INDUSTRIAL PSYCHOLOGY

ALYSSA EIZETH A. VINALAY, RPM.

1. Industrial/Organization Psychology is defined as
A. The study of human behavior in private and government
offices.
B. A branch of Psychology that applies the principles of
Psychology to the workplace.
C. The study and practice of analyzing jobs, recruiting
applicants, selecting employees, determining salary levels,
training employees, and evaluating employee performance.
D. The study of leadership, job satisfaction, employee
motivation, organizational communication, conflict
management, organizational change, and group processes
within an organization.
1. Industrial/Organization Psychology is defined as
A. The study of human behavior in private and government
offices.
B. A branch of Psychology that applies the
principles of Psychology to the workplace.
C. The study and practice of analyzing jobs, recruiting
applicants, selecting employees, determining salary levels,
training employees, and evaluating employee performance.
D. The study of leadership, job satisfaction, employee
motivation, organizational communication, conflict
management, organizational change, and group processes
within an organization.
2. Danelle, a full-time employee at
Nakakapagpabagabag University has been
experiencing difficulties in dealing with her
officemates and other staff at her office. This issue is
dealt with what branch of I/O Psychology?
A. Personnel Psychology
B. Organizational Psychology
C. Social Psychology
D. Conflict Psychology
 Major Fields of I/O Psychology

— 1. Personnel Psychology: analyzing jobs,

recruiting applicants, selecting employees,
determining salary levels, training employees, and
evaluating employee performance.

— 2. Organizational Psychology: issues of

leadership, job satisfaction, employee motivation,
organizational communication, conflict
management, organizational change, and group
processes within an organization.
2. Danelle, a full-time employee at
Nakakapagpabagabag University has been
experiencing difficulties in dealing with her
officemates and other staff at her office. This issue is
dealt with what branch of I/O Psychology?
A. Personnel Psychology
B. Organizational Psychology
C. Social Psychology
D. Conflict Psychology
3. As a basis for promotion, retention and extension of
services, the HR Assistant conducts employee
evaluation every semester. This activity is specifically
done by HR professionals involved in
A. Personnel Psychology
B. Organizational Psychology
C. Social Psychology
D. I/O Psychology
3. As a basis for promotion, retention and extension of
services, the HR Assistant conducts employee
evaluation every semester. This activity is specifically
done by HR professionals involved in
A. Personnel Psychology
B. Organizational Psychology
C. Social Psychology
D. I/O Psychology
4. The study of people's efficiency in their working
environment is what subfield of I/O Psychology?
A. Personnel Psychology
B. Organizational Psychology
C. Ergonomics
D. Facilities Study
 Human Factors/Ergonomics

— concentrate on workplace design, human-machine

interaction, ergonomics, and physical fatigue and
stress.
4. The study of people's efficiency in their working
environment is what subfield of I/O Psychology?
A. Personnel Psychology
B. Organizational Psychology
C. Ergonomics
D. Facilities Study
5. When your employer told you that your task is to
gather data to determine the work activities, the
conditions under which they are performed, and the
competencies needed to perform the tasks, you
become fully aware that your specific task is to
conduct:
A. Job Evaluation
B. Job Analysis
C. Job Bawokiz
D. Job Research
5. When your employer told you that your task is to
gather data to determine the work activities, the
conditions under which they are performed, and the
competencies needed to perform the tasks, you
become fully aware that your specific task is to
conduct:
A. Job Evaluation
B. Job Analysis
C. Job Bawokiz
D. Job Research
6. Job description is a brief, two- to five-page summary
of the tasks serves as the basis for many HR activities,
including the following, except:
A. Evaluation
B. Training
C. Employee Selection
D. Benefit Evaluation
6. Job description is a brief, two- to five-page summary
of the tasks serves as the basis for many HR activities,
including the following, except:
A. Evaluation
B. Training
C. Employee Selection
D. Benefit Evaluation
7. It is essential that job title must be accurate to be
able to reflect the true nature of the work done by an
employee. Which among the following is least likely a
possible effect of job title that is accurate?
A. Changed perceptions of the status and worth of a
job.
B. More tasks assigned
C. Increased or decreased esteem
D. Broader knowledge of the employee whether
his/her skills match those required for job or not.
 Job Title

— “ psychometric technician.”
— “personnel assistant”

— “ secretary”
— “loan officer”
7. It is essential that job title must be accurate to be
able to reflect the true nature of the work done by an
employee. Which among the following is least likely a
possible effect of job title that is accurate?
A. Changed perceptions of the status and worth of a
job.
B. More tasks assigned
C. Increased or decreased esteem
D. Broader knowledge of the employee whether
his/her skills match those required for job or not.
8. This section contains the necessary KSAOs to be
successful on the job.
A. Job Competencies
B. Job Requirements
C. Job Context
D. Job Characteristics
8. This section contains the necessary KSAOs to be
successful on the job.
A. Job Competencies
B. Job Requirements
C. Job Context
D. Job Characteristics
9. KSAOs stands for:
A. Knowledge, Skills, Aptitude, and Other
characteristics
B. Knowledge, Skills, Abilities, and Other
characteristics
C. Knowledge, Skills, Acuity, and Other characteristics
D. Knowledge, Skills, Aptitude, and Open-mindedness
— A knowledge is a body of information needed to
perform a task.
— A skill is the proficiency to perform a learned task.
— An ability is a basic capacity for performing a wide
range of different tasks, acquiring a knowledge, or
developing a skill.
— Other characteristics include such personal
factors as personality, willingness, interest, and
motivation and
9. KSAOs stands for:
A. Knowledge, Skills, Aptitude, and Other
characteristics
B. Knowledge, Skills, Abilities, and Other
characteristics
C. Knowledge, Skills, Acuity, and Other characteristics
D. Knowledge, Skills, Aptitude, and Open-mindedness
10. One of the difficulties encountered in maintaining
the stability of specific tasks performed by a particular
employee is the application of informal changes that
employees make in their jobs. This is also known as
A. Job Modification
B. Job Crafting
C. Job Revision
D. Job Analysis
— job description should be updated if a job changes
significantly.

— Job Crafting: That is, it is common for employees to

quietly expand the scope of their jobs to add tasks
they want to perform and to remove tasks that they
don’t want to perform.
10. One of the difficulties encountered in maintaining
the stability of specific tasks performed by a particular
employee is the application of informal changes that
employees make in their jobs. This is also known as
A. Job Modification
B. Job Crafting
C. Job Revision
D. Job Analysis
11. Which of the following is not an example of
external recruitment?
A. Campus or University Recruitment
B. Advertising Media
C. Job Fair and Open House
D. Job Posting
 recruitment

— attracting people with the right qualifications (as determined

in the job analysis) to apply for the job.

— External Recruitment
1. Media Advertisements
2. Situation-Wanted Ads (by applicant)
3. Point of Purchase Method
4. Blind Box

— Internal Recruitment
1. Job Posting
2. Word-of-the-mouth
11. Which of the following is not an example of
external recruitment?
A. Campus or University Recruitment
B. Advertising Media
C. Job Fair and Open House
D. Job Posting
12. It is one of the least expensive recruitment systems;
this involves information dissemination through mere
informal communication among people.
A. Advertising Media
B. Word-of-the-Mouth System
C. Gossip-Around-Office System
D. Radio and Television
12. It is one of the least expensive recruitment systems;
this involves information dissemination through mere
informal communication among people.
A. Advertising Media
B. Word-of-the-Mouth System
C. Gossip-Around-Office System
D. Radio and Television
13. As a fresh graduate, you tried to apply for a job at
Krusty Krab. Upon submitting your requirements, the
HRD Assistant asked you questions about your
educational background and some basic information.
Based from your idea about the selection process, you
know that you are on what stage?
A. Psychological Testing
B. Preliminary Screening
C. In-depth Interview
D. Observation
13. As a fresh graduate, you tried to apply for a job at
Krusty Krab. Upon submitting your requirements, the
HRD Assistant asked you questions about your
educational background and some basic information.
Based from your idea about the selection process, you
know that you are on what stage?
A. Psychological Testing
B. Preliminary Screening
C. In-depth Interview
D. Observation
 Types of Interview

-primacy effect
A. STRUCTURE
— 1. Structured Interview
— 2. Unstructured Interview (disadvantages)
B. STYLE
1. One-on-one Interview
2. Serial Interview
3. Return Interview
4. Panel Interview
5. Group Interview
14. Song Jongki, a Psychology Graduate who’s
applying for the position of Psychometrician was
interviewed by the HRD Assistant, HRD Assistant
Director and the HRD Director one after the other.
This is what style of interview?
A. Serial Interview
B. Panel Interview
C. Group Interview
D. One-on-one Interview
14. Song Jongki, a Psychology Graduate who’s
applying for the position of Psychometrician was
interviewed by the HRD Assistant, HRD Assistant
Director and the HRD Director one after the other.
This is what style of interview?
A. Serial Interview
B. Panel Interview
C. Group Interview
D. One-on-one Interview
15. Those who are applying for managerial and
supervisory position are mostly interviewed in such
manner that there are multiple interviewers asking
questions and evaluating the answer of a single
applicant. This is called:
A. Serial Interview
B. Group Interview
C. Panel Interview
D. Managerial Interview
15. Those who are applying for managerial and
supervisory position are mostly interviewed in such
manner that there are multiple interviewers asking
questions and evaluating the answer of a single
applicant. This is called:
A. Serial Interview
B. Group Interview
C. Panel Interview
D. Managerial Interview
16. These are questions asked by the interviewer to
allow him or her to clarify information in the resume,
cover letter and application. This is done mostly to
have a broader idea of the basic information provided
by the applicant.
A. Disqualifiers
B. Clarifiers
C. Fillers
D. Pointers
 Creating Interview Questions

1. Clarifiers allow the interviewer to clarify

information in the résumé, cover letter, and
application, fill in gaps, and obtain other necessary
information

— I noticed a three-year gap between two of your jobs.

Could you tell me
— about that?
— You were a bench hand at AT&T. What is that?
 Creating Interview Questions

— 2. Disqualifier: questions that must be answered a

particular way or the applicant is disqualified.

— Can you work overtime without notice?

— Do you have a valid driver's license?
 Creating Interview Questions

— 3. Past-focused (behavioral)

— When you are dealing with customers, it is inevitable

that you are going to get someone angry. Tell us
about a time when a customer was angry with you.
What did you do to fix the situation?
 Creating Interview Questions

4. Future-focused (situational)

— Imagine that you told a client that you would be

there at 10:00 a.m. It is now 10:30 and there is no
way you will be finished with your current job until
11:30. You are supposed to meet with another client
for lunch at noon and then be at another job at 1:15
p.m. How would you handle this situation?
 Creating Interview Questions

5. Organizational fit

— What type of work pace is best for you? Describe

your experience working with a culturally diverse
group of people.
16. These are questions asked by the interviewer to
allow him or her to clarify information in the resume,
cover letter and application. This is done mostly to
have a broader idea of the basic information provided
by the applicant.
A. Disqualifiers
B. Clarifiers
C. Fillers
D. Pointers
17. Questions such as, “Share about an instance in your
life wherein you encountered a conflict with a teacher
or an authority. Include your course of action upon
dealing with the conflict” is an example of:
A. Situational Question
B. Strategic Question
C. Behavioral Question
D. Theoretical Question
17. Questions such as, “Share about an instance in your
life wherein you encountered a conflict with a teacher
or an authority. Include your course of action upon
dealing with the conflict” is an example of:
A. Situational Question
B. Strategic Question
C. Behavioral Question
D. Theoretical Question
18. These are the most difficult type of questions that
taps how well and applicant’s personality and values fit
with the organization culture.
A. Personality Questions
B. Integrity Questions
C. Clarificatory Questions
D. Organizational-fit Questions
18. These are the most difficult type of questions that
taps how well and applicant’s personality and values fit
with the organization culture.
A. Personality Questions
B. Integrity Questions
C. Clarificatory Questions
D. Organizational-fit Questions
19. It is defined as the process of guiding and directing
the behavior of people in the organization in order to
achieve certain objectives.
A. Management
B. Leadership
C. Orientation
D. Motivation
19. It is defined as the process of guiding and directing
the behavior of people in the organization in order to
achieve certain objectives.
A. Management
B. Leadership
C. Orientation
D. Motivation
20. Which is least likely true about the difference
between Leadership and Management?
A. Leaders are primarily concerned with results, while
managers are concerned with the efficiency of result.
B. Leaders obtain their power from below, managers
obtain theirs from above.
C. Managers are rational problem solvers, while
leaders are intuitive and more visionary.
D. Managers only handle the approval and disapproval
of proposals, while leaders are involved mainly on
communications.
20. Which is least likely true about the difference
between Leadership and Management?
A. Leaders are primarily concerned with results, while
managers are concerned with the efficiency of result.
B. Leaders obtain their power from below, managers
obtain theirs from above.
C. Managers are rational problem solvers, while
leaders are intuitive and more visionary.
D. Managers only handle the approval and
disapproval of proposals, while leaders are
involved mainly on communications.
21. According to the concept of leader emergence,
which is most likely true about the characteristic of a
leader?
A. Leaders are low in openness
B. Leaders are low in conscientiousness
C. Leaders are low in neuroticism
D. Leaders are low in extraversion
— Leader emergence is the idea that people who
become leaders possess traits or characteristics
different from people who do not become leaders.
21. According to the concept of leader emergence,
which is most likely true about the characteristic of a
leader?
A. Leaders are low in openness
B. Leaders are low in conscientiousness
C. Leaders are low in neuroticism
D. Leaders are low in extraversion
22. According to McClelland, high performance
managers have a leadership motive pattern. This
leadership motive pattern is:
A. High need for power and low need for affiliation
B. High need for power and high need for achievement
C. Low need for affiliation and high need for
achievement
D. High need for power and low need for achievement
22. According to McClelland, high performance
managers have a leadership motive pattern. This
leadership motive pattern is:
A. High need for power and low need for
affiliation
B. High need for power and high need for achievement
C. Low need for affiliation and high need for
achievement
D. High need for power and low need for achievement
23. Mang Tomas always claims that his boss is an
unsuccessful leader, given his expriences with his
management. Knowing about the study of Hogan
(1989), you know that there were identified traits of
unsuccessful leaders. Which among the following is
the exception?
A. Insecure Personality
B. Lack of Training
C. Cognitive Deficiencies
D. High in Agreeableness
 Leader Performance

— leaders who perform well possess certain characteristics

that poorly performing leaders do not.
— 1. Traits: extraversion, openness, agreeableness, and
conscientiousness were positively related to leader
performance and that neuroticism was negatively related
to leader performance
— 2. Cognitive Ability
— 3. Needs:
leadership motive pattern (McClelland)
high need for power and a low need for affiliation.
23. Mang Tomas always claims that his boss is an
unsuccessful leader, given his expriences with his
management. Knowing about the study of Hogan
(1989), you know that there were identified traits of
unsuccessful leaders. Which among the following is
the exception?
A. Insecure Personality
B. Lack of Training
C. Cognitive Deficiencies
D. High in Agreeableness
24. According to IMPACT Theory (Geier Downey and
Johnson), this is a style of leadership on which the
leader has influence because of his or her charismatic
personality. This is known to be most effective in
climate of despair.
A. Affiliation Style
B. Tactical Style
C. Magnetic Style
D. Coercive Style
 IMPACT theory by Geier, Downey, and
Johnson

— 1. Informational Style in a Climate of Ignorance

(John Warner)
— 2. Magnetic Style in a Climate of Despair
(energy and optimism)
— 3. Position Style in a Climate of Instability
(“As your captain, I am ordering you to do it”)
— 4. Affiliation Style in a Climate of Anxiety
(leads by liking and caring about others)
— 5. Coercive Style in a Climate of Crisis
— (War; Do it or)
— 6. Tactical Style in a Climate of Disorganization
(Division of labor)
24. According to IMPACT Theory (Geier Downey and
Johnson), this is a style of leadership on which the
leader has influence because of his or her charismatic
personality. This is known to be most effective in
climate of despair.
A. Affiliation Style
B. Tactical Style
C. Magnetic Style
D. Coercive Style
25. This is a style of leadership under IMPACT theory
in which the leader influences others by virtue of their
appointed or elected authority. It works best in climate
of instability.
A. Tactical Style
B. Coercive Style
C. Position Style
D. Magnetic Style
25. This is a style of leadership under IMPACT theory
in which the leader influences others by virtue of their
appointed or elected authority. It works best in climate
of instability.
A. Tactical Style
B. Coercive Style
C. Position Style
D. Magnetic Style
26. Tactical style of leadership is most effective in what
type of climate?
A. Climate of despair
B. Climate of crisis
C. Climate of disorganization
D. Climate of instability
26. Tactical style of leadership is most effective in what
type of climate?
A. Climate of despair
B. Climate of crisis
C. Climate of disorganization
D. Climate of instability
27. A theory of leadership stating that leaders will be
effective if their behavior helps subordinates achieve
their goals.
A. Path Goal Theory
B. IMPACT Theory
C. Situational Leadership Theory
D. Leader-Member Exchange Theory
27. A theory of leadership stating that leaders will be
effective if their behavior helps subordinates achieve
their goals.
A. Path Goal Theory
B. IMPACT Theory
C. Situational Leadership Theory
D. Leader-Member Exchange Theory
28. Situational Leadership Theory was developed by
Hersey and Blanchard which emphasized that effective
leaders must adapt their style of leadership to fit both
the situation and followers. According to this theory,
the most important follower characteristic is:
A. Cognitive Capacity
B. Physical Ability
C. Job and Psychological Readiness
D. Financial Stability
28. Situational Leadership Theory was developed by
Hersey and Blanchard which emphasized that effective
leaders must adapt their style of leadership to fit both
the situation and followers. According to this theory,
the most important follower characteristic is:
A. Cognitive Capacity
B. Physical Ability
C. Job and Psychological Readiness
D. Financial Stability
29. Which of the following was not included among the
list of behavior styles under Situational Leadership
Theory?
A. Supporting
B. Coaching
C. Delegating
D. Motivating
Situational Leadership Theory
29. Which of the following was not included among the
list of behavior styles under Situational Leadership
Theory?
A. Supporting
B. Coaching
C. Delegating
D. Motivating
30. It is one of Raven’s five basic types of power (1992)
that individuals have because of their elected or
appointed position.
A. Legitimate Power
B. Referent Power
C. Expert Power
D. Coercive Power
 Leadership through Power

— 1. Expert Power:
— A. First, the knowledge must be something that
others in an organization need.
— B: Second, others must be aware that the leader
knows something.

— 2. Legitimate Power: on the basis of their

positions
— 3. Reward and Coercive Powers:
— A. Reward power involves having control over both
financial rewards—salary increases, bonuses, or
promotions—and nonfinancial rewards—praise or more
favorable work assignments
— B. Coercive power, it is important that others
believe she is willing to use her ability to punish

— 4. Referent Power: positive feelings that others

hold for him.
30. It is one of Raven’s five basic types of power (1992)
that individuals have because of their elected or
appointed position.
A. Legitimate Power
B. Referent Power
C. Expert Power
D. Coercive Power
31. The type of power that individuals have because
they are informed and that they have the needed
knowledge.
A. Coercive Power
B. Legitimate Power
C. Referent Power
D. Expert Power
31. The type of power that individuals have because
they are informed and that they have the needed
knowledge.
A. Coercive Power
B. Legitimate Power
C. Referent Power
D. Expert Power
32. When your boss can ask for favors and can make
you do related tasks at the office given that you share
the same goals and can identify with him or her, s/she
have the
A. Reward Power
B. Legitimate Power
C. Expert Power
D. Referent Power
32. When your boss can ask for favors and can make
you do related tasks at the office given that you share
the same goals and can identify with him or her, s/she
have the
A. Reward Power
B. Legitimate Power
C. Expert Power
D. Referent Power
33. According to the _______ theory, employees with
high self-esteem actually desire to perform at high
levels and employees with low self-esteem desire to
perform at low levels.
A. ERG
B. Equity
C. Consistency
D. Maslow’s
33. According to the _______ theory, employees with
high self-esteem actually desire to perform at high
levels and employees with low self-esteem desire to
perform at low levels.
A. ERG
B. Equity
C. Consistency
D. Maslow’s
34. Job performance is only possible if the following
conditions are met, except:
A. Capacity to perform
B. Willingness to perform
C. Opportunity to perform
D. NOTA
34. Job performance is only possible if the following
conditions are met, except:
A. Capacity to perform
B. Willingness to perform
C. Opportunity to perform
D. NOTA
35. According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs,
companies should ensure that these must be satisfied
first to ensure a person’s existence.
A. Esteem Needs
B. Self-actualization Needs
C. Physiological Needs
D. Belongingness Needs
35. According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs,
companies should ensure that these must be satisfied
first to ensure a person’s existence.
A. Esteem Needs
B. Self-actualization Needs
C. Physiological Needs
D. Belongingness Needs
36. According to the Two-factor Theory of Herzberg, it
refers to the job related elements that result from but
do not involve the job itself; these are necessary but
not sufficient for job satisfaction and motivation.
A. Knowledge
B. Skills
C. Hygiene
D. Motivators
 Two-Factor Theory (Herzberg)

a. Hygiene factors are those job-related elements

that result from but do not involve the job itself. (Job
context)

b. Motivators: job elements that do concern actual

tasks and duties.
(Job Content)

“If hygiene factor is not

present, the employee is
dissatisfied but if all
hygiene factors are
present, the motivation
will only be neutral. “
36. According to the Two-factor Theory of Herzberg, it
refers to the job related elements that result from but
do not involve the job itself; these are necessary but
not sufficient for job satisfaction and motivation.
A. Knowledge
B. Skills
C. Hygiene
D. Motivators
37. The Two-factor Theory identifies _____ as a
source of dissatisfaction.
A. Job Content
B. Job Context
C. Job Availability
D. Job Popularity
37. The Two-factor Theory identifies _____ as a
source of dissatisfaction.
A. Job Content
B. Job Context
C. Job Availability
D. Job Popularity
38. Clayton Alderfer postulated that in motivating
people, we are confronted by three sets of needs. What
do you call these needs that are satisfied by an
individual making creative or productive
contributions?
A. Relatedness Needs
B. Existence Needs
C. Growth Needs
D. Motivational Needs
38. Clayton Alderfer postulated that in motivating
people, we are confronted by three sets of needs. What
do you call these needs that are satisfied by an
individual making creative or productive
contributions?
A. Relatedness Needs
B. Existence Needs
C. Growth Needs
D. Motivational Needs
39. According to ERG theory, these needs are satisfied
by such factor as food, air, water, pay and working
conditions.
A. Relatedness Needs
B. Existence Needs
C. Growth Needs
D. Physiological Needs
 ERG Theory (Aldefer)

— a person can skip levels.

GROWTH

RELATEDNESS

EXISTENCE
39. According to ERG theory, these needs are satisfied
by such factor as food, air, water, pay and working
conditions.
A. Relatedness Needs
B. Existence Needs
C. Growth Needs
D. Physiological Needs
40. This theory of motivation proposes the three needs
needed to successfully perform a job; achievement,
power and affection.
A. Alderfer
B. Vroom
C. Maslow
D. David McClelland
 McClelland

Need for Power

Need for Affiliation

Need for Achievement

40. This theory of motivation proposes the three needs
needed to successfully perform a job; achievement,
power and affection.
A. Alderfer
B. Vroom
C. Maslow
D. David McClelland
41. Acquired Needs Theory explained that people
acquire or learn certain needs from their culture. One
of these needs refers to the desire to do something
better or more efficiently, to solve problems, or to
master complex task. This is:
A. Need for Power
B. Need for Affiliation
C. Need for Mastery
D. Need for Achievement
41. Acquired Needs Theory explained that people
acquire or learn certain needs from their culture. One
of these needs refers to the desire to do something
better or more efficiently, to solve problems, or to
master complex task. This is:
A. Need for Power
B. Need for Affiliation
C. Need for Mastery
D. Need for Achievement
42. After years of working with your boss, you noticed
that he always aim to control others and to influence
their behaviour. He tends to enjoy the responsibility of
handling others, driving him to become a successful
manager. According to Acquired Needs Theory, your
boss has a high need for:
A. Power
B. Affiliation
C. Need for Mastery
D. Control
42. After years of working with your boss, you noticed
that he always aim to control others and to influence
their behaviour. He tends to enjoy the responsibility of
handling others, driving him to become a successful
manager. According to Acquired Needs Theory, your
boss has a high need for:
A. Power
B. Affiliation
C. Need for Mastery
D. Control
43. When setting goals, which of the following must be
avoided?
A. Come up with specific goals rather than generalized
goals
B. Set difficult goals
C. Set goals that are easy to accomplish
D. Goals must be linked to feedbacks and rewards
43. When setting goals, which of the following must be
avoided?
A. Come up with specific goals rather than generalized
goals
B. Set difficult goals
C. Set goals that are easy to accomplish
D. Goals must be linked to feedbacks and rewards
44. It is the individual’s estimate of the probability that
performance will lead to certain outcomes. It is the
person’s subjective evaluation of the chances that good
performance will lead to certain outcomes. What do
you call this concept in the Expectancy Theory of
Motivation?
A. Instrumentality
B. Valence
C. Expectancy
D. Equity
44. It is the individual’s estimate of the probability that
performance will lead to certain outcomes. It is the
person’s subjective evaluation of the chances that good
performance will lead to certain outcomes. What do
you call this concept in the Expectancy Theory of
Motivation?
A. Instrumentality
B. Valence
C. Expectancy
D. Equity
45. When a company starts to involve their employees
in decisions that affect them and tries to build
motivating factors like responsibility, achievements
and recognition, it is more likely that the employees
experience increased job satisfaction. This practice is
referred to as:
A. Job Enlargement
B. Job Enhancement
C. Job Improvement
D. Job Flexibility
45. When a company starts to involve their employees
in decisions that affect them and tries to build
motivating factors like responsibility, achievements
and recognition, it is more likely that the employees
experience increased job satisfaction. This practice is
referred to as:
A. Job Enlargement
B. Job Enhancement
C. Job Improvement
D. Job Flexibility
— 46. Job Characteristics Theory maintains that there
are five core job characteristics of special importance
to job design. One of these characteristics is the
degree to which one worker is able to do a complete
job, from beginning to end with the tangible and
possible outcome. This is called:
A. Output
B. Task Significance
C. Task Identity
D. Autonomy
— 46. Job Characteristics Theory maintains that there
are five core job characteristics of special importance
to job design. One of these characteristics is the
degree to which one worker is able to do a complete
job, from beginning to end with the tangible and
possible outcome. This is called:
A. Output
B. Task Significance
C. Task Identity
D. Autonomy
47. Under the same theory, this is one of the job
characteristics which reflects the degree to which the
job has a substantial impact on the lives or work of
other people.
A. Impact
B. Task Significance
C. Task Identity
D. Autonomy
47. Under the same theory, this is one of the job
characteristics which reflects the degree to which the
job has a substantial impact on the lives or work of
other people.
A. Impact
B. Task Significance
C. Task Identity
D. Autonomy
48. Some of the big companies prefer to motivate their
employees through financial incentives. It may be in
the form of Payment by Results. Which is least likely
true about this form of incentive?
A. There are likely to be cost advantages.
B. This scheme links pay to the quantity of the
individual output.
C. More supervision is required.
D. There is fairness.
48. Some of the big companies prefer to motivate their
employees through financial incentives. It may be in
the form of Payment by Results. Which is least likely
true about this form of incentive?
A. There are likely to be cost advantages.
B. This scheme links pay to the quantity of the
individual output.
C. More supervision is required.
D. There is fairness.
49. This form of financial incentive consider results or
output plus actual behaviour in the job. Most often,
rewards consist of a bonus as a percentage of basic
salary, with quality of performance determining the
magnitude of the percentage increase.
A. Profit Related Pay
B. Payment by Results
C. Performance Related Pay
D. Time Rates
49. This form of financial incentive consider results or
output plus actual behaviour in the job. Most often,
rewards consist of a bonus as a percentage of basic
salary, with quality of performance determining the
magnitude of the percentage increase.
A. Profit Related Pay
B. Payment by Results
C. Performance Related Pay
D. Time Rates
50. Every six months, the employees of Chimelong
University are asked to visit the university’s website to
identify the benefit package that they prefer. These
benefits may be in the form of insurance, car, gadgets,
vacations abroad, modification of working hours and
many more. This is what form of incentive?
A. Profit Related Pay
B. Cafeteria Benefit System
C. Shopping Incentive Plan
D. Material Incentive
50. Every six months, the employees of Chimelong
University are asked to visit the university’s website to
identify the benefit package that they prefer. These
benefits may be in the form of insurance, car, gadgets,
vacations abroad, modification of working hours and
many more. This is what form of incentive?
A. Profit Related Pay
B. Cafeteria Benefit System
C. Shopping Incentive Plan
D. Material Incentive
51. A work schedule that allows employees to choose
their own work hours.
A. Flexible Hours
B. Core Hours
C. Flexitime
D. Gliding Time
 Work Schedule

— To increase employee satisfaction, motivation, and

performance and to reduce absenteeism and turnover,
many organizations have implemented changes in work
schedules.
flextime: a work schedule in which employees have
some flexibility in the hours they work
bandwidth is the total number of potential hours
available for work each day.
Core hours are those that everyone must work and
typically consist of the hours during which an organization
is busiest with its outside contacts.
51. A work schedule that allows employees to choose
their own work hours.
A. Flexible Hours
B. Core Hours
C. Flexitime
D. Gliding Time
52. A part of schedule in which employees can choose
their own hours without any advance notice or
schedule.
A. Flexible Hours
B. Core Hours
C. Flexitime
D. Gliding Time
52. A part of schedule in which employees can choose
their own hours without any advance notice or
schedule.
A. Flexible Hours
B. Core Hours
C. Flexitime
D. Gliding Time
53. An existing policy that provides an alternative
arrangement whereby the normal workweek is reduced
to less than six (6) days but the total number of work
hours per week shall remain 48 hours.
A. Flexitime Policy
B. Compressed Work Week Scheme Policy
C. Retrenchment Policy
D. Downsizing Policy
53. An existing policy that provides an alternative
arrangement whereby the normal workweek is reduced
to less than six (6) days but the total number of work
hours per week shall remain 48 hours.
A. Flexitime Policy
B. Compressed Work Week Scheme Policy
C. Retrenchment Policy
D. Downsizing Policy
54. Defined as a field of inquiry dedicated to the
advancing knowledge about the nature of groups, the
laws of their development, and their interrelations
with individuals, other groups and larger institutions.
A. Social Psychology
B. Interpersonal Relations
C. Group Dynamics
D. Team Relations
54. Defined as a field of inquiry dedicated to the
advancing knowledge about the nature of groups, the
laws of their development, and their interrelations
with individuals, other groups and larger institutions.
A. Social Psychology
B. Interpersonal Relations
C. Group Dynamics
D. Team Relations
55. According to Gordon (2001), for a group of people
to be called a group, the following criteria must be met,
except:
A. It is not necessary that the group provides rewards
to each member.
B. The members of the group must share a common
goal.
C. Anything that happens to one member of the group
affects every other member.
D. The members of the group must see themselves as a
unit.
55. According to Gordon (2001), for a group of people
to be called a group, the following criteria must be met,
except:
A. It is not necessary that the group provides
rewards to each member.
B. The members of the group must share a common
goal.
C. Anything that happens to one member of the group
affects every other member.
D. The members of the group must see themselves as a
unit.
56. As with every social group, each member has a role
to perform. This role involves forcing members to look
at how the group functions and the excellent team
progress.
A. Mediator
B. Process Observer
C. Gatekeeper
D. Take-charge Leader
56. As with every social group, each member has a role
to perform. This role involves forcing members to look
at how the group functions and the excellent team
progress.
A. Mediator
B. Process Observer
C. Gatekeeper
D. Take-charge Leader
57. This role is primarily concerned with helping with
task accomplishment and sharing technical expertise
with team members, by providing useful and valid
information.
A. Process Observer
B. Gatekeeper
C. Take-charge Leader
D. Knowledge Contributor
57. This role is primarily concerned with helping with
task accomplishment and sharing technical expertise
with team members, by providing useful and valid
information.
A. Process Observer
B. Gatekeeper
C. Take-charge Leader
D. Knowledge Contributor
58. It is more likely that the employees working in the
same office or area tend to form groups, as compared
to those employees who are assigned in different
locations. This is primarily because of:
A. Affiliation
B. Identification
C. Proximity
D. Emotional Support
58. It is more likely that the employees working in the
same office or area tend to form groups, as compared
to those employees who are assigned in different
locations. This is primarily because of:
A. Affiliation
B. Identification
C. Proximity
D. Emotional Support
59. Group performance can be affected by the
following factors, which is the exception?
A. Group Cohesiveness
B. Group Size
C. Communication Structure
D. Group Name
59. Group performance can be affected by the
following factors, which is the exception?
A. Group Cohesiveness
B. Group Size
C. Communication Structure
D. Group Name
60. Company X aims to employ people from different
areas of the Philippines as members of their workforce,
to ensure that they get to see as many perspectives
there are. In terms of Group Homogeneity of Company
X, we can say that:
A. It is a Homogenous Group
B. It is a Heterogeneous Group
C. It is cohesive
D. The group size is small
60. Company X aims to employ people from different
areas of the Philippines as members of their workforce,
to ensure that they get to see as many perspectives
there are. In terms of Group Homogeneity of Company
X, we can say that:
A. It is a Homogenous Group
B. It is a Heterogeneous Group
C. It is cohesive
D. The group size is small
61. In terms of group status, it is true that:
A. The higher the group status, the greater its
cohesiveness.
B. The lower the group status, the greater its
cohesiveness.
C. The group must actually have to have high status to
function as a unit.
D. There is no relationship between group status and
cohesiveness.
61. In terms of group status, it is true that:
A. The higher the group status, the greater its
cohesiveness.
B. The lower the group status, the greater its
cohesiveness.
C. The group must actually have to have high status to
function as a unit.
D. There is no relationship between group status and
cohesiveness.
62. It considers the effects on individual performance
when people work together on a task. Also, when the
person is exerting less effort to achieve a goal when
they work in a group than they work alone.
A. Free-Rider Theory
B. Sucker Effect
C. Coaction
D. Social Loafing
 Social Loafing

— theory considers the effect on individual performance

when people work together on a task.
— Ringleman (rope and restos)

— 1. free-rider theory: when things are going well, a

group member realizes that his effort is not necessary
and thus does not work as hard as he would if he were
alone.
— 2. sucker effect: when a group member notices that
other group members are not working hard, the
individual lowers his work performance to match those
of the other members.
62. It considers the effects on individual performance
when people work together on a task. Also, when the
person is exerting less effort to achieve a goal when
they work in a group than they work alone.
A. Free-Rider Theory
B. Sucker Effect
C. Coaction
D. Social Loafing
63. It hypothesizes that social loafing occurs when a
group member notices that other group members are
not working hard. To avoid this situation, the
individual lowers his work performance to match those
of the other members.
A. Free-Rider Theory
B. Sucker Effect
C. Coaction
D. Social Loafing
63. It hypothesizes that social loafing occurs when a
group member notices that other group members are
not working hard. To avoid this situation, the
individual lowers his work performance to match those
of the other members.
A. Free-Rider Theory
B. Sucker Effect
C. Coaction
D. Social Loafing
64. It postulates that when things are going well, a
group member realizes that their individual efforts will
not be notices and thus does not work as hard as he
would if he were alone.
A. Free-Rider Theory
B. Sucker Effect
C. Coaction
D. Social Loafing
64. It postulates that when things are going well, a
group member realizes that their individual efforts will
not be notices and thus does not work as hard as he
would if he were alone.
A. Free-Rider Theory
B. Sucker Effect
C. Coaction
D. Social Loafing
65. You are fully aware that to be able to form an
effective work group, it is necessary to maintain the
following characteristics, except for one. What is the
exception?
A. Right mix and size
B. Support for the work group
C. Emotional Intelligence
D. Independence
65. You are fully aware that to be able to form an
effective work group, it is necessary to maintain the
following characteristics, except for one. What is the
exception?
A. Right mix and size
B. Support for the work group
C. Emotional Intelligence
D. Independence
66. This term was coined by Janis (1972) after
studying the disastrous Bay of Pigs invasion in 1961.
This concept emphasizes that when members become
so cohesive and like-minded, they make poor decisions
despite contrary information that might reasonably
lead the, to other options.
A. Group Polarization
B. Social Loafing
C. Social Loading
D. Group Think
66. This term was coined by Janis (1972) after
studying the disastrous Bay of Pigs invasion in 1961.
This concept emphasizes that when members become
so cohesive and like-minded, they make poor decisions
despite contrary information that might reasonably
lead the, to other options.
A. Group Polarization
B. Social Loafing
C. Social Loading
D. Group Think
67. The following are the ways in which your answer in
number 66 can be reduced:
A. The leader should promote open discussion.
B. A group or committee can be separated into
subgroups.
C. The leader should state his own position or beliefs at
the start of the discussions.
D. One group member can be assigned the job of
devil’s advocate.
67. The following are the ways in which your answer in
number 66 can be reduced, except:
A. The leader should promote open discussion.
B. A group or committee can be separated into
subgroups.
C. The leader should state his own position or
beliefs at the start of the discussions.
D. One group member can be assigned the job of
devil’s advocate.
68. This is a type of team that is also called Cross
Functional Teams which consists of representatives
from various departments (functions) within the
organization.
A. Parallel Team
B. Project Team
C. Management Team
D. Work Team
68. This is a type of team that is also called Cross
Functional Teams which consists of representatives
from various departments (functions) within the
organization.
A. Parallel Team
B. Project Team
C. Management Team
D. Work Team
69. As reflected with international singers’ decision to
have a joint performance and an effort to come up with
a song, some resolve their conflict using this style. It is
when people want to win but also want to see the other
people win.
A. Compromising Style
B. Collaborating Style
C. Accommodating Style
D. Forcing Style
69. As reflected with international singers’ decision to
have a joint performance and an effort to come up with
a song, some resolve their conflict using this style. It is
when people want to win but also want to see the other
people win.
A. Compromising Style
B. Collaborating Style
C. Accommodating Style
D. Forcing Style
70. Conflict style that involves handling conflict in a
win-lose fashion and does what it takes to win with
little regard for the other person.
A. Compromising Style
B. Collaborating Style
C. Avoiding Style
D. Forcing Style
70. Conflict style that involves handling conflict in a
win-lose fashion and does what it takes to win with
little regard for the other person.
A. Compromising Style
B. Collaborating Style
C. Avoiding Style
D. Forcing Style
— 71. A type of team that are formed to produce one
time outputs such as creating a new product,
installing new software, or hiring a new employee.
A. Parallel Team
B. Project Team
C. Management Team
D. Work Team
71. A type of team that are formed to produce one time
outputs such as creating a new product, installing new
software, or hiring a new employee.
A. Parallel Team
B. Project Team
C. Management Team
D. Work Team
72. In the Five-stage model, the ___ stage involves
the actual performance of the group.
A. Norming
B. Forming
C. Storming
D. Performing
 How Teams Develop

— 1. forming stage: team members get to know each

other and decide what roles each member will play.
— 2. storming stage: On an individual level, team
members often become frustrated with their roles, show
the stress of balancing their previous duties with their
new team responsibilities, and question whether they
have the ability to accomplish the goals set.
— 3. norming stage: easing the tension from the storming
stage
— 4. performing stage: team begins to accomplish its
goals. Groupmembers make innovative suggestions
— 5. Adjourning stage: termination of activities
72. In the Five-stage model, the ___ stage involves
the actual performance of the group.
A. Norming
B. Forming
C. Storming
D. Performing
73. The Five-stage model, the ___ stage is associated
with intragroup conflict.
A. Norming
B. Forming
C. Storming
D. Performing
73. The Five-stage model, the ___ stage is associated
with intragroup conflict.
A. Norming
B. Forming
C. Storming
D. Performing
74. In the Five-stage model, the ___ stage emphasizes
camaraderie and development of friendships.
A. Norming
B. Forming
C. Storming
D. Performing
74. In the Five-stage model, the ___ stage emphasizes
camaraderie and development of friendships.
A. Norming
B. Forming
C. Storming
D. Performing
75. It is the last stage of Five-stage Model that involves
the termination of activities.
A. Storming
B. Norming
C. Adjourning
D. Ending
75. It is the last stage of Five-stage Model that involves
the termination of activities.
A. Storming
B. Norming
C. Adjourning
D. Ending
76. Defined as the psychological and behavioural
reaction to a perception that another person is keeping
you from reaching a goal, taking away your right to
behave in a particular way, or violating the
expectancies of a relationship.
A. Competition
B. Conflict
C. Stress
D. Objection
76. Defined as the psychological and behavioural
reaction to a perception that another person is keeping
you from reaching a goal, taking away your right to
behave in a particular way, or violating the
expectancies of a relationship.
A. Competition
B. Conflict
C. Stress
D. Objection
77. In terms of Training Needs Analysis, it is done to
determine those factors that either facilitate or inhibit
training effectiveness. This may include the goals, the
organizational ability to conduct training, etc.
A. Task Analysis
B. Person Analysis
C. Organizational Analysis
D. System Analysis
77. In terms of Training Needs Analysis, it is done to
determine those factors that either facilitate or inhibit
training effectiveness. This may include the goals, the
organizational ability to conduct training, etc.
A. Task Analysis
B. Person Analysis
C. Organizational Analysis
D. System Analysis
78. A type of Needs Analysis that aims to identify the
task performed by each employee, the conditions
under which this task are performed and the
competencies.
A. Task Analysis
B. Person Analysis
C. Contextual Analysis
D. System Analysis
78. A type of Needs Analysis that aims to identify the
task performed by each employee, the conditions
under which this task are performed and the
competencies.
A. Task Analysis
B. Person Analysis
C. Contextual Analysis
D. System Analysis
79. The three types of Needs Analysis are the
following, what is the exception?
A. Person Analysis
B. Organizational Analysis
C. System Analysis
D. Task Analysis
79. The three types of Needs Analysis are the
following, what is the exception?
A. Person Analysis
B. Organizational Analysis
C. System Analysis
D. Task Analysis
80. It is a training method similar to role play except
that trainees role play ideal behaviour.
A. Simulation exercises
B. Lecture
C. Behavior Modelling
D. Vestibule Training
80. It is a training method similar to role play except
that trainees role play ideal behaviour.
A. Simulation exercises
B. Lecture
C. Behavior Modelling
D. Vestibule Training
81. A term coined by Peter Drucker, which emphasizes
that an effective management must direct the vision
and efforts of all managers towards a common goal.
A. Critical Incidence Technique
B. Management by Objectives
C. Total Quality Management
D. Leadership
81. A term coined by Peter Drucker, which emphasizes
that an effective management must direct the vision
and efforts of all managers towards a common goal.
A. Critical Incidence Technique
B. Management by Objectives
C. Total Quality Management
D. Leadership
82. It refers to the HR planning, acquisition, and
development aimed at providing the talent necessary
for organizational success.
A. Selection
B. Socialization
C. Recruitment
D. Staffing
82. It refers to the HR planning, acquisition, and
development aimed at providing the talent necessary
for organizational success.
A. Selection
B. Socialization
C. Recruitment
D. Staffing
83. After job analysis, the next step is the drawing of
people to apply for the various positions identified. It
is defined as a human resource management practice
designed to locate and attract job applicants for
particular positions.
A. Selection
B. Socialization
C. Recruitment
D. Staffing
83. After job analysis, the next step is the drawing of
people to apply for the various positions identified. It
is defined as a human resource management practice
designed to locate and attract job applicants for
particular positions.
A. Selection
B. Socialization
C. Recruitment
D. Staffing
84. The advantages of attracting internal job
applicants include the following, except:
A. It encourages good individuals who are ambitious.
B. It lessens the cost.
C. It may promote “in breeding”.
D. It us good public relations.
84. The advantages of attracting internal job
applicants include the following, except:
A. It encourages good individuals who are ambitious.
B. It lessens the cost.
C. It may promote “in breeding”.
D. It us good public relations.
85. One of the disadvantages of job posting is:
A. It enhances the probability that the firm’s most
qualified employees will be considered for the job.
B. It takes time in filling vacant positions.
C. It gives employees an opportunity to become more
responsible on their own career development.
D. It enables employees to leave a “bad” work station.
85. One of the disadvantages of job posting is:
A. It enhances the probability that the firm’s most
qualified employees will be considered for the job.
B. It takes time in filling vacant positions.
C. It gives employees an opportunity to become more
responsible on their own career development.
D. It enables employees to leave a “bad” work station.
86. It is the last step in the HR planning, acquisition,
and development that involves orienting new
employees to the organization and its work units.
A. Selection
B. Socialization
C. Recruitment
D. Staffing
86. It is the last step in the HR planning, acquisition,
and development that involves orienting new
employees to the organization and its work units.
A. Selection
B. Socialization
C. Recruitment
D. Staffing
87. Which among the following is not considered as
On-the-job training?
A. Internships
B. Vestibule Training
C. Job Rotation
D. Apprenticeships
— Vestibule Training/Simulation

-involves virtual duplication of work environment in

an off-site setting

-flight simulator
87. Which among the following is not considered as
On-the-job training?
A. Internships
B. Vestibule Training
C. Job Rotation
D. Apprenticeships
88. Which among the following is not considered as
Off-the-job training?
A. Classroom Lectures
B. Vestibule Training
C. Job Rotation
D. Programmed Instruction
88. Which among the following is not considered as
Off-the-job training?
A. Classroom Lectures
B. Vestibule Training
C. Job Rotation
D. Programmed Instruction
89. A career stage on which the employee seeks growth
and increased responsibility through the continued
development and utilization of his skills.
A. Maintenance Stage
B. Advancement stage
C. Establishment Stage
D. Retirement Stage
89. A career stage on which the employee seeks growth
and increased responsibility through the continued
development and utilization of his skills.
A. Maintenance Stage
B. Advancement stage
C. Establishment Stage
D. Retirement Stage
90. The third stage of Career Development that
involves experiences of continued growth of
performance and accomplishments, or he may
encounter career stability.
A. Maintenance Stage
B. Advancement stage
C. Establishment Stage
D. Retirement Stage
90. The third stage of Career Development that
involves experiences of continued growth of
performance and accomplishments, or he may
encounter career stability.
A. Maintenance Stage
B. Advancement stage
C. Establishment Stage
D. Retirement Stage
91. This is the first stage of Career Development which
is one of the apprenticeship where the young employee
enters an organization who may be technically able but
often without an understanding of the organization’s
demands and expectations.
A. Maintenance Stage
B. Advancement stage
C. Establishment Stage
D. Orientation Stage
91. This is the first stage of Career Development which
is one of the apprenticeship where the young employee
enters an organization who may be technically able but
often without an understanding of the organization’s
demands and expectations.
A. Maintenance Stage
B. Advancement stage
C. Establishment Stage
D. Orientation Stage
92. A type of plateau that occurs when a person has
learned a job too well and is bored with day to day
activities.
A. Life Plateau
B. Content Plateau
C. Structural Plateau
D. Job Plateau
92. A type of plateau that occurs when a person has
learned a job too well and is bored with day to day
activities.
A. Life Plateau
B. Content Plateau
C. Structural Plateau
D. Job Plateau
93. A type of plateau that occurs when an employee
experiences a loss of identity and self-esteem when
there is no longer success in his work area.
A. Life Plateau
B. Identity Plateau
C. Structural Plateau
D. Job Plateau
93. A type of plateau that occurs when an employee
experiences a loss of identity and self-esteem
when there is no longer success in his work area.
A. Life Plateau
B. Identity Plateau
C. Structural Plateau
D. Job Plateau
94. This plateau marks the end of promotions and the
affected employee will now have to leave the
organization to find new opportunities and challenges.
A. Life Plateau
B. Content Plateau
C. Structural Plateau
D. Job Plateau
94. This plateau marks the end of promotions and the
affected employee will now have to leave the
organization to find new opportunities and challenges.
A. Life Plateau
B. Content Plateau
C. Structural Plateau
D. Job Plateau
95. One of the personalities in handling conflicts who
gets things done easily and quickly by giving orders by
being pushy, yelling and times being too aggressive.
A. Tank
B. Sniper
C. Know it all
D. Whiner
95. One of the personalities in handling conflicts who gets
things done easily and quickly by giving orders by being
pushy, yelling and times being too aggressive.
A. Tank
B. Sniper: who controls people by using sarcasm,
embarrassment, and humiliation
C. Know it all: controls others by dominating
conversations, not listening to others’ ideas, and rejecting
arguments counter to her position.
D. Whiner: who constantly complains about the situation
but never tries to change it.
96. A principle which states an instance where the
employees reach their highest level of incompetence.
A. Premack Principle
B. Peter Principle
C. Golem effect
D. Rosenthal Effect
96. A principle which states an instance where the
employees reach their highest level of incompetence.
A. Premack Principle
B. Peter Principle
C. Golem effect
D. Rosenthal Effect
97. This postulates that leaders believe that their
employees are unmotivated and that they dislike their
work including its nature. Thus, they must be focused
with threat of punishment to fulfill organizational
goals.
A. Theory X
B. Theory Y
C. Theory of Motivation
D. Theory of Discipline
97. This postulates that leaders believe that their
employees are unmotivated and that they dislike their
work including its nature. Thus, they must be focused
with threat of punishment to fulfill organizational
goals.
A. Theory X
B. Theory Y
C. Theory of Motivation
D. Theory of Discipline
98. This type of commitment is exhibited by an
employee who has a sense of obligation towards the
organization
A. Continuance commitment
B. Normative Commitment
C. Emotional Commitment
D. Responsible Commitment
98. This type of commitment is exhibited by an
employee who has a sense of obligation towards the
organization
A. Continuance commitment
B. Normative Commitment
C. Emotional Commitment
D. Responsible Commitment
— Affective commitment is the extent to which an
employee wants to remain with the organization,
cares about the organization, and is willing to exert
effort on its behalf.
— Continuance commitment is the extent to which
an employee believes she must remain with the
organization due to the time, expense, and effort that
she has already put into it or the difficulty she would
have in finding another job.
99. Which assessment center technique is designed to
simulate the types of daily information that appear on
a desk of employees or managers?
A. Simulation
B. Work Sample
C. Demo
D. In Basket Technique
99. Which assessment center technique is designed to
simulate the types of daily information that appear on
a desk of employees or managers?
A. Simulation
B. Work Sample
C. Demo
D. In Basket Technique
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TOP THE 2018
PSYCHOMETRICIA
N BOARD EXAM