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Axis Bank Placement Paper

1. An account holder draws a cheque on a?

(1) Banker of the Payee

(2) Banker of the Drawee

(3) Banker of the Drawer

(4) Banker of the Endorsee

(5) None of the above

2. The Bank should comply and intimate the compliance of Award to Ombudsman?

(1) Within Two Months

(2) Within 3 months

(3) Within one month

(4) Within one year

(5) None

3. Capital adequacy is worked out based on?

(1) Total demand and time liabilities

(2) Net demand and time assets

(3) Risk weighted assets

(4) Risk weighted liabilities

(5) None of the above

4. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) can be maintained in the following ways?

(1) Cash

(2) Gold

(3) Unencumbered approved securities

(4) All of these

(5) None of the above


5. What was the deposits criteria of 14 Banks nationalized on 19th July 1969?

(1) Rs.1000 Crore

(2) Rs. 500 Crore

(3) Rs. 100 Crore

(4) Rs. 50 Crore

(5) None of the above

6. What are the features of selective credit control?

(1) They distinguish between essential and non-essential uses of Bank credit

(2) Only non-essential uses are brought under the scope of Credit Bank controls

(3) They effect not only the lenders but also the borrowers

(4) All the above

(5) None of the above

7. Which of the following are the targets for different categories of priority sector?

(1) Overall target 40% of net Bank credit

(2) Agriculture loans (direct and indirect) 18%

(3) Priority sector target for foreign Banks is 32%

(4) All the above

(5) None of the above

8. Benefits in core Banking is ?

(1) Reliable centralized data recovery

(2) Data warehousing and data mining technologies

(3) Integrated customer centric services

(4) All the above

(5)None
9. Cheque truncation can be done by?

(1) Using MICR data

(2) Sending cheque by speed post

(3) Using image processing

(4) 1 & 3

(5) None of the above

10. Bank rate is decided by?

(1) Indian bank association

(2) Individual commercial bank

(3) Finance ministry

(4) Any one of the above can decide

(5) None of the above

11. What is nomination?

(1) A facility given to depositors by the Government

(2) It confers a right to the nominee to receive payment of a deposit after death of depositors

(3) It is a process of appointing legal heir by the depositors

(4) It is a part of will on behalf of a depositor

(5) None of the above

12. BFS- Board for Financial Supervision constituted in 1994 by RBI to undertake consolidated
supervision of?

(1) Commercial Banks

(2) Financial Institutions

(3) Non Banking Finance Companies

(4) All the above

(5) None of the above


13. 'One Family one Bank' is the tagline of which Bank?

(1) Bank of India

(2) Indian Bank

(3) Bank of Maharashtra

(4) Union Bank of India

(5) None of the above

14. Research Institutions set up by Reserve Bank of India are?

(1) IDRBT (Institute for Development and Research in Ban- king Technology), Hyderabad

(2) IGIDR(Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research), Mumbai

(3) NIBM (National Institute of Bank Management), Pune

(4) Only a & b

(5) All the above

15. Who is the Chairman of the Technical Committee formed to make a study on improvement in Mobile
Banking:

(1) Bimal Jalan

(2) Rahuram Rajan

(3) B Sambamurthy

(4) Pulak Kumar Sinha

(5) None of the above

16. In “NEFT” E stands for –

(1) Election

(2) Email

(3) Enlisted

(4) Ecstasy

(5) Electronic
17. The Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (BSBDA) issued by banks is offered to which of the following
customers?

1) Farmers

2) Daily wage earners

3) Self Help Group members

4) Students

5) All the customers

18. What is the validity of “Kisan Credit Card”?

(1) 1 year

(2) 2 year

(3) 10 years

(4) 5 years

(5) 3 years

19. The Negotiable instrument is _____.

(1) Cheque

(2) Demand Draft

(3) Bill of Exchange

(4) All of the above

(5) Deposit Slip

20. The minimum paid up capital required for both small and payment banks is –

(1) Rs 500 Crore

(2) Rs 50 Crore

(3) Rs 100 crores

(4) Rs 200 Crore

(5) None of these


21. Bring out the only incorrect statement:

(A) Reserve Repo operation by RBI aims are injecting/increasing liquidity

(B) SDR refers to special drawing

(C) Rupee appreciation results in decrease in imports

(D) Increase in inflation rate leads to decline in real interest rate

22. What is a Repo Rate?

(A) It is a rate at which RBI sell government securities to banks

(B) It is a rate at which banks borrow rupees from RBI

(C) It is a rate at which RBI allows small loans in the market

(D) It is a rate which is offered by Banks to their most valued customers or prime customers

(E) None of these

23. Which of the following cannot be called as a Debt Instrument as referred in financial transactions?

(A) Certificate of Deposits

(B) Bonds

(C) Stocks

(D) Commercial Papers

(E) Loans

24. Whenever RBI does some Open Market Operation Transaction, actually it wishes to regulate which
of the following?

(A) Inflation only

(B) liquidity in economy

(C) Borrowing powers of the banks

(D) Flow of Foreign Direct Investments

(E) None of these

25. The maximum amount of the total Revenue earned by the government of India comes from:
(A) Income Tax

(B) Customs Duty

(C) Excise Duty

(D) Value Added Tax

(E) Corporate Tax

26. In economics it is generally believed that the main objective of a Public Sector Financial Company
like Bank is to:

(A) Employ more and more people

(B) Maximize total profits

(C) Maximize total production

(D) Provide financial service to the people of the nation of its origin across the country

(E) Sell the goods at subsidized cost

27. Capital Market Regulator is—

(A) RBI

(B) IRDA

(C) NSE

(D) BSE

(E) SEBI

28. Which is the first Indian company to be listed in NASDAQ ?

(A) Reliance

(B) TCS

(C) HCL

(D) Infosys

(E) None of these

29. What is Call Money ?


(A) Money borrowed or lent for a day or over night

(B) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 3 days

(C) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 7 days

(D) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 14 days

(E) None of these

30. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form

(A) Reserve Bank of India

(B) Imperial Bank of India

(C) Bank of India

(D) Union Bank of

(E) None of these

Axis Bank Aptitude Test Questions

(1) The driver of a car diving @ 376 km/hr locates a bus 40 meters ahead of him. After 20 seconds the
bus is 60 meters behind . the speed of the bus is:

(a) 36 kmph

(b) 20 m/scc

(c) 72 m/scc.

(d) 18 kmph

(e) None of these

(2) Two trains 100 meters and 120 meters long are running in the same directions with speed of 72
km/hr and 54 km./hr. in how much time will the first train cross the second?

(a) 50 Sec..

(b) 44 Sec.

(c) 38 Sec.

(d) 42 Sec.

(e) None of these


(3) A train overtakes two persons walking along a railway track. The first one walks at 4.5 km.hr . the
other one walks at 5.4 km/hr. the train needs 8.4 and 8.5 seconds respectively to overtake them, What
is the speed of the train if both the persons are walking in the same direction as the train?

(a) 66 km/h..

(b) 72 km/h.

(c) 78 km/h..

(d) 81 km/h..

(e) None of these

(4) A train 100 meter long takes 3 second to cross a man walking at the rate of 6km/hr in a direction
opposite to that of the train. Find the speed of the train.

(a) 94 m/s

(b) 100 m/s

(c)110 m/s

(d) 108 m/s

(e) None of these

(5) Subbu starts from a point O at 10.00 am , overtakes Ajay, who is moving in the same direction, at
11.00 a.m. and Bhuvan moving in the opposite direction at 12.00 (noon). If the speed of Bhuvan is one
fourth the speed of Subbu, at what time will Ajay and Bhuvan cross each other.

(a) 1: 30 pm.

(b) 2:pm

(c) 2:30 pm.

(d) Can not be determined

(e) None of these

(6) Three taps A, B and C can fill a tank in 12, 15 and 20 hours respectively. If A is open all the time and B
and C are open for one hour each alternately. Then the tank will be full in:

(a) 6 hrs.

(b) 6 hrs
(c) 7 hrs

(d) 7 hrs.

(e) None of these

(7) Two pipes A and B when working alone can fill a tank in 36 minutes and 45 minutes respectively. A
waste pipe C can empty the tank in 30 minutes.First A and B are opened After 7 minutes. C is also
opened . In How much time will the tank be full ?

(a)1/60

(b) 1/30

(c) 7/20

(d) 13/20

(e) None of these

(8) Asmita invests an amount of Rs. 9535 at the rate of 4 per cent per annum to obtain a total amount of
Rs. 11442 on simple interest after a certain period. For how many years did she invest the amount to
obtain the total sum?

(a) 10 years

(b) 2 years

(c) 5 years

(d) 4years

(e) None of these

(9) Ms. Neelam deposits an amount of Rs. 16420 at simple interest and obtained 25451 at the end of 5
years. What was the rate of interest per year?

(a) 10.5%

(b) 13%

(c) 12.5%

(d) 11%

(e) None of these


(10) What would be the simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 3460 at the rate of 8.5 per cent
per annum after 6 years?

(a) Rs. 1746

(b) Rs. 1764.6

(c) Rs.1766

(d) Rs.1756.4

(e) None of these

(11) Girish invested a certain amount at the rate of 8% p.a. for 6 year to obtain an amount of Rs.
28046.How much amount did Girish obtain as simple interest?

(a) Rs. 12550

(b) Rs. 9096

(c) Rs.18950

(d).Cannot be determined

(e) None of these

(12) What amount of compound interest can be obtained on an amount of Rs. 4500 at the rate of 4%
p.a. at the end of 2 years?

(a) Rs. 360

(b) Rs.358.40

(c) Rs.367.20

(d) Rs.350

(e) None of these

(13) Ms. Maya deposits an amount of Rs. 17800 and obtained Rs. 31684 at the end of 6 years. What was
the rate of simple interest per year?

(a) 14.5

(b) 11

(c) 12.5

(d) 13
(e) None of these

(14) What would be the simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 5580 at the rate of 6.5 % p.a. after
5 years?

(a) Rs. 684

(b) Rs. 689

(c) Rs.645

(d) Rs.698

(e) None of these

(15) Ms. Anurag Awasthi deposits an amount of Rs. 56500 to obtain a simple interest at the rats of 12%
p.a. for 3 years. What total amount will Mr. Anurag Awasthi get at the end of 3 year?

(a) Rs. 1825

(b) Rs. 1813.50

(c) Rs.1827.50

(d) Rs.1819

(e) None of these

16. Successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 20% are equal to a single discount of __

(a) 57.6%

(b) 42.4%

(c) 50%

(d) 43.4

(e) none

17. The average of 13 papers is 40. The average of the first 7 papers is 42 and of the last seven papers is
35. Find the marks obtained in the 7th paper?

(a) 23

(b) 38

(c)19
(d) 33

(e) None of these

18. The number 0.05 is what percent of 20?

(a) 1.5

(b) 0.025

(c) 0.25

(d) 2.5

19. The cost of 16 articles is equal to sell price of 12 articles. The gain percent is ?

(a) 20%

(b) 30%

(c) 0.4 %

(d) 40%

20. A cloth merchant claims to sell is material at cost price but uses a scale which reads 1 meter for
every 95 centimeter. Find the gain percent?

(a) 0.4%

(b) 52.6%

(c) 4 %

(d) 5.26%

21. A & B can do a piece of work in 21 & 24 days respectively. The started to work together but after
some days BA leaves, B completes the remaining work in 9 days. After how many days does A leaves

(a) 7 days

(b) 8 days

(c) 3.5 days

(d) 14 days
22. Express 16 m/s into Km/hr

(a) 57.6

(b) 5.76

(c) 576

(d) 24.5

23. A man can row downstream at a rate of 14 kmpl & upstream at 9 kmpl. Find man's rate in still water
?

(a) 11.5 kmpl

(b) 14 kmpl

(c) 9 kmpl

(d) 23 kmpl

24. The sum of the two numbers is 45 & difference of 2 numbers is 675. Find the number ?

a) 20, 25

b) 15, 30

c) 10,35

d) 12,13

25. A piece of cloth costs Rs 35. If the piece were 4m longer and each meter costs Re 1.00 less, the cost
would remain unchanged. How long is the piece?

a) 10

b) 20

c) 30

d) 15

Axis Bank Sample Paper

Reaoning Ability
1 .Direction : Answer these questions referring to the symbol-letter-number sequence given below :

N8B@5AR(36YL»3AF$4G£?TV9yaH7SJ1©D

Four of the following five are similar in respect of their positions in the above sequence and hence form
a group. Which one does not belong to the group ?

A. GVoc

B. YAG

C. @pL

D. $Ty

2 . Direction : Answer these questions referring to the symbol-letter-number sequence given below :

N8B@5AR(36YL»3AF$4G£?TV9yaH7SJ1©D

How many symbol in the sequence are either immediately followed by a letter belonging to the first half
of the English alphabet or immediately followed by a number ?

A. 5

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

3 . Direction : Answer these questions referring to the symbol-letter-number sequence given below :

N8B@5AR(36YL»3AF$4G£?TV9yaH7SJ1©D

If the positions of the letters in the sequence are reoccupied by the letters theselves after getting
arranged alphabetically from left, which of the following will indicate the position of 'J' in the
arrangement ?

A. Between G and

B. Between 4 and £

C. 15th from the right

D. 7th to the left or R

4 . Direction : Answer these questions referring to the symbol-letter-number sequence given below :
N8B@5AR(36YL»3AF$4G£?TV9yaH7SJ1©D

If the position of the letters in the sequence are reccupied by the letters themselves after getting
arranged alphabeticallyfrom left, Which of the following will not change its position after the change ?

A. Only N

B. Only R and N

C. Only F

D. None of these

5 . Direction : Answer these questions referring to the symbol-letter-number sequence given below :

N8B@5AR(36YL»3AF$4G£?TV9yaH7SJ1©D

What is the total number of 'the numbers immediately followed by a letter' and 'the symbols
immediately preceded by a letter' together in the given sequence ?

A. 10

B. 11

C. 9

D. 12

6 . In a certa|n code language the word BREAKDOWN is written as DQGCJFQVP. How will the word
MENSTRUAL be written1 in that code language ?

A. ODPRVQWZN

B. ODPUSTWZN

C. OPDUSTWZN

D. OPDUSWTZN

7 . Four of the following five are similar in relation to their positions in the English alphabet and hence
form a group. Which one does not belong to that group ?

A. PKSOV

B. HPKTN

C. ARDUG

D. JTMXP
8 . If each alphabet is assigned a sequential numerical value in terms of even numbers on the basis of
their position in the English alphabet, viz. A = 2, B = 4,C = 6 and so on, what will be the value of the word
LOCATION ?

A. 180

B. 182

C. 186

D. 178

9 .Direction : In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and
II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and
the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement: Politicians turning into ministers is a natural transformation even if the quality of
performance rarely matches expectations.

Assumptions: I. No ministers have adequate quality and, skills.

II. Ministers should be able to handle their job efficiently.

A. if only assumption I is implicit.

B. if only assumption II is implicit.

C. if either I or II is implicit.

D. if neither I nor II is implicit.

10 . Direction : In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I
and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement
and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement: Some ambitious political leaders themselves use grievances of minorities as empty slogans
to grab political power.

Assumptions: I. Such leaders have no mass base nor genuine support, except for an occasional
emotional upsurge.

II. Playing with the minority cards gives some leaders political berth but the status of their subjects
remains unchanged.
A. if only assumption I is implicit.

B. if only assumption II is implicit.

C. if either I or II is implicit.

D. if neither I nor II is implicit.

11 . Direction : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Five Indian players Sachin, Bhutia, Leandef, Anand and Gopichand are related with the advertisement of
different products of different companies —Nike, Reebok, Pepsi, Coca Cola and Adidas —, though not
respectively . Sachin advertises neither for Sportswear nor for Rackets. Leander advertises for Shoes but
not for the company Coca Cola. Pepsi and Adidas produce neither Diet Coke nor Sportswear. Gopichand
advertises for the company Nike but neither for Mineral Water nor for Diet Coke. Bhutia and Anand
advertise for Adidas and Pepsi, though not necessarily respectively. Coca Cola does not produce Mineral
Water.

For Which product does Gopichand advertise ?

A. Rackets

B. Sportswear

C. Rackets or Sportswear

D. Data inadequate

12 . Direction : In the following questions, the symbols ?, ?, ?, ? and ? are used with the following
meaning:

P ? Q means P is not smaller than Q.

P ? Q menas P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q

P ? Q means P is not greater than Q

P ? Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.

P ? Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.

Now in each of the following questions. assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two
conclusions l all ll given below them is/are definetely true.
Statements : M ? N, ll ? Q, Q ? M

Conclusions : l. ll ? M ll. Q ? N

A. if only conclusion l is true

B. if only conclusion ll is true

C. if only conclusion l or ll is true

D. if neither l nor ll is true

13 . Direction : In the following questions, the symbols ?, ?, ?, ? and ? are used with the following
meaning:

P ? Q means P is not smaller than Q.

P ? Q menas P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q

P ? Q means P is not greater than Q

P ? Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.

P ? Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.

Now in each of the following questions. assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two
conclusions l all ll given below them is/are definetely true.

Statements : C ? B, l ? S, S ? C

Conclusions : l. B ? S ll. C ? L

A. if only conclusion l is true

B. if only conclusion ll is true

C. if only conclusion l or ll is true

D. if neither l nor ll is true

14 . Direction : In the following questions, the symbols ?, ?, ?, ? and ? are used with the following
meaning:

P ? Q means P is not smaller than Q.

P ? Q menas P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q

P ? Q means P is not greater than Q

P ? Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.


P ? Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.

Now in each of the following questions. assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two
conclusions l all ll given below them is/are definetely true.

Statements : l ? H, E ? F, l ? F

Conclusions : l. E ? l ll. H ? E

A. if only conclusion l is true

B. if only conclusion ll is true

C. if only conclusion l or ll is true or if neither l nor ll is true

D. if both l and ll are true.

15 . Direction : In the following questions, the symbols ?, ?, ?, ? and ? are used with the following
meaning:

P ? Q means P is not smaller than Q.

P ? Q menas P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q

P ? Q means P is not greater than Q

P ? Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.

P ? Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.

Now in each of the following questions. assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two
conclusions l all ll given below them is/are definetely true.

Statements : V ? O, R ? V, O ? B

Conclusions : l. R ? B ll. R ? B

A. if only conclusion l is true

B. if only conclusion ll is true

C. if only conclusion l or ll is true

D. if neither l nor ll is true

16 . Direction : In the following questions, the symbols ?, ?, ?, ? and ? are used with the following
meaning:
P ? Q means P is not smaller than Q.

P ? Q menas P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q

P ? Q means P is not greater than Q

P ? Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.

P ? Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.

Now in each of the following questions. assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two
conclusions l all ll given below them is/are definetely true.

Statements : L ? U, T ? L, U ? W

Conclusions : l. T ? W ll. U ? W

A. if only conclusion l is true

B. if only conclusion ll is true

C. if only conclusion l or ll is true

D. if neither l nor ll is true

17 . Direction : In each question below, there are three statements followed by four conclusions
numbered I, II, HI and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s)
from the given statements.

Statements: a. Some chairs are tables.

b. All tables are keys.

c. All locks are keys.

Conclusions: I. Some tables are not chairs.

II. All keys are chairs.

III. Some locks are tables.

IV. Some locks are chairs.

A. Only I follows

B. Only II follows

C. Only III follows

D. None of these
18 . Direction : In each question below, there are three statements followed by four conclusions
numbered I, II, HI and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s)
from the given statements.

Statements: a. All cups are books.

b. Some books are bikes,

c. No bike is a scooter.

Conclusions: l. Some books are cups.

II. Some bikes are cups.

III. Some cups are scooters.

IV. No cup is a scooter.

A. Only I follows

B. Only I and III follow

C. Only I and either III or IV follow

D. Either III or IV follows

19 . Direction : In each question below, there are three statements followed by four conclusions
numbered I, II, HI and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s)
from the given statements.

Statements: a. All stands are papers.

b. Some pins are papers.

c. All pins are phones.

Conclusions: I. Some phones are not papers.

II. Some stands are phones.

III. Some pins are stands.

IV. Some phones are not stands.

A. Only either II or III follows

B. Only I and II follow

C. Only either II or IV follows


D. Only I and II or IV follow

20 . Direction : In each question below, there are three statements followed by four conclusions
numbered I, II, HI and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s)
from the given statements.

Statements: a. No page is a copy.

b. Some cards are not rectangles.

c. Some copies are rectangles.

Conclusions: I. Some pages are not rectangles.

II. No rectangles are pages.

III. Some copies are not pages.

IV. Some rectangles are not pages.

A. Only either II or IV follows

B. Only IV follows

C. Only either I or II follows

D. Only III and IV follow

31 . Direction (Q. 1-5) : Read the following information and answer the questions that follow.

P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are eight friends. There of them play Hockey and Tennis each two of them play
Gold. They all are of different heights. The shortest does not play Hockey and the tallest does not play
Gold. U is taller than P and S, but shorter than Q and W. T, who does not play Hockey, is taller than Q
and is second tallest. V is shorter than S, but taller than P. W plays Tennis with S, and is fourth from the
top. V does not play either Hockey or Gold. Q does not play Gold.

Who is the shortest ?

A. V

B. S

C. P

D. Data inadequate
32 . Who is the tallest ?

A. Q

B. W

C. R

D. Data inadequate

33 . Which of the following pairs of friends plays Golf ?

A. TU

B. TW

C. WU

D. None of these

34 . What is U's position from the top, when they are arranged in descending order of their height ?

A. Fifth

B. Fourth

C. Sixth

D. Can't be determined

35 . Which of the following groups of friends plays Hockey ?

A. RTP

B. RQU

C. RQP

D. RPU

36 . Direction (Q. 6-10) : Read the following in information to answer the questions:

'P + Q' means P is the father of Q.

'P - Q' means P is the sister of Q.

'P x Q' means P is the husband of Q.

'P ÷ Q' means P is the wife of Q.


Which of the following menas P is the mother-in-law of R ?

A. P ÷ V + T - W x R - S

B. P x M + N x R - S

C. P - S ÷ L + M x R

D. V x P - S ÷ L + M - R

37 . What should come in place of question mark (?) in the given expression to make 'X is the great-aunt
of Z' definitely true ?

X-W÷V+Y?L+M-Z

A. +

B. X

C. -

D. Either - or ÷

38 . Which of the following means 'C is the niece of R' ?

A. R + P - S + X + C - L

B. P - R + Q x S - C - N

C. B x R - P ÷ Q + C - M

D. R x S - Q - P ÷ M x C

39 . If P ÷ Q + R - C -s- W + L is true, which of the following is true ?

A. L is the niece of R.

B. Q is the maternal uncle of L.

C. P is the paternal great-aunt of L.

D. Q is the maternal grandfather of L.

40 . In a coded language "come at once mother very sick" is written as "XLNV ZG LMXV NLGSVI EVIB
WJXP". What is the code for 'sister' ?
A. WJWMXI

B. WJWGVI

C. WJWSVI

D. WJWLVI

Axis Bank Interview Questions

* Introduce yourself

* Tell me your strengths and weakness

* Why Banking?

* Why do you want to join Axis bank ?

* What is difference between nominal and real account ?

* What is the concept of finance accounting?

* What is explosure ?

* How to reduce axis bank emi ?

* What is the e mail id of customercare of axis bank powerkome loan ?

* What is accounting for bank accounts ?

* Why sales is required ?


* What challenges are you looking for in a position?

AXIS Bank Exam Pattern

Basically AXIS Bank exam has the following structure but we urge candidates to get ensure from the AXIS
Bank prospectus or from official website before starting the preparation.Students must ensure all the
details from the official website.The Freshers Exam papers of AXIS Bank is identical to the Bank PO
exams and hence you can use the sample papers and books of PO (Probationary Officers) exams for AXIS
Bank Freshers Exam.There are two types of tests in Bank PO written exam: Objective Test & Descriptive
Test.

Objective Test Pattern of Axis Bank exam :

In Bank PO exams, the Objective test consists of four sections :

1. Reasoning Ability

2. Quantitative Aptitude

3. Banking Awareness/General Awareness

4. English Language

There is negative marks for the wrong answers in the Objective Tests. You can use the above pattern of
exam while preparing for Axis bank written exam.

Descriptive Test Pattern of Axis Bank exam :

The Descriptive Paper consists of General Topic questions for Probationary Officers. 3 questions worth
60 marks are to be answered in 45 minutes.In bank PO exams, the descriptive paper tests your Language
composition, clarity of thoughts and brevity, higher order cognitive abilities, organization of ideas in a
logical coherent manner and above all: your written communication skill.

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