NMAT REVIEW 2018

GENETICS
MODULE A
1. Genetics is the study of heredity or the transfer of DNA among
different cells and organisms. Cells divide and reproduce in two ways,
namely mitosis and meiosis. Which of the following is true of mitosis?
I. Mitosis occurs only in somatic cells.
II. The end products of mitosis are two identical daughter cells.
III. The end products of mitosis are diploid.
IV. Mitosis occurs in order to produce haploid gametes.
V. Mitosis undergoes one round of cell division.

a. I, III, and V c. II, III, and V

b. I, II, and IV d. All of the following
2. Cell division involves multiple phases, namely prophase,
prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. Before
a cell undergoes cell division, however, it must first go
through interphase. What happens during interphase?

a. The migration of two pairs of centrioles to opposite ends of

the cell to establish poles
b. The replication of DNA
c. The movement of daughter chromosomes to the opposite
poles of the cell
d. The formation of the cleavage furrow
3. Interphase has multiple steps that ensure the quality of
the genetic material of the cell that will undergo division.
What phase of interphase is characterized by the doubling
in size of cytoplasmic material?

a. G1 c. S
b. G2 d. G0
4. Meiosis occurs only in gametic cells. It ensures that the
gametes produced has the complementary number of
chromosomes. It also functions in the production of
genetically unique individuals. What meiotic event results in
genetic exchange between members of each homologous
pair of chromosomes?

a. Reductional division c. Synapsis

b. Equational division d. Crossing over
5. Gamete formation between sexes differ in that
I. Spermatogenesis takes place in the testes and oogenesis
occurs in the ovaries
II. Spermatogenesis produces four sperm cells from one
spermatogonia while oogenesis produces only one egg cell
from one oogonia
III. In spermatogenesis, the meiotic divisions may occur
continuously. In contrast, the meiotic divisions of oogenesis
may not be continuous.

a. I c. I and III
b. I and II d. All of the following
6. Oogenesis is completed only

a. After fertilization occurs

b. After ovulation occurs
c. Prior to fertilization
d. Prior to ovulation
7. A cell with 10 chromosomes undergoes mitosis. How
many daughter cells are created? _____, each daughter
cell has _____ chromosomes.

a. 2, 10 b. 10, 2 c. 1, 10 d. 2, 20
8. Brain cells of the housefly Musca domestica have 6 pairs
of chromosomes. Therefore, it can be concluded that

a. The fly’s diploid number is 24.

b. The fly’s haploid number is 12.
c. The fly’s haploid number is 3.
d. The fly’s haploid number is 6.
For numbers 9 and 10, if an organism has a diploid number of 16,

9. How many chromatids are visible at the end of the first meiotic
prophase?
a. 16 c. 8
b. 32 d. 64

10. How many chromosomes are moving to each pole during the
second meiotic anaphase?
a. 16 c. 8
b. 32 d. 64
11. Gregor Mendel, the father of genetics, performed his
hybridization experiments with the garden pea. He conducted
his study for almost two decades on thousands of pea plants.
Classic Mendelian genetics is characterized by the presence of

a. A series of 3 or more alternative alleles of any gene

b. Trait that mix together to form a new trait
c. Dominant traits that are both expressed at the same time
d. A dominant and a recessive trait
For numbers 12 to 15, match the word with its definition.
a. Genotype c. Gene
b. Phenotype d. Allele

12. Unit factors of inheritance

13. Designates the genetic makeup of an individual for the trait or
traits it describes, whether the individual is haploid or diploid
14. Physical expressions of the information contained in unit
factors
15. Alternative forms of a single gene
16. In a classic Mendelian cross, which of the following
crosses would always result in offspring that only display the
dominant phenotype?

a. DD x dd c. Dd x Dd
b. Dd x dd d. None of the above
17. Which of the following Mendelian crosses results to a
genotypic ratio of 1:2:1?

a. DD x dd c. Dd x Dd
b. Dd x dd d. None of the above
18. A woman who has dimples is married to a man who does
not have such feature. Two of their four children are also
dimpled. Which of the following represents the cross
between the parents if “A” represents the dominant dimpled
allele and “a”, the recessive non-dimpled allele?

a. Aa x AA c. Aa x Aa
b. AA x aa d. Aa x aa
19. A cross between a true-breeding sharp-spined cactus and
a spineless cactus would produce

a. All sharp-spined progeny

b. All spineless progeny
c. 50% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined progeny
d. 25% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined, 25% spineless
progeny
20. Some plants fail to produce chlorophyll, and this trait appears
to be recessive. If we locate a plant that is heterozygous for this
trait, self-pollinate it and harvest seeds, what are the likely
phenotypes of these seeds when they germinate?

a. All will be green with chlorophyll since that is the dominant trait.
b. All will be white and lack chlorophyll since this is self-pollinated.
c. About one-fourth will be white and three-fourths green since it
is similar to a monohybrid cross.
d. About one-fourth will be green and three-fourths white since it
is similar to a monohybrid cross.
21. A testcross is done to individuals that express two dominant
traits but whose genotypes are unknown. When a yellow, round
shaped seed of unknown genotype was testcrossed, its resulting
progeny have the following genotypes: GgWw and ggWw. What is
the genotype of the yellow, round shaped seed? Note: Yellow (G);
green (g); round (W); wrinkled (w).

a. GGWW c. GgWW
b. GGWw d. GgWw
22. If a human who is a tongue roller (T) and has unattached
ear lobes (E) marries a person who cannot roll their tongue
and has attached earlobes, could they produce an offspring
that was also a non-tongue roller with attached earlobes?
What would be the genotype of the first parent? The second
parent?

a. no; TTEE; ttee c. yes; TtEE; ttEe

b. yes; TtEe; ttee d. yes: TTEe; ttee
23. Given the trihybrid cross between AaBbCc x AaBBCc,
what is the resulting phenotypic ratio?

a. 2:3:3:2
b. 1:2:2:1
c. 1:1:1:1
d. 9:3:3:1
For numbers 24 and 25, the following pedigree is for myopia
(nearsightedness) in humans.

24. Determine the

genotype of the P1

a. aa x Aa
b. Aa x AA
c. AA x aa
d. All of the following
For numbers 24 and 25, the following pedigree is for myopia
(nearsightedness) in humans.

25. What is the mode of

inheritance of the
disorder?

a. Autosomal dominant
b. Autosomal recessive
c. X-linked recessive
d. Sex-linked dominant
26. In non-Mendelian patterns of inheritance, alleles may be
present in more than 2 contrasting expressions. Which non-
Mendelian pattern of inheritance involves two genes and
results in the formation of four different phenotypes?

a. Incomplete dominance
b. Codominance
c. Multiple alleles
d. Factor interaction
27. In four o’ clock flower, Mirabilis jalapa, red color is
incompletely dominant over white. Red Mirabilis is crossed
with a pink variety. Which of the following phenotypes may
describe the offsprings of this cross?

a. 100% produce red flowers

b. 100% produce pink flowers
c. 75% produce red flower
d. 50% produce red flowers
28. A gardener found out that when white petunias and
purple petunias were crossed, only blue petunias were
produced. The greatest percentage of white petunias could
be obtained from the crossing of…

a. purple and blue petunias

b. white and blue petunias
c. purple and purple petunias
d. blue and blue petunias
29. In cattle, roan coat color (mixed red and white hairs)
occurs in the heterozygous (RR’) offspring of red (RR)
and white (R’R’) homozygotes. Which of the following
crosses would produce offspring in the ratio of 1 red : 2
roan : 1 white?

a. red × white c. white × roan

b. roan × roan d. roan × red
30. In certain fish species, a cross between a red-scaled fish
and a blue-scaled fish results to progeny that exhibit a
patchwork of both blue and red scales. What is the
phenotype of the F1 generation when a blue-scaled fish is
crossed with a blue and red-scaled fish?

a. 25% blue, 50% blue and red, 25% red

b. 75% blue and red, 25% blue
c. 50% blue, 50% blue and red
d. 50% blue, 50% red
31. A family of six includes four children, each of whom has
a different blood type: A, B, AB and O. What are the
genotypes of parents for this trait?

a. IAIB x IAIB c. IAIi x IBIi

b. IAIA x IBIB d. IiIi x IiIi
32. In foxes, two alleles of a single gene, P and p, may
result in lethality (PP), platinum coat (Pp), or silver coat
(pp). What ratio is obtained when platinum foxes are
interbred?

a. 2 Platinum : 1 Silver
b. 2 Silver : 1 Platinum
c. 1 Deceased : 2 Platinum : 1 Silver
d. 1 Deceased: 2 Silver : 1 Platinum
33. In birds, sex is determined by a ZW chromosome
scheme. Males are ZZ and females are ZW. A lethal recessive
allele that causes death of the embryo is sometimes present
on the Z chromosome in pigeons. What would be the sex
ratio in the offspring of a cross between a male that is
heterozygous for the lethal allele and a normal female?

a. 2:1 male to female

b. 1:2 male to female
c. 1:1 male to female
d. 4:3 male to female
34. Red-green color blindness is inherited as an X-linked
recessive trait. If a color-blind woman marries a man who has
normal vision, what would be the expected phenotypes of
their children with reference to this character?

a. All children have normal vision

b. All sons have normal vision while all the daughters are
color-blind
c. All sons are color-blind while all the daughters are carriers
d. All daughters are color-blind while all the sons are carriers
35. The central dogma of molecular genetics involves three
steps, namely replication, transcription, and translation.
Which of the following steps involves the synthesis of new
DNA strands with the use of a polymerase?

a. Replication c. Translation
b. Transcription d. Synthesis
36. What is the name of the process by which information
coded in RNA is used to assemble a particular amino acid
sequence?

a. Translation c. Synthesis
b. Transcription d. Punctuation
37. Which of the following is required for DNA replication to
occur?

a. DNA helicase c. DNA polymerase

b. DNA ligase d. All of these
38. Which of the following correctly ranks the structure in
order of size from largest to the smallest?

a. gene-chromosome-nucleotide-codon
b. chromosome-gene-codon-nucleotide
c. nucleotide-chromosome-gene-codon
d. gene-chromosome-codon-nucleotide
39. Okazaki fragments form the

a. Lagging strand c. Base pairs

b. Leading strand d. 5’ end
40. The “rungs” of the DNA ladder are made of. . .

a. Phosphates and bases

b. Sugars & phosphates
c. Sugars
d. Bases
41. DNA is the master blueprint of hereditary instructions in
cells. It is assembled from small organic molecules called
nucleotides. All nucleotides have a five carbon sugar
(deoxyribose) and a phosphate group. They also have one of
four nitrogen-containing bases; adenine, thymine, guanine,
or cytosine. The DNA of one species differs from another in
its

a. Sugar c. Base pair sequence

b. Phosphate groups d. All of the above
42. Which of the following single-stranded DNA sequences
contains ONLY pyrimidines?

a. ATATAT c. GCGCGC
b. ACACACAC d. CTCCTCT
43. In analyzing, the number of different bases in a DNA
sample, which result would be consistent with the base
pairing rule?
a. A=G c. A+T=G+C
b. A+G=C+T d. A=C

• Complementary Base Pairing according to Erwin Chargaff:

• Adenine (A) hydrogen bonds with Thymine (T)
• Guanine (G) hydrogen bonds with Cytosine (C)
• The total number of pyrimidines(C+T) is equal to the total
number of purines (A+G).
44. RNA molecules differ from DNA in the following ways
except

a. It is smaller
b. It is single stranded
c. It contains no adenine
d. It has ribose, not deoxyribose as its five carbon sugar
 DNA & RNA comparison
RNA DNA
Sugar Ribose Deoxyribose
Bases Adenine Adenine
Guanine Guanine
Cytosine Cytosine
Uracil Thymine

Strand Single Stranded Double-

stranded
Length Short polymer Long Polymer
45. The nucleotide sequence of a DNA codon is GTA. A
messenger RNA molecule with a complementary codon is
transcribed from the DNA. In the process of protein synthesis,
a transfer RNA pairs with the mRNA codon. What is the
nucleotide sequence of the tRNA anticodon?

a. CAT b. GUA c. CAU d. CUT

46. If you were trying to locate the DNA sequence that coded
for an mRNA, in what DNA strand are you?

a. Anti-sense strand
b. Sense strand
c. Both strands
d. None of the strands

• The sense strand is the strand of DNA that has the same sequence as the mRNA, which takes
the antisense strand as its template during transcription, and eventually undergoes (typically,
not always) translation into a protein. The antisense strand is thus responsible for the RNA
that is later translated to protein, while the sense strand possesses a nearly identical makeup
to that of the mRNA.
47. Which of the following cannot alter a chromosome’s
structure?

a. Deletion c. Duplication
b. Translocation d. Transfiguration
For numbers 48 to 50, match the following genetic disorders
with its description.

a. Turner syndrome c. Klinefelter syndrome

b. Metafemale d. Polyploidy

48. Female lacking one X chromosome

49. An individual possessing XXY genotype
50. An individual possessing XXX genotype
Turner Syndrome Klinefelter Syndrome Metafemale