GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. This is a 4-section test comprising a total of 150 questions. The total duration of the test is 120
minutes.
2. The sections are as follows:
Section I - General English - 40 questions
Section II – Quantitative, Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency - 40 questions
Section III - Analytical & Logical Reasoning - 40 questions
Section IV - Current Affairs – 30 questions

3. There is no sectional time limit. You can move from one section to the next/another
4. Each question has 4 responses. Candidate should choose an appropriate response.
5. Each wrong answer attracts 25% negative marks.
6. There is no negative marking for skipped/unanswered questions.

QUANTITATIVE ABILITY
1. A test has 50 questions. A student scores 1 mark for a correct answer, 1/3 for a wrong answer, and 1/6
for not attempting a question. If the net score of a student is 32, the number of questions answered
wrongly by that student cannot be less than
a.6 b.12 c.3 d.9

2. Which one of the following conditions must p, q and r satisfy so that the following system of linear
simultaneous equations has at least one solution, such that p + q + r ≠ 0? (1. x + 2y 3z = p 2. 2x + 6y
11z = q 3. x 2y + 7z = r)
a.5q - 2q - r = 0 b.5p + 2q + r = 0 c.5p + 2q - r = 0 d.5p - 2q + r = 0

3. What is the number of distinct terms in the expansion of (a +b + c)20

a.231 b.253 c.242 d.210

4. The coefficient of x7 in the expansion of (1 – x2 + x3)(1 + x)10 is:

a.75 b.78 c.85 d.81

5. If the positive real numbers a, b and c are in Arithmetic Progression, such that abc = 4, then minimum
possible value of b is:
a.2^(3/2) b.2^(2/3) c.2^(1/3) d.None of the Above

6. If x > 2 and y > – 1, Then which of the following statements is necessarily true?
a. xy > –2 b.–x < 2y c. xy < –2 d.–x > 2y

7. Let x denote the greatest 4-digit number which when divided by 6, 7, 8, 9 and 10 leaves a remainder of
4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 respectively. Then, the sum of the four digits of x is:
a.25 b.18 c.20 d.22

8. IBM-Daksh observes that it gets a call at an interval of every 10 minutes from Seattle, at every 12
minutes from Arizona, at the interval of 20 minutes from New York and after every 25 minutes it gets the
call from Newark. If in the early morning at 5:00 a.m. it has received the calls simultaneously from all the
four destinations, then at which time it will receive the calls at a time from all places on the same day?
a.10:00 a.m. b.3:00 a.m. c.5:00 p.m. d.both (1) and (2)

9. If x and y are real numbers, then the minimum value of x2 + 4xy + 6y2 – 4y + 4 is

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a.-4 b.0 c.2 d.4

10. Ujakar and Keshab attempted to solve a quadratic equation. Ujakar made a mistake in writing down
the constant term. He ended up with the roots (4, 3). Keshab made a mistake in writing down the
coefficient of x. He got the root as (3, 2). What will be the exact roots of the original quadratic equation?
a.6,1 b.(–3, –4) c.4,3 d.(–4, –3)

11. Consider a sequence of seven consecutive integers. The average of the first five integers is n. The
average of all the seven integers is
a.n b.n+1 c.K x n, where K is a function of n d.n + (2/7)

12. Rajiv is a student in a business school. After every test he calculates his cumulative average. QT and
OB were his last two tests. 83 marks in QT increased his average by 2. 75 marks in OB further increased
his average by 1. Reasoning is the next test, if he gets 51 in Reasoning, his average will be _____?
a.63 b.62 c.61 d.60

13. In 4 years, Rs. 6000 amounts to Rs. 8000. In what time at the same rate will Rs. 525 amount to Rs.
700?
a.2 Years b.3 Years c.4 Years d.5 Years

14. Mungeri Lal has two investment plans- A and B, to choose from. Plan A offers interest of 10%
compounded annually while plan B offers simple interest of 12% per annum. Till how many years is plan
B a better investment?
a.3 b.4 c.5 d.6
15. Sumit works as a state contractor for PWD and supplies bitumen mix for road construction. He has
two varieties of bitumen, one at Rs. 42 per kg and the other at Rs. 25 per kg. How many kg of the first
variety must Sumit mix with 25 kg of the second variety, so that he may, on selling the mixture at Rs. 40
per kg, gain 25% on the outlay?
a.30 b.20 c.25 d.None of the above

16. A milkman mixes 20 litres of water with 80 litres of milk. After selling one-fourth of this mixture, he
adds water to replenish the quantity that he has sold. What is the current proportion of water to milk?
a.2:3 b.1:2 c.1:3 d.3:4

17. Weekly incomes of two persons are in the ratio of 7 : 3 and their weekly expenses are in the ratio of 5
: 2. If each of them saves Rs. 300 per week, then the weekly income of the first person is
a.Rs. 7500 b.Rs. 4500 c.Rs. 6300 d.Rs. 5400

18. Two numbers are such that their difference, their sum, and their product are to one another as 1 : 7 :
24. The product of the two numbers is:
a.6 b.12 c.24 d.48

19. Rajesh walks to and fro to a shopping mall. He spends 30 minutes shopping. If he walks at speed of
10 km an hour, he returns to home at 19.00 hours. If he walks at 15 km an hour, he returns to home at
18.30 hours. How fast must he walk in order to return home at 18.15 hours?
a. 17 km/hour b.17.5 km/hour c.18 km/hour d.None of the above

20. A man drives 150 kilometres to the seashore in 3 hours and 20 minutes. He returns from the shore to
the starting point in 4 hours and 10 minutes. Let r be the average rate for the entire trip. Then the average
rate for the trip going exceeds r, in kilometres per hour, by:
a.5 b.3 c.4 d.2

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21. A can complete a piece of work in 4 days. B takes double the time taken by A, C takes double that of
B, and D takes double that of C to complete the same task. They are paired in groups of two each. One
pair takes two thirds the time needed by the second pair to complete the work. Which is the first pair?
a.A, B b.A, C c.B, C d.A, D
22. A contract is to be completed in 50 days and 105 men were set to work, each working 8 hours a day.
After 25 days, 2/5th of the work is finished. How many additional men be employed so that the work may
be completed on time, each man now working 9 hours a day?
a.34 b.36 c.35 d.37

23. In the above figure, if ℓ(AB) is twice that of ℓ(BC), ℓ(MN) = 10 units, then find ℓ(MO).

a.12 units b.15 units c.25 units d.18 units

24. A pole has to be erected on the boundary of a circular park of diameter 13 metres in such a way that
the difference of its distances from two diametrically opposite fixed gates A and B on the boundary is 7
metres. The distance of the pole from one of the gates is:

a.8 metres b.8.25 metres c.5 metres d.None of the above

25. The radius of circle is so increased that its circumference increased by 5%. The area of the circle then
increases by
a.12.50% b.10.25% c.10.50% d.11.25%

26. The water from a roof, 9 sq. metres in area, flows down to a cylindrical container of 900 cm2 base. To
what height will the water rise in cylinder if there is a rainfall of 0.1 mm?
a.0.1 cm b.0.1 m c.0.11 cm d.1 cm

27. A regular pyramid has a square base with side 10 cm and a vertical height of 20 cm. If the height
increases by 10% of its original value and the volume is constant, the percentage change in the side of the
square base with respect to its original value is approximately:
a.+5% b.+10% c.-5% d.-10%

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28. A child consumed an ice cream of inverted right-circular conical shape from the top and left only
12.5% of the cone for her mother. If the height of the ice cream-cone was 8 cm, what was the height of
the remaining ice cream-cone?
a.2.5 cm b.3 cm c.3.5 cm d.4 cm

29. ABCD is a square with sides of length 10 units. OCD is an isosceles triangle with base CD. OC cuts
AB at point Q and OD cuts AB at point P. The area of trapezoid PQCD is 80 square units. The altitude
from O of the triangle OPQ is:
a.12 b.13 c.14 d.15

30. Two sides of a plot measure 32 meters and 24 meters and the angle between them is a perfect right
angle. The other two sides measure 25 meters each and the other three are not right angles.

a.768 b.534 c.696.5 d.684

31. A ladder 25 meters long is placed against a wall with its foot 7 meters away from the foot of the wall.
How far should the foot be drawn out so that the top of the ladder may come down by half the distance of
the total distance if the foot is drawn out?
a.6 m b.8 m c.8.75 m d.None of the above

32. If D is the midpoint of side BC of a triangle ABC and AD is the perpendicular to AC then:
a.3AC2 = BC2 – AB2 b.3BC2 = AC2 – 3AB2 c.BC2 + AC2 = 5AB2 d.None of the above

33. There are 10 stations on a railway line. The number of different journey tickets that are required by
the authorities is
a.10! b.90 c.81 d.10

34. If all letters of the word "CHCJL" be arranged in an English dictionary, what will be the 50th word?
a.HCCLJ b.LCCHJ c.LCCJH d.None of the above

35. Historical sales data of a retail store indicate that 40 percent of all customers that enter the store make
a purchase. Determine the probability that exactly two of the next three customers will make a purchase.
a.0.388 b.0.667 c.0.4 d.0.288

36. The chance of India winning a cricket match against Australia is 1/6. What is the minimum number of
matches India should play against Australia so that there is a fair chance of winning at least one match?
a.3 b.4 c.5 d.6
37. There are three similar boxes, containing (i) 6 black & 4 white balls; (ii) 3 black & 7 white balls and
(iii) 5 black & 5 white balls, respectively. If you choose one of the three boxes at random and from that
particular box pick up a ball at random, and find that to be black, what is the probability that the ball was
picked up from the second box?
a. 3/14 b.14/30 c.7/30 d.7/14

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38. The ninth term exceeds the fifth term of an A.P. by 32. The sum of the ninth and fifth terms is 114.
Find the eighth term of the A.P.
a.66 b.63 c.68 d.65

39. The first two terms of a geometric progression add up to 12. The sum of the third and the fourth terms
is 48. If the terms of the geometric progression are alternately positive and negative, then the first term is
a.-2 b.-4 c.-12 d.8
40. A ping pong ball is dropped from a 45 metres high multi-storey building. The ball bounces back three
fifth of the distance each time before coming to rest. The total distance traversed by the ball is:
a.150 m b.180 m c.175 m d.None of the above
DI-LR:
1. While Balbir had his back turned, a dog ran into his butcher shop, snatched a piece of meat off the
counter and ran out. Balbir was mad when he realised what had happened. He asked three other
shopkeepers, who had seen the dog, to describe it. The shopkeepers really didn't want to help Balbir. So
each of them made a statement which contained one truth and one lie.
A. Shopkeeper Number 1 said: ""The dog had black hair and a long tail.""
B. Shopkeeper Number 2 said: ""The dog has a short tail and wore a collar.""
C. Shopkeeper Number 3 said: ""The dog had white hair and no collar.""
Based on the above statements, which of the following could be a correct description?
(1) The dog had white hair, short tail and no collar.
(2) The dog had white hair, long tail and a collar.
(3) The dog had black hair, long tail and a collar.
(4) The dog had black hair, long tail and no collar.

2. Fact 1: Manoj said, ""Anush and I both went to a movie last night.""
Fact 2: Anush said, ""I was only studying last night.""
Fact 3: Manoj always tells the truth, but Anush sometimes lies.
If the first three statements are facts, then which of the following statements must also be a fact?
I. Anush went to a movie last night.
II. Manoj went to a movie last night.
III. Anush was studying last night.
(1) II only (2) I only (3) I and II only (4) I, II, and III
3. At 6:45 PM, Ramu is facing north-west. He turns 45 clockwise whenever his clock strikes the hour
(for example, at 1 AM, 2 AM, 3 AM, etc.). He turns 90 anticlockwise whenever his clock strikes the half-
hour (for example, at 1:30 PM, 2:30 PM, etc.). What direction is Ramu facing at 11:15 PM on the same
day?
(1) West (2) North-West (3) North-East (4) South

4. Roshan walks 30 metres North. He then turns left and walks 30 metres. He turns left again and walks
60 metres. He then walks 70 metres left. After this, he turns left again and walks 60 metres and then stops.
How far (in metres) is he from his starting point
(1) 30 (2)40 (3) 50 (4) 60
5. Renu walks towards the east then towards North and turning 45 right walks for a while and lastly turns
towards left. In which direction is he walking now?
(1) North (2) East (3) South-East (4) North-West

6. A, B, C and D are standing on the four corners of a square field as shown in the figure. From the
positions shown in the figure, A walks to North position and B walks to the East position while C decides
to walk two sides in anticlockwise direction. B walks to North and then changes his mind to take the
previous position. Identify the choice with correct positions.

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(1) A & B occupy the same position. (2) C & D occupy the same position. (3) D & B are in their
original positions. (4) B & C are diagonally opposite positions.

7.Mr Raghav went in his car to meet his friends John. He Drove 30 kms towards north and then 40 kms
towards west. He then turned to south and covered 8 kms. Further he turned to east and moved 26 kms.
Finally he turned right and drove 10 kms and then turned left to travel 19 kms. How far and in which
direction is he from the starting point?
(1) East of starting point, 5 kms (2) East of starting point, 13 kms (3) North East of
starting point, 13 kms (4) North East of starting point, 5 kms

8. If ‘independent’ is coded as ‘dniepeedntn’, how will ‘liberated’ be coded?

(1) bilerated (2) bilraedet (3) detarebil (4) bilaredet

9. In a certain code, the word ‘marvellous’ is written as ‘zneiovlohf’. How is the word ‘surprising’ written
in the same code?
(1) fkhirirmth (2)hfikirhrmt (3)fhkirirhtm (4)fheiegfgkr
10. If in a certain code beautiful is coded as 573041208, BUTTER as 504479, how is FUTURE coded in
that code?
(1) 201497 (2) 204097 (3) 704092 (4) 204079

11. In a certain coding system, ‘afraid’ is coded as ‘ekvfmia’ and ‘ghosts’ is coded as ‘kmsxxxa’ . How
will the word ‘petrified’ be coded?
(1) tixvmjmiha (2) tixvmjmiah (3) tjxwmkmjha (4) tepfirdeia

12. If a message is encoded as ‘Ea lfvia xfwpa’, what does the message actually say?
(1) No sweet dream (2) A hard task (3) A hard time (4) A hint here

13. The letters of the English alphabet are numbered from 26 to 1 such that 26 stands for A, 25 stands for
B, and so on. The assigned numbers are used to write the letters of the original alphabet. What will be the
sum total of all vowels in the sequence?
(1) 78 (2) 84 (3) 76 (4) None of these

14. Which of the following sequences denotes a valid word?

(1) 6-12-17-23 (2) 5-11-18-22 (3) 5-12-18-23 (4) 5-12-17-23

15. If each of the alphabets stands for the number which denotes it, what will be the next term in the
following sequence? Z, W, R, K, ___"
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

16. In a certain numerical code, 10 consecutive letters correspond to the digits 0 to 9 in that order. It is
also known that the four arithmetic operations are coded as ‘#’, ‘&’, ‘$’ and ‘@’, but it is not known
which symbol corresponds to which operation.
Expressions which have been encoded using the above code are as follows.
1) TT & TT = LTS
2) MNP # LP @ LN = OK
To which operation does the symbol ‘@’ correspond?
(1) Addition (2) Subtraction (3) Multiplication (4) Division
17. Which of these numbers is encoded as PNQ?
(1) 536 (2) 425 (3) 647 (4) 314

18. What is the value of MN @ LK?

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(1) 225 (2) 226 (3) 228 (4) 230

19. Which of these is equal in value to OLQ # SL $ T & Q @ R?

(1) OTP (2) OOT (3) OPT (4) OLR

20. 1200 vehicles travel every day from Point A to Point Z on a network of one-way roads as shown in
the diagram below. Points B, C, M, D and E are junctions in this network. The number adjacent to the ray
depicting each road stands for the cost (in rupees) of travelling on that road. Each vehicle takes the path of
least cost from A to Z. If two or more paths have the same cost, then the vehicles are distributed equally
on those paths.
What is the cost (in rupees) of the journey for each of the first 600 vehicles which travel from A to Z
every day?"
(1) 11 (2) 12 (3) 10 (4) 9

21. Which junctions together have the maximum traffic each day?
(1) B and C (2) D and E (3) D and M (4) M and E

22. If the cost of travel on the road from C to Z was reduced by 3 rupees, how many vehicles would travel
to junction B every day?
(1) 1200 (2) 400 (3) 300 (4) 600

23. If the costs of travel on the roads M – Z and D – E have to be changed such that 800 vehicles reach E
every day, what should be the new costs (in rupees) for these two roads?
(1) 4 and 5 (2) 2 and 6 (3) 6 and 2 (4) 5 and 4

24. The flow of energy from Generator (G) to Motor (M) in a power distribution network is as shown.
Points P, Q, R and S are capacitor banks (denoted by CB) in the network. The arrows mark the direction
of the energy flow. The energy loss (in Rs. ’00) in the power lines during the flow is indicated by the
numbers adjacent to the arrows. An energy analyst has to make sure that when the energy flows from G to
M, it flows through a path where the total energy loss (in Rs. ’00) is minimal. There is an additional
energy loss (in Rs. ’00) at the capacitor banks. This loss can be regulated. For example, if the energy
analyst selects a path G – P – M (using CB P) then the total energy loss would be Rs. 1,000 + Rs. 600 +
the regulated energy loss at the CB P. If the energy analyst wants to ensure that the energy loss from G to
M across all the paths is same, then a feasible set of regulated energy losses (in Rs. ’00) at the capacitor
banks P, Q, R and S respectively to achieve this goal is
(1) 4, 0, 2, 1 (2) 1, 4, 0, 2 (3) 0, 5, 1, 3 (4) 0, 4, 2, 1

25. Suppose the power line between Q and R is being repaired and hence energy cannot flow between Q
and R. If the energy analyst wants to ensure that the energy loss from G to M across all paths is still the
same, then a feasible set of regulated energy losses (in Rs. ’00) at the capacitor banks P, Q, R and S
respectively to achieve this goal is
(1) 4, 4, 2, 3 (2) 3, 4, 2, 4 (3) 1, 4, 2, 0 (4) 1, 4, 2, 1

26. Due to overheating, the energy loss in the power line connecting G and Q has doubled. What is a
feasible set of the energy loss values (in Rs. ’00) that have to be regulated at the capacitor banks P, Q, R
and S respectively so that the energy loss from G to M across all paths is the same?
(1) 1, 3, 2, 3 (2) 0, 4, 2, 4 (3) 0, 1, 2, 1 (4) 1, 0, 2, 5

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27. If the power line between R and M is not working, then which capacitor bank has the highest
regulated energy loss such that the energy loss from G to M across all the paths is the same?
(1) Q only (2) P only (3) S (4) Insufficient information

28. Ajay would do five tasks: A, B, C, D and E; starting at 9 am in the morning. A is the first task and
takes two hours. B can be done after A is complete and requires 1 hour. Work on C which would take 1
hour can start only after A and B are complete. Ajay can do task D along with B and C and would take 3
hours for that. Activity E with duration of 1 hour can start on completion of A, B, C and D.
What is the earliest time when Ajay would complete C?
(1) 11 am (2) 12 noon (3) 1 pm (4) 2 pm

29. If Ajay takes 2 hours for B and completes other preceding tasks without delay, when can E start?
(1) 12 noon (2) 3 pm (3) 2 pm (4) 1 pm

30. What is the earliest time when Ajay can complete all tasks?
(1) 4 pm (2) 3 pm (3) 2 pm (4) 1 pm

31. There are five friends, Nidhi, Neha, Deepa, Shilpa and Geeta. They all live in a housing society where
houses are numbered 211 through 216, from left to right. There is one empty house. The following
conditions apply.
1) Nidhi lives in the house which is to the immediate left of Neha.
2) Shilpa does not live in houses numbered 211, 213, or 215.
3) Geeta’s is the third occupied house from left.
In which of the following houses can Neha not be staying?"
(1) 212 (2) 213 (3) 214 (4) 215

32. There are 6 models of a particular product lined up for inspection. The models are identified by the
letters A-F. However, they are not necessarily arranged in that order.
The models are distributed among 8 locations, which are identified (from left to right) by the integers 1 -
8.
The following conditions are known:
(1) Model E is at position 7.
(2) The two models nearest to E are B and C, and they are on different sides of E.
(3) Exactly two of the given six models are next to empty locations.
(4) 3 is not an empty location.
Which of these is definitely an empty location?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 5

33. If conditions (4) is assumed to be false and location 1 is empty, then which model is present at
location 5 if there is no empty location between A and F?
(1) A (2) D (3) F (4) A or F
34. For how many of the 8 locations, can it be said with certainty that a certain model A, B, C, D, E or F
exists or that the location is empty?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3)2 (4) 3

35. Seven varsity basketball players (A, B, C, D, E, F, and G) are to be honoured at a special luncheon.
The players will be seated on the dais in a row. A and G have to leave the luncheon early and so must be
seated at the extreme right. B will receive the most valuable player's trophy and so must be in the centre
to facilitate presentation. C and D are bitter rivals and therefore must be seated as far apart as possible.
Which of the following cannot be seated at either end?

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(1) C (2) D (3) F (4) G

36. Which of the following pairs cannot be seated together?

(1) B & D (2) C & F (3) D & G (4) E & A

37. Which of the following pairs cannot occupy the seats on either side of B?
(1) F & D (2) D & E (3) E & G (4) C & F

38. Five flags, each with a distinct symbol namely Panther, Tiger, Rose, Swan and Quail, have been
arranged in the following order:
(i) Panther is next to Quail and Swan is next to Rose.
(ii) Swan is not next to Tiger, Tiger is on the extreme left hand side and Rose is on the second position
from the right hand side.
(iii)Panther is on the right hand side of Quail and to the right side of Tiger.
(iv)Panther and Rose are together.
Which of the following statements is true?
(1) (iii) and (iv) are contradicting (2) Either (iii) or (iv) is redundant (3) (iii) is redundant
(4) (iv) is redundant

39. ...... is in the middle and ...... is on its right.

(1) Panther & Swan (2) Rose &Swan (3) Panther & Rose (4) Quail & Panther

40........is on the extreme right and ...... is on the extreme left.

(1) Tiger & Rose (2) Quail & Tiger (3) Swan &Tiger (4) Tiger &Swan

Verbal:
Directions for questions 1 to 5: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
them.
Most students arrive at [college] using “discrete, concrete, and absolute categories to understand people,
knowledge, and values.” These students live with a dualistic view, seeing “the world in polar terms of
we-right-good vs. other-wrong-bad.” These students cannot acknowledge the existence of more than one
point of view toward any issue. There is one “right” way. And because these absolutes are assumed by
or imposed on the individual from external authority, they cannot be personally substantiated or
authenticated by experience. These students are slaves to the generalizations of their authorities. Most
students break through the dualistic stage to another equally frustrating stage—multiplicity. Within this
stage, students see a variety of ways to deal with any given topic or problem. However, while these
students accept multiple points of view, they are unable to evaluate or justify them. To have an opinion is
everyone’s right. Every assertion, every point, is valid. In their democracy they are directionless.
The third stage of development finds students living in a world of relativism. Knowledge is relative: right
and wrong depend on the context. No longer recognizing the validity of each individual idea or action,
relativists examine everything to find its place in an overall framework. In this stage, however, students
resist decision making. Suffering the ambivalence of finding several consistent and acceptable
alternatives, they are almost overwhelmed by diversity and need means for managing it.
In the final stage students manage diversity through individual commitment. Students do not deny
relativism. Rather they assert an identity by forming commitments and assuming responsibility for them.
They gather personal experience into a coherent framework, abstract principles to guide their actions, and
use these principles to discipline and govern their thoughts and actions.
1. Students who are “dualistic” thinkers may not be able to support their beliefs convincingly because:

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a. Most of their beliefs cannot be supported by arguments
b. They have accepted their “truths” simply because authorities have said these things are “true.”
c. They half-believe and half-disbelieve just about everything.
d. Their teachers almost always think that “dualistic” thinkers are wrong.

2. Which one of the following assertions is supported by the passage?

a. Committed thinkers are not very sure of their positions.
b. Relativistic thinkers have learned how to make sense out of the world and have chosen their own
positions in it.
c. Multiplicity thinkers have difficulty understanding the relationships between different points of view.
d. Dualistic thinkers have thought out the reasons for taking their positions.

3. In paragraph one, the author states that in their “democracy” students in the multiplicity stage are
directionless. The writer describes multiplicity students as being in a “democracy” because:
a. There are so many different kinds of people in a democracy.
b. In an “ideal” democracy, all people are considered equal; by extension, so are their opinions.
c. Democrats generally do not have a good sense of direction.
d. Although democracies may grant freedom, they are generally acknowledged to be less efficient than
more authoritarian forms of government.

4. Which one of the following kinds of thinking is NOT described in the passage?
a. People who make unreasoned commitments and stick by them
b. People who believe that right or wrong depends on the situation
c. People who commit themselves to a particular point of view after having considered several alternative
concepts
d. People who think that all behaviour can be accounted for by cause and effect relationships

5. If students were asked to write essays on the different concepts of tragedy as exemplified by Cordelia
and Antigone, and they all responded by showing how each character exemplified a traditional definition
of tragedy, we could, according to the passage, hypothesize which one of the following about these
students?
a. The students were locked into the relativist stage.
b. The students had not advanced beyond the dualist stage.
c. The students had at least achieved the multiplicity stage.
d. The students had reached the commitment stage.

Directions for questions 6 to 10: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
them.
Global strategies to control infectious disease have historically included the erection of barriers to
international travel and immigration. Between 29 and 50 countries are reported to have introduced border
restrictions on HIV-positive foreigners, usually those planning an extended stay in the country.
The country with the broadest policy of testing and excluding foreigners is the United States. The U.S.
policy has been sharply criticized by national and international organizations as being contrary to public
health goals and human-rights principles. The Immigration and Nationality Act requires the Public Health
Service to list “dangerous contagious diseases” for which aliens can be excluded from the United States.
By 1987 there were seven designated diseases—five of them sexually transmitted and two non-venereal.
On June 8, 1987, in response to a Congressional direction in the Helms Amendment, the Public Health
Service added HIV infection to the list of dangerous contagious diseases.
A just and efficacious travel and immigration policy would not exclude people because of their serologic
status unless they posed a danger to the community through casual transmission. We support well-funded

10
programs to protect the health of travellers infected with HIV through appropriate immunizations and
prophylactic treatment and to reduce behaviours that may transmit infection.
We recognize that treating patients infected with HIV who immigrate to the United States will incur costs
for the public sector. It is inequitable, however, to use cost as a reason to exclude people infected with
HIV, for there are no similar exclusionary policies for those with other costly chronic diseases, such as
heart disease or cancer.
Rather than arbitrarily restrict the movement of a subgroup of infected people, we must dedicate ourselves
to the principles of justice, scientific cooperation, and a global response to the HIV pandemic.
6. The authors of the passage conclude that:
a. It is unjust to exclude people based on their serological status without the knowledge that they pose a
danger to the public.
b. U.S. regulations should require more stringent testing to be implemented at all major border crossings.
c. it is the responsibility of the public sector to absorb costs incurred by treatment of immigrants infected
with HIV.
d. the HIV pandemic is largely overstated and that, based on new epidemiological data, screening
immigrants is not indicated.

7. It can be inferred from the passage that:

a. More than 3 million HIV-positive people have sought permanent residence in the United States.
b. Countries with a low seroprevalence of HIV have a disproportionate and unjustified concern over the
spread of AIDS by immigration.
c. The United States is more concerned with controlling the number of HIV-positive immigrants than
with avoiding criticism from outside its borders.
d. Current law is meeting the demand for prudent handling of a potentially hazardous international issue.

8. The word “prophylactic” as used in the passage can best be defined as:
a. medicinal
b. protective
c. judicious
d. costly
9. Before the Helms Amendment in 1987, seven designated diseases were listed as being cause for
denying immigration. We can conclude from the passage that:
a. The authors agree fully with this policy but disagree with adding HIV to the list.
b. The authors believe that sexual diseases are appropriate reasons for denying immigration but not non-
venereal diseases.
c. The authors disagree with the amendment.
d. The authors believe that non-venereal diseases are justifiable reasons for exclusion, but not sexually
transmitted diseases.

10. In referring to the “costs” incurred by the public, the authors apparently mean:
a. Financial costs.
b. Costs to the public health.
c. Costs in manpower.
d. Costs in international reputation.

Directions for questions 11 to 15: Each of the following questions has a sentence with two blanks. Given
below each question are four pairs of words. Choose the pair that best completes the sentences.
11. Some plans may give _____________ results _____________ a few other plans may give exponential
results.
a. Incremental, whereas
b. Decrease, while

11
c. Increased, if
d. Augmented, although

12. The lack of social _______________ on many issues makes it impossible to equate ethics with the
societal _____________.
a. Unanimity, desires
b. Consensus, expectations
c. Compromise, aspirations
d. Conciliation, wishes

13. Ethical standards also include those that _______________virtues of honesty, ________________and
loyalty.
a. Expertise, magnanimity
b. Command, benevolence
c. Enjoin, compassion
d. Proficiency, generosity
14. As a __________________ to avoiding cookie – cutter solutions, be careful about blindly trusting
your _____________.
a. Corollary, gut
b. Upshot, mind
c. Repercussion, instinct
d. Aftermath, heart

15. It is better to suffer pain and _________________ under your rule than relative ___________ under
somebody else’s.
a. loss, safety
b. suffrage, patronage
c. hurt, injury
d. poverty, prosperity

Directions for questions 16 to 20: In the following question, a word with its contextual usage is provided.
Pick out the word, from among the alternatives, that is the most appropriate substitute for the question
word in the given context and mark its option as your answer.
16. EQUIVOCATE: Unable to face the barrage of questions from the reporters, the minister had no
option but to resort to equivocation.
a. prevarication
b. allusion
c. diatribe
d. endearment

17. UNFATHOMABLE: The stoic depth of Hinduism will remain unfathomable to those who pretend to
be its action heroes.
a. inscrutable
b. ambiguous
c. immeasurable
d. enigmatic

18. BEQUEATH: Sister Elizabeth Kenny announced yesterday that she would bequeath her knowledge of
poliomyelitis to an international committee of orthopaedic surgeons.
a. Fugacious
b. Ladle

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c. Siege
d. Bestow

19. CONNOTE: In 1904, the term blue chip first came into use to connote something that was valuable.
a. insinuate
b. finery
c. regalia
d. fib

20. ECLECTIC: The gallery is known to select only relatively new and eclectic works. You will not find
classics or traditionally successful works there.
a. Assorted
b. Facsimile
c. Dilettantish
d. Motley

Directions for questions 21 to 25: A number of sentences are given below, which, when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four
given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
21.
A. However, this topic in the Library is for those with an explicit goal to intentionally grow the
organization, product or service.
B. Whether your organization is a for-profit or non-profit, you have to address certain considerations and
make certain decisions if you set out to intentionally expand -- or grow -- your organization, products
and/or services.
C. You can grow your organization, products and/or services just by managing them well.
D. For example, by having very good products and services that are sold with strong sales and customer
service.
a. ABCD
b. BCDA
c. ADCB
d. CBDA

22.
A. It has already been discussed by the committee of Infrastructure and will go to the committee of
secretaries for more discussion.
B. Till now, 2197 km of projects in the North-East-East-West-West Corridor have been awarded under
BOT.
C. Over the last one year, NHAI has moved away from awarding contracts under EPC mode to BOT
mode.
D. The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is expected to come up with a model concession
agreement that will mark a significant departure from current deals.
a. DABC
b. DCBA
c. DCAB
d. DACB

23.
A. For the sake of convenience the historian of language has to erect landmarks somewhere.
B. However, the dates chosen are not altogether arbitrary.
C. Historians of the English Language distinguish three main stages in its development.

13
D. It must not, of course, be imagined that in any of these stages there was a complete and sudden change;
it was very gradual.
E. The fact is that the evolution of language has been continuous; but there were periods when, due to a
variety of causes, the development of language was more rapid than those of the others.
a. ACDEB
b. CDAEB
c. CDEAB
d. CEDAB

24.
A. The jellyfish has extreme toxins present on its tentacles, which when in contact with a human, can stop
cardio-respiratory functions in as little as three minutes.
B. The Box Jellyfish (also known as a Sea Wasp) is a very dangerous creature to inhabit Australian
waters.
C. The creature has a square body and inhabits the north east areas of Australia.
D. This jellyfish is responsible for more deaths in Australia than snakes, sharks and salt water crocodiles.
a. BADC
b. ACDB
c. ADCB
d. DABC

25.
A. Spurred on by a war atrocity, the total destruction by bombs of the town of Guernica in the Basque
country, he painted the renowned oil Guernica in monochrome.
B. In January, 1937, the Republican government asked him to paint a mural for the Spanish pavilion at
the world exposition in Paris.
C. Something of an enigma in details, there's no doubt that the giant picture expresses a revulsion over the
horrors man can wreak upon fellow man.
D. At the outbreak of the Spanish Civil War, Picasso was appointed the director of the Prado.
a. DABC
b. DACB
c. DBAC
d. CBAD

26.
A. The countries that are economically well-advanced are called advanced nations while the rest where
poverty is widespread are called developing nations.
B. They not only exploited their own natural resources rapidly but also used those of the developing
countries to grow to even larger economies.
C. The world always looks at economic status alone as a measure of human development.
D. Most countries of North America and Europe, which had become industrialized at an earlier stage, are
economically advanced.
a. CABD
b. CADB
c. ACDB
d. ACDB

27.
A. Most of what is known about colds concerns how they are spread by personal contact and through
sharing personal objects.
B. Sleeping with the mouth open can also cause a cold, since it makes the membrane dry and therefore,

14
more susceptible.
C. People who complain about catching a cold often have some structural difficulty, such as dogged
Eustachian tubes or sinus problems.
D. Virologists have also noticed that people who travel tend to catch a cold more frequently as they come
across different strains of the virus.
a. ADCB
b. ADBC
c. ABDC
d. ACBD

28.
A. The printed images rarely get the original colours and tones right and they are usually scaled own for
our convenient handling.
B. We have become used to seeing the reproductions of art, in news-papers and magazines, on televisions
in films and on websites.
C. What we actually experience in the presence of paintings is their surface light.
D. The back-lit images of our screens are distorted suggesting an inner light which paintings do not have
when we stand before them.
E. We have become used to accepting these distortions of works we like and in doing so we are far from
experiencing their real, physical presence.
a. BAEDC
b. DCABE
c. BADCE
d. BEADC

29.
A. We do not have any problem with the mind.
B. The problem is with our mind-set.
C. The Indian mind is one of the best minds of the world.
D. Any vision without action will remain a mere dream, and requires modernisation in many ways.
E. The most important and difficult phase is modernisation of the mind which is not very obvious but
crucial, as it involves changing the mind-set and attitude of people.
a. DCABE
b. DCAEB
c. DCEBA
d. DCEAB

30.
A. This makes the individual chromosomes visible, and they form the classic four arm structure, a pair of
sister chromatids attached to each other at the centromere.
B. Chromosomes cease to function as accessible genetic material (transcription stops) and become a
compact transportable form.
C. The shorter arms are called the p arm and the longer arms q arms.
D. In the early stages of mitosis or meiosis, the chromatin strand becomes more and more condensed.
E. This is the only natural context in which individual chromosomes are visible with an optical
microscope.
a. DBACE
b. BACED

15
c. BACDE
d. DEACB

31.
A. The fact all contribute only to setting the problem, not the solution.
B. How things are in the world is a matter of complete indifference for what is higher; God does not
reveal himself in the world.
C. To view the world sub specie aeterni is to view it as a whole- a limited whole. Feeling the world as a
limited whole- it is this that is mystical.
D. It is not how things are in the world that is mystical, but that it exists.
a. ABCD
b. BACD
c. BADC
d. CADB

32.
A. Many prominent economists have criticised the existing global financial institutions like the World
Bank and International Monetary Fund and their policies regarding money supply, banks and debt in
developing nations.
B. The debates have been linked to some extent with the valuation of non-traded goods and social
outcomes.
C. While ensuring the independence from government of the central bank or the creation of a currency
board are practical monetary reforms that many countries have implemented to combat inflation or
currency speculation, many suggest that more radical monetary reform can assist in sweeping economic
or social changes.
D. In recent years debates have focused on improving the use of currency.
E. Many people also criticize the fact that governments pay interest for the use of their own money. This
leaves the state of a nation's economy susceptible to the interests of private bankers who control the
issuance of money through fractional reserve banking.
a. DABEC
b. CBDAE
c. ADBEC
d. DBCAE

33.
A. Furthermore, unlike other forms of Marxism-Leninism in which large-scale industrial development
was seen as a positive force, Maoism made all-round rural development the priority.
B. The model for this was of course the Chinese communist rural Protracted People's War of the 1920s
and 1930s, which eventually brought the Communist Party of China to power.
C. Unlike the earlier forms of Marxism-Leninism in which the urban proletariat was seen as the main
source of revolution, and the countryside was largely ignored, Mao believed that peasantry could be the
main force behind a revolution, led by the proletariat and avant garde Communist party.
D. Mao felt that the strategy made sense during the early stages of socialism in a country in which most of
the people were peasants.
E. Unlike most other political ideologies, including other socialist and Marxist ones, Maoism contains an
integral military doctrine and explicitly connects its political ideology with military strategy.
a. CBADE
b. EABCD
c. CEABD
d. DEBAC

16
34.
A. The creation of the Black Tigers is based on the LTTE's studies of Asymmetric warfare thus using
suicide cadres to balance the government's greater resources.
B. The Black Tigers are believed to be the most effective unit of its kind in the world, as with the rest of
the LTTE, it is also secular, not driven by religious fanaticism.
C. The LTTE are keeping the Black Tiger unit active, as witnessed by their commemoration ceremonies.
D. They will then be called up if needed, and if so will have a last meal with the LTTE leader Velupillai
Prabhakaran.
E. The Tiger unit get extensive training but are then believed to return to their previous unit, without
revealing their new assignment.
a. CEABD
b. BCDEA
c. EDACD
d. CBAED

35.
A. One of the hypotheses proposes that warming may be the result of variations in solar activity.
B. The detailed causes of the recent warming remain an active field of research, but the scientific
consensus identifies elevated levels of greenhouse gases due to human activity as the main influence.
C. The Earth's climate changes in response to external forces, including variations in its orbit around the
Sun (orbital forcing), volcanic eruptions, and atmospheric greenhouse gas concentrations.
D. This attribution is clearest for the most recent 50 years, for which the most detailed data are available.
E. Some other hypotheses departing from the consensus view have been suggested to explain the
observed increase in mean global temperature.
a. BCDAE
b. CBDEA
c. BDAEC
d. BAECD

Directions for questions 36 to 38: Each of the following questions present 5 statements of which 4, when
placed in appropriate order would form a contextually complete paragraph. Pick out the statement that is
not part of that context.
36.
a. Even Paris, the romantic hero of many myths, may not have accomplished any of the tasks attributed to
him—and may not even have been real himself.
b. Some Greek myths have a basis in history, but most of them seem to have no foundation in reality.
c. Helen of Troy may be based on a real person, but in Greek mythology, she is the daughter of Zeus and
Leda, who were not.
d. Myths about the Trojan Wars abound—and while the Troy was a real place, and the wars almost
certainly occurred, famous figures associated with them may not have the same basis in reality.
e. Famous for the story of how Paris, Prince of Troy, abducted her from her husband and took her to his
hometown, there is no certain record of Helen ruling there.

37.
a. While more than two parties exist in the United States, the current system is in fact dominated by the
Republican and Democratic parties, which receive by far the most votes in major elections.
b. Within politics, party-based systems dominate many democratic governments.
c. There can be a one-party system, in which voters are presented with no real choice; a two-party system,
such as the United States de facto uses, or a multi-party system, with members of different parties
representing a variety of voter beliefs through their work in public office.
d. In recent years, other parties such as the Green Party and the Libertarian party have started to show

17
some influence in the polls, speaking to a possible reformation of the two-party system in America.
e. Political parties are groups with common beliefs that try to get their members elected to public office.

38.
a. While sunscreen helps prevent skin damage that can lead to certain cancers, it can also block the
production of an important vitamin: Vitamin D.
b. Many of us were taught growing up that eating fruits and vegetables, getting enough sleep, and wearing
sunscreen are all good things.
c. Sunscreen is good —but only to a certain point.
d. We get Vitamin D primarily through sun exposure, and deficiencies can cause problems ranging from
difficulty processing thoughts clearly to soft bones that easily break.
e. Other people experience no symptoms, but an estimated 1 billion people have could use more Vitamin
D through supplements or foods naturally rich in the vitamin.

Directions for questions 39 and 40: Each of the following questions present 4 statements of which 3,
when placed in appropriate order would form a contextually complete paragraph. Pick out the statement
that is not part of that context.
39.
a. Rowling’s declarations on Twitter on what she “always thought” of a particular character are not only
newsworthy, but a cause for pride.
b. Rowling seems eager to retain an influence on how we understand her books by revealing ostensibly
new information about her characters.
c. Rowling’s chances for being a diverse author lie in the future, not the past.
d. Whether these character points were announced to readers via Twitter or alluded to within the Potter
books, however, the meanings that we as a diverse international community of readers wish to take from
them trump Rowling’s intentions as an author.

40.
a. India is self-sufficient in strategic armaments – nuclear weapons and delivery systems, including
advanced and accurate ballistic and cruise missiles, and nuclear-powered submarines.
b. By focusing militarily on Pakistan and ignoring China’s challenge, India inspires little confidence
about its judgment, resolve, and prospects as a consequential power in the extended region.
c. While India wishes to stand up to China and emerge as the other nodal power in Asia, this ambition is
undermined by diffidence and skewed capabilities.
d. But paradoxically, India has become the world’s largest importer of conventional weaponry, leaving its
foreign policy hostage to the whims and interests of vendor states.

CURRENT AFFAIRS:
1. Which city hosted the first-ever National Conference on “Mission Mode to address Under-Nutrition”?
[A]Kolkata
[B]Jaipur
[C]NewDelhi
[D]Guwahati

2. Which state government has launched Shaheed Gram Vikas Yojana to provide houses to freedom
fighters?
[A]Maharashtra
[B]UttarPradesh

18
[C]Rajasthan
[D] Jharkhand

3. Which Indian-American personality has won the 2017 Discovery Education 3M Young Scientist
Challenge?
[A]Mrinali Kesavadas
[B]Rohit Mital
[C]Deepika Kurup
[D] Gitanjali Rao

4. As per RBI’s revised guidelines on interest subvention scheme, banks will provide funds to women
SHGs in rural areas at how much percentage under DAY-NRLM for FY18?
[A] 7.0%
[B] 7.1%
[C] 6.5%
[D] 6.9%

5. Which country to host 4th ADMM (ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting)-Plus meeting 2017?
[A] Malaysia
[B] Philippines
[C] Singapore
[D] Indonesia

6. Which Indian sportswoman has won triple gold at Egypt Junior and Cadet Open Table Tennis
Championship 2017?
[A] Mouma Das
[B] Manika Batra
[C] Selena Selvakumar
[D] Poulomi Ghatak

7. Which state assembly has become the first in India to call motions online?
[A] Punjab
[B] Kerala
[C] Rajasthan
[D] Tripura

8. Which football team has won the 37th All India Governor’s Gold Cup football tournament-2017?
[A] Hindustan Eagles
[B] Churchill Brothers
[C] Delhi Dynamos
[D] Mohun Bagan

9. Amit Saroha, who has won silver at the 2017 World Para Athletics Championship, is associated with
which sports?
[A] Archery
[B] Rowing
[C] Judo
[D] Club throw

19
10. Who has become the first woman cricketer to score 6000 runs in women’s ODI cricket?
[A] Vellaswamy Vanitha
[B] Jhulan Goswami
[C] Mithali Raj
[D] Thirush Kamini

11. As per the Global Human Capital Index 2017, which of the following country rank top of the list?
1) Finland
2) Switzerland
3) USA
4) Norway

12. Which bank has launched ‘Project Nishchay’ to improve financial performance?
[A] PNB
[B] SBI
[C] ICICI Bank
[D] IDBI Bank

13. 'SAMPADA' Scheme, launched recently, is associated with -

1) Real Estate
2) Handicrafts
3) Forestry
4) Food Processing

14. Who was the captain of the Indian women team in ICC Women World Cup 2017?
1) Jhulan Goswami
2) Veda Krishnamurthi
3) Mithali Raj
4) Harmanpreet Kaur

15. Who has become the first Indian to be signed by Australian Basket ball Team? (Grammar)
[A] Yadwinder Singh
[B] Amritpal Singh
[C] Amjyot Singh
[D] Vishvas Bhriguvanshi

16. Which Indian pair has won the mixed doubles title at 2017 Hellas Open International badminton
Series?
[A] Chirag Shetty and Karishma Wadkar
[B] Valiyaveetil Diju and Jwala Gutta
[C] Rohan Kapoor and Kuhoo Garg
[D] Karishma Wadkar and Utkarsh Arora

17. Which of the following company buy eBay’s Indian operations - (Grammar)
1) Amazon
2) Flipkart
3) Snapdeal
4) PayTM

20
18. Which country started world's first 'negative emissions' power plant?
[A]Colombia
[B]Belgium
[C]Argentina
[D]Iceland

19. Who among the following was the winner of best actress in 62nd Hindi Filmfare Awards 2017?
1) Alia Bhatt
2) Kangna Ranawat
3) Sonam Kapoor
4) Katrina Kaif

20. Who was the head of The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Committee?
1) Rathin Roy
2) Sumit Bose
3) Arvind Subramanian
4) N. K. Singh

21. Which union minister has launched the live twitter wall for promoting Bharat Ke Veer portal?
[A] Narendra Modi
[B] Narendra Singh Tomar
[C] Rajnath Singh
[D] Arun Jaitley

22. India’s first-ever railways disaster management centre will come up in which city?
[A] Kolkata
[B] Bengaluru
[C] Lucknow
[D] Pune

23. Due to the outbreak of which virus did the WHO declare a Public Health Emergency of International
Concern in February 2016?

1) Zika
2) Ebola
3) Swine flu
4) Chikungunya

24. After India which of the following country has demonetise their high value currency?

1) Brazil
2) Colombia
3) Peru
4) Venezuela

25. For how many years, Central government will compensate the loss of State governments due to GST?

21
1) 2 years
2) 3 years
3) 4 years
4) 5 years

26. The official name of GST Bill is -

1) The Constitution (121st Amendment) Bill 2014

2) The Constitution (122nd Amendment) Bill 2015
3) The Constitution (122nd Amendment) Bill 2014
4) The Constitution (122nd Amendment) Bill 2016

27. India’s first world peace university has come up in which state?
[A] Haryana
[B] Uttar Pradesh
[C] Maharashtra
[D] Assam

28. Which of the following company has launched a "Digital Price Index" for measuring inflation?

1) Amazon
2) Microsoft
3) Adobe
4) Google

29. Which of the following is responsible for the fact that Tennis ball bounces higher at high altitudes
than in plains?
[A] Low Gravity
[B] High Gravity
[C] Less dense air
[D] Low atmospheric temperature

30. Which of the following is a correct set of two official languages of the United Nations?
[A] Hindi and Chinese
[B] Arabic and Chinese
[C] Japanese and Chinese
[D] Chinese and Japanese

22