Chem 1035 Test 3 November 11, 2014

I promise that I will abide by the Virginia Tech Honor Code while taking this test.

Signature _____Printed Name _______________________________

INSTRUCTIONS – READ THESE!

 Make sure that your opscan is filled with:

o Your name
o ID NUMBER (WRITE and BUBBLE CORRECTLY)
o Test Version Letter (You will find the test version noted inside. DO NOT open
your test until you are instructed).

 Sign the Honor Pledge and print your name in the space above.

 Work each problem on this test copy, then circle the single best answer, and bubble the
corresponding circle on the opscan.

 Answer all 30 questions.

 Turn in both your test copy and your opscan to receive a grade.

 IMPORTANT! You MUST correctly bubble your student ID# to obtain a grade on this
test! You MUST also mark the test version on your opscan to receive a grade. Failure to
correctly include your student ID# and /or to enter a test version on your opscan will mean
that you will NOT get a grade on this test!!

There is a periodic table on the back of this page.

1
1. A balloon filled with helium has a volume of 876 L at 0.0ºC and 0.975 atm pressure. At
constant pressure, the helium absorbs 30.9 kJ of heat energy causing the balloon to
expand to a volume of 995 L. Calculate ∆E for this system. (1 L·atm = 101.3 J)

A. 19.1 kJ B. 42.7 kJ C. 147 kJ

D. –85.1 kJ E. –1.17 x 104 J

2. In an exothermic reaction

A. the system always does the work.

B. the products have more energy than the reactants.
C. the surroundings increase in temperature.
D. the system always has work done on it.
E. ∆H is always positive.

3. Consider the reaction

C6H4(OH)2(aq) + H2O2(aq) → C6H4O2(aq) + 2 H2O(l)

Calculate ∆Hº for this reaction from the following data:

H2O(g) → H2O(l) ∆Hº = –43.8 kJ

C6H4(OH)2(aq) → C6H4O2(aq) + H2(g) ∆Hº = 177.4 kJ

H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O2(aq) ∆Hº = –191.2 kJ

H2(g) + ½ O2(g) → H2O(g) ∆Hº = –241.8 kJ

A. 280.6 kJ B. –585.0 kJ C. 83.0 kJ

D. –57.6 kJ E. –202.6 kJ

2
4. A 6.22 kg piece of copper metal is heated from 20.5ºC to 95.8ºC. Calculate the heat
absorbed by the metal. The specific heat capacity of copper is 0.387 J/g·ºC

A. 6.07x106 J B. 181 J C. 607 J

D. 1.81x105 J E. 5.02x105 J

5. Which of the following statements is false?

A. In a reaction with high energy reactants and low energy products, q is negative.
B. In all phase changes, both q and w will have the same sign.
C. Different chemical bonds have different potential energies.
D. The standard enthalpy of formation of Fe(s) is zero.

6. A gas expands from 1.0 L to 8.5 L against an external pressure of 0.50 atm. If the gas
absorbs 250 J of heat, what are the values of q, w, and ∆E? (1 L atm = 101.3 J)

q w ∆E
A. 250 J –3.75 J 246 J
B. 250 J –380 J –130 J
C. –250 J –760 J –1010 J
D. –250 J 380 J 130 J
E. 250 J 380 J 630 J

7. The specific heat of tin is 0.21 J/g°C and that of copper is 0.387 J/g°C. If the same
amount of heat is transferred to equal masses of Sn(s) and Cu(s), both initially at the
same temperature,

A. the final temperature of both will be the same.

B. the final temperature of Sn will be greater.
C. the final temperature of Cu will be greater.
D. the final temperature of each will depend on the rate of heating.

3
8. Calculate the enthalpy change ∆Hº, of the following combustion reaction:

2 H2S(g) + 3 O2(g) → 2 H2O(l) + 2 SO2(g)

∆Hfº –20.2 0 –285.840 –296.8
(kJ/mol)

A. –1124.9 kJ B. –562.4 kJ C. –1385.5 kJ

D. –828.1 kJ E. –906.3 kJ

9. What is the heat of reaction when 1.52 x 104 g of ammonia are produced according to the
reaction

N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g) ∆Hºrxn = –92.6 kJ

A. –8.28 x 104 kJ B. –1.66 x 105 kJ C. –2.76 x 104 kJ

D. –7.23 x 105 kJ E. –4.14 x 104 kJ

10. Consider the reaction

CO(g) + 2H2(g)  CH3OH(g) H° = –90.7 kJ

Which of the following is true?

A. The reaction is exothermic and does work on its surroundings.

B. The reaction is exothermic and has work done on it by the surroundings.
C. The reaction is endothermic and does work on its surroundings.
D. The reaction is endothermic and has work done on it by the surroundings.
E. No work is done.

11. Consider the reaction

2 SO2(g) + O2(g)  2 SO3(g) ∆Hrxn = –198 kJ

Given that ∆Hf = –297 kJ/mol for SO2(g), what is ∆Hf for SO3(g) in units of kJ per
mol of SO3(g)?

A. –396 kJ/mol B. +396 kJ/mol C. –248 kJ/mol

D. +792 kJ/mol E. –792 kJ/mol

4
12. A 25.5 g aluminum block is heated to 65.2ºC and then placed in a well insulated beaker
containing 55.4 g of water initially at 22.5ºC. The aluminum and water are allowed to
come to thermal equilibrium. Assuming no heat is lost, what is the final temperature of
the mixture? (specific heat capacity of water = 4.184 J/gºC; specific heat capacity of
aluminum = 0.900 J/g· ºC ).

A. 31.7ºC B. 26.3ºC C. 24.8ºC D. 29.1ºC E. 42.5ºC

13. When 10.00 g of phosphorus P4 is burned in excess O2 to form P4O10(s), enough heat is
generated to raise the temperature of 2950 g of water from 18.0ºC to 38.0ºC. Calculate
the heat of formation for 1 mole of P4O10 (specific heat capacity of water = 4.184 J/gºC)

P4(s) + 5O2(g) → P4O10(s)

A. –24.7 kJ/mol B. –1020 kJ/mol C. 247 kJ/mol

D. –7010 kJ/mol E. –3060 kJ/mol

14. The combustion of 1.200 g of cinnamaldehyde, C9H8O (molar mass = 132 g/mol), in a
bomb calorimeter caused a temperature change in the calorimeter from 19.156ºC to
31.946ºC. Calculate the enthalpy of reaction per mole of cinnamaldehyde. The heat
capacity of the calorimeter including the water is 3.640 kJ/ºC.

A. –5125 kJ/mol B. –7374 kJ/mol C. –46.56 kJ/mol

D. –2096 kJ/mol E. –38.80 kJ/mol

THIS IS VERSION A; MARK THIS ON YOUR OPSCAN NOW!

5
15. For which of the following does the system have a positive value of w?

A. N2O4(g) + 4H2(g) → N2(g) + 4H2O(g)

B. C(s) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g) + 2NO(g)
C. 2N2(g) + 3O2(g) → 2NO2(g) + 2NO(g)
D. C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)
E. Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)

16. Which of these has the shortest wavelength?

A. uv light with a frequency = 1.5 x 1015 Hz

B. Green light with a wavelength = 589 nm
C. Radio wave with a wavelength = 200 m
D. X-ray with a frequency = 3 x 1018 Hz
E. uv light with a wavelength = 180 nm

17. Calculate the energy of a photon of ultraviolet light with a wavelength of 125 nm.

A. 8.28x10–41 J B. 1.59x10–27 J C. 8.28x10–32 J

D. 1.59x10–18 J E. 5.30x10–19 J

18. How many electrons in an atom can have the quantum numbers n = 4 and
ms = –1/2?

A. 6 B. 7 C. 14 D. 16 E. 32

19. Which of the following is a valid set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron in
rubidium?

A. n=5 l=1 ml = +1 ms = +1/2

B. n=5 l=1 ml = –1 ms = –1/2
C. n=4 l=0 ml = 0 ms = +1/2
D. n=5 l =0 ml = 0 ms = +1/2
E. n=4 l =1 ml = 0 ms = +1/2

6
20. Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. Aluminum has a lower third ionization energy, IE3, than magnesium.

B. The ions N3– and Mg2+ are isoelectronic.
C. Elements whose electronic configurations end in s2p5 are in Group 17 of the periodic
table.
D. A sulfur atom is diamagnetic
E. If the +2 cation of a transition metal has the electron configuration [Ar]3d 3, the metal
is vanadium.

21. Identify the element which has the following partial orbital diagram:

A. Ti B. Sn C. Ge D. Zr E. Pr

22. What is the wavelength, in nanometers, of the radiation emitted when the electron in a
hydrogen atom falls from the n = 3 main energy level to the n = 2 level?

A. 182 nm B. 274 nm C. 545 nm D. 655 nm E. 700 nm

23. Which of the following elements has exactly 20 electrons in d orbitals?

A. Ru B. Pb C. Sb D. Ge E. Ra

7
24. Consider the elements Ar, K, and Ca. Which element has the largest first ionization
energy (IE1) and which element has the smallest second ionization energy (IE2)?

A. Ar has the largest IE1 and K has the smallest IE2.

B. Ar has the largest IE1 and Ca has the smallest IE2.
C. Ca has the largest IE1 and K has the smallest IE2.
D. K has the largest IE1 and Ca has the smallest IE2.
E. Ca has the largest IE1 and Ar has the smallest IE2.

25. Which of the following ions is paramagnetic?

A. Se2– B. Ba2+ C. Pb4+ D. Ti2+ E. Zn2+

26. Arrange these atoms and ions in order of increasing radius: Cs+, I–, Ba2+.

A. Cs+ < Ba2+ < I–

B. Cs+ < I– < Ba2+
C. I– < Ba2+ < Cs+
D. Ba2+ < Cs+ < I–
E. I– < Cs+ < Ba2+

27. How many valence electrons are there in an atom of Sn?

A. 3 B. 4 C. 10 D. 14 E. 36

28. For which of the following does the light emitted have the longest wavelength?

A. n = 3 to n = 4
B. n = 4 to n = 3
C. n = 8 to n = 7
D. n = 1 to n = 2
E. n = 2 to n =1

8
29. Which of the following atoms has the largest number of unpaired electrons?

A. Sb B. Se C. Cl D. Ni E. Cd

30. Which one of the following statements about atomic structure and quantum
numbers is incorrect?

A. The n = 4 main energy level has 4 types of orbitals.

B. The maximum number of electrons in a given d sublevel is 5.
C. The value of m l cannot be 3 in the n = 3 main energy level.
D. There are no d orbitals in the n = 2 main energy level.
E. In a particular atom, if one electron has the set of three quantum numbers n = 3, l = 2,
m l = –2, only one other electron in the atom can have these same three quantum
numbers.

(Answers on next page)

9
1. A
2. C
3. E
4. D
5. B
6. B
7. B
8. A
9. E
10. B
11. A
12. B
13. E
14. A
15. C
16. D
17. D
18. D
19. D
20. D
21. D
22. D
23. C
24. B
25. D
26. D
27. B
28. C
29. A
30. B

10