

(C) using iron and aluminium layers in alternate order.
(D) sheet of iron is used at both external surface and aluminium sheet as internal layer. E
A B
10. We have a rectangular slab of same thickness. E, F, G, H are the middle point
of AB, BC, CD and AD respectively then which of the following axis the moment H F
of inertia will be minimum :–
(A) AD (B) EG D C
G
(C) BD (D) HF
11. Two disc one of density 7.2 g/cm3 and the other of density 8.9 g/cm3 are of same mass and thickness. Their
moments of inertia are in the ratio :–
8.9 7.2
(A) (B) (C) (8.9 × 7.2) : 1 (D) 1 : (8.9 × 7.2)
7.2 8.9
PAGE NO : 57
ROTATION
PHYSICS
12. Off two eggs which have identical sizes, shapes and weights, one is raw and the other is half-boiled. The ratio
between the moment of inertia of the raw egg and that of the half-boiled egg about a central axis is :–
(A) one (B) greater than one (C) less than one (D) incomparable
13. The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of mass M and length  about an axis perpendicular to the rod,
through its centre is I. The moment of inertia of the rod about an axis perpendicular to the rod through its end
point is :–
(A) I/4 (B) I/2 (C) 2I (D) 4I
1
14. The moment of inertia of a rod about an axis through its centre and perpendicular to it is ML2 (where M
12
is the mass and L is the length of the rod). The rod is bent in the middle so that the two half make an angle
of 60°. The moment of inertia of the bent rod about the same axis would be :–
1 1 1 ML3
(A) ML 2 (B) ML 2 (C) ML 2 (D)
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48 12 24 8 3
15. Four similar point masses (each of mass m) are placed on the circumference of a disc of mass M and radius
R. The M.I. of the system about the normal axis through the centre O will be:-
1 O
(A) MR2 + 4mR 2 (B) MR 2 + 4mR 2
2
8
(C) MR 2 + mR 2 (D) None of these
16.
(A)
2
mr 2
5
RI
Two rings of the same radius and mass are placed such that their centres are at a common point and their planes
are perpendicular to each other. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through the centre
and perpendicular to the plane of one of the rings is (mass of the ring = m, radius = r) :–
1
(B) mr 2 (C)
3
2
mr 2 (D) 2mr 2
SP
17. Three point masses, each of m, are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side . Then the moment
of inertia of this system about an axis along one side of the triangle is :–
3 3
(A) 3 m 2 (B) m 2 (C) m 2 (D) m 2
4 2
18. Two rods each of mass m and length  are joined at the centre to form a cross. The moment of inertia of this cross
about an axis passing through the common centre of the rods and perpendicular to the plane formed by them, is :–
m 2 m 2 m 2 m 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
E
12 6 3 2
–24
19. If the mass of hydrogen atom is 1.7 × 10 g and interatomic distance in a molecule of hydrogen is
4 × 10–8 cm, then the moment of inertia [in kg-m 2] of a molecule of hydrogen about the axis passing through
JE
the centre of mass and perpendicular to the line joining the atoms will be:–
(A) 6.8 × 10 –32 (B) 1.7 × 10 –24 (C) 13.6 × 10 –27 (D) 13.6 × 10 –47
20. If a body completes one revolution in  sec then the moment of inertia would be:–
(A) Equal to rotational kinetic energy (B) Double of rotational kinetic energy
(C) Half of rotational kinetic energy (D) Four times of the rotational kinetic energy
21. For the same total mass which of the following will have the largest moment of inertia about an axis passing
through its centre of mass and perpendicular to the plane of the body
(A) a disc of radius a (B) a ring of radius a
(C) a square lamina of side 2a (D) four rods forming a square of side 2a
22. Two rods of equal mass m and length  lie along the x axis and y axis with their centres origin. What is the
moment of inertia of both about the line x=y :
m 2 m 2 m 2 m 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 4 12 6
PAGE NO : 58
ROTATION
PHYSICS
23. A rigid body can be hinged about any point on the x-axis. when it is hinged such that the hinge is at x, the
moment of inertia is given by I = x 2–2x + 99. The x-coordinate of centre of mass is :–
(A) x=2 (B) x=0 (C) x=1 (D) x=3
24. The axis X and Z in the plane of a disc are mutually perpendicular and Y-axis is perpendicular to the plane
of the disc. If the moment of inertia of the body about X and Y axes is respectively 30 kg m 2 and 40 kgm 2
then M.I. about Z-axis in kg m 2 will be:–
(A) 70 (B) 50 (C) 10 (D) Zero
25. A wheel is rotating about an axis through its centre at 720 rpm. It is acted on by a constant torque opposing
its motion for 8 second to bring it to rest finally. The value of torque in Nm is :– (given I  24 kg  m 2 )

(A) 48 (B) 72 (C) 96 (D) 120
26. A rod of mass M and length L is placed in a horizontal plane with one end hinged about the vertical axis. A
Mg 5L
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horizontal force of F= is applied at a distance from the hinged end. The angular acceleration of the
2 6
rod will be :-
4g 5g 3g 4g
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5L 4L 4L 3L
27. A person supports a book between finger and thumb as shown (the point of grip is assumed to
a
be at the corner of the book). If the book has a weight of W then the person is producing a torque
28.
on the book of
a
2
RI b
(A) W anticlockwise (B) W anticlockwise
2
(C) Wa anticlockwise
A string is wrapped around the rim of a wheel of moment of inertia 0.20 kg-m2 and
(D) Wa clockwise
radius 20 cm. The wheel is free to rotate about its axis and initially the wheel is rest.
The string is now pulled by a force of 20N. The angular velocity of the string after
20N
b
SP
5 seconds will be :–
(A) 90 rad/s (B) 70 rad/s
(C) 95 rad/s (D) 100 rad/s
29. In the figure (A) half of the meter scale is made of wood while the other half of steel. The wooden part is pivoted
at O. A force F is applied at the end of steel part. In figure (B) the steel part is pivoted at O' and the same
force is applied at the wooden end:– wood steel steel wood
(A) More angular acceleration will be produced in (A)
E
O P O' P'
(B) More angular acceleration will be produced in (B)
(C) Same angular acceleration will be produced in both conditions (A) F (B) F
(D) Information is incomplete
JE
30. In the following figure r1 and r2 are 5 cm and 30 cm respectively. If the moment 10N
of inertia of the wheel is 5100 kg-m 2 then its angular acceleration will be :- °
30 r1
(A) 10 –4 rad/sec 2 (B) 10 –3 rad/sec 2
12N
(C) 10 –2 rad/sec 2 (D) 10 –1 rad/sec 2 r2
9N
31. A non uniform rod OA of liner mass density    0 x   0  co nst. is suspended from ceiling with hinge joint
O & light string as shown in figure. Find the angular acceleration of rod just after the string is cut
2g g
(A) (B)
L L O g
4g x
(C) (D) None of these A
3L
PAGE NO : 59
ROTATION PHYSICS
32. If the earth is a point mass of 6 × 1024 kg revolving around the sun at a distance of 1.5 × 108 km and in time
T= 3.14 × 107 second, then the angular momentum of the earth around the sun is :–
(A) 1.2 × 10 18 kg m 2/s (B) 1.8 × 10 20 kg m 2/s (C) 1.5 × 10 37 kg m 2/s (D) 2.7 × 10 40 kg m 2/s
33. A particle of mass m moves with a constant velocity. Which of the following statements is not correct about its
angular momentum : Y
D E
(A) it is zero when it is at A and moving along OA
(B) the same at all points along the line DE A C
(C) of the same magnitude but oppositely directed at B and D

(D) increases as it moves along the line BC B
O X
34. A thin rod of mass M and length L is struck at one end by a ball of clay of mass m, moving with speed v
as shown in figure. The ball sticks to the rod. After the collision, the angular momentum of the clay-rod system
NT
about A, the midpoint of the rod, is
 M   vL   M   vL 
(A)  m     (B)  m     900
3 2 12 2
A
mvL
(C) (D) mvL
2
35.
(A)
n
hour
RI
If the earth were to suddenly contract to
of the new day will be nearly :–
24
(B) 24n hour
1
n
th of its present radius without any change in its mass then the duration
(C)
24
n2
hour (D) 24n 2 hour
SP
36. The angular velocity of a body changes from 1 to 2 without applying torque. The ratio of initial radius of gyration
to the final radius of gyration is :–
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 2: 1 (D) 1 : 2
37. A circular turn table has a block of ice placed at its centre. The system rotates with an angular speed  about
an axis passing through the centre of the table. If the ice melts on its own without any evaporation, the speed
of rotation of the system :–
(A) becomes zero (B) remains constant at the same value of 
E
(C) increases to value greater than  (D) decreases to a value less than 
38. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius ‘r’ is rotating about its axis with a constant angular velocity . Four
JE
objects each of mass m, are kept gently to the opposite ends of two perpendicular diameters of the ring. The
new angular velocity of the ring will be :–
M M (M  4m ) (M  4m )
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4m M  4m M M  4m
39. A person is standing on the edge of a circular platform, which is moving with constant angular speed about an
axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to the plane of platform. If person is moving along any radius
towards axis of rotation then the angular velocity will :–
(A) decrease (B) remain unchanged (C) increase (D) data is insufficient
40. An ant is sitting at the edge of a rotating disc. If the ant reaches the other end, after moving along the diameter,
the angular velocity of the disc will :-
(A) remain constant (B) first decreases and then increases
(C) first increases, then decrease (D) Increase continuously
PAGE NO : 60
ROTATION PHYSICS
41. A boy stands over the centre of a horizontal platform which is rotating freely with a speed of
2 revolutions/s about a vertical axis through the centre of the platform and straight up through the boy. He
holds 2 kg masses in each of his hands close to his body. The combined moment of inertia of the system is
1 kg-m.2. The boy now stretches his arms so as to hold the masses far from his body. In this situation the moment
of inertia of the system increases to 2 kg-m.2. The kinetic energy of the system in the latter case as compared
with that in the previous case will-
(A) Remain unchanged (B) Decrease (C) Increase (D) Remain uncertain
42. A horizontal platform is rotating with uniform angular velocity around the vertical axis passing through its centre.
At some instant of time a viscous fluid of mass ‘‘m’’ is dropped at the centre and is allowed to spread out and
finally fall. The angular velocity during this period :–
(A) Decreases continuously (B) Decreases initially and increases again
(C) Remains unaltered (D) Increases continuously
43. A particle starts from the point (0m, 8m) and moves with uniform velocity of 3î m/s . After 5 seconds, the
NT
angular velocity of the particle about the origin will be y
3m/s
8 3
(A) rad/s (B) rad/s
289 8
8m
24 8
(C) rad/s (D) rad/s x
289 17 O
44.
(A) First
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Two rotating bodies have same angular momentum but their moments of inertia are I 1 and I 2 respectively
(I 1>I 2). Which body will have higher kinetic energy of rotation:–
(C) Both will have same kinetic energy

(B) Second
(D) Not possible to predict
SP
45. A thin rod of length L is suspended from one end and rotated with n rotations per second. The rotational kinetic
energy of the rod will be:–
1 2 1
(A) 2mL 22 n 2 (B) mL 22n 2 (C) mL 22 n 2 (D) mL 2  2n 2
2 3 6
46. A rigid body of mass m rotates with angular velocity  about an axis at a distance d from the centre of mass G. The
radius of gyration about a parallel axis through G is K. The kinetic energy of rotation of the body is :–
1 1 1 1
mk 2 2 md 2 2 m(d 2  k 2 ) 2 m (d  k )2  2
E
(A) (B) (C) (D)

2 2 2 2
47. A weightless rod is acted on by upward parallel forces of 2N and 4N at ends A and B respectively. The total length
JE
of the rod is AB =3 m. To keep the rod in equilibrium a force of 6N should act in the following manner:–
(A) Downwards at any point between A and B (B) Downwards at mid point of AB
(C) Downwards at a point C such that AC =1m (D) Downwards at a point D such that BD =1m
48. In an experiment with a beam balance an unknown mass m is balanced by two known masses of 16kg and
4 kg as shown in figure. The value of the unknown mass m is :–
1 2 1 2
16kg m m 4kg
(A) 10 kg (B) 6 kg (C) 8 kg (D) 12 kg
PAGE NO : 61
ROTATION
PHYSICS
49. A rod is hinged at its centre and rotated by applying a constant torque starting from rest. The power developed
by the external torque as a function of time is :–
Pext Pext Pext Pext
(A) (B) (C) (D)
time time time time

50. If a ring, a disc, a solid sphere and a cylinder of same radius rolls down on inclined plane, the first one to reach
the bottom will be :–
(A) disc (B) ring (C) solid sphere (D) cylinder
51. A body is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface and its rotational kinetic energy is equal to the translational
kinetic energy. The body is :–
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(A) disc (B) sphere (C) cylinder (D) ring
52. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls without slipping down an inclined plane of length L and height
h. What is the speed of its centre of mass when the cylinder reaches its bottom :–
3 4
(A) 2 gh gh
(B) (C) gh (D) 4 gh
4 3
53. A disc of mass M and radius R rolls on a horizontal surface and then rolls up an inclined plane as shown in the
figure. If the velocity of the disc is v, the height to which the disc will rise will be :–
(A)
(C)
v2
4g
3v 2
2g RI (B)
(D)
v2
2g
3v2
4g
v
h
SP
54. A solid sphere is rolling on a frictionless surface, shown in figure with a translational velocity v m/s. If it is to
climb the inclined surface then v should be:–
v h
(A)  10 7 gh (B) > 2 gh (C) 2gh (D) 10/7gh
55. A rod hinged at one end is released from the horizontal position as shown C A
in the figure. When it becomes vertical its lower half separates without exerting
any reaction at the breaking point. Then the maximum angle '  ' made by
E

the hinged upper half with the vertical is
(A) 30 0 (B) 45 0 B
(C) 60 0 (D) 90 0
JE
C
56. There is rod of length . The velocities of its two ends are v 1 and v 2 in opposite directions normal to the
rod. The distance of the instantaneous axis of rotation from v 1 is :–
v2 v1
(A) Zero (B) v  v  (C) v  v (D) 2
1 2 1 2
ANSWER KEY LEVEL -1
Q u e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A B A C D C A B A B A B D B B C C B D C
Q u e. 2 1 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. D C C C B B B D B B C D D C C A D B C C
Q u e. 4 1 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56
Ans. B A B B C C D C B C D C B B C C
PAGE NO : 62
PHYSICS
ROTATION (LEVEL 2)
O
1. A thin rod of length 4, mass 4m is bent at the points as shown in the fig.
What is the moment of inertia of the rod about the axis passing point O 90° 90°
& perpendicular to the plane of the paper
m 2 10m 2 m 2 m 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 12 24

2. A smooth tube of certain mass is rotated in gravity free space and released.
The two balls shown in the figure move towards ends of the tube. For the
whole system which of the following quantity is not conserved :-
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(A) Angular momentum (B) Linear momentum
(C) Kinetic energy (D) Angular speed
3. A uniform rod AB of mass m and length  at rest on a smooth horizontal A

surface. An impulse P is applied to the end B. The time taken by the rod
to turn through a right angle is :-

2 m  m
(A) (B)
P 3P
4.
(C)
m 
12P RI (D)
2m
3P
B
An equilateral prism of mass m rests on a rough horizontal surface with coefficient of friction µ. A horizontal
force F is applied on the prism as shown in the figure. If the coefficient of friction is sufficiently high so
that the prism does not slide before toppling, then the minimum force required to topple the prism is-
F
P
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mg mg
(A) (B)
3 4
a a
µmg µmg
(C) (D)
3 4 a
5. A uniform rod of mass M and length L lies radially on a disc rotating with angular speed  in a horizontal
plane about its axis. The rod does not slip on the disc and the centre of the rod is at a distance R from
the centre of the disc. Then the kinetic energy of the rod is- 
E
1  2 L2  L
2 1
(A) 2 m   R  12  (B) m 2 R 2 R
  2
JE
1
(C) m 2 L2 (D) None of these
24
6. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v making an angle of 45° with the horizontal. The magnitude
of the angular momentum of the projectile about the point of projection when the particle is at its maximum
height h is :-
mv 3 mv 3
(A) zero (B) (C) (D) m 2gh 3
(4 2g) 2g
7. A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both the ends.
The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity . The
force exerted by the liquid at the other end is :-
M 2 L M 2 L M 2 L2
(A) (B) M2 L (C) (D)
2 4 2
PAGE NO : 63
ROTATION PHYSICS
8. Two point masses of 0.3 kg and 0.7 kg are fixed at the ends of a rod of length 1.4 m and of negligible
mass. The rod is set rotating about an axis perpendicular to its length with a uniform angular speed. The
point on the rod through which the axis should pass in order that the work required for rotation of the rod
is minimum, is located at a distance of :-
(A) 0.42 m from mass of 0.3 kg (B) 0.70 m from mass of 0.7 kg
(C) 0.98 m from mass of 0.3 kg (D) 0.98 m from mass of 0.7 kg
9. A sphere S rolls without slipping, moving with a constant speed on a plank P. The friction between the upper
surface of P and the sphere is sufficient to prevent slipping, while the lower surface of P is smooth and rests
on the ground. Initially, P is fixed to the ground by a pin T. If T is suddenly removed-
S

(A) S will begin to slip on P.
v = r
T r
(B) P will begin to move backwards. P
(C) the speed of S will decrease and its angular velocity will increase.
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(D) there will be no change in the motion of S and P will still be at rest.
y 
10. A disc of mass M and radius R is rolling with angular speed  on a horizontal
plane as shown. The magnitude of angular momentum of the disc about the M
O x
origin O is :–
1 3
(A) MR 2  (B) MR 2  (C) MR 2  (D) 2MR 2 
11.
2
RI 2
Two spheres each of mass M and radius R/2 are connected with a mass P
M
Y
2
Q
R/
less rod of length 2R as shown in the-figure. What will be the moment of inertia
of the system about an axis passing through the centre of one of the spheres
and perpendicular to the rod
Y’
SP
21 2 5 5
(A) MR2 (B) MR2 (C) MR2 (D) MR2
5 5 2 21
12. A cord is wound over a cylinder of radius r and moment of inertia I. A mass m is attached to the free end
of the cord. The cylinder is free to rotate about its own horizontal axis. If mass m is released from rest, then
the velocity of the mass after it had fallen through a distance h will be-
1/2 1/2 1/2
1/2
 2mghr²   2mghr²   mghr² 
(A) (2gh) (B)   (C)  (D) 
 I  I  mr ²   I  2mr ² 
E
13. A solid sphere of radius R is placed on smooth horizontal surface. A horizontal force
‘F’ is applied at height ‘h’ from the lowest point. For the maximum acceleration F
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of centre of mass, which is correct- R
(A) h = R h
(B) h = 2R
Lowest Point
(C) h = 0
(D) No relation between h and R
14. A solid sphere is placed on a horizontal plane. A horizontal impulse I is applied at a distance h above the central
line as shown in the figure. Soon after giving the impulse the sphere starts rolling.
The ratio h/R would be- I
1 2 h
(A) (B)
2 5 C
R
1 1
(C) (D)
4 5
PAGE NO : 64
ROTATION PHYSICS
15. A ring of radius 3a is fixed rigidly on a table. A small ring whose mass is m m
and radius a, rolls without slipping inside it as shown in the figure. The small A a
3a
ring is released from position A. When it reaches at the lowest point, the speed
of the centre of the ring at that time would be-
(A) 2ga (B) 3ga (C) 6ga (D) 4ga

16. The moment of inertia of semicircular plate of radius R and mass M about axis AA' A
in its plane passing through its centre is
MR 2 MR 2 
(A) (B) cos 2 
2 4
A'
MR 2 MR 2
(C) sin 2  (D)
4 4
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17. The figure shows a uniform rod lying along the x-axis. The locus of all the y
points lying on the xy-plane, about which the moment of inertia of the rod is
same as that about O is
(A) an ellipse (B) a circle x
o
(C) a parabola (D) a straight line
18.
RI
A man can move on a horizontal plank supported symmetrically as shown.
The variation of normal reaction on support A with distance x of the man from
the end of the plank is best represented by
N N N
x=0
1m
N
A B
1m
SP
(A) (B) (C) (D)
x x x x
m
19. Find minimum height of obstacle so that the sphere can stay in equilibrium
R
R R
(A) (B) h
1  cos  1  sin 
E

(C) R 1  sin  (D) R 1  cos 
20. A sphere is placed rotating with its centre initially at rest in a corner (A) (B)
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as shown in figure (A) & (B). Coefficient of friction between all surfaces
1 fa
and the sphere is . Find the ratio of the frictional force f by ground
3 b
in situations (A) & (B)

(A) 1 (B) 9/10 (C) 10/9 (D) None
21. A hinged construction consists of three rhombus with the ratio of sides
5:3:2. Vertex A3 moves in the horizontal direction at a velocity v. Velocity
of A2 is
v
(A) 2.5 v (B) 1.5 v A0 A1 A2 A3
2
(C) v (D) 0.8 v
3
PAGE NO : 65
ROTATION PHYSICS
22. A disc of radius R is rolling purely on a flat horizontal surface, with a constant C
P
angular velocity. The angle between the velocity and acceleration vectors of
point P is
(A) Zero (B) 45 0
0
(C) 135 (D) tan -1(1/2)
23. Portion AB of the wedge shown in figure is rough and BC is smooth. A A \\
\\\
\\\
solid cylinder rolls without slipping from A to B. The ratio of translational kinetic \\ \ \ \\\
\\
\\\
\\\
energy to rotational kinetic energy, when the cylinder reaches point C is B
(A) 3/4 (B) 5 D C

AB=BC
(C) 7/5 (D) 8/3
24. A ring of mass m and radius R has three particles attached to the ring m
as shown in the figure. The centre of the ring has a speed v0. The kinetic energy
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2m m
of the system is : (slipping is absent)
(A) 6 mv 0 2 (B) 12 mv 0 2
(C) 4 mv 0 2 (D) 8 mv 0 2
25. A slender uniform rod of length  is balanced vertically at a point P on a horizontal surface having some friction.
If the top of the rod is displaced slightly to the right, the position of its centre of mass at the time when the
rod becomes horizontal
(A) lies at some point to the right of P (B) lies at some point to the left of P
26.
(C) must be

2
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to the right of P (D) lies at P
A solid sphere with a velocity (of centre of mass) v and angular velocity  is gently placed on a rough horizontal
surface. The frictional force on the sphere
(A) must be forward (in direction of v)
(C) cannot be zero
(B) must be backward (opposite to v)
(D) none of the above
0
SP
27. A uniform circular disc placed on a rough horizontal surface has initially
v0
velocity v0 and an angular velocity  0 as shown in the figure. The disc comes
v0
to rest after moving some distance in the direction of motion. Then is
r 0
(A) 1/2 (B) 1 (C) 3/2 (D) 2
28. A body is in equilibrium under the influence of a number of forces. Each force has a different line of action.
The minimum number of forces required is
E
(A) 2, if their lines of action pass through the centre of mass of the body
(B) 3, if their lines of action are not parallel
(C) 3, if their lines of action are parallel
(D) 4, if their lines of action are parallel and all the forces have the same magnitude
JE
29. A particle falls freely near the surface of the earth. Consider a fixed point O (not vertically below the particle)
on the ground
(A) Angular momentum of the particle about O is increasing
(B) Torque of the gravitational force on the particle about O is decreasing
(C) The moment of inertia of the particle about O is decreasing
(D) The angular velocity of the particle about O is increasing
30. A plank with a uniform sphere placed on it, rests on a smooth horizontal plane. Plank is pulled to right by a
constant force F. If the sphere does not slip over the plank
(A) Acceleration of centre of sphere is less than that of the plank
(B) Acceleration of centre of sphere is greater than the plank
because friction acts rightward on the sphere F
(C) Acceleration of the centre of sphere may be towards left
(D) Acceleration of the centre of sphere relative to plank may be
greater than that of the plank relative to floor
PAGE NO : 66
ROTATION PHYSICS
31. In the figure shown, the plank is being pulled to the right with a constant speed
v. If the cylinder does not slip then R
(A) the speed of the centre of mass of the cylinder is 2v v
(B) the speed of the centre of mass of the cylinder is zero

(C) the angular velocity of the cylinder is v/R
(D) the angular velocity of the cylinder is zero
A
32. A uniform disc is rolling on a horizontal surface. At a certain instant B is the
point of contact and A is at height 2R from ground, where R is radius of disc

B
(A) The magnitude of the angular momentum of the disc about B is thrice that about A
(B) The angular momentum of the disc about A is anticlockwise
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(C) The angular momentum of the disc about B is clockwise
(D) The angular momentum of the disc about A is equal to that of about B
33. If a cylinder is rolling down the incline with sliding
(A) after some time it may start pure rolling
(B) after some time it will start pure rolling
34.
(D) None of these
RI
(C) it may be possible that it will never start pure rolling
A uniform bar of length 6a and mass 8m lies on a smooth horizontal table.
Two point masses m and 2m moving in the same horizontal plane with speed
2v and v respectively, strike the bar (as shown in the fig.) and stick to the
2m
v
c
2v
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bar after collision. Denoting angular velocity (about the centre of mass), total m
energy and centre of mass velocity by , E and v C respectively, we have a 2a
after collision :
3v v mv 2
(A) v C = 0 (B)  = (C)  = (D) E = 3
5a 5a 5
35. The moment of inertia of a thin square plate ABCD, of uniform thickness 4
about an axis passing through the centre O and perpendicular to the plane 1
A B
of the plate is ( where I 1, I 2, I 3 and I 4 are respectively moments of inertia
E
about axis 1, 2, 3 and 4 which are in the plane of the plate) 3

O
(A) I 1 + I 2 (B) I 3 + I 4
JE
(C) I 1 + I 3 (D) I 1 + I 2 + I 3 + I 4 D C 2
ANSWER KEY LEVEL-2

Q ue. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans . B D C A A B A C D C A C D B A
Q ue. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans . D B B D B D B B A A D A B,C,D A,C,D A
Q ue. 31 32 33 34 35
Ans . B,C A,B,C A,C A,C,D A,B,C
PAGE NO : 67
PHYSICS
GRAVITATION -LEVEL 1
1. Three identical point masses, each of mass 1 kg lie in the x–y plane at points (0, 0) (0, 0.2m) and (0.2m,0). The
gravitational force on the mass at the origin is :–
(A)1.67 x 10–11 (iˆ  ˆj)N (B) 3.34 x 10–10 (iˆ  ˆj)N (C) 1.67 x 10–9 (iˆ  ˆj)N (D) 3.34 x 10–10 (iˆ  ˆj)N
2. If the gravitational force were to vary inversely as m th power of the distance, then the time period of a
planet in circular orbit of radius r around the Sun will be proportional to
(A) r –3m/2 (B) r 3m/2 (C) rm + 1/2 (D) r (m+1)/2
3. If the distance between the centres of Earth and Moon is D and mass of Earth is 81 times that of Moon. At what
distance from the centre of Earth gravitational field will be zero ?
D 2D 4D 9D
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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2 3 5 10
4. The radius of Earth is about 6400 km and that of mars is 3200 km. The mass of the Earth is 10 times the mass
of mars. An object weight 200 N on the surface of Earth. Its weight on the surface of mars will be :–
(A) 80 N (B) 40 N (C) 20 N (D) 8 N
5. Weight of a body of mass m decreases by 1% when it is raised to height h above the Earth's surface. If the body
is taken to a depth h in a mine, then its weight will :–
(A) decrease by 0.5% (B) decrease by 2% (C) increase by 0.5% (D) increase by 1%
6.
7.
RI
Imagine a new planet having the same density as that of Earth but it is 3 times bigger than the Earth in size. If
the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Earth is g and that on the surface of the new planet is g', then
(A) g' = 3g (B) g' =

g
9
(C) g' = 9g (D) g' = 27 g
An object weighs 10 N at the north pole of the Earth. In a geostationary satellite distance 7R from the centre
SP
of the Earth (of radius R), the true weight and the apparent weight are–
(A) 0 N, 0 N (B) 0.2 N, 0 (C) 0.2 N, 9.8 N (D) 0.2 N, 0.2 N
8. A stone drop from height 'h' reaches to Earth surface in1 sec. If the same stone taken to Moon and drop freely
then it will reaches from the surface of the Moon in the time (The 'g' of Moon is 1/6 times of Earth):–
(A) 6 second (B) 9 second (C) 3 second (D) 6 second
9. The rotation of the Earth having radius R about its axis speeds upto a value such that a man at latitude angle 600
E
feels weightless. The duration of the day in such case will be
R g R g
(A) 8  (B) 8  (C)  (D) 4 
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g R g R
10. A small body of superdense material, whose mass is twice the mass of the Earth but whose size is very small
compared to the size of the Earth, starts from rest at a height H<<R above the Earth's surface, and reach the
Earth's surface in time t. Then t is equal to
(A) 2H / g (B) H/g (C) 2H / 3g (D) 4H / 3g
11. A man of mass m starts falling towards a planet of mass M and radius R. As he reaches near to the surface, he
realizes that he will pass through a small hole in the planet. As he enters the hole, he seen that the planet is
2M M
really made of two pieces a spherical shell of negligible thickness of mass and a point mass at the
3 3
centre. Change in the force of gravity experienced by the man is :
2 GMm 1 GMm 4 GMm
(A) (B) 0 (C) (D)
3 R2 3 R2 3 R2
PAGE NO : 68
GRAVITATION PHYSICS
12. A body attains a height equal to the radius of the Earth when projected from Earth' surface. The velocity of the
body with which it was projected is :–
GM e 2GM e 5 GM e 3GM e
(A) (B) (C) (D)
R R 4 R R
13. If the gravitational acceleration at surface of Earth is g, then increase in potential energy in lifting an object of
mass m to a height equal to the radius R of Earth will be :–
mgR mgR
(A) (B) 2mgR (C) mgR (D)
2 4
14. Find the distance between centre of gravity and centre of mass of a two particle system m
attached to the ends of a light rod. Each particle has same mass. Length of the rod is R,
where R is the radius of Earth m
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(A) R (B) R/2 (C) zero (D) R/4
15. The intensity of gravitational field at a point situated at a distance 8000 km from the centre of Earth is 6.0
newton /kg. The gravitational potential at that point in newton – meter/kg will be :–
(A) 6 (B) 4.8 × 107 (C) 8 × 105 (D) 4.8 × 102
K
16. The gravitational field due to a mass distribution is E  in the x–direction. (K is a constant). Taking thee
x3
gravitational potential to be zero at infinity, its value at the distance x is :–
17.
(A)
K
x
RI (B)
K
2x
(C)
K
x 2 (D)
K
2x 2
Two bodies of masses m and M are placed at distance d apart. The gravitational potential (V) at the position
where the gravitational field due to them is zero V is :–
SP
G G GM G
(A) V   (m  M ) (B) V   (C) V   (D) V   ( m  M )2
d d d d
1
18. Gravitation on Moon is th of that on Earth. When a balloon filled with hydrogen is released on Moon then this
6
g g
(A) will rise with an acceleration less then (B) will rise with acceleration
6 6
E
5g g
(C) will fall down with an acceleration less than (D) will fall down with acceleration
6 6
19. Escape velocity of a body from the surface of Earth is 11.2 km/sec. from the Earth surface. If the mass of Earth
JE
becomes double of its present mass and radius becomes half of its present radius, then escape velocity will
become
(A) 5.6 km/sec (B) 11.2 km/sec (C) 22.4 km/sec (D) 44.8km/sec
20. A body of mass m is situated at distance 4Re above the Earth's surface, where Re is the radius of Earth how much
minimum energy be given to the body so that it may escape :–
mgR e mgR e
(A) mgRe (B) 2mgR e (C) (D)
5 16
21. The atmospheric pressure and height of barometer column is 10 5 P a and 760mm respectively on the Earth
surface. If the barometer is taken to the Moon then column height will be :–
(A) zero (B) 76 mm (C) 126.6 mm (D) 760 mm
PAGE NO : 69
GRAVITATION PHYSICS
22. Two identical satellites are at the heights R and 7R from the Earth's surface. Then which of the following
statement is incorrect :– (r = radius of the Earth)
(A) Ratio of total energy of both is 5
(B) Ratio of kinetic energy of both is 4
(C) Ratio of potential energy of both 4
(D) Ratio of total energy of both is 4 and ratio of magnitude of potential to kinetic energy is 2
23. A satellite is seen after each 8 hours over equator at a place on the Earth when its sense of rotation is opposite
to the Earth. The time interval after which it can be seen at the same place when the sense of rotation of Earth
& satellite is same will be:
(A) 8 hours (B) 12 hours (C) 24 hours (D) 6 hours
24. Potential energy and kinetic energy of a two particle system are shown by KE
NT
kine
energy
tic en
and PE. respectively in figure. This system is bound at : ergy
A B
ergy
(A) Only point A (B) Only point D al en
otenti
p
(C) Points A, B, and C (D) All points A, B, C and D
25.
(A) Increases
(C) Remains same
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A hollow spherical shell is compressed to half its radius. the gravitational potential at the centre
(B) Decreases
(D) During the compression increases then returns at the previous value
SP
E
JE
ANSWER KEY LEVEL-1
Q ue. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans . C D D A A A B A C C A A A B B D D D C C
Q ue. 2 1 22 23 24 25
Ans . A A C C B
PAGE NO : 70
PHYSICS
GRAVITATION -LEVEL 2
MCQs with one correct answer
1. One projectile after deviating from its path starts moving round the Earth in a circular path of radius equal to
nine times the radius of Earth R. Its time period will be :–
R R R R
(A) 2  (B) 27  2  (C)  (D) 0.8  3 
g g g g
2. Gravitational potential difference between surface of a planet and a point situated at a height of 20m above its
surface is 2 joule/kg. If gravitational field is uniform, then the work done in taking a 5kg body of height 4 meter
above surface will be :–
(A) 2J (B) 20J (C) 40J (D) 10J
3. Two concentric shells of masses M1 and M2 are having radii r1 and r2. Which of the
M2
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following is the correct expression for the gravitational field at a distance r :– r2
M1
G(M1  M 2 ) G(M1  M 2 )
(A) 2 , for r < r1 (B) , for r < r2 r1
r r2
GM 2 GM 1
(C) 2 , for r1 < r < r2 (D) , for r1 < r < r2
r r2
k
4.
5.
(A) k log  r 
 0
RI
In a certain region of space, the gravitational field is given by 
(B) k log  
r
r
, where r is the distance and k is a constant.
If the gravitational potential at r = r0 be V0, then what is the expression for the gravitational potential (V) :–
 r  r0   r
(C) V0 + k log  r 
 0
 r0 
(D) V0 + k log  
The potential energy of a body of mass m is U = ax + by the magnitude of acceleration of the body will be :–
r
SP
ab  a  b a 2  b2 a 2  b2
(A) (B)  (C) (D)
m m  m m
6. Two metallic balls of mass m are suspended by two strings of length L. The distance between upper ends is . The
angle at which the string will be inclined with vertical due to attraction, is (m<<M, where M is the mass of Earth):–
1 Gm 1 Gm 1 Gm 1 Gm
(A) tan 2 (B) tan 2 (C) tan (D) tan
g gL g gL
E
7. There is a concentric hole of radius R in a solid sphere of radius 2R. Mass of

the remaining portion is M. What is the gravitational potential at centre ?
JE
5GM 7GM
(A)  (B) 
7R 14R
3GM 9GM
(C)  (D) 
7R 14R
8. If there were a smaller gravitational effect, which of the following forces do you think would alter in some respect.
(A) Viscous force (B) Archimedes uplift (C) Electrostatic force (D) Magnetic force
9. Select the correct alternative :–

(A) The gravitational field inside a spherical cavity, within a spherical planet must be non zero and uniform
(B) When a body is projected horizontally at an appreciable large height above the Earth, with a velocity less
than for a circular orbit, it will fall to the Earth along a parabolic path
(C) A body of zero total mechanical energy placed in a gravitational field will escape the field
(D) Earth's satellite must be in equatorial plane
PAGE NO : 71
GRAVITATION PHYSICS
M
10. A particle of mass M is at a distance a from surface of a thin spherical shell of equal
mass and having radius a
(A) Gravitational field and potential both are zero at centre of the shell M
(B) Gravitational field is zero not only inside the shell but at a point outside the shell also a a
(C) Inside the shell, gravitational field alone is zero
(D) Neither gravitational field nor gravitational potential is zero inside the shell
11. Three particles are projected vertically upward from a point on the surface of the Earth with velocities 2gR / 3 ,
gR , 4gR / 3 respectively where R is the radius of the Earth and g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface
of the Earth. The maximum heights attained are respectively h 1, h 2, h 3.
(A) h1 : h2 = 2 : 3 (B) h2 : h3 = 3 : 4 (C) h1 : h3 = 1 : 4 (D) h2 = R
12. When a satellite in a circular orbit around the Earth enters the atmospheric region, it encounters small air
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resistance to its motion. Then
(A) Its kinetic energy increases (B) Its kinetic energy decreases
(C) Its angular momentum about the Earth decreases (D) Its period of revolution around the Earth increases
13. For a satellite to be geo–stationary, which of the following are essential conditions?
(A) It must always be stationed above the equator (B) It must be rotated from west to east
(C) It must be about 36000 km above the Earth (D) Its orbit must be circular, and not elliptical
14.
(A)
mg
2
RI
A cavity of radius R/2 is made inside a solid sphere of radius R. The centre of the cavity is located at a distance
R/2 from the centre of the sphere. The gravitational force on a particle of mass 'm' at a distance R/2 from the
centre of the sphere on the joining both the centres of sphere and cavity is (opposite to the centre of cavity).
[Here g = GM/R2, where M is the mass of the sphere]
(B)
3mg
8
(C)
mg
16
(D) None of these
SP
15. A tunnel is dug along a chord of the Earth at a perpendicular distance R/2 from the Earth's centre. The wall
of the tunnel may be assumed to be frictionless. A particle is released from one end of the tunnel. The pressing
force by the particle on the wall, and the acceleration of the particle varies with x (distance of the particle from
the centre) according to :
Pressing Pressing Acceleration

Acceleration
Force Force
E
(A) (B) (C) (D)
x x x x
x=R/2 x=R x=R/2 x=R x=R/2 x=R x=R/2 x=R
JE
16. A double star is a system of two stars of masses m and 2m, rotating about their centre of mass only under their
mutual gravitational attraction. If r is the separation between these two stars then their time period of rotation
about their centre of mass will be proportional to :
(A) r 3/2 (B) r (C) m 1/2 (D) m –1/2
17. A solid sphere of uniform density and radius 4 units is located with its centre at the
origin O of coordinates. Two spheres of equal radii 1 unit, with their centres at A y
(–2, 0, 0) and B (2, 0, 0) respectively, are taken out of the solid leaving behind spherical
cavities as shown in figure. Then :–
(A) The gravitational field due to this object at the origin is zero m
A B x
(B) The gravitational field at the point B (2, 0, 0) is zero O
(C) The gravitational potential is the same at all points of circle y 2+z 2=36
(D) The gravitational potential is the same at all points on the circle y 2+z 2=4 z
PAGE NO : 72
GRAVITATION PHYSICS
18. The magnitudes of the gravitational field at distance r1 and r2 from the centre of a uniform, sphere of radius
R and mass M are F 1 and F 2 respectively. then :–
F1 r1 F1 r22
(A) F  r if r 1 < R and r 2 < R (B) F  r 2 if r 1 > R and r 2 > R
2 2 2 1
F1 r13 F1 r12
(C)  if r 1 < R and r 2 < R (D) F  r 2 if r 1 < R and r 2 < R
F2 r23 2 2
19. Mark the correct statement/s :–

GM
(A) Gravitational potential at curvature centre of a thin hemispherical shell of radius R and mass M is equal to
R
(B) Gravitational field strength at point lying on the axis of a thin, uniform circular ring of radius R and mass M
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GMx
is equal to 3/2 where x is distance of that point from centre of the ring
R 2
 x2 
(C) Newton's law of gravitation for gravitational force between two bodies is applicable only when bodies have
spherically symmetric distribution of mass
(D) None of these
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2 0 . Gravitational potential at the centre of curvature of a hemispherical bowl of radius R and mass M is V :–
(A) Gravitational potential at the centre of curvature of a thin uniform wire of mass M, bent into a semicircle
of radius R, is also equal to V
(B) In part (A) if the same wire is bent into a quarter of a circle then also the gravitational potential at the
centre of curvature will be V
(C) In part (A) if the wire mass is non uniformly distributed along its length audit is bent into a semicircle of
radius R, gravitational potential at the centre is V
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(D) None of these
2 1 . Suppose a smooth tunnel is dug along a straight line joining two points on the surface of the Earth and a particle
is dropped from rest at its one end. Assume that mass of Earth is uniformly distributed over its volume. Then
GM e
(A) The particle will emerge from the other end with velocity 2R e where Me and Re are Earth's mass and
radius respectively
E
(B) The particle will come to rest at centre of the tunnel because at this position, particle is closest to Earth centre.
(C) Potential energy of the particle will be equal to zero at centre of tunnel if it is along tunnel's diameter
(D) Acceleration of the particle will be proportional to its distance from midpoint of the tunnel
22. A small ball of mass 'm' is released at a height 'R' above the Earth surface, as
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shown in the figure. If the maximum depth of the ball to which it goes is R/2
inside the Earth through a narrow grove before coming to rest momentarily. R M
The grove, contain an ideal spring of spring constant K and natural length R, m
K
the value of K is (R is radius of Earth and M mass of Earth)
3GMm 6GMm 9GMm 7G M m
(A) (B) (C) (D)
R3 R3 R3 R3
23. A particle of mass m is transferred from the centre of the base of a uniform solid hemisphere of mass M and
radius R to infinity. The work performed in the process by the gravitational force exerted on the particle by the
hemisphere is
GMm 1 GMm 3 GMm 3 GMm
(A) (B)  (C)  (D) 
R 2 R 2 R 4 R
PAGE NO : 73
GRAVITATION PHYSICS
24. Masses and radii of Earth and Moon are M1, M2 and R1, R2 respectively. The distance between their centre is 'd'.
The minimum velocity given to mass 'M' from the mid point of line joining their centre so that it will escape :–
4G  M 1  M 2  4G M 1 M 2 2G  M 1  M 2  2G
(A) (B) d M1  M 2  (C)
d  M 1 M 2 
(D)
d
M1  M 2 
d
25. A planet is revolving around the Sun in an elliptical orbit. Its closest distance from the Sun is rmin. The farthest
distance from the Sun is rmax. If the orbital angular velocity of the planet when it is nearest to the Sun is , then
the orbital angular velocity at the point when it is at the farthest distance from the Sun is–
F rminI F rmax I 2
 rmin 
2
(A) G JK (B) G JK  rmax 
H rmax

H rmin
 (C) 
 rmin 
 (D) 
 rmax 

26. A satellite is in a circular orbit very close to the surface of a planet. At some point it is given an impulse along its
direction of motion, causing its velocity to increase n times. It now goes into an elliptical orbit. The maximum
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possible value of n for this to occur is
1
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 1 (D)
2 1
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E
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ANSWER KEY LEVEL-2
Q u e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans . B A D D C A D B C D C,D A,C ABCD B B,C
Q u e. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
Ans . A,D A,C,D A,B B,C A,C D D C A D B
PAGE NO : 74
PHYSICS
FLUIDS AND PROPERTIES OF MATTER-LEVEL 1
E LA S T I C IT Y
1. Which one of the following substances possesses the highest elasticity :–
(A) Rubber (B) Glass (C) Steel (D) Copper
2. The lower surface of a cube is fixed. On its upper surface, force is applied at an angle of 30° from its surface.
The change will be in its :–
(A) Shape (B) Size (C) Volume (D) Both shape and size.
3. A 2m long rod of radius 1 cm which is fixed from one end is given a twist of 0.8 radians. The shear strain developed

will be :–
(A) 0.002 (B) 0.004 (C) 0.008 (D) 0.016
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4. A force F is needed to break a copper wire having radius R. The force needed to break a copper wire of radius
2R will be :–
F F
(A) (B) 2F (C) 4F (D)
2 4
5. If the density of the material increase, the value of Young’s modulus :–
6.
(A) increases
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(C) first increases, then decreases
(B) decreases
(D) first decreases, then increases
The following four wires are made of the same material. Which of these will have the largest extension when
the same tension is applied–
(A) Length 50 cm and diameter 0.5 mm
(C) Length 200 cm and diameter 2 mm
(B) Length 100 cm and diameter 1 mm
(D) Length 300 cm and diameter 3 mm
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7. The load versus elongation graph for four wires of the same material and same length is shown in the figure.
The thinnest wire is represented by the line
D
C
load
B
A
E
O elongation
(A) OA (B) OB (C) OC (D) OD

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8. A fixed volume of iron is drawn into a wire of length  . The extension produced in this wire by a constant force
F is proportional to :–
1 1
(A) (B) (C)  2 (D) 
2 
9. Two wires of the same material have lengths in the ratio 1 : 2 and their radii are in the ratio 1 : 2 . If they
are stretched by applying equal forces, the increase in their lengths will be in the ratio :–
(A) 2 (B) 2 : 2 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 2
10. The area of cross–section of a wire of length 1.1 meter is 1 mm2. It is loaded with 1 kg. If Young’s modulus
of copper is 1.1 × 10 11 N/m 2, then the increase in length will be (If g = 10 m/s 2) :–
(A) 0.01 mm (B) 0.075 mm (C) 0.1 mm (D) 0.15 mm
PAGE NO : 75
FLUIDS AND PROPERTIES OF MATTER PHYSICS
11. The Young’s modulus of a rubber string 8 cm long and density 1.5 kg/m 3 is 5 × 10 8 N/m 2, is suspended on
the ceiling in a room. The increase in length due to its own weight will be :–
(A) 9.6 × 10 –5 m (B) 9.6 × 10 –11 m (C) 9.6 × 10 –3 m (D) 9.6 m
12. An increases in pressure required to decreases the 200 litres volume of a liquid by 0.004% in container is :
(Bulk modulus of the liquid = 2100 MPa) :–
(A) 188 kPa (B) 8.4 kPa (C) 18.8 kPa (D) 84 kPa
13. A ball falling in a lake of depth 200 m shows 0.1% decrease in its volume at the bottom. What is the bulk modulus

of the material of the ball :–
(A) 19.6 × 10 8 N/m 2 (B) 19.6 × 10 –10 N/m 2 (C) 19.6 × 10 10 N/m 2 (D) 19.6 × 10 –8 N/m 2
14. Two wires of same diameter of the same material having the length  and 2. If the force F is applied on each,
the ratio of the work done in the two wires will be :–
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 4 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 1
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15. A brass rod of cross–sectional area 1 cm 2 and length 0.2 m is compressed lengthwise by a weight of
5 kg. If Young’s modulus of elasticity of brass is 1 × 1011 N/m2 and g = 10 m/sec2, then increase in the energy
of the rod will be :–
(A) 10 –5 joule (B) 2.5 × 10 –5 joule (C) 5 × 10 –5 joule (D) 2.5 × 10 –4 joule
16. A weight is suspended from a long metal wire. If the wire suddenly breaks, its temperature :–
(A) Rises (B) Falls (C) Remains unchanged (D) Attains a value 0 K
SURFACE T ENSION
17.
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The length of needle floating on the surface of water is 1.5 cm. The force in addition to its weight required
to lift the needle from water surface will be (surface tension of water = 7.5 N/cm) :–
(A) 22.5 N (B) 2.25 N (C) 0.25 N (D) 225 N
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18. The ring of radius 1m is lying on the surface of liquid. It is lifted from the liquid surface by a force of 4 Newtons
in such a way that the liquid film in it remains intact. The surface tension of liquid will be :–
1 1 1 1
(A) N/m (B) N/m (C) N/m (D) N/m
2  3 4
19. The radius of a soap bubble is r. The surface tension of soap solution is T. Keeping temperature constant, the
radius of the soap bubble is doubled, the energy necessary for this will be :–
(A) 24  r 2 T (B) 8  r 2 T (C) 12  r 2 T (D) 16  r 2 T
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20. A liquid drop of diameter D breaks into 27 tiny drops. The resultant change in energy is :–
(A) 2 TD 2 (B) 4 TD 2 (C)  TD 2 (D) None of these
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21. The adjoining diagram shows three soap bubbles A, B and C prepared by blowing the capillary tube fitted with
stop cocks S, S 1, S 2 and S 3 with stop cock S closed and stop cocks S 1, S 2 and S 3 opened :–
CA
S1 S3 S2
S
A
A B
(A) B will start collapsing with volumes of A and C increasing

(B) C will start collapsing with volumes of A and B increasing
(C) C and A will both start collapsing with the volume of B increasing
(D) Volumes of A, B and C will become equal at equilibrium
PAGE NO : 76
22. Pressures inside two soap bubbles are 1.01 and 1.02 atmospheres. Ratio between their volumes is :–
(A) 102 : 101 (B) (102) 3 : (101) 3 (C) 8 : 1 (D) 2 : 1
23. An air bubble is lying just below the surface of water. The surface tension of water is 70 × 10 –3 Nm –1 and
atmospheric pressure is 1.013 × 105 Nm–2. If the radius of bubble is 1 mm, then the pressure inside the bubble
will be :–
(A) 1.0270 × 10 5 Pa (B) 1.0160 × 10 5 Pa (C) 1.0144 × 10 5 Pa (D) 1.0131 × 10 5 Pa
24. Two soap bubbles each of radius r are touching each other. The radius of curvature of the common surface will be:
(A) infinite (B) 2r (C) r (D) r/2
25. A soap bubble in vacuum has a radius of 3 cm and another soap bubble in vacuum has a radius of 4 cm. If
the two bubbles coalesce under isothermal condition, then the radius of the new bubble is :–
(A) 2.3 cm (B) 4.5 cm (C) 5 cm (D) 7 cm
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26. Shape of meniscus for a liquid of zero angle of contact is :–
(A) Plane (B) Parabolic (C) Hemi–spherical (D) Cylindrical
27. If a water drop is kept between two glass plates, then its shape is :–
(A) (B) (C) (D) None the these
28.
(A) Rise up
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If a wax coated capillary tube is dipped in water, then water in it will –
(C) Sometimes rise and sometimes fall

(B) Depress
(D) Rise up and come out as a fountain
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29. Water rises to a height h in a capillary at the surface of earth. On the surface of the moon the height of water
column in the same capillary will be :–
1
(A) 6h (B) h (C) h (D) zero
6
30. Two capillary tubes of same diameter are put vertically one each in two liquids whose relative densities are 0.8
and 0.6 and surface tensions are 60 dyne/cm and 50 dyne/cm respectively. Ratio of heights of liquids in the
E
h1
two tubes h is :–
2
10 3 10 9
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(A) (B) (C) (D)

9 10 3 10
31. In a capillary tube experiment, a vertical 30 cm long capillary tube is dipped in water. The water rises up to
a height of 10 cm due to capillary action. If this experiment is conducted in a freely falling elevator, the length
of the water column becomes :–
(A) 10 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 30 cm (D) Zero
32. Water rises to a height of 16.3 cm in a capillary of height 18 cm above the water level. If the tube is cut at
a height of 12 cm :–
(A) Water will come as a fountain from the capillary tube
(B) The height of the water in the capillary will be 12 cm
(C) The height of the water in the capillary will be 16.3 cm
(D) Water will flow down in it's arms
PAGE NO : 77
33. The height to which water rises in a capillary will be :–
(A) Maximum at 4° C (B) Maximum at 0° C (C) Minimum at 0° C (D) Minimum at 4° C
34. Water rises in a capillary upto a height h. If now this capillary is tilted by an angle of 45°, then the length of
the water column in the capillary becomes :–
h h
(A) 2h (B) (C) (D) h 2
2 2
35. If a capillary of radius r is dipped in water, the height of water that rises in it is h and its mass is M. If the radius
of the capillary is doubled the mass of water that rises in the capillary will be :–
M
(A) 4M (B) 2M (C) M (D)
2
36. Calculate the force required to separate the glass plate of area 10 –2 m 2 with a film of water
0.05 mm thick [surface tension of water is 70 × 10 –3 N/m] :–
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(A) 25 N (B) 20 N (C) 14 N (D) 28 N
37. A vessel, whose bottom has round holes with diameter of 0.1 mm, is filled with water. The maximum height
to which the water can be filled without leakage is :– (S.T. of water = 75 dyne/cm, g = 1000 cm/s 2)
(A) 100 cm (B) 75 cm (C) 50 cm (D) 30 cm
FLUID STATICS
38.
39.
(A) h = d
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A crown made of gold and copper weights 210 g in air and 198 g in water. The weight of gold in crown is:–
[Given : Density of gold = 19.3 g/cm 3 and Density of copper = 8.5 g/cm 3]
(A) 93 g (B) 100 g
(B) h = 2d
(C) 150 g
(C) h = 3d
(D) 193 g
To what height h should a cylindrical vessel of diameter d be filled with a liquid so that the total force on the
vertical surface of the vessel be equal to the force on the bottom :–
(D) h = d/2
SP
40. Two vessels A and B have the same base area and contain water to the same height, but the mass of water
in A is four times that in B. The ratio of the liquid thrust at the base of A to that at the base of B is :–
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
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(A) 4 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 16 : 1
41. Water stands upto a height h behind the vertical wall of a dam. What is the net horizontal force pushing the
dam down by the stream, if width of the dam is  ? (   density of water) :–
h 2 g h 2 g h g

(A) 2h g (B) (C) (D)
2 4 4
42. A U–tube is partially filled with water. Oil which does not mix with water is next poured into one side, until water
rises by 25 cm on the other side. If the density of the oil is 0.8 g/cc, the oil level will stand higher than the
water level by :–
(A) 6.25 cm (B) 12.50 cm (C) 18.75 cm (D) 25.00 cm
PAGE NO : 78
43. The side of glass aquarium is 1 m high and 2 m long. When the aquarium is filled to the top with water, what
is the total force against the side–
(A) 980 × 10 3 N (B) 9.8 × 10 3 N (C) 0.98 × 10 3 N (D) 0.098 × 10 3 N
44. The gauge pressure of 3  10 5 N/m2 must be maintained in the main water pipes of a city. How much work
must be done to pump 50,000 m 3 of water at a pressure of 1.0  10 5 N/m 2 –
(A) 10 11 J (B) 10 10 J (C) 10 9 J (D) 10 8 J
45. The barometric pressure and height on the earth are 105 Pa and 760 mm respectively. If it is taken to moon,
then barometric height will be :–
(A) 76 mm (B) 126.6 mm (C) Zero (D) 760 mm
46. When a large bubble rises from the bottom of a lake to the surface, its radius doubles. If atmospheric pressure
is equal to that of column of water height H, then the depth of lake is :–
(A) H (B) 2H (C) 7H (D) 8H
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47. A body floats in a liquid contained in a beaker. The whole system is shown in figure
falling under gravity. The upthrust on the body due to liquid is :–
(A) zero
(B) equal to weight of liquid displaced
(C) equal to weight of the body in air
(D) equal to the weight of the immersed body.
48.
49.
(A) 700 g wt
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A boat having a length of 3 metre and breadth 2 metre is floating on a lake. The boat sinks by one cm when
a man gets on it. The mass of the man is
(A) 60 kg (B) 62 kg
(B) 800 g wt
(C) 72 kg
(C) 500 g wt
(D) 128 kg
A body of volume 100 c.c. is immersed completely in water contained in a jar. The weight of water and the
jar before immersion of the body was 700g wt. After immersion weight of water and jar will be
(D) 100 g wt
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50. The total weight of a piece of wood is 6 kg In the floating state in water its 1/3part remains inside the water.
On this floating solid, what maximum weight is to be put such that the whole of the piece of wood is to be drowned
in the water :–
(A) 12 kg (B) 10 kg (C) 14 kg (D) 15 kg
51. A sample of metal weights 210 grams in air, 180 grams in water and 120 grams in an unknown liquid. Then:–
(A) the density of metal is 3 g/cm 3
(B) the density of metal is 7 g/cm 3
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(C) density of metal is 4 times the density of the unknown liquid
(D) the metal will float in water
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52. A wooden cube first floats inside water when a 200 g mass is placed on it. When the mass is removed the cube
is 2 cm above water level. The side of cube is :–
(A) 5 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 15 cm (D) 20 cm
53. A piece of ice with a stone frozen in it on water is kept in a beaker. The level of water when ice completely melts–
(A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) Remain the same (D) None of these
54. A rectangular block is 5 cm  5cm  10 cm. The block is floating in water with 5 cm side vertical. If it floats
with 10 cm side vertical, what change will occur in the level of water :–
(A) No change (B) It will rise
(C) It will fall (D) It may rise or fall depending on the density of block.
55. A wooden block of volume 1000 cm3 is suspended from a spring balance. Its weight is 12 N in air. It is suspended

in water such that half of the block is below the surface of water. The reading of spring balance is :–
(A) 10 N (B) 9 N (C) 8 N (D) 7 N
PAGE NO : 79
56. A boat carrying a number of large stones is floating in a water tank. What will happen to the water level if
the stones are unloaded into the water :–
(A) Rise (B) Fall
(C) Remain unchanged (D) Rise till half the number of stones are unloaded and then begin to fall
HYDRO DYNAMICS
57. Streamline motion is that motion in which there is:–
(A) Only longitudinal velocity gradient (B) Only radial velocity gradient
(C) Longitudinal as well as radial velocity gradient (D) Neither longitudinal nor radial velocity gradient
58. An aeroplane of mass 3 × 104 kg and total wing area of 120 m2 is in a level flight at some height. The difference
in pressure between the upper and lower surfaces of its wings in kilo pascal is (g=10m/s 2 ) :–
(A) 2.5 (B) 5.0 (C) 10.0 (D) 12.5
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59. One end of a horizontal pipe is closed with the help of a valve and the reading of a barometer attached to
the pipe is 3 × 10 5 pascal. When the value in the pipe is opened then the reading of barometer falls to
10 5 pascal. The velocity of water flowing through the pipe will be in m/s :–
(A) 0.2 (B) 2 (C) 20 (D) 200
60. 16 cm3 of water flows per second through a capillary tube of radius a cm and of length  cm when connected
to a pressure head of h cm of water. If a tube of the same length and radius a/2 cm is connected to the same
pressure head, the quantity of water flowing through the tube per second will be:–
61.
62.
(A) 16 cm 3
RI (B) 4cm 3 (C) 1 cm 3
of water that will come out from this hole per second is :–
(A) 10 –3 m 3/s (B) 10 –4 m 3/s (C) 10 m 3/s
(D) 8 cm 3
A tank of height 5 m is full of water. There is a hole of cross sectional area 1 cm2 in its bottom. The initial volume
(D) 10 –2 m 3/s
In the figure below is shown the flow of liquid through a horizontal pipe. Three tubes A, B and C are connected
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to the pipe. The radii of the tubes, A, B and C at the junction are respectively 2 cm, 1 cm. and 2 cm. It can
be said that the :–
A C
B
(A) Height of the liquid in the tube A is maximum

E
(B) Height of the liquid in the tubes A and B is the same
(C) Height of the liquid in all the three tubes is the same
(D) Height of the liquid in the tubes A and C is the same
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63. The diagram (figure) shows a venturimeter, through which water is flowing. The speed of water at X is 2
cm/s. The speed of water at Y (taking g = 1000 cm/s 2) is :–
5.1mm
x
y
(A) 23 cm/s (B) 32 cm/s (C) 101 cm/s (D) 1024 cm/s
64. Water contained in a tank flows through an orifice of a diameter 2 cm, under a constant pressure difference
of 10 cm of water column. The rate of flow of water through the orifice is:–
(A) 44 cc/s (B) 4.4 cc/s (C) 444 cc/s (D) 4400 cc/s
PAGE NO : 80
VISCOSITY
65. More viscous oil is used in summer than in winter in motors due to :–
(A) Rise in temperature in summer, the viscosity of oil decreases
(B) Rise in temperature in summer, viscosity of oil increases
(C) Surface tension of oil increases
(D) Surface tension of oil decreases
66. With increase in temperature, the viscosity of :–

(A) Gases decreases and liquid increases (B) Gases increases and liquid decreases
(C) Both gases and liquid increases (D) Both gases and liquid decreases
67. A rain drop of radius 0.3 mm has a terminal velocity in air 1m/s. The viscosity of air is 18 × 10–5 poise. The
viscous force on it is :–
(A) 101.73 × 10 –4 dyne (B) 101.73 × 10 –5 dyne
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–5
(C) 16.95 × 10 dyne (D) 16.95 × 10 –4 dyne
68. Two liquids of densities d1 and d2 are flowing in identical capillaries under same pressure difference. If t1 and
t2 are the time taken for the flow of equal quantities of liquids, then the ratio of coefficients of viscosities of
liquids must be :–
d1 d 2 d 1 t1 d1 t 2  d1 t1 
(A) t t (B) d t (C) d t (D)  d t 
1 2 2 2 2 1 2 2
69.
70.
(A) Surface tension
increases :–
RI
The velocity of falling rain drop attain limited value because of :–
(C) Viscous force exerted by air
(A) When the pressure of the tube is increased

(B) Upthrust due to air
(D) Air current
The rate of flow of liquid through a capillary tube, in an experiment to determine the viscosity of the liquid,
(B) When the length of the tube is increased

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(C) When the radius of the tube is decreased (D) None of the above
71. A copper ball of radius 'r' travels with a uniform speed 'v' in a viscous fluid. If the ball is changed with another
ball of radius '2r', then new uniform speed will be :–
(A) v (B) 2v (C) 4v (D) 8v
72. Two drops of equal radius are falling through air with a steady velocity of 5cm/sec. If the two drops coalesce,
then its terminal velocity will be :–
1 1 2
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1
(A) 4 3  5 cm / s (B) 4 3 cm/s (C) 5 3  4 cm / s (D) 4 3  5 cm / s
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Q u e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. C D B C A A A C C C B D A A B A A B A A
Q u e. 2 1 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. C C C A C C C B A D C B D D B D D D D C
Q u e. 4 1 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. B A B B C C A A B A B B B A D B A A C C
Q u e. 6 1 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72
Ans. A D B C A B A B C A C A
PAGE NO : 81
PHYSICS
FLUIDS AND PROPERTIES OF MATTER-LEVEL 2
1. One end of uniform wire of length L and of weight W is attached rigidly to a point in the roof and a weight
W is suspended from its lower end. If s is the area of cross–section of the wire, the stress in the wire at a
1
L
height from its lower end is :–
4
 W  3W 
W  W1  4   W1  4  W1  W
(A) 1 (B) (C)   (D)
s s s 4
2. A steel wire 1.5 m long and of radius 1 mm is attached with a load 3 kg at one end the other end of the wire
is fixed it is whirled in a vertical circle with a frequency 2Hz. Find the elongation of the wire when the weight
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is at the lowest position– (Y = 2 × 10 11 N/m² and g = 10 m/s²)
(A) 1.77 × 10 –3 m (B) 7.17 × 10 –3 m (C) 3.17 × 10 –7 m (D) 1.37 × 10 –7 m
3. A copper wire of length 3m and area of cross–section 1 mm2, passes through an arrangement of two frictionless
pulleys, P1 and P2. One end of the wire is rigidly clamped and a mass of 1 kg is hanged from the other end.
If the Young's modulus for copper is 10 × 10 10 N/m 2, then the elongation in the wire is–
RI 1m
P1
1m
P2
1m
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(A) 0.05 mm (B) 0.1 mm (C) 0.2 mm (D) 0.3 mm
4. One end of a long metallic wire of length L area of cross section A and Young's modulus Y is tied to the ceiling.
The other end is tied to a massless spring of force constant k. A mass m hangs freely from the free end of
the spring. It is slightly pulled down and released. Its time period is given by–
E
m mYA mk m (kL  YA )
(A) 2  (B) 2  (C) 2  (D) 2 
k kL YA kYA
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5. In determination of young modulus of elasticity of wire, a force is applied andextension is recorded. Initial
length of wire is '1m'. The curve between extension and stress is depicted then Young modulus of wire will
be:
(A) 2 × 10 9 N/m 2 (B) 1 × 10 9 N/m 2 (C) 2 × 10 10 N/m 2 (D) 1 × 10 10 N/m 2
PAGE NO : 82
6. A block of mass 'M' area of cross–section 'A' & length '' is placed on smooth horizontal floor. A force 'F' is
applied on the block as shown. If Y is young modulus of material , then total extension in the block will be:
Area 'A'
F F F
(A) (B) (C) (D) cannot extend
AY 2AY 3AY
7. A steel rod of cross–sectional area 16 cm2 and two brass rods of cross section area 10 cm2 together support
a load of 5000 kg as shown in figure. The stress in steel rod will be : (Take Y for steel = 2.0 × 10 6 N/cm 2
and for brass = 1.0 × 10 6 N/cm 2 )
5000 kg
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Brass
Brass
30 cm
Steel
20 cm
(A) 161.2 N/cm 2 (B) 151.4 N/cm 2 (C) 131.4 N/cm 2 (D) None of these
8.
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The figure shows a soap film in which a closed elastic thread is lying. The film inside the thread is pricked.
Now the sliding wire is moved out so that the surface area increases. The radius of the circle formed by elastic
thread will :
Elastic thread
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sliding
wire
soap film
(A) increase (B) decreases (C) remains same (D) data insufficient
9. Water rise in a capillary upto a extension height such that upward force of surface tension balances the force
of 75 × 10–4 N due to weight of water. If surface tension of water is 6 × 10–2 N/m. The internal circumference
E
of the capillary must be :–

(A) 12.5 × 10 –2 m (B) 6.5 × 10 –2 m (C) 0.5 × 10 –2 m (D) 1.25 × 10 –2 m
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10. In a U–tube diameter of two limbs are 0.5 cm and 1 cm respectively and tube has filled with water
(T = 72 dyne/cm) then liquid level difference between two limbs will be :–
(A) 0.5 cm (B) 0.25 cm (C) 0.293 cm (D) none of these
11. On dipping a capillary of radius 'r' in water, water rises upto a height H and potential energy of water is u 1.
u1
If a capillary of radius 2r is dipped in water, then the potential energy is u 2. The ratio
u 2 is :–
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 1
12. There are two thin films, A of liquid and B of polythene, identical in size. They are being pulled with same
maximum weight W. If the breadth of the films is increased from b to 2b then the corresponding weights will
be respectively –
W W W W
(A) W, W (B) , (C) , W (D) W,
2 2 2 2
PAGE NO : 83
13. A capillary of the shape as shown is dipped in a liquid. Contact angle between the liquid and the capillary
is 0° and effect to liquid inside the meniscus is to be neglected. T is surface tension of the liquid, r is radius
of the meniscus, g is acceleration due to gravity and  is density of the liquid then height h in equilibrium is:
2T 2T
(A) Greater than (B) Equal to
r g r g
2T
(C) Less than (D) Of any value depending upon actual value
r g
14. The spring balance A read 2 kg with a block m suspended from it. A balance B reads 5 kg when a beaker
with liquid is put on the pan of the balance. The two balances are now so arranged that the hanging mass is
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inside the liquid in the beaker as shown in figure. In this situation :–
(A)
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The balance A will read more than 2 kg
B
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(B) The balance B will read more than 5 kg
(C) The balance A will read less than 2 kg and B will read more than 5 kg
(D) The balance A and B will read 2 kg and 5 kg respectively.
15. A steel ball is floating in a trough of mercury. If we fill the empty part of the trough with water, what will happen
to the steel ball :–
(A) It will continue in its position (B) It will move up
(C) It will move down (D) It will execute vertical oscillations
E
16. A balloon filled with air is weighted, so that it barely floats in water as shown in figure. When it is pushed down
so that it gets submerged a short distance in water, then the balloon :–
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(A) Will come up again to its former position (B) Will remain in the position it is left
(C) Will sink to the bottom (D) Will emerge out of liquid
17. A wooden ball of density D is immersed in water of density d to a depth h below the surface of water upto
which the ball will jump out of water is :–
d d 
(A) h (B)   1  h (C) h (D) zero
D  D 
PAGE NO : 84
18. A solid uniform ball having volume V and density  floats at the interface of two unmixible liquids as shown
in figure. The densities of the upper and the lower liquids are 1 and 2 respectively, such that 1    2 . What
fraction of the volume of the ball will be in the lower liquid :–
  2 1 1   1  2
(A)    (B)    (C)    (D) 2
1 2 1 2 1 2
19. A spherical ball of radius r and relative density 0.5 is floating in equilibrium in water with half of it immersed
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in water. The work done in pushing the ball down so that whole of it is just immersed in water is [ is the
density of water] –
4 3 5
(A) 0.25  rg (B) 0.5  rg (C) r g (D) r 4 g
3 12
20. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has a radius R, one end of which has n fine holes, each of radius r. If the
21.
v R 
(A)  
nr 
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speed of flow of the liquid in the tube is v, the speed of ejection of the liquid through the hole is :–
v  R 2
(B)  
nr 
1
v  R 2
(C)  
nr 
3
(D)
v R 
n  r 
2
A cylindrical vessel filled with water is released on an inclined surface of angle  as shown in figure. The
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friction coefficient of surface with vessel is µ(< tan). Then the constant angle made by the surface of water
with the incline will be–
Fixed

(A) tan–1µ (B)  – tan–1µ (C)  + tan–1µ (D) cot –1µ

E
22. A cylindrical container of radius 'R' and height 'h' is completely filled with a liquid. Two horizontal L shaped
pipes of small cross–section area 'a' are connected to the cylinder as shown in the figure. Now the two
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pipes are opened and fluid starts coming out of the pipes horizontally in opposite directions. Then the torque
due to ejected liquid on the system is–
2R
h/2 h/2
R R
(A) 4 aghR (B) 8 aghR (C) 2 aghR (D) none of these
PAGE NO : 85
23. A small uniform tube is bent into a circular tube of radius R and kept in the vertical plane. Equal volumes
of two liquids of densities  and  ( > ) fill half of the tube as shown.  is the angle which the radius passing
through the interface makes with the vertical. The value of  is :–
R

1            
(A)   tan  (B)   tan 1  (C)   tan 1  (D)   tan 1 
     





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24. A U–tube of base length '' filled with same volume of two liquids of densities  and 2 is moving with an
acceleration 'a' on the horizontal plane. If the height difference between the two surfaces (open to atmosphere)
becomes zero, then the height h is given by–
h a
(A)
a
2g

RI (B)
3a
2g


(C)
a
g
 (D)
2a
3g

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25. A narrow tube completely filled with a liquid is lying on a series of cylinder as shown in figure. Assuming
no sliding between any surfaces, the value of acceleration of the cylinders for which liquid will not come
out of the tube from anywhere is given by
open to
atmosphere
H L
E
gH gH 2gH gH
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(A) (B) (C) (D)

2L L L 2L
26. A non uniform cylinder of mass m, length  and radius r is having its centre of mass at a distance
/4 from the centre and lying on the axis of the cylinder. The cylinder is kept in a liquid of uniform density
, The moment of inertia of the rod about the centre of mass is I. The angular acceleration of point A relative
to point B just after the rod is released from the position shown in figure is :
C CM
A B
g 2 r 2 g 2 r 2 g 2 r 2 3 g 2 r 2

(A) (B) (C) (D)
I 4I 2I 4I
PAGE NO : 86
27. A square box of water has a small hole located in one of the bottom corner. When the box is full and sitting
on a level surface, complete opening of the hole results in a flow of water with a speed v 0, as shown in
figure (1). When the box is tilted by 45° and half filled so that the hole is at the lowest point. Now the water
will flow out with a speed of:
v0
v Later-on
Fig (1) Initial
v0 v0 v0
(A) v 0 (B) (C) (D) 4
2 2 2
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28. Water filled in an empty tank of area 10 A through a tap of cross sectional area A. The speed of water
  
flowing out of tap is given by v (m/s) = 10  1  sin t  where 't' is in seconds. The height of water level
30 
from the bottom of the tank at t = 15 second will be:
 30  5  30 
(A) 10m (B) 15  m (C) m (D) 15  m
   4   
29.
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Two very wide parallel glass plates are held vertically at a small separation d, and dipped in water. Some
water climbs up in the gap between the plates. Let S be the surface tension of water, P 0 = atmospheric
pressure, P = pressure of water just below the water surface in the region between the plates–
d
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2S 4S 4S
(A) P=P 0 – (B) P=P 0 + 2S (C) P=P 0 – (D) P=P 0 +
d d d d
30. A piece of cork starts from rest at the bottom of a lake and floats up. Its velocity v is plotted against time
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t. Which of the following best represents the resulting curve–

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(A) v (B) v (C) v (D) v
t t t t
31. A sealed tank containing a liquid of density  moves with a horizontal acceleration a, as shown in the figure.
The difference in pressure between the points A and B is–
L
C A
a
h
B
(A) hg (B) a (C) hg – a (D) hg + a
PAGE NO : 87
32. The U–tube shown has a uniform cross–section. A liquid is filled in the two arms up to heights h1 and h2, and
then the liquid is allowed to move. Neglect viscosity and surface tension. When the levels equalize in the two
arms, the liquid will–
(A) be at rest
 h1  h2 
(B) be moving with an acceleration of g 
 h 1  h 2  h  h1
g
(C) be moving with a velocity of (h 1  h 2 ) h2
2(h 1  h 2  h)
(D) exert a net force to the right on the tube h
33. Water coming out of the mouth of a tap and falling vertically in streamline flow forms a tapering column, i.e.,
the area of cross–section of the liquid column decreases as it moves down. Which of the following is the most
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accurate explanation for this :-
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(A) As the water moves down, its speed increases and hence its pressure decreases. It is then compressed
by the atmosphere.
(B) Falling water tries to reach a terminal velocity and hence reduces the area of cross–section to balance
upward and downward forces.
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(C) The mass of water flowing past any cross–section must remain constant. Also, water is almost incompressible.
Hence, the rate of volume flow must remain constant. As this is equal to velocity × area, the area decreases
as velocity increases.
(D) The surface tension causes the exposed surface area of the liquid to decrease continuously.
34. There are two identical small holes on the opposite sides of a tank containing a liquid. The tank is open at
the top. The difference in height between the two holes is h. As the liquid comes out of the two holes, the
tank will experience a net horizontal force proportional to–
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(A) h (B) h (C) h 3/2 (D) h 2
35. A U–tube of uniform cross–section is partially filled with a liquid I. Another liquid II which does not mix with
liquid I is poured into one side. It is found that the liquid levels of the two sides of the tube are the same,
while the level of liquid I has risen by 2 cm. If the specific gravity of liquid I is 1.1, the specific gravity of
liquid II must be :–
(A) 1.12 (B) 1.1 (C) 1.05 (D) 1.0
PAGE NO : 88
36. A homogeneous solid cylinder of length L (L < H/2), cross–sectional area A/5 is immersed such that it floats
with its axis vertical at the liquid–liquid interface with length L/4 in the denser liquid as shown in the figure.
The lower density liquid is open to atmosphere having pressure P0. Then, density D of solid is given by :–
5 4 d
(A) d (B) d (C) 4d (D)
4 5 5
37. A mercury manometer is connected as shown in the figure. The difference in height h is : (symbols have usual
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meaning).
v
d
 h
38.
(A)
d cot 
Hg RI (B)
d tan 
Hg (C)
d sin 
Hg (D) None of these
An open pan P filled with water (density W) is placed on a vertical rod, maintaining equilibrium. A block of
density  is placed on one side of the pan as shown. Water depth is more than height of the block.
(A) Equilibrium will be maintained only if  < w
P
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(B) Equilibrium will be maintained only   w
(C) Equilibrium will be maintained for all relations between  and w
(D) Equilibrium will not be maintained in all cases.
39. A small ball is left in a viscous liquid form very much height. Correct graph of its velocity with time is :–
B
A
E
velocity
C
D
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time
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
40. A cubical block of side 'a' and density '' slides over a fixed inclined plane with constant velocity 'v'. There
is a thin film of viscous fluid of thickness 't' between the plane and the block. Then the coefficient of viscosity
of the thin film will be:
agt sin  agt cos  v

v v agt sin 
PAGE NO : 89
41. A space 2.5 cm wide between two large plane surfaces is filled with oil. Force required to drag a very thin
plate of area 0.5 m2 just midway the surfaces at a speed of 0.5 m/s is 1N. The coefficient of viscosity in kg–
sec/m 2 is:
2.5 cm F
1.25 cm

(A) 5 × 10 –2 (B) 2.5 × 10 –2 (C) 1 × 10 –2 (D) 7.5 × 10 –2
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42. A large drop of oil, whose density is less than that of water, floats up through a column of water. Assume that
the oil and the water do not mix. The coefficient of viscosity of the oil is o and that of water is W. The velocity
of the drop will depend on–
(A) both o and W (B) o only (C) W only (D) neither o nor W
43. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density = 19.5 kg/m3) is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid (density = 1.5
44.
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kg/m3), find the terminal speed of a sphere of silver (density = 10.5 kg/m3) of the same size in the same liquid.
(A) 0.4 m/s (B) 0.133 m/s (C) 0.1 m/s
A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of viscous liquid.
Which of the following graphs represent the variation of :–
(i) Gravitational force with time
(ii) Viscous force with time
(D) 0.2 m/s
F
Q
R
P
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O t
(iii) Net force acting on the ball with time
(A) Q, R, P (B) R, Q, P (C) P, Q, R (D) R, P, Q
45. A small sphere of mass m is dropped from a height. After it has fallen 100 m, it has attained its terminal velocity and
continues to fall at that speed. The work done by air friction against the sphere during the first 100 m of fall is :–
(A) Greater than the work done by air friction in the second 100 m
(B) Less tan the work done by air friction in the second 100 m
(C) Equal to 100 mg
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(D) Greater than 100 mg
46. The wires A and B shown in the figure are made of the same material, and have radii rA
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and r B respectively. The block between them has a mass m. When the force F is mg/3,
A
one of the wires breaks–
(A) A will break before B if r A = r B m
(B) A will break before B if r A < 2r B
B
(C) Either A or B may break if r A = 2r B
(D) The lengths of A and B must be known to predict which wire will break F
47. When a capillary tube is dipped in a liquid, the liquid rises to a height h in the tube. The free liquid surface
inside the tube is hemispherical in shape. The tube is now pushed down so that the height of the tube outside
the liquid is less than h:-
(A) The liquid will come out of the tube like in a small fountain.
(B) The liquid will ooze out of the tube slowly.
(C) The liquid will fill the tube but not come out of its upper end.
(D) The free liquid surface inside the tube will not be hemispherical.
PAGE NO : 90
48. A massless conical flask filled with a liquid is kept on a table in a vacuum. The force exerted by the liquid
on the base of the flask is W1. The force exerted by the flask on the table is W 2.
(A) W 1 = W 2 (B) W 1 > W 2 (C) W 1 < W 2

(D) The force exerted by the liquid on the walls of the flask is (W1 – W 2).
A1
49. The vessel shown in the figure has two sections of areas of cross–section A1 and A2. A liquid
of density  fills both the sections, up to a height h in each. Neglect atmospheric pressure:- h
(A) The pressure at the base of the vessel is 2hg. X
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(B) The force exerted by the liquid on the base of the vessel is 2hgA 2. h
(C) The weight of the liquid is < 2hgA 2. 
(D) The walls of the vessel at the level X exert a downward force hg (A 2 – A 1) on the liquid.
50. A liquid flows through a horizontal tube. The velocities of the liquid in the two sections, which have areas of
cross–section A1 and A2, are v1 and v2 respectively. The difference in the levels of the liquid in the two vertical
tubes is h–
RI A1 v1
h
v2
A2
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(A) The volume of the liquid flowing through the tube in unit time is A 1v 1
(B) v 2  v 1  2gh
(C) v 22  v 12  2gh
(D) The energy per unit mass of the liquid is the same in both sections of the tube.
51. A vertical U–tube contains a liquid. The total length of the liquid column inside the tube is . When the liquid
is in equilibrium, the liquid surface in one of the arms of the U–tube is pushed down slightly and released.
E
The entire liquid column will undergo a periodic motion :–

(A) The motion is not simple harmonic motion.
(B) The motion is simple harmonic motion.

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(C) If it undergoes simple harmonic motion, the time period will be 2 

g

(D) It is undergoes simple harmonic motion, the time period will be 2 
2g

Q u e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B A D D A B A C A C D D C C B
Q u e. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C B C D D A A A B A B D D A A
Q u e. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. D C C B B A B B C A B C C C A
Q u e. 46 47 48 49 50 51
Ans. A,B,C C,D B A,B,C,D A,C,D B,D
PAGE NO : 91
PHYSICS
HEAT & THERMODYNAMICS LEVEL-1
1. On an X temperature scale, water freezes at –125.0° X and boils at 375.0° X. On a Y temperature scale,
water freezes at –70.0° Y and boils at –30.0° Y. The value of temperature on X–scale equal to the temperature
of 50.0°Y on Y–scale is :–
(A) 455.0°X (B) –125.0°X (C) 1375.0°X (D) 1500.0°X
2. A centigrade and a Fahrenheit thermometer are dipped in boiling water. The water temperature is lowered
until the Fahrenheit thermometer registers 140°F What is the temperature as registered by the centigrade
thermometer :–
(A) 30° (B) 40° (C) 60° (D) 80°
3. The graph AB shown in figure is a plot of temperature of a body in degree
Celsius and degree Fahrenheit. Then :– 100°C B
Centigra de
(A) Slope of line AB is 9/5
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(B) Slope of line AB is 5/9
(C) Slope of line AB is 1/9 Fahrenheit
(D) slope of line AB is 3/9 32°F 212°F
A
4. Two absolute scales X and Y assigned numerical values 200 and 450 to the triple point of water. What is the
relation between TX and TY ?
(A) 9TX = 4TY (B) 4TX = 9TY (C) TX = 3TY (D) None of these
5.
6.
(A) 4.0°C
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A faulty thermometer reads freezing point and boiling point of water as –5°C and 95°C respectively.
What is the correct value of temperature as it reads 60°C on faulty thermometer?
(A) 60°C (B) 65°C
(B) 4.5°C
(C) 64°C
(C) 5.0°C
(D) 62°C
A steel scale is to be prepared such that the millimeter intervals are to be accurate within 6 × 10–5 mm. The
maximum temperature variation during the ruling of the millimeter marks is (=12×10 –6C –1):–
(D) 5.5°C.
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7. A meter washer has a hole of diameter d1 and external diameter d2 , where d2=3d1. On heating, d2 increases by
0.3%. Then d1 will :–
(A) decrease by 0.1% (B) decrease by 0.3% (C) increase by 0.1% (D) increase by 0.3%.
8. At 4°C, 0.98 of the volume of a body is immersed in water. The temperature at which the entire body gets
immersed in water is (neglect the expansion of the body) (  w  3.3  10 4 K 1 ) :–
(A) 40.8°C (B) 64.6°C (C) 60.6°C (D) 58.8°C
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9. Two metal rods of the same length and area of cross–section are fixed ends to end between rigid supports.
The materials of the rods have Young moduli Y1 and Y2, and coefficients of linear expansion 1 and 2. When
rods are cooled the junction between the rods does not shift if:–
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(A) Y 11 = Y 22 (B) Y 12 = Y 21 (C) Y 11 = Y 22 (D) Y 11 = Y 22
10. In a vertical U–tube containing a liquid, the two arms are maintained at different temperatures, t 1 and t 2.
The liquid columns in the two arms have heights 1 and 2 respectively. The coefficient of volume expansion
of the liquid is equal to:–
t1
1
2 t2
1   2 1   2 1   2 1   2
(A)  t   t (B)  t   t (C)  t   t (D)  t   t
2 1 1 2 1 1 2 2 2 1 1 2 1 1 2 2
PAGE NO : 92
HEAT & THERMODYNAMICS PHYSICS
11. A steel rod of length 1 m is heated from 25°C to 75°C keeping its length constant. The longitudinal strain
developed in the rod is:– (Given : Coefficient of linear expansion of steel = 12 x 10 –6/°C)
(A) 6 × 10 –6 (B) –6 × 10 –5 (C) –6 × 10 –4 (D) zero
12. A brass disc fits simply in a hole of a steel plate. The disc from the hole can be loosened if the system (brass >steel)
(A) First heated then cooled (B) First cooled then heated
(C) Is heated (D) Is cooled
13. The variation of lengths of two metal rods A and B with change in temperature is shown in figure. The ratio
A
of  is:–
B
106
B
length(cm)
104
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A
100
0 T
temp. (°C)
3 2 4 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 3 4
14.
15.
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A steel tape is placed around the earth at the equator when the temperature is 10°C. What will be the
clearance between the tape and the ground (assumed to be uniform) if the temperature of the tape rises to
40°C ? Neglect expansion of the earth. Radius of earth at equator is 6400 km & steel = 1.2 × 10–5 K–1
(A) 2.3 m (B) 2.1 m (C) 2.3 km (D) 230 m
Bars of two different metals are bolted together, as shown in figure.The distance x does not change with temperature
if:–
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A A
B B
A A  A B 2A  A 2A  B
(A)    (B)    (C) 2   (D) 2  
B B B A B B B A
E
16. A metal rod A of length 0 expands by  when its temperature is raised by 100°C. Another rod B of different
metal of length 2 0 expands by /2 for same rise in temperature. A third rod C of length 3 0 is made
up of pieces of rods A and B placed end to end expands by 2 on heating through 100 K. The length
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of each portion of the composite rod is:–

5 4 3 0 3 0 2 7
(A) ,  (B) 0, 20 (C) , (D) 0, 0
3 0 3 0 2 2 3 3
17. The coefficient of linear expansion '' of a rod of length 2m varies with the distance x from the end of the rod as
 = 0 + 1x where 0 = 1.76 × 10–5 °C–1 and 1 = 1.2 × 10–6m–1 °C–1. The increase in the length of the rod,
when heated through 100°C is:–
(A) 2cm (B) 3.76mm (C) 1.2 mm (D) None of these
18. The coefficient of linear expansion  of the material of a rod of length 0 varies with absolute temperature as
=aT – bT2 where a & b are constants. The linear expansion of the rod when heated from T1 to T2 = 2T1 is:–
 3 2 7b 3   7b   2 7b 3 
(A)  aT1  T1  L 0 (B)  4a   T1 L 0 (C)  2aT1  T1  L 0 (D) None of these
2 3   3   3 
PAGE NO : 93
19. A clock with a metallic pendulum gains 6 seconds each day when the temperature is 20°C and loses 6 second
when the temperature is 40°C. Find the coefficient of linear expansion of the metal.
(A) 1.4 × 10–5 °C–1 (B) 1.4 × 10–6 °C–1 (C) 1.4 × 10–4 °C–1 (D) 0.4 × 10–6 °C–1
20. A steel scale measures the length of a copper rod as 0 when both are at 20°C, which is the calibration tempera-
ture for the scale. The scale reading when both are at 40°C, is:–
 1  20  S   1  20  C 
(A) 1  20  C   0 (B) 1  20  S   0 (C)  1  20    0 (D)  1  20    0
 C  S 
2 1 . The coefficient of apparent expansion of a liquid when determined using two different vessels A and
B are  1 and  2 respectively. If the coefficient of linear expansion of the vessel A is  1 , the coefficient
of linear expansion of the vessel B is:–
1  1  2 1  2 1  2      2  3 1
(A)    (B) 2 1 (C) (D) 1
1 2 3 3
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22. Three rods of the same dimensions have thermal conductivities 3k, 2k and k. They are arranged as shown,
with their ends at 100°C, 50°C and 0°C. The temperature of their junction is:–
50°C
2k
100°C
3k
(A) 75°C
RI 200
(B)
3
C (C) 40°C
k
0°C
(D)
100
3
C
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23. A cup of tea cools from 80°C to 60°C in one minute. The ambient temperature is 30°C. In cooling from 60°C to
50°C. It will take :–
(A) 50 s (B) 90 s (C) 60 s (D) 48 s
24. Ice starts forming in lake with water at 0°C when the atmospheric temperature is –10°C. If the time taken for
1 cm of ice be 7 hours, then the time taken for the thickness of ice to change from 1 cm to 2 cm is :–
(A) 7 hours (B) 14 hours (C) less than 7 hours (D) more than 7 hours
25. There is a small hole in a container. At what temperature should it be maintained in order that it emits one
calorie of energy per second per meter 2 :–
E
(A) 10K (B) 500K (C) 200K (D) 100K
26. A blackened metallic foil is kept at a distance d from a spherical heater. The power absorbed by the foil is P. If
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the temperature of heater and distance both are doubled, then the power absorbed by the foil will be:–
(A) 8P (B) 4P (C) 2P (D) P
27. Two different rods A and B are kept as shown in figure. The variation of temperature of different cross sections
with distance is plotted in a graph shown in figure. The ratio of thermal conductivities of A and B is-
Temp.(°C)
100°
100°C 70°C 35°C 70°

A B 35°
Distance
0 30 100 (cm)
(A) 2 (B) 0.5 (C) 1 (D) 2/3
PAGE NO : 94
28. The area of cross–section of rod is given by A = A0 (1 + x) where A0 &  are constant and x is the distance from
one end. If the thermal conductivity of the material is K, what is the thermal resistance of the rod if its length is 0?
1  KA 0
(A) KA0 n(1 + 0) (B) KA  n(1   0 ) (C) KA n(1   0 ) (D) n(1   0 )
0 0 
29. Which of the following graph shows the correct variation in intensity of heat radiations by black body and frequency
at a fixed temperature:–
E E E E
UV Visible Infra-red UV Visible Infra-red Infra-red Visible Ultra-voilet Infra-red Visible Ultra-voilet
3500K
3500K 1500K
2500K 1500K
(A) (B) 2500K (C) 2500K
(D) 2500K
1500K
3500K 1500K 3500K
   
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30. A red star and a green star radiate energy at the same rate which star is bigger.
(A) Red (B) Green
(C) Both have same size (D) Can't be say anything
31. 250 g of water and an equal volume of alcohol of mass 200 g are placed successively in the same calorimeter
and cools from 60°C to 55°C in 130 sec and 67 sec respectively. If the water equivalent of the calorimeter is 10
g then the specific heat of alcohol in cal/g°C is :–
32.
33.
(A) 1.30
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(B) 0.67
then upto what height he can climb ? Take g = 10 m s–2

(A) 100 cm (B) 1.96 cm
(C) 0.62
(C) 400 cm
(D) 0.985
The weight of a person is 60 kg. If he gets 10 calories of heat through food and the efficiency of his body is 28%,
(D) 1000 cm
Two identical masses of 5 kg each fall on a wheel from a height of 10m. The wheel disturbs a mass of 2 kg water,
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the rise in temperature of water will be :–
(A) 2.6° C (B) 1.2° C (C) 0.32° C (D) 0.12° C
34. Hailstone at 0°C falls from a height of 1 km on an insulating surface converting whole of its kinetic energy into
heat. What part of it will melt:– [g = 10 m/s2, Lice = 330 × 103 J kg–1]
1 1 1
(A) (B) (C)  10 4 (D) All of it will melt
33 8 33
E
35. If HC, HK and HF are heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of water by one degree in Celsius,
Kelvin and Fahrenheit temperature scales respectively then :–
(A) H K > H C > H F (B) H F > H C > H K (C) H K = H C > H F (D) H K = H C = H F
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36. Steam at 100°C is passed through 1.1 kg of water contained in a calorimeter of water equivalent
0.02 kg at 15°C till the temperature of the calorimeter and its contents rises to 80°C. The mass of the steam
condensed in kg is :–
(A) 0.130 (B) 0.065 (C) 0.260 (D) 0.135
37. Water is used to cool the radiators of engines in cars because :–

(A) of its low boiling point (B) of its high specific heat
(C) of its low density (D) of its easy availability
38. If mass–energy equivalence is taken into account, when water is cooled to form ice, the mass of water should:–
(Note : The mass energy of an object is the energy equivalent of its mass, as given by E = mc 2 , where
m = mass of object & c = speed of light)
(A) increase (B) remain unchanged
(C) decrease (D) first increase then decrease
PAGE NO : 95
39. If the intermolecular forces vanish away, the volume occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 kg. water at
standard temperature and pressure will be given by :–
(A) 5.6 m3 (B) 4.5 m3 (C) 11.2 litre (D) 11.2 m3
40. A refrigerator converts 100 g of water at 25°C into ice at – 10°C in one hour and 50 minutes. The quantity
of heat removed per minute is:– (Specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal/g°C, latent heat of fusion = 80 cal/g)
(A) 50 cal (B) 100 cal (C) 200 cal (D) 75 cal
41. Pressure versus temperature graphs of an ideal gas are as shown in figure. Choose the wrong statement:–
P P P
(i) (ii) (iii)
T T T
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(A) Density of gas is increasing in graph (i) (B) Density of gas decreasing in graph (ii)
(C) Density of gas is constant in graph (iii) (D) None of the above
42. In a process the density of a gas remains constant. If the temperature is doubled, then the change in the
pressure will be:–
(A) 100 % increase (B) 200 % increase (C) 50 % decrease (D) 25 % decrease
43.
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The expansion of unit mass of a perfect gas at constant pressure is shown in the diagram. Here:–
a
O
b
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(A) a = volume, b = °C temperature (B) a = volume, b = K temperature
(C) a = °C temperature, b = volume (D) a = K temperature, b = volume
1 th
44. Air is filled at 60° C in a vessel of open mouth. The vessel is heated to a temperature T so that part of air
4
escapes. The value of T is :–
(A) 80° C (B) 444° C (C) 333° C (D) 171° C
E
P0
45. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a process P  Here P 0 and V 0 are constants. Change in
1  (V0 / V ) 2
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temperature of the gas when volume is changed from V =V0 to V = 2V0 is :–

2P0 V0 11P0 V0 5P0 V0
(A)  (B) (C)  (D) P0 V0
5R 10R 4R
46. Two identical glass bulbs are interconnected by a thin glass tube at 0ºC. A gas is filled at N.T.P. in these bulb is
placed in ice and another bulb is placed in hot bath, then the pressure of the gas becomes 1.5 times. The
temperature of hot bath will be :–
Ice Hot water

(A) 100°C (B) 182°C (C) 256°C (D) 546°C
PAGE NO : 96
47. A gas has volume V and pressure P. The total translational kinetic energy of all the molecules of the gas is:–
3 3
(A) PV only if the gas is monoatomic. (B) PV only if the gas is diatomic.
2 2
3 3
(C) > PV if the gas is diatomic. (D) PV in all cases.
2 2
CP
48. A mixture of n1 moles of monoatomic gas and n2 moles of diatomic gas has C    1.5 :–
V
(A) n1 = n2 (B) 2n1 = n 2 (C) n 1 = 2n2 (D) 2n 1 = 3n 2
49. Four containers are filled with monoatomic ideal gases. For each container, the number of moles, the mass of an
individual atom and the rms speed of the atoms are expressed in terms of n, m and vrms respectively. If TA, TB,TC
and TD are their temperatures respectively then which one of the options correctly represents the order ?
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A B C D
Number of moles n 3n 2n n
Mass 4m m 3m 2m
Rms speed v rms 2v rms v rms 2v rms
Temperature TA TB TC TD
50.
(A) TB = TC > TA > TD
RI (B) TD > TA > TC > TB (C) TD > TA = TB > TC
10 23 molecules of a gas strike a target of area 1 m 2 at angle 45° to normal and rebound elastically with
speed 1 kms –1. The impulse normal to wall per molecule is:– [Given : mass of molecule = 3.32 × 10 –27kg]
(A) 4.7 × 10 –24 kg ms –1
(C) 3.32× 10 –24 kg ms –1
(B) 7.4 × 10 –24 kg ms –1
(D) 2.33 kg ms –1
(D) TB > TC > TA > TD
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51. From the following V–T diagram we can conclude:–
V
P2
P1
T
T1 T2
(A) P1 = P2 (B) P 1>P 2 (C) P1 < P2 (D) Can't say anything

E
52. The density in grams per litre of ethylene (C2H4) at STP is :–

(A) 1.25 (B) 2.50 (C) 3.75 (D) 5.25
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53. A gas is expanded from volume V 0 to 2V 0 under three different processes. Process 1 is isobaric process,
process 2 is isothermal and process 3 is adiabatic. Let U1, U2 and U3, be the change in internal energy
of the gas is these processes. Then :–
P
1
P0
V0 V
2V0
(A) U 1 > U 2 > U 3 (B) U 1 < U 2 < U 3

(C) U 2 < U 1 < U 3 (D) U 2 < U 3 < U 1
PAGE NO : 97
54. Some of the thermodynamic parameters are state variables while some are process variables. Some grouping of
the parameters are given. Choose the correct one.
(A) State variables : Temperature, No of moles
Process variables : Internal energy, work done by the gas.
(B) State variables : Volume, Temperature
Process variables : Internal energy, work done by the gas.
(C) State variables : Work done by the gas, heat rejected by the gas
Process variables : Temperature, volume.
(D) State variables : Internal energy, volume
Process variables : Work done by the gas, heat absorbed by the gas.
55. For an ideal gas PT11 = constant then volume expansion coefficient is equal to :–
11 1 12 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
T T T T
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56. The internal energy of a gas is given by U = 5 + 2PV. It expands from V0 to 2V0 against a constant pressure P0.
The heat absorbed by the gas in the process is :–
(A) –3P0V 0 (B) 3P 0V 0 (C) 2P0V 0 (D) P0V 0
57. When water is heated from 0°C to 4°C and CP and CV are its specific heats at constant pressure and constant
volume respectively, then :–
(A) CP > CV (B) CP < CV (C) CP = CV (D) CP – CV = R
58.
59.
(A) 4R
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The molar specific heat of the process V  T 4 for CH 4 gas at room temperature is:–
(B) 7R (C) 3R (D) 8R
5n, n and 5n moles of a monoatomic, diatomic and non-linear polyatomic gases (which do not react chemically
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with each other) are mixed at room temperature. The equivalent degree of freedom for the mixture is :–
25 48 52 50
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7 11 11 11
60. The internal energy of a gas in an adiabatic process is given by U = a + bPV, find  :–
a 1 b 1 b 1 a
(A) (B) (C) (D)
a b a b 1
E
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Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans . C C B A B C D B A A C D B C B A B A A D
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans . D B D D D B B B C A C B D A C D B C A B
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans . D A C D B D D A C A C A A D C B B B D B
PAGE NO : 98
PHYSICS
HEAT & THERMODYNAMICS LEVEL-2
1. A triangular plate has two cavities, one square and one rectangular as shown in figure. The plate is heated.
a a
b b
x
(A) a increase, b decrease (B) a and b both increase

(C) a and b increase, x and  decrease (D) a, b, x and  all increase
2. Three rods of equal length are joined to form an equilateral triangle ABC.D is the midpoint of AB. The
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coefficient of linear expansion is 1 for AB, and 2 for AC and BC. If the distance DC remains constant for
small changes in temperature:–
A D 1 B
2 2
3.
(A) 1 = 2
RI (B) 1 = 22
C
(C) 1 = 42
1

2 2
If water at 0°C, kept in a container with an open top, is placed in a large evacuated chamber:–
(A) All the water will vaporize.
(D) 1 =
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(B) All the water will freeze.
(C) Part of the water will vaporize and the rest will freeze.
(D) Ice, water and water vapour will be formed and reach equilibrium at the triple point.
4. In the previous question, if the specific latent heat of vaporization of water at 0°C is  times the specific latent
heat of freezing of water at 0°C, the fraction of water that will ultimately freeze is:–
1  1  1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
 1  1
E
5. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

(A) A gas has two specific heats only
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(B) A material will have only one specific heat, if and only if its coefficient of thermal expansion is equal to zero.
(C) A gas has infinite number of specific heats.
(D) None of these
6. When two samples at different temperatures are mixed, the temperature of the mixture can be :–
(A) lesser than lower or greater than higher temperature
(B) equal to lower or higher temperature
(C) greater than lower but lesser than higher temperature
(D) average of lower and higher temperatures.
7. Two identical beakers are filled with water to the same level at 4°C. If one say A is heated while the other B is
cooled, then:–
(A) water level in A will rise (B) water level in B will rise
(C) water level in A will fall (D) water level in B will fall
PAGE NO : 99
8. The figure shows two paths for the change of state of a gas from A to B. The ratio of molar heat
capacities in path 1 and path 2 is:–
2
A B
1
(A) > 1 (B) < 1 (C) 1 (D) Data insufficient
9. During the melting of a slab of ice at 273 K at atmospheric pressure:–

(A) Positive work is done by the ice–water system on the atmosphere.
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(B) Positive work is done on the ice–water system by the atmosphere.
(C) The internal energy of ice–water system increases.
(D) The internal energy of the ice–water system decreases.
10. Two substances A and B of equal mass m are heated by uniform rate of 6 cal s–1 under similar conditions. A
graph between temperature and time is shown in figure. Ratio of heat absorbed HA /HB by them for complete
fusion is:–
RI 100
Temper ature (°C)
80 A
60
40 B
20
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
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Time(s)
9 4 8 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 9 5 8
11. Three closed vessels A, B and C at the same temperature T and contain gases which obey the Maxwellian
distribution of velocities. Vessel A contains only O 2, B only N 2 and C a mixture of equal quantities of O 2
and N 2. If the average speed of the O 2 molecules in vessel A is v 1, that of the N 2 molecules in vessel B
E
is v 2, the average speed of O 2 molecules in vessel C is where M is the mass of an oxygen molecule:–
(A) (v 1+v 2) /2 (B) v 1 (C) (v 1 v 2) 1/2 (D) 3kT / M
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12. A partition divides a container having insulated walls into two compartments I and II.The same gas fills the
two compartments whose initial parameters are given. The partition is a conducting wall which can move
freely without friction. Which of the following statements is/are correct, with reference to the final equilibrium
position ?
P,V,T 2P,2V,T
I II
3V
(A) The pressure in the two compartments are equal. (B) Volume of compartment I is
5
12V 5P
(C) Volume of compartment II is (D) Final pressure in compartment I is
5 3
PAGE NO : 100
13. During experiment, an ideal gas is found to obey a condition P 2/= constant [  = density of the gas]. The gas is
initially at temperature T, pressure P and density  . The gas expands such that density changes to /2
(A) The pressure of the gas changes to 2 P
(B) The temperature of the gas changes to 2 T
(C) The graph of the above process on the P–T diagram is parabola
(D) The graph of the above process on the P–T diagram is hyperbola
14. An ideal gas can be expanded from an initial state to a certain volume through two different processes
(i) PV 2 = constant and (ii) P = KV 2 where K is a positive constant. Then:–
(A) Final temperature in (i) will be greater than in (ii)
(B) Final temperature in (ii) will be greater than in (i)
(C) Total heat given to the gas in (i) case is greater than in (ii)
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(D) Total heat given to the gas in (ii) case is greater than in (i)
1 5 . Pressure versus temperature graph of an ideal gas is shown in figure.Density of the gas at point A is
 0 . Density at B will be:–
P
3P0 B
RI P0
A
T0 2T0
T
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3 3 4
(A) 0 (B) 0 (C) 0 (D) 20
4 2 3
16. When unit mass of water boils to become steam at 1000C, it absorbs Q amount of heat. The densities of water
and steam at 1000C are 1 and 2 respectively and the atmospheric pressure is P0. The increase in internal
energy of the water is:–
1 1 1 1 1 1
(A) Q (B) Q  P0    (C) Q  P0    (D) Q  P0   
E
 1 2   2 1   1 2 
17. At temperature T,N molecule s of gas A each havi ng mass m and at the same temperature
JE
2 N molecules of gas B each having mass 2 m are filled in a container. The mean square velocity of molecules of gas
B is v 2 and x component of mean square velocity of molecules of gas A is w2. The ratio of w 2 / v 2 is :–
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1/3 (D) 2/3
18. A vessel is partitioned in two equal halves by a fixed diathermic separator. Two different ideal gases are filled
in left (L) and right (R) halves. The rms speed of the molecules in L part is equal to the mean speed of molecules
in the R part. Then the ratio of the mass of a molecule in L part to that of a molecule in R part is:–
L R
3
(A) (B) / 4 (C) 2/3 (D) 3/8
2
PAGE NO : 101
19. A closed vessel contains a mixture of two diatomic gases A and B. Molar mass of A is 16 times that of B and mass
of gas A contained in the vessel is 2 times that of B. Which of the following statements are true?
(A) Average kinetic energy per molecule of A is equal to that of B
(B) Root mean square value of translational velocity of B is four times that of A
(C) Pressure exerted by B is eight times of that exerted by A
(D) Number of molecules of B in the cylinder is eight times that of A
20. N(<100) molecules of a gas have velocities 1,2,3.... N, km/s respectively. Then:–
(A) rms speed and average speed of molecules are same
2N  1   N  1 
(B) Ratio of rms speed to average speed is
6N
2N  1   N  1 
(C) Ratio of rms speed to average speed is
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6
2 2N  1 
(D) Ratio of rms speed to average speed of a molecule
6 N  1
21. Let v , vrms and vp respectively denote the mean speed, the root–mean–square speed, and the most probable
speed of the molecules in an ideal monoatomic gas at absolute temperature T. The mass of a molecule is m:–
(C) v p  v  v rms
RI
(A) No molecule can have speed greater than v rms (B) No molecule can have speed less than
vp
(D) The average kinetic energy of a molecule is

2
3
4
mv 2p
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22. The following are the P–V diagrams for cyclic processes for a gas. In which of these processes is heat absorbed
by the gas ?
P
(A) P (B) V (C) (D) V
V P V P
E
23. The internal energy of a system remains constant when it undergoes :–

(A) a cyclic process (B) an isothermal process (C) an adiabatic process
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(D) any process in which the heat given out by the system is equal to the work done on the system
24. CP is always greater than CV due to the fact that :–

(A) No work is being done on heating the gas at constant volume.
(B) When a gas absorbs heat at constant pressure its volume must change so as to do some external work.
(C) The internal energy is a function of temperature only for an ideal gas.
(D) For the same rise of temperature, the internal energy of a gas changes by a smaller amount at constant
volume than at constant pressure.
25. An ideal gas is heated from temperature T 1 to T2 under various conditions. The correct statement(s) is/are:–
(A) U = nCV (T2 – T1) for isobaric, isochoric and adiabatic process
(B) Work is done at expense of internal energy in an adiabatic process and both have equal values
(C) U = 0 for an isothermal process
(D) C = 0 for an adiabatic process
PAGE NO : 102
26. The indicator diagram for two process 1 and 2 carried on an ideal gas is shown in figure.If m1 and m2 be the
 dP 
slopes  for process 1 and process 2 respectively, then:–
dV 
AP
Process 1
Process 2
V
O
(A) m 1=m 2 (B) m 1 >m 2 (C) m 1<m 2 (D) m 2 C V=m 1 C P
27. An ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a cycle process ABCA as shown in the fig. The ratio of heat absorbed
during AB to the work done on the gas during BC is:–
NT
V
B
2V0
A
V0 C
28.
(A)
5
2 n 2
RI (B)
5
3
T0 2T0
(C)
T
5
4 n 2
Logarithms of readings of pressure and volume for an ideal gas were plotted on a graph as shown in Figure.
By measuring the gradient, It can be shown that the gas may be :–
(D)
5
6
SP
2.38
2.30
log P(kPa)
2.20
2.10
1.10 1.20 1.30

3
log V (dm )
(A) Monoatomic and undergoing an adiabatic change.

E
(B) Monoatomic and undergoing an isothermal change.

(C) Diatomic and undergoing an adiabatic change.
(D) Triatomic and undergoing an isothermal change.
JE
2 9 . A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic process ABCDA as shown in figure. The work done by the
system is :–
P
C B
3P0
2P0 O
P0 D
A
V
V0 2V0
P0 V0
(A) P 0 V 0 (B) 2P 0 V 0 (C) (D) zero
2
PAGE NO : 103
3 0 . A thermally insulated chamber of volume 2V 0 is divided by a frictionless piston of area S into two
equal parts A and B. Part A has an ideal gas at pressure P 0 and temperature T 0 and in part B is
vacuum. A massless spring of force constant k is connected with piston and the wall of the container
as shown. Initially spring is unstretched. Gas in chamber A is allowed to expand. Let in equilibrium
spring is compressed by x 0 . Then:–
B
A
kx 0 6 1 2
(A) Final pressure of the gas is (B) Work done by the gas is kx 0
S 2
1 2
(C) Change in internal energy of the gas is kx 0 (D) Temperature of the gas is decreased.
NT
2
3 1 . One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is taken from A to C along the path ABC. The temperature of
the gas at A is T 0. For the process ABC :–
P C
2P0
P0 B
RI
(A) Work done by the gas is RT 0
A
V0
11
RT0
2V0
V
SP
(B) Change in internal energy of the gas is
2
11 13
(C) Heat absorbed by the gas is RT0 (D) Heat absorbed by the gas is RT0
2 2
3 2 . The specific heat s of a gas are C P =0.2 cal/g °C & C V = 0.15 cal/g °C. [ Take R=2 cal/mole 0 C ]
(A) The molar mass of the gas is 40 g
(B) The molar mass of the gas cannot be determined from the data given
(C) The number of degrees of freedom of the gas molecules is 6
E
(D) The number of degrees of freedom of the gas molecules is 8
33. Two cylinders A and B fitted with piston contain the equal amount of an ideal diatomic gas at 300K. The piston
JE
of A is free to move, while that of B is held fixed. The same amount of heat is given to the gas in each cylinder.
If the rise in temperature of the gas in A is 30K, then the rise in the temperature of the gas in B is:–
(A) 30 K (B) 10 K (C) 50 K (D) 42 K
34. One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of T K does 6 R joules of work adiabatically. If the ratio of specific
heats of this gas at constant pressure and at constant volume is 5/3, the final temperature of gas will be:–
(A) (T + 2.4) K (B) (T – 2.4) K (C) (T + 4) K (D) (T – 4) K
35. One mole of ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process ACBA as shown in figure. Process AC is adiabatic. The
temperatures at A, B and C are 300, 600 and 450K respectively:– A
(A) In process CA change in internal energy is 225R.
(B) In process AB change in internal energy is –150R.
(C) In process BC change in internal energy is –225R. P
B C
(D) Change in internal energy during the whole cyclic process is +150R.
V
PAGE NO : 104
36. A gas expands such that its initial and final temperatures are equal. Also, the process followed by the gas traces
a straight line on the P–V diagram :–
(A) The temperature of the gas remains constant throughout.
(B) The temperature of the gas first increases and then decreases.
(C) The temperature of the gas first decreases and then increases.
(D) The straight line has a negative slope.
37. A gas takes part in two processes in which it is heated from the same initial state 1 to the same final tempera-
ture. The processes are shown on the P–V diagram by the straight line 1–2 and 1–3.2 and 3 are the points on
the same isothermal curve. Q1 and Q2 are the heat transfer along the two processes. Then :–
NT
Q1 isothermal
Q2 3
1
V
(A) Q1 = Q2 (B) Q1 < Q2 (C) Q 1>Q 2 (D) insufficient data
38. Radiation from a black body at the thermodynamic temperature T 1 is measured by a small detector at distance
T2
(A) T
1
RI
d1 from it. When the temperature is increased to T2 and the distance to d2, the power received by the detector
is unchanged. What is the ratio d2/d1?
 T2 
(B)  
 T1 
2
 T1 
(C)  
2
 T2  2
T 
(D)  2 
 T1 
4
SP
39. A point source of heat of power P is placed at the center of a spherical shell of mean radius R. The material of
the shell has thermal conductivity k. If the temperature difference between the outer and the inner surface of the
shell is not to exceed T, then the thickness of the shell should not be less than :–
2 R 2 kT 4 R 2 kT R 2 kT R 2 kT
(A) (B) (C) (D)
P P P 4P
40. A black body emits radiation at the rate P when its temperature is T. At this temperature the wavelength
at which the radiation has maximum intensity is  0. If at another temperature T' the power radiated is 'P'
E
0
and wavelength at maximum intensity is then:–
2
JE
(A) P' T' = 32 PT (B) P' T' = 16 PT (C) P' T' = 8 PT (D) P' T' = 4 PT
41. The emissive power of a black body at T=300 K is 100 Watt/m 2. Consider a body B of area A = 10 m 2,
coefficient of reflectivity r = 0.3 and coefficient of transmission t=0.5. Its temperature is 300 K. Then which
of the following is incorrect:–
(A) The emissive power of B is 20 W/m 2 (B) The emissive power of B is 200 W/m 2
(C) The power emitted by B is 200 Watt (D) The emissivity of B is = 0.2
42. A metallic sphere having radius 0.08 m and mass m = 10 kg is heated to a temperature of 227°C and
suspended inside a box whose walls are at a temperature of 27°C. The maximum rate at which its temperature
will fall is:– (Take e = 1, Stefan's constant  = 5.8 x 10 –8 Wm –2 K –4 and specific heat of the metal
s = 90 cal/kg/deg, J = 4.2 J/Calorie)
(A) 0.055 °C/s (B) 0.066 °C/s (C) 0.044 °C/s (D) 0.03 °C/s
PAGE NO : 105
4 3 . A hollow copper sphere & a hollow copper cube of same surface area & negligible thickness , are filled
with warm water of same temperature and placed in an enclosure of constant temperature , a few
degrees below that of the bodies . Then in the beginning :–
(A) The rate of energy lost by the sphere is greater than that by the cube
(B) The rate of energy lost by the two are equal
(C) The rate of energy lost by the sphere is less than that by the cube
(D) The rate of fall of temperature for sphere is less than that for the cube .
44. Two long, thin, solid cylinders are identical in size, but they are made of different substances with two different thermal
conductivities. The two cylinders are connected in series between a reservoir at temperature T hot and a reservoir at
temperature T cold. The temperature at the boundary between the two cylinders is T b. One can conclude that:–
(A) Tb is closer to Thot than it is to Tcold.
(B) Tb is closer to Tcold than it is to Thot.
NT
(C) Tb is closer to the temp. of the reservoir that is in contact with the cylinder with the lower thermal conductivity.
(D) Tb is closer to the temp. of the reservoir that is in contact with the cylinder with the higher thermal conductivity.
45. A body cools in a surrounding which is at a constant temperature of 0. Assume that it obeys Newton's law
of cooling. Its temperature  is plotted against time t. Tangent are drawn to the curve at the points P( =2)
and Q( = 1). These tangents meet the time axis at angles of  2 and  1 as shown, then:–
RI 
2
1
0
P
Q
SP
 
t
tan 2 1  0 tan 2 2  0 tan 1 1 tan 1 2

(A) tan      (B) tan      (C) tan    (D) tan   
1 2 0 1 1 0 2 2 2 1
46. A spherical body with an initial temperature T1 is allowed to cool in surroundings at temperature T 0 (<T 1). The mass
E
of the body is m, its gram specific heat is c, density  , area A. If  be the Stefan’s constant then the temperature
T of the body at time t can be best represented by:–
12 AT03
JE
AT0
(A) T = (T 1–T 0) e –kt where k  (B) T = (T 1–T 0) n (kt) where k 
r c mc 3
12 T03 AT03
(C) T = T 0 + (T 1–T 0 ) e –kt where k  (D)  T = T 1e –kt –T 0 where k 
r c r c
47. A rod of length L with sides fully insulated is of a material whose thermal conductivity varies with temperature as

K= , where  is a constant. The ends of the rod are kept at temperature T1 and T2. The temperature T at x,
T
where x is the distance from the end whose temperature is T1 is:–
x
T L x T2 T2 x T2  T1
(A) T1  2  (B) L n T (C) T e T1 L (D) T1 + x
 T1  1 1 L
PAGE NO : 106
48. A ring consisting of two parts ADB and ACB of same conductivity k carries an amount of heat H. The ADB part
is now replaced with another metal keeping the temperatures T1 and T2 constant. The heat carried increases to
ACB
2H. What should be the conductivity of the new ADB part? Given = 3
ADB
T1 A B T2
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7 5
(A) k (B) 2k (C) k (D) 3k
3 2
49. Twelve conducting rods form the sides of a uniform cube of side . If in steady state, B and H ends of the cube
are at 1000C and 00C respectively. Find the temperature of the junction 'A' :–
F G 0
0C
E
H
50.
(A) 80 C 0
RI (B) 60 C 0
0
100 C
B
A
C
(C) 400C
Radius of a conductor increases uniformly from left end to right end as shown in Fig. Material of the
(D) 70 0C
conductor is isotropic and its curved surface is thermally isolated from surrounding. Its ends are maintained
SP
at temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 > T2). If, in steady state, heat flow rate is equal to H, then which of the following
graphs is correct ?
T1 T2
x
E
H H H
H
JE
(A) (B) (C) (D)
O x O x O x O x
51. A sphere of ice at 00C having initial radius R is placed in an environment having ambient temperature > 00C.
The ice melts uniformly, such that shape remains spherical. After a time 't' the radius of the sphere has reduced
to r. Which graph best depicts r(t)
r r r r
R R R R
(A) (B) c) (D)

t t t t
PAGE NO : 107
52. Three identical rods AB, CD and PQ are joined as shown. P and Q are mid points of AB 0C
0 0
30 C
and CD respectively. Ends A, B, C and D are maintained at 00C, 1000C, 300C and 600C A C
respectively. The direction of heat flow in PQ is:–
P Q
(A) From P to Q (B) From Q to P
(C) Heat does not flow in PQ (D) Data not sufficient D
B
0 0
100 C 60 C
1 1
53. Three bodies A, B and C have equal surface area and thermal emissivities in the ratio eA : eB : eC = 1 : : . All
2 4
the three bodies are radiating at same rate. Their wavelengths corresponding to maximum intensity are  A ,  B
and  C respectively and their temperatures are TA, TB and TC on kelvin scale, then select the incorrect statement
(A) TA TC =TB (B) A C  B (C) e A TA e C TC =eBTB (D) e A  A TA .e B  B TB = e C  C TC
NT
54. A and B are two points on a uniform metal ring whose centre is C. The angle ACB = . A and B maintained
at two different constant temperatures. When  = 180°, the rate of total heat flow from A to B is 1.2 W. When
 = 90°, this rate will be:–
(A) 0.6 W (B) 0.9 W (C) 1.6 W (D) 1.8 W
55. In a 10–metre–deep lake, the bottom is at a constant temperature of 4°C. The air temperature is constant
at –4°C. The thermal conductivity of ice is 3 times that of water. Neglecting the expansion of water on freezing,
the maximum thickness of ice will be:–
56.
(A) 7.5 m
RI (B) 6 m (C) 5 m (D) 2.5 m
The solar constant for the earth is . The surface temperature of the sun is T K. The sun subtends an angle
 at the earth:–
(A)  T4 (B)   T2 (C)  2 (D)  
SP
57. A system S receives heat continuously from an electrical heater of power 10W. The temperature of S becomes
constant at 50°C when the surrounding temperature is 20°C. After the heater is switched off, S cools from
35.1°C to 34.9°C in 1 minute. The heat capacity of S is:–
(A) 100 J/°C (B) 300 J/°C (C) 750 J/°C (D) 1500 J/°C
58. If the absorption coefficient and reflection coefficient of a surface of a body are 0.4 and 0.6 respectively then:–
(A) Emissive power will be 0.2 (B) Transmission power will be 0.2
(C) Body will be totally transparent (D) Body will be totally opaque.
E
59. Temperature of black body is 3000K when black body cools, then change in wevelength   = 9 micron
corresponding to maximum energy density. Now temperature of black body is :–
(A) 300 K (B) 2700 K (C) 270 K (D) 1800 K
JE
60. Two Plates of equal areas are placed in contact with each other. Their thickness are 2cm and 3cm respectively.
Temperature of external surface of first plate is –25° C and that of external surface of second plate is 25° C
What will be temperature of contact surface if the plates :–
(i) Are of same material (ii) Have thermal Conductivity in ratio 2 : 3.
(A) (i) –5°C (ii) 0°C (B) (i) 5°C (ii) 0°C (C) (i) 0°C (ii) –5°C (D) None of these
61. Two identical square rods of metal are welded end to end as shown in figure (a) 20 calories of heat flows through
it in 4 minutes. If the rods are welded as shown in figure (b), the same amount of heat will flow through the rods
in :–
0°C 100°C 0°C 100°C
  
(a) (b)
(A) 1 minute (B) 2 minutes (C) 4 minutes (D) 16 minutes
PAGE NO : 108
62. Three rods of same dimensions are arranged as shown in the figure. They have thermal C
conductivities k1, k2 & k3. The points A and B are maintained at different temperatures.
For the heat to flow at the same rate along ACB and AB :–
k1 k2
k1 k 2
(A) k3 = 2(k1 + k2) (B) k3 = k  k
1 2
A B
k3
1
(C) k3 = k1 + k2 (D) k3 =
(k + k2)
2 1
63. The temperature of the two outer surfaces of a composite slab, consisting of two materials having coefficients
of thermal conductivity K and 2K and thickness x and 4x, respectively are T 2 and T 1(T 2 > T 1). The rate of
 A (T2  T1 )K 
heat transfer through the slab, in a steady state is   f, with f equals to:–
 x 
NT
x 4x
T2 K 2K T1
(A) 1 (B) 1/2 (C) 2/3 (D) 1/3
64.
RI
The figure shows a system of two concentric spheres of radii r 1 and r 2 and kept at temperatures T 1 and
T2 , respectively. The radial rate of flow of heat in a substance between the two concentric spheres, is proportional
to : –
r1
SP
• T1
r2
T2
(r2  r1 )  r2  r1 r2
(A) (B) n   (C) (D) (r 2 – r 1)
(r1 r2 )  r1  (r2  r1)
65. The pressure of one mole of an ideal gas varies according to the law P  P0  aV 2 , where P0 and a are positive
E
constants. The highest temperature that the gas may attain is:–
1/2 1/2 1/2 1/2
2P0  P0  3P0  P0  P0  P0  P0  P0 
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)  
JE
3R 3a 2R 3a R 3a R 3a
66. A thermally insulated vessel contains some water at 00C. The vessel is connected to a vacuum pump to pump out
water vapour. This results in some water getting frozen. It is given latent heat of vaporization of water at
0°C = 21 × 105 J/kg and latent heat of freezing of water = 3.36 × 105 J/kg. The maximum percentage amount
of water that will be solidified in this manner will be:–
(A) 86.2% (B) 33.6% (C) 21% (D) 24.36%
67. A closed cubical box made of perfectly insulating material has walls of thickness
8 cm and the only way for heat to enter or leave the box is through two solid metal
plugs A and B, each of cross–sectional area 12 cm2 and length 8 cm fixed in the A B
100 0 C
opposite walls of the box as shown in the figure. Outer surface A is kept at 100°C
4 0C
while the outer surface B is kept at 4°C. The thermal conductivity of the material
of the plugs is 0.5 cals–1cm–1 (°C–1). A source of energy generating 36 cals–1 is enclosed
inside the box. The equilibrium temperature of the inner surface of the box (assuming
PAGE NO : 109
that it is same at all points on the inner surface) is:–

(A) 38°C (B) 57°C (C) 76°C (D) 85°C
68. Three identical adiabatic containers have helium, neon and oxygen gases at the same pressure. The gases are
compressed to half their original volume. Then:–
(A) The final temperature of the gas in each container is same
(B) The final pressure of the gas in each container is same
(C) The final temperature of both helium and neon is same
(D) The final pressure of both helium and neon is same
69. Suppose 0.5 mole of an ideal gas undergoes an isothermal expansion as energy is added to it as heat Q. Graph
25
shows the final volume Vf versus Q. The temperature of the gas is :– (use n 9 = 2 and R= J/mol-K)
3
NT
V f(m 3) 0.3
0.2
0.1
0 500 1000 1500

Q(J)
70.
(A) 293 K
RI (B) 360 K (C) 386 K (D) 412 K
Graph shows a hypothetical speed distribution for a sample of N gas particle :–(for V > V0;
(A) The value of V0 is 2N.

(B) The ratio Vavg/V0 is equal to 2/3.
dN
dV
=0)
a
SP
dN
(C) The ratio Vrms/V0 is equal to 1 / 2 dV
(D) Three fourth of the total particle has a speed between 0.5 V0 and V 0. V0
speed V
71. The temperature of an isotropic cubical solid of length  0, density 0 and coefficient of linear expansion 
is increased by 20°C. Then at higher temperature, to a good approximation:–
(A) Length is  0 (1+20) (B) Total surface area is  02 (1+40)
0
(C) Total volume is  03 (1+60) (D) Density is
1  60 
E
72. A glass rod when measured with a zinc scale, both being at 30°C, appears to be of length 100 cm. If the scale
shows correct reading at 0°C, then the true length of glass rod at 30°C and 0°C are:–
(glass = 8× 10–6 °C–1, zinc = 26 × 10–6 K–1)
JE
(A) 100.054 cm, 100.054 cm (B) 100.078 cm, 100.078 cm

(C) 100.078 cm, 100.054 cm (D) 100.054 cm, 100.078 cm
73. Two fine steel wires, fastened between the projections of a heavy brass bar, are just taut when the whole system
is at 0°C. What is the tensile stress in the steel wires when the temperature of the system is raised by 200°C?
(brass = 2 × 10–5 °C–1, steel = 1.2 × 10–5 °C–1, Ysteel = 200 GNm–2)
(A) 3.2 Nm–2 (B) 3.2 × 108 Nm–2 (C) 32 × 108 Nm–2 (D) 0.48 Nm –2
PAGE NO : 110
74. In a mercury–glass thermometer the cross–section of the capillary portion is A 0 and the
volume of the bulb is V 0 at 273 K. If  and  are the coefficients of linear and cubical
expansion coefficients of glass and mercury respectively then length of mercury in the cap-
illary at temperature t°C is (Ignore the increase in cross–sectional area of capillary)
Capillary
V0 V0
(A) A    3   t (B) A  2   3   t
0 0
V0 V 0 t
(C) A    3    t  273  (D) A Bulb
0 0
75. 5g of steam at 100°C is mixed with 10 g of ice at 0°C. Choose correct alternative/s) :–(Given s water = 1
cal/g°C, L F = 80 cal/g, L V = 540 cal/g)
(A) Equilibrium temperature of mixture is 160°C (B) Equilibrium temperature of mixture is 100 0 C
NT
1 2
(C) At equilibrium, mixture contain 13 g of water (D) At equilibrium, mixture contain 1 g of steam
3 3
76. n moles of an ideal triatomic linear gas undergoes a process in which the temperature changes with volume
as T = k 1V 2 where k 1 is a constant. Choose incorrect alternative:–
5
(A) At normal temperature C v = R (B) At any temperature C p – C v = R
2
77.
RI
(C) At normal temperature molar heat capacity C=3R (D) At any temperature molar heat capacity C=3R
A sample of gas follows process represented by PV 2 = constant. Bulk modulus for this process is B, then
which of the following graph is correct?
SP
B B B B
(A) (B) (C) (D)
P V T V
78. Four moles of hydrogen, two moles of helium and one mole of water vapour form an ideal gas mixture.
What is the molar specific heat at constant pressure of mixture ?
16 23 19 26
(A) R (B) R (C) R (D) R
E
7 7 7 7
79. A inert gas obeys the law PV x = constant. For what value of x, it has negative molar specific heat–
JE
(A) x > 1.67 (B) x < 1.67 (C) 1 < x < 1.4 (D) 1 < x < 1.67
ANSWER KEY LEVEL-2
Qu e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans . B,D C C B BC BCD AB B BC C B ABCD BD AC B B D D ABCD D

Qu e. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans . CD ABC ABD AB ABCD CD C C D ABCD AC AC D D A BD B B B A

Qu e. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans . B B BD D B C A A B B B A D C A AC D D A A
Qu e. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79
Ans . A B D C A A C CD B ABCD ACD C B A BCD D ABC A D
PAGE NO : 111
PHYSICS
SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION-LEVEL 1

d2 x
1. The equation of motion of a particle of mass 1 g is + 2x = 0 where x is displacement(in m)from
dt 2
mean position . The frequency of oscillation is (in Hz) :
1 1
(A ) (B) 2 (C) 5 10 (D)
2 5 10
2. Two bodies performing S.H.M. have same amplitude and frequency. Their phases at a certain instant are
as shown in the figure. The phase difference between them is
0.5 A
(-x) + (+x)
0
NT
A A
(-x) + (+x)
0.5 A 0
11 5 3
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
6 3 5
3.
RI
The figure shows the displacement time graph of a particle executing S.H.M.
If the time period of oscillation is 2 s the equation of motion of its SHM
is
(A) x = 10sin(t+ /3)
(B) x = 10sin t
(C) x = 10sin(t+ /6)
10
5
O
x
(in mm)
1
t(s)
SP
(D) x = 10 sin (2pt+p/6)
4. Two particle executes S.H.M. of same amplitude and frequency along the same straight line. They pass one
another when going in opposite directions, each time their displacement is half of their amplitude. The phase
difference between them is :–
(A) 30° (B) 60° (C) 90° (D) 120°
5. A small mass executes linear S.H.M. about O with amplitude 'a' and period 'T'. Its displacement from O at time
T/8 after passing through O is
E
a a
(A) a/8 (B) (C) a/ 2 (D)
2 2 2
6. Two particles A and B perform SHM along the same straight line with the same amplitude 'a', same frequency
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'f' and same equilibrium position 'O'. The greatest distance between them is found to be 3a/2. At some instant
of time they have the same displacement from mean position. What is this displacement?
(A) a/2 (B) a 7 /4 (C) 3 /a2 (D) 3a/4
7. A particle executes S.H.M. along a straight line with mean position x = 0, period 20 s and amplitude 5 cm.
The shortest time taken by the particle to go from x = 4 cm to x = 3cm is
(A) 4 s (B) 7 s (C) 5 s (D) 6 s
8. A particle performing S.H.M. is found at its equilibrium at t = 1 s and it is found to have a speed of
0.25 m/s at t = 2 s. If the period of oscillation is 6s Calculate amplitude of oscillation
3 3 6 3
(A) m (B) m (C) m (D) m
2 4  8
PAGE NO : 112
SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION PHYSICS
9. A particle executes S.H.M. in a straight line. In the first second starting from rest it travels a distance 'a'
and in the next second a distance 'b' in the same direction. The amplitude of S.H.M. will be
2a 2
(A) (B) a  b (C) 2a  b (D) a / b
3a  b
10. A particle is subjected to two mutually perpendicular simple harmonic motions such that its x and y coordinates
 
are given by: x = 2 sin t; y = 2 sin  t   . The path of the particle will be
4
(A) an ellipse (B) a straight line (C) a parabola (D) a circle
11. The period of a particle is 8s. AT t = 0 it is at the mean position. The ratio of distance covered by the particle
in first second and second will be-
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2 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)  2  1 
2 2 2 1
12. A particle executes SHM with time period T and amplitude A. The maximum possible average velocity in time
T/4 is
2A 4A 8A 4 2A
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13.
T
RI T T
The time taken by a particle performing S.H.M. to pass from point A to B where its velocities
are same is 2 seconds . After another 2 seconds it returns to B . The time period of oscillation is
(in seconds) :
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D ) 8
T
SP
14. The P.E. of an oscillating particle at rest position is 15 J and its average K.E. is 5 J. The total energy of particle
at any instant will be-
(A) 10 J (B) 20 J (C) 25 J (D) 5 J
15. Block A in the figure is released from the rest when the extension in the spring is x0. The maximum downward
displacement of the block.
k
E
JE
A M
Mg Mg 2Mg 2Mg
(A)  x0 (B)  x0 (C)  x0 (D)  x0
2k 2k k k
16. A system is shown in the figure. The time period for small oscillations of the two blocks will be :-
k 2k
m m
3m 3m 3m 3m
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 2
k 2k 4k 8k
PAGE NO : 113
17. A block of mass 0.9 kg attached to a spring of force constant K is compressed by 2 cm and the block
1
is at a distance cm from the wall. When the block is released, it makes elastic collision with the wall
2
and its period of motion is 0.2 s. The value of K is (take 2=10)
1/2cm
(A) 100 Nm –1 (B) 10 Nm –1 (C) 0.1 Nm –1 (D) 1 Nm –1
18. The length of a spring is  when a force of 4 N is applied on it and the length is  when 5 N force is applied.
Then the length of spring when 9 N force is applied is-
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(A) 5 – 4 (B)  –  (C) 5 – 4 (D) 9 ( – )
19. A horizontal spring is connected to a mass M. It executes simple harmonic motion. When the mass M passes
through its mean position, an object of mass m is put on it and the two move together. The ratio of frequencies
before and after will be-
1/2 1/2
 m  m  M   M 
(A)  1   (B)  1   (C)   (D)  
 M M M  m M  m
20.
21.
RI
A pendulum is suspended in a lift and its period of oscillation when the lift is stationary is T0. What must
be the acceleration of the lift for the period of oscillation of the pendulum to be T 0/2 ?
(A) 2g downward (B) 2g upward (C) 3g downward (D) 3g upward
Two simple pendulums, having periods of 2s and 3s respectively, pass through the mean position simultaneously
at a particular instant. They may be in phase after an interval of :
SP
(A) 5s (B) 3s (C) 1s (D) none of the above
22. Time period of small oscillation (in a vertical plane normal to the plane of strings) of
the bob in the arrangement shown will be
0
45
 
(A) 2  (B) 2 
g 2g  
2 2
E
(C) 2  (D) 2 
g g
23. The frequency of a simple pendulum is n oscillations per minute while that of another is (n + 1) oscillations
JE
per minute. The ratio of length of first pendulum to the length of second is-
n FG n  1IJ 2
FG n  1IJ 2
FG n IJ 2
(A)
n1
(B)
H nK (C)
H nK (D)
H n  1K
24. A system of two identical rods (L-shaped) of mass m and length  are resting  P 
on a peg P as shown in the figure. If the system is displaced in its plane by a
small angle  , find the period of oscillations
2 2 2 2 
(A) 2  (B) 2  (C) 2  (D) 3 
3g 3g 3g 3g
PAGE NO : 114
25. The distance of point of a compound pendulum from its centre of gravity is , the time period of oscillation
relative to this point is T. If g = 2, the relation between  and T will be :–
 T2   T2   T2   T2 
(A)  2 –  4   + k 2 = 0 (B)  2 +  4  +k 2 = 0 (C)  2 –  4   – k 2 =0 (D)  2+  4  – k 2 =0
       
26. A man of mass 60 kg standing on a plateform executing S.H.M. in the vertical plane . The displacement
from the mean position varies as y = 0.5 sin (2 ft) . The minimum value of f, for which the man will feel
weightlessness at the highest point is : (y is in metres)
g 2g
(A) (B) 4 g (C) (D) 2 2g
4 2
27. A heavy brass-sphere is hung from a spiral spring and it executes vertical vibrations with period T. The ball
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is now immersed in nonviscous liquid with a density one-tenth that of brass. When set into vertical vibrations
with the sphere remaining inside the liquid all the time, the period will be-
9   10   9 
(A)   T (B) T   (C) Unchanged (D) T  
10  9 10
28. A moving particle of mass has one-dimensional potential energy U(x) = ax2 + bx4, where 'a' and 'b' are positive
constants. The angular frequency of small oscillations about the minima of the potential energy is equal to
29.
(A) 
a
2b
RI (B) 2
a
m
(C)
A particle performs S.H.M. of amplitude A with angular frequency w

2a
m
(D)
a
2m
along a straight line. When it is

SP
3 1
at a distance A from mean position, its kinetic energy gets increased by an amout m2A 2 due to
2 2
an impulsive force. Then its new amplitude becomes-
5 3
(A) A (B) A (C) 2A (D) 5A
2 2
30. A particle executes SHM on a line 8 cm long. Its K.E. and P.E. will be equal when its distance from the mean
E
position is :–
(A) 4 cm (B) 2 cm (C) 2 2 cm (D) 2 cm
JE
31. The total energy of a vibrating particle in SHM is E. If its amplitude and time period are doubled, its total
energy will be :–
(A) 16E (B) 8E (C) 4E (D) E
32. The distance between the point of suspension and the centre of gravity of a compound pendulum is  and
the radius of gyration about the horizontal axis through the centre of gravity is k, then its time period will be
k  k  k
2 2 2
2k
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 2
g g g g
33. Displacement of a particle is x = 3 sin 2t + 4cos 2t, the amplitude and the maximum velocity will be :–
(A) 5, 10 (B) 3, 2 (C) 4, 2 (D) 3, 8
PAGE NO : 115
34. The graph shows the variation of displacement of a particle executing S.H.M. with time. We inference from this
graph that :–
y
T
2 3T
4
T T t
4
3T T
(A) the force is zero at time (B) the velocity is maximum at time
4 2
T
(C) the acceleration is maximum at time T (D) the P.E. is equal to half of total energy at time
2
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13 
35. The phase of a particle in SHM at time t is . The following inference is drawn from this
6
a
(A) the particle is at x = and moving in + X-direction
2
a
(B) the particle is at x = and moving in –X-direction
2
RI
(C) the particle is at x = –
(D) the particle is at x = –

a
2
a
2
and moving in + X-direction
and moving in –X-direction

SP
36. The time period of an oscillator is 8 sec. The phase difference from t = 2 sec to t = 4 sec will be :–
 
(A)  (B) (C) (D) 2
2 4
37. Some springs are combined in series and parallel arrangement as shown in the figure and a mass m is suspended
from them. The ratio of their frequencies will be :–
k
E
k k
k
k
JE
m
m
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 3 :2 (D) 4 : 1
g
38. The acceleration due to gravity at height R above the surface of the earth is . The periodic time of a simple
4
pendulum in an artificial satellite at this height will be :–
2l l
(A) T = 2 (B) T = 2 (C) zero (D) infinity
g 2g
39. The magnitude of average acceleration in half time period in a simple harmonic motion is
2A 2 A 2 A 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) zero
 2 2
PAGE NO : 116
40. A particle performs S.H.M. with time period T. The time taken by the particle to move from half the amplitude
to the maximum displacement is
T T T T
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4 6 8
41. A particle of mass m executing SHM makes f oscillation per second. The difference of its kinetic energy when
at the centre, and when at a distance x from the centre is
1 2 2 2
(A) 2 f 2 x 2 m (B) 2 2 f 2 x 2 m  f x m (C)
(D) f 2 x 2 m
2
42. Acceleration a and time period T of a body in S.H.M. is given by a curve shown below. Then corresponding
graph between kinetic energy KE and time t is correctly represented by
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a
T
t
KE KE KE KE
(A) (B) (C) (D)
43.
T
t
RI T
t
2 2
T
t
A particle is performing S.H.M. with acceleration a = 8   4  x where x is coordinate of the particle w.r.t.
the origin.The parameters are in S.I. units. The particle is at rest at x= 2 at t=0.
(A) coordinate of the particle w.r.t. origin at any time t is 2  4 cos2 t
(B) coordinate of the particle w.r.t. origin at any time t is 2 + 4 sin2t
(C) coordinate of the particle w.r.t. origin at any time t is  4 + 2 cos2t
T
t
SP
(D) the coordinate cannot be found because mass of the particle is not given.
44. An oscillation is described by the equation x=A sin 2 1t where A changes with time according to the law
A= A 0 (1+cos 2 2t) where A 0 is constant. Find the ratio of frequencies of harmonic oscillations forming
oscillation
(A)  1 :  2 :   1   2  (B)  1 :   1   2  :   1   2  (C)  1 :  2 :   2   1  (D)  1 :  2 :   1   2 
45. Ver t ical displacement of a plank w ith a body of mass 'm' on it is var ying accordi ng to law
E
y = sint + 3 cost. The minimum value of  for which the mass just breaks off the plank and the moment
it occurs first after t = 0 are given by : (y is positive vertically upwards)
JE
g 2 g 2 g   2
(A) , (B) , 3 g (C) , (D) 2g ,
2 6g 2 2 3 g 2g

Q u e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A C C D D B C A A A C D D C A C A A A D
Q u e. 2 1 2 2 2 3 2 4 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. B B C B A C B B C C D B A B A B C D A C
Q u e. 4 1 4 2 4 3 4 4 45
Ans. B A A B A
PAGE NO : 117
PHYSICS
SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION-LEVEL 2
MCQs with one or more than one correct answer
1. A mass M is performing linear simple harmonic motion, then correct graph for acceleration 'a' and corresponding
linear velocity 'v' is
2 2 2 2
v v v v
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2 2
a a a a
2. A uniform cylinder of mass m and length l having area of cross-section a is suspended lengthwise with the help
of a massless spring of constant k. The cylinder is half submerged in a liquid of density . A small push and
release makes it vibrate with small amplitude. The frequency of oscillation is
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k
3.
(A)
1 k
2 m
RI (B)
1 ka g
2 m
(C)
1 m  a g
2 k
(D)
1 k  a g
2
Two identical springs are fixed at one end and masses 1kg and 4kg are suspended at their other ends . They
m
are both stretched down from their mean position and let go simultaneously. If they are in the same phase after
SP
every 4 seconds then the springs constant k is
N 2 N N
(A)  (B)  (C) 2  (D) given data is insufficient
m m m
4. A cylindrical block of density  is partially immersed in a liquid of density 3 . The plane surface of the block
remains parallel to the surface of the liquid. The height of the block is 60 cm. The block performs SHM when
displaced from its mean position. [Use g = 9.8 m/s2]
(A) the maximum amplitude is 20 cm. (B) the maximum amplitude is 40 cm
E
(C) the time period will be /7 seconds (D) none
5. A mass of 0.2kg is attached to the lower end of a massless spring of force-constant 200 N/m, the upper end of
JE
which is fixed to a rigid support. Which of the following statements is/are true?
(A) In equilibrium, the spring will be stretched by 1cm.
(B) If the mass is raised till the spring is unstretched state and then released, it will go down by 2cm before
moving upwards.
(C) The frequency of oscillation will be nearly 5 Hz.
(D) If the system is taken to the moon, the frequency of oscillation will be the same as on the earth.
6. A horizontal plank has a rectangular block placed on it. The plank starts oscillating vertically and simple
harmonically with an amplitude of 40 cm. The block just loses contact with the plank when the latter is
at momentary rest. Then :
 2 
(A) the period of oscillation is  
 5 
(B) the block weighs double of its weight, when the plank is at one of the positions of momentary rest
PAGE NO : 118
(C) the block weighs 0.5 times its weight on the plank halfway up
(D) the block weighs 1.5 times its weight on the plank halfway down
7. A particle is subjected to two simple harmonic motions along x and y directions according to, x = 3sin100t;
y = 4sin100t.
(A) Motion of particle will be on ellipse traversing it in clockwise direction
(B) Motion of particle will be on a straight line with slope 4/3
(C) Motion will be simple harmonic motion with amplitude 5
(D) Phase difference between two motions is /2
8. A particle moves in the x-y plane according to the equation, r = (iˆ  2ˆj)A cos t . The motion of the particle
is-
(A) on a straight line (B) on an ellipse (C) periodic (D) simple harmonic
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9. Two block A and B each of mass m are connected by a massless spring of natural length L and spring constant
k. The blocks are initially resting on a smooth horizontal floor with the spring at its natural length as shown
in fig. A third identical block C, also of mass m, moving on the floor with a speed v along the line joining A
and B, and collides elastically with A. Then-
m v m m
L
C A B
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[A] The kinetic energy of the A-B system, at maximum compression of the spring, is zero.
[B] The kinetic energy of A-B system, at maximum compression of the spring is
[C] The maximum compression of the spring is v

m
mv 2
4
SP
k
m
[D] The maximum compression of the spring is v
2k
10. A solid cylinder of mass M attached to a massless spring of force constant k is placed on a horizontal surface
in such a way that cylinder can roll without slipping. If the system is released from the stretched position of
the spring, then the period will be-
E
JE
M 3M M 2M
(A) 2  (B) 2  (C) 2  (D) 2 
k 2k 2k 3k
11. A ball is suspended by a thread of length L at the point O on the wall PQ which is inclined to Q
the vertical through an angle . The thread with the ball is now displaced through a small angle
 away from the vertical and the wall. If  < , then the time period of oscillation of the pendulum O
will be- 

L L  1     C
(A) 2  (B) 2     2 sin     A
g g  
P B
L  1    
(C) 2  g  2  sin     (D) None of the above
 
PAGE NO : 119
12. A cage of mass M hangs from a light spring of force constant k. A body of mass m falls from
height h inside the cage and sticks to its floor. The amplitude of oscillations of the cage will be-
1/2 1/2 k
 2mgh   k 
(A)  (B) 
 k   2mgh 
1/2
mg  mg 
(C) (D)  
k k 
13. In the above problem, the frequency of oscillations of the cage will be-
1/2 1/2 1/2 1/2
1 k  1 k  1  k  1 m 
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2   m  2   M  2   M  m  2   k 
NT
14. The amplitude of a particle executing SHM about O is 10 cm . Then :
(A ) when the kinetic energy is 0.64 times of its max. kinetic energy its displacement is 6 cm from O
(B ) when the displacement is 5 c m from O its kineti c energy is 0.75 ti mes its maximum kinetic energy
(C ) Its total energy of SHM at any point is equal to its maximum kinetic energy
(D) Its speed is half the maximum speed when its displacement is half the maximum displacement
15. The angular frequency of a spring block system is  0 . This system is suspended from the ceiling of an elevator
RI
moving downwards with a constant speed v0. The block is at rest relative to the elevator. Lift is suddenly stopped.
Assuming the downwards as a positive direction, choose the wrong statement :
v0
(A) the amplitude of the block is 
0
v0
(B) the initial phase of the block is 
SP
(C) the equation of motion for the block is  sin  0 t (D) the maximum speed of the block is v0
0
16. The displacement of a particle varies according to the relation x = 3 sin 100t + 8 cos2 50t . Which of the
following is/are correct about this motion .
(A) the motion of the particle is not S.H.M.
(B ) the amplitude of the S.H.M. of the particle is 5 units
(C) the amplitude of the resultant S.H. M. is 73 units
E
(D ) the maximum displacement of the particle from the origin is 9 units .

JE
17. Two blocks of masses 3 kg and 6 kg rest on a horizontal smooth surface. The 3 kg block is attached to a spring
with a force constant k = 900 Nm-1 which is compressed 2 m from beyond the equilibrium position. The 6 kg
block is at rest at 1 m from mean position. 3 kg mass strikes the 6 kg mass and the two stick together.
1m
2m
3kg 6kg
equilibrium
position
(A) velocity of the combined masses immediately after the collision is 10 ms-1
PAGE NO : 120
(B) velocity of the combined masses immediately after the collision is 5 ms-1
(C) amplitude of the resulting oscillation is 2 m
(D) amplitude of the resulting oscillation is 5 /2m.
18. A disc of mass 3 m and a disc of mass m are connected by massless spring of stiffness k. The heavier disc is
placed on the ground with the spring vertical and lighter disc on top. From its equilibrium position, the upper
disc is pushed down by a distance  and released. Then
(A) if  >3mg/k, the lower disc will bounce up
(B) if  =2 mg/k, maximum normal reaction from ground on lower disc = 6 mg
(C) if  =2 mg/k, maximum normal reaction from ground on lower disc = 4 mg
(D) if  >4mg/k, the lower disc will bounce up
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19. The displacement-time graph of a particle executing SHM is shown.
0 T/2
T/4 3T/4 T t
RI
Which of the following statements is/are true?
(A) The velocity is maximum at t = T/2
(B) The acceleration is maximum at t = T
SP
(C) The force is zero at t = 3T/4
(D) The potential energy equals the oscillation energy at t = T/2.
E
JE
Q u e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 1 4 1 5 16 17 18 19
An s . B D B AC ABCD ABCD BC CD BD B A A C ABC B BD AC BD BCD
PAGE NO : 121
PHYSICS
WAVES AND SOUND -LEVEL 1
MCQs wi th one cor rect answer
1. The waves produced by a motorboat sailing in water are:–
(A) Transverse (B) Longitudinal (C) Longitudinal and transverse(D) Stationary
2. A boat at anchor is rocked by waves whose crests are 100m apart and velocity is 25m/s. The boat bounces up
once in every :–
(A) 2500 s (B) 75 s (C) 4 s (D) 0·25 s
3. A wave of frequency 500 Hz travels between X and Y, a distance of 600 m in 2 sec. How many wavelength are
there in distance XY:–
(A) 1000 (B) 300 (C) 180 (D) 2000
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4. The distance between two consecutive crests in a wave train produced in string is 5 m. If two complete waves pass
through any point per second, the velocity of wave is:–
(A) 2.5 m/s (B) 5 m/s (C) 10 m/s (D) 15 m/s
5. Two wave are represented by equation y1 = a sin t and y2 = a cos t the first wave:–
 
(A) leads the second by  (B) lags the second by   (C) leads the second by (D) lags the second by
6.

RI 2
Two waves traveling in a medium in the x–direction are represented by y 1 = A sin(t – x) and

2
y 2  A cos  x  t   , where y and y are the displacements of the particles of the medium, t is time, and
 4 1 2
 and  are constants. The two waves have different:–

SP
(A) speeds (B) directions of propagation (C) wavelengths (D) frequencies
7. The displacement of particles in a string stretched in the x–direction is represented by y. Among the following
expressions for y, those describing wave motion are:–
(A) cos kx sint (B) k 2 x 2 – 2 t 2 (C) cos 2(kx + t) (D) cos(k 2x 2 – 2t 2 )
1 
8. The displacement y of a particle executing periodic motion is given by : y = 4cos 2  t  sin (1000t) .
2
This expression may be considered to be a result of the superposition of ......... independent, simple harmonic
E
motions.
(A) two (B) three (C) four (D) five
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x
9. A transverse wave is described by the equation y = y0sin2(ƒt – ). The maximum particle velocity is equal

to four times the wave velocity if:–
y 0 y 0
(A)  = (B)  = (C)  = y 0 (D)  = 2y 0
4 2
1 0 . The equation of displacement of two waves are given as y1 = 10 sin (3t + /3) and y 2  5  sin 3 t  3 cos3 t  ,
then what is the ratio of their amplitude:–
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) None of these
1 1 . A plane progressive wave is represented by the equation y= 0.25 cos (2t – x). The equation of a wave is
with double the amplitude and half frequency but travelling in the opposite direction will be:–
(A) y = 0.5 cos (t – x) (B) y = 0.5 cos (t + x) (C) y = 0.25 cos (t + 2x) (D) y = 0.5 cos (t + x)
PAGE NO : 122
WAVES AND SOUND PHYSICS
1 2 . Dependence of disturbances due to two waves on time is shown in the figure. The ratio of their intensities I1 / I2
will be:–
1
y
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 16 : 1
1 3 . A source of sound is in the shape of a long narrow cylinder radiating sound waves normal to the axis of the
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cylinder. Two points P and Q are at perpendicular distances of 9 m and 25 m from the axis. The ratio of the
amplitudes of the waves at P and Q is:–
(A) 5 : 3 (B) 5: 3 (C) 3 : 5 (D) 25 : 9
1 4 . The resultant amplitude, when two waves of same frequency but with amplitudes a 1 and a 2 superimpose at
phase difference of /2 will be:–
(A) a1 + a2
RI (B) a1 – a2 (C) a 12  a 22 (D) a 12  a 22
1 5 . The ratio of intensities of two waves is 9 : 1. When they superimpose, the ratio of maximum to minimum intensity
will become:–
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 3 : 1 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 1
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1 6 . The extension in a string, obeying Hooke's law, is x. The speed of sound in the stretched string is v. If the
extension in the string is increased to 1.5x, the speed of sound will be:–
(A) 1.22 v (B) 0.61 v (C) 1.50 v (D) 0.75 v
1 7 . The linear density of a vibrating string is 1.3 x 10–4 kg/m. A transverse wave is propagating on the string and is
described by the equation y=0.021 sin (x+30t) where x and y are measured in meter and t in second the tension
in the string is :–
(A) 0.12 N (B) 0.48 N (C) 1.20 N (D) 4.80 N
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1 8 . A copper wire is fixed between two rigid supports. It is stretched with negligible tension at 30°C. The speed
of transverse waves in the wire at 10°C will be– (density d = 9 × 103 kg/m3, Young's modulus Y = 1.3 × 1011
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N/m² and temperature coefficient of expansion  = 1.7 × 10 –5 /°C):–

(A) 210 m/s (B) 110 m/s (C) 90 m/s (D) 70 m/s
1 9 . A steel wire of length 60 cm and area of cross–section 10–6 m2 is joined with an aluminium wire of length 45
–6 2
cm and area of cross–section 3×10 m . The composite string is stretched by tension of 80 N. Density of steel is
7800 kg m–3 and that of aluminium is 2600 kg m–3. The minimum frequency of tuning fork which can produce
standing wave in it with node at the joint is:–
45cm
A 60cm B C
(A) 357.3 Hz (B) 375.3 Hz (C) 337.5 Hz (D) 325.5 Hz
PAGE NO : 123
2 0 . A uniform rope having some mass hinges vertically from a rigid support. A transverse wave pulse is produced
at the lower end. The speed (v) of the wave pulse varies with height (h) from the lower end as:–
V V V V
(A) (B) (C) (D)

h h h h
2 1 . A wave pulse on a string has the dimension shown in figure. The waves speed is v = 1 cm/s. If point O
is a free end. The shape of wave at time t=3s is:–

v=1cm/s
1cm
O
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1cm 1cm 2cm
O
O 1cm
2cm
1cm 1cm
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1cm O 1cm
2 2 . A plane wave y = a sin (bx + ct) is incident on a surface. Equation of the reflected wave is y' = a' sin(ct–bx). Which
of the following statements is not correct ?
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(A) The wave is incident on the surface normally.
(B) Reflecting surface is y–z plane.
(C) Medium, in which incident wave is travelling, is denser than the other medium.
(D) a’ cannot be greater than a.
2 3 . The equation y = a sin 2/ (vt – x) is expression for:–

(A) Stationary wave of single frequency along x–axis.
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(B) A simple harmonic motion.
(C) A progressive wave of single frequency along x–axis.
(D) The resultant of two SHM's of slightly different frequencies.
2 4 . Stationary waves are produced in 10m long stretched string. If the string vibrates in 5 segments and wave velocity
20m/s then the frequency is:–
(A) 10 Hz (B) 5 Hz (C) 4 Hz (D) 2Hz
2 5 . A wave is represented by the equation y = a sin(kx – t) is superimposed with another wave to form a stationary wave
E
such that the point x = 0 is a node. Then the equation of other wave is:–
(A) y = a cos (kx – t) (B) y = acos (kx + t) (C) y = – asin (kx + t) (D) y = a sin (kx + t)
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2 6 . A standing wave having 3 nodes and 2 antinodes is formed between 1.21 Å distance then the wavelength is:–
(A) 1.21 Å (B) 2.42 Å (C) 0.605 Å (D) 4.84 Å
2 7 . A string is cut into three parts, having fundamental frequencies n1, n2 and n3 respectively. Then original fundamental
frequency 'n' related by the expression as (other quantities are identical):–
1 1 1 1 n1  n 2  n 3
(A) = + + (B) n = n1 × n2 × n3 (C) n = n1 + n2 + n3 (D) n =
n n1 n 2 n 3 3
2 8 . An object of specific gravity  is hung from a thin steel wire. The fundamental frequency for transverse standing
waves in the wire is 300 Hz. The object is immersed in water, so that one half of its volume is submerged.
The new fundamental frequency (in Hz) is:–
1/2 1/2
 2  1   2   2   2  1 
(A) 300  (B) 300  (C) 300  (D) 300 
 2    2   1   2  1   2 
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2 9 . Microwaves from a transmitter are directed normally towards a plane reflector. A detector moves along the
normal to the reflector. Between positions of 14 successive maxima, the detector travels a distance 0.14m.
If the velocity of light is 3 × 10 8 m/s, find the frequency of the transmitter:–
(A) 1.5 × 10 10 Hz (B) 10 10 Hz (C) 3 × 10 10 Hz (D) 6 × 10 10 Hz
3 0 . A thunder tap is heard 5.5 s after the lightening flash. The distance of the flash is (velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s):–
(A) 3560 m (B) 300 m (C) 1780 m (D) 1815 m
3 1 . At the room temperature the velocity of sound in O2 gas is v. Then in mixture of H2 and O2 gas the speed of
sound at same temperature:–
(A) will be less than v. (B) will be more than v (C) will be equal to v (D) nothing can be said
3 2 . An underwater sonar source operating at a frequency of 60 kHz directs its beam towards the surface. If velocity
of sound in air is 330 m/s, wavelength and frequency of the waves in air are:–
(A) 5.5 mm, 60 kHz (B) 3.30 m, 60kHz (C) 5.5 mm, 30 kHz (D) 5.5 mm, 80 kHz
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3 3 . A tube, closed at one end and containing air, produces, when excited, the fundamental note of frequency
512 Hz. If the tube is opened at both ends the fundamental frequency that can be excited is (in Hz.):–
(A) 1024 (B) 512 (C) 256 (D) 128
3 4 . A cylindrical tube, open at both ends, has a fundamental frequency ƒ in air. The tube is dipped vertically in water so
that half of its in water. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now :–
ƒ 3ƒ
(A)
(A)
3
2
RI (B)
(B)
8
4
(C) ƒ
(C)
1
6
(D) 2ƒ
3 5 . An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in its first harmonic and another pipe P2 open at ends vibrating
in its third harmonic are in resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of the length of P 1 and P 2 is:–
8 3
(D)
1
3
3 6 . An open pipe is suddenly closed at one end with the result that the frequency of third harmonic of the closed
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pipe is found to be higher by 100 Hz than the fundamental frequency of the open pipe. The fundamental
frequency of the open pipe is:–
(A) 200 Hz (B) 300 Hz (C) 240 Hz (D) 480 Hz
3 7 . The velocity of sound in air is 333 m/s. If the frequency of the fundamental tone is 333 Hz, the length of the open
pipe to generate second harmonic is:–
(A) 0.5m (B) 1.0m (C) 2.0m (D) 4.0 m
3 8 . The maximum length of a closed pipe that would produce a just audible sound is (vsound = 336 m/s):–
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(A) 4.2 cm (B) 4.2 m (C) 4.2 mm (D) 1.0 cm
3 9 . A cylindrical tube (L = 120 cm.) is in resonance with a tuning fork of frequency 330 Hz. If it is filling by water
then to get resonance again, minimum length of water column is (v air = 330 m/s):–
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(A) 45 cm (B) 60 cm (C) 25 cm (D) 20 cm
4 0 . A closed organ pipe of radius r 1 and an open organ pipe of radius r 2 and having same length 'L' resonate
when excited with a given tuning fork. Closed organ pipe resonates in its fundamental mode where as open
organ pipe resonates in its first overtone, then:–
(A) r 2 – r 1 =L (B) r 2 = r 1 = L/2 (C) r 2 – 2r 1 = 2.5 L (D) 2r 2 – r 1 = 2.5 L
4 1 . Two vibrating tuning forks produce progressive waves given by y1 = 4 sin 500t and y2 = 2 sin 506 t. Number
of beats produced per minute is:–
(A) 3 (B) 360 (C) 180 (D) 60
4 2 . Frequency of tuning fork A is 256 Hz. It produces 4 beats/second with tuning fork B. When wax is applied at
tuning fork B then 6 beats/second are heard. Frequency of B is:–
(A) 250 Hz (B) 260 Hz (C) 252 Hz (D) (A) & (C) both may possible
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4 3 . Length of a sonometer wire is either 95 cm or 100 cm. In both the cases a tuning fork produces 4 beats then the
frequency of tuning fork is:–
(A) 152 (B) 156 (C) 160 (D) 164
4 4 . Two open pipes of length 25 cm and 25.5 cm produced 0.1 beat/second. The velocity of sound will be:–
(A) 255 cm/s (B) 250 cm/s (C) 350 cm/s (D) none of these
4 5 . 16 tuning forks are arranged in increasing order of frequency. Any two consecutive tuning forks when sounded
together produce 8 beats per second. If the frequency of last tuning fork is twice that of first, the frequency of first
tuning fork is:–
(A) 60 (B) 80 (C) 100 (D) 120
4 6 . Two tuning forks having frequency 256 Hz (A) and 262 Hz (B) tuning fork. A produces some beats per second
with unknown tuning fork, same unknown tuning fork produce double beats per second from B tuning fork then
the frequency of unknown tuning fork is:–
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(A) 262 (B) 260 (C) 250 (D) 300
4 7 . Two open pipes of length L are vibrated simultaneously. If length of one of the pipes is reduced by y, then the
number of beats heard per second will be if the velocity of sound is v and y << L:–
vy vy vy 2L2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2L2 L2 2L vy
4 8 . The power of sound from the speaker of a radio is 20MW by turning the knob of the volume control the power
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of the sound is increased to 400 MW. The power increase in describe as compared to the original power is :–
(A) 13 dB (B) 10 dB (C) 20 dB (D) 800 dB
4 9 . A sound absorber attenuates the sound level by 20 dB. The intensity decreases by a factor of:–
(A) 1000 (B) 10000 (C) 10 (D) 100
5 0 . A whistle giving out 450 Hz approaches a stationary observer at a speed of 33 m/s. The frequency heard
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by the observer (in Hz) is : (speed of sound 333 m/s)
(A) 409 (B) 429 (C) 517 (D) 500
5 1 . A person observes a change of 2.5% in frequency of sound of horn of a car. If the car is approaching forward the
person & sound velocity is 320 m/s, then velocity of car in m/s will be approximately:–
(A) 8 (B) 800 (C)7 (D) 6
5 2 . Two trains A and B are moving in the same direction with velocities 30 m/s and 10 m/s
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respectively, B is behind from A, blows a horn of frequency 450 Hz. Then the apparent frequency heard by B is
(The velocity of sound is 330 m/s):–
(A) 425 Hz (B) 300 Hz (C) 450 Hz (D) 350 Hz
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5 3 . A whistle revolves in a circle with angular speed  = 20 rad/s using a string of length 50 cm. If the frequency of
sound from the whistle is 385 Hz, then what is the minimum frequency heard by an observer which is far away from
the centre:– (vsound = 340 m/s)
(A) 385 Hz (B) 374 Hz (C) 394 Hz (D) 333 Hz

Q u e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. C C A C D B A B B C D A A C A A A D C C
Q u e. 2 1 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. D C C B D A A A A D B A A C C A B B A C
Q u e. 4 1 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53
Ans. C C B A D C A A D D A A B
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PHYSICS
WAVES AND SOUND -LEVEL 2
MCQs with one or more than one correct answer
1. A sound wave of frequency ƒ travels horizontally to the right. It is reflected from a large vertical plane surface
moving to left with a speed v. The speed of sound in medium is c:–
(c  v )
(A) The number of wave striking the surface per second is ƒ
c
c(c  v)
(B) The wavelength of reflected wave is
ƒ(c  v)
(c  v)
(C) The frequency of the reflected wave is ƒ
(c  v)
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vƒ
(D) The number of beats heard by a stationary listener to the left of the reflecting surface is
cv
 
2. A wave disturbance in a medium is described by y(x, t) = 0.02 cos  50 t   cos(10x), where x and y are
2
in metre and t is in second:–
(A) A node occurs at x = 0.15 m (B) An antinode occurs at x=0.3 m
(C) The speed of wave is 5 ms –1 (D) The wavelength is 0.2 m
3.
4.
 n x 
(A) y = A sin 
L 
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A string of length L is stretched along the x–axis and is rigidly clamped at its two ends. It undergoes transverse
vibration. If n is an integer, which of the following relations may represent the shape of the string at any time:–
 n x 
 cost (B) y = A sin 
L 
 n x 
sin t (C) y = A cos 
L 
 n x 
cos t (D) y = A cos 
Two tuning fork when sounded together produces 5 beats per second. The first tuning fork is in resonance with
L 
sint
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16.0 cm wire of a sonometer and second is in the resonance with 16.2 cm wire of the same sonometer then the
frequencies of the tuning forks are:–
(A) 100 Hz, 105 Hz (B) 200 Hz, 205 Hz (C) 300 Hz, 305 Hz (D) 400 Hz, 405 Hz
5. A hollow metallic tube of length L and closed at one end produce resonance with a tuning fork of frequency
n. The entire tube is then heated carefully so that at equilibrium temperature its length changes by . If the change
in velocity V of sound is v, the resonance will now produced by tuning fork of frequency:–
(A) (V+v) / (4(L+)) (B) (V+v) / (4(L–)) (C) (V–v) / (4(L+)) (D) (V–v)/ (4(L–))
6. A wave is propagating along x–axis. The displacement of particles of the medium in z–direction at t=0 is
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given by: z=exp[–(x+2) 2 ], where 'x' is i n meter. At t=1s, the same wave disturba nce is given by
z=exp [–(2–x) 2]. Then the wave propagation velocity is:–
(A) 4 m/s in + x direction (B) 4 m/s in – x direction
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(C) 2 m/s in + x direction (D) 2 m/s in – x direction

7. The equation of a wave travelling along the positive x–axis, as shown in figure at t=0 is given by:–
y
    1
(A) sin  kx  t   (B) sin  kx  t  
6 6
0 x
-0.5
   
(C) sin  t  kx   (D) sin  t  kx   -0.1
6 6
8. A detector is released from rest over height h a source of sound of frequency 1(Hz)
f 0 = 10 3 Hz. The frequency observed by the detector at time t is plotted
2000
in the graph. The speed of sound in air is (g = 10 m/s 2 )
1000
(A) 330 m/s (B) 350 m/s
(C) 300 m/s (D) 310 m/s 30 t(s)
PAGE NO : 127
9. A sinusoidal progressive wave is generated in a string. It's equation is given by y=(2mm) sin
(2x–100 t + /3). The time when particle at x = 4 m first passes through mean position, will be:–
1 1 1 1
(A) s (B) s (C) s (D) s
150 12 300 100
1 0 . One end of a string of length L is tied to the ceiling of lift accelerating upwards with an accelerating 2g.
The other end of the string is free. The linear mass density of the string varies linearly from 0 of  from
bottom to top:–
(A) The velocity of the wave in the string will be 0
(B) The acceleration of the wave on the string will be 3g/4 every where.
(C) The time taken by a pulse to reach from bottom to top will be 8L / 3g
(D) The time taken by a pulse to reach from bottom to top will be 4L / 3g
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th
1 1 . A clamped string is oscillating in n harmonic, then:–
(A) Total energy of oscillations will be n2 times that of fundamental frequency
(B) Total energy of oscillations will be (n–1) 2 times that of fundamental frequency
(C) Average kinetic energy of the string over a complete oscillations is half of that the total energy of the string
(D) None of these
1 2 . Figure, shows a stationary wave between two fixed points P and Q. P X. .1 .2 3. Q
(A) 1, 2 and 3 RI
Which point (s) of 1, 2 and 3 are in phase with the point X ?
(B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only
1 3 . Four open organ pipes of different length and different gases at same
temperature as shown in figure. Let f A, f B, f C and f D be their fundamental

(D) 3 only
H2
O2
N2
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frequencies then:– [Take  CO =7/5]  2/3 CO2
2
/2
(A) f A/f B = (B) f B/f C  72 / 28 /3
2
(C) f C/f D  11 / 28 (D) f D/f A  76 / 11 (A) (B) (C) (D)
1 4 . In an organ pipe whose one end is at x = 0, the pressure is expressed by
3 x
P  P0 cos sin 300 t where x is in meter and t in sec. The organ pipe can be :–
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2
(A) Closed at one end, open at another with length =0.5 m
(B) Open at both ends, length = 1m
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(C) Closed at both ends, length = 2m

(D) Closed at one end, open at another with length = 2/3 m
1 5 . For a sine wave passing through a medium, let y be the displacement of a particle, v be its velocity and a be
its acceleration:–
(A) y, v and a are always in the same phase (B) y and a are always in opposite phase
 
(C) Phase difference between y and v is (D) Phase difference between v and a is
2 2
1 6 . P, Q and R are three particles of a medium which lie on the x-axis. A sine wave of wavelength  is travelling
through the medium in the x-direction. P and Q always have the same speed, while P and R always have the
same velocity. The minimum distance between:–
 
(A) P and Q is (B) P and Q is  (C) P and R is (D) P and R is 
2 2
PAGE NO : 128
1 7 . A plane progressive wave of frequency 25 Hz, amplitude 2.5 x 10–5 m and initial phase zero moves along the
negative x-direction with a velocity of 300 m/s. A and B are two points 6m apart on the line of propagation
of the wave. At any instant the phase difference between A and B is . The maximum difference in the
displacements of particle at A and B is .
(A)  =  (B)  = 0 (C)  = 0 (D)  = 5 x 10 –5 m
1 8 . The stationary waves set up on a string have the equation y = (2 mm) sin[(6.28 m–1)x]cos (t). This stationary
wave is created by two identical waves, of amplitude A each, moving in opposite directions along the string:–
(A) A = 2 mm (B) A = 1 mm
(C) The smallest length of the string is 50 cm (D) The smallest length of the string is 2 m
1 9 . When an open organ pipe resonates in its fundamental mode then at the centre of the pipe:–
(A) The gas molecules undergo vibrations of maximum amplitude
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(B) The gas molecules are at rest
(C) The pressure of the gas is constant
(D) The pressure of the gas undergoes maximum variation
2 0 . Sounds from two identical sources S1 and S2 reach a point P. When the sounds reach directly, and in the same
phase, the intensity at P is  0. The power of S 1 is now reduced by 64% and the phase difference between
S1 and S2 is varied continuously. The maximum and minimum intensities recorded at P are now  max and  min:–
(A)  max = 0.64 0

RI (B)  min = 0.36  0
 max
(C) 
min
= 16
 max
(D) 
min
=
1.64
0.36
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E
JE

Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A A BC ABCD AB D A A D C C BC AC C C D BC D AD AD BC BD AC
PAGE NO : 129
PHYSICS
&-&$53045"5*$4-&7&-
1. Using mass (M), length (L), time (T) and current (A) as fundamental quantities, the dimension of permittivity is :
(A) ML–2T2A (B) M–1 L–3 T4 A2 (C) MLT –2A (D) ML 2T –1A 2
2. Two point charges + 9e and +e are kept 16 cm. apart from each other. Where should a third charge q be placed
between them so that the system is in equilibrium state :
(A) 24 cm from + 9e (B) 12 cm from +9e (C) 24 cm from + e (D) 12 cm from + e
3. Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD as shown in the figure. The force on the charge kept
at the centre O will be :
+q +2q
A B
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D C
–2q +q
(A) perpendicular to side AB (B) along the diagonal BD

(C) along the diagonal AC (D) zero
4.
5.
(C) no change in size RI
When charge is given to a soap bubble, it shows :
(A) an increase in size (B) sometimes an increase and sometimes a decrease in size
(D) none of these
Two equal negative charges –q are fixed at point (0, –a) and (0, a) on y–axis. A positive charge Q is released
from rest at the point (2a, 0) on the x–axis. The charge Q will :
(A) execute simple harmonic motion about the origin
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(B) move to the origin and remain at rest
(C) move to infinity
(D) execute oscillatory but not simple harmonic motion
6. Figures below show regular hexagon, the charges are placed at the vertices. In which of the following cases the
electric field at the centre is zero.
5q 4q q –q 2q 2q 2q 2q
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6q 3q –q q q q q q
q 2q q q 2q 2q 2q q
I II III IV
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(A) IV (B) III (C) I (D) II
7. Two infinite linear charges are placed parallel to each other at a distance 0.1 m from each other. If the linear
charge density on each is 5 C/m, then the force acting on a unit length of each linear charge will be :
(A) 2.5 N/m (B) 3.25 N/m (C) 4.5 N/m (D) 7.5 N/m
8. An electron of mass m e, initially at rest, moves through a certain distance in a uniform electric field in time
t1. A proton of mass mp, also, initially at rest, takes time t2 to move through an equal distance in this uniform
electric field. Neglecting the effect of gravity, the ratio t 2/t 1 is nearly equal to :
(A) 1 (B) (m p/m e) 1/ 2 (C) (m e/m p) 1/ 2 (D) 1836
9. An electron is projected as in figure with kinetic energy K, at an angle = 45° between two charged plates. The
magnitude of the electric field so that the electron just fails to strike the upper plate, should be greater than:
PAGE NO : 130
&-&$53045"5*$4 PHYSICS
K E d
+ 45° + + + + +
K 2K K
(A) (B) (C) (D) Infinite
qd qd 2qd
1 0 . A point charge 50 C is located in the XY plane at the point of position vector r0 2 î 3 ˆj meter. What
is the electric field at the point of position vector r 8 î 5 ˆj meter:

(A) 1200 V/m (B) 0.04 V/m (C) 900 V/m (D) 4500 V/m
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1 1 . Three point charges 1C, 2C and 3C are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side 1m. The
work required to move these charges to the corners of a smaller equilateral triangle of side 0.5m in two different
ways as in fig. (A) and fig. (B) are W a and W b then:
A 1C A 1C
A'
B' C'
(A) Wa > Wb
RI 2C
B B'
(B) Wa < Wb
(A)
C' C
3C
2C
B
(C) Wa = Wb
(B)
1 2 . As per this diagram a point charge +q is placed at the origin O. Work done in taking another point charge
–Q from the point A (0, a) to another point B (a,0) along the straight path AB is :
C
3C
(D) Wa = 0 and Wb = 0
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y
A
x
O B
qQ 1 qQ 1 1 qQ 1
E
(A) ( 4 2
)
2a (B) zero (C) ( 4 2
) (D) ( 4 2
)
2a
0 a 0 a 2 0 a
1 3 . Two identical thin rings, each of radius R meter are coaxially placed at distance R meter apart. If Q 1 and Q2
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coulomb are respectively the charges uniformly spread on the two rings, the work done in moving a charge q
from the centre of one ring to that of the other is :
q Q1 Q2 2 1 q 2 Q1 Q 2 q Q1 Q2 2 1
4 2 0 R 4 0R 4 2 0 R
1 4 . Two identical particles of mass m carry a charge Q each. Initially one is at rest on a smooth horizontal plane and
the other is projected along the plane directly towards first particle from a large distance with speed v. The
closest distance of approach be :
1 Q2 1 4Q 2 1 2Q 2 1 3Q 2
(A) 4 mv (B) 4 mv 2 (C) 4 mv 2 (D) 4 mv 2
0 0 0 0
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1 5 . In a regular polygon of n sides, each corner is at a distance r from the center. Identical charges are placed at (n–
1) corners. At the centre, the intensity is E and the potential is V. The ratio V/E has magnitude :
(A) nr (B) (n–1)r (C) (n–1) /r (D) r (n–1)/n
1 6 . An alpha particle of energy 5 MeV is scattered through 180° by a fixed uranium nucleus. The distance of
closest approach is of the order :
(A) 1 Å (B) 10 –10 cm (C) 10 –12 cm (D) 10 –15 cm
1 7 . A charge 3 coulomb experiences a force 300 N when placed in a uniform electric field. The potential difference
between two points separated by a distance of 10 cm along the field line is :
(A) 10 V (B) 90 V (C) 1000 V (D) 9000 V
1 8 . Uniform electric field of magnitude 100 V/m in space is directed along the line y=3 +x. Find the potential
difference between point A (3,1) & B(1,3) :
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(A) 100 V (B) 200 2 V (C) 200V (D) 0
1 9 . The equation of an equipotential line in an electric field is y=2x, then the electric field strength vector at (1, 2)
may be :
(A) 4î 3ˆj (B) 4î 8ˆj (C) 8î 4ˆj (D) – 8î 4ˆj
2 2 2
2 0 . In a certain region of space, the potential is given by V=k (2x – y + z ). The electric field at the point
(A) k 6 RI
(1, 1, 1) has magnitude :
(B) 2k 6 (C) 2k 3 (D) 4k 3
2 1 . The figure below shows two equipotential lines in XY plane for an electric field. The scales are marked. The X–
component E x and Y–component E y of the electric field in the space between these equipotential lines are
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respectively :
2
Y (in cm)
4 V ol t
V
ol t
2
0
2 4 6 8
X (in cm)
E
(A) +100 V/m, –200 V/m (B) +200 V/m, +100 V/m
(C) –100 V/m, +200 V/m (D) –200 V/m, –100 V/m
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2 2 . A non–conducting ring of radius 0.5 m carries a total charge 1.11 × 10–10 C distributed non–uniformly on its
0
circumference producing an electric field E every where in space. The value of the integral E d ( = 0
being centre of the ring) in volt is :

(A) +2 (B) –1 (C) –2 (D) zero
2 3 . Two point charges + q and –q are held fixed at (–d, 0) and (d, 0) respectively of a x–y co–ordinate system.
Then which of the following statement is incorrect :
(A) The electric field E at all points on the x–axis has the same direction
(B) No work has to be done in bringing a test charge from to the origin
(C) Electric field at all point on y–axis is parallel to x–axis
(D) The dipole moment is 2 qd along the –ve x–axis
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2 4 . The work done in rotating an electric dipole of dipole moment p in an electric field E through an angle from the
direction of electric field, is :
(A) pE (1 – cos ) (B) pE (C) zero (D) – pE cos
2 5 . Which one of the following pattern of electric line of force can't possible :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 6 . A sphere of radius R and charge Q is placed inside an imaginary sphere of radius 2R whose centre coincides with
the given sphere. The flux related to imaginary sphere is :
Q Q 4Q 2Q
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D)
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0 0 0 0
1/2
2 7 . Due to a charge inside a cube the electric field is Ex = 600 x , Ey = 0, Ez = 0. The charge inside the cube is
(approximately) :
Y
0.1m
(A) 600 C
RI Z
(B) 60 C
O
0.1 m
(C) 7 C
X
(D) 6 C
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2
2 8 . Electric flux through a surface of area 100 m lying in the xy plane is (in V–m) if E î 2ˆj 3kˆ :
(A) 100 (B) 141.4 (C) 173.2 (D) 200
2 9 . Two spherical, nonconducting, and very thin shells of uniformly distributed positive charge Q and radius d are
located at a distance 10d from each other. A positive point charge q is placed inside one of the shells at a
distance d/2 from the center, on the line connecting the centers of the two shells, as shown in the figure. What
is the net force on the charge q?
E
Q Q
d
{
d/2
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10d
qQ qQ
(A) 361 d 2 to the left (B) 361 d 2 to the right
0 0
362qQ 360qQ
(C) 361 d 2 to the left (D) 361 d 2 to the right
0 0
3 0 . A solid metallic sphere has a charge + 3Q. Concentric with this sphere is a conducting spherical shell having
charge –Q. The radius of the sphere is a and that of the spherical shell is b (b > a). What is the electric field at a
distance R (a < R < b) from the centre ?
4Q 3Q 3Q Q
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 2
2 0R 4 0R 2 0R 0R
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3 1 . A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged such that the potential on its surface is 10V. The potential
at the distance 3 cm from the centre of the sphere is :
(A) zero (B) 10 V
(C) same as at a point 5 cm away from the surface (D) same as at a point 25 cm away from the surface
3 2 . A solid conducting sphere having a charge Q is surrounded by an uncharged concentric conducting hollow
spherical shell. Let the potential difference between the surface of the solid sphere and that of the outer
surface of the hollow shell be V. If the shell is now given a charge of –3Q, the new potential difference between
the same two surfaces is :
(A) V (B) 2V (C) 4V (D) –2V
3 3 . A cube of metal is given a charge (+ Q), which of the following statements is true :
(A) Potential at the surface of cube is zero (B) Potential within the cube is zero
(C) Electric field is normal to the surface of the cube (D) Electric field varies within the cube
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3 4 . A metallic solid sphere is placed in a uniform electric field. The lines of force follow the path(s) shown in figure
as :
1 1
2 2
3 3
(A) 1 RI (B) 2
4
(C) 3
4
(D) 4
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E
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ANSWER KEY LEVEL1

Q u e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
Ans. B B B A D B C B C D C B B B B C A D D
Q u e. 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34
Ans. B C A A A C A C C A B B A C D
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PHYSICS
ELECTROSTATICS LEVEL -II
1 . A charged cork of mass m suspended by a light string is placed in uniform electric field of strength E =
î ˆj 10 5 NC–1 as shown in the figure. If in equilibrium position tension in the string is 2mg
then angle
1 3
‘ ’with the vertical is :
\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\
E
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(A) 600 (B) 300 (C) 450 (D) 180
2. A charged particle having some mass is resting in equilibrium at a height H above the centre of a uniformly
charged non–conducting horizontal ring of radius R. The force of gravity acts downwards.; The equilibrium of the
particle will be stable :
R R R
(A) for all values of H (B) only if H > (C) only if H < (D) only if H =
3.
at the centre is :
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The charge per unit length of the four quadrant of the ring is 2
2
-2
y
2
– ,
2
and–
2
respectively. The electric field

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x
R
E
2
(A) 2 î (B) 2 ĵ (C) î (D) None
0R 0R 4 0 R
4. The figure shows a nonconducting ring which has positive and negative charge non uniformly distributed on
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it such that the total charge is zero. Which of the following statements is true?
+
+
++++++++
O
++ ++
axis
++
(A) The potential at all the points on the axis will be zero.
(B) The electric field at all the points on the axis will be zero.
(C) The direction of electric field at all points on the axis will be along the axis.
(D) If the ring is placed inside a uniform external electric field then net torque and force acting on the ring
would be zero.
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PHYSICS
5. A circular ring carries a uniformly distributed positive charge. The electric field (E) and potential (V) varies
with distance (r) from the centre of the ring along its axis as :
E E V
V
(A) (B) (C) (D)

r r r r
6. Find the force experienced by the semicircular rod charged with a charge q, placed as shown in figure. Radius
of the wire is R and the infinite line of charge with linear charge density is passing through its centre and
perpendicular to the plane of rod.
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+ + +
+
+
+ +
R
+
7.
(A) 2 2
q
0 R
RI (B) 2
q
0 R (C) 4 2
q
0 R (D) 4
q
0 R
Which of the following is true for the figure showing electric lines of force ? (E is electrical field, V is potential)
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(A) E A > E B (B) E B > E A (C) V A > V B (D) V B > V A
E
8. An electric charge 10 –8 C is placed at the point (4m, 7m, 2m). At the point (1m, 3m, 2m), the electric :
(A) potential will be 18 V (B) field has no Y–component
(C) field will be along Z–axis (D) potential will be 1.8 V
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9. Two point charges Q and –Q/4 are separated by a distance x. Then :

Q x Q/4
(A) potential is zero at a point on the axis which is at a distance x/3 on the right side of the charge –Q/4
(B) potential is zero at a point on the axis which is at a distance x/5 on the left side of the charge –Q/4
(C) electric field is zero at a point on the axis which is at a distance x on the right side of the charge–Q/4
(D) there exist two points on the axis where electric field is zero
1 0 . Two positively charged particles X and Y are initially far away from each other and at rest. X begins to move
towards Y with some initial velocity. The total momentum and energy of the system are p and E :
(A) If Y is fixed, both p and E are conserved
(B) If Y is fixed, E is conserved, but not p
(C) If both are free to move, p is conserved but not E
(D) If both are free, E is conserved, but not p
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1 1 . Two particles X and Y, of equal mass and with unequal positive charges, are free to move and are initially
far away from each other. With Y at rest, X begins to move towards it with initial velocity u. After a long
time, finally :
(A) X will stop, Y will move with velocity u (B) X and Y will both move with velocities u/2 each
(C) X will stop, Y will move with velocity < u (D) both will move with velocities < u/2
1 2 . In a uniform electric field, the potential is 10V at the origin of coordinates, and 8V at each of the points
(1, 0, 0), (0, 1, 0) and (0, 0, 1). The potential at the point (1, 1, 1) will be :
(A) 0 (B) 4V (C) 8V (D) 10V
1 3 . Four charges of 1 C , 2 C , 3 C , and – 6 C are placed one at each corner of the square of side 1m.
The square lies in the x–y plane with its centre at the origin.
(A) The electric potential is zero at the origin.
(B) The electric potential is zero everywhere along the x–axis only if the sides of the sqaure are parallel
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to x and y axis.
(C) The electric potential is zero everywhere along the z–axis for any orientation of the square in the x–y
plane.
(D) The electric potential is not zero along the z–axis except at the origin.
1 4 . Potential at a point A is 3 volt and at a point B is 7 volt, an electron is moving towards A from B :
(A) It must have some K.E. at B to reach A
(B) It need not have any K.E. at B to reach A
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(C) To reach A it must have more than or equal to 4 eV KE at B
(D) When it will reach A, it will have K.E. more than or at least equal to 4 eV if it was released from rest at B
1 5 . A particle of charge 1 C & mass 1 gm moving with a velocity of 4 m/s is subjected to a uniform electric field of
magnitude 300 V/m for 10 sec. Then it's final speed cannot be :
(A) 0.5 m/s (B) 4 m/s (C) 3 m/s (D) 6 m/s
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1 6 . A particle of mass m and charge q is thrown in a region where uniform gravitational field and electric field are
present. The path of particle :
(A) may be a straight line (B) may be a circle (C) may be a parabola (D) may be a hyperbola
1 7 . A horizontal electric feild (E = (mg)/q) exists as shown in figure and a mass m attached at the end of a light rod.
If mass m is released from the position shown in figure find the angular velocity of the rod when it passes through
the bottom most position :
E
=450
mg
E=
q
m
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m
+q
g 2g 3g 5g
(A) (B) (C) (D)
g
1 8 . The diagram shows a small bead of mass m carrying charge q. The bead can freely
move on the smooth fixed ring placed on a smooth horizontal plane. In the same plane
a charge + Q has also been fixed as shown. The potential at the point A due to +Q is +Q
B A
V. The velocity with which the bead should proejcted from the point A so that it can a 4a
complete a circle should be greater than :
6 qV qV 3qV
m m m
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1 9 . The diagram shows three infinitely long uniform line charges placed on the X,Y and Z axis. The work done in
moving a unit positive charge from (1, 1, 1) to (0, 1, 1) is equal to:
X
2
n2 n2 3 n2
2 0 0 2 0
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2 0 . The electric potential decreases uniformly from V to –V along X–axis in a coordinate system as we moves
from a point (–x 0, 0) to (x 0, 0), then the electric field at the origin :
V V
(A) must be equal to x (B) may be equal to x
0 0
V V
(C) must be greater than x (D) may be less than x
0 0
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2 1 . A proton and a deuteron are initially at rest and are accelerated through the same potential difference which of
the following is false concerning the final properties of the two particles?
(A) They have different speeds
(C) They have same kinetic energy
(B) They have same momentum
(D) They have been subjected to same force
2 2 . Three points charges are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side L as shown in the figure:
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(A) The potential at the centroid of the triangle is zero.
2q
(B) The electric field at the centroid of the triangle is zero.
L L
(C) The dipole moment of the system is 2 qL
(D) The dipole moment of the system is 3 qL

+q L +q
2 3 . The dipole moment of a system of charge +q distributed uniformly on an arc of radius R subtending an angle
E
/ 2 at its centre where another charge –q is placed is
2 2qR 2qR qR 2qR

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(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4 . An electric dipole is kept on the axis of a uniformly charged ring at distance R/ 2 from the centre of the ring.
The direction of the dipole moment is along the axis. The dipole moment is P, charge of the ring is Q and radius
of the ring is R. The force on the dipole is nearly :
4kPQ 4kPQ 2kPQ

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) (D) zero
3 3R 3 3R 3 3R 3
2 5 . Point P lies on the axis of a dipole. If the dipole is rotated by 90° anticlock wise, the electric field vector E at P will
rotate by :
(A) 90° clockwise (B) 180° clockwise (C) 90° anticlock wise (D) 180° anticlockwise
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2 6 . Two short electric dipoles are placed as shown. The energy of electric interaction between these dipoles will be
p1
r
p2
2Kp 1 p 2 cos 2Kp1 p 2 cos 2Kp1 p 2 sin 4Kp 1 p 2 cos

(A) (B) (C) (D)
r3 r3 r3 r3
2 7 . Charges Q 1 and Q 2 lies inside and outside respectively of a closed surface S. Let E be the field at any point
on S and be the flux of E over S.
(A) If Q 1 changes, both E and will change. (B) If Q2 changes, E will change but will not change.
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(C) If Q 1=0 and Q 2 0 then E 0 but =0 (D) If Q 1 0 and Q 2=0 then E=0 but 0
2 8 . An electric dipole is placed at the centre of a sphere. Mark the correct answer :
(A) The flux of the electric field passing through the sphere is zero
(B) The electric field is zero at every point of the sphere
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(C) The electric potential is zero everywhere on the sphere
(D) The electric potential is zero on a circle on the surface
2 9 . An infinite, uniformly charged sheet with surface charge denisty cuts through a spherical Gaussian surface of radius
R at a distance x from its center, as shown in the figure. The electric flux through the Gaussian surface is :
SP
R
x
2
R2 2 R2 x2 R x R2 x2
E
(A) (B) (C) (D)

0 0 0 0
3 0 . At distance of 5 cm and 10 cm outwards from the surface of a uniformly charged solid sphere, the potentials are
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100 V and 75 V respectively. Then :

–10
(A) potential at its surface is 150 V (B) the charge on the sphere is (5/3) x 10 C
(C) the electric field on the surface is 1500 V/m (D) the electric potential at its centre is 225 V
3 1 . An electric field converges at the origin whose magnitude is given by the expression E = 100r N/C, where
r is the distance measured from the origin.
(A) Total charge contained in any spherical volume with its centre at origin is negative.
(B) Total charge contained at any spherical volume, irrespective of the location of its centre, is negative.
(C) Total charge contained in a spherical volume of radius 3 cm with its centre at origin equals 3 × 10 –13 C.
(D) Total charge contained in a spherical volume of radius 3 cm with its centre at origin has
magnitude 3 × 10 –9 C.
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3 2 . A bullet of mass m and charge q is fired towards a solid uniformly charged sphere of radius R and total charge
+ q. If it strikes the surface of sphere with speed u, find the minimum value of u so that it can penetrate through
the sphere. (Neglect all resistnace forces or friction acting on bullet except electrostatic forces)
q
+q
u
m
R
q q q 3q
(A) 2 mR (B) 4 mR (C) 8 mR (D)
0 0 0 4 0 mR
3 3 . A unit positive point charge of mass m is projected with a velocity v inside the tunnel as shown. The tunnel has
been made inside a uniformly charged non conducting sphere. The minimum velocity with which the point charge
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should be projected such that it can it reach the opposite end of the tunnel, is equal to :
R/2
(A)
R2
4m 0
1/2
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R2
24m 0
1/2
(D) zero because the initial and the final points are at same potential
(C)
R2
6m 0
1/2
3 4 . Three concentric conducting spherical shells have radius r, 2r and 3r and Q 1, Q 2 and Q 3 are final charges
respectively. Innermost and outermost shells are already earthed as shown in figure. choose the wrong statement.
SP
Q3
3r Q2
Q1
2r
r
E
Q2 Q3 Q3 1
(A) Q 1 + Q 3 = –Q 2 (B) Q 1 = (C) Q 3 (D) Q
4 1 2 3
3 5 . Shown in the figure a spherical shell with an inner radius 'a' and an outer radius 'b' is
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made of conducting material. A point charge +Q is placed at the centre of the spheri- b
cal shell and a total charge –q is placed on the shell. Charge –q is distributed on the sur-
faces as : Q
a
(A) –Q on the inner surface, –q, on outer surface
(B) –Q on the inner surface, –q+Q on the outer surface
(C) +Q on the inner surface, –q–Q on the outer surface q
(D) The charge –q is spread uniformly between the inner and outer surface
3 6 . In the previous question assume that the electrostatic potential is zero at an infinite distance from the spherical
1
shell. The electrostatic potential at a distance R (a < R < b) from the centre of the shell is where K
4 0
KQ Q q Q q
(A) 0 (B) (B) K (D) K
a R b
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3 7 . There are four concentric shells A, B, C and D of radii a, 2a, 3a and 4a respectively. Shells B and D are given
charges +q and –q respectively. Shell C is now earthed. The potential difference VA–VC is :
Kq Kq Kq Kq
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2a 3a 4a 6a
3 8 . X and Y are large, parallel conducting plates closed to each other. Each face has an area A. X is given a charge
Q. Y is without any charge. Points A, B and C are as shown in figure :
X Y
Q
(A) The field at B is 2 A
0
A B C
Q
(B) The field at B is
0A
(C) The fields at A, B and C are of the same magnitude

(D) The field at A and C are of the same magnitude, but in opposite directions
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A C B
+Q -Q
3 9 . Plates A and B constitutes an isolated, charge parallel plate capacitor. The
inner surfaces ( I and IV) of A and B have charges + Q and –Q respectively. A
third plate C with charge + Q is now introduced midway between A and B.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) The surface I and II will have equal and opposite charges
(B) The surfaces III and IV will have equal and opposite charges I II III IV
(C) The charge on surace III will be greater than Q
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(D) The potential difference between A and C will be equal to the potential difference between C and B
4 0 . A wheel having mass m has charges +q and –q on diametrically opposite points. It remains in equilibrium on a
rough inclined plane in the presence of uniform vertical electric field E. The value of E is :
+q
E
SP
-q
mg mg mg tan
q 2q 2q
E
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ANSWER KEY LEVEL -2
Qu e . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A ns . A,B B A A B B AD A ABC B A B AC AC A
Qu e . 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A ns . AC B A B B B AD A D A B ABC AD D ACD
Qu e . 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A ns . ABC B A C B D D ACD D B
PAGE NO : 141
PHYSICS
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1. Two wires each of radius of cross section r but of different materials are connected together end to end (in
series). If the densities of charge carries in the two wires are in the ratio 1:4, the drift velocity of electrons in
the two wires will be in the ratio :
(A) 1:2 (B) 2:1 (C) 4:1 (D) 1:4
2. A current I flows through a uniform wire of diameter d when the mean electron drift velocity is v. The same
current will flow through a wire of diameter d/2 made of the same material if the mean drift velocity of the
electron is
(A) v/4 (B) v/2 (C) 2v (D) 4v
3. A wire has a non–uniform cross–section as shown in figure. A steady current flows through it. The drift speed
of electrons at points P and Q is vP and vQ
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P Q
(A) vP = vQ (B) vP < vQ (C) vP > vQ (D) data insufficient
4.
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An insulating pipe of cross–section area 'A' contains an electrolyte which has two types of ions : their charges
being –e and +2e. A potential difference applied between the ends of the pipe result in the drifting of the
two types of ions, having drift speed = v (–ve ion) and v/4 (+ve ion). Both ions have the same number per unit
volume = n. The current flowing through the pipe is
(A) nev A/2 (B) nev A/4 (C) 5nev A/2 (D) 3nev A/2
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5. Three copper wires have their lengths in the ratio 5 : 3 : 1 and their masses are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5. Their
electrical resistance will be in the ratio
(A) 5 : 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 3 : 5 (C) 125 : 15 : 1 (D) 1 : 15 : 125.
6. A wire of resistance R is stretched to double its length. Its new resistance is

(A) R (B) R/2 (C) 4R (D) R/4
7. The equivalent resistance between the points A and B is–

E
6
A B
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36 85
(A) (B) 10 (C) (D) none of these
7 7
8. The current i in the circuit (see figure) is :
i
2V
30 30
30
1 1 1 1
(A) A (B) A (C) A (D) A
45 15 10 5
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PHYSICS
9. A battery of internal resistance 4 is connected to the network of resistance as shown. In order that
the maximum power can be delivered to the network, the value of R in should be :–
R R
R 6R R
E
4
R 4R
4 8
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D) 18
9 3
10. If X, Y and Z in figure are identical lamps, which of the following changes to the brightness of the lamps occur
when switch S is closed?
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Z
X S
11.
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(A) X stays the same, Y decreases
(C) X increases, Y stays the same
(B) X increases, Y decreases
(D) X decreases, Y increases
A battery of internal resistance 2 is connected to a variable resistor whose value can vary from 4 to
10 . The resistance is initially set at 4 . If the resistance is now increased then–
(A) power consumed by it will decrease
SP
(B) power consumed by it will increase
(C) power consumed by it may increase or may decrease
(D) power consumed will first increase then decrease
12. In the circuit shown in figure the heat produced in the 5 resistor due to the current flowing through
it is 10 cal/s. The heat generated in the 4 resistor is :
4 6
E
5
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(A) 1 cal/s (B) 2 cal/s (C) 3 cal/s (D) 4 cal/s
13. Two heating coils, one of fine wire and the other of thick wire made of same material and of same length are
connected in series and then in parallel. Which of the following statements is correct
(A) In series fine wire liberates more energy while in parallel thick wire liberates more energy
(B) In series fine wire liberates less energy while in parallel thick wire liberates less energy
(C) In series thick wire liberates more energy while in parallel it liberates less energy
(D) Both wires liberates equal energies in series and in parallel
14. A storage battery is connected to a charger for charging with a voltage of 12.5 volts. The internal resistance
of the storage battery is 1 .When the charging current is 0.5 A, the emf of the storage battery is
(A) 13 volts (B) 12.5 volts (C) 12 volts (D) 11.5 volts
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15. In the figure shown the power generated in y is maximum when y=5 then R is
10V,
2
R
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 3
16. A circuit is comprised of eight identical batteries and a resistor R = 0.8 . Each battery has an emf of 1.0 V
and internal resistance of 0.2 . The voltage difference across any of the battery is
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R=0.8
(A) 0.5 V (B) 1.0V (C) 0V (D) 2V
17.
18.
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A galvanometer has a resistance of 20 and reads full–scale when 0.2V is applied across it.
To convert it into a 10A ammeter, the galvanometer coil should have a
(A) 0.01 resistor connected across it
(C) 200 resistor connected in series with it
(B) 0.02 resistor connected across it
(D) 2000 resistor connected in series with it
A galvanometer coil has a resistance 90 and full scale deflection current 10mA. A 910 resistance is
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connected in series with the galvanometer to make a voltmeter. If the least count of the voltmeter is 0.1V, the
number of divisions on its scale is
(A) 90 (B) 91 (C) 100 (D) None
19. In the circuit shown the resistance of voltmeter is 10,000 ohm and that of ammeter is 20 ohm. The ammeter
reading is 0.10 Amp and voltmeter reading is 12 volt. Then R is equal to
E
R
A
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(A) 122 (B) 140 (C)116 (D) 100
20. By error, a student places moving–coil voltmeter V (nearly ideal) in series with the resistance in a circuit in
order to read the current, as shown. The voltmeter reading will be
E=12V,r=2
4
v
(A) 0 (B) 4V (C) 6V (D) 12V
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21. A Wheatstone's bridge is balanced with a resistance of 625 in the third arm, where P, Q and S are in the 1st,
2nd and 4th arm respectively. If P and Q are interchanged, the resistance in the third arm has to be increased
by 51 to secure balance. The unknown resistance in the fourth arm is
P Q
S 625
(A) 625 (B) 650 (C) 676 (D) 600
22. The length of a potentiometer wire is . A cell of emf E is balanced at a length /3 from the positive end of
the wire. If the length of the wire is increased by /2 at what distance will the same cell give a balanced point
2 4
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(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2 6 3
23. In the figure, the potentiometer wire AB of length L and resistance 9r is joined to the cell D of emf and
internal resistance r. The cell C's emf is and its internal resistance is 2r. The galvanometer G will show no
2
deflection when the length AJ is
RI A
C
D
,r
J
B
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G
,2r
2
4L 5L 7L 11L
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 9 18 18
24. In the given potentiometer circuit length of the wire AB is 3m and resistance is R=4.5 . The length AC for no
deflection in galvanometer is
E
E=5V r=0.5
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R=4.5
A B
C
G
E1=3V r1
(A) 2m (B) 1.8m (C) dependent on r1 (D) None of these
4
25. A battery of emf E0 =12V is connected across a 4m long uniform wire having resistance . The cells of
m
small emfs 1=2V and 2=4V having internal resistance 2 and 6 respectively, are connected as shown in
the figure. If galvanometer shows no deflection at the point N, the distance of point N from the point A is
equal to
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PHYSICS
R=8
N
A B
1
r1
G
2 r2
1 1
(A) m (B) m (C) 25cm (D) 50cm
6 3
26. A constant voltage is applied between the two ends of a uniform metallic wire. Some heat is developed in it.
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The heat developed is doubled if
(A) both the length and the radius of the wire are halved
(B) both the length and the radius of the wire are doubled
(C) the radius of the wire is doubled
(D) the length of the wire is doubled
27. Two bulbs rated (25W– 220V) and (100W–220V) are connected in series to a 440 V line. Which one is likely
to fuse?
28.
(A) 25W bulb
RI (B) 100 W bulb (C) both bulbs (D) None
If the length of the filament of a heater is reduced by 10%, the power of the heater will
(A) increase by about 9%
(C) increase by about 19% (D) decrease by about 10%
(B) increase by about 11%
SP
29. The equivalent resistance of a group of resistances is R. If another resistance is connected in parallel to the
group, its new equivalent becomes R1 and if it is connected in series to the group, it new equivalent becomes
R2 we have
(A) R 1>R or R 2>R (B) R 1<R or R 2>R (C) R 1>R or R 2<R (D) R 1<R or R 2<R
30. The net emf and internal resistance of three batteries as shown in figure is :
2 8V
E
3V
A B
2 10V
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(A) 2V, 1 (B) 2V, 2 (C) 2V, 1.5 (D) 4V, 2

31. A conducting solid sphere is joined in an electrical circuit as shown in figure. Two imaginary points A and B
are taken inside the sphere. For given conditions-
(A) VA > VB (B) VA < VB (C) VA = VB (D) Data insufficient
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PHYSICS
32. In the circuit shown in figure, ammeter and voltmeter are ideal. If E = 4V, R = 9 and r = 1 , then readings
of ammeter and voltmeter are
V
R R R
E1,r
(A) 1A, 3V (B) 2A, 3V (C) 3A, 4V (D) 4A, 4V
33. In the adjacent circuit, AB is a potentiometer wire of length 40 cm and resistance per unit length 50 /m.
As shown in the figure, the free end of an ideal voltmeter is touching the potentiometer wire. What should be
the velocity of the jockey as a function of time so that reading in the voltmeter varies with time as (2 sin t)?
10
NT
10
V
A B
4V
(A) (10 sin t) cm/s (B) (10 cos t) cm/s (C) (20 sin t) cm/s (D) (20 cos t) cm/s
34. In the diagram shown, all the wires have resistance R. The equivalent resistance between the upper and
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lower dots shown in the diagram is
1 2
3
SP
(A) R/8 (B) R (C) 2R/5 (D) 3R/8
35. An electric bell has a resistance of 5 and requires a current of 0.25 A to work it. Assuming that the
resistance of the bell wire is 1 per 15m and that the bell push is 90m distance from the bell. How many cells
each of emf1.4V and internal resistance 2 , will be required to work the circuit-
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) Can't be determined
E
36. A wire has resistance of 24 is bent in the following shape. The effective resistance between A and B is-
60°
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60°
A
5cm B
10cm
16
(A) 24 (B) 10 (C) (D) None of these
3
ANSWER KEY LEVEL –1
Q u e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. C D C D C C C C B B A B A C D C B C D D
Q u e. 2 1 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
Ans. B B B A C B A B B B A A D D C B
PAGE NO : 147
PHYSICS
$633&/5&-&$53*$*5:
1. A current passes through a wire of nonuniform cross section. Which of the following quantities are independent
of the cross–section?
(A) The charge crossing in a given time interval (B) Drift speed
(C) Current density (D) Free–electron density
2. In the circuit shown E, F, G and H are cells of e.m.f. 2V, 1V, 3V and 1V respectively and their internal
resistances are 2 , 1 , 3 and 1 respectively then-
A
F E
D B
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G H
C
(A) V D–V B=–2/13V
(B) V D–V B=2/13 V
(C) V G=21/13V = potential difference across G
(D) VH = 19/13 V = potential difference across H
3.
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Consider the circuit shown in the figure
28V
A
4
SP
B
(A) The current in the 5 resistor is 2A (B) The current in the 5 resistor is 1A
(C) The potential difference V A–VB is 7V (D) The potential difference V A–V B is 5V
A
E
4. In the circuit shown in figure–

B
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20 V
(A) Power supplied by the battery is 200 watt

(B) Current flowing in the circuit is 5 A
(C) Potential difference across 4 resistance is equal to the potential difference across 6 resistance
(D) Current in wire AB is zero
5. The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time as Q=2t–8t2. The total heat produced in the
1
resistance is (for 0 t )
8
R R R
(A) joules (B) joules (C) joules (D) R joules
6 3 2
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PHYSICS
6. In a potentiometer arrangement E 1 is the cell establishing current in primary circuit E 2 is the cell to be
measured. AB is the potentiometer wire and G is a galvanometer. Which of the following are the essential
condition for balance to be obtained
(A) The emf of E1 must be greater than the emf of E2
(B) Either the positive terminals of both E1 and E2 or the negative terminals of both E1 and E2
must be joined to one end of potentiometer wire
(C) The positive terminals of E1 and E2 must be joined to one end of potentiometer wire
(D) The resistance of G must be less than the resistance of AB
7. Consider an infinite ladder network shown in figure. A voltage V is applied between the points A and B. This
applied value of voltage is halved after each section. Then-
R1 R1 R1 R1 R1
A
R2 R2 R2 R2 R2
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B
R1 R1 1 R1 R1
(A) R 1 (B) R (C) R 2 (D) R 3
2 2 2 2 2
8. In the diagram resistance between any two junctions is R. Equivalent resistance across terminals A and B is
(A)
11R
RI (B)
18R
A B
(C)
7R
(D)
11R
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7 11 11 18
9. In a balanced wheat stone bridge, current in the galvanometer is zero. It remains zero when
(A) battery emf is increased (B) all resistances are increased by 10 ohms
(C) all resistances are made five times (D) the battery and the galvanometer are interchanged
10. The diagram besides shows a circuit used in an experiment to determine the emf and internal resistance of the
cell C. A graph was plotted of the potential difference V between the terminals of the cell against the current I,
which was varied by adjusting the rheostat. The graph is shown on the right; x and y are the intercepts of the
E
graph with the axes as shown. What is the internal resistance of the cell?
C V(V)
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V y
A I(A)
x
x y
(A) x (B) y (C) (D)
y x
11. A battery is of emf E is being charged from a charger such that positive terminal of the battery is connected
to terminal A of charger and negative terminal of the battery is connected to terminal B of charger. The
internal resistance of the battery is r
(A) Potential difference across points A and B must be more than E
(B) A must be at higher potential than B
(C) In battery, current flows from positive terminal to the negative terminal
(D) No current flows through battery
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PHYSICS
12. A battery of emf E and internal resistance r is connected across a resistance R. Resistance R can be adjusted
to any value greater than or equal to zero. A graph is plotted between the current (i) passing through the
resistance and potential difference (V) across it. Select the correct alternative(s)
V
(volt)
10
i
2 (ampere)
(A) Internal resistance of battery is 5

(B) Emf of the battery is 20V
(C) Maximum current which can be taken from the battery is 4A
(D) V–i graph can never be a straight line as shown in figure
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13. A battery consists of a variable number n of identical cells having internal resistance connected in series. The
terminals of the battery are short circuited and the current I measured. Which one of the graph below shows
the correct relationship between I and n?
I/A I/A I/A I/A

(A) (B) (C) (D)
14.
O
RI n O n O n O
In previous problem, if the cell had been connected in parallel (instead of in series) which of the above graphs
would have shown the relationship between total current I and n?
n
SP
I/A I/A I/A I/A
(A) (B) (C) (D)
O n O n O n O n
15. Two identical fuses are rated at 10A. If they are joined
(A) in parallel, the combination acts as a fuse of rating 20A
(B) in parallel, the combination acts as a fuse of rating 5A
(C) in series, the combination acts as a fuse of rating 10A
(D) in series, the combination acts as a fuse of rating 20A
E
16. The value of the resistance R in figure is adjusted such that power
dissipated in the 2 resistor is maximum. Under this condition
(A) R=0
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R
12V
(B) R= 8
(C) power dissipated in the 2 resistors is 72W
(D) power dissipated in the 2 resistor is 8W
17. A microammeter has a resistance of 100 and a full scale range of 50 A. It can be used as a voltmeter or
a higher range ammeter provided a resistance is added to it. Pick the correct range and resistance combination(s).
(A) 50V range with 10 k resistance in series. (B) 10V range with 200 k resistance in series.
(C) 5 mA range with 1 resistance in parallel. (D) 10 mA range with 1 k resistance in parallel.
18. In a potentiometer wire experiment the emf of a battery in the primary circuit is 20V and its internal
resistance is 5 . There is a resistance box in series with the battery and the potentiometer wire, whose
resistance can be varied from 120 to 170 . Resistance of the potentiometer wire is 75 . The following
potential differences can be measured using this potentiometer.
(A) 5V (B) 6V (C) 7V (D) 8V
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PHYSICS
19. In the given potentiometer circuit, the resistance of the potentiometer wire AB is R0. C is a cell of internal
resistance r. The galvanometer G does not give zero deflection for any position of the jockey J. Which of the
following cannot be a reason for this?
D R
A B
r J
C
G
(A) r > R0 (B) R>>R 0

(C) Emf of C> emf of D (D) The negative terminal of C is connected to A
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20. In the following circuit diagram, the current flowing through resistor of 1/4 is
20V
10V 30V
21.
(A) 1 A
RI (B) 60 A (C) 30 A
ABCD is a square where each side is a uniform wire of resistance 1 . A point E lies on CD such that if a
uniform wire of resistance 1 is connected across AE and constant potential difference is applied across A
and C then B and E are equipotential. Then-
(D) None of these
SP
A B
D E C
CE CE CE 1 CE
E
(A) =1 (B) =2 (C) = (D) = 2

ED ED ED 2 ED
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i 2i i i i
22. In the box shown current i enters at H and leaves at C. If iAB = , iDC = , iHA= , iGF = , iHE = ,
6 3 2 6 6
Choose the branch in which current is zero
B C
A D
G
F
H
i E
(A) BG (B) FC (C) ED (D) None
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PHYSICS
23. When an ammeter of negligible internal resistance is inserted in series with circuit it reads 1A. When the
voltmeter of very large resistance is connected across X it reads 1V. When the point A and B are shorted by
a conducting wire, the voltmeters measures 10V across the battery. The internal resistance of the battery is
equal to
X A
Y B
12V
(A) zero (B) 0.5 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.1
24. Under what condition current passing through the resistance R can be increased by short circuiting the
battery of emf E2. The internal resistances of the two batteries are r1 and r2 respectively.
NT
E1 r1 E2 r2
(A) E2r1 > E 1 (R+r2) (B) E 1r 2 > E 2(R+r 1) (C) E 2r 2 > E 1(R+r 2) (D) E 1 r 1 >E 2 (R+r 1 )
25.
26.
(A)
2E
n
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n identical cells are joined in series with its two cells A and B in the loop with reversed polarities. EMF of each
cell is E and internal resistance r. Potential difference across cell A or B is (here n >4)
(B) 2E 1
1
n
(C)
4E
n
(D) 2E 1
2
n
A milliammeter of range 10mA and resistance 9 is joined in a circuit as shown. The metre gives full–scale
deflection for current I when A and B are used as its terminals, i.e., current enters at A and leaves at B (C is
SP
left isolated). The value of I is
9 , 10mA
0.1 0.9
A B C
E
(A) 100 mA (B) 900 mA (C) 1A (D) 1.1 A
27. In the arrangement shown in figure when the switch S 2 is open, the galvanometer shows no deflection for
JE
L 5L
. When the switch S2 is closed, the galvanometer shows no deflection for . The internal resistance
2 12
(r) of 6V cell, and the emf E of the other battery are respectively
s2
6V r
A B
L
E s1
(A) 3 , 8V (B) 2 , 12V (C) 2 , 24V (D) 3 , 12V
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PHYSICS
28. The variation of current (I) and voltage (V) is as shown in figure. The variation of power P with current I is best
shown by which of the following graph
V
P P P P
(A) (B) (C) (D)

I I I I
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29. In the circuit diagram each resistor of resistance 5 . The points A and B are connected to the terminals of a cell
of electromotive force 9 volt and internal resistance 2/3 .
(A) The heat produced in the cell is 6W.
(B) The current in the resistor connected directly between A and B is 1.4A. A B
(C) The current in the resistor connected directly between A and B is 1.8 A.
(D) None of the above is correct.
30.
zero?
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The wire AB of a meter bridge changes linearly from radius r to 2r from left end to right end. Length of wire is 1m.
Where should the free end of the galvanometer be connected on AB so that the deflection in the galvanometer is
A
10V
B
SP
G
10 10
2 1 1 3
(A) m from end B (B) m from end A (C) m from end A (D) m from end B
3 3 4 4
31. If the reading of ammeter is 2A then the reading of voltmeter R R
A
(A) Depends on R
E
1.5R 24V 0.5R
(B) Independent on R
(C) Zero for certain value of R R 3R

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(D) can't be determined

V

Q u e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A n s . AD ACD AC AC A AB B D ACD D ABC A D A AC AC BC ABC A C
Q u e. 2 1 2 2 2 3 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31
Ans. D B C B D C B B AB AB AC
PAGE NO : 153
PHYSICS
$"1"$*5034
1. An automobile spring extends 0.2 m for 5000 N load. The ratio of potential energy stored in this spring when
it has been compressed by 0.2 m to the potential energy stored in a 10 F capacitor at a potential difference of
10000 V will be :–
(A) 1/4 (B) 1 (C) 1/2 (D) 2
2. A 40 µF capacitor in a defibrillator is charged to 3000 V. The energy stored in the capacitor is sent through
the patient during a pulse of duration 2 ms. The power delivered to the patient is :–
(A) 45 kW (B) 90 kW (C) 180 kW (D) 360 kW
3. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a battery and is charged to a potential difference
NT
V. Another capacitor of capacitance 2C is connected to another battery and is charged to potential difference
2V. The charging batteries are now disconnected and the capacitors are connected in parallel to each other in
such a way that the positive terminal of one is connected to the negative terminal of the other. The final energy
of the configuration is–
25CV 2 3CV 2 9CV 2

(A) Zero (B) (C) (D)
6 2 2
4.
5.
(A) 1.5 and 1.33
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A capacitor of value 4 F charged at 50V is connected with another capacitor of value 2 F charged at 100V, in such
a way that plates of similar charges are connected together. Before joining and after joining the total energy in
multiples 10–2 J will be :–
(B) 1.33 and 1.5 (C) 3.0 and 2.67 (D) 2.67 and 3.0
Two conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 are charged with charges Q1 and Q2 respectively. On bringing them
SP
in contact there is :–
(A) no change in the energy of the system
(B) an increase in the energy of the system if Q1R2 Q2 R 1
(C) always a decrease in energy of the system
(D) a decrease in energy of the system if Q1R2 Q2R1
E
6. The distance between plates of a parallel plate capacitor is 'd'. Another thick metal plate of thickness
d/2 and area same as that of plates is so placed between the plates, that it does not touch the plates. The capacity
of the resultant capacitor :–
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(A) remain same (B) becomes double (C) becomes half (D) becomes one fourth
7. Three parallel metallic plates, each of area A are kept as shown in the figure and charges Q1, Q2 and Q3 are
given to them. Edge effects are negligible. Calculate the charges on the two outermost surfaces 'a' and 'f'.
a bc d e f
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q1 Q2 Q3 Q1 Q2 Q3 Q1 Q2 Q3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 3 2
PAGE NO : 154
$"1"$*5034
PHYSICS
8. In the figure shown the plates of a parallel plate capacitor have unequal charges. Its capacitance is 'C'.
P is a point outside the capacitor and close to the plate of charge–Q. The distance between the plates is
'd' then which statement is wrong
(A) A point charge at point 'P' will experience electric force due to capacitor
3Q
(B) The potential difference between the plates will be
2C 2Q -Q
9Q 2
(C) The energy stored in the electric field in the region between the plates is P
8C
Q2
(D) The force on one plate due to the other plate is
2 0 d2
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9. Five identical plates are connected across a battery as follows :
1
2
3
4
5
10.
(A) –q, +q,–q,+q RI
If the charge on plate 1 be +q, then the charges on the plates 2,3,4 and 5 are
(B) –2q, +2q,–2q,+q (C) –q, +2q,–2q,+q (D) None of the above
Three plates A,B and C each of area 0.1 m 2 are separated by 0.885 mm from each other as shown
in the figure. A 10V battery is used to charge the system. The energy stored in the system is:
SP
A
B
C 10V
(A) 1 J (B) 10 –1 J (C) 10 –2 J (D) 10 –3 J

E
11. N identical capacitor are joined in parallel and the combination is charged to a potential V. Now if they are
separated and then joined in series then energy of combination will :–
(A) remain same and potential difference will also remain same
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(B) remain same and potential difference will become NV

(C) increase N times and potential difference will become NV
(D) increase N time and potential difference will remains same
12. The value of equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in figure between the points P and Q is :–
2C 2C P
2C
C
C C Q
(A) 3 C (B) 2 C (C) C (D) C/3
PAGE NO : 155
$"1"$*5034 PHYSICS
13. In the given circuit if point C is connected to the earth and a potential of +2000 V is given to point A, the
potential at B is :–
10 F 10 F
5 F
10 F C
A B
(A) 1500 V (B) 1000 V (C) 500 V (D) 400 V
14. An infinite number of identical capacitors each of capacitance 1 F are connected as in adjoining f i g u r e .
T h e n t h e equivalent capacitance between A and B is
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8capacitor
16 capacitor
A B
(A) 1 F (B) 2 F (C) 1/2 F (D)
15.
16.
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A parallel plate capacitor is made by stacking n equally spaced plates connected alternatively. If the capacitance
between any two adjacent plates is C, then the resultant capacitance is–
(A) (n – 1)C (B) (n + 1)C (C) C (D) nC
Two parallel plate capacitors whose capacities are C and 2 C respectively, are joined in parallel. These are
SP
charged by V potential difference. If the battery is now removed and a dielectric of dielectric constant K is filled
in between the plates of the capacitor C, then what will be the potential difference across each capacitor ?
V 2V 3V 2 K
(A) (B) (C) (D)
K 2 K 2 K 2 3V
17. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 9 pF. The separation between its
plates is 'd'. The space between the plates is now filled with two dielectrics. One of the dielectric has dielectric
E
d 2d
constant K1 = 3 and thickness while the other one has dielectric constant K2 = 6 and thickness . Capacitance
3 3
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of the capacitor is now

(A) 1.8 pF (B) 45 pF (C) 40.5 pF (D) 20.25 pF
18. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C (without dielectrics) is filled by dielectric slabs as shown in figure.
Then the new capacitance of the capacitor is
K3=6
K1=2 K2=4
(A) 3.9 C (B) 4 C (C) 2.4 C (D) 3 C
PAGE NO : 156
$"1"$*5034 PHYSICS
19. Dielectric sheet placed between the plates of parallel plate capacitor. Now capacitor is charged and battery
is disconnected. Now t = 0 sheet is taken out very slowly then which of the following is correct for the variation
of capacitance with time
C C C C
(A) (B) (C) (D)
O t O t O t O t
20. A fully charged capacitor has a capacitance C. It is discharged through a small coil of resistance wire embedded
in a thermally insulated block of specific heat capacity s and mass m. If the temperature of the block is raised
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by T, the potential difference V across the capacitance is–
2mC T mC T ms T 2ms T
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s s C C
21. The capacitance (C) for an isolated conducting sphere of radius (a) is given by 4 0a. This sphere is enclosed
(A) n
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within an earthed concentric sphere. The ratio of the radii of the spheres being
of such a sphere will be increased by a factor-
(B)
n
(C)
(n 1)
n
(n 1)
(D) a.n
then the capacitance
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(n 1) n
22. Two capacitor having capacitance 8 F and 16 F have breaking voltage 20V & 80 V. They are combined
in series. The maximum charge they can store individually in the combination is-
(A) 160 C (B) 200 C (C) 1280 C (D) None of these
23. A capacitor of capacitance 1 F withstands the maximum voltage 6 kV while a capacitor of 2 F withstands
E
the maximum voltage 4 kV. What maximum voltage will the system of these two capacitor withstands if
they are connected in series ?
(A) 10 kV (B) 12 kV (C) 8 kV (D) 9 kV
JE
24. Four identical plates 1,2,3 and 4 are placed parallel to each other at equal 1
distance as shown in the figure. Plates 1 and 4 are joined together and the space 2
between 2 and 3 is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant k=2. The capacitance
of the system between 1 and 3 & 2 and 4 are C 1 and C 2 respectively. The 3
C1 4
ratio C is-
2
5 3 5
(A) (B) 1 (C) (D)
3 5 7
PAGE NO : 157
$"1"$*5034 PHYSICS
25. The equivalent capacitance across A & B is

23 F 7 F
13 F 1 F
A B
12 F
10 F 1 F
28 15
(A) f (B) F (C) 15 F (D) None of these
3 2
26. The equivalent capacitance across AB (all capacitance in F) is
17 10
A B
13 5 1
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6 1
20
(A) F (B) 9 F (C) 48 F (D) None of these
3
27. The time constant of the shown circuit for charging is
R C
28.
5
(A)
3
RC
RI 5
(B) RC
2
V1
2R
7
(C) RC
4
V2
R
The heat produced in the capacitors on closing the switch S is
R
(D)
7
3
RC
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4 F 5 F
20V 2
R 2
S
(A) 0.0002 J (B) 0.0005 J (C) 0.00075 (D) Zero

29. Four identical capacitors are connected in series with a battery of emf 10V. The point X is earthed. Than
E
the potential of point A is–

10V
+ -
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C C C X C
A B
(A) 10 V (B) 7.5 V (C) –7.5 V (D) 0 V

Qu e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An s . B B C A D B A D B B B A C B A C C A D D
Qu e. 2 1 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
An s . A A D B B B C D B
PAGE NO : 158
PHYSICS
$"1"$*5034
MCQs with one or more then one correct answer

1. In the given figure, a capacitor of non–parallel plates is shown. The plates of capacitor are connected by
a cell of emf V 0. If denotes surface charge density and E denotes electric field. Then
V0 A
D F
(A) A > B (B) E F > E D (C) E F =E D (D) A = B
2. The area of the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is A and the gap between them is d. The gap is filled with
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a non–homogeneous dielectric whose dielectric constant varies with the distance 'y' from one plate as :
y
K sec , where is a dimensionless constant. The capacitance of this capacitor is
2d
0 A 0 A 2 0 A
2d d d
3. A capacitor of capacitance C is connected to two voltmeters A and B. A is ideal, having infinite resistance,
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while B has resistance R. The capacitor is charged and then the switch S is closed. The readings of A and
B will be equal
B
A
C
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S
(A) At all times (B) After time RC

(C) After time RC n 2 (D) Only after a very long time
4. Three identical capacitors A, B and C are charged to the same potential and then made to discharge through
three resistances RA, RB and RC, where RA > RB > RC. Their potential differences (V) are plotted against time
t, giving the curves 1, 2 and 3. The relations between A, B, C and 1, 2, 3 is/are -
E
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3
2
1
(A) 1 A (B) 2 B (C) 1 C (D) 3 A

5. When a capacitor discharges through a resistance R, the time constant is and the maximum current in the
circuit is i0 –
(A) The initial charge on the capacitor was i 0
(B) The initial charge on the capacitor was 1/2 i 0
2
(C) The initial energy stored in the capacitor was i 0 R
2
(D) The initial energy stored in the capacitor was 1/2 i 0 R
PAGE NO : 159
$"1"$*5034 PHYSICS
6. In the circuit shown, A and B are equal resistances. When S is closed, the capacitor C charges from the
cell of emf E and reaches a steady state
A S
+
E
(A) During charging, more heat is produced in A than in B.
(B) In the steady state, heat is produced at the same rate in A and B.
2
(C) In the steady state, energy stored in C is 1/4 CE .
2
(D) In the steady state, energy stored in C is 1/8 CE
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7. Capacitors C 1 = 1µF and C 2 = 2µF are separately charged from the same battery. They are then allowed
to discharge separately through equal resistors–
(A) The currents in the two discharging circuits at t = 0 is zero.
(B) The currents in the two discharging circuits at t = 0 are equal but not zero.
(C) The currents in the two discharging circuits at t = 0 are unequal.
(D) C1 loses 50% of its initial charges sooner than C 2 loses 50% of its initial charge.
8. A number of capacitors, each of capacitance 1 F and each one of which gets punctured if a potential difference
9.
(C) 48 component capacitors
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just exceeding 500 volt is applied are provided. Then an arrangement suitable for giving a capacitor of capacitance
3 F across which 2000 volt may be applied requires at least :–
(A) 4 component capacitors (B) 12 component capacitors
(D) 16 component capacitors
Five identical capacitor plates, each of area A, are arranged such that adjacent plates are at distance d apart.
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The plates are connected to a source of emf V as shown in figure. Then the charges on plates 1 and 4 are,
respectively
12345 V
+
E
0 AV 2 0 AV 2 0 AV 2 0 AV 0 AV 2 0 AV 0 AV 0 AV
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(A) , (B) , (C) , (D) ,

d d d d d d d d
10. For the circuit shown here, the potential difference between points A and B is
6C B 2C
6C 3C C 2C
10V C 20
A
(A) 2.5 V (B) 7.5 V (C) 10 V (D) Zero
PAGE NO : 160
$"1"$*5034 PHYSICS
11. The plates S and T of an uncharged parallel plate capacitor are connected across a battery. The battery
is then disconnected and the charged plates are now connected in a system as shown in the figure. The
system shown is in equilibrium. All the strings and spring are insulating and massless. The magnitude of charge
on one of the capacitor plates is : [Area of plates = A]
k S T
4mg A 0 2mg A 0
(A) 2m g A 0 (B) (C) mg A 0 (D)
k k
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12. A, B, C, D, E, F are conducting plates each of area A and any two consecutive plates separated by a distance
d. The net energy stored in the system after the switch S is closed is:
A B C D E F
3 0A
V2
RI 5 0A 2
V
S
0A
V2 0A
V2
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(A) (B) V (C) (D)
2d 12d 2d d
13. The figure shows, a graph of the current a discharging circuit of a capacitor through a resistor of resistance
10 :
(A) The initial potential difference across the capacitor is 100 volt. i
1
(B) The capacitance of the capacitor is F.. 10 A
10 n2
E
500 2.5A
(C) The total heat produced in the circuit will be joules
n2
2s t
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1
(D) The thermal power in the resistor will decreases with a time constant second.
2 n2
14. The diagram shows four capacitors with capacitance and break down voltages as mentioned. What should
be the maximum value of the external emf source such that no capacitor breaks down?
3C;1kV 2C;2kV
7C;1kV 3C;2kV
(A) 2.5 kV (B) 10/3kV (C) 3 kV (D) 1 kV
PAGE NO : 161
$"1"$*5034 PHYSICS
15. A capacitor C = 100 F is connected to three resistor each of resistance 1k and a battery of emf 9V.
The switch S has been closed for long time so as to charge the capacitor. When switch S is opened, the
capacitor discharges with time constant–
C
1k
1k
S
1k
9V
(A) 33 ms (B) 5 ms (C) 3.3 ms (D) 50 ms
16. In the circuit shown in figure C 1 = 2C 2. Switch S is closed at time t=0. Let i 1 and i 2 be the currents
flowing through C 1 and C 2 at any time t, then the ratio i 1/i 2
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C1
R
C2
S
V
(A) is constant (B) increases with increase in time t
(C) decreases with increase in time t (D) first increases then decreases

17.
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Two capacitors of 2 F and 3 F are charged to 150 volt and 120 volt respectively.
The plates of capacitor are connected as shown in the figure. A discharged
capacitor of capacity 1.5 F falls to the free ends of the wire. Then–
(A) charge on the 1.5 F capacitor is 180 C
(B) charge on the 2 F capacitor is 120 F
(C) charge flows through A from right to left
150V
+
–2 F
1.5 F
–
3 F 120V
+
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(D) charge flows through A from left to right. A
18. A charged capacitor is allowed to discharge through a resistor by closing the key at the instant t = 0. At
the instant t = ( n4) s, the reading of the ammeter falls half the initial value. The resistance of the ammeter
is equal to–
C=0.5 F
+ –
K
E
A
2
(A) 1M (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 2M
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19. The circuit shown in the figure consists of a battery of emf =10 V; a capacitor of capacitance C=1.0
F and three resistor of values R1 = 2 , R2 = 2 and R3 = 1 . Initially the capacitor is completely uncharged
and the switch S is open. The switch S is closed at t = 0.
R1
S
R2 R3 C
(A) The current through resistor R 3 at the moment the switch closed is zero
(B) The current through resistor R 3 a long time after the switch closed is 5A.
(C) The ratio of current through R 1 and R 2 is always constant
(D) The maximum charge on the capacitor during the operation is 5 C
PAGE NO : 162
$"1"$*5034 PHYSICS
20. A capacitor of capacity C is charged to a steady potential difference V and connected in series with an
open key and a pure resistor 'R'. At time t=0, the key is closed. If I = current at time t, a plot of log I
against 't' is as shown in (1) in the graph. Later one of the parameters i.e. V,R or C is changed keeping
the other two constant, and the graph (2) is recorded. Then–
log I (2)
(1)
O t
(A) C is reduced (B) C is increased (C) R is reduced (D) R is increased
21. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a cell. Its positive plate A and its negative plate B have charges
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+Q and –Q respectively. A third plate C, identical to A and B, with charge +Q, is now introduced midway
between A and B, parallel to them. Which of the following are correct :
3Q
(A) Charge on the inner face of B is now
2
(B) There is no change in the potential difference between A and B
(C) Potential difference between A and C is one–third of the potential difference between B and C
Q
22.
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(D) Charge on the inner face of A is now
2
A parallel plate capacitor A is filled with a dielectric whose dielectric constant varies with applied voltage
as K = V. An identical capacitor B of capacitance C 0 with air as dielectric is connected to voltage source
V0 = 30V and then connected to the first capacitor after disconnecting the voltage source. The charge and
voltage on capacitor :
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(A) A are 25C 0 and 25V (B) A are 25C 0 and 5V
(C) B are 5C 0 and 5V (D) B are 5C 0 and 25V
23. A parallel plate capacitor has a dielectric slab in it. The slab just fills the space inside the capacitor. The
capacitor is charged by a battery and then battery is disconnected. Now the slab is started to pull out slowly
at t=0. If at time t, capacitance of the capacitor is C, potential difference across is V and energy stored
in it is U, then which of the following graphs are correct?
E
V U V C
(A) (B) (C) (D)

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t V C t
24. Three large plates are arranged as shown. How much charge will flow through the key k if it is closed ?
Q 2Q
d 2d
5Q 4Q 3Q
6 3 2
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$"1"$*5034 PHYSICS
25. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential difference V from a cell and then disconnected from
it. A charge +Q is now given to its positive plate. The potential difference across the capacitor is-
Q Q Q
(A) V (B) V (C) V (D) V , if V < CV
C 2C C
26. In the adjoining figure, capacitor (1) and (2) have a capacitance 'C' each.When the dielectric of dielectric
constant K is inserted between the plates of one of the capacitor, the total charge flowing through battery
is-
E
B C
C C C
A D
1 2
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KCE KCE
(A) from B to C (B) from C to B
K 1 K 1
K 1 CE K 1 CE
(C) from B to C (D) from C to B
2 K 1 2 K 1
27. Two identical capacitors 1 and 2 are connected in series to a battery as shown in figure. Capacitor 2 contains
a dielectric slab of dielectric constant k as shown. Q1 and Q2 are the charges stored in the capacitors. Now
the dielectric slab is removed and the corresponding charges are Q' 1 and Q' 2. Then
RI 1
E
2
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Q1 k 1 Q2 k 1 Q2 k 1 Q1 k
(A) Q = (B) Q 2 (C) Q 2k (D) Q 2
1 k 2 2 1
28. In the circuit shown, the cell is ideal, with emf = 15V. Each resistance is of 3 . The potential difference
across the capacitor is
R C=3 F
E
R R
R R
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15V
(A) zero (B) 9V (C) 12V (D) 15V

29. In the circuit shown in the figure, the switch S is initially open and the capacitor is initially uncharged. I 1,
I 2 and I 3 represent the current in the resistance 2 , 4 and 8 respectively.
I1 4 F
2
6V 2 F
I3 I2
(A) Just after the switch S is closed, I 1 = 3A, I 2 = 3A and I 3 = 0
(B) Just after the switch S is closed, I 1 =3A, I 2 = 0 and I 3 = 0
(C) Long time after the switch S is closed, I 1 = 0.6A, I 2 = 0 and I 3 = 0
(D) Long time after the switch S is closed, I 1 = I 2 = I 3 = 0.6A.
PAGE NO : 164
$"1"$*5034 PHYSICS
30. In the circuit shown in figure C 1 =C 2 = 2 F. Then charge stored in
C1 C2
120V
(A) capacitor C 1 is zero (B) capacitor C 2 is zero

(C) both capacitor is zero (D) capacitor C 1 is 40 C
31. Four capacitors and a battery are connected as shown. The potential drop across the 7 F capacitor is 6V.
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Then the
12 F
E 7 F
3.9 F
3 F
32.
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(A) potential difference across the 3 F capacitor is 10V
(B) charge on the 3 F capacitor is 42 C
(C) e.m.f. of the battery is 30V
(D) potential difference across the 12 F capacitor is 10V.
A capacitor C is charged to a potential difference V and battery is disconnected. Now if the capacitor plates
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are brought close slowly by some distance
(A) Some +ve work is done by external agent (B) Energy of capacitor will decrease
(C) Energy of capacitor will increase (D) None of the above
33. A parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and plate separation d is charged to potential difference V and
then the battery is disconnected. A slab of dielectric constant K is then inserted between the plates of the
capacitor so as to fill the space between the plates. If Q,E and W denote respectively, the magnitude of
charge on each plate, the electric field between the plates (after the slab is inserted) and the work done
E
on the system, in question, in the process of inserting the slab, then
o AV o KAV V AV 2 1
(A) Q= (B) Q= (C) E= (D) W=– 0
1
d d Kd 2d K
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34. Two capacitors of equal capacitance (C 1=C 2) are shown in the figure. Initially, while the switch S is open,
one of the capacitors is uncharged and the other carries charge Q0. The energy stored in the charged capacitor
is U0. Sometimes after the switch is closed, the capacitors C1 and C2 carry charges Q1 and Q2, respectively;
the voltage across the capacitors are V 1 and V 2 ; and the energies stored in the capacitors are U 1 and
U 2. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
C1 C2
1
(A) Q 0 = (Q + Q 2 ) (B) Q 1 =Q 2 (C) V 1 =V 2 (D) U 1 =U 2 (E) U 0 = U 1 +U 2
2 1
PAGE NO : 165
$"1"$*5034 PHYSICS
35. Two thin conducting shells of radii R and 3R are shown in the figure. The outer shell carries a charge +Q
and the inner shell is neutral. The inner shell is earthed with the help of a switch S.
3R
R
S
(A) With the switch S open, the potential of the inner sphere is equal to that of the outer
(B) When the switch S is closed, the potential of the inner sphere becomes zero
(C) With the switch S closed, the charge attained by the inner sphere is – Q/3
(D) By closing the switch the capacitance of the system increases
36. In the figure a capacitor of capacitance 2 F is connected to a cell of emf 20 volt. The plates of the capacitor
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are drawn apart slowly to double the distance between them, The work done by the external agent on the
plates is :
2 F
20 volt
(A) – 200 J (B) 200 J (C) 400 J (D) – 400 J
37.
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An uncharged capacitor havi ng capacitance C is connected across a bat ter y of emf V. Now the
capacitor is disconnected and then reconnected across the same battery but with reversed polarity. Then which
of the statement is incorrect
(A) After reconnecting, heat energy produced in the circuit will be equal to two–third of the total
energy supplied by battery.
(B) After reconnecting, no energy is supplied by battery.
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(C) After reconnecting, whole of the energy supplied by the battery is converted into heat.
2
(D) After reconnecting, thermal energy produced in the circuit will be equal to 2CV .
38. Two insulating plates are both uniformly charged in such a way that the potential difference between them is
V2 – V1 = 20 V. (i.e., plate 2 is at a higher potential). The plates are separated by d = 0.1 m and can be
treated as infinitely large. An electron is released from rest on the inner surface of plate 1. What is its speed
when it hits plate 2 ? (e = 1.6 × 10–19 C, me = 9.11 × 10–31 kg)
E
Y
0.1 m
X
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1 2
(A) 2.65 × 106 m/s (B) 7.02 × 1012 m/s (C) 1.87 × 106 m/s (D) 32 × 10 –19 m/s
39. The distance between plates of a parallel plate capacitor is 5d. The positively charged plate is at x=0 and
negatively charged plates is at x=5d. Two slabs one of conductor and the other of a dielectric of same thickness
d are inserted between the plates as shown in figure. Potential (V) versus distance x graph will be
+q q
C D
O I
N E
D L
U E
C C
T T
O R
R I
C
O d 2d d 4d 5d
PAGE NO : 166
$"1"$*5034 PHYSICS
V V
(A) (B)
x x
O d 2d d 4d 5d O d 2d d 4d 5d
V V
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(C) (D)
x x
O d 2d d 4d 5d O d 2d d 4d 5d
40. In the given circuit, all the capacitors are initially uncharged. After closing the switch S 1 for a long time
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suddenly S 2 is also closed and kept closed for a long time. Total heat produced after closing S 2 will be:
S1
C
E
S2
C
E
C
E
C
E
SP
1
(A) 4 CE 2 CE 2
(B) (C) 2 CE 2 (D) 0
2
41. A conducting body 1 has some initial charge Q, and its capacitance is C. There are two other conducting
bodies, 2 and 3, having capacitance : C 2 = 2C and C 3 . Bodies 2 and 3 are initially uncharged. Body
2 is touched with body 1. Then, body 2 is removed from body 1 and touched with body 3, and then removed.
This process is repeated for N times. Then, the charge on body 1 at the end must be :
(A) Q/3 N (B) Q/3 N–1 (C) Q/N 3
E
(D) None of these
42. A capacitor of capacitance C is initially charged to a potential difference of V volt. Now it is connected
to a battery of 2V with opposite polarity. The ratio of heat generated to the final energy stored in the capacitor
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will be
(A) 1.75 (B) 2.25 (C) 2.5 (D) 1/2
Q u e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. A A A B ,C ,D A ,D ABD BD C C A A C ABCD A D
Q u e. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B ABC C ABCD B ABCD BC A BC D A C D C C B B ,D
Q u e. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
Ans. BCD B A ,C ,D E ABCD B B A B D A B
PAGE NO : 167
PHYSICS
."(/&5*$&''&$540'$633&/5 -LEVEL 1
1. An infinitely long straight conductor is bent into the shape as shown in figure. It carries a current I ampere and the
radius of the circular loop is r meter. Then the magnetic induction at the centre of the circular part is :–
O
R
2I 0 2I0
(A) Zero (B) 1 (C)
(D) 1
4 r 4 r
2. Two concentric coils each of radius equal to 2 cm are placed at right angles to each other. 3A and 4A
are the currents flowing in each coil respectively. The magnetic induction in Wb/m 2 at the centre of the
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coils will be:– (µ 0 = 4 × 10 –7 Wb/Am)
(A) 12 × 10 –5 (B) 10 –5 (C) 5 × 10 –5 (D) 7 × 10 –5
3. A steady current is set up in a cubic network composed of wires of equal resistance and length d as shown
in figure. What is the magnetic field at the centre P due to the cubic network ?
B C
A D
E
(A)
µ0 2I
.
RI (B)
µ0 3I
.
H
(C) 0
P
G
F
(D)
µ0 8 I
.
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4 d 4 2d 4 d
4. All straight wires are very long. Both AB and CD are arcs of the same circle, both subtending right angles
at the centre O. Then the magnetic field at O is–
A A'
R
i
B O C i C'
D
E
B' D'
µ0 i µ0 i µ0 i µ0 i
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D) ( 1)
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4 R 4 R 2 R 2 R
5. If the intensity of magnetic field at a point on the axis of current coil is half of that at the centre of the coil, then
the distance of that point from the centre of the coil will be :–
R 3R
(A) (B) R (C) (D) 0.766R
2 2
6. Current flows through uniform, square frames as shown. In which case is the magnetic field at the centre
of the frame not zero?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
PAGE NO : 168
."(/&5*$&''&$540'$633&/5 PHYSICS
7. A conductor PQ carries a current 'i' is placed perpendicular to a long conductor XY carrying a current I. The
direction of force on PQ will be :–
Y
P i Q
I
(A) towards right (B) towards left (C) upwards (D) downwards
8. A circular current loop of radius a is placed in a radial field B as shown. The net force acting on the loop
is
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I
a
(
(A) zero (B) 2 BaIcos (C) 2 aIBsin (D) None
9.
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A wire PQRST carrying current I = 5A is placed in uniform magnetic field B = 2T as shown in fig. If the length
of part QR = 4 cm and SR = 6 cm then the magnetic force on SR edge of the wire is :–
T
R B=2T
P
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S Q I=5A
(A) 0.4 N (B) 0.6 N (C) zero (D) 6 N
10. A conducting rod of length and mass m is moving down a smooth inclined plane of inclination with constant
velocity v in fig. A current I is flowing in the conductor in a direction perpendicular to paper inwards. A vertically
upward magnetic field B exists in space. Then magnitude of magnetic field B is
E
v
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side view
mg mg mg cos mg
(A) sin (B) tan (C) (D)
i i i i sin
11. The unit of electric current ‘Ampere’ is the amount of current flowing through each of two parallel wire 1m.
apart and of infinite length will give rise to a force between them equal to :–
(A) 1 N/m (B) 2 × 10–7 N/m (C) 1 × 10–2 N/m (D) 4 × 10–7 N/m
12. The square loop ABCD, carrying a current , is placed in a uniform magnetic field B, as shown. The loop
can rotate about the axis XX'. The plane of the loop makes an angle ( < 90°) with the direction of B.
Through what angle will the loop rotate by itself before the torque on it becomes zero–
PAGE NO : 169
."(/&5*$&''&$540'$633&/5
PHYSICS
x
C
Z
B
Y B
I
D
A
X'
(A) (B) 90° – (C) 90° + (D) 180° –

13. A rectangular loop carrying a current i is situated near a long straight wire such that the wire is parallel
to one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If steady current I is established in the wire
as shown in the figure, the loop will :
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i
(A) rotate about an axis parallel to the wire (B) move away from the wire
14.
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(C) move towards the wire (D) remain stationary
Figure shows a square current carrying loop ABCD of side 10 cm and current i = 10 A. The magnetic moment
M of the loop is
y
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B
C
A i=10
30° x
z D
(A) (0.05) î 3kˆ A m 2 (B) (0.05) ˆj kˆ A m2
3î kˆ kˆ
E
(C) (0.05) A m2 (D) î A m2
15. A helium nucleus is moving in a circular path of radius 0.8m. If it takes 2 sec to complete one revolution. Find out
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magnetic field produced at the centre of the circle.

19 19
10 2 10
(A) × 10–19 T (B) T (C) 2× 10–19 T (D) T
0
0 0
16. A negatively charged particle is revolving in a circle of radius r. Out of the following which one figure represents
the correct directions of L and M ( L is angular momentum of particle; M is magnetic moment of the particle).
L M
M
M
(A) L (B) (C) (D)
M L L
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17. An electron is moving along +x direction. To get it moving on an anticlockwise circular path in x–y plane, a
magnetic field applied along
(A) +y–direction (B) +z–direction (C) –y–direction (D) –z–direction
18. In a region a uniform magnetic field acts in horizontal plane towards north. If cosmic particles (80% protons)
falling vertically downwards, then they are deflected towards
(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West
19. Two proton beams are moving with equal speed v in same direction. The ratio of electric force and magnetic
force between them is – (Where c0 is speed of light in vacuum)
c 20 v2 c0 v
(A) (B) (C) (D) c
v 2 c 20 v 0
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20. Two particles X and Y having equal charges, after being accelerated through the same potential difference,
enter a region of uniform magnetic field and describe circular paths of radii R 1 and R 2 respectively. The
ratio of the mass of X to that of Y is :
(A) (R 1/R 2 ) 1/2 (B) R 2/R 1 (C) (R1/R 2) 2 (D) R 1/R 2
21. In a region of space uniform electric field is present as E E 0ˆj and uniform magnetic field is present as
B B 0 kˆ . An electron is released from rest at origin. Which of the following best represents the path followed
(A) O
y
x
RI
by electron after release.
(B) O
y
x
(C) O
y
x
(D) O
y
z
SP
22. The charges 1, 2, 3 are moves in uniform transverse magnetic field then :–
(A) particle '1' positive and particle 3 negative × × × × ×
× × × × ×
(B) particle 1 negative and particle 3 positive
×1 ×
(C) particle 1 negative and particle 2 neutral × ×2 × × ×
3
(D) particle 1 and 3 are positive and particle 2 neutral × × × ×
E
23. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field perpendicular to its direction. Then–
(A) the momentum changes but the kinetic energy is constant
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(B) both momentum and kinetic energy of the particle are not constant
(C) both momentum and kinetic energy of the particle are constant
(D) kinetic energy changes but the momentum is constant
24. A proton, a deuteron and an –particle having the same kinetic energy are moving in circular trajectories
in a constant magnetic field. If rp, rd and r denote respectively the radii of the trajectories of these particles,
then :
(A) r = r p < r d (B) r > r d < r p (C) r = r d > r p (D) r p = r d = r
25. A charged particle moves in a magnetic field B 10î with initial velocity u 5i 4ˆj . The path of the particle
will be
(A) straight line (B) circle (C) helical (D) None
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26. Infinite number of straight wires each carrying current I are equally placed as shown in the figure. Adjacent
wires have current in opposite direction. Net magnetic field at point P is
a
a y
0
30 x
P 0
2 3 4 5
30 1 z
0 I n2 0 I n4 0 I n4
(A) k̂ (B) k̂ (C) k̂ (D) zero
4 3a 4 3a 4 3a
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27. A particle of charge –16 × 10 –18 C moving with velocity 10 ms –1 along the x–axis enters region where a
magnetic field of induction B is along the y–axis and an electric field of magnitude 104 V/m is along the negative
z–axis If the charged particle continues moving along the x–axis, the magnitude of B is–
(A) 10 3 Wb/m 2 (B) 10 5 Wb/m 2 (C) 10 16 Wb/m 2 (D) 10 –3 Wb/m 2
28. A current I flows a closed path in the horizontal plane of the circle as shown in the figure. The path consists
(A)
(B)
3 0I
8 r
1 0I
RI
of eight cars with alternating radii r and 2r. Each segment of arc subtends equal angle at the common centre
P. The magnetic field produced by current path at point P is
; perpendicular to the plane of the paper and directed inward
; perpendicular to the plane of the paper and directed outward r

2r
P
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8 r
1 0I
(C) ; perpendicular to the plane of the paper and directed inward
8 r
3 0I
(D) perpendicular to the plane of the paper and directed outward
8 r
29. Two mutually perpendicular conductors carrying currents I1 and I 2 lie in one plane. Locus of the point at
E
which the magnetic induction is zero, is a

(A) circle with centre as the point of intersection of the conductor
(B) parabola with vertex as the point of intersection of the conductors
(C) straight line passing through the point of intersection of the conductors
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(D) rectangular hyperbola
30. Equal current i is flowing in three infinitely long wires along positive x, y and z directions. The magnitude
of magnetic field at a point (0, 0, –a) would be
i ˆ ˆ 0i ˆ ˆ 0i ˆ ˆ 0i ˆ ˆ
(A)
0
j i (B) j i (C) i j (D) i j kˆ
2 a 2 a 2 a 2 a
31. An electron is projected with velocity v 0 in a uniform electric field E perpendicular to the field. Again it
is projected with velocity v 0 perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B. If r 1 is initial radius of curvature
just after entering in the electric field and r 2 is initial radius of curvature just after entering in magnetic field
then the ratio r 1 /r 2 is equal to
Bv 20 B Ev 0 Bv 0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
E E B E
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32. A uniform magnetic field B B 0 ˆj exists in a space. A particle of mass m and charge q is projected towards
negative x–axis with speed v from the a point (d, 0, 0). The maximum value v for which the particle does
not hit y–z plane is
2Bq Bqd Bq Bqd
(A) (B) (C) (D)
dm m 2dm 2m
–31 –19
33. An electron (mass = 9.1 × 10 ; charge = – 1.6 × 10 C) experiences no deflection if subjected to an
electric field of 3.2 × 10 5 V/m and a magnetic field of 2.0 × 10 –3 Wb/m 2. Both the fields are normal to
the path of electron and to each other. If the electric field is removed, then the electron will revolve in an
orbit of radius
(A) 45 m (B) 4.5 m (C) 0.45 m (D) 0.045 m
34. A mass spectrometer is a device which select particle of equal mass. An iron with electric charge q > 0
starts at rest from a source S and is accelerated through a potential difference V. It passes through a hole
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into a region of constant magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane of the paper as shown in the figure.
The particle is deflected by the magnetic field and emerges through the bottom hole at a distance d from
the top hole. The mass of the particle is
(A)
qBd
V
RI (B)
qB 2 d 2
4V
(C)
qB 2 d 2
8V
(D)
qBd
2V
SP
35. A block of mass m & charge q is released on a long smooth inclined plane magnetic field B is constant,
uniform, horizontal and parallel to surface as shown. Find the time from start when block loses contact with
the surface
m
B
E
m cos m cos ec m cot

qB qB qB
JE
36. In the figure shown a current I1 is established in the long straight wire AB. Another wire CD carrying current
I2 is placed in the plane of the paper. The line joining the ends of this wire is perpendicular to the wire
AB. The force on the wire CD is
I1 I2
C D
A
(A) zero (B) towards left (C) directed upwards (D) none of these
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37. A conducting ring of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m is placed on a smooth horizontal plane. The ring carries
a current i = 4A. A horizontal magnetic field B = 10 T is switched on at time t=0 as shown in figure. The
initial angular acceleration of the ring will be
(A) 40 rad / s 2 (B) 20 rad / s 2 (C) 5 rad / s 2 (D) 15 rad / s 2
E2 0 0
38. The dimensional formula for the physical quantity is (E = electric field and B= magnetic field)
B2
(A) L0 M 0 T 0 (B) L1 M 0 T 1 (C) L 1 M 0 T 1 (D) L1 / 2 M 0 T 1/2
NT
RI
SP
E
JE

Q u e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. D C C C D C D C A B B C C A A B B C A C
Q u e. 2 1 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
Ans. C A A A C B A A C A D B C C C D A A
PAGE NO : 174
PHYSICS
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MCQs with one or more then one correct answer

1. A and B are two concentric circular conductors of centre O and carrying current i1 and
i2 as shown in the diagram. If ratio of their radii is 1:2 and ratio of the flux densities at O B A i1 i2
O
i1
due to A and B is 1:3 then the value of i will be :–
2
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 4 6
2. Two thick wires and two thin wires, all of the same materials and same length form a square in the three
different ways P, Q and R as shown in fig with current direction shown, the magnetic field at the centre of the
square is zero in cases
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P Q R
(A) in P only (B) in P and Q only (C) in Q and R only (D) P and R only
3. A moving coil galvanometer has 150 equal divisions. Its current sensitivity is 10 divisions per milli ampere
and voltage sensitivity is 2 divisions per millivolt. In order that each division reads 1 V, the resistance in
Ohm's needed to be connected in series with the coil will be–
4.
(A) 10 3
RI (B) 10 5
(A) Both A and B will observe electric fields.

(B) Both A and B will observe magnetic fields.
(C) Neither A nor B will observe magnetic fields.
(C) 99995 (D) 9995
An observer A and a charge Q are fixed in a stationary frame F1. An observer B is fixed in a frame F2, which
is moving with respect to F1.
F1
A
Q
F2
B
SP
(D) B will observe a magnetic field, but A will not.
5. A long straight wire carries a current along the x–axis. Consider the points A(0, 1, 0), B(0, 1, 1), C(1, 0, 1)
and D(1, 1, 1). Which of the following pairs of points will have magnetic fields of the same magnitude–
(A) A and B (B) A and C (C) B and C (D) B and D
6. In the loops shown, all curved sections are either semicircles or quarter circles. All the loops carry the
same current. The magnetic fields at the centres have magnitudes B 1, B 2, B 3 and B 4
E
a a
a a
B1 b b B4
b
b
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B2 B3
(A) B 4 is maximum. (B) B3 is minimum. (C) B 4 > B 1 > B 2 > B 3 (D) B 1 > B 4 > B 3 > B 2
7. Two infinitely long linear conductors are arranged perpendicular to each other and are in mutually perpendicular
planes as shown in figure. If I1=2A along the y–axis and I 2 = 3A along –ve z–axis and AP = AB = 1cm.
The value of magnetic field strength B at P is
I1
I2
B
P A
y
x
z
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PHYSICS
(A) (3 × 10 –5 T) ĵ + (–4 × 10 –5 T) k̂ (B) (3 × 10 –5 T) ĵ + (4 × 10 –5 T) k̂
(C) (4 × 10 –5 T) ĵ + (3 × 10 –5 T) k̂ (D) (–3 × 10 –5 T) ĵ + (4 × 10 –5 T) k̂
8. If a charged particle of charge to mass ratio q/m = is entering in a magnetic 4d

field of strength B at a speed v = (2 d)(B), then which of the following is correct? × × × × ×
(A) Angle subtended by charged particle at the centre of circular path is 2 . × × × × ×
(B) The charge will move on a circular path and will come out from magnetic q/m=a × × × × ×
× × × × ×
field at a distance 4d from the point of insertion
× × × × ×
2 × × × × ×
(C) The time for which particle will be in the magnetic field is
B
(D) The charged particle will subtend an angle of 90° at the centre of circular path
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9. In a region magnetic field along x axis changes with time according to the given graph. If time period,
pitch and radius of helix path are T 0, P 0 and R respectively then which of the following is incorrect if the
particle is projected at an angle 0 with the positive x–axis in x–y plane ?
T0 P0 B0
(A) At t = , co–ordinates of charge are ,0, 2R 0
2 2 B
t
(B) At t =
3T0
2 RI
, co–ordinates of charges are
3P0
2
,0,2R 0
(C) Two extremes from x–axis are at a distance 2R 0 from each other
(D) Two extremes from x–axis are at a distance 4R 0 from each other
–B0
T0 2T0 3T0 4T0
SP
10. There exists a uniform magnetic and electric field of magnitude 1 T and 1 V/m respectively along positive
y–axis. A charged particle of mass 1 kg and of charge 1 C is having velocity 1 m/s along x–axis and is
at origin at t = 0. Then the co–ordinates of particle at time seconds will be–
2 2
(A) (0, 1, 2) (B) (0, – /2, –2) (C) (2, /2, 2) (D) (0, 2/2, 2)
11. A uniform magnetic field of magnitude 1 T exists in region y 0 is along k̂ direction as shown. A particle
of charge 1 C is projected from point (– 3 , –1) towards origin with speed 1 m/s. If mass of particle is
1 kg, then co–ordinates of centre of circle in which particle moves are
E
y
B=1T
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(– 3,–1)
1 3 3 1
(A) (1, 3 ) (B) (1, – 3 ) (C) , (D) ,
2 2 2 2
12. A uniform magnetic field of 1.5 T exists in a cylindrical region of radius 10.0 cm, it's direction being parallel
to the axis along east to west. A current carrying wire in north south direction passes through this region.
The wire intersects the axis and experience a force of 1.2 N downward. If the wire is turned from North
South to north east–south west direction, then magnitude and direction of force is–
1.2
(A) 1.2 N, upward (B) 1.2 2 N, downward (C) 1.2 N, downward (D) N , downward
2
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PHYSICS
13. A charge particle of charge q, mass m is moving with initial velocity 'v' as shown in figure in a uniform magnetic
field Bkˆ . Select the correct alternative/alternatives–
(A) Velocity of particle when it comes out from magnetic field is v v cos 30 î v sin 30 ˆj
m y
(B) Time for which the particle was in magnetic field is
3qB
× extend
×
mv B× × upto a
(C) Distance travelled in magnetic field is × × ×× large
3qB × ×× distance
q,m 30°× ×× × ×
x
v × × × × × ×× × ×
× × × × × × ×× × ×
(D) The particle will never come out of magnetic field × × × × × × × ×× ××
14. A particle of charge 'q' and mass 'm' enters normally (at point P) in a region of magnetic field with speed
NT
v. It comes out normally from Q after time T as shown in figure. The magnetic field B is present only
in the region of radius R and is uniform. Initial and final velocities are along radial direction and they are
perpendicular to each other. For this to happen, which of the following expression(s) is/are correct–
v
Q
×
× ×× ××
× × × B× ×
(A) B =
mv
RI (B) T =
R
v × × × × × ×
× × × × ××
P × × × ××
R
× ×× ×
(C) T =
m
(D) None of these
SP
qR 2v 2qB
15. A particle of charge +q and mass m moving under the influence of a uniform electric field E î and uniform
magnetic field B k̂ follows a trajectory from P to Q as shown in figure. The velocities at P and Q are viˆ and
–2ˆj , Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ? y
P v E
2
3 mv
(A) E = B
4 qa
E
3 mv3
(B) Rate of work done by the electric field at P is 4 a Q
x
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2a 2v
(C) Rate of work done by the electric field at P is zero
(D) Rate of work done by both the fields at Q is zero
16. H+, He+ and O2+ all having the same kinetic energy pass through a region in which there is a uniform magnetic
field perpendicular to their velocity. The masses of H+, He+ and O2+ are 1 amu, 4 amu and 16 amu respectively.
Then :
(A) H + will be deflected most (B) O 2+ will be deflected most
+ 2+
(C) He and O will be deflected equally (D) All will be deflected equally
17. Two long conductors are arranged as shown above to form overlapping cylinders, each of radius r, whose
centers are separated by a distance d. Current of density J flows into the plane of the page along the shaded
part of one conductor and an equal current flows out of the plane of the page along the shaded portion
of the other, as shown. What are the magnitude and direction of the magnetic field at point A?
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PHYSICS
d
conductor
r
A
y
x
vacuum
0 0 d2
(A) dJ , in the +y–direction (B) , in the +y direction
2 2 r
0 4d 2 J 0 Jr 2
(C) , in the –y direction (D) , in the –y direction
2 r 2 d
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18. OABC is a current carrying square loop. An electron is projected from the centre of loop along its diagonal
AC as shown. Unit vector in the direction of initial acceleration will be
y
A B
19.
(A) k̂
RI (B)
A particle of specific charge (charge/mass)

î ˆj
2
O C
x
(C) k̂ (D)
î ˆj
starts moving from the origin under the action of an electric

2
SP
field E E 0î and magnetic field B B 0 kˆ . Its velocity at (x 0, y 0, 0) is 4 î 3ˆj . The value of x 0 is
13 E 0 16 B 0 25 5
(A) 2B 0 (B) E0 (C) 2 E (D) 2B
0 0
20. An electron moving with a velocity v 1 2iˆ m/s at a point in a magnetic field experiences a force F1 2ˆjN .
If the electron is moving with a velocity v 2 2ˆj m/s at the same point, it experiences a force F2 ˆ . The
2iN
2kˆ m/s at the same point is

E
force the electron would experience if it were moving with a velocity v 3
(A) zero ˆ
(B) 2kN (C) ˆ
2kN (D) Information is insufficient
JE
21. Two particles of charges +Q and –Q are projected from the same point with a velocity v in a region of
uniform magnetic field B such that the velocity vector makes an angle with the magnetic field. Their
masses are M and 2M, respectively. Then, they will meet again for the first time at a point whose distance
from the point of projection is
2 Mv cos 8 Mv cos Mv cos 4 Mv cos

(A) (B) (C) (D)
QB QB QB QB
22. A conductor of length and mass m is placed along the east–west line on a table. Suddenly a certain amount
of charge is passed through it and it is found to jump to a height h. The earth's magnetic induction is B.
The charge passed through the conductor is
1 2gh gh m 2gh
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Bmgh B m B m B
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23. In the figure shown a coil of single turn is wound on a sphere of radius R and mass m. The plane of the
coil is parallel to the plane and lies in the equatorial plane of the sphere. Current in the coil is i. The value
of B if the sphere is in equilibrium is
mg cos mg mg tan mg sin

(A) (B) (C) (D)
iR iR iR iR
24. A thin non conducting disc of radius R is rotating clockwise (see figure) with an angular velocity about
its central axis, which is perpendicular to its plane. Both its surfaces carry +ve charges of uniform surface
density. Half the disc is in a region of a uniform, unidirectional magnetic field B parallel to the plane of
the disc, as shown. Then,
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(A) The net torque on the disc is zero
(B) The net torque vector on the disc is directed leftwards
(C) The net torque vector on the disc is directed rightwards
(D) The net torque vector on the disc is parallel to B
B
25. In the following hexagons, made up of two different material P and Q, current enters and leaves from points
X and Y respectively. In which case the magnetic field at its centre is not zero
26.
(A)
X
Q
P
Q
P
P
Q
RIY
(B)
X
Q
Q
Q
P
P
Q
Y
In a region of space, a uniform magnetic field B exists in the y–direction. A proton

is fired from the origin, with its initial velocity v making a small angle with the
(C)
X
P
P
Q
P
Q
Q
Y
(D)
X
Q
Z
P
P
Q
B
Y
SP
y–direction in the yz plane. In the subsequent motion of the proton v
(A) its x–coordinate can never be positive
(B) its x– and z–coordinates cannot both be zero at the same time O Y
(C) its z–coordinate can never be negative B
(D) its y–coordinate will be proportional to the square of its time of flight X
27. A particle of charge per unit mass is released from origin with velocity v v 0î in a magnetic field B B 0 kˆ for
3 v0 3 v0
E
x and B 0 for x . The x–coordinates of the particle at time t would be

2 B0 2 B0 3B 0
3 v0 3 3 v0
v0 t v0 t
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(A) (B)
2 B0 2 B0 2 B0 3B 0
3 v0 v0 3 v0 v0t
(C) t (D)
2 B0 2 3B 0 2 B0 2
28. A charged particle of specific charge is released from origin at time t = 0 with velocity v v 0 (iˆ ˆj) in
uniform magnetic field B B 0î . Coordinates of the particle at time t B0 are
v0 2v 0 v 0 v0 2v 0 v 0 v0 2v 0
(A) , , (B) ,0,0 (C) 0, , (D) ,0,
2B 0 B0 B0 2B 0 B 0 2B 0 B0 B0
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PHYSICS
29. A particle of charge –q and mass m enters a uniform magnetic field B v0

B
(perpendicular to paper inwards) at P with a velocity v 0 at an angle and
leaves the field at Q with velocity v at angle as shown in fig., then P
(A) = v
(B) v = v 0
2mv 0 sin
(C) PQ Q
Bq
2m( )
(D) Particle remains in the field for time t
Bq
30. A conducting wire bent in the form of a parabola y 2 = 2x carries a current i=2A as shown in figure. This
wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field B 4kˆ Tesla. The magnetic force on the wire is (in newton)
y(m)
A
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2 x(m)
B
(A) 16 î (B) 32î (C) 32î (D) 16î
31. Conductor ABC consist of two quarter circular path of radius R lies in X–Y plane and
Y
carries current I as shown. A uniform magnetic field B is switched on in the region
that exert force F
(A)
(C)
B0
2
B0 ˆ ˆ
i j
î
RI 2IRB 0 kˆ on conductor ABC. B can be
(B)
(D)
B0
2
î
Both (B) and (C).

B
R I
R I
R
R
A
C
X
SP
2
32. Find the magnitude and direction of a force vector acting on a unit length of a thin wire, carrying a current I =
8.0A, at a point O, if the wire is bent as shown in Figure (i) the curvature radius R = 10 cm. Figure (ii) the
distance between the long parallel segments of the wire l= 20 cm. F1 = force vector due to figure (i) F2 =
force vector due to figure (ii)
(ii)
(i)
R O l
O
E
(A) F1 = 0.20 mN/m (B) F2 = 0.13 mN/m (C) F1 = 0.13 mN/m (D) F2 = 0.20 mN/m
33. A stationary, circular wall clock has a face with a radius of 15 cm. Six turns of wire are wounded around its
JE
perimeter, the wire carries a current 2.0 A in the clockwise direction. The clock is located, where there is a
constant, uniform external magnetic field of 70 mT (but the clock still keeps perfect time) at exactly 1:00 pm,
the hour hand of the clock points in the direction of the external magnetic field
(A) Magnitude of the torque on the winding due to the magnetic field is 3.12 ×10 –2 N–m.
(B) After 20 minutes the minute hand will point in the direction of the torque on the winding due to the magnetic field.
(C) Magnitude of the torque on the winding due to the magnetic field is 5.94 ×10 –2 N–m.
(D) After 30 minutes the minute hand will point in the direction of the torque on the winding due to the magnetic field.
34. Consider the magnetic field produced by a finitely long current carrying wire
(A) The lines of field will be concentric circles with centres on the wire
(B) There can be two points in the same plane where magnetic fields are same
(C) There can be large number of points where the magnetic field is same
(D) The magnetic field at a point is inversely proportional to the distance of the point from the wire
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35. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(A) A charge particle enters a region of uniform magnetic field at an angle 85° to magnetic lines of force.
The path of the particle is a circle
(B) An electron and a proton are moving with the same kinetic energy along the same direction. When they
pass through uniform magnetic field perpendicular to their direction of motion, they describe circular path
(C) There is no change in the energy of a charged particle moving in a magnetic field although magnetic
force acts on it
(D) Two electrons enter with the same speed but in opposite direction in a uniform transverse magnetic
field. Then the two describe circle of the same radius and these move in the same direction
36. Two identical charged particles enter a uniform magnetic field with same speed but at angles 30° and 60°
with field. Let a, b and c be the ratio of their time periods, radii and pitches of the helical paths than
(A) abc =1 (B) abc >1 (C) abc <1 (D) a = bc
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37. Consider the following statements regarding a charged particle in a magnetic field. Which of the statements
are true ?
(A) Starting with zero velocity, it accelerates in a direction perpendicular to the magnetic field
(B) While deflection in magnetic field its energy gradually increases
(C) Only the component of magnetic field perpendicular to the direction of motion of the charged particle
is effective in deflecting it
(D) Direction of deflecting force on the moving charged particle is perpendicular to its velocity
38.
RI
A particle of charge q and velocity v passes undeflected through a space with non–zero electric field E and
magnetic field B. The undeflecting conditions will hold if
(A) signs of both q and E are reversed
(B) signs of both q and B are reversed
(C) both B and E are changed in magnitude, but keeping the product of B and E fixed.
SP
(D) both B and E are doubled in magnitude
39. Two charged particle A and B each of charge +e and masses 12 amu and 13 amu respectively follow
a circular trajectory in chamber X after the velocity selector as shown in the figure. Both particles enter
the velocity selector with speed 1.5 × 106 ms –1. A uniform magnetic field of strength 1.0 T is maintained
within the chamber X and in the velocity selector.
E
velocity
selector
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B x
z
(A) Electric field across the conducting plate of the velocity selector is – 10 6 NC –1 î
(B) Electric field across the conducting plate of the velocity selector is 10 6 NC –1 î
rA
(C) The ratio r of the radii of the circular paths for the two particles is 12/13
B
rA
(D) The ratio r of the radii of the circular paths for the two particles is 13/12
B
PAGE NO : 181
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PHYSICS
40. A long straight wire, carrying current I, is bent at its midpoint to form an angle of 45P°. Magnetic field at
point P, distance R from point of bending is equal to
P I
R 45°
I
( 2 1)µ0 I ( 2 1)µ0 I ( 2 1)µ0 I ( 2 1)µ0 I

(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 R 4 R 4 2 R 4 2 R
41. A uniform beam of positively charged particles is moving with a constant velocity parallel to another beam of
negatively charged particles moving with the same velocity in opposite direction separated by a distance d. The
variation of magnetic field B along a perpendicular line draw between the two beams is best represented by
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B B
B B
d
d/2 d d/2
(A) d/2 d (B) (C) (D)
d/2 d
42. A coaxial cable is made up of two conductors. The inner conductor is solid and is of radius R 1 and the
RI
outer conductor is hollow of inner radius R 2 and outer radius R 3. The space between the conductors is
filled with air. The inner and outer conductors are carrying currents of equal magnitudes and in opposite
directions. Then the variation of magnetic field with distance from the axis is best plotted as
SP
R2
R3
B
E
B B B
(A) (B) (C) (D)
r r r r
R1 R2 R3 R1 R2 R3 R1 R2 R3 R1 R2 R3
JE
43. From a cylinder of radius R, a cylinder of radius R/2 is removed, as shown. Current flowing in the remaining
cylinder is I. Magnetic field strength is–
A B
R/2
µ0 I µ0 I
(A) zero at point A (B) zero at point B (C) at point A (D) at point B
3 R 3 R
PAGE NO : 182
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PHYSICS
44. A long straight metal rod has a very long hole of radius 'a' drilled parallel to the rod axis as shown in the
figure. If the rod carries a current 'i' find the value of magnetic induction on the axis of the hole, where
OC=c
a b
C
ic ic i b2 a2 0 ic
0 0
0
(A) b 2
a 2 (B) 2 b 2
a 2 (C) (D)
2 c 2 a 2 b2
45. Two large conducting current planes perpendicular to x–axis are placed at (d, 0) and (2d, 0) as shown
in figure. Current per unit width in both the planes is same and current is flowing in the outward direction.
The variation of magnetic induction as function of 'x' (0 x 3d) is best represented by–
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y
x
d d d
z
(A)
B
d 2d
x
3d
RI (B)
B
d 2d
x
3d
(C)
B
2d 2d 3d
x
(D)
B
d 2d
x
3d
SP
46. The magnetic moment of a short magnet is 8 Am2 . The magnetic induction at a point 20cm away from its mid
point on (i) axial point (ii) equatorial point respectively, will be :–
(A) 2 × 10–4 and 10–4 T (B) 3×10–4 and 2×10 –4 T (C) 4×10 –4 and 3×10 –4 T (D) None of these
47. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires W unit of work to turn it through 60°. The
torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be–
(A) 3W (B) W (C) ( 3 /2)W (D) 2W
E
48. A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30° with a uniform external magnetic field of 0.16T experiences a
torque of magnitude 0.032 J. The magnetic moment of the bar moment will be
(A) 0.23 J/T (B) 0.40 J/T (C) 0.80J/T (D) Zero
JE
49. Two insulated rings, one of slightly smaller diameter than the other, are suspended along their common diam-
eter as shown. Initially the planes of the rings are mutually perpendicular. When a steady current is set up in
each of them.
(A) The two rings rotate into a common plane
(B) The inner ring oscillates about its initial position
(C) The outer ring stays stationary while the inner one moves into the plane of the outer ring
(D) The inner ring stays stationary while the outer one moves into the plane of the inner ring.
50 A nonconducting disc having uniform positive charge Q, is rotating about its axis with
uniform angular velocity . The magnetic field at the centre of the disc is–
R Q
µ0 Q
(A) directed outward (B) having magnitude O
4 R
µ0 Q
(C) directed inwards (D) having magnitude
2 R
PAGE NO : 183
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PHYSICS
51. A electron experiences a force 4.0î 3.0ˆj × 10 –13 N in a uniform magnetic field when its velocity is
ˆ 10 7 ms –1, the magnetic force

2.5kˆ 10 7 ms . When the velocity is redirected and becomes 1.5 i 2.0 j
–1
of the electron is zero. The magnetic field vector B is

(A) 0.075î 0.1ˆj (B) 0.1iˆ 0.075ˆj (C) 0.075 î 0.1ˆj kˆ (D) 0.075î 0.1ˆj
52. Net magnetic field at the centre of the circle O due to a current carrying loop as shown
in figure is 180
i i O
(A) zero
(B) perpendicular to paper inwards
(C) perpendicular to paper outwards
(D) is perpendicular to paper inwards if 90 and perpendicular to paper outwards if 90 180
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53. A particle of charge q and mass m starts moving from the origin under the action of an electric field E E 0 î
and B B 0 î with velocity v v 0 ˆj . The speed of the particle will become 2v 0 after a time
2mv 0 2Bq 3Bq 3mv 0

(A) t= (B) t = mv (C) t= (D) t=
qE 0 mv 0 qE
54. A particle of specified charge (q/m) is projected from the origin of coordinates with initial velocity uiˆ vjˆ .
55.
(A)
2 E
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Uniform electric magnetic fields exists in the region along the +y direction, of magnitude E and B. The
particle will definitely return to the origin once if
vB
is an integer (B) u2 v2
1/2 B
E
is an integer(C)
vB
E
in an integer (D)
A particle having charge q enters a region of uniform magnetic field B (directed inwards) and is deflected
uB
E
is an integer
SP
a distance x after travelling a distance y. The magnitude of the momentum of the particle is
y
E
qBy qBy qB y 2 qBy 2

(A) (B) (C) x (D)
2 x 2 x 2x
56. A particle moving with velocity v having specific charge (q/m) enters a region of magnetic field B having
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3mv
width d = at angle 53° to the boundary of magnetic field. Find the angle in the diagram.
5qB
53°
(A) 37 0 (B) 60° (C) 90° (D) None
PAGE NO : 184
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PHYSICS
57. A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to its initial direction travelling in air. The
path of the particle is seen to follow the path in figure. Which of statements 1–3 is /are correct?
(1) The magnetic field strength may have been increased while the particle was travelling in air
(2) The particle lost energy by ionising the air
(3) The particle lost charge by ionising the air
entry
(A) 1, 2, 3 are correct (B) 1, 2 only are correct

(C) 2, 3 only are correct (D) 1 only
58. A semi circular current carrying wire having radius R is placed in x–y plane with its centre at origin 'O'.
B0 x
There is non–uniform magnetic field B = k̂ (here B0 is +ve constant) is existing in the region. The magnetic
2R
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force acting on semi circular wire will be along
X
( R,0,0) (+R,0,0)
(A) –x axis RI (B) +y–axis

Z
(C) –y axis (D) +x–axis
SP
E
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ANSWER KEY LEVEL1

Qu e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans . D D D AD BD A BC B B BC D C C A BC A BC A BD AC A B C A
Qu e. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans . D D B B AB A C D A BC D B D AB BC A BC BC AD CD D C A
Qu e. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58
Ans . D C C ,D B D A A B A A ,D A C D C C C B A
PAGE NO : 185
PHYSICS
TOPIC: CLASSICAL MAGNETISM
This section contains 30 Multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) for its answer, out which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Two identical magnetic dipoles of magnetic moments 1.0 A-m2 each, placed at a separation of 2m
with their axis perpendicular to each other. The resultant magnetic field at a point midway between
the dipoles is
(1) 5  107 T (2) 5  107 T (3) 107 T (4) None of these
NT
2. Two short magnets placed along the same axis with their like poles facing each other repel each
other with a force which varies inversely as
(1) Square of the distance (2) Cube of the distance
(3) Distance (4) Fourth power of the distance
3. Two identical short bar magnets, each having magnetic moment M, are placed a distance of 2d apart
with axes perpendicular to each other in a horizontal plane. The magnetic induction at a point
midway between them is
4.

(1) 0 ( 2) 3
4 d
M
RI 
(2) 0 ( 3) 3
4
M
d
 2  M
(3)  0  3
  d

(4) 0 ( 5) 3
4
M
d
If a magnet is suspended at an angle 30o to the magnetic meridian, it makes an angle of 45 o with the
horizontal. The real dip is
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(1) tan 1 ( 3 / 2) (2) tan 1 ( 3) (3) tan 1 ( 3 / 2) (4) tan 1 (2 / 3)
5. A short bar magnet with its north pole facing north forms a neutral point at P in the horizontal plane.
If the magnet is rotated by 90o in the horizontal plane, the net magnetic induction at P is (Horizontal
component of earth’s magnetic field = B H )
5
(1) 0 (2) 2 BH (3) BH (4) 5 BH
2
E
6. The true value of angle of dip at a place is 60o, the apparent dip in a plane inclined at an angle of 30o
with magnetic meridian is
1 2
(1) tan 1 (2) tan 1 (2) (3) tan 1  
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(4) None of these

2 3
7. A vibration magnetometer consists of two identical bar magnets placed one over the other such that
they are perpendicular and bisect each other. The time period of oscillation in a horizontal magnetic
field is 25/4 seconds. One of the magnets is removed and if the other magnet oscillates in the same
field, then the time period in seconds is
(1) 21/4 (2) 21/2 (3) 2 (4) 23/ 4
C :M /D /A /L /N /P /N /B /D #1
PAGE NO : 186
PHYSICS
CLASSICAL MAGNETISM
8. In a vibration magnetometer, the time period of a bar magnet oscillating in horizontal component of
earth's magnetic field is 2 sec. When a magnet is brought near and parallel to it, the time period
reduces to 1 sec. The ratio H/F of the horizontal component H and the field F due to magnet will be
(1) 3 (2) 1/ 3 (3) 3 (4) 1 / 3
9. A cylindrical rod magnet has a length of 5 cm and a diameter of 1 cm. It has a uniform magnetisation
of 5.30 × 103Amp/m3. What its magnetic dipole moment
(1) 1 10 2 J / T (2) 2.08  10 2 J / T (3) 3.08  10 2 J / T (4) 1.52  102 J / T
10. Two magnets of equal mass are joined at right angles to each other as shown the magnet 1 has a
magnetic moment 3 times that of magnet 2. This arrangement is pivoted so that it is free to rotate in
the horizontal plane. In equilibrium what angle will the magnet 1 subtend with the magnetic meridian
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m1  m2
N N
(1) (2)
90° S
S
1 1
(1) tan 1   (2) tan 1   (3) tan 1 (1) (4) 0°
11.
2
RI  3
The dipole moment of each molecule of a paramagnetic gas is 1.5  10 –23 amp  m2. The temperature
of gas is 27oC and the number of molecules per unit volume in it is 2  1026 m–3. The maximum
possible intensity of magnetisation in the gas will be
(1) 3  103 amp/m
5
(2) 4  10–3 amp/m
(4) 6  10–4 amp/m
SP
(3) 5  10 amp/m
12. Two magnets A and B are identical and these are arranged as shown in the figure. Their length is
negligible in comparison to the separation between them. A magnetic needle is placed between the
magnets at point P which gets deflected through an angle  under the influence of magnets. The
ratio of distance d1 and d 2 will be
 S
S N P
E
N
d1 d2
(1) (2 tan )1/3 (2) (2 tan ) 1/3

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(3) (2 cot )1/3 (4) (2 cot ) 1/3
13. Two short magnets of equal dipole moments M are fastened perpendicularly at their centre (figure).
The magnitude of the magnetic field at a distance d from the centre on the bisector of the right angle
is
N P
d
S N
0 M 0 M 2 0 2 2M 0 2M
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 d 3 4 d 3 4 d 3 4 d 3
PAGE NO : 187
PHYSICS
CLASSICAL MAGNETISM
14. A small coil C with N = 200 turns is mounted on one end of a balance beam and introduced between
the poles of an electromagnet as shown in figure. The cross sectional area of coil is A= 1.0 cm2,
length of arm OA of the balance beam is l  30 cm. When there is no current in the coil the balance
is in equilibrium. On passing a current I = 22 mA through the coil the equilibrium is restored by
putting the additional counter weight of mass m  60 mg on the balance pan. Find the magnetic
induction at the spot where coil is located.
N
M A
O
B
S
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(1) 0.4 T (2) 0.3 T (3) 0.2 T (4) 0.1 T
15. Two identical bar magnets with a length 10 cm and weight 50 gm-weight are arranged freely with
their like poles facing in a inverted vertical glass tube. The upper magnet hangs in the air above the
lower one so that the distance between the nearest pole of the magnet is 3mm. Pole strength of the
poles of each magnet will be
S
16.
(1) 6.64 amp  m
RI (2) 2 amp  m
N
N
S
(3) 10.25 amp  m (4) None of these
If 1 and  2 be the angles of dip observed in two vertical planes at right angles to each other and 
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be the true angle of dip, then
(1) cos 2   cos 2 1  cos 2  2 (2) sec2   sec 2 1  sec 2 2
(3) tan 2   tan 2 1  tan 2 2 (4) cot 2   cot 2 1  cot 2 2
17. Each atom of an iron bar (5 cm  1cm  1cm) has a magnetic moment 1.8  10 23 Am 2 . Knowing that
the density of iron is 7.78  103 kg 3m, atomic weight is 56 and Avogadro's number is 6.02  10 23 the
E
magnetic moment of bar in the state of magnetic saturation will be

(1) 4.75 Am 2 (2) 5.74 Am 2 (3) 7.54 Am 2 (4) 75.4 Am 2
JE
18. An iron rod of volume 10 4 m 3 and relative permeability 1000 is placed inside a long solenoid wound
with 5 turns/cm. If a current of 0.5 A is passed through the solenoid, then the magnetic moment of
the rod is
(1) 10 Am 2 (2) 15 Am 2 (3) 20 Am 2 (4) 25 Am 2
19. A bar magnet has coercivity 4 103 Am 1. It is desired to demagnetise it by inserting it inside a
solenoid 12 cm long and having 60 turns. The current that should be sent through the solenoid is
(1) 2 A (2) 4 A (3) 6 A (4) 8 A
20. A magnet is suspended in the magnetic meridian with an untwisted wire. The upper end of wire is
rotated through 180o to deflect the magnet by 30o from magnetic meridian. When this magnet is
replaced by another magnet, the upper end of wire is rotated through 270 o to deflect the magnet 30o
from magnetic meridian. The ratio of magnetic moments of magnets is
(1) 1 : 5 (2) 1 : 8 (3) 5 : 8 (4) 8 : 5
PAGE NO : 188
PHYSICS
CLASSICAL MAGNETISM
21. A dip needle vibrates in the vertical plane perpendicular to the magnetic meridian. The time period
of vibration is found to be 2 seconds. The same needle is then allowed to vibrate in the horizontal
plane and the time period is again found to be 2 seconds. Then the angle of dip is
(1) 0o (2) 30 o (3) 45 o (4) 90 o
22. The unit for molar susceptibility is

(1) m3 (2) kg-m–3 (3) kg–1 m3 (4) No units
23. A short magnet oscillates with a time period 0.1 s at a place where horizontal magnetic field is
24T. A downward current of 18 A is established in a vertical wire 20 cm east of the magnet. The
new time period of oscillator
(1) 0.1 s (2) 0.089 s (3) 0.076 s (4) 0.057 s
NT
24. A dip needle lies initially in the magnetic meridian when it shows an angle of dip  at a place. The
dip circle is rotated through an angle x in the horizontal plane and then it shows an angle of dip  .
tan 
Then is
tan 
1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) cos x
cos x sin x tan x
25. A dip circle is adjusted so that its needle moves freely in the magnetic meridian. In this position, the
26.
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angle of dip is 40°. Now the dip circle is rotated so that the plane in which the needle moves makes
an angle of 30° with the magnetic meridian. In this position the needle will dip by an angle
(1) 40° (2) 30° (3) More than 40° (4) Less than 40°
The   1/ T graph for an alloy of paramagnetic nature is shown in Fig. The curie constant is, then

SP
0.4
0.3
0.2
0.1
0
0 2 4 6 7
–3 –1
1/T(in 10 K )
(1) 57 K (2) 2.8  103 K (3) 570 K (4) 17.5  10 3 K

E
27. The figure illustrate how B, the flux density inside a sample of unmagnetised ferromagnetic material
varies with B0, the magnetic flux density in which the sample is kept. For the sample to be suitable
for making a permanent magnet
JE
B
Q P
R
B0
O
S
(1) OQ should be large, OR should be small
(2) OQ and OR should both be large
(3) OQ should be small and OR should be large
(4) OQ and OR should both be small
28. The variation of the intensity of magnetisation (I) with respect to the magnetising field (H) in a
diamagnetic substance is described by the graph
PAGE NO : 189
PHYSICS
CLASSICAL MAGNETISM
B
+I
A
O H
C
–I
D
(1) OD (2) OC (3) OB (4) OA
29. For ferromagnetic material, the relative permeability ( r ) , versus magnetic intensity (H) has the
following shape
r r
(1) (2)
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H H
r r
(3) (4)
H H
30.
substance is
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The most appropriate magnetization M versus magnetising field H curve for a paramagnetic
M
+
–
C
A
B
H
SP
D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
E
ANSWER KEY
JE
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (4)
6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (2)
11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (1)
16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (3)
21. (3) 22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (3)
26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (2) 29. (4) 30. (1)
PAGE NO : 190
PHYSICS
&-&$530."(/&5*$*/%6$5*0/"$
I(A)
1. When magnetic flux through a coil is changed, the variation of induced current 4
in the coil with time is as shown in graph. If resistance of coil is 10 , then the
total change in flux of coil will be–
(A) 4 (B) 8 t(s)
0.1
(C) 2 (D) 6
2. Two co–axial solenoids shown in figure. If key of primary suddenly
opened then direction of instantaneous induced current in resistance
R
‘R’ which connected in secondary :–
(A) L to N (B) N to L L N
(C) alternating (D) zero
3. A coil having 500 square loops each of side 10 cm is placed normal to a magnetic field which increased at a rate
of 1.0 T/sec. The induced e.m.f. (in volt) is :–
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(A) 0.1 (B) 0.5 (C) 1.0 (D) 5.0
4. The magnetic field in a coil of 100 turns and 40 cm 2 an area is increased from 1 tesla to 6 tesla in
2 second. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the coil. The e.m.f. generated in it is :–
(A) 104 V (B) 1.2 V (C) 1.0 V (D) 10–2 V
5. One coil of resistance 40 is connected to a galvanometer of 160 resistance. The coil has radius 6mm and
turns 100. This coil is placed between the poles of a magnet such that magnetic field is perpendicular to coil.
6.
(A) 6.55 T
RI
If coil is dragged out then the charge through the galvanometer is 32 C. The magnetic field is :–
(B) 5.66 T (C) 0.655 T
A flexible wire bent in the form of a circle is placed in a uniform magnetic
field perpendicular to the plane of the coil. The radius of the coil changes with
time as shown figure. The induced emf in the coil is :
(D) 0.566 T
SP
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7. As a result of change in the magnetic flux linked to the closed loop shown in the
figure, an e.m.f. . V volt is induced in the loop. The work done (joules) in taking a
charge Q coulomb once along the loop is :–
(A) QV (B) zero (C) 2QV (D) QV/2
E
8. Figure shows three regions of magnetic field, each of area A, and in each region
×× × ×
××× ×××
magnitude of magnetic field decreases at a constant rate . If E is induced electric ×× ××
field then value of line integral E . dr along the given loop is equal to–
JE
(A) A (B) – A (C) 3 A (D) –3 A

9. A semicircle loop PQ of radius 'R' is moved with velocity 'v' in transverse magnetic field
as shown in figure. The value of induced emf. across the ends PQ of the loop is
(A) Bv ( r), end 'P' at high potential (B) 2 BRv, end P at high potential
R2
(C) 2 BRv, end Q at high potential (D) B v, end P at high potential
2
10. In the given figure if the magnetic field, which is perpendicular to the plane of the
× × × × × ×
paper in the inward direction increases, then–
(A) Plate B of the capacitor will become positively charged × × × × × ×
A
(B) Plate A of the capacitor will become positively charged. × × × × × × B
(C) The capacitor will not be charged. × × × × × ×
(D) Both plates will be charged alternately. × × × × × ×
PAGE NO : 191
&-&$530."(/&5*$*/%6$5*0/"$ PHYSICS
11. Two identical cycle wheels (geometrically) have different number of spokes connected from centre to rim.
One is having 20 spokes and other having only 10(the rim and the spokes are resistanceless). One resistance
of value R is connected between centre and rim. The current in R will be–
(A) double in first wheel than in the second wheel
(B) four times in first wheel than in the second wheel
(C) will be double in second wheel than that of the first wheel
(D) will be equal in both these wheels
12. A square loop of area 2.5 × 10 –3 m 2 and having 100 turns with a total resistance of × × ×
100 is moved out of a uniform magnetic field of 0.40 T in 1 sec with a constant speed. × × ×
Then work done, in pulling the loop is– × × ×
(A) zero (B) 1 mJ (C) 1 µJ (D) 0.1 mJ
× × ×
13. AB is resistanceless conducting rod which forms a diameter of a conducting ring
× × × × ×
of radius r rotating in a uniform magnetic field B as shown. The resistors R1 and
× × × ×
R 2 do not rotate. Then current through the resistor R 1 is–
× × R1 × ×
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B r2 B r2 ×
A
× ×
B
×
(A) (B)
2R 1 2R 2 × × R2 × ×
× × × ×
× × × × ×
B r2 B r2
(C) (R 1 R2 ) (D)
2R 1 R 2 2(R 1 R 2 )
14. AB and CD are fixed conducting smooth rails placed in a vertical plane and A I C
A
joined by a constant current source at its upper end. PQ is a conducting rod which
RI
is free to slide on the rails. A horizontal uniform magnetic field exists in space
as shown. If the rod PQ in released from rest then,
(A) The rod PQ will move downward with constant acceleration
(B) The rod PQ will move upward with constant acceleration
P
B
(C) The rod will move downward with decreasing acceleration and finally acquire a constant velocity
(D) Either A or B
D
Q
SP
15. In an AC generator, a coil with N turns, all of the same area A and total resistance R, rotates with frequency
in a magnetic field B. The maximum value of emf generated in the coil is–
(A) NABR (B) NAB (C) NABR (D) NAB
16. When the current changes from +2A to – 2A in 0.05 s, an emf of 8V is induced in a coil. The coefficient
of self–induction of the coil is–
(A) 0.2 H (B) 0.4 H (C) 0.8 H (D) 0.1 H
17. Two identical circular coils A and B are placed parallel to each other with their centres on the same axis. The
E
coil B carries a current I in the clock wise direction as seen from A. What would be the direction of the induced
current in A seen from B when (i) The current in B is increased (ii) The coil B is moved towards A keeping the
current in B constant
(A) clockwise, clockwise (B) clockwise, anti clockwise
JE
(C) anti clockwise, clockwise (D) anti clockwise, anti clockwise

18. A rectangular loop of sides 'a' and 'b' is placed in xy plane. A very long wire is also placed in xy plane
such that sides of length 'a' of the loop is parallel to the wire. The distance between the wire and the nearest
edge of the loop is 'd'. The mutual inductance of this system is proportional to–
(A) a (B) b (C) 1/d (D) current in wire
19. For a inductor coil L = 0.04 H then work done by source to establish a current of 5A in it is :–
(A) 0.5 J (B) 1.00 J (C) 100 J (D) 20 J
S
20. Consider a metal ring kept on a horizontal plane. A bar magnet is held above the ring
with its length along the axis of the ring. If the magnet is dropped freely the
acceleration of the falling magnet is (g is acceleration due to gravity) N
(A) more than g (B) equal to g

(C) less than g (D) depend on mass of magnet
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21. In the inductive circuit given in fig. the current rises after the switch is closed. 4000 12mH
At instant, when the current is 15 mA. Then potential difference across the
inductor is :–
(A) 40 V (B) 80 V
(C) 160 V (D) 0
100V
22 The time constant of an inductance coil is 2.0 × 10–3 s. When a 90 resistance is joined in series, the time constant
becomes 0.5 × 10–3 s. The inductance and resistance of the coil are :–
(A) 30 mH ; 30 (B) 30 mH ; 60 (C) 60 mH ; 30 (D) 60mH ; 60
23. When a certain circuit consisting of a constant emf E, an inductance L and a resistance
R is closed, the current in, it increases with time according to curve 1. After one
parameter (E, Lor R ) is changed, the increase in current follows curve 2 when the
circuit is closed second time. Which parameter was changed :–
(A) L is increased (B) L is decreased
(C) R is increased (D) R is decreased
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24. A coil of inductance 300 mH and resistance 2 is connected to a source of voltage 2V. The current reaches
half of its steady state value in–
(A) 0.05 s (B) 0.1 s (C) 0.15 s (D) 0.3 s
25. The average and rms value of voltage for square wave +
shown in fig. having peak value V 0 – V0 V0
t
V0 V0 0
T/2 T 3 2T
(A) , 2V0 (B) 2V0 , 2T
26.
2
(C) V0, V0
RI (D) Zero, V 0
2
The variation of the instantaneous current (I) and the instantaneous emf (E)
in a circuit is as shown in fig. Which of the following statements is correct –
(A) The voltage lags behind the current by /2
(B) The voltage leads the current by /2
V0
O
/2
E I
/2
t
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(C) The voltage and the current are in phase
(D) The voltage leads the current by
27. The current in a circuit varies with time as I = 2 t . Then the rms value of the current for the interval
t = 2 to t = 4 sec is
(A) 3A (B) 2 3A (C) 3 / 2A (D) (4 2 2) A 7

28. In ac circuit when ac ammeter is connected it reads i current if a student uses dc ammeter in plane of ac
ammeter the reading in the dc ammeter will be
E
i
(A) (B) 2i (C) 0.637 i (D) zero
2
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29. An AC current is given by I = I0 + I1 sin t then its rms value will be
I0
(A) I20 0.5I12 (B) I20 0.5I20 (C) 0 (D)
2
30. Alternating current is flowing in inductance L and resistance R. The frequency of source is . Which of
2
the following statement is correct :–

(A) for low frequency the limiting value of impedance is L.
(B) for high frequency the limiting value of impedance is L .
(C) for high frequency the limiting value of impedance is R.
(D) for low frequency the limiting value of impedance is L .
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31. The self inductance of a choke coil is 10 mH. when it is connected with a 10 V D.C. source, then the loss of
power is 20 watt. When it is connected with 10 volt A.C. source loss of power is 10 watt. The frequency of
A.C. source will be :–
(A) 50 Hz (B) 60 Hz (C) 80 Hz (D) 100 Hz
32. In an A.C. circuit capacitance of 5 F has a reactance as 1000 . The frequency of A.C. will be :–
1000 100
(A) cycle/s (B) cycle/s (C) 200 cycle/s (D) 5000 cycle/s
33. A capacitor of capacitance 100 F and a resistance of 100 is connected in series with AC supply of 220V,
50Hz. The current leads the voltage by :–
1 1 2 4
(A) tan–1 (B) tan –1 (C) tan –1 (D) tan –1
2
34. In an AC Circuit decrease in impedance with increase in frequency is indicates that circuit has/have :–
(A) only resistance. (B) resistance and inductance.
(C) resistance and capacitance (D) resistance, capacitance and inductance.
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35. 200 resistance and 1H inductance are connected in series with an A.C. circuit. The frequency of the source
200
is Hz. Then phase difference in between V and I will be :–
2
(A) 30° (B) 60° (C) 45° (D) 90°
36. The phase difference between current and voltage in an AC circuit is radian, If the frequency of AC is 50
4
37.
38.
(A) 0.78 s
of the coil is :–

(A) 4
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Hz, then the phase difference is equivalent to the time difference :–
(B) 15.7 ms
(B) 3
If value of R is changed, then :–
(C) 2.5 s
(C) 5
(D) 2.5 ms
A student connects a long air cored – coil of magnanin wire to a 100 V D.C. supply and records a current
of 25 amp. When the same coil is connected across 100 V. 50 Hz A.C. the current reduces to 20 A , the reactance
10V
(D) None
10V R
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(A) voltage across L remains same
(B) voltage across C remains same
(C) voltage across LC combination remains same
supply
(D) voltage across LC combination changes
39. In a circuit L, C and R are connected in series with an alternating voltage source of frequency f. The current
leads the voltage by 45°. The value of C is :–
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
E
2 f (2 f L R) 2 f (2 f L R) f (2 f L R) f (2 f L R)
40. In an LCR series ac circuit, the voltage across each of the components. L, C and R is 50 V. The voltage
across the LC combination will be–
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(A) 50 V (B) 50 2 V (C) 100 V (D) 0

41. In an LCR circuit, capacitance is changed from C to 2C. For the resonant frequency to remain unchanged,
the inductance should be changed from L to–
(A) 4 L (B) 2L (C) L/2 (D) L/4
42. In a series resonant LCR circuit, the voltage across R is 100 volts and R = 1 k with C = 2µF. The resonant
frequency is 200 rad/s. At resonance the voltage across L is–
(A) 2.5 × 10 –2 V (B) 40 V (C) 250 V (D) 4 × 10 –3 V
43. In the adjoining A.C. circuit the voltmeter whose reading will be V 4
zero at resonance is :– V1 V2 V3
(A) V1
L C R
(B) V 2 VS
(C) V3
(D) V 4
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PHYSICS
44. In given LCR circuit, the voltage across the terminals of a resistance V
and current will be :–
(A) 400V, 2A 400V
R=50 400V
(B) 800V, 2A A
(C) 100V, 2A
(D) 100V, 4A 100V,50Hz
45. An ac source of angular frequency is fed across a resistor R and a capacitor C in series. The current registered

is I. If now the frequency of source is changed to /3 (but maintaining the same voltage), the current in the circuit
is found to be halved. Then the ratio of reactance to resistance at the original frequency is :
(A) 3 / 5 (B) 5/3 (C) 2 / 3 (D) 3/2
V
46. In the circuit shown in the figure, neglecting source resistance, the
voltmeter and ammeter readings will respectively be–
(A) 0 V, 8 A R = 30 X = 25 X = 25
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L C
(B) 150 V, 8 A

(C) 150 V, 3 A ~ A
(D) 0 V, 3 A 240V, 50 Hz
47. In the circuit shown in the figure, the A.C. source gives a voltage V = 20 cos (2000 t) volt neglecting source
resistance, the voltmeter and ammeter readings will be :– 6 A
(A) 0V, 1.4A
5mH,4 50 F
(B) 5.6V, 1.4A
48.
(C) 0V, 0.47 A
(D) 1.68 V, 0.47 A
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In an AC circuit the voltage applied is E = E 0 sin t. The resulting current in the circuit is
I=I 0 sin t
2
. The power consumption in the circuit is given by :–
V
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E I E 0 I0
(A) P= 0 0 (B) P=zero (C) P= (D) P= 2 E 0 I 0
2 2
49. A coil has an inductance of 0.7 henry and is joined in series with a resistance of 220 . When the alternating
emf of 220 V at 50 Hz is applied to it then the phase through which current lags behind the applied emf and
the wattless component of maximum current in the circuit will be respectively :–
(A) 30°, 1 A (B) 45°, 0.5 A (C) 60°, 1.5 A (D) None of these
di
50. In an LC circuit, the capacitor has maximum charge q 0. The value of dt is
E
max
q0 q0 q0
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D) None of these
LC LC LC
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L C
51. The current I, potential difference VL across the inductor and potential difference
VC across the capacitor in circuit as shown in the figure are best represented vectorially VL VC
as :–
VC VL VL
VC
(A) I (B) (C) I (D) I
VL I
VL VC
VC
52. In an oscillating LC circuit the maximum charge on the capacitor is Q. The charge on the capacitor when
the energy is stored equally between the electric and magnetic fields is–
(A) Q/2 (B) Q/ 3 (C) Q/ 2 (D) Q
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53. Two coils are placed close to each other. The mutual inductance of the pair of coils depends upon–
(A) the rates at which currents are changing in the two coils
(B) relative position and orientation of the two coils
(C) the materials of the wires of the coils
(D) the currents in the two coils
54. A conductor loop of radius R is present in a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular X X X X X X X X X X X X
X X X X X X X X X X X X
the plane of the ring. If radius R varies as a function of time 't', as R = R0 + t. The X X X X X X X X X X X X
e.m.f. induced in the loop is X X X X X X X X X X X X
X X X X X X X XR
X X X X
(A) 2 (R0 + t) B clockwise (B) (R 0 +t)B clockwise B
X X X X X X X X X X X X
(C) 2 (R0 + t) B anticlockwise (D) zero X X X X X X X X X X X X
55. A rectangular loop with a sliding connector of length 10 cm is situated in A D
uniform magnetic field perpendicular to plane of loop. The magnetic induction
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is 0.1 tesla and resistance of connector (R) is 1 ohm. The sides AB and CD 2
have resistances 2 ohm and 3 ohm respectively. Find the current in the R
B C
connector during its motion with constant velocity one metre / sec.
1 1 1 1
(A) A (B) A (C) A (D) A
110 220 55 440
56. Two identical inductance carry currents that vary with time according to linear laws
(B) 2
(C) same
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(as shown in figure). In which of two inductance is the self induction emf greater?
(A) 1
(D) data are insufficient to decide

I
1
2
t
SP
57. L,C and R represent physical quantities inductance, capacitance and resistance. The combination which has
the dimensions of frequency is
1 R 1 R C
(A) and (B) and (C) LC (D)
RC L RC L L
58. An inductor coil stores U energy when i current is passed through it and dissipates energy at the rate of P.
The time constant of the circuit, when this coil is connected across a battery of zero internal resistance is
E
4U U 2U 2P
(A) (B) (C) (D)
P P P U
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8V VR
59. In a series CR circuit shown in figure, the applied voltage is 10V and the voltage
C R
voltage across capacitor is found to be 8V. then the voltage across R, and the phase
difference between current and the applied voltage will respectively be
10V
4 3 5
(A) 6V, tan -1 (B) 3V, tan -1 (C) 6V, tan -1 (D) None
3 4 3
60. The effective value of current i = 2 sin 100 t + 2 sin (100 t + 30°) is
(A) 2 A (B) 2 2 3 (C) 4 (D) None
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61. In series LR circuit XL=3R and R is resistance. Now a capacitor with X C = R is added in series. Ratio of new to

old power factor is
1
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) (D) 2
2
P
62. Figure shows plane figure made of a conductor located in a magnetic field along
the inward normal to the plane of the figure. The magnetic field starts diminishing. Q
Then select incorrect statement.

(A) the induced current at point P is clockwise R
(B) the induced current at point Q is anticlockwise

(C) the induced current at point Q is clockwise
(D) the induced current at point R is zero
63. A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic field which is directed into C
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the paper. The magnetic field is increasing at a constant rate. The directions A
of induced currents in wires AB and CD are
(A) B to A and D to C (B) A to B and C to D

B
D
(C) A to B and D to C (D) B to A and C to D
64. A conducting rod PQ of length L = 1.0 m is moving with a uniform speed
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v = 20 m/s in a uniform magnetic field B = 4.0 T directed into the paper.
A capacitor of capacity C = 10 F is connected as shown in figure. Then
(A) q A = + 800 C and q B = - 800 C
(B) q A = - 800 C and q B = + 800 C
(C) q A = 0 = q B
A
B
P
Q
v
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(D) charge stored in the capacitor increases exponentially with time
65. The voltage time (V–t) graph for triangle wave having peak value. +V0
V0 is as shown in figure : The rms value of V in time interval
T/2
from t = 0 to T/4 is
0 t
T/4 T
V0 V0 V 0
3 2 2 -V0
E
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ANSWER KEY LEVEL 1

Q ue. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans . C A D C D B A B C A D D A D D D A A B C
Q u e. 2 1 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans . A C A B D B B D A B C B B C C D B C B D
Q u e. 4 1 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans . C C D C A A B B B A D C B C B A A C A D
Q u e. 6 1 62 63 64 65
Ans . D B A A A
PAGE NO : 197
PHYSICS
&-&$530."(/&5*$*/%6$5*0/"$ LEVEL 2
1. A conducting loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field with its plane perpendicular to the field. An emf is
induced in the loop if :–
(A) It is translated within magnetic field (B) It is rotated about its axis
(C) It is rotated about a diameter (D) It is deformed
2. In the figure shown a square loop PQRS of side 'a' and resistance 'r' is placed in near Q R
an infinitely long wire carrying a constant current I. The sides PQ and RS are parallel
to the wire. The wire and the loop are in the same plane. The loop is rotated by a
180° about an axis parallel to the long wire and passing through the mid point of I
the side QR and PS. The total amount of charge which passes through any point P S
of the loop during rotation is– a
a
µ Ia 2
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µ0 Ia µ0 Ia
(A) n2 (B) n2 (C) 0
2 r r 2 r
(D) cannot be found because time of rotation not give P R
3. PQ is an infinite current carrying conductor. AB and CD are smooth conducting
A C
rods on which a conductor EF moves with constant velocity V as shown. The
E F
force needed to maintain constant speed of EF is–
I
1 µ0 IV b
2
µ0 IV b
2
1 V
(A) n (B) n
4.
(C)
VR 2
µ0 IV
2
n
b
a
a
2RI V
R
(D)
R 2
2
V µ0 IV
n
b
a
a VR
2 Q
Loop A of radius (r << R) moves towards loop B with a constant velocity V in such a way that their planes are
always parallel. What is the distance between the two loops (x) when the induced emf in loop A is maximum–
a
b B D
SP
B
R
(A) R (B) r R
2
V
R 1 A
(C) (D) R 1 x
2 2
5. A superconducting loop of radius R has self inductance L. A uniform and constant magnetic field B is applied
perpendicular to the plane of the loop. Initially current in this loop is zero. The loop is rotated by 180º.
E
The current in the loop after rotation is equal to–
B R2 2B R 2 B R2
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L L 2L
6. A semicircular wire of radius R is rotated with constant angular velocity about an
axis passing through one end and perpendicular to the plane of the wire. There is B
a uniform magnetic field of strength B. The induced e.m.f. between the ends is–
(A) B R 2 /2 (B) 2B R 2
(C) is variable (D) none of these
L 2L
7. The frequency of oscillation of current in the inductor is–
1 1 C
(A) (B)
3 LC 6 LC
2C
1 1
(C) (D)
LC 2 LC
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PHYSICS
8. An LCR series circuit with 100 resistance is connected to an AC source of 200 V and angular frequency
300 radians per second. When only the capacitance is removed, the current lags behind the voltage by
60°. When only the inductance is removed, the current leads the voltage by 60°. Then the current and power
dissipated in LCR circuit are respectively
(A) 1A, 200 watt. (B) 1A, 400 watt. (C) 2a, 200 watt. (D) 2A, 400 watt.
9. A bulb is rated of 100 V, 100W, it can be treated as a resistor. Find out the inductance of an inductor
(called choke coil) that should be connected in series with the bulb to operate the bulb at its rated power
with the help of an ac source of 200V and 50 Hz
2 3
(A) H (B) 100H (C) H (D) H
3
10. Two different coils have self–inductances L 1 = 8 mH and L 2 = 2mH. The current in one coil is increased
at a constant rate. The current in the second coil is also increased at the same constant rate. At a certain
instant of time, the power given to the two coils is the same. At that time, the current, the induced voltage
and the energy stored in the first coil are i 1, V 1 and W 1 respectively. Corresponding values for the second
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coil at the same instant are i 2, V 2 and W 2 respectively. Then :
i1 1 i1 W1 1 V1
(A) i (B) i 4 (C) W (D) V 4
2 4 2 2 4 2
11. The capacitance of a telephone wire of length 300 km is 0.01 µF per km. If wire caries an ac of 5 kHz, what
should be the value of an inductance required to be connected in series so that impedance is minimum–
(A) 0.36 mH (B) 3.6 mH (C) 0.6 H (D) 3.6 H
12. In the circuit shown, when dc of 250 V is applied, one ampere
13.
(A) 0.295 H, 10 F
–4
(C) 0.0392 H, 0.005 F

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current passes through the circuit and when an alternating voltage
source of 250 V and 2250 rad/s is applied, current of 1.25 A flows.
If maximum current flows through the circuit at a frequency of 4500
rad/s, then the value of L and C will be respectively–
(B) 0.0752 H, 0.01 F
(D) 0.0494 H, 10 F
–6
L
R
An electron is moving in a circular orbit of radius R with an angular acceleration . At the centre of the orbit
SP
is kept a conducting loop of radius r, (r<<R). The e.m.f. induced in the smaller loop due to the motion of the
electron is
er 2
(A) zero, since charge on electron in constant (B) 0
4R
er 2
0
(C) (D) None of these
4 R
14. A square wire loop of 10.0 cm side lies at right angles to a uniform magnetic
field of 20T. A 10V light bulb is in a series with the loop as shown in the figure.
E
The magnetic field is decreasing steadily to zero over a time interval T. The
bulb will shine with full brightness if t is equal to
(A) 20 ms (B) 0.02 ms
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(C) 2 ms (D) 0.2 ms

15. A long straight wire is parallel to one edge as in figure. If the current in the long
–t/ I
wire is varies in time as I = I 0e , what will be the induced emf in the loop?
d b
0 bI d a 0 bI d a
(A) n (B) n
d 2 d a
2 0 bI d a 0 bI d
(C) n (D) n
d d a
16. The magnetic flux through a stationary loop with resistance R varies during interval of time T as = at (T–
t). The heat generated during this time neglecting the inductance of loop will be
a2 T3 a2 T2 a2 T a2 T3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3R 3R 3R R
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PHYSICS
X X X X X
17. The figure shows an isosceles triangle wire frame with apex angle equal to
B
X X X X X
/2. The frame starts entering into the region of uniform magnetic field B with constant
X X X X X
velocity v at t=0. The longest side of the frame is perpendicular to the direction of 90° v
X X X X X
velocity. If i is the instantaneous current through the frame then choose the alternative
X X X X X
showing the correct variation of i with time.
t=0 X X X X X
i i i i
(A) (B) (C) (D)
t t t t
18. A square loop of side a and resistance R is moved in the region of uniform magnetic field B (loop remaining
completely inside field), with a velocity v through a distance x. The work done is
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B 2 2 vx 2B 2 2 vx 4 B 2 2 vx
R R R
19. Two parallel long straight conductors lie on a smooth surface. Two other parallel conductors rest on them at
right angles so as to form a square of side a initially. A uniform magnetic field B exists at right angles to the
plane containing the conductors. They all start moving out with a constant velocity v. If r is the resistance per
unit length of the wire the current in the circuit will be
20.
(A)
Bv
r RI (B)
Br
v
(C) Bvr
A conducting rod PQ of length 5 m oriented as shown in figure is moving with velocity
(2 m/s) î without any rotation in a uniform magnetic field 3ˆj 4kˆ Tesla. Emf
(D) Bv
5m
Q
2m/s
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induced in the rod is
53°
(A) 32 volt (B) 40 volt x
P
(C) 50 volt (D) None
21. In the circuit shown in figure, a conducting wire HE is moved with a constant
speed V towards left. The complete circuit is placed in a uniform magnetic field
B perpendicular to the plane of the circuit directed in inward direction. The
current in HKDE is
(A) clockwise (B) anticlockwise
E
(C) alternating (D) zero

22. When a 'J' shaped conducting rod is rotating in its own plane with constant angular
velocity , about one of its end P, in a uniform magnetic field B directed normally L
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into the plane of paper) then magnitude of emf induced across it will be Q
1 P
(A) B L2 2 (B) B L2
2
1 1
(C) B L2 2
(D) B 2
2 2
23. A metal disc rotates freely, between the poles of a magnet in the direction
N
indicated. Brushes P and Q make contact with the edge of the disc and the metal
axle. What current, if any, flows through R?
R
(A) a current from P to Q (B) a current from Q to P
P Q
(C) no current, because the emf in the disc is opposed by the back emf
(D) no current, because the emf induced in one side o the disc is opposed S
by the emf induced in the other side
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PHYSICS
24. In the circuit shown, the cell is ideal. the coil has an inductance of 4H and fuse L
zero resistance. F is a fuse of zero resistance and will blow when the current
through it reaches 5A. The switch is closed at t=0. The fuse will below: SW
(A) just after t=0 (B) after 2s
(C) after 5s (D) after 10s 2V
I 2V
25. In the LR circuit shown, what is the variation of the current I as a
function of time? The switch is closed at time t=0 sec.
Rt L R V
V V
Rt
(A) R 1 e L L
(B) e
R
Rt
V L
(C) – e (D) None R 3V
R
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26. In the circuit shown, X is joined to Y for a long time and then X is joined to Z. R2
The total heat produced in R 2 is
L Z
X
2 2 2 2 Y
LE LE LE LE R 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2R 12 2R 22 2R 1 R 2 2R 12
R1
27. An induction coil stores 32 jouled of magnetic energy and dissipates energy as heat at the rate of 320 watts.
When a current of 4 amperes is passed through it. Find the time constant of the circuit when the coil is joined
28.
across a battery.
(A) 0.2 s RI (B) 0.1 s
The power factor of the circuit is

1
2
(C) 0.3s
. The capacitance of the

(D) 0.4 s
2 sin (100t)
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circuit is equal to
(A) 400 F (B) 300 F 100 0.1 H
(C) 500 F (D) 200 F C
29. In the circuit, as shown in the figure, if the value of R.M.S. current is
2.2 ampere, the power factor of the box is 100 C
1 I/ Henry
(A) (B) 1 Box
2
E
3 1
(C) (D) Vrms=220 volt, =100 s-1
2 2
30. The given figure represents the phasor diagram of a series LCR circuit connected V0L=3V
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V0L V0R= 3V
to an ac source. At the instant t' when the source voltage is given by V=V 0cos t', V0R
V0C= 2V
the current in the circuit will be
(A) I=I 0 cos ( t' + /6)
(B) I=I0 cos ( t' – /6)
(C) I = I0 cos ( t' + )
(D) I = I0 cos ( t' – /3) V0C
31. Power factor of an L–R series circuit is 0.6 and that of a C–R series circuit is 0.5. If the element (L,C, and
R) of the two circuits are joined in series the power factor of this circuit is found to be 1. The ratio of the resistance
in the L–R circuit to the resistance in the C–R circuit is
6 5 4 3 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 6 3 3 4
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PHYSICS
32. The effective value of current i = 2sin 100 t + 2 sin (100 t + 30°) is
(A) 2 A (B) 2 2 3 (C) 4 (D) None
33. If I 1, I2, I3 and I 4 are the respective r.m.s. values of the time varying currents as shown in the four cases I,
II, III and IV. Then identify the correct relations
i i i i
I0 I0 I0 I0
o t o t o t o t
-I0 -I0 -I0
(A) I 1 = I 2 = I 3 = I 4 (B) I 3 > I 1 = I 2 > I 4 (C) I 3 > I 4 > I 2 = I 1 (D) I 3 > I 2 > I 1 > I 4
34. Two circular coils P & Q are fixed coaxially & carry currents I 1 and I 2 respectively I1
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I2
(A) If I 2 = 0 & P moves towards Q, a current in the same direction as I 1 is induced in Q
(B) If I 1 = 0 & Q moves towards P, a current in the opp. direction to that of I 2 is induced in P
P Q
(C) when I 1 # 0 and I2 # 0 are in the same direction then the two coils tend to move apart.
(D) when I 1 # 0 and I2 # 0 are in opposite directions then the coils tends to move apart
35. A semicircle conducting ring of radius R is placed in the xy plane, as shown in the figure. Y
If RI
A uniform magnetic field is set up along the x–axis. No emf, will be induced in the ring.
(A) it moves along the x–axis

(B) it moves along the y–axis
(C) it moves along the z–axis Z
R
B
X
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(D) it remains stationary
36. At a moment (t=0) when charge on capacitor C 1 is zero, the switch is closed. C1
If I 0 be the current through inductor at that instant, for t > 0, L
I
(A) maximum current through inductor equals 0
2 S
C 1 I0 C2
(B) maximum current through inductor equals C C
1 2
C 1 I 0 LC 1 L
E
(C) maximum charge on C 1= (D) maximum charge on C 1 = I 0C 1

C1 C 2 C1 C2
37. In figure, the switch S is closed so that a current flows in the iron–core inductor L
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which has inductance L and the resistance R. When the switch is opened,
spark is obtained in it at the contacts. The spark is due to R
(A) a slow flux change in L S
(B) a sudden increase in the emf of the battery B B

(C) a rapid flux change in L (D) a rapid flux change in R
38. In figure, a lamp P is in series with an iron–core inductor L. When the switch S is P L
closed, the brightness of the lamp rises relatively slowly to its full brightness than
it would do without the inductor. This is due to
(A) the low resistance of P S
(B) the induced –emf in L B
(C) the low resistance of L (D) the high voltage of the battery B
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39. Two coil A and B have coefficient of mutual inductance M=2H. The magnetic flux passing through coil A
changes by 4 Weber in 10 seconds due to the change in current in B. Then
(A) change in current in B in this time interval is 0.5 A
(B) the change in current in B in this time interval is 2A
(C) the change in current in B in this time interval is 8A
(D) a change in current of 1A in coil A will produce a change in flux passing through B by 4 Weber
40. An a.c. source of voltage V and of frequency 50Hz is connected to an inductor of 2H and negligible resistance.
A current of r.m.s. value I flows in the coil. When the frequency of the voltage is changed to 400 Hz keeping
the magnitude of V the same, the current is now
(A) 8I in phase with V (B) 4I and leading by 90 from V
0 0
(C) I/4 and lagging by 90 from V (D) I/8 and lagging by 90 from V
41. An electric current i 1 can flow either direction through loop (1) and induced
current i2 in loop (2). Positive i1 is when current is from 'a' to 'b' in loop (1)
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loop(1)
and positive i2 is when the current is from'c' to 'd' in loop (2). In an experiment,
a b
i2
loop(2)
the graph of i2 against time 't' is as shown below 0
t c d
which one(s) of the following graphs could have caused i 2 to behave as give above
42.
(A) 0
i1
t
RI (B) 0
i1
Two infinitely long conducting parallel rails are connected through a

t
(C) 0
i1
t (D)
i1
0
t
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capacitor C as shown in the figure. A conductor of length is moved with
constant speed v0. Which of the following graph truly depicts the variation V0
of current through the conductor with time?
current I(t)
current I(t)
current I(t)
current I(t)
E
(A) (B) (C) (D)
t(time) t(time) I=0 t(time) t(time)

JE
43. Two conducting rings P and Q of radii and r and 2r rotate uniformly v
B
in opposite directions with centre of mass velocities 2 v and v respectively 2v
r 2r
on a conducting surface S. There is a uniform magnetic field of magnitude
B perpendicular to the plane of the rings. The potential difference P S Q
between the highest points of the two rings is
(A) zero (B) 4 Bvr (C) 8 Bvr (D) 16 Bvr
x ˆ
44. The magnetic field in a region is given by B B0 1 k . A square loop of edge length d is placed with
a
its edge along x & y axis. The loop is moved with constant velocity V V0î . The emd induced in the loop
is
V0 B 0 d 2 V0 B 0 d 2 V0 B 0 a 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) none
a 2a d
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PHYSICS
45. A triangular wire frame (each side = 2m) is placed in a region of time variant C
magnetic field having dB/dt = 3 T/s. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the
plane of the triangle. The base of the triangle AB has a resistance 1 while the other
two sides have resistance 2 each. The magnitude of potential difference between
A B
the points A and B will be
(A) 0.4 V (B) 0.6 V (C) 1.2 V (D) None
R
46. The ratio of time constant in charging and discharging in the
circuit shown in figure is 2R L
(A) 1:1 (B) 3:2
(C) 2:3 (D) 1:3
V
47. A long straight wire of circular cross-section is made of non-magnetic material. The wire is of radius a. The
wire carries a current I which is uniformly distributed over its cross-section. The energy stored per unit length
in the magnetic field contained within the wire is
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0 I2 0I2 0 I2 0 I2
(A) U (B) U (C) U (D) U
8 16 4 2
L
48. In the circuit shown in the figure, R =
. Switch S is closed at time t=0. The current L R
C
through C and L would be equal after a time t equal to
C R
(A) CR (B) CR n (2)
49.
50.
(C)
L
R n 2
RI (D) LR
V
Let f = 50 Hz, and C=100 F in an AC circuit containing a capacitor only. If the peak value of the current
S
in the circuit is 1.57 A at t=0. The expression for the instantaneous voltage across the capacitor will be
(A) E = 50 sin (100 t - /2)
(C) E = 50 sin 100 t
(B) E = 100 sin (50 t)
(D) E = 50 sin (100 t + /2)
In the circuit diagram shown, X C = 100 , X L = 200 and R = 100 .
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(200sin t)V
C
The effective current through the source is
(A) 2A (B) 2A L
(C) 0.5A (D) 2 2A

xC
51. In the shown AC circuit phase different between currents I1 and I 2 is
1 xL 1 xL xC I1
(A) tan (B) tan
2 R R
I2
E
xL
1 1 xL xC
(C) tan (D) tan
2 R R 2 xL R
52. For L-R circuit, the time constant is equal to
(A) twice the ratio of the energy stored in the magnetic field to the rate of the dissipation of energy in the
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resistance
(B) the ratio of the energy stored in the magnetic field to the rate of dissipation of energy in the resistance
(C) half of the ratio of the energy stored in the magnetic field to the rate of dissipation of energy in the resistance
(D) square of the ratio of the energy stored in the magnetic field to the rate of dissipation energy in the resistance
53. A uniform magnetic field of induction B is confined to a cylindrical region of radius
×
dB × × R×
R. The magnetic field is increasing at a constant rate of (tesla/second). An × × × × ×
dt
electron of charge q, placed at the point P on the periphery of the field experiences × × × × ×
an acceleration– × × ×
×
1 eR dB 1 eR dB P
(A) towards left (B) toward right
2 m dt 2 m dt
eR dB
(C) toward left (D) 0
m dt
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54. A coil having n turns and resistance R is connected with a galvanometer of resistance 4R . This combination is

moved in time t seconds from a magnetic field W 1 weber to W 2 weber. The induced current in the circuit is–
W2 W1 n(W2 W1 ) (W2 W1 ) n(W2 W1 )

(A) (B) – (C) – (D) –
5 Rnt 5 Rt Rnt Rt
55. A negative charge is given to a nonconducting loop and the loop is rotated in the
plane of paper about its centre as shown in figure. The magnetic field produced by
the ring affects a small magnet placed above the ring in the same plane : S N
(A) the magnet does not rotate
(B) the magnetic rotates clockwise as seen from below
(C) the magnet rotates anticlockwise as seen from below
(D) no effect on magnet is there
56. A wire of fixed length is wound on a solenoid of length ' ' and radius 'r'. Its self inductance is found to
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be L. Now if same wire is wound on a solenoid of length /2 and radius r/2, then the self inductance
will be–
(A) 2 L (B) L (C) 4 L (D) 8 L
57. A circuit element is placed in a closed box. At time t=0, constant current generator
V(volts)
supplying a current of 1 A, is connected across the box. Potential difference across
the box varies according to graph shown in figure. The element in the box is 2
(A) resistance of 2
58.
(B) battery of emf 6V
(C) inductance of 2H
(D) capacitance of 0.5 F
RI 1
3
t(s)
Current growth in two L-R circuits (B) and (C) as shown in figure (A). Let L1, L2, R1 and R2 be the corresponding
values in two circuits. Then
i
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(b) (c) L1 R1 L2 R2
(A) (B) (C)

t V S V S
(A) R 1 >R 2 (B) R 1 = R 2 (C) L 1 > L 2 (D) L 1 < L 2
59. For a LCR series circuit with an A.C. source of angular frequency :
E
1 1
(A) circuit will be capacitive if > (B) circuit will be inductive if >
LC LC
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1
(C) power factor of circuit will by unity if capacitive (D) current will be leading if >
LC
reactance equals inductive reactance
Q u e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A n s . C,D B A C C B B D D A,C,D A D B A B A D D A A
Q u e. 2 1 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans . D C A D C A A C A B D D B B,D A,B,C,D D C B B D
Q u e. 4 1 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59
Ans . D C C A A B B B C A C A A B B A D BD BC
PAGE NO : 205
PHYSICS
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
 
1. If E and B are the electric and magnetic field vectors of electromagnetic waves then the direction of propagation
of electromagnetic wave is along the direction of –
   
(1) E (2) B (3) E × B (4) none of these
2. The electromagnetic waves do not transport -

(1) energy (2) charge (3) momentum (4) information
3. In an electromagnetic wave the average energy density is associated with –
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(1) electric field only (2) magnetic field only
(3) equally with electric and magnetic fields (4) average energy density is zero
4. In an electromagnetic wave the average energy density associated with magnetic field will be
1 2 B2 1 1 0
(1) LI (2) (3) 0 B 2 (4)
2 20 2 2 B2
5.
(1)
1
2
CV 2
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In the above problem, the energy density associated with the electric field will be –
(2)
1 q2
2 C
(3)
1 2
2 E
(4)
1
2
0 E 2
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6. In which part of earth's atmosphere is the ozone layer present ?
(1) troposphere (2) stratosphere (3) ionosphere (4) meosphere
7. The ozone layer is earth's atmosphere is crucial for human survival because it –
(1) has ions (2) reflects radio signals
(3) reflects ultraviolet rays (4) reflects infra red rays
E
8. The frequency from 3 ×X 109 Hz to 3 ×X 1010 Hz

is –(1) high frequency band (2) super high frequency band
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(3) ultra high frequency band (4) very high frequency band
9. The frequency from 3 to 30 MHz is known as –

(1) audio band (2) medium frequency band
(3) very high frequency band (4) high frequency band
10. The AM range of radiowaves have frequency –

(1) less than 30 MHz (2) more than 30 MHz (3) less than 20000Hz (4) more than 20000Hz
11. Select wrong statement from the following for EMW -

(1) are transverse (2) travel with same speed in all medium
(3) travel with the speed of light (4) are produced by accelerating charge
PAGE NO : 206
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES PHYSICS
12. The nature of electromagnetic wave is –

(1) longitudinal (2) longitudinal stationary (3) transverse (4) transverse stationary
13. Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves ?

(1) Cosmic-rays (2) -rays (3) -rays (4) X-rays
14. The rms value of the electric field of the light coming from the sun is 720 N/C. The average total energy
density of the electromagnetic wave is-
(1) 4.58 × 10 –6 J/m 3 (2) 6.37 × 10 –9 J/m 3 (3) 81.35 × 10 –12 J/m 3 (4) 3.3 × 10 –3 J/m 3
 
15. An electromagnetic wave in vacuum has the electric and magnetic fields E and B , which are always perpendicular
 
to each other. The direction of polarizaiton is given by X and that of wave propagation by k . Then :-
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         
(1) X| | E and k| | B  E (2) X| | B and k| | B  E
         
(3) X| | E and k| | E  B (4) X| | B and k| | E  B
16. An electromagnetic wave with frequency  and wavelength  travels in the +y direction. Its magnetic field is
along _ x axis. The vector equation for the associated electric field (of amplitude E 0) is :-



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(1) E  E 0 cos  t 
(3) E  E 0 cos  t 
2 
y xˆ
 
2 
y ˆ
 
z

 

(2) E  E 0 cos  t 
(4) E  E 0 cos  t 
2 
2 
y xˆ
 
y ˆz
 
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E
JE
ANSWER KEY
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
A 3 2 3 2 4 2 3 2 2 1 2 3 1, 3 1 3 4
PAGE NO : 207
PHYSICS
GEOMETRICAL OPTICS -LEVEL 1
1. Two plane mirrors M 1 and M 2 are inclined to each other at 70°. A ray incident on the mirror M 1 at an
angle falls on M 2 and is then reflected parallel to M 1 for
(A) =45° (B) =50° (C) =55° (D) =60°
2. A mirror is inclined at an angle of with the horizontal. If a ray of light is incident at
an angle as shown, then the angle made by reflected ray with the horizontal is
(A) (B) 2
(C) (D) zero

2
3. Two mirrors labelled L 1 for left mirror and L 2 for right mirror in the figure are
parallel to each other and 3.0 m apart . A person standing 1.0 m from the right
mirror (L2) looks into this mirror and sees a series of images. The second nearest
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image seen in the right mirror is situated at a distance :
(A) 2.0 m from the person (B) 4.0 m from the person
(C) 6.0 m from the person (D) 8.0 m from the person
4. A bird is flying with a velocity v between two long vertical plane mirrors making
an angle with mirror M1 as shown. Then what will be the relative velocity of approach
between the images formed by the mirrors due to the 1st reflection in each of them
5.
(A) v sin
(C) 2(v sin L)
RI (B) 2 v sin
(D) zero
A plane mirror is moving with velocity 4î 5 ˆj 8kˆ .The point object in front of the mirror moves with a velocity
3î 4 ˆj 5kˆ .Here k̂ is along the normal to the plane mirror and facing towards the object. The velocity of
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the images is :
(A) 3î 4 ˆj 5kˆ (B) 3î 4 ˆj 11kˆ (C) 3î 4ˆj 11kˆ (D) 7iˆ 4 ˆj 11kˆ
6. The distance of an object from a spherical mirror is equal to the focal length of the mirror. Then the image:
(A) must be at infinity (B) may be at infinity (C) may be at the focus (D) none
7. A concave mirror of focal length 20 cm is cut into two parts from the middle
and the two parts are moved perpendicularly by a distance 1 mm from
E
the previous principal axis AB. The distance between the images formed
by the two parts is :
(A) 2 mm (B) 6 mm (C) 3 mm (D) 4 mm
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8. A convex mirror of focal length ‘f’ is placed at the origin with its reflecting surface towards the negative x–
axis. Choose the correct graphs between ‘v’ and ‘u’ for u < 0.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9. The x–z plane separates two media A and B of refractive indices µ1 = 1.5 and µ2 = 2. A ray of light travels
from A to B. Its directions in the two media are given by unit vectors u 1 aiˆ bjˆ and u 2 ciˆ djˆ . Then–
a 4 a 3 b 4 b 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
c 3 c 4 d 3 d 4
PAGE NO : 208
GEOMETRICAL OPTICS PHYSICS
10. A ray of light travelling in a medium of refractive index is incident at an angle on a composite transparent
plate consisting of 50 plates of R.I. 1.01 , 1.02 , 1.03 , ........ , 1.50 . The ray emerges from the composite
plate into a medium of refractive index 1.6 at angle 'x' . Then :
50 50
1.01 5 8 1.5
(A) sin x sin (B) sinx = sin (C) sin x = sin (D) sinx = sin
1.5 8 5 1.01
4
11. Consider the situation shown in figure. Water w is filled in a beaker
3
upto a height of 10 cm. A plane mirror is fixed at a height of 5 cm from the
surface of water. Distance of image from the mirror after reflection from it
of an object O at the bottom of the beaker is–
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(A) 15 cm (B) 12.5 cm (C) 7.5 cm (D) 10 cm
12. A plane mirror is placed at the bottom of a tank containing a liquid of refractive
i ndex µ. P is a small object at a height h above the mir ror. An obser ver
O–vertically above P, outside the liquid–sees P and its image in the mirror. The
apparent distance between these two will be :–
13.
(A) 2 h
RI (B)
2h
(C)
2h
1
When a pin is moved along the principal axis of a small concave mirror, the
image position coincides with the object at a point 0.5 m from the mirror, refer
(D) h 1
1
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figure. If the mirror is placed at a depth of 0.2 m in a transparent liquid, the
same phenomenon occurs when the pin is placed 0.4 m from the mirror. The
refractive index of the liquid is :–

(A) 6/5 (B) 5/4 (C) 4/3 (D) 3/2
14. A ray R 1 is incident on the plane surface of the glass slab (kept in air) of
E
refractive index 2 at an angle of incidence equal to the critical angle for

this air glass system. The refracted ray R 2 undergoes partial reflection and
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refraction at the other surface. The angle between reflected ray R 3 and the
refracted ray R 4 at that surface is :–

(A) 45° (B) 135° (C) 105° (D) 75°
15. Bottom face of the glass cube is silvered as shown . A ray of light is incident
on top face of the cube as shown. Find the deviation of the ray when it comes
out of the glass cube.
(A) 0 (B) 90°
(C) 180° (D) 270°
16. A ray of light travels from an optical denser medium to rarer medium . The critical angle for the two media is
C. The maximum possible deviation of the refracted light ray can be :–
(A) – C (B) 2 C (C) – 2C (D) – C

2
PAGE NO : 209
17. A ray of light from a denser medium strike a rarer medium. The angle of reflection is r and that of refraction
is r . The reflected and refracted rays make an angle of 90° with each other. The critical angle will be:
1 1 1 1
(A) sin tan r (B) tan sin r (C) sin tan r ' (D) tan sin r '
18. An object is immersed in a fluid. In order that the object becomes invisible, it should :
(A) behave as a perfect reflection (B) absorb all light falling on it (C) have refractive index one
(D) have refractive index exactly matching with that of the surrounding fluid
19. A ray of light is incident upon an air/water interface (it passes from air into water) at an angle of 45°. Which
of the following quantities change as the light enters the water?
(I) wavelength (II) frequency (III) speed of propagation (IV) direction of propagation
(A) I, III only (B) III, IV only (C) I, II, IV only (D) I, III, IV only
20. A light ray is incident on a transparent sphere of index= 2 , at an angle of incidence = 45° . What is the
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deviation of a tiny fraction of the ray , which enters the sphere , undergoes two internal reflections and then
refracts out into air ?
(A) 270° (B) 240° (C) 120° (D) 180°
21. An air bubble is inside water. The refractive index of water is 4/3. At what distance from the air bubble should
a point object be placed so as to form a real image at the same distance from the bubble :–
(A) 2R (B) 3R
(C) 4R (D) The air bubble cannot form a real image
22.
23.
(A) 12 cm
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A paraxial beam is incident on a glass (n = 1.5) hemisphere of radius R=6
cm in air as shown. The distance of point of convergence F from the plane
surface of hemisphere is :–
(B) 5.4 cm (C) 18 cm (D) 8 cm
A concave spherical surface of radius of curvature 10 cm, separates two medium X and Y of R.I. 4/3
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and 3/2 respectively. If the object is placed along principal axis in medium X , then :
(A) image is always real
(B) image is real if the object distance is greater than 90 cm
(C) image is always virtual
(D) image is virtual if the object distance is less than 90 cm
24. A double convex lens, made of a material of refractive index 1

, is placed
E
inside two liquids of refractive indices 2

and 3
, as shown. 2
> 1
> 3
. A
wide, parallel beam of light is incident on the lens from the left. The lens will
give rise to :–
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(A) a single convergent beam (B) two different convergent beams

(C) two different divergent beams (D) a convergent and a divergent beam
25. Optic axis of a thin equiconvex lens is the x–axis. The coordinates of a point object and its image are
(–40 cm, 1 cm) and ( 50 cm, –2 cm) respectively. Lens is located at–
(A) x = + 20 cm (B) x = – 30 cm (C) x = –10 cm (D) origin
26. A converging lens of focal length 20 cm and diameter 5 cm is cut along
the line AB. The part of the lens shown shaded in the diagram is now used
to form an image of a point P placed 30 cm away from it on the line XY which
is perpendicular to the plane of the lens. The image of P will be formed.
(A) 0.5 cm above XY (B) 1 cm below XY
(C) on XY (D) 1.5 cm below XY
PAGE NO : 210
27. Look at the ray diagram shown, what will be the focal length of the 1st and the
2nd lens, if the incident light ray passes without any deviation ?
(A) –5 cm and +10 cm
(B) +5cm and +10cm
(C) –5cm and +5cm
(D) +5cm and – 5cm
28. A diverging lens of focal length 10 cm is placed 10 cm in front of a plane mirror as shown in the figure. Light
from a very far away source falls on the lens. The final image is at a distance :–
(A) 20 cm behind the mirror
(B) 7.5 cm in front of the mirror
(C) 7.5 cm behind the mirror
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(D) 2.5 cm in front of the mirror
29. A point object O moves from the principal axis of a converging lens in a
direction OP. I the image of O, will move initially in the direction :
(A) IQ (B) IR
(C) IS (D) IU
30.
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A point object O is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm as shown in figure.
At what distance x from the lens should a concave mirror of focal length 60 cm, be placed so that final image
coincides with the object–
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
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(C) 20 cm
(D) final image can never coincide with the object in the given conditions
31. A point source of light is placed on the principle axis between F and 2 F of a concave lens. On the other side
ver y far, a screen is placed perpendicular to pri ncipal axis. As the screen is brought close towards lens
(A) the light intensity on screen continuously decreases
(B) the light intensity on screen continuously increases
(C) the light intensity on screen first increases, then decreases
(D) the light intensity on screen first decreases, then increases
E
32. A man wishing to get a picture of a Zebra photographed a white donkey after fitting a glass with black streaks
onto the objective of his camera.
(A) the image will look like a white donkey on the photograph
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(B) the image will look like a Zebra on the photograph

(C) the image will be more intense compared to the case in which no such glass is used
(D) the image will be less intense compared to the case in which no such glass is used
33. A lens is placed between a source of light and a wall. It forms images of area A1 and A2 on the wall, for its two
different positions. The area of the source of light is :
2
A1 A2 A1 A2
(A) A1A 2 (B) (C) 2 (D) None
2
34. In the displacement method , a convex lens is placed in between an object and a screen . If one of the
magnification is 3 and the displacement of the lens between the two positions is 24 cm, then the focal
length of the lens is :–
(A) 10 cm (B) 9 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 16/3 cm
PAGE NO : 211
35. A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue and is incident on a right angled prism. The refractive index
of the material of the prism for the above red, green and blue wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47 respectively.
The prism will–
(A) separate part of the red color from the green and blue colors
(B) separate part of the blue color from the red and green colors
45°
(C) separate all the three colors from the other two colors
(D) not separate even partially, any colors from the other two colors
36. A ray of light is incident normally on the first refracting face of the prism of refracting angle A. The ray of
light comes out at grazing emergence. If one half of the prism (shaded position) is knocked off, the same ray
will :–
1 1
(A) Emerge at an angle of emergence sin sec A / 2
2
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(B) Not emerge out of the prism
1 1
(C) Emerge at an angle of emergence sin se c A / 4
2
(D) None of these
37. The curve of angle of incidence versus angle of deviation shown has been plotted
38.
(A) 3
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for prism. The value of refractive index of the prism used is :
(B) 2 (C)
3
2
(D)
2
3
A beam of monochromatic light is incident at i = 50° on one face of an equilateral prism, the angle of emergence
SP
is 40°, then the angle of minimum deviation is :
(A) 30° (B) < 30° (C) 30° (D) 30°
39. A parallel beam of white light falls on a convex lens . Images of blue , red and green light are formed on other
side of the lens at distances x , y and z respectively from the pole of the lens . Then :
(A) x > y > z (B) x > z > y (C) y > z > x (D) None of these
40. Which of the following quantities related to a lens does not depend on the wavelength of the incident light ?
E
(A) Refractive index (B) Focal length (C) Power (D) Radii of curvature
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Q ue. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans . B D C D B B A C A B B B D C C D A D D A
Q ue. 2 1 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans . D D C D C D C D C C B AD A B A A A B C D
PAGE NO : 212
PHYSICS
GEOMETRICAL OPTICS -LEVEL 2
1. Two mirrors are inclined at an angle as shown in the figure. Light ray is incident parallel
to one of the mirrors. The ray will start retracting its path after third reflection if
(A) = 45° (B) = 30°
(C) = 60° (D) all three
2. As shown in the figure a particle is placed at O in front of a plane mirror M.A man
at P can move along path PY and PY’ then which of the following is true?
(A) For all points on PY man can see the image of O
(B) For all points on PY’ man can see the image, but for no point on
PY he can see the image of O
(C) For all points on PY’ he can see the image but on PY he can see the
image only upto distance d.
(D) He can see the image only upto a distance d on either side of P.
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3. Two plane mirrors are placed parallel to each other at a distance L apart. A point object O is placed between
them, at a distance L/3 from one mirror. Both mirrors form multiple images. The distance between any two
images cannot be
(A) 3L/2 (B) 2L/3 (C) 2L (D) None of these
4. A light ray I is incident on a plane mirror M. The mirror

is rotated in the direction as shown in the figure by an arrow
at frequency / rev/s. The light reflected by the mirror
(A) 10 m/s
(C) 360 m/s
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is received on the wall W at a distance 10 m from the axis
of rotation. When the angle of incidence becomes 37° the
speed of the spot (a point) on the wall is :
(B) 1000 m/ s
(D) none of these
5î 6ˆj
SP
5. Shown plane mirror is lying in y–z plane. A particle P has velocity u
at t = 0 & acceleration a 2tjˆ . Velocity of its image at t = 2s relative to it is
(A) 10î (B) – 10î
(C) 20ˆj (D) – 20ˆj

6. There are two plane mirror with reflecting surfaces facing each other. Both the mirrors are moving with speed
v away from reach other. A point is placed between the mirrors. The velocity of the image from due to n–
E
th reflection will be–

(A) nv (B) 2nv (C) 3nv (D) 4nv
7. In the diagram shown, all the velocities are given with respect to earth. What is the
JE
relative velocity of the image in mirror (1) with respect to the image in the mirror
(2) ? The mirror (1) forms an angle with the vertical.
(A) 2v sin2 (B) 2vsin
(C) 2v/sin2 (D) None of these
8. A point source of light S is placed in front of two large mirrors as shown.
Which of the following observers will see only one image of S ?

(A) only A (B) only C
(C) Both A and C (D) Both B and C
PAGE NO : 213
9. A ray reflected successively from two plane mirrors inclined at a certain angle (< 90°) undergoes a deviation
of 300°. The number of images observable are :
(A) 10 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) 14
10. A ray of light is incident on a concave mirror. It is parallel to the principal axis and
its height from principal axis is equal to the focal length of the mirror. The ratio of
the distance of point B to the distance of the focus from the centre of curvature is
(AB is the reflected ray)
2 3 2 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2 3 2
11. An infinitely long rod lies along the axis of a concave mirror of focal length f. The near end of the rod is at
distance u > f from the mirror. Its image will have a length–
uf uf f2 f2
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(A) (B) (C) (D)
u f u f u f u f
12. A short linear object of length b lies along the axis of a concave mirror of focal length f, at a distance u from
the mirror. The size of the image is approximately–
1/2 2
u f f u f f
(A) b (B) b (C) b (D) b
f u f f u f
13. What is the length of the image of the rod in mirror, according to the
observer in air? ( refractive index of the liquid is )
(A) L + L
(B) L +
(C) L +
L
L
RI
SP
(D) None of these
14. Two thin slabs of refractive indices µ1 and µ2 are placed parallel to each other in the x–y plane. If the direction
of propagation of a ray in the two media are along the unit vectors r̂1 aiˆ bjˆ and r̂2 ciˆ djˆ then we have
(A) µ1 a µ2 c
(B) µ1 (a 2 b2 ) µ2 (c 2 d2 )
(C) µ1 a / a 2 b2 µ2 a / c 2 d2
E
(D) None of these

15. A point source S is placed at the bottom of different layers as shown in the figure.
JE
The refractive index of bottommost layer is µ0. The refractive index of any other upper
µ0
layer is µ(n) µ0 A ray of light with angle i = 30° starts from the source
4n 18
S. Total internal reflection takes place at the upper surface of layer having n equal
to
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 6
16. A ray of light in a liquid of refractive index 1.4 approaches the boundary surface between the liquid and air
at an angle of incidence whose sine is 0.8 . Which of the following statement is correct about the behaviors
of the light ?
(A) It is impossible to predict the behavior of the light ray on the basis of the information supplied.
(B) The sine of the angle of refraction of the emergent ray will be less than 0.8
(C) The ray will be internally reflected
(D) The sine of the angle of refraction of the emergent ray will be greater than 0.8
PAGE NO : 214
17. A ray of light strikes a cubical slab surrounded by air as shown in the figure.
Then the geometrical path length traversed by the light in the slab will be :
(A) 2 3 m (B) 2m
3 3
(C) 6m (D) 2 2 m
18. A cubical block of glass of refractive index n1 is in contact with the surface
of water of refractive index n 2. A beam of light is incident on vertical face
of the block (see figure). After refraction, a total internal reflection at the
base and refraction at the opposite vertical face, the ray emerges out at an
NT
angle . The value of is given by–
1 1
(A) sin < n 12 n 22 (B) tan < n 12 n 22 (C) sin <
n 2
n 2 (D) tan <
n 2
n 22
1 2 1
19. A beam of diameter ‘d’ is incident on a glass hemisphere as shown. If the radius of
curvature of the hemisphere is very large in comparison to d, then the diameter of
20.
(A)
3
4
d RI
the beam at the base of the hemisphere will be :
(B) d (C)
d
3
(D)
When the object is at distances u1 and u2 the images formed by the same lens are real and virtual respectively
and of the same size. Then focal length of the lens is :
2
3
d
SP
1 u1 u2
(A) u1 u 2 (B) (C) u1 u 2 (D) u1 u2
2 2
21. A light ray hits the pole of a thin biconvex lens as shown in figure. The angle made by
µ
the emergent ray with the optic axis will be nearly 3µ
2º ( 2µ
(A) 0° (B) (1/3)°
(C) (2/3)° (D) 2°
E
22. A ray of light passes through a prism in a principle plane the deviation being equal to angle of incidence which
is equal to 2 . It is given that is the angle of prism and µ is the refractive index of the material of prism,
then
JE
µ2 1 µ2 1 µ2 1
(A) cos (B) cos (C) sin µ2 1 (D) sin
2 8 8
23. The diagram shows five isosceles right angled prisms. A light ray incident at
90° at the first face emerges at same angle with the normal from the last
face. Which of the following relations will hold regarding the refractive
indices ?
(A) µ 12 + µ 3 2 + µ 52 = µ 22 + µ 4 2 (B) µ 12 + µ 3 2 + µ 52 = 1 + µ 2 2 + µ 4 2
(C) µ 1 2 + µ 3 2 + µ 5 2 = 2 + µ 22 + µ 4 2 (D) none of these
24. A certain prism is found to produce a minimum deviation of 38°. It produces a deviation of 44° when the angle
of incidence is either 42° or 62°. What is the angle of incidence when it is undergoing minimum deviation ?
(A) 45° (B) 49° (C) 40° (D) 55°
PAGE NO : 215
25. A ray incident at an angle 53° on a prism emerges at an angle 37° as shown. If the
angle of incidence is made 50°, which of the following is a possible value of the angle
of emergence?
(A) 35° (B) 42°
(C) 40° (D) 38°
26. A man of height 170 cm wants to see his complete image in a plane mirror (while standing) . His eyes are
at a height of 160 cm from the ground .
(A) Minimum length of the mirror = 80 cm
(B) Minimum length of the mirror = 85 cm
(C) Bottom of the mirror should be at a height 80 cm
(D) Bottom of the mirror should be at a height 85 cm
27. Two plane mirrors at an angle such that a ray incident on a mirror undergoes a total deviation of 240° after
two reflections :
(A) the angle between the mirrors is 60°
NT
(B) the number of images formed by this system will be 5 , if an object is placed symmetrically between
the mi rrors
(C) the number of images will be 5 if an object is kept unsymmetrical between the mirrors
(D) a ray will retrace its path after 2 successive reflections, if the angle of incidence on one mirror is 60 O
28. If the equation of mirror is given by y = 2/ sin x (y > 0, 0 x 1) then
find the point on which horizontal ray should be incident so that the reflected
ray become perpendicular to the incident ray
29.
(A)
1
3
,
3
RI (B)
3 1
,
3 (C)
2 3
3
, (D) (1,0)
In the fig. shown consider the first reflection at the plane mirror and second at the convex mirror. AB is object.
(A) the second image is real and inverted with magnification 1/5
(B) the second image is virtual and erect with magnification 1/5
SP
(C) the second image moves towards the convex mirror
(D) the second image moves away from the convex mirror
30. The figure shows a ray incident on a plane boundary at an angle i = /3. The plot drawn shows the variation
µ1
of | r – i| versus µ = k (r = angle of refraction). Choose the correct alternative.
2
E
2
(A) The value of k 1 is
3
(B) The value of 1 is /6
JE
(C) The value of 2 is /3

(D) The value of k 0 is 1
31. A ray of light is incident normally on one face of 30° – 60° – 90° prism of refractive index 5/3 immersed
in water of refractive index 4/3 as shown in figure .
(A) The exit angle 2 of the ray is sin –1 (5/8)
5
(B) The exit angle 2
of the ray is sin –1
4 3
(C) Total internal reflection at point P ceases if the refractive index of water is
5
increased to by dissolving some substance
2 3
(D) Total internal reflection at point P ceases if the refractive index
of water is increased to 5/6 by dissolving some substance
PAGE NO : 216
Questi on No.32 to 34
A curved surface of radius R separates two medium of refractive indices µ1 and µ2 as shown in figures A and B.
32. Choose the correct statement(s) related to the real image formed by the object O placed at a distance x, as
shown in figure A.
(A) Real image is always formed irrespective of the position of object if µ 2 > µ 1
(B) Real image is formed only when x>R
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(C) Real image is formed due to the convex nature of the interface irrespective of µ 1 and µ 2
(D) None of these
33. Choose the correct statement(s) related to the virtual image formed by object O placed at a distance x, as
shown in figure A
(A) Virtual image is formed for any position of O if µ 2 < µ1
(B) Virtual image can be formed if x > R and µ 2 < µ 1
(C) Virtual image is formed if x < R and µ 2 > µ 1
(D) None of these
34.
RI
Identify the correct statement(s) related to the formation of images of a real object O placed at x from the
pole of the concave surface, as shown in figure B
(A) If µ2 > µ 1, then virtual image is formed for any value of x
µ1 R
(B) If µ 2 < µ 1, then virtual image is formed if x < µ µ
1 2
SP
(C) If µ2 < µ 1, then real image is formed for any value of x
(D) None of these
35. An object O is kept infront of a converging lens of focal length 30 cm
behind which there is a plane mirror at 15 cm from the lens.
(A) The final image is formed at 60 cm from the lens towards right of it
(B) The final image is at 60 cm from lens towards left of it
(C) The final image is real
(D) The final image is virtual
E
36. A converging lens of focal length f 1 is placed in front of and coaxial with a convex mirror of focal length f 2.
Their separation is d. A parallel beam of light incident on the lens returns as a parallel beam from the
arrangement–
JE
(A) The beam diameters of the incident and reflected beams must be the same
(B) d = |f 1 | – 2 |f 2 |
(C) d = |f 1 | – |f 2 |
(D) If the entire arrangement is immersed in water, the conditions will remain unaltered
37. Choose the correct alternative corresponding to the object distance 'u', image distance 'v' and the focal length
'F' of a converging lens from the following.
3F F
(i) The average speed of the image as the object moves with uniform speed from distance to is greater
4 2
F F
than the average speed of the image as the object moves with same speed from distance to
2 4
(ii) The minimum distance between a real object and its real image in case of a converging lens is 4F where
F is its focal length.
(A) both are correct (B) both are incorrect
(C) (i) is correct, (ii) is incorrect (D) (i) is incorrect, (ii) is correct
PAGE NO : 217
38. An object and a screen are fixed at a distance d apart. When a lens of focal length f is moved between the
object and the screen, sharp images of the object are formed on the screen for two positions of the lens. The
magnifications produced at these two positions are M1 and M2–
(A) d > 2f (B) d > 4f (C) M 1M 2 = 1 (D) |M 1 | – |M 2 | = 1
39. A diminished image of an object is to be obtained on a large screen 1 m from it. This can be achieved by
(A) using a convex mirror of focal length less than 0.25 m
(B) using a concave mirror of focal length less than 0.25 m
(C) using a convex lens of focal length less than 0.25 m
(D) using a concave lens of focal length than 0.25 m
40. A convex lens forms an image of an object on a screen. The height of the image is 9 cm. The lens is
now displaced until an image is again obtained on the screen. Then height of this image is 4 cm . The distance
between the object and the screen is 90 cm.
NT
(A) The distance between the two positions of the lens is 30 cm
(B) The distance of the object from the lens in its first position is 36 cm
(C) The height of the object is 6 cm
(D) The focal length of the lens is 21.6 cm
41. A ray is incident on the first prism at an angle of incidence 53°
produced by the first

prism, will be
(A) sin
1 2
3
+ 53°
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as shown in the figure. The angle between side CA and B A for the
net deviation by both the prisms to be double of the deviation
(B) sin
1 2
3
+ 37° (C) cos
1 2
3
+53° (D) 2 sin
1 2
3
SP
42. For the refraction of light through a prism
(A) For every angle of deviation there are two angles of incidence
(B) The light travelling inside an equilateral prism is necessarily parallel to the base when prism is set for minimum
deviation
(C) There are two angles of incidence for maximum deviation
(D) Angle of minimum deviation will increase if refractive index of prism ( P) is increased keeping the refractive
index of the outside medium ( S) unchanged if µ P > µ S.
E
43. Two lenses in contact made of materials with dispersive powers in the ratio 2 : 1, behaves as an achromatic
diverging lens of focal length 10 cm. The individual focal length of the lenses are :
JE
(A) 5 cm, –10cm (B) –5 cm, 10 cm (C) 10 cm, –20 cm (D) –20 cm, 10 cm
ANSWER KEY LEVEL -2
Q u e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
Ans. B C A B B B B B B A D D B A A C
Q u e. 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32
Ans. C A D B C B B B D B,C A,B,C ,D A,C B,C B,C,D A,C D
Q u e. 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43
Ans. A,B A,B B,C A,B A B,C C B,C,D A,D B,C,D B
PAGE NO : 218
PHYSICS
INTERFERENCE OF LIGHT -LEVEL 1
1. Which of the following phenomenon can not be explained by the Huygen's theory-
(A) Refraction (B) Reflection (C) Diffraction (D) Formation of spectrum
2. Huygen's principle is applicable to-

(A) Only light waves (B) Only sound waves
(C) Only mechanical waves (D) For all the above waves
3. According to huygen's theory of secondary waves, following can be explained-

(A) Propagation of light in medium (B) Reflection of light
(C) Refraction of light (D) All of the above
4. Huygen's theory of secondary waves can be used to find-
NT
(A) Velocity of light (B) The wavelength of light
(C) Wave front geometrically (D) Magnifying power of microscope
5. The main drawback of huygen's theory was-

(A) Failure in explanation of rectilinear propagation of lignt
(B) Failure of explain the spectrum of white light
(C) Failure to explain the formation of newton's rings
(D) A failure of experimental verification of ether medium
6. RI
Light has a wave nature, because-
(A) the light travel in a straight line
(B) Light exhibts phenomenon of reflection and refraction
(C) Light exhibits phenomenon interference
(D) Light exhibits phenomenon of photo electric effect
SP
7. The colour are characterized by which of following character of light–
(A) Frequency (B) Amplitude (C) Wavelength (D) Velocity
8. Two coherent sources of intensities I1 and I2 produce an interference pattern. The maximum intensity in the
interference pattern will be :–
(A) I1 + I2 (B) I12  I 22 (C) (I1 + I2)2 (D) ( I1  I 2 ) 2
E
9. Two wave are represented by the equations y1 = a sin t and y2 = a cos t. The first wave :–
 
(A) leads the second by  (B) lags the seconds by  (C) leads the second by (D) lags the seconds by
2 2
JE
10. The resultant amplitude of a vibrating particle by the superposition of the two waves
 
y1 = asin t   and y2 = a sin t is :–
 3
(A) a (B) 2 a (C) 2a (D) 3a
11. The energy in the phenomenon of interference :–

(A) is conserved, gets redistributed (B) is equal at every point
(C) is destroyed in regions of dark fringes (D) is created at the place of bright fringes
12. The phase difference corresponding to path difference of x is :–

2 x 2  x 
(A) (B) (C) (D)
 x  x
PAGE NO : 219
INTERFERENCE OF LIGHT PHYSICS
13. The resultant amplitude in interference with two coherent sources depends upon :–
(A) only amplitude (B) only phase difference
(C) on both the previous option (D) none of the above
14. Phenomenon of interference is observed :–

(A) only for light waves (B) only for sound waves
(C) for both sound and light waves (D) none of above
15. Two coherent sources must have the same :–

(A) amplitude (B) phase difference (C) frequency (D) both (B) and (C)
16. For the sustained interference of light, the necessary condition is that the two sources should :–
(A) have constant phase difference (B) be narrow
(C) be close to each other (D) of same amplitude
NT
17. If the ratio of the intensity of two coherent sources is 4 then the visibility [(Imax – I min)/(I max + I min)] of the
fringes is
(A) 4 (B) 4/5 (C) 3/5 (D) 9
18. Two monochromatic and coherent point sources of light are placed at a certain distance from each other in the
horizontal plane. The locus of all those points in the horizontal plane which have constructive interference will be–
(A) A hyperbola (B) Family of hyperbolas (C) Family of straight lines (D) Family of parabolas
19.
20.
RI
If the distance between the first maxima and fifth minima of a double slit pattern is 7 mm and the slits
are separated by 0.15 mm with the screen 50 cm from the slits, then wavelength of the light used is
(A) 600 nm (B) 525 nm (C) 467 nm (D) 420 nm
In Young's double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is halved and the distance between the slits
SP
and the screen is doubled. The fringe width is :–
(A) unchanged (B) halved (C) doubled (D) quadrupled
21. In Young's double slit experiment using sodium light ( = 5898Å), 92 fringes are seen. If given colour
( = 5461Å) is used, how many fringes will be seen
(A) 62 (B) 67 (C) 85 (D) 99
22. In Young's experiment, one slit is covered with a blue filter and the other (slit) with a yellow filter. Then the
interference pattern :–
E
(A) will be blue (B) will be yellow (C) will be green (D) will not be formed
23. In Young's double slit experiment, a mica sheet of thickness t and refractive index  is introduced in the path of
JE
ray from the first source S1. By how much distance the fringe pattern will be displaced
d D d D
(A) (   1)t (B) (   1)t (C) (D) (   1)
D d (   1)D d
24. In Young's double slit experiment, if monochromatic light is replaced by white light :–
(A) all bright fringes become white
(B) all bright fringes have coloures between violet and red
(C) only the central fringe is white, all other fringes are coloured
(D) no fringes are observed
25. In the young's double slit experiment the central maxima is observed to be I0. If one of the slits is covered, then
intensity at the central maxima will become :–
I0 I0 I0
(A) (B) (C) (D) I0
2 2 4
PAGE NO : 220
26. In Young's double slit experiment, one of the slits is so painted that intensity of light emitted from it is half of that
of the light emitted from other slit. Then
(A) fringe system will disappear
(B) bright fringes will become brighter and dark fringes will be darker
(C) both bright and dark fringes will become darker
(D) dark fringes will become less dark and bright fringes will become less bright.
27. In YDSE how many maxima can be obtained on the screen if wavelength of light used is 200 nm and d = 700 nm :
(A) 12 (B) 7 (C) 18 (D) None of these
28. In YDSE, the source placed symmetrically with respect to the slit is now moved parallel to the plane of the slits
it is closer to the upper slit, as shown. Then ,
(A) the fringe width will increase and fringe pattern will shift down. S
S1
(B) the fringe width will remain same but fringe pattern will shift up.
(C) the fringe width will decrease and fringe pattern will shift down. S2
NT
(D) the fringe width will remain same but fringe pattern will shift down.
29. In a YDSE experiment if a slab whose refractive index can be varied is placed in front of one of the slits then the
variation of resultant intensity at mid–point of screen with '' will be best represented by ( > 1). [Assume slits of
equal width and there is no absorption by slab]
I0 I0 I0 I0
30.
(A)
=I
 RI (B)
=I

(C)
=I

(D)
=I

In a double slit experiment, instead of taking slits of equal widths, one slit is made twice as wide as the other.
Then in the interference pattern.
SP
(A) the intensifies of both the maxima and minima increase.
(B) the intensity of the maxima increases and the minima has zero intensity.
(C) the intensity of the maxima decreases and that of minima increases M
(D) the intensity of the maxima decreases and the minima has zero intensity. N
n1
I
31. A ray of light is incident on a thin film. As shown in figure M, N are two
reflected rays and P, Q are two transmitted rays, Rays N and Q undergo a n2
II
phase change of . Correct ordering of the refracting indices is : n3
(A) n 2 > n 3 > n 1 (B) n 3 > n 2 > n 1 Q
P
E
(C) n 3 > n 1 > n 2 (D) none of these, the specified changes can not occur
32. Let S 1 and S 2 be the two slits in Young's double slit experiment. If central maxima is observed at P and
angle S1PS2 = , then the fringe width for the light of wavelength  will be. (Assume  to be a small angle)
JE
(A) / (B)  (C) 2/ (D) /
33. When light is refracted into a denser medium-

(A) Its wavelength and frequency both increase.
(B) Its wavelength increases but frequency remains unchanged.
(C) Its wavelength decreases but frequency remains unchanged.
(D) its wavelength and frequency both decrease.
A
34. Two point source separated by d = 5 m emit light of wavelength m

=2 m in phase. A circular wire of radius 20 m is placed around 20
the source as shown in figure. D B
5 m
(A) Points A and B are dark and points C and D are bright.
(B) Points A and B are bright and point C and D are dark.
(C) Points A and C are dark and points B and D are bright.
C
(D) Points A and C are bright and points B and D are dark.
PAGE NO : 221
35. Two coherent narrow slits emitting light of wavelength  in the same phase are placed parallel to each
other at a small separation of 3. The light is collected on a screen S which is placed at a distance D (>>)
from the slits. The smallest distance x such that the P is a maxima.
×P
x
× × O
S1 S2
D
(A) 3D (B) 8D (C) 5D (D) 5
2
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3
36. Minimum thickness of a mica sheet having  = which should be placed in front of one of the slits in
2
YDSE is required to reduce the intensity at the centre of screen to half of maximum intensity is-
(A) /4 (B) /8 (C) /2 (D) /3
37. In the YDSE shown the two slits are covered with thin sheets having thickness t & 2t and refractive index
2 and . Find the position (y) of central maxima
RI d
t,2
,2t
D
y
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tD tD
(A) zero (B) (C)  (D) None of these
d d
38 In a YDSE with two identical slits, when the upper slit is covered with a thin, perfectly transparent sheet
of mica, the intensity at the centre of screen reduces to 75% of the initial value. Second minima is observed
to be above this point and third maxima below it. Which of the following can not be a possible value of
phase difference caused by the mica sheet
 13  17  11 
E
(A) (B) (C) (D)

3 3 3 3
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ANSWER KEY LEVEL 1
Q u e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. D D D C D C A D D D A A C C D A B B A D
Q u e. 2 1 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
Ans. D D B C C D B D C A B A C D B C B A
PAGE NO : 222
PHYSICS
INTERFERENCE OF LIGHT -LEVEL 2
1. As shown in arrangement waves with identical wavelengths and amplitudes and that are initially in phase
travel through different media, Ray 1 travels through air and Ray 2 through a transparent medium for equal
length L, in four different situations. In each situation the two rays reach a common point on the screen.
The number of wavelengths in length L is N2 for Ray 2 and N1 for Ray 1. In the following table, values
of N1 and N2 are given for all four situations, The order of the situations according to the intensity of the
light at the common point in descending order is :
Situations 1 2 3 4 L
N1 2.25 1.80 3.00 3.25
Ray 2
N2 2.75 2.80 3.25 4.00
Ray 1
(A) I 3 = I 4 > I 2 > I 1 (B) I 1 > I 3 = I 4 > I 2 (C) I 1 > I 2 > I 3 > I 4 (D) I 2 > I 3 = I 4 > I 1
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2. The path difference between two interfering waves at a point on the screen is /6. The ratio of intensity
at this point and that at the central bright fringe will be : (Assume that intensity due to each slit is same)
(A) 0.853 (B) 8.53 (C) 0.75 (D) 7.5
3. In the figure shown in a YDSE, a parallel beam of light is incident on the slits
n1 n3
from a medium of refractive index n1. The wavelength of light in this medium
is 1. A transparent slab of thickness 't' and refractive index n3 is put in front n2
4.
(A)
2
n1 1
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of one slit. The medium between the screen and the plane of the slits is n2 .
The phase difference between the light waves reaching point O (Symmetrical
, relative to the slits) is :
(n3 – n2) t (B)

2
(n – n2 ) t
1 3
 n3

n
 2

1t

(C)
2 n1
(D)
n 2 1
2 n1
1
1
(n3 – n 2 ) t
In the figure shown if a parallel beam of white light is incident on the plane of the slits then the distance
O
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of the nearest white spot on the screen from O is : [assume d << D,  << d]
d 2d/3
D
E
(A) 0 (B) d/2 (C) d/3 (D) d/6
5. In the figure shown, a parallel beam of light is incident on the plane of the slits of Young's double slit experiment.
Light incident on the slit, S 1 passes through a medium of variable refractive index
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 = 1+ ax (where 'X' is the distance from the plane of slits as shown), upto a distance '' before falling
on S 1 . Rest of the space is filled with air. If at 'O' a minima is formed, then the minimum value of the
positive constant a (in terms of  and wavelength '' in air) is:

X
S1
S2
Screen
  2
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D) none of these
  
PAGE NO : 223
6. M1 and M 2 are plane mirrors and kept parallel to each other. At point O
M1
there will be a maxima for wavelength . Light from monochromatic source
S of wavelength  is not reaching directly on the screen. Then  is : [D >>
d/2
d >> ]
3d 2 3d 2 S O
(A) (B)
D 2D d
2 2
d 2d
(C) (D) M2 D
D D
7. If the first minima in a Young's slit experiment occurs directly in front of one of the slits, (distance between slit
& screen D = 12 cm and distance between slits d = 5 cm) then the wavelength of the radiation used can be :
2 4
(A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm (C)cm (D) cm
3 3
8. In young's double slit experiment, slits are arranged in such a way that besides central bright fringe, there
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is only one bright fringe on either side of it. Slit separation d for the given condition cannot be (if  is wavelength
of the light used) :
(A)  (B) /2 (C) 2 (D) 3/2
9. If one of the slits of a standard Young's double slit experiment is covered by a thin parallel sided glass slab
so that it transmits only one half the light intensity of the other, then :
(A) The fringe pattern will get shifted towards the covered slit
(B) The fringe pattern will get shifted away from the covered slit
(C) The bright fringes will become less bright and the dark ones will becomes more bright
10.
11.
(A)  = b 2/d
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(D) The fringe width will remain unchanged
White light is used to illuminate the two slits in a Young's double slit experiment. The separation between the
slits is b and the screen is at a distance d (>> b) from the slits. At a point on the screen directly in front of
one of the slits, certain wavelengths are missing. Some of these missing wavelengths are :
(B)  = 2b 2/d (C)  = b 2/3d
In an inter ference arrangement similar to Young's double–slit experiment, the
(D)  = 2b 2/3d
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slits S1 and S2 are illuminated with coherent microwave sources, each of frequency S1
10 6 Hz. The sources are synchronized to have zero phase difference. The slits d/2
are separated by a distance d = 150.0m. The intensity I() is measured as a 
function of , where  is defined as shown. If I0 is the maximum intensity, then
d/2
I() for 0  90° is given by :
(A) I() = I0/2 for  = 30° (B) I() = I 0/4 for  = 90° S2
(C) I() = I0 for  = 0° (D) I() is constant for all values of 
12. Figure shows plane waves refracted from air to water using Huygen's principle a,b,c,d,e are lengths on the
E
diagram. The refractive index of water w.r.t air is the ratio.
a b
air
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c
e
water
(A) a/e (B) b/e (C) b/d (D) d/b
13. A monochromatic light source of wavelength  is placed at S. Three slits S1,S2 and S3 are equidistant from the
source S and the point P on the screen. S1P – S2P = /6 and S1P – S3P = 2/3. If I be the intensity at P when
only one slit is open, the intensity at P when all the three slits are open is–
S1
S2
P
S S3
D D Screen
(D>> )
(A) 3 I (B) 5 I (C) 8 I (D) zero
PAGE NO : 224
14. In a Young's double slit experiment, green light is incident on the two slits. The fringes
interference pattern is observed on a screen. Which of the following changes
would cause the observed fringes to be more closely spaced ?
(A) Reducing the separation between the slits
(B) Using blue light instead of green light
(C) Used red light instead of green light incoming
light waves
(D) Moving the light source further away from the slits.
15. Two monochromatic (wavelength = a/5) and coherent sources of electromagnetic waves are placed on the
x-axis at the points (2a,0) and (–a,0). A detector moves in a circle of radius R(>>2a) whose centre is at the
origin. The number of maximas detected during one circular revolution by the detector are-
(A) 60 (B) 15 (C) 64 (D) None
16. In a Young's Double slit experiment, first maxima is observed at a fixed point P on the screen. Now the screen
is continuously moved away from the plane of slits. The ratio of intensity at point P to the intensity at point O
(centre of the screen)-
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(A) Remains constant P
(B) Keeps on decreasing O
(C) First decreases and then increases
(D) First decreases and then becomes constant
17. To make the central fringe at the centre O, a mica sheet of refractive index 1.5 is introduced. Choose the
correct statements (s)-
d S1
(A) The thickness of sheet is 2( 2  1) d infront of S1.
S
18.
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(B) The thickness of sheet is ( 2  1) d infront of S2.
(C) The thickness of sheet is 2 2d infront of S1.
(D) The thickness of sheet is (2 2  1) d infront of S1.

S2
d
D>>d
A thin slice is cut out of a glass cylinder along a plane parallel to its axis. The slice is placed on a flat glass plate
with the curved surface downwards. Monochromatic light is incident normally from the top. The observed
O
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interference fringes from the combination do not follow on of the following statements.
(A) The fringes are straight and parallel to the length of the piece.
(B) The line of contact of the cylindrical glass piece and the glass plate appears dark.
(C) The fringe spacing increases as we go outwards.
(D) The fringes are formed due to the interference of light rays reflected from the curved surface of the cylindrical
piece and the top surface of the glass plate.
19. A circular planar wire loop is dipped in a soap solution and after taking it out, held with its plane vertical in air.
Assuming thickness of film at the very small, as sunlight falls on the soap film, & observer receive reflected light.
E
(A) The top portion appears dark while the first colour to be observed as one moves down is red.
(B) The top portion appears violet while the first colour to be observed as one moves down in indigo.
(C) The top potion appears dark while the first colour to be observed as one move down in violet.
(D) The top portion appears dark while the first colour to be observed as one move down depends on the
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refractive index of the soap solution.

20. Soap bubble appears coloured due to the phenomenon of :–
(A) interference (B) diffraction (C) dispersion (D) reflection
21. A parallel coherent beam of light falls on fresnel biprism of refractive index  and angle . The fringe width on
a screen at a distance D from biprism will be (wavelength = )
 D D
2(   1) 2(   1) 2(   1)
Qu e . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21
Ans . D C A D B B A,C A,B A,C,D A,C A,C C A B A C A C C A A
PAGE NO : 225
PHYSICS
DIFFRACTION & POLARISATION OF LIGHT
1. Diffraction and interference of light refers to :–
(A) quantum nature of light (B) wave nature of light
(C) transverse nature of light (D) electromagnetic nature of light
2. The phenomenon of diffraction of light was discovered by :–
(A) Huygens (B) Newton (C) Fresnel (D) Grimaldi
3. Sound waves shows more diffraction as compare to light rays :–
(A) wavelength of sound waves is more as compare to light rays
(B) wavelength of light rays is more as compare to sound waves
(C) wavelength of sound waves and light ray is same
(D) none of these
4. The conversation going on, in some room, can be heared by the person outside the room. The reason for it is :–
(A) interference of sound (B) reflection of sound (C) diffraction of sound (D) refraction of sound
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5. Diffraction initiated from obstacle, depends upon the
(A) size of obstacle (B) wave length, size of obstacle
(C) wave length and distance of obstacle from screen (D) size of obstacle and its distance from screen
6. Phenomenon of diffraction occurs :–
(A) only in case of light and sound waves (B) for all kinds of waves
(C) for electro-magnetic waves and not for matter waves (D) for light waves only
7. Diffraction of light is observed only, when the obstacle size is :–
8.
9.
(A) very large
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(C) of the same order that of wavelength of light
(B) light ray

All fringes of diffraction are of :–
(A) the same intensity (B) unequal width
(B) very small
(D) any size
Which of the following ray gives more distinct diffraction :–
(A) X-ray (C)  –ray
(C) the same width

(D) Radio wave
(D) full darkness

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10. A single slit of width d is placed in the path of beam of wavelength  The angular width of the principal
maximum obtained is :–
d  2 2d
(A) (B) (C) (D)
 d d 
11. Direction of the second maximum in the Fraunhofer diffraction pattern at a single slit is given by (a is the width
of the slit) :–
 3 3
(A) a sin   (B) a cos   (C) a sin  (D) a sin  
E
2 2 2
12. Angular width () of central maximum of a diffraction pattern of a single slit does not depend upon :–
(A) distance between slit and source (B) wavelength of light used
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(C) width of the slit (D) frequency of light used
13. Red light is generally used to observe diffraction pattern from single slit. If green light is used
instead of red light, then diffraction pattern :–
(A) will be more clear (B) will be contract (C) will be expanded (D) will not visualize
14. Calculate angular width of central maxima if  = 6000 Å, a = 18 × 10–5 cm :–
(A) 20° (B) 40° (C) 30° (D) 260°
15. In single slit Fraunhoffer diffraction which type of wavefront is required :–
(A) cylindrical (B) spherical (C) elliptical (D) plane
16. In the diffraction pattern of a single slit aperture, the width of the central fringe compared to widths of the other
fringes, is :–
(A) equal (B) less (C) little more (D) double
17. Central fringe obtained in diffraction pattern due to a single slit :–
(A) is of minimum intensity (B) is of maximum intensity
(C) intensity does not depend upon slit width (D) none of the above
PAGE NO : 226
DIFFRACTION & POLARISATION OF LIGHT
PHYSICS
18. In a single slit diffraction pattern, if the light source is used of less wave length then previous one. Then width of
the central fringe will be :–
(A) less (B) increase (C) unchanged (D) none of the above
19. In the laboratory, diffraction of light by a single slit is being observed. If slit is made slightly narrow, then
diffraction pattern will :–
(A) be more spreaded than before (B) be less spreaded than before
(C) be spreaded as before (D) be disappeared
20. Find the half angular width of the central bright maximum in the Fraunhofer diffraction pattern of a slit
of width 12 × 10–5 cm when the slit is illuminated by monochromatic light of wavelength 6000 Å.
(A) 40° (B) 45° (C)  (D) 60°
21. In a Fraunhofer's diffraction by a slit, if slit width is a, wave length focal length of lens is f, linear width of central
maxima is :–
f fa 2f f
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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a  a 2a
22. In a Fraunhofer's diffraction obtained by a single slit aperture, the value of path difference for n th order of
minima is :–
(2n  1) 
(A) n (B) 2n (C) (D) (2n–1)
2
23. A polariser is used to :
(A) Reduce intensity of light (B) Produce polarised light
24.
25.
(A) Interference
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(C) Increase intensity of light
Light waves can be polarised as they are :
(A) Transverse (B) Of high frequency
(B) Refraction
(D) Produce unpolarised light
(C) Longitudinal
Through which character we can distinguish the light waves from sound waves :
(C) Polarisation
(D) Reflected
(D) Reflection
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26. The angle of polarisation for any medium is 60°, what will be critical angle for this :
1
(A) sin–1 3 (B) tan–1 3 (C) cos–1 3 (D) sin–1
3
27. The angle of incidence at which reflected light is totally polarized for reflection from air to glass (refractive index n)
1  1 
(A) sin–1 (n) (B) sin–1   (C) tan–1   (D) tan–1 (n)
n  n 
28. A polaroid is placed at 45° to an incoming light of intensity I0. Now the intensity of light passing through polaroid
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after polarisation would be :

(A) I0 (B) I0/2 (C) I0/4 (D) Zero
29. Plane polarised light is passed through a polaroid. On viewing through the polariod we find that when the
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polariod is given one complete rotation about the direction of the light, one of the following is observed.
(A) The intensity of light gradually decreases to zero and remains at zero
(B) The intensity of light gradually increases to a maximum and remains at maximum
(C) There is no change in intensity
(D) The intensity of light is twice maximum and twice zero
30. A ray of light is incident on the surface of a glass plate at an angle of incidence equal to Brewster's angle . If µ
represents the refractive index of glass with respect to air, then the angle between reflected and refracted rays
is :
(A) 90 +  (B)sin–1 (µcos) (C) 90° (D) 90° – sin–1 (sin/µ)
31. A beam of light strikes a glass plate at an angle of incident 60° and reflected light is completely polarised than
the refractive index of the plate is:-
3
(A) 1.5 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D)
2
PAGE NO : 227
DIFFRACTION & POLARISATION OF LIGHT PHYSICS
32. Polarised glass is used in sun glasses because :

(A) It reduces the light intensity to half an account of polarisation
(B) It is fashionable
(C) It has good colour
(D) It is cheaper
33. When unpolarized light beam is incident from air onto glass (n=1.5) at the polarizing angle :
(A) Reflected beam is polarized 100 percent
(B) Reflected and refracted beams are partially polarized
(C) The reason for (A) is that almost all the light is reflected
(D) All of the above
34. When the angle of incidence on a material is 60°, the reflected light is completely polarized. The velocity of the
refracted ray inside the material is (in ms–1) :
 3 
(A) 3 × 108 (B)   × 108 (C) 3 × 108 (D) 0.5 × 108
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 2
ANSWER-KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B D A C B B C D B C D A B B D D B A A C
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34
Ans. C A B A C D D B D C B A A C
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E
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PAGE NO : 228
PHYSICS
ATOMIC AND NUCLEAR PHYSICS- LEVEL 1
1. The probability of nucleus to decay in two mean lives is
1 e2 1 3 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 e2 4 e2
1
2. A sample of radioactive material decays simultaneously by two processes A and B with half lives and
2
1
hr respectively. For first half hr it decays with the process A, next one hr with the process B and for
4
further half an hour with both A and B. If originally there were N 0 nuclei, find the number of nuclei after
2 hr of such decay.
N0 N0 N0 N0
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(A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D)
(2) (2) (2) (2)5
3. The number of photons ( =6630Å) that strike per second on a totally
reflecting screen (as shown in figure), so that a force of 1N is exerted
on the screen, is approximately.
(A) 10 23 (B) 10 27
25
(C) 10 (D) 10 26 30°
4.
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Photo electric effect is the phenomenon in which
(A) Photons come out of a metal when it is hit by a beam of electrons
(B) Photons come out of the nucleus of an atom under the action of an electric field
(C) Electrons come out of metal with a constant velocity depending on frequency and intensity of incident light
(D) Electrons come out of a metal with different velocity not greater than a certain value which depends only
on the frequency of the incident light wave and not on its intensity.
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5. When an electro–magnetic radiation is incident on the surface of metal, maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron
depends on–
(A) Frequency of radiation (B) Intensity of radiation
(C) Both the frequency and intensity (D) Polarization of radiation
6. Which one of the following is true in photoelectric emission
(A) Photoelectric current is directly proportional to the amplitude of light of a given frequency
(B) Photoelectric current is directly proportional to the intensity of light of a given frequency above threshold value
(C) Above the threshold frequency, the maximum K.E. of photoelectrons is inversely proportional to the
frequency of incident light
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(D) The threshold frequency depends upon the wavelength of incident light
7. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from a surface when photons of energy 6 eV fall on it
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is 4 eV. The stopping potential in volts is :

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 10
8. Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies of 1 eV and 2.5 eV are incident one by one on
a metal surface of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of maximum energies of emitted electrons will be
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 : 1
9. The work functions of tungsten and sodium are 5.06 eV and 2.53 eV respectively. If the threshold wavelength
for sodium is 5896 Å, then the threshold wavelength for the tungsten will be
(A) 11792 Å (B) 5896 Å (C) 4312 Å (D) 2948 Å
10. The stopping potential necessary to reduce the photoelectric current to zero–
(A) is directly proportional to wavelength of incident light.
(B) uniformly increases with the wavelength of incident light.
(C) directly proportional to frequency of incident light.
(D) uniformly increases with the frequency of incident light.
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ATOMIC AND NUCLEAR PHYSICS PHYSICS
11. Graph is plotted between maximum kinetic energy (EK) of electron with frequency of
incident photon ( ) in Photo electric effect. The slope of curve will be–
Ek
(A) Charge of electron (B) Work function of metal
(C) Planck’s constant (D) Ratio of Planck constant and charge of electron
12. The maximum energy of the electrons released in photocell is independent of– O
(A) Frequency of incident light. (B) Intensity of incident light.
(C) Nature of cathode surface. (D) None of these.
13 Photoelectric effect takes place in element A. Its work function is 2.5 eV and threshold wavelength is . An other
element B is having work function of 5 eV. Then find out the wavelength that can produce photoelectric effect in B.
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D) 3
14. When a certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength , the stopping potential
for photo electric current is 6 V0. When the same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 2 , the stopping
potential is 2V0. The threshold wavelength of this surface for photoelectric effect is–
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(A) 6 (B) 4 /3 (C) 4 (D) 8
15. A photoelectric cell is illuminated by a point source of light 1 m away. When the source is shifted to 2m then–
(A) each emitted electron carries one quarter of the initial energy
(B) number of electrons emitted is half the initial number
(C) each emitted electron carries half the initial energy
(D) number of electrons emitted is a quarter of the initial number
16. A photo sensitive metallic surface has work function h 0. If photons of energy 2h 0 fall on this surface, the
17.
(A) 2 × 106 m/s
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electrons come out with a maximum velocity of 4 × 10 6 m/s. When the photon energy is increased to
5 h 0, then maximum velocity of photo electrons will be–
(B) 2 × 107 m/s (C) 8 × 105 m/s (D) 8 × 106 m/s
The half–life of the radioactive radon is 3.8 days. The time, at the end of which 1/20th of the radon sample
will remain undecayed, is (given log 10 e = 0.4343) :
(A) 3.8 day (B) 16.5 day (C) 33 day (D) 76 day
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18. In a photoelectric experiment, with light of wavelength , the fastest electron has speed v. If the wavelength
3
is changed to , the speed of the fastest emitted electron will becomes
4
3 4 3 4
(A) v (B) v (C) less than v (D) greater than v
4 3 4 3
19. 1.5 mW of 400 nm light is directed at a photoelectric cell. If 0.10% of the incident photons produce
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photoelectrons, the current in the cell is:

(A) 0.36 A (B) 0.48 A (C) 0.42 mA (D) 0.32 mA
20. Let K1 be the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted by a light of wavelength and K2 corresponding
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1
to 2. If 1 = 2 2, then
K2
(A) 2K 1 = K 2 (B) K 1 = 2K 2 (C) K 1 < (D) K 1 > 2K 2
2
21. In a photoelectric experiment, electrons are ejected from metals X and Y by light of intensity I and frequency
f. The potential difference V required to stop the electrons is measured for various frequencies. If Y has
a greater work function than X; which one of the following graphs best illustrates the expected results?
V V
V V
Y
X
X X
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Y Y Y X
f O f O f O f
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PAGE NO : 230
22. The de Broglie waves are associated with moving particles. These particle may be–
(A) electrons (B) He+, Li 2+ ions (C) Cricket ball (D) All of the above
23. Which of the following statements is wrong ?
(A) De–Broglie waves are probability waves and there is no physical existence of these.
(B) De–Broglie wavelength of a moving particle is inversely proportional to its momentum.
(C) Wave nature is associated with atomic particles only.
(D) In general wave nature of matter is not observed.
24. Two particles have identical charges. If they are accelerated through identical potential differences, then the
ratio of their deBroglie wavelength would be
(A) 1
: 2 = 1 : 1 (B) 1
: 2 = m2 : m1 (C) 1 : 2 = m 2 : m 1 (D) 1
: 2 = m1 : m2
25. Linear momenta of a proton and an electron are equal. Relative to an electron–
(A) Kinetic energy of proton is more (B) De–Broglie wavelength of proton is more.
(C) De–Broglie wavelength of proton is less (D) De–Broglie wavelengths of proton and electron are equal
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26. The wavelength of de–Broglie waves associated with neutrons at room temperature T K is
1.82 1.82 25.15 30.7

(A) Å (B) Å (C) Å (D) Å
T T T T
27. Light coming from a discharge tube filled with hydrogen falls on the cathode of the photoelectric cell. The
work function of the surface of cathode is 4eV. Which one of the following values of the anode voltage (in
volts) with respect to the cathode will likely to make the photo current zero ?
28.
29.
(A) –4
would be :
(A) 60
RI (B) –6
(B) 32 (C) 4
(C) –8
(D) 64
(D) –10
If elements with principal quantum number n > 4 were not allowed in nature, the number of possible elements
If 13.6 eV energy is required to ionize the hydrogen atom, then the energy required to remove an electron
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from n = 2 is–
(A) 10.2 eV (B) 0 eV (C) 3.4 eV (D) 6.8 eV
n = 4
30. The diagram shown the energy levels for an electron in a certain atom. Which n = 3
transition shown represents the emission of a photon with the most energy ?
n = 2
(A) III (B) IV
(C) I (D) II n = 1
I II III IV
31. Which of the following transitions in hydrogen atoms emit photons of highest frequency ?
(A) n = 2 to n = 6 (B) n = 6 to n = 2 (C) n = 2 to n = 1 (D) n = 1 to n = 2
E
32. The wave number of the series limit of Lyman series is–
(A) 1.097 × 10 7 m –1 (B) 2.74 × 106 m –1 (C) 1.22 × 106 m–1 (D) 6.86 × 10 5 m –1
JE
33. An energy of 24.6 eV is required to remove one of the electrons from a neutral helium atom. The energy
(In eV) required to remove both the electrons form a neutral helium atom is
(A) 38.2 (B) 49.2 (C) 51.8 (D) 79.0
34. A photon was absorbed by a hydrogen atom in its ground state, and the electron was prompted to the fifth
orbit. When the excited atom returned to its ground state, visible and other quanta were emitted. In this
process, how many maximum spectral lines could be obtained –
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 10
35. In Bohr's atom the number of de Broglie waves associated with an electron moving in n th permitted orbit is–
(A) n (B) 2n (C) n/2 (D) n2
36. The K X–ray emission line of tungsten occurs at = 0.021 nm. The energy difference between K and L
levels in this atoms is about :
(A) 0.51 MeV (B) 1.2 MeV (C) 59 keV (D) 13.6 eV
PAGE NO : 231
37. Which of the following are the characteristics required for the target to produce X–rays
Atomic number Low High Low High
Melting point High High Low Low
(A) (B) (C) (D)
38. The wavelength of K line for an element of atomic number 43 is . Then the wavelength of K line for an
element of atomic number 29 is :–
(A) (43/29) (B) (42/28) (C) (9/4) (D) (4/9)
4 1
39. The wavelengths of K X–rays of two metals 'A' and 'B' are and respectively, where 'R' is Rydberg
1875R 675R
constant. The number of elements lying between 'A' and 'B' according to their atomic numbers is :
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4
40. On operating an X–ray tube at 1 kV. X–rays of minimum wavelength 6.22 Å are produced. If the tube is
operated at 10 kV, then the minimum wavelength of X–rays produced will be
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(A) 0.622 Å (B) 6.22 Å (C) 3.11 Å (D) 62.2 Å
41. The production of characteristic X–rays is due to–
(A) transfer of momentum in collision of electrons with the target atom
(B) transfer of energy in collision of electrons with the target atom
(C) the transition of electrons in heavy target atoms from high to low energy level
(D) none of these
42. Characteristic X–rays are not obtained in the spectrum of H–atom because–
43.
(A) hydrogen is a gas
(B) hydrogen is very light RI
(C) energy difference in energy levels of hydrogen is much less
(D) energy difference in energy levels of hydrogen is much high
Assuming that 200 MeV of energy is released per fission of 92U235 atom. Find the number of fission per second
required to release 1 kW power :–
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(A) 3.125 × 10 13 (B) 3.125 × 10 14 (C) 3.125 × 10 15 (D) 3.125 × 10 16
44. Per nucleon energy of 3Li 7 and 2He4 nucleus is 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, then in 3Li7 + 1P1 22He4 energy
released is :–
(A) 29.6 MeV (B) 2.4 MeV (C) 8.4 MeV (D) 17.3 MeV
45. The mass of proton is 1.0073 u and that of neutron is 1.0087 u (u = atomic mass unit).
The binding energy of 24He is :– [Given helium nucleus mass 4.0015u]
(A) 0.0305 J (B) 0.0305 erg (C) 28.4 MeV (D) 0.061 u
E
46. The binding energy of deuteron is 2.2 MeV and that of 24He is 28 MeV. If two deuterons are fused to form one
4 then the energy released is :–
2 He
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(A) 23.6 MeV (B) 19.2 MeV (C) 30.2 MeV (D) 25.8 MeV
47. In an –decay the Kinetic energy of –particle is 48 MeV and Q–value of the reaction is 50 MeV. The
mass number of the mother nucleus is :– (Assume that daughter nucleus is in ground state)
(A) 96 (B) 100 (C) 104 (D) None of these
48. When a neutron is disintegrated, it gives :–
(A) one proton, one electron and one anti neutrino (B) one positron, one electron and one neutrino
(C) one proton, one positron and one neutrino (D) one proton, – rays and one neutrino
49. If Nt = Noe – t then number of disintegrated atoms between t1 to t2 ( t2 > t1) will be :–
t2 t1 t1
(A) No [e e ] (B) No [–e t2
e– t1
] (C) No [e e– t2
] (D) None of these
50. The half life of a radioactive element is 30 days, in 90 days the percentage of disintegrated part is :–
(A) 13.5 % (B) 46.5 % (C) 87.5% (D) 90.15%
PAGE NO : 232
51. The half life of a radioactive element is 10 days. If the mass of the specimen reduces to 1/10 th then the
time taken is :–
(A) 100 days (B) 50 days (C) 33 days (D) 16 days
52. In a mean life of a radioactive sample :–
(A) about 1/3 of substance disintegrates (B) about 2/3 of substance disintegrates
(C) about 90% of the substance disintegrates (D) almost all the substance disintegrates
53. Atomic weight of a radioactive element is Mw gm. Radioactivity of m gm. of its mass is :–
(NA = Avogadro number, = decay constant)
NA NA NA
(A) NA (B) M m (C) (D) Mw
w m m
54. The radioactive nuclide of an element X decays to a stable nuclide of element Y. Then, in a given sample of X,
the rate of formation of Y is given by the graph –
NT Rate( g /s)
Rate( g /s)
Rate( g /s)
Rate( g /s)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
time (s) time (s) time (s) time (s)
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E
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B A B D A B B A D D C B A C D D B D B C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A D C C D C D A C A C A D D A C B C D A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
C C A D C A B A C C C B B D
PAGE NO : 233
PHYSICS
ATOMIC AND NUCLEAR PHYSICS- LEVEL 2
1. For a doubly ionised Li–atom
3h
(A) Angular momentum of an electron in 3rd orbit is
2
(B) Energy of electron in 2nd excited state is –13.6 eV
c
(C) Speed of electron in 3rd orbit is , where c is speed of light
137
(D) Kinetic energy of electron is 2nd excited state is half of the magnitude of the potential energy
2. The electron in a hydrogen atom jumps back from an excited state to ground state, by emitting a photon
16
of wavelength = , where R is Rydberg's constant. In place of emitting one photon, the electron could
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0
15R
come back to ground state by
1 1 1 15R
(A) Emitting 3 photons of wavelengths 1
, 2
and 3
such that 16
1 2 3
1 1 15R
(B) Emitting 2 photons of wavelength 1
and 2
such that 16
1 2
3.
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(C) Emitting 2 photons of wavelength
(D) Emitting 3 photons of wavelength

1
1
and
, 2
and
2
such that
3
16
such that
15R
1
+
1
2
=
+ 2+ 3=
The photon radiated from hydrogen corresponding to 2nd line of Lyman series is absorbed by a hydrogen like atom
16
15R
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'X' in 2 nd excited state. As a result the hydrogen like atom 'X' makes a transition to n th orbit. Then:
(A) X = He + , n = 4 (B) X = Li ++ , n = 6 (C) X = He +, n = 6 (D) X = Li ++ , n = 9
4. When a hydrogen atom is excited from ground state to first excited state then :
(A) its kinetic energy increases by 10.2 eV (B) its kinetic energy decreases by 10.2 eV
(C) its potential energy increases by 20.4 eV (D) its angular momentum increases by 1.05 × 10 –34 J–s
Ke 2
5. Suppose the potential energy between electron and proton at a distance r is given by – .
3r 3
Application of Bohr's theory to hydrogen atom in this case shows that
E
(A) energy in the n th orbit is proportional to n 6 (B) energy is proportional to m–3 (m = mass of electron)
(C) energy in the nth orbit is proportional to n –2 (D) energy is proportional to m3 (m = mass of electron)
6. The stopping potential for photo electron emitted from a metal surface of work function 1.7 eV is
JE
10.4V. Select correct choice

(A) The wavelength of light used is 1022 Å
(B) The wavelength of light used is 970.6 Å
(C) The light used is emitted by hydrogen gas sample which de–excites from n=3 to n=1
(D) The light used is emitted by hydrogen gas sample which de–excites from n=4 to n=1
i current
7. The figure shows the results of an experiment involving photoelectric effect. The
graphs A, B, C and D relate to a light beam having different wavelengths. Select A
the correct alternative B
C
(A) Beam B has highest frequency D
(B) Beam C has longest wavelength

(C) Beam A has highest rate of photoelectric emission V
(D) Photoelectrons emitted by B have highest momentum

PAGE NO : 234
8. When photons of energy 4.25 eV strike the surface of a metal A, the ejected photoelectrons have maximum
kinetic energy TA eV and de–Broglie wavelength A. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons liberated
from another metal B by photons of energy 4.70 eV is T B = (T A – 1.5 eV). If the
de–Broglie wavelength of these electrons are related as B=2 A , then
(A) The work function of A is 2.25 eV (B) The work function of B is 4.20 eV
(C) T A = 2.00 eV (D) T B = 2.75 eV
9. In a photoelectric experiment, the collector plate is at 2.0V with respect to the emitter plate made of copper ( =
4.5 eV). The emitter is illuminated by a source of monochromatic light of wavelength 200 nm.
(A) The minimum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons reaching the collector is 0.
(B) The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons reaching the collector is 3.7 eV.
(C) If the polarity of the battery is reversed then answer to part A will be 0
(D) If the polarity of the battery is reversed then answer to part B will be 1.7 eV
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10. Disintegration constant of a radioactive material is
log e 2 1
(A) Its half life equal to (B) Its mean life equals to
(C) At time equal to mean life, 63% of the initial radioactive material is left undecayed
1
(D) After 3–half lives, rd of the initial radioactive material is left undecayed.
3
11.
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A nucleus undergoes a series of decay according to the scheme A
Atomic number and mass numbers of E are 69 and 172
(A) Atomic number of A is 72
(C) Atomic number of D is 69
(B) Mass number of B is 176
(D) Atomic number of C is 69
B C D E
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12. The half life of a radioactive substance is T0. At t=0, the number of active nuclei are N0. Select the correct
alternative.
t
(A) The number of nuclei decayed in time internal 0–t is N 0 e
(B) The number of nuclei decayed in time interval 0–t is N 0 (1–e – t)
(C) The probability that a radioactive nuclei does not decay in interval 0–t is e – t
(D) The probability that a radioactive nuclei does not decay in interval 1–e – t
13. A star initially has 10 40 deuterons. It produces energy via the processes
E
1
H 2 + 1H 2 1H 3 + p and 1 H 2 + 1H 3 2He 4 + n. If the average power radiated by the star is 10 16 W,
the deuteron supply of the star is exhausted in a time of the order of :
(A) 10 6 s (B) 10 8 s (C) 10 12 s (D) 10 16 s
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The mass of the nuclei are as follows :

M(H 2) = 2.014 amu ; M(n) = 1.008 amu ; M(p) = 1.0087 amu ; M(He 4 ) = 4.001 amu.
14. Which of the following is correct for a nuclear reaction?
(A) A typical fission represented by 92 U 235 + 0 n 1 56 Ba 143 + 36 Kr 93 +energy
(B) Heavy water is used as moderator in preference to ordinary water because H may capture neutrons,
while D would not
(C) Cadmium rods increase the reactor power when they go in, decrease when they go outward
(D) Slower neutrons are more effective in causing fission than faster neutrons in case of U 235
15. In photoelectric effect, stopping potential depends on

(A) frequency of the incident light (B) intensity of the incident light by varies source distance
(C) emitter's properties (D) frequency and intensity of the incident light
PAGE NO : 235
16. An electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from second excited state to first excited state and then, from
first excited state to ground state. Let the ratio of wavelength, momentum and energy of photons in the
two cases be x, y and z, then select the wrong answer/(s)
(A) z= 1/x (B) x = 9/4 (C) y = 5/27 (D) z = 5/27
17. An electron is in an excited state in hydrogen–like atom. It has a total energy of –3.4 eV. If the kinetic
energy of the electron is E and its de–Broglie wavelength is , then
(A) E = 6.8 eV, = 6.6 × 10 –10 m (B) E = 3.4 eV, = 6.6 × 10 –10 m
(C) E = 3.4 eV, = 6.6 × 10 –11 m (D) E = 6.8 eV, = 6.6 × 10 –11 m
18. A particular hydrogen like atom has its ground state binding energy 122. 4 eV. It is in ground state. Then
(A) Its atomic number is 3
(B) An electron of 90 eV can excite it
(C) An electron of kinetic energy nearly 91.8 eV can be brought to almost rest by this atom
(D) An electron of kinetic energy 2.6 eV may emerge from the atom when electron of kinetic energy
125 eV collides with this atom
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19. A beam of ultraviolet light of all wavelengths passes through hydrogen gas at room temperature, in the
x–direction. Assume that all photons emitted due to electron transition inside the gas emerge in the
y–direction. Let A and B denote the lights emerging from the gas in the x and y directions respectively.
(A) Some of the incident wavelengths will be absent in A
(B) Only those wavelengths will be present in B which are absent in A
(C) B will contain some visible light
(D) B will contain some infrared light
20.
21.
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If radiations of allowed wavelengths from ultraviolet to infrared are passed through hydrogen gas at room
temperature, absorption lines will be observed in the
(A) Lyman series (B) Balmer series (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
In the hydrogen atom, if the reference level of potential energy is assumed to be zero at the ground state
level. Choose the incorrect statement.
(A) The total energy of the shell increases with increase in the value of n
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(B) The total energy of the shell decrease with increase in the value of n
(C) The difference in total energy of any two shells remains the same
(D) The total energy at the ground state becomes 13.6 eV
22. Choose the correct statement(s) for hydrogen and deuterium atoms (considering the motion of nucleus)
(A) The radius of first Bohr orbit of deuterium is less than that of hydrogen
(B) The speed of electron in first Balmer line of deuterium is more than that of hydrogen
(C) The wavelength of first Balmer line of deuterium is more than that of hydrogen
(D) The angular momentum of electron in the first Bohr orbit of deuterium is more than that of hydrogen
E
23. A neutron collides head–on with a stationary hydrogen atom in ground state. Which of the following statements
are correct (Assume that the hydrogen atom and neutron has same mass)
(A) If kinetic energy of the neutron is less than 20.4 eV collision must be elastic
JE
(B) If kinetic energy of the neutron is less than 20.4 eV collision may be inelastic
(C) Inelastic collision may be take place only when initial kinetic energy of neutron is greater than 20.4 eV
(D) Perfectly inelastic collision can not take place
24. When a nucleus with atomic number Z and mass number A undergoes a radioactive decayed process
(A) both Z and A will decrease, if the process is decay
(B) Z will decrease but A will not change, if the process is decay
(C) Z will decrease but A will not change, if the process is – decay
(D) Z and A will remain unchanged, if the process is decay
25. In a Coolidge tube experiment, the minimum wavelength of the continuous X–ray spectrum is equal to 66.3
pm, then
(A) electrons accelerate through a potential difference of 12.75 kV in the Coolidge tube
(B) electrons accelerate through a potential difference of 18.75 kV in the Coolidge tube
(C) de–Broglie wavelength of the electrons reaching the anticathode is of the order of 10 m
(D) de–Brgolie wavelength of the electrons reaching the anticathode is 0.01 Å
PAGE NO : 236
26. The potential difference applied to an X–ray tube is increase. As a result, in the emitted radiation
(A) the intensity increases (B) the minimum wavelength increases
(C) the intensity decreases (D) the minimum wavelength decreases
27. When the atomic number Z of the nucleus increases
(A) initially the neutron– proton ratio is constant =1
(B) initially neutron–proton ratio increases and later decreases
(C) initially binding energy per nucleon increases and later decreases
(D) the binding energy per nucleon increases when the neutron–proton ratio increases
28. The decay constant of a radio active substance is 0.173 (years) –1. Therefore
(A) Nearly 63% of the radioactive substance will decay in (1/0.173) year
(B) Half life of the radio active substance is (1/0.173) years.
(C) One–fourth of the radioactive substance will be left after nearly 8 years
(D) All the above statements are true
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29. Let nr and nb be respectively the number of photons emitted by a red bulb and a blue bulb of equal power
in a given time
(A) n r = n b (B) n r < n b (C) n r > n b (D) Data insufficient
30. 10–3W of 5000 Å light is directed on a photoelectric cell. If the current in the cell is 0.16 , the percentage
of incident photons which produce photoelectrons, is
(A) 0.4% (B) .04% (C) 20% (D) 10%
31. Two electrons are moving with the same speed v. One electron enters a region of uniform electric field
32.
(A) 1 = 2 RI
while the other enters a region of uniform magnetic field, then after sometime if the de–Broglie wavelengths
of the two are 1 and 2, then
(B) 1 > 2 (C) 2 > 1 (D) None of these
An electron with initial kinetic energy of 100 eV is accelerated through a potential difference of 50 V. Now
the de–Broglie wavelength of electron becomes
(A) 1Å (B) 1.5 Å (C) 3Å (D) 12.27 Å
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33. When a photon of light collides with a metal surface, number of electrons, (if any) coming out is
(A) only one (B) only two (C) infinite (D) depends upon factors
34. Two radioactive material A1 and A2 have decay constants of 10 0 and 0. If initially they have same number
of nuclei, the ratio of number of their undecayed nuclei will be (1/e) after a time
1 1 1
(A) (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 1
0 0 0
35. Cut off potential for a metal in photoelectric effect for light of wavelength 1, 2 and 3 is found to be V1,
E
V 2 and V 3 volts if V 1, V 2 and V 3 are in Arithmetic Progression and 1, 2 and 3 will be
(A) Arithmetic Progression (B) Geometric progression (C) Harmonic Progression (D) None
36. Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a cathode C, on a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of
JE
the emitted photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons of energy 6 eV are incident on C, no photoelectrons
will reach the anode A if the stopping potential of A relative to C is
(A) 3 V (B) – 3V (C) –1 V (D) 4 V
37. de–Broglie wavelength of an electron in the n th Bohr orbit is n
and the angular momentum is J n, then
1
(A) J n n (B) n
Jn (C) n J 2n (D) None of these
38. In Hydrogen and Hydrogen like atoms, the ratio of difference of energies E 2n – E n and E 2n E n varies with
its atomic number z and n as-
(A) z 2 / n2 (B) z 4 / n 4 (C) z /n (D) (n 2/z 2)
39. In a hydrogen atom, the electron is in nth excited state. It may come down to second excited state by emitting
ten different wavelengths. What is the value of n ?
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 5
PAGE NO : 237
40. An electron in hydrogen atom after absorbing energy photons can jump between energy states n 1 and n 2
(n2 > n1). Then it may return to ground state after emitting six difference wavelengths in emission spectrum.
The energy of emitted photons is either equal to, less than or greater than the absorbed photons. Then
n 1 and n 2 are :–
(A) n 2 = 4, n 1 =3 (B) n 2 =5, n 1 =3 (C) n 2 = 4, n 1=2 (D) n 2 =4, n 1 =1
41. The electron in a hydrogen atom makes transition from M shell to L. The ratio of magnitudes of initial to
final centripetal acceleration of the electron is :–
(A) 9:4 (B) 81:16 (C) 4:9 (D) 16:81
42. The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition n 1 n 2 where n 1 and n 2 are the principal quantum
numbers of the two states. Assume the Bohr model to be valid. The frequency of orbital motion of the electron
in the initial state is 1/27 of that in the final state. The possible values of n 1 and n 2 are
(A) n 1 = 4, n 2 =2 (B) n 1 =3, n 2 =1 (C) n 1 = 8, n 2=1 (D) n 1 =6, n 2 =3
43. Monochromatic radiation of wavelength is incident on a hydrogen sample containing in ground state. Hydrogen
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atoms absorb the light and subsequently emit radiations of ten different wavelengths. The value of is
(A) 95 nm (B) 103 nm (C) 273 nm (D) 88 nm
44. When a hydrogen atom, initially at rest emits a photon resulting in transition n=5 n=1, its recoil speed
is about
(A) 10 –4 m/s (B) 2 × 10 –2 m/s (C) 4.2 m/s (D) 3.8 × 10 –2 m/s
45. An electron collides with a fixed hydrogen atom in its ground state. Hydrogen atom gets excited and the colliding
electron loses all its kinetic energy. Consequently the hydrogen atom may emit a photon corresponding to the
46.
47.
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largest wavelength of the Balmer series. The min. K.E. of colliding electron will be :–
(A) 10.2 eV (B) 1.9 eV (C) 12.1 eV (D) 13.6 eV
In an atom, two electrons move around the nucleus in circular orbits of radii R and 4R. The ratio of the
time taken by them to complete one revolution is (neglect electric interaction) :–
(A) 1:4 (B) 4:1 (C) 1:8 (D) 8:1
The electron in hydrogen atom in a sample is in nth excited state, then the number of different spectrum
SP
lines obtained in its emission spectrum will be
(A) 1+2+3+......+(n–1) (B) 1+2+3+......+ (n)
(C) 1+2+3+......+(n+1) (D) 1× 2 × 3 ×......× (n–1)
48. The magnitude of angular momentum, orbit radius and frequency of revolution of electron in hydrogen atom
corresponding to quantum number n are L, r and f respectively. Then according to Bohr's theory of hydrogen
atom
(A) fr 2L is constant for all orbits (B) frL is constant for all orbits
(C) f 2rL is constant for all orbits (D) frL 2 is constant for all orbits
E
49. In a characteristic X–ray spectra of some atom superimposed on continuous X–ray spectra
(A) P represents K line Q

Relative intensity
P
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(B) Q represents K line
(C) Q and P represents K and K lines respectively
(D) Relative positions of K and K depends on the particular atom
50. The binding energies of nuclei X and Y are E1 and E 2 respectively. Two atoms of X fuse to give one atom
of Y and an energy Q is released. Then
(A) Q=2E 1 – E 2 (B) Q=E 2 –2E 1 (C) Q=2E 1 + E 2 (D) Q=2E 2 + E 1
51. A radioactive material of half–life T was produced in a nuclear reactor at different instants. The quantity
produced second time was twice of that produced first time. If now their present activities are A1 and A 2
respectively then their age difference equals
T A1 A1 T A2 A2
(A) n2 n A (B) T n A (C) n2 n 2A (D) T n 2 A
2 2 1 1
PAGE NO : 238
52. Half life for certain radioactive element is 5 min. Four nuclei of that element are observed at a certain instant
of time. After five minutes
Assertion (A) : It can be definitely said that two nuclei will be left undecayed
Reasoning (R) : After half life i.e. 5 minutes, half of total nuclei will disintegrate. So only two nuclei will
be left undecayed. Then
(A) A is correct & R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both are correct. But R is not correct explanation of A
(C) A is incorrect & R is correct
(D) Both are incorrect
53. The radioactivity of a sample is R 1 at time T 1 and R 2 at time T 2. If the half life of the specimen is T then
number of atoms that have disintegrated in time (T 2–T 1) is proportional to
(A) (R 1T 1–R 2T 2) (B) (R 1–R 2)T (C) (R 1–R 2)/T (D) (R 1–R 2) (T 1–T 2)
54. The decay constant of the end product of a radioactive series is
(A) zero (B) infinite (C) finite (non zero) (D) depends on the end product
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55. At time t=0, N 1 nuclei of decay constant 1
& N 2 nuclei of decay constant 2
are mixed. The decay rate
of the mixture is
N1 t
(A) N 1 N 2 e 1 2 t
(B) + e 1 2
(C) N 1 1e 1t
N2 e 2t
(D) N 1 1N 2 e 1 2 t
N2 2 2
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SP
E
JE
Q ue. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A n s . ABCD AB D BCD AB AC ABCD ABC B AB BC BC C ABD AC B B ACD ACD A
Q ue. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans . B A AC ABD B AD AC AC C B D A A B C B A D A C
Q ue. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
Ans . D B A C C C B B C B C D B A C
PAGE NO : 239
PHYSICS
SEMICONDUCTORS & COMMUNICATION LEVEL-I

SEMI CONDUCTOR - ELECTRONICS 11. p-n junction is called as forward biased when
1. In semiconductor the valence band at 0 K is (1) positive terminal of the battery is connected to
(1) completely filled (2) completely empty
the p-type semiconductor and negative terminal
(3) partially filled (4) nothing can be said
is connected to the n-type semiconductor
2. Cu and Ge are cooled to 70 K then :–
(2) positive terminal of battery is connected to the
(1) the resistance of Cu will decrease and that of
Ge will decrease n-type semiconductor and negative terminal is
(2) the resistance of Cu will decrease and that of connected to the p-type semiconductor
Ge will increase (3) positive terminal of battery is connected to either
(3) the resistance of both Cu and Ge decrease p or n-type of semiconductor
(4) the resistance of both Cu and Ge increase (4) a mechanical force is applied in forward direction
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3. If number of holes and free electrons in 12. When a p-n junction is reversed biased, then the
semiconductor are ne and ne respectively then :– current through the junction is mainly due to :–
(1) nP > ne in intrinsic semiconductor
(1) diffusion of charge
(2) nP = ne in extrinsic semiconductor
(2) nature of the material
(3) nP = ne in intrinsic semiconductor
(3) drift of the charges
(4) ne > np in intrinsic semiconductor
4. The resistivity of a semiconductor depends upon its (4) both drift and diffusion of the charges
5.
6.
(1) size
(3) length
RI (2) type of atoms
(4) size and type of atom
The forbidden energy gap in Ge is :–
(1) 0.72 eV
(3) 7.2 eV
(2) 0.072 eV
(4) 0.0072 eV
The energy gap in a semiconductor is of the order
13. The thinnest part of a transistor is :–
(1) emitter
(2) base
(3) collector
(4) according to transistor parameters none of these
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14. In transistor symbols, the arrows shows the direction
of :–
of :–
(1) 1 eV (2) 5 eV (3) 10 eV (4) 15 eV
(1) current in the emitter
7. P type semi conductor is :–
(1) positively charged (2) electron current in the emitter
(2) made by mixing of impurity of boron in (3) holes current in the emitter
germanium (4) electron current in the emitter
(3) made by mixing of impurity of phosphorus in 15. Transistor can be used as :–
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silicon. (1) amplifier (2) modulator

(4) made by mixing of impurity of carbon in silicon (3) oscillator (4) all of the above
8. The depletion region of a p-n junction contains :– 16. A device whose one end is connected to -ve terminal
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(1) electrons only

and the other is connected to +ve terminal, if both
(2) electrons and holes both
ends are interchanged with supply then current is
(3) holes only
not flowing then device will be :–
(4) neither electrons nor holes
9. The p-n junction is a :– (1) p-n junction (2) transistor
(1) ohmic resistance (2) non ohmic resistance (3) zener diode (4) triode
(3) positive resistance (4) nagative resistance 17. A common Emitter circuit is used as an amplifier,
1 0 . When the value of current increases in p-n junction, whose current gain is 50. If input resistance is 1k
then contact potential and input voltage is 5 volt then output current will
(1) decreases be :–
(2) increases (1) 250 mA (2) 30 mA
(3) remains unchanged
(3) 50 mA (4) 100 mA
(4) depends on temperature
PAGE NO : 240
SEMICONDUCTORS & COMMUNICATION PHYSICS
18. In which case is the junction diode is not reverse 25. For pure "Ge" semiconductor quantity of "e" and
bias :– hole is 1019 e/m3 if we doped donor impurity in it
with density 1023 e/m3 then quantity of hole (e/m3)
+5V +10V in semiconductor is : -
(1) (1) 10 15 (2) 10 19 (3) 10 23 (4) 10 27
26. In given diagram which p-n junction is reverse biased
–10V –15V
(2) 5V
–12V
0V 1V (1) (2)
(3) –5V
–2V 0V
(4) 10V
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(3) (4) 5V
19. For transistor current relation is :–
–10V
27. In a p-n junction the depletion layer of thickness

(1) (2)
1 1 10–6 m has potential across it is 0.1 V. The electric
field is (V/m) :–
1 1 (1) 10 7 (2) 10 –6 (3) 10 5 (4) 10 –5
(3) (4)
20.
21.
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In a full wave rectifier if input freq. is 50 Hz then
output ripple frequency will be :–
(1) 50 Hz (2) 100 Hz (3) 200 Hz (4) 25 Hz
The ratio of resistance for forward to reverse bias
of P–N junction diode is :–
28. A Ge specimen is doped with Al. The concentration
of acceptor atoms is ~ 1021 atoms/m3. Given that
the intrinsic concentration of electron-hole pairs is
~ 1019/m3, the concentration of electrons in the
specimen is :–
(1) 10 17/m 3 (2) 10 15/m 3
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4 3
(3) 10 /m (4) 10 2/m 3
(1) 102 : 1 (2) 10–2 : 1 (3) 1 : 10–4 (4) 1 : 104 29. Assuming that the junction diode is ideal the current
22. If the forward voltage in a diode is increased, the through the diode is :–
width of the depletion region :– 3V 100 1V
(1) decreases (2) increases
(1) 200 mA (2) 20 mA
(3) fluctuates (4) does not change
23. In a n-p-n transistor circuit, the collector current is (3) 2 mA (4) zero
10 mA. If 90% of the electrons emitted reach the 30. When two semiconductor of p and n type are
E
collector, the emitter current (IE) and base current brought in to contact, they form a p-n junction which

(IB) are given by acts like a :–
(1) IE = 1mA; IB = 11 mA (1) rectifier (2) amplifier
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(2) IE = 11 mA ; IB = 1 mA (3) oscillator (4) conductor

(3) IE = –1 mA; IB = 9 mA 31. In a forward biased p-n junction diode, the potential
(4) IE = 9 mA ; IB = –1 mA barrier in the depletion region is of the form :–
24. An n-p-n transistor conducts when :– V V

(1) both collector and emitter are positive with
respect to the base (1) (2)
(2) collector is positive and emitter is negative with p n p n
respect to the base
(3) collector is positive and emitter is at same V V
potential as the base
(4) both collector and emitter are negative with (3) (4)
respect to the base p n p n
PAGE NO : 241
SEMICONDUCTORS & COMMUNICATION
PHYSICS
32. In CB configuration of transistor ac current gain is 40. The symbol represents :–
iC A
0.98 determine current gain of CE Y
iE Y"
configuration :– B
(1) 49 (2) 98 (3) 4.9 (4) 24.5 (1) NAND gate (2) OR gate
IC (3) AND gate (4) NOR gate
33. For given transistor = 0.96 current gain of
IE 41. The truth table shown below is for which of the
CE is :– following gate :–
A B Y
(1) 6 (2) 12 (3) 24 (4) 48 (1) AND 1 1 0
34. A transistor has an = 0.95 it has change in emitter (2) NAND 1 0 0
current of 100 milli-ampere, then the change in 0 1 0
(3) XOR
collector current is :– 0 0 1
(4) NOR
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(1) 95 mA (2) 99.05 mA
42. Which of the following gates will have an output
(3) 0.95 mA (4) 100 mA
of 1 :–
35. For a transistor Ie = 25 mA and Ib = 1 mA. The
value of current gain will be :– 1 0
(a) (b)
24 25 26 1 1
25
(1) (2) (3) (4)
24 25 26 25
0 0
LOGIC GATES
36.
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In Boolean algebra Y = A + B implies that
(1) output Y exists when both input A and B exist
(2) output Y exists when either input A exists or 43.
(c)
1
Y"
(1) (a) and (b)

(3) (c) and (d)
(d)
1
Y"
(2) (b) and (c)

(4) (a) and (d)
Following circuit performs the logic function of :–
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input B exists or both inputs A and B exist
A
(3) output Y exists when either input A exists or
Y
input B exists but not when both inputs A and B B
exist.
(4) output Y exists when both inputs A and B exist (1) AND gate (2) NAND gate
but not when either input A or B exists. (3) OR gate (4) XOR gate
37. Which of the following gate corresponds to the 44. How many minimum NAND gates are required to
truth table given below :– obtain NOR gate :–
E
(1) NAND A B Y (1)3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 4

0 0 1 45. The logic behind 'NOR' gate is that it gives
(2) AND
0 1 1
(3) XOR (1) high output when both inputs are high
1 0 1
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(4) OR 1 1 0 (2) high output when both inputs are low

38. In the Boolean algebra A.B equals :– (3) low output when both inputs are low
(4) none of these
(1) A + B (2) A B (3) A . B (4) A.B
46. Logic gates are the building blocks of a :–
39. Given below are symbols for some logic gates :–
(1) abacus system (2) analog system
(a) Y" (b) (3) digital system (4) none of these
47. Given truth table is related with :–
(c) (d) (1) NOT Gate A B Y
(2) OR Gate 1 1 0
The XOR gate and NOR gate respectively are :– 0 1 1
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) XOR Gate
1 0 1
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d) (4) NAND Gate 0 0 1
PAGE NO : 242
48. The truth table given above is for which of the 58. Which of the following pairs are universal gates
following gates :– (1) NAND, NOT (2) NAND, AND

(1) NOR gate A B Y (3) NOR, OR (4) NAND, NOR
(2) AND gate 0 0 0
0 1 1 59. The output of a two input NOR gate is in state 1
(3) OR gate when :–
1 0 1
(4) NAND gate 1 1 1 (1) either input terminals is at 0 state
49. Which logic gate is represented by the following
(2) either input terminals is at 1 state
combination of logic gate :-
(3) both input terminals are at 0 state
(1) OR A
(4) both input terminals are at 1 state
(2) NAND Y
(3) AND B
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(4) NOR PRINCIPLES OF COMMUNICATION SYSTEM
50. The truth table given below belongs for which gates 60. Modulation is not used to :-
(1) OR gate A B Y
(1) Reduce the bandwidth used
(2) XOR gate
0 0 0
0 1 1 (2) Separate the transmissions of different users
(3) AND gate 1 0 1
51.
52.
(4) NAND gate
(1) OR gate

RI 1 1 0
Out of the following, universal gate is :–
(1) NOT (2) OR (3) AND
The truth table given below is for :–
A B Y
(4) NAND
61.
(3) Ensure that intelligence may be transmitted to
long distances
(4) Allow the use of practical antennas
AM is used for broadcasting because :-
(1) It is more noise immune than other modulation

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(2) AND gate 0 0 1
systems
(3) XNOR gate 0 1 0
1 0 0 (2) It requires less transmitting power compared
(4) XOR gate
1 1 1 with other systems
(4) AND
53. The output of gate is low when at least one of its (3) Its use avoids transmitter complexity
input is high. This is true for :– (4) No other modulation system can provide the
(1) NOR (2) OR (3) AND (4) NAND necessary bandwidth faithful transmission
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54. An XOR gate produces an output only when its two
62. Frequencies in the UHF range normally propagate
inputs are :– by means of :-
(1) same (2) different (3) low (4) high
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(1) Ground waves (2) Sky waves

55. In Boolean algebra, which of the following is not
equal to zero :– (3) Surface waves (4) Space waves
63. Digital signals (i) do not provide a continuous set

(1) A.A (2) A.0 (3) A A (4) A.0
of values, (ii) represent values as discrete steps,
56. Digital circuits can be made by repetitive use of :– (iii) can utilize only binary system, and (iv) can utilize
(1) OR gate (2) AND gate decimal as well as binary system. Whih of the
(3) NOT gate (4) NAND gate following options is True :
57. When all the inputs of a NAND gate are con- (1) Only (i) and (ii) (2) Only (ii) and (iii)
nected together, the resulting circuit is :–
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii), but not (iv)
(1) a NOT gate (2) an AND gate
(3) an OR gate (4) a NOR gate (4) All the above (i) to (iv)
PAGE NO : 243
64. An 'antenna' is :- 72. The T.V. transmission tower in Delhi has a height
(1) Inductive of 240 m. the distance up to which the broadcast
(2) Capacitative can be received, (taking the radius of earth to be
6.4 × 10 6 m) is :-
(3) Resistive above its resonance frequency
(4) None of the above
(1) 100 km (2) 60 km
65. Long distance short-wave radio broad-casting uses
:- (3) 55 km (4) 50 km
(1) Ground wave (2) Ionospheric wave
(3) Direct wave (4) Sky wave 73. Radio waves of constant amplitude can be gener-
66. The power in a two-wire transmission line travels :- ated with :-
(1) Inside the conductors

(1) Filter (2) Rectifier
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(2) Outside the conductors
(3) None of the above (3) FET (4) Oscillator
(4) Both inside and outside the conductors 74. The maximum distance upto which TV transmis-
67. For television broadcasting, the frequency employed sion from a TV tower of height h can be received
is normally :- is proportional to :-
(1) 30 – 300 M Hz (2) 30 – 300 G Hz
68.
(3) 30 – 300 K Hz
RI (4) 30 – 300 Hz
The sound waves after being converted into elec-

trical waves are not transmitted as such because
(1) They travel with the speed of sound

75.
(1) h 1/2 (2) h (3) h 3/2 (4) h 2
In short wave communication waves of which of the

following frequencies will be reflected back by the
ionospheric layer having electron density 10 11 per
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m –3 ?
(2) The frequency is not constnat
(3) They are heavily absorbed by the atmosphere (1) 2 MHz (2) 10 MHz (3) 12 MHz (4) 18 MHz
(4) The height of antenna has to be increased several 76. For skywave propagation of a 10 MHz signal, what
times
should be the minimum electron density in
69. The process of superimposing signal frequency (i.e. audio ionosphere –
wave) on the carrier wave is known as
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(1) ~ 1·2 × 10 12 m –3 (2) ~ 10 6 m –3

(1) Transmission (2) Reception
(3) Modulation (4) Detection (3) ~ 10 14 m –3 (4) ~ 10 22 m –3

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70. In an amplitude modulated wave for audio-fre- 77. Audio signal cannot be transmitted because :-
quency of 500 cycles/second, the appropriate
carrier frequency will be :- (1) The signal has more noise
(1) 50 cycles/sec. (2) 100 cycles/sec.

(2) The signal connot be amplified for distance
(3) 500 cycles/sec (4) 50,000 cycles/sec. communication
71 . If there were no atmosphere, the average temperature

(3) The transmitting antenna length is very small
on the surface of earth would be:-
to design
(1) Lower (2) Higher
(4) The transmitting antenna length is very large
(3) Same as now (4) 0°C
and impracticable
PAGE NO : 244
78. In frequency modulation :- 80. Sound produced by a tuning fork is a sort of :-
(1) The amplitude of career wave varies according (1) digital signal (2) analog signal
to the frequency of message signal
(3) both (1) and (2) (4) neither (1) nor (2)
(2) The frequency of career wave varies according
to the amplitude of message signal 81. The space waves which are affected seriously by
atmospheric conditions are :-

(3) The frequency of career wave varies according
to the frequency of message signal (1) MF (2) HUF (3) VHF (4) UHF
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(4) The amplitude of career wave varies according
82. Which of the following is not transducer ?
to the amplitude of message signal
(1) Loudspeaker (2) Amplifier

79. Range of frequencies allotted for commercial FM
radio broadcast is :- (3) Microphone (4) All the these
(1) 88 to 108 MHz
(2) 88 to 108 kHz
(3) 8 to 88 MHz

RI 83. An antenna is of height 500 m. What will be its
range (Radius of the earth is 6400 km) ?
(1) 800 km (2) 100 km

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(4) 88 to 108 GHz (3) 50 km (4) 80 km
E
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ANSWER-KEY LEVEL1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 2 3 2 1 1 2 4 2 3 1 3 2 1 4 1 1 2 2 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 1 2 2,4 1 2 3 1 2 1 4 1 3 1 2 2 1 2 2 1
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 3 1 4 2 3 4 3 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 4 1 4 3 1
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 3 4 3 1 2 2 1 4 3 4 1 3 4 1 1 1 4 2 1 2
Que. 81 82 83
Ans. 4 2 4
PAGE NO : 245
PHYSICS
SEMICONDUCTORS & COMMUNICATION LEVEL-2

SEMI CONDUCTOR - ELECTRONICS 8. Zener dode is used for :–
1. Find VAB :– (1) rectification
(2) stabilisation
(3) amplification
10R (4) producing oscillations in an oscillator
30V
A 9. Consider an n–p–n transistor amplifier in common–
10R 10R emitter configuration. The current gain of the
B transistor is 100. If the collector current changes
by 1 mA, what will be the change in emitter current
(1) 10V (2) 20V (3) 30V (4) none (1) 1·1 mA (2) 1·01 mA
2. The current flowing through the zener diode in figure
(3) 0·01 mA (4) 10 mA
is :–
10. A transistor is used in the common emitter mode as
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an amplifier then :–
500 (A) the base emitter junction is forward baised
I1 (B) the base emitter junction is reverse baised
5V 1k
10V
(C) the input signal is connected in series with the
voltage applied to bias the base emitter junction
(D) the input signal is connected in series with the
(1) 20 mA (2) 25 mA (3) 15 mA (4) 5 mA voltage applied to bias the base collector
junction
3.
I
20
20
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Current in the circuit will be :–
30
11.
(1) A, B (2) A, D (3) A, C (4) only C
An electric field is applied to a semiconductor. Let
the number of charge carriers density is 'n' and the
average drift speed be v. If the temperature is
increased :–
(1) both n and v will increase
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5V
(2) n will increase but v will decrease
(3) v will increase but n will decrease
5 5 5 5 (4) both n and v will decrease
(1) (2) (3) (4) 12. Two indentical P-N Jn. may be connected in series
40 50 10 20
with a battery in three ways (fig below). the potential
4. Electrical conductivites of Ge and Na are 1, and
respectively. If these substances are heated, then drops across the two P-N Jn. are equal in :–
2
(1) 1 decreases and 2 increases
(2) both 1 and 2 decreases
E
+ – + – + –
(3) both 1 and 2 increases
(4) 1 increases and 2 decreases
5. What is the voltage gain in a common emitter (1) circuit 1 and 2 (2) circuit 2 and 3
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amplifier where input resistance is 3 and load (3) circuit 3 and 1 (4) circuit 1 only
resistance is 24 :– ( = 6)? 13. In an n-p-n transistor circuit, the collectior current
(1) 2.2 (2) 1.2 (3) 4.8 (4) 48 is 20 mA. If 90% of electron emitted reach the
6. The current of transistor in common emitter mode collector :–
is 49. The change in collector current and emitter (1) the emitter current will be 18 mA
current corresponding to the change in the base (2) emitter current will be 22 mA
current by 5.0 A, will be:– (3) base current will be 2 mA
(1) 245 A, 250 A (3) 240 A, 235 A (4) base current will be 1 mA
(3) 260 A, 255 A (4) none of these 14. In sample of pure silicon 1013 atom/cm3 is mixed
7. In the CB mode of a transistor, when the collector of phosphorus. If all doner atoms are active then
voltage is changed by 0.5 volt. The collector current what will be resistivity at 200C if mobility of electron
changes by 0.05 mA. the output resistance will be:– is 1200 cm2/Volt sec :–
(1) 10 k (2) 20 k
(1) 0.5209 ohm cm (2) 5.209 ohm cm
(3) 5 k (4) 2.5 k
(3) 52.09 ohm cm (4) 520-9 ohm cm
PAGE NO : 246
2
15. Mobility of electrons in N-type Ge is 5000 cm / 21. In the given transistor circuit, the base current is 35
volt sec and conductivity 5 mho/cm. If effect of A. The value of Rb is VBE is assumed to negligible :–
holes is negligible then impurity concentration will
be :– (1) 100 k E C
(1) 6.25 × 10 15/cm 3 (2) 9.25 × 10 14/cm 3 (2) 300 k B RL
13 3
(3) 6 × 10 /cm (4) 9 × 10 13/cm 3
16. A two Volts battery forward biases a diode however (3) 200 k Rb
7V
there is a drop of 0.5 V across the diode which is (4) 400 k
independent of current. Also a current greater then
10 mA produces large joule loss and damages 22. In the circuit shown here the transistor used has
diode. If diode is to be operated at 5mA, the series current gain = 100. What should be the base
resistance to be put is :– resistor Rb so that VCE = 5V, VBE = 0 :–
2V
(1) 1 × 103
1k
(2) 500 Rb
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C 10V
(3) 200 × 103 B
VCE
(4) 2 × 103 E
(1) 3k (2) 300 k (3) 300 (4) 200 k 23. Choose the only false statement from the following
17. Forbidden energy gap of Ge is 0.75 ev, maximum (1) the resistivity of a semiconductor increases with
wave length of incident radiation of photon for increase in temperature
producing electron - hole pair in germanium
18.
semiconductor is :–
(1) 4200 Å
(3) 4700 Å
output is taken

B
RI (2) 16500 Å
(4) 4000 Å
In the figure, input is applied across A and C and
(2) substances with energy gap of the order of 10eV
are insulators
(3) in conductors the valence and conduction bands

may over lap
(4) the conductivity of a semiconductor increases

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with increases in temperature
24. What will be conductance of pure silicon crystal at

A C 300K temperature. If electron hole pairs per cm3
is 1.072 × 1010 at this temperature, n = 1350 cm2/volt
sec and P = 480 cm2/volt sec :–
D
(1) 3.14 × 10 -6 mho/cm
across B and D, then the output is :
(1) zero (2) same as input (2) 3 × 106 mho/cm
E
(3) full wave rectified (4) half wave rectified

19. An oscillator is nothing but an amplifier with (3) 10 -6 mho/cm
(1) positive feedback (2) high gain
(4) 106 mho/cm
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(3) no feed back (4) negative feed back

20. In the following common emitter configuration an LOGIC GATES
'npn' transistor with current gain = 100 is used
25. The output of the given logic gate is 1 when inputs
the output voltage of amplifier will be :–
A, B and C are such that :–
A Y
B Y"
C
10k
Vout
(1) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1
1mV 1k
(2) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
(3) A = B = C = 0
(1) 10 mV (2) 0.1 V (3) 1.0 V (4) 10 V
(4) A = B = C = 1
PAGE NO : 247
26. The arrangement shown in figure performs the logic 33. The diagram of a logic circuit is given below. The
function of a/an ........... gate :– output of the circuit is represented by :–
A (1) W. (X + Y) W
Y
(2) X. (X.Y) Y Output
B
(1) OR (2) AND (3) W + (X + Y) W
X
(2) NAND (3) NOT (4) W + (X.Y)
27. You are given two circuits as shown in following
34. The following configuration of gates is equivalent
figure. The logic operation carried out by the two to :–
circuit are respectively :– A
(1) NAND B
A
(2) OR Y
Y
B (3) XOR
A (4) NOR
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35. To get an output 1, the input ABC should be :–
Y
(1) 101 A
B (2) 100 B
C
(1) AND, OR (2) OR, AND (3) 110
(3) NAND, OR (4) NOR, AND (4) 010
28. Which of the following Boolean expression is not
36. The circuit-shown here is logically equivalent to :–
correct :–
29.
(1) A.B = A + B
(3) A.B. . A.B.

RI (2) A
AB (4) 1 1
B = A . B
Which of the following relation is valid in Boolean

algebra :– 37.
(1) OR gate
(2) AND gate

(3) NOT gate
(4) NAND gate
A
Which of the following will have an ouput of 1 :–

Y
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(1) A A 0 (2) A + A = 2A 1 0
(a) (b)
(3) A A 1 (4) A A A 1 1
30. Given below are four logic symbols. Those for
OR, NOR and NAND gates are respectively :– 0
0
Y
(c) Y" (d)
A A
Y 1 0
Y
(a) (b) Y" (c)
B B (1) a (2) c (3) b (4) d
E
A 38. The logic symbols shown here are logically

A
Y Y equivalent to :–
(d) Y"
B
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B
A Y A Y
(1) a, d, c (2) d, a, b (3) a, c, d (4) d, b, a B B
(a) (b)
31. The output Y of the combination of gates shown is
equal to :– (1) 'a' AND and 'b' OR gate
(1) A A Y
(2) 'a' NOR and 'b' NAND gate
(2) A AND (3) 'a' OR and 'b' AND gate
B
(3) A + B OR (4) 'a' NAND and 'b' NOR gate
(4) AB
39. The combination of the gates shown will produce
32. Which of the following relations is valid for Boolean
algebra :– (1) OR gate A
(1) A + A = A (2) A + 1 = 1 (2) AND gate
Y
(3) A. A = 0 (4) All (3) NOR gate
B
(4) NAND gate
PAGE NO : 248
40. The combination of the gates shown will produce 43. The combination of the gates shown represents :–
(1) OR gate
A
(2) AND gate (1) AND gate A
Y
(3) NOR gate (2) OR gate
B
(4) NAND B
41. Which of the following represents correctly the (3) NAND gate
truth table of configuration of gates shown here
(4) NOR gate
A
44. Which of the following relations is valid for Boolean
Y
algebra :–
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B
(1) A (B B) A
(2) A + AB = A
A B Y A B Y
0 0 0 0 0 1
(3) A + 0 = A
0 1 1 0 1 0
(1) (2)
1 0 1 1 0 0
(3)
1
A
0
0
1
1
B
0
1
0
1
Y
0
1
1
RI (4)
1
A
0
0
1
1
B
0
1
0
1
Y
1
1
1
45.
(4) all
In the following circuit, the output Y for all

possible inputs A and B is expressed by the truth
table :
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1 1 0 1 1 0
A
Y
42. The truth table for the following combination of gates B
is :–
A Y
E
B A B Y A B Y
0 0 1 0 0 1
A B Y A B Y 0 1 1 0 1 0
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(1) (2)
0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 0
0 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0
(a) (b)
1 0 1 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
A B Y A B Y A B Y A B Y
0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 0
(c) (d) (3) (4)
1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) a (2) b
(3) c (4) d
PAGE NO : 249
46. The real time variation of input signals A and B are 48. The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with
as shown below. If the inputs are fed into NAND
two inputs A and B and output C. The coltage
gate, then select the output signal from the
following :- waveforms of A, B and C are as shown in second
figure given below :-
A
A
Y I
B B
A t
A I
Logic gate CB t
circuit I
B (i) C t
Y Y (ii)
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(1) (2)
t(s) t(s) The iogic circuit gate is :
0 2 4 6 8 0 2 4 6 8
(1) OR gate

Y Y
(2) AND gate
(3) (4)
47.
0 2 4 6 8 RI t(s)
0 2 4 6 8
The time variations of signals are given as in A, B
and C. Point out the true statement from the
following :-
t(s)
49.
(3) NAND gate
(4) NOR gate
Select the outputs Y of the combination of gates

SP
e
e shown below for inputs A = 1, B = 0 ; A = 1,
B = 1 and A = 0, B = 0 respectively :-
1.0
1.0
t
0 t
0 B
A
e A
Y
B
E
1.0
t
0 C
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(1) A, B and C are analogue signals (1) (0 1 1) (2) (0 0 1)
(2) A and C are analogue, but B is a digital signal

(3) (1 0 1) (4) (1 1 1)
(3) A and C are digital, but B is analogue signal
(4) A, B and C are digital signal (5) (1 0 0)
ANSWER-KEY LEVEL-2
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 4 2 4 4 1 1 2 2 3 2 2 2,3 4 1 3 2 3 1 3
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 3 1 1 4 1 1 4 3 3 1 4 4 3 1 1 2 4 2 3
Que . 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49
Ans. 3 1 1 4 3 2 2 2 5
PAGE NO : 250
PHYSICS
TOPIC: DIFFRACTION, POLARIZATION,
OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS, SOLID STATE, PHYSICS, COMMUNICATION & EM WAVES
SECTION–I (Single Choice Questions)

This section contains 30 Multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) for its answer, out which ONLY ONE is correct.
(+4, –1)
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1. A man can see the object between 15 cm and 30 cm. He uses the lens to see the far objects. Then due
to the lens used, the near point will be at
10 100
(1) cm (2) 30 cm (3) 15 cm (4) cm
3 3
2. A presbyopic patient has near point as 30 cm and far point as 40 cm. The dioptric power for the
3.
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corrective lens for seeing distant objects is
(1) 40 D (2) 4 D (3) – 2.5 D (4) 0.25 D
If the focal length of objective and eye lens are 1.2 cm and 3 cm respectively and the object is put
1.25 cm away from the objective lens and the final image is formed at infinity. The magnifying
power of the microscope is
(1) 150 (2) 200 (3) 250 (4) 400
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4. The focal length of objective and eye lens of a microscope are 4 cm and 8 cm respectively. If the
least distance of distinct vision is 24 cm and object distance is 4.5 cm from the objective lens, then
the magnifying power of the microscope will be
(1) 18 (2) 32 (3) 64 (4) 20
5. A telescope has an objective lens of focal length 200 cm and an eye piece with focal length 2 cm. If
this telescope is used to see a 50 meter tall building at a distance of 2 km, what is the height of the
E
image of the building formed by the objective lens

(1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm (3) 1 cm (4) 2 cm
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6. 1% of light of a source with luminous intensity 50 candela is incident on a circular surface of radius
10 cm. The average illuminance of surface is
(1) 100 lux (2) 200 lux (3) 300 lux (4) 400 lux
7. Two light sources with equal luminous intensity are lying at a distance of 1.2 m from each other.
Where should a screen be placed between them such that illuminance on one of its faces is four times
that on another face
(1) 0.2 m (2) 0.4 m (3) 0.9 m (4) 1.6 m
PAGE NO : 251
PHYSICS
8. Two lamps of luminous intensity of 8 Cd and 32 Cd respectively are lying at a distance of 1.2 m
from each other. Where should a screen be placed between two lamps such that its two faces are
equally illuminated due to two sources
(1) 10 cm from 8 Cd lamp (2) 10 cm from 32Cd lamp
(3) 40 cm from 8 Cd lamp (4) 40 cm from 32 Cd lamp
9. A slit of width a is illuminated by white light. For red light ( = 6500 Å), the first minima is obtained
at   30o . Then the value of a will be
(1) 3250 Å (2) 6.5  104 mm (3) 1.24 microns (4) 2.6  10 4 cm
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10. The light of wavelength 6328 Å is incident on a slit of width 0.2 mm perpendicularly, the angular
width of central maxima will be
(1) 0.36o (2) 0.18o (3) 0.72o (4) 0.09o
11. A single slit of width a is illuminated by violet light of wavelength 400 nm and the width of the
diffraction pattern is measured as y. When half of the slit width is covered and illuminated by yellow
light of wavelength 600 nm, the width of the diffraction pattern is
12.
(3) 3y
(4) None of these
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(1) The pattern vanishes and the width is zero
(2) y/3
The angle of incidence at which reflected light is totally polarized for reflection from air to glass
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(refraction index n) is
1 1
(1) sin 1 (n) (2) sin 1   (3) tan 1   (4) tan 1 (n)
n
  n
 
13. A ray of light is incident on the surface of a glass plate at an angle of incidence equal to Brewster's
angle  . If  represents the refractive index of glass with respect to air, then the angle between
reflected and refracted rays is
(1) 90   (2) sin 1 ( cos )
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(3) 90 o (4) 90 o  sin 1 (sin  / )
14. Figure represents a glass plate placed vertically on a horizontal table with a beam of unpolarised light
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falling on its surface at the polarising angle of 57o with the normal. The electric vector in the
reflected light on screen S will vibrate with respect to the plane of incidence in a
57° 57°
S
(1) Vertical plane

(2) Horizontal plane
(3) Plane making an angle of 45 o with the vertical
(4) Plane making an angle of 57 o with the horizontal
PAGE NO : 252
PHYSICS
15. A beam of light AO is incident on a glass slab (  1.54) in a direction as shown in figure. The
reflected ray OB is passed through a Nicol prism on viewing through a Nicole prism, we find on
rotating the prism that
A B
N
33° 33°
O
(1) The intensity is reduced down to zero and remains zero

(2) The intensity reduces down some what and rises again
(3) There is no change in intensity
(4) The intensity gradually reduces to zero and then again increases
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16. Two Nicols are oriented with their principal planes making an angle of 60°. The percentage of
incident unpolarized light which passes through the system is
(1) 50% (2) 100% (3) 12.5% (4) 37.5%
17. Unpolarized light falls on two polarizing sheets placed one on top of the other. What must be the
angle between the characteristic directions of the sheets if the intensity of the final transmitted light
is one-third the maximum intensity of the first transmitted beam
(1) 75° (2) 55° (3) 35° (4) 15°
18.
19.
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Unpolarized light of intensity 32Wm–2 passes through three polarizers such that transmission axes of
the first and second polarizer makes and angle 30° with each other and the transmission axis of the
last polarizer is crossed with that of the first. The intensity of final emerging light will be
(1) 32 Wm–2 (2) 3 Wm–2 (3) 8 Wm–2 (4) 4 Wm–2
b
In the visible region of the spectrum the rotation of the place of polarization is given by   a  2 .
SP

The optical rotation produced by a particular material is found to be 30° per mm at   5000 Å and
50° per mm at   4000Å . The value of constant a will be
50 50 9 9
(1)  per mm (2)  per mm (3)  per mm (4)  per mm
9 9 50 50
20. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and magnetising fields are 100 V m1 and 0.265 A m 1 . The
maximum energy flow is
E
(1) 26.5 W / m 2 (2) 36.5 W / m2 (3) 46.7 W / m2 (4) 765 W / m 2
21. The 21 cm radio wave emitted by hydrogen in interstellar space is due to the interaction called the
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hyperfine interaction is atomic hydrogen. the energy of the emitted wave is nearly
(1) 10 17 Joule (2) 1 Joule (3) 7  10 8 Joule (4) 10 24 Joule
22. TV waves have a wavelength range of 1-10 meter. Their frequency range in MHz is
(1) 30-300 (2) 3-30 (3) 300-3000 (4) 3-3000
23. An electromagnetic wave of frequency   3.0 MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric medium
with permittivity   4.0 . Then
(1) Wavelength is doubled and the frequency remains unchanged
(2) Wavelength is doubled and frequency becomes half
(3) Wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged
(4) Wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged
PAGE NO : 253
PHYSICS
24. Sodium has body centred packing. If the distance between two nearest atoms is 3.7 Å, then its lattice
parameter is
(1) 4.8 Å (2) 4.3 Å (3) 3.9 Å (4) 3.3 Å
25. Which of the following is an amorphous solid

(1) Glass (2) Diamond (3) Salt (4) Sugar
26. Copper has face centered cubic (fcc) lattice with interatomic spacing equal to 2.54Å. The value of
the lattice constant for this lattice is
(1) 1.27 Å (2) 5.08 Å (3) 2.54 Å (4) 3.59 Å
27. A sky wave with a frequency 55 MHz is incident on D-region of earth's atmosphere at 45 o. The angle
of refraction is (electron density for D-region is 400 electron/cm3)
(1) 60° (2) 45° (3) 30° (4) 15°
NT
28. In a diode AM-detector, the output circuit consist of R = 1k and C = 10 pF. A carrier signal of 100
kHz is to be detected. Is it good
(1) Yes (2) No
(3) Information is not sufficient (4) None of these
29. Consider an optical communication system operating at ~800 nm. Suppose, only 1% of the optical
30.
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source frequency is the available channel bandwidth for optical communication. How many channels
can be accommodated for transmitting audio signals requiring a bandwidth of 8 kHz
(1) 4.8  108 (2) 48 (3) 6.2  108
A photodetector is made from a semiconductor In 0.53Ga

maximum wavelength, which it can detect
(1) 1000 nm (2) 1703 nm (3) 500 nm
0.47As
(4) 4.8  105
with Eg = 0.73 eV. What is the
(4) 173 nm
SP
ANSWER KEY
1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (1)

E
6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (1)

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11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (4)
16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (1)
21. (4) 22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (1)
26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (2) 29. (1) 30. (2)
PAGE NO : 254
PHYSICS
UNIT DIMENSIONS & ERROR ANALYSIS LEVEL 1
This section contains 30 Multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3)
and (4) for its answer, out which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. If the constant of gravitation (G) , Planck's constant (h) and the velocity of light (c) be chosen as
fundamental units. The dimension of the radius of gyration is
(1) h1/2 c 3/2 G1/2 (2) h1/2 c 3/2 G1/2 (3) h1/2 c 3/2 G 1/2 (4) h 1/2 c 3/2 G 1/2
2. The pair(s) of physical quantities that have the same dimensions, is (are)
(1) Reynolds number and coefficient of friction
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(2) Latent heat and gravitational potential
(3) Curie and frequency of a light wave
(4) All of the above
1 a b
3. The magnetic energy stored in an inductor is given by E  L  . Find the values of a and b.
2
(1) a=1, b=0 (2) a = –2, b = 4 (3) a = 1, b = –2 (4) a = 1, b = 2
4. RI
The linear momentum p of a particle is given as a function of time as
& C are constant. The dimensions of B are
(1)  ML1T 1  (2)  ML1T 2  (3)  MLT2  (4)
  At 2  Bt  C . Where A, B
 MLT1 
 
SP
t
5. A quantity X is given by 0 L= x where 0 is the permitivity of free space, L is the length, ∆v is
v
potential difference and ∆t is time interval. The DIMENSIONAL FORMULA for X is the same that
of.
(1) Resistance (2) Charge (3) Voltage (4) Current
1
6. With the usual notations, the following equation St  u  a(2t  1) is
2
E
(1) Only numerically correct

(2) Only dimensionally correct
(3) Both numerically and dimensionally correct
(4) Neither numerically nor dimensionally correct
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7. Column I Column II
(i) Curie (A) MLT 2
(ii) Light year (B) M
(iii) Dielectric strength (C) Dimensionless
(iv) Atomic weight (D) T
(v) Decibel (E) ML2T 2
PAGE NO : 255
PHYSICS
UNIT DIMENSIONS & ERROR ANALYSIS
(F) MT 3
(G) T 1
(H) L
(I) MLT 3I1
(J) LT 1
Choose the correct match
(1) (i) G, (ii) H, (iii) C, (iv) B, (v) C
(2) (i) D, (ii) H, (iii) I, (iv) B, (v) G
(3) (i) G, (ii) H, (iii) I, (iv) B, (v) G
(4) None of the above
8. If 97.52 is divided by 2.54, the correct result in terms of significant figures is
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(1) 38.4 (2) 38.3937 (3) 38.394 (4) 38.39
9. The number of significant figure in the number 0.010780×10 –3 are

(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 8
10. The least count of a stop watch is 0.01 s for taking observations of a simple pendulum. The time
period of 100 oscillations is calculated. The error in the calculation is
(1) 0.01 s (2) 0.0001 s (3) 1 s (4) 0.05 s
11.
are (in cm2)

(1) 195.8 ± 0.7%
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The length and breadth of a rectangular plate are measured to be (15.30 ± 0.05) cm and (12.80 ±
0.05) cm, respectively. The area of the plate and the approximate uncertainty in the calculated area
(2) 196.0 ± 0.7% (3) 196.0 ± 0.07% (4) 195.84 ± 1.4%

SP
12. The density of a material in the shape of a cube is determined by measuring three sides of the cube
and weighing it. If the largest errors in measuring weight and length are 1% and 0.5% respectively,
the largest error in the determined density is
(1) 1.5% (2) 0.5% (3) 3.5% (4) 2.5%
13. The focal length of two spherical lens is given as f1 = (20±0.02) cm and f2 = (10±0.01) cm. If these
two lens are placed in contact with each other, what will be the % error of a combined lens?
(1) 0.10% (2) 0.20% (3) 0.30% (4) 0.40%
E
2K 3l2
14. A physical quantity X is given by X  . The % error in measurement in K, l, m, n is 1%, 2%,
m n
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3%, 4% respectively. The value of X is uncertain by

(1) 2% (2) 14% (3) 12% (4) None of these
15. A voltmeter has a least count of 0.1V & an ammeter has a least count of 0.1A. The voltage drop V
across a resistance is measured as 10.0V and current through it is measured as 1.0A. Which of the
following alternative is incorrect?
(1) The value of R is (1.0 ± 0.1) ×102Ω
1
(2) The relative error in measurement of current is
10
1
(3) The accuracy in measurement of potential drop is
1000
(4) The value of R is 10  0.2  
PAGE NO : 256
PHYSICS
PHYSICS
16.
A screw gauge has a least count of 0.002mm. If its pitch is 0.1mm, what will b e the number of
divisions on the circular scale?
(1) 50 (2) 500 (3) 1000 (4) 100
17. A screw gauge gives the following reading when used to measure the diameter of a wire
Main scale reading : 0 mm
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions on the circular scale, the diameter of the
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wire from the above data is
(1) 0.026 cm (2) 0.005 cm (3) 0.52 cm (4) 0.052 cm
18. A spectrometer gives the following reading when used to measure the angle of a prism.
Main scale reading : 58.5 degree
Vernier scale reading : 09 divisions
Given that 1 division on main scale corresponds to 0.5 degree. Total divisions on the Vernier scale is
30 and match with 29 divisions of the main scale. The angle of the prism from the above data is:
19.
(1) 59 degree
RI (2) 58.59 degree (3) 58.77 degree (4) 58.65 degree
Two full turns of the circular scale of a screw gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on the main scale. The
total number of divisions on the circular scale is 50. Further, it is found that the screw gauge has a
zero error of -0.03 mm. While measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes the main scale
reading of 3 mm and the number of circular scale divisions in line with the main scale as 35. The
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diameter of the wire is
(1) 3.73 mm (2) 3.67 mm (3) 3.38 mm (4) 3.32 mm
20. In a Vernier calipers one main scale division is x cm and n divisions of the Vernier scale coincide
with (n-1) divisions of the main scale. The least count (in cm) of the calipers is
x nx x x
(1) ( n  1) (2) (3) (4)
n n 1 n n 1
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21. One cm on the main scale of Vernier caliper is divided into 10 equal parts. If 10 divisions of Vernier
scale coincide with 8 small divisions of the main scale the least count of the caliper is?
(1) 0.2 mm (2) 0.2 cm (3) 0.02 mm (4) 0.1 mm
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22. The relative density of material of a body is found by weighing it first in air and then in water. If the
weight in air is (5.00 0.05 ) Newton and weight in water is (4.00  0.05) Newton. Then the relative
density along with the maximum permissible percentage error is
(1) 5.0  11% (2) 5.0  1% (3) 5.0  6% (4) 1.25  5%
23. Two clocks allowed to run for 1 hr and differ by 10 –5 sec. The accuracy in measuring the time
interval of 1 s is
(1) 2.8 × 10–9 s (2) 2.8 × 10–8 s (3) 10–5 s (4) 109 s
24. A body of mass m = 3.513 kg is moving along the x-axis with a speed of 5.00 ms -1 . The magnitude
of its momentum is recorded as
(1) 17.6 kg ms -1 (2) 17.565 kg ms -1 (3) 17.56 kg ms -1 (4) 17.57 kg ms -1
PAGE NO : 257
PHYSICS
PHYSICS
25. Assertion : Number of significant figures in 0.005 is one and that in 0.500 is three.
Reason : This is because zeros are not significant.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If the assertion and reason both are false.
26. Assertion: In y  A sin( t  kx), (t  kx) is dimensionless.

Reason: Because dimension of   [M 0 L0T].
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27. Assertion: The graph between P and Q is straight line, when P/Q is constant.
Reason: The straight line graph means that P proportional to Q or P is equal to constant multiplied
by Q.
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SP
28. Assertion: When we change the unit of measurement of a quantity, its numerical value changes.
Reason: Smaller the unit of measurement smaller is its numerical value.
29. Assertion: Units of Rydberg constant R are m–1

 1 1 
E
1
Reason: It follows from Bohr’s formula  R  2  2  , where the symbols have their usual
  n1 n 2 
meaning.
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30. Assertion: The quantity (1/  0  0 ) is dimensionally equal to velocity and numerically equal to
velocity of light.
Reason : 0 is permeability of free space and  0 is the permittivity of free space.
PAGE NO : 258
PHYSICS
ANSWER KEY
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (4)
6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (2)
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11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (1)
16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (3)
21. (1) 22. (2) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (3)
26. (3) 27. (1) 28. (3) 29. (1) 30. (2)
RI
SP
E
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PAGE NO : 259
PHYSICS
ERRORS AND MEASUREMENTS LEVEL 2
MCQ's (only one correct answer)

1. Significant figures in 3400 are-
(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
2. The percentage errors in the measurement of mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively. How much will be
the maximum error in the estimate of kinetic energy obtained by measuring mass and speed ?
(A) 11% (B) 8% (C) 5% (D) 1%
3. The density of a cube is measured by measuring its mass and the length of its side. If the maximum errors
in the measurement of mass and length are 4% and 3% respectively, the maximum error in the measurement
of the density is -
(A) 9% (B) 13% (C) 12% (D) 7%
ab 2
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4. An experiment measures quantities a, b and c, and X is calculated from X = . If the percentage error in a,
c3
b and c are ±1%, ±3% and ±2% respectively, the percentage error in X will be –
(A) ±13% (B) ±7% (C) ±4% (D) ±1%
5. If error in measuring diameter of a circle is 4%, the error in the radius of the circle would be
(A) 2% (B) 8% (C) 4% (D) 1%
6.
7.
(A) abc
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If a, b, c are the percentage errors in the measurement of A, B and C, then percentage error in ABC would be
approximately -
(B) a + b + c
correctly expresses the diameter –

(A) 0.20 cm (B) 0.002 m
(C) ab + bc + ac
(C) 2.00 mm
a b c
b c a
(D) 0.2 cm
(D)
The diameter of a wire is measured with a screw gauze having least count 0.01 mm. Which of the following
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8. While measuring acceleration due to gravity by a simple pendulum a student makes a positive error of 1% in the
length of the pendulum and a negative error of 3% in the value of the time period. His percentage error in the
measurement of the value of g will be -
(A) 2% (B) 4% (C) 7% (D) 10%
9. A student measured the diameter of a wire using a screw gauge with least count 0.001 cm and listed the
measurements. The correct measurement is –
(A) 5.3 cm (B) 5.32 cm (C) 5.320 cm (D) 5.3200 cm
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10. The pressure on a square plate is measured by measuring the force on the plate and the length of the sides of
the plate. If the maximum error in the measurement of force and length are respectively 4% and 2%, the
maximum error in the measurement of pressure is –
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(A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 6% (D) 8%
11. When a copper sphere is heated, maximum percentage change will be observed in–
(A) radius (B) area (C) volume (D) none of these
12. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum in the experiment is recorded as 2.63s, 2.56s, 2.42s, 2.71s and
2.80s respectively. The average absolute error is
(A) 0.1s (B) 0.11s (C) 0.01s (D) 1.0s
13. The significant digits in 200.40 are

(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 2 (D) 3
14. A scientist performs an experiment in order to measure a certain physical quantity and takes 100 observations.
He repeats the same experiment and takes 400 observations, by doing so
(A) The possible error remains same (B) The possible error is doubled
(C) The possible error is halved (D) The possible error is reduced to one fourth
PAGE NO : 260
ERRORS AND MEASUREMENTS PHYSICS
15. A quantity is represented by X = Ma Lb Tc. The percentage error in measurement of M, L and T are %, %
and % respectively. The percentage error in X would be
(A) ( a + b + c) % (B) ( a – b + c) % (C) ( a – b– c) % (D) None of these
16. If error in measuring diameter of a circle is 4 %, the error in circumference of the circle would be :-
(A) 2% (B) 8% (C) 4% (D) 1%
17. A wire has a mass (0.3±0.003) g, radius (0.5±0.005) mm and length (6 ± 0.06) cm. The maximum percentage
error in the measurement of its density is –
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
18. The length of a cylinder is measured with a metre rod having least count 0.1 cm. Its diameter is measured with
vernier callipers having least count 0.01 cm. Given the length is 5.0 cm and diameter is 2.00 cm. The percentage
error in the calculated value of volume will be –
(A) 2% (B) 1% (C) 3% (D) 4%
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3
19. The volume of a sphere is 1.76 cm . The volume of 25 such spheres taking into account the significant figure is-
2 3 3 3 3
(A) 0.44 × 10 cm (B) 44.0 cm (C) 44 cm (D) 44.00 cm
20. What is the fractional error in g calculated from T 2 ? Given that fractional errors in T and are ± x and
g
± y respectively.
(A) x + y (B) x – y (C) 2x + y (D) 2x – y)
21. The resistance is R
(A) 5%
RI V where V = 100 ± 5 Volts and I = 10 ± 0.2 amperes. What is the total error in R ?
I
(B) 7% (C) 5.2% (D)

5
2
%
SP
22. The length, breadth and thickness of a strip are (10.0 ± 0.1)cm, (1.00 ± 0.01) cm and
(0.100 ± 0.001) cm respectively. The most probable error in its volume will be
(A) ± 0.03 cm 3 (B) ± 0.111 cm 3 (C) ± 0.012 cm 3 (D) none of these
23. The external and internal radius of a hollow cylinder are measured to be (4.23 ± 0.01) cm and (3.89 ± 0.01)
cm. The thickness of the wall of the cylinder is :-
(A) (0.34 ± 0.02)cm (B) (0.17 ± 0.02)cm (C) (0.17 ± 0.01)cm (D) (0.34 ± 0.01)cm
E
24. The radius of a disc is 1.2 cm. Its area according to idea of significant figures, will be given by:-
2 2 2 2
(A) 4.5216 cm (B) 4.521 cm (C) 4.52 cm (D) 4.5 cm
25. The length , breadth b and thickness t of a block of wood were measured with the help of a measuring
JE
scale. The results with permissible errors are = 15.12 0.01 cm, b = 10.15 0.01 cm, t = 5.28
0.01 cm. The percentage error in volume upto proper significant figures is –
(A) 0.28% (B) 0.36% (C) 0.48 % (D) 0.64%
26. The following observations were taken for determining surface tension of water by capillary tube method:
–2 –2
Diameter of capillary D = 1.25 × 10 m Rise of water in capillary, h = 1.45 × 10 m. Taking g = 9.80
2 3
m/s and using the relation T = (rhg/2) × 10 N/m, what is the possible error in surface tension. T–
(A) 0.16% (B) 1.6% (C) 16% (D) 2.4%
27. The least count of a stop watch is 1/5 sec. The time of 20 oscillations of a pendulum is measured to be
25 s. What is the maximum percentage error in this measurement
(A) 8% (B) 1% (C) 0.8% (D) 16%
28. The area of a rectangle of size 1.23 × 2.345 cm is
(A) 2.88 cm2 (B) 2.884 cm2 (C) 2.9 cm2 (C) 2.88435 cm 2
PAGE NO : 261
ERRORS AND MEASUREMENTS PHYSICS
29. What is vernier constant

(A) It is the value of the one main scale division by the total number of divisions on the main scale.
(B) It is the value of one vernier scale division divided by the total number of division on the vernier scale.
(C) It is the difference between value of one main scale division and one vernier scale division
(D) It is not the least count of vernier scale.
30. The vernier of a circular scale is divided into 30 divisions which coincide against 29 divisions of main scale.
Each main scale division is 0.5°. The least count of the instrument is –
(A) 10' (B) 0.1' (C) 1' (D) 30'
31. What is the reading of micrometer screw gauge shown in figure
0 1 2 35
30
mm 25
(A) 2.30 mm (B) 2.29 mm (C) 2.36 mm (D) 2.41 mm
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32. In a vernier calliper, N divisions of vernier scale coincide with (N – 1) divisions of main scale (in which 1 division
represents 1mm). The least count of the instrument in cm. should be
1 1
(A) N (B) N – 1 (C) (D)
10N N 1
33. A vernier callipers having 1 main scale division = 0.1 cm is designed to have a least count of 0.02 cm. If n be the
number of divisions on vernier scale and m be the length of vernier scale, then
(A) n= 10, m = 0.5 cm (B) n=9, m= 0.4 cm (C) n=10, m = 0.8 cm (D) n=10, m= 0.2 cm
34.
35.
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In a vernier callipers, N divisions of the main scale coincide with N+m divisions of the vernier scale. What is the
value of m for which the instrument has minimum least count?
(A) 1 (B) N (C) infinity (D) N/2
In a vernier callipers the main scale and the vernier scale are made up different materials. When the room
temperature increases by T°C, it is found the reading of the instrument remains the same. Earlier it was
SP
observed that the front edge of the wooden rod placed for measurement crossed the Nth main scale division and
N+2 MSD coincided with the 2nd VSD. Initially, 10 VSD coincided with 9 MSD. If coefficient of linear expansion
of the main scale is 1 and that of the vernier scale is 2 then what is the value of 2
? (Ignore the expansion
of the rod on heating)
(A) 1.8 /N (B) 1.8/ (N+3.8) (C) 1.8/ (N–2) (D) 1.8/N+2
36. Consider the MB shown in the diagram, let the resistance X have temperature coefficient 1 and the resistance
from the RB have the temperature coefficient 2. Let the reading of the meter scale be 10 cm from the LHS.
If the temperature of the two resistance increase by small temperature T then what is the shift in the position
E
of the null point? Neglect all the other changes in the bridge due to temperature rise
A X B C 90 D
G
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E O F
10cm
(A) 9( 1
- 2
) T (B) 9 ( 1 + 2
) T (C) 1/9 ( 1 + 2
) T (D) 1/9 ( 1 - 2
) T
37. For a post office box, the graph of galvanometer deflection versus R (resistance pulled out of RB) for the ratio
100 : 1 is given as shown. A careless student pulls out two non consecutive values R marked in the graph. Find
the value of unknown resistance
Deflection
(in division)
326
R
320
-3
(A) 3.2 ohm (B) 3.24 ohm (C) 3.206 ohm (D) None
PAGE NO : 262
ERRORS AND MEASUREMENTS
PHYSICS
38. Identify which of the following diagrams represent the internal construction of the coils wound in a resistance box
or PO box ?
P P P
P
(A) (B) (C) (D)
39. In a meter bridge set up, which of the following should be the properties of the one meter long wire?
(A) High resistivity and low temperature coefficient (B) Low resistivity and low temperature coefficient
(C) low resistivity and high temperature coefficient (D) High resistivity and high temperature coefficient
MCQ's (Multiple correct answer)
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4 0 . In the Searle's experiment, after every step of loading, why should we wait for two minutes before taking the
readings? (More than one correct
(A) So that the wire can have its desired change in length (B) So that the wire an attain room temperature
(C) So that vertical oscillations can get subsided (D) So that the wire has no change in its radius
Comprehension
Internal micrometer is a measuring instrument used to measure internal diameter (ID) of a large cylinder bore
with high accuracy. Construction is shown in figure. There is one fixed rod B (to the right in figure) and one
RI
moving rod A (to the left in figure). It is based on the principle of advancement of a screw when it is rotated in a
nut with internal threads. Main scale reading can be directly seen on the hub which is fixed with respect to rod
B. When the cap is rotated, rod A moves in or out depending on direction of rotation. The circular scale reading
is seen by checking which division of circular scale coincides with the reference line.
Main scale
Cap Ratchet
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A 5 B
P 0 Q
0 10
45
Hub Circular scale

Internal diameter
(being measured)
This is to be multiplied by LC to get circular scale reading.

E
pitch
Least count = value of 1 circular scale division
number of division on circular scale
Length of rod A is chosen to match the ID (PQ) to be measured. Zero error is checked by taking reading
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between standard blocks fixed at nominal value of ID to be measured. Zero error is positive if cap end is on the
right side of the main scale and negative it is on the left side.
Zero error
checking
Standard
blocks
1. In an internal micrometer, main scale division is of 0.5 mm and there are 50 divisions in circular scale. The least
count of the instrument is -
(A) 0.005 mm (B) 0.001 mm (C) 0.05 mm (D) 0.01 mm
2. In the above instrument, while measuring an internal diameter. ID is set of 321 mm with no zero error. If cap end
is after 7th division and 17th division of main scale coincides with the reference line, the ID is-
PAGE NO : 263
ERRORS AND MEASUREMENTS
PHYSICS
(A) 321. 717 mm (B) 321.87 mm (C) 328.17 mm (D) 324.67 mm

3. During zero setting of the above instrument, the end of the cap is on left side of the zero of main scale (i.e. zero
of main scale is not visible) and 41st division of circular scale coincides with the reference line, the zero error is-
(A) –0.09 mm (B) +0.41 mm (C) –0.41 mm (D) +0.09 mm
Subjective Questions
1. In a given slide callipers 10 division of its vernier coincides with its 9 main scale divisions. If one main scale
division is equal to 0.5 mm then find its least count.
2. Consider a home made vernier scale as shown in the figure. In this diagram, we are interested in measuring the
length of the line PQ. If both the inclines are identical and their angles are equal to then what is the least count
of the instrument.
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P
3. The pitch of a screw gauge is l mm and there are 50 divisions on its cap. When nothing is put in between the
studs, 44th division of the circular scale coincides with the reference line zero of the main scale is not visible.
4.
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When a glass plate is placed between the studs, the main scale reads three divisions and the circular scale reads
26 divisions. Calculate the thickness of the plate.
A short circuit occurs in a telephone cable having a resistance of 0.45 m -1 . The circuit is tested with a
Wheatstone bridge. The two resistors in the ratio arms of the Wheatstone bridge network have values of 100
and 1110 respectively. A balance condition is found when the variable resistor has a value of 400 . Calculate
the distance down the cable, where the short has occurred.
SP
5. A glass prism of angle A = 60° gives minimum angle of deviation = 30° with the maximum error of 1° when
a beam of parallel light passed through the prism during an experiment. Find the permissible error in the
measurement of refractive index of the material of the prism.
6. In a given optical bench, a needle of length 10 cm is used to estimate bench error. The object needle, image
needle & lens holder have their reading as shown. x0 = 1.1 cm; x1 = 0.8 cm; xL = 10.9 cm
Estimate the bench errors which are present in image needle holder and object needle holder. Also find the focal
length of the convex lens when x0 = 0.6 cm ; xI = 22.5 cm; xL = 11.4 cm
E
7. Consider S = x cos ( ) for x = (2.0 ± 0.2) cm, = 53 ± 2°. Find S.

JE
A NSWE R KE Y
Si ngl e C hoi c e Qu est i on s :
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
A B B A C B C C C D C B B D A C
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32
D C D C B A A D B B C A C C A C
33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C A B A B D A ABC
C o m p r e h e n s i o n : 1. D 2. D 3. A
1 cos 5
Subjective Questions : 1. 0.05 mm 2. LC 3. R t = 3.64 mm 4.40m 5. %
cos 18
6. 5.5 ± 0.05 cm 7. S = (1.2 ± 0.18) cm
PAGE NO : 264
PHYSICS
2018 OFFLINE JEE MAINS

PART A — PHYSICS 3. A solid sphere of radius r made of a soft
material of bulk modulus K is surrounded
ALL THE GRAPHS/DIAGRAMS GIVEN ARE by a liquid in a cylindrical container. A
SCHEMATIC AND NOT DRAWN TO SCALE. massless piston of area a floats on the
surface of the liquid, covering entire cross
section of cylindrical container. When a
1. It is found that if a neutron suffers an mass m is placed on the surface of the
elastic collinear collision with deuterium piston to compress the liquid, the fractional
at rest, fractional loss of its energy is pd ; decrement in the radius of the sphere,
while for its similar collision with carbon
nucleus at rest, fractional loss of energy  dr  , is :
 
 r 
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is p c . The values of p d and p c are
respectively :
mg
(1) (0, 0) (1)
3 Ka
(2) (0, 1) mg
RI (2)
Ka
(3) (⋅89, ⋅28)
Ka
(3) mg
(4) (⋅28, ⋅89)
Ka
SP
(4) 3 mg
2. The mass of a hydrogen molecule is
3.32×10 −27 kg. If 10 23 hydrogen
molecules strike, per second, a fixed wall 4. Two batteries with e.m.f. 12 V and 13 V
of area 2 cm 2 at an angle of 458 to the are connected in parallel across a load
normal, and rebound elastically with a resistor of 10 Ω. The internal resistances of
103
E
speed of m/s, then the pressure on the the two batteries are 1 Ω and 2 Ω
wall is nearly : respectively. The voltage across the load
lies between :
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(1) 2.35×102 N/m2

(1) 11.4 V and 11.5 V
(2) 4.70×102 N/m2
(2) 11.7 V and 11.8 V
(3) 2.35×103 N/m2 (3) 11.6 V and 11.7 V
(4) 4.70×103 N/m2 (4) 11.5 V and 11.6 V
B/Page 2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
PAGE NO : 265
PHYSICS
5. A particle is moving in a circular path of 7. If the series limit frequency of the Lyman
radius a under the action of an attractive series is νL, then the series limit frequency
k of the Pfund series is :
potential U=− . Its total energy is :
2 r2 (1) νL/16
(2) νL/25
(1) Zero
(3) 25 νL
3 k (4) 16 νL
(2) −
2 a2
8. Unpolarized light of intensity I passes
k through an ideal polarizer A. Another
(3) − 2
4a identical polarizer B is placed behind A.
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The intensity of light beyond B is found to
k I
(4) be . Now another identical polarizer C
2 a2 2
is placed between A and B. The intensity
I
beyond B is now found to be . The angle
6. Two masses m 1=5 kg and m 2=10 kg, 8
connected by an inextensible string over a
RI between polarizer A and C is :
frictionless pulley, are moving as shown (1) 458
in the figure. The coefficient of friction of (2) 608
horizontal surface is 0.15. The minimum (3) 08
weight m that should be put on top of m2 (4) 308
to stop the motion is :
SP
9. An electron from various excited states of
hydrogen atom emit radiation to come to
the ground state. Let λ n , λ g be the
de Broglie wavelength of the electron in
the n th state and the ground state
respectively. Let Λn be the wavelength of
E
the emitted photon in the transition from

the nth state to the ground state. For large
n, (A, B are constants)
JE
(1) Λ2n ≈ A+B λn2

(1) 43.3 kg
(2) Λn2 ≈λ
(2) 10.3 kg
B
(3) Λn ≈ A + 2
(3) 18.3 kg λn
(4) 27.3 kg (4) Λn ≈ A +B λn
PAGE NO : 266
PHYSICS
10. The reading of the ammeter for a silicon 13. For an RLC circuit driven with voltage of
diode in the given circuit is : 1
amplitude vm and frequency ωo=
LC
the current exibits resonance. The quality
factor, Q is given by :
R
(1) ( ωo C)
CR
(2) ωo
(1) 11.5 mA
(2) 13.5 mA ωo L
(3)
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(3) 0 R
(4) 15 mA ωo R
(4)
L
11. An electron, a proton and an alpha 14. A telephonic communication service is
particle having the same kinetic energy are
RI working at carrier frequency of 10 GHz.
moving in circular orbits of radii re, rp, rα Only 10% of it is utilized for transmission.
respectively in a uniform magnetic field B. How many telephonic channels can be
The relation between re, rp, rα is : transmitted simultaneously if each channel
(1) re < rp < rα requires a bandwidth of 5 kHz ?
(2) re < rα < rp (1) 2×10 5
SP
(3) re > rp = rα (2) 2×10 6
(4) re < rp = rα (3) 2×10 3
(4) 2×10 4
12. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance
15. A granite rod of 60 cm length is clamped
90 pF is connected to a battery of emf
at its middle point and is set into
20 V. If a dielectric material of dielectric
E
longitudinal vibrations. The density of

5 granite is 2.7×103 kg/m3 and its Young’s
constant K = is inserted between the
3
modulus is 9.27×1010 Pa. What will be
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plates, the magnitude of the induced

the fundamental frequency of the
charge will be :
longitudinal vibrations ?
(1) 2.4 n C
(1) 10 kHz
(2) 0.9 n C (2) 7.5 kHz
(3) 1.2 n C (3) 5 kHz
(4) 0.3 n C (4) 2.5 kHz
PAGE NO : 267
PHYSICS
16. Seven identical circular planar disks, each 18. In a potentiometer experiment, it is found
of mass M and radius R are welded that no current passes through the
symmetrically as shown. The moment of galvanometer when the terminals of the
inertia of the arrangement about the axis cell are connected across 52 cm of the
normal to the plane and passing through potentiometer wire. If the cell is shunted
the point P is : by a resistance of 5 Ω, a balance is found
when the cell is connected across 40 cm of
the wire. Find the internal resistance of
the cell.
(1) 2Ω
(2) 2.5 Ω
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(3) 1Ω
(4) 1.5 Ω
73
(1) MR 2 19. An EM wave from air enters a medium.
2
181 The electric fields are
(2) MR 2
(3)
2
19
2
MR 2
RI →
→
∧ 

∧
z 
E 1= E01 x cos  2 πν  − t   in air and
c 
E 2= E02 x cos [ k (2 z−ct)] in medium,
55
(4) MR 2 where the wave number k and
2
frequency ν refer to their values in air. The
SP
17. Three concentric metal shells A, B and C
of respective radii a, b and c (a < b < c) medium is non-magnetic. If ȏ r1 and ȏr
2
have surface charge densities +σ, −σ and refer to relative permittivities of air and
+σ respectively. The potential of shell B medium respectively, which of the
is : following options is correct ?
σ  b2 − c2  r 1
1
 + a
E
(1) (1) =
o  b  r
2
4
σ  b2 − c2  r 1
1
 + a =
JE
(2) (2)
o  c  r
2
2
r
σ  a 2 − b2  1
=4
(3)  + c (3)
o  a  r
2
r
σ  a 2 − b2  1
=2
(4)  + c (4)
o  b  r
2
PAGE NO : 268
PHYSICS
20. The angular width of the central 22. From a uniform circular disc of radius R
maximum in a single slit diffraction R
and mass 9 M, a small disc of radius
is
pattern is 608. The width of the slit is 3
1 µm. The slit is illuminated by removed as shown in the figure. The
monochromatic plane waves. If another moment of inertia of the remaining disc
slit of same width is made near it, Young’s about an axis perpendicular to the plane
fringes can be observed on a screen placed of the disc and passing through centre of
at a distance 50 cm from the slits. If the disc is :
observed fringe width is 1 cm, what is slit
separation distance ?
NT
(i.e. distance between the centres of each
slit.)
(1) 75 µm
(1) 10 MR2
(2) 100 µm
37
(3) 25 µm
RI (2)
(3)
9
MR 2
4 MR2
40
(4) 50 µm MR 2
(4)
9
SP
23. In a collinear collision, a particle with an
21. A silver atom in a solid oscillates in simple initial speed vo strikes a stationary particle
harmonic motion in some direction with a of the same mass. If the final total kinetic
frequency of 1012/sec. What is the force energy is 50% greater than the original
constant of the bonds connecting one atom kinetic energy, the magnitude of the
with the other ? (Mole wt. of silver=108 and relative velocity between the two particles,
E
Avagadro number=6.02×1023 gm mole−1) after collision, is :

vo
(1)
JE
(1) 2.2 N/m 2

vo
(2) 5.5 N/m (2)
2
vo
(3) 6.4 N/m (3)
4
(4) 7.1 N/m (4) 2 vo
PAGE NO : 269
PHYSICS
24. The dipole moment of a circular loop 27. In an a.c. circuit, the instantaneous e.m.f.
carrying a current I, is m and the magnetic and current are given by
field at the centre of the loop is B1. When e=100 sin 30 t
the dipole moment is doubled by keeping
i=20 sin  30 t − 
π
the current constant, the magnetic field at  4
B1 In one cycle of a.c., the average power
the centre of the loop is B2. The ratio
B2 consumed by the circuit and the wattless
is : current are, respectively :
(1) 2 50
(1) ,0
1 2
(2) (2) 50, 0
2
NT
(3) 2 (3) 50, 10
1000
(4) 3 (4) , 10
2
25. The density of a material in the shape of a 28. All the graphs below are intended to
cube is determined by measuring three
RI represent the same motion. One of them
sides of the cube and its mass. If the does it incorrectly. Pick it up.
relative errors in measuring the mass and
length are respectively 1.5% and 1%, the
maximum error in determining the density (1)
is :
SP
(1) 4.5%
(2) 6%
(3) 2.5%
(4) 3.5% (2)
26. On interchanging the resistances, the

E
balance point of a meter bridge shifts to

the left by 10 cm. The resistance of their
series combination is 1 kΩ. How much was (3)
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the resistance on the left slot before

interchanging the resistances ?
(1) 550 Ω
(2) 910 Ω (4)
(3) 990 Ω
(4) 505 Ω
PAGE NO : 270
PHYSICS
29. Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas

occupies a volume V at 278C. The gas
expands adiabatically to a volume 2 V.
Calculate (a) the final temperature of the
gas and (b) change in its internal energy.
(1) (a) 189 K (b) −2.7 kJ
(2) (a) 195 K (b) 2.7 kJ
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(3) (a) 189 K (b) 2.7 kJ
(4) (a) 195 K (b) −2.7 kJ

RI
30. A particle is moving with a uniform speed
SP
in a circular orbit of radius R in a central
force inversely proportional to the n th
power of R. If the period of rotation of the
particle is T, then :
(1) T∝R(n+1)/2
E
(2) T∝Rn/2
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(3) T∝R3/2 for any n.
n +1
(4) T∝R 2
PAGE NO : 271
PHYSICS
JEE MAINS 2018 OFFLINE ANSWER KEY
Ques 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans 3 3 1 4 1 4 2 1 3 1
Ques 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
NT
Ans 4 3 3 1 3 2 4 4 1 3
Ques
Ans
21
4
22
3
23
4
24
1
RI 25
1
26
1
27
4
28
4
29
1
30
1
SP
E
JE
PAGE NO : 272
PHYSICS
PHYSICS
PART– A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
answer, out of which Only One is correct.
1. It is found that if a neutron suffers an elastic collinear collision with deuterium at rest, fractional loss of
its energy is pd, while for its similar collision with carbon nucleus at rest, fractional loss of energy is pc.
The values of pd and pc are respectively :
(1) (0, 0) (2) (0, 1) (3) (.89, .28) (4) (.28, .89)
Sol. Case-I
JBC
NT
m V 2m
JAC
V1 m 2m V2
2V2 – V1 = V
V2 + V1 = V
3V2 = 2V RI
2V
V2 =
3
V
V1 =
3
1 1 1
mV 2 – mV12 1–
Pd = 2 2  9  8 = 0.89
SP
1 1 9
mV 2
2
Case-II
JBC
m V 12m
JAC
V1 m 12m V2
E
12V2 – V1 = V
V2 + V1 = V
13V2 = 2V
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2V
V2 =
13
1 1 121
mv 2 – mv12 1–
2V 11V 169  48 = 0.28
V1 = V –   Pc = 2 2 
13 13 1 1 169
mv 2
2
PAGE NO : 273
PHYSICS
–27 23
2. The mass of a hydrogen molecule is 3.32 × 10 kg. If 10 hydrogen molecules strike, per second, a
2 3
fixed wall of area 2cm at an angle of 45° to the normal, and rebound elastically with a speed of 10
m/s, then the pressure on the wall is nearly :
2 2 2 2 3 2 3 2
(1) 2.35 × 10 N/m (2) 4.70 × 10 N/m (3) 2.35 × 10 N/m (4) 4.70 × 10 N/m
Sol.
N
m 

V
NT
Fovg = 2NmV cos
2NmV cos 
Pressure nkc =
A
 
2 1023 3.32  10 –27
1
2

 103
=
2  10 –4
3 2
= 2.35 × 10 N/m
3.
RI
A solid sphere of radius r made of a soft material of bulk modulus K is surrounded by a liquid in a
cylindrical container. A massless piston of area a floats on the surface of the liquid, covering entire
crosssection of cylindrical container. When a mass m is placed on the surface of the piston to compress
 dr 
the liquid, the fractional decrement in the radius of the sphere,   is :
SP
 r 
mg mg Ka Ka
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3Ka Ka mg 3mg
mg
Sol. P =
a
E
mg
K=– A
4r 2 dr
4 3
JE
r
3
dr mg
–
r 3KA
PAGE NO : 274
PHYSICS
4. Two batteries with e.m.f 12V and 13V are connected in parallel across a load resistor of 10. The
internal resistance of the two batteries are 1 and 2 respectively. The voltage across the load lies
between :
(1) 11.4V and 11.5 V (2) 11.7V and 11.8V (3) 11.6V and 11.7V (4) 11.5V and 11.6V
Sol.
10
12
1
NT
3V
13
2
12 13

Eeq = 1
37
1 1

1 2
2
RI
37
= 2 
3 3
SP
2
2
Yeq. =
3
37 37
I= 3  3  37
2 32 32
 10
3 3
 37 
Voltage across load = IR =  32  10 = 11.56V
E
k
5. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius a under the action of an attractive potential U = – .
2r2
JE
Its total energy is :

3 k k k
(1) zero (2) – (3) – (4)
2 a2 4a2 2a2
PAGE NO : 275
PHYSICS
K
Sol. U= –
2r 2
du  K  2  K
F= – = – –  – 3   – 3
dr  2  r  r
K mv 2 K
 
2
mv =
r3 r r2
1 2 K
K.E. = mv = 2
2 2r
E = P.E. + K.E. = 0
6. Two masses m1 = 5kg and m2 = 10kg connected by an inextensible string over a frictionless pulley are
moving as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction of horizontal surface is 0.15. The minimum
weight m that should be put on top of m2 to stop the motion is :
NT
m T
m2
T
RI m1
m1g
(1) 43.3 kg (2) 10.3 kg (3) 18.3 kg (4) 27.3 kg

SP
Sol. (m + m2) = m1
m m1
m + m2 = 1  m= – m2
 
5
m= – 10 = 23.33kg
0.15
7. If the series limit frequency of the Lyman series is L, then the series limit frequency of the Pfund series
is :
E
(1) L/16 (2) L/25 (3) 25L (4) 16L

JE
Sol. hL = 13.6 ev

13.6
hp = ev
25
L L
= 25  P =
P 25
PAGE NO : 276
PHYSICS
8. Unpolarized light of intensity I passes through an ideal polarizer A. Another identical polarizer B is
I
placed behind A. The intensity of light beyond B is found to be . Now another identical polarizer C is
2
I
placed between A and B. The intensity beyond B is now found to be . The angle between polarizer A and C
8
is :
(1) 45° (2) 60° (3) 0° (4) 30°

Sol.
A
NT
C B
I/2 
I
I/2 cos  cos2

2
I/2 cos 
RI 2
B
I I
cos  =
2
SP
2 8
1
cos  =
2
4
1
cos =   = 45°
2
9. An electron from various excited states of hydrogen atom emit radiation to come to the ground state.
Let n, g be the de Broglie wavelength of the electron in the n state and the ground state respectively.
th
E
Let n be the wavelength of the emitted photon in transition from the n state to the ground state. For
th
large n, (A, B are constants)

JE
B
(1) n2  A  B n2 (2) n2   (3) n  A  (4) n  A  B n
 n2
PAGE NO : 277
PHYSICS
 2Ke 2  1
Sol. Vn = 
 h  n
1
En = – mvn2
2
h  h2 
n =  n n >>>g
mv n  m2Ke 2 
hc
n
1

= En – E1 = m v12 – v n2
2

hc 1   h   h  
2 2
 m  – 
n 2   m g   m n  
hc h2  1 1 h2   2g 
  –  =  1– 2 
 n 2m   2g  n2  2m 2g  n 
NT
n 2m g
2
1

hc h2
  2g 
 1–  2 
 n
g
since  1 so using binomial expansions
n
 2mc 2g   g2  B
10.
n = 
 h 
 1  2 
n 

RI n = A +
 n2
The reading of the ammeter for a silicon diode in the given circuit is :
200
SP
3V
(1) 11.5mA (2) 13.5 mA (3) 0 (4) 15 mA
E
Sol. For silicon diode barrior potential is 0.7V

3 – 0.7
JE
so I =
200
= 0.0115A
= 11.5mA
PAGE NO : 278
PHYSICS
11. An electron, a proton and an alpha particle having the same kinetic energy are moving in circular orbits
of radii re, rp, r respectively in uniform magnetic field B. The relation between re, rp, r is :
(1) re < rp< r (2) re < r< rp (3) re > rp = r (4) re < rp = r
Ans. (4)
Sol. For circular path in magnetic field
2mE
r E = kinetic energyZ
qB
So
e p 
m 1/1836 1 4
q –e +e 2e
NT
rp = r > re
12. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 90 pF is connected to a battery of emf 20V. If a dielectric
5
material of dielectric constant K = is inserted between the plates, the magnitude of the induced charge
3
will be :
Ans.
(1) 2.4 n C
(3)
(2) 0.9 n C
RI (3) 1.2 n C (4) 0.3 n C
Sol. Qcap = KC0V

 1
Qpolarised  Qcap  1  
SP
 k
5  3
= (90 × 10 ) (20)    1   Coulomb
–12
 3  5
–12
= 1200 × 10 Coulomb
= 1.2 nc
1
13. For an RLC circuit driven with voltage of amplitude m and frequency 0  the current exhibits
LC
E
resonance. The quality factor, Q is given by

JE
R CR 0L 0R
(1) (2) (3) (4)
( 0 C) 0 R L
Ans. (3)
PAGE NO : 279
PHYSICS
v0
Sol. vm
vm
2
w1 w0 w
w2
R
Band width csUM pkSM+kbZ 2 – 1 =
L
0 L
NT
Quality factor fo'ks"krk xq.kkad Q=  0
2  1 R
14. A telephonic communication service is working at carrier frequency of 10 GHz. Only 10% of it is utilized
for transmission. How many telephonic channels can be transmitted simultaneously if each channel
requires a bandwidth of 5 kHz?
Ans.
(1) 2×10
(1)
5
(2) 2 × 10
6
RI (3) 2 × 10
3
(4) 2 × 10
4
1 (10kHz)
Sol. N=
10 (5kHz)
SP
109 106

5
= = 2 × 10
5  103 5
15. A granite rod of 60 cm length is clamped at its middle point and is set into longitudinal vibrations. The
3 3 10
density of granite is 2.7 × 10 kg/m and its Young's modulus is 9.27 × 10 Pa. What will be the
fundamental frequency of the longitudinal vibrations ?
E
(1) 10kHz (2)7.5kHz (3) 5kHz (4) 2.5kHz

Ans. (3)
JE
1 Y 1 9.27  1010 3
Sol. f0 = =  5 kHz
= 4.9 × 10 Hz ~
2  2(0.6) 2.7  103
PAGE NO : 280
PHYSICS
16. Seven identical circular planar disks, each of mass M and radius R are welded symmetrically as shown.
The moment of inertia of the arrangement about the axis normal to the plane and passing through the
point P is :
NT
73 181 19 55
(1) MR 2 (2) MR 2 (3) MR 2 (4) MR 2
2 2 2 2
Ans. (2)
2
Sol. Ip = I0 + 7m(3R)
 mR 2  mR 2  181
 6  m(2R)2   + 7m(3R) =
2
= mR 2
 2  2  2
17.
RI
Three concentric metal shells A, B and C of respective radii a,b and c (a < b < c) have surface charge
densities +, – and + respectively. The potential of shell B is :
  b2  c 2    b2  c 2    a2  b2    a2  b 2 
SP
(1)  a (2)  a (3)  c (4)  c
0  b  0  c   0  a   0  b 
Ans. (4)
B C
A
a + – +
E
Sol. b
JE
c
1 4 a 2  1 4 b 2  1 4 c 2    a 2  b2 
VB =   =   c
40 b 40 b 40 C 0  b 
PAGE NO : 281
PHYSICS
18. In a potentiometer experiment, it is found that no current passes through the galvanometer when the
terminals of the cell are connected across 52cm of the potentiometer wire. If the cell is shunted by
resistance of 5 , a balance is found when the cell is connected across 40 cm of the wire. Find the
internal resistance of the cell.
(1) 2    (2) 2.5  (3) 1  (4) 1.5 

Ans. (4)
 
Sol. Using formula r = R  1  1
 2 
 52  12
= 5  1 = 5   1.5
 40  40
NT
   z 
19. An EM wave from air enters a medium. The electric fields are E 1  E 01 xˆ cos 2v   t   in air and
 c 

E2  E02 xˆ cos k(2z  ct) in medium, where the wave number k and frequency  refer to their values in
air. The medium is non-magnetic. If r1 and r2 refer to relative permittivities of air and medium
respectively, which of the following options is correct ?
RI
r1 1 r1 1 r1 r1
(1)  (2)  (3) 4 (4) 2
r2 4 r2 2 r2 r2
Ans. (1)
SP
Sol. C = Speed in air
V = Speed in medium
V 1

C 2
r2 1 (Non-magnetic)
V r1 1 r1 1
   
E
C r2 2 r2 4

JE
PAGE NO : 282
PHYSICS
20. The angular width of the central maximum in a single slit diffraction pattern is 60°. The width of the slit
is 1 m. The slit is illuminated by monochromatic plane waves. If another slit of same width is made
near it, Young's fringes can be observed on a screen placed at a distance 50 cm from the slits. If the
observed fringe width is 1 cm, what is slit separation distance?
(i.e. distance between the centres of each slit.)
m (2) 100 m (3) 25 m (4) 50 m

Ans. (3)
Sol. Semi-angular width Z = 30° asin= 
 asin30° = 
D
Fringe width Z 
d
 1
106   0.5
102  2
 d
NT
5
d =  105 = 25m
2
21.
RI
A sliver atom in a solid oscillates in simple harmonic motion in some direction with a frequency of
12
10 /sec. What is the force constant of the bonds connecting one atom with the other ? (Mole wt. of
23
siver =108 and Avagadro number = 6.02 × 10 gm mole )
–1
23 –1
(Avagadro) = 6.02 × 10 gm mole ½
SP
(1) 2.2 N/m (2) 5.5 N/m (3) 6.4 N/m (4) 7.1 N/m
Ans. (4)
m
Sol. T  2
k
108  103
k = 4 2   f2
6.02  10 23
4  2  108 1024  103

E
=
6.02 1023
= 7.1 N/m
JE
R
22. From a uniform circular disc of radius R and mass 9 M, a small disc of radius is removed as shown in
3
the figure. The moment of inertia of the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the disc and
passing through centre of disc is :
PAGE NO : 283
PHYSICS
2R
3
2 37 2 40
(1) 10 MR (2) MR 2 (3) 4 MR (4) MR 2
9 9
Ans. (3)
–M
2R/3
Sol.
NT
+
[Using negative mass concept

  R 2 
M  2
 2R  
2
     M
9MR 3
I 
 2  3  
2


9 1 4
= MR 2  


   4MR 2
 2 18 9 
RI
23. In a collinear collision, a particle with an initial speed v0 strikes a stationary particle of the same mass. If
SP
the final kinetic energy 50% greater than the original kinetic energy, the magnitude of the relative
velocity between the two particles, after collision, is :
v0 v0 v0
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2v 0
2 2 4
E
Ans. (4)
Sol. By conservation of linear momentum
mv 0  0  mv1  mv 2
JE
v0 = v1 + v2 ………(1)
3 1  1 1
mv 02   mv12  mv 22
2  2  2 2
3 2
v 0  v12  v 22 ………(2)
2
Solving equation (1) and (2)
PAGE NO : 284
PHYSICS
v0
v1  (1  2)
2
v
v 2  0 (1  2)
2
 
v rel  v1  v 2
v0
1  2  1  2 
2  
v
= 0 2 2
2
= 2v 0
24. The dipole moment of a circular loop carrying a current , is m and the magnetic field at the centre of
the loop is B1. When the dipole moment is double by keeping the current constant, the magnetic field at
B
the centre of loop is B2. The ratio 1 is :
NT
B2
1
(1) 2 (2) (3) 2 (4) 3
RI 2
Ans. (1)
I
Sol.
SP
2
Dipole moment (m) = IR
 0I
Magnetic induction (B) =
2R
1
B
E
m
B1 m2
  2
B2 m1
JE
25. The density of a material in the shape of a cube is determined by measuring three sides of the cube
and its mass. If the relative errors in measuring the mass and length are respectively 1.5% and 1% the
maximum error in determining the density is :
(1) 4.5% (2) 6% (3) 2.5% (4) 3.5 %

Ans. (1)
PAGE NO : 285
PHYSICS
m
Sol.  100  1.5
m

 100  1

m d m 3 
d  3   100 =  100   100
 d m 
= 1.5 + 3 = 4.5%
26. On interchanging the resistances, the balance point of a meter bridge shifts to the left by 10 cm. The
resistance of their series combination is 1K. How much was the resistance on the left slot before
interchanging the resistances ?
(1) 550   (2) 910   (3) 990   (4) 505

Ans. (1)
NT
R 1000–R
G
Sol.
 100–
Say resistances are R and 1000 – R
For case-
RI
R 1000  R

 100  
1000 R R
For case-II s 
SP
  10 110  
Multiplying both equation
R(1000  R) (1000  R)R

(  10) (100  )(110  )

2 2
 – 10= 11000 +  –210
  200= 11000
 = 55 cm
E
putting in first equation

R 1000  R

JE
55 45
45R = 55000 – 55R
R = 550 
PAGE NO : 286
PHYSICS
27. In an a.c circuit, the instantaneous e.m.f and current are given by
e = 100 sin 30t

 
i = 20 sin  30 t – 
 4 
In one cycle of a.c the average power consumed by the circuit and the wattless current are, respectively :
50 1000
(1) ,0 (2) 50,0 (3) 50,10 (4) ,10
2 2
Ans. (4)
Sol. e = 100 sin30t
 
i = 20sin  30t  
 4
100 20 1 1000
Pav = erms irms cos = . .  W
NT
2 2 2 2
I0 sin  20 1
wattless current = = . = 10A
2 2 2
28. All the graphs below are intended to represent the same motion. One of them does it incorrectly. Pick it up.
Position Velocity
(1) time
RI (2) time
Velocity distance
SP
(3) time (4) time
E
JE
PAGE NO : 287
PHYSICS
Ans. (4) Incorrect

Sol. As in distance vs time graph slope is equal to speed In the given graph slope increase initially which is incorrect
29. Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas occupies a volume V at 27°C. The gas expands adiabatically to a
volume 2V. Calculate (a) the final temperature of the gas and (b) change in its internal energy.
(1) (a) 189 K (b) –2.7 kJ (2) (a) 195 K (b) –2.7 kJ
(3) (a) 189 K (b) 2.7 kJ (4) (a) 195 K (b) –2.7 kj
Ans. (1)
Sol. For adiabatic process
5
T1V11  T2 V2 1 =
3
2 2
NT
 300(V)3  T2 (2V)3
300
 T2  2
 189K
3
2
f
U  nRT
2
3 25
= .2 189  300 
30.
2 3
= –2.7 kJ
RI
A particle is moving with a uniform speed in a circular orbit of radius R in a central force inversely proportional
th
to the n power of R. If the period of rotation of the particle is T, then :
n
1
(4) TR 2
(n+1)/2 n/2 3/2
(1) T R (2) T R (3) T R For any n.
SP
Ans. (1)
k
Sol. F  m2R
E
Rn
n 1
1 2
2 n1
 T = So T R 2
R 
JE
PAGE NO : 288
PHYSICS
2018 ONLINE-1 JEE MAINS
PHYSICS

1. The equivalent capacitance between A and B in the circuit given below is :

6F 2F
A
5F 5F 4F
2F
B
NT
(1) 3.6F (2) 2.4F (3) 4.9F (4) 5.4F
2. A charge Q is placed at a distance. The electric flux through the square the surface is a/2 above the
centre of the square surface of edge a as shown in the figure.
P
RI a/2
SP
a
Q Q Q Q
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6 0 2 0 3 0 0
3. A uniform rod AB is suspended from a point X, at a variable distance x from A, as shown. To make the
rod horizontal, a mass m is suspended from its end A. A set of (m,x) values is recorded. The
appropriate variables that given a straight line, when plotted, are :
E
JE
A X B
m
1 1
(1) m,x2. (2) m, 2
(3) m, (4) m,x
x x
PAGE NO : 289
PHYSICS
4. The energy required to remove the electron from a singly ionized Helium atom is 2.2 times the energy
required to remove an electron from Helium atom. The total energy required to ionize the Helium atom
completely is :
(1) 34eV (2) 20eV (3) 79eV (4) 109eV
60
5. A solution containing active cobalt 27 Co having activity of 0.8 Ci and decay constant  is injected in an
3
animal's body. If 1 cm of blood is drawn from the animal's body after 10 hrs of injection, the activity found was
300 decays per minute. What is the volume of blood that is flowing in the body ? (1Ci = 3.7 × 1010 decays per
–t
second and at t = 10 hrs e = 0.84)
(1) 4 liters (2) 6 liters (3) 5 liters (4) 7 liters
6. In a common emitter configuration with suitable bias, it is given that RL is the load resistance and RBE is
small signal dynamic resistance (input side). Then, voltage gain, current gain and power gain are given,
respectively, by :
 is current gain, B,C and E are respectively base, collector and emitter currents.
R  R R  R R  R R  R
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(1)  L , C , 2 L (2)  L , E ,  2 L (3) 2 L , C ,  L (4) 2 L , C , 2 L
R BE B RBE R BE B RBE R BE B RBE R BE E RBE
7. A body of mass m is moving in a circular orbit of radius R about a planet of mass M. At some instant, it
R
splits into two equal masses. The first mass moves in a circular orbit of radius . and the other mass, in
2
3R
a circular orbit of radius . The difference between the final and initial total energies is :
RI
2
Gm GMm GMm GMm
(1)  (2) – (3) – (4)
6R 2R 6R 2R
8. A Helmholtz coil has a pair of loops, each with N turns and radius R. They are placed coaxially at
distance R and the same current I flows through the loops in the same direction. The magnitude of
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magnetic field at P, midway between the centres A and C, is given by [Refer to figure given below]:
2R
A P C
E
R
8N 0  4N 0  4N 0  8N 0 
(1) 1/ 2
(2) 3/2
(3) 1/ 2
(4)
5 R 5 R 5 R 53 / 2 R
JE
9. A thin uniform tube is bent into a circle of radius r in the vertical plane. Equal volumes of two immiscible
liquids, whose densities are 1 and 2 (1 > 2), fill half the circle. The angle  between the radius vector
passing through the common interface and the vertical is :
–1   1   2      – 2 
(1)  = tan 


 (2)  = tan–1   1 

2  1 –  2   2  1  2 
–1   2  –1  
(3)  = tan   (4)  = tan  1 
2  1   2 
PAGE NO : 290
PHYSICS
10. The velocity-time graphs of a car and a scooter are shown in the figure. (i) The difference between the
distance travelled by the car and the scooter in 15 s and (ii) the time at which the car will catch up with
the scooter are, respectively.
45 A car B
Velocity (ms ) 
–1
E F
30 G
15
O C D
0
0 5 10 15 20 25
Time in (s) 
(1) 112.5 m and 22.5 s (2) 337.5 m and 25 s
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(3) 225.5 m and 10 s (4) 112.5 m and 15 s
3
11. A monochromatic beam of light has a frequency v   1012 Hz and is propagating along the direction
2
î  ĵ
. It is polarized along the k̂ direction. The acceptable form the magnetic field is :
2
E0  î – ĵ 
(1)

C
cos 10 4


 2 

2


  
î – ĵ 
.r – 3  1012 t

RI
E0
(2) k̂
C
SP

cos 10 4
  
î  ĵ  

.r  3  1012 t 
 2 
(3)
 
E 0 î – ĵ
C 2

cos 10 4
  
î  ĵ 
.r  3  1012 t 
 2 
E
(4)

E 0 î  ĵ  k̂ 
C 3
JE

cos 10 4
  
î  ĵ 
.r  3  1012 t 
 2 
PAGE NO : 291
PHYSICS
12. Take the mean distance of the moon and the sun from the earth to be 0.4 × 106 km and 150 × 106 km
respectively. Their masses are 8×1022 kg and 2 × 1030kg respectively. The radius of the earth is
6400km. Let F1 be the difference in the forces exerted by the moon at the nearest and farthest point
on the earth and F2 be the difference in the force exerted by the sun at the nearest and farthest points
F1
on the earth. Then, the number closest to is :
F2
–2
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 2 (4) 0.6
13. A planoconvex lens becomes an optical system of 28cm focal length when its plane surface is silvered
and illuminated from left to right as shown in fig-A
If the same lens is instead silvered on the curved surface and illuminated from other side as in fig. B, it
acts like an optical system of focal length 10 cm. The refractive index of the material of lens is:
Fig .A Fig .B
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(1) 1.55 (2) 1.50 (3) 1.75 (4)1.51
14. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is compressed isothermally in a rigid vessel to double its
pressure at room temperature, 27°C. The done on the gas will be :
(1) 300R (2) 300R In 2 (3) 300 In 6 (4) 300R In 7
15. An automobile, travelling at 40 km/h, can be stopped at a distance of 40 m by applying brakes. If the
RI
same automobile is travelling at 80 km/h, the minimum stopping distance, in metres, is (assume no
skidding) :
(1) 150m (2) 100m (3) 75m (4) 160m
16. A carnot's engine works as a refrigerator between 250K and 300K. It receives 500 cal heat from the
reservoir at the lower temperature. The amount of work done in each cycle to operate the refrigerator is
SP
(1) 772 J (2) 420 J (3) 2100 J (4) 2520 J
17. In a screw gauge, 5 complete rotations of the screw cause it to move a linear distance of 0.25 cm.
There are 100 circular scale divisions. The thickness of a wire measured by this screw gauge gives a
reading of 4 main scale divisions and 30 circular scale divisions. Assuming negligible zero error, the
thickness of the wire is :
(1) 0.4300 cm (2) 0.3150 cm (3) 0.0430 cm (4) 0.2150 cm
18. The number of amplitude modulated broadcast stations that can be accommodated in a 300 kHz band
E
width for the highest modulating frequency 15 kHz will be :

(1) 15 (2) 20 (3) 8 (4) 10
JE
19. An ideal capacitor of capacitance 0.2 F is charged to a potential difference of 10 V. The charging
battery is then disconnected. The capacitor is then connected to an ideal inductor of self inductance
0.5 mH. The current at a time when the potential difference across the capacitor is 5V is :
(1) 0.15 A (2) 0.17 A (3) 0.34 A (4) 0.25 A
20. Light of wavelength 550 nm falls normally on a slit of width 22.0 × 10–5 cm. The angular position of the
second minima from the central maximum will be (in radians) :
   
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 8 12 6
PAGE NO : 292
PHYSICS
21. A force of 40 N acts on a point B at the end of an L-shaped object as shown in the figure. The angle 
that will produce maximum moment of the force about point A is given by :
A
4m

F

B
2m
1 1
(1) tan  = 4 (2) tan  = (3) tan  = (4) tan  = 2
4 2
22. A tuning fork vibrates with frequency 256 Hz and gives one beat per second with the third normal mode
–1
of vibration of an open pipe. What is the length of the pipe ? (Speed of sound in air is 340 ms )
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(1) 220 cm (2) 200 cm (3) 190 cm (4) 180 cm
23. A body of mass M and charge q is connected to a spring of spring constant k. It is oscillating along
x-direction about its equilibrium position, taken to be at x = 0, with an amplitude A. An electric field E is
applied along the x-direction. Which of the following statements is correct?
1 2 2 1 q2E2
(1) The total energy of the system is m A + .
2 2 k
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(2) The new equilibrium position is at a distance
(3) The new equilibrium position is at a distance

2qE
k
qE
from x = 0.
from x = 0.
2k
1 1 q2E2
(4) The total energy of the system is m2A2 – .
2 2 k
SP
24. A given object takes n times more time to slide down a 45° rough inclined plane as it takes to slide
down a perfectly smooth 45° incline. The coefficients of kinetic friction between the object and the
incline is :
1 1 1 1
(1) 1– (2) 1 – (3) (4)
n2 n2 2 – n2 1– n2
E
25. The relative error in the determination of the surface area of a sphere is . Then the relative error in the
determination of its volume is :
3 2 5
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 
JE
2 3 2
PAGE NO : 293
PHYSICS
26. In a meter bridge as shown in the figure it is given that resistance Y = 12.5  and that the balance is
obtained at a distance 39.5 cm from end A (by Jockey J). After interchanging the resistances X and Y a
new balance point is found at a distance l2 from end A. What are the values of X and l2?
X Y
1 G 100 – 1 C
A
39.5
(.)
Battery Key
(1) 19.15  and 39.5 cm (2) 8.16  and 60.5 cm

(3) 8.16  and 39.5 cm (4) 19.15  and 60.5 cm
27. The B-H curve for a ferromagnet is shown in the figure. The ferromagnet is placed inside a long
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solenoid with 1000 turns/cm. The current that should be passed in the solenoid to demagnetise the
ferromagnet completely is :
B(T)
2.0
1.0
H (A/m)
-200 -100
RI 100 200
1.0
2.0
(1) 2 mA (2) 20 A (3) 1 mA (4) 40 A
28. In the given circuit all resistances are of value of R ohm each. The equivalent resistance between A and
B is :
SP
A
B
E
5R 5R
(1) (2) 3R (3) (4) 2R
2 3
JE
PAGE NO : 294
PHYSICS
29. A particle is oscillating on the x-axis with an amplitude 2cm about the point x0 = 10cm with a frequency
. A concave mirror of focal length 5cm is placed at the origin (see figure).
x0 = 10cm
x=0
Identify the correct statements?

(A) The image executes periodic motion
(B) The image executes non-periodic motion
(C) The turning points of the image are asymmetric w.r.t. the image of the point at x = 10 cm.
100
(D) The distance between the turning points of the oscillation of the image is cm.
21
(1) (B, C) (2) (A, C, D) (3) (A, D) (4) (B, D)
30. Two electrons are moving with non-relativistic speeds perpendicular to each other. If corresponding
de Broglie wavelengths are 1 and 2 their de Broglie wavelength in the frame of reference attached to
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their centre of mass is :
1 1 1 212    2 
(1)   (2) CM = (3) CM = 1 = 2 (4) CM =  1 
 CM 1  2 2
 
1
2
2
 2 
RI
2018 ONLINE-1 JEE MAINS ANSWER KEY
SP
Ques 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans 2 1 3 3 3 1 3 4 2 1
E
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ques 11
Ans 3 2 4 2 4 4 2 2
JE
3 1
26 27 28 29 30
Ques 21 22 23 24 25
4 2 2
Ans 3 2 1 2 2 3
1
PAGE NO : 295
PHYSICS
2018 ONLINE-1 JEE MAINS SOLUTION
PHYSICS

1. The equivalent capacitance between A and B in the circuit given below is :

6F 2F
A
5F 5F 4F
2F
B
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(1) 3.6F (2) 2.4F (3) 4.9F (4) 5.4F
Ans. (2)
6F 2F E
D D
A
Sol. 5F 5F 4F

RI E
E E
2F
B
Simplified circuit
6F 2F 4F
D E E
A B
SP
5F 2F
5F
1 1 1 1 5 12
     Ceq   2.4F
c eq 6 12 6 12 5
E
JE
PAGE NO : 296
PHYSICS
2. A charge Q is placed at a distance. The electric flux through the square the surface is a/2 above the
centre of the square surface of edge a as shown in the figure.
P
a/2
Q Q Q Q
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6 0 2 0 3 0 0
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Ans. (1)
Q
a/2
Sol.
RI
a
charged particle can be Considered at centre of a cube of side a, and given surface represents its one
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side.
Q
So flux =
60
3. A uniform rod AB is suspended from a point X, at a variable distance x from A, as shown. To make the
rod horizontal, a mass m is suspended from its end A. A set of (m,x) values is recorded. The
appropriate variables that given a straight line, when plotted, are :
E
A X B
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m
1 1
(1) m,x2. (2) m, 2
(3) m, (4) m,x
x x
Ans. (3)
PAGE NO : 297
PHYSICS
x /2-X
Sol. A B
Mg
m
Balancing torque w.r.t. point of suspension
 
mg x = Mg   x 
2 

mx = M  Mx
2
 1
m = M   M
 2 x
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1
y=  C equation of a straight line
x
4. The energy required to remove the electron from a singly ionized Helium atom is 2.2 times the energy
required to remove an electron from Helium atom. The total energy required to ionize the Helium atom
completely is :
(1) 34eV (2) 20eV (3) 79eV (4) 109eV
Ans.
Sol.
(3)
–
RI
Energy required to remove e from singly ionized helium atom = 54.4 eV
–
Energy required to remove e form helium atom = x ev given 54.4 eV = 2.2x  x = 24.73 eV
Energy required to ionize helium atom = 79.12 eV
60
5. A solution containing active cobalt 27 Co having activity of 0.8 Ci and decay constant  is injected in an
SP
3
animal's body. If 1 cm of blood is drawn from the animal's body after 10 hrs of injection, the activity found was
300 decays per minute. What is the volume of blood that is flowing in the body ? (1Ci = 3.7 × 1010 decays per
second and at t = 10 hrs e –t = 0.84)
(1) 4 liters (2) 6 liters (3) 5 liters (4) 7 liters
Ans. (3)
Sol. Let total volume of blood is v, initial activity A0 = O.Q ci its activity at time t = A = A0e–t activity of x
A A 
E
1
volume A =   x  x  0  e t
V
   V 
A 
V  x  01  e t
JE
A 
 
 8  107  3.7  1010 
3
V = (1cm )    0.84 
 300 
 60 
3 3
= 4.97 × 10 cm = 4.97 liter
PAGE NO : 298
PHYSICS
6. In a common emitter configuration with suitable bias, it is given that RL is the load resistance and RBE is
small signal dynamic resistance (input side). Then, voltage gain, current gain and power gain are given,
respectively, by :
 is current gain, B,C and E are respectively base, collector and emitter currents.
R  R R  R R  R R  R
(1)  L , C , 2 L (2)  L , E ,  2 L (3) 2 L , C ,  L (4) 2 L , C , 2 L
R BE B RBE R BE B RBE R BE B RBE R BE E RBE
Ans. (1)
Sol. From NCERT
IC
Current gain  =
IB
VCE R
Voltage gain Av = B L
RBE IB RBE
RL
Power gain Ap = Av = 2
RBE
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7. A body of mass m is moving in a circular orbit of radius R about a planet of mass M. At some instant, it
R
splits into two equal masses. The first mass moves in a circular orbit of radius . and the other mass, in
2
3R
a circular orbit of radius . The difference between the final and initial total energies is :
2
Gm GMm GMm GMm
(1)  (2) – (3) – (4)
Ans.
Sol.
(3)
Ei  
6R
GMm
2R
2R
RI 6R 2R
GMm / 2 GMm / 2 GMm GMm 4GMm 2Mm

Ef      =  
R   3R  2R 6R 6R 3R
2  2
SP

2
   2 
GMm  2 1  GMm
Ef – Ei =     
R  3 2 6R
8. A Helmholtz coil has a pair of loops, each with N turns and radius R. They are placed coaxially at
distance R and the same current I flows through the loops in the same direction. The magnitude of
magnetic field at P, midway between the centres A and C, is given by [Refer to figure given below]:
E
2R
JE
A P C
R
8N 0  4N 0  4N 0  8N 0 
(1) 1/ 2
(2) 3/2
(3) 1/ 2
(4)
5 R 5 R 5 R 53 / 2 R
Ans. (4)
PAGE NO : 299
PHYSICS
 
 2
 2
 0NIR  0NIR 8 NI
Sol. B = 2 3 / 2   3 / 2
= 3 /02
2 5 5 R
  2 R  
 2R  4   8
   
9. A thin uniform tube is bent into a circle of radius r in the vertical plane. Equal volumes of two immiscible
liquids, whose densities are 1 and 2 (1 > 2), fill half the circle. The angle  between the radius vector
passing through the common interface and the vertical is :
    2      – 2 
(1)  = tan–1  1  (2)  = tan–1   1 
2  1 – 2  
 2  1  2 
–1   2   
(3)  = tan   (4)  = tan–1  1 
2  1   2 
Ans. (2)
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Sol.
 RI
 P2

P1
SP
equating pressure at point A
1, g R (cos – sin) = 2gR(sin + cos)
1 sin   cos  tan   1
 
2 cos   sin  1  tan 
1 –1 tan = 2 +2 tan
(1 +2) tan= 1 – 2
   2 
 = tan1  1
E

 1  2 
JE
PAGE NO : 300
PHYSICS
10. The velocity-time graphs of a car and a scooter are shown in the figure. (i) The difference between the
distance travelled by the car and the scooter in 15 s and (ii) the time at which the car will catch up with
the scooter are, respectively.
45 A car B
Velocity (ms ) 
–1
E F
30 G
15
O C D
0
0 5 10 15 20 25
Time in (s) 
(1) 112.5 m and 22.5 s (2) 337.5 m and 25 s
(3) 225.5 m and 10 s (4) 112.5 m and 15 s
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Ans. (1)
1 675
Sol. Distance travelled by car in 15 sec = (45) (15) = m , Distance traveled by scooter in
2 2
15 seconds = 30 × 15 = 450
Let car catches scooter in time t;
675
 45(t  15)  30t
2
11.
337.5 + 45t – 675 = 30t  15t = 337.5
A monochromatic beam of light has a frequency v 

RI 
3
2
t = 22.5 sec
 1012 Hz and is propagating along the direction
î  ĵ
. It is polarized along the k̂ direction. The acceptable form the magnetic field is :
2
SP
E0  î – ĵ 
(1)  
C  2 
 

cos 10 4
  
î – ĵ  

.r – 3  1012 t 
 2 
E0
(2) k̂
C
  
E
 î  ĵ 
cos 10 4
2
.r  3  1012 t 
 
 
E 0 î – ĵ
JE
(3)
C 2

cos 10 4
  
î  ĵ 
.r  3  1012 t 
 2 
(4)

E 0 î  ĵ  k̂ 
C 3

cos 10 4
  
î  ĵ 
.r  3  1012 t 
 2 
PAGE NO : 301
PHYSICS
Ans. (3)
Sol. Eˆ  Bˆ should give direction of wave propagation
 î  ˆj
 K  Bˆ II
2
 î  ˆj  ˆj  ( î) î  ˆj î  ˆj
option – 1 K̂    
 2  2 2 2
 
option -2 and 4 does not satisfy this.
î  ˆj
wave propagation vector K̂ should be along
2
So correct option is 3.
6 6
12. Take the mean distance of the moon and the sun from the earth to be 0.4 × 10 km and 150 × 10 km
respectively. Their masses are 8×1022 kg and 2 × 1030 kg respectively. The radius of the earth is
6400km. Let F1 be the difference in the forces exerted by the moon at the nearest and farthest point
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on the earth and F2 be the difference in the force exerted by the sun at the nearest and farthest points
F1
on the earth. Then, the number closest to is :
F2
–2
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 2 (4) 0.6
Ans. (3)
GMem GMeMs
Sol. F1  F2 
F1 = 
r12
2GMem
r13
r1
r22
F2 = 
RI
2GMeMs
r23
r2
F1 mr1 r23  m   r23   r1 

 3    
F2 r1 Ms r2  Ms  r13   r2 
SP
using r1 = r2 = 2 Rearth
m = 8 × 1022 kg
Ms = 2 × 1030 kg
r1 = 0.4 × 106 km
r2 = 150 × 106 km
F1
we get 2
F2
E
13. A planoconvex lens becomes an optical system of 28cm focal length when its plane surface is silvered
and illuminated from left to right as shown in fig-A
If the same lens is instead silvered on the curved surface and illuminated from other side as in fig. B, it
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acts like an optical system of focal length 10 cm. The refractive index of the material of lens is:
Fig .A Fig .B
(1) 1.55 (2) 1.50 (3) 1.75 (4)1.51
Ans. (1)
PAGE NO : 302
PHYSICS
Sol. Case-1
1    1

f1  R 
 f =–28
P = 2P1 + P2
1    1
 2 
28  R 
Case-2
1    1 R

f1  R 
 f2   f=–10cm
2
1    1 2
P = 2P1 + P2   2 
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10  2  R
1 1 2
 
10 28 R
2 1 2 18
  
R 10 28 280
280
R= cm
9
1
28
–1=
 2
   1
 280 
5
9
RI
9
5 14
 = 1   1.55
SP
9 9
14. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is compressed isothermally in a rigid vessel to double its pressure
at room temperature, 27°C. The done on the gas will be :
(1) 300R (2) 300R In 2 (3) 300 In 6 (4) 300R In 7
Ans. (2)
p 
Sol. Work done on gas = nRT n  f  = R(300) n(2) = 300Rn2
 pi 
E
15. An automobile, travelling at 40 km/h, can be stopped at a distance of 40 m by applying brakes. If the
same automobile is travelling at 80 km/h, the minimum stopping distance, in metres, is (assume no
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skidding) :
(1) 150m (2) 100m (3) 75m (4) 160m
Ans. (4)
u2
Sol. S=
2a
2
S1 u12 u  2
 2  S2 =  2  S1 = (2) (40) = 160 m
S2 u2  u1 
PAGE NO : 303
PHYSICS
16. A carnot's engine works as a refrigerator between 250K and 300K. It receives 500 cal heat from the
reservoir at the lower temperature. The amount of work done in each cycle to operate the refrigerator is
(1) 772 J (2) 420 J (3) 2100 J (4) 2520 J
Ans. (2)
T W
Sol. Efficiency = 1 – 2 
T1 Q2  W
250 W
 1 
300 Q2  W
Q2 500  4.2
W  J  420J
5 5
17. In a screw gauge, 5 complete rotations of the screw cause it to move a linear distance of 0.25 cm.
There are 100 circular scale divisions. The thickness of a wire measured by this screw gauge gives a
reading of 4 main scale divisions and 30 circular scale divisions. Assuming negligible zero error, the
thickness of the wire is :
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(1) 0.4300 cm (2) 0.3150 cm (3) 0.0430 cm (4) 0.2150 cm
Ans. (4)
0.25 –4
Sol. Least Count = cm = 5 × 10 cm
5  100
–4
Reading = 4 × 0.05cm + 30 × 5 × 10 cm
= (0.2 + 0.0150) cm = 0.2150 cm
18. The number of amplitude modulated broadcast stations that can be accommodated in a 300 kHz band
Ans.
Sol.
(1) 15
(4)
(2) 20
RI
width for the highest modulating frequency 15 kHz will be :
(3) 8 (4) 10
If modulating frequency is 15 KHz then band width of one channel = 30 kHz

300kHz
No of channels accommodate =  10
30kHz
SP
19. An ideal capacitor of capacitance 0.2 F is charged to a potential difference of 10 V. The charging
battery is then disconnected. The capacitor is then connected to an ideal inductor of self inductance
0.5 mH. The current at a time when the potential difference across the capacitor is 5V is :
(1) 0.15 A (2) 0.17 A (3) 0.34 A (4) 0.25 A
Ans. (2)
Sol. Using energy conservation
1 1 1
E
 0.2  106  102  0 =  0.2  106  52   0.5  103 I 2

2 2 2
I  3  101 A = 0.17A
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–5
20. Light of wavelength 550 nm falls normally on a slit of width 22.0 × 10 cm. The angular position of the
second minima from the central maximum will be (in radians) :
   
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 8 12 6
Ans. (2)
PAGE NO : 304
PHYSICS
Sol. If angular position of 2nd maxima from central maxima is  then

3 3  550  10 9
sin   
2a 2  22  10 7

~
 rad
8
21. A force of 40 N acts on a point B at the end of an L-shaped object as shown in the figure. The angle 
that will produce maximum moment of the force about point A is given by :
A
4m

F

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B
2m
1 1
(1) tan  = 4 (2) tan  = (3) tan  = (4) tan  = 2
4 2
Ans. (3)
Sol. Moment of force will be maximum when line of action of force is perpendicular to line AB.
4m

RI

SP
2m
2 1
tan   
4 2
22. A tuning fork vibrates with frequency 256 Hz and gives one beat per second with the third normal mode
of vibration of an open pipe. What is the length of the pipe ? (Speed of sound in air is 340 ms–1)
(1) 220 cm (2) 200 cm (3) 190 cm (4) 180 cm
E
Ans. (2)
Sol. Organ pipe will have frequency either 255 or 257 Hz
Using 255Hz
3V 3  340
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255   m
2 2  255
 = 200 cm.
PAGE NO : 305
PHYSICS
23. A body of mass M and charge q is connected to a spring of spring constant k. It is oscillating along
x-direction about its equilibrium position, taken to be at x = 0, with an amplitude A. An electric field E is
applied along the x-direction. Which of the following statements is correct?
1 1 q2E2
(1) The total energy of the system is m2A2 + .
2 2 k
2qE
(2) The new equilibrium position is at a distance from x = 0.
k
qE
(3) The new equilibrium position is at a distance from x = 0.
2k
1 1 q2E2
(4) The total energy of the system is m2A2 – .
2 2 k
Ans. (1)
Sol. Equilibrium position will shift to point where resultant force = 0
qE
kxeq = qE xeq =
k
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2
1   qE   1 2 2 1 q2E2
Energy m 2  A 2     = m A 
2   k   2 2 k
24. A given object takes n times more time to slide down a 45° rough inclined plane as it takes to slide
down a perfectly smooth 45° incline. The coefficients of kinetic friction between the object and the
incline is : RI
1 1 1 1
(1) 1– (2) 1 – (3) (4)
n2 n2 2 – n2 1– n2
Ans. (2)
Sol. Time taken to slide along smooth surface

1
s  gsin 45t12
SP
2
2 2s
t1 
g
Time taken to slide along rough surface
1
S  (gsin45  gcos 45)t 22
2
2 2s
t2 =
E
g(1  )
t2 = nt1
2 2s 2 2s 1 1
 n2   1 –  = 2  =1–
JE
g(1  ) g n n2
25. The relative error in the determination of the surface area of a sphere is . Then the relative error in the
determination of its volume is :
3 2 5
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 
2 3 2
Ans. (1)
PAGE NO : 306
PHYSICS
s r v r
Sol.  2  3
s r v r
v 3
 
v 2
26. In a meter bridge as shown in the figure it is given that resistance Y = 12.5  and that the balance is
obtained at a distance 39.5 cm from end A (by Jockey J). After interchanging the resistances X and Y a
new balance point is found at a distance l2 from end A. What are the values of X and l2?
X Y
1 G 100 – 1 C
A
39.5
(.)
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Battery Key
(1) 19.15  and 39.5 cm (2) 8.16  and 60.5 cm

(3) 8.16  and 39.5 cm (4) 19.15  and 60.5 cm
Ans. (2)
Sol. For a balanced meter bridge
y × 39.5 = x × (100 – 39.5)
12.5  39.5 RI
x=  8.16
60.5
when x & y are interchanged 1 and (100 – 1) will also interchange
2 = 60.5 cm.
27. The B-H curve for a ferromagnet is shown in the figure. The ferromagnet is placed inside a long
solenoid with 1000 turns/cm. The current that should be passed in the solenoid to demagnetise the
SP
ferromagnet completely is :
B(T)
2.0
1.0
H (A/m)
-200 -100 100 200
1.0
2.0
E
(1) 2 mA (2) 20 A (3) 1 mA (4) 40 A

Ans. (3)
Sol. Coercivity of Ferro magnet H = 100 A/m
JE
nI = 100
100
I=  1mA
105
PAGE NO : 307
PHYSICS
28. In the given circuit all resistances are of value of R ohm each. The equivalent resistance between A and
B is :
B
5R 5R
(1) (2) 3R (3) (4) 2R
2 3
Ans. (4)
NT
R R
R R
Sol. C
A
R C R
R
R
R R
B
A
R
R
C
C
C
RI R
 Req = 2R
SP
B
R C
29. A particle is oscillating on the x-axis with an amplitude 2cm about the point x0 = 10cm with a frequency
. A concave mirror of focal length 5cm is placed at the origin (see figure).
x0 = 10cm
x=0
E
Identify the correct statements?

(A) The image executes periodic motion
(B) The image executes non-periodic motion
JE
(C) The turning points of the image are asymmetric w.r.t. the image of the point at x = 10 cm.
100
(D) The distance between the turning points of the oscillation of the image is cm.
21
(1) (B, C) (2) (A, C, D) (3) (A, D) (4) (B, D)
Ans. (2)
PAGE NO : 308
PHYSICS
Sol. When object is at 8 cm

f u 40
V1   cm
u f 3
When object is at 12 cm
60
V2   cm
7
100
Separation = V1  V2  cm
21
So A, C and D are correct
30. Two electrons are moving with non-relativistic speeds perpendicular to each other. If corresponding
de Broglie wavelengths are 1 and 2 their de Broglie wavelength in the frame of reference attached to
their centre of mass is :
1 1 1 212    2 
(1)   (2) CM = (3) CM = 1 = 2 (4) CM =  1 
 CM 1  2 2
  2
1 2
 2 
NT
Ans. (2)
h h
Sol. Momentum of each electron î & ĵ
1 2
Velocity of centre of mass
h ˆ h ˆ
Vcm  i j
2m1 2m 2
Velocity of 1st particle about centre of mass
V1cm 
h ˆ
2m1
i
h
h ˆ
2m 2
j
21 2
RI
 cm  
2 2
h h 12   22
2
 2
41 4 2
SP
E
JE
PAGE NO : 309
PHYSICS
PHYSICS
1. The relative uncertainty in the period of a satellite orbiting around the earth is 10–2. If the relative
uncertainty in the radius of the orbit is negligible the relative uncertainty in the mass of the earth is :
(1) 2 × 10–2 (2) 6 × 10–2 (3) 3 × 10–2 (4) 10–2
2. At some instant a radioactive sample S1 having an activity 5 Ci has twice the number of nuclei as
another sample S2 which has an activity of 10 Ci. The half lives of S1 and S2 are :
NT
(1) 5 years and 20 years, respectively (2) 20 years and 5 years, respectively
CP 3
3. Two moles of helium are mixed with an moles of hydrogen. If  for the mixture then the value of n is
CV 2
4.
(1) 1 (2) 3
RI (3) 2 (4) 3/2
Unpolarized light of intensity I is incident on a system of two polarizers, A followed by B. The intensity of
emergent light is I/2. If a third polarizer C is placed between A and B the intensity of emergent light is
reduced to I/3. The angle between the polarizers A and C is , then
SP
1/ 4 1/ 4 1/ 2 1/ 2
 2  1  1  2
(1) cos  =   (2) cos  =   (3) cos  =   (4) cos  =  
3 3 3 3
5. The de-Broglie wavelength (B) associated with the electron orbiting in the second excited state of
hydrogen atom is related to that in the ground state (G) by :
(1) B = 3G (2) B = 2G (3) B = 3G/3 (4) B = 3G/2
E
6. In the given circuit the current through zener diode is :

JE
R1 500
15V
1500 R2 VZ = 10V
(1) 3.3mA (2) 2.5mA (3) 5.5mA (4) 6.7mA
PAGE NO : 310
PHYSICS
7. The end correction of a resonance column is 1cm. If the shortest length resonating with the tuning fork
is 10cm, the next resonating length should be :
(1) 32cm (2) 40cm (3) 28cm (4) 36cm
8. Two sitar strings A and B playing the note 'Dha' are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency
5Hz. The tension of the string B is slightly increased and the beat frequency is found to decrease by
3Hz. If the frequency of A is 425 Hz. the original frequency of B is :
(1) 428 Hz (2) 430 Hz (3) 422 Hz (4) 420 Hz
9. A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300V to a step down transformer with its primary
windings having 4000 turns giving the output power at 230V. If the current in the primary of the
transformer is 5A and its efficiency is 90% the output current would be :
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(1) 45A (2) 50A (3) 20A (4) 25A
10. A body of mass m starts moving from rest along x-axis so that its velocity varies as  = a s where a is
a constant and s is the distance covered by the body. The total work done by all the forces acting on the body
in the first t seconds after the start of the motion is :
RI
1 1
(1) 8ma4t2 (2) ma4t2 (3) 4ma4t2 (4) ma4t2
4 8
11. Suppose that the angular velocity of rotation of earth is increased. Then as a consequence :
(1) Weight of the object every where on the earth will decrease
SP
(2) Weight of the object every where on the earth will increase
(3) Except at poles weight of the object on the earth will decrease
(4) There will be no change in weight anywhere on the earth.
12. Both the nucleus and the atom of some element are in their respective first excited states. They get de-
N
excited by emitting photons of wavelengths N, A respectively. The ratio is closest to :
E
A
(1) 10–1 (2) 10–6 (3) 10 (4) 10–10

JE
PAGE NO : 311
PHYSICS
13. A plane electromagnetic wave of wavelength  has an intensity I. It is propagating along the positive
Y-direction. The allowed expressions for the electric and magnetic fields are given by :
 2I  2   I  2 ˆ
E cos   y – ct   k; E cos   y – ct   k;
0c   0c   
(1) (2)
 1  1
B   Eiˆ B   Eiˆ
c c
 2I  2 ˆ  I  2 
E cos   y – ct   k; E cos   y – ct   i;
0c    0c  
(3) (4)
 1  1 
B  Eiˆ B  Ek
c c
14. A charge q is spread uniformly over an insulated loop of radius r. If it is rotated with an angular velocity
 with respect to normal axis then magnetic moment of the loop is :
NT
3 1 4
(1) qr 2 (2) qr 2 (3) qr2 (4) qr 2
2 2 3
15. A heating element has a resistance of 100 at room temperature. When it is connected to a supply of
220V a steady current of 2A passes in it and temperature is 500°C more than room temperature. What
is the temperature coefficient of resistance of the heating element?
RI
(1) 5 × 10–4 °C–1 (2) 2 × 10–4 °C–1 (3) 1 × 10–4 °C–1 (4) 0.5 × 10–4 °C–1
16. A coil of cross-sectional area A having n turns is placed in a uniform magnetic field B. When it is rotated
with an angular velocity  the maximum e.m.f. induced in the coil will be :
SP
3 1
(1) nBA (2) 3nBA (3) nBA (4) nBA
2 2
17. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 60° on one face of a prism of angle 30°. The emergent ray of
light makes an angle of 30° with incident ray. The angle made by the emergent ray with second face of
prism will be :
(1) 0° (2) 90° (3) 30° (4) 45°
E
18. A galvanometer with its coil resistance 25 requires a current of 1mA for its full deflection. In order to
JE
construct an ammeter to read up to a current of 2A the approximate value of the shunt resistance
should be :
(1) 1.25 × 10–2 (2) 2.5 × 10–3 (3) 2.5 × 10–2 (4) 1.25 × 10–3
PAGE NO : 312
PHYSICS
1
19. An oscillator of mass M is at rest in the equilibrium position in a potential V = k(x – X)2. A particle of
2
mass m comes from right with speed u and collides completely inelastically with M and sticks to it. This
process repeats every time the oscillator crosses its equilibrium position. The amplitude of oscillations after 13
collisions is : (M = 10, m = 5, u = 1, k = 1)
2 1 3 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 5 2
20. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is taken along the path ABCA as shown in the PV diagram. The
maximum temperature attained by the gas along the path BC is given by :
P
NT
3P0
P0 C
A
V0 2V0 V
25 P0 V0 5 P0 V0 25 P0 V0 25 P0 V0
(1) (2) RI (3) (4)
4 R 8 R 8 R 16 R
21. In a circuit for finding the resistance of a galvanometer by half deflection method a 6V battery and a
high resistance of 11k are used. The figure of merit of the galvanometer produces a deflection of  = 9
divisions when current flows in the circuit. The value of the shunt resistance that can cause the
SP
deflection of /2 is
(1) 550 (2) 220 (3) 55 (4) 110
22. In the following circuit the switch S is closed at t = 0. The charge on the capacitor C1 as a function of
 C1C2 
time will be given by  Ceq  
 C1  C2 
E
C1 C2
JE
S E R
(1) C1E[1 – exp(–tR/C1)] (2) CeqE exp(–t/RCeq)
(3) CeqE [1 – exp(–t/RCeq)] (4) C2E[1 – exp(–t/RC2)]
PAGE NO : 313
PHYSICS
        
23.    
Let A  î  ˆj and B  2iˆ – ˆj . The magnitude of a coplanar vector C such that A.C  B.C  A.B is given
by :
9 20 5 10
(1) (2) (3) (4)
12 9 9 9
24. A particle executes simple harmonic motion and is located at x = a, b and c at times t0, 2t0 and 3t0
respectively. The frequency of the oscillation is :
1 ac 1  a  2b  1 ab 1  2a  3c 
(1) cos–1   (2) cos–1   (3) cos–1   (4) cos–1  
2t 0  2b  2t 0  3c  2t 0  2c  2t 0  b 
25. A thin circular disk is in the xy plane as shown in the figure. The ratio of its moment of inertia about z
NT
and z' axes will be :
z
z'
o y
x
RI
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 5 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 2
SP
26. Two identical conducting spheres A and B carry equal charge. They are separated by a distance much
larger than their diameters and the force between them is F. A third identical conducting sphere C is
uncharged. Sphere C is first touched to A then to B and then removed. As a result the force between A
and B would be equal to :
3F F 3F
(1) (2) (3) (4) F
4 2 8
E
27. Two particles of the same mass m are moving in circular orbits because of force given by
JE
–16 3
F(r) = – r . The first particle is at distance r = 1 and the second at r = 4. The best estimate for the ratio
r
of kinetic energies of the first and the second particle is closest to :
(1) 3 × 10–3 (2) 6 × 102 (3) 6 × 10–2 (4) 10–1
PAGE NO : 314
PHYSICS
28. The percentage errors in quantities P, Q, R and S are 0.5%, 1%, 3% and 1.5% respectively in the
P 3 Q2
measurement of a physical quantity A = . The maximum percentage error in the value of A will be :
RS
(1) 6.5% (2) 7.5% (3) 6.0% (4) 8.5%
29. A carrier wave of peak voltage 14V is used for transmitting a message signal given to achieve a
modulation index of 80% will be :
(1) 22.4V (2) 7V (3) 11.2V (4) 28V
30. A small soap bubble of radius 4cm is trapped inside another bubble of radius 6cm without any contact.
Let P2 be the pressure inside the inner bubble and P0 the pressure outside the outer bubble. Radius of
another bubble with pressure difference P2 – P0 between its inside and outside would be :
NT
(1) 2.4cm (2) 12cm (3) 4.8cm (4) 6cm
Ques 1 2 3
RI
4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans 1 1 3 1 1 4 1 4
1 1
SP
Ques 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
E
Ans 3 2 1 2 2 3 2 1 2 3
JE
Ques 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 4 3 3 1 3 3 3 1 3 1
PAGE NO : 315
PHYSICS
2018 ONLINE-2 JEE MAINS SOLUTION
PHYSICS
1. The relative uncertainty in the period of a satellite orbiting around the earth is 10–2. If the relative
uncertainty in the radius of the orbit is negligible the relative uncertainty in the mass of the earth is :
(1) 2 × 10–2 (2) 6 × 10–2 (3) 3 × 10–2 (4) 10–2

Ans. (1)
Sol. From kepler's Law
4 2 3
T2  r
GM
M T
2 = 2 × 10–2
M T
NT
2. At some instant a radioactive sample S1 having an activity 5 Ci has twice the number of nuclei as
another sample S2 which has an activity of 10 Ci. The half lives of S1 and S2 are :
Ans. (1)
Sol. Given : N1 = 2N2
1N1 =
2N2 =
n2
t1
 N1  5ci
n2
 N2  10ci
RI
t2
t 2 N1 1
 
SP
t1 N2 2
t2 1

t1 4
Hence 5years and 20 year
CP 3
3. Two moles of helium are mixed with an moles of hydrogen. If  for the mixture then the value of n is
CV 2
E
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3/2

Ans. (3)
Cp fmix  2 3
Sol.  
JE
Cv fmix 2
 f mix = 4
n1f1  n2 f2
fmix 
n1  n2
4  2  3  n2  5
  n2 = 2mole
2  n2
PAGE NO : 316
PHYSICS
4. Unpolarized light of intensity I is incident on a system of two polarizers, A followed by B. The intensity of
emergent light is I/2. If a third polarizer C is placed between A and B the intensity of emergent light is
reduced to I/3. The angle between the polarizers A and C is , then
1/ 4 1/ 4 1/ 2 1/ 2
 2  1  1  2
(1) cos  =   (2) cos  =   (3) cos  =   (4) cos  =  
3
  3 3 3
Ans. (1)
Sol. A and B have same alignment of transmission axis.
Lets assume c is introduced at  angle
I I
cos2   cos2  
2 3
1/ 4
2 2
cos4 =  cos =  
3 3
5. The de-Broglie wavelength (B) associated with the electron orbiting in the second excited state of
hydrogen atom is related to that in the ground state (G) by :
NT
(1) B = 3G (2) B = 2G (3) B = 3G/3 (4) B = 3G/2
Ans. (1)
B Pa mv G
Sol.  
 G PB mvB
z B nB 3
V× So  
n  G nG 1 RI
B = 3G
Length of Orbit = n × 
2r 1
=  
n n
6. In the given circuit the current through zener diode is :

SP
R1 500
15V
1500 R2 VZ = 10V
E
(1) 3.3mA (2) 2.5mA (3) 5.5mA (4) 6.7mA

Ans. (1)
JE
5
Sol. Current in R1 = I1 =
500
I1 = 10 mA
10 20
Current in R2 = I2 =  I2 =
mA
1500 3
 20  10
Current in zener diode = I1 – I2 =  10   mA  mA
 3  3
PAGE NO : 317
PHYSICS
7. The end correction of a resonance column is 1cm. If the shortest length resonating with the tuning fork
is 10cm, the next resonating length should be :
(1) 32cm (2) 40cm (3) 28cm (4) 36cm
Ans. (1)
Sol. Given : e = 1 cm
For first resonance

  1  e  11cm
4
For second resonance
3
  1  e  2 = 3 × 11 – 1 = 32 cm
4
8. Two sitar strings A and B playing the note 'Dha' are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency
5Hz. The tension of the string B is slightly increased and the beat frequency is found to decrease by
3Hz. If the frequency of A is 425 Hz. the original frequency of B is :
(1) 428 Hz (2) 430 Hz (3) 422 Hz (4) 420 Hz
NT
Ans. (4)
Sol. Frequency of B is either 420Hz or 430Hz As tension in B is increased its frequency will increase.
If frequency is 430Hz, beat frequency will increase
If frequency is 420 Hz beat frequency will decrease, hence correct answer is 420Hz
9. A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300V to a step down transformer with its primary
windings having 4000 turns giving the output power at 230V. If the current in the primary of the
RI
transformer is 5A and its efficiency is 90% the output current would be :
(1) 45A (2) 50A (3) 20A (4) 25A
Ans. (1)
P
Sol. Efficiency n = 0.9 = s
PP
Vs Is = 0.9 × VP IP
SP
0.9  2300  5
Is = = 45A
230
10. A body of mass m starts moving from rest along x-axis so that its velocity varies as  = a s where a is
a constant and s is the distance covered by the body. The total work done by all the forces acting on the body
in the first t seconds after the start of the motion is :
1 1
(1) 8ma4t2 (2) ma4t2 (3) 4ma4t2 (4) ma4t2
4 8
E
Ans. (4)
ds
Sol. v= a s
dt
JE
2 s  at
a2t 2
S
4
a2
F = m
2
ma 2 a2 t 2 1
Work =  = ma 4 t 2
2 4 8
PAGE NO : 318
PHYSICS
11. Suppose that the angular velocity of rotation of earth is increased. Then as a consequence:
(1) Weight of the object every where on the earth will decrease
(2) Weight of the object every where on the earth will increase
(3) Except at poles weight of the object on the earth will decrease
(4) There will be no change in weight anywhere on the earth.
Ans. (3)
Sol. g' = g – 2Rcos2
Where  is latitude there will be no change in gravity at poles as  = 90°
At all other points as  increases g' will decrease.
12. Both the nucleus and the atom of some element are in their respective first excited states. They get de-

excited by emitting photons of wavelengths N, A respectively. The ratio N is closest to :
A
(1) 10–1 (2) 10–6 (3) 10 (4) 10–10
Ans. (2)
 N Ea
NT
Sol. 
 a EN
where Ea and EN are energies of photons from atom and nucleus respectively. EN is of the order of MeV
and Ea in few eV.
N
So  106
a
13.
E
2I
0c
 2 
cos   y – ct   k;
  
RI
A plane electromagnetic wave of wavelength  has an intensity I. It is propagating along the positive
Y-direction. The allowed expressions for the electric and magnetic fields are given by :
 
E

I
c
 2 ˆ
cos   y – ct   k;
  
(1) (2) 0
 1  1
B   Eiˆ B   Eiˆ
c c
SP
 2I  2 ˆ  I  2 
E cos   y – ct   k; E cos   y – ct   i;
0c   0c  
(3) (4)
 1  1 
B  Eiˆ B  Ek
c c
Ans. (1)
1
Sol. If E0 is magnitude of electric field then 0E2  C  I
2
E
2I
E0 
C0
E0
JE
B0 
C
 
direction of E  B will be along + ĵ .
14. A charge q is spread uniformly over an insulated loop of radius r. If it is rotated with an angular velocity
 with respect to normal axis then magnetic moment of the loop is :
3 1 4
(1) qr 2 (2) qr 2 (3) qr2 (4) qr 2
2 2 3
Ans. (2)
PAGE NO : 319
PHYSICS
Sol.
M q

L 2m
q
M=  mr 2 
2m
qr 2
M=
2
15. A heating element has a resistance of 100 at room temperature. When it is connected to a supply of
220V a steady current of 2A passes in it and temperature is 500°C more than room temperature. What
is the temperature coefficient of resistance of the heating element?
(1) 5 × 10–4 °C–1 (2) 2 × 10–4 °C–1 (3) 1 × 10–4 °C–1 (4) 0.5 × 10–4 °C–1
NT
Ans. (2)
220
Sol. Resistance after temperature increases by 500°C = = 110
2
110 = 100 (1 + 500)
10
=
100  500
 = 2 × 10–4 °C–1
16.
RI
A coil of cross-sectional area A having n turns is placed in a uniform magnetic field B. When it is rotated
with an angular velocity  the maximum e.m.f. induced in the coil will be :
3 1
(1) nBA (2) 3nBA (3) nBA (4) nBA
2 2
Ans. (3)
SP
Sol.  = BAn sint
max = BAn
17. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 60° on one face of a prism of angle 30°. The emergent ray of
light makes an angle of 30° with incident ray. The angle made by the emergent ray with second face of
prism will be :
(1) 0° (2) 90° (3) 30° (4) 45°
Ans. (2)
E
Sol. =I+e–A
30 = 60 + e – 30°
 e=0
JE
So angle with face = 90°
30°
30°
60°
PAGE NO : 320
PHYSICS
18. A galvanometer with its coil resistance 25 requires a current of 1mA for its full deflection. In order to
construct an ammeter to read up to a current of 2A the approximate value of the shunt resistance
should be :
(1) 1.25 × 10–2 (2) 2.5 × 10–3 (3) 2.5 × 10–2 (4) 1.25 × 10–3
Ans. (1)
Sol. IgRg = (I – Ig)S
10 –3  25
S ~
–
2
S~
–3
– 12.5 × 10
or 1.25 × 10–2
Ig
G
I–Ig S
1
NT
19. An oscillator of mass M is at rest in the equilibrium position in a potential V = k(x – X)2. A particle of
2
mass m comes from right with speed u and collides completely inelastically with M and sticks to it. This
process repeats every time the oscillator crosses its equilibrium position. The amplitude of oscillations after 13
collisions is : (M = 10, m = 5, u = 1, k = 1)
2 1 3 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 5 2
Ans. (2)
Sol.
RI
In first collision mu momentum will be imparted to system. In second collision when momentum of
(M + m) is in opposite direction mu momentum of particle will make its momentum zero.
on 13th collision
m M +12m
SP
M +13m V
mu = (M + 13m)v
mu u
v= 
M  13m 15
v = A
u K 1 75 1
  A  A= 
15 M  13m 15 1 3
E
20. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is taken along the path ABCA as shown in the PV diagram. The
maximum temperature attained by the gas along the path BC is given by :
P
JE
B
3P0
P0 C
A
V0 2V0 V
25 P0 V0 5 P0 V0 25 P0 V0 25 P0 V0
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 R 8 R 8 R 16 R
PAGE NO : 321
PHYSICS
Ans. (3)
Sol. Equation of line BC
2P0
P = P0 – (V – 2V0)
V0
2P0 V 2
P0 V –  4P0 V
V0
Temperature =
1 R
P0  2V 2 
T= 5V – 
R  V0 
dT 4V 5
=0  5– =0  V= V0
dV V0 4
P0  5V0 2 25 2 
T= 5  –  V0 
R 4 V0 16 
NT
25 P0 V0
T=
8 R
21. In a circuit for finding the resistance of a galvanometer by half deflection method a 6V battery and a
high resistance of 11k are used. The figure of merit of the galvanometer produces a deflection of  = 9
divisions when current flows in the circuit. The value of the shunt resistance that can cause the
deflection of /2 is
(1) 550 (2) 220 (3) 55 (4) 110
Ans.
Sol.
(4)
I=
RG
 1
G = K
9
RI
I  S I S
   
2 GS SG 2 R(S  G)  GS
R
SP
GS
I
RG 
S= 2
–
R  G I
2
1
11 103   103  270  10–6
S= 9
6
6– 
E
2
S = 110
S
JE
G G
I I/2
R R
E
E E
PAGE NO : 322
PHYSICS
22. In the following circuit the switch S is closed at t = 0. The charge on the capacitor C1 as a function of
 C1C2 
time will be given by  Ceq  
 C1  C2 
C1 C2
S E R
(1) C1E[1 – exp(–tR/C1)] (2) CeqE exp(–t/RCeq)
(3) CeqE [1 – exp(–t/RCeq)] (4) C2E[1 – exp(–t/RC2)]
Ans. (3)
– t / Rc eq
Sol. q = Ceq E 1– e 

Both capacitor will have same charge as they are connected in series.
Ceq
NT
E R
        
23.
by :
(1)
9
  
(2)

20
RI
Let A  î  ˆj and B  2iˆ – ˆj . The magnitude of a coplanar vector C such that A.C  B.C  A.B is given
(3)
5
(4)
10
12 9 9 9
Ans. (3)

SP
Sol. If C  a î  bjˆ then
   
A.C  A.B
a+ b=1 …(i)
   
B.C  A.B
2a – b = 1 …(ii)
Solving equation (i) and (ii) we get
1 2
a= ,b=
3 3
E
 1 4 5
C   
9 9 9
JE
24. A particle executes simple harmonic motion and is located at x = a, b and c at times t0, 2t0 and 3t0
respectively. The frequency of the oscillation is :
1 ac 1  a  2b  1 ab 1  2a  3c 
(1) cos–1   (2) cos–1   (3) cos–1   (4) cos–1  
2t 0  2b  2t 0  3c  2t 0  2c  2t 0  b 
Ans. (1)
PAGE NO : 323
PHYSICS
Sol. a = Asint0
b = Asin2t0
c = Asin3t0
a + c = A[sint0 + sin3t0] = 2Asin2t0cost0
ac
= 2cost0
b
1 ac 1 ac
 = cos–1    f= cos–1  
t0  2b  2t 0  2b 
25. A thin circular disk is in the xy plane as shown in the figure. The ratio of its moment of inertia about z
and z' axes will be :
z
z'
NT
o y
x
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 5 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 2
Ans. (3)
Sol. Iz =
mR2
3
2
I
Iz' = mR2 z' 
1
RI
2 Iz 3
SP
26. Two identical conducting spheres A and B carry equal charge. They are separated by a distance much
larger than their diameters and the force between them is F. A third identical conducting sphere C is
uncharged. Sphere C is first touched to A then to B and then removed. As a result the force between A
and B would be equal to :
3F F 3F
(1) (2) (3) (4) F
4 2 8
Ans. (3)
Sol.
E
q q
r
JE
2
kq q
F= 2
when A and C are touched charge on both will be
r 2
Then when B and C are touched
q
q
3q
qB = 2 
2 4
q 3q
k  2
kqA qB 2 4  3 kq  3 F
F' = 2
 2 2
r r 8 r 8
PAGE NO : 324
PHYSICS
27. Two particles of the same mass m are moving in circular orbits because of force given by
–16 3
F(r) = – r . The first particle is at distance r = 1 and the second at r = 4. The best estimate for the ratio
r
of kinetic energies of the first and the second particle is closest to :
–3 2 –2 –1
(1) 3 × 10 (2) 6 × 10 (3) 6 × 10 (4) 10
Ans. (3)
mV 2 16 3
Sol.  r
r r
1
KE0 = mV2
2
1
= [16 + r4]
2
16  1
K1 2 17
 
K2 16  256 272
NT
2
K1
~
– 6  10 –2
K2
28. The percentage errors in quantities P, Q, R and S are 0.5%, 1%, 3% and 1.5% respectively in the
P 3 Q2
measurement of a physical quantity A = . The maximum percentage error in the value of A will be :
RS
Ans.
Sol.
(1) 6.5%
(1)
A 3P 2Q 1 R S
A

P

Q

2 R
(2) 7.5%

S
RI (3) 6.0% (4) 8.5%
1
= 3 × 0.5 + 2 × 1 + × 3 + 1.5
2
SP
= 1.5 + 2 + 1.5 + 1.5
A
= 6.5%
A
29. A carrier wave of peak voltage 14V is used for transmitting a message signal given to achieve a
modulation index of 80% will be :
(1) 22.4V (2) 7V (3) 11.2V (4) 28V
Ans. (3)
E
A
Sol. m= m
Ac
Am = 0.8 × 14
JE
= 11.2V
30. A small soap bubble of radius 4cm is trapped inside another bubble of radius 6cm without any contact.
Let P2 be the pressure inside the inner bubble and P0 the pressure outside the outer bubble. Radius of
another bubble with pressure difference P2 – P0 between its inside and outside would be :
(1) 2.4cm (2) 12cm (3) 4.8cm (4) 6cm
Ans. (1)
PAGE NO : 325
PHYSICS
4T 4T 4T
Sol. P2 = P0 +  P2 = P0 +
6 4 r
1 1 1
    r = 2.4cm
r 6 4
P2
P2
r
4
NT
RI
SP
E
JE
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ONLINE TEST PAPER OF JEE(MAIN) – 2018

(Held On Sunday 15th April, 2018)(Evening)
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JEE SPRINT PHYSICS

S.NO TOPIC PAGE NO

26. ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS ON DIFFRACTION , 251-254

27. ERRORS AND MEASUREMENTS 255-264

Syllabus for JEE Main

The detailed syllabus is given as follows:

JEE Main Physics Syllabus:

UNIT 1: Physics and Measurement

 Physics, technology, and society

UNIT 3: Laws of Motion

 Law of conservation of linear momentum and its applications, Equilibrium of concurrent

UNIT 4: Work, Energy, and Power

 The potential energy of a spring, conservation of mechanical energy, conservative and

UNIT 5: Rotational Motion

 Elastic behaviour, Stress-strain relationship, Hooke’s Law, Young’s modulus, bulk

 Thermal equilibrium, zeroth law of thermodynamics, the concept of temperature.

UNIT 9: Kinetic Theory of Gases

 The equation of state of a perfect gas, work done on compressing a gas.

UNIT 10: Oscillations and Waves

 Periodic motion - period, frequency, displacement as a function of time.

UNIT 11: Electrostatics

 Electric charges: Conservation of charge, Coulomb’s law-forces between two point

UNIT 12: Current Electricity

UNIT 13: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

UNIT 14: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents

 Electromagnetic waves and their characteristics.

UNIT 16: Optics

 Resolving power of microscopes and astronomical telescopes, Polarisation, plane

UNIT 17: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation

 Dual nature of radiation.

UNIT 18: Atoms and Nuclei

 Semiconductors; semiconductor diode: I-V characteristics in forward and reverse bias;

UNIT 20: Communication Systems

UNIT 21: Experimental Skills

 Simple Pendulum-dissipation of energy by plotting a graph between square of amplitude

Wave Optics 2 8 6.67%

Grand Total 30 120 100.00%

Weightage Analysis for Physics JEE (Main) 2002 to 2017

Electro Magnetic Field 6 5 6 5 3 5 2 2 1 1 2 2 1 2 3 2 1 49

Electro Magnetic Induction 2 3 4 3 4 0 1 1 2 2 1 1 3 1 2 0 1 31

Heat & Thermodynamics 9 6 6 5 3 4 1 5 1 4 4 4 2 3 3 3 4

Calorimetry & Thermal Expansion 9 6 6 5 3 4 1 5 1 1 2 1 0 0 0 0 2 46

KTG & Thermodynamics - - - - 0 0 0 0 0 3 0 2 1 2 3 3 2 16

SHM & Waves 8 8 6 6 5 5 3 3 1 3 3 3 3 2 2 3 2

Simple Harmonic Motion 3 5 5 4 3 4 0 1 0 2 1 2 2 1 1 1 1 36

Unit & Dimension 1 2 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 - 0 0 7

Rectilinear Motion & Vectors 3 3 3 4 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 - 0 1 18

Newton's Laws of Motion

Work, Power & Energy

Rigid Body Dynamics

SELECT THE CORRECT ALTERNATIVE (ONLY ONE CORRECT ANSWER)

(A) 2t  c  b  (B) 2t c 2  b 2 (C) t c 2  b 2 (D) 2t c 2  b 2

(A) 0 (B) 10 m/s (C) 5 2 m/s (D) 25 m/s

(A) 1 : 2 : 4 (B) 1 : 2 : 5 (C) 1 : 3 : 5 (D) 1 : 3 : 9

(C) 3 : 1 : 2 (D) 1 : ( 2 – 1) : ( 3 – 2 )

starts from point P.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) A stone thrown up vertically, returning back to the ground

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 41

(A) (B) (C) (D) None

(A) 4000/3 m (B) 5000/3 m (C) 2000 m (D) 3000 m

41. If acceleration of M is a then acceleration of m is

(A) 1 : 4 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 :1