Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. The detection and encoding of stimulus energies by the nervous system is called:
A) signal detection.
B) sensory interaction.
C) subliminal perception.
D) accommodation.
E) sensation.

2. Perception is the process by which:

A) stimulus energies are detected.
B) stimulus energies are transformed into neural activity.
C) sensory input is selected, organized, and interpreted.
D) nerve cells respond to specific features of a stimulus.

3. Sensation is to ________ as perception is to ________.

A) encoding; detection
B) detection; interpretation
C) interpretation; organization
D) organization; adaptation

4. Hearing a sequence of sounds of different pitches is to ________ as recognizing the sound sequence as a familiar
melody is to ________.
A) the just noticeable difference; accommodation
B) absolute threshold; difference threshold
C) sensory interaction; feature detection
D) feature detection; sensory interaction
E) sensation; perception

5. Patients' negative expectations about the outcome of a surgical procedure can increase their postoperative experience
of pain. This best illustrates the importance of:
A) transduction.
B) accommodation.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) difference thresholds.
E) top-down processing.

6. Complete sensation in the absence of complete perception is best illustrated by:

A) Weber's law.
B) prosopagnosia.
C) conduction deafness.
D) color constancy.
E) sensory interaction.

7. A psychophysicist would be most directly concerned with:

A) our psychological reactions to physical stress.
B) the effects of physical diseases on sensory receptor cells.
C) the automatic effect of bright lights on the contraction of the pupils.
D) the relation between the wavelength of light and the experience of color.

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8. The minimum amount of stimulation a person needs to detect a stimulus 50 percent of the time is called the:
A) sensory adaptation threshold.
B) difference threshold.
C) subliminal threshold.
D) absolute threshold.

9. During a hearing test, many sounds were presented at such a low level of intensity that Mr. Antall could hardly ever
detect them. These sounds were below Mr. Antall's:
A) subliminal threshold.
B) absolute threshold.
C) sensory adaptation threshold.
D) difference threshold.

10. Which theory emphasizes that personal expectations and motivations influence the level of absolute thresholds?
A) signal detection theory
B) frequency theory
C) opponentprocess theory
D) feature detection theory

11. Which theory would suggest that watching a horror movie late at night could lower your absolute threshold for
sound as you subsequently tried to fall asleep?
A) sensory adaptation theory
B) opponentprocess theory
C) frequency theory
D) signal detection theory

12. News about the supposed effects of briefly presented messages on moviegoers' consumption of popcorn and Coca-
Cola involved false claims regarding:
A) parallel processing.
B) difference thresholds.
C) kinesthesis.
D) sensory interaction.
E) subliminal stimulation.

13. Which of the following strategies best illustrates the use of subliminal stimulation?
A) A store plays a musical soundtrack in which a faint and imperceptible verbal warning against shoplifting is repeated
frequently.
B) The laughter of a studio audience is dubbed into the soundtrack of a televised situation comedy.
C) A radio advertiser repeatedly smacks her lips before biting into a candy bar.
D) An unseen television narrator repeatedly suggests that you are thirsty while a cold drink is visually displayed on the
screen.

14. When informed that a brief imperceptible message would be flashed repeatedly during a popular TV program, many
viewers reported feeling strangely hungry or thirsty during the show. Since the imperceptible message had nothing
to do with hunger or thirst, viewers' strange reactions best illustrate:
A) the McGurk effect.
B) sensory adaptation.
C) the volley principle.
D) a placebo effect.
E) accommodation.

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15. The principle that two stimuli must differ by a constant proportion for their difference to be perceived is known as:
A) the opponentprocess theory.
B) Weber's law.
C) feature detection.
D) frequency theory.

16. Difference thresholds are smaller for the ________ than for the ________.
A) brightness of lights; pitch of sounds
B) weight of objects; pitch of sounds
C) brightness of lights; weight of objects
D) pitch of sounds; brightness of lights

17. Sensory adaptation refers to:

A) the process by which stimulus energies are changed into neural impulses.
B) diminishing sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus.
C) the process of selecting, organizing, and interpreting sensory information.
D) changes in the shape of the lens as it focuses on objects.

18. After listening to your high-volume car stereo for 15 minutes, you fail to realize how loudly the music is blasting.
This best illustrates:
A) Weber's law.
B) accommodation.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) the volley principle.
E) conduction hearing loss.

19. The process by which our sensory systems convert stimulus energies into neural messages is called:
A) accommodation.
B) sensory adaptation.
C) transduction.
D) parallel processing.
E) sensory interaction.

20. Brightness is to intensity as hue is to:

A) amplitude.
B) timbre.
C) color.
D) pitch.
E) wavelength.

21. Loudness is to pitch as brightness is to:

A) hue.
B) light.
C) intensity.
D) frequency.
E) amplitude.

22. Which process allows more light to reach the periphery of the retina?
A) accommodation of the lens
B) transduction of the cones
C) dilation of the pupils
D) sensory adaptation of feature detectors

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23. Accommodation refers to the:
A) diminishing sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus.
B) system for sensing the position and movement of muscles, tendons, and joints.
C) quivering eye movements that enable the retina to detect continuous stimulation.
D) process by which stimulus energies are changed into neural messages.
E) process by which the lens changes shape in order to focus images on the retina.

24. Rod is to transduction as ________ is to accommodation.

A) pupil
B) cone
C) lens
D) cornea
E) iris

25. The blind spot is located in the area of the retina:

A) called the fovea.
B) that contains rods but no cones.
C) where the optic nerve leaves the eye.
D) where bipolar cells connect with ganglion cells.

26. Rods are ________ light-sensitive and ________ color-sensitive than are cones.
A) more; more
B) less; less
C) more; less
D) less; more

27. When looking at the hands of a clock signifying 8 o'clock, certain brain cells in the visual cortex are more
responsive than if the hands signify 10 o'clock. This is most indicative of:
A) sensory interaction.
B) feature detection.
C) parallel processing.
D) sensory interaction.
E) accommodation.

28. The feature detectors identified by Hubel and Weisel respond to specific aspects of ________ stimulation.
A) taste
B) visual
C) auditory
D) olfactory
E) kinesthetic

29. The feature detectors identified by Hubel and Weisel consist of:
A) nerve cells in the brain.
B) rods and cones.
C) bipolar cells.
D) ganglion cells.

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30. The activation of some feature detectors in response to visual stimulation depends on our assumptions and
interpretations of the sensory input. This best illustrates the importance of:
A) difference thresholds.
B) sensory adaptation.
C) top-down processing.
D) sensory interaction.
E) accommodation.

31. The ability to simultaneously process the pitch, loudness, melody, and meaning of a song best illustrates:
A) sensory interaction.
B) kinesthesis.
C) accommodation.
D) subliminal perception.
E) parallel processing.

32. Ms. Shields, a recent stroke victim, cannot consciously perceive the large book on the coffee table in front of her.
Yet, when urged to identify the book, she correctly reads aloud the printed title on the book cover. Her response best
illustrates:
A) subliminal perception.
B) sensory adaptation.
C) the volley principle.
D) blindsight.
E) sensory interaction.

33. Evidence that some cones are especially sensitive to red light, others to green light, and still others to blue light is
most directly supportive of the ________ theory.
A) frequency
B) Young-Helmholtz
C) gate-control
D) opponent-process
E) signal detection

34. Frequency theory is to pitch as the Young-Helmholtz theory is to:

A) pain.
B) amplitude.
C) hue.
D) kinesthesis.
E) brightness.

35. According to the Young-Helmholtz theory, when both red and greensensitive cones are stimulated simultaneously, a
person should see:
A) red.
B) yellow.
C) blue.
D) green.

36. In additive color mixing, the combination of red, green, and blue creates ________; in subtractive color mixing, the
combination of red, yellow, and blue creates ________.
A) white; white
B) white; black
C) yellow; green
D) black; white
E) black; black

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37. The fact that people who are colorblind to red and green may still see yellow is most easily explained by:
A) the Young-Helmholtz theory.
B) the gate-control theory.
C) place theory.
D) frequency theory.
E) the opponent-process theory.

38. According to the opponent-process theory, cells that are stimulated by exposure to ________ light are inhibited by
exposure to ________ light.
A) green; blue
B) yellow; red
C) green; red
D) red; blue
E) yellow; green

39. Opponent-process cells have been located in the:

A) thalamus.
B) cochlea.
C) spinal cord.
D) visual cortex.
E) semicircular canals.

40. The cochlea is a:

A) fluid-filled tube in which sound waves trigger nerve impulses.
B) fluid-filled tube that provides a sense of upright body position.
C) fluid-filled tube that provides a sense of body movement.
D) set of three tiny bones that amplify the vibrations of the eardrum.

41. Place theory suggests that:

A) structures in the inner ear provide us with a sense of the position of our bodies in space.
B) we have a system for sensing the position and movement of the various parts of our body.
C) we can locate the place from which a sound is emitted because of the distance between our ears.
D) the pitch we hear is related to the place where the cochlea's basilar membrane is stimulated.

42. According to place theory, the perception of ________ sounds is associated with large vibrations of the ________
closest to the oval window.
A) low-pitched; eardrum
B) high-pitched; eardrum
C) low-pitched; basilar membrane
D) high-pitched; basilar membrane

43. The volley principle is most directly relevant to our perception of:
A) loudness.
B) color.
C) brightness.
D) pain.
E) pitch.

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44. Joe Wilson, age 55, has been told by experts that a hearing aid would restore his lost sense of hearing. It is likely
that Joe's hearing loss involves problems within the:
A) inner ear.
B) middle ear.
C) auditory nerve.
D) basilar membrane.

45. The sense of touch includes the four basic sensations of:
A) pleasure, pain, warmth, and cold.
B) pain, pressure, hot, and cold.
C) wetness, pain, hot, and cold.
D) pressure, pain, warmth, and cold.

46. Of the four distinct skin senses, specialized receptor cells have been identified for the sense of:
A) pressure.
B) pain.
C) warmth.
D) cold.

47. According to the gate-control theory, a back massage would most likely reduce your physical aches and pains by
causing the:
A) release of pain-killing endorphins in your brain.
B) activation of specific neural fibers in your spinal cord.
C) arousal of your autonomic nervous system and the release of adrenaline into your bloodstream.
D) deactivation of the pain receptors on the surface of your skin.

48. Which of the following pain control techniques is emphasized in the Lamaze method of childbirth training?
A) accommodation
B) acupuncture
C) subliminal stimulation
D) kinesthesis
E) distraction

49. Which of the following play the biggest role in our feeling dizzy and unbalanced after a thrilling roller coaster ride?
A) olfactory receptors
B) feature detectors
C) basilar membranes
D) bipolar cells
E) semicircular canals

50. Our inability to consciously perceive all the sensory information available to us at any single point in time best
illustrates the necessity of:
A) selective attention.
B) perceptual adaptation.
C) retinal disparity.
D) perceptual constancy.
E) the phi phenomenon.

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51. While reading a novel, Raoul isn't easily distracted by the sounds of the TV or even by his brothers' loud arguments.
This best illustrates:
A) interposition.
B) perceptual adaptation.
C) selective attention.
D) perceptual constancy.
E) the cocktail party effect.

52. The cocktail party effect provides an example of:

A) perceptual constancy.
B) perceptual set.
C) selective attention.
D) the phi phenomenon.
E) perceptual adaptation.

53. In one experiment, most of the participants who viewed a videotape of men playing basketball remained unaware of
an umbrella-toting woman sauntering across the screen. This illustrated the impact of:
A) perceptual adaptation.
B) visual capture.
C) retinal disparity.
D) stroboscopic movement.
E) selective attention.

54. When there is a conflict between bits of information received by two or more senses, which sense tends to dominate
the others?
A) hearing
B) vision
C) smell
D) touch
E) none of the above; the senses work together as equal partners

55. A gestalt is best described as a(n):

A) binocular cue.
B) texture gradient.
C) perceptual adaptation.
D) organized whole.
E) perceptual set.

56. The organizational principles identified by Gestalt psychologists best illustrate the importance of:
A) perceptual constancy.
B) retinal disparity.
C) top-down processing.
D) perceptual adaptation.
E) visual capture.

57. The perception of an object as distinct from its surroundings is called:

A) perceptual set.
B) perceptual constancy.
C) figure-ground perception.
D) the phi phenomenon.

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58. The principles of connectedness and closure best illustrate that:
A) sensations are organized into meaningful patterns.
B) perception is the direct product of sensation.
C) cultural experiences shape perception.
D) visual information is especially likely to capture our attention.

59. Because Carmella, Jorge, and Gail were all sitting behind the same bowling lane, Ruth perceived that they were all
members of the same bowling team. This best illustrates the organizational principle of:
A) proximity.
B) convergence.
C) closure.
D) continuity.
E) connectedness.

60. The principle of connectedness would most likely lead you to perceive all the ________ as parts of a single unit.
A) words in a sentence
B) clouds in the sky
C) letters in the alphabet
D) rungs in a ladder
E) fish in the sea

61. The perceptual tendency to fill in gaps in order to perceive disconnected parts as a whole object is called:
A) interposition.
B) constancy.
C) closure.
D) continuity.
E) convergence.

62. The visual cliff is a laboratory device for testing ________ in infants.
A) size constancy
B) selective attention
C) depth perception
D) perceptual adaptation
E) figure-ground perception

63. Infants who were exposed to the visual cliff:

A) tried to climb up the cliff if their mothers were at the top.
B) gave no evidence that they could perceive depth.
C) refused to cross over the “deep” side to their mothers.
D) eagerly crossed to their mothers by means of the “bridge” provided.

64. Infants are especially likely to avoid crawling over the edge of a visual cliff if they:
A) have a lot of previous crawling experience.
B) have little previous experience with heights.
C) lack a capacity for psychokinesis.
D) lack vision in one eye.

65. Retinal disparity refers to the:

A) tendency to see parallel lines as coming together in the distance.
B) tendency to see stimuli that are near each other as parts of a unified object.
C) somewhat different images our two eyes receive of the same object.
D) extent to which our eyes turn toward each other when looking at an object.

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66. Which of the following is a binocular cue for the perception of distance?
A) interposition
B) convergence
C) closure
D) linear perspective
E) texture gradient

67. The monocular depth cue in which an object blocking another object is perceived as closer is:
A) interposition.
B) relative height.
C) relative clarity.
D) linear perspective.

68. Relative clarity is a cue for depth perception in which closer objects:
A) create larger retinal images than do distant objects.
B) obstruct our view of distant objects.
C) appear lower in the horizontal plane than do distant objects.
D) appear clearer and more distinct than do distant objects.

69. Although the mountains were over 30 miles away, the morning sky was so clear that Showana thought they were
only half the distance. This best illustrates the importance of:
A) lightness constancy.
B) relative clarity.
C) relative height.
D) texture gradient.
E) relative size.

70. The steadily increasing size of the retinal image of an approaching object is especially important for perceiving the
object's:
A) shape.
B) relative clarity.
C) motion.
D) height.
E) weight.

71. The quick succession of briefly flashed images in a motion picture produces:
A) retinal disparity.
B) the Ponzo illusion.
C) stroboscopic movement.
D) convergence.
E) subliminal persuasion.

72. The phi phenomenon refers to:

A) the tendency for visual information to dominate other types of sensory information.
B) the perception of movement created by the successive blinking on and off of adjacent lights.
C) the ability to adjust to an artificially displaced visual field.
D) the tendency to fill in gaps so as to perceive disconnected parts as a whole object.

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73. Although college textbooks frequently cast a trapezoidal image on the retina, students typically perceive the books
as rectangular objects. This illustrates the importance of:
A) interposition.
B) size constancy.
C) linear perspective.
D) shape constancy.
E) binocular cues.

74. The perceived size of an object is most strongly influenced by that object's perceived:
A) shape.
B) color.
C) distance.
D) motion.

75. Knowing about the effects of the perceived distance of objects on their perceived size helps us to understand:
A) the moon illusion.
B) the Müller-Lyer illusion.
C) the Ponzo illusion.
D) all of the above.

76. Stereotypes are mental conceptions that can strongly influence the way we interpret the behaviors of individuals
belonging to specific racial or ethnic groups. A stereotype is most similar to a:
A) feature detector.
B) stereogram.
C) perceptual adaptation.
D) perceptual set.
E) texture gradient.

77. After hearing rumors about the outbreak of an infectious disease, Alyosha began to perceive his normal aches and
pains as disease-related symptoms. His reaction best illustrates the impact of:
A) bottom-up processing.
B) the cocktail party effect.
C) stroboscopic movement.
D) perceptual set.
E) relative clarity.

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Answer Key

1. E
2. C
3. B
4. E
5. E
6. B
7. D
8. D
9. B
10. A
11. D
12. E
13. A
14. D
15. B
16. D
17. B
18. C
19. C
20. E
21. A
22. C
23. E
24. C
25. C
26. C
27. B
28. B
29. A
30. C
31. E
32. D
33. B
34. C
35. B
36. B
37. E
38. C
39. A
40. A
41. D
42. D
43. E
44. B
45. D
46. A
47. B
48. E
49. E
50. A
51. C
52. C
53. E
54. B
55. D
56. C
57. C
58. A

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59. A
60. D
61. C
62. C
63. C
64. A
65. C
66. B
67. A
68. D
69. B
70. C
71. C
72. B
73. D
74. C
75. D
76. D
77. D

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