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PHILIPPINE SOCIETY OF AGRICULTURAL AND BIOSYSTEMS ENGINEERS

REGION IV
AE BOARD REVIEW CLASS 2019

PREBOARD EXAMINATION
PART 1

August 29, 2018 (Thursday) 10:00 AM - 2:00 PM

RURAL ELECTRIFICATION, ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS, HEAT TRANSFER,

REFRIGERATION AND AIRCONDITIONING, CROP PROCESSING, FARM STRUCTURES,
AGRICULTURAL WASTE MANAGEMENT

INSTRUCTIONS: Write your name, school, and codename on the answer sheet. Select the correct answer for
each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by SHADING the circle corresponding to
your answer. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only. You can write anything in the
questionnaire. You may also detach the answer sheet. PAPERS OF INDIVIDUALS NOT FOLLOWING
INSTRUCTIONS WILL NOT BE CHECKED.

1. The relative mobility of electrons within a material is known as___?

a. conductivity c. resistivity
b. current d. electric charge

2. It is the physical property of matter that causes attraction or repulsion when it is close to another electrically
charged matter.
a. magnetic c. electric current
b. electric charge d. electrons

3. It is a type of power where positive current leaves the negative terminal of positive voltage.
a. current source c. supplying
b. voltage source d. absorbing

4. Find the power in the given figure.

a. -12 VA c. 12 W
b. 12 VAR d. -12 W

5. The tungsten filament of an incandescent bulb has an equivalent resistance of 0.29 mΩ at 37oC. After being
used for several hours, the resistance is found to be 0.33 mΩ. Determine the temperature of the coils at this
time. The temperature coefficient and resistivity of tungsten at 20oC is 0.0045 oC-1 and 5.51 x 10-8 Ωm,
respectively.
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a. 64 oC c. 6 oC
b. 68 oC d. 10 oC

6. Determine the power absorbed by a DC motor if its resistance is 29 Ω and is connected to a 12 V battery.
a. 348 W c. 70.08 W
b. 2.42 W d. 4.97 W

7. Ten different resistors are connected in series to a 12 V battery. The values of the resistors are from 1-10
ohms. Determine the voltage across the 10 ohm resistor.
a. 2.81 V c. 2.18 V
b. 1.82 V d. 1.28 V

8. A car battery supplies power to some accessories. If the total current supplied by the battery is 0.4 A,
determine the amount of power taken by a 30 ohm cd player if the other loads connected to the battery are
50 ohm charging cellphone and 10 ohm fan.
a. 0.24 c. 0.09
b. 1.2 d. 2.7

9. Determine the total resistance.

a. 143 Ω c. 153 Ω
b. 163 Ω d. 173 Ω

10. The following are true about Kirchhoff’s Law EXCEPT:

a. the sum of the voltages around a closed path is zero
b. the sum of the voltage rise is equal to the sum of the voltage drop in a closed path
c. the sum of the currents around a closed path is zero
d. the sum of the currents entering a node is equal to the sum of the currents leaving that node
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11. Solve for the total voltage.

a. 49 V ⦞ -29o c. 36.8 – j20.5

b. 36.8 V ⦞-20.5o d. 49 –j29

12. It is a kind of circuit wherein the voltage across the inductor is leading the current passing through it by 90°.
(purely inductive)
a. purely inductive c. purely resistive
b. purely capacitive d. purely reactive

13. What is the power factor for a purely inductive circuit? (0)
a. 1 c. < 1
b. 0 d. > 0

14. The loads of a plant on a 440-V, 60-Hz system includes the following:
5 kW and 5 kVars capacitive load,
15-kW heating load with a unity power factor,
12-kW induction motor with 0.7 p.f., and
5-kVA lighting load with a 0.85 lagging power factor.
Determine the total true power of the system.
a. 37 kVA c. 36.25 kVA
b. 37 kW d. 36.25 Kw

15. The following measurements were recorded for an electric arc welder:
Voltmeter: 230 Vrms Ammeter: 100 A Wattmeter: 13,800 W
Determine the power factor.
a. 0.8 c. 0.6
b. 0.7 d. 0.5

16. In an electric power system, the following are parts of the transmission system EXCEPT for:
a. Voltage increasing transformer or substation
b. High voltage transmission lines
c. Voltage decreasing transformers or substations
d. Primary distribution network
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17. What is the main function of grounding?

a. neutral conductor c. hot conductor
b. safety d. protection

18. It is an overcurrent protection device wherein a portion is destroyed when interrupting the circuit.
a. isolation transformer c. circuit breaker
b. fuse d. 1:1 transformer

19. It is the maximum torque a motor can carry without an abrupt drop in speed that may make the motor
stall or be inoperative.
a. locked-rotor torque c. pull-up torque
b. full-load torque d. breakdown torque

20. It is a measure of the lumens per watt produced by a lamp.

a. efficacy c. efficiency
b. lighting effectiveness d. luminous flux

21. An inductor and a resistor are connected in series to a 220 V, 60 Hz source. The inductive reactance and
resistance were found to be both 5 ohms. The total impedance is _____. (7.7ohms)
a. 5.05 ohms c. 6.06 ohms
b. 7.07 ohms d. 8.08 ohms

22. In a three-phase Wye configuration system,

a. line current and phase current are equal
b. line voltage and phase voltage are equal
c. phase current always lags the phase voltage
d. phase voltage always lags the phase current

23. What is the effective voltage or Vrms of the figure below?

a. 155 V c. 175 V
b. 195 V d. 205 V

24. Which of the following statements is/are true?

a. The neutral conductor can be grounded at any point
b. The grounding system shall not carry currents, except during faults
c. System grounding limits the voltage between any conductor and the earth to a maximum value
for the system being used
d. All of the above
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25. Delta resistor network has Ra= 30 ohms, Rb= 10 ohms and Rc = 20 ohms. What is the equivalent wye
network?
a. 10 Ω, 5 Ω, 6.67 Ω c. 3.33 Ω, 10 Ω, 5 Ω
b. 10 Ω, 2.5 Ω, 3.33 Ω d. 10 Ω, 2.5 Ω, 6.67 Ω

26. Which of the process of food irradiation eliminates harmful bacteria by breaking down bacterial DNA?
A. Cold pasteurization
B. Gamma irradiation
C. Steam pasteurization
D. Ozonation

27. What is the temperature at which a polymer turns from a ductile material to a hard, brittle material called?
A. Critical temperature
B. Glass transition temperature
C. Melting temperature
D. Thermal phase temperature

28. According to PAES:201-2015 heated air mechanical grain specifications, the minimum allowable heating
system efficiency for an indirect-fired biomass fuel system is
A. 25 %
B. 50 %
C. 75 %
D. 90 %

29. According to PAES:224-2015 rice combine specifications, the ratio of the actual field capacity and
theoretical field capacity is called
A. combine capacity
B. efficiency ratio
C. field efficiency
D. field ratio

30. According to PAES:264-2015 rice husk fed heating system specifications, single layer heat resisting lining
of the combustion chamber and walls shall be able to withstand the minimum operating temperature of
A. 500°C
B. 800°C
C. 1000°C
D. 1400°C

31. How many kilograms of water is removed from a ton of palay after drying from 20.9% to 15.2 % w.b.?
A. 57.0 kg
B. 67.2 kg
C. 72.1 kg
D. 152.0 kg
32. What is an air chamber maintained under pressure (positive or negative) usually connected to one or more
distributing ducts in a a drying or aeration system called?
A. Bin
B. Plenum
C. Orifice
D. Tunnel
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33. What is the divisional layer between dried and undried products in the drying systems called?
A. Drying depth
B. Drying front
C. Drying stage
D. Drying zone

34. Psychrometry is the study of moist air and its properties. The process where heat transfer from the air is
attributable directly to a decrease in dry-bulb temperature and a decrease in moisture content of air is called
A. adiabatic cooling
B. dehumidification
C. humidification
D. refrigeration

35. A meter which consists of two thermometers, one thermometer’s bulb is covered by a wick that has been
thoroughly wetted with water is called
A. hygrometer
B. psychrometer
C. pyranometer
D. pyrometer

36. The radiation emitted by a real body at a temperature T and a wavelength is always less than that of the
blackbody. The ratio of the energy emitted by a real surface to that by a blackbody at the same temperature is
called
A. absorptivity
B. emissivity
C. reflectivity
D. transmissivity

37. Determine the view factor, F21, associated with an enclosure formed by two concentric spheres.
A. 1
B. r1/r2
C. 1- r1/r2
D. 1-(r1/r2)2

38. Water at a mean temperature of 150°F flows through a steel pipe having an inside diameter of 1” and an
outside diameter of 1-1/4”. The outer surface of the pipe is exposed to air at 70°F. The heat transfer coefficient
on the water and air sides are 100 Btu/hr.ft².F and 1 Btu/hr.ft².F, respectively. The k may be taken as 25
Btu/hr.ft.F. Calculate the heat transfer rate per foot of the pipe.
A. 2.2 Btu/hr.ft
B. 13.2 Btu/hr.ft
C. 19.2 Btu/hr.ft
D. 25.9 Btu/hr.ft
39. According to Wien’s displacement law, as the absolute temperature increases, the wavelength of maximum
intensity
A. can increase or decrease
B. decreases
C. increases
D. remain the same
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40. One face of a copper plate 3 cm thick is maintained at 400°C and the other face is maintained at 100°C.
How much heat is transferred through the plate? Assume thermal conductivity of copper is 370 W/m.C and
density is 8954 kg/m³.
A. 36 kW/m²
B. 370 kW/m²
C. 3.7 MW/m²
D. 33.3 MW/m²

41. The dimensionless parameter equal to the ratio of molecular diffusivity of momentum and molecular
diffusivity of heat and which best describe the relative thickness of the velocity and the thermal boundary layers
is
A. Grashof number
B. Nusselt number
C. Prandlt number
D. Reynolds number

42. The flow region adjacent to the wall in which viscous effects (and thus the velocity gradient) are significant
is called the boundary layer. The fluid property responsible for the no-slip condition and the development of the
boundary layer is
A. density
B. specific heat
C. thermal conductivity
D. viscosity

43. Although all fan-coils occasionally require defrosting if operated below the room dew-point conditions,
units located above entrances to a refrigerated space tend to draw in warm, moisture air from adjacent spaces
and therefore require more
A. air curtain
B. frequent defrosting
C. insulation
D. power of compression

44. The walls of a cold storage plant are composed of an insulating material (k = 0.2336 kJ/hr.m.C) 10.16 cm
thick held between two layers of concrete (k = 3.7382 kJ/hr.m.C) each 10.16cm thick. The convective heat
transfer coefficients are 81.76 kJ/hr.m².C on the outside and 40.88 kJ/hr.m².C on the inside. Cold storage
temperature is -6.7°C and the ambient temperature is 32.2°C. Determine the heat of transmission in kW through
an area of 55.74 m².
A. 1.14
B. 1.25
C. 1.74
D. 1.81

45. Doors should be strong yet light enough for easy opening and closing. Hardware should be of good quality,
so that it can be set to compress the gasket uniformly against the casing. All doors operating slow freezing
should be equipped with
A. drains
B. heaters
C. locks
D. seals
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46. The refrigerating capacity of a R-410a system is 22 kW. Compressor power is 7.8 hp. Determine the COP of
the refrigeration system.
A. 1.85
B. 2.22
C. 2.82
D. 3.78

47. An equipment within refrigerated facilities used to freeze products or to chill products from some higher
temperature to storage temperature is called
A. blast freezer
B. chiller
C. cooler
D. refrigerator

48. Stack pallets at a sufficient distance (460 mm) from the wall or ceiling to permit
A. air circulation
B. easy access
C. inspection
D. ventilation

49. The maximum entropy principle is best described by the

A. Conservation of energy
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

50. The Carnot cycle is the most efficient cycle that can be executed between TH and TL. The thermal
efficiency is
A. TL/TH
B. TL/(TH-TL)
C. 1 - TL/TH
D. 1 - TH/TL

51. People add to the heat load, and this load varies depending on such factors as room temperature, type of
work being done, type of clothing work, and size of the person. This type of load is classified under
A. external load
B. infiltration load
C. internal load
D. product load

52. Fresh fruits and vegetables respire and release heat during storage. This heat produced by respiration varies
with the product and its temperature. What happens to the heat of respiration as the product gets colder?
A. Can increase or decrease
B. Decreases
C. Increases
D. Remain the same
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53. What is any mechanism or device used to start, stop, adjust, protect, or monitor the operation of a moving or
functional piece of equipment called?
A. Computer
B. Controls
C. Fuse
D. Switch

54. HACCP attempts to avoid hazards rather than attempting to inspect finished products for the effects of those
hazards. The HACCP can be used at
A. all stages of food chain
B. all food preparation processes
C. food production
D. food packaging

55. What are the written procedures that an establishment develops and implements to prevent direct
contamination or adulteration of products called?
A. Environmental monitoring program
B. Good manufacturing practices
C. Hazard analysis and critical control points
D. Sanitation standards operating procedure

56. When the sand (fine aggregate) and gravel (coarse aggregate) are omitted from concrete, the mixture is
generally called:
a. Paste
b. Mortar
c. Plastic
d. Solution
e. None of the above

57. Determine the quantity of CHB needed for a 15m x 4m (ground line included) wall.
a. 500
b. 750
c. 1000
d. 1250
e. none of the above

58. A 4m long Apitong beam, 200mm x 300mm width and depth respectively, is supported on both ends by 3m
long Guijo posts (square cross section). Determine the maximum safe uniformly distributed load that can be
supported by the beam and the column structure. Allowable values for Apitong:
v = 1.10 MPa b = 16.3 MPa br = 2.59 MPa
a = L/360 E = 20 GPa
Allowable values for Guijo: E = 12.4 GPa c = 12.4 MPa
a. w= 227.355 kN/m
b. w= 51.8 kN/m
c. w= 22 kN/m
d. w= 24.45 kN/m
e. w= 30 kN/m
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59 – 60. An overhanging beam 5m in length (location of supports are both 1m offset from both ends) has a
rectangular cross section (175 mm wide by 250 mm high). It carries a uniformly distributed load of 12 kN/m over
its entire length. A 600 kN concentrated load is applied 1m from the left most part while another concentrated
load (300 kN) is applied at the rightmost portion of the beam. Determine the following:

59. The maximum bending stress developed in the beam.

a. 167.86 kPa
b. 230.40 kPa
c. 235.00 kPa
d. 329.14 kPa
e. 335.73 kPa

60. The maximum shear stress developed in the beam.

a. 10,697.14 Pa
b. 13,714.00 Pa
c. 171.15 kPa
d. 10.70 MPa
e. 10.70 Pa

61. Design an economical square wood column that will support an axial load of 350 kN. The unsupported length
is 4m and c = 5 MPa. Use E = 2 GPa.
a. 0.26m x 0.26m
b. 0.30m x 0.30m
c. 0.32m x 0.32m
d. 0.35m x 0.35m
e. 0.38m x 0.38m

62. From question #61, identify what is the type/classification of column to be used
a. Short
b. Intermediate
c. Long
d. Extra short
e. Midget

63. It is the heating of a metal body to a suitable temperature and holding it at that temperature for a suitable time
for the purpose of reducing interval residual stress.
a. Charpy Test
b. Slenderness Ratio
c. Saint-Venant’s Principle
d. Strain Hardening
e. Stress Relieving
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64. The piece of plastic is originally rectangular. Determine the

shear strain γxy at corner A if the plastic distorts as shown by the
dashed lines.
a. + 0.0050 rad
b. – 0.0066 rad
c. + 0.0116 rad
d. – 0.0116 rad
e. – 1.582 rad

65–66. The compounded A-36 steel shaft (GA-36 steel = 75 GPa) is fixed to the wall at A and is subjected to the
torques shown. If segment AEB is 2m while segment BDC is 1m; with torques D and E applied midway their
segment’s length:

65. Determine the maximum shear stress in the shaft.

a. 5.89 MPa
b. 17.68 MPa
c. 18.86 MPa
d. 47.2 MPa
e. 56.59 MPa

66. Determine the relative angle of twist from end to end.

a. 1.38 °
b. 2.16 °
c. 4.21 °
d. 6.58 °
e. 0.024 °

67 – 68. The rectangular beam with cross section shown in the figure is made of wood having an allowable
stress of tallow = 100 kPa. If it is subjected to the loading shown:

67. Determine the smallest dimension a of its bottom.

a. 247.9 mm
b. 495.7 mm
c. 743.6 mm
d. 991.5 mm
e. 1004.3 mm
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68. If dimension a is 100 mm, determine the maximum flexural stress.

a. 100.59 MPa
b. 103.63 MPa
c. 201.17 MPa
d. 207.25 MPa
e. 233.16 MPa

69. The board is subjected to a tensile force of 85 lb. Determine the average shear stress developed in the wood
fibers that are oriented along section a-a at 15° with the axis of the board.
a. 1.9 psi
b. 7.08 psi
c. 11.59 psi
d. 22 psi
e. 82.10 psi

70. It is the ratio of the increment of unit stress to increment of unit deformation; a measure of stiffness of
materials.
a. Section Modulus
b. Slenderness Ratio
c. Modulus of Rigidity
d. Modulus of Rupture
e. Modulus of Elasticity

71. Minimum space requirement (m2/animal) for 61-80 kg swine (from PAES).
a. 0.35 d. 0.70
b. 0.50 e. 0.85
c. 0.65

72. Minimum floor space requirement (m2/animal) for milking and dry cows (from PAES).
a. 3 d. 6
b. 4 e. 10
c. 5

73. For broilers, entrance doors shall be at least 900 mm by 2 m; can swing inward; with __ mm mesh wire netting
(from PAES)
a. 20 d. 35
b. 25 e. 40
c. 30

74. A wooden rectangular frame (1.5 m x 3 m) is to be fabricated using 2” x 3” coco lumber. Compute for the
total bdft required for this frame.
a. 15
b. 10
c. 8
d. 6
e. 4
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75. A wide piece of lumber from 2 to 5 inches thick

a. slab
b. plank
c. flitch
d. rough lumber
e. timber

76. Under the ‘Housing for the Dairy Cattle’, the minimum height of the top of the beam from the floor is ______?
a. 2 m d. 3.5 m
b. 2.5 m e. 4 m
c. 3m

77. Under the ‘housing for broiler production’, the range of temperature for the comfort of the chicks under the 8
– 14 day-old category is _________?
a. 23°C – 25°C d. 29°C – 32°C
b. 25°C – 27°C e. 32°C – 35°C
c. 27°C – 29°C

78. Using the figure above, the ‘structural requirement for a slaughterhouse foundation’ states that the site shall
be elevated to at least __?__mm above the adjacent ground.
a. 200 d. 500
b. 300 e. 600
c. 400

79 – 80 . From a gable type roof frame with rise = 3m and total span of 6m, determine:

79. Roof pitch expressed in metric unit.

a. 14.04°
b. 45.0°
c. 26.6°
d. 51.3°
e. 68.2°

80. Roof pitch expressed in English unit.

a. 6.0
b. 12.0
c. 12.4
d. 15.0
e. 24.0
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81– 84. If the 20-ft span beam has a square cross section having 6 inches in dimension, determine:

81. The maximum horizontal shear stress experienced by the beam.

a. 0.33 psi
b. 0.66 psi
c. 83.34 psi
d. 166.67 psi
e. 250.01 psi

82. The horizontal shear stress located at 6 ft from the left support of the beam and 2 inches from the bottom of
the square cross section.
a. 74.08 psi
b. 83.33 psi
c. 9.26 psi
d. 444.44 psi
e. 55.56 psi

83. The maximum flexural stress experienced by the beam.

a. 0.7 ksi
b. 1.3 ksi
c. 16 ksi
d. 12 ksi
e. 8 ksi

84. The flexural stress located at 6 ft from the left support of the beam and 2 inches from the bottom of the square
cross section.
a. 0.185 ksi
b. 0.370 ksi
c. 4.444 ksi
d. 2.667 ksi
e. 2.222 ksi

85. It is the property that permits permanent deformation before fracture in tension.
a. Age hardening
b. Fatigue
c. Ductility
d. Elastic limit
e. Yield point
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86. It is a part of total solids passing through the filter after filtration procedure.
a. Volatile solids c. Total Dissolved Solids
b. Total solids d. Total Suspended solids

87. Which of the following is not a storage component of an agricultural waste management system?
a. Composting c.. Dry Stack
b. Earthen Pond d. Tanks

88. It is a biological process that breaks down organic materials in the absence of oxygen into methane and
carbon dioxide.
a. Respiration c. Anaerobic Digestion
b. Composting d. Pyrolysis

89. An act providing for a comprehensive water quality management and for other purposes.
a. RA 9275 c. RA 10068
b. RA 8749 d. RA 9729

90. This pertains to any function designed to reduce the pollution potential of waste.
a. Storage c. Transfer
b. Treatment d. Production

91. A wastewater contains 25 mg/L of NH3. What is the equivalent concentration of nitrogen?
a. 26 mg/L c. 19 mg/L
b. 30 mg/L d. 21 mg/L

92. A sample of swine wastewater has dissolved and suspended solid concentrations of 50 and 175 mg/L,
respectively. What is the total volatile solids concentration of the sample if fixed soilds is 25 mg/L?
a. 225 mg/L c. 250 mg/L
b. 200 mg/L d. 150 mg/L

93. A part of the sedimentation basin wherein uniform concentration of particles settles at terminal velocity to
the sludge zone at the bottom of the basin.
a. Inlet zone c. Sludge zone
b. Outlet zone d. Settling zone

94. The quantity of oxygen used in the biochemical oxidation of organic matter in a specified temperature and
under sprecified conditions.
a. Biochemical oxygen demand c. Dissolved oxygen
b. Oxygen uptake rate d. Chemical oxygen demand

95. A process of aerobic biological decomposition of organic material characterized by elevated temperatures
that, when complete, results in a relatively stable product suitable for a variety of agricultural and horticultural
uses.
a. Sedimentation c. Anaerobic Digestion
b. Composting d. Filtration

96. What is the reaction rate coefficient if the wastewater sample has BOD of 280 mg/L after incubation at 20°C
for 5 days? The ultimate BOD is 350 mg/L.
a. 0.32 day -1 c. 0.8 day -1
b. 0.23 day -1 d. 0.53 day -1
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97. What is the settling velocity of particles in a settling basin with an effective volume of 15 m long, 5 m wide ,
and 3 m tall? The flow rate of wastewater in the settling basin is 0.5 m 3/s and the removal percentage of the
particles is 65 %.
a. 0.007 m/s c. 0.004 m/s
b. 0.04 m/s d. 0.07 m/s

98. The volume of air needed to supply 7 moles of O2 during composting of poultry manure. The initial compost
substrate has a total molecular weight of 120 g. The density of air is 1.12 kg/m3.
a. 5.50 m3/kg c. 4.50 m3/kg
3
b. 7.20 m /kg d. 3.40 m3/kg

99. This type of anaerobic digester has gas holder tank that moves up or down depending on the amount of gas
that accumulated inside the digester.
a. Floating dome c. Fixed dome
b. Covered lagoon d. Plug-flow

100. The retention time of manure in a 5000-L anaerobic digester if the daily manure inflow in the digester is
0.25 m3/day.
a. 50 days c. 25 days
b. 5 days d. 20 days