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Free solved Political Science objective questions

Political Science PGT Free Download

Free questions in PDF Format

Test Set 1

Q. 1. The Marxist principle accepted by the Fabian Socialists is:

(a) The dictatorship of the proletariat

(b) The principle of class struggle

(c) The establishment of classless society

(d) The establishment of state ownership of the means of production and distribution

Ans. (d)

Q. 2. “An uncriticised individualism is always in danger of transformation into an


uncritical collectivism.” Who among the following thinkers held this view?

(a) Herbert Spencer

(b) J.S. Mill

(c) Bernard Bosanquet

(d) F.H. Bradley

Ans. (b)

Q. 3. Which one of the following has been described as the intellectual child of English
Fabianism and French Syndicalism?

(a) Collectivism

(b) Liberalism
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(c) Guild Socialism

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

Q. 4. Which one of the following types of representations is accepted by Guild Socialism


as necessary?

(a) Territorial representation

(b) Functional representation

(c) Proportional representation

(d) Communal representation

Ans. (b)

Q. 5. Fascism is opposed to all of the following except:

(a) Democracy

(b) Pacifism

(c) Individual liberty

(d) Nationalism

Ans. (d)

Q. 6. Totalitarian state is the one which:

(a) Commands unquestioning obedience to the authority of the ruler

(b) Guarantees conditions in which the individual can realize his true self

(c) Claims to regulate every sphere of individual’s life and activities

(d) Possesses a will of its own to promote a good life

Ans: (c)

Q. 7. Mussolini’s concept of ‘Corporate State’ was designed to eliminate all conflicts


between:
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(a) Capital and Labour

(b) Capital and Government

(c) Labour Government

(d) People and Government

Ans. (a)

Q. 8. The distinguishing mark of totalitarianism is:

(a) Absolute power of the state

(b) Absence of representative institutions

(c) Lack of institutional checks and balances

(d) Autonomous power of state

Ans. (a)

Q. 9. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Racism : Fascism

2. Communes : Utopian Socialism

3. Economic Parliament : Fabianism

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3

Ans. (a)

Q. 10. “The highest purpose of the Folkish state is the case for the preservation of those
social primal elements which, supplying culture, create the beauty and dignity of a higher
humanity.” To which one of the following theories does this statement pertain?

(a) Fascism
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(b) National Socialism

(c) Fundamentalism

(d) Apartheid

Ans. (a)

Q. 11. According to Marxian Socialism, in the socialism stage, the state:

(a) is totally superfluous

(b) is necessary

(c) does not represent the ideology of any class

(d) is abolished

Ans. (b)

Q. 12. Who among the following propounded the doctrine of ‘socialism in one country’?

(a) Lenin

(b) Trotsky

(c) Kautsky

(d) Stalin

Ans. (d)

Q. 13. Who among the following attacked majoritarianism of the utilitarian?

(a) T.H. Green

(b) Bernard Bosanquet

(c) J.S. Mill

(d) John Rawls

Ans. (c)

Q. 14. Which one of the following ideologies regards general strike as a myth?
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(a) Socialism

(b) Syndicalism

(c) Fabianism

(d) Guild Socialism

Ans. (b)

Q. 15. Which one of the following statements is attributed to ‘Utopian Socialism”?

(a) Class struggle is inevitable

(b) The “Laissez-faire” is the best economic policy

(c) Capitalist system needs to be overthrown by revolution

(d) Society needs to be organized in the interest of all

Ans. (d)

Q. 16. “A planned social order is necessarily, inimical to individual freedom.” This view
is held by:

(a) Harold Laski

(b) Fredric Hyek

(c) Lord Keynes

(d) Sidney. Webb

Ans. (a)

Q. 17. Who among the following based this liberalism on the primacy of rights?

(a) J.S. Mill

(b) Jeremy Bentham

(c) T.H. Green

(d) Ronald Dworkin


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Ans. (c)

Q. 18. What distinguishes modern liberalism from the classical one is:

(a) the co1cept of socialist planning

(b) egalitarianism

(c) libertarianism

(d) corporatism

Ans. (b)

Q. 19. The Utilitarian foundation of liberalism has been criticized from the view point of
Kantian ethics by:

(a) John Rawls

(b) Harold Laski

(c) Isaiah Berlin

(d) H.L.A. Hart

Ans. (a)

Q. 20. “Property appropriated by the revolution should be immediately distributed among


the workers’ groups and every precaution should be taken to prevent the formation of
anything resembling a government.”

Which one of the following theory upholds this view?

(a) Anarchism

(b) Marxism

(c) Socialism

(d) Fabianism

Ans. (b)
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Q. 21. Match List -I (Functions of the State) with List -II (The school of thought which
believes in such functions of the State) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below:

List-I List-II

A. Regulation and co-ordination of the activities 1. Idealism

of associations of society

B. To maintain order and to enforce contracts 2.Utiiitarianism

C. To remove obstacles that comes in the way of 3. Pluralism

moral life of the individual

D. To promote greatest good of the greatest 4. Individualism

numbers.

Codes:

ABCD

(a) 4 3 1 2

(b) 3 4 2 1

(c) 3 4 1 2

(d) 4 3 2 1

Ans. (c)

Q. 22. “A division is made between the economic order and the political; the political is
relegated to a lower place, in which it is a reflection of and a derivation from the
economic, and within both orders a plural system of federalism is enthroned.”

This view refers to:

(a) Democratic socialism

(b) Guild socialism

(c) Syndicalism
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(d) Marxism

Ans. (b)

Q. 23. Match List- I with List -II and select the correct answer:

List- I List -II

(Theory of function of state) (Thinkers)

A. Marxian View 1. Herbert Spencer

B. Liberal View 2. Rosa Luxemberg

C. Fascist View 3. G. B. Shaw

D. Fabian View 4. Giovanni Gentile

Codes:

ABCD

(a) 1 2 4 3

(b) 2 1 3 4

(c) 1 2 3 4

(d) 2 1 4 3

Ans. (d)

Q. 24. In the Marxian Political discourse, ideology signifies:

(a) the universal principles of justice

(b) any system of ideas, beliefs, values and aspirations that inform a social system

(c) political ideals of the proletariat

(d) false consciousness

Ans. (d)

Q. 25. Which one of the following statements about present day liberalism is not correct?
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(a) It is based on the principle of ‘possessive individualism’

(b) It accepts the idea of positive liberty

(c) It believes in the principles of welfare state

(d) It advocates the idea of distributive justice

Ans. (a)

Q. 26. Which one of the following statements is correct? Welfare state envisages

(a) a filly egalitarian society

(b) state ownership of the means of production

(c) abolition of private property

(d) a system which combines right to personal property with state intervention for social
security and providing help to the needy and indigent

Ans. (d)

Q. 27. There are now four doctrines of liberalism.

The correct order in which they appeared is:

(a) Mercantilism, Free Trade, Social Darwinism, Interventionism

(b) Mercantilism, Free Trade, Social Darwinism, Interventionism

(c) Free Trade, Mercantilism, Interventionism, Social Darwinism

(d) Free Trade, Mercantilism, Social Darwinism Interventionism

Ans. (a)

Q. 28. Which one of the following statements provides the best representation of Hayek’s
opposition to planning?

(a) A market gives just deserts and hence, is morally more acceptable than planning

(b) A market does not distribute according to any moral criterion and hence maintains a
free society
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(c) Planning is liable to be faulty

(d) Distribution through market is more efficient than distribution through planning

Ans. (d)

Q. 29. Early socialists who confused capitalism with industrialism and wanted to retain
only agricultural labour included:

(a) Fourier and Cabet

(b) Fourier and Proudhon

(c) Proudhon, Fourier and Cabet

(d) Jefferson, Proudhon and Cabet

Ans. (d)

Q. 30. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Nazism Italy

(b) Guild : France Socialism

(c) Fascism : Germany

(d) Fabianism: Britain

Ans. (d)

Q. 31. In the process of modifications of Marxism’ after Marx, ‘Socialism in one


country’ Vs. “Permanent Revolution” was the crux of the controversy between:

(a) Bakunin and Engels

(b) Engels and Lenin

(c) Lenin and Stalin

(d) Stalin and Trotsky

Ans. (d)
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Q. 32. Who among the following pairs of thinkers are regarded as the founders of
Scientific Socialism?

(a) Charles Fourier and Saint

(b) Sidney Webb and Beatrice Webb

(c) Marx and Engles

(d) R. H. Tawney and William Ebenstein

Ans. (c)

Q. 33. Consider the following political theorists:

1. Bernstein

2. Tawney

3. Starchey

4. Crossland

Amount them, those who defended democratic socialism as their ideology and saw
themselves as revising Marxism included:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 2 and 3

Ans. (a)

Q. 34. Fascism views the states as

(a) a necessary evil

(b) a product and manifestation of the irreconcilability of classes antagonism

(c) an absolute power over the individuals

(d) a union of families and villages, having for its end, perfect and self sufficing life
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Ans. (a)

Q. 35. “War is to man what maternity is to women”, according to:

(a) Mussolini

(b) Napoleon

(c) Matternick

(d) Bismarck

Ans. (a)

Q. 36. The myth of racial superiority is an outstanding feature of:

(a) Dictatorship

(b) Fascism

(c) Nazism

(d) Totalitarianism

Ans. (c)

Q. 37. Everything within the state, nothing outside the state, nothing above The state.
This tenet has been propounded by:

(a) socialism

(b) communism

(c) liberalism

(d) totalitarianism

Ans. (d)

Q. 38. In the statements, “In its attitude towards the State ‘X’ is a halfway house between
Syndicalism and Collectivism, ‘X’ stands for:

(a) democratic socialism

(b) fabian socialism


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(c) guild socialism

(d) liberalism

Ans. (c)

Q. 39. Match list -I (Name) with List- II (Political Philosophy) and select the correct
answer:

List I List-II

A. Herbert Spencer 1. Guild Socialism

B. H. J. Laski 2. Individualism

C. G. D. H. Cole 3. Anarchism

D. T. H. Green 4. Pluralism

5. Idealism

Codes:

ABCD

(a) 2 1 5 4

(b) 2 4 1 5

(c) 3 2 4 1

(d) 1 2 3 5

Ans. (b)

Q. 40. Which one of the following does not pertain to Marxism?

(a) Surplus Value

(b) Materialist Interpretation of History

(c) Laissez faire

(d) Class struggle


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Ans. (c)

Q. 41. Consider the following pairs:

1. Louis Althusser : For Marx

2. J.V. Stalin : Foundation of Leninism

3. Mao Zedon : People’s Democratic Dictatorship

Which of these pairs are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3

Ans. (b)

Q. 42. The Marxist theory maintains that in the highest phase of development, the society
will adopt the principle of:

(a) from each according to his ability, to each according to his need

(b) form each according to his ability, to each according to his work.

(c) he who does not work, neither shall be eat

(d) that government is the best, which governs the least

Ans. (a)

Q. 43. According to the Marxian theory of the Materialist Interpretation of History the
most fundamental factor in the evolution of the state and society is:

(a) force of production

(b) relations of product ion

(c) science and technology

(d) class antagonism


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Ans. (b)

Q. 44. Rawlsian liberalism is based on:

(a) the utilitarian theory of good

(b) kantian constructivism in moral theory

(c) a comprehensive moral theory

(d) a substantive metaphysical theory

Ans. (b)

Q. 45. According to the classical liberals:

(a) democracy and. liberty are complementary to each other

(b) democracy is a threat to liberty

(c) liberty is the end of democracy

(d) liberty is the right of self-realization

Ans. (d)

Q. 46. Terms such “as ‘Purna Swaraj’, ‘Ramarajya’ Sarvodaya and ‘Panchayati Raj’

Were used by M.K. Gandhi to indicate:

(a) citizenship

(b) a blissful state in the past

(c) political obligation

(d) an ideal political order

Ans. (d)

Q. 47. The nature of the French revolution was:

(a) bourgeoisie

(b) proletarian
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(c) socialist

(d) new democratic

Ans. (a)

Q. 48. “The personal is political”, is a central slogan of the

(a) neoliberals

(b) fascists

(c) socialists

(d) feminists

Ans. (d)

Q. 49. Which one of the following is not a tenet of Liberalism?

(a) Limited Government

(b) Social classes as basic social units

(c) Upholding rights

(d) Separation of powers

Ans. (b)

Q. 50. The belief that unregulated marked capitalism will result in efficiency, growth and
widespread prosperity is associated with:

(a) neoliberalism

(b) neo-conservatism

(c) neomarxism

(d) market socialism

Ans. (a)
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Test Set 2
Q. 1. Consider the following statements regarding the composition of the Constituent
Assembly:

1. The representatives were to be elected from the four constituents: Hindus, Muslims,
Sikhs and Christians

2. The chairman of the Union Constituent Committee was Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

3. The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was 389

4. The Drafting Committee under the chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar consisted of
eight members

Which of these is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 only

Ans. (c)

Q. 2. Why among the following championed the cause of socialist ideas in the Indian
Nation1—Congress before independence?

(a) Dr. Pattabhi Sitaramayya

(b) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

(c) Sardar Vallabhai Patel

(d) Jamnalal Bajaj

Ans. (b)

Q. 3. Match List- I with List -II and select the correct answer:

List- (Acts) List II (Provisions)


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A. The Government of India Act, 1935 1. Transfer of power from the East India

Company to the British crown

B. The Government of India Act, 1909 2. Envisaged Dominion status to India

C. The Government of India Act, 1919 3. Introduction of provincial autonomy

D. The Government of India Act, 1858 4. Introduction of Dyarchy in provinces

5. Introduction of separate electorate for

Muslims and others

Codes:

ABCD

(a) 1 4 2 3

(b) 3 5 4 1

(c) 1 5 4 3

(d) 3 4 2 1

Ans. (b)

Q. 4. Revolutionary extremists in India of the post 1920 phase could be distinguished


from those of the earlier phase due to:

(a) Goal of complete independence

(b) Operation through secret societies

(c) Extent of use of violence

(d) Acquisition of a revolutionary socialist ideology

Ans. (d)

Q. 5. Match List- I (Constitutional Development in India During the British Raj) with
List -II (Act/Reform) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
Lists:
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List –I List- II

A. Dyarchy 1. The Regulating Act, 1773

B. Federalism 2. Government of India Act, 1919

C. Introduction of communal electorates 3. Indian Councils Act, 1892

D. Creation of the office of Governor General 4. Government of India Act, 1935

5. Minto – Morley Reforms, 1909

Codes:

ABCD

(a) 2 4 5 1

(b) 1 5 3 2

(c) 2 5 3 1

(d) 1 4 5 2

Q. 6. Select the correct chronological sequence of the movements given below:

(a) Non-cooperative movement – Civil Disobedience movement – Quit India movement

(b) Civil Disobedience movement – Quit India Movement

(c) Non-cooperation movement – Quit India Movement Civil Disobedience Movement

(d) Quit India Movement – Non-cooperation Movement – Civil Disobedience Movement

Ans. (a)

Q. 7. Match List -I (theorists) with List- II (Ideas) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below th lists:

List- I List -II

A. Dadabhai Naoroji 1. Trusteeship

B. Mahatma Gandhi 2. Total revolution


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C. Rabindranath Tagore 3. Drain theory

D. Jai Prakash Narayan 4. Internationalism

Codes:

ABCD

(a) 3 4 1 2

(b) 2 1 4 3

(c) 3 1 4 2

(d) 2 4 1 3

Ans. (c)

Q. 8. Match List –I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
the lists:

List-I List-II

(Feature) (Act)

A. Federal Scheme of Government 1. Minto-Morley Reforms, 1909

B. Dyarchy in Provincial Government 2. Indian Councils Act, 1861

C. Communal representation 3. Government of India Acts. 1935

D. Rigid centralization 4. Montague – Chelmsford Reforms, 1919

Codes:

ABCD

(a) 2 1 4 3

(b) 3 4 1 2

(c) 2 4 1 3

(d) 3 1 4 2
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Ans. (b)

Q. 9. Who among the following was the Chairman of the States Committee of the
Constituent Assembly?

(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru

(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(d) Sardar Patel

Ans. (b)

Q. 10. What was the reason for rejection of the Cripps Plan by the Indian National
Congress?

(a) It granted dominion status to the Indian Union.

(b) It granted dominion status to the Provinces.

(c) It indirectly conceded the demand for partition.

(d) It was aimed at continuing British rule even after the war.

Ans. (c)

Q. 11. Why did the Muslim League observe Direct Action Day on 16 August 1945?

(a) To bring about unity among the various sections of the Muslims

(b) To protest against the inadequate representation to the Muslims in the interim
government.

(c) To highlight the demand for creation of Pakistan.

(d) To express solidarity with the congress in its struggle against the British.

Ans. (c)

Q. 12. During whose viceroyalty was the ‘Repressive Act’ also known as the “Gagging
Act’ enacted?

(a) Lord Curzon


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(b) Lord Lytton

(c) Lord Ripon

(d) Lord Morley

Ans. (b)

Q. 13. Which was one of the following statements of Political Development?

(a) As alternatives are tentative, ideological specificity becomes imperative

(b) Strategies of incremental acquisitions should be based on pragmatism

(c) Alternative models of change ensure systemic sustenance and economic growth

(d) Mass mobilization strengthens differentiation and institutionalization

Ans. (c)

Q. 14. Match List -I with List -II and select the correct answer:

List -I List – II

(Writers) (Concepts)

A. Lucian Pye 1. Political decay

B. F.W. Riggs 2. Political breakdown

C. Samuel Huntington 3. Development trap

D. P. S.F. Eisenstadt 4. Development syndrome

Codes

A B CD

(a) 2 3 4 2

(b) 4 3 1 2

(c) 4 2 1 3

(d) 2 1 3 4
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Ans. (b)

Q. 15. Radical comparitivists who propounded th theory of under development favoured:

(a) alienation and modernization

(b) alienation and dependency

(c) dependency and modernization

(d) imperialism and dependency

Ans. (d)

Q. 16. Political socialization is the most promising approach to understand political


development because:

(a) the process of political socializations continuous one

(b) attitudes are established during infancy and untouched after the age of ten

(c) socialization inducts individuals into culture and development process

(d) socialization takes the form either manifest or latent transmission

Ans. (c)

Q. 17. Political development is not determinous with economic development because:

(a) economic development takes place only when old social economic and psychological
commitments are eroded

(b) economic development is a consequence of socio economic mobilization

(c) people must be ‘available’ for new patterns of socialization and behaviour

(d) unless ‘capabilities’ of people improve political development cannot be thought of

Ans. (d)

Q. 18. Which one of the following is an essential pre-requisite for constitutionalism?

(a) Limited government

(b) A written constitution


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(c) Guarantee of Fundamental Rights

(d) Division of powers

Ans. (a)

Q. 19. Which of the following indicators were emphasized on a development approach by


the World Bank report in 1990?

1. Subsidies

2. Structural change inbuilt with competition

3. Good governance

4. An open system

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (c)

Q. 20. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A): An objective theory of development is an impossibility.

Reason (R): A value free theory of development is a deceitful function

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct’?

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false


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(d) A is false but R is true

Ans. (a)

Q. 21. Which of the following are the hurdles that Marxists see for development?

1. Repatriation of profits

2. Debt trap

3. Concentration of land and capital in a few hands

4. Lack of technology

Choose the correct answer from the codes given. below:

Codes:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (b)

Q. 22. The concept of centre-periphery is propounded by:

(a) Robert Nozick

(b) Mao-Tse-Tung

(c) Andre Gunder Frank

(d) Samuel Huntington

Ans. (c)

Q. 23 Who is not a proponent of liberal theory of development. Smith, Moore and


Billwarrm are liberal theorists.

(a) Inkles
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(b) Smith

(c) Wilbert E. Moore

(d) Billwarrm

Ans. (a)

Q. 24 A society is caught in a ‘development trap’ when it fails to:

(a) distinguish between technological change and culture change

(b) distinguish between structural and functional qualities of a developing polity

(c) develop role-differentiation equal to the level of growth in capacity and equality

(d) to keep peace with demands of the ‘development syndrome’

Ans. (b)

Q. 25. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Dependency theory — Samir Amin

2. Liberal theory of development — Lucian Pye

3. Theory of Alienation — Early Marx

4. Theory of Negative Liberty — John Rawls

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (a)
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Q. 26. What is the correct sequence of the following characteristics of political


development?

1. Capacity

2. Equality

3. Differentiation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) 1, 2, 3

(b) 2, 1, 3

(c) 3, 1, 2

(d) 3, 2, 1

Ans. (b)

Q. 27. Political development syndrome, in view of behavioral theorists, does not include:

(a) equality involving popular rule

(b) capacity involving popular rule

(c) differentiation involving specialization

(d) homogeneity involving unity

Ans. (d)

Q. 28.Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Over-developed state : Gunnar Myrdal

2. Grundrisse : Karl Marx

3. Accumulation of Capital : Rosa Luxemburg

4. Stages of Growth : W.W. Rostow


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(a) 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 1,2and3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)

Q. 29. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Immanuel Wallerstein : World Systems Analysis

2. Andre Gunder Frank : Development of Under development

3. V.I. Lenin : A critique of political economy

4 T.G. R. Bower : Human Development

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Ans. (c)

Q. 30. Lucian Pye has described the characteristics of political development as:

(a) administrative, economic and social

(b) modern, participative and nationalistic

(c) equality, capacity and differentiation

(d) political unification, economic development, and national welfare

Ans. (c)

Q. 31. Who among the following had argued that modern communications have the effect
of condensing all information into brief slogans?
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(a) Lawrence Lowell

(b) Walter Lippmann

(c) J.S. Mill

(d) Daniel Bell

Ans. (b)

Q. 32. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Samuel Huntington : Political Decay

2. Fred Riggs : Prismatic Society

3. David Easton : Civic Culture

4. David Apter : Political Modernization

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (c)

Q. 33. The Third World countries are seen as peripheral countries whose resources are
being continuously transferred to the capitalism metropolis/centers, according to the:

(a) Marxists

(b) Behaviouralists

(c) Dependency theories

(d) Narodnics

Ans. (c)

Q. 34. For explaining which one of the following phenomena, does one normally use
‘Centre-Periphery’, framework of reference?
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(a) Under-representation

(b) Loose-federation

(c) Delegation of authority

(d) Underdevelopment

Ans. (d)

Q. 35. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A): Lucian Pye identified three key ingredients development as equality
capacity and differentiation.

Reason (R): High level of differentiation makes a society development.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Ans. (a)

Q. 36. Assertion (A) : According to Lucian W. Pye, political development is


characterized by equality, capacity and differentiation.

Reason (R) : A State should attempt to strengthen these aspects of development.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is .the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
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(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Ans. (b)

Q. 37. The statements:

“Third world countries must struggle to solve economic, social political and cultural
problems all at the same time to attain a level of development”, was made by:

(a) M.K. Gandhi

(b) Jayprakash Narayan

(c) Gunnar Myrdal

(d) Andre Gunder Frank

Ans.. (b)

Q. 38. Who among the following is credited with formulating welfare economics and the
social choice theory?

(a) Amartya Sen

(b) Bimal Jalan

(c) K. N. Raj

(d) Man Mohan Singh

Ans. (a)

Q. 39. Most of the Third World states are:

(a) ethnically and culturally divided

(b) linguistically homogeneous

(c) rich in natural resources

(d) economically self-reliant

Ans. (a)
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Q. 40. Who among the following is associated with the thesis of development of
underdevelopment?

(a) Rosa Luxemburg

(b) Paul Baran

(c) Che Guevara

(d) Andre Gunder Frank

Ans. (d)

Q. 41. Who among the following made the statements “State in the third-world societies
is not an instrument of a single class:

Instead, the state is relatively autonomous and it mediates the interests of competing
classes, while at the same time acting on behalf of all of them in order to preserve the
social order”?

(a) M. N. Roy

(b) Mahabub-Ul-Haq

(c) Hamja Alavi

(d) Ram Manohar Lohia

Ans. (c)

Q. 42.. The concept of social capital has been put forward by:

(a) V.S. Naipaul

(b) Robert Putnam

(c) Samuel Huntington

(d) Edward Said

Ans. (b)

Q. 43. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
labelled as Reason (R):
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Assertion (A) : Development administration signifies action-oriented and target-oriented


programme suitable for developing countries.

Reason (R) : The success of rural development plans acts as a strong impetus for
initiating other developmental plans.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Ans. (b)

Q. 44. The idea of ‘World Systems Theory’ signifying the arrival of international
capitalist order was predicted in the 1970s. Identify the scholar who advanced this idea:

(a) Samuel P. Huntington

(b) Andre Gunder Frank

(c) George Wallerstein

(d) Cardoso

Ans (a)

Q. 45. Which aspect of imperialism does the dependency theory emphasize?

(a) Economic

(b) Political

(c) Cultural

(d) Strategic

Ans. (a)
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Q. 46. Identify the two among these who sought to define underdevelopment in terms of
neocolonial dependency mode:

1. A. G. Frank

2. Celso Furtado

3. E.W. Weidner

4. Gunnar Myrdal

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) l and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) l and 4

Ans. (a)

Q. 47. Match List -I with List- II and select the correct answer:

List –I List- II

(Development Approach) (Features)

A. Blue print approach 1. Utilization of capital resources over human resources

B. Learning process approach 2. Cybernetic process with latitude for change

according to needs

C. Production centered approach 3. Planning in advance for development

D. People centered approach 4. Individual as an actor who defines the goal

Codes:

ABCD
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(a) 3 4 1 2

(b) 1 2 3 4

(c) 3 2 1 4

(d) 1 4 3 2

Ans. (c)

Q. 48. Crisis of distribution referred to in the context of poverty alleviation indicates:

(a) problem of distribution of fruits of development

(b) improper distribution of spoils of power

(c) inadequate resources to meet the needs of the country

(d) injudicious distribution of financial aid to the poor

Ans. (a)

Q. 49. According to Huntington, which of the following countries/regions can be


considered as coming under the third wave of democratization?

(a) Japan and Germany

(b) India and Israel

(c) Britain, France and USA

(d) Southern and Eastern Europe

Ans (b)

Q. 50. Which one of the following countries pursues an institutionalized policy of


preferential treatment towards its ethnic majority?

(a) Bangladesh

(b) Malaysia

(c) Egypt

(d) Philippines
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Ans (b)

Test Set 3
1. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Leo Strauss : Political philosopher
2. Albert Venn Dicey : Constitutional theorist
3. Harold Lasswell : Communication theorist
4. Samuel Finer : Historian of Government
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a) l and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)

2. Modernization theorists associate which of the following with political modernization?


1. Equal opportunity to participate in politics and compete for government office.
2. Differentiation and specialization of political functions.
3. Secularization of the political sphere.
4. Formation of a federal system of government.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a) 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below
the lists:
List-I List-II
(Concept/Theory) (Scholar)
A. Proletarian internationalism 1. Charles Kindleberger
B. Political realism 2. Hans Morgenthau
C. Complex interdependence 3.V. I. Lenin
D. Hegemonic stability theory 4. Keohane and Nye
Codes:
ABCD
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans. (d)
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4. ‘Sovereignty is the supreme power over citizens and subjects unrestrained by law.’
This understanding of sovereignty today is restricted in practice by which of the
following?
(a) Globalization
(b) Acceptance of the declaration of universal human rights by a majority of the states
(c) Rise of global concerns such as ecology and terrorism
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below
the lists:
List-I List-II
(Theme) (Author)
A. State as a class 1. J. Rousseau, G. Hegel and T. H. Green
B. State as ethical life 2. Machiavelli and T. Hobbes
C. State as power 3. Karl Marx and Lenin
D. Minimal state 4. F. Hayek and R. Nozick
Codes:
ABCD
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (b)

6. Consider the following statements:


According to the Liberals, rights
1. curtail the power of the state.
2. enable individuals to attain their best selves.
3. empower individuals against the collective.
4. form the basis of a vibrant civil society
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b)
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)

7.In accordance to a growing consensus today, which of the


following freedom should be inclusive of?
1. Absence of certain physical and legal impediments.
2. Presence of certain civil and political liberties.
3. Social provisions of income, education and health.
4. Protection of cultural identity
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
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(a)1, 2, 3 and 4
(b)1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) only l
Ans. (a)

8. Consider the following statements:


1. Liberal democratic tradition views equality primarily as “equality of opportunity” and
“equality of conditions”.
2. ‘Equality of conditions” seeks to ensure that equality of results are achieved regardless
of natural ability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)

9. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?


(Concept) (Thinker)
(a) Public sphere : Thomas Hobbes
(b) Civil associations : A. de Tocqueville
(c) Social capital : Robert Putnam
(d) Non-government, non-party organizations : Rajni Kothari
Ans. (a)

10.. Which one of the following thinkers defended representative democracy against
direct democracy?
(a) J. J. Rousseau
(b) Karl Marx
(c) M. A. Bakunin
(d) J. Madison
Ans. (a)

11. Consider the following statements about conservatism:


1. Conservatism is opposed to revolutionary change.
2. For conservatives, traditions, customs and usages are sources of rights.
3. Conservatives are invariably committed to religious practices.
4. Conservatives are opposed to universal adult franchise.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans.(d)
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12. Which one of the following statements is not correct.?


(a) The effects of globalization on the lives of women have. been multiple, contradictory,
inclusionary and exclusionary.
(b) The gender question can be meaningfully addressed only by ensuring equality, in the
private realm.
(c) A democratic solution to gender question lies with more democracy in social,
economic and political fields with a commitment to equality.
(d) Feminist political theory from its inception has demanded special and different
treatment for women.
Ans. (d)

13. Consider the following statements with respect to deepening of democracy:


1. A system of representation, with well functioning political parties and interest
associations.
2. An electoral system that guarantees free and fair elections as well as universal suffrage.
3. A system of checks and balances based on the separation of powers with independent,
judicial and legislative branches.
4. A vibrant civil society as well as a free and independent media.
Which of the above statements are required to deepen the democracy?
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
Ans. (d)

14. Which one of the following statements is correct?


A ‘night watchman/minimal state’ is one which
(a) ensures law and order
(b) cares for its citizens
(c) protects minimum wages for the workers
(d) safeguards the social and economic rights of citizens
Ans. (a)

15. In which of their works did Karl Marx and F. Engels first expound the principles of
materialistic dialectics?
(a) Economic and Philosophical Manuscripts
(b) Communist Manifesto’
(c) On the Jewish Question
(d) German Ideology
Ans. (b)

16. In the critique of the Gotha Programme, what is the reason on which Karl Marx.
argues that equal wages cannot be paid to the workers in the immediate aftermath of the
working class revolution?
(a) The needs and requirements of workers differ.
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(b) The productivity of labour varies and it is unfair to pay the same wages to skilled and
unskilled labour.
(c) The demands of primitive capital accumulation does not afford e wages to workers.
(d) Militant sections of the working class who have made enormous sacrifices in making
the revolution need to be compensated.
Ans.(a)

17. Which one of the following is not correct?


(a) For N. Machiavelli and I. Hegel, State was based on force
(b) For J. S. Mill and T. H. Green, consent was the basis of the state
(c) In Marx’s view, the state was an instrument of class exploitation
(d) In Gandhian philosophy, the propertied classes should be persuaded to employ their
resources and to sub serve common good
Ans.(b)

18. Who, among the following, was an author of one of the major books in the area of
Games Theory : The Theory of Games and Economic Behaviour?.
(a) John Nash
(b) Von Neumann and Oskar Morgenstern
(c) Anthony Downs
(d) Jeffrey S. Banks
Ans. (b)

19. Consider the following statements:


1. Dependency theory argues that poverty in the Third World (countries, in the periphery)
is on account of their not being integrated into the world system.
2. Idealist theory in International Relations maintains that self-interest cannot be muted in
order to build national and international norms of, behaviour that foment peace.
3. Realist theory in International Relations is criticized for under-emphasizing the role of
international organizations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) l and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 2
(d) 3only
Ans. (b)

21. Which one of the following is not associated with game theory in International
Relations?
(a) Rationality of actors
(b) Attempt to maximize gains and minimize losses
(c) Inclination of a state to act on the grounds of morality
(d) Awareness about the. possibility of a ‘free rider’
Ans. (d)
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22. To who can the idea of ‘Development as Freedom’ be credited?


(a) J. M. Keynes
(b) M. Gorbachev
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Amartya Sen
Ans. (d)

23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below
the lists:
List-I List-II
(Theme) (Scholar)
A. Principal advocate of utilitarian liberalism 1. Robert Dahl
B. The central figure in the American pluralist theory 2. Jeremy Bentham
C. The major contributor to re-thinking citizenship 3. J. Habermas
D. Undertook a major study on the structural 4. T. H. Marshall
transformation of the public sphere
Codes:
ABCD
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (a)

24. Which two political thinkers represent the Institutional Approach to Comparative
Politics?
(a) Almond and Coleman
(b) Easton and Dahl
(c) Duvergel and Sartori
(d) Leo Strauss and Dicey
Ans. (c)

25. Consider the following statements:


1. Neo-Liberals argue that an unregulated market is the best way to increase economic
growth, which will ultimately benefit everyone.
2. Neo-Liberals suggest that free trade should benefit those with better abilities and merit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

26. Which one of the following political theorists first made the conceptual distinction
between negative and positive liberty in criticism of positive liberty?
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(a) C. B. McPherson
(b) Isaiah Berlin
(c) Robert Dahl
(d) Sydney Webb
Ans. (b)

27. Who, among the following theorists, is associated with neo-realism in international
relations?
(a) Kenneth Waltz
(b) Hans Morgenthau
(c) Reinhold Niebuhr
(d) John Ruggie
Ans. (a)

28. Assertion (A): In his colonial thesis, Lenin argued that there is a close bond between
national liberation movements and working class movement world wide.
Reason (R) : Both the working class movement and national movements in the colonies
are directed against a common enemy i. e. imperia1ism.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false (d)A is false but R is true
Ans. (a)

29. Assertion (A) : Rule of law is a pre-condition for a free society.


Reason (R) : When those with wielding power can use force in any way they like,
everyone is at the mercy of the rulers.
Codes:
(a) Both A and Rare individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (b)

30. Consider the following statements:


Thomas Hobbes argues that
1. without the state; morality, justice, industry and civilization cannot endure.
2. in the state of nature, everyman has the liberty to use his power as he wants.
3. human nature primarily seeks self preservation, power, glory, riches and honour.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
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31. Which one of the following statements is not correct?


(a) For Aristotle, state exists to ensure good life for its members
(b) For Jeremy Bentham, state exists to promote the social and economic welfare of its
citizens
(c) For Thomas Hobbes, the primary task of the state is to ensure law and order
(d) For John Locke, the state exists to protect the inalienable rights of its citizens
Ans.(b)

32. J. Rousseau’s concept of general will avows which one of the following?
(a) Parliamentary sovereignty
(b) Popular sovereignty
(c) Sovereignty of the constitution
(d) De jure sovereignty
Ans.(b)

33. Consider the following statements:


The ideal of ‘universal citizenship’ implies that
1. all citizens of a country should be treated alike and granted equal rights.
2. individuals should be considered as citizens of the world.
3. all persons living in a country should he treated as citizens.
4. citizenship rights are given to us by nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 4 only
Ans. (d)

34. Consider the following statements about the UN


Declaration of Human Rights:
1. Universal Declaration of Human Rights does not refer to any social or economic rights
2. The Declaration does not uphold such rights as. right to work, protection against
unemployment, just remuneration and right to form trade unions.
3. The Declaration recognizes the rights of indigenous populations.
4. The Declaration grants special status to women.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c)1, 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (a)

35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below
the lists:
List-I List-II
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(Thinker) (Idea)
A. Karl Marx 1. Justice as fairness
B. Jeremy Bentham 2. From each according to his ability to each according to his needs
C. John Rawls 3. Justice as net aggregate satisfaction
D. Robert Nozick 4. From each as they choose to each as they are chosen
Codes:
ABCD
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans. (d)

36.Which one of the following conditions aptly represents Gandhi’s idea of swaraj?
(a) Self-sufficiency in food grains based on large scale irrigation and applications of
fertilizers
(b) Self-sufficient rural economy employing local resources and labour-intensive
techniques
(c) An economy where men and women are fully employed in professions requiring
technical education
(d) Labour intensive agriculture and a modern urban economy
Ans. (b)

37. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?


(a) Che Guevara : Bolshevik Revolution
(b) George Lukas : Cuban Revolution
(c) Rosa Luxemburg : German Uprising.
(d) Nikolai Bukharin : Hungarian Revolution
Ans. (a)

38. Consider the following statements:


In early 1920s, Gandhi argued that swaraj is impossible without
1. Khadi
2. Hindu-Muslim unity
3. Abolition of untouchabiity
4. Nai Talim (Basic Education).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1,2, 3and 4
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. (b)

39. Why do contemporary liberals persuaded by John Rawls argue for the primacy of
rights Over good?
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(a) A majority of the people prefer rights over good.


(b) There are plurality of conceptions of good which people uphold and they have their
reasons for the same.
(c) Liberal societies, unlike the traditional, uphold rights.
(d) The universal declaration on human rights prefers right over good.
Ans.(c)

40. Which one of the following is the correct combination related to theoretical defense
of the welfare state?
(a) John Locke : Treatise on Government
(b) J. S. Mill : Representative Government
(c) F. Engels : Socialism : Utopian and Scientific
(d) L. T. Hobhouse : Liberalism
Ans. (d)

41. Which one of the following thinkers suggests that right to property is the basis of life
and liberties?
(a) Thomas Hobbes
(b) J. Rousseau
(c) J. Locke
(d) J. S. Mill
Ans. (c)

42.Who defined the state as a “human community that (successfully) claims the
monopoly of the legitimate use of physical force within a given territory”?
(a) Benito Mussolini
(b) Max Weber
(c) Thomas Hobbes
(d) Nicolo Machiavelli
Ans. (b)

43. Assertion (A) : In the Leviathan, Thomas Hobbes argues that through social contract,
a sovereign authority is created to whom every man surrendered his authority of
governing himself.
Reason (R) : Men found that they cannot collectively regulate their life as they did in the
state of nature.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (c)

44. Consider the following statements on the implications of coalition politics in the
states
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1. Coalition government have weakened the position and influence of Chief Ministers in
the states.
2. Coalition government have virtually weakened bureaucracy in state administration.
3. Coalition government adversely affected political homogeneity of the Council of
Ministers.
4. The area of coalition politics expanded the scope of the discretionary powers of the
Governors.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) l, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)

45. Where was the First Asian Relations Conference held?


(a) Manila
(b) Tokyo
(c) New Delhi
(d) Colombo
Ans. (c)

46. Which one of the following statements is not correct?


(a) There is a provision in the Constitution of India for readjustment of allocation of seats
in the Lok Sabha upon the completion of each census.
(b) If for a period of 60 days, a member of either- house is absent without permission of
the house from all meetings thereof, the house may declare his seat vacant.
(c) The Rajya Sabha approves money bill after it has been passed by the Lok Sabha.
(d) The Attorney-General of India has the right to speak in and otherwise to take part in
the proceedings of either House of Parliament.
Ans. (c)

47. On the basis of the criterion issued by the Election Commission of India, what is the
minimum number of states in which a political party must be recognized to be termed as
a ‘National Party’ throughout the whole of India?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Ans. (b)

48. What was/were the most important demands of the J. P. Movement of 1970s?
1. Land reforms
2. Representation for women in the Parliament
3. Workers’ participation in industry
4. Accountability of power
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Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:


(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 4 only
Ans. (a)

49. In which one of the following cases was the doctrine of ‘Prospective Overruling’
adopted by the Supreme Court of India?
(a) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab
(b) Keshavananda Bharti vs. State of Kerala
(c) Champakam Dorairajan vs. State of Madras
(d) Kehar Singh vs. Union of India
Ans. (b)

50. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below
the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Indra Sawheny case 1. Power of Parliament to amend Part III of the
Constitution upheld
B. Minerva Mills case 2. Dynamic scope of Right to Equality
C. Royappa case 3. Reservation for Backward Classes
D. Shankari Prasad case 4. Revival of Judicial Review
Codes:
ABCD
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans.(c)

Test Set 4
1. Which one of the following statements about the speaker of the Lok Sabha is not
correct?

(a) He has the power to adjourn the House sine die

(b) He has the power to summon the House even after prorogation

(c) He continues to be in office even after the dissolution of the House and un
immediately before the first meeting of the House
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(d) He must vacate the office if he cease to be a member of the Lok Sabha

Ans. (b)

2. How much is the quorum of a House of Parliament in India?

(a) One-half of the total membership of the House

(b) One-third of the total membership of the House

(c) Two-third of the total membership of the House

(d) One-tenth of the total membership of the House

Ans. (d)

3. Consider the following statements:

1. Quo Warranto is a very powerful instrument for safeguarding against the usurpation of
public offices.

2. A High Court can issue a mandamus to compel a court or judicial tribunal to exercise
its jurisdiction when it has refused to exercise it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Axis. (c)

4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below
the lists:

List-I List-II

(Parliamentary Device) (Substance)

A. Cut Motion 1. To draw attention of the ministers on the matters of


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urgent public importance

B. Call Attention Motion 2. To draw attention of the speaker towards incorrect or

incomplete answer by ministers

C. Privilege Motion 3. To move a proposal to reduce expenditure on the budget

proposals

D. Adjournment Motion 4. To adjourn the House before the expiry of time

5. Concludes discussion on demand for grants

Codes:

ABCD

(a) 3 1 2 4

(b) 2 4 5 1

(c) 3 4 2 1

(d) 2 1 5 4

Ans. (a)

5. What does the ‘Rule of lapse’ mean?

(a) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation

(b) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year

(c) The demand for grants of a ministry lapses with criticism of its policy by the
opposition

(d) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days

Ans. (b)

6. Which one of the following categories of disputes is excluded from the original
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

(a) Between the Government of India and one or more states


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(b) Between two or more states inter se

(c) Between residents of two or more states

(d) Between the Government of India and one or more states on one side and one or more
states on the other

Ans. (c)

7. Consider the following statements on judicial activism in India:

1. It occurs mainly where the legislature and executive wings of government fail to
discharge their duties under the Constitution.

2. Justice A. H. Ahmadi had initiated judicial activism by converting letter written to him
by an aggrieved citizen into public interest litigation.

3. Most of the cases of judicial activism have occurred through appeals against lower
court judgments.

4. In judicial activism, the court monitors the development of a case during the trial
period and gives necessary directions to investigating agencies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

Ans. (d)

8. Which one of the following scholars described the party system prevailing in India in
the early years of independence as one party dominant system?

(a) Bhikhu Parikh

(b) Myron Weiner

(c) Granville Austin

(d) Rajni Kothari.


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Ans. (d)

9. Consider the following statements related to secularism in India:

1. It entails strict separation of religion from politics.

2. It refrains parties with religious affiliations from contesting elections.

3. It grants religious liberty to all communities.

4. It accepts community personal laws.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (c)

10. Consider the following statements:

1. The Committee on Public Accounts examines the report of the Comptroller and
Auditor-General of India before it is presented before each House of Parliament.

2. The President of India causes the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of
India to be laid before each House of Parliament.

3. After the Annual Financial Statement is presented before the Lok Sabha, the
Committee on Public Accounts examines the estimates

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) l and 3

(c) 1 only

(d) 2 only
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Ans. (d)

11. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Gujarat Riot (1969) — Reddy Commission

(b) Bhiwandi Riot (1970). — D. P. Madan Commission

(c) Jamshedpur Riot (1979) — Jitendra Narayan Commission

(d) Bombay Riot (1993) — Shashikant Verma Commission

Ans. (d)

12. Which one of the following statements is correct for the First Report of the Ethics
Committee of the Parliament?

(a) Matters like criminalization of politics, political parties and electoral reforms, Code of
Conduct were dealt with

(b) Procedural aspects of enforcing the Code of Conduct were dealt with

(c) Such matters as, disorderly proceedings in legislatures, co-operation with presiding
officer in the legislature and enforcing discipline were dealt with

(d) Matters like behaviour of political parties and good governance were dealt with

Ans. (b)

13. In the context of the Indian political system, what did the term “Young Turks” refer
to?

(a) A group of students who emerged out of Navnirman movement of Jaya Prakash
Narayan

(b) A faction of Naxalite movement who claimed to be puritans

(c) An ideological group with socialist leanings within the Congress Party

(d) A radical group within the Communist Party who claim to be Marxist-Leninist

Ans. (d)

14. Growth of regional political parties in India in recent years is attributed to which of
the following?
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1. Frequent elections

2. Inability to accommodate demands of various sections of society

3. Advent of multinational companies

4. Emergence of new states

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

(a) l and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) l and 4

Ans. (a)

15. Which of the following electoral reforms is not implemented yet?

(a) Bye-election to be held within 6 months from the occurrence of vacancy

(b) Registration of political parties with the Election Commission

(c) Debar Income Tax defaulters from contesting elections

(d) Increase in security deposit and number of proposers

Ans. (c)

16. Consider the following countries:

1. France

2. England

3. Switzerland

4. Germany

By the end of 19th century, in which of the above countries, all adult women were
franchised?
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(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 only

(d) None of these

Ans. (d)

17. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The party system and the elections in India are based on single member
constituencies, first-past-the post system of plurality voting and a bicameral legislature.

(b) British party system is the product of the great economic and social changes that
rocked the society and the state in the nineteenth century Europe.

(c) The electoral system is at the heart of the credibility (legitimacy) of modern
democracies.

(d) The first general elections (Parliamentary Elections) were held in India in the year
1950 after following the ratification of the Constitution.

Ans. (d)

18. Which one of the following is the main principle on which the Parliamentary system
operates?

(a) Supremacy of Parliament

(b) Responsibility of Executive to Legislature

(c) Supremacy of Judiciary

(d) Theory of Separation of Power

Ans. (b)

19. Which one of the following is known as the Marshal Plan?

(a) US post-war economic assistance to Europe

(b) US military intervention in Vietnam


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(c) Marshal Tito’s advocacy for Non-alignment

(d) US assistance to post colonial regimes in sub-Saharan Africa

Ans. (a)

20. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Mikhail Gorbachev : Glasnost

2. Samuel Huntington : Clash of Civilization

3. Henry Kissinger : Detente

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

21. Which one of the following countries has not signed the agreement on SAARC
Preferential Trading Arrangement (SAPTA)?

(a) Myanmar

(b) Bhutan

(c) Nepal

(d) Maldives

Ans. (a)

22. In the wave, of democratization of 1980s and 1990s, in which of the following
countries has state socialism not been replaced by a multi-party system?

(a) Hungary

(b) Poland
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(c) Bulgaria

(d) North Korea

Ans. (d)

23. Who among the following, mooted the idea that India was a ‘soft state’ and ill-
equipped to carry out its promises?

(a) Samir Amin

(b) Gunnar Myrdal

(c) Andre Gundar Frank

(d) Edward Said

Ans. (b)

24. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The House of Lords is primarily a hereditary chamber

(b) Aliens can also become members of the House of Lords

(c) There are some peers from Ireland also

(d) Spiritual Peers also occupy a significant number

Ans. (c)

25. The regional legislatures of Scotland and Wales are elected by which method?

(a) Plurality of votes

(b) Absolute majority of votes

(c) Proportional representation by single transferable votes

(d) A mixture of single-member districts and proportional representation by party lists

Ans. (a)

26. In which of the following federations does the second chamber have equal
representation from the states?
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1. India

2. USA

3. Canada

4. Australia

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Ans. (b)

27. Which one of the following statements about the French Judicial System is not
correct?

(a) The French judiciary has got the power of judicial review

(b) The method of appointment of judges differs from that of Britain and U SA

(c) There are two types of courts – ordinary courts and administrative courts

(d) There are courts of appeal also under the Vth Republic of France

Ans. (a)

28. Which one of the following statements with respect to the features of the French
Constitution is not correct?

(a) The Constitution of the Fifth Republic was framed by General de Gaulle

(b) The Constitution of the Fifth Republic contains a mixture of unitary and federal
government

(c) The tenure of the President is five years

(d) The Constitution of the Fifth Republic was enacted to ensure stability
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Ans. (b)

29. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) British Parliament is sovereign

(b) The monarchy is rooted in Britain

(c) Separation of powers is the essential principle of the British system of government

(d) The Cabinet is the most powerful body in Britain

Ans. (c)

30. Which one of the following statements is not correct in case of U S A?

(a) Bill of Rights is enumerated in the U S Constitution

(b) The Constitution is the supreme law of the land

(c) There is a provision of single citizenship in U S A

(d) The members of the House of Representatives are elected for a period of two years

Ans. (c)

31. In which country, a political party must obtain a minimum of 5% of the national votes
or win at least three directly elected seats to be allowed proportional representation in the
Legislature?

(a) France

(b) Germany

(c) South Africa

(d) China

Ans. (b)

32. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

Under the basic law of the Federal Republic of Germany, the right to asylum is restricted
to persons suffering from
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(a) economic hardship

(b) ethnic prejudice

(c) social discrimination

(d) political persecution

Ans. (d)

33. Which one of the following statements is not correct about South Africa?

(a) The Constitution of the Union of South Africa possesses no federal features

(b) The Constitution is a mixture of federal and unitary type of government

(c) The provinces get equal representation in the Senate

(d) The Union Cabinet represents as far as possible, different provincial interests

Ans. (a)

34. How is the Federal Constitutional Court in Germany constituted?

(a) By appointments by the Federal President

(b) By appointments by the Federal Chancellor

(c) By election of half number of judges by the Bundestag and half by the Bundesrat

(d) By election by the Joint Committee of Parliament

Ans. (c)

35. Consider the following events:

1. Lucknow Pact

2. Promulgation of Vernacular Press Act

3. Establishment of Arya Samaj

4. Partition of Bengal
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Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the events given
above?

(a) 3-4-2-1

(b) 1-2-4-3

(c) 3-2 -4-1

(d) 1-4-2-3

Ans. (c)

36. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

The All India Muslim Personal Law Board

(a) enjoys a constitutional status and its head is appointed by the President of India

(b) is a voluntary organization which brings together all the sects and schools of Muslims
in India.

(c) is an official body created by following the Shah Bano controversy.

(d) is a body of Ulema belonging to the Deoband School which advises the government
on Muslim Personal Law.

Ans. (c)

37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below
the lists:

List-I List-II

A. Home Rule Movement 1. Lord Cornwallis

B. Vernacular Press Act 2. M.G. Ranade

C. Policy of Subsidiary Alliance 3. B. G. Tilak

D. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha 4. Lord Wellesley

5. Lord Lytton

Codes:
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ABCD

(a) 2 4 1 3

(b) 3 5 4 2

(c) 2 5 4 3

(d) 3 4 1 2

Ans. (b)

38. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Indian Councils Act, 1892 - Principle of Election

(b) Indian Councils Act, 1909 - Responsible Government

(c) Government of India Act; l919 – Provincial Autonomy

(d) Government of India Act, 1935 – Diarchy in States

Ans. (a)

39. The Autonomous District Council under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution is not
operative in which one of the following states of North-East India?

(a) Assam

(b) Tripura

(c) Nagaland

(d) Meghalaya

Ans. (c)

40. The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976 made it obligatory for the
President of India to act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers. Which
one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India was amended by the
Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976?

(a) Article 73

(b) Article 74(1)


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(c) Article 75(1)

(d) Article 77(1)

Ans. (b)

41. 86th Constitutional Amendment deals with which of the following?

(a) Allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created states

(b) Reservation of 30% posts for women in Panchayat Raj Institutions

(c) Insertion of Article 21A related with free and compulsory education for all children
between the age of 6 and 14 years

(d) Continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment

Ans.(c)

42. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below
the lists:

List-I List-II

(Schedule of Constitution (Contents)

of India)

A. Ninth Schedule 1. Provisions regarding Panchayat Raj Institutions

B. Tenth Schedule 2. Provisions regarding land reforms legislations

C. Eleventh Schedule 3. Provisions regarding administration of tribal

areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram

D. Sixth Schedule 4. Provisions regarding the distribution of powers

between the Centre and States

5. Provisions regarding the disqualification on ground of

defection

Codes:
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ABCD

(a) 3 1 4 2

(b) 2 5 1 3

(c) 3 5 1 2

(d) 2 1 4 3

Ans. (b)

43. Consider the following statements:

The ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution includes

1. The Government and Parliament of India. -

2. The Government and legislature of the states.

3. Local authorities Or other authorities within the territories of India or under—the


control of Government of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3

Ans. (a)

44. Which one of the following issues comes under the Concurrent List?

(a) Taxes on Professions, trades, callings and employment

(b) Capitation Taxes

(c) Adulteration of food stuffs and other goods

(d) Corporation Tax


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Ans.(c)

45. Consider the following statements:

Proclamation of emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India

1. requires written communication of the Union Cabinet to the President to that effect.

2. can be issued for the whole of India or part thereof.

3. lapses, if not approved by both Houses of Parliament within a month;

4. requires a resolution, approving the proclamation passed by both Houses of Parliament


only by a majority of the total membership of each House, and not less than 2/3 members
present and voting.

5. once approved by Parliament-can last for six months.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Ans. (a)

46. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Reservation of seats for SCs and STs : Article 330 of Constitution of India

in the Lok Sabha

(b) Constitution Amendment Procedure : Article 268 of Constitution of India

(c) Public Service Commissions for the : Article 313 of Constitution of India

Union and States

(d) Special Provisions with- respect to : Article 371-D of Constitution of India

the State of Nagaland


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Ans. (a)

47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
the lists:

List-I List-II

(Source) (Tax)

A. Taxes levied by the Union but collected 1. Taxes on income other than agriculture

and appropriated by the State

B. Taxes levied, collected and retained by 2. Stamp duties

the Centre

C. Taxes levied and collected by the Centre 3. Corporation Tax

but assigned to the States

D. Taxes levied and collected by the Centre and 4. Taxes on land and buildings

compulsorily distributed between the

Union and the States

5. Taxes on railway fares and freights

Codes:

ABCD

(a) 1 5 4 2

(b) 2 3 5 1

(c) 1 3 5 2

(d) 2 5 4 1

Ans. (b)

48. Which of. the following rights is not expressly mentioned in the Fundamental Rights
but has been upheld as so by several pronouncements of the Supreme Court?
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(a) Equity before law

(b) Right to non-discrimination in public employment

(c) Right to form associations or unions

(d) Right to freedom of Press

Ans. (d)

49 Which of the following Articles were first inserted and repealed later from the
Constitution of India?

1. 32-A

2. 51-A

3. 131-A

4. 257-A

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)

50. Consider the following statements:

1. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a
Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers.

2. The President can call all information relating to proposals for legislation.

3. The President has the right to address and send message to either House of Parliament.

4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union
must be communicated to the President.
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Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (a)

Test Set 5

1. The first systematic Indian political theory can be found in


(A) The Vedas
(B) The Arthashastra
(C) The Sukra Ni Sara
(D) The Bhagavad Gita

Ans: B

2. The idea of the cave and shadows is associated with?


(A)Socrates
(B) Democrates
(C)Plato
(D) Aristotle

Ans: C

3. Who said that some men are ruled by force and some others
by law?
(A) Marx
(B) Lenin
(C) Hegel
(D) Machiavelli

Ans: D

4. Who propounded the idea of ‘felicific calculus ?


(A) Machiavelli
(B) Hobbes
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(C) Bentham
(D) Marx

Ans: C

5. The theory of contractions was propounded by?


(A) Mao
(B) Hobbes
(C) Mill
(D) Locke

Ans: A

6. The problem of ‘minority opinion’ was tackled by?


(A)Hobbes
(B) Locke
(C)Marx
(D) Rousseau
Ans: D

7. Given below are two statements,one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : Nozic was a libertanan.
Reason (R) Nozic stood for individual liberty and just property.
Which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false

Ans: A

8. What is Herbert A. Simon’s approach to the study of Public Administration?


(A) Behavioural approach
(B) Structural approach
(C) Institutional approach
(D) Philosophical approach

Ans: A

9. Which one of the following chapters of the United Nations Charter is a counterpart to
Article 16 of the Covenant of the League of Nation?
(A) Chapter V
(B) Chapter VI
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(C) Chapter VII


(D)Chapter VIII ‘

Ans: C

10. According to Hans Margenthan, the patterns of balance of power are?


1. The pattern off direct opposition -
2. The pattern of competition
3. The pattern of support
4. The pattern of mutual trust Choose the correct answer from
the code given below
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1 and 3 are correct
(C) 3 and 4 are correct
(D) 1,2 and 4 are correct

Ans: D

11. Arrange the following in chronological order as these emerged?


1. NAM
2. WTO
3. New International Economic Order
4. SAPTA
(A) 4,3,1,2
(B) 1,3,4,2
(C) 3,2 ,4,1
(D) 2,4 ,3,1

Ans: B

12. Which one of the following is not considered an instrument for promotion of National
Interest?
(A) Propaganda
(B) War
(C) International Law
(D) Diplomacy

Ans: C

13. Which one of the following countries is not signatory to the NPT
(A) UK
(B) U.S.A.
(C)France
(D) India
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Ans: D

14. SAARC Secretariat is located at?


(A) New Delhi
(B) Islamabad
(C) Dhaka
(D) Kathmandu

Ans: D

15. Which is the largest trade partner of India?


(A)ASEAN
(B) APEC
(C) OIC
(D) EU

Ans: D

16. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Peacekeeping freezes hostilities rather than resolves them.
Reason (R) : Peacekeeping is not even mentioned in the U.N. charter.
Choose the correct answer from the following
(A) Both (A)and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false

Ans: B

17. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : It is not the idealism but national interests that shape the foreign policy of
a country.
Reason (R) : USA has often been supporting dictatorial regimes.
In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false

Ans: A

18.Indo-US Nuclear Cooperation Agreement was signed by ?


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(A) Jawaharlal Nehru


(B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(D) Man Mohan Singh

Ans: D

19.Tashkant Summit Agreement was signed by ?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru


(B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(D) Man Mohan Singh

Ans: C

20. Shimla Accord was signed by ?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru


(B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(D) Man Mohan Singh

Ans: B

21 Panchsheel is associated with ?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru


(B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(D) Man Mohan Singh

Ans: A

22. Assertion (A) : Post behavioralism consisted of normative element.


Reason (R) : Easton conceded relevance of values in political analysis.
Which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false

Ans: D
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23. Identify the order in which the


following occurred—
1. The Russian Revolution
2. The American Revolution
3. The French Revolution
4. The Glorious Revolution
Codes:
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4
(D) 1,4,2, 3

Ans: B

24. Who among the following liberated political development from socio-economic
modernisation?
(A) Gabriel Almond
(B) Lucian Pye
(C) W. W. Rostow
(D) Samuel Huntington

Ans: B

25. Who among the following described elites as ‘speculators’ and ‘rentiers’
(A) Pareto
(B) Mosca
(C) Michels
(D) Gasset

Ans: D

26. In communications theory, the ability to act in response to forecasts of future


consequence is called?
(A) Gain
(B) Lead
(C) Load
(D) Lag

Ans: B

27. Who among the following talks of pseudo pressure groups?


(A) Duverger
(B) Jean Blondel
(C) Almond
(D) James Jupp
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Ans: B

28 .Which one of the following books was authored by David Easton?


(A) A systems Analysis of Political Life
(B) The Politics of the Developing Areas
(C) Modern Political Analysis
(D) The Nerves of Government

Ans: A

29 .The behavioural critics of Max-Weber’s model of bureaucracy are?


1. Robert Merton
2. M. Crozier
3.Fred Riggs
4.Karl Deutsch

Ans: A

30. which of the following statements are true about the British Parliamentary System?
1. The Queen always acts on the advice of the Cabinet.
2. The Cabinet functions on the principle of collective responsibility.
3. The Parliament can make laws on any subject.
4. The Courts can declare a law unconstitutional.
Select the correct answer from the codes below—
Codes:
(A) 1,2,4
(B) 2,3,4
(C) 1,2,3
(D) 1,3,4

Ans: C

31. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Political socialization is the process by which political cultures are
maintained and changed.
Reason (R) : Family, School Peer groups, experiences during employment, mass media
and direct contact with political. system are the main agents of the process of
socialization
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false
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Ans: B
32. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The U.S. Supreme Court is more powerful than the Supreme Court of
India in the exercise of power of judicial review.
Reason (R) The U.S. Supreme court follows the principle of ‘due process of law’.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false

Ans: A

33. Anti-defection law was placed in?


(A) The preamble
(B) The fundamental rights chapter in the constitution
(C) 6th Schedule of the constitution
(D) 10th Schedule of the constitution

Ans: D

34. Who votes in the election of theVice President ? Choose the correct answer from the
following.
(A) Members of the Legislative Assemblies
(B) Members of the Legislative Councils
(C) Elected Members of the Parliament
(D) Elected and Nominated Members of Parliament

Ans: D

35. Which of the following terms is not incorporated in the Constitution?


(A) Secular
(B) Federal
(C) Democratic
(D) Socialist

Ans: B

36. The Supreme Court of India


1. Has original but not appellate jurisdictions
2. Appoints the Attorney General of India
3. Has exclusive jurisdiction in disputes between Union and the States
4. Enforces fundamental rights
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
Codes:
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(A) l and 3
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 3 and 2
(D) 4 and l

Ans: B

37. National Commission to Review the Constitution was formed during the Prime
Ministership of?
(A) Morarji Desai
(B) V.P.Singh
(C) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(D) Manmohan Singh

Ans: C

38. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Nehru said that it is crime against man and God to submit to anybody’s
rule.
Reason (R) : Individuals are not born equal.
Choose the correct answer from the following—
((A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false

Ans: C

39. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Economic Development reduces the significance of parochial ties by the
creation of non-parochial economic loyalties.
Reason (R): Sectarian strifes have increasingly got aggravated.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false

Ans: B

40. Arrange the following in chronological order use the codes given below
1. Kesavananda Bharati case
2. Golak NaIh case
3. Minerva Mills case
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4. Sajjan Singh case


Codes:
(A) 3,2,4,1
(B) 1,4,3,2
(C) 4,2,1,3
(D) 2,4,3,1

Ans: C

41.Emergence of All India Muslim League happened in ?


(A) 1914
(B) 1906
(C) 1916
(D) 1928

Ans: B

42.Lucknow Pact happened in ?


(A) 1914
(B) 1906
(C) 1916
(D) 1928

Ans: C

43.Motilal Nehru Report was submitted in ?


(A) 1914
(B) 1906
(C) 1916
(D) 1928

Ans: D

44.Komagatamaru Incident happened in ?


(A) 1914
(B) 1906
(C) 1916
(D) 1928

Ans: A

45. Which is the correct sequential order of the following stages in the appointment of
Civil Servants?
1. Induction
2. Advertisement
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3. Viva-Voice
4. Written Examination
Codes:
(A) 2,4,3,1
(B) 1,2,3,4
(C) 2,3,1,4
(D) 4,1,2,3

Ans: A

46. The Word ‘Bureaucracy’ was first coined by?


(A) Max Weber
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Vincent de Gaurnay
(D) Spencer

Ans: C

47. Who represents the Government while presenting the budget to Parliament?

(A) Prime Minister


(B) The Finance Minister
(C) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans: B

48. In India, the Office of the Lokpal was suggested in 1966 on the basis of the
recommendations of the?rr
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Law Commission
(D) Finance Commission

Ans: A

49. Which one of the following functions is performed by the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India?
(A) Presentation and san of the Budget
(B Execution of the Budget
(C) National Accounting
(D) Audit

Ans: D

50 . The emoluments all allowances of the President of India are charged on the?
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(A) Consolidated Fund of India


(B) Contingency Fund of India
(C) Public Accounts Fund
(D) Treasury

Ans: A