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ALHCA *0YY*
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ALHCA/YY/Page 1 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

1. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by 8. Select the correct match :
(1) Nostoc (1) F2  Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross
(2) Cycas (2) T.H. Morgan – Transduction
(3) Green sulphur bacteria
(3) Ribozyme – Nucleic acid
(4) Chara
(4) G. Mendel – Transformation
2. Which one of the following plants shows a very
close relationship with a species of moth, where 9. Which of the following is commonly used as a
none of the two can complete its life cycle without vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human
the other ? lymphocytes ?
(1) Yucca (1) Ti plasmid
(2) Banana (2)  phage
(3) Hydrilla
(3) Retrovirus
(4) Viola
(4) pBR 322
3. In which of the following forms is iron absorbed
by plants ? 10. Use of bioresources by multinational companies
(1) Ferrous and organisations without authorisation from the
(2) Free element concerned country and its people is called
(3) Ferric (1) Biopiracy
(4) Both ferric and ferrous (2) Biodegradation
4. Which of the following elements is responsible for (3) Bio-infringement
maintaining turgor in cells ? (4) Bioexploitation
(1) Sodium
11. In India, the organisation responsible for
(2) Potassium assessing the safety of introducing genetically
(3) Magnesium modified organisms for public use is
(4) Calcium (1) Council for Scientific and Industrial
5. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in Research (CSIR)
liquid nitrogen having a temperature of (2) Research Committee on Genetic
(1) – 80C Manipulation (RCGM)
(2) – 196C (3) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
(3) – 120C (4) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
(4) – 160C (GEAC)
6. Double fertilization is 12. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain
(1) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar Reaction (PCR) is
nuclei (1) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(2) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg (2) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(3) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube (3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
with two different eggs
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(4) Syngamy and triple fusion
+ 13. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign
7. What is the role of NAD in cellular
company, though such varieties have been
respiration ?
present in India for a long time. This is related to
(1) It functions as an electron carrier.
(1) Sharbati Sonora
(2) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
(2) Lerma Rojo
(3) It functions as an enzyme.
(4) It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic (3) Co-667
respiration. (4) Basmati
ALHCA/YY/Page 2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English
14. Natality refers to 20. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
(1) Birth rate matched ?
(2) Number of individuals leaving the habitat (1) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
(3) Death rate (2) XO type sex : Grasshopper
determination
(4) Number of individuals entering a habitat
(3) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
15. World Ozone Day is celebrated on (4) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
st 21. Select the correct statement :
(1) 21 April
th (1) Punnett square was developed by a British
(2) 16 September scientist.
th (2) Spliceosomes take part in translation.
(3) 5 June
nd (3) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’.
(4) 22 April
(4) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.
16. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant ?
22. The experimental proof for semiconservative
(1) CO2 replication of DNA was first shown in a
(1) Bacterium
(2) SO2
(2) Plant
(3) CO (3) Fungus
(4) O3 (4) Virus

17. Niche is 23. Select the correct match :

(1) the physical space where an organism lives (1) Alfred Hershey and – TMV
Martha Chase
(2) the range of temperature that the organism
needs to live (2) Matthew Meselson – Pisum sativum
(3) all the biological factors in the organism’s and F. Stahl
environment (3) Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus
(4) the functional role played by the organism pneumoniae
where it lives (4) Francois Jacob and – Lac operon
Jacques Monod
18. What type of ecological pyramid would be
obtained with the following data ? 24. Offsets are produced by
Secondary consumer : 120 g (1) Mitotic divisions
(2) Parthenocarpy
Primary consumer : 60 g
(3) Meiotic divisions
Primary producer : 10 g
(4) Parthenogenesis
(1) Pyramid of energy
25. Which of the following flowers only once in its
(2) Upright pyramid of numbers life-time ?
(3) Inverted pyramid of biomass (1) Jackfruit
(4) Upright pyramid of biomass (2) Mango
(3) Bamboo species
19. In stratosphere, which of the following elements (4) Papaya
acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and
26. Which of the following has proved helpful in
release of molecular oxygen ?
preserving pollen as fossils ?
(1) Cl
(1) Cellulosic intine
(2) Fe (2) Oil content
(3) Carbon (3) Pollenkitt
(4) Oxygen (4) Sporopollenin
ALHCA/YY/Page 3 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English
27. The two functional groups characteristic of 35. Casparian strips occur in
sugars are (1) Pericycle
(1) carbonyl and methyl (2) Cortex
(2) carbonyl and phosphate (3) Epidermis
(3) hydroxyl and methyl (4) Endodermis
(4) carbonyl and hydroxyl
36. Plants having little or no secondary growth are
28. Which among the following is not a prokaryote ?
(1) Deciduous angiosperms
(1) Mycobacterium
(2) Conifers
(2) Nostoc
(3) Grasses
(3) Saccharomyces
(4) Oscillatoria (4) Cycads
29. Which of the following is not a product of light 37. Pneumatophores occur in
reaction of photosynthesis ? (1) Free-floating hydrophytes
(1) NADH (2) Carnivorous plants
(2) NADPH (3) Halophytes
(3) ATP
(4) Submerged hydrophytes
(4) Oxygen
30. Stomatal movement is not affected by 38. Sweet potato is a modified
(1) Light (1) Adventitious root
(2) O2 concentration (2) Tap root
(3) Temperature (3) Stem
(4) CO2 concentration (4) Rhizome

31. The Golgi complex participates in 39. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are
(1) Formation of secretory vesicles produced by
(2) Respiration in bacteria (1) Vascular cambium
(3) Fatty acid breakdown (2) Phellogen
(4) Activation of amino acid (3) Apical meristems
32. Which of the following is true for nucleolus ? (4) Axillary meristems
(1) It is a membrane-bound structure. 40. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(2) It takes part in spindle formation. (1) Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia
(3) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells. is homosporous.
(4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA (2) Horsetails are gymnosperms.
synthesis. (3) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in
33. The stage during which separation of the paired gymnosperms.
homologous chromosomes begins is (4) Stems are usually unbranched in both
(1) Diplotene Cycas and Cedrus.
(2) Diakinesis 41. Select the wrong statement :
(3) Pachytene (1) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.
(4) Zygotene (2) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
34. Stomata in grass leaf are structures in Sporozoans.
(1) Kidney shaped (3) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
(2) Rectangular and Plantae.
(3) Dumb-bell shaped (4) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell
(4) Barrel shaped in all kingdoms except Monera.
ALHCA/YY/Page 4 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English
42. Winged pollen grains are present in 46. Which of these statements is incorrect ?
(1) Cycas (1) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol.
(2) Mango (2) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied
(3) Mustard with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
(4) Pinus (3) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
mitochondrial matrix.
43. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
produced exogenously in outer mitochondrial membrane.
(1) Alternaria
(2) Agaricus 47. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
(3) Neurospora (1) DNA and RNA
(4) Saccharomyces (2) Nucleic acids and SER
(3) Proteins and lipids
44. Match the items given in Column I with those in
(4) Free ribosomes and RER
Column II and select the correct option given
below : 48. Select the incorrect match :
Column I Column II (1) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
a. Herbarium i. It is a place having a (2) Submetacentric – L-shaped chromososmes
collection of preserved chromosomes
plants and animals. (3) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents
b. Key ii. A list that enumerates chromosomes
methodically all the (4) Polytene – Oocytes of amphibians
chromosomes
species found in an area
with brief description 49. Which of the following events does not occur in
aiding identification. rough endoplasmic reticulum ?
c. Museum iii. Is a place where dried and (1) Protein glycosylation
pressed plant specimens (2) Cleavage of signal peptide
mounted on sheets are (3) Protein folding
kept.
(4) Phospholipid synthesis
d. Catalogue iv. A booklet containing a list
of characters and their 50. Which of the following terms describe human
alternates which are dentition ?
helpful in identification of (1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
various taxa. (2) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
a b c d (3) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
(1) iii ii i iv (4) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(2) ii iv iii i
(3) i iv iii ii 51. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
(4) iii iv i ii simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
termed as
45. Which one is wrongly matched ?
(1) Polyhedral bodies
(1) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
(2) Gemma cups – Marchantia (2) Plastidome
(3) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia (3) Polysome
(4) Unicellular organism – Chlorella (4) Nucleosome

ALHCA/YY/Page 5 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

52. Which one of these animals is not a 58. Which of the following options correctly
homeotherm ? represents the lung conditions in asthma and
emphysema, respectively ?
(1) Chelone
(1) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased
(2) Camelus respiratory surface
(3) Macropus (2) Increased respiratory surface;
Inflammation of bronchioles
(4) Psittacula
(3) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
respiratory surface
53. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive (4) Decreased respiratory surface;
system. Inflammation of bronchioles

(1) Reptilia 59. Match the items given in Column I with those in
(2) Aves Column II and select the correct option given
below :
(3) Amphibia
Column I Column II
(4) Osteichthyes
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium
54. Which of the following features is used to identify and left ventricle
a male cockroach from a female cockroach ? b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right
(1) Presence of caudal styles ventricle and
pulmonary artery
(2) Forewings with darker tegmina
c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right
(3) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the
th
atrium and right
9 abdominal segment ventricle
(4) Presence of anal cerci a b c

55. Which of the following organisms are known as (1) i iii ii

chief producers in the oceans ? (2) i ii iii
(1) Diatoms (3) iii i ii
(2) Cyanobacteria (4) ii i iii
(3) Dinoflagellates 60. Match the items given in Column I with those in
(4) Euglenoids Column II and select the correct option given
below :
56. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in Column I Column II
(1) having a contractile vacuole for removing a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
excess water
b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL
(2) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
volume
(3) using flagella for locomotion
c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL
(4) having two types of nuclei
volume
57. Which of the following animals does not undergo d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
metamorphosis ? a b c d
(1) Tunicate (1) iii i iv ii
(2) Moth (2) i iv ii iii
(3) Earthworm
(3) iii ii i iv
(4) Starfish
(4) iv iii ii i
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61. Which of the following is an amino acid derived 65. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain
hormone ? pregnancy are
(1) Ecdysone (1) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin

(2) Estradiol (2) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens

(3) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
(3) Epinephrine
(4) hCG, progestogens, estrogens,
(4) Estriol
glucocorticoids

62. Which of the following structures or regions is

66. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’
incorrectly paired with its function ?
(1) increases the concentration of estrogen and
(1) Limbic system : consists of fibre
prevents ovulation in females.
tracts that
interconnect (2) is an IUD.
different regions of (3) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
brain; controls
preventing eggs from getting implanted.
movement.
(4) is a post-coital contraceptive.
(2) Hypothalamus : production of
releasing hormones
and regulation of 67. The difference between spermiogenesis and
temperature, spermiation is
hunger and thirst.
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed,
(3) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration while in spermiation spermatids are
and cardiovascular
formed.
reflexes.
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli
(4) Corpus callosum : band of fibers
cells are released into the cavity of
connecting left and
right cerebral seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
hemispheres. spermatozoa are formed.
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
63. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in while in spermiation spermatozoa are
its place by formed.
(1) ligaments attached to the iris (4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed,
(2) smooth muscles attached to the iris while in spermiation spermatozoa are
(3) ligaments attached to the ciliary body released from sertoli cells into the cavity of
(4) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body seminiferous tubules.

64. Which of the following hormones can play a 68. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
significant role in osteoporosis ? from
(1) Progesterone and Aldosterone (1) endoderm and mesoderm
(2) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone (2) mesoderm and trophoblast
(3) Aldosterone and Prolactin (3) ectoderm and mesoderm
(4) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin (4) ectoderm and endoderm
ALHCA/YY/Page 7 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English
69. Among the following sets of examples for 75. Which one of the following population
divergent evolution, select the incorrect option : interactions is widely used in medical science for
(1) Heart of bat, man and cheetah the production of antibiotics ?
(2) Brain of bat, man and cheetah (1) Mutualism
(3) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah (2) Parasitism
(4) Eye of octopus, bat and man (3) Commensalism
(4) Amensalism
70. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
disease ? 76. Match the items given in Column I with those in
(1) Rheumatoid arthritis Column II and select the correct option given
(2) Alzheimer’s disease below :
(3) Psoriasis Column I Column II
(4) Vitiligo a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
71. In which disease does mosquito transmitted
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient
lymphatic vessels ? enrichment
(1) Ascariasis d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal
(2) Ringworm disease a b c d
(3) Elephantiasis (1) i iii iv ii
(4) Amoebiasis (2) iii iv i ii
(3) ii i iii iv
72. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
nutritional value by increasing the amount of (4) i ii iv iii
(1) Vitamin A
77. All of the following are included in ‘Ex-situ
(2) Vitamin B12 conservation’ except
(3) Vitamin D (1) Sacred groves
(4) Vitamin E (2) Botanical gardens

73. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs (3) Wildlife safari parks
of many vertebrates is an example of (4) Seed banks
(1) Analogy
78. In a growing population of a country,
(2) Convergent evolution
(1) reproductive individuals are less than the
(3) Homology post-reproductive individuals.
(4) Adaptive radiation (2) reproductive and pre-reproductive
74. Which of the following characteristics represent individuals are equal in number.
‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans ? (3) pre-reproductive individuals are more than
a. Dominance the reproductive individuals.
b. Co-dominance (4) pre-reproductive individuals are less than
c. Multiple allele the reproductive individuals.
d. Incomplete dominance 79. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the
e. Polygenic inheritance drug ‘‘Smack’’ ?
(1) a, b and c (1) Latex
(2) b, d and e (2) Roots
(3) b, c and e (3) Flowers
(4) a, c and e (4) Leaves

ALHCA/YY/Page 8 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

80. All of the following are part of an operon except 85. Match the items given in Column I with those in
(1) structural genes Column II and select the correct option given
(2) an enhancer below :
(3) an operator Column I Column II
(4) a promoter
a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of uric
81. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her acid in joints
X chromosomes. This chromosome can be b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised
inherited by salts within the kidney
(1) Only sons
c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in
(2) Only grandchildren glomeruli
(3) Only daughters
d. Glomerular iv. Presence of glucose in
(4) Both sons and daughters nephritis urine
82. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of a b c d
evolution is
(1) i ii iii iv
(1) Saltation
(2) ii iii i iv
(2) Phenotypic variations
(3) iii ii iv i
(3) Multiple step mutations
(4) Minor mutations (4) iv i ii iii

83. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding 86. Match the items given in Column I with those in
strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding Column II and select the correct option given
sequence of the transcribed mRNA ? below :
(1) UGGTUTCGCAT Column I Column II
(2) ACCUAUGCGAU (Function) (Part of Excretory
(3) AGGUAUCGCAU System)
(4) UCCAUAGCGUA a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle’s loop
84. Match the items given in Column I with those in b. Concentration ii. Ureter
Column II and select the correct option given of urine
below :
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder
Column I Column II urine
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of
d. Storage of urine iv. Malpighian
endometrial
corpuscle
lining
b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase v. Proximal
convoluted tubule
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase
a b c d
a b c
(1) iv i ii iii
(1) i iii ii
(2) ii iii i (2) v iv i ii

(3) iii ii i (3) iv v ii iii

(4) iii i ii (4) v iv i iii

ALHCA/YY/Page 9 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

87. Which of the following is an occupational 91. A battery consists of a variable number ‘n’ of
respiratory disorder ? identical cells (having internal resistance ‘r’
each) which are connected in series. The
(1) Silicosis terminals of the battery are short-circuited and
(2) Botulism the current I is measured. Which of the graphs
shows the correct relationship between I and n ?
(3) Anthracis
(4) Emphysema

88. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle

contraction because it
(1) activates the myosin ATPase by binding to
it.
(2) detaches the myosin head from the actin
filament.
(3) binds to troponin to remove the masking of
active sites on actin for myosin.
(4) prevents the formation of bonds between
the myosin cross bridges and the actin
filament.

89. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly

help in erythropoiesis ?
(1) Mucous cells
(2) Goblet cells 92. A carbon resistor of (47  4·7) k is to be marked
(3) Chief cells with rings of different colours for its
identification. The colour code sequence will be
(4) Parietal cells
(1) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
90. Match the items given in Column I with those in (2) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
Column II and select the correct option given (3) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver
below : (4) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
Column I Column II
93. A set of ‘n’ equal resistors, of value ‘R’ each, are
a. Fibrinogen i. Osmotic balance connected in series to a battery of emf ‘E’ and
b. Globulin ii. Blood clotting internal resistance ‘R’. The current drawn is I.
Now, the ‘n’ resistors are connected in parallel to
c. Albumin iii. Defence mechanism the same battery. Then the current drawn from
battery becomes 10 I. The value of ‘n’ is
a b c
(1) 11
(1) i ii iii
(2) 20
(2) i iii ii
(3) 10
(3) iii ii i
(4) 9
(4) ii iii i
ALHCA/YY/Page 10 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English
94. An em wave is propagating in a medium with a 98. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity
 ^ 
velocity V = V i . The instantaneous oscillating ^
V = V0 i (V0 > 0) enters an electric field
 ^
electric field of this em wave is along +y axis. E = – E0 i (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is
Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its
the em wave will be along de-Broglie wavelength at time t is
(1) + z direction
 eE0 
(2) – y direction (1) 0  1  t
 mV0 
(3) – z direction
(2) 0 t
(4) – x direction
0
(3)
95. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain  eE0 
1  t
inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the  mV0 

inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance
(4) 0
(1) 138·88 H
(2) 1·389 H 99. When the light of frequency 2v0 (where v0 is
threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
(3) 0·138 H
plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted
(4) 13·89 H is v1. When the frequency of the incident
radiation is increased to 5v0, the maximum
96. The refractive index of the material of a prism is
velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate
2 and the angle of the prism is 30. One of the is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a (1) 1:4
mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of (2) 4:1
monochromatic light entering the prism from the (3) 1:2
other face will retrace its path (after reflection (4) 2:1
from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence
100. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of
on the prism is
an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom,
(1) 45 is
(2) 30 (1) 1:–1
(3) 60 (2) 2:–1
(4) zero (3) 1:1
(4) 1:–2
97. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a
concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object 101. For a radioactive material, half-life is
10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of
is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards
nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the
the mirror, the displacement of the image will be
disintegration of 450 nuclei is
(1) 36 cm away from the mirror (1) 10
(2) 30 cm towards the mirror (2) 30
(3) 30 cm away from the mirror (3) 20
(4) 36 cm towards the mirror (4) 15
ALHCA/YY/Page 11 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English
102. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane 105. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a
surface of a material of refractive index ‘’. At a resistor 50  are connected in series across a
source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in
particular angle of incidence ‘i’, it is found that
the circuit is
the reflected and refracted rays are
(1) 0·43 W
perpendicular to each other. Which of the
(2) 2·74 W
following options is correct for this situation ?
(3) 0·79 W
(1) Reflected light is polarised with its electric
(4) 1·13 W
vector perpendicular to the plane of
incidence 106. A metallic rod of mass per unit length
–1
0·5 kg m is lying horizontally on a smooth
–1  1 
(2) i = sin   inclined plane which makes an angle of 30 with
 the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide
(3) Reflected light is polarised with its electric down by flowing a current through it when a
vector parallel to the plane of incidence magnetic field of induction 0·25 T is acting on it
in the vertical direction. The current flowing in
–1  1  the rod to keep it stationary is
(4) i = tan  
 (1) 5·98 A
(2) 14·76 A
(3) 7·14 A
103. In Young’s double slit experiment the separation
(4) 11·32 A
d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength  of
the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between 107. Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer
the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular
angular width of the fringes is 0·20. To increase deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V.
the fringe angular width to 0·21 (with same  The resistance of the galvanometer is
(1) 25 
and D) the separation between the slits needs to
(2) 250 
be changed to
(3) 40 
(1) 1·9 mm
(4) 500 
(2) 2·1 mm
108. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
(3) 1·8 mm
between the poles of an electromagnet. When the
(4) 1·7 mm current in the electromagnet is switched on, then
the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the
horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains
104. An astronomical refracting telescope will have
gravitational potential energy. The work
large angular magnification and high angular
required to do this comes from
resolution, when it has an objective lens of
(1) the magnetic field
(1) large focal length and small diameter
(2) the lattice structure of the material of the
(2) large focal length and large diameter rod

(3) small focal length and large diameter (3) the current source
(4) the induced electric field due to the
(4) small focal length and small diameter
changing magnetic field

ALHCA/YY/Page 12 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

109. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a 113. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with
glass tube. The length of the air column in this its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The
tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat
room temperature of 27C two successive absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of state A to state B, is
column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork
is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27C is
(1) 339 m/s
(2) 350 m/s
(3) 330 m/s
(4) 300 m/s
2
110. An electron falls from rest through a vertical (1)
3
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
1
directed electric field E. The direction of electric (2)
field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the 3
same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it 2
(3)
through the same vertical distance h. The time of 5
fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of 2
fall of the proton is (4)
7
(1) 5 times greater
114. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working
(2) 10 times greater between the freezing point and boiling point of
(3) smaller water, is
(1) 20%
(4) equal
(2) 6·25%
111. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a (3) 26·8%
sufficiently high building and is moving freely to (4) 12·5%
and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The
115. At what temperature will the rms speed of
acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is
2 oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
20 m/s at a distance of 5 m from the mean
escaping from the Earth’s atmosphere ?
position. The time period of oscillation is
(Given :
(1)  s –26
Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2·76  10 kg
(2) 2 s –23 –1
Boltzmann’s constant kB = 1·38  10 JK )
(3) 2 s 4
(1) 8·360  10 K
(4) 1 s 4
(2) 5·016  10 K
112. The electrostatic force between the metal plates 4
(3) 2·508  10 K
of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a
4
charge Q and area A, is (4) 1·254  10 K
(1) linearly proportional to the
distance 116. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
between the plates. pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
(2) proportional to the square root of the organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe
distance between the plates. is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is
(3) independent of the distance between the (1) 8 cm
plates. (2) 12·5 cm
(4) inversely proportional to the distance (3) 13·2 cm
between the plates. (4) 16 cm
ALHCA/YY/Page 13 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English
117. Two wires are made of the same material and 121. In the combination of the following gates the
have the same volume. The first wire has output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and
cross-sectional area A and the second wire has
B as
cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first
wire is increased by  l on applying a force F,
how much force is needed to stretch the second
wire by the same amount ?
(1) 6 F
(2) 4 F
(3) 9 F
(4) F – –
(1) A . B + A . B
118. A sample of 0·1 g of water at 100C and normal (2)
5 –2 A.B +A.B
pressure (1·013  10 Nm ) requires 54 cal of
heat energy to convert to steam at 100C. If the (3) A.B
volume of the steam produced is 167·1 cc, the
change in internal energy of the sample, is (4) AB
(1) 208·7 J
(2) 42·2 J 122. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
(3) 104·3 J voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
(4) 84·5 J values of IB, IC and  are given by

119. The power radiated by a black body is P and it

radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0. If
the temperature of the black body is now
changed so that it radiates maximum energy at
3
wavelength  , the power radiated by it
4 0
becomes nP. The value of n is
4
(1)
3
256
(2)
81 (1) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200
3
(3) (2) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250
4
81 (3) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250
(4)
256
(4) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125
120. A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a
viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due 123. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
to viscous force. The rate of production of heat due to heating
when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is
proportional to (1) affects only forward resistance
2 (2) does not affect resistance of p-n junction
(1) r
5
(2) r (3) affects only reverse resistance
3
(3) r (4) affects the overall V – I characteristics of
(4) r
4 p-n junction

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  ^ ^ ^
124. The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical 128. The moment of the force, F = 4 i + 5 j – 6 k at
orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are (2, 0, – 3), about the point (2, – 2, – 2), is given by
KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is the major ^ ^ ^
(1) – 4 i – j – 8 k
axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the ^ ^ ^
(2) – 7 i – 8 j – 4 k
position of the Sun S as shown in the figure.
^ ^ ^
Then (3) – 8 i – 4 j – 7 k
^ ^ ^
(4) – 7 i – 4 j – 8 k
129. A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless
horizontal plane surface under the influence of a
 
uniform electric field E . Due to the force q E ,
(1) KA > KB > K C its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one
(2) KB < KA < K C second duration. At that instant the direction of
the field is reversed. The car continues to move
(3) KA < KB < K C for two more seconds under the influence of this
(4) KB > KA > K C field. The average velocity and the average speed
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
125. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling respectively
motion a body possesses translational kinetic (1) 1 m/s, 3 m/s
energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy (2) 1 m/s, 3·5 m/s
(Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for (3) 2 m/s, 4 m/s
the sphere is (4) 1·5 m/s, 3 m/s
130. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined
(1) 5:7 wedge ABC of inclination  as shown in the
(2) 10 : 7 figure. The wedge is given an acceleration ‘a’
(3) 7 : 10 towards the right. The relation between a and 
for the block to remain stationary on the wedge
(4) 2:5 is
126. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller
and the universal gravitational constant were
ten times larger in magnitude, which of the
following is not correct ?
(1) Walking on the ground would become more
difficult. g
(1) a=
(2) Time period of a simple pendulum on the sin 
Earth would decrease. (2) a = g cos 
(3) Raindrops will fall faster. g
(3) a=
(4) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change. cosec 
(4) a = g tan 
127. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its 131. A student measured the diameter of a small steel
symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the ball using a screw gauge of least count
sphere is increased keeping its mass same. 0·001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
Which of the following physical quantities would zero of circular scale division coincides with
remain constant for the sphere ? 25 divisions above the reference level. If screw
gauge has a zero error of – 0·004 cm, the correct
(1) Moment of inertia diameter of the ball is
(2) Rotational kinetic energy (1) 0·525 cm
(2) 0·053 cm
(3) Angular velocity (3) 0·521 cm
(4) Angular momentum (4) 0·529 cm
ALHCA/YY/Page 15 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English
132. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin 136. The correct difference between first- and
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have second-order reactions is that
the same mass M and radius R. They all spin (1) the half-life of a first-order reaction does not
with the same angular speed  about their own depend on [A]0; the half-life of a
symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) second-order reaction does depend on [A] 0
required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the
relation (2) a first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a
second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed
(1) WA > WB > WC
(3) the rate of a first-order reaction does not
(2) WB > WA > WC depend on reactant concentrations; the rate
(3) WC > WB > WA of a second-order reaction does depend on
reactant concentrations
(4) WA > WC > WB (4) the rate of a first-order reaction does
133. A moving block having mass m, collides with depend on reactant concentrations; the rate
another stationary block having mass 4m. The of a second-order reaction does not depend
lighter block comes to rest after collision. When on reactant concentrations
the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then
137. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic
the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be
character is
(1) 0·25
(2) 0·8 (1) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
(3) 0·5 (2) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
(4) 0·4 (3) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
134. A body initially at rest and sliding along a (4) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
the figure) just completes a vertical circle of 138. In which case is the number of molecules of water
diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to maximum ?
(1) 0·18 g of water
(2) 0·00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and
273 K
(3) 18 mL of water
–3
(4) 10 mol of water
(1) D
7 139. Consider the change in oxidation state of
(2) D
5 Bromine corresponding to different emf values as
3 shown in the diagram below :
(3) D
2
5
(4) D
4
135. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect ?
Then the species undergoing disproportionation
(1) Limiting value of static friction is directly is
proportional to normal reaction.
(2) Frictional force opposes the relative motion. (1) Br O 4–

(3) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding (2) Br2

friction.
(3) Br O 3–
(4) Coefficient of sliding friction has
dimensions of length. (4) HBrO
ALHCA/YY/Page 16 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English
140. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone pairs 146. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers,
of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(1) two (1) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional
monomers.
(2) four
(2) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
(3) one
(3) They contain covalent bonds between
(4) three
various linear polymer chains.
141. The correct order of N-compounds in its (4) They contain strong covalent bonds in their
decreasing order of oxidation states is polymer chains.
(1) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 147. The difference between amylose and amylopectin
(2) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2 is
(1) Amylose have 14 -linkage and
(3) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl 1  6 -linkage
(4) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3 (2) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
1  6 -linkage
142. Which one of the following elements is unable to
3–
(3) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
form MF6 ion ? 1  6 -linkage
(1) Al (4) Amylose is made up of glucose and
galactose
(2) B
(3) Ga 148. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also
gives m-nitroaniline because
(4) In
(1) In electrophilic substitution reactions
143. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 amino group is meta directive.
elements is (2) In absence of substituents nitro group
always goes to m-position.
(1) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(3) In spite of substituents nitro group always
(2) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In goes to only m-position.
(3) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl (4) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present
(4) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl as anilinium ion.

144. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the 149. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in
following metals can be used to reduce alumina ? nature ?
(1) BeO
(1) Zn
(2) BaO
(2) Mg
(3) MgO
(3) Fe
(4) CaO
(4) Cu
150. A mixture of 2·3 g formic acid and 4·5 g oxalic
145. Which of the following statements is not true for acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved
halogens ? gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets.
(1) All are oxidizing agents. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP
(2) All but fluorine show positive oxidation will be
states. (1) 3·0
(3) All form monobasic oxyacids. (2) 2·8
(4) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain (3) 1·4
enthalpy. (4) 4·4
ALHCA/YY/Page 17 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English
151. The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, 155. Which of the following molecules represents the
2 2
and with PCl5 gives C. B and C react together to order of hybridisation sp , sp , sp, sp from left to
give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order right atoms ?

(1) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa (1) CH2 = CH – C  CH

(2) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2

(2) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH
(3) HC  C – C  CH
(3) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl
(4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
(4) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
156. Which of the following carbocations is expected to
152. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by be most stable ?
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
atoms. (A) is

(1) CH2 = CH2

(2) CH3 – CH3

(3) CH  CH

(4) CH4

153. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common

pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both
due to natural and human activity ?
(1) NO2

(2) N2O

(3) N2O5

(4) NO

154. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following

reactions :

157. Which of the following is correct with respect to

The product ‘C’ is
– I effect of the substituents ? (R = alkyl)
(1) o-bromotoluene (1) – NR2 < – OR < – F
(2) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene (2) – NH2 > – OR > – F
(3) m-bromotoluene (3) – NH2 < – OR < – F
(4) p-bromotoluene (4) – NR2 > – OR > – F

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158. In the reaction 161. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
following sequence of reactions :

the electrophile involved is


(1) formyl cation ( CHO )

(2) dichloromethyl anion ( )


(3) dichloromethyl cation ( CHCl 2 )

(4) dichlorocarbene (:CCl2)

159. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than

aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
comparable molecular mass. It is due to their
(1) formation of carboxylate ion
(2) more extensive association of carboxylic
acid via van der Waals force of attraction
(3) formation of intramolecular H-bonding
(4) formation of intermolecular H-bonding

160. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with

NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic
smell.
A and Y are respectively

162. Which of the following compounds can form a

zwitterion ?

(1) Acetanilide

(2) Benzoic acid

(3) Aniline

(4) Glycine

ALHCA/YY/Page 19 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

163. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation 168. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature.
corresponds to Above 900C, it transforms to fcc structure. The
(1) volume of the gas molecules ratio of density of iron at room temperature to
(2) electric field present between the gas that at 900C (assuming molar mass and atomic
molecules radii of iron remains constant with temperature)
is
(3) density of the gas molecules
(4) forces of attraction between the gas 4 3
(1)
molecules 3 2
3 3
164. For the redox reaction (2)
– + 2+ 4 2
Mn O 4– + C2 O42 + H  Mn + CO2 + H2O
3
the correct coefficients of the reactants for the (3)
balanced equation are 2
+ 1
Mn O 4– C 2O 2 – H (4)
4 2
(1) 2 5 16
169. Consider the following species :
(2) 2 16 5 + –
CN , CN , NO and CN
(3) 16 5 2
Which one of these will have the highest bond
(4) 5 16 2
order ?
165. When initial concentration of the reactant is –
(1) CN
doubled, the half-life period of a zero order (2) CN
+
reaction
(3) NO
(1) is doubled
(4) CN
(2) is tripled
(3) is halved 170. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an
(4) remains unchanged ionic compound. If the ground state electronic
2 2 3
configuration of (X) is 1s 2s 2p , the simplest
166. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY formula for this compound is
are in the ratio of 1 : 0·5 : 1. H for the formation
–1 (1) MgX2
of XY is – 200 kJ mol . The bond dissociation
energy of X will be (2) Mg2X
2
–1 (3) Mg2X3
(1) 100 kJ mol
–1 (4) Mg3X2
(2) 800 kJ mol
–1 171. Which one is a wrong statement ?
(3) 200 kJ mol
–1 (1) An orbital is designated by three quantum
(4) 400 kJ mol
numbers while an electron in an atom is
167. Which one of the following conditions will favour designated by four quantum numbers.
maximum formation of the product in the (2) The electronic configuration of N atom is
reaction,
A2 (g) + B2 (g) 
X2 (g) rH = – X kJ ?
(1) Low temperature and low pressure
(2) High temperature and high pressure (3) Total orbital angular momentum of electron
(3) Low temperature and high pressure in ‘s’ orbital is equal to zero.
(4) High temperature and low pressure (4) The value of m for d z 2 is zero.

ALHCA/YY/Page 20 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

172. Following solutions were prepared by mixing 176. The type of isomerism shown by the complex
different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different [CoCl2(en)2] is
concentrations :
(1) Coordination isomerism
M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH (2) Ionization isomerism
10 10
(3) Geometrical isomerism
M M
b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH (4) Linkage isomerism
10 10
M M 177. Which one of the following ions exhibits
c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH d-d transition and paramagnetism as well ?
5 5
2–
M M (1) Cr2O7
d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10 –
(2) MnO 4
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1 ?
2–
(1) a (3) CrO 4
(2) d 2–
(4) MnO 4
(3) b
(4) c 178. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is

173. On which of the following properties does the (1) mononuclear

coagulating power of an ion depend ? (2) trinuclear
(1) Size of the ion alone (3) tetranuclear
(2) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on (4) dinuclear
the ion
179. Match the metal ions given in Column I with the
(3) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
spin magnetic moments of the ions given in
alone
Column II and assign the correct code :
(4) The sign of charge on the ion alone
Column I Column II
174. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2 a. Co
3+
i. 8 B.M.
and CO2 are respectively 4·17, 0·244, 1·36 and 3+
3·59, which one of the following gases is most b. Cr ii. 35 B.M.
3+
easily liquefied ? c. Fe iii. 3 B.M.
(1) H2 d. Ni
2+
iv. 24 B.M.
(2) O2
v. 15 B.M.
(3) NH3
a b c d
(4) CO2
(1) i ii iii iv
175. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is (2) iv i ii iii
–3 –1
2·42  10 gL at 298 K. The value of its
(3) iv v ii i
solubility product (Ksp) will be
–1 (4) iii v i ii
(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol )
–12 2 –2
180. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
(1) 1·08  10 mol L complex [Ni(CO)4] are
–14 2 –2
(2) 1·08  10 mol L (1) tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
–10 2 –2 (2) square planar geometry and paramagnetic
(3) 1·08  10 mol L
(3) square planar geometry and diamagnetic
–8 2 –2
(4) 1·08  10 mol L (4) tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
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 Read carefully the following instructions :

1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.

2. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave

his/her seat.

3. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer
Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a
candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed not to
have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.

4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per
Rules and Regulations of this examination.

6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

7. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer
Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.

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