MCQs Series For Life Sciences

MCQs Series for Life Sciences
Volume 1
Authored By
Maddaly Ravi
Department of Human Genetics
Sri Ramachandra University
Porur
Chennai – 600 116
India
ITS/04/EB-19, Rev. 02, Issue. 01

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CONTENTS
Foreword i
Preface ii
PART 1: Biochemistry
Chapters
1. Introduction to Biochemistry 3
2. Discoveries in Biochemistry 12
3. Digestion 23
4. Bioenergetics 29
5. Biological Oxidation and Reduction 40
6. Enzymes and Coenzymes 46
7. Enzyme kinetics 63
8. Carbohydrate Metabolism 69
9. Lipid Metabolism 81
10. Amino Acid and Protein Metabolism 92
11. Nucleic Acid & Nucleotide Metabolism and the Urea Cycle 97
12. Porphyrin Metabolism 104
13. The Citric Acid Cycle (Kreb’s Cycle / TCA Cycle) 112
14. Vitamins and Minerals 120
15. Electron Transport and Oxidative Phosphorylation 127
16. Pentose Phosphate Pathway 133
17. Photosynthesis - Light and Dark Reactions (Calvin Cycle) 136
18. Signal Transduction 142
19. The Biochemical Pathway Interconnections 149
ANNEXURE: Answers for the Multiple Choice Questions 154
contd…..
PART 2: Cell Biology
1.. Cellular Organization 164

2. Cell Divisions 176
3. Cell Cycle 191
4. Cell Organelles 196
5. Cytoskeleton 208
6. Cell Signaling and Communication 219
PART 3: Developmental Biology
1. Gametes and Gametogenesis 236

2. Fertilization and Zygote Formation 256
3. Early Development and Germ Layers 262
4. Organogenesis 271
5. Sex Determination 296
PART 4: Genetics and Molecular Biology
1. Discoveries in Genetics and Molecular Biology 304

2. Mendelian and Non-Mendelian Inheritances 325
3. Nucleic Acids 337
4. DNA Replication 352
5. RNA Transcription 363
contd…..
6. Central Dogma – Genetic Code/Translation 373
7. DNA Condensation and Structural Organization 381
8. Prokaryotic Genetics 391
9. Regulation of Gene Expression 396
10. Mutations and DNA Repair Mechanisms 405
11. rDNA and Genetic Engineering 412
PART 5: Immunology
1. Introduction to Immunology 431

2. History of Immunology 436
3. Innate Immune System 438
4. Adaptive Immune System 444
5. Antigens 453
6. Immunoglobulins 459
7. Antigen-Antibody Interactions 469
8. Humoral Immune Mechanisms 472
9. Cell Mediated Immune Mechanisms 474
10. Immunoglobulin Genes 480
11. Major Histocompatibility Complex 482
12. Antigen Processing and Presentation 484
13. B Cell and T Cell Development 489
14. Cytokines 494
15. Complement System 499
16. Hypersensitive Reactions 504
17. Vaccines 511
contd…..
18. Autoimmunity 516
19. Immunodeficiency 521
20. Hematopoises 524
21. Transplantation Immunology 528
22. Antibody Engineering 532
23. Experimental Immunology/Immunotechniques 534
24. Immunological Discoveries 544
i
FOREWORD
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) have become integral for teaching, learning
and evaluation purposes. While certain instances relay on MCQs as a component,
certain others have only MCQs as the evaluation mode. MCQs can convey a lot of
information and are effectively used to judge a candidate’s understanding and
proficiency in a subject.
This Volume I of the MCQs series for life sciences has covered five important
subject areas, Immunology, Biochemistry, Cell Biology, Developmental Biology
and Genetics & Molecular Biology. With a total 2604 MCQs in 64 chapters, this
volume comprehensively covers the 5 subject areas. Also, while the MCQs are
technically sound with straight-forward answers, efforts are taken to keep the
language simple. This approach should make for the best effective use of this
Volume I of the MCQs series for life sciences.
I congratulate Dr. M. Ravi for the efforts he had put in taking up this initiative and
also for the planning and working on the manuscripts. I am sure this Volume I of
the MCQs series for life sciences will be useful for many students, faculty
members and question paper setters as a useful compilation, guide and reference
material.
Solomon F.D. Paul

Faculty of Biomedical Sciences, Technology & Research
Sri Ramchandra University
Porur, Chennai – 600116.
Tamil Nadu
India
ii
PREFACE
The academic challenges are currently taking a new turn with a combination of
increasing volumes of content along with many putting in a significant effort to be
in the forefront either in the regular course works or when competing in
qualifying examinations. The performance of students in course works and
candidates appearing for competitive/qualifying/entrance examinations/tests
require instant recollection of right answers and expression of the same in
minimum time. This is possible by being thorough in a particular subject and
preparation purely from the performance point of view.
Many textbooks and reference material are currently available from a variety of
sources for the student to understand theory concepts and practical aspects in any
given subject. Understanding the needs of the students to perform well in
examinations/tests, I thought it pertinent to make available all the possible,
technically relevant questions in a few life-sciences areas. This approach, I
thought should have only the Multiple Choice Questions as an easy reference and
guide without the theory and practical text components.
This book, the MCQs series for life sciences, Volume I covers five important
subjects of life sciences. These are Immunology, Biochemistry, Cell Biology
Developmental Biology, Genetics and Molecular Biology. Each of the subject
topic is segregated into different chapters aiming to make it easier for the students
to focus and concentrate on specific theme, in accordance to their requirements.
There are 2604 MCQs in this volume; 614, 736, 337, 319 and 601 MCQs in the
Immunology, Biochemistry, Cell Biology, Developmental Biology and Genetics
and Molecular Biology subjects respectively. Care was taken to cover the subjects
comprehensively while avoiding redundancies across the subject areas. Thus, a
concept presented in one chapter is not repeated at another instance. The language
is simple as the main aim is to adopt a presentation form that is technically
relevant and expressed in a simple manner. This is the reason for providing
straight forward answers for all the MCQs.
I sincerely wish that this MCQs series will be useful for everyone to improve their
performance in the regular course work examinations/tests as well as for those
who are preparing for competitive/qualifying/entrance examinations/tests. I look
forward to your feedback, comments and suggestions and reiterate that these will
be very useful for taking this first edition to the next progressive level.
iii
I have taken due care that there are no scientific errors in this eBook. In case any
errors are detected the reader is requested to convey them to me at
maddalyravi@hotmail.com.
ACKNOWLEDGEMENTS
There are several people to whom I am indebted, including my parents, my

teachers and students. My special thanks to Prof. S. Krishnaswamy, Prof.
Solomon F.D Paul and Shri. A.B. Viswanathan along with the entire T9 group. I
thank the management of Sri Ramachandra University for their constant
encouragement. I thank my wife Sujatha and my son Suraj for their patience and
understanding. I finally acknowledge the immense inputs from Fariya Zulfiqar of
Bentham eBooks and all the peer reviewers. This volume would not have taken
this shape but for the professional inputs of the Bentham Science Publishers
editorial team and the critical comments of the reviewers (whom I do not know).
CONFLICT OF INTEREST
The author confirms that this eBook contents have no conflict of interest.
Maddaly Ravi
Sri Ramachandra University, Porur
Chennai – 600 116
India
Tel: +91 98 41486363
Fax: +91 44 24767008
E-mail: maddalyravi@hotmail.com
PART 1:
Biochemistry
MCQs Series for Life Sciences, Vol. 1, 2014, 3-163 3
PART 1
Chapter 1. Introduction to Biochemistry
1. DNA, RNA and proteins are

a. Homopolymers
b. Linear polymers
c. Monomeres
d. Heteromeres
2. DNA is aptly known as the
a. Information provider
b. Intermediary in the genetic information flow
c. Work-horse of the cell
d. Cellular structural backbone
3. RNA is aptly known as the
c. Work horse of the cell
4. Proteins are aptly known as the
c. Work horses of the cell
Maddaly Ravi
All rights reserved-© 2014 Bentham Science Publishers
4 MCQs Series for Life Sciences, Vol. 1 Maddaly Ravi
5. The strongest bonds are

a. Non-covalent linkages
b. Covalent bonds
c. Van der Waals forces
d. Hydrophobic interactions
6. Most biochemical reactions rely on
a. Non-covalent linkages
b. Covalent bonds
7. Non-covalent bonds do not include
a. Hydrogen bond
b. Van der Waals forces
c. Sharing or exchange of electrons
d. Electrostatic interactions
8. Electrostatic interaction energy is defined by
a. Coulomb's law
b. Coombs test
c. Contact distance
d. Hydrogen bonds
9. The energy range of hydrogen bonds is
a. 1 kcal mol-1
b. 3 kcal mol-1
c. 13 kcal mol-1
d. 31 kcal mol-1
Biochemistry MCQs Series for Life Sciences, Vol. 1 5
10. The energy of a typical carbon-carbon covalent bond has an energy of

a. 58 kcal mol-1
b. 8 kcal mol-1
c. 5 kcal mol-1
d. 85 kcal mol-1
11. Typically, an atom pair due to Van der Waals interactions has an energy of
-1
a. 1.0 to 5.0 kcal mol
-1
b. 0.5 to 1.0 kcal mol
-1
c. 0.05 to 0.5 kcal mol
-1
d. 5.0 to 10.0 kcal mol
12. Water is
a. Planar
b. Linear
c. Polar
d. Non-polar
13. The distribution of electric charges in water is
a. Symmetrical
b. Asymmetrical
c. Central
d. Peripheral
14. The dielectric constant of water is
a. 80
b. 60
c. 40
d. 20
15. The first law of thermodynamics states that

a. The total entropy of a system and its surroundings always increases for
a spontaneous process
b. Energy can be created
c. The total energy of a system and its surroundings is constant
d. The total energy of a system and its surroundings is never constant
16. The second law of thermodynamics states that
a. The total entropy of a system and its surroundings always increases for
a spontaneous process
b. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
c. The total energy of a system and its surroundings is constant
d. The total energy of a system and its surroundings is never constant
17. The energy released during a process occurance is
a. Kinetic energy
b. Solar energy
c. Potential energy
d. Bonding energy
18. A disorder in any given system is defined by its
a. Entropy
b. Eutrophy
c. Enthalpy
d. Kinetic energy
19. The heat content in a system is defined by its
a. Entropy
b. Eutrophy
c. Enthalpy
d. Kinetic energy
20. The tendency of non polar molecules to aggregate in water is known as

a. Covalant bonding
b. Van der Waals interractions
c. Hydrogen bonding
21. The property of biomoloecules having polar functional groups and
hydrophobicity is known as
a. Amphoteric
b. Steric
c. Amphipathic
d. Isochromatic
22. The interactions between oppositely charged groups usually form
a. Salt bridges
b. Covalant bonds
c. Hydrophobic interactions
d. Precipitates
23. The process of bond cleaving in biomolecules by nucleophilic activity of
water is known as
a. Oxidation
b. Hydrolysis
c. Reduction
d. Catalysis
24. Acids are
a. Proton acceptors
b. Electron acceptors
c. Proton donors
d. Electron donors
25. Bases are

a. Proton acceptors
b. Electron acceptors
c. Proton donors
d. Electron donors
26. High pH dissociates
a. Weak bases
b. Strong bases
c. Strong acids
d. Weak acids
27. Low pH dissociates
a. Weak bases
b. Strong bases
c. Strong acids
d. Weak acids
28. The negative log of acid dissociation constant is denoted by
a. pH
b. pKa
c. K
d. Dl
29. The negative log of [H+] is denoted by
a. pH
b. pKa
c. K
d. Dl
30. The life forms that obtain energy from inorganic compounds are
a. Organotrophs
b. Anaerobes
c. Aerobes
d. Lithotrophs
31. The life forms that obtain energy from organic compounds are
a. Organotrophs
b. Anaerobes
c. Aerobes
d. Lithotrophs
32. The term ‘Metabolome’ refers to the
a. Total genetic content
b. Total protein content
c. Total small molecule content
d. Total enzyme content
33. The mass of a molecule is denoted by
a. pH
b. Da
c. mm
d. Pka
34. Carbon containing molecules with different configuration, but similar
chemical bonds are
a. Isomeres
b. Aptameres
c. Oligomeres
d. Stereoisomers
35. Geometric isomeres are also known as

a. Chirals
b. Enantiomeres
c. cis-trans isomeres
d. Diastereomeres
36. Chiral centers are
a. Enantiomeres
b. cis-isomeres
c. trans-isomeres
d. Asymmetric carbons
37. Mirror imaged sterioisomer pairs are known as
a. Enantiomeres
b. cis-isomeres
c. trans-isomeres
d. Chiral centers
38. Non-mirror imaged sterioisomere pairs are known as
a. Enantiomeres
b. Diastereomers
c. trans-isomeres
d. Chiral centers
39. The spatial arrangement of groups in a molecule denotes its
a. Configuration
b. Molecular mass
c. Molecular weight
d. Conformation
40. Reactions that require energy are

a. Anergic
b. Endergonic
c. Exergonic
d. Entropic
41. Reactions that release energy are
a. Anergic
b. Endergonic
c. Exergonic
d. Entropic
42. A reaction where the rates of product formation and product conversion to
reactants matches is known to be at
a. Disequilibrium
b. Equilibrium
c. Unbalanced
d. Exergonic
43. A reaction where there is no net change in the concentrations of either the
reactants or the products is known as
a. Exergonic
b. Endergonic
c. Exergonic
d. Steady state
44. The degradative biochemical pathways that yield free energy are
a. Anabolic reactions
b. Metabolic reactions
c. Catabolic reactions
d. Non-enzymatic reactions
45. The synthetic biochemical pathways that require energy are

46. All enzymatic biochemical reactions are collectively known as
Chapter 2. Discoveries in Biochemistry
1. The prehistoric synthesis of important organic compounds by electric current

was demonstrated by
a. Watson and Crick
b. Charles Darwin
c. Urey and Miller
d. Carl Linnaeus
2. The evolution of new life forms from replicating molecules was first
demonstrated by
a. Sol Spiegelman
b. Stanley Miller
c. Harold Urey
d. Charles Darwin
3. The atomic theory of matter was developed by

a. Linnaeus
b. Rutherford
c. John Dalton
d. Sanger
4. The amino acid sequence of insulin was determined by
a. James Watson
b. Stanley Miller
c. Frederick Sanger
d. Sol Spiegelman
5. Identification that the chemical bond angles of rotation in protein molecules
can be visualized on a two-dimensional plot was done by
a. Sir C.V. Raman
b. G.N. Ramachandran
c. John Dalton
d. Stanley Miller
6. The two periodic structures (α helix & β pleated sheet) of polypeptide chain
folds was proposed by
a. Linus Pauling & Robert Corey
b. Stanley Miller
c. John Dalton
d. Ramachandran G.N.
7. The pioneering work on inborn errors of metabolism was performed by
a. Morgan T. H.
b. Archibald Garrod
c. Stanley Miller
d. Robert Corey
8. The biological chemical complexity was first elucidated by

a. Charles Darwin
b. Carl Linneaus
c. Antoine Lavoisier
d. Archibald Garrod
9. The biochemical process symmetry among life forms was demonstrated by
a. Jacques Monod
b. Carl Linneaus
d. Archibald Garrod
10. The chemical and physical properties (optical activities) of enantiomers was
demonstrated by
a. Edward Jenner
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Archibald Garrod
d. Morgan T.H.
11. The theory of energy changes during chemical reactions was proposed by
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Archibald Garrod
c. Willard Gibbs J.
d. Antoine Lavoisier
12. The term ‘entropy’ was applied in thermodynamics by
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Archibald Garrod
c. Willard Gibbs J.
d. Rudolf Clausius
13. The theory of chemical evolution of life was proposed by

a. Charles Darwin
b. Gregor Mendel
c. Aleksandr Oparin
d. Louis Pasteur
14. The pioneering discovery that all biochemical reactions are indeed similar to
chemical reactions outside a biological system was made by
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Eduard Buchner
c. Carl Linnaeus
d. Archibald Garrod
15. The first synthesis of the organic compound urea from inorganic starting
material was performed by
a. Friedrich Nasse
b. Karl von Baer
c. Theodor Schwann
d. Friedrich Woehler
16. Isolation of the enzyme pepsin from stomach lining was first performed by
a. Friedrich Nasse
b. Karl von Baer
c. Theodor Schwann
d. Friedrich Woehler
17. The first animal enzyme to be isolated was
a. Renin
b. Pepsin
c. Pepsinogen
d. Carboxylase
18. The discovery of nucleic acids in nuclei of cells was made by

a. Jacobs Hoff
b. Luois Pasteur
c. Friedrich Miescher
d. Gregor Mendel
19. The advanced 3D stereochemical organic molecule representation was made
by
a. Jacobus van’t Hoff & Joseph-Achille Le Bel
b. Watson & Crick
c. Linus Pauling & Robert Corey
d. Urey and Miller
20. The detailed analytical studies of sugars was first carried out by
a. Jacobs Hoff
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Emil Fischer
d. Gregor Mendel
21. The chromatographic technique to separate organic compounds was first
demonstrated by
a. William Bateson
b. Mikhail Tsvet
c. Linus Pauling
d. Robert Corey
22. The first artificial synthesis of peptide amino acid chains was done by
a. Mikhail Tsvet
b. Emil Fisher
c. Jacob Hoff
d. William Bateson
23. The presence of methane, ammonia, hydrogen and water vapour in the
atmosphere of early earth which served as raw materials for the life form
origin was proposed by
a. Aleksandr Oparin
b. Alexander Fleming
c. Linus Pauling
d. Otto Diels
24. The demonstration that urease enzyme is a protein was made by
a. Aleksandr Oparin
b. Otto Diels
c. Alexander Fleming
d. James Sumner
25. The discovery of deoxyribose sugar as a component of nucleic acids was made by
a. Alexander Fleming
b. Adolf Butenandt
c. Pheobus Levene
d. Edward Doisy
26. The protein nature of the enzyme Pepsin was first shown by
a. Adolf Butenandt
b. Hans Adolf Krebs
c. John Howard Northrop
d. Tadeus Reichstein
27. The discoverer of Urea cycle was
a. Hans Adolf Krebs
b. Tadeus Reichstein
c. Konrad Lorenz
d. Edward Doisy
28. The first vitamin to be synthesized was

a. Vitamin B
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin K
d. Vitamin D
29. The first artificial vitamin synthesis was done by
a. Rudolf Schoenheimer
b. Wendell Stanley
c. Konrad Lorenz
d. Tadeus Reichstein
30. The 3D structure of cholesterol was discovered by
a. Hans Adolf Krebs
b. Wendell Stanley
c. Dorothy Hodgkin
d. Donold Griffin
31. DNA as the carrier of heredity information was proposed by
a. Gregor Mendel
b. Oswald Avery
c. James Watson
d. Erwin Chargaff
32. The 3D structure of penicillin was discovered by
a. Hans Adolf Krebs
b. Wendell Stanley
c. Dorothy Hodgkin
d. Donold Griffin
33. The discovery of presence of equal amounts of guanine and cytosine and also
adenine and thymine in DNA was made by
a. James Watson
b. Erwin Chargaff
c. Francis Crick
d. Fred Sanger
34. The urea cycle was discovered by
a. Hans Adolf Krebs
b. Wendell Stanley
c. Dorothy Hodgkin
d. Donold Griffin
35. The tricarboxylic acid cycle was discovered by
a. Hans Adolf Krebs
b. Wendell Stanley
c. Dorothy Hodgkin
d. Donold Griffin
36. Cholesterol was first artificially synthesized by
a. Robert Robinson and John Cornforth
b. Robert Woodward
c. Fred Sanger
d. Stanley Miller
37. Cortisone was first artificially synthesized by
a. Robert Robinson and John Cornforth
b. Robert Woodward
c. Fred Sanger
d. Stanley Miller
38. The 3D structure of Vitamin B12 was discovered by

a. Hans Adolf Krebs
b. Wendell Stanley
c. Dorothy Hodgkin
d. Donold Griffin
39. DNA polymerases were discovered by
a. Arthur Kornberg
b. Max Perutz
c. Robert Woodward
d. John Gurdon
40. The structure of oxygenated hemoglobin was first modeled by
a. Arthur Kornberg
b. Max Perutz
c. Robert Woodward
d. John Gurdon
41. The myoglobin structure was first described by
a. Arthur Kornberg
b. Max Perutz
c. Robert Woodward
d. John Kendrew
42. The first synthetic chlorophyll was done by
a. Hamilton Smith
b. Robert Woodward
c. Howard Temin
d. Albert Eschenmoser
43. The first codon of the genetic code was broken by

a. Rosalin Franklin
b. James Watson
c. Francis Crick
d. Heinrich Matthaei
44. The DNA restriction enzymes were discovered by
a. Hamilton Smith & Daniel Nathans
b. Watson & Crick
c. Stephen Gould & Niles Eldredge
d. Manfred Eigen & Manfred Sumper
45. The discovery of reverse transcriptase enzyme was independently made by
b. Watson & Crick
c. Howard Temin & David Baltimore
46. The first rapid DNA sequencing technique with cloning and gel
electrophoresis was described by
b. Walter Gilbert & Allan Maxam
c. Howard Temin & David Baltimore
47. The first rapid DNA sequencing technique with dideoxynucleotides and gel
electrophoresis was described by
b. Walter Gilbert & Allan Maxam
c. Federick Sanger & Alan Coulson
48. Prions were first reported by

a. Stanley Prusiner
b. Hamilton Smith
c. Kary Mullis
d. Alec Jeffreys
49. The non-aqueous conditions also conducive for enzyme function was
demonstrated by
a. Alexander Klibanov
b. Ian Flemhing
c. Louis Pasteur
d. Karry Mullis
50. The ‘one-gene-one-enzyme’ hypothesis was put forth by
a. Archibald Garrod
b. Willard Gibbs J.
a. Beadle & Tatum
51. The method of polypeptide sequencing commonly used was described by
a. Edleman
b. Edman
c. Sanger
d. Beadle
Chapter 3. Digestion
1. The starch hydrolysis is performed by

a. Only salivary amylases
b. Only pancreatic amylases
c. Both salivary and pancreatic amylases
d. Neither salivary nor pancreatic amylases
2. Maltase, sucrase-isomaltase, lactase and trehalase are present in
a. Saliva
b. Duodenal lining
c. Intestinal mucosal cells
d. Stomach mucosa
3. Glucose and galactose are absorbed by a
a. Sodium dependent process
b. Sodium independent process
c. Calcium dependent process
d. Calcium independent process
4. The major dietary lipids are
a. Phospholipids
b. Glycerides
c. Triacylglycerols
d. Glycerols
5. Pancreatic lipase activity requires
a. Lingual lipase
b. Colipase
c. Gastric lipase
d. Bile salts
6. Endopeptidases does not include

a. Pepsin
b. Trypsin
c. Elastase
d. Dipeptidases
7. Exopeptidases do not include
a. Carboxypeptidases
b. Pepsin
c. Aminopeptidases
d. Dipeptidases
8. The zymogen pepsinogen is activated to pepsin by
a. Salivary amylase
b. Trypsin
c. Gastric acid
d. Chymotrypsin
9. The inactive trypsinogen is activated to trypsin by
a. Enteropeptidase
b. Pepsin
c. Gastric acid
d. Chymotrypsin
10. Chymotripsinogen is activated to chymotrypsin by
a. Pepsin
b. Trypsin
c. Pepsinogen
d. Trypsinogen
11. Proelastase is activated to elastase by

a. Pepsin
b. Trypsin
c. Pepsinogen
d. Trypsinogen
12. Procarboxypeptidase is activated to carboxypeptidase by
a. Pepsin
b. Trypsin
c. Pepsinogen
d. Trypsinogen
13. Proaminopeptidase is activate to aminopeptidase by
a. Pepsin
b. Trypsin
c. Pepsinogen
d. Trypsinogen
14. Free amino acids are absorbed across the intestinal mucosa by
a. Sodium dependent process
b. Sodium independent process
c. Calcium dependent process
d. Calcium independent process
15. The action of gastric juice on bolus forms
a. Peptides
b. Monosaccharides
c. Chyme
d. Fatty acids
16. Gastric hydrochloric acid is secreted by

a. Chief cells
b. Argentaffin cells
c. G cells
d. Parietal cells
17. Pepsinogen is secreted by
a. Parietal cells
b. G cells
c. Chief cells
d. M cells
18. Mucus is secreted by
a. M cells
b. Goblet cells
c. Argentaffin cells
d. Parietal cells
19. Intrinsic factor is secreted by
a. Parietal cells
b. Goblet cells
c. Chief cells
d. Argentaffin cells
20. Serotonin is secreted by
a. Parietal cells
b. Goblet cells
c. Chief cells
21. Histamine is secreted by

a. Parietal cells
b. Goblet cells
c. Chief cells
22. Gastrin is secreted by
a. Parietal cells
b. G cells
c. Chief cells
23. Gastric HCl helps in
a. Killing ingested pathogens
b. Splitting proteins
c. Autocrine regulation
d. Absorption of B12
24. Gastric HCl helps in
a. Converting pepsinogen to pepsin
b. Splitting proteins
c. Autocrine regulation
d. Absorption of B12
25. Pepsin digests
a. Carbohydrates
b. Lipids
c. Proteins
d. Glycolipids
26. Vitamin B12 absorption is aided by

a. Gastric HCl
b. Intrinsic factor
c. Gastrin
d. Mucus
27. An example of autocrine regulator is
a. Serotonin
b. Mucus
c. Pepsinogen
d. Gastric HCl
28. An example of autocrine regulator is
a. Histamine
b. Mucus
c. Pepsinogen
d. Gastric HCl
29. Secretion of gastric HCl is aided by
a. Serotonin
b. Histamine
c. Pepsin
d. Gastrin
30. Secretion of gastric HCl is aided by
a. Serotonin
b. Histamine
c. Pepsin
d. Gastrin
Chapter 4. Bioenergetics
1. The biochemical reactions that result in loss of free energy are known as
a. Exergonic
b. Endergonic
c. Endothermic
d. Metabolic
2. The biochemical reactions that result in gain of free energy are known as
a. Exergonic
b. Endergonic
c. Endothermic
d. Metabolic
3. The biological vital processes obtain energy for oxidative reactions by
a. Chemical linkage
b. Linkage equilibrium
c. Linkage disequilibrium
d. Equilibrium
4. The biochemical exergonic reactions are termed
a. Metabolic reactions
b. Anabolic reactions
d. Endothermic reactions
5. The energy rich compound in living cells is
a. ATP
b. ADP
c. NADP
d. DNA
6. Life forms that obtain free energy by simple exergonic processes are termed
a. Heterotrophic
b. Herbivores
c. Benthic
d. Autotrophic
7. Life forms that obtain free energy by breakdown of complex organic
molecules are termed
a. Heterotrophic
b. Herbivores
c. Benthic
d. Autotrophic
8. ATP has an important role in obtaining free energy in
a. Heterotrophs
b. Herbivores
c. Plankton
d. Autotrophs
9. In cellular reactions, ATP complexes with
a. Fe2+
b. Fe3+
c. Mg2+
d. Mg3+
10. Which of the following is not a high-energy compound
a. Adenosine Tri-Phosphate
b. Acetyl-CoA
c. Adenosine Mono-Phosphate
d. Active methionine
11. Which of the following is a low-energy compound

a. Adenosine Tri-Phosphate
b. acetyl-CoA
c. Adenosine Mono-Phosphate
d. Active methionine
12. A process that is not a source of high energy phosphate is
a. Glycolysis
b. Photosynthesis
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
d. Citric acid cycle
13. High energy phosphate storage forms are known as
a. Phosphagens
b. Phosphanogens
c. Pyruvates
d. Pyrinogens
14. Many activation reactions are
a. Endergonic
b. Exergonic
c. Neither endergonic nor exergonic
d. Coupled endergonic and exergonic
15. The free energy of biochemical reactions is denoted by
a. B
b. G
c. H
d. S
16. The change in free energy as a result of a reaction is denoted by

a. ∆B
b. ∆K
c. ∆H
d. ∆G
17. Reactions at equilibrium with respect to their free energies are denoted by
a. ∆G > 0
b. ∆G = 0
c. ∆G < 0
d. ∆G / 0
18. Exergonic reactions with respect to their free energies are denoted by
a. ∆G > 0
b. ∆G = 0
c. ∆G < 0
d. ∆G / 0
19. Endergonic reactions with respect to their free energies are denoted by
a. ∆G > 0
b. ∆G = 0
c. ∆G < 0
d. ∆G / 0
20. The unit of energy is
a. kcal
b. mol
c. calories/mol
d. cal
21. The useful energy that can be obtained from a reaction is termed
a. Entropy
b. Free energy
c. Enthalpy
d. Etrophy
22. The net energy amount available from bonding changes of the reactants and
products is termed as
a. Entropy
b. Free energy
c. Enthalpy
d. Etrophy
23. The change in the amount of order during a reaction is termed
a. Entropy
b. Free energy
c. Enthalpy
d. Etrophy
24. Enthalpy is denoted by
a. ∆B
b. ∆K
c. ∆H
d. ∆G
25. Entropy is denoted by
a. ∆B
b. ∆S
c. ∆H
d. ∆G
26. The energy that a molecule must gain to undergo a reaction is called
a. Entropy
b. Enthalpy
c. Transition state
d. Free energy of activation
27. A reaction with atom arrangement of reactants and products with highest
energy is termed
a. Free energy of activation
b. Transition state
c. Free energy
d. Equilibrium
28. The first-order rate constant is represented by
a. k = v
b. v = k
c. v = k [A]
d. v = k [A][B]
29. The second-order rate constant is represented by
a. k = v
b. v = k
c. v = k [A]
d. v = k [A][B]
30. The zero-order rate constant is represented by
a. k = v
b. v = k
c. v = k [A]
d. v = k [A][B]
31. The rate of reaction which depends on the substrate concentration is given by
a. First law of thermodynamics
b. Second law of thermodynamics
c. Rate law
d. Coulomb's law
32. The rate of first order reactions depend on
a. Concentration of substrate
b. Concentration of reactants
c. Concentration of both substrate and reactants
d. Concentration of neither the substrate nor reactants
33. The rate of second order reactions depend on
a. Concentration of substrate
b. Concentration of reactants
c. Concentration of both substrate and reactants
d. Concentration of neither the substrate nor reactants
34. The energy-rich state of ATP is due to the presence of
a. One phosphoanhydride bond in its triphosphate unit
b. Absence of phosphoanhydride bond in its triphosphate unit
c. Two phosphoanhydride bonds in its triphosphate unit
d. Three phosphoanhydride bond in its triphosphate unit
35. The principle biological energy exchange mode is
a. GTP-CDP cycle
b. GTP-UDP cycle
c. CDT-CTP cycle
d. ATP-ADP cycle
36. The hydrolysis of ATP to ADP yields

a. -14.8 kcal mol-1
b. -7.3 kcal mol-1
c. -5.0 kcal mol-1
d. -3.3 kcal mol-1
37. The important source of cellular energy is
a. Oxidation of nitrogenous compounds
b. Reduction of nitrogenous compounds
c. Oxidation of carbon containing molecules
d. Reduction of carbon containing molecules
38. The process where the exergonic clevage of ATP is used for the endergonic
biochemical processes is called
a. Catabolism
b. Anabolism
c. Energetic uncoupling
d. Energetic coupling
39. One compound not similar to ATP is
a. GTP
b. MTP
c. CTP
d. UTP
40. The membrane potential of resting cells is
a. -0.5 to -0.9 V
b. -0.03 to -0.07 V
c. -0.005 to -0.009 V
d. -0.05 to -0.09 V
41. Proton gradient which is important for ATP synthesis is developed by

a. Hydroxyl ions
b. Hydronium ions
c. Carboxyl ions
d. Sodium ions
42. The proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane provides close
to
a. 24 kj/mol H+
b. 2.4 kj/mol H+
c. 0.24 kj/mol H+
d. 0.024 kj/mol H+
43. The relationship between changes in free energy and entropy is expressed by
the equation
a. ∆G = ∆H + T∆S
b. ∆G = ∆H * T∆S
c. ∆G = ∆H-T∆S
d. ∆G = ∆H / T∆S
44. The pH of biochemical reactions in a standard state of free energy change is
a. 9
b. 7
c. 5
d. 11
45. The standard state free energy change is denoted by
a. kal
b. mol
c. ∆G0´
d. ∆H
46. The equilibrium constant from which the standard free energy change can be
calculated is denoted by
a. Keq
b. Eeq
c. Geq
d. Heq
47. The standard free energy of hydrolysis of ADP is
a. -27.6 kj/mol
b. -27.6 kj/mol
c. -27.6 kj/mol
d. -27.6 kj/mol
48. The standard free energy of hydrolysis of creatinine phosphate is
a. -4.31 kj/mol
b. -0.431 kj/mol
c. -43.1 kj/mol
d. -431 kj/mol
49. The standard free energy of hydrolysis of pyrophosphate is
a. -51.4 kj/mol
b. -61.9 kj/mol
c. -43.1 kj/mol
d. -27.6 kj/mol
50. The standard free energy of hydrolysis of glucose 1-phosphate is
a. -9.2 kj/mol
b. -20.9 kj/mol
c. -43.1 kj/mol
d. -13.8 kj/mol
51. The standard free energy of hydrolysis of fructose 6-phosphate is

a. -9.2 kj/mol
b. -20.9 kj/mol
c. -15.9 kj/mol
d. -13.8 kj/mol
52. The standard free energy of hydrolysis of AMP is
a. -14.2 kj/mol
b. -20.9 kj/mol
c. -43.1 kj/mol
d. -13.8 kj/mol
53. The standard free energy of hydrolysis of glucose 6-phosphate is
a. -9.2 kj/mol
b. -20.9 kj/mol
c. -43.1 kj/mol
d. -13.8 kj/mol
54. The standard free energy of hydrolysis of glycerol 3-phosphate is
a. -9.2 kj/mol
b. -20.9 kj/mol
c. -43.1 kj/mol
d. -13.8 kj/mol
55. “High energy bond” is also refered to as
a. Action potential
b. Transfer potential
c. Group transfer potential
d. Action transfer potential
56. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gm of water from
14.5 °C to 15.5 °C is termed
a. Kilojoule (kJ)
b. Joule (J)
c. Calorie (cal)
d. Kilocalorie (kcal)
Chapter 5. Biological Oxidation and Reduction
1. Oxidation is characterized by
a. Loss of electrons
b. Gain of electrons
c. Loss of protons
d. Gain of protons
2. Reduction is characterized by
a. Loss of electrons
b. Gain of electrons
c. Loss of protons
d. Gain of protons
3. Enzymes that incorporate oxygen into many substrates are
a. Convertases
b. Reductases
c. Hydrogenases
d. Oxygenases
4. Oxidation-reduction potential is also known as

a. Membrane potential
b. Redox potential
c. Ion potential
d. Free energy
5. Free energy change is expressed numerically as
b. Redox potential
c. Conduction potential
d. Free energy
6. Free energy change is expressed numerically as
b. Conduction potential
c. Ion potential
d. Oxidation-reduction potential
7. Oxidoreductases do not include
a. Oxidases
b. Dehydrogenases
c. Hydrogenases
d. Hydroperoxidases
8. The reaction products of oxidases are
a. Water alone
b. Hydrogen peroxide alone
c. Both water and hydrogen peroxide
d. Neither water nor hydrogen peroxide
9. Cytochrome oxidase is also denoted as

a. a
b. a3
c. a2
d. a4
10. The single protein cytochrome aa3 contains
a. Two heme molecules
b. Three heme molecules
c. Four heme molecules
d. Five heme molecules
11. The flavin mononucleotide (FMN) component of flavanoprotein enzyme is
formed by
a. Niacin
b. Citric acid
c. Riboflavin
d. Asparatic acid
12. The flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD) component of flavanoprotein enzyme
is formed by
a. Niacin
b. Citric acid
c. Riboflavin
d. Asparatic acid
13. Flavinoproteins are
a. Oxygenases
b. Dehydrogenases
c. Hydroperoxidases
d. Oxidases
14. The redox potential of H+/H2 system is

a. -0.29
b. -0.42
c. +0.22
d. +0.29
15. The redox potential of oxygen/water system is
a. -0.32
b. -0.19
c. +0.82
d. +0.22
16. The redox potential of NAD+/NADH system is
a. -0.32
b. -0.42
c. +0.08
d. +0.29
17. The redox potential of cytochrome a;Fe3+/Fe2+ system is
a. -0.27
b. -0.17
c. +0.10
d. +0.29
18. The redox potential of lipoate;ox/red system is
a. -0.32
b. -0.29
c. +0.82
d. +0.29
19. The redox potential of cytochrome c1;Fe3+/Fe2+ system is

a. -0.29
b. -0.42
c. +0.22
d. +0.29
20. The redox potential of cytochrome b;Fe3+/Fe2+ system is
a. +0.08
b. -0.42
c. +0.22
d. +0.29
21. The redox potential of acetoacetate/3-hydroxybutyrate system is
a. -0.29
b. -0.42
c. -0.27
d. +0.29
22. The redox potential of pyruvate/lactate system is
a. -0.29
b. -0.42
c. +0.22
d. -0.19
23. The redox potential of oxaloacetate/malate system is
a. -0.42
b. -0.17
c. +0.22
d. +0.82
24. The redox potential of fumarate/succinate system is

a. -0.29
b. -0.42
c. +0.22
d. +0.03
25. The redox potential of ubiquinone;ox/red system is
a. -0.29
b. -0.42
c. +0.10
d. +0.29
26. The flavanoprotein enzyme which converts purine bases to uric acid is
a. Xanthine oxidase
b. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
c. L-amino acid oxidase
d. Cytochrome oxidase
27. The intermediary carrier of electrons between acyl-CoA dehydrogenase and
the respiratory chain is
a. Succinate dehydrogenase
b. NADH dehydrogenase
c. Xanthine oxidase
d. Electron-transferring flavoprotein
28. Biochemical oxidation is always accompanied by
a. Oxidation of an electron receptor
b. Reduction of an electron receptor
c. Oxidation of an electron acceptor
d. Reduction of an electron acceptor
29. Hydroxylation of drugs is mediated by

a. Hydrolases
b. Hydroperoxidases
c. Oxidases
d. Oxygenases
30. The free radical effects are prevented by
a. Hydrolases
b. Hydroperoxidases
c. Oxidases
d. Oxygenases
31. The superoxide free radical induced oxygen toxicity is prevented by
a. Superoxide dismutase
b. Oxygenase
c. Hydroperoxidase
d. Hydrolase
Chapter 6. Enzymes and Coenzymes
1. The specialized region on an enzyme that interacts with substrate is known as

a. Binding site
b. Epitope
c. Active site
d. Paratope
2. The enzyme-substrate interaction does not include
a. Hydrogen bonding
b. Covalant bonding
c. Electrostatic interactions
3. In the ‘induced fit model’ of enzyme function,

a. The structure of enzyme and substrate are complementary
b. The enzyme undergoes conformation change
c. The substrate undergoes conformation change
d. There are no conformation changes
4. Enzymes are
a. Proteins
b. Glycoproteins
c. Lipids
d. Sialoglycoproteins
5. The binding specificity of an ezyme to a substrate is largely due to
a. Chemical composition of the enzyme
b. Chemical composition of the substrate
c. Three dimensional structure of the enzyme
d. The covalent bonding capacities of the enzyme and substrate
6. The enzyme catalytic activity can be dependent on
a. Covalent bonding
b. Cofactors
c. Apoenzyme
d. Holoenzyme
7. An enzyme without cofactor is referred to as
a. Holoenzyme
b. Zymogen
c. Apoenzyme
d. Co-enzyme
8. An enzyme which is functionally active is known as

a. Holoenzyme
b. Zymogen
c. Apoenzyme
d. Co-enzyme
9. Which of the following is right
a. Cofactor = apoenzyme + holoenzyme
b. Apoenzyme = holoenzyme + cofactor
c. Zymogen = holoenzyme + substrate
d. Holoenzyme = apoenzyme + cofactor
10. Cofactors are largely
a. Small organic molecules and metals
b. Large organic molecules
c. Enzymes
d. Glycoproteins
11. Coenzymes are
a. Metals
b. Vitamins
c. Small organic molecules
d. Zymogens
12. Small organic molecules which function as cofactors are known as
a. Zymogens
b. Active sites
c. Reactants
d. Coenzymes
13. Coenzymes that bind tightly to an enzyme are known as

a. Active sites
b. Complementarity determining regions
c. Prosthetic groups
d. Epitopes
14. Cofactor of the enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase is
a. Biotin
b. Mn2+
c. Thiamine pyrophosphate
d. Se
15. Cofactor of the enzyme monoamine oxidase is
a. Flavin adenine nucleotide
b. Mn2+
c. Tetrahydrofolate
d. Se
16. Cofactor of the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase is
a. K+
b. Coenzyme A
c. Mo
d. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
17. Cofactor of the enzyme glycogen phosphorylase is
a. Tetrahydrofolate
b. Zn2+
c. Pyridoxal phosphate
d. Se
18. Cofactor of the enzyme acetyl CoA carboxylase is

a. K+
b. Coenzyme A
c. Mo
d. Tetrahydrofolate
19. Cofactor of the enzyme pyruvate carboxylase is
a. Biotin
b. Coenyme A
d. Mn2+
20. Cofactor of the enzyme methylmalonyl mutase is
a. K+
b. Mn2+
c. Mo
d. 5’-Deoxyadenosyl cobalamin
21. Cofactor of the enzyme thymidylate synthase is
a. K+
b. Coenzyme A
c. Mo
d. Tetrahydrofolate
22. Cofactor of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase is
a. Biotin
b. Zn2+
d. Mn2+
23. Cofactor of the enzyme carboxypeptidase is

a. Biotin
b. Zn2+
c. Mo
d. Mn2+
24. Cofactor of the enzyme EcoRV is
a. Mg2+
b. Zn2+
c. Se
d. Mn2+
25. Cofactor of the enzyme hexokinase is
a. Mg2+
b. Zn2+
c. Mo
d. Mn2+
26. Cofactor of the enzyme urease is
a. Se
b. Zn2+
c. Ni2+
d. Mn2+
27. Cofactor of the enzyme nitrate reductase is
a. Se
b. Mn2+
c. Mo
d. Zn2+
28. Cofactor of the enzyme glutathione peroxidase is

a. Se
b. Zn2+
c. Mo
d. Mn2+
29. Cofactor of the enzyme superoxide dismutase is
a. Biotin
b. Zn2+
d. Mn2+
30. Cofactor of the enzyme propionyl CoA carboxylase is
a. Se
b. Zn2+
c. K+
d. Mn2+
31. The enzyme lactate dehydrogenase belongs to the group
a. Ligases
b. Hydrolases
c. Oxidoreductases
d. Transferases
32. The enzyme nucleoside monophosphate kinase belongs to the group
a. Ligases
b. Transferases
c. Oxidoreductases
d. Transferases
33. The enzyme chymotrypsin belongs to the group

a. Ligases
b. Lyases
c. Oxidoreductases
d. Hydrolases
34. The enzyme fumarase belongs to the group
a. Ligases
b. Lyases
c. Oxidoreductases
d. Transferases
35. The enzyme triose phosphate isomerase belongs to the group
a. Ligases
b. Hydrolases
c. Isomerases
d. Transferases
36. The enzyme aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase belongs to the group
a. Ligases
b. Hydrolases
c. Oxidoreductases
d. Transferases
37. The active site on the enzyme is
a. Chemical residue
b. Hydrogen bond forming residues
c. 3 Dimensional cleft formed by groups of amino acid sequences
d. Cofactor
38. The active site of an enzyme comprises of

a. Large volume
b. Small volume
c. Most of the enzyme volume
d. Most of the cofactor
39. The vitamin required for the function of coenzyme thiamine pyrophosphate is
a. Folic acid
b. Pyridoxine (B6)
c. Riboflavin (B2)
d. Thiamine (B1)
40. The vitamin required for the function of coenzyme flavin adenine dinucleotide is
a. Pyridoxine (B6)
b. Riboflavin (B2)
c. Thiamine (B1)
d. B12
41. The vitamin required for the function of coenzyme pyridoxal phosphate is
a. Folic acid
b. Pyridoxine (B6)
c. Riboflavin (B2)
d. Thiamine (B1)
42. The vitamin required for the function of coenzyme nicotinamide adenine
dinucleotide (NAD+) is
a. Niacin
b. Biotin
c. Riboflavin (B2)
d. Folic acid
43. The vitamin required for the function of Coenzyme A is

a. Folic acid
b. Pyridoxine (B6)
c. Pantothenic acid
d. Thiamine (B1)
44. The vitamin required for the function of coenzyme biocytin is
a. Folic acid
b. Pyridoxine (B6)
c. Riboflavin (B2)
d. Biotin
45. The vitamin required for the function of coenzyme tetrahydrofolate is
a. Folic acid
b. Pyridoxine (B6)
c. Riboflavin (B2)
d. Thiamine (B1)
46. The vitamin required for the function of coenzyme 5’-Deoxyadenosyl
cobalamin is
a. B12
b. B1
c. B6
d. B2
47. Highly reaction and substrate specific enzymes are classified as
a. Type D
b. Type C
c. Type B
d. Type A
48. Enzymes with narrow reaction specificity, but broad substrate specificity are
classified as
a. Type D
b. Type C
c. Type B
d. Type A
49. Enzymes with low reaction specificity, but broad substrate specificity are
classified as
a. Type D
b. Type C
c. Type B
d. Type A
50. Enzyme names which are entered in the enzyme catalouge have
a. 3 digit Enzyme Commission (EC) number
b. 2 digit Enzyme Commission (EC) number
c. 4 digit Enzyme Commission (EC) number
d. 6 digit Enzyme Commission (EC) number
51. The class 1 enzymes are
a. Lyases
b. Isomerases
c. Hydrolases
d. Oxidoreductases
a. Lyases
b. Transferases
c. Hydrolases
d. Oxidoreductases

a. Ligases
b. Isomerases
c. Hydrolases
d. Lyases
a. Lyases
b. Isomerases
c. Hydrolases
d. Oxidoreductases
a. Lyases
b. Isomerases
c. Lyases
d. Ligases
a. Ligases
b. Isomerases
c. Hydrolases
d. Oxidoreductases
57. Oxidoreductases are grouped as
a. Class 6 enzymes
b. Class 4 enzymes
c. Class 2 enzymes
d. Class 1 enzymes
58. Transferases are grouped as

a. Class 5 enzymes
b. Class 2 enzymes
c. Class 4 enzymes
d. Class 1 enzymes
59. Hydrolases are grouped as
a. Class 3 enzymes
b. Class 4 enzymes
c. Class 6 enzymes
d. Class 1 enzymes
60. Lyases are grouped as
a. Class 1 enzymes
b. Class 2 enzymes
c. Class 3 enzymes
d. Class 4 enzymes
61. Isomerases are grouped as
a. Class 5 enzymes
b. Class 4 enzymes
c. Class 2 enzymes
d. Class 1 enzymes
62. Ligases are grouped as
a. Class 6 enzymes
b. Class 5 enzymes
c. Class 4 enzymes
d. Class 3 enzymes
63. The enzyme group which are involved in group transfers with water molecule
always as the acceptor is
a. Lyases
b. Isomerases
c. Hydrolases
d. Ligases
64. The enzyme group which move groups within a molecule without changing
the gross composition of the substrate is
a. Ligases
b. Oxydoreductases
c. Isomerases
d. Lyases
65. The group of enzymes whose reactions are energy dependent and coupled to
hydrolysis of nucleoside triphosphates is
a. Lyases
b. Ligases
c. Isomerases
d. Hydrolases
66. The coenzymes that bind to enzymes during reactions and are released again
are called
a. Paratopes
b. Epitopes
c. Soluble coenzymes
d. Prosthetic groups
67. The coenzymes that tightly bind to enzymes and remain bound during
reactions are called
a. Paratopes
b. Epitopes
c. Soluble coenzymes
d. Prosthetic groups
68. Coenzymes are necessary requirement for
a. Hydrolases
b. Oxidoreductases
c. Lyases
d. Ligases
69. Redox coenzymes are
a. Only soluble
b. Only prosthetic
c. Neither soluble nor prosthetic
d. Either the soluble or prosthetic type
70. Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) is
a. A nucleotide coenzyme
b. A hydrolase
c. An oxydoreductase
d. A ligase
71. Physically distinct versions of any enzyme are known as
a. Abzymes
b. Ribozymes
c. Isozymes
d. Lipozymes
72. The serum enzyme of diagnostic importance in myocardial infarction is

a. Lipase
b. Aminotransferases
c. Amylase
d. Creatine kinase
73. The serum enzyme of diagnostic importance in acute pancreatitis is
a. Ceruloplasmin
c. Amylase
d. Creatine kinase
74. The serum enzyme of diagnostic importance in Wilson’s disease is
a. Isozyme
b. Ceruloplasmin
c. Amylase
d. Phosphatase, acid
75. The serum enzyme of diagnostic importance in muscle disorders is
a. Amylase
b. Ceruloplasmin
c. Aminotransferases
d. Creatine kinase
76. The serum enzyme of diagnostic importance in liver diseases is
a. γ-Glutamyl transpeptidase
b. Creatine kinase
c. Amylase
d. Lipase
77. The serum enzyme of diagnostic importance in myocardial infarction is

a. Lipase
b. Amylase
c. Lactate dehydrogenase
d. Ceruloplasmin
78. The serum enzyme of diagnostic importance in acute pancreatitis is
a. Lipase
c. Amylase
d. Creatine kinase
79. The serum enzyme of diagnostic importance in metastatic prostate carcinoma
is
a. Phosphatase, acid
b. Phosphatase, alkaline
c. Amylase
d. Ceruloplasmin
80. The serum enzyme of diagnostic importance in many bone disorders is
c. Amylase
d. Ceruloplasmin
81. The serum enzyme of diagnostic importance in obstructive liver disease is
c. Amylase
d. Ceruloplasmin
82. The rate of one step which determines the overall rate of a reaction with
several steps is known as
a. Rate-limiting step
b. Catalytic reaction
c. Activation step
d. Selective step
Chapter 7. Enzyme kinetics
1. The concentration of enzyme is mostly given in the

a. Molar units
b. Grams
c. Milligrams
d. Molecules, milligrams, nanomoles or units
2. The concentration of product is mostly given in the
a. Molar units
b. Grams
c. Milligrams
d. Nanomoles
3. The concentration of substrate is mostly given in the
a. Molar units
b. Grams
c. Milligrams
d. Nanomoles
4. The amount of enzyme that will catalyze the formation of 1µmol of product
per minute under specifically defined conditions is termed
a. mM
b. µM
c. Unit
d. Titre
5. Conversion factor for converting the enzyme ‘unit’ meassurement to
milligrams is
a. Activity
b. Specific activity
c. Reactivity
d. Interractivity
6. The amount of enzyme activity per milligram of protein is
a. Active site
b. Active energy
c. Affinity constant
d. Specific activity
7. Most enzyme kinetics are determined by the
a. Substrate
b. Product
c. Active site
d. Coenzyme
8. The most common unit of expressing enzyme reaction velocity is
a. Specific activity
b. Micromolar per minute (µM/min)
c. mol
d. kcal
9. The change in product concentration per unit time gives

a. Reaction specificity
b. Specific activity
c. Conversion efficiency
d. Reaction velocity
10. The measurement of rate under conditions of insignificant substrate
concentration change gives
a. Reaction velocity
b. Initial velocity
c. Reaction rate
d. Specific activity
11. Vmax denotes
a. Velocity at saturating product concentration
b. Velocity at saturating reactant concentration
c. Velocity at saturating enzyme concentration
d. Velocity at saturating substrate concentration
12. kcat denotes
a. First order rate constant for enzyme-substrate complex to product
conversion
b. Second order rate constant for enzyme-substrate complex to product
conversion
c. Zero order rate constant for enzyme-substrate complex to product
conversion
d. First order rate constant for product breakdown
13. Michaelis-Menten equation says that the velocity will be given by

a. v = (Vmax/Km)[P]
b. v = (Vmax/Km)[E]
c. v = (Vmax/Km)[S]
d. k = (Vmax/Km)[S]
14. The velocity of product formation at any time can be given by
a. v =k3[S]
b. v =k3[E]
c. v =k3[P]
d. v =k3[ES]
15. The inhibition constant (Ki) gives the
a. Strength of inhibitor-enzyme binding
b. Rate of inhibitor-enzyme dissociation
c. Rate of inhibited enzyme reaction
d. Velocity of inhibited enzyme reaction
16. 1 kcal =
a. 4.184 kJ
b. 41.84 kJ
c. 0.4184 kJ
d. 0.04184 kJ
17. An exergonic reaction can occur spontaneously only if the free-energy change
(∆) is
a. Neutral
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. Positive
18. A reaction system will be at equilibrium when the free-energy change (∆) is
a. Neutral
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. Positive
19. An endergonic reaction cannot occur spontaneously only if the free-energy
change (∆) is
a. Neutral
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. Positive
20. The amount of energy required to apply a 1-newton force over a distance of 1
meter is denoted by
a. Calorie (cal)
b. Kilocalorie (kcal)
c. Joule (J)
d. Kilojoule (kJ)
21. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water from
14.5 °C to 15.5 °C is denoted by
a. Kilojoule (kJ)
b. Joule (J)
c. Kilocalorie (kcal)
d. Calorie (cal)
22. Emzymes alter
a. Only the reaction equilibrium
b. Only the reaction rate
c. Both reaction rate and equilibrium
d. Neither reaction rate nor equilibrium
23. The difference in free energy between the transition state and the substrate is
called
a. Activation energy
b. Free energy
c. Gibbs free energy of activation
d. Rate constant
24. Gibbs free energy of activation is denoted by
a. ∆Bǂ
b. ∆Kǂ
c. ∆Gǂ
d. ∆Cǂ
25. The acceleration of reactions by enzyme is by
a. Increasing the ∆Gǂ
b. Unaltering the ∆Gǂ
c. Decreasing the ∆Kǂ
d. Decreasing the ∆Gǂ
26. The number of moles of product formed per second in enzymatic reactions
gives the
a. Rate of reaction
b. Rate of catalysis
c. Free energy
d. Velocity of reaction
27. The rate of catalysis in enzymatic reactions is denoted by
a. V 0
b. K 0
c. V max
d. K max
28. The Michaelis constant is denoted by

a. M K
b. ES
c. γ
d. K M
29. The Michaelis-Menten equation is
[S]
a. V0 = Vmax
[S]+[K M ]
b. V 0 = V max/2
c. V 0 = (V max/K M)[S]
k−1
d. K M =
k1
30. Keq is a ratio of

a. Activation rates
b. Rate constants
c. Substrate concentration
d. Reactant concentration
Chapter 8. Carbohydrate Metabolism
1. Carbohydrates are aldehydes or ketones containing

a. No hydroxyl groups
b. Single hydroxyl groups
c. Multiple hydroxyl groups
d. Two hydroxyl groups
2. Carbohydrates do not serve as

a. Energy stores
b. Enzymes
c. Energy fuels
d. Metabolic intermediates
3. The carbohydrates which form part of nucleic acid structural framework are
a. Only ribose sugars
b. Only deoxyribose sugars
c. Both ribose and deoxyribose sugars
d. Neither ribose nor deoxyribose sugars
4. Monosaccharides typically have
a. 3-9 carbon atoms
b. 3 carbon atoms
c. 9 carbon atoms
d. 1-3 carbon atoms
5. The empirical formula of many monosaccharides is
a. (C-H2O)
b. (C-H2O)n3
c. (C-H2O)n2
d. (C-H2O)n
6. The two sugars of disaccharides are joined by
a. M-glycosidic bond
b. O-glycosidic bond
c. N-glycosidic bond
d. Glycosidic bond
7. The only fuel that red blood cells can use is

a. Glycogen
b. Iron
c. Glucose
d. Galactose
8. The only fuel the brain can use in non-starvation conditions is
a. Glucose
b. Glycogen
c. Fructose
d. Acetyl CoA
9. Glycolysis occurs in the
a. Mitochondria
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Cytosol
d. Nucleus
10. The phosphorylation of glucose in glycolysis is mediated by
a. ADP
b. NAD
c. NADP
d. ATP
11. The phosporylation of glucose in glycolysis forms
a. Glucose 6-phosphate
b. Fructose 6-phosphate
c. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
d. Pyruvate
12. The phosphorylation of glucose

a. Renders a positive charge
b. Makes it more diffusive to membranes
c. Destabilizes the molecule
d. Stabilizes the molecule
13. The glucose phosphorylation by ATP is catalyzed by
a. Adenylate kinase
b. Enterokinase
c. Isomerase
d. Hexokinase
14. The isomerization of glucose 6-phosphate in glycolysis forms
b. Fructose 6-phosphate
c. Fructose 3-phosphate
d. Glucose 1,6-phosphate
15. The isomerization of glucose 6-phosphate to fructose 6-phosphate in
glycolysis is by
a. Converting aldose into ketose
b. Converting ketose into aldose
c. Phosphorylation by ATP
d. Phosphorylation by hexokinase
16. The formation of fructose 6-phosphate from glucose 6-phosphate is catalyzed
by
a. Hexokinase
b. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
c. Phosphoglucose isomerase
d. Phosphofructo kinase
17. The phosphorylation of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is

catalyzed by
a. Hexokinase
b. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
18. The splitting of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate results in
a. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (GAP) and dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)
b. Only glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (GAP)
c. Only dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)
d. Lactic acid and pyruvate
19. The splitting of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate in glycolysis is catalyzed by
a. Hexokinase
b. Aldolase
20. The transfer of the phosphoryl group from the acyl phosphate of 1,3-
bisphosphoglycerate to ADP is catalyzed by
a. Phosphoglucose isomerase
b. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase
c. Phosphoglycerate kinase
d. Triose phosphate isomerase
21. Conversion of 3-phosphoglycerate into 2-phosphoglycerate is catalyzed by
b. Phosphoglycerate mutase
d. Triose phosphate isomerase
22. The transfer of a phosphoryl group from phosphoenolpyruvate to ADP is

catalyzed by
b. Hexokinase
d. Pyruvate kinase
23. In glycolysis, conversion glucose into two molecules of pyruvate results in
a. 1 ATP molecule
b. 2 ATP molecules
c. 3 ATP molecules
d. 4 ATP molecules
24. The enzyme that has key glycolytic controlling action is
a. Phosphofructokinase
b. Adenylate kinase
c. Phosphoglycerate mutase
d. Enolase
25. The glucose transporter present in all mammalian tissues is
a. GLUT1
b. GLUT2
c. GLUT5
d. GLUT4
26. The glucose transporter present in the liver is
a. GLUT1
b. GLUT2
c. GLUT3
d. GLUT4
27. The glucose transporter present in pancreatic β cells is

a. GLUT1
b. GLUT2
c. GLUT3
d. GLUT4
28. The glucose transporter present in all mammalian tissues is
a. GLUT5
b. GLUT4
c. GLUT3
d. GLUT2
29. The glucose transporter present in muscles is
a. GLUT1
b. GLUT2
c. GLUT3
d. GLUT4
30. The glucose transporter present in fat tissues is
a. GLUT1
b. GLUT2
c. GLUT3
d. GLUT4
31. The glucose transporter present in small intestine is
a. GLUT5
b. GLUT2
c. GLUT3
d. GLUT4
32. The two glucose transporters present in all mammalian tissues are
a. GLUT1 and GLUT2
b. GLUT1 and GLUT3
c. GLUT1 and GLUT4
d. GLUT1 and GLUT5
33. Synthesis of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources is called
a. Glycogenesis
b. Glycolysis
c. Gluconeogenesis
d. Glyconeogenesis
34. The gluconeogenesis pathway essentially converts
a. ATP to glucose
b. NAD to glucose
c. Hexose to glucose
d. Pyruvate to glucose
35. The main noncarbohydrate precursors does not include
a. Nucleotides
b. Lactate
c. Aminoacids
d. Glycerol
36. The conversion of lactate to pyruvate is catalyzed by
a. Lactate dehydrogenase
b. Adenylate kinase
c. Phosphoglycerate mutase
d. Enolase
37. The major site of gluconeogenesis is

a. Pancreas
b. Stomach
c. Liver
d. Bone marrow
38. In gluconeogenesis, pyruvate conversion into oxaloacetate is catalyzed by
a. Pyruvate carboxylase
b. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
c. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
d. Phosphoenolpyruvate dehydrogenase
39. In gluconeogenesis, oxaloacetate conversion to phosphoenolpyruvate is
catalyzed by
40. In gluconeogenesis, pyruvate carboxylase converts pyruvate to
a. Fructose 1,6-biphosphate
b. Fructose 6-phosphaye
c. Oxaloacetate
d. Glucose
41. In gluconeogenesis, phosphoenolpyruvate dehydrogenase converts oxaloacetate to
a. Fructose 1,6-biphosphate
b. Phosphoenolpyruvate
c. Oxaloacetate
d. Glucose
42. In gluconeogenesis, fructose 1,6-biphosphate conversion to fructose 6-

phosphate is catalyzed by
c. Fructose 1,6-biphosphatase
43. In gluconeogenesis, glucose 6-phosphate is hydolyzed by
a. Glucose 6-phosphatase
b. Fructose 1,6-biphosphatase
c. Phosphoenolpyruvate dehydrogenase
d. Pyruvate carboxylase
44. Glycogen synthase is activated by
a. Glucagon
b. Epinephrin
c. Adrenalin
d. Insulin
45. Gluconeogenesis enzymes are activated by
a. Glucagon
b. Epinephrin
c. Adrenalin
d. Insulin
46. Deficiency of glucose-6-phosphatase results in
a. Pompe’s disease
b. Hers’ disease
c. Tarui’s disease
d. Von Gierke’s disease
47. Deficiency of acid maltase results in

a. McArdle’s syndrome
b. Pompe’s disease
c. Cori’s disease
d. Andersen’s disease
48. Absence of debranching enzyme results in
a. Andersen’s disease
b. Hers’ disease
c. Cori’s disease
49. Absence of branching enzyme results in
b. Hers’ disease
c. Cori’s disease
50. Absence of muscle phosphorylase results in
b. Hers’ disease
c. McArgle’s syndrome
51. Deficiency of liver phosphorylase results in
b. Hers’ disease
c. Cori’s disease
52. Deficiency of muscle and erythrocyte phosphofructokinase results in

a. Von Gierke’s disease
b. Hers’ disease
c. Tarui’s disease
d. Cori’s disease
53. Deficiency of liver phosphorylase kinase results in
b. Hers’ disease
c. Cori’s disease
54. The function of glucose transporter GLUT1 is
a. Uptake of glucose
b. Release of glucose
c. Absorption of glucose
d. Resorption of glucose in kidney
a. Release of glucose
b. Rapid uptake and release of glucose
b. Rapid uptake of glucose
c. Uptake of glucose

b. Rapid uptake and release of glucose
d. Insulin stimulated uptake of glucose
b. Rapid uptake of glucose
Chapter 9. Lipid Metabolism
1. The significant property of lipids as confered by fatty acids is

a. Hydrogen bond forming property
b. Hydrophobic properties
c. Covalent bond forming property
d. van der Waals forces forming property
2. Important constituents of lipids are
a. Ketones
b. Aldehydes
c. Fatty acids
d. Lactic acid
3. The systematic name of the fatty acid commonly called laurate is
a. n-Tetracosanoate
b. n-Eicosanoate
c. n-Dodecanoate
d. n-Octadecanoate
4. The systematic name of the fatty acid commonly called myristate is

a. n-Tetradecanoate
b. Oleate
c. n-Dodecanoate
d. Arachidonate
5. The systematic name of the fatty acid commonly called palmitate is
a. n-Tetracosanoate
b. n-Eicosanoate
c. n-Hexadecanoate
d. n-Octadecanoate
6. The systematic name of the fatty acid commonly called stearate is
a. n-Tetracosanoate
b. n-Hexadecanoate
c. n-Dodecanoate
d. n-Octadecanoate
7. The systematic name of the fatty acid commonly called arachidate is
a. n-Tetracosanoate
b. n-Eicosanoate
c. n-Dodecanoate
d. n-Octadecanoate
8. The systematic name of the fatty acid commonly called behenate is
a. n-Tetracosanoate
b. n-Eicosanoate
c. n-Docosanoate
d. n-Octadecanoate
9. The systematic name of the fatty acid commonly called lignocerate is

a. n-Tetracosanoate
b. n-Eicosanoate
c. n-Dodecanoate
d. n-Octadecanoate
10. The systematic name of the fatty acid commonly called palmitoleate is
a. n-Tetracosanoate
b. cis-D 9-Hexadecenoate
c. n-Dodecanoate
d. cis-D 9-Octadecenoate
11. The systematic name of the fatty acid commonly called oleate is
a. n-Tetracosanoate
c. n-Dodecanoate
12. The systematic name of the fatty acid commonly called linoleate is
a. n-Tetracosanoate
c. cis,cis-D 9,D 12-Octadecadienoate
13. The systematic name of the fatty acid commonly called linolenate is
a. all-cis-D 9,D 12,D 15-Octadecatrienoate
d. all-cis-D 5,D 8,D 11,D 14-Eicosatetraenoate
14. The systematic name of the fatty acid commonly called arachidonate is
a. all-cis-D 9,D 12,D 15-Octadecatrienoate
d. all-cis-D 5,D 8,D 11,D 14-Eicosatetraenoate
15. The number of double bonds in the fatty acid laurate is
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
16. The number of double bonds in the fatty acid myristate is
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
17. The number of double bonds in the fatty acid palmitate is
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
18. The number of double bonds in the fatty acid stearate is
a. 1
b. 3
c. 4
d. 0
19. The number of double bonds in the fatty acid arachidate is

a. 0
b. 1
c. 4
d. 3
20. The number of double bonds in the fatty acid behenate is
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
21. The number of double bonds in the fatty acid lignocerate is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 0
22. The number of double bonds in the fatty acid palmitoleate is
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
23. The number of double bonds in the fatty acid oleate is
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
24. The number of double bonds in the fatty acid linoleate is

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
25. The number of double bonds in the fatty acid linolenate is
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
26. The number of double bonds in the fatty acid arachidonate is
a. 0
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
27. Fatty acid degradation and synthesis processes are
a. Not the exact reverse steps
b. Entirely different pathways
c. Have a few steps in common
d. Essentially, the reverse of each other
28. Triacyglycerols are sources of highly concentrated energy because they are
a. Oxidized
b. Reduced
c. Anhydrous
d. Reduced and anhydrous
29. The complete oxidation of fatty acids yields

a. 4 kcal g-1
b. 9 kcal g-1
c. 17 kcal g-1
d. 38 kcal g-1
30. The major site of triacylglycerols storage is
a. Mitochondria of muscle cells
b. Golgi of liver cells
c. Cytoplasm of adipose cells
d. Membranes of epithelial cells
31. Lipids are absorbed as
a. Triacylglycerols
b. Glycerols
c. Cholesterol
d. Fatty acids
32. Micelles of triacylglycerols are formed by
a. Amylases
b. Bile salts
c. Pacreatic juice
d. Hydrochloric acid
33. Bile salts are synthesized from
a. Cholesterol
b. Lipids
c. Glcerol
d. Fatty acids
34. Lipase action on triacylglycerols results in

a. Only fatty acids
b. Only monoacylglycerol
c. Both fatty acids and monoacylglycerol
d. Glycerol
35. Lipoprotein transport particles are called
a. Adipocytes
b. Fat cells
c. Goblets
d. Chylomicrons
36. Chylomicrons essentially contain
a. Triacylglycerols
b. Cholesterol
c. Lipids
d. Bile salts
37. Protein constituents of lipoproteins are called
a. Glycoproteins
b. Apolipoproteins
c. Triacylglycerols
d. Peptidoglycans
38. Lipolysis is inhibited by the hormone
a. Insulin
b. Epinephrine
c. Norepinephrine
d. Glucagon
39. Lipases are activated by

a. Oxidation
b. Reduction
c. Phosphorylation
d. Carboxylation
40. The phosphorylation of lipases is by
a. Kinases
b. Protein kinase A
c. Coenzyme A
d. Apolipoprotein
41. Hydrolysis of triacylglycerols by lipases results in
a. Fatty acids
b. Glycolipids
c. Cholesterol
d. Apolipoproteins
42. The carrier molecule for the fatty acids resulting from lypolysis is
a. Serum glubulin
b. Insulin
c. Glucagon
d. Serum albumin
43. The product of glycerol metabolism which is an intermediate in glycolytic and
gluconeogenic pathways is
a. Dihydroxyacetone
b. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
c. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
d. Glyceraldehyde 6-phosphate
44. Glycerol formed by lipolysis is further metabolized in the

a. Pancreas
b. Muscle cells
c. Adipocytes
d. Liver
45. For oxidation, fatty acids should be linked to
a. ADP
b. Coenzyme A
c. Albumin
d. Proteinase K
46. Fatty acids are oxidized in
a. Mitochondria
b. Golgi bodies
c. Endoplasmic reticulum
d. Cytosol
47. Acyl CoA synthetase is also known as
a. Lipid synthetase
b. Fatty acid synthetase
c. Lipid thiokinase
d. Fatty acid thiokinase
48. In the first step of fatty acid activation, fatty acid reacts with
a. ATP
b. ADP
c. NAD
d. NADP
49. The first step of fatty acid activation results in

a. Glycerol
b. Coenzyme A
c. Acyl adenylate
d. ATP
50. Apart from mitochondria, fatty acid oxidation also occurs in
a. Liposomes
b. Vacuoles
c. Peroxisomes
d. Golgi apparatus
51. The primary material for cholesterol biosynthesis is
a. Acetyl CoA
b. Evalonate
c. Squalene
d. Glycerol 3-phosphate
52. Simple lipids are
a. Glycolipids
b. Esters of fatty acids with groups apart from alcohol and a fatty acid
c. Esters of fatty acids with alcohols
d. Phospholipids
53. Partial oxidation of fatty acids in liver leads to
a. Glycerol
b. Free radicals
c. Ketone bodies
d. Low density lipoprotein
54. Ketone bodies do not include

a. Acetone
b. Acetoacetate
c. D-β-hydroxybutyrate
d. Carnitine
55. The multi enzyme complex that catalyzes the fatty acid synthetic process are
a. Fatty acid synthetase
b. Fatty acid synthase
c. β-oxidases
d. Lipid synthetase
56. The number of active sites of fatty acid synthase is
a. 2
b. 4
c. 7
d. 9
Chapter 10. Amino Acid and Protein Metabolism
1. The number of amino acids that are present in all human proteins is
a. 20
b. 15
c. 10
d. 5
2. Human beings can synthesize
a. 6 amino acids
b. 9 amino acids
c. 12 amino acids
d. 15 amino acids
3. Nutritionally essential amino acids include

a. Alanine
b. Arginine
c. Aspartate
d. Cysteine
4. Nutritionally essential amino acids do not include
a. Histidine
b. Arginine
c. Aspartate
d. Lysine
5. Nutritionally nonessential amino acids include
a. Histidine
b. Arginine
c. Lysine
d. Cysteine
6. The constantly occuring protein catabolic and anabolic processes are known as
a. Protein tick-over
b. Protein turn-over
c. Protein synthesis
d. Essential activity
7. The normal average protein turn-over rate in humans is
a. 6%
b. 4%
c. 3%
d. 1-2%
8. Polyubiquitination of damaged proteins result in their

a. Repair
b. Degradation
c. Polymerization
d. Coagulation
9. Degradation of damaged proteins occurs in
a. Serum
b. Mitochondria
c. Golgi apparatus
d. Proteasome
10. Excess amino acids are
a. Stored
b. Excreted
c. Converted to metabolic intermediates
d. Reabsorbed
11. The amino groups of amino acids in excess are converted to
a. Acetyl CoA
b. Urea
c. Pyruvate
d. Acetoacetyl CoA
12. The enzyme with a key role in amino acid degradation is
a. Pyridoxal phosphate
b. Protinase
c. Protease
d. Pectinase
13. The shuttling of α-amino groups between amino acids and ketoacids is
mediated by
a. Ketone bodies
b. Urea
c. Glutamine
d. Schiff-base intermediates
14. The lack of phenylalanine conversion to tyrosine leads to the condition
a. Ketosis
b. Acidosis
c. Phenylketonuria
d. Bence-Jone’s proteins
15. The enzyme of primary importance in protein digestion in the stomach is
a. Renin
b. Pepsin
c. Pepsinogen
d. Pectinase
16. The pH for optimal pepsin activity is
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 7
17. The mammalian major site for amino acid degradation is
a. Muscle
b. Liver
c. Kidneys
d. Stomach
18. Amino acid degradation starts with

a. Ubiquitination
b. Addition of hydroxyl ions
c. Removal of nitrogen
d. Binding to ATP
19. Aromatic amino acids are degraded by
a. Hydrolases
b. Proteases
c. Oxygenases
d. Pepsin
20. The disease Citrullinemea, an inborn error of amino acid metabolism is due to
the deficiency of the enzyme
a. Tyrosinase
b. Trypsinase
c. Arginosuccinate lyase
d. Cysthathione β-synthase
21. The disease Albinism, an inborn error of amino acid metabolism is due to the
deficiency of the enzyme
a. Tyrosinase
b. Trypsinase
22. The disease Homocysteinuria, an inborn error of amino acid metabolism is
due to the deficiency of the enzyme
a. Tyrosinase
b. Trypsinase
23. The disease Hyperlysinemia, an inborn error of amino acid metabolism is due
to the deficiency of the enzyme
a. Tyrosinase
b. a-Aminoadipic semialdehyde dehydrogenase
24. Ubiquitination requires
a. ATP synthesis
b. ATP phosphorylation
c. ATP hydrolysis
d. ADP hydrolysis
Chapter 11. Nucleic Acid & Nucleotide Metabolism and the Urea Cycle
1. Purine and pyramidine derivatives containing sugar linked to a nitrogen ring are
a. Nucleotides
b. Nucleosides
c. Amino acids
d. Nitrogenous bases
2. The sugar in the ribonucleosides is
a. D-ribose
b. 2-deoxy-D-ribose
c. Ribulose
d. D-ribulose
3. The sugar in the deoxyribonucleosides is

a. D-ribose
b. 2-deoxy-D-ribose
c. Ribulose
d. D-ribulose
4. The sugar is always linked to purines at the position
a. N-1
b. N-2
c. N-3
d. N-4
5. The sugar is always linked to purine at the position
a. N-3
b. N-5
c. N-7
d. N-9
6. The charge of free purine and pyramidine nucleosides at physiological pH is
a. Weakly negative
b. Strongly negative
c. Neutral
d. Positive
7. The charge of nucleotides at physiological pH is
a. Negative
b. Nuetral
c. Uncharged
d. Positive
8. Disorders of pyramidine catabolism include

a. Gout
b. Lesch-Nyhan
c. Orotic acidurias
d. Adenosine deaminase deficiency
9. Successive nucleotides in nucleic acids are linked by
a. Phosphate bonds
b. Hydrogen bonds
c. Phosphodiester bonds
d. Double bonds
10. A short nucleic acid is known as
a. Nucleotide
b. Nucleoside
c. Oligonucleotide
d. Polynucleotide
11. A long nucleic acid is known as
a. Nucleotide
b. Nucleoside
c. Oligonucleotide
d. Polynucleotide
12. The nucleotide synthesis pathway that starts from the precursors is
a. Salvage pathway
b. de novo pathway
c. Replication
d. Splicing
13. The nucleotide synthesis pathway that recycles free bases and nuleosides is
a. Salvage pathway
b. de novo pathway
c. Replication
d. Splicing
14. The precursors for de novo nucleotide synthesis do not include
a. CO2
b. NH3
c. Amino acids
d. Fatty acids
15. The first intermediate with a complete purine ring in the De novo nucleotide
synthesis is
a. Inositol
b. Inosinate
c. Adenylate
d. Guanylate
16. Pyrimidine nucleotides are not made from
a. Aspartate
b. PRPP
c. Carbamoyl Phosphate
d. Arginate
17. In nucleotide biosynthesis, phosphorylation of AMP to ADP is catalyzed by
a. ATCase
b. ATPase
c. Adenylate kinase
d. Ribonucleotide reductase
18. In nucleotide biosynthesis, GDP is reduced to dGDP by

a. ATCase
b. ATPase
c. Adenylate kinase
d. Ribonucleotide reductase
19. Nucleoside diphosphate formation by ATP is mediated by
a. Nucleoside monophosphate kinases
b. Nucleotide monophosphate kinases
c. Nucleoside diphosphate kinases
d. Nucleotide diphosphate kinases
20. Triphosphate production from nucleoside diphosphate is mediated by
a. Nucleoside monophosphate kinases
b. Nucleotide monophosphate kinases
c. Nucleoside diphosphate kinases
d. Nucleotide diphosphate kinases
21. In nucleotide biosynthesis, the dUMP is converted to dTMP by
a. Dihydrofolate reductase
b. Nucleoside monophosphate kinase
c. Thymidylate synthase
d. Nucleoside diphosphosphate kinase
22. Degradation of purines results in the production of
a. Urea
b. Uric acid
c. Ammonia
d. Nitrogen
23. Degradation of pyramidines results in the production of

a. Urea
b. Uric acid
c. Ammonia
d. Nitrogen
24. The urea cycle occurs in
a. Liver and kidney
b. Liver and bone marrow
c. Spleen and kidney
d. Bone marrow and spleen
25. Life forms that excrete amino nitrogen as ammonia are called
a. Ureotelic
b. Uricotelic
c. Ammonotelic
d. Amniotelic
26. Life forms that excrete amino nitrogen as urea are called
a. Ureotelic
b. Uricotelic
c. Ammonotelic
d. Amniotelic
27. Life forms that excrete amino nitrogen as uric acid are called
a. Ureotelic
b. Uricotelic
c. Ammonotelic
d. Amniotelic
28. In the ureotelic organisms, the ammonia is deposited in

a. Hepatocyte mitochondria
b. Hepatocyte cytoplasm
c. Hepatocyte golgi
d. Hepatocyte vesicles
29. Urea production occurs in
a. Kidneys
b. Spleen
c. Liver
d. Pancreas
30. The urea cycle occurs in
a. Hepatocyte mitochondria
b. Hepatocyte cytosol
c. Both hepatocyte mitochondria and cytosol
d. Hepatocyte endoplasmic reticulum
31. Ammonia conversion to carbamoyl phosphate in urea cycle is catalyzed by
a. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase IV
b. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase III
c. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II
d. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
32. The conversion of ornithine to citrulline is catalyzed by
a. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
b. Ornithine transcarbamoylase
c. Ornithine carbamoylase
d. Ornithine amoylase
33. In the urea cycle, the cytosolic enzyme arginase cleaves arginine to yield
a. Uric acid
b. Ammonia
c. Urease
d. Urea
34. The urea cycle is linked to citric acid cycle via
a. Aspartate-argininosuccinate shunt
b. Fumarate hydratase
c. Ornithine transcarbamoylase
d. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
Chapter 12. Porphyrin Metabolism
1. Heme is a coenzyme of
a. Hydrogenases
b. Lyases
c. Ligases
d. Oxidoreductases
2. Most of heme biosynthesis occurs in
a. Bone marrow
b. Liver
c. Spleen
d. Pancreas
3. A small amount of heme biosynthesis occurs in
a. Bone marrow
b. Liver
c. Spleen
d. Pancreas
4. The heme biosynthesis occurs in

a. Only mitochondria
b. Only cytoplasm
c. Both mitochondria and cytoplasm
d. Golgi apparatus
5. During heme biosynthesis, the formation of tetrapyrrole ring starts in
a. Mitochondria
b. Cytoplasm
d. Golgi apparatus
6. The key enzyme in the first step of tetrapyrrole ring synthesis in porphyrin
metabolism is
a. ALA synthase
b. Oxidoreductase
c. Porphobilinogen synthase
d. Ferrochelatase
7. 5-Aminolevulinate conversion to porphobilinogen in porphyrin metabolism
occcurs in
a. Mitochondria
b. Cytoplasm
d. Golgi apparatus
8. Defect in the conversion of 5-Aminolevule to porphobilinogen is associated with
a. Iron toxicity
b. Lead toxicity
c. Vitamin deficiency
d. Hyper vitaminosis
9. The function of porphobilinogen synthase is inhibited by

a. Iron toxicity
b. Lead toxicity
c. Vitamin deficiency
d. Hyper vitaminosis
10. Acute lead poisoning results in increased concentrations of 5-aminolevulinate
(ALA) in
a. Blood and Urine
b. Only blood
c. Only urine
d. Liver
11. The characteristic feature of porphyrins is
a. Monopyrrole structure
b. Dipyrrole structure
c. Tripyrrole structure
d. Tetrapyrrole structure
12. The first intermediate in porphyrin synthesis containing the tetrapyrrole
structure is
a. Uroporphyrinogen I
b. Uroporphyrinogen II
c. Uroporphyrinogen III
d. Uroporphyrinogen IV
13. The formation of Uroporphyrinogen III in porphyrin synthesis is catalyzed by
a. Porphobilinogen synthase
b. Hydroxymethylbilane synthase
c. Ferrochelatase
d. ALA synthase
14. The steps in porphyrin synthesis subsequent to the formation of

coproporphyrinogen III occur in
a. Cytoplasm
b. Golgi apparatus
d. Mitochondria
15. Defects in porphyrin synthesis lead to
a. Lead toxicity
b. Porphyrias
c. Iron toxicity
d. Vitamin deficiencies
16. The degradation of heme occurs in the reticuloendothelial cells of
a. Spleen, liver and bone marrow
b. Spleen, kidneys and bone marrow
c. Muscles, liver and bone marrow
d. Lymphatics, liver and spleen
17. The oxidative cleaving of the heme tetrapyrrole ring results in the formation of
a. Bile
b. Misceles
c. Biliverdin
d. Globin
18. Reduction of biliverdin results in the formation of
a. Bilirubin
b. Bile
c. Biliverdin
d. Bilirubic acid
19. The color of biliverdin is

a. Orange
b. Red
c. Yellow
d. Green
20. The color of bilirubin is
a. Orange
b. Red
c. Yellow
d. Green
21. The color of the heme and other porphyrin systems is due to the presence of
a. Double bonds
b. Many conjugated double bonds
c. Metal ions
d. Vitamins
22. The steps of heme degradation further to bilirubin formation occur in
a. Bone marrow
b. Spleen
c. Liver
d. Pancreas
23. The carrier/transport molecule of bilirubin in the blood is
a. Albumin
b. Globulin
c. Fatty acids
d. Vitamin B12
24. The bile pigments are formed by

a. Bilirubin
b. Biliverdin
c. Glucuronic acid
d. Glucuronides
25. The rate determining step in hepatic bilirubin metabolism is
a. Biliverdin formation
b. Glucuronide synthesis
c. Bilirubin synthesis
d. Glucuronic acid synthesis
26. Oxidation of urobilinogen results in the formation of
a. Urinogen
b. Urobilin
c. Bile salts
d. Bile pigments
27. Hyperbilirubinemias result when the bilirubin levels exceed
a. 10 mg L-1
b. 1 mg L-1
c. 5 mg L-1
d. 20 mg L-1
28. Increased degradation of erythrocytes results in
a. Hepatocellular jaundice
b. Obstructive jaundice
c. Hemolytic jaundice
d. Kernicterus
29. Impaired bilirubin conjugation in the liver results in

d. Kernicterus
30. Impaired bile drainage results in
d. Kernicterus
31. When unconjugated bilirubin crosses the blood-brain barrier, it results in
d. Kernicterus
32. The precursors of heme synthesis are
a. Only Succinyl CoA
b. Only glycine
c. Both succinyl CoA and glycine
d. Succinyl CoA and iron
33. An impaired metabolism involving the erythroid form of enzyme ALA
synthase results in
a. Photosensitivity
b. Anemia
c. Abdominal pain
d. Neuropsychiatric symptoms
34. An impaired metabolism involving the enzyme ALA dehydratase results in

a. Photosensitivity
b. Anemia
c. Abdominal pain
d. Jaundice
35. An impaired metabolism involving the enzyme uroporphyrinogen I synthase
results in
a. Photosensitivity
b. Anemia
c. Neuropsychiatric symptoms
d. Jaundice
36. An impaired metabolism involving the enzyme uroporphyrinogen III synthase
results in
a. Lack of photosensitivity
b. Anemia
d. Jaundice
37. An impaired metabolism involving the enzyme uroporphyrinogen
decorboxylase results in
a. Photosensitivity
b. Anemia
d. Jaundice
38. An impaired metabolism involving the enzyme coproporphyrinogen oxidase

results in
a. Lack of photosensitivity
b. Anemia
d. Jaundice
39. An impaired metabolism involving the enzyme protoporphyrinogen oxidase
results in
a. Ketosis
b. Acidosis
c. Jaundice
d. Photosensitivity
40. An impaired metabolism involving the enzyme ferrochelatase results in
a. Ketosis
b. Acidosis
c. Jaundice
d. Photosensitivity
Chapter 13. The Citric Acid Cycle (Kreb’s Cycle / TCA Cycle)
1. The TCA cycle is the final common pathway for the oxidation of
a. Only amino acids
b. Only fatty acids
c. Only carbohydrates
d. Amino acids, fatty acids and carbohydrates
2. Most fuel molecules enter the TCA cycle as

a. Glucose
b. ATP
c. Acetyl coenzyme A
d. NADP
3. Aerobic oxidative decarboxylation of glucose derived pyruvate forms
a. ADP
b. ATP
c. Acetyl coenzyme A
d. NADP
4. TCA cycle occurs at
a. Cytolplasm
b. Outer mitochondrial membrane
c. Inner mitochondrial membrane
d. Mitochondrial matrix
5. TCA cycle produces
a. 1 CO2 molecule
b. 2 CO2 molecules
c. 3 CO2 molecules
d. 4 CO2 molecules
6. TCA cycle produces
a. 1 GTP molecule
b. 2 GTP molecules
c. 3 GTP molecules
d. 4 GTP molecules
7. TCA cycle oxidizes

a. One-carbon unit
b. Two-carbon units
c. Three-carbon units
d. Four-carbon units
8. TCA cycle produces high energy electrons in the form of
a. NADH only
b. NAD
c. FADH2 only
d. NADH and FADH2
9. The fuel for TCA cycle is
a. Glucose
b. Fatty acids
c. Nucleotides
d. Acetyl CoA
10. In the mitochondrial matrix, acetyl CoA is formed by the oxidative
decorboxylation of
a. Glycogen
b. Pyruvate
c. Glucose
d. Glycerides
11. In the mitochondrial matrix, the formation of acetyl CoA is catalyzed by
a. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
b. Oxidoreductases
c. Ligases
d. Lyases
12. The link between glycolysis and TCA cycle is

a. Glucose
b. ATP
c. Acetyl CoA from glucose derived pyruvate
d. NADP
13. The Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex comprises of
a. Four kinds of enzymes
b. Three kinds of enzymes
c. Two kinds of enzymes
d. One kind of enzymes
14. The Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex does not include
a. a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
b. a-ketoacid dehydrogenase
c. Acetoin dehydrogenase
d. Acetoin oxygenase
15. The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA does not consist of
a. Ligation
b. Decarboxylation
c. Oxidation
d. Group transfer
16. Citrate is formed from oxaloacetate and
a. Citric acid
b. Acetyl CoA
c. Pyruvate
d. NADP
17. Citrate is formed from pyruvate and

a. Citric acid
b. Acetyl CoA
c. oxaloacetate
d. NADP
18. In the TCA cycle, to yield citrate and CoA, oxaloacetate reacts with
a. Acetyl CoA only
b. H2O only
c. Both CoA and H2O
d. Pyruvate
19. Aldol condensation followed by a hydrolysis in the TCA cycle which brings
about condensation of oxaloacetate is catalyzed by
a. Citrate synthase
b. Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase
c. Dihydrolipoyl transacetylase
d. Thiamine pyrophosphate
20. In the TCA cycle, oxaloacetate first condenses to form
a. CoA
b. Thioester intermediate
c. Citryl CoA
d. Citrate
21. In the TCA cycle, the isomerization of citrate is catalyzed by
a. Aconitase
b. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
c. Transsuccinylase
d. Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
22. In the TCA cycle, the acetyl group donor to CoA for the formation of acetyl
CoA is
a. Liposamide
b. Acetyllipoamide
c. Lipoamide
d. Flavin mononucleotide
23. In the TCA cycle, the formation of acetyl CoA by acetyl group transfer to
CoA is catalyzed by
a. Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase (E3)
b. Dihydrolipoyl transacetylase (E2)
c. Pyruvate dehydrogenase(E1)
24. The oxidized form of lipoamide in the TCA cycle is regenerated by
a. Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase (E3)
b. Dihydrolipoyl transacetylase (E2)
c. Pyruvate dehydrogenase (E1)
25. In the TCA cycle, the formation of citrate is mediated by citrate synthase from
a. Only oxaloacetate
b. Only acetyl coenzyme A
c. Both Oxaloacetate and acetyl coenzyme A
d. CoA and oxaloacetate
26. In the TCA cycle, the citrate isomerization is performed by
a. Dehydration followed by hydration
b. Hydration followed by dehydration
c. Oxygenation followed by reduction
d. Reduction followed by oxygenation
27. In the TCA cycle, the citrate isomerization dehydration and hydration steps
are catalyzed by
a. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
b. Aconitase
c. Transsuccinylase
28. Aconitase is a
a. Iron protein
b. Sulfur protein
c. Iron-sulfur protein
d. Heme protein
29. Aconitase is a
a. Iron protein
b. Sulfur protein
c. Nonheme iron protein
d. Heme protein
30. In the TCA cycle, isocitrate is oxidized to
a. α-Ketoglutarate
b. cis-aconitate
c. Citrate
d. Aconitate
31. In the TCA cycle, The oxidative decarboxylation of isocitrate is catalyzed by
a. Aconitase
b. Transsuccinylase
c. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
32. The intermediate formed during the oxidative decarboxylation of isocitrate in

the TCA cycle is
a. a-ketoglutarate
b. Oxalosuccinate
c. Succinyl CoA
d. CoA
33. In the TCA cycle, oxaloacetate is regenerated by the oxidation of
a. Oxalosuccinate
b. Succinate
c. Acetate
d. Succinyl CoA
34. In the TCA cycle, fumarate formation by succinate oxidation is catalyzed by
b. Transsuccinylase
c. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
35. In the TCA cycle, oxaloacetate formation by malate oxidation is catalyzed by
b. Transsuccinylase
c. Malate dehydrogenase
Chapter 14. Vitamins and Minerals
1. The daily requirement of macroelements for normal metabolism is

a. >100 mg
b. 70 mg
c. 50 mg
d. 10-40 mg
2. The daily requirement of microelements for normal metabolism is
a. <100 mg
b. 100-110 mg
c. 110-150 mg
d. 120-140 mg
3. The macroelements include
a. Zinc
b. Manganese
c. Sodium
d. Chromium
a. Fluorine
b. Potassium
c. Cobalt
d. Chromium
a. Molybdenum
b. Copper
c. Cobalt
d. Calcium

a. Fluorine
b. Magnesium
c. Cobalt
d. Chromium
a. Iron
b. Copper
c. Zinc
d. Chlorine
a. Selenem
b. Phosphorus
c. Cobalt
d. Molybdenum
a. Fluorine
b. Sulfur
c. Cobalt
d. Chromium
a. Iodine
b. Iron
c. Cobalt
d. Chromium

a. Trace elements
b. Vitamins
c. Electrolytes
d. Chromium
12. The microelements include
a. Iron
b. Sodium
c. Potassium
d. Calcium
a. Phosphorus
b. Magnesium
c. Zinc
d. Calcium
a. Iodine
b. Manganese
c. Phosphorus
d. Chlorine
a. Iron
b. Sodium
c. Potassium
d. Copper

a. Iodine
b. Cobalt
c. Potassium
d. Magnesium
a. Chromium
b. Calcium
c. Potassium
d. Sodium
a. Iron
b. Sodium
c. Selenium
d. Calcium
a. Molybdenum
b. Potassium
c. Sodium
d. Calcium
a. Iron
b. Chlorine
c. Fluorine
d. Calcium
21. The macroelement required for mineral metabolism include

a. Na
b. Ca
c. P
d. Zn
a. Cu
b. Ca
c. K
d. Mo
a. Fe
b. Cl
c. Cr
d. Se
24. Deficiency of the vitamin retinol, β-carotene results in
a. Xerophthalmia
b. Rickets
c. Pellagra
d. Megaloblastic anemia
25. Deficiency of the vitamin calciferol results in
a. Scurvy
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Pellagra
d. Rickets
26. Deficiency of the vitamin tocopherols results in

a. Rickets
b. Carbohydrate dysfunction
c. Pellagra
d. Serious neurologic dysfunction
27. Deficiency of the vitamin Phylloquinone results in
a. Impaired fat metabolism
b. Hemorrhagic disease
c. Pellagra
d. Impaired mineral metabolism
28. Deficiency of the vitamin Thyamin results in
a. Beriberi
b. Pellagra
c. Rickets
d. Scurvy
29. Deficiency of the vitamin Riboflavin results in
a. Impaired blood clotting
b. Bone demineralization
c. Rickets
d. Seborrheic dermatitis
30. Deficiency of the vitamin Niacin results in
a. Beriberi
b. Pellagra
c. Rickets
d. Scurvy
31. Deficiency of the vitamin B6 results in

a. Convulsions
b. Pellagra
c. Anemia
d. Scurvy
32. Deficiency of the vitamin B12 results in
a. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
b. depressive psychosis
c. Megaloblastic anemia
d. Pernicious anemia
33. Deficiency of the vitamin Pantothenic acid results in
a. beriberi
b. Impaired fatty acid metabolism
c. Rickets
d. Scurvy
34. Deficiency of the vitamin Biotin results in
a. beriberi
b. Pellagra
c. Dermatitis
d. Scurvy
35. Deficiency of the vitamin Ascorbic acid results in
a. beriberi
b. Pellagra
c. Rickets
d. Scurvy
Chapter 15. Electron Transport and Oxidative Phosphorylation
1. In cellular respiration, oxidative phosphorylation represents

a. The beginning
b. An intermediary step
c. The final stage
d. Preparatory stage
2. Eukaryotic oxidative phosphorylation occurs in
a. Chloroplasts
b. Mitochondria
c. Cytosol
d. Endoplasmic reticulum
3. Oxidative phosphorylation involves the
a. Reduction of oxygen
b. Oxidation of hydrogen
c. Utilization of water
d. Utilization of carbon
4. The electron donors in oxidative phosphorylation are
a. Only NADH
b. Only FADH2
c. Both NADH and FADH2
d. ADP
5. Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in
a. Light only
b. Dark only
c. Equally well in light and dark
d. Plants
6. Cyanide impairs oxidative phosphorylation by

a. Blocking electron transfer between cytochromes
b. Preventing electron transfer to ubiquinone
c. Blocking proton flow
d. Inhibiting cytochrome oxidase
7. Carbon monoxide impairs oxidative phosphorylation by
8. Antimycin A impairs oxidative phosphorylation by
9. Rotenone impairs oxidative phosphorylation by
10. Pericidin A impairs oxidative phosphorylation by
11. Dicyclohexylcarbodiimide impairs oxidative phosphorylation by

12. Atractyloside impairs oxidative phosphorylation by
b. Inhibiting adenine nucleotide translocase
13. The respiratory chain components are arranged in
a. Decreasing redox potential order
b. Increasing redox potential order
c. Equal redox potential order
d. Random redox potential order
14. The respiratory chain member with the lowest redox potential is
a. Cytochrome b
b. Cytochrome a
c. Cytochrome c
d. Flavoproteins
15. Linking of flavoproteins to cytochrome b is by
a. Ubiquinone
b. Creatine
c. Acyl CoA
d. Acetyl CoA
16. Ubiquinone is also known as

a. Coenzyme Q
b. Acetyl CoA
c. Acyl CoA
d. Flavonoid
17. The iron-sulfur protein is associated with
a. Cytochrome a
b. Cytochrome b
c. Cytochrome c
d. Cytochrome d
18. The only soluble cytochrome in the respiratory chain is
a. Cytochrome a
b. Cytochrome b
c. Cytochrome c
d. Cytochrome d
19. To form the mobile component of the respiratory chain, the cytochrome c
couples with
a. Cofactors
b. NADH
c. Cytochrome a
d. Coenzyme Q
20. The respiratory chain follows the
a. First law of themodynamics
b. Columb’s law
c. Mitchell’s chemiosmotic theory
d. Michelles Menton equation
21. The protein complex of the respiratory chain from the TCA cycle is
a. Complex I
b. Complex II
c. Complex III
d. Complex IV
22. ATP synthase is also refered to as
a. Complex II
b. Complex III
c. Complex IV
d. Complex V
23. In the respiratory chain, the iron-sulfur clusters are not present in
a. Complex I
b. Complex II
c. Complex III
d. Complex IV
24. In the respiratory chain, the flavins are present in
a. Complex I
b. Complex III
c. Complex IV
d. Complex V
25. In the respiratory chain, the heme groups are not present in
a. Complex I
b. Complex II
c. Complex III
d. Complex IV
26. The number of polypeptides of the respiratory chain the mitochondrial

genome codes for is
a. 80
b. 63
c. 31
d. 13
27. The number of polypeptides in the respiratory chain is
a. >80
b. <63
c. 31
d. 13
28. In the respiratory chain, NADH dehydrogenase (ubiquinone) is part of
a. Complex I
b. Complex II
c. Complex III
d. Complex IV
29. In the respiratory chain, Succinate dehydrogenase is part of
a. Complex I
b. Complex II
c. Complex III
d. Complex IV
30. In the respiratory chain, Ubiquinol-cytochrome C reductase is part of
a. Complex I
b. Complex II
c. Complex III
d. Complex IV
31. In the respiratory chain, Cytochrome C oxidase is part of

a. Complex I
b. Complex II
c. Complex III
d. Complex IV
32. During complete oxidation of glucose, oxidative phosphorylation generates
a. 36 ATP molecules
b. 20 ATP molecules
c. 26 ATP molecules
d. 30 ATP molecules
Chapter 16. Pentose Phosphate Pathway
[Hexose monophosphate shunt/pathway, HMP shunt/pathway, Phosphogluconate

pathway]
1. A primary function of the pentose phosphate pathway is to

a. Supply reducing equivalents for NADPH biosynthesis
b. ATP generation
c. ATP utilization
d. Supply intermediates to citric acid cycle
2. A primary function of the pentose phosphate pathway is to
a. Generate NADP
b. Generate ATP generation
c. Supply ATP
d. Supply pentoses for DNA and RNA biosynthesis
3. The pentose phosphate pathway starts with

a. Glucose 6- phosphate
b. Glucose 4- phosphate
c. Glucose 2- phosphate
d. Glucose monophosphate
4. The oxidative part of the HMP shunt converts glucose 6-phosphate to
a. Glucose 2- phosphate
b. Glucose 4- phosphate
c. Ribulose 5-phosphate
d. Ribulose 6-phosphate
5. The first reaction of the oxidative part of pentose phosphate pathway produces
a. NADPH+H+
b. NADP
c. AT
d. ADP
6. The first reaction of the oxidative part of pentose phosphate pathway produces
b. 6-phosphogluconolactone
c. 3-phosphogluconolactone
d. ADP
7. The last enzyme in the pentose phosphate pathway is
a. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
b. Glucose-6-phosphate hydrogenase
c. Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
d. Phosphogluconate hydrogenase
8. Transfer of C3 units from sedoheptulose 7-phosphate to the aldehyde group of

glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate in the pentose phosphate pathway is catalyzed by
a. Transketolase
b. Transaldolase
c. Dehydrogenases
d. Hydrogenases
9. Transfer of C2 fragments from one sugar phosphate to another in the pentose
phosphate pathway is catalyzed by
a. Transketolase
b. Transaldolase
c. Dehydrogenases
d. Hydrogenases
10. The pentose phosphate pathway is an alternative route for the metabolism of
a. Fatty acids
b. Amino acids
c. Nucleotide
d. Glucose
11. The pentose phosphate pathway produces
a. 1 CO2 molecule
b. 2 CO2 molecules
c. 3 CO2 molecules
d. 5 CO2 molecules
12. The pentose phosphate pathway produces
a. 2 five-carbon sugars
b. 3 five-carbon sugars
c. 4 five-carbon sugars
d. 5 five-carbon sugars
13. The pentose phosphate pathway occurs in the

a. Inner mitochondrial membrane
b. Outer mitochondrial membrane
d. Cytosol
14. Deficiency of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase results in the clinical
condition
a. Pernicious anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Hemorrhages
d. Blindness
15. In humans, a mutation in the transketolase gene results in
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Wernicke-Korasakoff syndrome
d. Blindness
Chapter 17. Photosynthesis-Light and Dark Reactions (Calvin Cycle)
1. During photosynthesis, water and carbon dioxide form

a. Carbohydrates and oxygen
b. Carbohydrates and carbon-dioxide
c. Oxygen and water
d. Molecular hydrogen and carbohydrates
2. Photosynthesis takes place in

a. Chlorphyll
b. Chromophyll
c. Chloroplasts
d. Mitochondria
3. The light reactions of photosynthesis produce
a. Only NADPH
b. Only ATP
c. Both NADPH and ATP
d. Water and oxygen
4. The number of photosystems required for photosynthesis is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
5. The % of lipids present as galactolipids in the thylakoid membranes for
photosynthesis is
a. 4%
b. 10%
c. 40%
d. 14%
6. The % of lipids present as sulfolipids in the thylakoid membranes for
photosynthesis is
a. 4%
b. 10%
c. 40%
d. 14%
7. The % of lipids present as phospholipids in the thylakoid membranes for

photosynthesis is
a. 4%
b. 10%
c. 40%
d. 14%
8. In most green plants, the main photoreceptor is
a. Chlorophyll
b. Carotenoid
c. Xanthene
d. Heme
9. The highly hydrophobic esterified 20-carbon alcohol present in chlorophyll is
a. Photon
b. Polyenes
c. Phytol
d. Quinone
10. Photoreceptors containing alternating single and double bonds are known as
a. Photon
b. Polyenes
c. Phytol
d. Quinone
11. The process of moving an photon excited electron from the initial molecule to
an acceptor is called
a. Separation
b. Extinction
c. Photoinduced charge separation
d. Charge generation
12. The site of photoinduced charge separation in photosynthesis is called

a. Specific site
b. Reaction center
c. Specific center
d. Active site
13. Photosystem I responds to light wavelengths of
a. Longer than 700 nm
b. Shorter than 700 nm
c. Shorter than 680 nm
d. Longer than 680 nm
14. Photosystem II responds to light wavelengths of
a. Longer than 700 nm
b. Shorter than 700 nm
c. Shorter than 680 nm
d. Longer than 680 nm
15. The electron donor in Photosystem II is
a. CO2
b. O2
c. H2O
d. H+
16. The pathway of electron flow between the photosystems I and II is called
a. Electron transport chain
b. Transduction
c. Reduction
d. Z scheme of photosynthesis
17. ATP synthesis during photosynthesis is driven by

a. A proton gradient
b. A pH gradient
c. A temperature gradient
d. A coupled gradient
18. The cyclic electron flow of photosystem I results in the production of
a. NADPH
b. ATP
c. NADP
d. ADP
19. The Calvin cycle is also refered to as
a. Pentose phosphate pathway
b. Oxidative phosphorylation
c. Reductive pentose phosphate pathway
d. NADPH cycle
20. From carbon dioxide and water, the Calvin cycle synthesizes
a. Pentoses
b. Hexoses
c. Nucleotides
d. ADP
21. The Calvin cycle occurs in
a. Mitochondria
b. Chloroplast stroma
c. Chlorophyll
d. Lamella
22. In the Calvin cycle, the CO2 fixation by ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate forms
a. 2 molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate
b. 3 molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate
c. 4 molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate
d. 5 molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate
23. In the Calvin cycle, the reduction of 3-phosphoglycerate forms
a. Hexose sugars
b. Pentose sugars
c. Glycerides
d. Ribulose
24. In the Calvin cyle, the molecule that is regenerated in
a. Ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate
b. 3-phosphoglycerate
c. CO2
d. Hexoses
25. The rate limiting step of the Calvin cycle is
a. Carboxylation of ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate
b. Reduction of 3-phosphoglycerate
c. Reduction of ferredoxin
d. Synthesis of sucrose 6-phosphate
Chapter 18. Signal Transduction
1. Conversion of an information into a chemical change at the cellular level is

known as
a. Signal transduction
b. Activation
c. Differentiation
d. Stimulation
2. Complementarity of the signal and receptor molecules on a cell surface
confers the
a. Activity
b. Specificity
c. Diversity
d. Cross reactivity
3. The ability of a system to receive and respond uniquely to many signals is
known as
a. Cooperation
b. Integration
c. Amplification
d. Degeneration
4. A signal triggered enzyme cascade ususally results in
a. Cooperation
b. Integration
c. Amplification
d. Degeneration
5. The kinetics of a ligand-receptor interaction can be derived by using

a. Equilibrium dialysis
b. Stoichometry
c. Scatchard analysis
d. Activation energy
6. The acetyl choline receptor is an example of
a. Serpentine receptor
b. Intrinsci receptor
c. Extrinsic receptor
d. Gated ion channel receptor
7. Receptor proteins that indirectly activate signal transduction are also known as
a. Gated ion channels
b. Serpentine receptors
c. Extrinsic receptors
d. Intrinsic receptors
8. Essentially, the steroid receptors are
a. Gated ion channels
c. Nuclear receptors
d. Intrinsic receptors
9. In eukaryotes, the number of different general signalling mechanisms are
a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 8
10. Neuronal action potentials are produced by

a. Steroid channels
b. Voltage-gated ion channels
c. Cascade effect
d. Ligand gated channels
11. The enzyme active sites of receptor enzymes are present in
a. Ion gates
b. Membrane ligands
c. Extracellular surface
d. Cytosolic side
12. Guanosine nucleotide-binding protein is a part of
a. G Protein coupled receptor and second messenger
b. Gated ion channel
c. Receptor enzymes
d. Steroid receptors
13. Adrenergic receptors represent
a. Only epinephrine
b. Only adrenaline
c. Both epinephrine and adrenaline
d. cGMP
14. The signal for group I hormones is
a. Ligand-receptor complex
b. Change in ion strength
c. Enzyme cascade
d. Cross linking
15. In eukaryotic cell signalling, the cAMP binds to

a. CRP
b. PKA
c. ADH
d. TSH
16. Cyclic AMP represents the
a. Primary messenger
b. Secondary messenger
c. Tertiary messenger
d. Culminative messenger
17. Cyclic GMP represents the
a. Primary messenger
b. Secondary messenger
c. Tertiary messenger
d. Culminative messenger
18. A common way of signal information transfer in cells is
a. Protein carboxylation
b. Protein hydrogenation
c. Protein phosphorylation
d. Protein deamination
19. In the signalling mechanisms, the transfer of phosphoryl groups from ATP to
amino acid residues is done by
a. Phosphatases
b. Protein kinases
c. Dehydrogenases
d. Lyases
20. An example of a ‘molecular switch’ is

a. G proteins
b. Antibodies
c. Ligands
d. Epitopes
21. Protein kinase A is activated by
a. AMP
b. Cyclic AMP
c. GMP
d. GDP
22. An ubiquitous cytosolic messenger ion is
a. Fe+
b. Ca2+
c. Mo
d. Mn2+
23. A common eukaryotic calcium sensor protein is
a. cAMP
b. MAPK
c. Calmodulin
d. GMP
24. The formation of receptor dimers during a signalling event is brought about by
a. Cross linking
b. Conformational flexibility
c. Cross phosphorylation
d. Noncovalent linkages
25. The signalling G protein Ras functions to

a. Reorganize cytoskeleton
b. Activate ADP-ribosyltransferase
c. Regulates cell growth
d. RNA transport
26. The signalling G protein Rho functions to
d. RNA transport
27. The signalling G protein Arf functions to
d. RNA transport
28. The signalling G protein Rab functions to
a. Regulate secretory and endocytotic pathways
d. RNA transport
29. The signalling G protein Ran functions to
c. Regulate cell growth
d. RNA transport
30. A clinical condition resulting due to excessive signalling of G proteins is

a. Cholera
b. Night blindness
c. Pertussis
d. Nephritis
31. A clinical condition resulting due to excessive signalling of G proteins is
a. Essential hypertension
b. Night blindness
c. Pertussis
d. Nephritis
32. A clinical condition resulting due to deficient signalling of G proteins is
a. Cholera
b. Night blindness
c. Pituitary adenoma
d. Nephritis
33. A clinical condition resulting due to deficient signalling of G proteins is
a. Cholera
b. Adrenal adenoma
c. Pituitary adenoma
d. Pertussis
Chapter 19. The Biochemical Pathway Interconnections
1. To store and retrieve ATP and glucose, the interconnect metabolic pathways
do not include
a. Nucleotides
b. Glycogen
c. Fat
d. Protein
2. The metabolic energy storage fuels do not include
a. ADP
b. Glycogen
c. Protein
d. Fat
3. The metabolic reactions which produce intermediates for the TCA cycle by
converting pyruvate are known as
a. Exergonic reactions
b. Rate limiting reactions
c. Anaplerotic reactions
d. Connective reactions
4. Pyruvate conversion to oxaloacetate as a TCA cycle intermediate is catalyzed
by
a. Pyruvate hydrogenase
b. Pyruvate oxygenase
d. Pyruvate carboxylase
5. The interconnection of glucose – lactate – glucose between the muscle and

liver is
a. The TCA cycle

b. The Kreb’s cycle
c. The Cori cycle
d. The oxydative phosphorylation reactions
6. Recycling of carbon to glucose while utilizing the nitrogen waste occurs by
a. Kreb’s cycle
b. Cori cycle
c. Alanine cycle
d. TCA cycle
7. Nitrogenous waste removal and recycling of carbon skeletons into glucose is
achieved by
a. Kreb’s cycle
b. Cori cycle
c. Alanine cycle
d. TCA cycle
8. The organs integrating the alanine cycle are
a. Liver and muscle
b. Liver and kidney
c. RBCs and muscle
d. Pancreas and muscle
9. The energy sources which are produced in the liver and utilized in other
tissues are
a. Fatty acids
b. Pyruvates
c. Ketone bodies
d. Glycogen
10. Integration of glycolysis, citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylations
occur through
a. ATP utilization
b. ATP production by glucose oxidation
c. Glycogenesis
d. Glyconeogenesis
11. One molecule that is the central force for metabolic pathway interactions is
a. Glucose
b. Fatty acids
c. Amino acids
d. ATP
12. The most common intermediate resulting from the oxidation of energy source
molecules is
a. NAD
b. NADH
c. Acetyl CoA
d. FADH2
13. The major electron donor in most reductive biosynthetic pathways is

a. NADPH
b. FAD
c. NAD
d. ADP
14. The central metabolic pathways are
a. Only anabolic
b. Only catabolic
c. Both anabolic and catabolic
d. Complementary
15. A mjor metabolic junction molecule is
a. ATP
b. Glucose 6-phosphate
c. Ribose 5-phosphate
d. Pentose phosphate
16. A major metabolic junction molecule is
a. Glycogen
b. Carnitine
c. Malonyl CoA
d. Pyruvate
17. A major metabolic junction molecule is
a. Glycogen
b. Acetyl CoA
c. Malonyl CoA
d. Pyruvate
18. An organ of essential importance in the integration of metabolic pathways is

a. Liver
b. Kidneys
c. Bone marrow
d. Spleen
19. An example of glucogenic aminoacid is
a. Lysine
b. Leucine
c. Tyrosine
d. Glycine
a. Lysine
b. Leucine
c. Phenylalanine
d. Glycine
a. Lysine
b. Leucine
c. Tryptophan
d. Glycine
a. Lysine
b. Leucine
c. Isoleucine
d. Glycine
23. An example of ketogenic aminoacid is

a. Lysine
b. Phenylalanine
c. Tyrosine
d. Tryptophan
24. An example of ketogenic aminoacid is
a. Leucine
b. Phenylalanine
c. Tyrosine
d. Tryptophan
ANNEXURE
ANSWERS FOR MCQs
Chapter 1. Introduction to Biochemistry
1. b 11. b 21. c 31. a 41. c

2. a 12. c 22. a 32. c 42. a
3. b 13. b 23. b 33. b 43. d
4. c 14. a 24. c 34. d 44. c
5. b 15. c 25. a 35. c 45. a
6. a 16. a 26. b 36. d 46. b
7. c 17. c 27. c 37. a
8. a 18. a 28. b 38. b
9. c 19. c 29. b 39. d
10. d 20. d 30. d 40. b
Chapter 2. Discoveries in Biochemistry
1. c 11. c 21. b 31. b 41. d

2. a 12. d 22. b 32. c 42. b
3. c 13. c 23. a 33. b 43. d
4. c 14. b 24. d 34. a 44. a
5. b 15. d 25. c 35. a 45. c
6. a 16. c 26. c 36. a 46. b
7. b 17. b 27. a 37. b 47. c
8. c 18. c 28. b 38. c 48. a
9. a 19. a 29. d 39. a 49. a
10. b 20. c 30. c 40. b 50. a
51. b
Chapter 3. Digestion
1. c 11. b 21. d
2. c 12. b 22. b
3. a 13. b 23. a
4. c 14. a 24. a
5. b 15. c 25. c
6. d 16. d 26. b
7. b 17. c 27. a
8. c 18. b 28. a
9. a 19. a 29. d
10. b 20. d 30. d
Chapter 4. Bioenergetics
1. a 11. c 21. b 31. c 41. b 51. c
2. b 12. b 22. c 32. a 42. a 52. a
3. a 13. a 23. a 33. b 43. c 53. d
4. a 14. d 24. c 34. c 44. b 54. a
5. a 15. b 25. b 35. d 45. c 55. c
6. d 16. d 26. d 36. b 46. a 56. c
7. a 17. b 27. b 37. c 47. a
8. a 18. c 28. c 38. d 48. c
9. c 19. a 29. d 39. b 49. d
10. c 20. c 30. b 40. d 50. b
Chapter 5. Biological Oxidation and Reduction
1. a 11. c 21. c
2. b 12. c 22. d
3. d 13. d 23. b
4. b 14. b 24. d
5. b 15. c 25. c
6. d 16. a 26. a
7. c 17. d 27. d
8. c 18. b 28. c
9. b 19. c 29. d
10. a 20. a 30. b
31. a
Chapter 6. Enzymes and Coenzymes
1. c 11. c 21. d 31. c 41. b 51. d 61. a 71. c

2. b 12. d 22. b 32. b 42. a 52. b 62. a 72. b
3. b 13. c 23. b 33. d 43. c 53. c 63. c 73. c
4. a 14. c 24. a 34. b 44. d 54. a 64. c 74. b
5. c 15. a 25. a 35. b 45. a 55. b 65. b 75. d
6. b 16. d 26. c 36. a 46. a 56. a 66. c 76. a
7. c 17. c 27. c 37. c 47. d 57. d 67. d 77. c
8. a 18. b 28. a 38. b 48. c 58. b 68. b 78. a
9. d 19. a 29. d 39. d 49. b 59. a 69. d 79. a
10. a 20. d 30. d 40. b 50. c 60. d 70. a 80. b
81. b
82. a
Chapter 7. Enzyme kinetics
1. d 11. d 21. d
2. a 12. a 22. b
3. a 13. c 23. c
4. c 14. d 24. c
5. b 15. a 25. d
6. d 16. a 26. b
7. c 17. c 27. a
8. b 18. b 28. d
9. d 19. d 29. a
10. b 20. c 30. b
Chapter 8. Carbohydrate Metabolism
1. c 11. a 21. b 31. a 41. b 51. b

2. b 12. c 22. d 32. b 42. c 52. c
3. c 13. d 23. b 33. c 43. a 53. b
4. a 14. b 24. a 34. d 44. d 54. a
5. d 15. a 25. a 35. a 45. a 55. b
6. b 16. c 26. b 36. a 46. d 56. c
7. c 17. d 27. b 37. c 47. b 57. d
8. a 18. a 28. c 38. a 48. c 58. c
9. c 19. b 29. d 39. b 49. a
10. d 20. c 30. d 40. c 50. c
Chapter 9. Lipid Metabolism
1. b 11. d 21. d 31. d 41. a 51. a

2. c 12. c 22. b 32. a 42. d 52. c
3. c 13. c 23. b 33. c 43. c 53. c
4. a 14. d 24. c 34. c 44. b 54. d
5. c 15. a 25. d 35. d 45. b 55. b
6. d 16. a 26. b 36. a 46. a 56. c
7. b 17. a 27. d 37. b 47. d
8. c 18. d 28. d 38. a 48. c
9. a 19. a 29. b 39. c 49. c
10. b 20. a 30. c 40. b 50. c
Chapter 10. Amino Acid and Protein Metabolism
1. a 11. b 21. a
2. c 12. a 22. d
3. b 13. d 23. b
4. c 14. c 24. c
5. d 15. b
6. b 16. c
7. d 17. b
8. b 18. c
9. d 19. c
10. c 20. c
Chapter 11. Nucleic Acid & Nucleotide Metabolism and the Urea Cycle
1. b 11. d 21. c 31. d

2. a 12. a 22. b 32. b
3. b 13. b 23. a 33. d
4. a 14. d 24. a 34. a
5. d 15. b 25. c
6. c 16. d 26. a
7. a 17. c 27. b
8. c 18. d 28. a
9. c 19. a 29. c
10. c 20. c 30. c
Chapter 12. Porphyrin Metabolism
1. d 11. d 21. b 31. d

2. a 12. c 22. c 32. c
3. b 13. b 23. a 33. b
4. c 14. d 24. d 34. c
5. a 15. c 25. b 35. c
6. a 16. a 26. b 36. a
7. b 17. c 27. a 37. a
8. b 18. a 28. c 38. c
9. b 19. d 29. a 39. d
10. a 20. a 30. b 40. d
Chapter 13. The Citric Acid Cycle (Kreb’s Cycle / TCA Cycle)
1. d 11. a 21. a 31. c

2. c 12. c 22. b 32. a
3. c 13. b 23. b 33. b
4. d 14. d 24. a 34. a
5. b 15. a 25. c 35. c
6. a 16. c 26. a
7. b 17. c 27. b
8. d 18. c 28. c
9. d 19. a 29. c
10. b 20. c 30. a
Chapter 14. Vitamins and Minerals
1. a 11. c 21. a 31. a

2. a 12. a 22. a 32. d
3. c 13. c 23. b 33. b
4. b 14. b 24. a 34. c
5. d 15. d 25. d 35. d
6. b 16. b 26. d
7. d 17. a 27. b
8. b 18. c 28. a
9. b 19. a 29. d
10. a 20. c 30. b
Chapter 15. Electron Transport and Oxidative Phosphorylation
1. c 11. c 21. b 31. d

2. b 12. b 22. d 32. c
3. a 13. b 23. d
4. c 14. a 24. a
5. c 15. a 25. a
6. d 16. a 26. d
7. d 17. b 27. a
8. a 18. c 28. a
9. b 19. d 29. b
10. b 20. c 30. c
Chapter 16. Pentose Phosphate Pathway
1. a 11. c
2. d 12. b
3. a 13. d
4. c 14. b
5. a 15. c
6. b
7. c
8. b
9. b
10. d
Chapter 17. Photosynthesis-Light and Dark Reactions (Calvin Cycle)
1. a 11. c 21. b
2. c 12. b 22. a
3. c 13. b 23. a
4. b 14. c 24. a
5. c 15. c 25. a
6. a 16. d
7. b 17. a
8. a 18. b
9. c 19. c
10. b 20. b
Chapter 18. Signal Transduction
1. a 11. d 21. b 31. a

2. b 12. a 22. b 32. b
3. b 13. c 23. c 33. d
4. c 14. a 24. c
5. c 15. b 25. c
6. d 16. b 26. a
7. b 17. b 27. b
8. c 18. c 28. a
9. a 19. b 29. d
10. b 20. a 30. a
Chapter 19. The Biochemical Pathway Interconnections
1. a 11. d 21. c
2. a 12. c 22. c
3. c 13. a 23. a
4. d 14. c 24. a
5. c 15. b
6. c 16. d
7. c 17. b
8. a 18. a
9. c 19. c
10. b 20. c
PART 2:
Cell Biology
164 MCQs Series for Life Sciences, Vol. 1, 2014, 164-235
PART 2
Chapter 1. Cellular Organization
1. Cells were first studied scientifically by

a. Robert Hooke
b. Robert Koch
c. Charles Darwin
d. Gregor Mendel
2. The first experiments in using microscopy were performed by
a. Robert Hooke
b. Van Leeuwenhoek
c. Charles Darwin
d. Gregor Mendel
3. The cell theory was proposed by
a. Schleiden and Leeuwenhoek
b. Robert Koch
c. Schleiden and Schwann
d. Metchnikoff
4. The size range of viruses is
a. 1-2 µm
b. 5-10 µm
c. 50-100 nm
d. 20 µm
Maddaly Ravi
Cell Biology MCQs Series for Life Sciences, Vol. 1 165
5. The size range of most prokaryotes is

a. 1-2 µm
b. 5-10 µm
c. 50-100 nm
d. 20 µm
6. The size range of most eukaryotic cells is
a. 1-2 µm
b. 5-100 µm
c. 50-100 nm
d. 20 µm
7. Usually, the largest organelle of an eukaryotic cell is
a. Mitochondria
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Nucleus
d. Ribosome
8. The theory that explains the evolution of eukaryotes from prokaryotes is
a. Endosymbiotic theory
b. Recapitulation theory
c. Cell theory
d. Ectosymbiotic theory
9. The cells that cover the outer and internal surfaces of organs form
a. Epithelia
b. Cilia
c. Villi
d. Microvilli
10. The epithelial cells that are taller than they are broad are called
a. Squamous
b. Columnar
c. Striated
d. Cuboid
11. The epithelial cells that are flat are called
a. Squamous
b. Columnar
c. Striated
d. Cuboid
12. The absorptive functions of cells is enhanced by the presence of
a. Pores
b. Desmosomes
c. Microvilli
d. Channels
13. The extracellular fibrous supporting layer for the epithelial cells is known as
the
a. Plasma membrane
b. Basement membrane
c. Cementing membrane
d. Basal epithelium
14. Cilia are mostly seen on the surface of
a. Skeletal muscle cells
b. Epithelial cells
c. Myogenic cells
d. Lumen cells
15. Stratified epithelium is mostly present at

a. Trachea
b. Intestinal lumen
c. Skin
d. Connective tissue
16. Connective tissue does not include
a. Bone
b. Cartilage
c. Skin
d. Adipose tissue
17. Cells with amorphous ground substance with fibers and a large extracellular
matrix is a feature of
a. Epithelial tissue
b. Nervous tissue
c. Connective tissue
d. Muscles
18. The most abundant fiber type in the connective tissue is
a. Fibrinogen
b. Collagen
c. Fibrin
d. Actin
19. The cell type in connective tissue that secrete the ground substance and fibers
are
a. Macrophages
b. Glial cells
c. Goblet cells
d. Fibroblasts
20. The muscle cell type that contract slowly are

a. Smooth
b. Striated
c. Cardiac
d. Skeletal
21. Muscle cell types does not include
a. Striated
b. Cardiac
c. Columnar
d. Smooth
22. Eukaryotic cells usually contain
a. Endoplasmic reticulum
b. Nucleus
c. Mitochondria
d. All the above
23. Prokaryotic cells usually lack
a. Nucleic acids
b. Nucleus
c. Ribosomes
d. Vacuoles
24. 1mm is equal to
a. 1,000,000nm
b. 1,000nm
c. 100nm
d. 10nm
25. The common unit of measurement of cell size is

a. Nanometers
b. Micrometers
c. Millimeters
d. Hemocytometer
26. The cell theory was proposed in the year
a. 1890
b. 1938
c. 1838
d. 1738
27. The genetic material most predominant in prokaryotes is
a. Multiple molecules
b. Chromosomes
c. Single circular molecule
d. Protein associated double molecules
28. The most predominant ribosome type in prokaryotes is
a. 60S
b. 70S
c. 80S
d. 90S
29. The most predominant ribosome type in eukaryotes is
a. 60S
b. 70S
c. 80S
d. 90S
30. In prokaryotes, cytoskeleton is

a. Present
b. Absent
c. Not fully formed
d. Occurs at specific stages
31. In eukaryotes, cytoskeleton is
a. Consists of microfilaments
b. Consists of intermediate filaments
c. Consists of microtublues
d. Consists of all the above
32. The aqueous compartment of the cell, including the organelles is called
a. Cytoplasm
b. Cytosol
c. Matrix
d. Nucleoplasm
33. The most common molecule that cells use to capture and transfer energy is
a. DNA
b. RNA
c. ATP
d. ADP
34. The internal pH of lysosomes is typically
a. 9
b. 8
c. 7
d. 5
35. Lysosomes are generally associated with

a. Peptides
b. Carbohydrates
c. Peroxisomes
d. Desmosomes
36. Endoplasmic reticulum is the site of synthesis of
a. Only proteins
b. Only lipids
c. Neither proteins nor lipids
d. Both proteins and lipids
37. The cellular extracellular matrix consists of
a. Only proteins
b. Only Polysaccharides
c. Both proteins and polysaccharides
d. Carbohydrates, proteins and lipids
38. The most abundant extracellular protein in most animal tissues is
a. Glycoprotein
b. Collagen
c. Glycogen
d. Myosin
39. The cell layer supporting matrix in tissues is
a. Basal lamina
b. Cytoskeleton
c. Microfilaments
d. Extracellular matrix
40. The cellular connections in animal cells is by

a. Plasmodesmata
b. Pores
c. Gap junctions
d. Receptors
41. The cellular connections in plant cells is by
a. Plasmodesmata
b. Pores
c. Gap junctions
d. Receptors
42. The apt description of a plasma membrane is
a. Permeable
b. Non-permeable
c. Differential permeable
d. Non-selective
43. Cellular tight junctions are also known as
a. Occluding junctions
b. Anchoring junctions
c. Communication junctions
d. Ligand receptors
44. Regulation of paracellular transport occurs by
a. Anchoring junctions
b. Tight junctions
d. Ligand receptors
45. The type of junctions that seal cells together are

b. Tight junctions
d. Ligand receptors
46. The proteins claudins and occludins are predominantly found in
b. Tight junctions
d. Ligand receptors
47. Anchoring cellular junctions do not include
a. Adherens junctions
b. Desmosome junctions
c. Hemidesmosomes
d. Gap junctions
48. The protein cadherin is predominantly found in
b. Tight junctions
d. Ligand receptors
49. The cadherin proteins are linked predominantly to actin in
c. Hemidesmosomes
d. Gap junctions
50. The cadherin proteins are linked predominantly to keratin in

c. Hemidesmosomes
d. Gap junctions
51. The cellular junctions where integrins link keratin filaments to laminin are
c. Hemidesmosomes
d. Gap junctions
52. The cellular junctions that hold cells in fixed position are
b. Tight junctions
d. Ligand receptors
53. The cellular junctions that regulate small chemical passage are
b. Tight junctions
d. Ligand receptors
54. Cellular gap junctions are one of
d. Ligand receptors
55. Plasmodesmata are

d. Ligand receptors
56. The cellular junctions that regulate electrical signals are
b. Tight junctions
d. Ligand receptors
57. Syncitia are created by
c. Hemidesmosomes
d. Gap junctions
58. Cellular movement of small molecules and energy requiring large molecules is
by
a. Plasmodesma
b. Plasmolemma
c. Desmosomes
d. Hemidesmosomes
59. The basement membrane comprises of
a. Only basal lamina
b. Only reticular lamina
c. Both basal and reticular lamina
d. Neither basal nor reticular lamina
60. Prokaryotic cells lack

a. Plasma membrane
b. Nuclear membrane
c. Ribosomes
d. Mitochondria
61. The space between the cell wall and the plasma membrane in prokaryotes is
called
a. Periplasmic space
b. Extracytoplasmic space
c. Interstitial space
d. Extranuclear space
62. The genetic material of prokaryotes is present as
a. Nucleus
b. Nucleolus
c. Nucleoid
d. None of the above
Chapter 2. Cell Divisions
1. The cell division type that occurs in prokaryotes is

a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Amitosis
d. Cytokinesis
2. Mitosis results in
a. 2 haploid daughter cells
b. 4 diploid daughter cells
c. 2 diploid daughter cells
d. 4 haploid daughter cells
3. Meiosis results in
a. 2 haploid daughter cells
b. 4 diploid daughter cells
c. 2 diploid daughter cells
d. 4 haploid daughter cells
4. The cytokinesis in animal cells is characterized by
a. Phragmoplast
b. Cleavage furrow
c. Nuclear plate
d. Cytoplasmic plate
5. The cytokinesis in plant cells is characterized by
a. Phragmoplast
b. Cleavage furrow
c. Nuclear plate
d. Cytoplasmic plate
6. The dividing stage in the cell cycle is also known as
a. G1 stage
b. G2 stage
c. M stage
d. S stage
7. The signaling factors that control cell division are collectively called
a. Adhesion molecules
b. Growth factors
c. Survivins
d. Cytokines
8. M phase consists of
a. 5 stages of nuclear divisions and cytokinesis
b. 4 stages of nuclear divisions without cytokinesis
c. 5 stages of nuclear divisions without cytokinesis
d. 4 stages of nuclear divisions and cytokinesis
9. The features unique to M phase are
a. Mitotic spindle, reduction in ploidy, chromosome condensation
b. Mitotic spindle, increase in ploidy, chromosome condensation
c. Mitotic spindle, maintenance of ploidy, chromosome condensation
d. Mitotic spindle, loss of ploidy, chromosome condensation
10. The event that initiates M phase is
a. Chromatin decondensation
b. DNA synthesis and duplication
c. Segregation of chromosomes
d. Chromatin condensation
11. Chromatin condensation facilitates
a. Equal segregation to daughter cells
b. Increase in ploidy in the daughter cells
c. Cytokinesis of parental cell
d. Formation of the mitotic spindle in the dividing cell
12. The bipolar mitotic spindle consists of

a. Only microtubules
b. Only proteins
c. Microtubules and other proteins
d. Microtubules, proteins and centromeres
13. The contractile ring formed during animal cell division is formed of
a. Myosin and actin filaments
b. Myosin filaments
c. Actin filaments
d. Actin, myosin and microtubules
14. The contractile ring helps in
a. Chromatin condensation
b. Centromere formation
c. Cytokinesis
d. Kinetochore formation and functioning
15. For cell division, an eukaryotic cell should duplicate
a. DNA content
b. Centrosomes
c. DNA and centrosomes
d. Cytosol
16. The two poles of the mitotic spindle are formed of
a. Centromeres
b. Kinetochores
c. Centrosomes
d. Chromosomes
17. The metaphase plate formation is due to the presence of

a. Sister chromatids
b. Centromeres on the chromosomes
c. Nuclear envelop
d. Contractile ring
18. The splitting of sister chromatids occur at
a. Prophase
b. Prometaphase
c. Metaphase
d. Anaphase
19. The spindle elongation after attachment by the kinetochores occurs till
a. Metaphase
b. Anaphase
c. Telophase
d. Cytokinesis
20. The spindle microtubules comprise of
a. Polar microtubules and astral microtubules
b. Astral microtubules and kinetochore microtubules
c. Polar microtubules and kinetochore microtubules
d. Astral microtubules, polar microtubules and kinetochore microtubules
21. The microtubules that push the spindle poles apart are
a. Polar microtubules
b. Astral microtubules
c. Kinetochore microtubules
d. Actin and myosin
22. The microtubules that associate with the chromosomes are

d. Actin and myosin
23. The microtubules that maintain the polar identity of a dividing cells are
d. Actin and myosin
24. The microtubule formation and degradation occurs by
a. Polymerization and depolymerizations respectively
b. Polymerizations
c. Depolymerizations
d. Phosphorylations and dephosphorylations respectively
25. The average half-life of microtubules for most part of the cell division is
a. Approximately 5 minutes
b. Approximately 4 minutes
c. Approximately 15 minutes
d. Approximately 5 seconds
26. The average half-life of microtubules greatly reduces during
a. Telophase
b. Prophase
c. Late prophase
d. Metaphase
27. During prophase, the nuclear envelope

a. Disintegrates
b. Is intact
c. Begins to disintegrate
d. Forma additional pores
28. The most condensed chromatin is seen in the region
a. Telomeres
b. Sister chromatids
c. Centromeres
d. Chromatid
29. Kinetochores are formed at
a. Telomeres
b. Sister chromatids
c. Centromeres
d. Chromatid
30. The number of kinetochores in each chromosomes is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
31. Typically, the number of microtubules that a mammalian kinetochore binds is
a. 10-20
b. 20-30
c. 30-40
d. 40-50
32. The mammalian centromere structure as required for microtubule association

is provided by
a. Echromatin
b. Satellite DNA
c. Histones proteins
d. Nonhistone proteins
33. Autoantibodies to kinetochores are typical in the condition
a. Neuronal degeneration
b. Grave’s disease
c. Spina bifida
d. Leucoderma
34. The stage of mitosis at which nuclear membrane break down is triggered is
a. Prophase
b. Prometaphase
c. Metaphase
d. Late metaphase
35. The force that makes the chromosomal arms to bend towards the cell center while
the kinetochores are being pulled towards the poles during cell division is
a. Centripetal force
b. Centrifugal force
c. Astral exclusion force
d. Nuclear wind
36. The positioning of metaphase chromosomes in the metaphase plates requires
a. Nuclear forces
b. Mitosis promoting factors
c. Cyclins and condensins
d. Balanced bipolar forces
37. The continuous movement of tubulin in the polar microtubules towards the
poles during cell division is referred to as
a. Treadmilling
b. Prophasing
c. Decondensation
d. Polarization
38. The microtubule binding to other structures is mediated by
a. Microtubule promoter proteins
b. Microtubule binding proteins
c. Microtubule motor proteins
d. Microtubule locomotor proteins
39. The stage of mitosis when the MPF is inactivated is
a. Prophase
b. Prometaphase
c. Anaphase
d. Telophase
40. An example of mitotic arrestor is
a. Phytoheme agglutinin
b. Mercaptoethanol
c. Colchicine
d. EDTA
41. The sister chromatids separate at
a. Prometaphase
b. Metaphase
c. Anaphase
d. Telophase
42. The microtubule structural disintegration occurs at

a. Anaphase A
b. Anaphase B
c. Metaphase
d. Telophase
43. The major site for microtubule structural disintegration during anaphase is
a. Poles
b. Kinetochore
c. Microtubule (-) end
d. Microtubule centers
44. The nuclear membrane disintegration during cell division occurs due to the
phosphorylation of
a. Actin
b. Outer nuclear membrane
c. Inner nuclear membrane
d. Nuclear lamina
45. The cytokinesis is triggered by the formation of
a. Cleavage
b. Plasma membrane
c. Astral fibers
d. Chromosomes
46. The furrowing event towards cleavage for cytokinesis begins at
a. Prophase
b. Metaphase
c. Anaphase
d. Telophase
47. The cleavage furrow required for cytokinesis occurs at

a. Poles
b. No specific site
c. Metaphase plane
d. Parallel to spindle fibers
48. Symmetric cell division is possible by
a. Cell ploidy
b. Position of the poles
c. Position of the cleavage during cytokinesis
d. Movement of spindle fibers
49. Cleavage is supported by the forces of
a. Actin filaments
b. Myosin filaments
c. Both the above
50. Typically, the number of actin filaments in a contractile ring responsible for
cytokinesis is
a. About 10
b. About 20
c. About 30
d. About 40
51. A cell plate formation during cell division is typical of
a. Bacteria
b. Yeasts
c. Plants
d. Animals
52. The loss of unlimited dividing capacity of normal cells is called

a. Tolerance
b. Apoptosis
c. Senescence
d. Quiescence
53. Haploid gametes are formed by
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Amitosis
d. Fission
54. The type of cell division important for growth is
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Amitosis
d. Fission
55. The type of cell division important for tissue regeneration is
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Amitosis
d. Fission
56. The haploid cells of eukaryotes are usually known as
a. Somatic cells
b. Gametes
c. Heterogametes
d. Zygote
57. Meiosis, unlike mitosis involves

a. 1 nuclear division
b. 2 nuclear divisions
c. 4 nuclear divisions
d. Cytokinesis without karyokinesis
58. The bivalent structure formed during meiosis has
a. 2 chromatids
b. 4 chromatids
c. 2 pairs of homologous chromosomes
d. 4 pairs of chromatids
59. The two duplicated homologues separate during the ____ stage of meiosis I
a. Prometaphase
b. Metaphase
c. Anaphase
d. Telophase
60. The result of meiosis I is
a. 2 diploid cells
b. 2 haploid cells
c. 4 diploid cells
d. 2 haploid cells
61. The failure of homologues to separate properly is called
a. Disjunction
b. Non-disjunction
c. Trisomy
d. Polyploidy
62. Chromosomal crossing over during meiosis is

a. Reciprocal
b. Addition
c. Deletion
d. Duplication
63. The crossing-over occurs at
a. Desmosomes
b. Kinetochores
c. Chiasmata
d. Centromeres
64. Pairing of chromosomes during meiosis is called
a. Crossing-over
b. Chiasmata formation
c. Metaphase plate
d. Synapse
65. The correct sequence of Meiosis I prophase stages is
a. Leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, diakinesis
b. Leptotene, diplotene, zygotene, pachytene, diakinesis
c. Leptotene, pachytene, diplotene, zygotene, diakinesis
d. Leptotene, diplotene, pachytene, zygotene, diakinesis
66. The synaptonemal complex begins to form during
a. Leptotene
b. Pachytene
c. Diplotene
d. Zygotene
67. The stage of meiosis I that occurs after the synapsis process is
a. Leptotene
b. Pachytene
c. Diplotene
d. Zygotene
68. The stage of meiosis I in which desynapsis occurs is
a. Leptotene
b. Pachytene
c. Diplotene
d. Zygotene
69. The stage of meiosis I in which chiasmata are first seen is
a. Leptotene
b. Pachytene
c. Diplotene
d. Zygotene
70. The stage of meiosis I in which the synaptonemal complex forms is
a. Leptotene
b. Pachytene
c. Diplotene
d. Zygotene
71. The stage of meiosis I after which the synaptonemal complex disappears is
a. Leptotene
b. Pachytene
c. Diplotene
d. Zygotene
72. About 90% of the time taken for meiosis is required for
a. Prophase I
b. Prophase II
c. Anaphase I
d. Anaphase II
Chapter 3. Cell cycle
1. The cell cycle is the period between two

a. S stages
b. G1 and M stage
c. S and M stage
d. M stages
2. The stages of interphase can include
a. G1, S, G2, M
b. G0, G1, G2, M
c. G0, S, G2, M
d. G0, G1, G2, S, M
3. Non-dividing cells are said to be
a. Apoptotic
b. Necrotic
c. Quiescent
d. Senescence
4. Healthy cells that cannot re-enter the cell cycle are
a. Differentiated
b. Terminally differentiated
c. Apoptotic
d. Necrotic
5. The Nobel prize for work done on cell cycle promoting molecules was
awarded to
a. Paul Nurse, Tim Hunt, and Leland Hartwell
b. Thomas Morgan, Tim Hunt, Leland Hartwell
c. Paul Nurse, Thomas Morgan, and Leland Hartwell
d. Paul Nurse, Tim Hunt, and Thomas Morgan
6. The Mitosis promoting factor (MPF) comprises of
a. Cyclin-dependent kinase 1(Cdk1)
b. Cyclin B
c. Both (a) and (b)
7. The stage of cell cycle when cellular organelle synthesis occurs is
a. G1
b. S
c. G2
d. M
8. The stage of cell cycle when checking for errors in DNA occurs is
a. G1
b. S
c. G2
d. M
9. The structural maintenance of chromosomes (SMC) proteins do not include
a. Condensin I
b. Condensin II
c. Cohesins
d. Troponin
10. The mitotic promoting factors (MPFs) constitute

a. Cyclin B and CdK1
b. Cyclin A and CdK4
c. Condensin and CdK2
d. Cohesins and CdK4
11. A protein member of inhibitors of apoptosis that present in the G2 - M phase
and not in the interphase stage is
a. Condensins
b. Cohesins
c. Survivins
d. Cyclins
12. The chromosome segregation checkpoint occurs at the end of the cell cycle
phase
a. M
b. G1
c. S
d. G2
13. The number of main DNA damage checkpoints in a cell cycle is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
14. The unreplicated DNA checkpoint occurs at the end of the cell cycle phase
a. M
b. G1
c. S
d. G2
15. Examples of mitogens are

a. Phytohemeagglutinin and Concanavalin A
b. Phytohemeagglutinin and agarose
c. Interleukin-7 and CD28
d. cKit and Ikaros
16. The mid-G1 cyclin dependent kinase (CDK) is
a. Cln3
b. Cdc28
c. Cln1
d. Cln2
17. The late-G1 cyclin dependent kinases (CDK) are
a. Cln3 and Clb4
b. Cdc28 and CDK1
c. Cln1 and Cln2
d. Cln2 and Cln3
18. The early S phase cyclin dependent kinases (CDK) are
a. Clb5 and Clb6
b. Cdc28 and CDK1
c. Cln1 and Cln2
d. Clb2 and Clb3
19. The late S phase cyclin dependent kinases (CDK) are
a. Clb5 and Clb6
b. Clb3 and Clb4
c. Cln1 and Cln2
d. Clb2 and Clb3
20. The late M phase cyclin dependent kinases (CDK) are

a. Clb5 and Clb6
b. Clb3 and Clb4
c. Clb1 and Clb2
d. Clb2 and Clb3
21. The cyclin corresponding to cyclin dependent kinase Cyclin B is
a. Mitotic cyclin
b. S-phase cyclin
c. Mid G1 cyclin
d. Late G1 cyclin
22. The cyclin corresponding to cyclin dependent kinase Cyclin A is
a. G2 cyclin
b. S-phase and mitotic cyclin
c. Mid G1 cyclin
d. Late G1 cyclin
23. The cyclin corresponding to cyclin dependent kinase Cyclin E is
a. G1 and G2 cyclin
b. S-phase and mitotic cyclin
c. Mid G1 cyclin and late G1 cyclin
d. Late G1 and S phase cyclin
24. Cells in culture can be arrested at the G0 stage by
a. Methotextrate
b. Colchicine
c. Phytohemeagglutinin
d. Serum starvation
25. Cells in culture can be arrested at the M stage by

a. Methotextrate
b. Colchicine
c. Phytohemeagglutinin
d. Serum starvation
Chapter 4. Cellular Organelles
1. The aqueous space within the cell organelles is called

a. Lumen
b. Cytosol
c. Cortex
d. Medulla
2. The cytoplasm represents
a. Plasma membrane + organelles + nucleus + cell interior matrix
b. Organelles + nucleus + cell interior matrix
c. Organelles + cell interior matrix
d. Cell interior matrix
3. The cytosol represents
a. Plasma membrane + organelles + nucleus + cell interior matrix
b. Organelles + nucleus + cell interior matrix
c. Organelles + cell interior matrix
d. Cell interior matrix
4. The membranes of all cell organelles have
a. Different unilayer structure
b. Different bilayer structure
c. Similar unilayer structure
d. Similar bilayer structure
5. The polar head groups present in the plasma membrane are projected
a. Towards the cytosol
b. Towards the outer surface
c. Towards the cytosol and towards the outer surface
d. Towards the membrane center
6. The thickness of the hydrophobic core of most biological membranes is
a. 1-2 nm
b. 2-3 nm
c. 3-4 nm
d. 4-5 nm
7. The surface of the cellular membrane that is towards the outer surface is called
a. Exothalmic face
b. Exoplasmic face
c. Endoplasmic face
d. Heteroplasmic face
8. The organelles that does not have a bilayer membrane is
a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondria
c. Vesicle
d. Chloroplast
9. The types of lipids that makeup a biological membrane do not include
a. Glycerol
b. Phosphoglycerides
c. Sphingolipids
d. Steroids
10. Amphipathic molecules that make up biological membranes have

a. Polar head
b. Hydrophobic tail
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
11. The most abundant of lipids that makeup a biological membrane is
a. Glycerol
b. Phosphoglycerides
c. Sphingolipids
d. Steroids
12. The endosomes from which the plasma membrane proteins are released back
to the plasma membrane are called
a. Early endosomes
b. Primary endosomes
c. Late endosomes
d. Secondary endosomes
13. The endosomes whose contents are processed for degradation are called
a. Early endosomes
b. Primary endosomes
c. Late endosomes
d. Secondary endosomes
14. Lysosomes are found in
a. Animal cells
b. Plant cells
c. Animal cells and plant cells
d. Animal cells, plant cells and prokaryotic cells
15. The type of animal cell that lacks peroxisomes is

a. Erythrocytes
b. Platelets
c. Lymphocytes
d. Macrophages
16. The membrane bound flattened sacs of endoplasmic reticulum are called
a. Cristae
b. Cisternae
c. Spiracles
d. Ribosomes
17. The functions of endoplasmic reticulum does not include
a. Lipid synthesis
b. Membrane protein synthesis
c. Secreted protein synthesis
d. Carbohydrate synthesis
18. The cell type with a large amount of smooth endoplasmic reticulum is
a. Hepatocyte
b. Lymphocyte
c. Macrophage
d. Smooth muscle cells
19. The cell stage of the B-lymphocyte lineage with most abundant rough
endoplasmic reticulum is
a. Pro-B cell
b. Pre-B cell
c. Immunocompetent cell
d. Plasma cell
20. Cisternae are common to

a. Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi complex
b. Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
c. Golgi complex and mitochondria
d. Ribosomes and vesicles
21. The three well formed regions of the Golgi apparatus cisternae are
a. Cis, medial and trans
b. Cis, ventral and trans
c. Cis, medial and pons
d. Central, medial and trans
22. The correct order of synthesized protein movement through the Golgi
Cisternae is
a. Cis to medial to trans region
b. Trans to medial to Cis region
c. Medial to Cis to trans region
d. Cis to trans to medial region
23. The cell types that have more abundant Golgi complex relatively are
a. Muscle cells
b. Neuronal cells
c. Secretory cells
d. Epidermal cells
24. The largest cellular organelle in animal cells is
a. Golgi apparatus
b. Mitochondria
c. Nucleus
d. Plasma membrane
25. In most cells, the outer nuclear membrane is continuous with

a. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
c. Golgi apparatus
d. Nucleolus
26. The outer and inner nuclear membranes fuse at
a. Nuclear pores
b. Nucleolus
c. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
d. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
27. The rRNA synthesis mostly occurs in
a. Ribosomes
b. Nucleolus
c. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
d. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
28. The nucleolus
a. Is bounded by a double membrane
b. Is bounded by a single membrane
c. Is bounded by a membrane similar to the nuclear membrane
d. Is not bounded by a membrane
29. The non-nucleolar regions of the nucleus are called
a. Germplasm
b. Nucleoplasm
c. Endoplasm
d. Exoplasm
30. The area to which the DNA binds to the inner nuclear membrane is called
a. Lamin
b. Nucleoplasm
c. Germplasm
d. Nucleolus
31. The main organelles in aerobic organisms that are the sites of ATP synthesis
are
a. Mitochondria
b. Chloroplasts
c. Ribosomes
d. Nucleus
32. The porins are present in
a. Mitochondrial outer membrane
b. Mitochondrial inner membrane
c. Mitochondrial cristae
d. Mitochondrial matrix
33. The outer mitochondrial membrane consists of
a. 50% protein, 50% lipid
b. 20% protein, 80% lipid
c. 80% protein, 20% lipid
d. 40% protein, 60% lipid
34. The inner mitochondrial membrane consists of
a. 50% protein, 50% lipid
b. 20% protein, 80% lipid
c. 80% protein, 20% lipid
d. 40% protein, 60% lipid
35. The surface area of the mitochondrial inner membrane is increased by the
presence of
a. Cristae
b. Cisternae
c. Matrix
d. Intermembrane space
36. The central space of mitochondria consist of
a. Cisternae
b. Matrix
c. Cortex
d. Medulla
37. The largest cellular organelle in plant cells is
a. Chloroplasts
b. Mitochondria
c. Nucleus
d. Plasma membrane
38. The network of extensive interconnected sacs of chloroplasts are called
a. Vesicles
b. Reticular network
c. Thylakoids
d. Myeloid fibers
39. The stacks of chloroplast thylakoids are called
a. Stroma
b. Laminae
c. Lamellae
d. Grana
40. The extranuclear DNA is present in

a. Mitochondria
b. Nucleolus
c. Golgi apparatus
41. The lysosomal interior is
a. Acidic
b. Alkaline
c. Neutral
d. Slightly alkaline
42. The peroxisome interior contains
a. Acids
b. Reductases
c. Oxidative enzymes
d. Lipases
43. The processing and sorting of proteins secreted by rough endoplasmic
reticulum occurs at
a. Vesicles
b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c. Golgi apparatus
d. Ribosomes
44. Large vacuoles are a feature of
a. Animal cells
b. Plant cells
c. Bacterial cells
d. Syncitial cells
45. A multinucleate condition forms

a. Syncytium
b. Fission
c. Metaphase plate
d. Laminar structures
46. The most permeable structure of the mitochondria is
a. Matrix
b. Cristae
c. Inner membrane
d. Outer membrane
47. The major site of cellular lipid synthesis is
a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c. Golgi apparatus
d. Centrioles
48. The cellular synthesized protein release at the plasma membrane occurs by
a. Vacuoles
b. Endosomes
c. Peroxisomes
d. Secretory vesicles
49. Detoxification of molecules occurs in
a. Vacuoles
b. Endosomes
c. Peroxisomes
d. Secretory vesicles
50. The cell wall predominantly consists of

a. Starch
b. Cellulose
c. Protein
d. Lipids
51. A function that is not typical of vacuoles is
a. Storage of water
b. Cell elongation
c. Storage of nutrients
d. Detoxification
52. The most abundant of the cell membrane lipids are
a. Glycolipids
b. Phospholipids
c. Sterols
d. Fatty acids
53. The cell membrane fluidity depends on
a. Temperature
b. Composition
c. Both (a) and (b)
54. The cell membrane that does not contain cholesterol is present in
a. Bacteria
b. Animal cells
c. Plant cells
d. Eukaryotic cells
55. The phospholipid that is not a major component of the mammalian plasma
membrane is
a. Sphingomyelin
b. Phosphatidylserine
c. Inositol phospholipids
d. Phosphatidylcholine
56. The proteins of the plasma membrane that help in transient cellular
interactions in circulation are
a. Survivins
b. Selectins
c. Integrins
d. Connexins
57. The proteins of the plasma membrane that cause pores are
a. Survivins
b. Selectins
c. Prions
d. Porins
58. Active transport across plasma membrane is mediated by
a. Channel proteins
b. Carrier proteins
c. Survivins
d. Integrins
59. Passive transport of small ions across plasma membrane is mediated by
a. Channel proteins
b. Actin proteins
c. Survivins
d. Integrins
60. Molecules that can increase the plasma membrane permeability are called
a. Inophores
b. Detergents
c. Molecular scissors
d. Fusogens
61. The sodium-potassium pump of the plasma membrane is
a. Ligase
b. Transferase
c. ATPase
d. Lyase
Chapter 5. Cytoskeleton
1. The functions of cytoskeleton does not include

a. Cell shape
b. Cell movement
c. Dynamic reorganization
d. Chromatin condensation
2. The cytoskeleton is present
a. At the plasma membrane
b. Throughout the cytoplasm
c. At the nucleus
d. At the nuclear membrane
3. The cytoskeleton reorganizes
a. Very rarely
b. During cell division
c. During protein synthesis
d. Continuously
4. The cytoskeleton is not a feature of

a. Bacteria
b. Animal cells
c. Plant cells
d. Secretory cells
5. The filaments of cytoskeleton does not include
a. Actin filaments
b. Myosin
c. Microtubules
d. Intermediate filaments
6. The microtubules of the cytoskeleton are made up of
a. Actin
b. Myosin
c. Tubulin
d. Vimentin
7. The intermediate filaments of the cytoskeleton are chiefly made up of
a. Actin or vimentin
b. Myosin or actin
c. Tubulin or myosin
d. Vimentin or lamin
8. The filaments of the cytoskeleton that are highly evolutionarily conserved are
a. Actin and tubulin
b. Myosin and actin
c. Tubulin and myosin
d. Vimentin and lamin
9. The movement of intracellular structures is helped by the association of actin

filaments or microtubules to
a. Binding protein
b. Motor protein
c. Regulatory protein
d. Signaling protein
10. The actin filaments of the cytoskeleton are generally present near
a. Plasma membrane
b. Throughout the cytoplasm
c. Nucleus
d. Centromeres
11. An example of a motor protein is
a. Actin
b. Lamin
c. Myosin
d. Vimentin
12. The microtubule associated motor proteins that move along the microtubules
are
a. Kinesins
b. Dynenins
c. Both (a) and (b)
13. The positioning of the membrane bound organelles is helped by
a. Myosin
b. Microtubule associated motor proteins
c. Actin
14. The vertebrate cellular intermediate fibers do not comprise of

a. Keratin
b. Vimentin
c. Neurofilaments
d. Fillagrin
15. The acidic keratins are called
a. Type I keratin
b. Type II keratin
c. Type III keratin
d. Type IV keratin
16. The neutral/basic keratins are called
a. Type I keratin
b. Type II keratin
c. Type III keratin
d. Type IV keratin
17. The intermediate filaments of the cytoskeleton are
a. Homopolymers
b. Homodimers
c. Hetropolymers
d. Heteroconjugates
18. The typical thickness of nuclear lamina is
a. 1-5 nm
b. 5-10 nm
c. 10-20 nm
d. 20-30 nm
19. The nuclear lamina as a part of the cellular intermediate filaments are not
continuous at
a. Nuclear membrane cytosolic side
b. Nuclear membrane internal side
c. Nuclear pores
d. Nucleolus
20. The nuclear lamina as a part of the cellular intermediate filaments disassociate
during
a. G1 stage
b. G2 stage
c. S stage
d. M stage
21. The intermediate protein filament that is thought to have first developed
during evolution is
a. Nuclear lamin
b. Microtubules
c. Actin
d. Vimentin
22. The main function of cytoplasmic intermediate filaments is
a. Organelle movement
b. Mechanical stability and support
c. Cell division
d. Nuclear division
23. The intermediate filament with a looped structural organization of the
carboxyl terminal is
a. Keratin
b. Vimentin
c. Neurofilaments
d. Nuclear lamins
24. The intermediate filament with a comparatively extended structural

organization of the amino terminal is
a. Keratin
b. Vimentin
c. Neurofilaments
d. Nuclear lamins
25. The globular polypeptides that make up tubulin of the microtubules comprise of
a. α-tubulin
b. β-tubulin
c. Both (a) and (b)
26. The new microtubule formation process is called
a. Tubulation
b. Lamination
c. Nucleation
d. Elongation
27. In animal cells, the main site of microtubule formation is
a. Nucleus
b. Centromeres
c. Poles
d. Centrosomes
28. The bundle of microtubules that are important for the movement of cilia are
called
a. Centrioles
b. Centrosomes
c. Axonema
d. Bundle sheath
29. The arrangement of the ciliary microtubules is

a. 9 + 2 array
b. 11 + 2 array
c. 16 + 3 array
d. 9 + 3 array
30. The protein associated with cilia and is most responsible for its movement is
a. Dynein
b. Trypsin
c. Myosin
d. Actin
31. The most abundant eukaryotic cytoskeletal protein is
a. Myosin
b. Actin
c. Fibrin
d. Keratin
32. An example of a protein that forms filaments of cytoskeleton is
a. Filamin
b. Spectrin
c. Actin
d. Thymosin
33. An example of a protein that provides strength to filaments of cytoskeleton is
a. Fimbrin
b. Tropomyosin
c. Gelsolin
d. Thymosin
34. An example of a protein that forms bundle filaments of cytoskeleton is

a. Fimbrin
b. Tropomyosin
c. Gelsolin
d. Thymosin
35. An example of a protein that forms gel by cross linking cytoskeletal filaments is
a. Fimbrin
b. Filamin
c. Gelsolin
d. Thymosin
36. An example of a protein that induces fragmentation of cytoskeletal filaments is
a. Fimbrin
b. Filamin
c. Gelsolin
d. Thymosin
37. An example of a protein that forms cytoskeletal slide filaments is
a. Myosin I
b. Filamin
c. Gelsolin
d. Myosin II
38. An example of a protein that helps in the movement of vesicles on the
cytoskeletal filaments is
a. Myosin I
b. Filamin
c. Gelsolin
d. Myosin II
39. An example of a protein that helps in the attachment of cytoskeletal filaments

to the plasma membrane is
a. Myosin I
b. Spectrin
c. Gelsolin
d. Myosin II
40. An example of a protein that helps in sequestering actin monomers of the
cytoskeleton is
a. Fimbrin
b. Filamin
c. Thymosin
d. Myosin
41. The myosin type that is important for membrane and endocytic vesicles binding is
a. I
b. II
c. V
d. VI
42. The myosin type that is important for filament sliding is
a. I
b. II
c. V
d. VI
43. The myosin type that is important for vesicle transport is
a. I
b. II
c. V
d. VI
44. The myosin type that is important for endocytosis is

a. I
b. II
c. V
d. VI
45. The myosin type that is important for cytoplasmic streaming is
a. XI
b. II
c. V
d. VI
46. The contractile bundles in non-muscle cells is formed by actin and
a. Myosin I
b. Myosin II
c. Myosin VI
d. Myosin XI
47. The protein that assembles and stabilizes microtubules is
a. MAP4
b. MAP3
c. MAP2
d. MAP1
48. The protein that cross-links microtubules is
a. MAP4
b. MAP3
c. MAP2
d. MAP1
49. The protein that assembles, stabilizes and cross-links microtubules of

dendrites and axons is
a. Tau
b. CLIP170
c. MAP2
d. Op18
50. The protein that destabilizes microtubules by cutting them is
a. Op 18
b. CLIP170
c. Tau
d. Katanin
51. The protein that destabilizes microtubules by binding tubulin dimers is
a. Op 18
b. CLIP170
c. Tau
d. Katanin
52. The motor proteins associated with microtubules that help in the movement of
cytosolic vesicles and organelles is
a. Kinesins
b. Chromokinesins
c. Cytosolic dynein
d. MCAK
spindle and astral microtubules (chromokinesis) is
a. Kinesins
b. Bipolar Kinesin BimC
c. Cytosolic dynein
d. MCAK
kinetochores is
a. Kinesin I and II
b. Bipolar Kinesin BimC and Kinesin Ncd
c. Cytosolic dynein
d. MCAK and CENP-E
Chapter 6. Cell Signaling and Communication
1. An eukaryotic microbe where pheromone mediated cell communication occurs is

a. Yeast
b. Fungi
c. Algae
d. Chlamydomonas
2. The function of extracellular signaling molecules is limited by their target cells
expressing
a. Ligands
b. Enzymes
c. Receptors
d. Co-receptors
3. The type of receptors that activate cytosolic or nuclear transcription factors
through several pathways are
a. G protein-coupled receptors
b. Cytokine receptors
c. Wnt receptors
d. Notch receptors
4. The type of receptors that are predominantly associated with cytosolic JAK
kinases are
a. G protein-coupled receptors
b. Cytokine receptors
c. Wnt receptors
d. Notch receptors
5. The type of receptors that activate cytosolic STAT transcription factors by
phosphorylation are
a. Only receptor tyrosine kinases

b. G protein-coupled receptors
c. Hedgehog receptors
d. Cytokine receptors and receptor tyrosine kinases
6. The type of receptors that activate cytosolic kinases and nuclear transcription
factors (not considering the pathway cross-talk) are
a. Receptor tyrosine kinases

d. Cytokine receptors
7. The type of receptors that have a cytosolic domain with serine/threonine kinase
activity are

c. TGF-β receptors
d. Cytokine receptors
8. The type of receptors that activate Smad transcription factors by

phosphorylation are

d. TGF-β receptors
9. The type of receptors that are connected to the cell by cholesterol anchors are
d. TGF-β receptors
10. The eukaryotic extracellular signaling molecules do not include
a. Endocrine molecules
b. Paracrine molecules
c. Autocrine molecules
d. Exocrine molecules
11. The endocrine signaling molecules are generally known as
a. Enzymes
b. Co-enzymes
c. Hormones
d. Substrates
12. The signaling molecules that act on distantly located target cells are known as
13. The signaling molecules that act on closely located target cells are known as
14. The signaling molecules that act own cells that secrete them are known as
15. The three classes of cell surface receptor proteins do not include
a. Ion-channel-linked
b. G-protein-linked
c. Substrate-linked
d. Enzyme-linked
16. The two main types of protein kinases that are involved in signal transduction are
a. Serine/threonine and tyrosine kinases
b. Arginine and serine kinases
c. Glutamine and tyrosine kinases
d. Aspartine and arginine kinases
17. The three forms of cellular communications are by
a. Chemical messengers, gap junctions and cell-cell surface protein interactions
b. Chemical messengers, transcription factors and cell-cell surface protein
interactions
c. Chemical messengers, gap junctions and cytoskeletal proteins
d. Cytokinins, gap junctions and cell-cell surface protein interactions
18. The proteins that function to mobilize other proteins for a signaling event are
a. Enzymes
b. Receptors
c. Adaptor proteins
d. Zymogens
19. A main primary event for signal transduction is
a. Phosphorylation of proteins
b. Gene transcription
c. Translational mechanisms
d. Regulation of gene expression
20. The protein phosphorylation state of a protein is controlled by
a. Protein kinases
b. Protein phosphatases
c. Both (a) and (b)
21. The molecular switches of cell signaling components that can occur as an
active or inactive forms are
a. Adaptor proteins
b. Regulatory GTPases
c. Receptors
d. Protein kinases
22. The diffusible intracellular messengers that are formed in the initial stages,
that help in signal transduction are
a. Primary proteins
b. Regulatory proteins
c. Receptor proteins
d. Second messengers
23. The signaling molecules that help in communication between cells are called
a. Interferons
b. Enzymes
c. Hormones
d. Cyclins
24. The protein signaling molecules that control cell division are collectively known as
a. Growth factors
b. Enzymes
c. Hormones
d. Cyclins
25. The substances that can block signaling pathway by binding to the receptors are
a. Antagonists
b. Protagonists
c. Agonists
d. Chelators
26. The substances that mimic signaling molecules and can initiate signaling
pathway by binding to specific receptors are
a. Antagonists
b. Protagonists
c. Agonists
d. Chelators
27. The type of signaling substances that are released from secretory cells by
exocytosis and carried by circulation to the target cells are called
a. Endocrine signaling molecules
b. Paracrine signaling molecules
c. Autocrine signaling molecules
d. Merocrine signaling molecules
28. The type of signaling substances that function at a medium distance range are
called
29. Paracrine signaling molecules are also known as
a. Local mediators
b. Local inhibitors
c. Local blockers
d. Local suppressors
30. Paracrine signaling molecules are also known as
a. Tissue hormones
b. Local inhibitors
c. Cellular enzymes
d. Local suppressors
31. The neurotransmitter signaling is of the type
a. Autocrine
b. Paracrine
c. Endocrine
d. Exocrine
32. The signaling molecules that function on same cell types as that of its secretor
cells are called
33. The types of receptors for signaling molecules does not include
a. Membrane-bound receptors
b. Soluble cytoplasmic receptors
c. Nuclear localized receptors
d. Organelle localized receptors
34. The amount of signaling hormone-receptor complex formed depends on
a. Available hormone concentration
b. The affinity of the interacting molecules
c. Receptor concentration
d. All the above
35. Membrane-bound receptors are usually
a. Transmembrane proteins
b. Cytoplasmic tails
c. Extracellular domains
d. Co-receptors
36. For a rapid activation of a signaling pathway, the key event should be
a. An over expression of the co-receptors is required
b. An increase in the signaling molecule concentration
c. The presence of many target cells is required
d. The presence of antagonists is required
37. The life span of the signaling molecule-receptor complex depends on
a. Affinity of the receptor
b. Affinity of the ligand
c. The association kinetics
d. The dissociation kinetics
38. Deactivation of a signaling molecule-receptor complex can occur by

a. Phosphorylation leading to covalent changes in the participating
molecule structure
b. Internalization of the complex
c. Both (a) and (b)
39. The nuclear receptor that recognizes cortisol signal is
a. Mineralocorticoid receptor
b. Glucocorticoid receptor
c. Progesterone receptor
d. Retinoic acid receptor
40. The nuclear receptor that recognizes aldosterone signal is
c. Progesterone receptor
41. The nuclear receptor that recognizes testosterone signal is
c. Androgen receptor
42. The glycosylation of the trans-membrane receptors usually occurs at
a. Extracellular domain
b. Transmembrane domain
c. Cytoplasmic domain
d. No particular place
43. Trans-membrane receptor exhibit

a. Homotrophic composition
b. Heterotrophic composition
c. Neither (a) and (b)
d. Either (a) and (b)
44. The function of the heterotrimeric G protein subunit αs in the G protein-
coupled signal transmission pathway is to
a. Increase Ca2+ channels
b. Increase K+ channels
c. Decrease adenylyl cyclase
d. Increase phosphilipase Cβ
45. The function of the heterotrimeric G protein subunit αi1 in the G protein-
coupled signal transmission pathway is to
a. Increase Ca2+ channels
b. Increase K+ channels
c. Decrease adenylyl cyclase
d. Increase phosphilipase Cβ
46. The second signaling messengers do not include
a. Cyclic AMP
b. Cyclic GMP
c. Calcium ions
d. Potassium ions
47. The seven-transmembrane-helix (7TM) receptors are also known as
a. Merocrine receptors
b. Endocrine receptors
c. Serpentine receptors
d. Adrenergic receptors
48. In the signal-transduction pathway, the target protein phosphorylation by

Cyclic AMP occurs by activating
a. ATP
b. Protein kinase A
c. ADP
d. Protein kinase B
49. In most cellular signal transduction pathways, the ubiquitous messenger is
a. Potassium ion
b. Calcium ion
c. Magnesium ion
d. Chloride ion
50. In the cellular signal transduction pathways, the regulatory protein that can
stimulate many transporters and enzymes is
a. Protein kinase A
b. Protein kinase B
c. Calmodulin
d. CaM kinase
51. Mutations in the gene encoding fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 result in the
disease
a. Cystic fibrosis
b. Metastasis
c. Achondroplasia
d. I-cell disease
52. Mutations in the gene encoding LDL receptor result in the disease
a. Cystic fibrosis
b. Familial hypercholesterolemia
c. Achondroplasia
d. Wilson disease
53. Mutations in the gene encoding cardiac ion channels result in the disease
a. Congenital long QT syndrome
b. Familial hypercholesterolemia
c. Achondroplasia
d. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
54. Continuous persistence of signal results in
a. Tolerance
b. Anergy
c. Desensitization
d. Sensitization
55. The ability of a system to respond appropriately to several signals is known as
a. Homeostasis
b. Signal amplification
c. Signal integration
d. Signal transduction
56. The signaling ligand-receptor affinity can be quantified by
a. Scatchard analysis
b. Hydrophobic interactions
c. Dialysis
d. ELISA
57. The signaling components that are present in bacteria, plants and animals are
a. MAPK cascade
b. Protein kinase A
c. Electrogenic ion pumps
d. Tyrosine kinase receptors
a. Ion channels
b. Protein kinase A
c. Receptor protein kinases
d. Tyrosine kinase receptors
a. MAPK cascade
b. Protein kinase A
c. Protein kinase G
d. Two-component His kinases
a. MAPK cascade
b. Protein kinase A
c. Protein kinase G
d. Adenylyl cyclase
61. The signaling components that are present in bacteria, plants and animals does
not include
a. Ion channels
b. Adenylyl cyclase
c. Guanylyl cyclase
d. Two-component His kinases
62. The signaling component that is present in plants and animals, but not in
bacteria are
a. MAPK cascade
b. Ion channels
c. Two-component His kinases
d. Adenylyl cyclase
63. The signaling component that is present only in animals, but not in plants and
bacteria are
a. Protein kinase A
c. Calmodulin, CaM-binding protein
d. Receptor protein kinases (Ser/Thr)
ANNEXURE
ANSWERS TO MCQs
Chapter 1. Cellular Organization
1. a 11. a 21. c 31. d 41. a 51. c 61. a

2. b 12. c 22. d 32. b 42. c 52. a 62. c
3. c 13. b 23. b 33. c 43. a 53. c
4. c 14. b 24. a 34. d 44. b 54. c
5. a 15. c 25. b 35. c 45. b 55. c
6. b 16. c 26. c 36. d 46. b 56. c
7. c 17. c 27. c 37. c 47. d 57. d
8. a 18. b 28. b 38. b 48. a 58. a
9. a 19. d 29. c 39. a 49. a 59. c
10. b 20. a 30. b 40. c 50. b 60. b
Chapter 2. Cell Divisions
1. c 11. a 21. a 31. b 41. c 51. c 61. b 71. b

2. c 12. c 22. c 32. b 42. a 52. c 62. a 72. a
3. d 13. a 23. b 33. b 43. b 53. b 63. c
4. b 14. c 24. a 34. b 44. d 54. a 64. d
5. a 15. c 25. a 35. c 45. a 55. a 65. a
6. c 16. c 26. c 36. d 46. c 56. b 66. d
7. b 17. b 27. b 37. a 47. c 57. b 67. b
8. a 18. d 28. c 38. c 48. c 58. b 68. c
9. c 19. c 29. c 39. c 49. c 59. c 69. c
10. d 20. a 30. b 40. c 50. b 60. a 70. b
Chapter 3. Cell Cycle
1. d 11. c 21. a
2. d 12. a 22. b
3. c 13. c 23. d
4. b 14. d 24. d
5. a 15. a 25. b
6. c 16. a
7. a 17. c
8. c 18. a
9. d 19. b
10. a 20. c
Chapter 4. Cell Organelles
1. a 11. b 21. a 31. a 41. a 51. d

2. c 12. a 22. a 32. a 42. c 52. b
3. d 13. c 23. c 33. a 43. c 53. c
4. d 14. a 24. c 34. c 44. b 54. a
5. c 15. a 25. b 35. a 45. a 55. c
6. c 16. b 26. a 36. b 46. d 56. b
7. b 17. d 27. b 37. a 47. b 57. d
8. c 18. a 28. d 38. c 48. d 58. b
9. a 19. d 29. b 39. d 49. c 59. a
10. c 20. a 30. a 40. a 50. b 60. a
61. c
Chapter 5. Cytoskeleton
1. d 11. c 21. a 31. b 41. a 51. a

2. b 12. c 22. b 32. c 42. c 52. a
3. d 13. b 23. c 33. b 43. a 53. b
4. a 14. d 24. a 34. a 44. d 54. d
5. b 15. a 25. c 35. b 45. a
6. c 16. b 26. c 36. c 46. b
7. d 17. c 27. d 37. d 47. d
8. a 18. c 28. c 38. a 48. c
9. b 19. c 29. a 39. b 49. a
10. b 20. d 30. a 40. c 50. d
Chapter 6. Cell Signaling and Communication
1. a 11. c 21. b 31. b 41. c 51. c 61. c

2. c 12. a 22. d 32. c 42. a 52. b 62. a
3. a 13. b 23. c 33. d 43. d 53. a 63. a
4. b 14. c 24. a 34. d 44. a 54. c
5. d 15. c 25. a 35. a 45. b 55. c
6. a 16. a 26. c 36. b 46. d 56. a
7. c 17. a 27. a 37. d 47. c 57. c
8. d 18. c 28. b 38. c 48. b 58. a
9. c 19. a 29. a 39. b 49. b 59. d
10. d 20. c 30. a 40. a 50. c 60. d
PART 3:
Developmental
Biology
PART 3
Chapter 1. Gametes and Gametogenesis
1. The term meiosis means

a. Diminution
b. Sequestering
c. Recombine
d. Mixing
2. The number of nuclear divisions in meiosis is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
3. The chromosomes in a gamete are
a. Either maternal or paternal
b. Only paternal
c. Both maternal and paternal
d. Only maternal
4. Development of egg without fertilization is called
a. Regeneration
b. Embryogenesis
c. Parthenogenesis
d. Activation and proliferation
Maddaly Ravi
Developmental Biology MCQs Series for Life Sciences, Vol. 1 237
5. An egg is
a. Pluripotent
b. Multipotent
c. Totipotent
d. Bipotent
6. The diameter of a human egg is
a. 10 microns
b. 100 microns
c. 300 microns
d. 400 microns
7. Egg yolk does not contain
a. Lipids
b. Proteins
c. Polysaccharides
d. Monosaccharides
8. The egg coat is a specialized
a. Plasma membrane
b. Cell wall
c. Extracellular matrix
d. Protein fibers
9. The egg coat predominantly is made of
a. Lipids
b. Glycoproteins
c. Polysaccharides
d. Monosaccharides
10. The layer immediately surrounding the plasma membrane of mammalian eggs is
a. Zona pellucida
b. Vitelline layer
c. Cell wall
d. Periplasm
11. The layer immediately surrounding the plasma membrane of non-mammalian
eggs is
a. Zona pellucida
b. Vitelline layer
c. Cell wall
d. Periplasm
12. Typically, additional layers that surround the vitelline layer is seen in the eggs of
a. Vertebrates
b. Invertebrates
c. Non-mammals
d. Mammals
13. Typically, the tough chorion layer above the vitelline layer is seen in the eggs of
a. Vertebrates
b. Mammals
c. Insects
d. Birds
14. The layer containing specialized secretory vesicles of the eggs is located
a. Just below the plasma membrane
b. On the nuclear membrane
c. Inside the cytoplasm
d. Around the cell organelles
15. The layer of the eggs that contain specialized secretory vesicles is called
a. Medulla
b. Cortex
c. Paracortex
d. Zona pellucid
16. An egg that is developing is called
a. Oocyte
b. Ovum
c. Gamete
d. Haploid
17. An egg that is fully developed and mature is called
a. Oocyte
b. Ovum
c. Oogonium
d. Haploid
18. The cell cycle stage where the developing oocytes are arrested for growth is
the
a. Prophase I
b. Prophase II
c. Anaphase I
d. Anaphase II
19. The cell cycle stage where many developing oocytes are arrested before
fertilization is
a. Prophase I
b. Prophase II
c. Metaphase I
d. Metaphase II
20. The first meiotic division occurs in the

a. Oocytes
b. Oogonia
c. Primary oocytes
d. Secondary oocytes
21. The 1st meiotic division results in
a. Polar body and secondary oocyte
b. Polar body and primary oocyte
c. Polar body and oocyte
d. Two secondary oocytes
22. The egg precursor during oogenesis is
a. Primary oocyte
b. Secondary oocyte
c. 1st polar body
d. 2nd polar body
23. The cells that nourish developing oocytes are called
a. Follicle cells
b. Oogonial cells
c. Kupfer cells
d. Polar cells
24. An oocyte is stimulated to complete the meiosis process by
a. Ovulation
b. Fertilization
c. Polar body formation
d. Division
25. The proteins that are associated with the DNA of spermatozoa are called
a. Histone
b. Non-histones
c. Protamines
d. Amines
26. The hydrolytic enzymes of spermatozoa are located at
a. Neck region
b. Head region
c. Flagellum region
d. Acrosomal vesicle
27. The central part of the spermatozoa flagellum is called
a. Axon
b. Axoneme
c. Acroneme
d. Acrosome
28. The number of central singlet microtubules in the spermatozoa flagellum is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
29. The number of microtubule doublets that surround the central microtubules in
the spermatozoa flagellum is
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12
30. The microtubules organization pattern in the axoneme of spermatozoa is

a. 9 + 2
b. 3 + 9
c. 6 + 3
d. 3 + 6
31. The motor proteins that are responsible for the movement of the spermatozoa
flagellum are
a. Actin
b. Myosin
c. Dynein
d. Fibrin
32. Immature germ cells that produce spermatozoa are
a. Spermatogonia
b. Primary spermatocyte
c. Secondary spermatocyte
d. Spermatids
33. The maturation of spermatids occur at
a. Seminiferous tubule lining
b. Seminiferous tubule lumen
c. Epididymis
d. Urethra
34. The cells that help in the development of spermatogonia are
a. Sertoli cells
b. Folicular cells
c. Nurse cells
d. Leydig cells
35. The cells that secrete testosterone that is required for spermatogenesis are
a. Sertoli cells
b. Folicular cells
c. Nurse cells
d. Leydig cells
36. The sertoli cells are located at
b. Inside the seminiferous tubule
c. Outside the basal lamina of the seminiferous tubules
d. Epididymis
37. The leydig cells are located at
c. Between the seminiferous tubules
d. Epididymis
38. The spermatogonia that are dividing are located at
c. Lining of the basal lamina in the seminiferous tubules
d. Epididymis
39. The cytoplasmic bridges during spermatogenesis last till the formation of
a. Mature spermatozoa
b. Spermatids
c. Primary spermatocytes
d. Secondary spermatocytes
40. Oogenesis of one oogonium results in

a. 1 ovum
b. 2 ova
c. 3 ova
d. 4 ova
41. Spermatogenesis of one primary spermatocyte results in
a. 2 spermatozoa
b. 4 spermatozoa
c. 8 spermatozoa
d. 10 spermatozoa
42. The miniature organism in the gametes according to the preformation theory
of life form development is called
a. Embryo
b. Fetus
c. Homunculus
d. Nucleus
43. The theory that supported progressive developmental changes should occur
for the formation of an individual is called
a. Preformation theory
b. Epigenetic theory
c. Biogenetic theory
d. Recaptulation theory
44. The germ layer theory explaining the development of individuals is explained by
a. Baer’s law
45. The occurrence of the phylogenetic resemblances during an organism’s

embryonic development is explained by
a. Preformation theory
46. Animals are
a. Heterogametic
b. Homogametic
c. Isogametic
47. The process of male gamete formation is called
a. Spermiogenesis
b. Spermatogenesis
c. Neogenesis
d. Gametogenesis
48. The life forms that can produce sperm and ova in different individuals are called
a. Dioecious
b. Monoecious
c. Hermophroditic
d. Parthenogenetic
49. The life forms that can produce sperm and ova in the same individuals are
called
a. Dioecious
b. Monoecious
c. Regenerative
d. Parthenogenetic
50. The monoecious life forms are also known as

a. Dioecious
b. Regenerative
c. Hermophroditic
d. Parthenogenetic
51. The sperm mother cells are also known as
a. Spermatozoa
b. Spermatogonia
c. Spermatocytes
d. Spermatids
52. The spermatogonia are also known as
a. Spermatozoa
b. Spermatids
c. Spermatocytes
d. Sperm mother cells
53. The germinal epithelium refers to
a. Spermatozoa
b. Spermatogonia
c. Spermatocytes
d. Spermatids
54. The separation of sexes where different individuals produce different types of
gametes is called
a. Gonochorism
b. Recapitulation
c. Parthenogenesis
d. Neogenesis
55. Sertoli cells are

a. Tall and columnar
b. Short and cuboidal
c. Tall and cuboidal
d. Short and columnar
56. Leydig cells are also known as
a. Nurse cells
b. Columnar cells
c. Germ epithelium
d. Interstitial cells
57. In the formation of spermatids, the meiotic phase is also known as
a. Multiplication phase
b. Growth phase
c. Maturation phase
d. Reduction phase
58. The proleptotene spermatocytes are also known as
a. Primary spermatocytes
b. Secondary spermatocytes
c. Spermatogonia
d. Spermatids
59. The two types of spermatogonia are the
a. Type-A and Type-B spermatogonia
b. Type-1 and Type-2 spermatogonia
c. Type-B and Type-C spermatogonia
d. Type-1a and Type- 1b spermatogonia
60. The phase of spermatogenesis when tetrads are formed is called

b. Growth phase
c. Maturation phase
d. Reduction phase
61. The first haploid cells during spermatogenesis are the
a. Spermatids
b. Primary spermatocytes
c. Secondary spermatocytes
d. Spermatozoa
62. The second maturation division during spermatogenesis results in the
formation of
a. Spermatids
b. Primary spermatocytes
c. Secondary spermatocytes
d. Spermatozoa
63. The mitochondrial sheath around the axial filament of the spermatozoa is
known as
a. Axoneme
b. Nebenkern
c. Axis
d. Neck
64. The manchette of the spermatozoa are formed by
a. Cytoplasm
b. Acrosome
c. Nucleus
d. Mitochondria
65. Undulating membrane containing spermatozoa is a feature of

a. Canines
b. Felines
c. Round worms
d. Amphibians
66. Biflagellate spermatozoa are normally a feature of
a. Amphibians
b. Toad fish
c. Bovines
d. Felines
67. Spermatozoa devoid of flagella is a feature of
a. Nematodes
b. Rodents
c. Mammals
d. Fishes
68. The three broad stages of oogenesis do not include
b. Regression phase
c. Growth phase
d. Maturation phase
69. The phase of oogenesis in which the oogonia are produced is
b. Regression phase
c. Growth phase
d. Maturation phase
70. The oogonia are produced from

a. Germinal epithelium
b. Primary oocytes
c. Secondary oocytes
d. Ova
71. The previtellogenesis period results in
a. Nuclear material synthesis
b. Cytoplasmic material synthesis
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Nuclear, cytoplasmic and cell divisions
72. The vitellogenesis period refers to the synthesis of
a. Nuclear material
b. Yolk
c. Cytoplasmic organelles
d. RNA
73. The mitochondrial aggregates in the oocytes of some species form
a. Mitochondrial sheath
b. Mitochondrial matrix
c. Mitochondrial clouds
d. Mitochondrial axis
74. The origin of cortical granules in the developing oocytes is
a. Golgi bodies
b. Mitochondria
d. Nuclear membrane
75. Protein yolk is a feature of

a. Invertebrate eggs
b. Rodent eggs
c. Murine eggs
d. Mammalian eggs
76. Lipoid yolk is a feature of
a. Reptile eggs
b. Amphioxus eggs
c. Murine eggs
d. Mammalian eggs
77. Granular yolk is a feature of
a. Invertebrate eggs
b. Rodent eggs
c. Murine eggs
d. Mammalian eggs
78. Yolk platelets are formed by the protein
a. Phosvitin
b. Lipovitelline
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Glycoproteins
79. The lipochondria are a characteristic feature of
a. Amphibian oocytes
b. Mammalian oocytes
c. Avian oocytes
d. Reptilian oocytes
80. The type of eggs that contain limited quantities of yolk are called
a. Microlecithal
b. Mesolecithal
c. Macrolecithal
d. Polylecithal
81. The type of eggs that contain moderate quantities of yolk are called
a. Microlecithal
b. Mesolecithal
c. Macrolecithal
d. Polylecithal
82. The type of eggs that contain large quantities of yolk are called
a. Microlecithal
b. Mesolecithal
c. Macrolecithal
d. Perilecithal
83. Isolecithal type of eggs should generally be
a. Microlecithal
b. Mesolecithal
c. Macrolecithal
d. Perilecithal
84. Homolecithal type of eggs should generally be
a. Microlecithal
b. Mesolecithal
c. Macrolecithal
d. Perilecithal
85. The presence of an animal pole and a vegetal pole is generally possible only in
a. Homolecithal eggs
b. Isolecithal eggs
c. Telolecithal eggs
d. Centrolecithal eggs
86. Mesolecithal eggs are a feature of
a. Amphibians
b. Reptiles
c. Mammals
d. Birds
87. Macrolecithal eggs are a feature of
a. Amphibians
b. Reptiles
c. Mammals
d. Bovines
88. Centrolecithal eggs are a feature of
a. Amphibians
b. Reptiles
c. Insects
d. Bovines
89. Eggs that contain sufficient quantities of nutrients for the developing embryo
are called
a. Cleidoic
b. Non-cleidoic
c. Lecithal
d. Non-lecithal
90. Eggs that do not contain sufficient quantities of nutrients for the developing
embryo are called
a. Cleidoic
b. Non-cleidoic
c. Lecithal
d. Non-lecithal
91. The zona pellucida of an oocyte contains
a. Microvilli
b. Macrovilli
c. Interpenetrating microvilli and macrovilli
d. Interpenetrated microvilli
92. Zona radiata is also known as
a. Zona pellucida
b. Graffian follicle
c. Vitelline membrane
d. Germinal epithelium
93. Zona pellucida is also known as
a. Zona radiata
b. Graffian follicle
c. Vitelline membrane
d. Germinal epithelium
94. Yolk of mammalian eggs is produced in
a. Oocytes
b. Ovaries
c. Liver
d. Spleen
95. Special nurse cells that surround oocytes are seen in

a. Amphibians
b. Insects
c. Mammals
d. Birds
96. The imaginary line located between the animal and vegetal poles of eggs is
called
a. Equatorial zone
b. Meridian
c. Animal-vegetal axis
d. Animal-vegetal equator
97. The polar axis is also known as
a. Equatorial zone
b. Meridian
c. Animal-vegetal axis
98. The animal-vegetal axis is also known as
a. Equatorial zone
b. Meridian
c. Polar axis
99. Polar bodies are also known as
a. Polocytes
b. Polars
c. Barr bodies
d. Haploids
100. The division that produces the first polar body also results in
a. Primary oocyte
b. Secondary oocyte
c. Polocyte
d. Ovum
Chapter 2. Fertilization and Zygote Formation
1. The process that enables spermatozoa to move along the female reproductive
tract and prepares for fertilization is called
a. Acrosomal reaction
b. Maturation
c. Capacitation
d. Flagellation
2. The time taken for the capacitation process that precedes fertilization in
humans is
a. 1-2 hours
b. 2-4 hours
c. 5-6 hours
d. 10 hours
3. Capacitation of the sperm induces changes in the metabolism of
a. Lipids
b. Glycoprotein
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) not (b)
4. Capacitation of the sperm increases

a. Metabolism
b. Motility
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) not (b)
5. The layer on the egg that acts as a cross species fertilization barrier is
a. Zona pellucida
b. Follicle cells
c. Plasma membrane
d. Egg coat
6. The number of glycoprotein types that constitute the mammalian zona
pellucida is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
7. The three glycoprotein types that constitute the mammalian zona pellucida are
a. ZP1, ZP2 and ZP3
b. ZP2, ZP3 and ZP5
c. ZP5, ZP6 and ZP8
d. ZPa, ZPb and ZPc
8. The glycoprotein type of the mammalian zona pellucida that acts as a sperm
receptor is
a. ZP1
b. ZP2
c. ZP3
d. ZPa
9. The event that follows the binding of sperm to the ZP3 in the zona pellucid is
a. Fertilization
b. Clevage
c. Capacitation
d. Acrosomal reaction
10. The acrosoma contents are released by
a. Lysis
b. Vesicular transport
c. Receptor mediated Transcytosis
d. Exocytosis
11. The acrosomal reaction releases
a. Proteases
b. Hyaluronidase
c. Both (a) and (b)
12. Prevention of fertilization by more than one sperm usually is due to
a. Cortical reaction
b. Zona pellucida
c. Capacitation
13. The primary block to polyspermy in eggs is by
a. Rapid depolarization of the plasma membrane
b. Rapid polarization of the plasma membrane
c. Rapid permeability of the plasma membrane
d. Rapid repolarization of the plasma membrane
14. The secondary block to polyspermy in eggs is by

a. Rapid depolarization of the plasma membrane
b. Rapid polarization of the plasma membrane
c. Cortical reaction
15. Fusion of sperm to the egg plasma membrane triggers the
a. Gated ion channel signaling pathway
b. Receptor mediated endocytic signaling pathway
c. Inositol phospholipid cell signaling pathway
d. The G protein signaling pathway
16. The cortical reaction in the egg is mediated by the raise in the levels of
a. Ca2+
b. Mn2+
c. K+
d. Cl2+
17. The haploid nuclei in the just fertilized egg are called
a. Prenuclei
b. Pronuclei
c. Nucleoids
d. Immature nuclei
18. Apart from the DNA, one other important component contributed by the
sperm to the fertilized egg is
a. Centrosome
b. Centriole
c. Mitochondria
d. Plasma membrane
19. Fusion of gamete pronuclei is known as

a. Fertilization
b. Hybridization
c. Amphimixis
d. Amplexus
20. The life span of human egg is
a. 4 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours
21. The life span of human sperm is
a. 4 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours
22. The pores on the membranes surrounding eggs that are useful for the entry of
sperm are known as
a. Microphyles
b. Pseudophyles
c. Gap junctions
d. Ion channels
23. The cementing substance of the corona radiata of an egg that binds follicular
cells is
a. Hyaluronidase
b. Zylase
c. Hyaluronic acid
d. Fertilizin
24. The enzyme contained in the sperm acrosomal granules that help in
penetration through the corona radiata of an egg is
a. Hyaluronidase
b. Antifertilizin
c. Hyaluronic acid
d. Fertilizin
25. The activation of ovum is triggered by
a. Folliculation
b. Sperm reaching the corona radiata
c. Sperm reaching the egg plasma membrane
d. Fertilization
26. The layer covering the early blastula that hold the blastomeres together is
called
a. Vitelline layer
b. Hyaline layer
c. Cortical layer
d. Epidermis
27. The liquid in the cortical granules is called
a. Vitelline fluid
b. Perivitelline fluid
c. Cortical fluid
d. Hyaluronidase
28. The series of reactions that occur in the sperm upon contacting an egg are called
a. Acrosomal reactions
b. Fertilization
c. Amphimixis
d. Cortical reactions
29. The series of reactions that occur in the egg upon contact with a sperm are
called
a. Acrosomal reactions
b. Ertilization
c. Amphimixis
d. Cortical reactions
30. The chemical substances produced by the gametes that are useful for
fertilization are collectively called
a. Gynogamones
b. Androgamone
c. Gamones
d. Fertilizins
Chapter 3. Early Development
1. The divisions of the zygote are called

a. Furrows
b. Cleavages
c. Blastomeres
d. Polarization
2. Blastulation results in
a. An increase in the zygote total mass
b. A decrease in the zygote total mass
c. No change in the total zygote mass
d. A non-specific change in the total zygote mass
3. The time duration for the cortical rotation to complete after fertilization in the
eggs of xenopus is
a. About 1 hour
b. About 2 hours
c. 2-3 hours
d. 3-4 hours
4. The inner blastomeres of a blastula are connected by
a. Gap junctions
b. Desmosomes
d. Actin filaments
5. The outer layer blastomeres of a blastula are connected by
a. Gap junctions
b. Tight junctions
d. Actin filaments
6. A blastula comprises of
a. 2 layers
b. 3 layers and a cavity
c. A hollow mass of cells
d. 3 layers without a cavity
7. Gastrulation results in a structure with
a. 2 layers
c. A mass of cells
8. A gastrula comprises of
a. 2 layers
c. A mass of cells
9. A gastrula exhibits
a. Bilateral symmetry
b. Radial symmetry
c. Asymmetry
d. No specific symmetry
10. A blastula exhibits
a. Bilateral symmetry
b. Radial symmetry
c. Asymmetry
d. No specific symmetry
11. Gastrulation occurs primarily by
a. Invagination
b. Evagination
c. Cell division
d. Internalization
12. Developmental fate maps can be first identified at the stage
a. Zygote
b. Blastula
c. Gastrula
d. Embryo
13. The process by which the primitive gut is formed during the early
development is called
a. Neurulation
b. Gastrulation
c. Blastulation
d. Morphogenesis
14. The main feature of ‘mid-blastula transition’ is
a. Slowing down of blastomere division rate
b. Gastrulation
c. Blastulation
d. Organogenesis
15. The ‘mid-blastula transition’ is a phenomenon that is triggered by
a. Number of blastomeres formed
b. The increase in the blastula size
c. The over-all ratio of DNA to cytoplasm
d. Number of cleavages that have occurred
16. The initiation of the cavity formation in the blastula is by
a. Morphogenetic movements
b. Influx of Na+ into the spaces between blastomeres from the outside
c. Increased pressure on the outer layer of cells
d. Outflow of Na+ from the blastula into the surrounding
17. The embryonic connective tissue is called
a. Mesoderm
b. Endoderm
c. Mesenchyme
d. Merenchyme
18. The region that is critical for directing the gastrulation process is
a. Dorsal lip of blastopore
b. The vegetal pole
c. The epithelial sheet
d. The endodermal cavity
19. The part of the gastrula that is termed ‘Spemann’s Organizer’ is
a. Blastopore
b. Dorsal lip of blastopore
c. Ventral lip of blastopore
d. Blastodisc
20. During early development, the neural tube is formed by the
a. Ectoderm
b. Endoderm
c. Mesoderm
d. Blastopore
21. During the early development, neurulation requires an interaction of
a. Notochord and ectoderm
b. Notochord and mesoderm
c. Notochord and endoderm
d. Ectoderm and endoderm
22. During early development, the somites are formed by
a. Mesoderm
b. Ectoderm
c. Endoderm
d. Neural tube
23. During the early development, the direction of somite formation is

a. Head to tail
b. Tail to head
c. Away from the central axis
d. Midway between the head and the tail
24. Somites develop into
a. Vertebrae
b. Segmental muscles
c. Both (a) and (b)
25. Cleavage is synchronous during
a. Just fertilized egg
b. Early development
c. Mid development
d. Late development
26. Cleavage is asynchronous during
a. Just fertilized egg
b. Early development
c. Mid development
d. Late development
27. The development stage with rapid cleavage is called
a. Early phase
b. Mid phase
c. Late phase
d. Terminal phase
28. The development stage with a moderately spaced intermitotic period is called
a. Early phase
b. Mid phase
c. Late phase
d. Terminal phase
29. The development stage with a long intermitotic period is called
a. Early phase
b. Mid phase
c. Late phase
d. Terminal phase
30. Meroblastic cleavage is seen in
a. Reptiles
b. Amphibians
c. Humans
d. Fishes
31. Holoblastic equal cleavage is seen in
a. Reptiles
b. Amphibians
c. Humans
d. Fishes
32. Holoblastic unequal cleavage is seen in
a. Reptiles
b. Amphibians
c. Humans
d. Birds
33. Microlecithal eggs are seen in

a. Humans
b. Fishes
c. Amphibians
d. Birds
34. Mesolecithal eggs are seen in
a. Humans
b. Reptiles
c. Amphibians
d. Birds
35. Megalecithal eggs are seen in
a. Humans
b. Fishes
c. Amphibians
d. Birds
36. The structure that results from the early cleavage that resembles a ball of cells
is called
a. Morula
b. Blastula
c. Zygote
d. Gastrula
37. The type of blastula where the blastocoel is filled with yolk is
a. Coeloblastula
b. Periblastula
c. Discoblastula
d. Amphiblastula
38. The type of blastula where the floor of blastocoel is made of yolk while the
roof is formed by epiblast is called
a. Coeloblastula
b. Periblastula
c. Discoblastula
d. Amphiblastula
39. The type of blastula consisting of blastomeres of two different structures is
a. Coeloblastula
b. Periblastula
c. Discoblastula
d. Amphiblastula
40. The outer cell layer of morula is not called
a. Trophoderm
b. Ectoderm
c. Trophoectoderm
d. Trophoblast
41. The primitive gut is known as
a. Gastrocoel
b. Archenteron
c. Blastocoel
d. Coelom
42. The long axis of the developing embryo is formed by
a. Primitive streak
b. Area pellucida
c. Presumptive endoderm
d. Area opeca
43. The primitive knot of the developing primitive streak during early
development is known as
a. Primitive groove
b. Primitve ridge
c. Hensen’s node
d. Hypoblast
44. The morphogenetic movements that occur during early developments are also
known as
a. Formative movements
b. Epigenetic movements
c. Epibolic movements
d. Invaginations
45. The morphogenetic movements that occur during early development do not
include
a. Involutions
b. Epiboly
c. Emboly
d. Invagination
Chapter 4. Organogenesis and Sex Determination
1. The type of development where the body pattern development totally depends
on cell-to-cell interactions is
a. Regulative development
b. Localized development
c. Mosaic development
d. Determinant development
2. The type of development where the body pattern development totally depends
on localized determinants is
a. Regulative development
b. Localized development
c. Mosaic development
d. Determinant development
3. The anterior part of the neural tube gives rise to
a. Prosencephalon
b. Mesencephalon
c. Rhombencephalon
d. All the above
4. The telencephalon develops from
a. Prosencephalon
b. Mesencephalon
c. Rhombencephalon
d. Diencephalon
5. The diencephalon develops from
a. Prosencephalon
b. Mesencephalon
c. Rhombencephalon
d. Telencephalon
6. The cerebral hemispheres develop from
a. Prosencephalon
b. Telencephalon
c. Rhombencephalon
d. Diencephalon
7. The infundibulum develops from

a. Prosencephalon
b. Telencephalon
c. Rhombencephalon
d. Diencephalon
8. The optic lobes develop from
a. Prosencephalon
b. Mesencephalon
c. Rhombencephalon
d. Diencephalon
9. The cerebellum develops from
a. Prosencephalon
b. Mesencephalon
c. Rhombencephalon
d. Diencephalon
10. The medulla oblangata develops from
a. Prosencephalon
b. Mesencephalon
c. Rhombencephalon
d. Diencephalon
11. Neurons develop from
a. Neuroblasts
b. Neuroglial cells
c. Ependymal cells
d. Diocoele
12. The neuroglial cells are formed by

a. Neuroblasts
b. Spongioblast cells
c. Ependymal cells
d. Diocoele
13. The archencephalic inductor of the developing embryo forms
a. Fore brain and eyes
b. Fore brain and ears
c. Eyes and ears
d. Eyes and hind brain
14. The eye rudiments are developed from
a. Prosencephalon
b. Mesencephalon
c. Rhombencephalon
d. Diencephalon
15. The chorda-mesoderm inductor is important for the formation of
a. Neural tube
b. Eye lens
c. Nasal structures
d. Mesenchyme
16. The optic cup inductor is important for the formation of
a. Cornea
b. Eye lens
c. Nasal structures
d. Retina
17. The lens inductor is important for the formation of

a. Cornea
b. Eye lens
c. Nasal structures
d. Retina
18. The fore brain inductor is important for the formation of
a. Cornea
b. Eye lens
c. Nasal structures
d. Retina
19. The hind brain inductor is important for the formation of
a. Teeth
b. Pituitary posterior lobe
c. Nasal structures
d. Retina of the eye
20. An example of a primary organizing inductor is
a. Chorda-mesoderm
b. Annular cartilage
c. Mesenchyme
d. Notochord
21. An example of a secondary organizing inductor is
a. Chorda-mesoderm
b. Mesenchyme
c. Optic cup
d. Notochord
22. Which of the following is not a secondary organizing inductor

a. Fore brain
b. Neural crest of the trunk
c. Optic cup
d. Notochord
23. Which of the following is not a tertiary organizing inductor
a. Lens
b. Annular cartilage
c. Mesenchyme
d. Notochord
24. The inducing substances that drive the developmental process are
a. Proteins
b. Ribonucleoproteins
c. Both (a) and (b)
25. The major organizer molecule for important for the development of Xenopus
head and trunk is
a. Pintallavis
b. Chordin
c. Xnot
d. Siamois
26. The major organizer molecule for important for the development of Xenopus
notochord is
a. Pintallavis
b. Chordin
c. Xnot
d. Siamois
27. The segments of the paraxial mesoderm that appear at the third week of
development are the
a. Somites
b. Somitomeres
c. Neuromeres
d. Ganglia
28. The number of somites at the 20th day of development is
a. 1-4
b. 4-7
c. 13-17
d. 26-29
29. The number of somites at the 21st day of development is
a. 1-4
b. 4-7
c. 13-17
d. 26-29
30. The number of somites at the 22nd day of development is
a. 4-7
b. 7-10
c. 13-17
d. 26-29
31. The number of somites at the 23rd day of development is
a. 10-13
b. 13-17
c. 17-20
d. 26-29

a. 34-35
b. 26-29
c. 13-17
d. 17-20
a. 34-35
b. 26-29
c. 13-17
d. 17-20
34. The three parts that arise from somite divisions does not include
a. Dermatome
b. Myotome
c. Endotome
d. Sclerotome
35. The epithelia that are derived from the ectoderm in humans do not include
a. Skin epithelium
b. Corneal epithelium
c. Respiratory tract epithelium
d. Tympanic membrane outer epithelium
36. The epithelia that are derived from the endoderm in humans do not include
a. Middle ear epithelium
b. Auditory tube epithelium
c. Respiratory tract epithelium
d. Tympanic membrane outer epithelium
37. The epithelia that are derived from the mesoderm in humans do not include
a. Urethral covering
b. Kidney tubules
c. Ureter tubules
d. Uterus
38. The vertebral column develops from
a. Sclerotome
b. Dermatome
c. Myotome
d. Endotome
39. The subcutaneous tissue develops from
a. Sclerotome
b. Dermatome
c. Myotome
d. Endotome
40. The skin dermis develops from
a. Sclerotome
b. Dermatome
c. Myotome
d. Endotome
41. The ribs develop from
a. Sclerotome
b. Dermatome
c. Myotome
d. Endotome
42. The striated muscles develop from

a. Sclerotome
b. Dermatome
c. Myotome
d. Endotome
43. The smooth muscles develop from
a. Sclerotome
b. Dermatome
c. Myotome
d. Mesenchyme
44. The endocrine glands develop from
a. Epithelial surfaces
b. Mesodermal pouches
c. Endodermal branches
d. Mesenchymal cell groups
45. The exocrine glands develop from
b. Mesodermal pouches
46. The epidermis develops from
a. Deep endoderm
b. Surface ectoderm
c. Deep endoderm
d. Surface endoderm
47. The pharyngeal pouches are formed by

b. Mesodermal thickenings
48. The incus and malleus of the middle ear develop from the
a. 1st pharyngeal arch
b. 2nd pharyngeal arch
c. 3rd pharyngeal arch
d. 4th pharyngeal arch
49. The stapes of the middle ear develops from the
50. The greater part of the hyoid bone develops from the
51. The larynx develops from the
a. 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arches
b. 2nd and 3rd pharyngeal arches
c. 3rd and 4th pharyngeal arches
d. 4th and 6th pharyngeal arches
52. The palatine tonsil develops from the

a. 1st pharyngeal pouch
b. 2nd pharyngeal pouch
c. 3rd pharyngeal pouch
d. 4th pharyngeal pouch
53. The inferior parathyroid gland develops from the
54. The superior parathyroid gland develops from the
55. In humans, the pharyngeal arches are formed during
a. 1st and 2nd weeks of development
b. 2nd and 3rd weeks of development
c. 3rd and 4th weeks of development
d. 4th and 5th weeks of development
56. In humans, the thyroid and parathyroid glands are formed during
a. 2nd week of development
b. 3rd week of development
c. 4th week of development
d. 5th week of development
57. The origin for epithelia can be

a. Ectoderm
b. Endoderm
c. Mesoderm
d. All the above
58. The time of development when the thyroid gland reaches its defined position
in human development is
a. 10th week of development

b. 7th week of development
d. 3rd week of development
59. The cranial bone that are formed by membrane completely is
a. Parietal bone
b. Ethmoid bone
c. Inferior nasal concha
d. Occipital bone
60. The cranial bone that are formed by cartilage completely is
a. Parietal bone
b. Ethmoid bone
c. Mandible
d. Occipital bone
61. The cranial bone that are formed by both membrane and cartilage is
a. Parietal bone
b. Ethmoid bone
c. Inferior nasal concha
d. Occipital bone
62. Which of the following is not a bone that is formed by a combination of both
membrane and cartilage
a. Occipital bone
b. Temporal bone
c. Maxilla
d. Mandible
63. Which of the following is not a bone that is formed by membrane completely
a. Frontal bone
b. Ethnoid bone
c. Maxilla
d. Vomer
64. In humans, the appearance of fore limbs appear during the end of
a. 2nd week of development
b. 3rd week of development
65. In humans, the elbows and knees appear during the end of
a. 12th week of development
b. 10th week of development
66. In humans, the embryonic structure that forms the mouth is
a. Stomatodaeum
b. 3rd pharyngeal pouch
c. Dermatome
d. Perichondrium
67. In humans, the lower lip and lower jaw are formed by
a. Right mandibular process
b. Left mandibular process
c. Both (a) and (b)
68. In humans, the upper lip is formed by
a. Right mandibular process
b. Left mandibular process
c. Frontonasal process
d. All the three
69. In humans, the cheeks are formed by
a. Mandibular process
b. Maxillary process
c. Both (a) and (b)
70. In humans, the nose is formed by
a. Mandibular process
b. Maxillary process
c. Frontonasal process
d. All the three
71. In humans, the liver is formed from the primitive
a. Foregut
b. Midgut
c. Proximal gut
d. Hindgut
72. In humans, the extra hepatic biliary system is formed from the primitive
a. Foregut
b. Midgut
c. Proximalgut
d. Hindgut
73. In humans, the jejunum is formed from the primitive
a. Foregut
b. Midgut
c. Proximalgut
d. Hindgut
74. The hepatic bud that gives rise to the liver arises from
a. Primitive foregut
b. Primitive midgut
c. Primitive hindgut
d. Junction of the foregut and midgut
75. The spleen is a derivative of
a. Ectoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Endoderm
d. Mesenchyme
76. The diaphragm develops from
a. The pleuro-peritoneal membranes
b. The body wall
c. The oesophageal mesenteries
d. All the three
77. The number of primitive endothelial heart tubes that form the heart are
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
78. The urinogenital system is a derivative of
a. Ectoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Endoderm
d. Mesenchyme
79. The nephrons are formed from
a. Metaneurons
b. Metanephrons
c. Mesonephrons
d. Paramesonephrons
80. The cerebral hemispheres are formed from
a. Telencephalon
b. Procencephalon
c. Rhombencephalon
d. Mesencephalon
81. The midbrain is formed from
a. Telencephalon
b. Prosencephalon
c. Rhombencephalon
d. Mesencephalon
82. The pons is formed from

a. Telencephalon
b. Metencephalon
c. Rhombencephalon
d. Mesencephalon
83. The medulla oblongata is formed from
a. Myelencephalon
b. Procencephalon
c. Rhombencephalon
d. Mesencephalon
84. The cells of the adrenal medulla is formed from
a. Sympathetic ganglia
b. Ependymal mantle
c. Afferent nuclei
d. Efferent nuclei
85. The cerebellum is formed from
a. Telencephalon
b. Metencephalon
c. Rhombencephalon
d. Mesencephalon
86. The developmental period when the neural plate is formed in humans is
a. 2nd week
b. 3rd week
c. 4th week
d. 5th week
87. The developmental period when the neural folds fusion begins in humans is
a. 2nd week
b. 3rd week
c. 4th week
d. 5th week
88. The developmental period when the brain vesicles are formed in humans is
a. 2nd week
b. 3rd week
c. 4th week
d. 5th week
89. The developmental period when the corpus callosum is formed in humans is
a. 5th week
b. 8th week
c. 10th week
d. 15th week
90. The developmental period when the differentiation of cerebellum begins in
humans is
a. 5th week
b. 8th week
c. 10th week
d. 15th week
91. The developmental period when the sympathetic ganglia are formed in
humans is
a. 5th week
b. 8th week
c. 10th week
d. 15th week
92. The retina is formed from

a. Telencephalon
b. Prosencephalon
c. Rhombencephalon
d. Mesencephalon
93. In humans, the developmental period when the optic sulcus appears is
a. 12th day
b. 16th day
c. 20th day
d. 22nd day
94. In humans, the developmental period when the lens vesicle appears is
a. 5th week
b. 6th week
c. 7th week
d. 10th week
95. In humans, the developmental period when the otic placodes appears is
a. 12th day
b. 16th day
c. 20th day
d. 22nd day
96. In humans, the developmental period when the cochlea appear is
a. 5th week
b. 6th week
c. 7th week
d. 10th week
97. In humans, the developmental period when the semicircular canals appear is
a. 5th week
b. 6th week
c. 7th week
d. 10th week
98. The epithelial lining of respiratory tract is a derivative of
a. Ectoderm
b. Endoderm
c. Mesoderm
d. Meso-endoderm
99. The glands that are derived from ectoderm do not include
a. Sweat gland
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Thyroid gland
d. Lacrimal gland
100. The glands that are derived from endoderm do not include
e. Sweat gland
f. Thymus
g. Thyroid gland
h. Liver
101. In development, the homologous gene play
a. Similar roles
b. Distinct roles
c. Different roles
d. No roles
102. The egg polarity genes of Drosophila do not include

a. Anterior class genes
b. Posterior class genes
c. Lateral class genes
d. Terminal class genes
103. The gene for EGF receptor during Drosophila development is
a. Torpedo
b. Gurken
c. Comichon
d. Oskar
104. The product of the bicoid developmental gene in Drosophila codes for
a. RNA-binding protein
b. Secreted proteins
c. Transcription and translation factor
d. Receptor tyrosine kinase
105. The product of the hunchback developmental gene in Drosophila codes for
b. Translation factor
c. Transcription factor
106. The product of the nanos developmental gene in Drosophila codes for
107. The product of the staufen developmental gene in Drosophila codes for
108. The product of the Torso developmental gene in Drosophila codes for
109. The product of the Polehole developmental gene in Drosophila codes for
b. Signaling proteins
110. The first zygotic genes expressed in the Drosophila development are the
a. Gap genes
b. Gurken genes
c. Pumilio genes
d. Oskar genes
111. The gene that causes the anterioposterior morphogen gradient in Drosophila is
a. Hunchback
b. Knirps
c. Knot
d. Huckebein
112. The gene that causes the broad stripe of in the middle of Drosophila embryo is
a. Kruppel
b. Knirps
c. Knot
d. huckebein
113. The gene that causes the anterior and posterior stripes in Drosophila embryo is
a. hunchback
b. Knirps
c. Knot
d. huckebein
114. The gene that causes abdominal specification in Drosophila embryo is
a. hunchback
b. Knirps
c. caudal
d. huckebein
115. The gene that causes terminal stripes in Drosophila embryo is
a. hunchback
b. Knirps
c. caudal
d. huckebein
116. The gene that causes specification of head segments in Drosophila embryo is
a. hunchback
b. knot
c. caudal
d. huckebein
117. The gene that causes specification of odd-numbered parasegments in

Drosophila embryo is
a. even-skipped
b. runt
c. paired
d. odd-skipped
118. The gene that causes specification of even-numbered parasegments in
Drosophila embryo is
a. even-skipped
b. fushi tarasu
c. odd paired
d. huckebein
119. The gene that regulates anterio-posterior patterning in Drosophila embryo is
a. even-skipped
b. fushi tarasu
c. hedgehog
d. huckebein
120. The group of genes that are important for the body axis patterns is
a. Hog gene cluster
b. Kruppel-type zinc fingers
c. Dynein
d. G-proteins
Chapter 5. Sex Determination
1. Sex determination in most life forms can have

a. Chromosomal basis
b. Genetic basis
c. Environmental basis
d. All of the above
2. Sex determination in insects is based on
a. Chromosomal differences
b. Genetic differences
c. Environmental conditions
d. All of the above
3. Sex determination in insects is based on
a. YY-XX chromosomal model
b. XX-XO chromosomal model
c. XX-XY chromosomal model
d. XY-XX chromosomal model
4. In life forms with the XX-XY chromosomal sex determination, the males are
a. Homogametic
b. Heterogametic
c. Microgametic
d. Monoecious
5. In life forms with the XX-XY chromosomal sex determination, the females are
a. Homogametic
b. Heterogametic
c. Microgametic
d. Monoecious
6. The XX-XO chromosomal basis for sex determination is predominant in

a. Humans
b. Reptiles
c. Mammals
d. Insects
7. The homologous regions of the X and Y chromosomes are known as
a. Heterochromatin
b. Autosomal regions
c. Pseudoautosomal regions
d. Somatic regions
8. In life forms with the ZZ-ZW chromosomal sex determination, the females are
a. Homogametic
b. Heterogametic
c. Microgametic
d. Monoecious
9. In life forms with the ZZ-ZW chromosomal sex determination, the males are
a. Homogametic
b. Heterogametic
c. Microgametic
d. Monoecious
10. In life forms with the ZZ-ZW chromosomal sex determination, the males have
a. ZZ chromosomes
b. WW chromosomes
c. ZW chromosomes
d. Either ZZ or ZW chromosomes
11. In life forms with the ZZ-ZW chromosomal sex determination, the females have
a. ZZ chromosomes
b. WW chromosomes
c. ZW chromosomes
d. Either WW or ZW chromosomes
12. The ploidy basis for sex determination is predominant in
a. Some birds
b. Reptiles
c. Amphibians
d. Hymenopteran insects
13. The sex determination type where the sex depends on the genotypes at
different loci is
a. Genic type of sex determination

b. Haploid type of sex determination
c. Diploid type of sex determination
d. Haplodiploidy type of sex determination
14. Sequential hermaphroditism is seen in animals where the sex determination is
a. Genic
b. Chromosomal
c. Environmental
d. Haplodiploidal
15. The genic balance system of sex determination is seen in
a. Humans
b. Reptiles
c. Drosophila
d. Limpets
16. In drosophila, the female genes are located on the

a. X chromosome
b. Y chromosome
c. Autosomes
d. Both X and Y chromosomes
17. In drosophila, the male genes are located on the
a. X chromosome
b. Y chromosome
c. Autosomes
d. Both X and Y chromosomes
18. The X:A ratio of sex determination is seen in
a. Humans
b. Reptiles
c. Drosophila
d. Limpets
19. In drosophila, the X:A ratio that is required to produce a female fly is
a. 2.0
b. 1.0
c. 0.5
d. 0.25
20. In drosophila, the X:A ratio that is required to produce a male fly is
a. 2.0
b. 1.0
c. 0.5
d. 0.25
21. In drosophila, the X:A ratio that is required to produce a metamale fly is
a. > 2.0
b. 1.0
c. < 0.5
d. 0.25
22. In drosophila, the X:A ratio that is required to produce a metafemale fly is
a. 2.0
b. > 1.0
c. < 0.5
d. 0.25
23. In drosophila, the X:A ratio that is required to produce an intersex fly is
a. 2.0 - 1.0
b. 0.25 - 0.50
c. 1.0 - 0.50
d. > 2.0
24. In humans, the gene for male sex determination is
a. SRY gene
b. TF gene
c. AMH gene
d. MIF gene
ANNEXURE
ANSWERS TO MCQs
Chapter 1. Gametes and Gametogenesis
1. a 11. b 21. a 31. c 41. b 51. b 61. c 71. c 81. b 91. c

2. b 12. c 22. b 32. a 42. c 52. d 62. a 72. b 82. c 92. a
3. a 13. c 23. a 33. c 43. b 53. b 63. b 73. c 83. a 93. a
4. c 14. a 24. b 34. a 44. a 54. a 64. a 74. a 84. a 94. c
5. c 15. b 25. c 35. d 45. d 55. a 65. d 75. a 85. c 95. b
6. b 16. a 26. d 36. b 46. a 56. d 66. b 76. a 86. a 96. c
7. d 17. b 27. b 37. c 47. b 57. c 67. a 77. a 87. b 97. c
8. c 18. a 28. b 38. c 48. a 58. a 68. b 78. c 88. c 98. c
9. b 19. d 29. c 39. a 49. b 59. a 69. a 79. a 89. a 99. a
10. a 20. c 30. a 40. a 50. c 60. c 70. a 80. a 90. b 100. b
Chapter 2. Fertilization and Zygote Formation
1. c 11. c 21. d
2. c 12. a 22. a
3. c 13. a 23. c
4. c 14. c 24. a
5. a 15. c 25. c
6. d 16. a 26. b
7. a 17. b 27. b
8. c 18. b 28. a
9. d 19. c 29. d
10. d 20. d 30. c
Chapter 3. Early Development
1. b 11. a 21. a 31. c 41. b

2. c 12. c 22. a 32. b 42. a
3. a 13. b 23. a 33. a 43. c
4. a 14. a 24. c 34. c 44. a
5. b 15. c 25. b 35. d 45. c
6. c 16. b 26. d 36. a
7. b 17. c 27. a 37. b
8. b 18. a 28. c 38. c
9. a 19. b 29. d 39. d
10. a 20. a 30. a 40. b
Chapter 4. Organogenesis
1. a 11. a 21. c 31. a 41. a 51. d 61. d 71. a 81. d 91. a 101. a 111. a
2. c 12. b 22. d 32. c 42. c 52. b 62. c 72. a 82. b 92. b 102. c 112. a
3. d 13. a 23. b 33. d 43. d 53. c 63. b 73. b 83. a 93. d 103. a 113. b
4. a 14. a 24. c 34. c 44. a 54. d 64. c 74. d 84. a 94. b 104. c 114. c
5. a 15. a 25. a 35. c 45. a 55. d 65. c 75. b 85. b 95. d 105. c 115. d
6. b 16. b 26. c 36. d 46. b 56. d 66. a 76. d 86. b 96. b 106. b 116. b
7. d 17. a 27. b 37. a 47. b 57. d 67. c 77. b 87. c 97. b 107. a 117. a
8. b 18. c 28. a 38. a 48. a 58. b 68. d 78. b 88. d 98. b 108. d 118. b
9. c 19. b 29. b 39. b 49. b 59. a 69. c 79. b 89. c 99. c 109. b 119. c
10. c 20. a 30. b 40. b 50. c 60. b 70. c 80. a 90. b 100. a 110. a 120. a
Chapter 5. Sex Determination
1. d 11. c 21. c
2. a 12. d 22. b
3. b 13. a 23. c
4. b 14. c 24. a
5. a 15. c
6. d 16. a
7. c 17. c
8. b 18. c
9. a 19. b
10. a 20. c
PART 4:
Genetics and
Molecular Biology
PART 4
Chapter 1. Discoveries in Genetics and Molecular Biology
1. That plants reproduce sexually was first reported by

a. Gregor Mendel
b. Aristotle
c. Nehemiah Grew
d. Joseph Kolreuter
2. A pioneer in plant breeding experiments was
a. Gregor Mendel
b. Aristotle
c. Nehemiah Grew
d. Joseph Kolreuter
3. The founder of modern genetics is
a. Gregor Mendel
b. Aristotle
c. Nehemiah Grew
d. Joseph Kolreuter
4. The cell nucleus was first described by
a. Gregor Mendel
b. Robert Brown
c. Matthis Schleiden
d. Charles Darwin
Maddaly Ravi
Genetics and Molecular Biology MCQs Series for Life Sciences, Vol. 1 305
5. The heredity is fundamental for evolution was explained by

a. Gregor Mendel
b. Robert Brown
c. Matthis Schleiden
d. Charles Darwin
6. The division of chromosomes was first observed by
a. Robert Brown
b. August Weismann
c. Walter Flemming
d. Charles Darwin
7. Mitosis was first described by
a. Robert Brown
b. August Weismann
c. Walter Flemming
d. Charles Darwin
8. The germ-plasm theory of inheritance was proposed by
a. Robert Brown
b. August Weismann
c. Walter Flemming
d. Charles Darwin
9. Gregor Mendel first published his principles of heredity in
a. 1866
b. 1966
c. 1800
d. 1900
10. Gregor Mendel’s principles of heredity were rediscovered in

a. 1866
b. 1900
c. 1966
d. 1800
11. The discovery that genes were located on chromosomes was done by
a. Walter Sutton
b. Gregor Mendel
c. Thomas H. Morgan
d. Ronald A. Fisher
12. The first genetic mutations were reported by
a. Walter Sutton
b. Gregor Mendel
c. Thomas H. Morgan
d. Ronald A. Fisher
13. The first DNA sequencing technique was described by
a. Kholer and Milstein
b. Sutton and Boveri
c. Gilbert and Sanger
d. Watson and Crick
14. The Polymerase Chain Reaction technique was developed by
a. James Watson
b. Kary Mullis
c. Kholer
d. Walter Sutton
15. The biologist who described life as a river of DNA that runs through time,
connecting all organisms past and present is
a. Gregor Mendel
b. Carl Sagan
c. Richard Dawkins
d. Thomas H. Morgan
16. The theory of natural selection was announced jointly by Charles Darwin and
a. Alfred Russel Wallace
b. Gregor Mendel
c. Archibald Garrod
d. Hugo de Vries
17. Charles Darwin published ‘The Origin of Species’ in the year
a. 1853
b. 1859
c. 1900
d. 1905
18. Mendel’s principles of inheritance were independently rediscovered by
a. Carl Correns
b. Hugo de Vries
c. Erich von Tschermak
d. All the above
19. Chromosomal basis for sex determination as XX and XY was independently
described by
a. Nettie Stevens and Edmund Wilson

b. Carl Correns and Hugo de Vries
c. Watson and Crick
d. Kholer and Milstein
20. Inborn errors of metabolism were described by

a. Thomas Hunt Morgan
b. Fred Griffith
c. Archibald Garrod
d. Hermann J. Muller
21. Sex linked inheritance of mutations were first described by
b. Fred Griffith
c. Archibald Garrod
22. The principle if linkage was first described by
b. Fred Griffith
c. Archibald Garrod
23. Induced mutations (by X-rays) were first described by
a. Max Delbruck
b. Edmund Wilson
c. Archibald Garrod
24. The bacterial ‘transforming’ factor was first described by
b. Fred Griffith
c. Archibald Garrod
25. The first cytological proof of crossing-over in maize was described by

c. Harriet B. Creighton and Barbara McClintock
d. Oswald Avery and Colin MacLeod
26. The gene action through enzymes was first described by
a. Oswald Avery and Colin MacLeod
b. George Beadle and Edward Tatum
c. Nettie Stevens and Edmund Wilson
d. Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty
27. The identification of bacterial transforming principle as DNA was done by
a. Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty
b. Martha Chase and Alfred Hershey
c. Rosalind Franklin
d. Max Delbruck
28. The transposable elements were first described by
a. Erwin Chargaff
b. Martha Chase
c. Barbara McClintock
d. Alfred Hershey
29. The ratios of Adenine:Thymine and Guanine:Cytosine as 1:1 in the DNA was
reported by
a. Erwin Chargaff
b. Martha Chase
d. Alfred Hershey
30. The first X-ray diffraction images of DNA were first obtained by
a. Oswald Avery
b. Martha Chase
c. Rosalind Franklin
d. Max Delbruck
31. The proof of DNA being the molecule of heredity was first given by
a. Erwin Chargaff
b. Martha Chase and Alfred Hershey
d. Archibald Garrod
32. The three dimensional structure of the DNA molecule was solved by
c. Watson and Crick
33. The semi-conservative model of DNA replication was first reported by
c. Watson and Crick
d. Matthew Meselson and Frank Stahl
34. The purification of DNA polymerase in vitro was first performed by
a. Arthur Kornberg
b. Fred Sanger
c. Stanley Cohen
d. Annie Chang
35. The study that discovered Triplet mRNA codons specify each of the
aminoacids was led by
a. Marshall Nirenberg and H. Gobind Khorana

b. Annie Chang and Stanley Cohen
c. Paul Berg and Herb Boyer
d. Matthew Meselson and Frank Stahl
36. The first isolation of a restriction enzyme was performed by
a. Paul Berg and Herb Boyer
c. Hamilton Smith and Kent Wilcox
d. Marshall Nirenberg and H. Gobind Khorana
37. The first recombinant DNA was produced by
38. The studies on DNA electrophoresis by agarose gel and ethydium bromide
staining was led by
a. Arthur Kornberg
b. Fred Sanger
c. Joseph Sambrook
d. Annie Chang
39. The process of recombinant DNA molecule replication in E. coli was demonstrated by
40. The dideoxy method of DNA sequencing was developed by

a. Arthur Kornberg
b. Fred Sanger
c. Joseph Sambrook
d. Annie Chang
41. The demonstration of the first gene causing a disease (Huntington’s disease)
and its location (on the chromosome # 4) was done by
a. Fred Sanger
b. Alec Jeffreys
c. Kary B. Mullis
d. James Gusella
42. The Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) was first described by
a. Fred Sanger
b. Alec Jeffreys
c. Kary B. Mullis
d. James Gusella
43. The term DNA fingerprinting was coined by
a. Fred Sanger
b. Alec Jeffreys
c. Kary B. Mullis
d. James Gusella
44. The DNA fingerprinting techniques was first used for studying DNA
polymorphisms for socio-legal applications by
a. Fred Sanger
b. Alec Jeffreys
c. Kary B. Mullis
d. James Gusella
45. The gene mutations as the cause of diseases (cystic fibrosis) was first
described by
a. Francis Collins and Lap-Chee Tsui

c. Paul Berg and Herb Boyer
d. Hamilton Smith and Kent Wilcox
46. RNA interference (RNAi) due to double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) were
discovered by
a. Francis Collins and Lap-Chee Tsui

c. Andrew Fire and Craig Mello
d. Hamilton Smith and Kent Wilcox
47. The term ‘nucleic acids’ was introduced by
a. Mendel
b. Morgan
c. Altmann
d. Bateson
48. The genetic basis of the blood groups was discovered by
a. Bernstein
b. W. Sutton
c. R. Altman
d. F. Galton
49. The mendelian inheritance pattern of a few human diseases was discovered by
a. W. Bateson and A. Garrod
b. W. Sutton and McClung
c. W. Johannsen and Janssens
d. R. Ivanowski
50. The individual nature of chromosomes was first described by

a. K. Landsteiner
b. A. Garrod
c. T. Boveri
d. W. Bateson
51. The term ‘genetics’ was proposed by
a. K. Landsteiner
b. A. Garrod
c. T. Boveri
d. W. Bateson
52. The pioneer in population genetics was
a. Hardy Weinberg
b. Correns, Bateson
c. Sutton, McClung
d. Galton, Altmann
53. The terms ‘gene’, ‘genotype’ and ‘phenotype’ were coined by
a. K. Landsteiner
b. W. Johannsen
c. T. Boveri
d. W. Bateson
54. Chiasma formation during meiosis was first observed by
a. W. Bateson
b. A. Garrod
c. W. Johannsen
d. Janssens
55. The first inbred mouse strain was developed by

a. T.H. Morgan
b. W. Bateson
c. C. Little
d. J.B.S. Haldane
56. Genetic recombination in viruses was first described by
a. Delbruck and Bailey
b. Barr and Bertram
c. Mays and McClintock
d. Zinder and Lederberg
57. X-chromatin was discovered by
b. Barr and Bertram
c. Mays and McClintock
58. Plasmids were discovered by
a. Cori
b. Chargaff
c. Lederberg
d. Zinder
59. Transduction by phage was described by
a. Cori and Cori
b. Hsu and Pomerat
c. Zinder and Lederberg
d. Barr and Bertram
60. The first enzyme defect in humans was described by

a. Cori
b. Hsu and Pomerat
d. Barr and Bertram
61. The first linkage group in humans was discovered by
a. Hsu
b. Polani
c. Mohr
d. Cori
62. Colchicine and hypotonic solution was first used for chromosomal analysis by
a. Cori and Cori
b. Hsu and Pomerat
d. Barr and Bertram
63. Exogenous factors can cause congenital malformations was identified by
a. T.H. Morgan
b. J. Warkany
c. C. Little
d. J. B. S. Haldane
64. The non-mendelian inheritance patterns were first identified by
a. Bickel
b. Polani
c. Ephrussi
d. Muller
65. Cell cycle was first described by

a. Watson and Crick
b. Howard and Pelc
c. Davidson and Smith
d. Pardee and Litman
66. DNA repair was first described by
a. Davidson
b. Muller
c. Polani
d. Kornberg
67. Chromosomal abnormality in Turner’s syndrome was first observed by
a. Davidson
b. Muller
c. Polani
d. Kornberg
68. The aminoacid sequence of insulin was first performed by
a. R. Litman
b. F. Sanger
c. A. Pardee
d. J. Warkany
69. The number of human chromosomes was determined as 46 by
a. Tijo, Ford and Hamerton
b. Kornberg and Fraser
c. Ingram and Setlow
d. Terasaki and Littlefield
70. The first autosomal deletion syndrome (cri-du-chat syndrome) was described
by
a. R. Litman
b. J. Lejeune
c. A. Pardee
d. J. Warkany
71. The excision repair was described by
a. Setlow
b. Ingram
c. Littlefield
d. Terasaki
72. Spontaneous chromosomal instability was first described by
a. Schroeder
b. Lejeune
c. de Duve
d. Klinger
73. The first amniotic fluid cell culture was performed by
a. H.P. Klinger
b. C. de Duve
c. McKusick
d. C. Brown
74. The pioneers in studying genetic diseases by cell cultures were
b. Barr and Bertram
c. Danes, Bearn and Mellman
75. The pioneer in Population cytogenetics was

a. Court Brown
b. Moorehead
c. D. S. Hogness
d. Motulsky
76. The study of spontaneous abortions by identifying fetal chromosomal
aberrations was first described by
a. Bernischke
b. McKusick
c. Setlow
d. Schroeder
77. The catalog of Mendalian phenotypes in humans was brought out by
a. Bernischke
b. McKusick
c. Setlow
d. Schroeder
78. Repetitive DNA was discovered by
a. Dorfman
b. van Bekkum
c. Britten and Kohne
d. Pearson
79. Reverse transcriptase was independently discovered by
a. Britten and Kohne
b. Baltimore and Temin
c. Casperson and Shaw
d. Renwick and Pearson
80. Y-chromatin was first described by

b. Pearson, Bobrow and Vosa
c. Danes, Bearn and Mellman
81. The first reported diagnosis using DNA technology was by
a. S. G. Barrell
b. S. B. Prusiner
c. Y. H. Kan
d. S. Anderson
82. Mutational screening as a method to study Drosophila embryonic
development was performed by
a. C. Nusslein Volhard et al.

b. B. Marshal
c. A. Jeffrreys
d. S. B. Pruisner
83. Mitochondrial genome sequencing was performed by
a. W. Bateson and A. Garrod
b. W. Sutton and McClung
c. W. Johannsen and Janssens
d. S. Anderson, S.G. Barrell and A.T. Bankier
84. Tumor suppressor genes were discovered by
a. Y. H. Kan
b. H. P. Klinger
c. S.B. Prusiner
d. Tonegawa
85. Cellular oncogenes were discovered by

a. Y.H. Kan
b. H.E. Varmus et al.
c. S.B. Prusiner
d. Tonegawa
86. Genomic imprinting in mouse was discovered by
a. R.L. Cann
b. M. Stoneking
c. B. Cattanach
d. A.C. Wilson
87. The first knockout mouse was developed by
a. Kunkel
b. B. Cattanach
c. Gitschier
d. M. Capecchi
88. The first genetic map of the human genome was brought out by
a. H.E. Varmus et al.
b. C. Nusslein Volhard et al.
c. H. Donis Keller et al.
d. Royer Pokora et al.
89. Nondisjunction was described by
a. Peyton Rous
b. C.B. Bridges
c. F. Blakeslee
d. J. Summer
90. Statistical analysis of genetic traits was started by

a. Peyton Rous
b. Fisher
c. F. Blakeslee
d. J. Summer
91. Genetic drift was described by
a. F. Blakeslee
b. H.J. Muller
c. S. Wright
d. F. Griffith
92. The identification of euchromatin and heterochromatin was made by
a. F. Griffith
b. E.B. Lewis
c. E.B. Ford
d. E. Heitz
93. Polytene chromosomes were identified by
a. Heitz and Painter
b. Haldane and Hogben
c. Fisher and Bernstein
d. Ford and Lewis
94. Cistrons were identified by
a. Benzer
b. Moses
c. Ponotocorvo
d. Dausset
95. The genetic complementation was first described by

a. Benzer
b. Moses
c. Ponotocorvo
d. Dausset
96. The concept of operon and gene regulation was put forth by
c. Jacob and Monod
d. Ford and Lewis
97. Replicons were discovered by
c. Jacob and Brenner
d. Ford and Lewis
98. The demonstration of sister chromatid exchanges by using BrdU was done by
a. J.D. Rowley
b. S.A. Latt
c. D.S. Hogness
d. G. Blobel
99. Chromatin structure and nucleosome were first described by
a. Kornberg, Olins and Olins
b. Doherty and Zinkernagel
c. Goldstein and Motulsky
d. Barell and Hutchinson
100. First transgenic mouse was developed by

a. E. Southern
b. R. Jaenisch
c. R.J. Roberts
d. P.A. Sharp
101. The intron and exon presence in the gene arrangement was independently
discovered by
a. Kornberg, Olins and Olins

c. R.J. Roberts and P.A. Sharp
d. Barell and Hutchinson
102. Chromosome micro-dissection for cloning was first performed by
a. Lüdecke, Senger, Claussen and Horsthemke
b. W. Bateson and A. Garrod
c. W. Sutton and McClung
d. W. Johannsen and Janssens
103. Mammalian cloning by transfer of adult cell nucleus into enucleated oocytes
was first demonstrated by
a. Wilmut
b. Blattner
c. Tomb
d. Smithies
Chapter 2. Mendelian and Non-Mendelian Inheritances
1. An inherited factor that determines a characteristic is termed

a. Gene
b. Allele
c. Chromosome
d. Exon
2. Alternate forms of a gene are termed
a. Gene
b. Alleles
c. Chromosome
d. Exon
3. The region on the chromosome at which the genes are present are termed
a. Euchromatin
b. Heterochromatin
c. Locus
d. Genome
4. A set of alleles that an individual organism possesses is termed
a. Phenotype
b. Genotype
c. Factors
d. Traits
5. A diploid organism with a set of identical alleles at a particular locus is termed
a. Zygote
b. Heterozygous
c. Hemizygous
d. Homozygous
6. A diploid organism with a set of non-identical alleles at a particular locus is

termed
a. Zygote
b. Heterozygous
c. Hemizygous
d. Homozygous
7. The physical manifestation of the genotype is termed
a. Phenotype
b. Genotype
c. Factors
d. Karyotype
8. The inheritable component is the
a. Phenotype
b. Genotype
c. Karyotype
d. Traits
9. The Mendelian terminology for the offspring of a cross is
a. Filial generation
b. F1 generation
c. F2 generation
d. F3 generation
10. Cross between parents which differ in one contrasting trait is known as
a. Reciprocal cross
b. Test cross
c. Monohybrid cross
d. Dihybrid cross
11. Cross between parents which differ in two contrasting traits is known as
a. Reciprocal cross
b. Test cross
c. Monohybrid cross
d. Dihybrid cross
12. The traits that appear in the F1 generation of a monohybrid cross are termed
a. Dominant
b. Recessive
c. Co-dominant
d. Masked
13. The traits that do not appear in the F1 generation of a monohybrid cross are
termed
a. Dominant
b. Recessive
c. Co-dominant
d. Expressed
14. The observation that a diploid organism consists of 2 alleles that determine a
trait is explained by
a. # of offspring
b. # of crosses
c. Principle of segregation
d. Reciprocal cross
15. Principle of segregation states that
a. A pair of alleles are linked
b. Both alleles are present in a gamete
c. The offspring obtains 2 pairs of alleles
d. The alleles of a pair separate during gametogenesis
16. The trait that resurfaces in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross is termed
a. Dominant
b. Recessive
c. Co-dominant
d. Expressed
17. Prediction of the outcome of genetic crosses can be done by using
a. Monohybrid cross
b. Dihybrid cross
c. Reciprocal cross
d. Punnet square
18. A cross between a F1 generation with one of the parental types is termed
a. Monohybrid cross
b. Dihybrid cross
c. Test cross
d. Reciprocal cross
19. F1 generation exhibiting intermediate phenotypes of the homozygous parents
is termed
a. Dominance
b. Co-dominance
c. Incomplete dominance
d. Recessive
20. The dominant inheritance pattern follows the F1 ratio
a. 3:1
b. 1:2:1
c. 1:1
d. 1:3
21. The incomplete dominant inheritance pattern follows the F1 ratio

a. 3:1
b. 1:2:1
c. 1:1
d. 1:3
22. The principle of independent assortment explains that
a. Alleles governing 2 different traits are linked
b. Alleles governing 2 different traits are inherited uniformly
c. Alleles governing 2 different traits separate independent of each other
during gametogenesis
d. Alleles governing 2 different traits are not expressed in F2 generation
23. Genotype not always produce the expected phenotype is termed
a. Dominance
b. Recessiveness
c. Penetrance
d. Incomplete penetrance
24. The number of offspring expressing the expected phenotype is termed
a. Dominance
b. Recessiveness
c. Penetrance
d. Incomplete penetrance
25. In the Mendelian inheritance, the dominant phenotype is expressed in the F1
generation when
a. One of the parent is homozygous

b. When both the parents are homozygous
c. When one of the parent is heterozygous
d. When both the parents are heterozygous
26. In the Mendelian inheritance, the dominant phenotype is expressed in the F1

generation when
a. One of the parent is homozygous

b. The F1 is heterozygous
c. When one of the parent is heterozygous
d. When both the parents are heterozygous
27. The cross to ascertain an individual with the dominant trait is
a. Monohybrid cross
b. Test cross
c. Reciprocal cross
d. Dihybrid cross
28. Incomplete dominance is observed in
a. Homozygotes
b. Heterozygotes
c. Recessiveness
d. Multiple alleles
29. In a monohybrid cross of Bb X Bb, the probability of obtaining the progeny
with phenotype bb is
a. 1/2
b. 1/4
c. 1/6
d. 1/8
30. In a monohybrid cross of bb X Bb, the probability of obtaining the progeny
with phenotype bb is
a. 1/2
b. 1/4
c. 1/6
d. 1/8
31. The F1 genotypic ratio in a monohybrid cross between 2 homozygous parents

showing dominant/recessive inheritance is
a. 1:1
b. 1:3
c. 1:3:1
d. 1:9:9:1
32. The F1 phenotypic ratio in a monohybrid cross between 2 homozygous
parents showing dominant/recessive inheritance is
a. 1:1
b. 1:3
c. 1:3:1
d. 1:9:9:1
33. The F1 phenotypic ratio in a monohybrid cross between 2 homozygous
parents showing incomplete dominance is
a. 1:1
b. 1:3
c. 1:2:1
d. 1:9:9:1
34. The F1 genotypic ratio in a monohybrid cross between 2 homozygous parents
showing incomplete dominance is
a. 1:1
b. 1:3
c. 1:2:1
d. 1:9:9:1
35. The F1 genotypic and phenotypic equal ratios are seen in

a. Dominance
b. Recessiveness
c. Homozygous condition
d. Incomplete dominance
36. When the homozygote and heterozygote exhibit the same phenotype, the
inheritance mode is
a. Dominance
b. Recessiveness
37. When the heterozygote exhibits an intermediary phenotype of that of the 2
different homozygous parental phenotypes, the inheritance mode is
a. Dominance
b. Recessiveness
38. When the heterozygote exhibits a phenotype of both the 2 different
homozygous parental phenotypes, the inheritance mode is
a. Dominance
b. Recessiveness
c. Co-dominance
39. The ratio of progeny phenotype are altered by
a. Multiple alleles
b. Dominant alleles
c. Recessive alleles
d. Lethal alleles
40. The allelic series refers to

a. Multiple alleles
b. Dominant alleles
c. Recessive alleles
d. Lethal alleles
41. The lethal alleles cause death at
a. Late developmental stages
b. Early developmental stages
c. Neonatal stages
d. Late onset stages
42. The influence of non allelic genes at different loci on a phenotype is termed
a. Lethal alleles
b. Multiple alleles
c. Gene interactions
d. Co-dominant interaction
43. Novel phenotypes are produced by
a. Lethal genes
b. Multiple alleles
c. Gene interactions
d. Co-dominant interactions
44. The effect of a gene masking the effect of another gene at a different locus
during gene interactions is termed
a. Lethal
b. Dominant
c. Suppressive
d. Epistasis
45. The gene whose effect is masked by epistasis is termed

a. Hyperstatic gene
b. Epistatic gene
c. Hypostatic gene
d. Antagonistic gene
46. In epistasis, the masking effect is brought about by
a. Hyperstatic gene
b. Epistatic gene
c. Hypostatic gene
d. Antagonistic gene
47. The dihybrid recessive epistatic genotypic ratio is
a. 9:3:3:1
b. 9:3:4
c. 12:3:1
d. 9:6:1
48. The dihybrid dominant epistatic genotypic ratio is
a. 9:3:3:1
b. 9:3:4
c. 12:3:1
d. 9:6:1
49. The dihybrid duplicate recessive epistatic genotypic ratio is
a. 9:3:3:1
b. 9:7
c. 2:3:1
d. 9:6:1
50. The dihybrid duplicate interaction genotypic ratio is

a. 9:3:3:1
b. 9:3:4
c. 12:3:1
d. 9:6:1
51. The dihybrid duplicate dominant epistatic genotypic ratio is
a. 15:1
b. 9:3:4
c. 12:3:1
d. 9:6:1
52. The ABO blood group in humans is determined by
a. Multiple alleles
b. Linked genes
c. Incomplete dominance
d. Epistatic genes
53. The expression of one gene being dependent on the presence of another gene
is refered to as
a. Epistasis
b. Gene interactions
c. Linked genes
d. Multiple genes
54. In the genetic maternal effect,
a. Offspring phenotype is determined by maternal genotype
b. Offspring genotype is determined by maternal phenotype
c. Offspring phenotype is determined by maternal phenotype
d. Offspring genotype is determined by maternal genotype
55. The phenomenon of differential gene expression depending on the inheritance

from the maternal or paternal genome is called
a. Epistasis
b. Gene interactions
c. Sex linked inheritance
d. Genomic imprinting
56. The phenomenon of a genetic trait gaining on expression or early onset of
expression through generations is called
a. Interaction
b. Multifactorial
c. Anticipation
d. Extension
57. The range of phenotypes as can be produced by the effect of environment is
called
a. Genomic imprinting
b. Norm of reaction
c. Probability of expression
d. Phenotypic anticipation
58. The phenotype produced by the environment as similar to the one produced by
the genotype is called
a. Epistatic
b. Hypostatic
c. Phenocopy
d. Polymorphism
59. Quantitative characteristics are also called

a. Continuous characteristics
b. Discontinuous characteristics
c. Dominant traits
d. Recessive traits
60. Characteristics that are determined by genes at many loci are termed
a. Continuous characteristics
b. Discontinuous characteristics
c. Polygenic characteristics
d. Multifactorial characteristics
61. One gene affecting multiple characteristics is termed
a. Phenocopy
b. Epigenetic
c. Pleotropy
d. Imprinting
Chapter 3. Nucleic Acids
1. Purine and Pyrimidine derivatives containing sugar linked to a nitrogen ring are
a. Nucleotides
b. Nucleosides
c. Amino acids
d. Nitrogenous bases
2. The sugar in the ribonucleosides is
a. D-ribose
b. 2-deoxy-D-ribose
c. Ribulose
d. D-ribulose
3. The sugar in the deoxyribonucleosides is

a. D-ribose
b. 2-deoxy-D-ribose
c. Ribulose
d. D-ribulose
4. The sugar link to Pyrimidine is always at
a. N-1
b. N-2
c. N-3
d. N-4
5. The sugar link to Pyrimidine is always at
a. N-3
b. N-5
c. N-7
d. N-9
6. The charge of free purine and Pyrimidine nucleosides at physiological pH is
a. Weakly negative
b. Strongly negative
c. Neutral
d. Positive
7. The charge of nucleotides at physiological pH is
a. Negative
b. Neutral
c. Uncharged
d. Positive
8. Successive nucleotides in nucleic acids are linked by

a. Phosphate bonds
b. Hydrogen bonds
c. Phosphodiester bonds
d. Double bonds
9. A short nucleic acid is known as
a. Nucleotide
b. Nucleoside
c. Oligonucleotide
d. Polynucleotide
10. A long nucleic acid is known as
a. Nucleotide
b. Nucleoside
c. Oligonucleotide
d. Polynucleotide
11. The nucleotide synthesis pathway that starts from the precursors is
a. Salvage pathway
b. de novo pathway
c. Replication
d. Splicing
12. The nucleotide synthesis pathway that recycles free bases and nucleosides is
a. Salvage pathway
b. de novo pathway
c. Replication
d. Splicing
13. The regularity in ratios of nucleotide bases in the nucleic acids is explained by
a. Mendel’s laws
b. Double strand nature
c. Chargaff’s rules
d. Triplet code
14. The relatively easy breaking and joining of the double stranded DNA is due to
a. Phosphodiester bonds
b. Hydrogen bonds
c. Antiparallel nature
d. Complementary nature
15. The Pyrimidines do not include
a. Cytosine
b. Thymine
c. Adenine
d. Urasil
16. The acidic nature of the DNA is due to the
a. Positively charged phosphate groups
b. Negatively charged phosphate groups
c. The purines
d. The Pyrimidines
17. The phosphate is bound to the nucleotide at
a. 2´ –carbon atom
b. 3´ –carbon atom
c. 4´ –carbon atom
d. 5´ –carbon atom
18. The number of DNA nucleotides are

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
19. The two strands of the DNA molecule are
a. Parallel and complementary
b. Antiparallel and complementary
c. Parallel and non-complementary
d. Antiparallel and non-complementary
20. The primary DNA structure is
a. Nucleotides
b. Globular
c. Phosphate sugars
d. Linear string of nucleotides
21. The secondary DNA structure is
a. String of nucleotides
b. Nucleosides
c. Antiparallel and complementary
d. The double helix
22. The distance between bases on DNA is
a. 0.43 nm
b. 0.34 nm
c. 0.33 nm
d. 0.44 nm
23. Each rotation in the DNA double helix is of

a. 4.3 nm
b. 3.4 nm
c. 3.3 nm
d. 4.4 nm
24. The diameter of the DNA double helix is
a. 1 nm
b. 2 nm
c. 2 nm
d. 4 nm
25. The double helical DNA structure as described by Watson and Crick is
a. D-DNA
b. Z-DNA
c. B-DNA
d. A-DNA
26. B-DNA is
a. Alpha helix
b. Beta helix
c. Gama helix
d. Delta helix
27. The % of water in A-DNA is
a. 75
b. 92
c. 65
d. 82
28. The % of water in B-DNA is

a. 75
b. 92
c. 65
d. 82
29. A-DNA is
a. Alpha helix
b. Beta helix
c. Gama helix
d. Delta helix
30. Z-DNA is
a. Alpha helix
b. Beta helix
c. Gama helix
d. Delta helix
31. Average number of base pairs per turn in A-DNA is
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 13
32. Average number of bases pairs per turn in B-DNA is
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 13
33. Average number of bases pairs per turn in Z-DNA is

a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 13
34. The degree of rotation per base pair in the A-DNA is
a. 32.7°
b. 36°
c. 30°
d. 37°
35. The degree of rotation per base pair in the B-DNA is
a. 32.7°
b. 36°-30°
c. 30°
d. 37°
36. Distance between adjacent bases in A-DNA is
a. 0.26 nm
b. 0.34 nm
c. 0.37 nm
d. 0.43 nm
37. Distance between adjacent bases in B-DNA is
a. 0.26 nm
b. 0.34 nm
c. 0.37 nm
d. 0.43 nm
38. Distance between adjacent bases in Z-DNA is

a. 0.26 nm
b. 0.34 nm
c. 0.37 nm
d. 0.43 nm
39. The diameter of the A-DNA is
a. 2.3 nm
b. 1.9 nm
c. 1.8 nm
d. 2.9 nm
a. 2.3 nm
b. 1.9 nm
c. 1.8 nm
d. 2.9 nm
a. 2.3 nm
b. 1.9 nm
c. 1.8 nm
d. 2.9 nm
42. The group I introns are located at
a. rRNA genes
b. Mitochondria and chloroplast genes
c. Encoding genes in the nucleus
d. tRNA genes
43. The group II introns are located at

a. rRNA genes
b. Encoding mitochondria and chloroplast genes
d. tRNA genes
44. The nuclear pre-mRNA introns are located at
a. rRNA genes
b. Mitochondria and chloroplast genes
d. tRNA genes
45. The splicing mechanism of Group I introns is
a. Self-splicing
b. Spliceosomal
c. Enzymatic
d. Catalytic
46. The splicing mechanism of Group II introns is
a. Self-splicing
b. Spliceosomal
c. Enzymatic
d. Catalytic
47. The splicing mechanism of nuclear pre-mRNA introns is
a. Self-splicing
b. Spliceosomal
c. Enzymatic
d. Catalytic
48. The splicing mechanism of tRNA introns is

a. Self-splicing
b. Spliceosomal
c. Enzymatic
d. Catalytic
49. Minor introns include
a. Group I introns
b. Group II introns
c. Twintrons
d. tRNA introns
50. Major introns include
a. Group III introns
b. Group I introns
c. Twintrons
d. Archeal introns
51. The induced dissociation of the two DNA strands is called
a. Annealing
b. Restriction
c. Digestion
d. Melting
52. Peak absorption of light by nucleic acids is at the wavelength
a. 260 nm
b. 540 nm
c. 320 nm
d. 640 nm
53. The renaturing of two separated DNA strands is called

a. Annealing
b. Restriction
c. Digestion
d. Melting
54. In vivo disruption of DNA double strands is performed by
a. Oxygenases
b. Hydrolases
c. Helicases
d. Transcriptases
55. A DNA molecule without super-coiling is called
a. Linier
b. Circular
c. Relaxed
d. Restricted
56. Two complementary sequences within a single DNA strand come together to
form
a. Base pairs
b. Helix
c. Stem-loop
d. Chromatin
57. The maximum absorption of light at 260 nm is by
a. Double stranded DNA
b. Single stranded DNA
c. Chromosomes
d. Supercoiled DNA
58. Phosphodiester bond formation is catalyzed by

a. DNA Polymerases
b. Hydrogenases
c. Transcriptases
d. Restriction enzymes
59. DNA polymerase is
a. A template-directed enzyme
b. Pro-enzyme
c. Cofactor
d. Apoenzyme
60. The template molecule for protein synthesis is
a. DNA
b. mRNA
c. rRNA
d. tRNA
61. One kilobase of double-stranded DNA has an approximate mass of
a. 330 kd
b. 440 kd
c. 660 kd
d. 770 kd
62. The type of RNA that is least abundant is
a. mRNA
b. tRNA
c. rRNA
d. Nuclear RNA
63. The type of RNA that is most abundant is

a. mRNA
b. tRNA
c. rRNA
d. Nuclear RNA
64. Small RNA (SnRNA) is a feature of
a. Only eukaryotic cells
b. Only prokaryotic cells
c. Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells
d. Only in cultures cells
65. The adapter molecule in protein synthesis is
a. DNA
b. mRNA
c. tRNA
d. rRNA
66. The start and stop codons for protein synthesis is present on
a. DNA
b. mRNA
c. tRNA
d. rRNA
67. The third strand in the triple-stranded DNA is bound to the DNA B form by
a. Hoogsteen bonds
b. Reversed Hoogsteen hydrogen bonds
c. Either Hoogsteen bonds or reversed Hoogsteen hydrogen bonds
d. Neither Hoogsteen bonds or reversed Hoogsteen hydrogen bonds
68. A DNA triplex is comprised of

a. One homopurine and two homopyrimidines
b. Two homopurine and one homopyrimidines
c. Three homopurines
d. Three homopyrimidines
69. The in vivo DNA triplex formation occurs if the target strands predominantly
contain
a. Guanine
b. Adenine
c. Guanine and adenine
d. Cytosine and thymine
70. DNA triplex formation requires
a. Low pH
b. High pH
c. Neutral pH
d. No pH dependence
71. DNA G-quadruplexes sequences predominantly contain
a. Guanine
b. Cytosine
c. Adenine
d. Thymine
72. DNA G-quadruplexes comprise of
a. One guanine tetrad
b. Two guanine tetrads only
c. Two or more guanine tetrads
d. No guanine tetrads
73. The cation that stabilizes G-quadruplex structure is

a. Calcium
b. Nitrogen
c. Hydrogen
d. Potassium
74. The nucleotide sequence that helps in the formation of telomeric quadruplexes is
a. GATTGG
b. TTGGAG
c. GGTTAG
d. GATAGA
Chapter 4. DNA Replication
1. DNA polymerases catalyze the formation of

a. Purines
b. Pyrimidines
c. Phosphodiester-bonds
d. Ribose sugars
2. DNA polymerase is a
a. Template directed enzyme
b. Lyase
c. Hydrolase
d. Proenzyme
3. The synthesis of RNA from DNA template is called
a. Replication
b. Transcription
c. Translation
d. Mutation
4. Transcription is catalyzed by
a. DNA polymerases
b. Reverse transcriptases
c. RNA polymerases
d. Ligases
5. The direction of DNA synthesis is
a. 5´ to 3´
b. 3´ to 5´
c. No particular direction
d. both directions
6. The divalent metal ion required for transcription is
a. Fe2+
b. Mg2+
c. Mb2+
d. Zn2+
7. The instructions for transcription to the RNA polymerase is provided by
a. mRNA
b. DNA template
c. DNA polymerase
d. Metal ions
8. The promoter sites for transcription are characterized by
a. Templates
b. Polymerases
c. Consensus sequence
d. Conserved sequences
9. A consensus sequence of eukaryotic promoter sites is

a. TATA box
b. Enhancer sequences
c. Pribnow box
d. -35 region
10. A consensus sequence of eukaryotic promoter sites is
a. TATA box
b. Enhancer sequences
c. Pribnow box
d. Purines
11. The eukaryotic promotor site does not include
a. TATA Box
b. CAAT box
c. Pribnow box
d. TATAAA sequence
12. The enzymes that move melted DNA regions along the double helix for
replication are
a. Polymerases
b. Ligases
c. Helicases
d. Lyases
13. During DNA replication, the enzymes that introduce super-coiling are
a. Helicases
b. Polymerases
c. Dehydrogenases
d. Topoisomerases
14. The estimated error rate during DNA replication is

a. 1 per 1010 nucleotides
b. 1 per 105 nucleotides
c. 1 per 103 nucleotides
d. 1 per 102 nucleotides
15. The estimated speed of DNA replication in E. coli is
a. 20000 base incorporation per second
b. 20 base incorporation per second
c. 200 base incorporation per second
d. 2000 base incorporation per second
16. DNA polymerases require
a. Only a template
b. Only a primer
c. Both template and primer
d. Neither template nor primer
17. RNA polymerases do require
a. A template
b. A primer
c. Both template and primer
d. Neither template nor primer
18. DNA polymerases require a primer with
a. a free 3´-hydroxyl group
b. a free 5´-hydroxyl group
c. a bound 3´-hydroxyl group
d. a bound 3´-hydroxyl group
19. The proofreading and correcting the polynucleotide product is performed by

a. Endonucleases
b. Exonucleases
c. Polymerases
d. Topoisomerases
20. One of the polymerase of E. coli whose structure was first identified was
a. Endonucleases
b. Exonucleases
c. Klenow fragment
d. Topoisomerases
21. The specificity of DNA replication is dictated by
a. Covalent linkages between bases
b. Hydrogen bonding between bases
c. Esterification between bases
d. Methylation between bases
22. During initiation of replication, the ‘ruler’ interactions that measure proper
spacing between base pairs occurs at
a. Major groove
b. Minor groove
c. Phosphate sugars
d. Nucleotides
23. Eukaryotic DNA strand separation is performed by
a. Polymerases
b. Exonucleases
c. Endonucleases
d. Helicases
24. The number of strongly conserved sequences in helicases is

a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
25. The strongly conserved regions of helicases lie along the interface between
a. A1 and B1domains
b. A1 and A2 domains
c. B1 and B2 domains
d. A2 and B2 domains
26. Super-coiling during DNA replication helps in
a. Strand adhesion
b. Strand cohesion
c. Strand separation
d. Strand relaxation
27. The degree of super coiling during DNA replication is determined by
a. Amount of Helicases
b. The linking number of DNA
c. The number of base pairs
d. The distance between strands
28. The measure of DNA coiling on the axis of the double helix is
a. Writhe (Wr)
b. Twist (tw)
c. Linkage number (Lk)
d. Base pairs (bp)
29. The measure of helical winding of DNA strands around each other is
a. Writhe (Wr)
b. Twist (tw)
c. Linkage number (Lk)
d. Base pairs (bp)
30. A right-handed DNA super-coiling during replication is given
a. A positive number
b. A negative number
c. A twist number
d. A writhe number
31. A left-handed DNA super-coiling during replication is given
a. A positive number
b. A negative number
c. A twist number
d. A writhe number
32. The enzymes that play an important role in DNA replication, transcription and
recombination are
a. Topoisomerase I
b. Topoisomerase II
c. Both Topoisomerase I and Topoisomerase II
d. Neither Topoisomerase I and Topoisomerase II
33. The relaxation of supercoiled DNA is catalyzed by
a. Type I topoisomerases
b. Type II topoisomerases
c. Both type I and II topoisomerases
d. Neither type I nor II topoisomerases
34. The process of ATP hydrolysis to add negative supercoils during DNA
replication is catalyzed by
35. The use of key tyrosine residues to form covalent links to the polypeptide
backbone that is transiently broken is catalyzed by
36. The diameter of the central cavity of human type I topoisomerase that is of
correct size to fit the DNA double strand is
a. 5A°
b. 10A°
c. 15A°
d. 20A°
37. The number of domains in the human type I topoisomerase is
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1
38. The rate of DNA replication in the specific start sites of the two strands is
a. Rapid in the two strands
b. Rapid in one strand
c. No particular association in the rates
d. is irregular
39. During the DNA replication initiation, the trapping of single-stranded regions
by single-stranded binding protein (SSB) results in the formation of
a. Replication fork
b. Prepriming complex
c. OriC
d. Duplex
40. The enzyme that complexes with prepriming complex during DNA replication
to form primosome is
a. Primase
b. Type I DNA polymerase
c. Type II DNA polymerase
d. Helicase
41. During DNA replication the process is
a. Continuous in both strands
b. Fragmented in both strands
c. Continuous in one strand and fragmented in the other
d. No particular pattern
42. A significant portion of newly synthesized DNA exists as
a. Continuous strand
b. Small fragments
c. Large linier structures
d. Free nucleotides
43. The small newly synthesized DNA fragments are called
a. Microfilaments
b. Okazaki fragments
c. Replication fork
d. Primers
44. During DNA replication, the strand that is synthesized from the Okazaki
fragments is termed
a. Lagging strand
b. Leading strand
c. Template
d. Amplified
45. During DNA replication, the strand that is synthesized continuously, without
fragments is termed
a. Lagging strand
b. Leading strand
c. Template
d. Amplified
46. Breaks in the double stranded DNA molecules are sealed by
a. DNA Ligases
b. Type I polymerases
c. Helicases
d. Lyases
47. In eukaryotes, the DNA replication unit is called
a. Amplicon
b. Replicon
c. Fork
d. OriC
48. In humans, the number of DNA origins of replication are
a. 300
b. 3,000
c. 30,000
d. 300,000
49. In eukaryotes, the multiple origins of DNA replication are located between
a. 30 and 300 kbp
b. 3 and 30 kbp
c. 30 and 300 kbp
d. 300 and 3,000 kbp
50. The DNA initiator polymerase
a. DNA polymerase α
b. DNA polymerase β
c. DNA polymerase γ
d. DNA polymerase δ
51. The function that DNA polymerase α does not have is
a. Primase activity
b. Synthesis of RNA primers
c. DNA polymerase activity
d. Exonuclease activity
52. Telomerases carry their own
a. DNA template
b. RNA template
c. Okazaki fragments
d. Origin of replications
53. Telomerases have a component resembling
a. DNA templates
b. Reverse transcriptase
c. Endonuclease
d. Helicase
54. The length of E. coli OriC is

a. 542 bp
b. 524 bp
c. 245 bp
d. 452 bp
55. The DNA Polymerase III is
a. Apoenzyme
b. Cofactor
c. Holoenzyme
d. Abzyme
56. The strand sliding clamp for DNA replication is provided by
a. The dimeric β2 subunit of DNA polymerase III
b. The dimeric α2 subunit of DNA polymerase I
c. The dimeric δ2 subunit of DNA polymerase II
d. The dimeric γ2 subunit of DNA polymerase III
Chapter 5. RNA Transcription
1. The steps in the synthesis of RNA primary transcript does not include
a. Initiation
b. Progression
c. Elongation
d. Termination
2. The types of RNA does not include
a. mtRNA
b. snRNA
c. mRNA
d. tRNA
3. The RNA type that is involved in mRNA splicing is

a. mRNA
b. snRNA
c. rRNA
d. tRNA
4. The one in the following that is not required for RNA synthesis is
a. Ribonucleotides
b. Urasil
c. Small portion of the genome
d. Primer
5. One difference between DNA and RNA synthesis is the lack of
a. Nucleotides
b. Polymerases
c. Proofreading
d. Template
6. Ribosomal RNA types (rRNA) does not include
a. 28S
b. 18S
c. 5S
d. 15S
7. rRNA percentage composition of the total RNA content in eukaryotes is
a. 80%
b. 2-5%
c. ~15%
d. ~1%
8. mRNA percentage composition of the total RNA content in eukaryotes is

a. 80%
b. 2-5%
c. ~15%
d. ~1%
9. tRNA percentage composition of the total RNA content in eukaryotes is
a. 80%
b. 2-5%
c. ~15%
d. ~1%
10. snRNA percentage composition of the total RNA content in eukaryotes is
a. 80%
b. 2-5%
c. ~15%
d. ~1%
11. The major product of RNA Polymerase I is
a. rRNA
b. mRNA
c. tRNA and 5S rRNA
d. snRNA
12. The major product of RNA Polymerase II is
a. rRNA
b. mRNA
c. tRNA and 5S rRNA
d. snRNA
13. The major product of RNA Polymerase III is

a. rRNA
b. mRNA
c. tRNA and 5S rRNA
d. snRNA
14. The consensus sequence of the transcription control element TATA box is
a. TATAAA
b. TATATA
c. GGGCGG
d. TGAG
15. The consensus sequence of the transcription control element CAAT box is
a. TATAAA
b. CCAATC
c. GGGCGG
d. TGAG
16. The consensus sequence of the transcription control element GC box is
a. TATAAA
b. CCAATC
c. GGGCGG
d. ATGCAAAT
17. The consensus sequence of the transcription control element Ig octamer is
a. TATAAA
b. TATATA
c. GGGCGG
d. ATGCAAAT
18. The consensus sequence of the transcription control element AP1 is

a. TATAAA
b. TATATA
c. GGGCGG
d. TGAG
19. The consensus sequence of the transcription control element Serum response
is
a. TATAAA
b. GATGCCCATA
c. GGGCGG
d. CAACTGAC
20. The consensus sequence of the transcription control element Heat shock is
a. (NGAAN)3
b. TATATA
c. GGGCGG
d. TGAG
21. The transcription factor that binds to the transcription control element TATA box is
a. TBP
b. Sp1*
c. NF1*
d. HSF
22. The transcription factor that binds to the transcription control element CAAT box is
a. Myo D
b. NF-Y*
c. NF1*
d. SRF
23. The transcription factor that binds to the transcription control element GC box
is
a. TBP
b. Sp1*
c. NF1*
d. HSF
24. The transcription factor that binds to the transcription control element Ig octamer is
a. HSF
b. Sp1*
c. Jun
d. Oct1,2,4,6*
25. The transcription factor that binds to the transcription control element AP 1 is
a. Jun, FOS, ATF*
b. Oct1,2,4,6*
c. NF1*
d. c/EBP*, NF-Y*
26. The transcription factor that binds to the transcription control element serum response is
a. TBP
b. Myo D
c. SRF
d. HSF
27. The transcription factor that binds to the transcription control element heat
shock is
a. TBP
b. Myo D
c. SRF
d. HSF
28. The transcription factor classes in class II genes do not include

a. Basal components
b. Coactivators
c. Activators
d. Initiators
29. In mammalian cells, the % of nuclear RNA that does not contribute to the
cytoplasmic RNA is
a. 50-75%
b. 25-50%
c. 10%
d. 5%
30. During transcription, the mRNA is modified at
a. 5´ end
b. 3´ end
c. Both 5´ and 3´ ends
d. Neither 5´ nor 3´ ends
31. The coding information contained in the mRNA can be altered by
a. Splicing
b. Spliceosome formation
c. Nicks
d. RNA editing
32. The spliceosome does not include
a. Primary transcript
b. Nuclear RNAs
c. Proteins
d. Histones
33. The eukaryotic rRNA genes are located at

a. Nucleoli
b. Nucleus
c. Mitochondria
d. Both nucleus and mitochondria
34. The RNA type that is extensively processed and modified is
a. mRNA
b. tRNA
c. rRNA
d. snRNA
35. Catalytic RNA are called
a. Abzymes
b. Zymogens
c. Holoenzymes
d. Ribozymes
36. The transcription unit is
a. A stretch of DNA
b. A stretch of mRNA
c. A stretch of tRNA
d. A stretch of rRNA
37. The substrate for RNA transcription is
a. DNTPs
b. rNTPs
c. Purines
d. Pyrimidines
38. The four subunits that make up the core enzyme or RNA transcription do not
include
a. Two units of Alpha subunits

b. A single copy of Beta subunit
c. A single copy of Beta prime
d. A single unit of Alpha subunit
39. The binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter is controlled by
a. Sigma factor
b. Alpha factor
c. Delta factor
d. Beta factor
40. The eukaryotic RNA polymerase that transcribes large rRNAs is
a. RNA polymerase I
b. RNA polymerase II
c. RNA polymerase III
d. RNA polymerase IV
41. The eukaryotic RNA polymerase that transcribes Pre-mRNAs is
a. RNA polymerase I
42. The eukaryotic RNA polymerase that transcribes snoRNAs is
a. RNA polymerase I
43. The eukaryotic RNA polymerase that transcribes tRNAs is

a. RNA polymerase I
44. The eukaryotic RNA polymerase that transcribes small rRNAs is
a. RNA polymerase I
45. The accessory proteins that form basal transcription apparatus along with
RNA polymerase comprise of
a. General transcription factors

b. TATA box
c. Serum Factors
d. Heat shock factors
46. Enhancers are the DNA sequences that increase the rate of transcription of
a. Closely placed genes
b. Same genes
c. Distant genes
d. Linked genes
Chapter 6. Central Dogma – Genetic Code/Translation
1. The number of codons in the genetic code is

a. 64
b. 46
c. 84
d. 48
2. The initiation codon is
a. UAA
b. UAG
c. AUG
d. UGA
3. The number of initiation codons in the genetic code is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
4. The number of termination codons in the genetic code is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
5. The termination codons do not include
a. AUG
b. UAA
c. UAG
d. UGA
6. The codons that code for an aminoacid are known as

a. Degenerate
b. Synonymous
c. Sense codons
d. Antisense codons
7. The number of sense codons in the genetic code is
a. 64
b. 46
c. 61
d. 16
8. As the genetic code contains more codons than the number of aminoacids, it is
referred to as
a. Degenerate
b. Synonymous
c. Sense codons
d. Antisense codons
9. The amino acid that is coded only by a single triplet code include
a. Arginine
b. Alanine
c. Tryptophan
d. Serine
10. The amino acid that is coded only by a single triplet code include
a. Phenylalanine
b. Alanine
c. Leucine
d. Methionine
11. The number of aminoacids that are coded by only a single triplet code is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
12. Triplet codes that code for the same aminoacid are called
a. Analogous
b. Homologous
c. Synonymous
d. Degenerate
13. The different tRNAs that accept the same aminoacid, but have different
anticodons are called
a. Synonymous
b. Isoaccepting tRNAs
c. Homologous
d. Analogous
14. The wobble hypothesis pertains to
a. The first base in the codon
b. The second base in the codon
c. The third base in the codon
d. The first two bases in the codon
15. The genetic code in most life forms is
a. Nonoverlapping
b. Overlapping
c. Synonymous
d. Isoaccepting
16. The stop codon UGA in eukaryotes is altered in Mycoplasma capricolum and
codes for
a. Tryptophan
b. Methionine
c. Start
d. Argenine
17. An example of an exception to the universal genetic code in the human
mitochondrial DNA is
a. UGA
b. CGG
c. UGG
d. UAA
18. Protein synthesis occurs at
a. RNA
b. Ribosomes
c. Mitochondria
19. For translation, a ribosome attaches to the mRNA strand at
a. 3´ end
b. 5´ end
c. both 3´ and 5´ ends
d. Neither 3´ nor 5´ end
20. Polypeptide chain synthesis begins at the
a. Amino end
b. Carboxyl end
c. Simultaneously from both ends
d. From the centre, elongating in both directions
21. The specificity of aminoacids binding to tRNA is catalyzed by

a. RNA polymerases
b. DNA dependent polymerases
c. Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases
d. Ligases
22. The attachment of a tRNA to its appropriate aminoacid is termed
a. tRNA Priming
b. tRNA charging
c. tRNA initiation
d. tRNA activation
23. The ribosomal subunits are prevented from binding to each other during
translation initiation by
a. Initiation factor 1
b. Initiation factor 2
c. Initiation factor 3
d. Initiation factor 4
24. The initiator tRNA (with its aminoacid) attachment to the initiation codon is done by
25. The factor that enhances the dissociation of the two ribosomal subunits during
translation is
26. The complex formed by small ribosomal subunit, mRNA, initiator tRNA with
its aminoacid, GTP and Initiation factors 3,2 and 1 during translation is called
a. Initiation complex
b. Translation complex
c. 30S initiation complex
d. 70S initiation complex
27. The complex formed by association of the 30S initiation complex and the
larger ribosomal subunit is called
a. Initiation complex
b. Translation complex
c. 30S initiation complex
d. 70S initiation complex
28. The consensus sequence that identifies the start codon is called
a. Triplet sequence
b. ATA box
c. CAAT box
d. Kozak sequence
29. The number of sites on the ribosome that can be occupied by tRNAs is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
30. The site at which initiator tRNA associates with ribosome for translation is
a. Peptidyl site
b. Aminoacyl site
c. Exit site
d. Binding site
31. All RNAs other than the tRNAs associate with the ribosomes for translation at
a. Peptidyl site
b. Aminoacyl site
c. Exit site
d. Binding site
32. The elongation of the polypeptide chain during translation is mediated by the
factors
a. Both EF-Tu and EF-Ts

b. Only EF-Tu
c. Only EF-Ts
d. Neither EF-Tu and EF-Ts
33. Peptide formation in ribosomes is catalyzed by
a. Peptidyl hydrolase
b. Peptidyl transferase
c. Peptidyl oxygenase
d. Peptidyl hydroxylase
34. The movement of ribosome down the mRNA during translation is called
a. Transcription
b. Translation
c. Translocation
d. Transamination
35. Anchorage of ribosome over the codon is mediated by the factor
a. EF-G
b. EF-H
c. EF-A
d. EF-B
36. The termination of protein synthesis is facilitated by

a. Elongation factors
b. Release factors
c. Ribosomal factors
d. Cleaving factors
37. An mRNA with several ribosomes attached is called
a. Rough mRNA
b. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
c. Polysome
d. Polyribosome
38. Release factors do not include
a. RF1
b. RF2
c. RF3
d. RF4
39. Folding of proteins require
a. Covalant binding
b. Scaffold molecules
c. Molecular chaperones
d. Peptidases
40. The sequences of 15 to 30 aminoacids that are removed from the amino end of
newly synthesized protein are called
a. Signal sequences
b. Signalling sequences
c. Aminated sequences
d. Terminator sequences
Chapter 7. DNA Condensation and Structural Organization
1. The result of structural strain on the DNA helix results in

a. Supercoiling
b. Condensation
c. Relaxation
d. Melting
2. The enzymes that ease DNA supercoiling are
a. Helicases
b. Ligases
c. Topoisomerases
d. Lyases
3. The association of DNA with proteins forms
a. Chromosomes
b. Chromatin
c. Chromatids
d. Histones
4. The type of chromatin that undergoes normal condensation and deconden-
sation process in the cell cycle is
a. Euchromatin
b. Heterochromatin
c. Centromeres
d. Telomeres
5. The type of chromatin that is highly condensation process through the cell cycle is
a. Euchromatin
b. Heterochromatin
c. Centromeres
d. Telomeres
6. The most abundant proteins in the chromatin are

a. Polypeptides
b. Glycoproteins
c. Histones
d. Sialoglycoproteins
7. The molecular weight of the histone protein H1 is
a. 21,130
b. 11,236
c. 13,774
d. 13,960
8. The molecular weight of the histone protein H2A is
a. 21,130
b. 11,236
c. 13,774
d. 13,960
9. The molecular weight of the histone protein H2B is
a. 21,130
b. 11,236
c. 13,774
d. 13,960
a. 21,130
b. 15,273
c. 13,774
d. 13,960

a. 21,130
b. 11,236
c. 13,774
d. 13,960
12. The simplest level of chromatin structure is
a. Heterochromatin
b. Chromatid
c. Euchromatin
d. Nucleosome
13. The number of histone octamer proteins in the nucleosome is
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
14. The length of DNA in direct contact with the histone octamer is
a. 145-147 bp
b. 150-175 bp
c. 175-200 bp
d. 200-250bp
15. The core particle and associated H1 histone is called
a. Chromatin
b. Euchromatin
c. Heterochromatin
d. Chromatosome
16. The length of DNA attached to the H1 protein is

a. 20-22 bp
b. 18-20 bp
c. 16-18 bp
d. 14-16bp
17. The length of DNA associated with chromatosome is
a. ~22 bp
b. ~761 bp
c. ~167 bp
d. ~617 bp
18. Chromatosomes are separated by
a. Introns
b. Exons
c. Linker DNA
d. Junk DNA
19. The diameter of DNA double helix is
a. 2 nm
b. 11 nm
c. 30 nm
d. 300 nm
20. The diameter of chromatin is
a. 2 nm
b. 11 nm
c. 30 nm
d. 300 nm
21. The diameter of packed nucleosomes is

a. 2 nm
b. 11 nm
c. 30 nm
d. 300 nm
22. The diameter of DNA nucleosome on the chromosome scaffold is
a. 2 nm
b. 11 nm
c. 30 nm
d. 300 nm
23. The diameter of condensed scaffold-associated chromatin is
a. 700 nm
b. 11 nm
c. 30 nm
d. 300 nm
24. Maximum condensation of the DNA occurs in the cell cycle stage
a. Mitosis
b. G1
c. S
d. G2
25. Minimum condensation of the DNA occurs in the cell cycle stage
a. Mitosis
b. G1
c. S
d. G2
26. Induction of premature chromosome condensation is known as

a. Prophasing
b. Interphasing
c. Culture
d. Denucleating
27. The morphology of G1 stage DNA is
a. Pulvarized
b. Two fibred
c. Chromatin fiber
d. Chromosome
28. The morphology of S stage DNA is
a. Pulvarized
b. Two fibred
c. Chromatin fiber
d. Chromosome
29. The morphology of G2 stage DNA is
a. Pulvarized
b. Two fiberd
c. Chromatin fiber
d. Chromosome
30. The higher order of DNA compaction during the mitosis is by the family of
proteins known as
a. Histones
b. Non-histones
c. Enzymes
d. Structural Maintanance of Chromosome (SMC) proteins
31. Structural Maintanance of Chromosome (SMC) proteins include

a. Histones
b. Both condensins and cohesins
c. Only condensins
d. Only cohesins
32. Chromosome shaping during cell division is controlled by
a. Condensins
b. Topoisomerases
c. Helicases
d. Nucleases
33. Condensin I predominantly associates with chromosomes during
a. Initial stages of mitosis
b. Late stages of mitosis
c. G1 stage
d. G2 stage
34. Condensin I predominantly associates with chromosomes during
a. Initial stages of mitosis
b. Initial stages of cell cycle
c. G1 stage
d. G2 stage
35. Both, Condensin I and Condensin II occur
a. Throughout the cell cycle
b. Only in the G1 stage
c. Only in the G2 stage
d. Only in the M stage
36. The core structure of condensins is formed by

a. SMC1/SMC2
b. SMC2/SMC3
c. SMC2/SMC4
d. SMC1/SMC4
37. Condensin attaches to chromosomes at
a. Prophase
b. Prometaphase
c. Metaphase
d. Anaphase
38. The group of SMCs that aid in joining the sister chromatids together are
a. Condensins
b. Cohesins
c. SMC2
d. SMC4
39. The cohesins are associated with chromosomes
a. Always
b. During G1 stage only
c. During S stage only
d. During G2 stage only
40. The cohesin levels peak during
a. Prophase
b. Prometaphase
c. Metaphase
d. Anaphase
41. The cohesin levels are the minimum during

a. Prophase
b. Prometaphase
c. Metaphase
d. Anaphase
42. Premature chromosome condensation can be induced by the chemical
a. Calyculin A
b. Trypsin
c. Colchicine
d. Bleomycin
43. The inhibitor protein for Cyclin A is
a. RB1
b. HDAC1
c. P53
d. P21
44. The inhibitor protein for Cyclin B1 is
a. RB1
b. HDAC1
c. P53
d. P21
45. The inhibitor protein for Cyclin D1 is
a. RB1
b. HDAC1
c. P53
d. P21
46. The inhibitor protein for Cyclin D3 is

a. RB1
b. HDAC1
c. P53
d. P21
47. The inhibitor protein for Cyclin E is
a. RB1
b. P27
c. P53
d. P21
48. The inhibitor protein for CDK1/CDC2 is
a. P15
b. P57
c. P53
d. P21
49. The inhibitor protein for CDK4 is
a. P15
b. P21
c. P53
d. P57
50. The inhibitor proteins for CDK6 is
a. P15
b. P16, P19
c. P53
d. P57
51. The inhibitor protein for CDC25A is

a. P15
b. P16
c. P18
d. P19
Chapter 8. Prokaryotic Genetics
1. The bacterial non-chromosomal circular DNA is

a. Osmid
b. Plasmid
c. Operon
d. Cosmid
2. Bacterial plasmids contain
a. Essential genes
b. Nonessential genes
c. Metabolic genes
d. Structural genes
3. The bacterial plasmid genes do not contribute to
a. Antibiotic resistance
b. Gene transfer
c. General metabolism
d. Mating
4. The origin of replication in bacterial plasmid is
a. oriH
b. oriB
c. oriII
d. oriV
5. Plasmids have
a. No replication sites
b. Multiple replication origins
c. Single replication origins
d. Two replication origins
6. Plasmid replication occurs as
a. Unidirectional only
b. Bidirectional only
c. No specific direction
d. Both unidirectional and bidirectional
7. The plasmids that are capable of free replication or integration into the
bacterial genome are called
a. Polysomes
b. Episomes
c. Factors
d. Nucleoids
8. An example of an episome is
a. A factor
b. C factor
c. F factor
d. D factor
9. The bacterial genetic exchange mechanisms does not include
a. Translocation
b. Conjugation
c. Transformation
d. Transduction
10. The direct transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another is
a. Translocation
b. Conjugation
c. Transformation
d. Transduction
11. Bacterial taking up of DNA from the surrounding medium is by
a. Translocation
b. Conjugation
c. Transformation
d. Transduction
12. Bacteriophages help in
a. Translocation
b. Conjugation
c. Transformation
d. Transduction
13. Bacterial antibiotic resistance genes is usually transferred by
a. Translocation
b. Conjugation
c. Transformation
d. Transduction
14. Bacterial antibiotic resistance is usually conferred by the
a. F factor
b. R plasmids
c. D plasmids
d. A plasmids
15. Bacteria that take up DNA by transformation are known as

a. Competent
b. Activated
c. Potentiated
d. Resistant
16. The bacterial genes of unknown functions are known as
a. Exons
b. Introns
c. Junk genes
d. Orphan genes
17. The retroviral genomes do not include
a. gag genes
b. pol genes
c. env genes
d. tra genes
18. The genes that encode for viral plasmid proteins are contained in
a. gag genes
b. pol genes
c. env genes
d. tra genes
19. The genes that encode for viral reverse transcriptase are contained in
a. gag genes
b. pol genes
c. env genes
d. tra genes
20. The genes that encode for viral envelop glycoproteins are contained in
a. gag genes
b. pol genes
c. env genes
d. tra genes
21. The number of RNA polymerase types that bacteria have is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
22. The binding of the bacterial RNA polymerase to the promoter is controlled by
a. F factor
b. R factor
c. Sigma factor
d. Beta factor
23. The gene regulatory proteins of prokaryotes are present in
a. Caspids
b. Plasmids
c. Operons
d. Transforming factors
24. The Helix-turn-Helix gene regulatory motif is present in
a. Bacteria
b. Virus
c. Bacteriophages
d. Eukaryotes
25. The spliceosome is formed at

a. DNA Exons
b. DNA introns
c. mRNA
d. tRNA
26. Bacterial conjugation is dependent on the presence of
a. Transcription factor
b. Nucleases
c. Fertility factor
d. Polymerases
27. Bacterial conjugation occurs between
a. Two F+ cells
b. Two F- cells
c. F+ and F- cells
d. F+ and F+ cells
28. The length of the E. coli DNA molecule is approximately
a. 1mm
b. 2mm
c. 3mm
d. 4mm
Chapter 9. Regulation of Gene Expression
1. Gene regulation can occur at

a. only the transcription level
b. only at the translation level
c. only at the gene structure level
d. at all levels of genetic information flow
2. The genes whose products interact with other sequences and affect
transcription or translation are known as
a. Introns
b. Exons
c. Regulatory genes
d. Structural genes
3. Usually, the products of regulatory genes are
a. rRNA
b. siRNA
c. DNA binding proteins
d. Enzymes
4. The DNA sequences that regulate gene expression by physical linking are
known as
a. Structural genes
b. Regulatory elements
c. Interfering genes
d. transcriptional elements
5. Most gene expression regulation occurs by
a. Proteins binding to DNA
b. Proteins binding to RNA
c. DNA supercoiling
d. Mutations
6. A common bacterial DNA binding regulatory protein motif is
a. Zinc-finger
b. Helix-turn-helix
c. Leucine zipper
d. Helix-loop-helix
7. The helix-turn-helix has

a. 2 alpha helices
b. 4 alpha helices
c. Leucine helices
d. 3 alpha helices
8. The helix-turn-helix DNA binding motif binds to the DNA at
a. Minor groove
b. Major groove
c. Two adjacent grooves
d. DNA backbone
9. The zinc-finger DNA binding motif binds to the DNA at
a. Minor groove
b. Major groove
d. DNA backbone
10. The steroid receptor DNA binding motif binds to the DNA at
a. Minor groove
b. Major groove alone
d. DNA backbone and the major groove
11. The leucine-zipper DNA binding motif binds to the DNA at
a. Minor groove
b. Major groove
c. Two adjacent major grooves
d. DNA backbone
12. The helix-loop-helix DNA binding motif binds to the DNA at

a. Minor groove
b. Major groove
d. DNA backbone
13. The homeodomain DNA binding motif binds to the DNA at
a. Minor groove
b. Major groove
d. DNA backbone
14. The zinc-finger motif consists of
a. 2 alpha helices
b. 4 alpha helices
c. Leucine helices
d. Amino acid loops
15. The steroid receptor motif consists of
a. 2 alpha helices and 4 cysteine residues
b. 4 alpha helices and 2 cysteine residues
c. Leucine helices
d. 3 alpha helices
16. The leucine-zipper motif consists of
a. 2 alpha helices
b. 4 alpha helices
c. 2 leucine residues
d. 4 leucine residues
17. The helix-loop-helix motif consists of

a. 2 alpha helices
b. 4 alpha helices
c. 2 leucine residues
d. 4 leucine residues
18. The homeodomain motif consists of
a. 1 alpha helix
b. 2 alpha helices
c. 3 alpha helices
d. 4 alpha helices
19. The eukaryotic transcription factors contain
a. Leucine-zipper DNA binding motif
b. Steroid receptor DNA binding motif
c. Helix-loop-helix DNA binding motif
d. Helix-turn-helix DNA binding motif
20. The eukaryotic regulatory proteins contain
a. Leucine-zipper DNA binding motif
b. Homeodomain DNA binding motif
c. Helix-loop-helix DNA binding motif
d. Helix-turn-helix DNA binding motif
21. A group of bacterial structural genes that are transcribed together are known as
a. Intron
b. Exon
c. Plasmid
d. Operon
22. A bacterial regulatory protein binds to the DNA region known as

a. ‘start’ region
b. Operator
c. Suppressor
d. promoter
23. In the inducible operons, transcription should normally be
a. turned on
b. turned off
c. not altered
d. either turned on or off
24. In the inducible operons, transcription should normally be
a. turned on
b. turned off
c. not altered
d. either turned on or off
25. In the negative inducible bacterial gene regulation, the protein
a. Inhibits transcription
b. Stimulates transcription
c. Has a neutral effect
d. Can both inhibit and stimulate transcription
26. In the negative repressible bacterial gene regulation, the protein
27. In the positive inducible bacterial gene regulation, the protein

28. In the positive repressible bacterial gene regulation, the protein
29. The regulatory RNAs are mostly
a. mRNA
b. rRNA
c. antisense RNA
d. tRNA
30. The transcriptional control of gene regulation functions to
a. Control the time of gene expression
b. Controls the processing of the primary transcript
c. Controls the splicing of the primary transcript
d. Controls the transport of RNA to the cytoplasm
31. The proteins that regulate gene control usually bind to the DNA at
a. Minor groove
b. Major groove
c. Both major and minor groove
d. The backbone
32. The binding of the homeodomain motif to the DNA major groove occurs by
a. The first alpha helix
b. The second alpha helix
c. The third alpha helix
d. All three alpha helices
33. The number of alpha helices in a helix-turn-helix DNA motif is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
34. The number of alpha helices in a steroid receptor binding motif is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
35. The number of alpha helices in a helix-loop-helix DNA motif is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
36. The number of alpha helices in a homeodomain motif is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
37. The consensus sequence of the heat-shock element is

a. TGACTCA
b. CCATATTAGG
c. CNNGAANNTCCNNG
d. TGGTACAAATGTTCT
38. The consensus sequence of the serum response element is
a. TGACTCA
b. CCATATTAGG
c. CNNGAANNTCCNNG
d. TGGTACAAATGTTCT
39. The consensus sequence of the phorbol ester response element is
a. TGACTCA
b. CCATATTAGG
c. CNNGAANNTCCNNG
d. TGGTACAAATGTTCT
40. The consensus sequence of the glucocorticoid response element is
a. TGACTCA
b. CCATATTAGG
c. CNNGAANNTCCNNG
d. TGGTACAAATGTTCT
41. The number of domains present in the SR proteins that regulate splicing is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
42. RNA silencing is also known as

a. Translational gene regulation
b. Transcriptional gene regulation
c. RNA interference
d. siRNA interference
43. The typical number of nucleotides in siRNAs is
a. 21-25
b. 15-20
c. 30-40
d. 5-10
Chapter 10. Mutations and DNA Repair Mechanisms

1. Mutations are
a. Heritable changes
b. Nonheritable changes
c. Beneficial alterations
d. Harmful alterations
2. The basic gene mutation type does not include
a. Base substitutions
b. Insertions
c. Deletions
d. Translocations
3. The type of gene mutation that results in alteration in a single nucleotide in the
DNA sequence is called
a. Insertion
b. Deletion
c. Base substitution
d. Duplication
4. In the transition type base substitution

a. Purine is replaced by another purine
b. Purine is replaced by a pyrimidine
c. Pyrimidine is replaced by a purine
d. No particular pattern is observed
5. In the transition type base substitution
a. Pyrimidine is replaced by purine
b. Purine is replaced by a pyrimidine
c. Pyrimidine is replaced by another pyrimidine
6. In the transversion type base substitution
a. Purine is replaced by another purine
b. Pyrimidine is replaced by another pyrimidine
c. Pyrimidine is replaced by a purine
7. In the transversion type base substitution
a. Purine is replaced by pyrimidine
b. Pyrimidine is replaced by another Pyrimidine
c. Purine is replaced by another purine
8. Frameshift mutations occur due to
a. Base substitutions
b. Only insertions
c. Only deletions
d. Insertions and Deletions
9. The expanding trinucleotide repeats of the sequence CAG is implicated in
a. Spinal and bulbular muscular atrophy
b. Jacobsen syndrome
c. Friedreich ataxia
d. Fragile-X syndrome
10. The expanding trinucleotide repeats of the sequence CGG is implicated in
a. Spinal and bulbular muscular atrophy
d. Myotonic dystrophy
11. The expanding trinucleotide repeats of the sequence CTG is implicated in
a. Myotonic dystrophy
12. The expanding trinucleotide repeats of the sequence GAA is implicated in
a. Myotonic dystrophy
13. The most commonly occurring phenotype in a population is called
a. Mutant
b. Dominant
c. Recessive
d. Wild type
14. Base substitution effect does not include

a. No mutation
b. Missense mutation
c. Nonsense mutation
d. Silent mutation
15. The mutation resulting in altering the wild type phenotype is called
a. Reverse mutation
b. Forward mutation
c. Altered mutation
d. Sense mutation
16. The mutation resulting in altering the mutant to wild type is called
a. Reverse mutation
b. Forward mutation
c. Altered mutation
d. Sense mutation
17. The mutation resulting in different amino acid in the protein is called
a. Reverse mutation
b. Forward mutation
c. Missense mutation
d. Sense mutation
18. The mutation resulting in altering a sense codon to termination codon is called
a. Reverse mutation
b. Forward mutation
c. Altered mutation
d. Nonsense mutation
19. The mutation resulting in unaltering the wild type phenotype is called
a. Reverse mutation
b. Forward mutation
c. Neutral mutation
d. Nonsense mutation
20. The mutation resulting in complete or partial absence of wild type function is called
a. Reverse mutation
b. Forward mutation
c. Loss-of-function mutation
d. Sense mutation
21. The mutation resulting in producing a new phenotype is called
a. Reverse mutation
b. Forward mutation
d. Gain-of-function mutation
22. The mutation that is not expressed at all times is called
a. Reverse mutation
b. Conditional mutation
23. A suppressor mutation
a. Hides a wild-type phenotype
b. Suppresses a normal expression
c. Hides the effect of another mutation
d. Is hidden
24. The mutation resulting in an amino acid change without altering the protein
function is called
a. Reverse mutation
b. Neutral mutation
25. The mutation resulting in premature death is called
a. Lethal mutation
b. Fatal mutation
26. The mutation resulting in suppressing the effect of an earlier mutation in the
same gene is called
a. Intragenic suppressor mutation
b. Intergenic suppressor mutation
d. Neutral mutation
27. The mutation resulting in suppressing the effect of an earlier mutation in a
different gene is called
a. Intragenic suppressor mutation
b. Intergenic suppressor mutation
d. Neutral mutation
28. The incidence of specific type of mutation within a group of individuals is called
a. Mutation rate
b. Mutation occurrence
c. Mutation frequency
d. Allelic frequency
29. Replication errors are repaired by

a. Mismatch repair system
b. Direct repair system
c. Base-excision repair system
d. Nucleotide-excision repair system
30. DNA strand slippage errors are repaired by
31. Pyrimidine dimer errors are repaired by
c. Indirect repair system
d. Neutral repair system
32. DNA errors due to abnormal bases are repaired by
d. Indirect repair system
33. DNA errors due to modified bases are repaired by
d. Indirect repair system
34. DNA errors due to distorted double helix structure are repaired by
Chapter 11. rDNA and Genetic Engineering
1. Hybrid DNA molecules were known as

a. Chimeras
b. Half-molecules
c. Double-molecules
d. Bivalent
2. The rDNA techniques does not involve
a. Location of specific DNA sequences
b. Cutting of DNA
c. Joining DNA fragments
d. Contribute to evolution
3. Restriction enzymes were discovered in the late
a. 1970s
b. 1960s
c. 1950s
d. 1940s
4. Restriction enzymes are
a. Exonucleases
b. Ligases
c. Lyases
d. Endonucleases
5. The type I restriction enzymes act on the cleavage site

a. Random sites far from recognition region
b. Random sites close to the recognition region
c. At the recognition site
d. Between the recognition site
6. The type II restriction enzymes act on the cleavage site
c. Within the recognition site
7. The type III restriction enzymes act on the cleavage site
c. At the recognition site
8. The restriction enzyme types that act by cleavage only are
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. I, II and III
9. The restriction enzyme types that act by cleavage and methylation are
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I, II and III
10. The restriction enzyme types that require ATP are

a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I, II and III
11. The restriction enzyme types that does not require ATP are
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. I, II and III
12. The type II restriction enzyme that results in cohesive fragment end product is
a. BamH I
b. Dral
c. HaeIII
d. SmaI
13. The type II restriction enzyme that results in blunt fragment end product is
a. BamH I
b. CofI
c. EcoRI
d. PvuII
14. The restriction enzyme HaeIII is isolated from
a. Bacillus amyloliquefaciens
b. Haemophilus aegyptius
c. Haemophilus influenczae
d. Nocardia otitidis-caviarum
15. The restriction enzyme HindIII is isolated from

16. The restriction enzyme BamHI is isolated from
17. The restriction enzyme HpaII is isolated from
a. Haemophilus aegyptius
b. Haemophilus influenczae
c. Haemophilus parainfluenzae
18. The restriction enzyme Dral is isolated from
a. Deinococcus radiophilus
d. Clostridium formicoaceticum
19. The restriction enzyme Notl is isolated from
a. Proteus vulgaris
b. Nocardia otitidis-caviarum
d. Providencia stuartii
20. The restriction enzyme Pstl is isolated from

a. Proteus vulgaris
21. The restriction enzyme Pvull is isolated from
a. Proteus vulgaris
22. The restriction enzyme Smal is isolated from
a. Proteus vulgaris
b. Serratia marcescens
d. Haemophilus aegyptius
23. The restriction enzyme Smal is isolated from
a. Proteus vulgaris
24. The restriction enzyme EcoRI is isolated from
a. Proteus vulgaris
c. Escherichia coli
25. The number of restriction sites of a restriction enzyme reflects the

a. DNA sequence
b. Length of DNA
c. Number of fragments produced
d. Number of base pairs
26. During DNA electrophoresis, the fragments that travel fastest are
a. Largest fragments
b. Smallest fragments
c. Intermediate sized fragments
d. Charged fragments
27. Southern blotting uses the blotting of
a. Native double stranded DNA
b. Denatured double stranded DNA
c. Native single stranded DNA
d. Denatured single stranded DNA
28. Southern blotting is useful to analyze
a. DNA
b. RNA
c. Protein
d. DNA, RNA and proteins
29. Northern blotting is useful to analyze
a. DNA
b. RNA
c. Protein
30. Western blotting is useful to analyze

a. DNA
b. RNA
c. Protein
31. Using bacterial cells to produce multiple gene copies is called
a. Gene cloning
b. Gene transfection
c. Gene recombination
d. Gene rearrangement
32. The unsuitable feature for a cloning vector is
a. Presence of an origin of replication
b. Presence of unique restriction sites
c. Absence of a selection marker
d. Presence of a selection marker
33. The common cloning vectors do not include
a. Phagmids
b. Plasmids
c. Bacteriophages
d. Cosmids
34. Circular DNA molecule cloning vectors usually are
a. Phagmids
b. Plasmids
c. Bacteriophages
d. Cosmids
35. Restriction cloning

a. Uses same restriction enzyme to cut the plasmid and the foreign DNA
b. Uses different restriction enzymes to cut the plasmid and the foreign
DNA
c. Produces blunt ends
d. Requires unmatched restriction sites
36. The size of foreign DNA that plasmids can hold is
a. More than 15 kb
b. Less than 15 kb
c. More than 50 kb
d. More than 100 kb
37. The size of foreign DNA that phage lambdas can hold is
a. About15 kb
b. About 44 kb
c. About 23 kb
d. About 100 kb
38. The size of foreign DNA cosmids can hold is
a. About15 kb
b. About 44 kb
c. About 23 kb
d. About 100 kb
39. Movement and continuous exchange of genes between two hosts is best
achieved by
a. Yeast artificial chromosomes
b. Bacterial artificial chromosomes
c. Shuttle vectors
d. Expression vectors
40. Yeast artificial chromosomes have

a. A pair of telomeres and a centromere
b. One telomere
c. A centric fragments
d. Dicentric chromosomes
41. The size of foreign DNA that YACs can normally hold is
a. About 600 kb
b. About 800 kb
c. About 900 kb
d. About 1000 kb
42. The size of foreign DNA that BACs can normally hold is
a. About 500-600 kb
b. About 600-700 kb
c. About 100-500 kb
d. About 5000-1000 kb
43. DNA or genomic library contains DNA fragments from
a. One source
b. Two sources
c. Three sources
d. Many sources
44. A library with only the gene sequences that can be transcribed is called
a. Genomic library
b. DNA library
c. cDNA library
d. RNA library
45. The intron interference can be avoided in

a. Genomic library
b. DNA library
c. cDNA library
d. RNA library
46. The technique that uses genes with known functions on a chromosome to
ascertain the functions of closely positioned genes is called
a. Chromosome mapping
b. Chromosome walking
c. Chromosome banding
d. Chromosome sequencing
47. Oligonucleotide-directed mutagenesis is used when
a. Cloning fragments are not clear
b. cDNA libraries are used
c. Definite restriction sites are unknown
d. Target sequences are unknown
48. The technique to determine the gene sequences bound along with the binding
proteins is
a. Chromosome walking
b. Chromosome mapping
c. DNA footprinting
d. DNA fingerprinting
49. Gene mapping can ideally be used for studying
a. Restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs)
b. Mutations
c. Restriction sites
d. Number of exons
50. DNA fingerprinting uses

a. Variable number of tandem repeats (VNTRs)
b. Restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs)
c. Multiple alleles
d. Directed mutagenesis
51. The recognition cleavage sites of restriction enzymes are
a. Asymmetrical
b. Palindromic
c. Upright repeats
d. Single stranded
52. Gene disruption is also known as
a. Gene knock-in
b. Gene transfection
c. Gene knock-out
d. Gene silencing
53. Gene disruption is commonly done by
a. Heterologous combinations
b. Random combinations
c. Gene rearrangements
d. Homologous recombination
54. The process of replacing a short segment of plasmid DNA with a synthetic
double stranded oligonucleotide is called
a. Site directed mutagenesis

b. Cassette mutagenesis
c. Oligonucleotide-Directed Mutagenesis
d. Polynucleotide-Directed Mutagenesis
55. The mutagenesis type that is produced by a mismatched nucleotide is called

a. Site directed mutagenesis
b. Cassette mutagenesis
c. Oligonucleotide-Directed Mutagenesis
d. Polynucleotide-Directed Mutagenesis
56. Alkaline phosphatase enzyme is used to
a. Degrade single stranded DNA
b. Degrade RNA
c. Dephosphorylate RNA and DNA at the 5' end
d. Dephosphorylate RNA and DNA at the3' and 5' ends
57. BAL 31 nuclease enzyme is used to
a. Degrade DNA at the 3' end
b. Degrade RNA at the 5' end
c. Dephosphorylate RNA at the 3' and 5' ends
d. Dephosphorylate DNA at the 3' and 5' ends
58. DNA ligase enzyme is used for
a. Catalysis of DNA molecule bonding
b. Catalysis of DNA molecule amplification
c. Catalysis of DNA molecule restriction
d. Catalysis of DNA molecule sequencing
59. DNA polymerase I enzyme is used for
a. Double stranded DNA synthesis
b. Single stranded DNA synthesis
c. RNA synthesis
d. cDNA synthesis
60. DNase I enzyme is used ideally for

a. Double stranded DNA nicks
b. Single stranded DNA nicks
c. RNA strand nicks
d. cDNA synthesis
61. Exonuclease III enzyme is used ideally for
a. mRNA synthesis
b. cDNA synthesis
c. The removal of nucleotides from 3' ends of DNA
d. The removal of nucleotides from 5' ends of DNA
62. λ exonuclease enzyme is used ideally for
a. mRNA synthesis
b. cDNA synthesis
c. The removal of nucleotides from 3' ends of DNA
d. The removal of nucleotides from 5' ends of DNA
63. Polynucleotide kinase enzyme is used ideally for
a. Transfer of terminal ATP phosphate from DNA only
b. Transfer of terminal ATP phosphate from RNA only
c. Transfer of terminal ATP phosphate from both DNA and RNA
d. DNA bond catalysis
64. The enzyme S1 nuclease
a. Ligates DNA molecules
b. Degrades single stranded DNA
c. Degrades double stranded DNA
d. Degrades RNA
65. Terminal transferase enzyme is used for

a. The addition of nucleotides to the RNA 5' ends
b. The addition of nucleotides to the RNA 3' ends
c. The addition of nucleotides to the DNA 5' ends
d. The addition of nucleotides to the DNA 3' ends
ANNEXURE
ANSWERS FOR THE MCQs
Chapter 1. Discoveries in Genetics and Molecular Biology
1. c 11. a 21. a 31. b 41. d 51. d 61. c 71. a 81. c 91. c 101. c
2. d 12. c 22. a 32. c 42. c 52. a 62. b 72. a 82. a 92. d 102. a
3. a 13. c 23. d 33. d 43. b 53. b 63. b 73. a 83. d 93. a 103. a
4. b 14. b 24. b 34. a 44. b 54. d 64. c 74. c 84. b 94. a
5. d 15. c 25. c 35. a 45. a 55. c 65. b 75. a 85. b 95. b
6. c 16. a 26. b 36. c 46. c 56. a 66. b 76. a 86. c 96. c
7. c 17. b 27. a 37. a 47. c 57. b 67. c 77. b 87. d 97. c
8. b 18. d 28. c 38. c 48. a 58. c 68. b 78. c 88. c 98. b
9. a 19. a 29. a 39. b 49. a 59. c 69. a 79. b 89. b 99. a
10. b 20. c 30. c 40. b 50. c 60. a 70. b 80. b 90. b 100. b
Chapter 2. Mendelian and Non-Mendelian Inheritances
1. a 11. d 21. b 31. a 41. b 51. a 61. c

2. b 12. a 22. c 32. a 42. c 52. a
3. c 13. b 23. d 33. c 43. c 53. b
4. b 14. c 24. c 34. c 44. d 54. a
5. d 15. d 25. b 35. d 45. c 55. d

6. b 16. b 26. b 36. a 46. b 56. c
7. a 17. d 27. b 37. d 47. b 57. b
8. b 18. c 28. b 38. c 48. c 58. c
9. a 19. c 29. b 39. d 49. b 59. a
10. c 20. a 30. a 40. a 50. d 60. c
Chapter 3. Nucleic Acids
1. b 11. a 21. d 31. b 41. c 51. d 61. c 71. a

2. a 12. b 22. b 32. a 42. a 52. a 62. a 72. c
3. b 13. c 23. b 33. c 43. b 53. a 63. c 73. d
4. a 14. b 24. b 34. a 44. c 54. c 64. a 74. c
5. d 15. c 25. c 35. b 45. a 55. c 65. c
6. c 16. b 26. a 36. a 46. a 56. c 66. b
7. a 17. b 27. a 37. b 47. b 57. b 67. c
8. c 18. c 28. b 38. c 48. c 58. a 68. a
9. c 19. b 29. a 39. a 49. c 59. a 69. c
10. d 20. d 30. b 40. b 50. b 60. b 70. a
Chapter 4. DNA Replication
1. c 11. c 21. b 31. a 41. c 51. d

2. a 12. c 22. b 32. c 42. b 52. b
3. b 13. d 23. d 33. a 43. b 53. b
4. c 14. a 24. c 34. b 44. a 54. c
5. a 15. d 25. a 35. c 45. b 55. c
6. b 16. c 26. c 36. d 46. a 56. a
7. b 17. b 27. b 37. a 47. b

8. c 18. a 28. a 38. a 48. c
9. a 19. b 29. b 39. b 49. a
10. c 20. c 30. b 40. a 50. a
Chapter 5. RNA Transcription
1. b 11. a 21. a 31. d 41. b

2. a 12. b 22. b 32. d 42. b
3. b 13. c 23. b 33. a 43. c
4. d 14. a 24. d 34. b 44. c
5. c 15. b 25. a 35. d 45. a
6. d 16. c 26. c 36. a 46. c
7. a 17. d 27. d 37. b
8. b 18. d 28. d 38. d
9. c 19. b 29. a 39. a
10. d 20. a 30. c 40. a
Chapter 6. Central Dogma – Genetic Code/Translation
1. a 11. b 21. c 31. b

2. c 12. c 22. b 32. a
3. a 13. b 23. c 33. b
4. d 14. c 24. b 34. c
5. a 15. a 25. a 35. a
6. c 16. a 26. c 36. b
7. c 17. a 27. d 37. d
8. a 18. b 28. d 38. d
9. c 19. b 29. c 39. c
10. d 20. a 30. a 40. a
Chapter 7. DNA Condensation and Structural Organization
1. a 11. b 21. c 31. b 41. d 51. c

2. c 12. d 22. d 32. a 42. a
3. b 13. d 23. a 33. a 43. a
4. a 14. a 24. a 34. b 44. b
5. b 15. d 25. c 35. a 45. c
6. c 16. a 26. a 36. c 46. d
7. a 17. c 27. c 37. a 47. b
8. d 18. c 28. a 38. b 48. b
9. c 19. a 29. b 39. a 49. a
10. b 20. b 30. d 40. a 50. b
Chapter 8. Prokaryotic Genetics
1. b 11. c 21. a
2. b 12. d 22. c
3. c 13. d 23. c
4. d 14. b 24. a
5. b 15. a 25. c
6. d 16. d 26. c
7. b 17. d 27. c
8. c 18. a 28. a
9. a 19. b
10. b 20. c
Chapter 9. Regulation of Gene Expression
1. d 11. c 21. d 31. b 41. b

2. c 12. b 22. b 32. c 42. c
3. c 13. b 23. a 33. b 43. a
4. b 14. d 24. b 34. b
5. a 15. a 25. a 35. b
6. b 16. c 26. a 36. c
7. a 17. a 27. b 37. c
8. b 18. c 28. b 38. b
9. b 19. a 29. c 39. a
10. d 20. b 30. a 40. d
Chapter 10. Mutations and DNA Repair Mechanisms
1. a 11. a 21. d 31. b

2. d 12. c 22. b 32. c
3. c 13. d 23. c 33. c
4. a 14. a 24. b 34. d
5. c 15. b 25. a
6. c 16. a 26. a
7. a 17. c 27. b
8. d 18. d 28. c
9. a 19. c 29. a
10. b 20. c 30. a
Chapter 11. rDNA and Genetic Engineering
1. a 11. b 21. a 31. a 41. a 51. b 61. c

2. d 12. a 22. b 32. c 42. c 52. c 62. d
3. b 13. d 23. b 33. a 43. a 53. d 63. c
4. d 14. b 24. c 34. b 44. c 54. b 64. b
5. a 15. c 25. c 35. a 45. c 55. c 65. d
6. c 16. a 26. b 36. b 46. b 56. c
7. b 17. c 27. d 37. c 47. c 57. d
8. b 18. a 28. a 38. b 48. c 58. a
9. c 19. b 29. b 39. c 49. a 59. a
10. c 20. d 30. c 40. a 50. a 60. b
PART 5:
Immunology
MCQs Series for Life Sciences, Vol. 1, 2014, 431-566 431
PART 5
Chapter 1. Introduction to Immunology
1. Immunological unresponsiveness denotes

a. Immunodeficiency
b. Inflammation
c. Tolerance
d. Autoimmunity
2. The two major phases of Immune system functioning are
a. Recognition and response
b. Recognition and memory
c. Memory and response
d. Response and effector functions
3. The appropriate response of the immune system is known as the
a. Effector responses
b. Recognition of non-self
c. Recognition of altered self
d. Diversity
4. Immune system confers long lasting protection by
a. Specificity
b. Diversity
c. Memory
d. Recognition
Maddaly Ravi
5. The term ‘Immunitas’ means

a. Adaptation
b. Exempt
c. Confer
d. Defence
6. The substance that binds to an antibody is known as
a. Antigen
b. Isotype
c. CDRs
d. Peptides
7. The immune mechanisms consist of
a. Innate and Adaptive responses
b. Only Innate responses
c. Only Adaptive responses
d. Non-responsive
8. The first lines of defenses are
a. Innate mechanisms
b. Adaptive mechanisms
c. Humoral mechanisms
d. Cell mediated mechanisms
9. The second lines of defenses are
c. Humoral mechanisms
d. Cell mediated mechanisms
Immunology MCQs Series for Life Sciences, Vol. 1 433
10. Humoral Immune mechanisms are mediated by

a. Antibodies
b. Compliment system
c. Cells
d. Inflammatory responses
11. Immune system responds to
a. Self antigens
b. Non self antigens
c. Altered self antigens
d. Both Non self and Altered self antigens
12. The immediate protection is conferred by
c. Both Innate and Adaptive mechanisms
d. Physiological mechanisms
13. The delayed but more specific and stronger response is conferred by
c. Both Innate and Adaptive mechanisms
14. The immune mechanism which is rather ‘fixed’ is
a. Both Innate and Adaptive mechanisms
b. Innate mechanisms
c. Adaptive mechanisms
15. The immune mechanism which is flexible and adaptable is

16. An identical protection to repeated antigenic exposure is the hall mark of
17. A more heightened and enhanced protection to repeated antigenic exposure is
the hall mark of

18. A primary and secondary response is distinct for
19. The condition wherein immune system reacts to self antigens is
a. Tolerance
b. Innate immunity
c. Auto immunity
d. Immunodeficiency
20. One of the following that does not refer to immune dysfunction is
a. Allergy
b. Secondary responses
c. Immunodeficiency
d. Graft rejection
21. Unresponsiveness to antigens is known as
a. Allergy
b. Secondary responses
c. Immunodeficiency
d. Graft rejection
22. Invertebrates have
a. Innate immunity
b. Adaptive immunity
c. Lymphocytes
d. Antibodies
23. A complex Adaptive Immune System is present in
a. Invertebrates
b. Teleost fishes
c. Reptiles
d. Mammals
24. Over responsiveness to repeated antigenic exposure is
a. Anaphylaxis
b. Phylaxis
c. Tolerance
d. Immune suppression
25. Immunoglobulin molecules specific to a particular antigen are

a. Opsonins
b. Toxins
c. Antibodies
d. Agglutinins
Chapter 2. History of Immunology
1. Early applications for prevention of infectious diseases was done by

a. Antibiotics
b. Variolation
c. Surgery
d. Anesthesia
2. The first documented preventive medicine was practiced by
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Hudson
c. Lady Mary Montagu
d. Snell
3. The English physician who was the pioneer of vaccination was
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Metchnikoff
c. Joseph Meister
d. Edward Jenner
4. Attenuation was first described by
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Metchnikoff
c. Joseph Meister
d. Edward Jenner
5. Humoral immunity was first described by

a. Von Behring and Kitasato
b. Kohler and Milstein
c. Landsteiner and Snell
d. Jenner and Pasteur
6. Specific immunity was demonstrated experimentally by
a. Ehrlich
b. Fischer
c. Jules Bordet
d. Metchnikoff
7. The selective theory of antibody production was proposed by
a. Paul Ehrlich
b. Fischer
c. Jules Bordet
d. Metchnikoff
8. The theory that attempted to explain antibody production where the antigen
plays an important role is
a. Side chain theory
b. Instructional theory
c. Selective theory
d. Clonal selection theory
9. The term ‘immunis’ refers to
a. Dominate
b. Submissive
c. Exempt
d. Discover
10. The term Vaccination comes from the term ‘vacca’ which means
a. Cattle
b. Sheep
c. Pox
d. Cow
Chapter 3. Innate Immune System
1. An example of anatomical innate protective mechanism is by

a. pH
b. Inflammatory response
c. Mucous
b. Lysozyme
2. Histamines are responsible for
a. Antienic recognition
b. Inflammation
c. Tolerance
d. Autoimmunity
3. Maternal IgG transfer to fetus represents
a. Passive immunity
b. Acquired immunity
c. Innate immunity
d. Active immunity
4. The Innate immune mechanisms are
a. Specific
b. Non-specific
c. Only humoral
d. Only cell mediated
5. Innate immune mechanisms provide the

a. Second line of defenses
b. First line of defenses
c. Memory response
d. Heightened secondary responses
6. Components of the Innate immune mechanisms
a. Are present before the antigenic exposure
b. Are present after the antigenic exposure
c. Recognize antigens specifically
d. Have a longer duration for response
7. Innate immune system
a. Is common among all members of the same species
b. Is different among all members of the same species
c. Has individual differences
d. Is constant throughout the animal kingdom
8. Which of the following is not representative of Innate immune system
a. Anatomic barriers
b. Phagocytic barriers
c. Antibodies
d. Physiologic barriers
9. Skin is an example of
a. Anatomic barrier
b. Physiologic barrier
c. Phagocytic barrier
d. Inflammatory barrier
10. The low stomach pH represents

a. Anatomic barrier
b. Physiologic barrier
c. Phagocytic barrier
d. Inflammatory barrier
11. An enzyme with a broad spectrum antibacterial effects
a. Pepsin
b. Papain
c. Renin
d. Lysozyme
12. A broad range antiviral state is induced by
a. Interferons
b. Lysozyme
c. Interleukins
d. Complement system
13. Lysis of bacteria and other cellular antigens is augmented by
a. Interferons
b. Lysozyme
c. Interleukins
14. Opsonization helps in
a. Cleaving the antigen
b. Phagocytosis
c. Lysis
b. Clearance to spleen
15. A group of enzymes that are present in an inactive state in the circulation
which help in innate immune mechanisms are the
a. Immunoglobulins
b. Toll like receptors
c. Complement system
d. Chemokines
16. Toll like receptors are examples of
a. Cytokines
b. Interleukins
c. Pattern Recognition Molecules
d. Molecular Associated Molecular Patterns
17. Which of the following is not a phagocyte
a. Macrophages
b. Monocytes
c. Lymphoblast
d. Neutrophils
18. Tissue damage triggers
a. Production of interferons
b. Production of Interleukins
c. Inflammatory responses
d. Activation of lymphocytes
19. Erythema represents
a. Increase in redness and temperature
b. Fever
c. Diapedesis
d. Pain
20. The accumulation of fluids at the site of inflammation results in

a. Erythema
b. Chemotaxis
c. Edema
d. Diapedesis
21. The movement of phagocytes from the capillaries into the tissue is known as
a. Margination
b. Exudation
c. Chemotaxis
d. Diapedesis
22. Extravasation refers to
a. Diapedesis
b. Margination
c. Inflammation
d. Anaphylaxis
23. Innate immune mechanisms
a. Do not respond to a wide range of antigens
b. Are non specific and broad range
c. Are specific and diverse
d. Have primary and secondary responses
24. During phagocytosis, the engulfed particulate material is first enclosed within
a. Lysosome
b. Phagosome
c. Golgi bodies
d. Cytoplasm
25. Histiocytes can be found in

a. Lungs
b. Liver
c. Kidney
26. Kupffer cells can be found in
a. Kidney
b. Lungs
c. Liver
27. Macrophages localized in the Liver are called
a. Histiocytes
b. Mesangial cells
c. Kupffer cells
d. Osteoclasts
28. Histiocytes are present in
a. Liver
b. Brain
c. Kidney
29. Specialized flattened epithelial cells lining the gut, which lack microvilli and
assist in immunological functions are
a. M-Cells
b. Peyers patches
c. Dendritic cells
d. Mast cells
Chapter 4. Adaptive Immune System
1. MHC Class II restricted cells are

a. TH Cells
b. TC Cells
c. Dendrites
d. Plasma cells
2. Vaccines are examples of
a. Innate immunity
b. Active adaptive immunity
c. Passive adaptive immunity
d. Passive innate immunity
3. The function of Natural Killer cells can be enhanced by
a. Antibody Dependent Cell-mediated Cytotoxicity (ADCC)
b. Antigen presentation
c. Antigen processing
d. Complement activation
4. Circulatory immune complexes are cleared in the
a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Both liver and the spleen
d. Lymph nodes
5. Principal defense mechanism for extra-cellular antigens is mediated by
a. Cell mediated Immunity
b. Anaphylaxis
c. Humoral Immunity
d. Phagocytosis
6. Principal defense mechanism for intra-cellular antigens is mediated by

b. Anaphylaxis
c. Humoral Immunity
d. Phagocytosis
7. An example of Antigen Presenting Cells is
a. T-lymphocyte
b. Erythrocyte
c. Dendritic cell
d. Stromal cell
8. Primary Lymphoid Organs include
a. Spleen
b. MALT
c. GALT
d. Bone marrow
9. CD8 is a surface marker of
a. Th cells
b. Tc cells
c. B-cells
d. Antigen Presenting cells
10. Mature, Immunocompetent B cells express on their membranes
a. IgG
b. IgD
c. IgM
d. Both IgM and IgD
11. Surface markers of lymphocytes are commonly known as

a. CD markers
b. CDRs
c. Ligands
d. Receptors
12. Naïve and Memory B cells can be distinguished by
a. Morphology
b. Cytoplasmic content
c. Surface markers
d. Sites of occurrence
13. Adaptive Immune responses are
a. Uniform to all members of the same species
b. Unique to an individual at a given particular time
c. Is present before the antigenic exposure
d. Does not alter
14. Adaptive immune responses
a. Non specific
b. Lack memory
c. Cannot be altered
d. Are specific
15. The stronger secondary responses of the adaptive immunity is due to
a. Specificity
b. Memory
c. Diversity
d. Homeostasis
16. The following is not an attribute of adaptive immune mechanism

a. Specificity
b. Memory
c. Self and non-self recognition
d. Unaltered, uniform mechanisms
17. The central cells of the adaptive immune system does not include
a. B-Lymphocytes
b. T-Lymphocytes
c. Erythroblasts
d. Antigen Presenting Cells
18. The adaptive immune system is able to distinguish between antigens due to
a. Specific recognition
b. Memory
c. Diversity
d. Homeostasis
19. Deregulated self/non-self recognition of the adaptive immune system results
in
a. Tolerance
b. Immunosuppression
c. Autoimmunity
d. Graft rejection
20. Chief antigen presenting cells are
a. Lymphocytes
b. Phagocytes
c. Erythroblasts
d. Lymphoblasts
21. Cell mediated responses are

a. Self MHC restricted
b. Non-self MHC restricted
c. Unrestricted
d. Both self and non-self restricted
22. Antigen presenting cells express
a. MHC class I molecules
b. MHC class II molecules
c. Both class I and II MHC molecules
d. Neither class I and II MHC molecules
23. Humoral immunity is directed against
a. A wide range of biologically significant antigens
b. Only to peptide antigens
c. Only to Complex antigens
d. Chiefly against glycoproteins
24. Cell mediated immunity is directed primarily to
a. A wide range of biologically significant antigens
b. Only to peptide antigens
c. Only to Complex antigens
d. Chiefly against glycoproteins
25. Antigen processing and presentation is necessary for
a. Humoral immunity
b. Cell mediated immunity
c. Both humoral and cell mediated immunity
d. Neither humoral and cell mediated immunity
26. Protection from blood borne antigens is by

a. Humoral immunity and cell mediated immunity
b. Vaccination
c. Only Cell mediated immunity
d. Only humoral immunity
27. Intracellular antigens such as viral infected cells or cancerous cells induce
a. Humoral immunity
b. Vaccination
c. Cell mediated immunity
d. Transplantation
28. Before antigenic stimulation, Immunocompetent mature lymphocytes are in
the
a. G1 stage
b. G2 stage
c. G0 stage
d. S stage
29. The generative or primary lymphoid organs are
a. Bone marrow and Thymus
b. Lymph nodes and spleen
c. Payers patches and tonsils
d. GALT and MALT
30. The cells of the adaptive immune system do not include
a. B- Lymphocytes
b. T- Lymphocytes
c. Antigen Presenting Cells
d. Stromal cells
31. The primary cells that interlink innate and adaptive immune systems are
a. Macrophages
b. Platelets
c. T- cells
d. NK cells
32. The primary link between humoral and innate immune systems is through
a. Phagocytosis
b. Physiologic barriers
c. Complement system
d. Anatomic barriers
33. Lymphocytes do not include
a. B- Cells
b. T-Cells
c. NK cells
d. Dendritic cells
34. The principle cells of the humoral immune system are
a. B- Cells
b. T-Cells
c. NK cells
d. Dendritic cells
35. The molecules that bind to antigens and act as antigenic receptors does not
include
a. BCR
b. TCR
c. CD4
d. MHC
36. TH cells function by

a. Secreting cytokines
b. Secreting antibodies
c. Secreting interferons
d. Secreting chemokines
37. Antigenic receptors of naïve B cells are
a. IgM and IgD
b. IgG and IgA
c. IgD
d. IgE
38. Cellular antigens are best responded by
a. TC cells
b. TH cells
c. B cells
d. Neutrophils
39. Lung macrophages are known as
a. Alveolar macrophages
b. Histiocytes
c. Kupffer cells
d. Mesangial cells
40. Macrophages of the connective tissue are known as
b. Histiocytes
c. Kupffer cells
d. Mesangial cells
41. Macrophages of the liver are known as

b. Histiocytes
c. Kupffer cells
d. Mesangial cells
42. Macrophages of the kidney are known as
b. Histiocytes
c. Kupffer cells
d. Mesangial cells
43. Macrophages of the brain are known as
b. Microglial cells
c. Kupffer cells
d. Mesangial cells
44. Macrophages of the bone are known as
a. Osteoclasts
b. Microglial cells
c. Kupffer cells
d. Mesangial cells
45. Peyer’s patches are located in
a. Respiratory mucosa
b. Intestinal sub-mucosa
c. Urinogenital mucosa
d. Tonsils
46. The antigenic transport at the intestinal epithelium is performed by

a. B cells
b. T cells
c. M Cells
d. NK cells
Chapter 5. Antigens
1. Antigenic determinants are also known as

a. Paratopes
b. CDRs
c. Epitopes
d. BCRs
2. Epitope is a part of an
a. Antigen
b. Antibody
c. IgG
d. MHC molecule
3. An antigenic determining site refers to
a. An epitope
b. A paratope
c. Variable chains of the Ig molecule
d. T-cell receptor
4. Immunologically active regions on a complex antigen are called
a. Paratopes
b. CDRs
c. Epitopes
d. Idiotypes
5. The epitopes recognized by cell-mediated branch of immunity are

a. Carbohydrates
b. Glycoprotein
c. Toxins
d. Peptides
6. Substances that bind to BCRs, TCRs, MHC molecules and Antibodies are
collective known as
a. Immunogens
b. Antigens
c. Clusters of differentiation
d. Adjuvants
7. Immunogens can
a. Induce an immunological response
b. Require the presence of carrier molecules
c. Do not have epitopes
d. Are only short peptides
8. Haptens are aptly referred to as
a. Epitopes
b. Immunogens
c. Antigens
d. Adjuvants
9. Haptens can induce an immunological response in association with
a. B cells
b. T cells
c. Immunogens
d. Carrier molecules
10. Most antigenic molecules are

a. Proteins
b. Nucleic acids
c. Carbohydrates
d. Lipids
11. Antigens that can induce a humoral response are
a. Only glycoproteins
b. Only peptides
c. A wide range of substances
d. Only homo polymers
12. Cell mediated immune responses are against
a. Only glycoproteins
b. Only peptides
c. A wide range of substances
d. Only homo polymers
13. Antigens, to induce a cell mediated response should be
a. Coupled to a carrier molecule
b. Processed and presented
c. Coupled with an adjuvant
d. Serum soluble
14. Processed antigens are presented via
a. BCR molecules
b. TCR molecules
c. MHC molecules
d. Antibodies
15. An immune response is highest to

a. Phylogenetically distant molecules
b. Molecules present in the same species
c. Self antigens
d. Auto antigens
16. Evolutionarily conserved molecules are
a. Good Immunogens
b. Good Antigens
c. Weak Immunogens
d. Weak Antigens
17. Strong antigens have a molecular weight of
a. > 100 KDa
b. 50 KDa
c. < 50 KDa
d. 100 Da
18. Homopolymers are
a. Good Immunogens
b. Good Antigens
c. Weak Immunogens
d. Weak Antigens
19. The routes on immunization for experimental purposes may not include
a. Intramuscular
b. Intravenous
c. Topical
d. Intraperitoneal
20. The best route of immunization to carry antigen to spleen is

a. Intramuscular
b. Intravenous
c. Oral
d. Intraperitoneal
21. The best route of immunization to carry antigen to lymph nodes is
a. Intramuscular
b. Intravenous
c. Oral
d. Subcutaneous
22. Adjuvants are named after the word ‘Adjuvare’ which means
a. To inhibit
b. To help
c. To dispense
d. To disperse
23. Freund’s adjuvants work best as
a. Oil in water suspension
b. Simple suspension
c. Water in oil emulsions
d. Independent of antigens
24. Freund’s complete adjuvant contains
a. Alum
b. Water
c. Killed Mycobacteria
d. Killed streptococcus
25. Freund’s incomplete adjuvant does not contain

a. Mineral oil
b. An emulsifying agent
c. Antigen surrounded by the oil
d. Killed Mycobacteria
26. Specific sites on a complex antigen that are immunologically active are the
a. Paratopes
b. Isotypes
c. Epitopes
d. Idiotypes
27. Soluble antigens are recognized by
a. MHC molecules
b. T Cell receptors
c. B Cell receptors
d. Macrophages
28. Cell mediated immune responses are induced by
a. A peptide bound to MHC molecule
b. Soluble antigens
c. Intact complex particle
d. Glycopeptides
29. Epitopes are also known as
a. Complementarity determining regions
b. Frame work regions
c. Receptors
d. Antigenic determinants
30. Antibody binding to an antigen induces

a. Chemical changes
b. Conformational changes
c. Cleaving
d. Solubility
31. Highly effective epitopes are known as
a. Immunosuppressive
b. Immunotolerant
c. Immunorepressive
d. Immunodominant
32. Antigens form Trimolecular complexes known as ‘Immunological synapsis’
with
a. TCR and MHC molecules
b. BCR and MHC molecules
c. MHC Class I and Class II molecules
d. BCR and Epitopes
Chapter 6. Immunoglobulins
1. Complementarity Determining Regions (CDRs) of antibody molecules

consists of
a. Constant regions of both light and heavy chains

b. Variable regions of both light and heavy chains
c. Only light chain variable regions
d. Only heavy chain variable regions
2. Papain digestion of an Immunoglobulin molecule yields

a. 2 fragments
b. 3 fragments
c. 4 fragments
d. An intact molecule
3. Antigen binding regions of an Antibody molecule comprises of
a. Amino terminals of both heavy and light chains
b. Amino terminals of light chains
c. Amino terminals of heavy chains
d. Carboxyl terminal of both heavy and light chains
4. The Immunoglobulin class that can cross placental barrier is
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgD
d. IgE
5. The Immunoglobulin class that predominates in allergic response is
a. IgM
b. IgE
c. IgA
d. IgG
6. Pepsin digestion of an Immunoglobulin molecule yields
a. 2 fragments
b. 3 fragments
c. 4 fragments
7. Mercaptoethenol reduction of an Immunoglobulin molecule yields

a. 2 fragments
b. 3 fragments
c. 4 fragments
8. Complementarity determining Regions (CDRs) are also known as
a. Hypervariable regions
b. Constant regions
c. Epitopes
d. Haptens
9. The Immunoglobulin class that predominates mucosa is
a. IgM
b. IgE
c. IgA
d. IgG
10. Immunoglobulin isotypic determinants are on the
a. The entire light chains
b. Variable regions of the light chains
c. The entire heavy chains
d. The constant regions of the heavy chains
11. The effector functions of the antibody molecule are performed by
a. Variable regions of the light chains
b. Variable regions of the heavy chains
c. Constant regions of the light chains
d. Constant regions of the heavy chains
12. The antibody isotype that provides efficient mucosal immunity is

a. IgG
b. IgE
c. IgM
d. IgA
13. The Immunoglobulin heavy chain variable regions are encoded by
a. V & C gene segments
b. V & J gene segments
c. V gene segments only
d. V, D, & J gene segments
14. The Molecular weight of the light chain of an Immunoglobulin is
a. 25 KDa
b. 75 KDa
c. 50 KDa
d. 10 KDa
15. The Molecular weight of the heavy chain of an Immunoglobulin is
a. 25 KDa
b. 75 KDa
c. 50 KDa
d. 10 KDa
16. A single Heterodimer of an Immunoglobulin molecule consists of;
a. 1 each of Heavy & Light chains
b. 2 Heavy chains
c. 2 Light chains
d. 2 pairs of heavy and light chains
17. The variable regions of an Imunoglobulin molecule consist of about

a. 220 amino acids
b. 110 amino acids
c. 60 amino acids
d. 440 amino acids
18. The differences in specificity displayed by different antibodies can be traced
to differences in the
a. Carboxylation patterns
b. Amino acid sequences in the variable regions
c. Amino acid sequences in the constant regions
d. The hinge region
19. A single Antigen binding site of an antibody molecule comprises of
c. Variable regions of both the heavy and light chains
d. Constant regions of the heavy chains.
20. Hypervariable regions on an antibody molecule are also known as
a. CD markers
b. CDRs
c. TCRs
d. BCRs
21. Brief digestion of IgG with the enzyme papain produces
a. 2 Fab and 1 Fc fractions
b. 1 Fab and 1 Fc fractions
c. Individual light and heavy chains
d. A combination of heavy and light chains
22. Brief digestion of IgG with the enzyme pepsin produces

d. F(ab)2 fragments
23. Mercaptoethanol reduction and alkylation of an Immunoglobulin molecule
yields

d. A combination of heavy and light chains.
24. The five basic Ig Isotypes is due to
c. Constant regions of the light chains
25. Complementarity determining regions (CDRs) of an antibody molecule are
embedded into the
a. Framework regions
b. Variable regions of the light chains alone
c. Variable regions of the heavy chains alone
26. The effector functions of an Antibody molecule is by
a. Framework regions
b. Variable regions of the light chains alone
c. Variable regions of the heavy chains alone
27. The percentage of IgG in total serum Immunoglobulin fraction is

a. 20 %
b. 60%
c. 80%
d. 0.5%
28. The percentage of IgM in total serum Immunoglobulin fraction is
a. 20 %
b. 5-10%
c. 80%
d. 0.5%
29. The percentage of IgA in total serum Immunoglobulin fraction is
a. 20 %
b. 5-10%
c. 80%
d. 10-15%
30. The concentration of IgE in serum is
a. 0.3 g/ml
b. 5-10 g/ml
c. 20 g/ml
d. 10-400 ng/ml
31. Membrane bound immunoglobulin expressed by mature B cells comprises of
a. IgA
b. IgM alone
c. IgD alone
d. IgM and IgD
32. Constant-region determinants that collectively define each heavy-chain

determine the
a. Isotype
b. Subtype
c. Allotype
d. Idiotype
33. Determinants arising from the sequence of the heavy- and light-chain variable
regions determine the
a. Isotype
b. Subtype
c. Allotype
d. Idiotype
34. The antibody isotype that mediate the immediate hypersensitivity reactions is
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgE
d. IgD
35. Membrane bound Immunoglobulin which acts as an antigenic receptor is present on
a. Naïve B- cells
b. Plasma cells
c. Pre-B cell
d. pro-B cell
36. The effector functions of the humoral system are performed by
a. Membrane bound immunoglobulins
b. Memory cells
c. Secreted antibodies
d. Complement proteins
37. Complementarity determining regions of an antibody molecule are also known

as
a. Frame work regions

b. Fc region
c. Variable regions
d. Hypervariable regions
38. The conformational flexibility of an antibody molecule is due to the
a. Constant regions
b. Hinge region
c. Variable regions
d. Light chains
39. Opsonization enhances
a. TH cell functions
b. production of chemokines
c. Phagocytosis
d. Formation of Membrane Attack Complex
40. The Immunoglobulin isotypes that activate complement system in humans are
a. IgM and IgG
b. IgG and IgA
c. IgM and IgE
d. IgA and IgD
41. Antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity enhances the functions of
a. B cells
b. T cells
c. NK cells
d. Macrophages
42. The movement of antibodies across epithelial layers is known as

a. Pinocytosis
b. Transcytosis
c. Opsonization
d. Internalization
43. The Immunoglobulin isotypes are determined by
a. Light chain variable regions
b. Heavy chain variable regions
c. Light chain constant regions
d. Heavy chain constant regions
44. The subtle differences in the Immunoglobulin sequences within members of a
same species confer the
a. Isotypes
b. Idiotypes
c. Allotypes
d. Antibody Classes
45. Serum containing antibodies directed against multiple epitopes is referred to
as
a. Monoclonal
b. Polyclonal
c. Antibody
d. Supernatant
46. A suspension of antibodies all having the same specificity is known as
a. Monoclonal
b. Polyclonal
c. Antibody
d. Antiserum
47. Monoclonal antibodies can be produced by

a. Hybridoma technology
b. Inducing mutations
c. Irradiating B cells
d. Co culturing B and T cells
48. Abzymes are
a. Polyclonal antibodies
b. Small antibody fractions
c. Catalytic antibodies
d. Lytic antibodies
49. Monoclonal antibodies were first described by
a. Kohler and Milstein
b. Kitasato
c. Warner
d. Jenner
50. Antibodies are called Heterodimers because they have
a. Two light chains
b. Two heavy chains
c. One light and one heavy chain
d. Two identical light and two identical heavy chains
Chapter 7. Antigen-Antibody Interactions
1. Antigen-antibody interactions are mediated by

a. Non covalent interactions
b. Covalent bonding
c. Irreversible linkage
d. Disulphide bridges
2. An antibody molecule binds to an antigen by

a. Constant regions of both the heavy and light chains
b. Variable regions of both the heavy and light chains
c. Variable regions of the light chains
d. Variable regions of the heavy chains
3. The forces that facilitate antigen-antibody interactions do not include
a. Covalent bonding
b. Hydrophobic interactions
d. Hydrogen bonds
4. Affinity of an antibody refers to
a. A single epitope binding strength
b. Multiple antigen binding
c. Multivalant antibody binding
d. Binding to antigens with repeated epitopes
5. The affinity constants of an antigen-antibody interaction cannot be measured
by
a. Equilibrium dialysis
b. ELISA
c. RIA
d. Double diffusion
6. The Scatchard equation measures
a. The antibody affinity
b. The antibody avidity
c. The antibody cross reactivity
d. The antibody specificity
7. The net total strength of all forces involved in one antigen-antibody binding
site denotes
a. Avidity
b. Cross reactivity
c. Affinity
d. Linkage strength
8. The net total strength of all forces involved in multiple antigen-antibody
binding site denotes
a. Avidity
b. Cross reactivity
c. Affinity
d. Linkage strength
9. Identical epitopes on different antigen leads to
a. Avidity
b. Cross reactivity
c. Affinity
d. Linkage strength
10. The sites on the antibody molecule that interact with antigens are
a. Paratopes
b. Epitopes
c. Constant regions
d. light chains
11. The sites on the antigen to which antibody molecules interact are
a. Paratopes
b. Epitopes
c. Constant regions
d. Light chains
12. Antigen antibody interactions lead to

a. Irreversible binding
b. Irreversible chemical changes
c. Conformational changes at the interacting sites
d. Loss of function
Chapter 8. Humoral Immune Mechanisms
1. Primary humoral responses produce

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD
2. Normal secondary humoral responses predominantly produce
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD
3. Humoral immunity was first demonstrated by
a. Von Behring and Kitasato
c. Joseph Meister
d. Karl Landsteiner
4. The membrane bound antigen receptor on the B cell surface is
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgE
5. Humoral Immunity is largely towards

a. Intra cellular antigens
b. Altered self antigens
c. Altered antigens
d. Extra cellular antigens
6. The primary cells of the humoral immune system are
a. T helper cells
b. T cytotoxic cells
c. B cells
d. Neutrophils
7. The effectors of the humoral immune system are
a. Antibodies
b. Cytotoxic cells
c. Cytokines
d. Interferons
8. Humoral responses are directed to
a. A wide range of antigens
b. only peptide antigens
c. Intracellular antigens
d. only to glycosylated antigens
9. B cell receptors can recognize
a. only presented antigens
b. only complex antigens
c. only processed antigens
d. free antigens
10. Antigenic recognition by the humoral immune system is by

a. TCRs
b. BCRs
c. MHC Class 1 molecules
d. MHC Class II molecules
11. Administration of preformed antibodies constitute
a. Vaccinations
b. Immunizations
c. Passive immunity
d. Active immunity
12. Passively acquired humoral immunity
a. Provides long lasting effects
b. Fast acting and temporary
c. Slow acting
d. Minimal protection
13. Serum containing large quantities of antibodies is known as
a. Supernatant
b. Vaccine
c. Antigen
d. Antiserum
Chapter 9. Cell Mediated Immune Mechanisms
1. Cellular immune mechanisms was first described by

a. Kitasato
b. Emil Von Behring
c. Elie Metchnikoff
d. Edward Jenner
2. Antigenic recognition by TH cells is aided by

a. CD4 molecules
b. CD5 molecules
c. CD7 molecules
d. CD8 molecules
3. Antigenic recognition by TC cells is aided by
a. CD4 molecules
b. CD5 molecules
c. CD7 molecules
d. CD8 molecules
4. Cell mediated immune mechanisms are mediated by
a. B lymphocytes
b. Plasma cells
c. T lymphocytes
d. Neutrophils
5. T cells can recognize antigens only when presented by
a. B cells
b. Platelets
c. MHC molecules
d. Epithelia cells
6. TH cells function by
a. Cell cytotoxic effects
b. Inducing apoptosis
c. Opsonization
d. Cytokine synthesis
7. Cytokines produced by TH cells induce

a. Complement activation
b. Activation of B cells
c. Inflammatory responses
d. Phagocytosis
8. The effector cells of the TC lineage are
a. TH cells
b. Plasma cells
c. Immunocompetent small T cell
d. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL)
9. The main targets of Cytotoxic T Lymphocytes (CTL) are
a. Self antigens
b. Non-self antigens only
c. Altered self antigens and non-self antigens
d. Altered antigens only
10. Antigen processing and presentation for cell mediated immunity is performed
by
a. B cell receptors
b. Antigen presenting cells
d. T cell receptors
11. Professional antigen presenting cells do not include
a. B cells
b. Macrophages
c. Platelets
d. Dendritic cells
12. Cell mediated immunity is directed against

a. A wide range of antigens
b. Peptide antigens
c. Nucleic acid antigens
d. Lipid antigens
13. Antigen presenting or recognition molecules of the cellular immunity do not
include
a. B cell receptors
b. MHC Class I molecules
c. MHC Class II molecules
d. T cell receptors
14. Cell mediated immune responses are largely directed to
a. Extracellular antigens
b. Intracellular antigens
c. Soluble antigens
d. Nuclear antigens
15. Tc cells are
a. MHC Class I restricted
b. MHC Class II restricted
c. Assisted by B cells
d. Assisted by TH cells
16. TH cells are
a. MHC Class I restricted
b. MHC Class II restricted
c. Assisted by B cells
d. Assisted by TH cells
17. Exogenous antigens are presented by

a. B cell receptors
d. T cell receptors
18. Endogenous antigens are presented by
a. B cell receptors
d. T cell receptors
19. An immunological synapse is formed by
a. MHC – peptide antigen – TCR
b. MHC Class I – peptide antigen – MHC Class II
c. TCR – MHC – TCR
d. MHC – TCR – MHC
20. All T cells express membrane bound
a. CD4
b. CD8
c. CD3
d. CD4 and CD8
21. CD4+ cell are
a. T Helper cells
b. T Cytotoxic cells
c. Antigen presenting cells
d. Plasma cells
22. CD8+ cell are

a. T Helper cells
b. T Cytotoxic cells
c. Antigen presenting cells
d. Plasma cells
23. The normal ratio of CD4+ and CD8+ in humans is
a. 2:1
b. 1:2
c. 1:1
d. 3:1
24. The signal transduction upon antigenic binding to a TCR on a T lymphocyte is
mediated by
a. CD4
b. CD8
c. CD3
d. CD23
25. The T cell co-receptors include
a. CD4 and CD8
b. MHC Class I
c. MHC Class II
d. CD3
Chapter 10. Immunoglobulin Genes

1. The random shuffling of immunoglobulin gene segments can generate
a. 106 combinations
b. 1010 combinations
c. 103 combinations
d. 102 combinations
2. The Immunoglobulin gene rearrangements were first demonstrated by
a. Kohler and Milstein
b. Luis Pasteur
c. Tonegawa and Hozumi
d. Baltimore
3. The factors that contribute to the tremendous diversity in antibody specificities
does not include
a. Combinatorial gene segment joining

b. Multiple germ line gene segments
c. Somatic hypermutations
d. Multiple genes
4. Individual nucleotides in VJ or VDJ units are replaced with alternatives by the process
a. Combinatorial gene segment joining
b. Multiple germ line gene segments
c. Somatic hypermutations
d. Multiple genes
5. The co-expression of both IgM and IgD on naïve B cell surface is due to
a. Somatic hypermutations
b. Multiple genes
c. VDJ recombinations
d. Differential RNA processing
6. Immunoglobulin gene regulatory sequences do not include

a. Promoters
b. Terminators
c. Enhancers
d. Silencers
7. Immunoglobulin gene libraries can be used to produce
a. Many B cell clones
b. T cell receptors
c. Antigenic diversity
d. Monoclonal antibodies
8. Immunoglobulin κ and λ chain genes are located on
a. A single locus of a chromosome
b. On multiple loci of the same chromosome
c. Many gene segments on different chromosomes
d. Few gene segments
9. The random variable region gene segment rearrangements produce
a. Primary transcripts
b. Functional light and heavy chain genes
c. Conserved heptamer sequences
d. Conserved nonamer sequences
10. The catalysis of V (D) J joining is done by
a. Only RAG-1
b. Only RAG-2
c. Both RAG-1 and RAG-2
d. Neither RAG-1 and RAG-2
Chapter 11. Major Histocompatibility Complex
1. The Class I HLA genes are located at the

a. A locus
b. B locus
c. C locus
d. All the three A, B and C loci
2. The human MHC complex is referred to as
a. the H-2 complex
b. the B complex
c. the HLA complex
d. the antigen-antibody complex
3. The MHC genes in humans are located on
a. Chromosome 6
b. Chromosome 7
c. Chromosome 8
d. Chromosome 9
4. HLA class 1 antigens are expressed on
a. All nucleated cells
b. Antigen Presenting Cells
c. Erythrocytes
d. Lymphocytes
5. The MHC Class I molecules are encoded by
a. K and D regions
b. DQ regions
c. DP regions
d. DR regions
6. The MHC Class II molecules are encoded by

a. The K and D regions
b. The DQ and DR regions
c. The DQ and DP regions
d. The DP, DQ, and DR regions
7. The MHC genes encoding the components of the complement system is
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class I and II
8. The location order of the MHC genes on the chromosome in humans is
a. MHC Class I – Class II – Class III
b. MHC Class III – Class II – Class I
c. MHC Class II – Class III – Class I
d. MHC Class II – Class I – Class III
9. Class I MHC molecules are composed of
a. 3 α chain domains and 1 β2 microglobulin domain
b. 2 α chain domains
c. 2 β2 microglobulin domains
d. 2 α chain domains and 2 β2 microglobulin domains
10. Class II MHC molecules are composed of
a. 3 α chain domains and 1 β2 microglobulin domains
b. 2 α chain domains
c. 2 β2 microglobulin domains
d. 2 α chain domains and 2 β2 microglobulin domains
11. HLA class II antigens are over expressed on

a. all nucleated cells
b. Antigen Presenting Cells
c. Erythrocytes
d. Lymphocytes
Chapter 12. Antigen Processing and Presentation
1. Presentation of processed antigen is by

a. BCR molecules
b. CDR molecules
c. MHC molecules
d. TCR molecules
2. MHC Class I molecules are present on
a. Erythrocytes
b. T cells only H
c. All nucleated Cells
d. B cells only
3. Antigenic processing and presentation are required for
b. Humoral Immunity
c. Innate Immunity
4. Antigen presenting molecules include
a. Both MHC class I and Class II molecules
b. Only MHC Class I molecules
c. Only MHC Class II molecules
d. T-Cell receptors
5. The antigen presenting portion of MHC Class I molecule consists of

a. α1 and α3 domains
b. C α1 and α1 domains
c. α1 and α2 domains
d. only α1 domains
6. The endogenous pathway of antigen presentation involves
a. Presentation of antigen associated with MHC class I molecules
b. Presentation of antigen to cytolytic T cells
c. Presentation of antigen to Th2 cells
d. Presentation of antigen to B cells
7. Professional antigen presenting cells over express
a. MHC class I and II molecules
b. MHC Class II molecules
c. MHC Class I molecules
d. MHC Class III molecules
8. Antigenic recognition by Cytotoxic T cells normally is mediated by
a. class II MHC determinants
b. class I MHC determinants
c. class III MHC determinants
d. HLA-DR determinants
9. Exogenous antigen presentation as those occurring during mismatched
transplantation occurs by
a. Association with Class II MHC

b. Presentation to T helper lymphocytes
c. Presentation to T cytotoxic lymphocytes
d. Association with MHC molecules within the ER
10. Antigen Presenting Cells do not include

a. Dendritic cells
b. B-cells
c. Neutrophils
d. Macrophages
11. 'Professional Antigen Presenting Cells' are
a. B-Cells
b. T-Cells
c. Dendritic Cells
d. Fibroblasts
12. Processed antigen is presented as
a. Peptides
b. Lipids
c. Carbohydrates
d. Glycosylated proteins
13. Class I molecules present
a. Exogenous antigens
b. Self antigens
c. Endogenous antigens
d. only bacterial antigens
14. The attribute of TCRs to bind to antigens only upon presentation by MHC
molecules is known as
a. MHC digestion
b. MHC restriction
c. Non-self MHC restriction
d. Gene polymorphism
15. MHC Class II molecules present antigens to

a. B cells
b. CD8+ T cells
c. CD4+ T cells
d. Dendritic cells
16. MHC Class I molecules present antigens to
a. B cells
b. CD8+ T cells
c. CD4+ T cells
d. Dendritic cells
17. All nucleated cells can present antigens through
a. MHC Class II molecules
b. CD receptors
c. Growth factor receptors
d. MHC Class I molecules
18. Professional Antigen Presenting Cells can present antigens through
a. Both MHC Class I and Class II molecules
b. CD receptors
c. MHC Class II molecules only
d. MHC Class I molecules only
19. The most effective Antigen Presenting Cells are
a. Dendritic cells
b. Epithelial cells
c. TC cells
d. TH cells
20. Professional Antigen Presenting cells do not include

a. Dendritic cells
b. T lymphocytes
c. Macrophages
d. B lymphocytes
21. Endogenous antigens are processed by the
a. Endocytic pathway
b. Exocytic pathway
c. Pinocytic pathway
d. Cytosolic pathway
22. A proteasome is
a. MHC-peptide complex
b. MHC - TCR complex
c. Multifunctional protease complex
d. MHC-Peptide-TCR complex
23. The processed antigens are transported by the proteins
a. TAP1 and TAP2
b. TAP2 and TAP3
c. TAP3 and TAP4
d. TAP2 and TAP4
24. The assembly of peptides to MHC molecules is mediated by
a. Transporter Associated Proteins (TAPs)
b. Lamellins
c. Integrins
d. Molecular chaperones
25. The chaperone that initiates binding of peptide to MHC Class I molecule is
a. Integrin
b. Connexin
c. Calnexin
d. Fibrin
26. The exogenous antigens are processed by the
a. Endocytic pathway
b. Reticular pathway
c. Cytosolic pathway
d. Exogenic pathway
27. Lipidantigens are presented by
a. CD3 molecules
b. CD4 molecules
c. CD1 molecules
d. CD2 molecules
Chapter 13. B Cell and T Cell Development
1. The activation of naïve B Cells occurs in

a. The generative lymphoid organs
b. The peripheral lymphoid organs
c. The mucosal surfaces
d. The payer’s patches
2. B cell surface receptors are composed of
a. B5 molecules
b. MHC class I molecules
c. Igα and Igβ
d. MHC class II molecules
3. A surface marker typical of Progenitor B cell (pro-B cell) is

a. CD45R
b. CD4
c. CD8
d. CD22
4. The cell-adhesion molecule on the pro-B cell
a. VLA-4
b. CD7
c. BCR
d. C-kit
5. Immature B cells express
a. mIgG
b. mIgD
c. mIgM
d. mIgA
6. Mature B lymphocytes are also known as
a. Immunocompetent
b. Lymphoblasts
c. Plasma cells
d. Memory cells
7. Immunocompetent B cells are also known as
a. Small B lymphocytes
b. Plasma cells
c. Memory cells
d. Lymphoblasts
8. Mature B cells express

a. Only mIgG
b. Only mIgD
c. Both mIgM and mIgD
d. Only mIgM
9. Pro-B cells express
a. IgM
b. CD45R
c. IgD
d. CD25
10. Pro- and Pre-B cells, for development require the cytokine
a. Interferons
b. IL-9
c. IL-10
d. IL-7
11. One of the first adhesion molecules on the Pro B cell is
a. VCAM-1
b. SCF
c. VLA-4
d. IL-7
12. The ligand of VLA-4 is
a. IL-9
b. VCAM-1
c. CD45
d. CD45R
13. c-Kit on the Pro B cell interacts with

a. IL-7
b. VLA-4
c. SCF
d. VCAM-1
14. Upon activation, a B cell proliferation requires the cytokines produced by
a. Stromal cells
b. TH cells
c. TC cells
d. Plasma cells
15. The antigen independent phase of B cell development occurs in
a. Lymph nodes
b. Spleen
c. Bone marrow
d. Thymus
16. The antigen independent phase of B cell development results in
a. Memory cells
b. Plasma cells
c. Pro B cells
d. Immunocompetent, mature B cells
17. The antigenic interaction is required for
a. Activation of Mature B cells
b. Anergy
c. Tolerance
d. Interaction with stromal cells
18. The antigen dependent phase of B cell development occurs in

a. Bone marrow
b. Connective tissue
c. Lymph nodes and spleen
d. Thymus
19. CD4 is a marker typical of
a. TH Cells
b. TC Cells
c. B-Cells
d. NK Cells
20. CD8 is a marker typical of
a. TH Cells
b. TC Cells
c. B-Cells
d. NK Cells
21. CD4 (+) cells are
a. Naive B-Cells
b. Naive T-Cells
c. T helper (TH) cells
d. T cytotoxic (TC) cells
22. All T cells express membrane bound
a. CD4
b. CD8
c. CD3
d. CD2
23. A double negative thymocyte is characterized by

a. CD 8 (-) and CD 4 (-)
b. CD 4 (-) and CD 3 (-)
c. CD 8 (-) and CD 3 (-)
d. CD 8 (+) and CD4 (+)
Chapter 14. Cytokines
1. The primary roles of cytokines is for

a. Apoptosis
b. Necrosis
c. Development
d. Cell to cell communications
2. Cytokine functions is largely
a. Receptor mediated
b. Through a carrier molecule
c. Terminal
d. Complement mediated
3. Cytokine mechanism of action does not include
a. Autocrine
b. Paracrine
c. Substrate mediated
d. Endocrine
4. Cytokine mechanism of action does not include
a. Pleotrophy
b. Redundancy
c. Synergy
d. Substrate mediated
5. Pleiotropic action of cytokines indicate

a. a single cytokine with different effects on target cells
b. a single cytokine with a single effect on the target cell
c. Many cytokines having a different effects on the target cell
d. Many cytokines with a single effect on the target cell
6. Redundant action of cytokines indicate
a. a single cytokine with different effects on target cells
b. a single cytokine with a single effect on the target cell
c. Many cytokines having a different effects on the target cell
d. Many cytokines with a similar effects on the target cell
7. The increase in net combined activity of 2 cytokines compared to the sum of
their individual activity is known as
a. Redundancy
b. Pleiotropism
c. Synergy
d. Anergy
8. The effect of one cytokine blocking the function of another is known as
a. Antagonism
b. Pleiotropism
c. Synergy
d. Redundancy
9. The effect of cytokines that trigger several similar events in a series is known
as
a. Antagonism
b. Pleiotropism
c. Synergy
d. Cascading effect
10. The cytokines that are produced by leukocytes and act on leukocytes are
collectively known as
a. Interferons
b. Complement proteins
c. Interleukins
d. Antibodies
11. The cytokines that mediate Chemotaxis are known as
a. Interferons
b. Chemokines
c. Interleukins
d. Antibodies
12. The molecular weight of cytokines is
a. < 30 kDa
b. 45 kDa
c. 100 kDa
d. > 100 kDa
13. The two main cytokine producing cells are
a. Dendritic cells and neutrophils
b. TH cells and macrophages
c. Tc cells and platelets
d. Plasma and memory cells
14. The cytokine, Tumor Necrosis Factor-α is commonly secreted by
a. Plasma cells
b. Tc cells
c. Macrophages
d. Dendritic cells
15. Interleukin 12 is secreted by

a. Plasma & memory cells
b. Only dendritic cells
c. Only macrophages
d. Macrophages & dendritic cells
16. Interleukin 6 is secreted by
a. Macrophages & endothelial cells
b. B and T lymphocytes
c. Neutrophils and Dendritic cells
d. TC and TH cells
17. Interferon α (INF- α) is secreted by
a. TC cells
b. TH cells
c. Macrophages
d. Fibroblasts
18. Interferon ß (INF- ß) is secreted by
a. TC cells
b. TH cells
c. Macrophages
d. Fibroblasts
19. Interleukin 2 (IL-2) is secreted by
a. T cells
b. B cells
c. Plasma cells
d. Memory B cells

a. TC cells
b. TH2 cells
c. Macrophages
d. Fibroblasts
a. TC cells
b. TH2 cells
c. Macrophages
d. Fibroblasts
22. Interferon γ (IFN – γ) is not secreted by
a. TH1 cells
b. NK cells
c. CD 8+ cells
d. B cells
23. The cytokines that induces an antiviral state is
a. IL-2
b. IL-4
c. Interferons
d. IL-5
24. The cytokine that increases MHC Class I expression is
a. IL-1
b. Tumor Necrosis Factor
c. Transforming growth factor
d. Interferons
25. The cytokine that induces B and T cell proliferation is

a. IL-4
b. IL-2
c. IL-5
d. IL-25
26. Activation and generation of eosinophils is mediated by
a. IL-4
b. IL-2
c. IL-5
d. IL-25
27. The cytokine that inhibits B and T cell proliferation is
a. IL-1
b. Tumor Necrosis Factor
c. Transforming growth factor ß
d. Interferons
Chapter 15. Complement System
1. Complement activation is
a. Simultaneous interactions
b. A series of reactions
c. Chiefly a single major reaction
d. A cascade of reactions
2. Opsonization facilitates
a. Phagocytosis
b. Lysis
c. Antigen clearance
d. Antigen-Antibody complex formation
3. The IgG subtype that is the most efficient in complement activation is

a. IgG1
b. IgG2
c. IgG3
d. IgG4
4. The classical pathway of complement activation is triggered by
a. IgG and IgM
b. IgG and IgA
c. IgG and IgE
d. IgG and IgD
5. The component of the complement system that augments opsonization is
a. C3b
b. C4b
c. C5b
d. C3a
6. The function of complement system does not include
a. Lysis
b. Opsonization
c. Antiviral antibodies
d. Immune clearance
7. Complement opsonization primarily enhances
a. Cell lysis
b. Phagocytosis
c. Immune clearances
d. Agglutination
8. The complement pathways do not include

a. Classical pathway
b. Alternate pathway
c. Antigen dependent pathway
d. Lectin pathway
9. The pathway that is antibody dependent is
d. Lectin pathway
10. The C1 component of the complement system has binding sites to
a. IgD
b. IgE
c. IgM
d. Toll like receptors
11. The antibody independent complement pathway is
b. Alternate pathway and lectin pathway
d. Lectin pathway
12. The complement pathway that is triggered by bacterial wall components is the
d. Lectin pathway
13. The Membrane Attack Complex does not include

a. C5b
b. C6
c. C2
d. C9
14. Anaphyllatoxins do not include
a. C3a
b. C3b
c. C5a
d. C4a
15. The solubilization and clearance of immune complexes is mediated by
a. C3a
b. C3b
c. C5a
d. C4a
16. Cleavage products of complement components mediate
a. Opsonization
b. Phagocytosis
c. Cell lysis
d. Inflammation
17. Opsonization is mediated by
a. C3
b. C4
c. C3b and C4b
d. C3a, C5a and C5b
18. The complement component peptide fragments are denoted by

a. Symbols
b. Small letters
c. Capital letters
d. Numbers
19. The smaller fragments of complement component cleaving are designated by
a. ‘a’
b. ‘b’
c. ‘c’
d. ‘d’
20. The functionally inactive proenzymes are known as
a. Antibodies
b. Abzymes
c. Zymogens
d. Amphoteric
21. All three complement pathways result in the formation of
a. C1
b. C2a
c. C3a
d. C5b
22. The initiation of the MAC formation is by
a. C3a
b. C3b
c. C5b
d. C3Bb
23. The regulation of Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) assembly is by

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. C3b
d. S protein
24. Immune complex clearance is mediated by the complement component
a. C1a
b. C3b
c. C2b
d. C5a
Chapter 16. Hypersensitivity Reactions
1. Hypersensitivity is also known as

a. Anergy
b. Tolerance
c. Allergy
d. Synergy
2. Mast cell degranulation resulting in histamine release is mediated by
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgE
d. IgD
3. Complement mediated hypersensitive reactions are facilitated by
a. Only IgG
b. Only IgM
c. Both IgG and IgM
d. Neither IgG nor IgM
4. The effector molecules of delayed type hypersensitive reactions are

a. C3a
b. C4a
c. C5a
d. T cell cytokines
5. IgE mediates
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity
6. IgG mediates
7. Immune complexes mediate
8. T cells mediate
9. The antigens that induce hypersensitive reactions are known as

a. Tollerogens
b. Allergens
c. Immunogens
d. Haptens
10. The condition of immediate hypersensitive reactions against commonly
occurring substances is known as
a. Entropy
b. Opsonization
c. Atopy
d. Cross reactivity
11. Atopic responses do not include
a. Hay fever
b. Eczema
c. Asthma
d. Tolerance
12. The ‘reaginic’ antibody class is
a. IgG
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgA
13. Histamine is stored in the granules of
a. Mast cells
b. Dendritic cells
c. Neutrophils
d. B cells
14. IgE production is increased by

a. IL-1
b. IL-2
c. IL-3
d. IL-4
15. Eosinophil recruitment and activation is enhanced by
a. IL-1
b. IL-5
c. IL-3
d. IL-4
16. The shock in systemic anaphylaxis is mediated by
a. INF-α
b. INF-ß
c. TNF- α
d. IL-3
17. Rhinitis is also known as
a. Asthma
b. Hay fever
c. Atopic dermatitis
d. Anorexia
18. The essential role of histamine is
a. Bronchoconstriction
b. Mucus production
c. Recruitment of mast cells
d. Vasodilation
19. The commonly administered drug for anaphylactic shock is

a. Heparin
b. Cortisone
c. Theophylline
d. Epinephrine
20. Transfusion reactions are similar to
21. Erythroblastosis fetalis is similar to
22. Hemolytic anemia that is drug induced is similar to
23. Anaphylaxis is mediated by
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgE
d. IgA
24. Hemolytic anemia is mediated by

a. IgG and IgA
b. IgM and IgG
c. IgE and IgD
d. IgA and IgE
25. Serum sickness is mediated by
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgE
d. IgA
26. Contact dermatitis is mediated by
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgE
d. T cells
27. An autoimmune disease caused by circulating Immune complexes is
a. Goodpasture’s syndrome
b. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disorder
c. Burkit’s lymphoma
d. Agammaglobunemia
28. Systemic Lupus is an example of
29. Rheumatoid arthritis is an example of

30. Anti DNA antibodies are produced in
31. Delayed type hypersensitive reactions form
Chapter 17. Vaccines
1. Antisera represent
a. Innate immunity
b. Active adaptive immunity
c. Passive adaptive immunity
d. Passive innate immunity
2. Vaccinations induce
a. Adaptive immune responses
b. Innate immune responses
c. Hypersensitive reactions
d. Tolerance
3. The pioneer in Vaccinations as a preventive medicine strategy was

a. Edward Jenner
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Karl Landsteiner
d. Ceaser Milstein
4. Passive immunization is by
a. Killed pathogens
b. Transferring preformed antibodies
c. Attenuated organisms
d. Booster doses of the pathogens
5. Passive immunization confers
a. Long lasting immunity
b. Immunological memory
c. Immediate but short lived immunity
d. Active adaptive responses
6. Natural maternal antibodies confer
a. Passively acquired immunity
b. Actively acquired immunity
c. Innate immunity
d. Memory induced immunity
7. Natural infection confers
c. Innate immunity
8. Attenuated organisms are used to confer

c. Innate immunity
9. Toxoids confer
c. Innate immunity
10. Botulism is controlled by
c. Innate immunity
11. Horse antivenin represents
c. Innate immunity
12. Rabies is treated by
c. Innate immunity
13. Vaccines, by inducing the actively acquired immunity confer

a. Short time immunity
b. Immunological memory
c. Immediate but short lived immunity
d. Passive immunity
14. Processing pathogens to prevent them from causing diseases significantly is
referred to as
a. Variolation
b. Adjuvants
c. Attenuation
d. Passaging
15. Inactivated whole organism bacterial vaccines include
a. Anthrax
b. Diphtheria
c. Tetanus
d. Hapatitis B
16. Inactivated whole organism viral vaccines include
a. Cholera
b. Typhoid
c. Influenza
d. Anthrax
17. An example for purified macromolecule vaccine is
a. Yellow fever vaccine
b. Measles vaccine
c. Typhoid vaccine
d. Diphtheria vaccine
18. An example of purified macromolecule vaccine is

a. Yellow fever vaccine
b. Tetanus vaccine
c. Typhoid vaccine
d. Rubella vaccine
19. The Typhoid vaccine contains
a. Only inactivated pathogens
b. Live attenuated pathogens or inactivated pathogens
c. Purified macromolecules
d. Combination of macromolecules from different strains
20. Hepatitis B vaccine contains
a. Inactivated pathogens
b. Live attenuated pathogens
c. Purified macromolecules
d. Recombinant surface antigens
21. The BCG vaccine is administered to prevent
a. Plague
b. Measles
c. Tuberculosis
d. Typhoid
22. The Varicella Zoster vaccine is administered to prevent
a. Rubella
b. Mumps
c. Chicken pox
d. Influenza
23. The vaccines that may revert to virulent form is

a. Attenuated vaccines
b. Inactivated vaccines
c. DNAvaccines
d. Subunit vaccines
24. Single immunization is effective for
c. DNAvaccines
d. Subunit vaccines
25. The least stable of all types of vaccines are
c. DNAvaccines
d. Subunit vaccines
26. The most stable of all vaccine types are
c. DNA vaccines
d. Subunit vaccines
27. The vaccines that can be easily produced and purified are
c. DNA vaccines
d. Subunit vaccines
28. The chemical widely used to produce inactivated vaccines is

a. Sodium chloride
b. DMSO
c. Formaldehyde
d. Hydrogen peroxide
29. Inactivated toxin is referred to as
a. Vaccine
b. Immunogen
c. Hapten
d. Toxoid
30. An example of recombinant vaccines is
a. Hepatitis B vaccine
b. Herpes simplex vaccine
c. Polio vaccine
d. Sabin and Salk vaccine
Chapter 18. Autoimmunity
1. Autoimmunity was aptly described initially as

a. Immunitas
b. Vacca
c. Horror autotoxicus
d. Humorous
2. Autoimmunity is as a result of
a. Appropriate responses to non-self antigens
b. Inappropriate responses to self antigens
c. Appropriate recognition of non-self antigens
d. Appropriate recognition of self antigens
3. Addison’s disease is an autoimmune disorder affecting

a. RBCs
b. Kidneys
c. Heart
d. Adrenal cells
4. Goodpasture’s syndrome is an autoimmune disorder affecting
a. Renal and lung basement membranes
b. Adrenal cells
c. Thyroid glands
d. Heart
5. Grave’s disease is an autoimmune disorder affecting
a. Kidney
b. Thyroid stimulating hormone receptors
c. Platelets
d. Erythrocytes
6. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura is an autoimmune disorder affecting
a. Thyroid
b. Platelets
c. Pancreas
d. Kidneys
7. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder affecting
a. Heart
b. Kidney
c. Acetylcholine receptors
d. Adrenal cells
8. Pernicious anemia is an autoimmune disorder affecting

a. Erythrocytes
b. Gastric parietal cells
c. Heart
d. Kidneys
9. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is an autoimmune disorder affecting
a. Heart
b. Adrenal cells
c. Thyroid
d. Kidneys
10. Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disorder affecting
a. Connective tissue
b. DNA
c. Brain
d. Kidney
11. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder affecting
a. Vertebrae
b. Connective tissue
c. RBC membranes
d. Heart
12. Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disorder caused by
a. Immune complexes and autoantibodies
b. T - helper cells
c. T - cytotoxic cells
d. NK cells
13. An example of organ specific autoimmune disease not involving the CNS is
a. Ankylosing spondylitis
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Myasthenia gravis
d. Grave’s disease
14. An example of organ specific autoimmune disease is
a. Scleroderma
c. Sjogern’s syndrome
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
15. An example of organ specific autoimmune disease is
a. Ankylosing spondylitis
b. Scleroderma
c. Myocardial infraction
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
16. An example of systemic autoimmune disease is
a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Goodpasteur’s syndrome
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Ankylosing spondylitis
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Addison’s disease
d. Pernicious anemia

a. Addison’s disease
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Scleroderma
d. Myasthenia gravis
b. Addison’s disease
c. Myasthenia gravis
d. Sjorgen’s syndrome
a. Goodpasteur’s syndrome
d. Systemic lupus erythematosus
21. The ‘butterfly rash’ is a characteristic feature of
a. Systemic lupus erythematosus
d. Addison’s disease
22. Multiple sclerosis affects
a. Kidneys
b. Heart
c. Nervous system
d. Lungs
23. The Poliovirus VP2 has a molecular mimicry to

a. HLA-DR molecules
b. Acetylcholine receptor
c. Insulin receptor
d. Corticotropin
24. The Papilloma virus E2 has a molecular mimicry to
a. Human IgG Fc portions
b. Myelin proteins
c. Insulin receptors
d. Acetylcholine receptors
25. The Rabies virus glycoprotein has a molecular mimicry to
a. Insulin receptor
b. Acetylcholine receptors
c. HLA-DR molecules
d. Human IgG Fc portions
26. The Measles virus P3 has a molecular mimicry to
a. Insulin receptors
b. HLA-DR molecules
c. Corticotropin
d. Human IgG Fc portions
Chapter 19. Immunodeficiency
1. Genetic or developmental immunodeficiency is known as

a. Secondary immunodeficiency
b. Tertiary immunodeficiency
c. Primary immunodeficiency
d. Acquired immunodeficiency
2. Acquired immunodeficiency is known as

a. Secondary immunodeficiency
b. Tertiary immunodeficiency
c. Primary immunodeficiency
d. Acquired immunodeficiency
3. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) is characterized by
a. Defective TCR signaling
b. Loss of Ig an TCR gene rearrangements
c. Loss of MHC Class II molecules
d. Low levels of IgA
4. Class II MHC molecules are not produced in
a. SCID
b. DiGeorge syndrome
c. Bare lymphocyte syndrome
d. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
5. Defective T cells and platelets is a characteristic feature of
a. DiGeorge syndrome
b. Gammaglobulinemias
c. Ataxia telangiectasia
d. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
6. Ataxia telangiectasia is characterized by
a. Low levels of B and T cells
b. Low levels of IgG only
c. Low levels of IgM only
d. Low levels of IgA only
7. Defective bacterial lysing capability is a characteristic feature of

a. SCID
c. Bare lymphocyte syndrome
d. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
8. An example of X linked immunodeficiency disorder is
d. SCID
9. An example of autosomal dominant immunodeficiency disorder is
d. SCID
10. An example of autosomal recessive immunodeficiency disorder is
a. SCID
c. Gammaglobulinemias
d. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
11. An experimental immunodeficient murine model is
a. Balb/c
b. Albino
c. Vistar
d. Nu/nu
12. The secondary acquired immunodeficiency is caused by

a. Rheovirus
b. Parvovirus
c. Retrovirus
d. Herpes-simplex virus
13. The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infects
a. CD8+ cells
b. CD4+ cells
c. B plasma cells
d. B memory cells
Chapter 20. Hematopoiesis
1. The cell type that can be produced by any of the hematopoietic pathways is
a. B-cells
b. T-cells
c. Dendritic cells
d. Macrophages
2. Myeloid stem cells do not produce
a. Neutrophils
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophils
d. Lymphocytes
3. The transcription factor, Ikaros is required for the development of
a. Cells of the lymphoid lineage
b. cells of the myeloid lineage
c. Cells of both lymphoid and myeloid lineage
d. Dendritic cells
4. The cytokine produced by stromal cells essential for hematopoiesis is

a. Interferon
b. IL-7
c. IL-2
d. Lymphokine
5. Stromal-cell surface molecule, Stem-Cell Factor (SCF) interacts with
a. VLA-4
b. CD7
c. BCR
d. C-kit
6. The approximate number of hematopoietic stem cells within the bone marrow
is
a. 1 in 5 x 104 cells
b. 5 in 5 x 104 cells
c. 10 in 5 x 104 cells
d. 100 in 5 x 104 cells
7. Progenitor cells do not have the capacity of
a. Multipotency
b. Differentiation
c. Self renewal
d. Proliferation
8. Common lymphoid progenitors do not produce
a. B cells
b. T cells
c. NK cells
d. Erythrocytes
9. Common erythroid progenitors do not produce

a. Erythrocytes
b. Neutrophils
c. T cells
d. Basophils
10. Common lymphoid progenitors produce
a. B cells
b. Erythrocytes
c. Platelets
d. Mast cells
11. Common erythroid progenitors produce
a. B cells
b. T cells
c. Neutrophils
d. NK cells
12. The cell type that the hematopoietic stem cells require for their development is
a. Lymphocytes
b. Stromal cells
c. Epithelial cells
d. Fibroblasts
13. The hematopoietic stem cells require for their development
a. Only soluble factors
b. Only adhesion molecules
c. Both adhesion and soluble mediators
d. Neither adhesion nor soluble mediators
14. The cytokine erythropoietin (EPO) is produced in the organ

a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Thymus
d. Spleen
15. The transcription factor that affects multiple cell lineages is
a. GATA-1
b. Ikaros
c. Oct-2
d. GATA-2
16. The transcription factor that affects erythroid lineage is
a. GATA-1
b. Ikaros
c. Oct-2
d. GATA-2
17. The transcription factor that affects lymphoid lineage is
a. GATA-1
b. Ikaros
c. Oct-2
d. GATA-2
18. An inhibitor of apoptosis is
a. bcl-2
b. bax
c. Caspase
d. bcl-Xs
19. A promotor of apoptosis is

a. bcl-2
b. fas
c. Ras
d. bax and fas
20. The surface markers that can be used for identification of cells in specific
stages are
a. MHC molecules
b. BCRs
c. Differntiation antigens
d. TCRs
Chapter 21. Transplantation Immunology
1. The approximate number of major blood groups identified in humans is

a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
2. The A and B blood group antigens are
a. Polysaccharides
b. Peptides
c. Glycosylated lipids
d. Oligosaccharides
3. The most physiologically significant blood group for transfusions is
a. MNS system
b. ABO system
c. Kell system
d. Kidd system
4. Tissue matching during organ transplant involves

a. MHC Class I
b. MHC Class II
c. MHC Class III
d. Both Class I and Class II molecules
5. Transplant rejection of solid tissues is mounted largely by
a. Innate immune mechanisms
b. Adaptive humoral immune mechanisms
c. Cell mediated responses
d. Macrophages
6. Allotransplantation refers to
a. Same species transplantation
b. Syngeneic transplantation
c. Same individual transplantation
d. Transplantation form a different species
7. Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) is a complication arising from
a. Host’s immune cells
b. Immune Functional cells from the transplanted tissue
c. Humoral responses
d. Lack of vascularization
8. A complement mediated transplant rejection is
a. Acute rejection
b. Chronic rejection
c. Hyper acute rejection
d. Delayed type organ failure
9. Tissue transplant from the same individual to different sites is known as

a. Isograft
b. Allograft
c. Autograft
d. Xenograft
10. Tissue transplant between genetically identical individual is known as
a. Isograft
b. Allograft
c. Autograft
d. Xenograft
11. Tissue transplant between genetically different individual is known as
a. Isograft
b. Allograft
c. Autograft
d. Xenograft
12. Tissue transplant between different species is known as
a. Isograft
b. Allograft
c. Autograft
d. Xenograft
13. Allograft rejection is mainly mediated by
a. Antibodies
b. Autoantibodies
c. T cells
d. Mast cells
14. Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) is common for

a. Heart transplants
b. Liver transplants
c. Kidney transplants
d. Bone marrow transplants
15. The graft rejection type which is mediated by pre-existing host antibodies is
a. Acute rejection
c. Hyperacute rejection
d. Delayed type hypersensitivity
16. The graft rejection type which is essentially a cell mediated one is
a. Acute rejection
c. Hyperacute rejection
d. Delayed type hypersensitivity
17. The differences in the antigenic profiles is due to mismatched
a. MHC molecule profile
b. Graft size
c. Transplantation duration
d. Age of the donor
18. MHC compatibility can be tested by
a. Immunodifffusion
b. ELISA
c. Mixed Lymphocyte Reaction (MLR)
d. Blood typing
19. High resolution HLA testing is done by

a. Serology
b. Mixed Lymphocyte Reaction (MLR)
c. Blood grouping
d. PCR methods
Chapter 22. Antibody Engineering
1. “Chimeric antibodies”, contain mouse and human protein sequences

approximately in the ratio of
a. 33 66
b. 10 90
c. 90 10
d. 66 33
2. The humoral response of a system to administered murine antibodies is known as
a. Polyclonal response
b. Monoclonal response
c. HAMA response
d. Tolerance
3. Chimeric antibodies are
a. Murine
b. Humanized
c. Human
d. Bovine
4. A chimeric mouse-human antibody has

a. Variable light chain human sequences
b. Constant light and heavy chain human sequences
c. Constant light chain murine sequences
d. Constant heavy chain murine sequences
5. Humanized antibodies have
a. Grafted CDRs
b. Human variable regions
c. Murine framework regions
e. Murine constant regions
6. A heteroconjugate antibody has
a. Dual specificity
b. Grafted CDRs
c. Conjugated toxin
d. No hinge region
7. Abciximab is an example of
a. Humanized antibody
b. Human-mouse chimeric antibody
c. Mouse antibody
d. Immunotoxin
8. Rituximab is an example of
a. Humanized antibody
b. Human-mouse chimeric antibody
c. Mouse antibody
d. Immunotoxin
9. A method not desired for the production of recombinant monoclonal antibodies is

a. Cloning
b. Phage display
c. Immunizations
d. Yeast display
10. Human monoclonal antibodies are best produced by
a. Primary immunizations
b. Transgenic animals
c. Affinity purification
d. Ion exchange
Chapter 23. Experimental Immunology and Immunotechniques
1. The selective medium used in hybridoma technology is

a. DMEM
b. HAT
c. RPMI
d. MEM
2. Hybridoma technology is used for the production of
a. Plasma cells
b. Immunoglobulins
c. Monoclonal antibodies
d. Interleukins
3. Indirect enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay uses
a. A primary antibody enzyme conjugate
b. A secondary antibody enzyme conjugate
c. An antigen enzyme conjugate
d. A free unbound enzyme
4. Agarose diffusion techniques are useful to study

a. Soluble antigens
b. Particulate antigens
c. Intra cellular antigens
d. Membrane associated antigens
5. The antibody affinity can be measured by
a. Double diffusion
b. Immunoelectrophoresis
c. ELISA
d. Equilibrium dialysis
6. For efficient precipitation reactions, the antibodies should be
a. Monovalent
b. Variable region Fragments
c. Bivalent
d. Constant region fractions
7. The zone in which maximum precipitation occurs is
a. Antigen excess zone
b. Equivalence zone
c. Antibody excess zone
d. All of the above
8. The technique that utilizes diffusion of an antigen sample into a gel
incorporated with antibodies is
a. Double diffusion
b. Crossed immunoelectrophoresis
c. Radial immunodiffusion
d. Rocket immunoelectrophoresis
9. The sensitivity of radial immunodiffusion is (in µg antibody/ml)

a. 1.0
b. 20 - 200
c. 0.3 - 0.1
d. 10 - 50
10. The sensitivity of Ouchterlony double diffusion is (in µg antibody/ml)
a. 1.0
b. 20 - 200
c. 0.3 - 0.1
d. 10 - 50
11. The sensitivity of immunoelectrophoresis is (in µg antibody/ml)
a. 1.0
b. 10 - 50
c. 0.3 - 0.1
d. 20 - 200
12. The sensitivity of rocket immunoelectrophoresis is (in µg antibody/ml)
a. 0.3
b. 2
c. 1.0
d. 10
13. The sensitivity of ELISA is (in µg antibody/ml)
a. 0.06 - 0.006
b. 0.006 - 0.0006
c. 0.01 - 0.0001
d. 1.0 - 2.0
14. The sensitivity of direct agglutination test is (in µg antibody/ml)

a. 0.3
b. 10 - 50
c. 1.0
d. 2
15. Immunoelectrophoresis is a combination of
a. Diffusion and electrophoresis
b. Electrophoresis and diffusion
c. Diffusion and precipitation
d. precipitation and diffusion
16. In Immunoelectrophoresis, the antiserum sample is applied
a. Perpendicular to the antigen electrophoresis direction
b. Parallel to the antigen electrophoresis direction
c. Along with the antigen sample
d. Before the antigen sample electrophoresis
17. The qualitative technique among the following is
a. Titre studies
b. ELISA
c. Immunoelectrophoresis
d. Mancini’s radial diffusion
18. The quantitative technique among the following is
a. Pattern studies
b. Crossed immunoelectrophoresis
d. Mancini’s radial diffusion
19. The quantitative technique where a negatively charged antigen is

electrophoresed into a gel containing antibody is
a. Single radial immunodiffusion

b. Rocket immunoelectrophoresis
c. Double diffusion
d. Immunoelectrophoresis
20. Excess antibody affects optimal results due to
a. Osmotic effects
b. Endosmosis effect
c. Prozone effect
d. Clumping effect
21. In direct hemagglutination, a positive reaction appears as
a. Button formation
b. Mat formation
c. Precipitation
d. Immune complex formation
22. In direct hemagglutination, a negative reaction appears as
a. Button formation
b. Mat formation
c. Precipitation
d. Immune complex formation
23. In agglutination inhibition technique, a positive reaction appears as
a. No visible clumping
b. Visible clumping
c. Diffusion
d. Precipitation
24. An immunotechnique that can be used both qualitatively and quantitatively is

a. Pattern identifications
b. Radial Immunodiffusion
d. ELISA
25. Specific antibody secreting cell enumeration can be performed by
a. ELISA
b. Chemiluminescence
c. ELISPOT
d. Western blotting
26. Identification of specific protein from within a mixture can be performed by
a. ELISA
b. Chemiluminescence
c. ELISPOT
d. Western blotting
27. Indirect immunostaining utilizes
a. Unconjugated secondary antibodies
b. Conjugated primary antibodies
c. Conjugated secondary antibodies
d. Only secondary antibodies
28. Direct immunostaining utilizes
a. Unconjugated secondary antibodies
b. Conjugated primary antibodies
c. Conjugated secondary antibodies
d. Only secondary antibodies
29. Specific cell types can be selectively obtained from a mixture by

a. ELISA
b. Flow sorting
c. Western blotting
d. Immunoprecipitation
30. IgG can be affinity purified by
a. Protein A/G
b. Protinase K
c. Concanavalin A
d. CM cellulose
31. Proteins can be fractionated by
a. Poll ethylene glycol
b. Dialysis
c. Electrophoresis
d. Inorganic salts
32. Excess salt can be removed from an antibody solution by
a. Electrophoresis
b. Dialysis
c. Precipitation
d. Agglutination
33. Excess salt can be removed from an antibody solution by
a. Electrophoresis
b. Precipitation
c. Gel filtration
d. Agglutination
34. A technique popularly known as ‘Himalayan Fantasy’ is

a. Western blotting
b. Immunoelectrophoresis
c. Immunofluorescence
d. Crossed Immunoelectrophoresis
35. A technique that utilizes 2 Dimensional electrophoresis is
a. Western blotting
b. Crossed Immunoelectrophoresis
d. Immunofluorescence
36. A most commonly used fluorescent dye to conjugate antibodies is
a. Horse radish peroxidase
b. DAPI
c. FITC
d. Coomassie brilliant blue
37. A most commonly used enzyme to conjugate antibodies is
a. Horse radish peroxidase
b. DAPI
c. FITC
d. Coomassie brilliant blue
38. Monoclonal antibodies can be produced by
a. Primary immunizations
b. Hybridoma technology
c. Electrophoresis
d. Chromatography
39. IgM can be precipitated by dialyzing the source sample with

a. Saline
b. PBS
c. Distilled water
d. Culture medium
40. The efficient murine strain for the hybridoma development is
a. Vistar
b. Albino
c. New Zealand
d. Balb/c
41. The efficient fusion partner cell line for murine hybridoma development is
a. CHO
b. HeLa
c. Sp2/o
d. Vero
42. The ideal medium for hybridoma culture is
a. PBS
b. Serum free medium
c. Balanced salt solution
d. Ringers solution
43. Sp2/o cells used for hybridoma are
a. Attached cell lines
b. Monolayers
c. Suspension cell lines
d. Aggregates
44. The ideal chemical fusogen for somatic cell hybridization, as used for
hybridoma technology is
a. DMSO
b. Polyethylene Glycol
c. Glycerol
d. Aminopterin
45. The selection medium to obtain positive hybridomas is
a. RPMI
b. DMEM
c. HAT
d. HT
46. Single hybridoma clones can be obtained by
a. Limiting dilutions
b. Cytokine supplementation
c. ELISA
d. Conditioned medium
47. Screening of hybridoma supernatants is best done by
a. Immunoelectrophoresis
b. ELISPOT
c. ELISA
d. Flow cytometry
48. Pure clones from a single culture unit having two growing hybridomas can be
done by
a. HAT medium
b. Polyethylene glycol
c. Sub cloning
49. The medium containing growth factors as obtained from another cell culture is called
a. HAT medium
b. Polyethylene glycol
c. Sub cloning
50. Human monoclonal antibodies can be obtained by
a. Primary immunization
b. Recombinant DNA
c. Fragmentation
d. Splicing
Chapter 24. Immunological Discoveries
1. The blood groups were first described by

a. Von Behring
b. Metchnikoff
c. Karl Landsteiner
d. Ehrlich
2. The first scientific and intentional preventive health approach was followed by
a. Von Behring
b. Lady Mary Wortley Montagu
c. Metchnikoff
d. Meister
3. The first documented, evidenced based immunizations were performed by
a. Edward Jenner
b. Ceaser Milstein
c. Joseph Meister
d. Elie Metchnikoff
4. Vaccination was scientifically explained and perfected by

a. Shibasaburo Kitasato
b. Emil von Behring
c. Louis Pasteur
d. Lady Mary Wortley Montagu
5. Attenuation of pathogenic organisms for vaccinations was first demonstrated by
a. Shibasaburo Kitasato
b. Emil von Behring
c. Louis Pasteur
d. Lady Mary Wortley Montagu
6. The demonstration that serum components confer immune protection was by
a. Emil von Behring and Shibasaburo Kitasato
c. Jenner and Pasteur
d. Joseph Meister and Pasteur
7. Serum antitoxins were first demonstrated by
a. Robert Koch
b. Max Theiler
c. Emil von Behring
d. Rosalyn R. Yalow
8. Cell mediated immunity was first demonstrated by
a. Charles Richet
b. Niels K. Jerne
c. Karl Landsteiner
d. Robert Koch
9. Phagocytosis was first described by

a. Charles Richet
b. Elie Metchnikoff
c. Max Theiler
d. Susumu Tonegawa
10. Antitoxins were first demonstrated by
a. Paul Ehrlich
b. Max Theiler
c. George Snell
d. Georges E. Köhler
11. Anaphylaxis was first described by
a. Jules Border
b. Rosalyn R. Yalow
c. Charles Richet
d. Niels K. Jerne
12. Complement-mediated immunity was first described by
a. Karl Landsteiner
b. Max Theiler
c. Cesar Milstein
d. Jules Border
13. Human blood groups were discovered by
a. Paul Ehrlich
b. Joseph Murray
c. Rolf M. Zinkernagel
d. Karl Landsteiner
14. The yellow fever vaccine was developed by

a. Daniel Bovet
b. Max Theiler
c. Jean Daussct
d. Tonegawa
15. Antihistamines were discovered by
a. Daniel Bovet
b. Max Theiler
c. Jean Daussct
d. Tonegawa
16. The structure of antibodies was first described by
a. Porter and Edelman
b. Macfarlane Burnet
c. Daniel Bovet
d. George Snell
17. Radioimmunoassay was developed by
a. Cesar Milstein
b. Georges E. Köhler
c. Susumu Tonegawa
d. Rosalyn R. Yalow
18. MHC system was discovered by
a. Snell, Daussct and Benacerraf
b. Porter and Edelman
c. Kohler and Milstein
d. Thomas and Murray
19. Monoclonal antibodies were first developed by

a. Snell, Daussct and Benacerraf
b. Porter and Edelman
c. Kohler and Milstein
d. Thomas and Murray
20. Immune regulatory theories were first described by
a. Jules Border
b. Rosalyn R. Yalow
c. Charles Richet
d. Niels K. Jerne
21. Immunoglobulin gene rearrangements were first described by
a. Rosalyn R. Yalow
b. Susumu Tonegawa
c. Rolf M. Zinkernagel
d. Joseph Murray
22. Pioneers in transplantation immunology were
a. Donnall Thomas and Joseph Murray
c. Macfarlane Burnet and Peter Medawar
d. Porter and Edelman
23. The role of MHC in antigenic processing, presentations and recognition was
described by
a. Donnall Thomas and Joseph Murray

c. Macfarlane Burnet and Peter Medawar
d. Porter and Edelman
24. Mast cells were first described by

a. Paul Ehrlich
b. Jules border
c. Edelman
d. Murray
25. Delayed type hypersensitivity was originally described by
a. Karl Landsteiner
b. Joseph Murray
c. Robert Koch
d. Ernst Haeckel
26. Haptens were described by
a. Karl Landsteiner
b. Joseph Murray
c. Robert Koch
d. Ernst Haeckel
27. Antigen-antibody interactions were first explained by
a. Merill Chase
b. Karl Landsteiner
c. John Marrack
d. Fredrick Robbins
28. Rh antigens were discovered by
a. Karl Landsteiner and Alexander Weiner
b. Otto Prausnitz and Heinz Küstner
c. Gerald Edelman and Rodney Porter
d. Thomas Weller and Frederick Robbins
29. Clonal selection theory of antibody generation was described by

a. Frank Macfarlane Burnet
b. Frederick Robbins
c. Rodney Porter
d. Kimishige Ishizaka
30. Interferons were discovered by
a. Gerald Edelman and Rodney Porter
b. Doreen Cantrell and Kendall A. Smith
c. Alick Isaacs and Jean Lindenmann
d. Paul Portier and Charles Richet
31. Adjuvants were first demonstrated by
a. Jules Freund and Katherine McDermott
b. Doreen Cantrell and Kendall A. Smith
d. Paul Portier and Charles Richet
32. Murine MHC were described by
a. George Snell and Peter A. Gorer
b. Otto Prausnitz and Heinz Küstner
c. Gerald Edelman and Rodney Porter
d. Thomas Weller and Frederick Robbins
33. Modern vaccine development methods were described by
a. Paul Portier and Charles Richet
b. John Enders and Thomas Weller and Frederick Robbins
d. Gerald Edelman and Rodney Porter
34. Lymphocyte circulation was described by

a. Kendall A. Smith
b. Jean Lindenmann
c. Rodney Porter
d. James Gowans
35. The role of thymus in cell mediated immunity was described by
a. Kendall A. Smith
b. George Snell
c. Rodney Porter
d. Jacques Miller
36. The mitogenic property of PHA was described by
a. Gerald Edelman
b. Peter Nowell
c. Jean Dausset
d. Timothy Mosmann
37. The plaque assay for cell enumeration was described by
a. Rosalyn Yallow
b. Karl Landsteiner
c. Niels Jerne and Albert Nordin
38. The role of IgE in hypersensitive reactions was described by
a. Sakaguchi
b. Matzinger
c. Kimishige Ishizaka
d. Kendall Smith
39. The ELISA technique was invented by

a. Peter Perlmann and Eva Engvall
b. Kholer and Milstein
40. Dendritic cells were described by
a. Sakaguchi
b. Rodney Porter
c. Ralph M. Steinman
d. Polly Matzinger
41. Monoclonal T cells were developed by
a. Polly Matzinger
b. Kendall A. Smith
c. Sakaguchi
d. Gerald Edelman
42. The first interleukins were discovered by
a. Polly Matzinger
b. Kendall A. Smith
c. Sakaguchi
d. Gerald Edelman
43. The first interleukin receptors were discovered by
a. Polly Matzinger
b. Kendall A. Smith
c. Sakaguchi
d. Gerald Edelman
44. The T cell Receptor (TCR) was discovered by

a. Gerald Edelman and Rodney Porter
b. Alick Isaacs and Jean Lindenmann
c. Ellis Reinherz, Philippa Marrack and John Kappler
45. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) was discovered by
a. Gerald Edelman
b. Luc Montagnier
c. Christopher E. Rudd
d. Kendall A. Smith
46. The functions of T Helper cells was described by
a. Kendall A. Smith
b. Christopher E. Rudd
c. Timothy Mosmann
d. Shimon Sakaguchi
47. T cell activation initiators were identified by
a. Kendall A. Smith
b. Christopher E. Rudd
c. Timothy Mosmann
d. Shimon Sakaguchi
48. Transitional B cells were discovered by
a. David Allman & Michael Cancro
b. Alick Isaacs and Jean Lindenmann
c. Kholer and Milstein
49. Regulatory T cells were identified by

a. Luc Montagnier
b. Kendall A. Smith
c. Timothy Mosmann
d. Shimon Sakaguchi
50. The first vaccine trial based on dendritic cells was reported by
a. Shimon Sakaguchi
b. David Allman
c. Mukherji et al.
d. Kendall A. Smith
51. The human papilloma virus vaccine was developed by
a. David Allman
b. Ian Frazer
c. Luc Montagnier
d. Gerald Edelman
ANNEXURE
ANSWERS FOR THE MCQs
Chapter 1. Introduction to Immunology
1. c 11. d 21. c
2. a 12. a 22. a
3. a 13. b 23. d
4. c 14. b 24. a
5. b 15. c 25. c
6. a 16. b
7. a 17. c
8. a 18. c
9. b 19. c
10. a 20. b
Chapter 2. History of Immunology
1. b
2. c
3. d
4. a
5. a
6. c
7. a
8. b
9. c
10. d
Chapter 3. Innate Immune System
1. c 11. d 21. d
2. b 12. a 22. a
3. a 13. d 23. b
4. b 14. b 24. b
5. b 15. c 25. d
6. a 16. c 26. c
7. a 17. c 27. c
8. c 18. c 28. d
9. a 19. a 29. a
10. b 20. c
Chapter 4. Adaptive Immune System
1. a 11. a 21. a 31. a 41. c

2. b 12. c 22. c 32. c 42. d
3. a 13. b 23. a 33. d 43. b
4. c 14. d 24. b 34. a 44. a
5. c 15. b 25. b 35. c 45. b
6. a 16. d 26. a 36. a 46. c
7. c 17. c 27. c 37. a
8. d 18. a 28. c 38. a
9. b 19. c 29. a 39. a
10. d 20. b 30. d 40. b
Chapter 5. Antigens
1. c 11. c 21. d 31. d

2. a 12. c 22. b 32. a
3. a 13. b 23. c
4. c 14. c 24. c
5. d 15. a 25. d
6. b 16. c 26. c
7. a 17. a 27. c
8. c 18. c 28. a
9. d 19. c 29. d
10. a 20. b 30. b
Chapter 6. Immunoglobulins
1. b 11. d 21. a 31. d 41. c

2. b 12. d 22. d 32. a 42. b
3. a 13. d 23. c 33. d 43. d
4. b 14. a 24. d 34. c 44. c
5. b 15. c 25. a 35. a 45. b
6. a 16. a 26. d 36. c 46. a
7. c 17. b 27. c 37. d 47. a
8. a 18. b 28. b 38. b 48. c
9. c 19. c 29. d 39. c 49. a
10. d 20. b 30. d 40. a 50. d
Chapter 7. Antigen-Antibody Interactions
1. a 11. b
2. b 12. c
3. a
4. a
5. d
6. a
7. c
8. a
9. b
10. a
Chapter 8. Humoral Immune Mechanisms
1. b 11. c
2. a 12. b
3. a 13. d
4. c
5. d
6. c
7. a
8. a
9. d
10. b
Chapter 9. Cell Mediated Immune Mechanisms
1. c 11. c 21. a
2. a 12. b 22. b
3. d 13. a 23. a
4. c 14. b 24. c
5. c 15. a 25. a
6. d 16. b
7. b 17. c
8. d 18. b
9. c 19. a
10. b 20. c
Chapter 10. Immunoglobulin Genes
1. a
2. c
3. d
4. c
5. d
6. b
7. d
8. c
9. b
10. c
Chapter 11. Major Histocompatibility Complex
1. d
2. c
3. a
4. a
5. a
6. d
7. c
8. c
9. a
10. d
11. b
Chapter 12. Antigen Processing and Presentation
1. c 11. c 21. d
2. c 12. a 22. c
3. a 13. c 23. a
4. a 14. b 24. d
5. c 15. c 25. c
6. a 16. b 26. a
7. a 17. d 27. c
8. b 18. a
9. a 19. a
10. c 20. b
Chapter 13. B Cell and T Cell Development
1. b 11. c 21. c
2. c 12. b 22. c
3. a 13. c 23. a
4. a 14. b
5. c 15. c
6. a 16. d
7. a 17. a
8. c 18. c
9. b 19. a
10. d 20. b
Chapter 14. Cytokines
1. d 11. b 21. b
2. a 12. a 22. a
3. c 13. b 23. c
4. d 14. c 24. d
5. a 15. d 25. b
6. d 16. a 26. c
7. c 17. c 27. c
8. a 18. d
9. d 19. a
10. c 20. b
Chapter 15. Complement System
1. d 11. b 21. d
2. a 12. d 22. c
3. c 13. c 23. d
4. a 14. b 24. b
5. a 15. b
6. c 16. d
7. b 17. c
8. c 18. b
9. a 19. a
10. c 20. c
Chapter 16. Hypersensitivity Reactions
1. c 11. d 21. b 31. d

2. c 12. c 22. b
3. c 13. a 23. c
4. d 14. d 24. b
5. a 15. b 25. a
6. b 16. c 26. d
7. c 17. b 27. a
8. d 18. d 28. c
9. b 19. d 29. c
10. c 20. b 30. c
Chapter 17. Vaccines
1. c 11. a 21. c
2. a 12. a 22. c
3. a 13. b 23. a
4. b 14. c 24. a
5. c 15. a 25. a
6. a 16. c 26. c
7. b 17. d 27. c
8. b 18. b 28. c
9. b 19. b 29. d
10. a 20. d 30. a
Chapter 18. Autoimmunity
1. c 11. b 21. a
2. b 12. a 22. c
3. d 13. c 23. b
4. a 14. b 24. c
5. b 15. c 25. a
6. b 16. d 26. c
7. c 17. a
8. b 18. c
9. d 19. d
10. c 20. d
Chapter 19. Immunodeficiency
1. c 11. d
2. a 12. c
3. b 13. b
4. c
5. d
6. a
7. d
8. b
9. a
10. a
Chapter 20. Hematopoiesis
1. c 11. c
2. d 12. b
3. a 13. c
4. b 14. b
5. d 15. d
6. a 16. a
7. c 17. b
8. d 18. a
9. c 19. d
10. a 20. c
Chapter 21. Transplantation Immunology
1. c 11. b
2. d 12. d
3. b 13. c
4. d 14. d
5. c 15. c
6. a 16. a
7. b 17. a
8. c 18. c
9. c 19. d
10. a
Chapter 22. Antibody Engineering
1. a
2. c
3. b
4. b
5. a
6. a
7. b
8. a
9. c
10. b
Chapter 23. Experimental Immunology and Immunotechniques
1. b 11. d 21. b 31. d 41. c

2. c 12. b 22. a 32. b 42. b
3. b 13. c 23. a 33. c 43. c
4. a 14. a 24. d 34. d 44. b
5. d 15. b 25. c 35. b 45. c
6. c 16. b 26. d 36. c 46. a
7. b 17. c 27. c 37. a 47. c
8. c 18. d 28. b 38. b 48. c
9. d 19. b 29. b 39. c 49. d
10. b 20. c 30. a 40. d 50. b
Chapter 24. Immunological Discoveries
1. c 11. c 21. b 31. a 41. b

2. b 12. d 22. a 32. a 42. b
3. a 13. d 23. b 33. b 43. b
4. c 14. b 24. a 34. d 44. c
5. c 15. a 25. c 35. d 45. b
6. a 16. a 26. a 36. b 46. c
7. c 17. d 27. c 37. c 47. b
8. d 18. a 28. a 38. c 48. a
9. b 19. c 29. a 39. a 49. d
10. a 20. d 30. c 40. c 50. c
51. b

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1.. Cellular Organization 164

PART 3: Developmental Biology

1. Gametes and Gametogenesis 236

PART 4: Genetics and Molecular Biology

1. Discoveries in Genetics and Molecular Biology 304

1. Introduction to Immunology 431

Solomon F.D. Paul

There are several people to whom I am indebted, including my parents, my

1. DNA, RNA and proteins are

5. The strongest bonds are

10. The energy of a typical carbon-carbon covalent bond has an energy of

15. The first law of thermodynamics states that

20. The tendency of non polar molecules to aggregate in water is known as

25. Bases are

35. Geometric isomeres are also known as

40. Reactions that require energy are

45. The synthetic biochemical pathways that require energy are

Chapter 2. Discoveries in Biochemistry

1. The prehistoric synthesis of important organic compounds by electric current

3. The atomic theory of matter was developed by

8. The biological chemical complexity was first elucidated by

13. The theory of chemical evolution of life was proposed by

18. The discovery of nucleic acids in nuclei of cells was made by

28. The first vitamin to be synthesized was

38. The 3D structure of Vitamin B12 was discovered by

43. The first codon of the genetic code was broken by

48. Prions were first reported by

1. The starch hydrolysis is performed by

6. Endopeptidases does not include

11. Proelastase is activated to elastase by

16. Gastric hydrochloric acid is secreted by

21. Histamine is secreted by

26. Vitamin B12 absorption is aided by

11. Which of the following is a low-energy compound

16. The change in free energy as a result of a reaction is denoted by

36. The hydrolysis of ATP to ADP yields

41. Proton gradient which is important for ATP synthesis is developed by

51. The standard free energy of hydrolysis of fructose 6-phosphate is

Chapter 5. Biological Oxidation and Reduction

4. Oxidation-reduction potential is also known as

9. Cytochrome oxidase is also denoted as

14. The redox potential of H+/H2 system is

19. The redox potential of cytochrome c1;Fe3+/Fe2+ system is

24. The redox potential of fumarate/succinate system is

29. Hydroxylation of drugs is mediated by

Chapter 6. Enzymes and Coenzymes

1. The specialized region on an enzyme that interacts with substrate is known as

3. In the ‘induced fit model’ of enzyme function,

8. An enzyme which is functionally active is known as

13. Coenzymes that bind tightly to an enzyme are known as

18. Cofactor of the enzyme acetyl CoA carboxylase is

23. Cofactor of the enzyme carboxypeptidase is

28. Cofactor of the enzyme glutathione peroxidase is

33. The enzyme chymotrypsin belongs to the group

38. The active site of an enzyme comprises of

43. The vitamin required for the function of Coenzyme A is

53. The class 3 enzymes are

58. Transferases are grouped as