DENTISTRY REVIEWER

1. Most commonly indicative of flattened diaphragms in B. Bleeding diathesis

radiologic studies? C. Atrioventricular (AV) malformation
A. COPD C. Asthma D. Genetic abnormality
B. PTB D. Pneumonia 14. In what population are subdural hematomas most common?
2. What are the most common causes of hyperphosphatemia? A. The adults and smokers
A. Patient’s induced C. Iatrogenic B. The elderly and alcoholics
B. Doctor’s induced D. B and C C. The young and crippled
D. The toddlers and ADHD
3. What is the most common cause of rejection during a blood
transfusion? 15. In what part of the colon are diverticula most commonly
A. Clerical error leading to ABO compatibility found?
B. Clerical error leading to RH incompatibility A. Duodenum C. Jejunum
C. Clerical error leading to RH compatibility B. Sigmoid D. Ileum
D. Clerical error leading to ABO incompatibility 16. The most common presenting symptom in diverticulitis is
4. What is the most common cause of hypertension? A. right upper quadrant abdominal pa
A. 90% is nonessential or idiopathic B. left upper quadrant abdominal pa
B. 90% is essential or zoonotic C. right lower quadrant abdominal pain
C. 90% is essential or idiopathic D. left lower quadrant abdominal pain
D. 90% is nonessential or zoonotic 17. What is the most common cause of cirrhosis?
5. What is the most common cause of RHF? A. Smoking C. Vaping
A. Left heart failure B. Alcoholism D. Diet rich in fats
B. Left heart congestion 18. What is the most common organism causing SBP?
C. Right heart failure A. EHEC C. E. coli
D. Right heart cardiomyopathy B. ETEC D. EIEC
6. What valve is most commonly affected in an IV drug user with 19. What is the most common enzyme deficiency that causes
infective endocarditis? hemolytic anemia?
A. Aortic valve C. Tricuspid valve A. Gaucher’s disease
B. Mitral valve D. Pulmonic valve B. G6PD deficiency
7. What is the most common sign in a patient with a PE C. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
A. Sinus tachycardia C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Krabbe’s disease
B. Sinus bradycardia D. Sinus flutter 20. What is the most common cause of CRF?
8. What three bacterial pathogens most commonly cause A. Hypertension C. UTI
meningitis in neonates? B. Diabetes D. Renal colic
A. Listeria C. Escherichia coli 21. What is the most common glomerulonephropathy?
B. Group B streptococcus D. All of the above A. IgA nephropathy
9. What is the most common symptom of Alzheimer?
 B. Glumerulonephritis
A. Muscle rigidity C. Memory deficits C. Buerger disease
B. Tremors D. None D. Goodpasture syndrome
10. What is the most common type of headache? 22. What is the most common type of kidney stone?
A. Tension headache C. Migraine A. Ammonium magnesium phosphate
B. Cluster headache D. All of the above B. Calcium pyrophosphate
C. Both
11. What psychiatric disorder is it most commonly associated with D. None
headache?
A. Psychosis 23. What is the most common type/s of skin cancer?
B. Psychosomatic reaction A. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Neuropsychiatric asthenia B. Basal cell carcinoma
D. Depression C. Both
D. Neither
12. What is the most common age group with this type of
depression headache? 24. What are the most common causative agents of cellulitis?
A. Between 1 and 19 years of age A. Staphylococcus C. All of the above
B. Between 20 and 50 years of age B. Streptococcus D. None of the above
C. Between 51 and 69 years of age 25. What is the most common causative agent of “hot tub”
D. No specific age group folliculitis?
13. What is the most common underlying cause of a spontaneous A. Klebsiella C. Treponema
SAH? B. Pseudomonas D. Clostridium
A. Hypertension 26. Where are the herpes lesions most commonly found?
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

A. Oral-labial region C. Both A. Vaping C. High fat diet

B. Genitals D. Neither B. Alcoholism D. Smoking
27. What form of HSV is most commonly found in HSV2? 39. What is the most likely etiology of iron deficiency anemia?
A. Oral-labial region C. Both A. In women of childbearing age
B. Genitals D. Neither B. Chronic blood loss
28. In Erythema Nodosum, what patient population is it most C. Parasitic infection
commonly seen?
 D. Colon cancer
A. Young women between the ages of 15 and 30 40. In what ethnicity is alpha-thalassemia most likely to be found?
B. Young men between the ages of 15 and 30 A. American C. Arabs
C. Young women between the ages of 35 and 50 B. British D. Asians
D. Young men between the ages of 35 and 50 41. In what ethnicities is beta-thalassemia most likely to be found?
29. In pityriasisrosea, what season is this most commonly seen? A. African C. Asian
A. Winter C. Summer B. Mediterranean D. A and B
B. Spring D. Fall 42. What is/are the most likely underlying cause of acromegaly?
30. What is the most common causative agent of Erysipelas? A. Pituitary adenoma secreting GH
A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Pituitary lymphoma secreting LH
B. Staphylococusaureus C. Both
C. Klebsiella pneumonia D. Neither
D. None 43. What is the most likely etiology of Addison disease?
31. What is the most common causative agent of folliculitis?
 A. Chronic destruction of the adrenal gland
A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Iatrogenic destruction of the adrenal gland
B. Staphylococusaureus C. Autoimmune destruction of the adrenal gland
C. Klebsiella pneumonia D. None of the above
D. None 44. What is the most likely cause of secondary adrenal
32. What is the gold standard for diagnosis of PE? insufficiency?
A. Pulmonary angiography C. ABG A. Kreb’s cycle axis disturbance
B. CT scan D. Ultrasound B. Hypothalamic-pituitary axis disturbance
33. How is nephrolithiasis diagnosed is the gold standard for C. Both neiter
diagnosis? 45. What is/are the skin cancer most likely to cause death?

A. Pulmonary angiography A. Melanoma C. Squamous cell ca
B. CT scan B. Basal cell ca D. All of the above
C. ABG 46. What is the type of skin cancer most likely to be found in
D. IV pyelogram younger age groups?
34. What is the gold standard diagnostic technique to evaluate A. Melanoma C. Squamous cell ca
osteomyelitis? B. Basal cell ca D. All of the above
A. CT Scan C. ABG 47. A patient who becomes jaundiced while on TPN or PPN most
B. MRI D. Pyelogram likely has what condition?
35. What is the gold standard for diagnosis of PE? A. Diverticilitis C. Carcinoma
A. IV pyelogram B. Gastritis D. Cholestasis
B. CT Scan
C. Pulmonary angiography 48. What is the most likely cause of right-sided endocarditis?
D. ABG A. AV malformation C. IVDA
36. A person with what body habitus is most likely to have a B. HOCM D. None
primary spontaneous pneumothorax? 49. What does it signify if the pleural fluid has > 10,000 WBCs with
A. Tall and thin male polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs)?
B. Tall and thin female A. Most likely a lung effusion
C. Both B. Most likely a bronchial effusion
D. None C. Most likely a parapneumonic effusion
37. What is the most likely etiology of a primary spontaneous D. Most likely a paramesonephric effusion
pneumothorax? 50. What is the etiology of ARDS?
A. Trauma to the respiratory muscles A. Endothelial injury C. Bronchial injury
B. Rupture of subpleural blebs B. Pulmonary injury D. All of the above
C. Bleeding from the bronchial veins and arteries
D. None
51. Endothelial injury in ARDS is/are secondary to?
A. Aspiration
38. What is the most likely causative factor of lung cancer? B. Multiple transfusions
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

C. Shock, sepsis and trauma 66. How is hepatitis A treated?

D. All of the above A. It is a self-limiting disease
52. What are the possible etiologies for a CVA? B. Antibiotics
A. Ischemic C. Hypoperfusion C. Vaccines
B. Hemorrhagic D. All of the above D. None
53. What are the two etiologies for ischemia? 67. What is the triad for Plummer-Vinson, except?
A. Thrombotic etiology C. Both A. Microcytosis C. Atrophic glossitis
B. Embolic etiology D. None B. Abdominal pain D. Esophageal webs
54. Thrombotic etiology in ischemia is/are secondary to? 68. What is the triad that is often seen in multiple myeloma,
A. Atherosclerosis C. Both except?
B. Arteriosclerosis D. Neither A. Anemia C. Abdominal pain
55. Embolic etiology in ischemia is usually either cardiac in origin B. Back pain D. Renal failure
or from? 69. What autoimmune disorder is associated with the following
A. Testicular artery C. Ovarian artery triad, except?
B. Pudendal artery D. Carotid arteries A. Keratoconjunctivitissicca,
56. What are the main etiologies of delirium except? B. Xerostomia, and arthritis
A. Hypertension
 C. Drugs C. Sjögren syndrome
B. Infection D. Electrolyte abnormalities D. Abdominal pain
57. What is the etiology of Meniere disease? 70. What is Beck’s triad, except?
A. Excess endolymph causes dilation of the membranous A. Abdominal pain
labyrinth B. Hypotension
B. Deficiency in endolymph causes shrinking of the C. Distant heart sounds
membranous labyrinth D. JVD
C. Both 71. What are the risk factors for a DVT?
D. Neither A. Virchow’s triad
58. What are the different etiologic categories of hepatitis? B. Stasis
A. Viral C. Toxin-induced (Tylenol) C. Hypercoagulable state
B. Alcoholic D. All of the above D. All of the above
59. Name the hepatitis viruses transmitted via the fecal-oral 72. What is the triad of symptoms of Meniere’s disease, except?
route? A. Tinnitus
A. Hepatitis A and E B. Hearing loss
B. Hepatitis B and C C. Abdominal pain
C. Hepatitis C and D D. Episodic vertigo lasting hours
D. Hepatitis D and B
60. Name the hepatitis viruses transmitted via blood and sexual
contact, except?
A. Hepatitis A C. Hepatitis C
B. Hepatitis B D. None 73. What are the classic symptoms (Charcot’s triad) of ascending
cholangitis, except?
61. Name the only DNA hepatic virus.? A. Abdominal pain C. Fever
A. Hepatitis A C. Hepatitis C
B. Jaundice D. RUQ tenderness
B. Hepatitis B D. Hepatitis D
74. Reynold pentad consists of the following, except?
62. Which hepatitis viruses have a chronic carrier state, except? A. Charcot triad C. Shock
A. Hepatitis A C. Hepatitis C
B. Altered mental status D. Abdominal pain
B. Hepatitis BD. Hepatitis D
75. Part of history that identifies the name, date, age, gender,
63. Which hepatitis viruses have a vaccine available? race, occupation
A. Hepatitis A C. Hepatitis B
A. Chief complaint C. General Data
B. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis D
B. HPI D. PE
64. How can you detect an acute hepatitis A infection? 76. Personal and social history consists of the following, except?
A. Anti-hepatitis A virus (HAV) IgM
A. Sexual history
B. Anti-hepatitis A virus (HAV) IgG
B. Religious history
C. Anti-hepatitis A virus (HAV) IgA
C. Cultural preference
D. None
D. Preferred brand of clothing
65. How can you detect immunity to hepatitis A? 77. Types of History used in clinical medicine, except
A. Anti-HAV IgG C. Anti-HAV IgE
A. Complete C. Interim
B. Anti-HAV IgM D. None
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

B. Inventory D. Non-focused B. with no end organ failure

C. both
78. What percentage of body mass is water? D. none
A. 10 – 20% C. 50 – 70%
B. 30 – 50% D. 80 – 100% 93. Define hypertensive emergency?
A. Systolic > 180, diastolic > 120
79. What type of IV fluid should be given for fluid resuscitation? B. with no end organ failure
A. NSS C. Normal wate C. both
B. PLR D. None D. none
80. What is pseudohyperkalemia? 94. Major risk factors for CAD?
A. K level of 3.5–5.0 mEq/L A. Obesity
B. Elevated K+ in a blood sample due to hemolysis B. Male
C. Both C. Postmenopausal female
D. None D. None
81. What is the risk of rapid correction of hypernatremia? 95. Emergent treatment of an MI, except?
A. Vascular edema C. Cerebral edema A. Aspirin
B. Pedal edema D. None B. Beta blocker
82. What can happen if sodium is corrected too quickly? C. Oxygen
A. Central pontinemyelinolysis C. Both D. None
B. Fluid overload D. None 96. What are Janeway lesions?
83. How many kilocalories (Kcal) in 1 gram of fat? A. Dark hemorrhagic peripheral macules
A. 9 kcal C. 5 kcal B. Nodules usually on palms and sole
B. 4 kcal D. 10 kcal C. both
84. How many kcal in 1 gram of carbohydrate? D. none
A. 9 kcal C. 5 kcal 97. What are Roth spots?
B. 4 kcal D. 10 kcal A. Dark hemorrhagic peripheral macules
85. How many kcal in 1 gram of protein? B. Nodules usually on palms and sole
A. 9 kcal C. 5 kcal C. Retinal hemorrhages
B. 4 kcal D. 10 kcal D. All of the above
86. Name the fat-soluble vitamins? 98. What are Osler nodes?
A. Vitamin A A. Dark hemorrhagic peripheral macules
B. Vitamin D B. Nodules usually on palms and sole
C. Vitamin E C. Retinal hemorrhages
D. Vitamin K D. Petechiae on fingernails
99. What is the peak age of ALL?
87. What are the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors? A. Age 1-2 (neonatal)
A. Factor 10 B. Age 3–4 (most common cancer in children)
B. Factor 9 C. Age 15-18 (teenagers)
C. Factor 7 D. Age 35-50 (adults)
D. Factor 2 100. What is the most common cause of cancer death in the
88. Which foods have vitamin K? United States?
A. Leafy green vegetables A. Ovarian cancer
B. Yellow citrus fruits B. Prostate cancer
C. High fat content stews C. Breast cancer
D. All of the above D. Lung cancer
89. What blood type is considered the universal donor? 101. Which sinus is most commonly affected in postnasal drip?
A. A C. AB A. Submaxillary sinus
B. B D. O B. Maxillary sinus
C. Submental sinus
90. What blood type is considered the universal recipient? D. Post auricular sinus
A. A C. AB
B. B D.O 102. What is the most common etiology of a CVA?

A. Ischemia C. Hemorrhage
91. What is the life span of a RBC? B. Infarction D. All of the above
A. 120 seconds C. 120 hours
B. 120 minutes D. 120 days 103. What chemotherapy regimens in HL are most commonly
used?
92. Define hypertensive urgency? A. ABVD: adriamycin, bleomycin, vincristine, dacarbazine
A. Systolic > 180, diastolic > 120
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

B. MOPP: meclorethamine, oncovin, procarbazine, B. E.coli, Strep. Pneumonia and Klebsiella pneumonia
prednisone C. Strep. Pneumonia and Klebsiella pneumonia, Treponema
C. Both sp.
D. Neither D. Neiserria meningitides, N. gonorrhea and Treponema sp.
104. What is the most common infection leading to delirium in 116. In what ethnicities is G6PD deficiency most common?
the elderly? A. Sephardic Jews C. Middle Easterners
A. Bronchitis C. Meningitis B. Mediterraneans D. All of the above
B. Urinary tract infection D. Sinusitis 117. What is the most common cause of Cushing syndrome?
105. What is the most common valvular heart disease found in A. Vitamin deficiency
young women? B. Loss of enzyme receptors fro activation
A. Aortic regurgitation C. Exogenous corticosteroids
B. tricuspid regurgitation D. None of the above

C. mitral stenosis 118. What is the most common cause of atelectasis?
D. Mitral valve prolapse A. Immunocompromised patients with excellent vital signs
106. What is the most common extra pulmonary location for B. Patients recovered from flu
TB to spread? C. Asthmatic patients
A. Testis C. Kidneys D. A postoperative patient who is non ambulatory for a
B. Ovary D. Cervix long period of time
107. What is the most common pathogen in urinary tract 119. What is the most common cause of folate deficiency?
infections (UTIs)? A. Low intake
A. Staphyloccocussp C. Neiserria sp. B. Hypoalimentation
B. Streptococcus sp D. Escherichia coli C. Malabsorption
108. What it the most common chronic arrhythmia? D. Blood loss
A. Atrial flutter C. Ventricular flutter 120. What is the most common leukemia in adults?
B. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular fibrillation A. AML B. CML C. ALL D. CLL
109. Which nerves are most commonly involved in herpes 121. What is the most common cause of hemoptysis?
zoster? A. Bronchitis C. Bronchial asthma
A. Abdominal nerves C. Genital nerves B. Bronchopneumonia D. Bronchiectasis
B. Ophthalmic nerves D. Thoracic nerves 122. What form of HSV is most commonly found in HSV1?
A. Oral-labial region
110. What age group does CML most commonly affect? B. Genitals
A. 10-20 years of age C. Both
B. 20-40 years of age D. Neither
C. 40–60 years of age 123. What is the most common type of pituitary tumor?
D. 60-80 years of age A. Pituitary adenomas
111. Internationally, what is the most common cause of portal B. Prolactinoma
hypertension? C. Microadenomas
A. Schistosomiasis C. Alcoholism D. Macroademonas
B. Smoking D. Paragonimiasis 124. What is the most common viral cause of myocarditis?
112. What is the second most common location of volvulus? A. Enterovirus infection
A. Duodenum C. Sigmoid colon B. Corona Virus
B. Stomach D. Cecum C. Herpes virus
113. What are the two most common causes of pancreatitis? D. HIV
A. Alcoholic pancreatitis 125. What valve is most commonly affected in endocarditis?
B. Gallstone pancreatitis A. Aortic valve
C. A and B B. Mitral valve
D. None of the above C. Tricuspid valve
114. What is the most common cause of endogenous D. Pulmonic valve
hypercortisolism? 126. Of the adult cases of ALL, what subtype is most common?
A. Cushing disease C. Cushing syndrome A. L1
B. Curling’s disease D. None of the above B. L2
115. What are the most common pathogen/s that colonize the C. L3
lung in an individual with bronchiectasis? D. All of the above
A. Haemophilusinfluenza, staphylococcus aureus and 127. How do you treat the organisms that most commonly
Pseudomonas infect the lung in bronchiectasis?
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

A. First-generation cephalosporin D. Haemophilus influenza

B. Second-generation cephalosporin 140. Name the most common subtypes of NHL?
C. Third-generation cephalosporin A. diffuse large cell lymphoma
D. Fourth-generation cephalosporin B. follicular small cleaved cell
128. What is the second most common cancer causing death in C. lymphoblastic lymphoma
the United States? D. Burkitt lymphoma
A. Colon cancer C. Breast cancer 141. What is the most common cause of osteomyelitis in a
B. Prostate cancer D. Ovarian cancer patient with a deep foot puncture wound?
129. What is the most common type of GB stone?
 A. Klebsiella C. Treponema
A. Cholesterol stone C. Mixed stone B. Pseudomonas D. Clostridium
B. Pigmented stone D. Gravel stone 142. What is the most common type of brain tumor?
130. What is the most common cause of cirrhosis? A. Myxomatous tumor C. Astrocytic tumor
A. Smoking C. Vaping B. Metastatic tumor D. Glial type tumor
B. Alcoholism D. Diet rich in fats 143. What is the most common demyelinating disorder?
131. What are the most common pathogens involved in acute A. GBS C. MSD
bacterial sinusitis? B. Multiple sclerosis D. None
A. Crytococcus sp., Aspergilous sp. and Dermatophytoses 144. What are the two most common causes of peptic ulcer
B. Taeniasolium, Taeniasaginata, Ascarislumbricoides disease?
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae,
 H. influenzae, and Moraxella A. Staph. aureusinfection and frequent antibiotic use
catarrhalis B. Strep. spcinfection and frequent antibiotic use
D. Corona, Herpes simplex and Paramyxo C. Klebsiellainfection and frequent NSAID use
132. What is the most common location of volvulus? D. H. pylori infection and frequent NSAID use
A. Rectum C. Stomach 145. What is the most common cause of osteomyelitis in a
B. Duodenum D. Sigmoid colon patient with sickle cell anemia?
133. What are the most common complications of A. Klebsiella C. Treponema
parathyroidectomy? B. Salmonella D. Clostridium
A. Hoarseness because of damage of the recurrent 146. What are the most common causative agents of Impetigo
laryngeal nerve and hypocalcemia in adults?
B. Pain because of inflammation of the laryngeal artery A. S. aureus C. S.epidermidis
C. Increase surge of calcium in the blood causes edema of B. S. pyogenes D. S.pneumonia
the surrounding tissues
D. All of the above
147. What is the second most common type of kidney stone?
A. Ammonium magnesium phosphate
134. What is second most common skin cancer? B. Calcium pyrophosphate
A. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Both C. Both
B. Basal cell carcinoma D. Neither D. None
135. Where are SCCs most commonly found? 148. What valve is most commonly affected in rheumatic heart
A. Sun-exposed areas of skin C. Whiter complexion disease?
B. Heavy-lotioned skin D. Freckled skin A. Aortic valve C. Tricuspid valve
136. What is the most common transfusion-related infection? B. Mitral valve D. Pulmonic valve
A. AIDS C. Hematoma 149. What is the most common carcinoma in children?
B. Cancer D. Hepatitis A. AML C. ALL
137. What are the underlying etiologies of mitral stenosis? B. CML D. CLL
A. Most commonly due to rheumatic heart disease 150. What is the most common joint to be affected?

B. Most commonly due to cardiomyopathy A. First metatarsophalangeal joint
C. Most commonly due to acute myocardial infarction B. Second metatarsophalangeal joint
D. Most commonly due to valvular heart disease C. Third metatarsophalangeal joint
138. In what patient population is it most commonly found D. Fourth metatarsophalangeal joint
Erythrasma? 151. What is the most common location for a berry aneurysm?
A. Diabetics C. Asthmatics A. Superior communicating artery
B. Hypertensive D. Photogenics B. Inferior communicating artery
139. What is the most common bacterial pathogen causing C. Posterior communicating artery
meningitis in adults? D. Anterior communicating artery
A. Staphylococcus aureus 152. What is the most common cause of RHF?
B. Neisseria meningitides A. Left heart failure
C. Streptococcus pneumonia B. Left heart congestion
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

C. Right heart failure C. Bronchitis

D. Right heart cardiomyopathy D. Emphysema
153. In what sex is polycythemia vera most commonly seen? 165. What is the most common type of gastric cancer?
A. Males C. Gays A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Females D. Lesbians B. Squamous cell carcinoma
154. What is the most common drug to cause lupus-like C. Basal cell carcinoma
symptoms? D. Lipomas
A. Amoxycillin C. Amiodarone 166. What ALL subtype is most common in children?
B. Cephalexin D. Procainamide A. L1 C. L3
155. What is the most common cause of a major lower GI B. L2 D. All of the above
bleed in a patient over age 60? 167. What is the most common cause of SAH?
A. Peptic ulcer disease C. Diverticulosis A. Head trauma C. Hypertension
B. Gastritis D. Polyposis B. Tumor D. Cancer
156. What are the three most common causes of chronic 168. What are the most common infective agents in
cough? Hiddradenitissuppurative?
A. Post nasal drip C. GERD A. Staphylococcus C. Both
B. Asthma D. All of the above B. Streptococcus D. Neither
157. What is the most common genetic coagulopathy? 169. In what population does Group B streptococcus cause
A. Von Willebrand factor deficiency meningitis?
B. Christmas factor deficiency A. Neonates C. Geriatrics
C. Intrinsic pathway deficiency B. Pediatrics D. Nursing
D. Extrinsic pathway deficiency 170. What are the most common signs and symptoms seen of
158. What is the most common cranial nerve tumor? an acute rejection?
A. Ependymoma C. Both A. Fever, chills, tachycardia, shock, acute renal failure
B. Schwannoma D. None B. Fever, chills, bradycardia, shock, chronic renal failure
159. What are the two most commonly used maintenance C. Fever, chills, tachycardia, edema, acute renal failure
fluids? D. Fever, chills, bradycardia, edema, chronic renal failure
A. D5 NS or D5 1⁄2 NS with 20 mEq K 171. Which joints do psoriatic arthritis most commonly affect?
B. D51⁄2 NS or D5 NS with 20 mEq K A. Proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint
C. D51⁄2 NS or D5 1⁄2 NS with 20 mEq K B. Superior interphalangeal (SIP) joint
D. D5 NS or D5 NS with 20 mEq K C. Inferior interphalangeal (IIP) joint
160. What is the most common organism causing cholangitis? D. Distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint
A. Clostridium sp C. E. coli 172. Where are BCCs most commonly found?

B. Eneterobacter D. Staphylococcus A. Heavy-lotioned skin C. Freckled skin
161. What are the most common causes of postnasal drip? B. Whiter complexion D. Sun exposed skin
A. Sinusitis, allergic rhinitis, seasonal or environmental 173. What is the most common etiology of a pulmonary
allergies, flu or cold embolism?
B. Feeling full, abdominal tenderness and flatulence A. Coagulated blood
C. Arthritic pain on extension and flexion of leg B. Activated blood by products
D. Headache, nape pain and dizziness C. Dislodged deep vein thrombosis
162. What is the most common organism causing D. All of the above
osteomyelitis? 174. What is the most common mesodermal tumor?
A. Streptococcus pneumonia A. Astrocytoma C. Glioblastoma
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis B. Ependymoma D. Meningioma
C. Streptococcus neoformans 175. What is the most common cause of intrinsic renal failure?
D. Staphylococcus aureus A. Pre renal azotemia
163. What are the most common causes of normocytic B. Post renal azothemia
anemia? C. Acute tubular necrosis
A. Menstruation D. Chronic glomerulonephritis
B. Acute blood loss 176. What is the most common cause of primary
C. Anemia of chronic disease hyperparathyroidism?
D. Excessive blood donation A. Melanoma C. Lymphoma
164. What is the most common cause of hemoptysis? B. Adenoma D. Lipomas
A. Asthma
B. Bronchiectasis
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

177. What is the most common type of primary brain 192. What is the most common presenting symptom of
neoplasm? Goodpasture disease?
A. Gliablastoma C. Astrocytoma A. Hemoptysis C. Hematuria
B. Metastatic Carcinoma D. Chondroblastoma B. Hematemesis D. Hematochezia
178. What valve is most commonly affected in an IV drug user 193. What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?
with infective endocarditis? A. Graves disease C. Thyroid storm
A. Aortic valve C. Tricuspid valve B. Hashimotos thyroiditis D. None
B. Mitral valve D. Pulmonic valve 194. What is the most common type of thyroid cancer?
179. What is the most common cause of emphysema? A. Follicular cncer C. Anaplastic cancer
A. Vaping C. Genetic B. Medullary cancer D. Papillary cancer
B. Bettle nut chewing D. Smoking 195. What is the most common sign of a pheochromocytoma?
180. What is the most common cause of an acute cough? A. Hyperglycemia C. Fever
A. Allergic rhinitis C. Allergic cough B. Pain D. Hypertension
B. Postnasal drip D. Throat irritation 196. What is the most common cause of vaginitis?
181. What most common cause of acute sinusitis? A. Viral vaginosis caused by Gardnerella
A. Viruses C. Parasites B. Bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella
B. Bacteria D. Fungi C. Fungal vaginosis caused by Gardnerella
182. What is the most common type of astrocytoma? D. Iatrogenic vaginosis caused by Gardnerella
A. Glioblastomamultiforme C. Both 197. What are the two most common cause/s of osteomyelitis
B. Astrocytoma multiforme D. None in a patient who is an IV drug user?
183. In what population are ependymomas most common? A. Pseudomonas C. Both
A. Neonates C. Geriatrics B. S. aureus D. None
B. Adults D. Children 198. What are the most common causative agents of Impetigo
184. What is the most common cause of dementia? in children?
A. Alzheimer C. Drug induced A. S. aureus C. S.epidermidis
B. Parkinson D. Iatrogenic B. S. pyogenes D. S.pneumonia

185. What is the most common cause of vertigo?
A. Benign positional vertigo C. Hypotension COMMUNITY DENT PRETEST
B. Hypoglycemia D. Cardiac arrhythmia 199. The basic concept of community dentistry is
186. What is the most common motility disorder often seen in A. Health Status C. Preventive
patients with scleroderma? B. Education D. Curative
A. Esophageal hypermotility 200. Leavell and Clark identified the first and second level of
B. Esophageal hypomotility prevention as
C. Esophageal dysmotility
A. Health Promotion And Health Protection
D. None of the above
B. Health Promotion And Early Diagnosis
187. What is the most common symptom of diverticulitis? C. Health Protection And Prompt Treatment
A. Asymptomatic C. Abdominal pain D. Health Promotion And Prompt Treatment
B. Bleeding D. Vomiting
201. Two useful tools in community dentistry are
188. What is the most common nosocomial enteric infection? A. Anatomy And Physiology
A. Klebsiella pneumonia C. Clostridium tetani B. Chemistry And Pathology
B. Clostridium difficile D. Acinetobacter bacteria C. Microbiology And Health
189. What is the most common cause of vitamin B12 D. Epidemiology And Biostatistics
deficiency? 202. The multifactorial theory of dental caries includes
A. Megaloblastic anemia C. Macrocytic anemia
A. Agent, Host & Microorganism
B. Microcytic anemia D. Pernicious anemia
B. Agent, Host &Environment
190. What is the most common type of Hodgkin lymphoma?
C. Agent, Host, Environment And Time
A. Nodular sclerosing C. Lymphocyte rich
B. Mixed cellularity D. Lymphocyte depleted D. Cariogenic Food, Substrate, Agent And Host
191. What is the most common type of arthritis? 203. The microbial agent in dental caries etiology is
A. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Osteoarthritis A. Infection Microbe
B. Juvenile arthritis D. Septic arthritis B. Staphylococcus Aureus
C. Streptococcus Inviedaus
D. Streptococcus Mutans
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

204. A community consists basically of 217. In the concept of primary health 'care, the principal
A. Interacting People C. Governing Laws stakeholder is the
B. People Advocacy D. Unity A. Dentist C. Politicians
205. The measure of oral hygiene for international use is B. Community D. Workers
A. OHI - S C. HI 218. Periodontal disease increases in
B. OHI D. HI-S A. Schoolchildren C. Pregnant Woman
206. CPITN is more B. Old Age D. Lactating Mother
A. Population Focused C. Treatment Focused 219. Which of the following is the major modality of fluoride
B. Clinically Based D. Diagnosis Centered excretion in man?
207. Health is defined as A. Sweat D. Expired Air
A. State Of Well Being B. Urine E. Saliva
B. State Of Physical And Social Well Being With Absence Of C. Feces
Sickness 220. Which of the following statements best accounts for the
C. State Of Physical, Mental And Social Well Being And Not effect of the fluoride ion on tooth enamel ? It makes tooth
Merely The Absence Of Disease Or Infirmity
enamel
D. Source Of Wealth And Form Of Development
A. Harder
208. In modern epidemiology an epidemic is defined as B. Whiter
A. An Acute Outbreak Of Infectious Disease C. More Resistant To Acid Dissolution
B. An Acute Outbreak Of Chronic Disease D. Basic In Ph
C. A Chronically Present Disease E. More Resistant To Bacterial Enzymes
D. An Occurrence Of A Disease Clearly In Excess Of Normal
221. The first procedural pattern in public health is
Expectation
A. Analysis C. Survey
209. City A had 54 cases of a certain disease last year while city B. Program Plan D. Evaluation
B had 127 period what, if anything ,is missing to make a
222. The cleaning property of toothpaste is primarily a function
meaningful comparison of the disease experiences of the two
of its
cities
A. Fluoride Content
A. Nothing----City B’s Experience Was Obviously Worse Than B. Physical Form Paste Or Powder
City A’s C. Abrasiveness
B. The Number Of Cases From A Control City D. Binding Agents
C. Total Population Of The Two Cities.
D. Number Of Doctors In The Two Cities.
223. The passing of authority and power from the national
government to the local government is called
210. Maximum effect of caries reduction fluoridation is
A. Reengineering C. Devolution
A. 60% C. 50%
B. Dissolution D. Implementation
B. 40% D. 70%
224. Arithmetic mean is called
211. 2% sodium fluoride application was introduced by
A. Median C. Average
A. Knutson C. Muhler
B. Mode D. Rate
B. Glautz D. Loe
225. Line graphs are used to
212. 8-10% stannous fluoride application was introduced by
A. Portray Precision C. Portray Relation
A. Muhler C. Gustaffson
B. Portray Trends D. Portray Volume
B. Knutson D. Draker
226. Prevalence refers to
213. POSDCORBE is an acronym in administration authored by
A. Old And New Cases C. Old Cases
A. Gullick C. Taylor
B. New Cases D. Average Of New Cases
B. Terry D. Fayol
227. Arithmetic mean is called
214. Judging the merits of a health activity or program is
A. Median C. Average
A. Evaluation C. Organizing
B. Mode D. Rate
B. Planning D. Directing
228. The optimal level of fluoride in the Philippines is
215. Mean, median, mode is a measure of
A. 0.45-0.70 Ppm C. 0.1-1.0 Ppm
A. Dispersion C. Range
B. 0.6-0.8 Ppm D. 1.0-1.5 Ppm
B. Average D. Central Tendency
229. ART combines in one procedure the
216. Range is a measure of
A. Preventive And Curative
A. Dispersion C. Mode
B. Functioning And Esthetics
B. Mean D. Central Tendency
C. Early Diagnosis And Treatment Planning
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

D. Controlling And Restoring 241. What do you call the middlemost observation in a set of
observation in numerical order?
230. The ability of an agent to produce disease is A. Mean C. Mode
A. Infection C. Virulence B. Median D. Middle Observation
B. Pathogenecity D. Resistance
242. Which among of this is not a public health management?
231. The term mortality, used in epidemiology, refers to
A. Planning C. Evaluation
A. Death
B. Implementation D. Advertising
B. Birth
C. Disease 243. Among children the prevalence of oral diseases is due to:
D. Reasons as to why disease and death occur in a pulp A. Poor Oral Hygiene C. Crowding
232. It is the adjustment of the fluoride content of a B. Heredity D. Orthodontics Appliances
community’s water supply to an optimal level for the 244. In selecting a toothbrush for a patient, which of the
prevention of dental caries. following should exert the most
A. Fluoridization C. Water Filtration
influence?
B. Fluoridation D. Water Purification
A. Condition Of The Patient’s Gingival
233. Studied the direct relationship between community water B. Endorsement Of An Association
fluoride levels and enamel fluorosis and an inverse relationship
C. Comfort And Ease In Use
between dental caries and community water fluoride levels.
A. Cuttress C. Brunnelle D. Oral Health Needs Of The Patients
B. Trendley Dean D. Russell 245. In community organization, worker focuses on
234. Essential health care based on practical scientifically A. Skills
sound and socially acceptable methods and technology made B. Process Of Self Realization
universally accessible to individuals and families in the C. Member
community: D. Projects
A. Ruralheath Care C. Primary Health Care 246. The disadvantage of using Stannous Fluoride for topical
B. Basic Health Care D. Primary Preventive use is
235. Which of the following is/are methods applied in A. Bitter Metallic Taste
summarizing and presenting data? B. More Dental Visits Compared To Other Topical
Fluoride
A. Tabular Presentation
C. Expensive
B. Graphical Presentation D. gum irritation
C. Measure Of Central Tendency The Above
247. Resources are
D. All Of
A. men
236. The science and art of preventing disease, prolonging life, B. money
and promoting physical and mental efficiency through C. men, money and materials
organized community approach: D. men, money, materials, methods, marketing and time
A. Dental Public Health C. Community Dentistry 248. Disclosing tablets contain
B. Restorative Dentistry D. Public Health A. Baking Soda C. Water Soluble Dye
237. What is the material of choice for ART? B. Salt D. Pumice
A. Composite Resin C. Irm 249. The most suitable method of evaluating caries is:
B. Glass Ionomer Cement D. Amalgam A. Percussion C. Radiography
238. Is a graphical representation of the age and sex B. Saliva Test D. Oral Examination
composition of the population. 250. The formal launching on health for all by the year 2000 was
A. Population Diagram C. Population Pyramid in
B. Population Count D. Census A. Sept. 11, 1981 C. Mar. 6, 1991
239. Arrangement of scores from lowest to highest. B. Sept. 11, 1978 D. Mar. 6, 1980
A. Average C. Array 251. The responsibility of public health dentist is.
B. Range D. Mean A. primary prevention C. tertiary prevention
240. _____ is subset of the population in biostatistics. B. secondary prevention D. treatment procedure
A. Study Group C. Sample 252. The basic concept of community dentistry is
B. Baseline Group D. Priority Group A. Organized effort
B. Moderation
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

C. Preventive B. Vital Statistics

D. Health philosophy C. Descriptive Statistics
253. Dental health is responsibility of D. Health Statistics
A. Dental hygienist C. All of these 262. The following is/are the criteria for a good sampling design
B. Dental society D. Health educator EXCEPT
254. Basic health service in a local unit includes A. The Sample Obtained Should Be Representative Of The
A. Environment sanitation Population
B. Prevent and control of communicable disease B. The Design Should Be Feasible
C. All of these C. The Sample Size Should Be Adequate
D. Maternal and child health services D. None Of These

255. NGOs are 263. Defined as one which every element of the population has
A. Non-governing office an equal and independent chance of being selected
B. Non-governing operations A. Independent sampling
C. New-governing operations B. Ramdom sampling
D. Non-governing organizations C. Dependent sampling
D. Stratified sampling
256. Medicard, medicare, philamcare are examples of
A. A life insurance 264. Denotes type of sampling in which in the definitive parts of
B. Self help/care group the total sample are allocated to define parts
C. Private hospital A. Selective Sampling C. Discrete Sampling
D. Health maintenance organization B. Random Sampling D. Stratified Sampling

257. Primary prevention includes all EXCEPT 265. Results of survey conducted two years ago is
A. Oral hygiene instruction A. Secondary Data
B. None of these B. Variables
C. Dietary counseling C. Discrete Data
D. Pit and fissure sealing D. Primary Data

258. Preventive dentistry includes the ff EXCEPT 266. Broad statements on overall purpose of a program to meet
A. Dietary Measures a defined problem
B. Topical Fluoride Applications A. Program Goal
C. Oral Hygiene B. Program Activities
D. Fixed Bridge Restoration C. None Of These
D. Program Objectives
259. Regular visits to the dentist should be scheduled according
to 267. What is the appearance of normal enamel without
A. Ages 3, 7, 10 And 13 fluorosis/
B. Six Month Intervals A. Chalk And Dull C.Leathery And Tough
B. Smooth, Glossy And Pale D. Cheesy And Whitish
C. The Eruption Of Teeth
D. Patients Need 268. Carbohydrates provide bacteria with a substrate to produce
enzyme that have turned into acids;
260. The major objective of diet counseling for the prevention
A. True B. FalsE
and control of dental caries is to
A. Inform The Patient About Harmful Effects Of Sugar
269. Dental public health activities are strongest when they are
operated on;
Containing Foods
A. One To One Level C. Local Level
B. Provide The Patient With A Personalized And Realistic
B. Group Level D. National Level
Diet Prescription To Prevent Or Inhibit The Spread Of
Dental Caries
270. Control of communicable disease includes the following,
Except
C. Reduces The Number Of Exposures To Carbohydrates Food
A. Measures Aimed Against The Microorganism
D. Reduce The Development Of Dextran Resulting From High
B. Measures Aimed Against The Source Of Infection
Sucrose Intake C. Measures Aimed Against The Transmitter Of The Disease
261. Hypothesis testing as a method is under what branch of D. Measures Of Cure And Therapeutics
statistics
A. Inferential Statistics
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

271. The following are sanitary measures in handling vehicles of 280. An agent contain in dentifrice which aid in cleaning the
transmission, Except; teeth
A. Repellent D Sterilization of instruments A. Foaming agent C. Flavoring agent
B. Binding agent D. Polishing agent
B. Disinfection E. All of the above
C. Water purification 281. All are phases of health education except one;
A. coordination C. motivation
272. Dr. Frederick Mckay reported a condition known as; B. publicity D. sensitization
A. Colorado Brown Stain 282. The enamel surface of permanent Teeth are etched for;
B. Enamel Hypoplasia Due To Fluoride A. 40 seconds C. 60 seconds
C. Mottle Enamel B. 50 seconds D. 90 seconds
D. All Of The Above 283. The efficacy rate of using Systemic Fluoridation are;
273. Prophylactic Odontomy is protection offer by the A. 50-40% C. 80-85%
A. Filling Of Pits And Fissure B. 70-75% D. 40-60%
B . Application Of Sealants 284. An Elements of Primary Health Care
C. None Of The Above A. resources mobilization
D. A And B Only B. Generics
274. The best approach the dental professions can take in C. political will
incorporating dental health education into public school is to; D. utilize appropriate technology
A. Become acquainted with the methods by which health
education is incorporated in the school curriculum PHARMA PRETEST
B. Develop an understanding of the presentation of 1. Local anesthetics are most effective in tissues that have a pH
of
teachers in the field of health
A. Above
C. Find out what is ready being done by the school in dental B. Below 7
health education C. Below 3
D. all of the above D. Makes no difference what the pH of the tissue
E. None of the above 2. The initial effect of toxicity upon the brain for local anesthetics
is usually stimulation and then depression. However, it is also
275. Epidemiology would include the followings except;
possible that the excitatory phase of the reaction may
A. Behavioral characteristic of the disease
extremely brief or may not occur at all. This is true especially
B. Community characteristic of the disease
with.
C. implementation of procedures to the disease
A. Etidocaine C. Bupivocaine
D. Research
B. Lidocaine D. Tetracaine
276. Consist of measures instituted before any clinical signs 3. One of the primary differences between ester-type and amide-
& symptoms of dental disease appear type local anesthetics is the:
A. Direct Service C. Emergency Service A. Rate Of Absorption C. Site Of Metabolism
B. Preventive Service D. Curative Service B. Extent Of Distribution D. Duration Of Action
277. Analytical Epidemiology refers to 4. Epinephrine antagonizes the effects of the histamines by.
A. Experiment Of Studies Of Human Population To Test A. Producing Physiologic Actions Opposite To That Of
In A Stringent Manner That Test Of Observational Histamine
Analytic Studies B. Preventing The Release Of Histamine
B. Designed To Explain The Observed Distribution Of The C. Competitive Blocking Histamine At The Cellular Receptor
Disease In Term Of Casual Association Of Most Direct Site
Nature Possible D. Depressing Action On The Central Nervous System
C. Observation Studies Designed Specifically As A Result Of 5. The most prominent acute toxic effect associated with
Descriptive Study acetaminophen use is:
D. Description Of The Distribution Of The Disease A. Hemorrhage C. Respiratory Alkalosis
B. Renal Necrosis D. Hepatic Necrosis
278. Vital Statistics involves taking census such as; 6. Beta 1 receptors can be predominantly found in which of the
A. registration of birth C. Mortality following muscles
B. Morbidity D. All of the above A. Bronchial Smooth Muscles
279. Activities of a public health dentist except; B. Skeletal Muscles
A. Analysis D. Appraisal C. Cardiac Smooth Muscles
B. Program Operation E. All Of The Above D. Intestinal Muscles
C. Payment Or Service 7. All have CNS depressant effects EXCEPT
A. Alcohol C. Hypnotics
B. Narcotics D. Nsaids
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

8. Which of the following patterns in the use of drugs refers to a D. The Ph Of The Body Fluid Is Increased Resulting In
decreased response to drug? More systemic absorption of the local anesthesia
A. Cross Dependence C. Tolerance at the injection site
B. Dependence D. Withdrawal 21. The following drugs have anti-inflammatory effects except
9. It is a transport process that occurs through the pores of the 1. Mefenamic acid 3. Aspirin
cell membrane 2. Paracetamol 4. Codeine
A. Filtration C. Simple Diffusion A. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 4
B. Active Transport D. Pinocytosis B. 3 and 4 D. 1 and 3
10. What is the action of the vasoconstrictors in the local 22. Amoxicillin differs from Pen V mainly in
anesthetic solution? A. Mechanism Of Action C. Adverse Effect
A. It Reduces The Effect Of The Local Anesthetic Solution B. Type Of Action D. Spectrum
B. It Impairs The Effect Of The Local Anesthetic Solution 23. Aspirin in contraindicated in patient with a history of which of
C. It Prolongs The Effect Of The Local Anesthetic Solution the following
D. It Shortens The Effect Of The Local Anesthetic Solution 1. Peptic Ulcer 3. Gout
11. It is the name of the drug that indicates its composition and 2. Bleeding 4. Asthma
biochemical structure A. Only 1 And 2 C. Only 1 2 And 3
A. Chemical Name C. Code Name B. Nos 2 And 3 D. Nos 1 2 3 And 4
B. Generic Name D. Trade Name 24. Which of the following local anesthetic agents interfere with
12. The primary site of the biotransformation of lidocaine is in the the antibacterial effect of sulfonamides
A. Kidney C. Liver 1. Tetracaine 3. Procaine
B. Spleen D. Plasma 2. Benzocaine 4. Propoxycaine
13. The site of action of aspirin’s central antipyretic is the: A. 1 ,2 And 3 C. 1 3 And 4
A. Basal Ganglia C Limbic System B. 2 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and4
B. Cerebral Cortex D. Hypothalamus 25. This means the use of drug in relieving only the symptoms and
14. Reactions to drugs that cannot be explained by known not to treat the cause of the symptom
pharmacologic mechanism A. Pre-Operative C. Prophylaxis
A. Teratogenic Effects C. Idiosyncrasy B. Efficacy D. Palliative
B. Allergic Reactions D. Toxic 26. Narcotic analgesic produce the following except
15. Which of the following antibiotics is the drug of choice for A. Addiction C. Respiratory Depression
penicillin allergic patients with serious odontogenic infections? B. Emesis D. Antipyresis
A. Erythromycins C. Tetracyclines 27. Penicillin is sometimes express in USP units. 500mg of Pen G is
B. Metronidazoles D. Clindamycins equivalent to
16. Route of drug administration where the site of absorption is A. 1million units C. 400,000 units
the gastrointestinal tract B. 200,000 units D. 800,000 units
A. Parenteral Route C. Oral Route 28. Which of the following local anesthetic agents is a toluidine
B. Topical Route D. Inhalation Route derivative
17. Route of drug administration where the site of absorption is A. Lidocaine C. Benzocaine
the oral mucous membrane B. Procaine D. Prilocaine
A. Parenteral Route C. Oral Route 29. Narcotic analgesic with antitussive property
B. Sublingual Route D. Inhalation Route A. Morphine C. Propoxyphene
18. Phase of drug action that deals with the adsorption, B. Meperidine D. Codeine
distribution, metabolism and elimination of drugs 30. Local anesthetic agent produces its effect by blocking which of
A. Toxicology Phase C. Pharmacokinetics Phase the following
B. Pharmaceutical Phase D. Pharmacodynamic Phase A. Potassium C. Calcium.
19. Naproxen sodium is an agent that relieves pain, chemically it is B. Sodium D. Chloride
the derivative of which of the following drugs 31. Antipyretic effect of Aspirin is produce by inhibiting
A. proprionic acid C. codeine prostaglandin in which of the following
B. salicylates D. ASA A. Cerebellum C. Spinal Cord
20. The reason why local anesthesia becomes less effective in the B. Cerebral Cortex D. Hypothalamus
presence of inflammation is 32. Which of the following analgesic is classified as mild but
A. The Ph Of The Body Fluid Is Increased By The Inflammation narcotic agent
Resulting In Less Absorption Of The Local Anesthesia At A. Morphine C. Codeine
The Site Of Injection B. Paracetamol D. Propoxyphene
B. The Ph Of The Body Fluid Is Decreased By The 33. Reye’s syndrome is associated with which of the following
Inflammation Resulting In Less Absorption Of drugs
The Local Anesthesia At The Site Of Injection A. Asa C. Acetaminophen
C. The Vasoconstrictor Become Less Effective In The B. Ibuprofen D. Mefenamic Acid
Presence Of Inflammation
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

34. Erythromycin is used with caution in patient with 48. Atropine and Propantheline exert their effects on peripheral
A. liver disease C. pregnant structures by:
B. kidney disease D. allergy A. Producing physiologic effects opposite to those of
35. Lidocaine is the standard used to compare other local acetylcholine
anesthetic .It is considered as the safest injectable local B. Enhancing destruction of acetylcholine
anesthetics C. Competing with acetylcholine for receptor sites
A. Both Statements Are Correct D. Preventing release of acetylcholine49.
B. Both Statements Are Incorrect 49. Which of the following is a local anesthetic subject to
C. Only The First Statement Is Correct inactivation by plasma esterases?A.
D. Only The 2nd Statement Is Correct A. Mepivacaine C. Tetracaine
36. The following local anesthesia are available for topical use B. Bupivacaine D. Lidocaine
except 50. The mechanism of action of H1 antihistamines is:
A. Procaine C. Tetracaine A . Physiologic antagonism
B. Lidocaine D. Benzocaine B. Inhibition of release of bound histamine
37. The following antimicrobials are bacteriocidal or may become C. Noncompetitive antagonism
bacteriocidal in high doses except D. Competitive antagonism
A. Penicillin C. Clindamycin 51. Which of the following analgesic agents act primarily by
B. Tetracycline D. Cephalosporin inhibiting the activity of cyclooxygenase
38. Interference in defense mechanism associated with prolonged A. Diflunisal C. Indomethacin
antibiotic therapy is usually associated with which of the B. Acethaminophen D. Morphine
following 52. What is expected if ASA is given in large doses
A. Bacterial Infection C. Viral Infection 1. bleeding
B. Fungal Infection D. Mixed Infection 2. increased inflammatory effect
39. The following antimicrobials are narrow spectrum except 3. salicylism
A. Cephalosporin C.Tetracycline A. Only No 1 C. Nos 2 And 3
B. Clindamycin D. Amoxicillin B. Only No 2 D. Nos 1 2 And 3
40. Most important precaution associated with penicillin 53. Which of the following adverse reaction is said to be an allergic
A. Photosensitivity C. Allergy reaction erythromycin
B. Pregnancy D. Liver Problem A. Pseudomembranous Colitis
41. Recommended dose of ibuprofen B. Cholestatic Jaundice
A. 15-60 mg C. 200-400mg C. Urinary Tract Crystal
B. 250-500mg D. 10 20 mg D. Fanconi’s Syndrome
42. Which of the following is/ are adverse effect associated with 54. The most commonly used minor tranquilizer for treatment of
antibiotic alcohol withdrawal syndrome
1. GIT irritations 2. drug interaction 3. superinfection A. Naloxone C. Chlordiazepoxide
A. only no.1 C. nos 1 and 2 B. Lorazepam D. Propanediols
B. only 2 and 3 D. nos 1 2 and 3 55. The mechanism of action of penicillin is by
43. All of the following local anesthetics are amides except: A. Inhibiting Synthesis Of Bacterial Cell Wall
A. Lidocaine C. Prilocaine B. Interfering With Bacterial Protein Synthesis
B. Procaine D. Mepivacaine C. Increasing Permeability Of Bacterial Cytoplasmic
44. The following are IV forms of General anesthesia except Membrane
A. Thiopenthal C. Diazepam D. Interfering With Synthesis Of Nucleic Acid To The
B. Ketamine D. Enflurane Bacteria
45. Quinindine is principally used to treat 56. Who among the following is responsible for demonstrating the
A. Congestive heart failure use of ether as an effective general anesthesia
B. Hypertension A. H. Wells C. C.T. Jackson
C. Supraventricular tachycardia B. J. Priestly` D. A. Fleming
D. Angina pectoris 57. Triad of morphine overdosage include which of the following
46. The mechanism of action of Clotrimazole is symptoms
A. Inhibition Of RNA Synthesis A. Convulsion Pinpoint Pupil And Depressed Respiration
B. Disruption Of Fungal Cell Membrane B. Convulsion, Depressed Respiration And Dilated Pupil
C. Inhibition Of Bacterial Cell Wall Synthesis C. Coma Increased Respiration And Dilated Pupil
D. Alteration Of Fungal Cell Membrane Permeability D Coma, Pinpoint Pupil And Depressed Respiration
47. Opisthotonos is the classic sign of 58. Best substitute for patient allergic to ASA
A. Amphetamine OD C. Strychnine poisoning A. Paracetamol C. Mefenamic Acid
B. Belladonna poisoning D. Malathion poisoning B. Ibuprofen D. Nubain
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

59. Which of the following drugs is the drug of choice for B. Severity Of The Seizure D. Age Of The Patient
trigeminal neuralgia 75. moxicillin suspension contains 2grain /ml. if the dosage is
A. Phenobarbital C. Valproic Acid 600mg, how much drug should be administered
B. Carbamazepine. D. Diazepam A. 1 tsp C. 1 tbsp
60. Optimum concentration of epinephrine in local anesthetic B. ½ tsp D. 2 tsp
carpule is 76. The following drugs are anticonvulsant Except
A. 1: 50,000 C. 1: 200,0000 A. Benzodiazepines C. Ethalonamines
B. 1: 5000 D. 1: 100,000 B. Barbiturates D. Hyndantion
61. Recommended analgesic dose of codeine 77. Timolol useful in treatment of hypertension and glaucoma is
A. 15-60 mg C. 200-400mg A. B- Adrenergic Antagonist
B. 250-500mg D. 10mg B. A Cholinergic Drug
62. Parasympathomimetic drugs are known to produce the C. An Anticholinesterase
following except D. Principally An Androgenic Agonist With Minimall B
A. Cardiac Acceleration Adrenergic Activate
B. Peripheral Vasodilation 78. What is the adverse effect of drug taken in by the mother and
C. Increase Salivation manifested by the fetus
D. Skeletal Muscle Contractraction A. Idiosyncrasy
63. Epinephrine, nor epinephrine and dopamine are naturally B. Terratogenic Effect
occurring transmitter. They are called C. Interference In Natural Defense Mechanism
A. Cholinergic Agonist C. Cns Stimulants D. Allergy
B. Cholinergic Antagonist D. Cathecolamines 79. Antimicrobial agent that is lethal to sensory cell of inner ear
64. Strychine is a stimulant of the which of the following A Lincomycin C. Erythromycin
A. Spinal Cord C. Medulla B. Penicillin G D. Streptomycin
B. Cerebral Cortex D. Cerebellum 80. Stat means
65. Therapeutic doses of caffeine is relatively safe because the A. Statistics C. Store
only part of the brain affected is the B. Stature D Immediately
A. Spinal Cord C. Cerebral Cortex 81. Which of the following is the pharmacologic antagonist of
B. Medulla D. Occipital Bone acetylcholine
66. Which of the following Cardio vascular drugs are used in the A. Amphetamine C. Pilocarpine
treatment of angina, arrhythmia, and hypertension B. Bethanecol D. Propantheline Bromide
A. Propranolol C. Heparin 82. Agent that is 12 less potent than morphine
B. Nitroglycerin D. Reserpine A. Methadone C. Nalbuphine
67. Cardiovascular drug used in Congestive heart failure (CHF0 B. Meperidine. D. Codiene
A. Digitalis C. Thiazide 83. Diazepam produces which of the following effect except
B. Methyldopa D. Nifedipine A. Analgesic C. Skeletal Muscle Relaxant
68. Xanthine bases differs mainly in their B. Anticonvulsant D. Anxiolytic
A. Potency C. Side Effect 84. What is the possible effect if ASA is combine with coumarin
B. Efficacy D. Mechanism Of Action A. Decrease Effect Of ASA C. Increase Effect Of ASA
69. Which of the following agents is used to treat heparin B. Hemorrhage D. Increase Toxicity Of ASA
overdosage 85. Local hemostatic agent found in tea bag
A. Blood Transfusion C. Protamine Sulfate A. Tannic Acid C. Tranexamic Acid
B. ASA D. Warfarin B. Ferrous Oxude D. Thrombin
70. Alpha and beta are receptors for which of the following drugs 86. The following are brand names of local anesthetic except
A. Epinephrine C. Neotigmine A. Carbocaine C. Ravocaine
B. Atropine D. Pilicarpine B. Articaine D. Xylocaine
71. The following are factors that influence blood pressure except 87. What is the classification of chlodiazepoxide
A. Cardiac Output C. Blood Volume A. barbiturates
B. Refractory Period D. Peripheral Resistance B. tetracylcines
72. Which of the following antihypertensive agents act on the CNS C. benzodiazepines
to decrease blood pressure D. non barbiturate sedative hypnotic
A. Methyldopa C. Nifedipine 88. Example of a drug commonly given sublingually
B. Prazosin D. Actabutalol A. Paracetamol C. Nitroglycerine
73. Which of the following CVS drugs is known to induce hirsutism B. Amoxicillin D. Tetracycline
A. Hydralazine C. Reserpine 89. Suspension solution, syrups are examples of which of the
B. Minoxidil D. Pindolol following
74. Anticonvulsant drug used to treat epileptic seizures depends A. Dosage Forms
on which of the following B. Routes Of Administering Drugs
A. Cause Of The Seizure C. Type Of Seizure C. Modes Of Drug Transport
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

D. Passage 12. Most important side effect associated with erythromycin is

1. Generic act of 1988 is also known as A. Dermatologic C. Gastro-Intestinal
A. RA 6675 C. RA 6567 B. Allergy D. Superinfection
B. RA 6578 D. RA 6678 13. Gastrointestinal upset and pseudomembraneous colitis have
2. Transmitter found at the synapse of the sympathetic been prominently associated with use of which of the
division is following anti-infective agents?
A. Epinephrine C. Acetylcholine A. Cephalexin (Keflex)
B. Nor Epinephrine D. Dopamine B. Erythromycin (Erythrocin)
3. Metabolites are always C. Clindamycin (Cleocin)
A. More Active Than The Parent Compound D. Nystatin (Mycostatin)
B. Less Active Than The Parent Compound 14. The following histamine reaction is blocked by an H2
C. Less Water Soluble Than The Parent Compound antagonist except
D. Less Lipid Soluble The Parent Compound A. Bronchoconstriction
4. Drug of choice for myasthenia gravis is B. Gastric Secretion
A. Neostigmnine C. Increased Capillary Permeability
B. Physostigmine D. Vasodilation
C. Epinephrine 15. Triple response is associated with the released of which of the
D. Nor Epinephrine following
5. The procurement, compounding and dispensing of drugs is A. Histamine C. Prostaglandin
called B Insulin D. Epinephrine
A. Pharmacodynamics C. Pharmacy 16. Aminoglycosides is indicated for what type of infection
B. Pharmacokinetics D. Posology A. Amebiasis
6. The process of redistribution is important for the B. Viral Infection
termination of action of which of the following drug C. Gram (-) Bacterial Infection
A. Thiopenthal C. Asa D. Gram (+) Bacterial Infection
B. Paracetamol D. Thalidomide 17. Which of the following antihistamine will most likely produce
7. Single entity drugs have sedation
A. One Mechanism Of Action A. Cimetidine C. Chlor- Pheniramine
B. One Side Effect B. Terfenadine D. Diphenydramine
C. One Active Ingredient 18. Which of the following local anesthesia is known to have anti-
D. One Therapeutic Effect arrhythmic property
8. Superscription contains which of the following A. Benzocaine C. Prilocaine
A. The Instruction To The Patient B. Lidocaine D. Mepivacaine
B. Instruction To The Pharmacist 19. Sensitivity test is done to determine which of the following
C. The Generic Name Of The Drug A. Mechanism of action of the antibioticC
D. The Symbol Rx B. dosage of the antibiotic
9. Agonist are drugs that C. type of action of the antibiotic
A. Have Affinity With Receptor And Produces An Effect D. the best antibiotic to use
B. Have Affinity With Receptor But Does Not Produce Any 20. Local anesthesia is converted to its salt form because
C. Effect Of Its Own A. It Is Less Stable But More Fat Soluble
D. Have No Affinity With Receptor But Produces An Effect B. It Is More Stable But More Fat Soluble
E. Have No Affinity With Receptor And Produces No Effect C. It Is Less Stable But More Water Soluble
10. sociative anesthesia is a unique method of pain control that D. It Is More Stable And More Water Soluble
reduces and produces a trancelike state in which person is 21. H2 receptor antagonist are potent inhibitors of
not asleep, but rather feels separated from her body. The A. Gastric Emptying
primary medication used is: B. Gastric Secretions
A. Ketamine C. Gastric Motility
B. Promethazine Hydrochloride D. Gastric Lavage
C. Demerol 22. Which of the following local anesthesia is recommended for
D. Pentobarbital patient with cardiac problem
11. Adverse effect that is associated with antigen- antibody A. 2 % Lidocaine With 1:100,000 Epinephrine
reaction is called B. 2 % Mepivacaine With 1: 20,000 Levonordefrine
A. Allergic And Hypersensitivity Reaction C. 3 % Mepivaine Without A Vasoconstrictor
B. Terratogenic D. 4 % Lidocaine Without A Vasoconstrictor
C. Toxic Reaction 23. Type of barbiturate that is often used as an anticonvulsant
D. Side Effects A. Long Acting C. Intermediate Acting
B. Ultra-Short Acting D Short Acting
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

24. Selective membrane that contribute to the unequal Treatment Of Disease

distribution of drugs in the body include which of the D. Developed To Produce Something Good .
following 35. Which of the following conditions may warrant prophylactic
A. Blood Brain Barrier use of antibiotic due to the risk of producing sub-acute
B. Plasma Protein bacterial endocarditis (SBE)
C. Cellular Proteins A. Patient With Heart Prosthesis
D. Phospolipids B. Hypertensive Patient
25. Based on the generic act of 1988, the penalty for the first C. Anemic Patient
conviction for not writing the generic name on the D. Apprehensive Patient
prescription is 36. Adverse drug effect which is described as expected, mild and
A. P1000 Fine dose dependent and is usually caused by the effect of the
B. P 5000- 10,000 Fine drug on non- target organ
C. Suspension Of 30 Days A. Toxic C. Allergic
D. Reprimand B. Terratogenic D. Side
26. In dentistry,the most important advantage of pen V over pen 37. Sulfonamide and Fluoroquinolones are classified as
G is A. Antibiotic
A. Penicillin V Is Cheaperc B. Antiviral Agents
B. Penicillin V Is Safer C. Antifungal Agent
C. Penicillin V Is More Allergenic D. Synthetic Antibacterial Agents
D. Pen V Is More Stable In The Gastric Ph 38. Barbiturates produce its effect by blocking stimulus at the
27. Barbiturates are classified according to A. cerebral cortex C. Medulla
A. Chemical Formula B. Spinal Cord D. Reticular Formation
B. Route Of Administration 39. Recommended dose of clindamycin
C. Pharmacologic Effect A. 250-500 Mg C. 150-300mg
D. Duration Of Action B. 50- 100mg D. 275-550 Mg
28. The following drugs produce CNS depression except 40. Herpetic infections are best treated with which of the
A. Amphetamine C. Nitrous Oxide following drugs
B. Morphine D. Codeine A. Tetracycline C. Amoxicillin
29. Herpetic infections are best treated with which of the B. Acyclovir D. Metronidazole
following drugs 41. Barbiturates are used clinically for the following effects
A. Tetracycline C. Amoxicillin except
B. Acyclovir D. Metronidazole A. Anesthetic C, Hypnotics
30. Barbiturates are used clinically for the following effects B. Anticonvulsant D. Analgesic
except 42. According to the generic act the main component of the drug
A. Anesthetic C, Hypnotics responsible for its effect is called
B. Anticonvulsant D. Analgesic A. Main Ingredient C. Active Drug
31. Which of the following antibiotic have toxic effect on the B. Active Part D. Active Ingredient
bone marrow 43. antibiotic which produces photosensitivity is
A. Penicillin C. Aminoglycoside A. Tetracycline C. Penicillin
B. Vancomycin D. Tetracycline B. Clindamycin D. Cephalosporin
32. Emergency treatment of Anaphylactic shock following 44. Desirable effects of drugs is called
penicillin administration include which of the following drugs A. Terratogenic C. Therapeuti
A. Nor Epinephrine C. Epinephrine B. Toxic D. Adverse
B. Diphenhydramine D. Morphine 45. Serious adverse effect associated with clindamycin is
33. Posology is define as which of the following A. Pmc C. Bone Marrow Depression
A. The Branch Of Pharmacology That Deals With How B. Anaphylaxis D. Hemolytic Anemia
The Effect Of The Drug Is Produce
B. The Study Of The Dosage Of Drugs 46. The antibiotic associated with the occurrence of Fanconi’s
C. The Branch Of Pharmacology That Deals With The syndrome
Study Of Undesirable Effects Of Drugs A. Penicilin C. Tetracycline
D. The Study Of Drugs Used In The Treatment Of B. Erythromycin D. Vancomycin
Cancer 47. Penicillin V is also called
34. The following statements are correct description of a drug A Methicillin
except B. Amoxicillin Trihydrate
A. Are Chemical Substance That Affect The Body C. Phenoxymethyl Penicillin
B. Chemical Substance Than Can Add New D. Benzyl Penicillin
Function to the body.
C. Chemical Substance Used In The Diagnosis And
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

48. Which of the following statement best describes a violative 58. The formula that may be used when computing for the child
prescription dose if the child’s weight is known and the adult dose is given
A. The Generic And Brand Name Does Not A. Young’s Rule C. Fried’s Rule
Correspond With Each Other B. Clark’s Rule D. Cowling’s Rule
B. Only The Brand Name Is Written With No Generic 59. Movement of drug across body membrane from an area of
Name lesser concentration to an area of greater concentration
C. Only The Generic Name Is Written With No Brand A. Passive Transport C. Active Transport
Name B . Diffusion D. Facilitated Diffusion
D. The Brand Name Is Written After The Rx Symbol 60. Example of type III hypersensitivity reaction
49. Which of the following drug prevent the release of nor A. Anaphylactic Shock C. Idiosyncrasy
epinephrine from storage sites B. Cytologic Reaction D. Arthus Reaction
A. Cholinergic Agonist 61. Anesthesia is performed with general anesthetics occurs in
B. Beta Blockers four stages which may or may not be observable because
C. Sypmpathomimetic Drugs they can occur very rapidly. Which stage is the one which
D. Neuronal Blocker skeletal muscles relax and the patient’s breathing becomes
50. The Autonomic nervous system is made up of which of the regular?
following A. Surgical Anesthesia C. Analgesia
A. Brain And Spinal Cord B .Excitement D. Medullary Paralysis
B. Cell Bodies 62. Antibiotic activity that results in the death of bacteria
C. Afferent And Efferent Fibers A. Bacteriostatic C. Bactericidal
D. Efferent Fibers Only B. Bacteriologic D. Bacteriotrophic
51. Pilocarpine is a drug used to increase salivation. It is classified 63. The first sensation lost after injection of a local anesthetic to a
as mixed nerve is:
A. Naturally Occurring Cholinergic Ester A. Touch C. Motor Function
B. Synthetic Adrenergic Agonist B. Pain D. Proprioception
C. Alkaloid Cholinergic Agonist 64. the following are IV forms of General anesthesia except
D. Adrenergic Antagonist A. Thiopenthal C. Diazepam
52. Tetracycline stain is a form of B. Ketamine D. Enflurane
A. Allergy 65. sulfonamide produces its effect by competing with the
B. Superinfection bacteria for which of the following substance
C. Bacterial Infection A. Protein C. Dna
D. Terratogenic Reaction . B. Folic Acid D. Minerals
53. Which of the following factors is considered as the most 66. Enzyme found in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of the
accurate factor to consider in computing for the liver is the
individual’s dosage A. Mao Enzyme C. Oxidase Enzyme
A. Body Weight C. Gender D. Hydrolase Enzyme D. Microsomal Enzyme
B. Age D. Body Surface Area 67. The generic act of 1988 created 2 lists of drugs. The list which
contains drugs which are considered as
54. Protamine is the chemical antagonist of which of the substitute or supplemental is called
following drug A. United States Pharmacopeia
A. ASA C. Heparin B. Complementary List
B. Epinephrine D. Histamine C. Drug Core Lists
55. Enteral routes of drug administration include which of the D. Essential Drug List
following 68. For whom is the prescription written for?
A. Oral And Rectal A. Patient C. Dentist
B. Oral Rectal And Sublingual B. Pharmacist. D. Doctor
C. Iv And Im 69. Disadvantage of IV injection include which of the following
D. Intradermal And Oral A. Useful Administering Drug Which Are Poorly
56. Which of the following drugs is used to treat hypotension in Absorbed By Other Route
cases of shock B. Cheapest Route
A. Epinephrine C. Isoproterenol C. Drugs Cannot Be Withdrawn Once Injected
B. Nor Epinephrine D. Ephedrine D. Safest Route
57. Which of the following is a characteristic of the Autonomic 70. Form of erythromycin that is recommended for pediatric
Nervous System patient
A. Made Up Of Preganglionic And Postganglionic Fiber A. Estolate C. Ethylsuccinate
B. Made-Up Of Afferent And Efferent Fibers B. Base D. Strearate
C. Regulates Activities Of The Skeletal Muscles
D. Voluntary
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

71. Which of the following is brand name of metronidazole 294. Method of pain control that affects pain perception
A. Canesten C. Flagyl A. Removing The Cause
B. Tegretol D. Himox B. Using Psychosomatic Methods
72. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of C. Raising The Pain Threshold
erythromycin D. Cortical Depression
A. Inhibition Of Cell Wall Synthesis
B. Increase In Cell Membrane Permeability
295. The following techniques of regional anesthesia require the
use of 1 5/8 inch, 25-gauge needle EXCEPT
C. Inhibit Protein Synthesis (50s Subunit)
A. IAN Block
D. Inhibit Protein Synthesis(30s Subunit)
B. Local Infiltration
73. Sulfonamides are not classified as antibiotic because of which
C. Infraorbital Nerve Block
of the following reason
D. Lingual Nerve Block
A. It Is Not Available In The Philippines
B. It Did Not Come From Bacteria 296. When doing the anterior palatine nerve block, it is ideal
C. It Is Not Effective Against Dental Infection to deposit the anesthetic solution
D. It Does Not Kill Microorganism A. Anterior To The Greater Palatine Foramen
B. Posterior To The Greater Palatine Foramen
ANES PRETEST C. Inside The Greater Palatine Foramen
285. IAN Gives Off This Branch Just Before It Enters The D. On The Anterior Palatal Region
Mandibular Foramen 297. Faulty or no anesthesia may result due to the following
A. Mental Nerve C. Incisive Nerve conditions EXCEPT
B. Mylohyoid Nerve D. Lingual Nerve A. Too High Or Too Low Tissue Ph
286. The amide type of local anesthetic agents are metabolized B. Excessive Dilution With Blood Or Tissue Fluids
in the body by C. Excessive Amount Of Vasoconstrictor
A. Liver Enzymes D. Too Rapid Absorption Of The Anesthetic Into The
B. Intestinal Enzymes Systemic Circulation
C. Plasma Pseudocholinesterase 298. Most potent vasoconstrictor used in dentistry
D. Blood Enzymes A. Adrenalin C. Neo-Cobefrin
287. The part of the dental syringe that engages the rubber B. Levophed D. Neo-Synephrine
stopper of the anesthetic cartridge 299. Epinephrine reversal effect is seen on patients taking
A. Threaded Hub C. Piston Rod/Plunger A. Propranolol C. Clozapine
B. Harpoon D. Thumb Ring B. Phenothiazine D. Pentobarbital
288. The trigeminal nerve contains 300. Rebound activity (excessive bleeding) is usually observed
A. Sensory Fibers Only C. Both A And B with the use of
B. Motor Fibers Only D. Neither A Nor B A. Epinephrine C. Levonordefrin
289. When the inside of the nerve becomes more positive than B. Norepinephrine D. Phenylephrine
the outside, the nerve is said to be 301. If the patient is known to be allergic to lidocaine, you can
A. In resting state C. Repolarized try using
B. Depolarized D. Charged A. Procaine C. Mepivacaine
290. The most widely used method of pain control B. Bupivacaine D. Etidocaine
A. Blocking painful impulses 302. Anesthetic agent that is known to be cardiotoxic
B. Removing the cause A. Mepivacaine C. Propoxycaine
C. Raising the pain threshold B. Bupivacaine D. Etidocaine
D. Preventing pain reaction by cortical depression 303. The main disadvantage of this anesthetic agent is
291. Breakage of the needle usually occurs at increased bleeding during surgery
A. The Shank C. The Hub A. Mepivacaine C. Propoxycaine
B. The Tip D. The Syringe Adaptor B. Bupivacaine D. Etidocaine
292. The source of standards when evaluating a malpractice 304. When doing IAN block, the palpating thumb should rest on
case in dentistry A. Pterygotemporal fossa C. External oblique ridge
A. Judicial Law C. Common Knowledge/Law B. Anterior ramus D. Coronoid notch
B. Constitution D. Books And Journals 305. Alpha receptors generally produce
293. Both the concentration and electrostatic gradients for Na+ A. Vasodilation C. Both A and B
favour its B. Vasoconstriction D. Neither A nor B
A. Outward Movement 306. Your 22-year-old patient shows prominent neck veins, non-
B. Inward Movement productive cough and ankle edema. The patient most likely
C. Free Movement Across The Membrane has
D. All Of The Above A. Congenital Heart Disease
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

B. Coronary Artery Disease B. Mylohyoid Nerve D. Long Buccal Nerve

C. Congestive Heart Failure 319. In resting state, this ion is mainly concentrated inside the
D. Atherosclerotic Heart Disease nerve
307. After injecting local anesthesia, the patient shows A. Na+ C. K+
conjunctivitis, urticaria, rhinitis and rashes on the face and B. Cl- D. All Of The Above
neck. This is most likely a/an 320. The electrochemical gradient of a nerve membrane in its
A. Allergic reaction C. Blood poisoning resting state
B. Toxic reaction D. Normal reaction A. 70 To 90 Mv C. -80 To -100 Mv
308. While doing a cavity preparation, your patient suddenly B. -70 To -90 Mv D. -90 To -100 Mv
complained of chest pain that radiates down his left arm. The
patient is most likely suffering from
A. Thromboembolic Heart Disease 321. State of the nerve membrane when it can only be
B. Cerebrovascular Attack stimulated by a greater than usual stimulus
C. Hypertension A. Absolute refractory period
D. Angina Pectoris B. Relative refractory period
309. Narcotic that causes “chest wall rigidity” C. Resting state
A. Morphine C. Hydrocodone D. Depolarized state
B. Oxycodone D. Fentanyl 322. Component of local anesthetic solution that is responsible
310. The first step in CPR after establishing that the patient is for diffusing through the interstitial tissues
unconscious, not breathing and has no pulse A. Hydrophilic Part C. Both A And B
A. Extend The Neck To Maintain A Patent Airway B. Lipophilic Part D. Neither A Nor B
B. Give Mouth-To-Mouth Breaths 323. After administering local anesthesia, what sensation is the
C. Do Cardiac Compression last to go away?
D. Defibrillation A. Pain C. Proprioception
311. In conscious sedation, the protective reflexes of the patients B. Touch D. Temperature
should 324. Most common complication attributed to the insertion of
A. Be Left Intact the needle
B. Be Absent A. Syncope C. Hyperalgesia
C. Be Present But Very Minimal B. Infection D. Edema
D. Not Be Active
325. The maximum amount of epinephrine that we can give to a
312. Maximum amount of nitrous oxide in conscious sedation hypertensive patient is
A. 20% C. 40% A. 0.2 Mg
B. 35% D. 50% B. 0.04 Mg
313. Type of barbiturates that is most helpful in conscious sedation C. 0.1 Mg
A. Ultrashort-Acting C. Intermediate-Acting D. Hypertensive Patients Should Not Be Given Any
B. Short-Acting D. Long-Acting Amount Of Vasoconstrictors
314. The following conditions are absolute contraindication to the 326. PSAN block should be used to anesthetize
use of vasoconstrictors EXCEPT A. All Maxillary Teeth C. Maxillary Posteriors
A. Untreated Hyperthyroidism B. Maxillary Anteriors D. Maxillary Molars Except 6s
B. Uncontrolled Hypertension 327. When the surrounding tissue is acidic (low pH), the anesthetic
C. Recent Myocardial Infarction solution is mostly present in
D. Untreated Hypotension A. Fat-Soluble Form C. Salt Form
315. Inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes will result in the following B. Water-Soluble Form D. Not Affected By Ph
EXCEPT 328. Vasoconstrictor that should not exceed 4ml when deposited
A. Control Of Painful Stimuli C. Bleeding Problems in one area because of its local ischemic effect
B. Gastric Ulcers D. Increase In Prostaglandins A. Epinephrine C. Levonordefrin
316. Which of the following is a branch of infraorbital nerve? B. Norepinephrine D. Phenylephrine
A. Psan C. Inferior Orbital Nerve 329. Anesthetic agent that can be used for lengthy dental
B. Msan D. Anterior Palatine Nerve procedures
317. The nerve that innervates the upper lip A. Lidocaine C. Mepivacaine
A. Superior Labial Nerve C. Incisive Nerve B. Bupivacaine D. Articaine
B. Inferior Labial Nerve D. Mental Nerve 330. The following patients may be given sedatives prior to dental
318. The following are branches of inferior alveolar nerve outside procedure EXCEPT
the mandibular foramen EXCEPT A. Patient with emphysema
A. Incisive Nerve C. Mental Nerve B. Patient with history of MI
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

C. Patient with angina pectoris B. Three-Cornered Flap

D. Patient with diabetes mellitus C. Four-Cornered Flap
331. The following patients should not receive epinephrine EXCEPT D. Five-Cornered Flap
A. Patient Who Shows Excessive Sweating, Tachycardia
340. The following will help control edema EXCEPT
And Inability To Tolerate Heat
B. Patient Who Experiences Substernal Pain That A. Systemic Corticosteroids
Radiates B. Keeping The Head Elevated
To The Left Shoulder C. Cold Compress
C. Patient Who Has Cyanotic Nailbeds And Clubbed D. Antibiotic Prescription
Fingernails
D. Patient Who Occasionally Experiences Difficulty In
341. The following may damage or create abnormality in the
Breathing Accompanied By Wheezes blood vessels EXCEPT
A. Chronic Aspirin Intake
332. The following may be given to a patient having an asthmatic
attack EXCEPT B. Scurvy
A. Epinephrine C. Phenylephrine C. Ehler-Danlos Syndrome
B. Isoproterenol D. Aminophylline D. May Be Drug Induced
342. The following conditions will prolong bleeding time and
333. Most commonly used medication for sedation reduce platelet count EXCEPT
A. Secobarbital C. Diazepam A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Pentobarbital D. Morphine
B. Hemophilia
334. A patient with history of diabetes mellitus suddenly
C. Splenomegaly
experienced dizziness, trembling, sweating and tachycardia.
D. Leukemia
The patient is most likely having an episode of
A. Hypermetabolism C. Hyperglycemia 343. The following conditions are known to cause hereditary
B. Shock D. Hypoglycemia bleeding disorder EXCEPT
A. Deficiency in factors VIII and IX
B. Deficiency in factors II, VII, IX and X
335. The following are basic necessities for oral surgery EXCEPT C. Von willebrand factor deficiency
A. Adequate Access In The Area Of Surgery D. Factor X deficiency
B. Sharp Instruments
344. Local management of hemorrhage include the
C. Adequate Light To Improve Visibility
following EXCEPT
D. Surgical Field Free Of Excess Blood And Fluids
A. Pressure Gauze
336. The following are important principles in making B. Biting On Moist Tea Bag
surgical incisions EXCEPT C. Tranexamic Acid 500mg QID PO
A. Sharp Blade Of Proper Size D. 1:1000 Epinephrine
B. Firm, Continuous Stroke
345. The following are identified causes of shock EXCEPT
C. Incisions Properly Placed To Avoid Vital Structures
A. Redistribution Of Blood In The Peripheral Circulation
D. Blade Should Be In A 45o Angle To The Epithelium
B. Reduction Of Cardiac Output
337. The following principles will prevent flap necrosis C. Reduction Of Blood Volume
EXCEPT D. Reduction Of Water Intake
A. Length Of Flap Should Exceed The Width Of The Base
346. The following are signs and symptoms of non-
B. Blood Supply Should Be Included In The Base
progressive shock EXCEPT
C. Base Of Flap Should Not Be Excessively Manipulated A. Vasoconstriction
D. Base Of Flap Should Be Wider Than The Apex B. Stimulation Of Sympathetic Nervous System
338. The following principles will prevent flap dehiscence C. Anaerobic Respiration
EXCEPT D. Dropping Of Blood Pressure
A. Avoid Placing The Flap Under Tension
B. Gently Handling The Flap’s Edges
C. Tightly Suture The Flap’s Edges
347. Type of shock caused by relaxed blood vessels resulting
D. Edges Of Flap Should Be Placed Over Sound bone in insufficient intravascular volume of blood
339. The kind of flap design that provides the most access to A. Hypovolemic
the surgical area B. Cardiogenic
A. Envelope Flap C. Distributive
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

D. Obstructive A. Inflammatory Stage

348. Type of shock caused by severe loss of blood and B. Fibroblastic Stage
fluids C. Remodeling Stage
A. Hypovolemic D. Lag Phase
B. Cardiogenic 357. The following factors may impair wound healing
C. Distributive EXCEPT
D. Obstructive A. Too Long Surgical Procedure
349. Type of shock caused by formation of thrombus B. Non-Resorbable Sutures That Have Been Placed For
A. Hypovolemic More Than 7 Days
B. Cardiogenic C. Hematoma
C. Distributive D. Too Tight Sutures
D. Obstructive 358. Anticoagulants should be expected in patients with
350. Type of shock caused by congestive history of the following EXCEPT
heart failure A. Myocardial Infarction
A. Hypovolemic B. Hypertension
B. Cardiogenic C. Coronary Angioplasty
C. Distributive D. Cerebrovascular Accident
D. Obstructive 359. . Which of the following patients may be safely placed
351. Stage of shock wherein various receptors are stimulated in supine position during dental procedures?
to maintain blood pressure A. Patient With Congestive Heart Failure
A. Progressive B. Patient With Emphysema
B. Non-progressive C. Patient With Bronchitis
C. Reversible D. Patient With Diabetes Mellitus
D. Irreversible
352. The following should be performed to properly manage 360. Which of the following patients does not need
shock EXCEPT supplemental corticosteroids prior to oral surgery?
A. Treatment Of Underlying Cause A. Patient With Emphysema
B. Systemic Corticosteroids B. Patient With Asthma
C. Intravenous Epinephrine C. Patient With Cushing’s Disease
D. 5% Dextrose In Lactated Ringer Solution D. Patient Who Had Renal Transplant
353. The first step in the vascular phase of wound healing 361. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) indicates problem in
A. Vasoconstriction the patient’s
B. Vasodilation A. Intrinsic Pathway Of Coagulation Phase
C. Margination B. Extrinsic Pathway
D. Diapedesis C. Common Pathway
D. Platelet Function
354. Stage of wound healing in which no significant gain in
wound strength occurs, hence called as the lag phase 362. Outpatient sedation may be used for the following
A. Inflammatory Stage patients EXCEPT
B. Fibroblastic Stage A. Patient With Stable Angina
C. Remodeling Stage B. Patient With Diabetes Mellitus
D. Maturation Stage C. Patient With Asthma
D. Patient With Hypertension
355. Stage of wound healing wherein the wound appears
stiff and erythematous due to excessive collagen 363. NSAIDs should be avoided in the following patients
deposition and high degree of vascularisation EXCEPT
A. Inflammatory Stage A. Patient With Asthma
B. Fibroblastic Stage B. Patient With Renal Failure
C. Remodeling Stage C. Patient With Haemophilia
D. Lag Phase D. Patient With Diabetes Mellitus
356. Diminished wound erythema, loss of flexibility and 364. Epinephrine should be limited or totally eliminated in
wound contraction are characteristics of which stage the following patients EXCEPT
in wound healing? A. Patient With Hyperthyroidism
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

B. Patient With Hypertension

C. Patient With Addison’s Disease
D. Patient Taking Digitalis
365. The process of removing bone between the tooth and 374. Type of biopsy performed when the lesion is in a
the cortical bone during odontectomy to hazardous location and complete removal of the lesion will
create purchase point for the elevators result in mutilating the patient
A. Decortification C. Ditching A. Oral Brush Cytology
B. Sectioning D. Luxating B. Aspiration Biopsy
366. After a mucoperiosteal flap has been adequately C. Excisional Biopsy
reflected, the retractor should be placed D. Incisional Biopsy
on what area of the mandible? 375. Gauge of the needle commonly used in aspiration
A. Buccal Shelf biopsy
B. Mylohyoid Ridge A. 15 C. 22
C. Anterior Border Of The Ramus B. 18 D. 25
D. Internal Oblique Ridge 376. All of the following can heal by primary intention
367. Impacted lower 3rd molar is sectioned three fourths of EXCEPT
the way toward the lingual aspect to protect the A. Buccal Mucosa
A. Inferior Alveolar Nerve B. Floor Of The Mouth
B. Lingual Nerve C. Attached Gingiva And Palate
C. Long Buccal Nerve D. Labial Mucosa
D. Mental Nerve
377. The biopsy container must be ___ times bigger than
368. According to Pell and Gregory, when the mesiodistal the specimen
diameter of the lower 3rd molar is completely located A. 10 C. 30
within the ramus, it is classified as B. 20 D. 40
A. Class I C. Class III
378. When performing biopsy, local anesthesia must be
B. Class II D. Class IV injected at least
369. The incision of envelope flap for the removal of A. 1 Mm Away From The Lesion
impacted lower 3rd molar extends to B. 10 Mm Away From The Lesion
A. The Mesial Papilla Of 2nd Molar C. 10 Cm Away From The Lesion
B. The Mesial Papilla Of 1st Molar D. 5 Mm Away From The Lesion
C. The Distal Papilla Of 1st Molar
379. Flap design when doing hard tissue biopsy must
D. The Distal Papilla Of 2nd Molar provide ___ mm of sound bone around the anticipated
370. Blade number that is used to create a mucoperiosteal surgical margins
flap for odontectomy of a mandibular 3rd molar A. 2 – 3 C. 4 – 5
A. #10 C. #12 B. 3 – 4 D. 5 – 6
B. #11 D. #15
380. This should be fabricated when doing immediate
371. The elevator used to split the tooth after the bur has dentures to guide the dentist in reducing
sectioned the tooth three-fourths of the any areas of
way toward the lingual aspect tissue blanching or gross irregularity
A. Cryer C. Straight A. Acrylic Surgical Guide Or Template
B. Crane pick D. Crossbar B. Stent
372. The elevator commonly used in removing broken roots C. Surgical Splint
in the socket D. Gauze Packs
A. Cryer C. Straight 381. The most biologically acceptable material used in
B. Crane pick D. Crossbar mandibular augmentation
373. All of the following are characteristics of lesions that A. Autogenous Bone
raise suspicion of malignancy EXCEPT B. Allogeneic Bone
A. Bleeding On Heavy Manipulation C. Alloplastic Bone
B. Rapid Growth Rate D. Any Of The Above
C. Indurated And Fixed
D. Erythroplasia
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

382. When getting a biopsy specimen of a lesion that is 390. Substances that can prevent the multiplication of
suspected to be malignant, __ mm of peripheral tissue should microorganisms capable of causing infection in a living tissue
be included A. Aseptic
A. 1 – 2 C. 3 – 4 B. Disinfectant
B. 2 – 3 D. 5 C. Sanitizer
383. Ideal time for the removal of third molars is when D. Antiseptic
A. The Root Is Not Yet Formed 391. Most efficient and most effective means of sterilization in
B. The Root Is Two Thirds Formed the dental office
C. The Root Is Almost Complete A. Dry Heat At 170oc For 1 Hr
D. The Root Is Completely Formed B. Moist Heat At 124oc, 15 Psi For 15 Mins
384. The following are indications for biopsy EXCEPT C. Moist Heat At 134oc, 30 Psi For 3 Mins
A. Irritation Fibroma D. Ethylene Oxide
B. Periodontal Abscess 392. The following are considered high level chemical
C. Erythroplakia disinfectants EXCEPT
D. Pyogenic Granuloma A. 8% Formaldehyde In 70% Alcohol For 10hrs
B. 2% Glutaraldehyde At Higher Temperatures For 4hrs
385. From the list of classifications of impacted teeth below,
which one(s) must always involve both bone removal and C. 2% Glutaraldhyde, Full Strength For 7hrs
sectioning during surgical procedure? D. 1% Iodine For 24hrs
A. Mesioangular Impaction 393. The most commonly used antiseptic for hand and arm
B. Horizontal Impaction preparation prior to surgery
C. Vertical Impaction A. Phenol
D. All Of The Above B. Iodophor
386. A small (0.4cm) pedunculated, nonpainful firm growth has C. Chlorhexidine
been present on the patient’s buccal mucosa for about 2 D. Hexachlorophene
months. The patient occasionally bites it. This is best treated by 394. Type of personnel asepsis for office-based oral surgery
A. Incisional Biopsy A. Clean Technique
B. Total Excision And Histologic Examination Of The B. Sterile Technique
Specimen C. Surgical Technique
C. Correcting The Occlusion To Prevent Biting D. Disinfection Technique
D. Semiannual Observation And Reassurance
Oral surgery
387. throbbing pain 4 days after extraction of tooth #46. No 395. Most common origin of odontogenic infection
other significant findings were noted. A. Caries Lesions
The patient most likely has B. Chronic Periodontitis
A. Dry Socket C. Necrotic Pulp
B. Subperiosteal Abscess D. Trauma From Occlusion
C. Post Op Infection 396. Bacterium that is extremely resistant to heat and is
D. Neuropathic Pain therefore used to test the reliability of heat sterilization
388. Aspiration of straw-colored fluid tells you that the A. Bacillus Anthracis
lesion is B. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
A. Inflammatory C. Clostridium Tetani
B. An empty cavity D. Bacillus Stearothermophilus
C. Cystic 397. The following vital signs indicate severe infection EXCEPT
D. Vascular A. Temperature of 101oF
B. Pulse rate of >100 bpm
389. The following are advantages of overdentures C. Respiratory rate of >20 cpm
EXCEPT D. Blood pressure of 130/90
A. Minimize Resorption Of Alveolar Bone
398. Severe trismus is
B. Improve Proprioception A. Mouth opening of <10 mm
C. Special Retentive Attachments Can Be Incorporated B. Mouth opening of 15 mm
D. None Of The Above C. Mouth opening of 20 mm
D. Mouth opening of <25 mm
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

399. The following are indications of antibiotic treatment as an D. Patient who has polycythemia
adjunct to oral surgery EXCEPT 411. The following patients should be referred to a specialist
A. Diffused swelling EXCEPT
B. Dry socket A. Patient with dyspnea
C. Compromised host defences B. Patient with Ludwig’s angina
D. Fascial space involvement C. Patient with HIV infection
400. Adverse reaction commonly associated with penicillins D. Patient with dysphagia
and cephalosporins 412. The following are surgical principles of treating
A. Photosensitivity C. Allergic reaction odontogenic infection EXCEPT
B. Tooth discoloration D. GI disturbance A. Remove the cause of infection by extraction or RCT
401. Disulfiram effect can be observed in patients taking an B. Always prescribe antibiotics
alcoholic drink and what kind of antibiotic? C. Provide drainage for accumulated pus and debris
A. Penicillin C. Metronidazole D. Evaluate patient frequently
B. Clindamycin D. Tetracycline 413. The following are possible reasons for treatment failure
402. Substances that can prevent the multiplication of EXCEPT
microorganisms capable of causing infection in an inanimate A. Inadequate surgery
object B. Narrow spectrum antibiotics
A. Aseptic C. Sanitizer C. Patient noncompliance
B. Disinfectant D. Antiseptic D. Depressed host defences
403. Reduction of the number of viable microorganisms to 414. The following patients should NOT be given antibiotics
levels judged safe by public health standards EXCEPT
A. Sterility C. Asepsis A. Buccal space infection
B. Decontamination D. Sanitization B. Vestibular abscess
C. Mild pericoronitis
404. Absolute state of freedom from all viable microorganisms
D. Dry socket
A. Sterility C. Asepsis
B. Decontamination D. Sanitizatio 415. The following are bactericidal antibiotics EXCEPT
A. Amoxicillin C. Clindamycin
405. Main disadvantage of autoclave
B. Cephazolin D. Ceftriaxone
A. Tendency to dull and rust instruments
B. Cost 416. The following factors must be considered when
C. Inefficient for office use determining whether antibiotic is needed EXCEPT
D. Ineffective against bacterial spores A. Seriousness of infection
B. Adequate surgical treatment
406. Correct use of ethylene oxide for sterilization
C. State of patient’s host defenses
A. 30oC, 5 hrs C. 50oC, 3 hrs
o
D. Severe unprovoked pain
B. 40 C, 4 hrs D. 60oC, 2 hrs
407. The following patients are contraindicated for use of
417. Prior to sterilization, instruments should be washed by
either of the following EXCEPT
iodine / iodophors EXCEPT
A. Sponge and detergent C. Brush and liquid soap
A. Patient with Hashimoto disease
B. Ultrasonic cleaner D. 70% ethyl alcohol
B. Pregnant patient
C. Patient with Grave’s disease 418. Aeration time of instruments sterilized with ethylene
D. Patient with myxedema oxide should be
A. 8 – 12 hrs at 50 – 60oC
408. Infection will equally spread in all directions but
B. 24 hrs at room temperature
preferentially along
C. 1 week at ambient temperature
A. The area where bone is dense
D. Both A & C
B. The lines of least resistance
C. The soft tissue 419. Most common cause of odontogenic infections
D. The periodontium A. Trauma from occlusion
B. Pulpal necrosis
409. Odontogenic infection characterized by severe and
C. Deep periodontal pocket
generalized pain with diffuse borders
D. Fascial space infection
A. Pulpitis C. Osteomyelitis
B. Abscess D. Cellulitis 420. Cervical fascial space that begins at the base of the skull
and extends inferiorly to the level of C7 or T1 vertebrae
410. The following patients are considered
A. Lateral pharyngeal space
immunocompromised EXCEPT
B. Prevertebral space
A. Patient with uncontrolled diabetes
C. Retropharyngeal space
B. Patient with leukemia
D. Superior pharyngeal space
C. Patient taking cyclosporine A
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

421. Buccal space infection is most commonly caused by 434. Salivary gland tumor that presents a papillary pattern of
A. Maxillary molars C. Any posterior tooth epithelial cells and lymphoid components with germinal
B. Mandibular molars D. All of the above centers when examined histologically
422. Infection from pericoronitis commonly extends to what A. Warthin’s tumor C. Monomorphic adenoma
secondary fascial space? B. Pleomorphic adenoma D. None of the above
A. Masseteric space C. 435. Most common malignant salivary gland tumor
B. Pterygomandibular space A. Pleomorphic adenoma
C. Superficial temporal space B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
D. Deep temporal space C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
423. Needle tract infection from IAN block causes infection to D. Polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma
what secondary fascial space? 436. Malignant salivary gland tumor that shows infiltrative
A. Deep temporal space proliferation of basaloid cells arrainged in cribriform pattern
B. Superficial temporal space A. Polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma
C. Masseteric space B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D. Pterygomandibular space C. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
424. Secondary space infection that presents with little or no D. Pleomorphic adenoma
extraoral swelling but with significant trismus 437. Treatment of choice for removal of oral cysts without
A. Massteric space infection unduly sacrificing adjacent structures
B. Buccal space infection A. Marsupialisation C. Aspiration
C. Temporal space infection B. Excision D. Enucleation
D. Pterygomandibular space infection 438. Amount of bone removed by curettage when suspecting
425. The compartment of lateral pharyngeal space that aggressive & recurring cysts
contains the carotid sheath and cranial nerves A. 1 to 2 mm around the entire periphery
A. Posterior C. Middle B. 1 to 2 mm only on the suspected areas
B. Anterior D. All of the above C. 1 to 2 cm around the entire periphery
426. Major duct of submandibular gland D. 1 to 2 cm only on the suspected areas
A. Stensen’s duct C. Bartholin’s duct 439. Resection of tumor without disruption of bone continuity
B. Wharton’s duct D. Duct of Rivinus A. Segmental resection C. Total resection
427. Odontogenic infection commonly causes what kind of B. Partial resection D. En bloc resection
maxillary sinusitis? 440. Type of resection wherein half of the mandible is
A. Chronic maxillary sinusitis C. Either A or B surgically removed
B. Acute maxillary sinusitis D. None of the A. Mandibulectomy C. Maxillectomy
above B. Hemimandibulectomy D. Composite resection
428. Minor salivary glands are primarily 441. After marsupialisation, enucleation can be done when
A. Mucous C. Mixed A. Bone is covering adjacent vital structures
B. Serous D. Cannot be determined B. Adequate bone fill is present
429. Parotid gland receives its innervations from C. The cyst has decreased in size
A. CN IX C. CN VII D. All of the above
B. CN V D. CN X 442. The part of the mandible that is usually left in place to
430. The salivary gland/s that receive/s its innervations from facilitate reconstruction
CN VII A. Condyle
A. Submandibular gland C. Both A and B B. Ramus of the mandible
B. Sublingual gland D. Parotid gland C. Inferior border of the mandible
D. None of the above
431. Sialolithiasis is common in
A. Parotid gland C. Submandibular gland 443. Primary treatment modality for ameloblastoma that has
B. Sublingual gland D. Any major salivary gland destroyed large portions of the jaw
A. Enucleation with or without curettage
432. Primary sicca syndrome includes
B. Marsupialisation
A. Xerostomia C. Both A and B
C. Marginal or partial resection
B. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca D. Neither A nor B
D. Composite resection
433. Plunging ranula is best treated by
444. Primary treatment modality for ameloblastic fibrosarcoma
A. Excision of the cyst & associated sublingual gland
A. Enucleation with or without curettage
B. Marsupialisation
B. Marsupialisation
C. Excision of the ranula
C. Marginal or partial resection
D. Any of the above
D. Composite resection
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

445. Most common malignancy in the oral cavity 455. The location of teeth in the arch and tooth morphology
A. Osteosarcoma C. Ewing’s sarcoma affects their caries susceptibility. Those least susceptible to
B. Epidermoid carcinoma D. Malignant ameloblastoma caries attack in the permanent dentition are
446. Clinical staging of tumors include the following EXCEPT A. Maxillary cuspids D. Maxillary incisors
A. Tumor size C. Metastasis B. Mandibular incisors E. Maxillary third molars
B. Lymph node involvement D. Prognosis C. Mandibular premolars
447. Treatment of choice for 3-cm benign lesion in the oral soft 456. The principal bacterial agent involved in the caries process
tissues is
A. Surgical excision A. Lactobacillus acidophilus
B. Marsupialization B. Streptococcus sanguis
C. Incisional biopsy then excision if proven to be benign C. Streptococcus salivarius
D. Enucleation with curettage D. Streptococcus mutans
448. Phase of sialography that allows visualization of major 457. For amalgam restorations, the most frequent complaint of
salivary ducts pain right after placement is associated with:
A. Ductal phase C. Evacuation phase A. Cold C. Heat
B. Acinar phase D. Any of the above B. Galvanism D. Biting Pressure
449. Diagnostic aid that is useful in examining soft tissues of 458. The property of amalgam to resist marginal fracture
salivary gland lesions A. Tarnish C. Malleable
A. MRI C. Occlusal radiograph B. Edge strength D. Viscous
B. CT Scan D. Sialography 459. Basic composition of dental amalgam alloy
450. Tumor that has the poorest prognosis A. Silver and palladium C. Silver and zinc
A. Grade I C. Grade III B. Silver and copper D. Silver and tin
B. Grade II D. Grade IV 460. The reverse curve is characterized by
451. In cases of small oroantral communication and the sinus is A. Butt joint relationship D. margin
disease free, the following should be done EXCEPT B. 90-degree cavosurface E. None of these
A. Establish a blood clot in the extraction site C. All of these
B. Nasal precautions 461. The following are instruments for gingival beveling
C. Palatal flap advancement EXCEPT
D. Antibiotic & antihistamine A. Small diamond discs
452. The following can be done in long-standing oroantral B. Fine tapered diamond stones
communication EXCEPT C. Margin trimmers
A. Establish a blood clot in the extraction site D. Enamel hatchet
B. Buccal flap advancement 462. Amount of band excess from the proposed height of
C. Palatal flap advancement marginal ridge?
D. Metallic-foil closure A. 1 mm C. 4 mm
453. When muscle contraction results in displacement of B. 2 mm D. 5 mm
fractured segments of the mandible, the most appropriate 463. What is used to create a strong bond between organic
treatment is matrix and the filler composite resin?
A. Maxillomandibular fixation A. Peroxide C. Alcohol
B. Intermaxillary fixation B. BIS – GMA D. Epoxy Silane
C. Open reduction, internal fixation 464. ____ is the process which produces a smooth plastic mix
D. Ivy loops and wiring of amalgam
A. Trituration C. Plugging
Resto dent B. Packing D. Condensation
465. The RDT that has been found to be sufficient in protecting
454. Caries activity could well increase the pulp against abusive operative procedures
1. During pregnancy A. 0.05 mm C. 1.5 mm
2. Following radiation therapy in the head and neck region B. 2.0 mm D. 2.5 mm
3. Following a serious emotional problem 466. Margins of cast metal restorations are beveled to take
4. Following periodontal surgery advantage of this property of gold.
A. A And B Only A. Malleability C. Toughness
B. B And C Only B. Ductility D. All of the above
C. A, C, And D Only 467. Which tooth requires special attention when preparing the
D. All Of The Above occlusal aspect for a restoration?
A. Maxillary first bicuspid
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

B. Maxillary second bicuspid C. Ability Of The Material To Prevent Postoperative

C. Mandibular first bicuspid Discomfort
D. Mandibular second bicuspid D. Effect Of Material In Clinical Success Of Restoration
468. In cast gold restoration, the majority of retention results E. All Of The Above
from: 480. The gold alloys used for casting contain at least ______
A. The cement percent of precious metals.
B. The properties of cast gold A. 55% C. 75%
C. Friction between the cavity wall and the casting B. 65% D. 85%
D. The opposing occlusion 481. Which of the following denotes tooth mortality?
469. After carving, amalgam has to be burnished after: A. D C. F
A. 24 hours C. 2-3 minutes B. M D. f
B. 10-15 minutes D. 1 hour 482. What is the strongest phase of amalgam?
470. Which zone of dentinal caries is the zone of bacterial A. Gamma phase C. Gamma-2 phase
invasion with irreversibly denatured collagen? B. Gamma-1 phase D. Gamma- 3 phase
A. Subtransparent dentin C. Infected Dentin 483. What is the fineness of a pure gold?
B. Transparent Dentin D. Turbid Dentin A. 1000 C. 500
471. The ideal amount of time from placing an indirect pulp cap B. 1200 D. 800
until reopening the tooth to remove the remaining decay is: 484. What is the optimum fluoride level?
A. 3-4 months C. 2-3 weeks A. 1ppm C. 2 ppm
B. 7-10 weeks D. 6 months B. 1.5 ppm D. 2.5ppm
472. The most commonly used pins are: 485. Which one of the following types of dental materials
A. Cemented pins C. Self-threaded pins releases fluoride after placement of the material in the
B. Friction-locked pins D. Tapered pins restoration?
473. This temporary filling material is contraindicated when the A. Filled Resin C. Glas Ionomer
planned final restoration is composite resin B. Unfilled Resin D. Zinc Phosphate Cement
A. Fermin C. Cavit 486. What is the other term used for “compomers”?
B. GIC D. IRM A. Traditional Glass Ionomers
474. Chronic caries is characterized by all of the following B. Hybrid Glass Ionomers
except: C. Polyacid-Modified Resin Composites
A. Common in children D. Metal-Modified Glass Ionomers
B. Extrinsic pigmentation E. Light-Cured Glass Ionomers
C. Slowly progressing or arrested 487. Commonly used acid for etching teeth in conjunction with
D. Pain is not common pit and fissure sealant is
475. Which of the following is not an essential factor needed A. Hydrochloric Acid C. Acetic Acid
for the initiation of a carious lesion? B. Phosphoric Acid D. Sulfuric Acid
A. Susceptible tooth C. Dietary carbohydrates 488. The radiographic appearance of a proximal caries lesion is
B. Dental plaque D. Saliva A. larger than the actual lesion
476. All of the following are major parts of a hand cutting B. smaller than the actual lesion
instrument, EXCEPT: C. an accurate reproduction of the size of the lesion
A. Nib C. Shank D. variable depending upon the exposure time and
B. Handle D. Blade development process
477. Bitewing radiographs are a useful diagnostic tool for the 489. The reduction of cusps tends to decrease
detection of: A. Outline form
A. Class 1 Caries C. Caries On Facial B. Resistance form
B. Proximal Caries D. Caries On Lingual C. Retention form
478. The following instruments have a 3-number formula D. Convenience form
except: E. The width of the occlusal table
A. Gingival margin trimmer C. Chisel 490. The form given to a cavity to resist displacement of the
B. Hoe D. Hatchet restoration in any direction is
479. In selecting intermediate base the following criteria should A. Outline form C. Retention form
be considered: B. Resistance form D. Convenience form
A. Ability Of The Material To Protect The Pulp 491. A slow-speed handpiece is used for several procedures in
B. Ability Of The Material To Eliminate Postoperative dentistry, including the fine removal of caries in deep cavities.
Discomfort Which of the following indicates the speed at which this
handpiece operates?
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

A. 20 000 rpm D. 40 000 rpm 500. The one constant contraindication for a composite
B. 30 000 rpm E. 60 000 rpm restoration is
C. 50 000 rpm A. Occlusal factors
492. When placing a plastic restoration, the dentist often uses B. Inability to isolate the operating area
a matrix system to prevent the creation of an overhang on the C. Extension onto root surface
resultant filling. Which one of the following is most likely to D. Class I restoration with a high C-factor
require a matrix outfit? 501. A major difference between total-etch and self-etching
A. Class I D. Class IV primer dentin bonding systems include all of the following
B. Class II E. Class V except
C. Class III A. The Time Necessary To Apply The Material(S)
493. Glass ionomer cement is a widely used material in B. The Amount Of Smear Layer Removed
dentistry. Which one of thefollowing situations is one where C. The Bond Strengths To Enamel
this material would not be used? D. The Need For Wet Bonding
A. Cementing a crown D. Fissure sealant 502. In Class V preparations to receive composite resins, the
B. Class II restoration E. Lining a cavity extension is determined by the
C. Class V restoration A. Position of the gingival crest
494. All of the following statements are true regarding glass B. Contour of the tooth
ionomer restorations EXCEPT one. Which one id the C. Caries susceptibility of the patient
EXCEPTION? D. Extent of caries involvement
A. Glass Ionomer Is Often The Ideal Material Of Choice For 503. Pit and fissure caries is usually characterized by cones of
Restoring Root Surface Caries In Patients With High decay that
Caries Activity A. Are Apex To Base At The D-E Junction
B. The Best Surface Finish For A Glass Ionomer Restoration B. Are Base To Base At The DEJ
Is That Obtained Against A Surface Matrix C. Are Apex To Apex At The DEJ
C. Glass Ionomer Adheres To Mineralized Tooth Tissue D. Have No General Pattern At The DEJ
D. Glass Ionomers Are Somewhat Esthetic And Polish E. Are Unrecognizable
Much Better Than Composites
495. Which of the following materials could be used to cement 504. All of the following cavity classification can involve any
a bridge and fill a cervical lesion? teeth except for:
A. Glass Ionomer C. Zinc Polycarboxylate A. Class VI C. Class V
B. Zinc Oxide Eugenol D. Zinc Phosphate B. Class I D. Class II
496. When attempting to remove a hard brittle material, like 505. Three factors required for the initiation of dental caries
amalgam, you would prefer a bur with a: are
A. Zero Rake Angle A. Polysaccharides, microorganisms, enamel
B. Positive Rake Angle B. Enamel lamella, lactobacilli, polysaccharides
C. Negative Rake Angle C. Susceptible tooth, suitable substrate, bacterial enzyme
497. Fluorine was first isolated by system
A. French Chemist Moissan In 1886 D. Bacterial plaque, suitable tooth, polysaccharides
B. US Chemist Dean In 1895 506. Bacterial plaque can be most effectively removed from the
C. Italian Chemist Como In 1900 proximal surfaces of teeth by using:
D. Canadian Chemist Taylor In 1895 A. Dental Floss D. A Water Pick
498. All of the following are zones in four-handed dentisrty B. Tooth Brush E. Periodontal Aid
except one. Which one is the exception? C. An Interdental Stimulator F. All Of The Above
A. Operator zone D. Patient zone 507. The second number on those instruments having a three-
B. Assitant zone E. Static zone number formula indicates the
C. Transfer zone A. Angle of the cutting edge in degrees centigrade
B. Length of the blade in tenths of a millimeter
499. The setting reaction of dental amalgam proceeds primarily C. Length of blade in millimeters
by D. Width of blade in millimeters
A. Dissolution Of The Entire Alloy Particle Into Mercury 508. This is a more specific measure of caries
B. Dissolution Of The Cu From The Particles Into Mercury A. DMFS C. df
C. Precipitation Of Sn-Hg Crystals B. Dfs D. DMF
D. Mercury Reaction With Ag On Or In The Alloy Particle
509. Stainless steel pins are principally used in conjunction with
amalgam restorations to enhance the:
A. Retention D. All of the above
B. Strength E. Only a and b
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

C. Resistance form C. Tooth is symptomatic

510. When utilizing self-threading, friction locked pins for D. Deeply notched axially
retention of amalgam, it is generally agreed that the pin should 520. Triturating a dental amalgam will _____.
extend about equally into the dentin and alloy. The A. Reduce The Size Of The Alloy Particles
recommended depth is about B. Coat The Alloy Particles With Mercury
A. 1 Mm C. 3 Mm C. Reduce The Crystal Sizes As They Form
B. 2 Mm D. 4 Mm D. Dissolve The Alloy Particles In Mercury
511. A commonly used acid solution for etching enamel in 521. Which of the following materials has the highest linear
conjunction with composite resin restorations is: coefficient of expansion?
A. 50% Phosphoric Acid D. 50% Silicophosphoric Acid A. Amalgam
B. 50% Sulfuric Acid E. 75% Hydrofluoric Acid B. Direct Gold
C. 75% Phosphoric Acid C. Tooth Structure
512. Interim restorations which will, of necessity, be in the D. Composite Resin
mouth for longer periods of time must take into consideration: 522. A cervical lesion should be restored if it is _____.
A. Pulp Response D. Patient Comfort A. Carious
B. Occlusion E. All Of The Above B. Very Sensitive
C. Contact And Contour C. Causing Gingival Inflammation
513.
A.
One of the best materials for pulpal sedation is
Cavity Varnish C. Calcium Hydroxide
DENTAL MATERIALS
1. Calcium sulfate in the alginate is a:
B. Zinc Oxide Eugenol D. Polycarboxylate Cement A. Retarder C. Neither of the above
514. Which of the following statements regarding caries risk B. Reactor D. Both 1 & 2
assessment is correct? 2. What distinguishes a base, from a cement from a cavity liner?
A. The Presence Of Restorations Is A Good Indicator Of A. Final Application Thickness
Current Caries Activity. B. Degree Of Pulpal Protection
B. The Presence Of Restorations Is A Good Indicator Of C. Biocompatibility Of Material
Past Caries Activity D. Degree Of Hardness
C. The Presence Of Dental Plaque Is A Good Indicator Of 3. Which composite type is 70 to 77 percent filled by volume and
Current Caries Activity. has an average particle size ranging from I to 3 μm?
D. The Presence Of Pit-And-Fissure Sealants Is A Good A. Microfills D. Packables
Indicator Of Current Caries Activity. B. Hybrids E. Flowables
515. Smooth surface caries refers to _____. C. Microhybrids
A. Facial And Lingual Surfaces. 4. Which is not a component of Glass Ionomer cement?
B. Occlusal Pits And Grooves. A. Acrylic acid copolymer
C. Mesial And Distal Surfaces. B. Fluoroaluminosilicate glass
D. A And C C. Barium oxide
516. The use of the rubber dam is best indicated for _____. D. Hydroquinone
A. Adhesive Procedures. 5. Among the rubber based impression compounds, which is the
B. Quadrant Dentistry. least dimensionally stable?
C. Teeth With Challenging Preparations. A. Condensation Silicone C. Polyether
D. Difficult Patients. B. Addition Silicone D. Polysulfide
E. All Of The Above. 6. A constituent of base metal alloy which increases hardness and
strength but is kept at a minimum amount as they may cause
517. Many factors affect tooth/cavity preparation. Which of brittleness?
the following would be the least important factor? A. Cobalt C. Nickel
A. Extent of the defect C. Fracture lines B. Chromium D. Carbon
B. Size of the tooth D. Extent of the old material 7. Composite filler particles function to do all of the following
518. Restoration of an appropriate proximal contact results in except:
all of the following except _____. A. Increase the tensile and compressive strength
A. Reduction/Elimination Of Food Impaction At The B. Reduces the polymerization shrinkage
Interdental Papilla. C. Improves wear resistance
B. Provide Appropriate Space For The Interdental Papilla. D. Increases the coefficient of thermal expansion
C. Provide Increased Retention Form For The Restoration. 8. Which component of dentin bonding system functions
D. Maintenance Of The Proper Occlusal Relationship. primarily to penetrate through the remnant smear layer and
519. All of the following reasons are likely to indicate the need into the intertubular dentin to form an interpenetrating
for restoration of a cervical notch except _____. network around dentin collagen?
A. Patient age A. Etchant C. Adhesive
B. Esthetic concern B. Primer D. None of the above
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

9. The following are functions of a cavity varnish except: C. ADA Spec. No. 33
A. Can be placed under zinc phosphate restoration 22. Dental plaster and stone are vibrated after mixing to:
B. Minimizes ingress into dentin of amalgam corrosion A. Minimize distortion C. Eliminate air bubbles
products B. Reduce setting time D. Increase setting time
C. Has antibacterial property and can sterilize residual 23. The main achievement in developing the high - copper content
carious dentin amalgam is the:
D. Reduce post-operative sensitivity A. Elimination of the gamma I phase
10. Dental plaster powder differs from dental stone powder B. Increase in the strength of the dental amalgam
primarily in: C. Increase in the flow values of the dental amalgam
A. Chemical formula D. Decrease in the flow values of dental amalgam
B. Crystal structure E. Elimination of gamma 2 phase
C. Solubility in water 24. One disadvantage of dental porcelain is:
D. Physical nature of the particle A. Poor esthetics D. Radioactivity
11. Glass ionomer cements for luting: B. Expansion E. Both A and C
A. Type I C. Type III C. Brittleness
B. Type II D. Type IV 25. The most important clinical property of a cement is solubility.
12. One of the general requirements of a good luting agent is film Increasing cement’s powder to liquid ratio increases the
thickness, the desired thickness is: solubility of the cement.
A. 10-20 microns C. 35-40 microns A. The first statement is true; the second statement is false
B. 25-30 microns D. None of the above B. The first statement is false; the second statement is true
13. After a few months that a dentist has restored an C. Both statements are true
endodontically treated tooth with a cast-post crown, the D. Both statements are false
patient complains of pain upon biting, the most probable cause 26. Which luting agent (cement) has the lowest solubility?
is: A. Zinc phosphate
A. Vertical fracture C. Premature contact B. Zinc polycarboxylate
B. Psychosomatic D. Loose crown C. Glass ionomer
14. The following are considered the dimensions of color, EXCEPT: D. Resin-modified glass ionomer
A. Hue C. Transparency 27. When a patient indicates a tendency to gag while taking
B. Value D. Chroma alginate impressions, all of the following maneuvers can help
15. Composite resin has, to a large extent, replaced unfilled direct except one. Which one is the exception?
filling resin as a restorative material. The main advantage of A. Lessening the time to take an impression
composites is: B. Using cold water to mix the alginate
A. Aesthetic excellence C. Having the patient breathe though his/her nose
B. Thermal coefficient of expansion D. Seating the patient in an upright position
C. Higher solubility in saliva E. Seating the posterior portion of the tray first
D. Lower modulus of elasticity 28. According to tests performed on pins in dentin, which pin has
16. It is the scavenger of oxides in an amalgam filling. the greatest retention?
A. Zinc C. Tin A. Cemented pin D. Both A and C
B. Silver D. Copper B. Friction pin E. Both B and C
17. How does porcelain chemically bond to metal? C. Self-threading pin
A. Interposition of an intermediate metal layer 29. Even correctly mixed zinc phosphate cement is irritating to the
B. Mixing of oxidized metal layer with porcelain oxides pulp. How can this irritation be minimized?
C. Wetting of the porcelain onto the metal surface A. Place 2 coats of cavity varnish over the preparation
D. Mixing of the metal atoms with the porcelain structure B. Add I drop of eugenol to the cement after mixing
18. What is the polymer: monomer ratio by volume? C. Apply eugenol with a cotton pellet to the preparation
A. 3:1 C. 1:3 D. Decrease the powder liquid ratio of the cement
B. 2:3 D. 3:2 30. In general, ductility_______________ in temperature,
19. Which layer of porcelain is applied after metal coping to mask whereas malleability ______________in temperature.
the color of the metal? A. increases with increase, decreases with increase
A. Body dentin C. Incisal dentin B. decreases with increase, increases with increase
B. Opaque D. Tanslucent dentin C. None of the above
20. ADA specification number for inlay wax 31. An enamel bonding agent which bonds enamel to composite is
A. ADA Spec . No .4 D. ADA Spec . No 2 termed a cohesive joint, this is because there are three
B. ADA Spec . No 16 E. ADA Spec . No 18 materials involved.
C. ADA Spec . No 33 A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and
21. ADA Specification number for amalgam related
A. ADA Spec. No. 4 D. ADA Spec. No. 1 B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT
B. ADA Spec. No. 16 E. ADA Spec. No. 18 related
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT B. Polysulfide

D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct C. Reversible hydrocolloid
E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct D. Vinyl polysiloxane
32. KHN of enamel is:
A. 90-100 D. 600
B. 100 E. 60-90
C. 300 41. Today was a very busy day for Ashley, the dental hygienist in
33. Stiffness refers to: our office. Ashley took alginate impressions on her first patient
A. Resistance to elastic deformation in the morning, who needed a nightguard. Since she was so
B. Degree of elastic deformation busy, Ashley left the alginate impressions in the lab most of the
C. Expandability on heating morning.
D. Shrinkage on cooling Ashley decided to place the impressions in a bowl of
E. Expansion on cooling water so that they would not dry up before she had a
34. On a stress- strain curve, the area below the curve showing the chance to pour them up in dental stone. Which of the
energy required to fracture the material is known as following was the result of Ashley leaving these
A. Resilience Of The Material impressions immersed in water for a few hours?
B. Toughness Of The Material
C. The Ultimate Strength Of The Material A. Gelation C. Syneresis
D. Hardness Of The Material B. Hysteresis D. Imbibition
35. A measure of the malleability of a material is often expressed 42. Custom trays are an important part of rubber base
as impression techniques, since elastomers are:
A. The elastic modulus A. More accurate in uniform, thin layers 0.5 to 1.0 mm thick
B. Toughness B. More accurate in uniform, thin layers 1.0 to 1.5 mm thick
C. Percent of compression C. More accurate in uniform, thin layers 2.0 to 4.0 mm thick
D. Percent of elongation D. More accurate in uniform, thin layers 5.0 to 6.0 mm thick
36. All of the following are characteristics of ZOE impression paste 43. Warm water has which of the following effects on alginates?
except: A. No effect
A. Dimensionally unstable B. Increase in the gelation time
B. Sets quickly C. Decrease in the gelation time
C. Excellent detailed reproduction 44. Body & strength are given to the reversible hydrocolloid by
D. Sets hard A. Potassium sulphate C. Agar
E. No shrinkage even if store for many days B. Lead peroxide D. Borax
37. The popularity of agar impression (reversible hydrocolloid) is 45. Creep is a process that happens over time, and gradually
limited by the: increases the marginal integrity of an amalgam restoration.
A. Difficulty in pouring the impression A. The first statement is true; the second statement is false
B. Poor reproduction of detail B. The first statement is false; the second statement is true
C. Need for special equipment C. Both statements are true
D. High cost D. Both statements are false
38. The filler in alginate gives the mixed material body that allows 46. The property of amalgam to resist marginal fracture
acceptable handling.Without filler, the mixed material would A. Tarnish C. Malleable
be too runny for use. Which of the following is a main B. Edge strength D. Viscous
component of alginate powder and functions as the filler? 47. The pin of choice of endodontically treated teeth is the
A. Zinc oxide A. Cemented pin
B. Calcium sulfate B. Friction pin
C. Potassium titanium fluoride C. Self- threading pin
D. Diatomaceous earth (silica) 48. What is the greatest disadvantage of using amalgam in
E. Potassium alginate posterior teeth?
F. Tri-sodium phosphate A. Mercury toxicity
39. You are taking an impression with alginate and unknown to B. Poor aesthetics
you there is debris on the tissue. How will this affect the final C. Sound tooth tissue requires removal for retention
impression? D. Increased incidence of cusp fracture
A. It will be grainy E. Decrease lifetime of restoration compared with other
B. It will tear easily material
C. There will be irregularly shaped voids 49. The impression material that is mainly composed of sodium or
D. It will be distorted potassium salts of alginic acid is _____.
40. When using which impression material can you delay pouring A. Polyether
up of the model for up to one week? B. Irreversible hydrocolloid
A. Polyether C. Polyvinyl siloxane
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

D. Polysulfide 5. Luting agent

50. Excessive monomer added to acrylic resin will result in _____. A. 1, 3, and 4 C. 1, 2, 3, 5
A. Increased expansion B. 1, 2, 3 D. 3 and 5
B. Increased heat generation 59. What is00. ` the maximum thickness of composite which
C. Increased shrinkage can be cured by a curing light?
D. Increased strength A. 0.5mm D. 4mm
51. A patient is unhappy with the esthetics of an anterior metal- B. 1mm E. 6mm
ceramic crown, complaining that it looks too opaque in the C. 2mm
incisal third. The reason for this is most 60. Which of the following materials could be used to cement a
likely _____. bridge and fill a cervical lesion?
A. Using the incorrect opaque porcelain shade A. Glass Ionomer
B. Inadequate vacuum during porcelain firing B. Zinc oxide-eugenol
C. Not masking the metal well enough with the opaque C. Zinc polycarboxylate
D. The tooth was prepared in a single facial plane. D. Zinc phosphate
52. Metamerism invariably involves _____. 61. Cement not irritant to pulpal tissue is:
A. A color difference between two objects under one or A. Calcium Hydroxide cement
more illuminant(s) B. Silicate cement
B. One object having a lower chroma than another C. Copper cement
C. One object having a lower lightness than another D. Glass Ionomer cement
D. A significant color change of one object as it moves from E. Resin cement
one illuminant to another 62. Which of the following cements bonds to tooth structure, and
53. Which of the following is the main disadvantage of resin- has anticariogenic effect, has a degree of translucency and
modified glass ionomer compared to conventional glass does not irritate the pulp?
ionomer? A. Polycarboxylate cement
A. Reduced fluoride release B. Resin cement
B. Increased expansion C. Silicate cement
C. Reduced adhesion D. Glass Ionomer cement
D. Cost E. Zinc Phosphate cement
54. Polycarboxylate cement achieves a chemical bond to tooth 63. The firing temperature of high fusing porcelain lies
structure. The mechanism for this bond is _____. A. 1600-1950°F D. 2500-3400 °F
A. Ionic bond to phosphate B. 2000-3400 °F E. 1000-1500 °F
B. Covalent bond to the collagen C. 2350-2500 °F
C. Chelation to calcium 64. Porcelain fused to metal restorations are superior to porcelain
D. These cements do not form a chemical bond jacket crowns because a much better esthetic result is
55. Which of the following properties of a gold alloy exceeds a obtainable
base metal alloy in numerical value? A. Both statement & reason are true & related
A. Hardness C. Casting shrinkage B. Both statements & reason are true but not related
B. Specific gravity D. Fusion temperature C. The statement is true, but the reason is not true
56. In order for an alloy to be considered noble metal, it should D. The statement is false, but the reason is true
_____. 65. The powder used in mixing acrylic resin is referred to as the:
A. Contain at least 25% Ag A. Dimer C. Polymer
B. Contain at least 25% Pt or Pd B. Initiator D. Monomer
C. Contain 40% Au 66. The principal difference between the heat- cured denture
D. Contain at least 80% gold resins & the cold cured denture reins is the
57. Heating the metal structure in a furnace prior to opaque A. Basic formulation
application in a metal-ceramic crown is necessary to_____. B. Cold- cured resins contain an amine accelerator
1. Harden the metal. C. Cold- cured resins contain no initiator
2. Oxidize trace elements in the metal D. Heat- cured resins contain no initiator
3. Eliminate oxidation. 67. The most generally accepted processing temperature for the
A. 1 only D. 2 only heat cured acrylics is
B. 1 and 2 E. 3 only A. 145°F - 155°F
C. 1 and 3 B. 160 ° F- 170 ° F
58. Which of the following are probably not clinically significant in C. 212 ° F
terms of influencing the retention of a cemented restoration? D. Any of the above
1. Tooth preparation
2. Surface texture
PROSTHO PRETEST
1. The combined periodontal ligament of abutment teeth
3. Casting alloy
should be equal to or exceed that of the tooth otr teeth to
4. Tooth taper
be replaced.
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

A. Crown-root ratio C. Span Length 14. The physical relationship between the portions of the
B. Ante’s Law D. Arch Form tooth within alveolar bone compared with the portion not
2. Refers to the artificial tooth suspended between the within the alveolar bone, as determined by radiograph.
abutment teeth; serves as substitute for lost tooth. A. Crown-Height Space
A. Retainer C. Pontic B. Crown-Root Ratio
B. Abutment D. Connector C. Both A And B
3. Optimal taper of the prepared tooth to achieve maximum D. None Of The Above
retention of the prosthesis crown. 15. The portion of the residual bone and its soft tissue
A. 10 degrees C. 6 Degrees covering that remains after the removal of teeth.
B. 5 Degrees D. 3 Degrees A. Residual ridge C. Both A And B
4. The clearance necessary for the metal crown restoration B. Edentulous Ridge D. None Of The Above
on functional cusp area. 16. Function/s of a keyway
A. 2mm C. 1.0 Mm A. to hold the pontic in the proper relationship to the
B. 1.5 Mm D. .5 Mm edentulous ridge and the opposing teeth during
5. The clearance necessary for the all ceramic crown occlusal adjustment on the working cast
restoration on functional cusp area B. to reinforce the connector after soldering
A. 2mm C. 1.0 Mm C. Both A and B
B. 1.5 Mm D. .5 Mm D. None of the above
6. To maintain the integrity of tooth prepared and the 17. The projection of teeth beyond their antagonists in the
prosthesis to be placed. horizontal plane.
A. Bevel The Non- Functional Cusp A. Overjet
B. No Sharp Occlusal And Proximal Angle B. Horizontal Overlap
C. Bevel The Functional Cusp C. Both A And B
D. No Sharp Cavosurface Gingival Margin D. None Of The Above
7. Refers to circumferential tooth structure above the 18. Bruxism
margin A. Involuntary rhythmic or spasmodic nonfunctional
A. chamfer margin C. Ferrule gnashing, grinding, or clenching of teeth
B. Butt Margin D. Crown-Root B. Parafunctional grinding of teeth
Ratio C. Both A and B
8. Best suitable material for positive reproduction of D. None of the above
prepared tooth and consist of a hard substance of 19. Any deviation from a normal occlusion.
sufficient accuracy during laboratory fabrication of crown A. Intrusion C. Malocclusion
and bridges. B. Extrusion D. Protrusion
A. Dental Stone C. Die Fabrication 20. Vertical Overlap
B. Refractory Cast D. Working Cast A. the vertical relationship of the incisal edges of the
9. The following may warrant subgingival placement of maxillary incisors to the mandibular incisors when
preparation margins except the teeth are in maximum intercuspation
A. Subgingival Caries B. an imaginary line around which the mandible may
B. Crown Lengthening rotate within the sagittal plane.
C. Esthetics C. Both A and B
D. Buccal Preparation On Posterior Teeth D. None of the above
10. The finish line of choice for all porcelain crown 21. Clasp attachment or device used for the fixation,
A. Shoulder With Bevel C. Shoulder stabilization, or retention of the prosthesis
B. Chamfer D. Knife Edge A. Stabilizer C. Stabilizer
11. Component of maxillary or mandibular bone, once B. Connector D. Reciprocation
used to support the roots of the teeth that remain 22. The quality inherent in the denture that resist the vertical
after the teeth are lost. forces of dislodgement
A. Residual Bone C. Both A And B A. Retention C. Support
B. Alveolar Bone D. None Of The Above B. Stability D. Adhesion
12. The joining of two or more teeth into a rigid unit by 23. Portion fo the tooth that lies between the height of
means of fixed or removable restorations or devices. contour and the gingiva
A. Fusing C. Both A And B A. Survey Line C. Rest
B. Splinting D. None Of The Above B. Guide Plane D. Undercut
13. Malocclusion in which the occluding surfaces of teeth 24. Rest placed on anterior abutment, except
extend beyond the normal occlusal plane. A. Cingulum
A. Supraocclusion C. Both A And B B. Occlusal rest
B. Overeruption D. None Of The Above C. Incisal rest
D. Two of the above
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

25. Metal object shaped by being poured into a mould to 35. Can utilize complex type of facebow and lateral
harden records
A. Cast C. Investment Cast A. Gothic Arch Tracer
B. Casting D. Refractory Cast B. Semiadjustable Articulator
26. Purpose of classifying RPD except C. Facebow Record
A. For Shortening The Description D. Fully Adjustable Articulator
B. To Facilitate Instruction To The Technician 36. Non adjustable articulator can be use to get what
C. For Designing type of mandibular movements :
D. For Wax Pattern A. Interocclusalrecord
E. None B. Protrusive Records
27. Cases having an edentulous area located anterior to the C. Lateral Excursion
remaining natural teeth D. Doesn’t Allow Mandibular Movement
A. Class I D. Class IV 37. The following statements are correct about facebow
B. Class II E. Class V except.
C. Class III A. Used To Record The Relationship Of The Jaws To
28. Bilateral edentulous areas located posterior to the The TMJ
remaining natural teeth B. B.It Establishes The References In The Cranium
A. Class I D. Class IV C. It Orients The Level Of Occlusion
B. Class II E. Class V D. It Determines The Opening Axis Of The Jaws Of
C. Class III The Patient
29. Component that distribute occlusal load E. Allows The Casts To Be Oriented In The Same
A. Clasp D. Foot rest Relationship To The Opening Axis Of The
B. Proximal Plate E. Rest Articulator
C. Mesh work 38. Which of the following does not involve of vertical
30. Main function of the rest relation
A. Support D. reciprocation A. Vertical Relation of Occlusion
B. stability E. none20. B. Freeway Space
C. retention C. Vertical Dimension at Rest
31. The following are the sets of determinants of D. Interocclusal Distance
occlusion except: E. None of the above
A. Condylar Guidance 39. Which does not belong to the group that describe
B. Cusp Height decreased VDO.
C. Occlusal Curve A. Tinnitus
D. Anterior Guidance B. Tmj Pain
E. None C. Facial Elongation
32. It is the distance of jaw separation along the vertical D. No Show Of Teeth
plane of reference. 40 . Gothic Arch Tracers is a device used to trace along a
A. Orientation Relation horizontal plane.
B. Vertical Relation A. Centric Relation
C. Centric Relation B. Arbitrary Bite Registration
D. Vertical Occlusion C. Mandibular Movements
33. Vertical relation at rest when the mandible is in a D. Pathways Of The Condyle
physiologic rest position. It remains constant throughout 41. All the materials listed below are used to get
life. interocclusal records except
A. First Statement Is True,Second Statement Is False A. Rubber Impression Material
B. Second Statement Is True, First Statement Is False B. Beeswax
C. Both Statements Are True C. Staple Wire
D. Both Statements Are False D. Impression Plaster
34. The following is not true on vertical relation of E. None
occlusion except: 42. Centric Relation of Occlusion is the occlusion of
A. Occlusion Rim Are In Not Contact opposing teeth when the mandible is in centric relation.
B. It Is Lost Without Teeth This will always coincide with the maximum intercuspal
C. Teeth Are Not In Maximum Intercuspation position.
D. Constant A. 1st Statement Is False, 2nd Statement Is True
E. None B. 1st Statement Is True, 2nd Statement Is False
C. Both Statements Correct
D. Both Statements Are Wrong
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

43. To have a fully balanced occlusion ,the opposing B. Gothic Arch Tracer
teeth must meet evenly on both sides of the dental arch C. Semiadjustable Articulator
when the teeth contact anywhere within the normal D. Nonadjustable Articulator
functional range of mandibular movement to maintain 2. The following are the manifestations of an increased VDO
________ of complete denture. except:
A. Retention A. neuralgia D. fast bone resorption
B. Esthetics B. muscle fatigue E. none of the following
C. Function C. soreness
D. Stability 3. Which of the following describes lateral eccentric records
E. None Of The Following best in relation to mandibular jaw movement?
44. A method of centric relation record wherein the jaws A. Downward Inward
are placed at centric relation and a record is made with B. Downward, Forward & Inward
the use of occlusion rims. C. Downward Forward
A. Functional C. Centric D. Forward, Inward & Downward
B. Static D. Eccentric 4. What do you consider best in selection posterior artificial
45. . To check the correct maxillary occlusion rim in its teeth in relation to its vertical height?
vertical relation to the patient, you must have? A. Interresidual Space C. Shape Of The Face
A. level in the corner of the mouth B. Vertical Dimension D. All
B. on the center of philtrum 5. What are the two eccentric jaw relation?
C. 2-4mm interocclusal space A. Lateral And Protrusive
D. 1-2mm from resting lip B. Lateral Right And Left
E. 20- 22mm OCR height C. BProtrusive And Centric
46. It is a type of jaw relation that establishes the D. All
references in the cranium? 6. In orientation relation, reference points within the maxilla
A. Horizontal C. Orientation relates the jaw to the
B. Vertical D. Sagital A. Condyle C. Camper’s Line
47. What do you call the development of distal spaces B. Terminal Hinge Axis D. Vertical Axis
between the upper and lower occlusal surfaces of the 7. The facebow record is also known as the
occlusion rims or dentures in protrusion? A. vertical relation c. centric relation
A. Interocclusalspace B. horizontal relation d. orientation
B. Bennet’s Angle 8. This type of facebow accurately records the terminal
C. Vertical Relation At Rest hinge axis
D. Christensen’s Phenomenon A. Arbitrary Facebow C. Kinematic Facebow
48. A maxillomandibular relationship in which the B. Ear-Type Facebow D. Fascia-Type Facebow
condyles articulate with the thinnest avascular 9. The recommended articulator for an arbitrary facebow
portion of their respective discs, with the complex in is a
the anterosuperior portion against the slopes of the A. Nonadjustable C.Semi Adjustable
articular eminences. B. Fully Adjustable D. Hinge-Type
A. Vertical Relation At Rest 10. The rest vertical relation is best determined when
B. Centric Jaw Relation A. Teeth Are In Maximum Intercuspation
C. Orientation Relation B. Mandible Is In Physiologic Rest Position
D. Vertical Axis C. Teeth Are In Centric Occlusion
E. Sagital Plane D. There Is Total Relaxation Of The Muscles Of
49. Which does not belong to the group? Mastication
A. Centric Interference 11. The amount of interocclusal distance is best determined
B. Working Interference by
C. Non-Working Interference A. Mcgees Method
D. Protrusive Interference B. Ridge Parallelism
E. None of the above C. Physiologic Method
50. Which is true about protrusive relation? D. Anthropometric Measurements
A. Edge To Edge 12. This would most likely result from a decrease vertical
B. Parafuntional Contact relation
C. Working And Non Working Side A. Decrease In The IOD
D. Mandibular Movement B. Posterior Displacement Of Condyle
Post test prostho C. Spasm Of The Facial Muscles
D. Increases Closest Speaking Space
1. A device used to trace mandibular movements along a
horizontal plane
A. Facebow
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

13. A type of occlusion seen in complete denture at centric C. Alignment Of The Tooth
relation D. All Of These
A. Centric Occlusion 27. 27. Type of pontic which does not have contact with the
B. Cusp To Cusp soft tissues and is primary design for non-appearance
C. Maximum Intercuspal Position zone.
D. Cusp To Fossa A. Saddle C. Ridge Lap
14. The interpupillary line is helpful in B. Conical D. Hygienic
A. establishing the orientation plane 28. Proximal grooves on posterior ¾ of crowns should be
B. establishing the height of plane placed parallel to the
C. establishing the size of the teeth A. Long Axis Of The Tooth
D. establishing the smiling line B. Middle Third Of The Buccal Surface
15. The modulus is a muscle found at the corners at the C. Occlusal Third Of The Buccal Surface
mouth. D. Cervical Third Of The Buccal Surface
a. True b. False 29. What is the chief advantage of the porcelain jacket crown
16. Maximum intercuspation means over the porcelain-metal crown
A. Centric Occlusion C. Cusp To Fossa A. Usually Achieves Better Marginal Fit
B. Max Intercuspal Position D. Edge To Edge B. Less Expensive
17. Denture processing includes the following, except: C. Easier To Adjust And Polish
A. Investing D. Generally More Esthetics
B. Preparation Of The Mold Space 30. The porcelain-metal crown requires ideally what type of
C. Trimming And Polishing labial finish on anterior teeth
D. Clinical Remount A. Shoulder C. Shoulder All Around
18. The following maybe contained in the mold chart, except: B. Chamfer D. Knife Edge
A. Size To See All The Anterior
B. Color Of The Anterior
Pedia dent
C. Length Of The Central Incisor
1. The occurrence of green stain on the labial surface of the
D. Cusp Height
anterior permanent teeth is usually associated with
19. The tail of the gothic arch tracer is indicative of the:
A. Iron-Deficiency Anemia
A. Protrusive relation
B. Inadequate Diet
B. Centric relation
C. Lateral relation C. Poor Oral Hygiene
20. Centric relation is based on the following except. D. Abnormal Oral Flora
A. Position Of The Condyle In The Glenoid Fossa 2. What is the current recommendation daily dose of dietary
B. Location Of The Articular Disk (systemic) Fluoride supplement for a 2 year old child
C. Condylar Inclination With The Disk whose drinking water contain 0.26 ppm of fluoride ion?
D. Occlusion Of Upper And Lower Ocr At Correct Vr A. 0.25 Mg Fluoride Ion
21. In the establishing vertical relation, the main concern is B. 0.5 Mg Fluoride Ion
the: C. 1 Mg Fluoride Ion
A. Measuring The VRRP D. 2 Mg Fluoride Ion
B. Determining The VRO E. No Supplemental Fluoride Is Recommended
C. Determining The FWS 3. Which of the following factors has/have been shown to
D. creating the closest speaking space reduce the retention of occlusal sealant?
22. Insufficient FWS will most likely cause: A. Saliva On The Etched Surface Prior To Sealant
A. Shortening Of The Face C. Elongated Face Placement
B. Ridge Resorption D. Poor Esthetics B. Presence Of Moisture During Sealant
23. The major habit of the patient to be considered before Polymerization
any construction of FPD is: C. Presence Of A Prismless Enamel Surface In Primary
A. Thumbsucking C. Mandibular Lip Sucking Teeth
B. Nail Biting D. Bruxism D. All Of The Above
24. The greatest potential for wear exist between: E. None Of The Above Are Significant. Retention Is
A. Tooth And Gold C. Tooth To Tooth Dependent Upon The Strength Of The Resin Sealant
B. Porcelain And Porcelain D. Tooth To Porcelain Material Used.
25. A term which denotes a butt joint margin 4. Five minutes after administration of 50% nitrous oxide
A. Knife Edge C. None Of These and oxygen to a 6 years old boy, he complains of feeling
B. Shoulder D. Chamfer dizzy and nauseated. Which of the following should be
26. An abutment tooth should be selected on the basis of: your reaction?
A. Number And Shape Of The Roots Of The Tooth A. proceed with scheduled treatment, maintain
B. Crown-Root Ratio patient at current level of nitrous oxide
DENTISTRY REVIEWER
B. reduce the nitrous oxide level by 10% and observe
his respond before proceeding
C. increase the nitrous oxide level by 10% and delay
treatment until patient becomes more relax
D. stop treatment and turn off the nitrous oxide flow
immediately because patient is entering into the
preexecitatory stage of anesthesia
E. turn off the nitrous oxide flow and administered
100% oxygen with positive pressure because the
child is having an allergic reaction
5. A small child, age 2 ½ years, is referred from another
dentist to your office as a “behavior problem”. Which of
the following is the best plan for the initial dental visit?
A. arrangement should be made to sedate the child so
that the initial visit will be pleasant and atraumatic
B. The Child Should Be Seen Initially Without Sedation
But Placed In A Restrain For Better Control
C. Nitrous Oxide Will Likely Needed To Examine The
Child So He Should Be Appropriate Prepared
D. Proceed With The Examination As With Any New
Patient Using Tell-Show-Do And Evaluate The
Child’s Behavior In The Environment Of Your Office
Before Determining A Behavior Of Plan
E. Treatment Should Be Scheduled To Be Completed
General Anesthesia. A 2½ Years Old Child Is Too
Young To Cooperate For In Office Dental Treatment.
6. A 4 years old boy needs some assistance in controlling his
disruptive and physical resistant behavior in the dental
office. It is determined that conscious sedation is
indicated. Which of the following factor will play a role in
determining the proper dose of orally administered
sedative drugs?
A. Emotional State Of The Patient
B. Weight
C. Stomach Contents
D. Dental Procedures
E. All Of The Above
7. Which of the following children would probably be
considered appropriate candidates for the completion of
their dental treatment with the aid of general anesthesia?
1. A 2 Year Old With Early Childhood Caries Who Lives
90 Miles Form The Nearest Dentist
2. A 3 Year Old With Rampant Caries Who Requires
Seven Pulpotomy, Eight Stainless Steel Crowns And
Four Extractions
3. An 14 Year Old With Spastic Quadriplegia Cerebral
Palsy Who Is Mentally Retarded, Ahs A Seizure
Disorder And Has 21 Surfaces Of Active Caries That
Require Restoration
4. A 4 Year Old With A History Of Congenital Heart
Disease Who Requires A Minimum Of Seven Stainless
Steel Crowns And Probably Several Pulpotomy And
For Whom A Thorough Oral Examination And
Radiographs Are Difficult Due To His Immaturity And
Inability To Tolerate The Stress Of Routine Dental
Treatment
5. A 5 Year Old With Autism Who Needs Ten Primary
Restored
A. 1,3,4
B. 2,3,4,5
C. 1,4,5
D. 1,4
E. all 5 of the above are appropriate
8. When doing restorative procedures in the hospitals
operating room, the first step; after the patient has been
intubated, appropriately drapped, had the eyes taped
shut and appropriate radiographs are available; is to do
which of the following?
A. Do An Oral Examination
B. Do A Thorough Prophylaxis
C. Remove The Pharyngeal (Throat) Pack
D. Place A Pharyngeal (Throat) Pack
E. Place A Rubber Dam To Isolate Half The Month
9. A worried parent calls your office concerned because of
her 2 years old child has “no teeth yet”. Your advice
should be which of the following
A. The Child’s Dental Development Is “Slow” And The
Child Should Be Evaluated By A Pediatric Dentist
B. “The Child Is Within A Normal Range Of Dental
Development” And You Should Not Worry At This
Time.
C. “Radiographs Should Be Taken Immediately To
Check For Missing Teeth”
D. “ A Teething Ring” Should Be Used To Stimulate
Eruption
E. The Gums Should Be “Lanced” To Speed Eruption
10. A child. 4 years of age, has a primary mandibular first
molar which clinically has no decay. But radiograph
reveals mesial and distal carious lesions approximately at
the pulp. In developing a treatment plan, you should plan
which of the following?
A. A Mesio-Occlusal And Separate Disto-Occlusal Silver
Amalgam Restoration
B. A Mesio-Occluso-Distal Amalgam Restoration
C. A Pulpotomy And Stainless Steel Crown
D. A Pulpectomy And Stainless Steel Crown
E. Extraction And A Space Maintainer
11. A child. 4 years of age, has a primary mandibular first
molar which clinically has no decay. But radiograph
reveals mesial and distal carious lesions involving the
pulp. In developing a treatment plan, you should plan
which of the following?
A. A mesio-occlusal and separate disto-occlusal silver
amalgam restoration
B. A mesio-occluso-distal amalgam restoration
C. A pulpotomy and stainless steel crown
D. A pulpectomy and stainless steel crown
E. Extraction and a space maintainer
12. A steel crown has been adapted to a prepared primary
mandibular left second molar. The crown is well polished.
Upon try-in, the margin extends 1 to 1.5 mm beneath the
gingival and is well adapted. After the crown has been
cemented, the margin on the buccal side is supragingival
DENTISTRY REVIEWER
and has a visible open margin. The probable cause(s)
is/are which of the following?
1. An improper, thick mix of cement
2. Failure to use enough force to seat the crown
3. Improper path of insertion; the crown was seated
too far lingually
4. Too much force; the crown has “sprung”
A. 1,2 D. 2.4
B. 3,4 E. 1,3,4
C. 1,2,3
13. During the preparation for an amalgam restoration, you
mechanically expose the mesiobuccal pulp horn on a
primary maxillary first molar. The carious lesions on the
mesial and distal surfaces are moderate. The treatment
should be which of the following?
A. Direct Pulp Capping With Dycal And Restore With
An MOD Amalgam
B. Direct Pulp Capping With A Glass Ionomer Base
And Restore With A Resin Restoration
C. Pulpotomy And Restore With Steel Crown
D. Pulpectomy And Restore With A Stainless Steel
Crown
E. Extraction And A Space Maintainer
14. The parent of a 7 year old boy calls for an emergency
appointment. The chief complaint is that a permanent
mandibular first molar hurt when “he ate a cookie”.
Clinically, there is a large carious lesion but surrounding
tissues are normal. The periapical radiograph reveals a
large carious lesion approaching the pulp. The periapical
areas appear normal. The “infected” dentin was removed
without pulp exposure. “Affected” dentin remains on the
pulpal floor. Immediate treatment for this tooth should
include which of the following?
A. Excavate The Caries And Place Znoe Temporary
Filling For 1 Month
B. A Formocresol Pulpotomy And An Amalgam
Restoration
C. A Pulpectomy With Formocresol And Reinforced
Zinc Oxide And Eugenal (IRM)
D. A Direct Pulp Cap With Calcium Hydroxide And A
Temporary Restoration For 3 Months With Znoe
E. Indirect Pulp Therapy Using Glass Ionomer Cement
As An Intermediate Restorative Material
15. A very cooperative 4 years old girl in good general health
presents to your office with a history of trauma to the
primary maxillary central incisors 3 months ago. One is
discolored and dark. The periapical radiograph reveal an
area of periapical resorbtion at the epex of the dark
primary central incisor, but no internal or external
resorption. Clinically the tooth is slightly mobile but the
soft tissue around the tooth is normal. There is no history
of pain. The treatment plan for this tooth should be which
of the following?
A. A Pulpectomy And Stainless Steel Crown
B. A Pulpotomy And Stainless Steel Crown
C. Extraction
D. Extraction And Placement Of A Fixed Or Removable
Space Maintainer
E. No Treatment Is Indicated Unless Clinical Symptoms
Occur
16. The radiographs of a 4 years old new patient reveal a
primary mandibular first molar with a probable carious
exposure. The roots appear to be normal and there is no
mobility. Caries removal results in a pulp exposure. The
pulp reveals a purulent exudates in the pulp chamber with
considerable hemorrhage from 2 of the 3 root canals. Of
the following, which is the treatment of choice?
A. A Pulpotomy And A Steel Crown
B. A Pulpectomy And A Steel Crown
C. Removal Of The Tooth And Construct A Band And
Loop Space Maintainer
D. Open The Tooth For Drainage, Prescribe Penicillin
For 5-7 Days, Extract The Tooth And Construct A
Distal Shoe Space Maintainer
E. Extraction And Space Maintainer
17. A 6 year old girl fractured her permanent maxillary left
central incisor 2 hours ago in a fall. There is a large pulp
exposure. Radiographs show no root fracture and no
periapical pathology. The tooth is not excessively mobile.
The soft tissue and lip are bruised but not lacerated. You
treatment should include which of the following?
A. A Direct Pulp Cap With A Light Cured Calcium
Hydroxide And A Resin “Bandage” Restoration
B. A Pulpotomy With Formocresol And A Resin
Restoration
C. An Apexification Technique With Calcium Hydroxide
And A Resin Restoration
D. A Partial Pulpotomy With Calcium Hydroxide
Powder And A Resin Restoration
E. Immediate Extraction And Placement Of An Implant
18. A 9 years old boy is seen in your office with permanent
maxillary right central incisor darkly discolored. The
mother relates a history of trauma a “about 1 year ago”.
The radiograph shows a narrow pulp cap, a small area of
periapical involvement with the open apex. The pulp
treatment for this tooth at this time should be which of
the following?
A. A Formocresol Pulpotomy
B. A Calcium Hydroxide Cvek Pulpotomy
C. Apexification Procedure
D. Apexogesis Procedure
E. Endodontic Root Canal Treatment
19. A very cooperative 6.5 years old girl in good general
health presents to your office with a history of trauma to
the primary maxillary central incisors 3 months ago. One
is discolored and dark. The periapical radiograph reveal an
area of periapical resorbtion at the epex of the dark
primary central incisor, but no internal or external
resorption. Clinically the tooth is slightly mobile but the
soft tissue around the tooth is normal. There is no history
of pain. The treatment plan for this tooth should be which
of the following?
A. A Pulpectomy And Stainless Steel Crown
B. A Pulpotomy And Stainless Steel Crown
C. Extraction
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

D. Extraction And Placement Of A Fixed Or Removable evidenced of caries. The appropriate initial survey(s)
Space Maintainer should include:
E. No Treatment Is Indicated Unless Clinical Symptoms A. A 12-Film Periapical Survey Plus Two Bitewing
Occur Radiographs
20. A boy, age 9 years present as a dental emergency. The B. Two Bitewing Radiographs Plus A Panoramic
primary maxillary left second molar is abscessed with a Radiographs
buccal fistula. Radiographically, there is evidence of a C. A 10 Film Periapical, Maxillary And Mandibular
furcative lesion. He has a fever of 39º C (102ºF) and Anterior Occlusal Radiograph Plus Two Bitewing
malaise. A moderate, generalized swelling is palpable Radiographs
extending mesially and distally along the buccal surface of D. An Eight Film Survey: Maxillary And Mandibular
the soft tissue adjacent to the affected tooth with swelling Occlusal Periapical Radiographs, Two Bitewing
evident inferior to the left eye. The appropriate Radiographs, And Four Periapical Radiographs
treatment is which of the following procedures or E. Twenty Films Plus A Panoramic Radiograph
combination there of? 26. Which of the following should be considered routine
1. Prescribe Amoxicillin Immediately And Continue For when prescribing dietary fluoride supplementation for
7 Days children?
2. Prescribe Penicillin For 3 Days A. Determine The Fluoride Level Of The Child’s
3. Incision And Drainage Community Water Supply.
4. Insert A Formocresol Moistened Pellet Into The Pulp B. Determine The Fluoride Level Of The Formula The
Chamber Child Is Being Feed.
5. Wait 3 Days And Extract The Tooth C. Prescribe Supplemental Fluoride Routinely For All
6. Extract The Tooth Immediately Children Six Months Of Age And Older Who Are
7. Do A Pulpotomy In 1 Week Breast Fed Exclusively.
A. 1,4,7 D. 2,6 D. Determine The Fluoride Level Of The Family’s
B. 2,3,5 E. 1,7 Drinking Water.
C. 1,5 E. All Of The Above Should Be Done Before
21. The most common conscious sedation technique used by Prescribing Any Supplemental Dietary Fluoride.
dentists for treating preschool (2-5 years old) children is: 27. Bite wing (cavity- detecting) radiographs should be made:
A. Nitrous Oxide A. Only After Primary Molar Proximal Surface Are In
B. Oral Sedative Contact.
C. Intramuscular Injection B. At Age 3 Years And Every Six Months Thereafter.
D. Submucosal Injection C. Annually Beginning At Age 6 Years.
E. Intravenous Administration D. At Age 3 Years And Every 2 Years To Age 12 Years.
22. The most important monitor when using oral conscious 28. Communicative management technique:
sedation for the pediatric dental patient is which of the 1. Distraction
following? 2. Positive Reinforcement
A. Ekg
3. Voice control
B. Capnograph
C. Sphygmomanometer (Blood Pressure) 4. Tell Show and Do
D. Pulse Oximeter A. 1 and 2 C. 1 And 4
E. Visual Observation Of Patient Lip Fingernail Color B. 1 And 3 D. 1,2,3 And 4
23. Pediatric sedative drug doses should be calculated based 29. Which of the following patterns of behavior is most likely
on which of the following? to be exhibited by a young child on his first visit to the
A. The Age Of The Patient
dentist?
B. Young’s Rule
C. Clark’s Rule A. Fear of unknown C. Regression
D. A Dose In Mg Per Kg Or Lb Of Body Weight B. Aggression D. Acceptance
E. The Same As The Recommended Adult Dose 30. Method of early examination where dentist and parent
24. What is the maximum recommended concentration of are seated face to face with their knees touching. The
Nitrous Oxide that should be administered to a child? upper legs form the examination table.
A. 30% Nitrous Oxide
A. Knee Position
B. 40% Nitrous Oxide
B. Bent Position
C. 50% Nitrous Oxide
D. 60% Nitrous Oxide C. Knee To Arm Position
E. 70% Nitrous Oxide D. Knee To Knee Position
25. A 7- year-old child visits your office. This visit is the child’s 31. In nitrous oxide – oxygen sedation, once the patient takes
first appointment with a dentist. There is no clinical on a distance gaze with sagging eyelids, local anesthesia is
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

given and the concentration of nitrous oxide is maintained C. Increasing The “Seriousness” In The Tone Of One’s
at: Voice
A. 20-40 D. 90-100 D. To Maintain The Pitch Of One’s Voice
B. 50-60 E. None Of The These E. A And C
C. 70-80
32. During restorative treatment, you have directed a five 37. A callused or usually clean digit suggests:
year old boy to put his hands down but he has not done A. Cheek Biting C. Finger Biting
so. Which of the following would be the appropriate B. Finger Sucking D. Toe biting
behavior management technique to use next? 38. Reluctant to accept treatment
A. Tell, Show, Do A. Definitely Negative C. Positive
B. Voice Control B. Negative D. Definitely
C. Restraint With A Papoose Board Positive
D. Sedation And Restraint 39. Willingness to comply with the dentist
E. General Anesthesia In The Hospital A. Definitely Negative C. Positive
33. The most important monitor when using oral conscious B. Negative D. Definitely
sedation for pediatric dental patient is which of the Positive
following? 40. Interested in the dental procedures, laughing and
A. Ekg enjoying:
B. Capnograph A. Definitely Negative C. Positive
C. Sphygmomanometer (Blood Pressure) B. Negative D. Definitely
D. Pulse Oximeter Positive
E. Visual Observation Of Patient Lip And Fingernail 41. With evidence of extreme negatism:
Color A. Definitely Negative C. Positive
34. The word “Do” in the “Tell, Show, Do” management B. Negative D. Definitely
techniques means: Positive
A. Some Treatment Must Be “Done” At Every Visit: 42. Often prevent the natural development of the child
B. The Operator Should Proceed To “Do” What Is towards independence:
Necessary As Rapidly As Possible; A. Hostile Parents
C. The Child Should Be Given Something To “Do” As A B. Overprotective Parents
Distraction: C. Neglectful Parents
D. The Child Should Be Told To “Do” Nothing And Hold D. Manipulative Parents
Still: 43. Unappreciative of the merits of child good dental care:
E. The Operator Should “Do” Exactly What Was A. Hostile Parents
Previously Described By Telling & Showing B. Overprotective Parents
35. Problems that can arise if the parent in the dental C. Neglectful Parents
operatory during treatment include: D. Manipulative Parents
A. Dividing The Child’s Attention Between Doctor And 44. Sudden firm commands used to get the child’s attention:
Parent A. HOME C. Soft Voice
B. The Child Exaggerating His/Her Reactions To Get B. Voice Control D. Flexible
Parental Attention 45. The rule followed in absolute necessity of treating a child
C. Parent Misunderstanding Management Techniques is:
Such As Voice Control A. Dismiss The Patient For Another Appointment.
D. Present Fears Being Projected To The Child By Visual B. Force The Child To Submit To The Treatment.
Expression C. Take Time In Explaining The Different Stages Of
E. Any/All Of The Above Dental Treatment.
36. “Voice Control” is a behavior management technique that D. Administer Anesthesia Prior To Any Dental
involves: Procedures.
A. Increasing The Volume Of One’s Voice 46. The final responsibility for prevention and control of
B. Managing A Child In A Manner That Discourages dental diseases and their corresponding dental treatment
Them From Talking techniques rests with the ___________.
A. Child Patient
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

B. Grandparents C. From The Incoming 3-5 Line Voltage To The 65,000-

C. School Dentist 100,000 Volts Required.
D. Parents D. None Of The Above Choices Is Correct.
2. Which is not a property of X-rays?
E. Public School Dentists
A. X-Rays Travel In Straight Lines
47. “Ugly duckling stage is a transitory feature during the: B. X-Rays Can Be Focused At One Point
A. Mixed Dentition Period C. X-Rays Can Be Deflected Or Scattered
B. Predentitional Period D. X-Rays Always Diverge From A Point
C. Adult Dentition Period 3. A technique for producing a single tomographic image of the
D. Primary Dentition Period facial structures that includes both the maxillary and
48. During the first visit of a child in the dental office, the mandibular dental arches and their supporting structures:
dentist can begin to train the child by: A. Occlusal Radiography
A. Showing, telling and doing the uses of the B. Localization Technique
instruments and equipment C. Panoramic Radiography
B. Sedating the child patient immediately. D. None
C. Proceed to extraction of the tooth. 4. The identification of the dot on the intraoral film is significant
because
D. Perform all necessary dental treatment needed by
A. The Dot Indicates The Patient’s Right Or Left Side
the child. B. The Dot Determines Film Orientation
49. The use of restrains such as the papoose board to control C. The Dot Is Important In Film Mounting
a child with a cerebral palsy during dental treatment is D. Only Two Are Correct
considered to be an acceptable modality to support the E. All Are Correct
patient and facilitate dental treatment only if prior 5. Which of the following is NOT a source of ionizing radiation?
consent is obtained from the parent or legal guardian. A. Gamma rays
A. True B. Only two are correct
B. False C. Microwave
C. Neither D. All are correct
D. Depents On The Situation E. UV rays
50. When one treats disabled children in the dental office, it is 6. The purpose of the lead foil sheet in the film packet is
usually advantageous to exclude the parents from the A. To Protect The Film From Primary Radiation
treatment room. B. To Distinguish The Side Facing The Tooth
A. True C. To Protect The Film From Saliva
B. False D. To Protect From Back-Scattered Radiation
C. Neither 7. Which of the following is NOT a natural source of radiation?
D. Depends On The Situation A. Muscles, Bones And Other Tissues
51. “Voice Control” is a behavior management technique that B. The Sun And Stars
involves: C. Coal And Nuclear Power
A. Increasing The Volume Of One’s Voice D. None Of The Above Choices
B. Managing A Child In A Manner That Discourages E. The Ground. Plants
Them From Talking 8. The collimator in a panoramic x-ray machine is a lead plate
with an opening in the form of:
C. Increasing The “Seriousness” In The Tone Of One’s
A. A Small Circle
Voice B. Square
D. To Maintain The Pitch Of One’s Voice C. Rectangle
E. A And C D. A Narrow Slit
52. Method of early examination where dentist and parent 9. It is composed of phosphors that increase the intensity of
are seated face to face with their knees touching. The radiation on the film, thereby reducing the exposure time
needed.
upper legs form the examination table.
A. Image Receptor
A. Knee Position C. Knee To Arm Position B. Intensifying Screen
B. Bent Position D. Knee To Knee Position C. Emulsion
ROENT PRETEST D. Film Base
10. The tissue that is most radiosensitive in the group Lung
1. The step-up transformer is used to increase the voltage
A. From The Incoming 110-220 Line Voltage To 65, 000- A. Red Bone Marrow
100,000 Volts Required. B. Ovaries
B. From The Incoming 3-5 Line Voltage To The 110-220 C. Thyroid
Required. D. Breast
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

11. A wrinkled, web-like appearance on a radiograph is due to: E. All Of The Choices Are Incorrect
A. Rough Handling 21. Overall blackness or darkness of a radiograph
B. Double Exposure A. Sharpness D. Contrast
C. Reticulation B. Penumbra E. None of the above
D. Fluoride Artifacts C. Density
12. Which among these intensifying screen emit blue light? 22. Which of the following is a normal structure to be seen in a
A. Calcium Tungstate mandibular anterior radiograph?
B. Silver Halides A. Maxillary sinus
C. Rare Earth Screens B. Submandibular fossa
D. A And B C. Mental ridge
13. In assessing dental implants, which of the following is the film D. Mylohyoid ridge
of choice? E. Border of the nose
A. Panoramic 23. A variation in the true size and shape of the object
B. Periapical A. Contrast D. Tire tracks
C. Bitewing B. Distortion E. Density
D. Occlusal C. Penumbra
14. Yellow or brown stains on radiographs are due to the 24. Which of the following is a normal structure to be seen in a
following, EXCEPT: maxillary anterior radiograph?
A. Depleted Developer A. Lateral pterygoid plate
B. Contaminated Solutions B. Genial tubercle
C. Deteriorated Film C. Mental ridge
D. Insufficient Washing D. Zygomatic process
15. A “herringbone” effect on the developed film indicates E. Border of the nose
A. Pressure line 25. Which of the following is a normal structure to be seen in a
B. Static electricity pattern maxillary premolar radiograph?
C. Reticulation A. Maxillary sinus
D. Wrong side of film exposed B. External obliques ridge
16. If an x-ray film is subjected to great changes in temperature C. Mental ridge
between different processing solution, it will exhibit: D. Hamulus
A. Blurred image E. Torus mandibularis
B. Reticulation 26. What are the components of a dental x-ray tube?
C. Chemical stain A. Glass envelope D. Tungsten Target
D. Herringbone pattern B. Anode E. All of the above
17. Black lines during the production of radiographs are usually C. Cathode
encountered. Which of the following faults is most likely the 27. Type of image in panoramic radiograph that is formed when
cause? the object is between the center of rotation and the image
A. Rough Handling During Mounting On The Hanger receptor
B. Dental Film Placed Backwards In The Mouth A. Real image C. ghost image
C. Overbending Of The Film In The Mouth B. double imaged D. none
D. Clips Not Properly Washed 28. What is the radiographic technique is used when the central
18. Which of the following anatomical structures appear ray of the cone is directly perpendicular to the object?
radiolucent on radiograph? A. Bisecting Angle C. Paralleling
A. Nares, median suture, medullary spaces B. Both A and B D. None of the choices
B. Maxillary sinus, mental foramen, nasal septu 29. This x-ray technique may be used if you want to see the entire
C. Mandibular canal, incisive canal, genial tubercle length of the tooth.
D. Nutrient canals, nasal cartilage, hamular process A. Bisecting Angle C. Paralleling
19. Which of the following is a processing error? B. Both A and B D. None of the choices
A. Tire Tracks 30. Because of the steep angle of the cone, this technique may
B. Elongation cause superimposition of the zygomatic bone in maxillary
C. Cone Cut projections.
D. Underfixed A. Bisecting Angle
E. None Of The Choices Is Correct B. Both A and B
20. When a radiograph has very dark and very light areas, this C. Paralleling
means that D. None of the choices
A. There Is High Density 31. In this technique, the central ray is positioned parallel to both
B. There Is Low Contrast the long axes of the tooth and film.
C. There Is High Contrast A. Bisecting Angle
D. There Is Low Density C. Both A and B
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

B. Paralleling 45. A cyst that was left in the socket after tooth extraction
D. None of the choices A. Lateral Periodontal Cyst
32. Image formed when the xray beam passes through a single B. Residual Cyst
object twice as the tubehead rotates around the patient: C. Primordial Cyst
A. Real Image C. Ghost Image D. Radicular Cyst
B. Double Image D. None 46. Which of the following is NOT a component of the head
33. Mandible may appear squared-off and palate may positioner of a panoramic unit?
superimpose over the roots of anterior teeth when head is: A. Notched Bite-Block
A. Tipped Down C. Tipped Up B. Supports Or Guide
B. Moved D. inclined to the side C. Chin Rest
34. This technique is also known as the long cone technique D. None Of The Choices Is The Answer
A. Bisecting Angle C. Paralleling E. Tubehead
B. Both A and B D. None of the choices 47. A variation in the true size and shape of the object
35. In this technique, the central ray is positioned perpendicular to A. Contrast D. Tire tracks
half the angle created by the occlusal plane and film. B. Distortion E. Density
A. Bisecting Angle C. Paralleling C. Penumbra
B. Both A and B D. None of the choices 48. Presents as an asymptomatic, well delineated, round or
36. The horizontal projection angle in taking radiographs of teardrop-shaped unilocular radiolucency with an opaque
posterior teeth forms a 70 – 80 degree angle with the midline. margin along the lateral surface of a vital tooth root.
A. Bisecting Angle C. Paralleling A. Lateral Periodontal Cyst
B. Both A and B D. None of the choices B. Residual Cyst
37. The cone is tilted +45 to +55 degrees in taking maxillary cuspid C. Primordial Cyst
projections. D. Radicular Cyst
A. Bisecting Angle C. Paralleling 49. Which of the following is a normal structure to be seen in a
B. Both A and B D. None of the choices maxillary premolar radiograph?
38. This technique will cause less exposure of vital organs such as A. Maxillary sinus D. Torus mandibularis
the thyroid gland. B. Mental ridge E. Hamulus
A. Bisecting Angle C. Paralleling C. External obliques ridge
B. Both A and B D. None of the choices 50. Overall blackness or darkness of a radiograph
39. Which of the following statements describe/s the lead A. Sharpness C. Density
collimator? B. Contrast D. Penumbra
A. Lead Plate With A Central Hole 1. Which of the following is a normal structure to be seen in a
B. Restricts The Size Of The X-Ray Beam mandibular anterior radiograph?
C. Made Of 2 Thin Sheets Of Lead A. Maxillary sinus
D. Only Statements A And C Are Correct B. Mental ridge
E. Only A And B Are Correct C. Border of the nose
40. The border of a lesion that shows a vague outline may also be D. Submandibular fossa
described as E. Mylohyoid ridge
A. sharp C. diffused 2. Cyst arising from the remnants of dental lamina that
B. unilocular D. multilocular presentsas a well-circumscribed radiolucency with smooth
41. Which of the following is NOT a natural source of radiation? radiopaque margins.
A. Muscles, bones and other tissues A. Calcifyingodontogenic Cyst
B. The ground B. Globulomaxillary Cyst
C. Coal and nuclear power plants C. Odontogenickeratocyst
D. The sun and stars D. None
E. None of the above choices answers the question. 3. Distinguishing feature is the pear-shaped radiolucency
42. This refers to the penetrating x-ray beam that is produced at between the maxillary lateral and cuspid
the target of the anode and exits the tubehead A. Globulomaxillary Cyst
A. Secondary C. Tertiary B. Nasopalatine Canal Cyst
B. Scatter D. Primary C. Nasolabial Cyst
43. Focus/es the electrons into a narrow beam and direct/s the D. None
beam across the tube towards the target at the anode 4. Which of the following is a processing error?
A. Tungsten Filament D. Aluminum Disks A. Tire tracks C. Elongation
B. Copper Stem E. Molybdenum Cup B. Underfixed D. Cone cut
C. Lead Collimator 5. A 17-year-old male referred to an oral surgeon for extraction
44. optimum temperature of developing solution is of an impacted tooth #23 that is located in area apical to teeth
A. 80O F C. 50O F #22-#24, which was found on routine x-rays. How would the
B. 100 F O D. 68O F
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

oral surgeon decide as to where the impacted tooth lay in 13. Removing parts of the x-ray spectrum by using absorbing
respect to being either buccal or palatal teeth #22 and #24? materials in the x-ray beam is called:
A. Application of SLOB rule A. Elimination
B. Lateral head radiograph B. Collimation
C. Use of panoramic radiograph C. Filtration
D. Water’s view x-ray D. Reduction
E. Towne’s view x-ray 14. X-ray fixer contains all of the following except:
6. What is the main ingredient of the developing solution that A. A clearing agent
serves to convert the exposed silver salts on the emulsion film B. An Acidifier
into silver metallic ions? C. An antioxidant preservative
A. Sodium carbonate D. Hydroquinone D. A harderner
B. Sodium Sulfite E. Acetic Acid E. An Accelerator
C. Potassium Bromide 15. Foreshortening where the teeth appear too short is caused by:
7. What are the components of a developing solution? A. Too Much Vertical Angulation
A. Clearing agent, antioxidant preservative, acidifier, B. Incorrect Horizontal Angulation
hardener C. Too Little Vertical Angulation
B. Developing agent, acidifier, antioxidant preservative, D. Beam Not Aimed At The Center Of The Film
hardener 16. Elongation (the most common error) can be caused by:
C. Developing agent, accelerator, restrainer A. Too little vertical angulation
D. Clearing agent restrainer, accelerator, acidifier B. The occlusal plane is not parallel to the floor
8. In trying to reduce the amount of low-quality, long wavelength C. The film is not parallel to the long axis
x-rays from exiting the cone, what is commonly added to the D. All of the above
cone for added filtration? 17. What is the major disadvantage of the paralleling technique?
A. Aluminum disks A. The Image Formed On The Film Will Not Have
B. Thicker glass Dimensional Accuracy
C. Tin disks B. Because Of The Amount Of Distortion, Periodontal Bone
D. Different color plastics Height Cannot Be Accurately Diagnosed
9. All of the following are advantages of a panoramic radiograph C. An Increase In Exposure Time Is Necessary Because Of
except: The Use Of A Long Cone
A. It Shows Areas That May Not Be Visible On A Bitewing D. An Increase In Exposure Time Is Necessary Because Of
Or Periapical The Use Of A Short Cone
B. It Shows Both Arches On The Same Film 18. Copper is used to house the anode because:
C. It Gives Better Detail And Definition Than Periapical A. It is a good thermal conductor
Radiographs B. It reduces the risk of melting the target
D. It Is More Comfortable For The Patient Because It C. It dissipates heat from the tungsten target
Eliminates The Gagging Reflex D. All of the Above
E. It Requires Less Time Than A Full Mouth Series 19. The use of metal plates, slots, etc., to confine and direct
10. A phenomenon caused by relatively lower x-ray absorption on radiation to a specific region and/or to discriminate against
the mesial or distal of a tooth between the edge of the enamel radiation from unwanted directions such as scattered radiation
and the adjacent crest of the alveolar ridge is called: is called:
A. Apical Burnout A. Discrimination
B. Coronal burnout B. Filtration
C. Cervical Burnout C. Collimation
D. Root Burnout D. Coning
11. Which intra-oral radiographs are the most useful in detecting 20. Filtration:
interproximal caries? A. Reduces patient dose
A. Periapical x-rays B. Decreases the density of the film
B. Occlusal x-rays C. Decreases contrast
C. Bitewing x-rays D. All of the above
D. Panoramic x-ray 21. The herringbone effect will appear on the processed film
12. The period between radiation exposure and the onset of when:
symptoms is called the: A. The Film Is Bent
A. Latent period B. An Improper Vertical Angulation Is Used
B. Recovery period C. The Film Is Placed Backwards In The Mouth
C. Period of cell injury D. An Improper Horizontal Angulation Is Used
D. None of the above 22. Image magnification can be minimized by:
A. Using a short cone
B. Placing the film as far from the tooth as possible
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

C. Using a long cone C. The solution was too weak

D. Shortening the exposure time D. The solution was too old
23. The size of the focal spot influences radiographic definition and E. None of the above
sharpness because they are: 33. Stafne’s bone cyst
A. Inversely proportional A. aneurismal bone cyst
B. Not related B. traumatic bone cyst
C. Directly proportional C. static bone cyst
24. The one aspect of radiography the operator cannot control is: D. none
A. The source-film distance 34. Heart-shaped radiolucency usually above the divergent roots
B. The size of the focal spot of maxillary central incisors causing separation
C. The object-film distance A. Globulomaxillary cyst
D. The angulation of the cone beam B. nasopalatine canal cyst
25. Osteoradionecrosis is more common: C. nasolabial cyst
A. In the mandible D. none
B. Both maxilla and mandible 35. Increasing peak kilovoltage (kVp) causes the x-ray to have:
C. In the maxilla A. Decreased density
D. Does not occur in the mouth B. A shorter scale of contrast
26. Salt-and-pepper appearance: C. More latitude
A. Calcifyingodontogenic Cyst D. A longer scale of contrast
B. Dentigerous Cyst 36. In hand processing, if you place the film in the fixer first, this
C. Odontogenickeratocyst result in:
D. Primordial Cyst A. black film
27. A cyst that presents asa large radiolucency at the palatal area B. A mottled film
enclosing the nasolabial area C. A clear film
A. Globulomaxillary cyst D. No change
B. nasopalatine canal cyst 37. Which of the following effects can be associated with low-
C. nasolabial cyst dose, whole body radiation?
D. D. none A. Shock
28. X-ray developer contains all of the following except: B. Epilation
A. A Developing Agent C. Epistaxis
B. An Accelerator D. Leukemia
C. An Antioxidant Preservative 38. The substance that is most resistant to radiation is:
D. A Restrainer A. Leaded glass
E. A clearing agent B. Plastic
29. Foreshortening and elongation are produced by: C. Wood
A. Incorrect horizontal angulation D. Rubber
B. Either of the above 39. Characteristic cotton-wool appearance on xray film
C. Incorrect vertical angulation A. Massiveosteolysis
D. neither of the above B. Fibrous Dysplasia
30. After your film has been processed, you notice it appears C. Fibrous Dysplasia
brown in color. The most likely cause is: D. Osteitisdeformans
A. Solutions Are Too Strong 40. Collimators are usually made of:
B. Fixing Time Was Too Long A. Copper
C. Fixing Time Was Not Long Enough B. Lead
D. Film Was Underdeveloped C. Aluminium
E. Solutions Are Too Weak D. Stainless steel
31. After your film has been processed, you notice it appears too 41. A cassette:
dark in color. The least likely cause is: A. Emits light
A. The Film Is Overdeveloped B. Is an instrument to align the PID
B. The Temperature Of The Solutions Was Too Cold C. Is a container for films and screens
C. The Temperature Of The Solutions Was Too Hot D. Records the patient’s exposure
D. The Solution Was Too Hot 42. The efficiency with which film responds to x-ray exposure is
32. After your film has been processed, you notice it appears too known as film sensitivity or film speed. Which speed range is
light in color. The least likely cause is: the best for reducing radiation to the patient?
A. The film was left in the solution for too short of a A. Speed B
time B. Speed E+
B. The temperature of the solutions was too cold C. Speed D
D. Speed F
DENTISTRY REVIEWER

43. The base material used in dental films is:

A. Sodium thiosulfate
B. Cellulose acetate
C. Metol
D. Gelatin
44. There is prolonged retention of the deciduous teeth and
subsequent delay in eruption of the succedaneous teeth, as
well as presence of numerous supernumerary teeth:
A. cleidocranial dysplasia
B. osteitisdeformans
C. Paget’s disease
D. Mc Cune Albright syndrome
45. The SLOB rule usually refers to _____ rule and stands for same
on lingual; opposite on buccal.
A. Clark’s rule
B. Rapier’s
C. Miller’s
D. Richards’
46. In normal dental radiographic procedures, the principal hazard
to the operator is produced by:
A. Gamma
B. Secondary
C. Primary
D. None of the above
47. X-rays are produced at the:
A. Filter
B. Cathode
C. End of the PID
D. Anode
48. Ground glass appearance of bone on xray film:
A. massiveosteolysis
B. Fibrous dysplasia
C. Osteitisdeformans
49. Vanishing bone:
A. massiveosteolysis
B. Fibrous dysplasia
C. Fibrous dysplasia
D. Osteitisdeformans
50. Under no circumstances should the operator hold the:
A. Film during exposure
B. Patient during exposure
C. PID during exposure
D. Two of the above
E. All of the above