10.

For an object that is dropped from rest,

TEST ITEMS IN PHYSICAL SCIENCES a. the speed is proportional to the time of fall
Sept. 2009 b. the acceleration is proportional to the time of fall
c. the distance traveled is proportional to the time
TEST ITEMS IN PHYSICS of fall
d. all of the above
MECHANICS 11. If a freely falling object were somehow equipped
1. Which of the following quantities is a scalar with a speedometer, its speed reading wound
quantity? increase each second by
a. momentum c. force a. about 5 m/s
b. work d. acceleration b. about 10 m/s
2. An airplane travels east for 2 hours at a rate of c. about 15/s
500km/h. Which of the following quantities is a d. a variable amount
vector? 12. An object at rest maintains its state of rest unless
a. the time of travel acted upon by a net force because of its
b. the displacement a. mass c. inertia
c. the distance traveled b. momentum d. energy
d. the speed of the plane 13. An object in uniform motion maintains its state of
3. Which of the following is the best definition of motion unless acted upon by a net force because of
velocity? its
a. It is a description of the motion of a body. a. mass c. inertia
b. It is a measure of how fast a body is moving. b. momentum d. energy
c. It is the speed of a body and its direction of 14. A sheet of paper can be withdrawn from under a
motion. container of milk without toppling it if the paper is
d. It is equal to the distance traveled divided by the pulled quickly. The reason this can be done is that
time of travel. a. the milk carton has inertia
4. The speedometer of a car gives you a reading of the b. the milk carton has very little weight
car’s c. gravity pulls very hard on the milk carton
a. instantaneous speed d. there are action and reaction forces
b. instantaneous velocity 15. If the force of gravity suddenly stopped acting on
c. average speed the planets, they would
d. average velocity a. spiral slowly toward the sun
5. Acceleration is defined as the change in b. spiral slowly away from the sun
a. velocity divided by the time interval c. fly straight away from the sum
b. distance divided by the time interval d. move in a straight line tangent to their orbit
c. time it takes to move from one place to another 16. According to Newton’s second law of motion
place a. force on an object is equal to its acceleration
d. time it takes to move from one speed to another divided by its mass
speed b. force on an object is equal to the product of its
6. Which of the following situations describes a body mass and acceleration
that is accelerating? c. mass of an object is equal to the product of the
a. a truck that is at rest force on it and its acceleration
b. a car rounding a curve at constant speed d. acceleration of an object is equal to the product
c. a bicycle moving at constant speed along a of the force on its and its mass
straight highway 17. The acceleration produced by a net force on an
d. none of the above object is
7. Which of the following statements is always true? a. directly proportional to the mass
a. when the acceleration is constant, the velocity is b. inversely proportional to the net force
zero c. in the same direction as the net force
b. when the acceleration is zero, the velocity is also d. all of the above
zero 18. The weight of an object of an object
c. when the velocity is constant, the acceleration is a. refers to its inertia
zero b. is the quantity of matter it contains
d. when the instantaneous velocity is zero, the c. is the force with which it is attracted to the earth
acceleration is also zero d. is basically the same quantity as its mass but
8. A truck is moving along a straight highway. As it expressed in different units
approaches an intersection, the driver steps on the 19. The force that accelerates a rocket into outer space
brakes, bringing the car to a complete stop. Which is exerted on the rocket by the exhaust gases.
of the following statements is true about the motion Which Newton’s law of motion is illustrated in this
of the truck? situation?
a. the velocity and acceleration have opposite a. First law of motion
directions b. Second law of motion
b. the velocity and acceleration have the same c. Third law of motion
directions d. cannot be determined
c. the velocity and acceleration of the truck are 20. An object weighs 30 N on earth. A second object
both constant weighs 30 N on the moon. Which object has the
d. none of the above greater mass?
9. The acceleration of a stone thrown upward is a. the one on earth
a. the same as that of a stone thrown downward b. the one on the moon
b. greater than that of a stone thrown downward c. they have the same mass
c. smaller than that of a stone thrown downward 21. As an airplane climbs,
d. zero until it reaches the highest point in its a. its mass increases
motion b. its mass decreases
 c. its weight increases
d. its weight decrease
22. Suppose a cart is being moved by a force. If
suddenly a load is dumped into the cart so that the
cart’s mass doubles, what happens to the cart’s
acceleration?
a. it doubles c. it halves
b. it triples d. it stays the same
23. A player hits a ball with a bat. The action force is the
impact of the bat against the ball. What is the
reaction to this force?
a. the weight of the ball
b. the air resistance on the ball
c. the force of the ball against the bat
d. the grip of the player’s hand against the bat
24. When a football is kicked, the action – and –
reaction forces do not cancel each other because
a. they are not truly equal and opposite
b. they are not acting at the same time
c. they are acting on two different bodies
d. all of them
25. A car accelerates along a road. Viewed from outside
the car, what is the force that accelerates it?
a. the engines pulling it forward
b. air rushing in behind the car as it moves
c. the wheels pulling forward on the wheels
d. the reaction force to the wheels pushing the road
backward
26. A car travels in a circle with constant speed. The net
force on the car is
a. directed toward the center of the curve
b. zero because the car is not accelerating
c. directed forward, in the direction of travel
d. none of them
27. Suppose the force of friction on a sliding object is 10
N. The force needed to maintain constant velocity is
a. less than 10 N c. 10 N
b. more than 10 N d. 0 N
28. An apple weighs 1 N. The net force on the apple
when it is at rest on top of your head is
a. 0 N b. 0.1 N c. 1 N d. 10 N
29. An apple weighs 1 N. The net force on the apple
when it is in free fall is
a. 0 N b. 0.1 N c. 1 N d. 10 N
30. An unfortunate bug splatters against the windshield
of a moving car. Compared to the force on the bug,
the force on the car is
a. greater b. smaller c. the same
31. An unfortunate bug splatters against the windshield
of a moving car. Compared to the acceleration of
the bug, the acceleration of the car is
a. greater b. smaller c. the same
32. Two figure skaters who push off each other will
move at the same speed if
a. they push with the same force
b. the ice does not cause any friction
c. there is no air resistance
d. they have the same mass
33. When two equal forces act on the same object in
opposite directions, the net force is
a. smaller than either force
b. equal to each of the forces
c. zero
d. greater than either force
34. A tennis ball and a solid steel ball of the same size
are dropped at the same time. Which ball has the
greater force acting on it?
a. the tennis ball
b. the steel ball
c. the same force is acting on them
35. A tennis ball and a solid steel ball of the same size
are dropped at the same time. Which ball has the
greater acceleration? (assuming that the air
resistance is negligible)
a. the tennis ball
b. the steel ball
c. they have the same acceleration
36. A ball rolling across the floor slows to a stop
because
a. the forces are balanced
b. the net force equals zero
c. there is a net external force acting on it
d. the force that started it moving wears out
37. The momentum of an object is defined as the
object’s
a. mass times its velocity
b. mass times its acceleration
c. force times its acceleration
d. force times the time interval
38. The momentum change of an object is equal to the
a. force acting on it
b. impulse acting on it
c. velocity change of the object
d. force acting on its times its velocity
39. Momentum of a system is conserved only when
a. the system is not moving
b. there are no forces acting on the system
c. there is no net external force acting on the
system
d. there are no internal forces acting on the system
40. When the velocity of a moving object is doubled
a. its momentum is doubled
b. its acceleration is doubled
c. its kinetic energy is doubled
d. its potential energy is doubled
41. A rifle recoils from firing a bullet. The speed of the
rifle’s recoil is small because the
a. momentum is conserved
b. rifle is more massive than the bullet
c. force against the rifle is relatively small
d. impulse on the rifle is less than the impulse on
the bullet
42. In physics, work is done
a. in pushing against the wall
b. in preparing school lessons
c. in supporting an object on your shoulder
d. in lifting an object from the floor to the table
43. An object at rest may have
a. velocity c. kinetic energy
b. momentum d. potential energy
44. An object in motion need not have
a. velocity c. kinetic energy
b. momentum d. potential energy
45. What never changes when two or more objects
collide in the absence of a net external force is
a. the momentum of each one
b. the kinetic energy of each one
c. the total momentum of all objects
d. the total kinetic energy of all objects
46. The amount of potential energy possessed by an
elevated object is equal to
a. the distance it is lifted
b. the force needed to lift it
c. the power used to lift it
d. the work done in lifting it
47. A freight train rolls along a track with considerable
momentum. If it were to roll at the same speed but
had twice as much mass, its momentum would be
a. zero c. quadrupled
b. doubled d. unchanged
48. A job is done slowly and an identical job is done
quickly. Both jobs require the same amount of work
but different amounts of
a. energy c. both energy and power
b. power d. none of them
49. Which of the following statements is true about an b. decreases c. remains the same
object thrown upward under the influence of the 61. As the atmospheric pressure increases, the boiling
earth’s gravity alone? temperature of a liquid
a. kinetic energy increases – potential energy a. increases
increases b. decreases c. remains the same
b. kinetic energy decreases – potential energy 62. Which method of heat transfer is most closely
increases associated with the formation of a cool breeze that
c. kinetic energy increases – potential energy blows from the sea to the land during daytime?
decreases a. conduction
d. kinetic energy decreases – potential energy b. convection c. radiation
decreases 63. During daytime, which heats up faster: the land or
50. Which of the following statements is true regarding the sea?
simple machines being used with the presence of a. the land
friction? b. the sea
a. work input is always greater than work output c. they heat up at the same time
b. work input is always smaller than work output 64. During nighttime, which cools down faster: the land
c. work input is always equal to the work output or the sea?
d. cannot be determined a. the land
b. the sea
THERMODYNAMICS c. they heat up at the same time
51. Temperature is a measure of 65. It refers to the amount of heat needed to raise the
a. the total energy in something temperature of a unit mass of a substance by a unit
b. the total kinetic energy in something change in temperature.
c. the average energy in a substance a. specific heat
d. the average molecular kinetic energy in a b. latent heat of fusion
substance c. latent heat of vaporization
52. Internal energy is the 66. What gas law states that at constant temperature,
a. total amount of energy contained in an object volume is inversely proportional to absolute
b. average amount of energy contained in an object pressure?
c. amount of kinetic energy of all the molecules in a. Boyle’s law
the object b. Charle’s law c. Gay – Lussac’s law
d. none of the above 67. When a vapor condenses into a liquid
53. Heat is the a. it absorbs heat
a. amount of energy all the molecules have b. it releases heat
b. total amount of energy contained in the object c. its temperature rises
c. energy transferred between objects because of d. its temperature drops
temperature difference 68. A metal lid cannot be unscrewed from its glass jar.
d. all of the above Which is the best way to unscrew it from the jar?
54. In thermodynamics, which states that the two a. invert the jar with the lid in a very hot water for
systems which are in thermal equilibrium with a a few seconds
third system are in thermal equilibrium with each b. invert the jar with the lid in a very cold water for
other? a few seconds
a. zeroth law c. second law c. invert the jar with the lid in hot and then in cold
b. first law d. third law water for a few seconds
55. The natural direction of heat flow is from a high – d. invert the jar with the lid in cold and then in hot
temperature reservoir to a low – temperature water for a few seconds
reservoir. This fact is incorporated in the 69. An adiabatic process in a system is one in which
a. first law of thermodynamics a. no heat enters or leaves the system
b. second law of thermodynamics b. the pressure of the system remains constant
c. law of conservation of energy c. the system does no work nor work is done on it
d. zeroth law of thermodynamics d. the temperature of the system remains constant
56. It refers to the temperature at which the molecules 70. It is the amount of heat needed to raise the
have the lowest possible kinetic energy temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 C0.
a. absolute zero c. boiling point a. 1 calorie c. 1 joule
b. melting point d. freezing point b. 1 Btu d. all of them
57. Two metal strips of equal lengths were tied 71. One gram of steam at 1000C causes a more serious
together. When heated, the strips bend. Which burn than 1 gram of water at 1000 C because the
statement below best explains this? steam
a. one metal is more elastic than the other a. is less dense than water
b. one metal conducts heat better than the other b. strikes the skin with a greater force
c. the heat is not evenly distributed on the strips c. has a higher specific heat
d. one metal expands more than the other for the d. contains more internal energy
same increase in temperature 72. Sublimation refers to
58. The warmth that you feel when you place your a. the melting of a solid
finger at the side of the flame of a burning candle is b. the vaporization of a liquid
primarily caused by c. the condensation of a gas into a liquid
a. conduction of heat d. the vaporization of a solid without first becoming
b. convection of heat c. radiation of heat a liquid
59. Heat travels from the sun to the earth by means of 73. Heat transfer by convection occurs
a. radiation a. only in gases
b. convection c. conduction b. only in liquids
60. When heat is added to boiling water, its temperature c. only in gases and liquids
a. increases d. in solids, liquids, and gases
74. The materials with the highest heat conductivities
are the
a. solids c. gases
b. liquids d. metals
75. When work is done by a system, what happens to its
temperature assuming that no heat is added to it?
a. increases
b. decreases c. remains the same
76. When the temperature of a metal is increased, what
happens to its density?
a. increases
b. decreases c. remains the same
77. Which cools faster, a pot of boiling water or a same
– size pot of lukewarm water both left at room
temperature?
a. the boiling water
b. the lukewarm water
c. neither, they cool at the same time
78. Two pots are filled with boiling water. The pots are
exactly the same size, but one pot is white and the
other is black. Which pot cools faster?
a. the white pot
b. the black pot
c. neither, they cool at the same time
79. If a red star and a blue star radiate energy at the
same rate, which of the two is bigger?
a. the red star
b. the blue star
c. neither, they are of the same size
80. A piece of iron and a cup of water both have the
same temperature. If they are heated so that they
absorb the same amount of heat,
a. both will have the same temperature
b. the iron will have the higher temperature
c. the water will have the higher temperature
d. not enough information is given to answer the
question
81. Why does a piece of metal feel colder than a piece
of wood at the same temperature?
a. metal is colder than wood
b. metals allows heat to flow through it easily
c. metals have higher specific heat than wood
d. none of the above
82. Systems that are left alone tend to move toward a
state of
a. less entropy c. constant entropy
b. more entropy d. no entropy
83. Which of the following engines is normally the least
efficient?
a. gasoline engine
b. diesel engine c. carnot engine
84. Which of the following engines is normally the most
efficient?
a. gasoline engine
b. diesel engine c. carnot engine
85. If you want to cook boiled eggs while in the
mountains you should
a. use a hotter flame
b. boil the eggs for a shorter time
c. boil the eggs for a longer time
d. not boil the eggs, because the water
temperature won’t get hot enough to cook them
86. A heat engine operates by taking in heat at a
particular temperature and
a. converting it all to work
b. converting some of it into work and exhausting
the rest at a lower temperature
c. converting some of it into work and exhausting
the rest at the same temperature
d. converting some of it into work and exhausting
the rest at a higher temperature
87. The work output of every heat engine is
a. depends only on its intake temperature
b. depends only on its exhaust temperature
c. equals the difference between its heat intake
and heat exhaust
d. equal that of a carnot engine with the same
intake and exhaust temperatures
88. The fuel in a diesel engine is ignited by
a. a spark plug
b. being compressed until it is hot enough
c. the hot compressed air into which it is injected
d. exhaust gases remaining from the previous cycle
89. A refrigerator exhausts
a. less heat than it absorbs from its contents
b. more heat than it absorbs from its contents
c. the same amount of heat that it absorbs from its
contents
d. any of the above, depending on the
circumstances
90. The working substance or refrigerant used in most
refrigerators is a
a. gas that is easy to liquefy
b. gas that is hard to liquefy
c. liquid that is hard to solidify
d. liquid that is easy to solidify
91. A pressure cooker cooks food more rapidly than an
ordinary pot with a loose lid because
a. the pressure forces heat into the food
b. the higher pressure lowers the boiling point of
water
c. the higher pressure raises the boiling point of
water
d. the higher pressure increases the specific heat of
water
92. If a poor absorber of radiation were a good emitter,
its temperature would be
a. lower than that of the surroundings
b. higher than that of the surroundings
c. the same as that of the surroundings
d. not be affected
93. A gas is heated in a closed container. Which of the
following explains why the pressure of the gas
increases?
a. the volume of the gas decreases
b. the volume of the gas increases
c. the number of particles of the gas increase in
number
d. the particles of the gas collide more often with
the walls of the container
94. A gas is heated in a closed container. Which of the
following is not likely to happen?
a. the volume of the gas will increase
b. the pressure of the gas will increase
c. the average speed of the molecules will increase
d. the gas molecules will hit the walls of the
container more often
95. What would be the effect on the pressure of the gas
if its volume is halved and its temperature is
doubled?
a. halved c. increased three times
b. doubled d. increased four times
96. What accounts for the cooling effect inside a
refrigerator?
a. the refrigerator is properly insulated
b. the vaporization of the refrigeration liquid
c. compression of the refrigeration gas into liquid
d. the motor converts electrical energy into thermal
energy
97. Most cars have four – stroke internal combustion
engines. Which of the following gives the correct
sequence of the four strokes?
a. compression – exhaust – power – intake
b. intake – compression – power – exhaust
c. intake – power – compression – exhaust
d. power – compression – intake – exhaust
98. Which of the following phrases correctly describes c. the rod is charged and the ball is neutral
water at 40C? d. all of the above
a. greatest volume; greatest density 112. Which type of force is responsible in binding
b. smallest volume; smallest density atoms together to form molecules?
c. smallest volume; greatest density a. electrical force c. nuclear force
d. greatest volume; smallest density b. magnetic force d. gravitational force
99. Melting snow 113. Which of the following devices does not use an
a. warms the surrounding air electromagnet?
b. cools the surrounding air a. electric bell c. household light bulb
c. neither warms nor cools the surrounding air b. telephone d. none of them
100. Evaporation cools a liquid because 114. What shape of a permanent magnet corresponds
a. the slowest molecules tend to escape to the magnetic field formed by a solenoid?
b. the fastest molecules tend to escape a. disk magnet c. horseshoe magnet
c. the pressure of the gas increases b. bar magnet d. none of them
d. the pressure of the gas decreases 115. The charge of body A is half as much as body B.
Compared to the force on body B, the force on body
ELECTRICITY AND MAGNETISM A is
101. If a material becomes positively charged after a. half as much c. four times as much
being rubbed, what does it indicate? b. twice as much d. the same
a. it gains protons c. it loses protons 116. In an electric field region, an electron moves to
b. it gains electrons d. it loses electrons the right. Which of the following statements best
102. If you comb your hair and the comb becomes describes the electric field?
negatively charged, your hair becomes a. the electric field is uniform
a. positively charged b. the electric field is non – uniform
b. negatively charged c. neutral c. the electric field is directed to the left
103. Electric charges A and B are attracted to each d. the electric field is directed to the right
other. Electric charges B and C repel each other. If A 117. A system of two charges has a positive potential
and C are held close together, they will energy. This signifies that
a. attract a. both charges are positive
b. repel c. not affect each other b. both charges are negative
104. The difference between electrical forces and c. both charges are positive or both are negative
gravitational forces is that electrical forces include d. one charge is positive and the other is negative
a. attractive interactions 118. A spherical Gaussian surface encloses an He
b. repulsive interactions atom. What is the net electric fluzx through such a
c. the inverse square law d. all of them surface?
104. Which of the following devices conducts a. positive c. zero
electricity in one direction only? b. negative d. cannot be determined
a. diode c. capacitor 119. The junction rule is the direct consequence of
b. resistor d. transistor a. Newton’s second law
105. Which of the following is the SI unit of charge? b. conservation of momentum
a. ampere c. farad c. conservation of charge
b. tesla d. coulomb d. conservation of energy
106. Compared to the resistance of two resistors 120. Which of the following changes to an ideal plate
connected in series, the same two resistors capacitor connected to an ideal battery result in an
connected in parallel will have increase in the charge of the capacitor?
a. more resistance a. inserting a dielectric material in between the
b. less resistance plates
c. the same resistance b. decreasing the area of the plates
107. What law states that the force of electrostatic c. increasing the separation distance between the
interaction between two point charges is directly plates
proportional to the product of their charges and is d. none of the above
inversely proportional to the square of their 121. An electron and a proton are accelerated through
separation distance? the same potential difference. Which of the following
a. Ohm’s Law c. Faraday’s Law statements is true?
b. Coulomb’s Law d. Ampere’s Law a. the electron has a greater KE
108. When one light bulb in a parallel circuit b. the proton has the greater KE
containing several light bulbs burns out c. the electron has the greater speed
a. the other bulbs burn brighter d. the proton has the greater speed
b. the other light bulb burn dimmer 122. A current is flowing to the east along a power
c. none of the other light bulbs will light up line. If we neglect the earth’s magnetic field, the
d. nothing changes in the rest of the circuit direction of the magnetic field below it is
109. The electron volt is a unit of a. north c. south
a. charge c. voltage b. east d. west
b. energy d. potential 123. An electron enters a magnetic field
110. Which of the following quantities is a vector perpendicularly to B. The electron’s
quantity? a. motion is unaffected
a. electric field c. inductance b. direction is changed
b. capacitance d. current c. speed is changed
111. A rod with unknown charge attracts a plastic d. energy is changed
ball. Which of the following statements may describe 124. Two parallel wires carry currents in the same
them? direction. What will happen to the wires?
a. the rod is positive and the ball is negative a. the wires attract each other
b. the rod is negative and the ball is positive b. the wires repel each other
 c. torques act on the wires that tend to turn them
so that they are perpendicular
d. neither forces nor torques act on the wires
125. A wire loop is moved parallel to the magnetic
field. The induced emf in the loop
a. is zero
b. depends on the area of the loop
c. depends on the shape of the loop
d. depends on the magnitude of the field
126. What happens to a charge projected along the
direction of the magnetic field?
a. it will travel in a linear path
b. it will travel in a circular path
c. it will come to rest
d. it will move in a helix
127. A 60 – W and a 100 – W light bulbs are each
connected to a 220 V outlet. Which bulb has more
current through it?
a. the 60 – W bulb
b. the 100 – W bulb
c. the same amount of current flows in both
128. An electric heater is rated at 300 W for use in a
220 V circuit. The safety fuse in the circuit can
handle 15 A of current. What is the maximum
number of heaters that can be safely operated in the
circuit?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
129. A heater uses 20 A when connected to a 110 V
line. If the electric power costs 10 cents per kilowatt
– hour, the cost of running the heater for 10 hours
is
a. $0.22 b. $0.55 c. $2.20 d. $5.50
130. As more lamps are put into a parallel circuit, the
overall current in the circuit
a. increases
b. decreases c. remains the same
131. Two lamps, one with a thick filament and one
with a thin filament, are connected in series. The
voltage is greater in the lamp with the
a. thick filament
b. thin filament c. stays the same
132. The same potential difference is applied to a 30
W and a 60 W light bulbs. Which of the following
statements is true?
a. the 30 W bulb carries the greater current ands
has the higher resistance
b. the 30 W bulb carries the greater current, but
the 60 W bulb has the higher resistance
c. the 30 W bulb has the higher resistance, but the
60 W bulb carries the greater current
d. the 60 W bulb carries the greater current and
has the higher resistance
133. If the length of a wire is doubled and its cross –
sectional area is also doubled, what effect will this
give to the resistance of the wire?
a. doubled
b. halved c. remains the same
134. Two particles held near each other are released.
As they move, the acceleration of each decreases.
Therefore, the particles
a. have opposite charges
b. are electrical neutral
c. have the same charge
d. not enough information is given
135. The potential energy of a certain system of two
charges increases as the charges are moved farther
apart. What does this tell us about the signs of the
charges?
a. both charges are positive
b. both charges are negative
c. one is positive and the other is negative
d. not enough information is given
136. A conductor is charged by induction with
grounding using a charged plastic rod. Which of the
following statements is true about the conductor
after the charging process?
a. the conductor will be polarized
b. the conductor remains uncharged
c. the conductor becomes positively charged
d. the conductor becomes negatively charged
137. A 4.0 Ω resistor is connected to a battery of emf
20 V and internal resistance of 1.0 Ω. The potential
difference across the resistor is
a. 4 V b. 16 V c. 19 V d. 20 V
138. Two identical sized conducting spheres A, with
charge + 3.2 x 10 – 19 C, and B, with charge –
6.4 x 10 – 19 C, are allowed to touch. During the
touching, sphere A
a. gains three protons
b. gains three electrons
c. loses three protons
d. loses three electrons
139. When a 100 – W, 240 – V light bulb is operated
at 200 V, the current that flows in it is
a. 0.35 A b. 0.42 A c. 0.50 A d. 0.58 A
140. An electroscope is a device that can be used to
detect electric charges. Consider an electroscope
that is initially uncharged. Suppose that it is then
charged by conduction using a charged glass rod.
When a charged object is brought close to the metal
knob, the leaves of the electroscope diverged more.
What is the charge of the object?
a. positive
b. negative
c. neutral
d. not enough information is given
141. A 12 V potential difference is applied across a
parallel combination of four 6 Ω resistors. The total
current in the circuit is
a. 0.5 A b. 2 A c. 8 A d. 18 A
142. What new concept does Maxwell’s general form
of Ampere’s Law include?
a. a magnetic field could be attributed to a
changing electric field
b. an electric field can be attributed to a changing
magnetic field
c. a magnetic field can be attributed to the motion
of charges
d. an electric field can be attributed to a charge
distribution
143. In a drawing of magnetic field lines, the stronger
the field is,
a. the closer together the file lines are
b. the farther apart the field lines are
c. the more nearly parallel the field lines are
d. the more divergent the field lines are
144. Electric power is defined as
a. current time voltage
b. current divided by voltage
c. voltage divided by current
d. resistance times voltage
145. The magnetic field lines around a long, straight
current – carrying conductor are in the form of
a. straight lines parallel to the current
b. straight lines that radiate perpendicularly from
the current – carrying wire, like the spokes of a
wheel
c. concentric circles centered on the current –
carrying wire
d. concentric helixes whose axis is the current –
carrying wire
146. All magnetic field originate in
a. iron atoms
b. permanent magnets
c. magnetic domain
 d. moving electric charges b. Fermat’s principle d. none of them
147. A permanent magnet does not exert a force on 159. When sunlight falls on bubbles, the band of
a. an unmagnetized iron bar colors seen is due to
b. a magnetized iron bar a. dispersion c. interference
c. a stationary electric charge b. reflection d. scattering
d. a moving electric charge 160. The sun appears to be more reddish at sunset
148. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of than at noon. Which of the following light
conservation of phenomena is responsible for this?
a. charge c. momentum a. dispersion c. interference
b. energy d. none of them b. reflection d. scattering
149. The magnetic flux through a wire loop changes 161. Diffraction of light means
by ΔφB in a time Δt. The change in the flux is a. light is a transverse wave
proportional to b. light is reflected from a film
a. the current in the wire c. light bends as it passes through a small opening
b. the resistance of the wire d. light bends as it enters a different medium
c. the net change that flows across any cross 162. Interference of waves occurs when
section of the wire a. two or more waves combine
d. the potential difference between any two fixed b. they bend around corners or opening
points in the wire c. they slow down as they pass another medium
d. all of the above
WAVES AND OPTICS 164. An echo is produced by
150. Which property of light produces bright and a. reflection of sound
dark bands on a screen after light from a source b. superposition of beats
passes through two very narrow slits that are near c. refraction of sound
each other? d. diffraction of sound
a. dispersion c. refraction 165. A piece of charcoal appears black when viewed
b. interference d. polarization in sunlight because
151. Refraction explains a. it absorbs all the light that fall on it
a. how periscope works b. it disperses all the light that falls on it
b. how images are formed by mirrors c. it reflects all the light that falls on it
c. why a pool appears shallower than it actually is d. it transmits all the light that fall on it
d. why some images formed by a mirror are virtual 166. Radio waves, infrared waves, ultraviolet waves
152. A person standing waist deep in a swimming and gamma rays are arranged in the order of
pool appears to have short legs because o increasing frequency in the electromagnetic
a. reflection c. diffraction spectrum. How will the waves be listed in the order
b. refraction d. interference of increasing wavelength?
153. After a rainstorm, a rainbow may appear in a. radio, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma
they sky. Which of the following statements explains b. gamma, ultraviolet, infrared, radio
this observation? c. radio, gamma, ultraviolet, infrared
a. raindrops act as prism separating sunlight into d. infrared, radio, gamma, ultraviolet
different colors 167. When rays parallel to the principal axis of a
b. the white clouds are actually prisms composed of concave mirror are reflected, they pass through
different colors a. any point on the axis
c. the colors of the rainbow come from the b. the center of curvature
raindrops in the atmosphere c. the principal focus
d. when sunlight is reflected by the ground towards d. the point halfway between the focus and the
the clouds, it separates into different colors mirror
154. The image in a plane mirror is 168. A young lady is 160 cm tall. She wishes to buy
a. erect but reversed a mirror large enough so that she can look at
b. erect but not reversed herself from the head to toes at the same time.
c. inverted but reversed What is the shortest mirror that she can use?
d. inverted but not reversed a. 40 cm b. 80 cm c. 120 cm d. 160 cm
155. A ray of light is reflected from a mirror. The angle 169. Why some sound is louder than others?
of incidence is 200. The angle between the incident a. greater amplitude
ray and the reflected ray is b. longer wavelength
a. 100. b. 200. c. 300. d. 400. c. higher frequency
156. As the angle of incidence increases, the index d. lower pitch
of refraction of the substance 170. Which of the following phenomena best
a. increases supports the hypothesis that light is a form of
b. decreases c. remains the same transverse wave motion?
157. Sound travels faster through warm air than a. dispersion c. polarization
cold air. This is to be expected because the faster – b. reflection d. refraction
moving air molecules in the warm air bump into 171. The visible light portion of the electromagnetic
each other more often and therefore spectrum falls between
a. can transmit wave in less time a. radio waves and microwave
b. increases the temperature of the molecules b. x – rays and gamma rays
c. create regions of compression and rarefaction c. radio waves and infrared rays d
d. passes the energy of the sound in a longer d. infrared rays and ultraviolet rays
period 172. What kind of mirror is used in automobile and
158. What states that light always takes a path that trucks to give the driver a wider area and smaller
requires the least time as it moves from one point to image of the traffic behind him?
another? a. convex mirror c. plane mirror
a. Snell’s law c. Huygen’s principle b. concave mirror d. any of these
173. The term refraction refers to 186. A concave mirror served as a casing of the bulb
a. bending of light rays when they strike a mirror of a car’s headlight. Where should the bulb be
b. facts that white light is made up of different located to produce a parallel beam of reflected light
colors a. at the principal focus of the mirror
c. bouncing back of waves when it encounters an b. at the center of curvature of the mirror
obstacle c. between the principal focus and the mirror
d. fact the light travels in a straight line in a d. beyond the center of curvature of the mirror
uniform medium 187. What happens when white light strikes a black
174. We can raise the pitch of a guitar by using object?
a. long and fine string a. Blue light is reflected.
b. long and thick string b. Red light is reflected.
c. short and fine string c. No light is reflected.
d. short and thick string d. All of the light is reflected.
175. When you are looking on a fish under water, in 188. A person is nearsighted if he or she _______.
what direction should you aim your spear to hit it? a. can see far away things very well.
a. above the fish b. has eyeballs that are a little too short.
b. below the fish c. has eyeballs that are a little too long.
c. directly to the fish d. sees nearby objects as blurry.
d. either below or above the fish 189. Farsightedness can usually be corrected using
176. When will a concave mirror produce an image _______.
larger than the object? a. convex mirrors. c. convex lenses.
a. d0 > 2f c. d0 = 2f b. concave mirrors. d. concave lenses.
b. d0 < 2f d. for all values of d0 190. An object is 0.080 m tall is placed 0.20 m in
177. Which of the following best describes a real front of a convex lens. If the distance of the image
image? to the lens is 0.40 m, how tall is the image?
a. Real images are erect. a. 0.010 m c. 0.08 m
b. Real images are inverted. b. 0.040 m d. 0.16 m
c. Real images cannot appear on a screen 191. Materials are classified according to
d. Real images are formed by apparent rays of transmission of light. A material that reflects and
light. absorbs any light that strikes it is _______.
178. When will a concave mirror produce an erect a. concave c. translucent
image? b. opaque d. transparent
a. d0 > f b. d0 < f c. d0 = f d. f < d0 < 2f 192. If you look at the pool of still water your face is
179. A nearsighted person needs a concave lens. clearly seen. Which of the following best explains
This lens makes the image fall this?
a. beyond the retina of the eye a. scattering of white in different directions
b. before the retina of the eye b. regular reflection of light by the surface of still
c. on the retina of the eye water
d. on the eyeball c. irregular reflection of light by the surface of
180. The image formed by a diverging lens is always still water
a. real c. smaller than the object d. light is reflected from the surface of still water
b. inverted d. larger than the object in different directions
181. To use a convex lens as a simple magnifier, the 193. What occurs when parallel rays of light hit a
object must be placed rough or bumpy surface?
a. between F and the lens a. Diffuse reflection
b. at F b. Diffraction
c. between F and 2F c. Regular reflection
d. beyond 2F d. Refraction
182. Which of the following best describes the order 194. When the surface of a mirror curves inward, like
of decreasing speed of sound in the given media? the inside of a bowl, it is called a
1. wood 3. copper a. concave mirror. c. diffuse mirror.
2. sea water 4. glass 5. air b. convex mirror. d. plane mirror.
a. 12345 c. 54321 195. Negative magnification indicates an image
b. 34125 d. 41325 which is
183. The speed within which sound travels depends a. inverted c. erect
on b. upright d. none of them
a. volume of the medium 196. A boy walks towards a large plane mirror at a
b. weight of the medium speed of 50 cm/s. At what rate does he approach
c. mass of the medium his image?
d. elasticity and density of the medium a. 25 cm/s c. 75 cm/s
184. As light wave passes from a medium whose b. 50 cm/s d. 100 cm/s
index of refraction is 1.5 into a medium whose 197. An unpolarized beam of transverse waves is
index of refraction is 1.2, its one whose vibrations
a. frequency increases a. occur in all directions
b. frequency decreases b. are confined to a single plane
c. wavelength increases c. occur in all directions perpendicular to their
d. wavelength decreases direction of motion
185. Which of the following is/ are true? d. none of them.
I. A convex lens will always form a real image.
II. A diverging lens can never form a real image.
III. The focal length of a diverging lens is positive.
a. I only b. II only c. I & II d. I, II, & III
198. Consider the four pairs of sunglasses below. Which
pair of glasses is capable of eliminating the glare 12. What happens when air is heated?
resulting from sunlight reflecting off the calm a. It expands and rises.
waters of a lake? b. It expands and sinks.
c. It contracts and rises.
d. It contracts and sinks.
13. What do you call the phenomenon wherein there is a
marked increase in the earth’s surface temperature
associated with the radiation being trapped by its
a b c d atmosphere?
198. . A ray of light
. is incident. on a plane surface
. a. Global warming c. El Niño
separating two transparent substances of refractive b. Greenhouse Effect d. La Niña
indices 1.70 and 1.50. The angle of incidence is 30 14. The type of galaxy to which our own galaxy belongs
degrees and the ray originates in the medium of is called a(n)
higher index of refraction. The angle of refraction is a. spiral galaxy c. irregular galaxy
a. 34.5 degrees c. 79.0 degrees b. elliptical galaxy d. barred galaxy
b. 26.2 degrees d. 45.0 degrees 15. On which planet can the greatest volcano in the
199. From the previous number, total internal Solar System be found?
reflection will occur when the angle of incidence is a. Saturn c. Mars
a. less than 61.90 degrees b. Jupiter d. Uranus
b. greater than 61.90 degrees 16. Which of the following statements is true about a
c. greater than 35.0 degrees land breeze?
d. total internal \reflection will not occur a. It occurs during daytime.
b. It occurs because a land heats up faster.
c. It is a movement of air from the land to the sea.
TEST ITEMS IN EARTH SCIENCE d. None of the above.
1. In majority of stars, the most common element is 17. What do you call the process by which rock breaks
a. oxygen c. hydrogen into pieces?
b. helium d. argon a. erosion c. lithification
2. The color of the hottest star is b. weathering d. deposition
a. orange c. yellow 18. In the Northern Hemisphere, the longest day occurs
b. red d. blue on the
3. Black holes are difficult to locate because they a. winter solstice
a. move very quickly b. summer solstice
b. do not give off light c. vernal equinox
c. have very low gravity d. autumnal equinox
d. are far away from any stars 19. What planet is known for its top – like motion?
4. Which idea is not part of Kepler’s Law of Planetary a. Jupiter c. Uranus
Motion? b. Saturn d. Neptune
a. The planets move in elliptical orbits 20. Where is air pressure greatest?
b. The planets rotate on their axes at various rates a. troposphere c. mesosphere
c. The squares of the periods of revolution of a b. stratosphere d. thermosphere
planet are proportional to the cubes of their 21. What happens to a given mass of fluid when heat
average distances from the sun. flows into it?
d. None of the above a. It becomes denser.
5. What do you call the point in the orbit of a planet b. It becomes less dense.
where it is farthest from the sun? c. It becomes colder.
a. apogee c. aphelion d. It becomes heavier.
b. perigee d. perihelion 22. A lunar eclipse can happen only when the moon’s
6. What is the hottest planet in the solar system? phase is
a. Mercury c. Earth a. new c. gibbous
b. Venus d. Mars b. full d. crescent
7. What is the consequence of the inclination of the 23. The name for a chunk of rock, as it travels from
earth’s axis of rotation? space to the earth’s surface
a. weather c. global warming a. meteoroid, meteor, meteorite
b. seasons d. day and night b. meteor, meteoroid, meteorite
8. In which layer of the atmosphere is the ultraviolet c. meteoroid, meteorite, meteor
radiation trapped? d. meteor, meteorite, meteoroid
a. troposphere c. stratosphere 24. What type of rock is formed due to extreme
b. mesosphere d. thermosphere temperature and pressure?
9. At a point just north the Arctic Circle there are 24 a. Sedimentary c. igneous
hours of darkness at the time when the sun is b. metamorphic d. all of them
directly overhead at the 25. Where can the asteroid belt be found?
a. South Pole c. Tropic Of Capricorn a. between Earth and Mars
b. Equator d. Tropic of Cancer b. between Mars and Jupiter
10. What is the biggest natural satellite in the Solar c. between Jupiter and Saturn
System? d. between Venus and Earth
a. Ganymede c. Europa 26. Viewed from earth, what is the brightest star in the
b. Callisto d. Io evening sky?
11. In the water cycle, which process is responsible for a. Sirius c. Proxima Centauri
getting water into the atmosphere? b. Betelgeuse d. Rigel
a. condensation c. sublimation 27. What do you call the slow movement of the earth’s
b. precipitation d. evaporation axis with a period of 26,000 years?
 a. rotation c. precession
b. revolution d. none of the above
28. What do you call the underground where an
earthquake starts?
a. epicenter c. fault
b. focus d. fissure
29. What do you call the stony conical projections that
hang from the roof of a cave?
a. stalactite c. column
b. stalagmite d. none of the above
30. Two air masses have the same humidity. Which of
the following can also be said about them?
a. they have the same temperature
b. they have the same amount of water vapor
c. both have rain clouds
d. none of them
31. In which rock layer are remains of aquatic
organisms commonly found?
a. igneous c. sedimentary
b. metamorphic d. any of them
32. Which may be omitted from a list of processes that
directly bring about changes in rocks?
a. erosion
b. weathering
c. compacting of rock fragments
d. subjecting rock to pressure, heat, and chemical
action
33. Why does air temperature usually decrease towards
the poles?
a. there is plenty of ice near the poles
b. air generally moves towards the equator
c. cold air near the poles prevents heating of the
land
d. areas near the poles receive less solar energy
per unit area
34. Good weather usually prevails in a high-pressure
area. This is because the descending air (which
characterizes high – pressure area)
a. Cools and reduces its capacity to hold water
vapor.
b. Warms and reduces its capacity to hold water
vapor.
c. Cools and increases its capacity to hold water
vapor.
d. Warms and increases its capacity to hold water
vapor.
35. Nights are cooler when the sky is clear than when it
is overcast. Why is this so?
a. the sun is hidden from us at night
b. cooler air can hold less water vapor
c. rain falls when water vapor condenses above
freezing point
d. heat from the lower atmosphere easily escapes
when there is no cloud cover
36. Which of the following conditions regarding the
positions of the earth, moon and the sun could
possibly result to a solar eclipse?
a. the sun is between the earth and the moon
b. the moon is between the sun and the earth
c. the earth is between the sun and the moon
d. the earth, moon, and sun are at right angles to
each other
37. Mars is a planet named after the Roman god of war
Ares. What are the two natural satellites of Mars?
a. Phobos and Deimos
b. Ganymede and Callisto
c. Titan and Triton
d. Europa and Io
38. The planet named after the Roman goddess of
beauty. It is also known as the morning and the
evening star although it is not a star.
a. Mercury c. Mars
b. Venus d. Jupiter
39. In summer, we see the sun rise early and set late,
why?
a. the tilt of the axis is towards the sun
b. the tilt of the axis is away from the sun
c. the tilt is changing in amount
d. the axis is not tilted
40. It is the deepest of the world’s oceans with a depth
of about 14, 000 km.
a. Atlantic Ocean c. Indian Ocean
b. Pacific Ocean d. Arctic Ocean
41. The vibration of the earths surface due to the
release of stored energy when the deformed rock
ruptures or returns to its original size and shape.
a. earthquake c. faulting
b. tsunami d. tidal wave
42. Of the following changes that happen on the earth’s
surface, which is not natural?
a. Weathering c. deposition
b. erosion d. quarrying
43. A moon that rotates in an opposite direction from its
planets rotation
a. Ganymede c. Triton
b. Titan d. Europa
44. The water sphere of the earth is known as
a. Lithosphere c. atmosphere
b. hydrosphere d. biosphere
45. How are latitude and longitude lines drawn?
a. Latitude lines are parallel and longitude lines
meet at the poles.
b. Latitude lines are parallel and longitude lines
meet at the equator.
c. Longitude lines are parallel and latitude lines
meet at the poles.
d. Longitude lines are parallel and latitude lines
meet at the equator.
46. In which group are the parts listed from the oldest
to the youngest?
a. solar system, Milky Way galaxy, universe
b. Milky Way galaxy, solar system, universe
c. universe, solar system, Milky Way galaxy
d. universe, Milky Way galaxy, solar system
47. Which three planets are known as terrestrial planets
because of their high density and rocky
composition?
a. Mercury, Venus, Mars
b. Venus, Neptune, and Pluto
c. Jupiter, Saturn Uranus
d. Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
48. What is the most practical way to control pollution?
a. decreasing the population
b. more government control of industry
c. careful planning of environmental usage
d. slowing the rate of technological growth
49. Humans can cause rapid changes in the
environment, sometimes producing catastrophic
events. Which statement below is the best example
of this concept?
a. lightning causes forest fire
b. shifting crustal plates cause an earthquake
c. changing seasonal winds cause flooding in an
area
d. mountainside highway construction causes a
landslide
50. Which would most likely occur during the formation
of igneous rock?
a. solidification of molten materials
b. recrystallization of unmelted material
c. compression and cementation of sediments
d. evaporation and precipitation of dissolved
sediments
51. Why do mountain climbers use oxygen equipment at
the top of high mountains?
a. there is a hole in the ozone layer
 b. there is less oxygen in the air at great heights 63. Broken pieces of rocks are removed from the parent
c. there is little nitrogen in the air at great heights rock by running water. This process is called
d. there is no air at the top of very high mountains a. erosion c. lithification
52. Why do people feel warmer just before it rains? b. weathering d. crystallization
a. heat released by the condensation of water 64. Geologists reconstruct many details of the earth’s
vapor history from rocks. What particular rock type is used
b. the clouds prevent heat from escaping from by geologists?
earth a. igneous c. metamorphic
c. the increased relative humidity makes them feel b. sedimentary d. any of these
warmer 65. Rhyolite is a fine grained igneous rock. This rock is
d. the warming is due to the heat absorbed by the formed by which of the following processes?
evaporation of water a. lithification
53. Why does greenhouse effect result to warmer b. cementation
temperature near the earth’s surface? c. slow cooling of magma
a. clouds trap infrared radiation d. rapid crystallization of magma
b. soil absorbs incoming radiation 66. A mineralogist rubbed the mineral against a piece
c. ozone traps ultraviolet radiation of porcelain and examined the color of the powder
d. carbon dioxide traps infrared radiation left on the porcelain. What property of the mineral
54. Which of the following factors contribute to was being tested?
“greenhouse effect” a. hardness c. cleavage
a. destruction of the forests b. streak d. luster
b. use of carbon dioxide by land plants 67. The rate of cooling of magma greatly influences the
c. depletion of minerals in the soil by overfarming size of mineral crystals in rocks. If a rock sample
d. use of solar glass panels to capture radiant was observed to have big crystals, this rock is
energy probably
55. Which of the following gases has the greatest a. metamorphic c. extrusive igneous rock
percentage in the earth’s atmosphere? b. sedimentary d. intrusive igneous rock
a. oxygen c. nitrogen 68. Which of the following theories states that in the
b. argon d. carbon dioxide past, the earth consisted of one land mass that
56. A certain rock sample is found to have visible broke apart into smaller landmasses?
layering. This rock is most probably a. Continental drift c. Plate tectonics
a. metamorphic c. extrusive igneous b. Seafloor spreading d. Big bang theory
b. sedimentary d. intrusive igneous 69. The tectonic plates are believed to be moving over
57. Which of the following is not a mineral? partially melted rocks. In what part of the earth are
a. pyrite c. quartz the partially melted rocks found?
b. pearl d. halite a. hydrosphere c. lithosphere
58. Rocks undergo mechanical weathering. Which of the b. atmosphere d. asthenosphere
following shows this? 70. Which term best describes what clouds are made of?
a. acid dissolves rock a. smoke c. water droplets
b. formation of caverns b. water vapor d. condensation nuclei
c. water between particles in rock freezes 71. Seawater is composed mostly of which of the
d. iron in rocks combine with oxygen following minerals?
59. What is the correct sequence of the processes a. sodium chloride
involved in the formation of sedimentary rocks? b. magnesium chloride
a. weathering, transportation, cementation, erosion c. calcium sulfate
b. erosion, transportation, cementation, weathering d. magnesium sulfate
c. weathering, erosion, transportation, cementation 72. A fishpond which is composed of biotic and abiotic
d. erosion, weathering, transportation, cementation factors is an example of an ecosystem. How do
60. You found an unknown mineral and to be able to biotic factors differ from abiotic factors?
identify it, one of the tests your teacher did was to a. biotic factors are the vegetation while all the
determine its weight, then, compare the weight of organisms are considered the abiotic factors
an equal volume of water. What property of the b. biotic factors are non – living factors while
mineral was your teacher trying to determine? abiotic factors are the living factors of the
a. hardness c. specific gravity ecosystem
b. luster d. streak c. biotic factors are the living components of the
61. Arranged from the top to the bottom, which is the ecosystem while abiotic factors are the non –
correct arrangement of the layers of the earth? living components
a. outer core, mantle, crust, inner core d. biotic factors are the community of organism
b. outer core, mantle, inner core, crust while the abiotic factors are the plants and
c. crust, mantle, outer core, inner core vegetation within the ecosystem
d. crust, mantle, inner core, outer core 73. Climate is determined by which of the following
62. Which of the following statements in seismology is factors?
correct? a. temperature and pressure
a. the focus and the epicenter of an earthquake are b. precipitation and pressure
the same c. temperature and cloud cover
b. both describe the exact location of the source of d. temperature and precipitation
an earthquake 74. The number of standard time zones in the world is
c. the focus describes the direction of earthquake a. 12 b. 24 c. 36 d. 6
wave movement while epicenter tells where the 75. How long does it take the moon to go through all of
earthquake originated its phases?
d. the focus is different from the epicenter because a. 24 hours c. 29 ½ days
the epicenter is the point on the surface of the b. 27 1/3 days d. 1 year
earth directly above the focus 76. Which of the following describes the umbra?
 a. darker than the penumbra b. condensation d. none of them
b. lighter than the penumbra 92. Without adding or removing any water vapor, a
c. the same as the penumbra sample of air experiencing an increase in
d. nine of them temperature will have
77. If a solar eclipse occurred 2 weeks ago, what would a. a lower relative humidity
be the phase of the moon today? b. a higher relative humidity
a. first quarter c. last quarter c. the same relative humidity
b. full d. new d. a changed absolute humidity
78. When does a lunar eclipse occur? 93. Air moving down a mountain slope is often warm
a. when the moon moves into its own umbra because
b. when the moon moves into the sun’s umbra a. it has been closer to the sun
c. when the moon moves into the earth’s umbra b. this occurs only during summertime
d. none of the above c. it is compressed as it moves to lower elevation
79. The time it takes the moon to rotate along its axis d. cool air is more dense and settle to lower
once is elevation
a. 24 hours c. 29 ½ days 94. Ozone is able to protect the earth from harmful
b. 27 1/3 days d. 1 year amounts of radiation by
80. If Venus is the twin sister of the Earth, which planet a. reflecting it back to space
is considered the twin of Neptune? b. refracting it to a lower altitude
a. Jupiter c. Saturn c. absorbing it and decomposing, then reforming
b. Pluto d. Uranus d. all of the above
81. The time it takes for the precession of the earth’s 95. The earth’s atmosphere is composed mainly of
axis to complete one turn is a. nitrogen, oxygen, and argon
a. 1 year c. 1000 years b. oxygen, nitrogen, and water vapor
b. 100 years d. 26000 years c. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen
82. What is Saturn’s largest satellite called? d. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water vapor
a. Titan b. Rhea c. Triton d. Callisto 96. The greenhouse effect results to warmer
83. Which of the following statements is true? temperatures near the surface because
a. water gives Neptune its blue cloud color a. clouds trap infrared radiation near the surface
b. helium gives Neptune its blue cloud color b. some of the energy is re – radiated back to the
c. methane gives Neptune its blue cloud color surface
d. butane gives Neptune its blue cloud color c. carbon dioxide molecules do not permit the
84. In summer, we see the sunrise early and sunset radiation to leave
late. Why is this so? d. carbon dioxide and water vapor both trap
a. the tilt is changing in amount infrared radiation
b. the tilt of the axis is towards the sun 97. According to the plate tectonics theory, seafloor
c. the tilt of the axis is away from the sun spreading takes place at a
d. the tilt is either away from nor toward the sun a. subduction zone
85. The thermonuclear fusion that takes place within the b. transform boundar
interior of the earth involving the nuclei of atoms c. divergent boundar
fusing together is due to d. convergent boundary
a. extremely high pressure 98. The presence of an oceanic trench, a chain of
b. pressure of radioactive materials volcanic mountains along a continental edge, and
c. explosion occurring within the sun deep – seated earthquakes is a characteristic of a
d. extremely high temperatures and extremely high /an
pressures a. ocean – ocean plate convergence
86. On the moon, smooth lowland areas are called b. ocean – continent plate convergence
a. maria b. rilles c. highlands d. craters c. continent – continent plate convergence
87. A common feature of a giant planet is d. none of the above
a. no atmosphere c. a thick atmosphere 99. The ongoing occurrence of earthquakes without
b. one or no moon d. slow rotation seafloor spreading, oceanic trenches, or volcanoes is
88. The source of energy that drives the hydrologic most characteristic of a
cycle is the a. subduction zone
a. the sun b. transform boundary between plates
b. the ocean c. divergent boundary between plates
c. the earth’s interior d. convergent boundary between plate
d. latent heat from evaporating water 100. Which of the following does not describe a
89. The most abundant chemical compound at the mineral?
surface of the earth is a. it is a substance
a. water b. it is naturally occurring
b. nitrogen gas c. it is inorganic
c. silicon dioxide d. it can be a solid, liquid, or gas
d. minerals of iron, magnesium, and silicon 101. The earth’s atmosphere is mostly composed of
90. Groundwater is a. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water vapor
a. water that soaks into the ground b. nitrogen, oxygen, and carbon
b. any water beneath the surface of the earth c. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen
c. water beneath the surface of the earth from a d. oxygen, nitrogen, and water vapor
saturated zone 102. Air moving down a slope is often warm because
d. all of the above a. it has been closer to the sun
91. What condition means a balance between the b. this occurs only during summertime
number of water molecules moving to and from the c. it is compressed as it moves lower elevations
liquid state? d. cool air is more dense and settles to lower
a. evaporation c. saturation elevation
103. What condition means a balance between the d. transform boundary
number of water molecules moving to and from the 117. The presence of an oceanic trench, a chain of
liquid state? volcanic mountains along a continental edge, and
a. evaporation c. saturation deep – seated earthquakes is characteristic of a (an)
b. condensation d. none of them a. ocean – ocean plate convergence
104. Without adding or removing any water vapor, a b. ocean – continent plate convergence
sample of air experiencing an increase in c. continent – continent plate convergence
temperature will have d. none of the above are correct
a. a higher relative humidity 118. The presence of an oceanic trench with shallow
b. a lower relative humidity earthquakes and island arcs with deep – seated
c. the same relative humidity earthquakes is characteristic of a (an)
d. a changed absolute humidity a. ocean – ocean plate convergence
105. Cooling a sample of air results in b. ocean – continent plate convergence
a. an increased capacity to hold water vapor c. continent – continent plate convergence
b. a decreased capacity to hold water vapor d. none of the above are correct
c. unchanged capacity to hold water vapor 119. The ongoing occurrence of earthquakes without
d. any of the above can be correct seafloor spreading, oceanic trenches, or volcanoes is
106. When water vapor in the atmosphere most characteristic of a
condenses to liquid water, a. subduction zone
a. dew falls to the ground b. divergent boundary between plates
b. rain or snow falls to the ground c. convergent boundary between plates
c. a cloud forms d. transform boundary between plates
d. all of them are correct 120. What do you call the earth’s motion around the
107. The average temperature of a location is made sun?
more even by the influence of a. rotation c. precession
a. elevation b. revolution d. none of these
b. a large body of water 121. When the moon is between the earth and the
c. dry air sun, what kind of eclipse occurs?
d. nearby mountains a. solar eclipse
108. The climate of a specific location is determined b. lunar eclipse c. none of them
by 122. The measure of the star’s brightness is called
a. its latitude its
b. how much sunlight it receives a. intensity c. color index
c. its latitude and nearby mountains and bodies of b. parallax d. magnitude
water 123. Which of the objects listed below is the largest
d. all of the above in size?
109. Based on its abundance on the earth’s crust, a. stars c. planets
most rocks will contain a mineral composed of b. nebula d. galaxies
oxygen and the element 124. Seasons occur on earth because its axis is
a. sulfur c. silicon tilted. The inclination of the axis is
b. carbon d. iron a. 30 b. 12.50 c. 23.50 d. 31.50
110. The most common rock in the earth’s crust is 125. What do you call the darker part of the
a. igneous c. metamorphic shadow?
b. sedimentary d. none of them a. umbra c. sunspot
111. Which of the following formed from previously b. penumbra d. blind spot
existing rocks? 126. Compared to the earth’s gravity, the moon’s
a. igneous rocks gravity is
b. metamorphic rocks a. ½ as much c. 1/3 as much
c. sedimentary rocks b. ¼ as much d. 1/6 as much
d. all of them are correct 127. Which of the following instruments determines
112. Sedimentary rocks are formed by the processes the atmospheric relative humidity?
of compaction and a. barometer c. psychrometer
a. cementation b. anemometer d. sphygmomanometer
b. pressurization 128. Which of the following is a non – renewable
c. melting energy source?
d. heating but not melting a. wind energy c. fossil fuel
113. Which type of rock probably existed first, b. solar energy d. geothermal energy
starting the rock cycle? 129. Which of the following is a consequence of
a. igneous c. metamorphic deforestation that leads to soil conversion from loam
b. sedimentary d. none of them to sandy?
114. The oldest rocks are found in (the) a. sedimentation c. liquefaction
a. oceanic crust b. compaction d. desertification
b. continental crust 130. Which of the following does NOT describe a
c. neither, since both are the same age mineral?
115. The least dense rocks are found in (the) a. They are inorganic.
a. oceanic crust b. They are found in nature.
b. continental crust c. They can be solid, liquid, or gas.
c. neither, since both are the same density d. They are made up of an orderly arrangement of
116. According to the plate tectonics theory, seafloor atoms with a definite crystal structure.
spreading takes place at a 131. Which of the following statements is true about
a. subduction zone earthquake prediction?
b. convergent boundary a. Earthquakes could be predicted 100%.
c. divergent boundary
 b. We could now determine the probable sites 147. During the summer, the days are
where earthquake could occur. a. shorter than the nights
c. Seismologists could predict the time and day b. longer than the nights
when an earthquake would occur. c. the same length as the night
d. There has been no attempt to predict an d. none of them
earthquake. 148. Which results from the collision of two
132. Which element is not recycled throughout an continental plates?
ecosystem by the processes of photosynthesis and a. mountains c. earthquakes
respiration? b. folds d. all of them
a. carbon c. nitrogen 149. Scientists believe that on of the earth’s layers
b. oxygen d. hydrogen is a liquid. Which is this?
133. The greatest source of indoor pollutant is a. crust c. outer core
a. CFC c. radon b. mantle d. inner core
b. smog d. helium 150. Which of the following is the most violent of all
134. Groundwater that is too close to hot rocks is volcanic eruptions?
warmed and flows to the surface as a a. Plinian eruption
a. magma c. stream b. Vulcanian eruption
b. hot spring d. well c. Strombolian eruption
135. Which of the following creates deep water d. Hawaiian eruption
circulation?
a. Wind c. volcanic activity TEST ITEMS IN CHEMISTRY
b. earthquakes d. difference in density 1. Which of the following is not a physical property?
136. Which of the following contains the greatest a. the ductility of a metal
volume of water on earth? b. the hardness of a metal
a. atmosphere c. groundwater c. the freezing point of a liquid
b. glaciers and ice sheets d. oceans d. the corrosiveness of an acid
137. What happens to the salinity of ocean water 2. Which statement describes a chemical property?
when the rate of evaporation increases? a. Hemoglobin molecules have red color
a. it increases c. it remains the same b. Water boils below 1000C on top of a mountain
b. it decreases d. it is reduced to zero c. Fertilizers help increase the agricultural
138. What is the warning sign of an approaching production
tsunami? d. When ice cubes are left on the table, it gradually
a. high tide and low tide melts.
b. flashflood in nearby beaches 3. Which is an example of a chemical change
c. coastal residents move to higher ground a. boiling of water
d. rapid withdrawal of water from beaches b. souring of milk
139. Convection in the asthenosphere caused the c. melting of butter
breaking of the lithosphere into huge segments. d. dissolving salt in water
What are these huge segments called? 4. Which is an example of a physical change?
a. faults c. continents a. rusting of iron
b. boulders d. tectonic plate b. ripening of mango
c. lighting a matchstick
140. How much stronger is an earthquake with a d. dissolving sugar in water
Richter magnitude of 6 compared with an 5. How will you distinguish between an acid and a
earthquake with a Richter magnitude of 5? base?
a. 10 times c. 100 times a. test with litmus paper
b. 20 times d. 1000 times b. compare their density
141. What type of volcano is formed when fluid c. compare their boiling point
magma erupts quietly and flows from a vent to d. test for the solubility of water
gradually build up a low, broad mountain with gentle 6. Which of the following is an example of an intensive
slopes? property?
a. shield volcano c. cinder cone a. density b. mass c. volume d. length
b. composite volcano d. stratovolcano 7. What do you call a mixture that scatters light
142. Which of the following terms means Earth – passing through it?
centered? a. Solution c. suspension
a. heliocentric c. both of them b. colloid d. all of them
b. geocentric d. none of them 8. Ernest Rutherford is credited for the discovery of the
143. Compared to the other stars, the sun is atomic nucleus. What do you call the experiment he
a. small c. medium – sized conducted that led to the nuclear model of the
b. large d. incomparable atom?
144. The phases of the moon depend on the position a. oil – drop experiment
of the b. alpha – scattering experiment
a. moon only c. earth and moon only c. gold – foil experiment
b. earth only d. earth, moon, and sun d. both b and c
145. The planets in the solar system 9. Some cough syrup are shaken first before they are
a. can support human life used. What characterizes these products?
b. have the same surface temperature a. solution c. suspension
c. revolve around the sun b. colloid d. mixture
d. are exactly the same size 10. All of the following are characteristics of an ionic
146. When it is summer in the northern hemisphere, bond except
in the southern hemisphere it is a. involves sharing of electrons
a. autumn c. summer b. stronger than a covalent bond
b. spring d. winter c. the components joined by the bonds are ions
 d. ions are held by electrostatic forces of attraction c. solutions have definite composition; compounds
11. Which of the following is true of the element 17X35. vary in composition
a. element X has 17 neutrons d. solutions are formed in chem. reactions;
b. element X has 18 protons compounds combine physically
c. element x has 17 electrons 26. The electron configuration of an atom of element X
d. element X has 17 neutrons and 18 protons in the ground state is 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p1.
12. Louise wanted to know the nature of carbonated Which of the following elements represents this?
drink. She used a blue litmus paper. She observed a. 48Cd b. 35Br c. 31Ga d. 27Co
that it turned red after ten seconds. What type of 27. Lithium, sodium, and potassium are alkali metals
compound is it? belonging to Group 1A. What is the valence electron
a. acid c. salt of these elements?
b. base d. any of them a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
13. When a candle is lighted, it melts. The wax then
vaporizes. Finally, it burns. Which is the correct 28. If two atoms that differ in electronegativity combine
order of changes that took place? by chemical reaction and sharing of electrons, the
a. chemical, physical, physical bond that joins them will be
b. physical, chemical, chemical a. ionic bond c. nonpolar covalent
c. physical, physical, chemical b. polar covalent d. metallic bond
d. chemical, chemical, chemical 29. What is the correct chemical name of Ca(ClO3)2?
14. A covalent bond is formed when a. Calcium chlorate c. Calcium (II) chlorate
a. electrons are gained by an atom b. Calcium chloride d. Calcium chlorite
b. electrons are given up by an atom 30. Which of the following statements about the atoms
c. electrons are shared between atoms of isotopes is true?
d. electrons are given up by one atom and taken in a. they have different number of protons and
by another neutrons
15. Which of the following bonds is polar covalent? b. they have the same number of protons and
a. F – F b. Be – Cl c. Na – Cl d. C – O neutrons
16. What is the molecular of methane (CH4)? c. they have the same number of proton but
a. trigonal planar c. square planar different number of neutron
b. tetrahedral d. linear d. they have the same number of neutron but
17. All of the following elements will have the tendency different number of proton
to give up electrons to be stable except 31. Who discovered in 1932 the electrically neutral
a. Aluminum c. Calcium particle called neutron?
b. Chlorine d. Potassium a. Joseph Thomson c. Robert Millikan
18. A solid was heated, and decomposed into black solid b. James Chadwick d. Eugen Goldstein
and white smoke. What is the solid that was heated? 32. Which of the following represents a mole?
a. metal c. mixture a. 3.01 x 1023 gold atoms
b. element d. compound b. 12.4 x 1023 H2O molecules
19. The mass of an atom is attributed to c. 27 g aluminum metal
a. protons and neutrons d. 44.00 g of CO2 molecules
b. protons and electrons 33. What gas law states that the absolute pressure is
c. electrons and neutrons inversely proportional to the volume of a gas?
d. protons only a. Boyle’s Law
20. The common name of hydrochloric acid is muriatic b. Charle’s Law c. Gay – Lussac’s Law
acid. What is the chemical name for baking soda? 34. Which of the following statements about boiling is
a. sodium bicarbonate true?
b. sodium hydroxide a. The normal boiling point of water is 1000C
c. sodium carbonate b. Water boils when vapor pressure becomes equal
d. calcium carbonate to atmospheric pressure
21. Which of the following has the greatest number of c. The boiling temperature increases as the
nitrogen atoms? atmospheric pressure increases.
a. NH4NO3 c. (NH4)3PO4 d. All of the above.
b. HNO3 d/ Ca(NO3)2 35. What would be the chemical formula of the
22. Colloids maybe dispersed in a gas, liquid, or solid. compound formed between Mg and S?
Which of the following colloidal systems show a a. MgS b. MgS2 c. Mg2S d. MgS3
liquid dispersed in a gas medium? 36. The generalized electron configuration of this group
a. clouds c. paint of elements is [Noble Gas] ns2np5. Identify its
b. smoke d. beaten egg white group and family.
23. What is the correct chemical name of P4O10? a. Group VII and Family A
a. diphosphorus pentoxide b. Group V and Family A
b. tetraphosphorus decoxide c. Group II and Family B
c. phosphorus oxide d. Group I and Family B
d. phosphorus oxyacid 37. An atom of non – metallic chlorine has mass number
24. Which of the following acid groups is found in of 35 and 18 neutrons in the nucleus. The anion
vinegar? derived from the atom has 18 electrons. What is the
a. nitric acid c. sulfuric acid symbol of the anion?
b. acetic acid d. ascorbic acid a. Cl1+ b. Cl1- c. Cl0 d. Cl2-
25. How do solutions differ from compounds? 38. Which of the following is an endothermic process?
a. solutions are heterogeneous mixtures; a. condensing of steam
compounds are homogeneous. b. subliming of mothballs
b. solutions vary in composition; compounds have c. freezing of water
definite composition d. all of them
39. What happens to the volume of an ideal gas if both 56. A substance that ionizes completely into hydronium
the pressure and the volume are doubled? ions is known as a
a. double c. halved a. strong acid c. strong base
b. quadruple d. remains the same b. weak acid d. weak base
40. Which of the following chemical equations is 57. When a solution of an acid and a base are mixed
correctly balanced? together,
a. 2Zn + 6HCl  ZnCl2 + 3H2 a. a salt and water are formed
b. 2H2SO4 + 6NaOH  2Na2SO4 + 3H2O b. they lose their acid and base properties
c. 2Mg + 6H2SO4  2MgSO4 + 3H2 c. both are neutralized
d. 2Al + 6HNO3  2Al(NO3)3 + 3H2 d. all of the above are correct
41. Plumbic oxide (PbO2) is a compound used in the lead 58. Salt solutions freeze at a lower temperature than
– acid batteries of automobiles. What is the valence pure water because
number of the lead in the formula? a. more ionic bonds are present
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 b. salt solutions have higher vapor pressure
42. What is the molar mass in g/mol of Ca(ClO3)2? c. ions get in the way of water molecules trying to
a. 205 b. 206 c. 207 d. 208 form ice
43. Carbon disulfide is a nonpolar molecule. Its central d. salt naturally has a lower freezing point than
atom is carbon. Using VSEPR, what is its shape? water
a. linear c. tetrahedral 59. Adding sodium chloride to water raises the boiling
b. trigonal planar d. bent point of water because
44. Which of the following molecules has a tetrahedral a. the energy of hydration is higher
shape? b. sodium chloride has a higher boiling point
a. XeF4 b. BF3 c. AsF5 d. CF4 c. sodium chloride ions occupy space at the water
45. Which of the following pairs of elements is likely to surface
form an ionic compound? d. sodium chloride ions have stronger ion – ion
a. I and Cl c. Cl and Cl bonds than water
b. Al and N d. Mg and F 60. Which of the following will conduct an electric
46. During chemical changes or chemical reactions, current?
which particles are gained, lost, or shared? a. pure water
a. protons inside the nucleus b. a water solution of a covalent compound
b. neutrons inside the nucleus c. a water solution of an ionic compound
c. electrons in the outermost energy level d. none of the above
d. electrons in the innermost energy level 61. According to the activity series for metals, adding
47. Hydrogen peroxide has been used as a rocket metallic iron to a solution of aluminum chloride
propellant. If the chemical formula of hydrogen should result in
peroxide is H2O2, what is its empirical formula? a. a solution of iron chloride and metallic aluminum
a. H2O b. HO c. H2O2 d. HO2 b. a mixed solution of iron and aluminum chloride
48. Cooper is being used in jewelry making. How many c. the formation of iron hydroxide with hydrogen
atoms are there in 2 moles of copper? given off
a. 12.04 x 1022 c. 1.204 x 1024 d. no metal replacement reaction
23
b. 1.204 x 10 d. 12.04 x 1024 62. What do rusting and combustion have in common?
49. The spoilage of meat is delayed when kept in the a. neither involve the reduction of a substance
refrigerator because the cold temperature b. they are both examples of oxidation
a. keeps the flies insects away c. they are both impeded by the presence of water
b. slows down the action of bacteria d. they are the reverse processes and so they
c. changes the color and odor of meat share nothing in common
d. turns the water component to ice 63. Energy is required to break apart a chemical bond to
50. Who discovered the magnitude of the charge of the overcome
electron? a. gravitational forces of attraction
a. Joseph Thomson c. Robert Millikan b. nuclear forces of attraction
b. James Chadwick d. Eugene Goldstein c. electrical forces of attraction
51. Isomers are compounds with the same d. It is not! Energy is released.
a. molecular formula with different structures 64. Which type of molecular attraction is considered the
b. molecular formula with different atomic masses strongest?
c. atoms, but different molecular formulas a. Ion – dipole
d. structures, but different formulas b. dipole – dipole
52. The hydrocarbons with a double covalent carbon – c. dipole – induced dipole
carbon bond are called 65. Water is considered a polar compound because
a. alkanes c. alkynes a. each molecule consists of fewer than 10 atoms
b. alkenes d. none of them b. it has a strong attraction to magnets
53. According to their definitions, which of the following c. one side is slightly negative while the other side
would not occur as unsaturated hydrocarbon? is slightly positive
a. alkanes c. alkynes d. it is found in its frozen state in both arctic and
b. alkenes d. none of them Antarctic regions of our planet
54. What is the proof of a “wine cooler” that is 5 % 66. What type of bonds generally involve nonmetal
alcohol by volume? atoms?
a. 2.5 proof c. 10 proof a. covalent bonds
b. 5 proof d. 50 proof b. ionic bonds c. none of them
55. A solution that is able to resist changes in the pH 67. The atoms of elements toward the bottom of any
when small amounts of an acid or base are added is group in the periodic table tend to be
called a a. smaller because in the increase of the nuclear
a. neutral solution c. buffer solution charge
b. saturated solution d. balanced solution
 b. smaller because of the decrease in the b. decreases in oxidation number
probability cloud density c. gains electrons
c. larger because of a greater number of occupied d. loses protons
shells 80. The reaction of sulfur trioxide with water to form
d. larger because of the decrease in nuclear charge sulfuric acid is an example of
68. Salts are made of elements found on opposite ends a. combination reaction
of the periodic table because b. decomposition reaction
a. elements on the left end tend to form positive c. single replacement reaction
ions while those on the right tend to form d. double replacement reaction
negative ions For numbers 81 and 82, consider the following:
b. elements on the left tend to form negative ions A compound was analyzed to contain 43.6% P and
while those on the right tend to form positive 56.4% O.
ions 81. The empirical formula of the compound is
c. elements on opposite ends of the periodic table a. PO3 b. P2O5 c. PO4 d. P3O7
have similar arrangements of electrons 82. If the molecular mass of the compound is 284
d. False. Salts are generally made of elements g/mol, the molecular formula is
found on the same side of the periodic table. a. P4O12 b. P44O56 c. P3O12 d. P4O10
69. Osmosis is the process whereby 83. Which of these elements has the smallest atomic
a. water flows across a semipermeable membrane radius?
from regions of high to low solute concentrations a. I b. Na c. Rb d. Cl
b. water flows across a semipermeable membrane 84. Which of the following elements is the most
from regions of low to high solute concentrations metallic?
c. solutes flow across a semipermeable membrane a. O b. Ca c. Se d. Be
from regions of high to oow solute 85. Which of the following elements has the highest
concentrations ionization energy?
d. solutes flow across a semipermeable membrane a. Li b. Ne c. Kr d. K
from regions of low to high solute concentrations 86. The differentiating electron of chlorine is added to a
70. Calculate the molarity of 4.008g sodium hydroxide a. 3p7 b. 7p3 c. 7p5 d. 3p5
flakes dissolved in 1000 mL water. 87. Which of the following elements belong to the d –
a. 0.1 M b. 1.0 M c. 4.0 M d. 40 M block of the periodic table?
71. Sterling silver contains 93.5% silver. If a necklace a. Mg b. Sc c. Al d. Kr
made of sterling silver weighs 15 g, what is the 88. Sublevels are filled up in increasing energies. This
mass of the silver dissolved contained in the statement explains the
necklace? a. Hund’s rule
a. 1.6 g b. 6.2 g c. 9.0 g d. 14.0 g b. Aufbau principle
72. What is the percent by volume of 94 mL of ethyl c. Pauli’s exclusion principle
alcohol present in 375 mL of beer? d. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
a. 9.4 b. 25 c. 37 d. 40 89. The maximum number of electrons that the third
73. A yellowish solution extracted from a leaf has a pH principal energy level can contain is
of 8. How would you describe the solution extract? a. 8 b. 10 c. 18 d. 32
a. Acidic c. saturated 90. The azimuthal quantum number of the
b. basic d. supersaturated differentiating electron of phosphorus 31P15 is
74. How do viscosity and surface tension of liquids a. 0 b. – 1 c. +1 d. 2
change as temperature increases? 91. No two electrons can have the same set of four
a. Viscosity decreases with increasing temperature. quantum numbers. This statement is known as
Surface tension increases with an increase in a. de Broglie’s principle
temperature. b. Pauli’s exclusion principle
b. Viscosity increases with increasing temperature. c. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
Surface tension decreases with an increase in d. Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity
temperature. 92. The maximum number of electrons in the f sublevel
c. Viscosity and surface tension increase with is
increasing temperature. a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 14
d. Viscosity and surface tension decrease with For numbers 93 – 95, consider the following set of four
increasing temperature. quantum numbers:
For numbers 75 – 77, consider the following reaction. n = 4, l = 2, m = +1, s = – ½
The complete combustion of methane, CH4, can be 93. The electron which has the given set of quantum
represented by the equation: numbers occupies sublevel
CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2H2O (g) a. s b. p c. d d. f
75. How many grams of CO2 are formed from the 94. The orbital configuration of the electron is
combustion of 120 g of methane? a. 4d4 b. 4p3 c. 4d9 d. 4p5
a. 43.6 g b. 54.5 c. 264 g d. 330 g 95. The set of four quantum numbers is the PIN of the
76. How many liters of O2 are needed to produce 20 L of a. 33rd electron c. 42nd electron
th
CO2 at STP? b. 40 electron d. 47th electron
a. 10 L b. 20 L c. 22.4 L d. 40 L 96. What did the alpha – scattering experiment reveal?
77. How many grams of water are produced from the a. The atom is made up of a very small, massive,
combustion of 56 L CH4 at STP? and positively charged nucleus.
a. 45 g b. 63 g c. 90 g d. 126 g b. The atom consists of negative charges
78. The products of the double replacement reaction embedded in a sphere of positive charges.
between barium nitrate and hydrochloric acid are c. The electrons are negatively charged particles.
a. BaCl and HNO3 c. BaCl2 and HNO3 d. The protons are in the nucleus.
b. BaCl2 and HNO2 d. BaCl and HNO2 97. Which of the following is an assumption of Dalton’s
79. An element undergoes oxidation when it atomic theory?
a. increases in oxidation number a. Atoms of an element have different masses.
 b. When atoms combine to form compounds, they
do so in ratios of small whole numbers
c. An atom consists of a very small, positively
charged nucleus
d. An atom is a sphere of positively charged
material in which the detachable electrons are
embedded
98. Which of these isotopes is used in detecting a
malfunction of the thyroid gland?
a. Iodine – 131 c. Carbon – 14
b. Cobalt – 60 d. Uranium – 235
99. Which of the following molecules in non polar?
a. NH3 c. CCl4
b. H2O d. all of them are non polar
100. Which is true about ionic compounds?
a. soluble in water
b. do not conduct electricity
c. formed by electron sharing
d. have low melting and boiling points

Happy are those who dream dreams and are

ready to pay the price to make them come
true.
Leon J. Suenes