1st QUARTER EXAMINATION IN PHYSICAL SCIENCE

Name: __________________________________________________ Date: __________ Score: ______

Ang exam parang pag-ibig yan,

‘wag kang titingin sa kaliwa, sa kanan at sa likuran
Kasi baka matukso ka,
focus ka lang kung ano ang nasa harapan
at makukuha mo rin ang kasagutan…

Ikaw din, baka sa kakatingin mo sa iba,

mawala nang bigla ang iyong nasa harapan,
masasayang lang lahat ang iyong pinaghirapan!

Direction: Choose the letter of the correct answer. Write it in the space before the number

1. At what time point in the Universe's history did all the forces in nature appear along with particles, neutrons,
protons, and electrons?
a. One second after the Big Bang c. Three minutes after the Big Bang
b. 500,000 years after the Big Bang d. 1 million years after the Big Bang
2. In a neutral atom, the number of protons is always equal to the number of
a. atomic charge b. mass number c. number of electrons d. number of neutrons
3. Physicists Penzias and Wilson received the Nobel prize for their discovery of the ...
a. afterglow of the creation of the universe c. change in wavelength of light emitted by moving stars
b. steady state' theory of the universe d. relationship between energy and matter (E = mc2)
4. Which of the following was NOT a postulate in Dalton’s atomic model?
a. Electrons travel in orbit c. In a chemical reaction, atoms are conserved
b. All elements are composed of atoms d. Atoms of the same elements have the same structure
5. Hubble's law states that most galaxies are moving ...
a. away from the Earth, and the further away they are, the slower they are moving
b. towards the Earth, and the further away they are, the faster they are moving
c. away from the Earth, and the further away they are, the faster they are moving
d. towards the Earth, and the further away they are, the slower they are moving
6. Which statement is true about a proton and an electron?
a. They have different masses and different charges c. They have the same masses and different charges
b. They have different masses and the same charges d. They have the same masses and different charges
7. Consider an expanding universe with three theoretical galaxies: Galaxy Charles(GC), Galaxy Dalton (GD),
and Galaxy Josephine (GJ). If you ask Yolly, who is located in GD, to describe how GC appears to move,
what would she say?
a. GC is not moving c. Both GB and GC are moving toward GJ
b. Both GC and GJ are moving toward GD d. Both GC and GJ are moving away from GD
8. Which statement best describes electrons?
a. They are negative subatomic particles and are found in the nucleus
b. They are positive subatomic particles and are found in the nucleus
c. They are negative subatomic particles and are found surrounding the nucleus
d. They are positive subatomic particles and are found surrounding the nucleus
9. Which of the following reaction does NOT belong to the typical reaction in helium burning?
a. 126C + 42He 168O + energy c. 42He + 42He 84Be

b. 12 6C + 12 6C 20 10Ne + 2He
4 d. 20 10Ne + 2He
4 2412Mg + energy

10. For an aluminium isotope with 13 proton, 10 electrons, and 14 neutrons, the mass number will be equal to
a. 13 b. 23 c. 24 d. 27
11. How many hydrogen atoms are there in seven (7) molecules of hydrogen gas?
a. 7(6.022x1023) atoms b. 2 H atom c. 14 H atom d. 7/(6.022x1023) atoms
12. Intermolecular forces are forces
a. within molecules c. pushing molecules apart
b. between molecules d. of attraction between the protons and electrons
13. The electrons that reside in the outermost energy levels of an atom are called
a. core electrons b. valence electrons c. lone pairs d. bonded electrons
14. A positive ion is
a. cation b. anion c. orion d. cion
15. A __________ formula shows the actual number of atoms of each element in the molecule.
a. molecular b. Lewis c. empirical d. simple
16. The molecular shape of chloride trifluoride (ClF3) is trigonal planar
a. True b. False c. Undetermined d. No answer
17. For saline-filled (salt in water) implants, the predominant IMFA is __________
a. dipole-dipole b. dipole-induced dipole c. H-bonding d. ion-dipole
18. How is molecular shape determined?
a. Shape is determined by BrINClHOF
b. Shape is determined by the repulsion of the protons in the bonded atoms
c. Shape is determined by the repulsion of the electron pairs in the bonded atoms
d. Shape is determined by the repulsion of the neutrons in the bonded atoms
19. If water does not dissolve nail polish, then which statement is true?
a. Water is polar and nail polish is polar c. Water is non polar and nail polish is non polar
b. Water is polar and nail polish is non polar d. Water is polar and nail polish is ionic
20. What type of IMFA between potassium chloride (KCl) and ammonia (NH3)?
a. dipole-dipole b. H-bonding c. ion-dipole d. ion-ion
21. The IMFA that connects pairs of nitrogenous bases in DNA is __________
a. dipole-induced dipole b. dispersion forces c. H-bonding d. ion-dipole
22. What is the type of IMFA between potassium chloride (KCl) and ammonia (NH 3)?
a. dipole-dipole b. H-bonding c. ion-dipole d. ion-ion
23. The boiling point of CH4 is much lower than HF. Which explains this property?
a. HF is more polarized than CH4 c. There is H-bond in HF, and none in CH4
b. CH4 is polar, while HF is nonpolar d. There is a dipole-dipole interactions in CH4
and ion-dipole interactions in HF
24. What is the molecular shape of boron triflouride (BF3)?
a. linear
b. tetrahedral
c. trigonal
d. trigonal planar
25. Based on the Lewis structure of sulphur tetrafluoride (SF4), the number of nonbonding
pair(s) around the central atom is ______
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
26. Draw a polar covalent bond?
a. Cl – Cl b. Cl – O c. H – Cl d. N – Cl
27. Draw a nonpolar molecule with polar bonds?

a. b. c. d.
28. In balancing chemical equation, the chemical formula(s) written on the right side is/are
a. coefficient(s) b. reactant(s) c. product(s) d. mass
29. In balancing chemical equation, the element to balance is
a. C b. H c. N d. O
30. A substance that changes the rate lf a reaction but is neither changed nor consumed is called a _________.
a. catalyst b. product c. reactant d. reagent
31. Which of the following will hasten the rate of a reaction?
a. adding a catalyst. c. decreasing the surface area of a reactant
b. diluting the reactants d. decreasing the temperature of the reaction
32. An increase in temperature will result in ________.
a. a less energetic collision c. improved orientation of colliding particles
b. a lower activation energy d. more molecules that can overcome the activation energy
33. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
a. Coal b. Forests c. Water d. Wildlife
34. Which among the following is not a renewable source of energy?
a. Solar energy b. Biomass energy c. Hydro-power d. Geothermal energy
35. The reaction of magnesium (Mg) strip with hydrochloric acid (HCl) will proceed faster if ______
a. the temperature is decreased c. the concentration of HCl is increased
b. a longer ribbon of Mg is used d. a weaker acid such as acetic acid is added
36. A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by
a. increasing the concentration of reactant(s).
b. decreasing the concentration of the reactant(s).
c. increasing the activation energy of the overall reaction.
d. decreasing the activation energy of the overall reaction.
37. Which of the following would NOT increase the rate of reaction.
a. raising the temperature c. increasing the concentration of the reactants
b. adding catalyst d. increasing the volume of the container
38. Milk turns sour due to
a. conversion of lactose in lactic acid c. increased chemical changes
b. conversion of lactic acid into lactose d. Both A and B
39. A collision is said to be effective if it has _______
a. a reaction mechanism c. a lower activation energy
b. large colliding particles d. a favourable and enough energy
40. When a lit match is touched to the wick of a candle, the candle begins to burn. When the match is
removed, the candle continues to burn, the match,
a. behaves as a catalyst c. supplies the activation energy
b. is part of the rate determining step d. lowers the activation energy barrier
41. Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy sources?
a. Highly polluting c. High waste disposal cost
b. Unreliable supply d. High running cost
42. If you calculate the maximum amount of product that could be obtained in a chemical reaction, you are
calculating
a. actual yield b. experimental yield c. percent yield d. theoretical yield
43. Balanced equation for: ___ SnO₂ + ___ H₂ → ___ Sn + ___ H₂O?
a. 2 SnO₂ + 2 H₂ → 2 Sn + H₂O c. SnO₂ + H₂ → Sn + 2 H₂O
b. SnO₂ + 2 H₂ → Sn + 2 H₂O d. 2 SnO₂ + H₂ → 2Sn + H₂O
44. For the reaction of nitrogen gas with hydrogen gas to produce ammonia gas, how many moles of N 2 are
required to produce 30 mol of NH3? N2 + 3H2 2NH3
a. 15 mol b. 30 mol c. 60 mol d. 120mol
45. Which of the following is a possible active ingredient of an antibacterial soap?
a. beeswax b. muriatic acid c. paraben d. triclosan
46. Which of the following reduces the cleaning ability of soap?
a. hard water b. micelle c. soft water d. surfactant
47. Which of the following is an active ingredient of a broad-spectrum disinfectant?
a. hydrogen peroxide b. bleach c. both a & b d. neither a nor b
48. Which of the following serves as preservative in cosmetics?
a. ethanol b. paraben c. petrolatum d. titanium dioxide
49. Muriatic acid can remove dirt and grime from toilets and sinks because _____________.
a. it can be rinsed off with water
b. it is a weak acid and can react with water
c. it is a strong acid and can dissolve mineral build up
d. it is non-polar compound soluble in grease and oil
50. Which of the following is true about active ingredient?
a. The active ingredient in lotion is the solvent
b. The active ingredient in detergents is the bleaching agent
c. Active ingredients are added to dilute other components in cosmetic products
d. In disinfectants, the active ingredient is the substance that kills microorganism

Prepared by: Checked by:

GRACE V. AGOS ROWENA M. SUYAT

Subject Teacher SHS Asst. Principal II

Noted:

JOSIE M. MACARAEG, Ed.D

Principal IV