KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN

RAIPUR REGION

AISSCE (CLASS XII) - 2020

OBJECTIVE QUESTION
BANK
AND
SAMPLE PAPERS
WITH ANSWERS
SUBJECT - CHEMISTRY

1
 GUIDANCE

Ms CHANDANA MANDAL
Deputy Commissioner,
KVS RO, Raipur Chhattisgarh

Dr. S. NALAYINI Shri.D VENKATESWARLU

Assistant Commissioner, Assistant Commissioner,
KVS RO, Raipur KVS RO, Raipur
Chhattisgarh Chhattisgarh

COMPILED & PREPARED BY -

Mrs. M. Sharda Rao

PGT (Chemistry)
Kendriya Vidyalaya No.2 Korba (NTPC)

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 PREFACE

Chemistry is really a wonderful and most scoring subject for a science student.
But if the subject is not introduced properly at initial level, our students find it
tough.
As CBSE has introduced more number of objective questions in Chemistry from
2020, it becomes the responsibility of the teacher to prepare the students for
this big change.20 objective questions of 1mark each,will include MCQ, match
the column, assertion and reasoning type, fill in the blanks or some picture
based questions. It will definitely help students to improve their scores in
exams and push the students to study each and every topic with proper
understanding. This will discourage students from rote learning and develop
analytical skill and reasoning abilities among students.
With the focus on equipping the learner with essential skills and granting them
confidence, the present material has been designed for obtaining desired
tangible output. This will prove good revision material once the syllabus is
completed. This support material consists of chapter-wise objective questions
with answers. Answers are being given separately to enable students to tally
their answers after examining their preparation. It will help the students to
know their conceptual weaknesses on which they can work upon before their
board exam.
This support material also consists of CBSE sample papers with marking
scheme. It will give the students an idea about the nature and latest pattern of
exam. They will be aware of the difficulty level of the questions asked in the
exam. It will also help the students to gain confidence and manage time
efficiently in the exam.
In the end, I earnestly hope that this material will not only improve the
academic the academic result of the students but also instil a sense of
confidence to raise their proficiency in learning the subject.

ALL THE BEST

M Sharda Rao
PGT(CHEM)
K.V NO.2 KORBA

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 ACKNOWLEDGEMENT

I hope this material will fascinate the students and make them feel excitement
for the subject. It gives me pleasure to acknowledge the valuable and
relentless contribution of following team members for bringing this material in
present shape.

1. Smt Farhana Khan ,PGT Chemistry K.V BMY Bhilai

2. Smt Sheela Chacko, PGT Chemistry K.V. Durg
3. Shri R.K Jha, PGT Chemistry K.V No.2 Raipur
4. SmtVimmi Thomas, PGT Chemistry K.V. No.1 Raipur
5. Shri S.D Sarjal, PGT Chemistry K.V Bilaspur
6. Shri S.K Chaini, PGT Chemistry K.V Raigarh
7. Shri Wasim Khan, PGT Chemistry K.V Dongargarh
8. SmtRohitaBansod, PGT Chemistry K.V Mahasamund
9. Shri J R Khute, PGT Chemistry K.V No.3 KusmundaKorba
10. Smt N Laxmi, PGT Chemistry K.V Bilaspur
11. Shri D.K Patle, PGT Chemistry K.V Durg
12. Shri Vijay Sahu, PGT Chemistry K.V Baikuntpur
13. SmtYashwantiKumariSahu, PGT Chemistry K.V Kanker
14. Shri A.S Bisht, PGT Chemistry K.V Rajnandgaon
While preparing this material it has been assumed that textbook questions
have been taken up during class room teaching by the teacher.

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 INDEX

S.No Contents Page No

1 Strategies for high quality results 6

2 Solutions 7-9
3 Electrochemistry 10 - 13
4 Chemical Kinetics 14 -17
5 Surface Chemistry 18 - 21
6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of 22 – 24
Elements
7 p-block Elements 25 - 27
8 d and f block Elements 28 – 30
9 Coordination Compounds 31 – 32
10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 33 – 35
11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 36 - 37
12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic acids 38-46
13 Amines 47-50
14 Biomolecules 51-53
15 Polymers 54-56
16 Chemistry In Everyday Life 57-58
17 Sample Question Paper 1with Marking Scheme 59-66
18 Sample Question Paper 2 with Marking Scheme 67-72

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 STRATEGIES FOR HIGH QUALITY RESULTS

• The subject should be projected as easy and scoring.

• Cover syllabus thoroughly and in time to give enough time for revision.
• Be a role model. Create love for the subject.
• Ensure regularity. Empathize with children.
• Summarizing unit/chapter by students. Revision test after each unit.
• Focus on NCERT and encourage self study.
• Connect theory with practical.
• Ask for submission of homework in practical so that follow is quick.
• Focus on objectives. Use concept maps.
• Provide question bank with emphasis on frequently asked questions.
• GiveCBSE repeated questions in monthly test. Make the students aware
/remind about their target.
• Proper identification of weak areas.
• Share top scorer’s answer script with slow learners.
• Positive reinforcement. Analysis of answers to assess problem areas
provides positive reinforcement.
• Conduct retest with slight modification in question paper.
• Give examples from everyday life, correlate with daily life.
• Peer learning. Group formation and collaborative learning.
• Motivate students and induce self belief.
• Limit the content to relieve pressure.
• Chalk out proper time-table. Time management at home and school,
especially during arrangement periods.
• Improve writing skills and presentation of answers.
• Teaching-testing- reteaching-retesting.
• Involve parents. Discovery method of learning (Heuristic method).

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 UNIT-1. SOLUTIONS
I. MCQ Type-
1. Which of the following units is useful in relating concentration of solution with its
vapour pressure?
(a) Mole fraction (b) parts per million (c) mass percentage (d) molality
2. Value of Henry’s constant KH
(a) increases with increase in temperature
(b) decreases with increase in temperature
(c) remains constant
(d) first increases, then decreases
3. Increasing the temperature of an aqueous solution will cause
(a) decrease in molality (b) decrease in molarity
(c) decrease in mole fraction (d) decrease in % (w/w)
4. Which of the following mixtures will show a positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
(a) Phenol and aniline (b) Chloroform and acetone
(c) Nitric acid and water (d) Methanol and acetone
5. Colligative properties depend on
(a) the nature of the solute (b) the number of solute particles in solution
(c) the physical properties of solute (d) the nature of the solvent
6. Which of the following aqueous solutions should have the highest boiling point?
(a) 1.0M NaOH(b) 1.0M NH4NO3(c) 1.0 M Na2SO4 (d) 1.0M KNO3
7. The unit of ebullioscopic constant is
(a) K kg mol-1 (b) K-1 kg mol (c) K kg-1mol-1 (d) K kg-1mol
8. In comparison to a 0.01 M solution of glucose, the depression in freezing point of a
0.01 M MgCl2 solution is
(a) the same (b) about twice (c) about three times (d) about six times
9. An unripe mango placed in a concentrated salt solution to prepare pickles shrivels
because
(a) it gains water due to osmosis (b) it loses water due to reverse osmosis
(c) it gains water due to reverse osmosis (d) it loses water due to osmosis
10. The values of Van’t Hoff factors for KCl, NaCl and K2SO4 respectively are-
(a) 2, 2 and 2 (b) 2, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 1 and 2 (d) 1, 1 and 1

II. VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

11. At the same temperature, H2 is more soluble in water than He. Which of the two has higher KH
value?
12. Out of 1M urea solution and 1M KCl solution, which has higher freezing point?
13. Why are the aquatic species more comfortable in cold water compared to warm water?
14. What is the expected value of Van’t Hoff factor for K4[Fe(CN)6] when it completely
dissociates in water?
15. What will happen to the freezing point of a solution when HgI2 is added to an aqueous
solution of KI?
16. Which one is preferred for expressing concentration of a solution – molarity or
molality? Give reasons.
17. Why is glycol and water mixture used in car radiator in cold countries?
18. State two characteristics of an ideal solution.
19. Two liquids boil at 1100C and 1300C respectively. Which one has higher vapour
pressure at 500C?
20. Why is vapour pressure of glucose solution lower than that of water?

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 III. ASSERTION& REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Note: In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of

reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
i. Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation
for assertion.
ii. Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
iii. Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
iv. Assertion and reason both are incorrect statements.

21. Assertion: Molarity of a solution in liquid state changes with temperature.

Reason: The volume of a solution changes with change in temperature.
22. Assertion: If on mixing the two liquids, the solution becomes hot, it implies that it
shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
Reason: Solution which shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law are accompanied by
decrease in volume.
23. Assertion: Greater the value of Henry’s constant of a gas in a particular solvent, greater
is the solubility of the gas at the same pressure and temperature.
Reason: Solubility of a gas is directly proportional to its Henry’s constant at the same
pressure and temperature.
24. Assertion: When a solution is separated from the pure solvent by a semi-permeable
membrane, the solvent molecules pass through it from pure solvent side to the solution side.
Reason: Diffusion of solvent occurs from a region of high concentration solution to a
region of low concentration solution.
25. Assertion: Azeotropic mixtures are formed only by non-ideal solutions and they may
have boiling points either greater than or less than both the components.
Reason: The composition of the vapour phase is same as that of liquid phase of the
azeotropic mixture.

IV. MATCH THE COLUMN

26. Match the laws given in column I with expression given in column II:

S. No Column I Column II
i Raoult’s law (a) Tf=Kf.m
ii Henry’s law (b) π = CRT
iii Elevation in boiling point (c) P =χ1pο 1+ χ2pο2
iv Depression in freezing (d) ) Tb = Kb.m
point
v Osmotic pressure (e) p = KHχ

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 ANSWERS
Q No. Answer
1 (a)Mole fraction
2 (a) increases with increase in temperature
3 (b) ) decrease in molarity
4 (d) Methanol and acetone
5 (b) the number of solute particles in solution
6 (c) ) 1.0 M Na2SO4
7 (a) K kg mol-1
8 (c) ) about three times
9 (d) it loses water due to osmosis
10 (b) ) 2, 2 and 3
11 He has higher KH value. More KH, less is solubility.
12 1M urea solution has higher freezing point
13 Solubility of a gas in water decreases with rise in temperature. Therefore, oxygen is more
soluble in cold water.
14 Van’t Hoff factor i = 5
15 K2HgI4 is formed. As a result, no. of solute particles in solution will decrease. ΔTf will
decrease, so Tf will increase.
16 Molality as it is independent of temperature
17 Addition of glycol to water reduces the freezing point of water and thus prevents water from
solidification in cold.
18 ΔHmix = 0 and ΔVmix = 0
19 Liquid A with lesser boiling point is more volatile and has higher vapour pressure at 800C
20 Glucose occupies some surface area of water but it does not contribute to vapour pressure due
to its non-volatile nature.
21 (i)
22 (ii)
23 (iv)
24 (iii)
25 (ii)
26 (i)-(c), (ii)-(e), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a), (v)-(b)

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 UNIT.2-ELECTROCHEMISTRY

1. Looking at the setup of an electrochemical cell when Ext.> 1.1 V

Write two things you will observe-

a.----------------------------------------------------------------------------------
b. -----------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. The two portion of an electrochemical cell are called
a. Half cells b. Redox couple
c. Half cells or Redox couple d. None of these
3. The limiting molar conductivity for NaCI, KBr and KCI are 126,152 and150
Scm2mol-1, the limiting molar Conductivity of NaBr is:
a. 278 Scm2mol-1b. 176 Scm2mol-1
c. 128 Scm2mol-1 d. 302 Scm2mol-1
4. Limiting molar conductivity of NH4OH is equal to -:
a. ΛomNH4Cl +ΛomNaCl + ΛomNaOH
b. ΛomNaOH + ΛomNaCl - ΛomNH4Cl
c. ΛomNaOH -ΛomNH4Cl - ΛomHCl
d. ΛomNH4Cl +ΛomNaOH - ΛomNaCl

5. How is electrical conductance of a conductor related with length and area of cross-
section of the conductor ?
a. G = l . a.k-1 b. G =k. l.a-1
c.G = k.a .l -1 d. G = k. l.a-2

6. The potential of a hydrogen electrode at pH = 10 is

a. 0.591 V b. 0.00V c. – 0.591 V d. -0.059 V
7. Which cell will measure standard electrode potential of copper electrode?
(i) Pt (s) | H2 (g, 0.1 bar) | H+ (aq. , 1 M) || Cu2+(aq.,1M) | Cu
(ii) Pt(s) | H2 (g, 1 bar) | H+ (aq. , 1 M) || Cu2+ (aq., 2 M) | Cu
(iii) Pt(s)| H2 (g, 1 bar) | H+ (aq. , 1 M) || Cu2+ (aq.,1 M) | Cu
(iv) Pt(s) | H2 (g, 1 bar) | H+ (aq.,0.1 M) || Cu2+ (aq.,1 M) | Cu
8. The difference between the electrode potentials of two electrodes when no current is
drawn through the cell is called ___________.
(i) Cell potential (ii) Electromotive Force
(iii) Potential difference (iv) Cell voltage
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Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)
Note : In the following questions two or more than two options may be correct.

9. The positive value of the standard electrode potential of Cu2+/Cu indicates that
(i) This redox couple is a stronger reducing agent than the H+/H2 couple.
(ii) This redox couple is a stronger oxidising agent than H+/H2.
(iii) Cu can displace H2 from acid.
(iv)Cu cannot displace H2 from acid.

10.What will happen during the electrolysis of aqueous solution of CuSO4 by using
platinum electrodes?
(i) Copper will deposit at cathode.
(ii) Copper will deposit at anode.
(iii) Oxygen will be released at anode.
(iv) Copper will dissolve at anode.
11.Match the terms given in Column I with the units given in Column II.

12. Match the terms given in Column I with the units given in Column II.

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13. Match the items of Column I and Column II on the basis of data given below:

Assertion and Reason Type Questions 1 to 12

Note : In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement
of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d)Both assertion and reason are false.
(e) Assertion is false but reason is true.
1. Assertion : Cu is less reactive than hydrogen.
Reason : EO Cu 2+/ Cu is negative.
2. Assertion : Eo cell should have a positive value for the cell to function.
Reason : Ecathode <Eanode
3. Assertion : Conductivity of all electrolytes decreases on dilution.
Reason : On dilution number of ions per unit volume decreases.
4. Assertion : Λm for weak electrolytes shows a sharp increase when the electrolytic
solution is diluted.
Reason : For weak electrolytes degree of dissociation increases with dilution of solution.
5. Assertion : Mercury cell does not give a steady potential.
Reason : In the cell reaction, ions are not involved in solution.
6. Assertion : Electrolysis of NaCl solution gives chlorine at anode instead of O2.
Reason : Formation of oxygen at anode requires overvoltage.
7. Assertion : For measuring resistance of an ionic solution an AC source is used.
Reason : Concentration of ionic solution will change if DC source is used.
8. Assertion : Current stops flowing when ECell = 0.
Reason : Equilibrium of the cell reaction is attained.
9. Assertion : EAg+/Ag increases with increase in concentration of Ag+ ions.
Reason : EAg+/Ag has a positive value.
10. Assertion : Copper sulphate can be stored in zinc vessel.
Reason : Zinc is less reactive than copper.
11. Assertion: Cu dissolves in HNO3
Reason: In nitric acid it is oxidised by nitrate ion and not by hydrogen ion
12. Assertion: Metals like platinum or gold are used as inert electrodes.
Reason:They do not participate in the reaction but provide their surface for
reactions and for the conduction of electrons.
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 ANSWERS

1. a. Electrons flow from Cu to Zn and current flows from Zn to Cu

b. Zinc deposits at anode and copper dissolves at cathode .
2. c is correct option but a,c are partially correct
3. c
4. d
5. c
6. c
7. c
8. b
9. ii) & v)
10. i) & iii)
11. Correct match: i) ---- c , ii) ---- d , iii) ---- a , iv) -----b
12. Correct match: i) ---- d , ii) ---- c , iii) ---- b , iv) -----a
13.Correct match: i) ---- c , ii) ---- a , iii) ---- b , iv) -----e, v) --- d ,
vi)--- g , vii) ----- f
Assertion -:
1. (a)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5. (e)
6. (a)
7. (a)
8. (a)
9. (e)
10. (d)
11. (a)

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 UNIT.3-CHEMICAL KINETICS
1. What is the order of the reaction which has rate law r = k [A]3/2[B]-1 ?
2. What is the ratio of the rate of decomposition of N2O5 to rate of formation of NO2?

2N2O5→4NO2 + O2
1. 1:4 b. 2:1 c. 4:1 d. 1:2
3. In the first order reaction the conc. of the reactants is reduced to 25% in one hour. The
half life period of the reaction is
a. 2hr b. 4hr c. 30 min d. 25 min
4. For a reaction X→Y +Z the half life is 10 min. In what period of time would the conc. of
X be reduced to 10% of the original concentration?
a. 20 min b. 33 min c. 15 min d. 25 min

5. Which one of the following reaction ends in infinite time?

a. zero order b. 2 order c. 3 order d. 1 order
6. The rate of reaction that does not involve gases, does not depend upon
a. pressure b. Temperature c. Concentration d. Catalyst
7. If the initial concentration of a reactant in certain reaction is doubled, the half life
period of the reaction is doubled. The order of reaction is
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
8. The rate constant in case of first order reaction is
a. inversely proportional to conc. units b. Independent of concentration
c. directly proportional to concentration d. inversely proportional to square of
concentration
9. If the rate of the reaction b/w gases is independent of pressure then the order of
reaction is
a. 1 b. 0 c. 2 d. 3
10. The first order reaction completed 90% in 90 min hence it is completed 50% in
approx
a. 50 min b. 54 min c. 62 min d. 27 min
11. The rate constant of a reaction becomes equal to the pre exponential factor when
a. absolute temp. is zero b. Activation energy is infinity
c. temperature is infinity d. Temperature in Celsius is zero
12. A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by
a. decreasing enthalpy b. Decreasing internal energy
c. decreasing activation energy d. Increasing activation energy

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13. In presence of a catalyst the heat evolved/absorbed during the reaction
a. increases b. Decreases c. Remains unchanged d. May increase or
decrease
14. For an endothermic reaction where ∆H represents the enthalpy of reaction in KJ per
mole the minimum value of activation energy will be
a. less than ∆H b. More than ∆H c.zero d. Equal to ∆H
15.In Haber’s process if 0.06 mole of hydrogen disappears in 10 min the no. Of moles of
ammonia formed in 0.3 min is
a. 0.018 b. 0.0012 c. 0.04 d. 0.036
16. Higher order (more than 3) reactions are rare due to
a. low probability of simultaneous collision of all the reacting species
b. increase in entropy and activation energy as more molecules are involved
d. shifting of equilibrium
17. When initial concentration of a reactant is doubled in a reaction, the half- life period
is not affected. The order of the reaction is
a. Second b. More than zero but less than first c. Zero d. First
18. Which of the following plots is correct for a zero order reaction?

19. The rate of a reaction doubles when the temperature is changed from 300K to
310 K.
Activation energy of the change is [R = 8.314 J K-1 mol -1, log 2 = 0.301]
a. 53.6 KJ mol -1
b. 48.6 KJ mol -1
c. 58.5 KJ mol -1
d. 60.5 KJ mol -1
20. On increasing temperature of the reacting system by 10 degrees the rate of reaction
almost doubles the most appropriate reason for this is
a. collision frequency increases b. Activation energy decreases
c. fraction of molecules having energy equal to threshold energy or more increases
d. the value of threshold energy decreases

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21. For a chemical reaction A→B it is observed that the rate of reaction doubles when the
concentration of A is increased four times. The order of reaction in A is
a. 2 b.1 c.0.5 d. 0
22. A reaction is 50% complete in 2 hrs and 75% complete in 4 hrs. the order of reaction
is
a. 0 b. 1 c.2 d.3
23.For a 2nd order reaction rate at a particular time is x. If the initial concentration is
tripled the rate will become
a. 3x b. 14x c.9x d. 27 x
24. Half life period of any 1st order reaction is
a. Directly proportional to the initial concentration of the reactant.
b. half of the rate constant
c. same for all reactions
d. independent of all concentrations
25. If the concentrations are expressed in mol per litre and time in s then the units of the
rate constant for the first order reaction are
a. mol per litre per sec b.per mol litre per second
c. per sec d. Mol2l-2s-1
REASON AND ASSERTION
Choose the correct option
a. Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is correct explanation of
assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason does not explain assertion.
c. Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
d. Both assertion and reason are incorrect.
e. Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.

1.Assertion: Order of the reaction can be zero or fractional.

Reason: we cannot determine order from balanced chemical equation.
2. Assertion: order and molecularity are same.
Reason: order is determined experimentally and molecularity is the sum of
stoichiometric coefficient of rate determining elementary step.

16
 3. Assertion: the enthalpy if reaction remains constant in the presence of a catalyst.
Reason: a catalyst participating in the reaction forms different activated complex and
lowers down the activation energy but the difference in energy of reactant and
product remains the same.

4. Assertion: all collision of reactant molecules lead to product formation.

Reason: only those collisions in which molecules have correct orientation and
sufficient kinetic energy lead to compound formation.
5. Assertion: Rate constants determined from Arrhenius equation are fairly accurate for
simple as well as complex molecules.
Reason: Reactant molecules undergo chemical change irrespective of their orientation
during collision.

ANSWERS
1. 0.5
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. D
6. A
7. A
8. B
9. B
10. D
11. C
12. C
13. C
14. B
15. B
16. A
17. D
18. A
19. A
20. C
21. C
22. B
23. C
24. D
25. C
REASON AND ASSERTION
1. B
2. E
3. A
4. E
5. C

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 UNIT.4-SURFACE CHEMISTRY

Q.1- Which of the following interface cannot be obtained –

a) Liquid-Liquid b) Solid-Liquid c) Liquid-gas d) Gas-Gas.

Q.2- How many of the following phenomenon are observed due to process of coagulation.
a) White tail left by very fast moving jet plane b) Use of alums in cleaning water
c) Irreversible destruction of lyophobic solution d) Cleansing action of detergents

Q.3- Which of the following process does not occur at the interface of phases?
a) Crystallisation b) Heterogeneous catalysis c) homogeneous catalysis d)
Corrosion
Q.4- Haemoglobin is example of -
a) Positively charged sol b) Negatively charge sol c) Peptising agent d) Bio-
catalyst
Q.5- Colour of colloidal solution depend on –
a) Wavelength of light b) Size of particle
b) Nature of particle d) All of these

Q.6- Statement-I Micelles are formed by surfactant molecules above the critical micelle
concentration.
Statement- II The conductivity of a solution having surfactant molecules decreases sharply at
the CMC.
a) Both I & II are correct.
b) Statement I & II are correct but II is not correct explanation of statement I
c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is Correct.
d) Both statement I & II are Incorrect.
Q.7- Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?
a) Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration.
b) Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration.
c) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride
d) Aqueous solution of Sugar.

Q.8- Which of the following is not a favorable condition for physical adsorption?
a) High pressure b) Negative ∆H c) High critical temp. of adsorption d) High
temp.

Q.9- Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected-

a) By addition of oppositely charged sol. b) By adding of an electrolyte.
c) By addition of lyophilic sol d) By boiling

Q.10- Which of the following substance will precipitate the negative charged emulsions?
a) KCl b) Glucose c) Urea d) NaCl

18
Q.11- What happens when a lyophilic sol is added to a lyophobic sol?
a) A film of lyophobic sol is formed over lyophilic sol. b) Lyophobic sol is protected
c) A film of lyophilic sol is formed over lyophobic sol d) Lyophilic sol is protected

Q.12- Which of the following process is not responsible for the presence of electric charge on
the sol particles?
a) Electron capture by sol particles. b) Adsorption of ionic species from
solution.
c) Formation of Helmholtz electrical double charge d) Absorption of ionic species from
solution.

Q.13- Positively charged colloidal solution is -

a) SnO2 b) AS2S3 c) Gum d) None of these.

Q.14- out of the following which one can be explained by adsorption theory?
a) Homogeneous catalysis b) Heterogeneous catalysis
c) Enzyme catalysis d) Acid base Catalysis

Q.15- The charge on colloidal particles is due to –

a) Presence of electrolyte b) Very small size of particles
c) Adsorption of ions from the solution d) None of these.

Q.16- Which of the following statements is not true for a lyophobic sol.
a) it Can be easy solvated b) It carries charge
c) The coagulation of this sol is irreversible in nature d) It is less stable in a solvent
Q.17- Which group elements show maximum catalytic activity –
a) Group 1 b) Group – 7 c) Group -9 d) Group 7-9
Q.18 – H2 Gas is adsorbed on activated charcoal to a very little extent in comparison to easily
liquefiable gases due to –
a) Very strong van der walls interaction. b) Very weak van der walls forces
c) Very low critical temperature d) Very high critical temperature
Q.19- During electro-osmosis of Fe(OH)3 sol.
a) Sol particle move towards anode. b) Sol particles move towards cathode.
c) The dispersion medium moves towards anode. d) The dispersion medium moves
towards cathode.
Q.20- Surface tension of lyophilic sols is –
a) Lower than water b) More than water c) Equal to water d) None of these
Q.21- At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as-
a)Molecular colloid b) Associated colloid c) Macromolecular colloid d) Lyophilic
colloid.

19
Q.22- Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for
AgI/Ag+ sol?
a) Na2S b) Na3SO4 c) Na2SO4 d) NaCl
Q.23- Why is desorption is important for a substance to act as good catalyst ?
Q.24-What are main parameters of Froth Floatation?
Q.25- Give a specific term for the process when H2S gas is passed through arsenic oxide
solution.
Q.26- Give one example each of lyophobic sol and lyophilic sol.
Q 27- Why are medicines more effective in colloidal state ?
Q.28- Why are sulphide particles are wetted by oil not by water?
Q.29- Which enzyme is use to convert sugar into glucose?
Q.30- Why does physiosorption decrease with the increase of temperature?

20
 ANSWERS
1) d) Gas-Gas
2) b) Use of alums in cleaning water & c) Irreversible destruction of lyophobic solution
3) c) homogeneous catalysis
4) a) Positively charged sol
5) d) All of these
6) b) Statement I & II are correct but II is not correct explanation of statement I
7) b) Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration.
8) d) High temp.
9) c) By addition of lyophilic sol
10) d) NaCl
11) b) Lyophobic sol is protected
12) b) Adsorption of ionic species from solution.
13) a) SnO2
14) b) Heterogeneous catalysis
15) c) Adsorption of ions from the solution
16) a) it Can be easy solvated
17) d) Group 7-9
18) b) Very weak van der walls forces
19) c) The dispersion medium moves towards anode.
20) a) Lower than water
21) b) Associated colloid
22) b) Na3SO4
23) To remove product & further create apace for the other reactant molecule to approach
surface & react.
24) a) Frothers( Pine Oil or Eucalyptus oil b) Collectors (Potassium ethyl xanthate) c) Froth
Stablizrs
25) Double decomposition.
26) Lyophobic Sol – Gold Sol, AS2S3 Sol Lyophilic sol – sol of starch, sol of gum
27) Because in colloidal form medicines are more easily assimilated due to large surface area.
28) Because they have large size thus poor hydration.
29) Invertase
30) Since, adsorption is a exothermic and according to Le-Chatelier’s principle, low
temperature is favourable for physical adsorption.
Solid + Gas ---------→ Gas adsorbed on solid + heat

21
 UNIT.5-GENERAL PRINCIPLES & PROCESSES OF ISOLATION OF ELEMENTS
Q.1. low melting point is refined by the process ______________.

Q2. Bauxite ore can be concentrated by the ________________ process.

Q3. The method used to convert a carbonate ore into its oxide is ___________.

Q4. The blistered appearance of blister copper is due to the evolution of _____ gas.

Q5. Complete the following reaction taking place in vapour phase refining:

Ni + CO →

Q6. An ore contains silica as impurity. On adding a suitable flux, the compound formed is known as
_____________.

Q7. Copper is extracted by ________ method from its low grade ores.

Q8.In electrolytic reduction process of Alumina,_____________ is the reducing agent.

Q.9.Reduction of metal oxide is easier if metal formed is in liquid state, as ___________change is

more on +ve side for the process.

Q.10. The name of the process in which the following reaction takes place is_______________.

2Al2O3 + 3C 4Al + 3CO2

Q.11.The metal which can be obtained from anode mud is-

a) Cu b) Fe c) Ag d) Zn

Q.12. Cu2S can be concentrated by which method

a) Calcination b) Froth flotation

c) Magnetic separation d) Hydraulic washing

Q.13 .Which of the following is an oxide ore-

a) Zinc blende b) Calamine c)Zincite d) Copper pyrite

Q.14. Which of the following is not a carbonate ore-

a) Copper glance b) Calamine c) Siderite d)

Malachite

Q.15. If ore and gangue differ in their gravities, the suitable method for concentration of ore is

a) Magnetic Separation b) Froth flotation method

c) Hydraulic washing d) Leaching

16 to 20 are assertion reason type

a) Statement 1 iscorrect,statement2isthecorrectreasonforstatement1
b) Statement1iscorrect,statement2iscorrectbutdoesnotgivereasonofforstatement2
c) Statement1iscorrect,statement2isfalse
d) Statement1isfalse,statement2iscorrect

22
16) Statement 1) All ores are minerals.

Ores are minerals from which metals can be extracted conveniently and
Statement 2)
economically.

17) Statement 1) Cu is obtained by calcination of copper pyrite and the bi-product

obtained is CO2 .
Statement 2) The by-product obtained is SO2& is used in manufacture of sulphuric
acid.
18) Statement 1) In Bayer’s process the ore is heated with Conc. Ca(OH)2.
Statement 2) The ore used in Bayer’s process is atmospheric & is soluble in NaOH
therefore ore is concentrated.
19) Statement 1) Froth flotation is used for concentration of sulphide ores.
Statement 2) Cresol is used as a depressant in froth flotation.
20) Statement 1) Metal oxide can be easily reduced with carbon.
Statement 2) Metal oxide + C ⎯→ Metal + CO G= -xKJ

Q.21. In electrolytic reduction of alumina apart from CaF2, ___________can also be used to lower
the melting point of the mix.

Q.22. During the extraction of copper, having a form of iron as impurity, the formula of the slag
formed by adding silica is ___________.

Q.23 Cast iron is made by melting_________ with scrap iron and coke using hot air blast.

Q.24. .During electrolytic refining, the impure strip of copper undergoes ____________at the
electrode.

Q.25 The reaction responsible for formation of blister copper is -

a) 2Cu2O+Cu2S -----------→ 6Cu+SO2

b )Cu2O + CO -----------→ 2Cu + CO2

c)2Cu2S+3O2-----------→ 2Cu2O+2SO2

d)2Cu2+(aq) +Fe(s) -----------→ Cu(s)+Fe2+(aq)

23
 ANSWERS
Q1. Ans. Liquation

Q2. Ans. Leaching

Q3. Ans. Calcination

Q4. Ans. SO2

Q5 Ans. [Ni(CO)4]

Q6. Ans. Slag

Q7. Ans. Hydrometallurgy

Q8. Ans.Carbon/Graphite

Q.9. Ans.Entropy

Q.10. Ans.Hall-Heroult process

Q.11. Ans.(c)

Q.12. Ans.(b)

Q.13 . Ans.(c)

Q.14 Ans.(a)

Q.15. Ans.(c)

Q.16 Ans (d)

Q.17 Ans (d)

Q.18 Ans (d)

Q.19 Ans (c)

Q.20 Ans (a)

Q.21 cryolite/Na3AlF6

Q.22 FeSiO3

Q.23 pig iron

Q.24 Oxidation

Q.25 Ans (a)

24
 UNIT.6- p- BLOCK ELEMENTS
(A) Multiple Choice Questions
1. XeF2 is iso structural with:
(a) BaCl2 (b) ICl2-
(c) TeF2 (d) SbCl3

2. The catalyst used in Deacon’s process is:-

(a) Cu2 Cl2 (b) CuCl2
(c) ZnCl2 (d) AgCl

3. Noble gases have very low boiling point because of

(a)Weak Van der Waal’s forces (b)chemically inert
(c) High ionization enthalpy (d) Positive electron gain enthalpy

4. A greenish yellow gas with pungent smell whichwhen dissolved in water forms a
bleaching agent is:-
(a) Cl2 (b) F2
(c) Br2 (d) I2

5. Name the process for preparation of Sulphuric Acid

(a) Ostwald process (b) Haber’s process
(c) Contact process (d) Wacker’s process

6.Sulphur shows paramagnetic behaviour in which state

(a)S8 (b)S2
(c)S6(d)S4

7. Which neutral molecule would be iso electronic with ClO-

(a)ClF (b)ClF3
(c)IF (d)ClO2

8.The correct increasing order of thermal stability of hydrides of 16th group is

(a) H2O<H2S <H2Se<H2Te<H2Po
(b) H2Po<H2Te<H2Se< H2S<H2O
(c) H2S<H2Se<H2Te<H2Po<H2O
(d) H2S<H2Se<H2O<H2Po<H2Te
9. Oxidation state of oxygen is +2 in which the following compound
(a) Cl2O (b) O2F2
(c) OF2 (d) N2O

10. SF6 is a kinetically inert substance because:-

(a) Fluorine is highly electronegative
(b)It is sterically protected
(c)Greater difference in electro negativities of S & F
(d)Larger size of S atom
11.SO3is more acidic than SO2
(a) Oxidation state of sulphur is higher in SO3
(b) SO3 is polar but SO2is non polar
(c) SO3is non polar but SO2is polar
(d) All the S-O bonds in SO3are non-identical

25
12.XeF2has a straight linear structure because
(a)Xe is sp3d3 hybridized having 6 B.P. & 1 L.P.
(b)Xe is sp3d2 hybridized having 4 B.P. & 2 L.P.
(c)Xe is sp3d hybridized having 2 B.P. & 3 L.P.
(d)Xe is sp3 hybridized having 3 B.P. & 1 L.P.
13. A Halo acid that can cause etching of glass is-
(a)HI (b)HF
(c)HCl (d)HBr

14.Out of the following which will undergo disproportionation reaction -

(a)ClO- (b)ClO4-
(c)Cl- (d)ClO3-

15. Product of the following reaction is

Xe(g)+F2(g) → ?
(Xe in Excess)
(a)XeF4 (b)XeF2
(c)XeF6 (d)XeF7

(B) FILL IN THE BLANKS

16. Name the halogen element which is radioactive in nature…………
17.Complex compound of Xenon prepared by Neil Bartlett was ……………
18. Excess of Cl2 with NH3, forms ……………………… which is an explosive.
19.Iron reacts with HCl to form ……………………due to evolution of hydrogen.
20.O3 is used as bleaching agent as it provides..................
(C) ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Note : In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason
is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, but reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct statement.
(e) Both assertion and reason are wrong statements.
21.Assertion: HI cannot be prepared by the reaction of KI with concentrated H2SO4
Reason: HI has lowest H–X bond strength among halogen acids.
22.Assertion: Both rhombic and monoclinic sulphur exist as S8 but oxygen exists as O2.
Reason: Oxygen forms pπ – pπ multiple bonds due to small size and small bond length but pπ
– pπ bonding is not possible in sulphur.
23.Assertion: SF6 cannot be hydrolyzed but SF4 can be.
Reason: Six F atoms in SF6 prevent the attack of H2O on sulphur atom of SF6.

26
24.Assertion: NaCl reacts with concentrated H2SO4 to give colourless fumes with pungent
smell. But on adding MnO2 the fumes become greenish yellow.
Reason: MnO2 oxidizes HCl to chlorine gas which is greenish yellow
25. Assertion: Reaction of SO2 and H2S in the presence of Fe2O3 catalyst gives elemental
sulphur . Reason: SO2 is a reducing agent.

ANSWERS
(A) Multiple Choice Questions
1. (b) ICl2-
2. (b) CuCl2
3. (a)Weak Van der Waal’s forces
4. (a) Cl2
5. (c) Contact process
6. (b)S2
7. (a)ClF
8.(b) H2Po<H2Te<H2Se< H2S<H2O
9. (c) OF2
10.(b)It is sterically protected

11.(a) Oxidation state of sulphur is higher in SO3

12.(c)Xe is sp3d hybridised having 2 B.P. & 3 L.P.

13.(b)HF

14. (d)ClO3-

15.(b)XeF2

(B) FILL IN THE BLANKS

16.Astatine 17.Xe+PtF6-18.Nitrogen trichloride NCl3
19.FeCl2 20.nascent oxygen
(C) ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
21.(b) 22.(a) 23.(a) 24.(a) 25.(c)

27
 UNIT.7- d AND f BLOCK ELEMENTS
1. Why does copper not replace hydrogen from acids?
2. Why do transition metals show variable oxidation states?
3. Complete the following equation :
Cr2O72- + 6Fe2+ + 14H+→
4. Out of the ions Co2+ and Ti4+, which one is coloured in aqueous solution? (At. No. Co =
27, Ti = 22)
5. Write the electronic configuration of Co2+.
6. Name the transition metal of 3d series which does not have partially filled d-orbitals.
7. Why copper(I) ion is not stable in an aqueous solution?
8. Cu+ is colourless but Cu2+ is coloured. Why?
9. Which element of the first transition series has highest third ionization energy?
10. Name an oxoanion having oxidation number of metal (3d series) equal to its group
number.
11. Why is the highest oxidation state of a metal exhibited in its oxide or fluoride only?
12. When orange solution containing Cr2O72- ion is treated with an alkali, a yellow solution
is formed and when H+ ions are added to yellow solution, an orange solution is
obtained .Explain why this happens?
13. The correct statement about Cr2+ and Mn3+ is (At. No. Cr = 24, Mn=25) –
a. Cr2+ is a reducing agent.
b. Mn3+ is a reducing agent.
c. Both Cr2+ and Mn3+ exhibit d5 outer electronic configuration.
d. When Cr2+ is used as a reducing agent, it attains d5 configuration.
14. The elements belonging to third i.e. 5d series of transition elements are –
a. Y to Cd
b. La to Hg
c. Ac to Cn
d. La to Lu
15. Identify the configuration of transition element which shows highest magnetic moment.
a. 3d7
b. 3d5
c. 3d2
d. 3d8
16. The formula for calculation ‘spin only’ magnetic moment is –
a. 𝑛(𝑛 + 2)
b. √𝑛(𝑛 − 2)
c. √𝑛(𝑛 + 2)
d. 𝑛(𝑛 − 2)
17. When acidified K2Cr2O7 is added to Sn2+ salts, then Sn2+ changes to –
a. Sn4+
b. Sn3+
c. Sn+
d. Sn

28
 18. Which of the following pairs will have equal effective magnetic moment?
a. Cr3+ and Mn2+
b. Cr2+ and Fe2+
c. V2+ and Sc3+
d. Cr3+ and V2+

Variable oxidation states are shown by the transition elements. It is due to the presence of
valance electrons in ns and (n-1)d orbitals. Upto +2 oxidation states ns electrons are involved
and for higher oxidation state (n-1)d electrons are involved. Now answer question from 19 to
19. The most common oxidation state shown by the first row transition elements is –
a. +2
b. +3
c. +4
d. All of these.
20. The transition metal which shows the highest oxidation state is –
a. Mn
b. Pt
c. Fe
d. Ni
21. The cause of variable oxidation state among transition elements is –
a. They all exist in more than one oxidation state
b. The all form complexes
c. They all have sub-shells
d. The valence electrons are in two different sub-shells.

After a birthday party, Siddhartha used potassium permanganate to wash the stainless steel
utensils. Now answer the following questions-
22. What is the composition of stainless steel?
23. Why did Siddhartha use KMnO4?
24. What is the oxidation state of Mn in KMnO4?
25. Mention two values of this act of Siddhartha?

29
 ANSWERS
1. As copper has positive electrode potential and lies below hydrogen in electrochemical
series.
2. The electrons from (n-1)d and ns orbitals participate in bonding as their energies are close.
3. 2Cr3+ + 6Fe3+ + 7H2O
4. Co2+ is coloured as it has unpaired electrons. Ti4+ has empty 3d orbitals, so colourless.
5. [Ar]3d7
6. Zn
7. Cu+ undergoes disproportionation i.e 2 Cu+ (aq) Cu2+ (aq) + Cu.
Cu2+ has high hydration enthalpy.
8. Cu2+salts are coloured as 3d orbitals are partially filled (3d9 4so) and d-d transitions takes
place. Cu+ salts are colourless due to absence of d-d transitions as fully filled 3d10 4so
configuration.
9.Mn as third electron has to be removed from half-filled 3d5 orbitals.
10. MnO4 -
11. Oxygen and fluoride have small size and high electronegativity. Hence, they can oxidise
the metal to the highest oxidation state.
12. it is due to interconversion based on nature of medium.
Cr2O7 2-CrO4 2-
Dichromate Chromate
(Orange) (yellow)
13. (a)
14. (b)
15. (b)
16. (c)
17. (a)
18. (d)
19. (a)
20. (a)
21. (d)
22.iron, carbon, nickel and chromium.
23. becauseKMnO4 is disinfectant.
24. oxidation state of Mn is +7.
25. care, concern, responsible attitude, hygiene, awareness, scientific attitude etc.(any two)

30
 UNIT.8- CO ORDINATION COMPOUNDS

Q1 Write down the IUPAC name of the complex: K3[Fe(C2O4)3] .

Q2 Using IUPAC norms write down formula for the following: Pentaamminenitrito-N-
Cobalt(III) .
Q3 When one mole of CrCl3.6H2O is treated with excess of AgNO3,
3 moles of AgCl are obtained. The formula of complex is ----------.
Q4 Write down the hybridization and shape of [Fe(CN)6]3-
(Atomic number of Fe-26).
Q5 What type of isomerism is shown by the complex [Co(en)2Cl2]+
Q6 On the basis of crystal field splitting theory ,write down the electronic configuration
for d4 ion if 0 >P.
Q7 Write the names counter ions in :
[(i) Hg[Co(SCN)4] and [Pt(NH3)4]Cl2.
Q8 Write the oxidation state of nickel in [Ni(CO)4]
Q9 What is the coordination number of central atom in[Co(C2O4)3]3-.
Q10 Write the of complex compound used in chemotherapy.
Q11 Arrange the following ligands in increasing order of ∆0(crystal field splitting energy)
- NH3,I-,CO,en.
Q12 Ziegler –Natta catalyst is TiCl4 dissolved in--------------.
Q13 For the complex[Fe(en)2Cl2]Cl identify the number of geometrical and optical
isomers .
Q14 Name the central atom/ion present in :
(i) Chlorophyll (ii)Vitamin B-12 .
Q15 What type of structural isomerism is present by the following complexes:
[Mn(CO)5(SCN)]+ and [Mn(CO)5(NCS)]+.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q16 Which of the following complex ion shows geometrical isomerism ?
(a) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2] + (b) [Pt(NH3)3Cl]+
(c)Co(NH3)6]3+ (d) [Co(CN)5(NC)]3-.
Q17 The compounds [Co(SO4)(NH3)5]Br and [Co(SO4)(NH3)5]Cl
Represent: (a)linkage isomerism (b)ionization isomerism
(c) coordination isomerism (d) no isomerism.
Q18 Crystal field splitting energy for high spin d4 octahedral complex is-
(a)-1.6∆0 (b)-1.80∆0
(c)-1.2∆0 (d)-0.6∆0
Q19 Which of the following outer octahedral complexes have same number of unpaired
electrons?
(a)[MnCl6]3- (b)[FeF6]3-
3-
(c) [CoF6] (d) [Ni(NH3)6]2+
Q20 Which of the following compounds are homoleptic?
(a) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (b)[Co(NH3)4Cl2]+
2-
(c)[Ni(CN)4] (d)[Ni(NH3)4Cl2].

ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are true, reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
© Assertion is true, reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false, reason is true.

31
Q21 Assertion : Toxic metal ions are removed by chelating ligands.
Reason: Chelate complexes tend to be more stable.
Q22 Assertion: Linkage isomerism arises in coordination compounds containing
ambidentate ligand .
Reason: Ambidentate ligand has two different donar atoms.
Q23 Assertion:Tetrahedral complexes donot show geometrical isomerism.
Reason: Bond angle in tetrahedral geometry is 109.50.
Q24 Assertion:[Ni(CO)4] is diamagnetic and tetrahedral in shape.
Reason: [Ni(CO)4] contains no unpaired electron and involves dsp2
hybridisation
Q25 Assertion: [FeF6]3-is low spin complex.
Reason: Low spin complexes have lesser number of unpaired electrons.

ANSWER

Ans1 Potassium trioxalatoferrate(III)

Ans2 (i) [Co(NH3)5NO2]2+ .
Ans3 [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3.
Ans4 Hybridisation-d2sp3 and Octahedral geometry.
Ans5 It will show geometrical as well as optical isomerism.
Ans6 t2g4eg0
Ans7 (i) Hg (ii) Cl2
Ans8 Zero oxidation state.
Ans9 CN-6 of central metal atom Co.
Ans10 Cis-platin, [Pt(NH3)2 ]Cl2.
Ans11 I- NH3 en CO.
Ans12 Ziegler natta catalyst is dissolved in triethylaluminium.
Ans13 Geometrical two (cis and trans) and optical isomer one.
Ans14 (i) Mg (ii) Co .
Ans15 Linkage isomerism because thiocyanato ligand is ambidentate ligand.
Ans16 [Cr(H2O)4Cl]+shows geometrical isomerism because it contains
Two sets of equivalent ligands,four H2O and 2 Cl.
Ans17 (d) no isomerism,because they havenot same molecular formula.
Ans18 (d) -0.6 0.
Ans19 (a) ,(c),both will have 4 unpaired electrons.
Ans20 (a), (c),because both have all ligands identical.
Ans 21 (a) because ligands chelates the metal ions by formation of stable complexes
Ans22 (a) Assertion and reason both are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
Ans23 (b) Assertion and reason both are true and reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
Ans24 (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Ans25 (d) Assertion is false but reason is true.

32
 UNIT.9-HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES

Read the following passage carefully and give the answers of the questions 1 to 5.
“Halogen derivatives of hydrocarbons are called
Haloalkanes/Haloarenes. There are so many classifications of halo alkanes and
Haloarenes. Nucleophilic substitution reactions can be classified as SN1& SN2.Allylic
and benzylic halides give nucleophilic substitution reactions preferably by SN1
mechanism because their respective carbocations are more stable. Haloarenes are
comparatively less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reactions than halo
alkanes. The product of elimination reaction is determined by Saytzeff rule which
states that elimination of beta H atom takes place preferably from that C which has
less number of H atoms. Addition of HBr to an asymmetrical alkene gives two
different products according to the reaction condition. The reactivity of chlorobenzene
is less due to –I effect of Cl but it gives o- and p- substituted product on electrophilic
substitution.
B.P. of isomeric Haloalkanes decreases as the branches increases. M.P.
of isomeric dichlorobenzene depends upon molecular symmetry.
1. Identify the compound 2-chloro-2-methylpentane as 10, 20 or 30 halo
alkane.
2. B.P. of isomeric dichlorobenzene are almost same but M.P. of
p-dichlorobenzene is higher than the other isomers. Why?
3. 30 alkyl halides do not follow SN2 mechanism. Write the name of effects
which prevent them to follow the SN2 mechanism.
4. As we know that presence of NO2 group influence the substitution of Cl
from chlorobenzene. On which position NO2affects more?
5. Write the step wise reagents used in the conversion of 1-butene to 2-
butene.
Multiple Choice Questions –
6. C-Cl bond in chlorobenzene in comparison to C-Cl bond in in methyl
chloride is –
(a) Longer & weaker (b) Shorter & weaker
(c) Shorter & stronger (d) Longer & stronger
7. Which of the following undergoes nucleophilic substitution exclusively by
SN1 mechanism-
(a) Ethyl chloride (b) Isopropyl chloride
(c) Chlorobenzene (d) Benzyl chloride
8. The compound which does not undergo hydrolysis by SN1 mechanism is –
(a) CH2=CHCH2Cl (b) C6H5Cl
(c) C6H5CH2Cl (d) C6H5CH (CH3) Cl

9. Toluene reacts with Br2 in the presence of sunlight to give –

(a) O- bromo toluene (b) P- bromo toluene
(c) Benzyl bromide (d) All the above
10. The synthesis of alkyl fluoride is best accomplished by –
(a) Finkelstein reaction (b) Swartz reaction
(c) Free radical fluorination (d) Sandmeyer’s reaction

33
Answer the following questions in one word/one sentence.
11. Which one of the isomeric alkanes of molecular formula C5H12, gives three
isomeric monochlorides?
12. Identify the vinylic and allylic halide among the followings –
CH3CH=C(Cl)CH2CH(CH3)2& CH3CH=CHC(Br)(CH3)2
13. Draw the structure of 1,4-Dibromobut-2-ene.
14. CH2Cl2 has greater dipole moment as compared to the CHCl3. Why?
15. What is the major product of dehydrohalogenation of 2-bromopentane?
Assertion – Reason type –
(A) Both assertion and reason are correct statements and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct statements and reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct statement bur reason is incorrect statement.
(D) Assertion is incorrect statement and reason is correct statement.

16. Assertion – nitration of chlorobenzene leads to the formation of

m-nitro chlorobenzene.
Reason – NO2 group is a Meta directing group.
17. Assertion – Hydrolysis of 1-bromobutane proceeds with inversion of
configuration.
Reason – This reaction proceeds through the bimolecular nucleophilic
substitution.
18. Assertion – It is easier to replace chlorine by –OH group in
chlorobenzene in comparison to that in chloroethane.
Reason – C-Cl bond in chlorobenzene has a partial double bond
character due to resonance.
19. Assertion – Propene can be converted into propyne by the addition of Br2
followed by dehydrohalogenation with alcoholic KOH.
Reason – Unsaturated hydrocarbons are more reactive towards addition
reaction than any saturated hydrocarbons.
20. Assertion - Haloalkans react with KCN to form alkyl cyanides as main
product while AgCN form isocyanides as the chief product.
Reason – Halo alkanes are more reactive than halo arenes towards
nucleophilic substitution reactions.

Miscellaneous questions –
21. The order of reactivity of alcohols with HX is 10>20>30. If the given order
is not correct, then what is the correct order?
22. Complete the statement - H2SO4 is not used during the reaction of alcohols
with KI because ---------------------------------.
23. Which OH group is replaced when p-hydroxymethylphenol is heated with
HCl?
24. Ethanal reacts with I2/NaOH gives ----------- which can be used as
antiseptic.
25. Formation of (-) 2-butanol from (-) 2-bromobutane is an example of -------
-.
(Retention of configuration, Inversion of configuration, Racemization).

34
 ANSWERS
0
1. It is a 3 halo alkane.
2. P- Dichlorobenzene has symmetrical structure & compact packing.
3. Steric hindrance of 3 alkyl radicals.
4. NO2at ortho and para positions affects more.
5. Addition of HBr and then dehydrohalogenation by alcoholic KOH.
6. (c) Shorter and stronger.
7. (d) Benzyl chloride.
8. (b) C6H5Cl
9. (c) Benzyl bromide
10. (b) Swartz reaction
11. n-pentane
12. CH3CH=C(Cl)CH2CH(CH3)2is a vinylic halide.
13. Br-CH2-CH=CH-CH2-Br
14. Due to resultant dipole moment of 2 C-Cl polar bonds.
15. CH3-CH2-CH=CH-CH3 2- pentene.
16. (D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is a true statement.
17. (A) Both statements are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
18. (D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is a true statement.
19. (C) Assertion is correct statement and reason is wrong statement.
20. (B) Both statements are correct but reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion.
21. 30>20>10 is the correct order.
22. Sulphuric acid oxidizes I- to I2 and prevent the substitution reaction.
23. OH group of –CH2OH is easily replaced and OH group attached with
benzene ring directly can’t be replaced easily.

24. CHI3 (Iodoform) which can be used as antiseptic.

25. Retention of configuration.

35
 UNIT.10-ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS

ASSERTION REASONING TYPE

(A) Both assertion and reason are correct statements and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct statements and reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct statement bur reason is incorrect statement.
(D) Assertion is incorrect statement and reason is correct statement.

1 Assertion: Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution

reaction
Reason: In case of Phenol intermediate carbocation is more resonance stabilised.
2 Assertion: In Lucas test 3◦ alcohols reacts immediately.
Reason: An equimolar mixture of Conc. HCl and anhyd. ZnCl2 is called Lucas reagent
3 Assertion: p-nitrophenol is less acidic than Phenol.
Reason: The presence of electron withdrawing groups such as nitro group, enhances the
acidic strength of phenol.
4 Assertion: Ethers behave like Lewis base in the presence of mineral acids.
Reason: Due to the presence of lone pair of electrons on oxygen.
5 Assertion: Ethanol and dimethyl ether are isomers.
Reason: Ethanol and dimethyl ether have same molecular formula.
6 Assertion: Ethers cannot be dried by using Na metal wire.
Reason: Ethers do not react with Sodium.
7 Assertion: The order of reactivity of hydrogen halides is as follows:
HI > HBr > HCl.
Reason: The cleavage of ethers takes place with concentrated HI or HBr at high temperature.

M.C.Q
8 Which of the following can be used to convert RCHO into RCH2OH?
a) H2/Pd b) LiAlH4 c) NaBH4
d) All of these
9 Monochlorination of toluene in sunlight followed by hydrolysis with aq. NaOH
yields:
a) o-cresol b) m-cresol c) 2,4-Dihydrocytoluene d) Benzyl alcohol
10 The order of reactivity of the alkenes (i) (CH3)2C=CH2 (ii) CH3CH=CH2
(iii) CH2=CH2, when subjected to acid catalysed hydration is:
a) (i) > (iii)> (ii) b) (i) > (ii)> (iii)
c) (ii) > (i)> (iii) d) (iii) > (ii)> (i)

11 Which of the following compounds is oxidised to methyl ethyl ketone?

a) 2-propanol b) 1-butanol c) 2-butanol d) tert. Butyl alcohol

12 Which of the following reaction will not yield phenol?

a) Chlorobenzene + (i) fusion with NaOH at 300 atm + (ii) H2O/H+
b) Aniline + (i) NaNO2/HCl + (ii) H2O (warming)
c) Benzene + (i) Oleum + (ii) NaOH (heating) + (iii) H+
d) Chlorobenzene + (i) NaOH (aq) 298 K at 1 atm + (ii) HCl
13 Identify the compound ‘B’ in the sequence of the reaction given below:
C6H5OH + NaOH + CCl4 → A → B
a) Salicyldehyde b) Benzoicacid c) Salicylic acid d) Cinnamic acid

14 The correct order of boiling point of primary, secondary and tertiary alcohol is –
a) 1◦ > 2◦ > 3◦ b) 3◦ > 2◦ > 1◦ c) 2◦ > 1◦ > 3◦ d) 2◦ > 3◦ > 1◦

36
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE

15 The C-O bond in phenol is much shorter than in ethanol. Give reason.
16 Why is o-nitrophenol more volatile than p-nitrophenol?
17 Write a chemical test to distinguish 2-pentanol and 3-pentanol.
18 Write equations to obtain ethan-1,2-diol from ethanol.
19 Give the structures and IUPAC name of the product expected from the reaction of
propanone with methylmagnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis.
20 Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their acid strength: Propan-1-
ol, 2,4, 6-trinitrophenol, 3-nitrophenol, 3,5-dinitrophenol, phenol, 4-methylphenol.
Read the paragraph and Fill in the blanks- (A,B,C,D and E)
21-25 Biological oxidation of methanol and ethanol in the body produces the corresponding
……A………. followed by the formation of ………B…… At times the alcoholics, by
mistake, drink ethanol, mixed with methanol also called denatured alcohol. In the body,
methanol is oxidised first to ………C……… and then to ………D………., which may cause
blindness and death. A methanol poisoned patient is treated by giving intravenous infusions
of diluted ………E………. The enzyme responsible for oxidation of aldehyde (HCHO) to
acid is swamped allowing time for kidneys to excrete methanol.

ANSWERS
1 A
2 B
3 D
4 A
5 B
6 C
7 A
8 d
9 d
10 b
11 c
12 d
13 c
14 a
15 In C-O bond C is sp2hybridised, double bond character.
16 Intra molecular hydrogen bonding in o-nitrophenol.
17 Iodoform test
18 Ethanol to ethane then ethan-1,2-diol using Alk. KMnO4
19 2-methylpropane-2-ol.
20 Propan-1-ol, 4-methylphenol, phenol, 3-nitrophenol, 3,5-dinitrophenol,
2,4, 6-trinitrophenol.
21 -25 A= Aldehyde, B = Carboxylic acid, C = Methanal, D = Methanoic
acid, E = Ethanol

37
 UNIT.11-ALDEHYDES, KETONES & CARBOXYLIC ACID

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Addition of water to alkynes occurs in acidic medium and in the presence of Hg2+ ions as a
catalyst. Which of the following products will be formed on addition of water to but-1-yne
under these conditions?

2. Which of the following compounds is most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reactions?

3. The correct order of increasing acidic strength is _____________.

(i) Phenol < Ethanol < Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid
(ii) Ethanol < Phenol < Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid
(iii) Ethanol < Phenol < Acetic acid < Chloroacetic acid
(iv) Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid < Phenol < Ethanol
4.

(i) Phenol and benzoic acid in the presence of NaOH

(ii) Phenol and benzoyl chloride in the presence of pyridine
(iii) Phenol and benzoyl chloride in the presence of ZnCl2
(iv) Phenol and benzaldehyde in the presence of palladium
5. The reagent which does not react with both, acetone and benzaldehyde.
(i) Sodium hydrogensulphite
(ii) Phenyl hydrazine
(iii) Fehling’s solution
(iv) Grignard reagent

38
6. Cannizzaro’s reaction is not given by _____________.

7.

8. Structure of ‘A’ and type of isomerism in the above reaction are respectively.

(i) Prop–1–en–2–ol, metamerism

(ii) Prop-1-en-1-ol, tautomerism
(iii) Prop-2-en-2-ol, geometrical isomerism
(iv) Prop-1-en-2-ol, tautomerism
9. Compounds A and C in the following reaction are __________

(i) identical
(ii) positional isomers
(iii) functional isomers
(iv) optical isomers
39
10. Which is the most suitable reagent for the following conversion?

(i) Tollen’s reagent

(ii) Benzoyl peroxide
(iii) I2 and NaOH solution
(iv) Sn and NaOH solution

11. Which of the following compounds will give butanone on oxidation with alkaline
KMnO4 solution?
(i) Butan-1-ol
(ii) Butan-2-ol
(iii) Both of these
(iv) None of these

12. In Clemmensen Reduction carbonyl compound is treated with _____________.

(i) Zinc amalgam + HCl
(ii) Sodium amalgam + HCl
(iii) Zinc amalgam + nitric acid
(iv) Sodium amalgam + HNO3

MCQ 1. (ii)2. (i)3. (iii)4. (ii)5. (iii)6. (iv)7. (ii)8. (iv)9. (ii)10. (iii)11. (ii)12. (i)

Matching Type Questions

Note : Match the items of Column I and Column II in the following questions.

40
1. Match the common names given in Column I with the IUPAC names given in Column II.

(i-d, ii-e, iii-a, iv-b,v-c)

2. Match the acids given in Column I with their correct IUPAC names given in Column II.

(i-b,ii-e,iii-d, iv-a,v-c)
3. Match the reactions given in Column I with the suitable reagents given in Column II.

41
4. Match the example given in Column I with the name of the reaction in Column II.

(i-e,ii-d,iii-a,iv-b,v-f,vi-c)

Assertion and Reason Type Questions

Note : In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of
reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.

A. Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
B. Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.
C. Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
D. Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
E. Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation
of assertion.

1. Assertion : Formaldehyde is a planar molecule.

Reason : It contains sp2 hybridised carbon atom.

2. Assertion : Compounds containing —CHO group are easily oxidised to corresponding

carboxylic acids.
Reason : Carboxylic acids can be reduced to alcohols by treatment with LiAlH4.
42
 3. Assertion : The α-hydrogen atom in carbonyl compounds is less acidic.
Reason : The anion formed after the loss of α-hydrogen atom is resonance stabilised.

4. Assertion : Aromatic aldehydes and formaldehyde undergo Cannizzaro reaction.

Reason : Aromatic aldehydes are almost as reactive as formaldehyde.

5. Assertion : Aldehydes and ketones, both react with Tollen’s reagent to form silver
mirror.
Reason : Both, aldehydes and ketones contain a carbonyl group.

(i-a,2-e,3-d,4-c,5-d)

MCQ-II
Question 1
Which of the following acids does not exhibit optical isomerism?
1) Lactic acid
2) Tartaric acid
3) Maleic acid
4) α-amino acids
Question 2
CH3CHO and C6H5CH2CHO can be distinguished chemically by:
1) Tollen's reagent test
2) Fehling solution test
3) Benedict test
4) Iodoform test
Question 3
The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (A),
trifluoroacetic acid (B), acetic acid (C) and formic acid (D) is
1) A > B > C > D
2) A > C > B > D
3) B > A > D > C
4) B > D > C > A
Question 4
Which of the following reactions will not result in the formation of carbon-carbon bond?
1) Reimer-Tieman reaction
2) Friedel Crafts acylation
3) Wurtz reaction
4) Cannizzaro reaction

43
Question 5
One mole of a symmetrical alkene on ozonolysis gives two moles of an aldehyde having molecular
mass of 44u. The alkene is:
1) Ethene
2) Propene
3) 1-butene
4) 2-butene
Question 6
One mole of an organic compound 'A' with the formula C3H8O reacts completely with two moles of HI
to form X and Y. When 'Y' is boiled with aqueous alkali it forms Z. Z answers the iodoform test. The
compound 'A' is ______.
1) Propan-1-ol
2) Propan-2-ol
3) Ethoxyethane
4) Methoxyethane
Question 7

The IUPAC name of is ______.

1) 2-methyl-3-bromohexanal
2) 2-methyl-3-bromobutanal
3) 3-bromo-2-methylbutanal
4) 3-bromo-2-methylpentanal
Question 8
The correct sequence of steps involved in the mechanism of Cannizzaro's reaction is _____.
1)
nucleophilic attack, transfer of H- and transfer of H+
2)
electrophilic attack by OH-, transfer of H+ and transfer of H-
3) transfer of H , transfer of H+ and nucleophilic attack
4)
transfer of H+, nucleophilic attack and transfer of H-
Question 9
The compound obtained when acetaldehyde reacts with dilute aqueous sodium hydroxide exhibits
1) geometrical isomerism
2) optical isomerism
3) both optical and geometrical isomerism
4) neither optical nor geometrical isomerism

44
Question 10
Benzaldehyde and acetone can be best distinguished using
1) Hydrazine
2) Tollen's reagent
3) sodium hydroxide solution
4) 2, 4-DNP
Question 11
In the following sequence of reactions, the alkene affords the compound 'B' CH3CH =

CHCH3 ,
The compound B is

1) CH3COCH3
2) CH3CH2CHO
3) CH3CHO

4) CH3CH2COCH3
Question 12
The compound formed as a result of oxidation of ethyl benzene by KMnO4 is
1) Benzyl alcohol
2) Benzoic acid
3) Acetophenone
4) Benzophenone
Question 13
Which of the following is correct?
1) Any aldehyde gives secondary alcohol on reduction
2) Reaction of vegetable oil with H2SO4 gives glycerine
3) C2H5OH, iodine with NaOH gives iodoform
4) Sucrose on reaction with NaCl give invert sugar
Question 14
A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on heating with aqueous NaOH solution gives
1) benzyl alcohol and sodium formate
2) sodium benzoate and methyl alcohol
3) sodium benzoate and sodium formate
4) benzyl alcohol and methyl alcohol

45
Question 15
Which of the following has most acidic hydrogen?
1) 3-Hexanone
2) 2, 4-Hexanedione
3) 2, 5-Hexanedione
4) 2, 3-Hexanedione
(1-3,2-4,3-3,4-1,5-2,6-4,7-4,8-1,9-2,10-2,11-3,12-2,13-3,14-1,15-3)
ONE WORD ANSWERS

1) What are aldehydes ?

Ans: Aldehydes are the organic compounds containing carbonyl group,linked with one hydrogen
and one alkyl /aryl group.
2) What are carboxylic acids?
Ans:Carboxylic acids are the organic compounds containing carboxyl(-COOH) group/s
3) Between aldehyde and ketones which one is confirmed using Tollen’s reagent.
Ans: Aldehyde.
4) Between aldehyde and ketones which one is confirmed using Fehling’s solution..
Ans: Aldehyde.
5) Write the IUPAC name of the compound.CHO-CH2-CH(CHO)-CH2-CHO.
Ans: Propane-1,2,3-tricarbaldehyde.
6) The boiling point of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons and ethers of
comparable molecular mass. Why.
Ans: Because in aldehydes and ketones there is a weak molecular association arising out of
dipole-dipole interaction.
7) Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their acidic strength. HCOOH,
CH3COOH, CH3CH2COOH.
Ans: CH3CH2COOH <CH3COOH< HCOOH.
8) Arrange the following compounds in the decreasing order of their acidic strength. HCOOH,
CH3COOH, C6H5COOH.
Ans: HCOOH> C6H5COOH> CH3COOH.
9) Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their acidic strength.
Cl-CH2COOH, BrCH2COOH ,F-CH2COOH 1 Br-CH2COOH <
Cl-CH2COOH

46
 UNIT.12-AMINES
1. C6H5NH-COCH3 Write the IUPAC name of the given compound.
2. Write the reaction involved in the Hofmann bromamide degradation reaction.
3. Propanamine and N,N-dimethylmethanamine contain the same number of carbon atoms,
even though Propanamine has higher boiling point than N,N-dimethylmethanamine. Why?
4. Give one chemical test to distinguish between the compounds of the following pairs :
i) CH3NH2 and (CH3)2NH ii) Aniline and ethanamine
5. Why aniline does not undergo Friedal-Crafts reaction ?
6. What is the role of HNO3 in the nitrating mixture used for nitration of benzene?
7. What is the product when C6H5CH2NH2 reacts with HNO2?
8. What is the best reagent to convert nitrile to primary amine?
9. What is Hinsberg reagent?
10. Why is benzene diazonium chloride not stored and is used immediately after its
preparation?
11. Why does acetylation of —NH2 group of aniline reduce its activating effect?
12. Explain why MeNH2 is stronger base than MeOH?
13. What is the role of pyridine in the acylation reaction of amines?
14. Predict the product of reaction of aniline with bromine in non-polar solvent such as CS2.
15. What is the structure and IUPAC name of the compound, allyl amine?
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS –
1. Which of the following is a 3° amine?
(i) 1-methylcyclohexylamine (ii) Triethylamine
(iii) tert-butylamine (iv) N-methylaniline
2. The correct IUPAC name for CH2=CHCH2 NHCH3 is
(i) Allylmethylamine (ii) 2-amino-4-pentene
(iii) 4-aminopent-1-ene (iv) N-methylprop-2-en-1-amine
3. Amongst the following, the strongest base in aqueous medium is _________.
(i) CH3NH2 (ii) NCCH2NH2
(iii) (CH3)2 NH (iv) C6H5NHCH3
4. Benzylamine may be alkylated as shown in the following equation :
C6H5CH2NH2 + R—X →C6H5CH2NHR
Which of the following alkylhalides is best suited for this reaction through SN1 mechanism?
(i) CH3Br (ii) C6H5Br (iii) C6H5CH2Br (iv) C2H5 Br
5. Which of the following reagents would not be a good choice for reducing an aryl nitro
compound to an amine?
(i) H2 (excess)/Pt (ii) LiAlH4 in ether
(iii) Fe and HCl (iv) Sn and HCl
6. In order to prepare a 1° amine from an alkyl halide with simultaneous addition of one CH2
group in the carbon chain, the reagent used as source of nitrogen is ___________.
(i) Sodium amide, NaNH2 (ii) Sodium azide, NaN3
(iii) Potassium cyanide, KCN
(iv) Potassium phthalimide, C6H4(CO)2N–K+
7. The source of nitrogen in Gabriel synthesis of amines is _____________.
(i) Sodium azide, NaN3 (ii) Sodium nitrite, NaNO2
(iii) Potassium cyanide, KCN
(iv) Potassium phthalimide, C6H4(CO)2N–K+

47
8. The best reagent for converting, 2-phenylpropanamide into
1- phenylethanamine is ____.
(i) excess H2/Pt (ii) NaOH/Br2
(iii) NaBH4/methanol (iv) LiAlH4/ether
9. Hoffmann Bromamide Degradation reaction is shown by __________.
(i) ArNH2 (ii) ArCONH2 (iii) ArNO2 (iv) ArCH2NH2
10. The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is _________.

(i) II < III < I (ii) III < I < II (iii) III < II < I (iv) II < I < III
11. Methylamine reacts with HNO2 to form _________.
(i) CH3—O—N==O (ii) CH3—O—CH3
(iii) CH3OH (iv) CH3CHO
12. The gas evolved when methylamine reacts with nitrous acid is __________.
(i) NH3 (ii) N2 (iii) H2 (iv) C2H6
13. Reduction of aromatic nitro compounds using Fe and HCl gives _________.
(i) aromatic oxime (ii) aromatic hydrocarbon (iii)
aromatic primary amine (iv) aromatic amide
14. The reaction Ar+N2 Cl–⎯⎯Cu/HCl →ArCl + N2 + CuCl is named as _________.
(i) Sandmeyer reaction (ii) Gatterman reaction
(iii) Claisen reaction (iv) Carbylamine reaction
15. The correct decreasing order of basic strength of the following species is _______.
H2O, NH3, OH–, NH2–
(i) NH2–> OH –> NH3> H2O (ii) OH –> NH2– > H2O > NH3
(iii) NH3> H2O > NH2–> OH– (iv) H2O > NH3> OH –> NH2
In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given.
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation
for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
1. Assertion :Hoffmann’s bromamide reaction is given by primary amines.
Reason :Primary amines are more basic than secondary amines.

2. Assertion :N-Ethylbenzene sulphonamide is soluble in alkali.

Reason :Hydrogen attached to nitrogen in sulphonamide is strongly acidic.

3. Assertion :N, N-Diethylbenzene sulphonamide is insoluble in alkali.

Reason :Sulphonyl group attached to nitrogen atom is strong electron withdrawing group.

4. Assertion :Only a small amount of HCl is required in the reduction of nitro compounds
with iron scrap and HCl in the presence of steam.
Reason :FeCl2 formed gets hydrolysed to release HCl during the reaction.

48
5. Assertion :Aromatic 1° amines can be prepared by Gabriel Phthalimide Synthesis.
Reason :Aryl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution with anion formed by phthalimide.

6. Assertion :Acetanilide is less basic than aniline.

Reason :Acetylation of aniline results in decrease of electron density on nitrogen.

PISA BASED Questions

1. Amines may be regarded as derivatives of ammonia formed by the replacement of one or
more hydrogen atom(s) of ammonia by corresponding number of alkyl or aryl groups.
Amines are used for preparing many useful derivatives such as acetanilide, sulphanilic acids,
sulpha drugs, schiffs bases (which acts as an antioxidant in rubber industry), phenyl
isocyanide (needed for the manufacture of polyurethane plastics), benzenediazonium salt (a
starting material of for the synthesis of many organic compounds especially azo dyes) and in
petroleum refining etc. Quaternary ammonium salts of long chain tertiary amines are used as
synthetic detergents/surfactants.
Answer the following questions :
a) Name a few amines which have been used as a medicine.
b) Name an amine which was used to kill the great philosopher, Socrates.
c) Name two amine hormones along with their functions.
d) Name a quaternary ammonium salts which is used as a cationic detergent.
e) Name an amine whose deficiency in the body produces Parkinson’s disease.

ANSWERS
1. N-Phenylethanamide
2. Correct reaction
3. Propanamine has intermolecular H-bonding whereas N,N-Dimethylamine has no
intermolecular H-bonding.
4. i) CH3NH2 - give Carbylamine reaction
ii) Aniline gives Coupling reaction.
5. Aniline does not undergoesFriedal-Crafts reaction (alkylation and acetylation) due to salt
formation with aluminium chloride, the Lewis acid, which is used as a catalyst. Due to the
presence of positive charge on N-atom in the salt, the group – N+H2AlCl3 acts as strong
electron withdrawing group. As a result it reduces electron density in the benzene ring.
6. HNO3 acts as a base in the nitrating mixture (conc. HNO3 + conc. H2SO4) used for
nitration of benzene and provides the electrophile, NO2+nitronium ion.
7. Benzyl alcohol
8. Sodium/alcohol or LiAlH4
9. benzene sulphonyl chloride (C6H5SO2Cl)
10. It is very unstable.
11. The acetyl group being electron withdrawing attracts the lone pair of electrons of the N-
atom towards carbonyl group. As a result, the lone pair of electrons on nitrogen is less
available for donation to benzene ring by resonance.

49
12. Nitrogen is less electronegative than oxygen, therefore the lone pair of electrons on
nitrogen is readily available for donation.

13. Pyridine and other bases are used to remove the side product i.e., HCl formed during
mixture.
14. 4-Bromoaniline (major) and 2-Bromoaniline (minor)
15. CH2=CH-CH2NH2 (Prop-2-en-1-amine)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS –
1. ii
2. iv
3. iii
4. iii
5. ii
6. iii
7. iv
8. ii
9. ii
10. iv
11. iii
12. ii
13. iii
14. ii
15. i
Assertion and Reasoning Questions
1. c
2. d
3. b
4. d
5. a
6. d
PISA BASED Questions
a) Barbituric acid is used as tranquilizer which helps in reducing anxiety and mental tension.
Sulpha drugs are the derivatives of p-amino benzene sulphonamide (sulphanilamide) which
shows antibacterial activity.
b) Coniine
c) Adrenaline (Epinephrine) and Nor-adrenaline (Norepinephrine)
d) The quaternary saltl, trimethyl stearyl ammonium bromide is a cationic detergent.
e) Dopamine

50
 UNIT.13-BIOMOLECULES
Multiple choice questions:
1. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?
(a) Glucose (b) Fructose
(c) Cellulose (d) Ribose
2.When glucose reacts with bromine water, the main product is
(a) Acetic acid (b) Saccharic acid
(c) Glycerolaldehyde (d) Gluconic acid
3. In nucleic acid , the individual nucleotide are linked through
(a) Peptide linkage (b) Glycosidic linkage
(c) Phosphate group (d) Hydrogen bond
4. Peptide upon hydrolysis gives –
(a) Amine (b) Amino acid
(c) Ammonia (d) Amide
5. Nucleic acids are polymers of –
(a) Nucleosides (b) Globulins
(c) Nucleotides (d) Nucleons
6.The pyrimidine bases present in DNA are
(a) cytosine and adenine (b) cytosine and guanine
(c) Cytosine and thymine (d) cytosine and uracil
7. An example of essential aminoacid is
(a) Proline (b) Lysine
(c) Glysine (d) Alanine
8. Which of the following act as vitamin?
(a) Aspartic acid (b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Saccharic acid (d) Adipic acid
9. Which of the following statement is not true about glucose ?
(a) It is aldohexose (b) On heating with HI it forms n- hexane
(c) It is present in furanose form (d) It does’t give 2,4-DNP test
10. Proteins are classified into two types on the basis of molecular shape fibrous
and globular. The example of globular protein is
(a) Insulin (b) Keratin
(c) Myosin (d) None of these

51
Very short answer type questions:
1. Name the linkage containing monosaccharide unit in polysaccharides.
2. What is the product obtained when glucose is treated with conc. HNO 3?
3. What are the common structures of secondary structure of protein?
4. Name the vitamin which cannot be stored in our body?
5. The hydrolysis product of lactose is ______ and ______.
6. Name the type of bonds that help in stabilizing the ɑ-helix structure of protein.
7. Sucrose is reducing sugar. State true or false
8. Name the hydrolysis products of cellulose.
9. What product would be formed when nucleotide from DNA containing thymine
is hydrolysed?
10. Complete the reaction :
Glucose + Bromine water →
Matching type questions:
1. Match the vitamins given in column I with deficiency disease they cause given
in column II.
Column I (vitamins) Column II(deficiency disease)
(a) Vitamin A (i) pernicious anaemia
(b) Vitamin B1 (ii) increased blood clotting
(c) Vitamin B12 (iii) xeropthalmia
(d) Vitamin C (iv) rickets
(e) Vitamin D (v) beri-beri
(f) Vitamin E (vi) bleeding gums
(g) Vitamin K (vii) muscular weakness
2. Match the following enzymes given in column I with the reaction they catalyse
given in column II:
Column I (enzymes) Column II(reactions)
(a) invertase (i) decomposition of urea into NH 3
(b) maltase (ii) conversion of glucose into ethyl alcohol
(c) pepsin (iii) hydrolysis of maltose into glucose
(d) urease (iv) hydrolysis of cane sugar
(e) zymase (v) Hydrolysis of proteins into peptides

52
Assertion and reasoning type questions:
Note: In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement
of reason is given . Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
1. Assertion(A):NH2 and COOH groups of amino acids are ionizable.
Reason (R) : In solutions of different pH , the structure of amino acids changes.
2. Assertion(A): Nucleic acids exhibit a wide variety of secondary structures.
Reason(R) : All types of nucleic acids exists as a double helix.
3. Assertion(A):Living cells contain 21 types of amino acid and 5 types of
nucleotides
Reason (R):Living cells contain A, G, C, T, U nitrogen bases.
4. Assertion(A):The structure of amino acid changes with change in pH.
Reason (R): Amino and carboxyl group of amino acids are ionizable.
5. Assertion(A): Cellulose is a polymeric polysaccharide.
Reason (R): Cellulose consisting of only one type of monosaccharide.

ANSWERS
MCQ : 1-(c), 2-(d), 3-(c), 4-(b), 5-(c), 6-(c), 7-(b), 8-(b), 9-(d), 10-(a)
VSA : 1. Glycosidic linkage, 2.Saccharic acid, 3. Helix structure, 4.vitamin C,
5. ᵝD glucose and. ᵝDgalactose, 6. Electrostatic force, vanderwaals force,
hydrogen bond, disulphide bond, 7. True 8. Amylose and amylopectin,
9. 2 deoxyribose, phosphate group and thymine, 10. Gluconic acid
Matching type questions:
1.(a)-(iii), (b)-(v), (c)-(i), (d)-(vi), (e)- (iv), (f)- (vii), (g)- (ii)
2. (a)- (iv) , (b)-(iii), (c)-(v), (d)-(a), (e)- (ii)
Assertion and reasoning type questions: 1-(b), 2-(c), 3-(b), 4-(a), 5-(b)

53
 UNIT.14-POLYMERS
1. Which of the following is not a semisynthetic polymer ?
a) cis-polyisoprene b) Cellulose nitrate
c) Cellulose acetate d) Vulcanised rubber.
2. Which of the following statements is not true about low density polyethene ?
a) Tough b) Hard c) Poor conductor of electricity
d) Highly branched structure
3. The commercial name of polyacrylonitrile is …..
a) Dacron b) orlon c) PVC d) bakelite
4. Which of the following polymer can be formed by using caprolactum monomer unit ?
a) Nylon-6, 6 b) Nylon-2-nylon-6 c) Melamine polymer d) Nylon-6
5. Which of the following polymer is biodegradable ?
a) Nylon-6, 6 b) Nylon-2-nylon-6 c) Melamine polymer d) Nylon-6
6. Which of the following polymers of glucose is stored by animals ?
a) Cellulose b) Amylose
c) Amylopectin d) Glycogen
7. Which of the following is naturally occurring polymer ?
a) Polythene b) Starch c) Nylon d) Teflon.
8. Neoprene is a polymer of
a) chloroprene b) chloroquin c) propylene d) isoprene.
9. The monomer unit of PVC is:
a) vinyl chloride b) ethylene c) chloroprene d) acrylonitrile.
10. Bakelite is the condensation polymer of :
a) C6H5OH and caprolactum b) HCHO and phthalic acid
c) C6H5OH qand HCHO d) HCHO and ethylene glycol.
11. Nylon-66 is obtained from:
a) hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid.
b) phenol and formaldehyde
c) propylene and adipic acid
d) adipic acid and phthalic acid.
12. Which of the following is not an example of addition polymer ?”
a) Polystyrene b) Polyethylene
c) Polypropylene d) Terylene.

54
13. Buna-S is obtained by the polymerization of butadiene and
a) chloroprene b) styrene
c) acrylonitrile d) adipic acid.
14. Caprolactum polymerises to give :
a) Nylon-6 b) Buna-S c) Glyptal d) Teflon.
15. Which of the following fibres is made of polyamides ?
a) Dacron b) Orlon c) Nylon d) Rayon.
16. Orlon is a polymer of :
a) styrene b) vinyl chloride c) acrylonitrile d) butadiene and adipic acid.
17. Natural rubber is
a) neoprene b) transpolyisoprenec)cis-polyisoprene d)butyl rubber.
18. Interparticle forces in nylon-66 are
a) dipole – dipole interactions b) hydrogen bonding
c) van der Waal’s forces d) ionic bonds.
19. F2C = CF2 is a monomer of
a) glyptal b) teflon c) orlon d) buna-S.
20. Terylene is a polymer of ethylene glycol and
a) phthalic acid b) terephthalic acid
c) adipic acid d) 1,6 –hexadiamine
21. Which of the following is not a biopolymer ?
a) Cellulose b) Proteins c) DNA d) Nylone-6,6
22. Which of the following is not a step growth polymer ?
a) Polybutadiene b) Nylon-6,6 c) Glyptal d) Terylene.
23 Which of the following statement is not correct regarding vinylic polymerization :?
a) It involves free radical addition.
b) The presence of carbon tetrachloride in styrene polymerization results in
lowering of average molecular mass of the polymer.
c) The presence of benzoquinone increases the polymerization process.
d) The presence of CCl4 acts as inhibitor.
24. The monomers of terylene are
a) Phenol and formaldehyde
b) ethylene glycol and phthalic acid
c) adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine
d) ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid
25. Which of the following has ester linkage
a)Nylon b) Bakelite c) terylene d) PVC
55
Q.II Why should one always purest monomer in free radical polymerization reaction?
Q III Can enzyme be called a polymer?
Q. IV. Identify the type of polymer-
A-A-A-A-A-A
Q. V. Identify the type of polymer-
A-B-B-A-A-A-A-B
Q.VI Which polymer is used for making non stick cookware?

ANSWERS
ANSWERS of MCQ
1-a
2-b
3-b
4-d
5-b
6-d
7-b
8-a
9-a
10-c
11-a
12-d
13-b
14-a
15c
16-c
17-c
18-b
19-b
20-b
21-d
22-a
23-c
24-d
25-c
ANS- II –In free radicals mechanism the impurities can act aschain transfer agent and may
combine with the free radical to slow down the reaction .
ANS.-III Enzymes are biocatalyst which are proteins and thus are polymer.
ANS.IV HOMOPOLYMER
ANS.V COPOLYMER
ANS. VI. Teflon

56
 UNIT.15-CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE
1. The most useful classification of drugs for medicinal chemists is _________.
(A) on the basis of chemical structure. (B) on the basis of drug action.
(C) on the basis of molecular targets. (D) on the basis of pharmacological effect.
2. The drugs which mimic the natural chemical messengers by switching on the
receptors are called
(A) Agonists (B) antagonists (C) neurotransmitters (D) hormones
3. Drawback of excess of hydrogen carbonate taking as antacid is
(A) It is insoluble(B) It can make stomach alkaline and trigger the production of even more
acid(C) It causes ulcer(D) It causes pain and irritation
4. Drugs which interfere with natural action of histamine by competing with histamine
are
(A) Antidepressant (B) Antihistamines (C) Antimicrobial (D) Antipyretic
5. Which of the following is not used as an antidepressant?
(A) Iproniazid (B) Phenelzine(C) Salvarsan (D) Nardil
6. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Some tranquilisers function by inhibiting the enzymes which catalyse the
degradation of noradrenaline.
(B) Tranquilisers are narcotic drugs.
(C) Tranquilisers are chemical compounds that do not affect the message transfer
from nerve to receptor.
(D) Tranquilisers are chemical compounds that can relieve pain and fever.
7. Non-narcotics includes all, except
(A) Ibuprofen (B) Paracetamol (C) Opiate (D) Diclofenac sodium
8. Salvarsan is arsenic containing drug which was first used for the treatment of_______
(A) syphilis (B) typhoid (C) meningitis (D) dysentery
9. A narrow spectrum antibiotic is active against _______________.
(A) gram positive or gram negative bacteria (B) gram negative bacteria only
(C) single organism or one disease (D) both gram positive and gram negative
bacteria
10. Bacteriostatic drugs work by
(A) Arresting the growth of organisms
(B) By increasing immunity and resistance of body to infection
(C) By killing the organism in the body (D) Both (A) & (C)
11. Tincture of iodine is
(A) Iodoform (B) 100% Iodine
(C) 2-3% Iodine solution in alcohol-water (D) Iodobenzene
12. 0.2% of solution of phenol and 0.2–0.4 ppm chlorine in aqueous solution respectively
behave as
(A) Antiseptic, Disinfectant (B) Disinfectant, Antiseptic
(C) Disinfectant, Disinfectant (D) Antiseptic, Antiseptic
13. Which is mismatched, regarding the examples?
(A) Antiseptic - Furacine (B) Broad spectrum Antibiotic - Chloramphenicol
(C) Antifertility – Novestrol (D) Narrow spectrum antibiotic - Ampicillin
13. Among the following, the maximum high potency sugar is
(A) Saccharin (B) Alitame (C) Sucrolose (D) Aspartame
14. Which of the following chemicals can be added for sweetening of food items at
cooking temperature and does not provide calories?
(A) Sucrose (B) Glucose (C) Aspartame (D) Sucrolose
15. Compound which is added to soap to impart antiseptic properties is __.
(A) sodiumlaurylsulphate (B) sodium dodecylbenzenesulphonate
(C) rosin (D) bithional
16. Which of the following enhances leathering property of soap?
57
(A) Sodium carbonate (B) Sodium rosinate (C) Sodium stearate (D) Trisodium phosphate
17. Which type of detergents are preferably used in liquid dish washing?
(A) Cationic (B) Anionic detergent (C) Non-ionic detergent (D) All of these
18. Which of the following is incorrect?
(A) In anionic detergent, anionic part of the molecule is involved in cleansing action
(B) Alkyl benzene sulphonate formed by neutralising alkyl benzene sulphonic acid
with alkali
(C) Branched chain detergents are more easily biodegradable
(D) All of these
19. Which is correctly matched regarding the use?
(A) Anionic detergent - Hair conditioners
(B) Cationic detergent - Household work and in toothpaste
(C) Non-ionic detergent - Liquid dishwashing
(D) All of these
21.The commonly used antiseptic Dettol is a mixture of-
22. Name the medicine which can act as analgesic as well as antipyretic.
23.Why is glycerol is added to shaving soap?
24. BHA and BHT are the types of ?
25. Name a substance which can act as antiseptic and disinfectant both.

ANSWERS
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. C
6. A 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. A
11. C 12. A 13. D 14. B 15. D
16. D 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. C
21. Chloroxylenol and alpha terpeneol 22. Aspirin 23. To prevent rapid drying. 24.
Antioxidants. 25. 0.2 % phenol as antiseptic while 1% phenol is disinfectant.

58
 KENDRIYA VIDAYALAYA SANGATHAN
SAMPLE PAPER 1: 2019-20
CLASS: XII
CHEMISTRY
TIME ALLOWED: 3HRS. M.M:70
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. All questions are compulsory
2. Question numbers 1 to 20 are very short –answer questions, carrying 1 mark each.
3. Question numbers 21 to 27are short –answer questions, carrying 2 marks each.
4. Question numbers 28 to 34 are also short –answer questions, carrying 3 marks each.
5. Question numbers 35 to 37 are long-answer questions of 5 marks each
6. Use of calculator is not permitted

1 Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points.

CH3CHO, CH3CH2OH, CH3OCH3, CH3CH2CH3
2 Draw adsorption isobar for physical adsorption.
3 Write the structure of 1-Phenylpropan-2-ol
4 Write the equation for the preparation of 1−Iodobutane from 1-Chlorobutane
5 Under what conditions is Ecell = 0 ?
6 Write the name of one of the common initiators used in free radical addition
polymerization.
7 Name the vitamin responsible for the coagulation of blood.
OR
Draw Haworth structure of β-D-Glucose.
8 Write one structural difference between DNA and RNA
9 State the principle of zone refining of metals.
OR
Write the reactions involved in Mond’s process of refining.
10 State the role of cryolite in the metallurgy of aluminium.
11 Arrange halogens in order of increasing bond dissociation enthalpy.
OR
ICl is more reactive than I2.Justify.
12 What is the function of pine oil in froth floatation process?
13 Aspirin is used to prevent heart attack. Why?
14 Mention one important use of the following i)Equanil ii)Sucralose
15 Which is the main by product of soap industry?
16 Differentiate between lanthanoids and actinoids in terms of their ability to
show different oxidation states.

17 What is the coordination number and oxidation state of iron in [Fe(EDTA)]-

18 What is the expression of slope of the plot between log k and 1/T
59
19 Out of Potassium sulphate and Barium chloride, which is more effective to
coagulate a negatively charged sol?
20 Why the rate of ester hydrolysis is slow in the beginning and becomes faster
after sometime?
21 What is meant by the following terms? Explain by giving one example of
each.
a) multimolecular colloid b) alcosol
22 Write reactions to show the preparation of
i)Potassium dichromate from sodium dichromate
ii)KMnO4 from K2MnO4
OR
i) Write the reaction for thermal decomposition of potassium permanganate.
ii) On adding few drops of sulfuric acid to a solution of potassium chromate
, the color of the solution changes to orange. Draw the structure of the
compound responsible for imparting orange color to the solution.

23 Describe the following giving relevant chemical equation in each case—

i)Carbylamine reaction
ii)Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction
24 Arrange the following in order of the property indicated and justify briefly.
i)In increasing order of boiling point:
C2H5OHand C2H5NH2
ii)In increasing order of basic strength:
Anilineandp-toluidine
25 Calculate the ∆Gθ for the following reaction:
2Cr(s) + 3Cd2+(aq) → 2Cr3+(aq) + 3Cd(s)
Given: the standard cell potential is 0.34 V and F=96500 C
OR
The resistance of 0.01MKCl solution is 200Ω. Calculate the molar
conductivity and specific conductivity if cell constant is equal to unity.

26 Give the names of the monomers of the following polymers—

i) Dacron ii) Buna-N
OR
Give two points of difference between HDPE and LDPE.
27 i)Define peptide linkage with respect to proteins.
ii)Write the reaction of D- glucose with concentrated Nitric acid.

60
28 a)Write the equation for the preparation of Ethoxybenzene by Williamson’s
synthesis.
b) Write the mechanism of acid-catalysed dehydration of ethanol to yield
ethene.
29 i)What type of deviation is shown by a mixture of acetone and chloroform?
Give reason.
ii)Two liquids A and B boil at 130 and 149 oC respectively. Which of them
has higher vapour pressure at 80 oC .
OR
i)Define---a)Molal boiling point elevation constant Kb
b)Reverse osmosis
ii) What is meant by isotonic solutions? Give an example.
30 a)Which compound in each of the following pairs will react faster in SN2
reaction with OH−? Explain your answer
i)CH3Br or CH3I
ii)(CH3)3CCl or CH3Cl
b)What is a racemic mixture?
OR
i) Will benzyl halide prefer substitution through SN1 or SN2 mechanism?
Justify
your answer.
ii)Write one important commercial use each of a)Freon-12 b)Iodoform
31 Determine the osmotic pressure of a solution prepared by dissolving 25mg
of K2SO4 (molar mass 174g/mol )in 2L of water at 25℃, assuming that it is
completely dissociated.( R = 0.0821L atm mol-1 K-1)
OR
A solution of glucose (molar mass 180g/mol) in water is labeled as 10%(by
mass).What would be the molality and the molarity of the solution?(Density
of the solution =1.2g/cc)
32 i)Write the formula and IUPAC name of the ionization isomer of
[Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4.
Give evidence that they are ionization isomers.
ii) Define ambidentate ligand.Give an example.
33 a)What are secondary cells? Give an example of such type of cells.
b) A solution of Ni(NO3)2 is electrolyzed between platinum electrodes using
a current of 5 amperes for 20 minutes. What mass of Ni is deposited at the
cathode?(atomic mass of Ni=58.71 g/mol)

61
34 Account for the following---
i) Sc3+ is colourless but Mn2+ is coloured
ii) Transition metals exhibit variable oxidation states
iii) Zr and Hf have almost identical radii.
35 a) Explain graphically the effect of a catalyst on the rate of a reaction.
b)The rate of the chemical reaction doubles for an increase of 10 K in
temperature from 298 K. Calculate Ea. (R=8.314J/K/mol)
OR
a) Write one point of difference between rate constant and rate of a
reaction.
b) For the reaction: 2A + B → A2B the rate = k[A][B]2 with k = 2.0 × 10−6
mol−2 L2s−1. Calculate the initial rate of the reaction when [A] = 0.1 molL−1,
[B] = 0.2 mol L−1. Calculate the rate of reaction after[A] is reduced to 0.06
mol L−1.
36 a)Draw the structures of the following:
i)H2S2O7
ii)HClO3
b)How would you account for the following?
i)White phosphorus is highly reactive but red phosphorus is not.
ii) Sulphuric acid has low volatility.
iii)Ozone is a powerful oxidizing agent
OR
a)Drawthe structures of the following:
i)XeOF4
ii)BrF3
b) How would you account for the following?
i)NO2 forms a dimer easily
ii)Halogens are strong oxidizing agents
iii)When HCl reacts with finely powdered iron, it forms ferrous chloride
and not ferric chloride
37 a)Give a chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of
compounds—
i)Benzoic acid and ethyl benzoate
ii)Ethanal and propanal

62
 b) An organic compound (A) (molecular formula C8H16O2) was hydrolysed
with dilute sulphuric acid to give a carboxylic acid (B) and an alcohol (C).
Oxidation of (C) with chromic acid produced (B). (C) on dehydration gives
but-1-ene.Write equations for the reactions involved.

OR
a) Give a chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of
compounds—
i)Acetophenone and Benzophenone
ii) Benzaldehyde and formaldehyde
b) How will you bring about the following conversions?
(i) Propanone to Propene
(ii) Toluene to Benzoic acid
(iii) Ethanol to 3-Hydroxybutanal
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

63
 MARKING SCHEME
Q NO VALUE POINTS MARKS

1 CH3CH2CH3< CH3OCH3< CH3CHO < CH3CH2OH 1

2 graph 1
3 C6H5CH2CH(OH)CH3 1
4 1-chlorobutane +NaI→ 1−iodobutane 1
5 At equilibrium 1
6 Benzoyl peroxide 1
7 K OR proper diagram 1
8 Suitable difference 1
9 Impurities are more soluble in the melt than in solid form of the metal 1
OR
Proper reactions ½ +½
10 it lowers the melting point and increases the conductivity of alumina
11 I2< F2< Br2< Cl2 1
OR
Weaker bond between I and Cl in ICl due to ineffective overlapping
12 acts as collector and enhances the non- wettability of the mineral 1
particles
13 Prevents blood clotting 1
14 i)tranquilizer ii)artificialsweetner ½ +½
15 Glycerol 1
16 Actinoids show more variety in O.S. 1
17 6, +3 ½ +½
18 Slope = -Ea/2.303R 1
19 Barium chloride due to higher valency of effective ion 1
20 Acid produced catalyses the reaction further 1
21 Proper meaning and suitable example 2(½ +½)
22 Proper reaction 1+1
OR
i)Proper reaction ii)structure of dichromate ion 1+1
23 Suitable reactions 1+1
24 i) C2H5NH2< C2H5OH , stronger H-bonding in C2H5OH due to ½ +½
higher electronegativity of O

ii) Aniline <p-Toluidine, electron releasing character of –CH3 ½ +½

∆Go= -nFEocell ½
25 = -6x96500x0.34 ½
=196860 J/mol 1
OR
k = cell constant/R = 1/200 = 0.005 Scm-1 ½ +½
ᴧm=1000k/M = 1000 * 0.005/0.01 = 500 Scm2mol-1 ½ +½
26 i)ethylene diamine and terephthalic acid 2(½ +½)
ii) 1,3-Butadiene and acrylonitrile
OR
Suitable difference 1+1
27 Amide linkage between α-amino acids 1+1
Suitable reaction
28 a)C2H5Cl +C6H5ONa →C6H5O C2H5+NaCl 1
b)3 steps—1st step –formation of protonated alcohol with reactions ½
2nd step---formation of carbocation with reactions ½
3rd step---elimination of proton to give ethene with reactions 1
64
29 i)Negative deviation; Hydrogen bond is formed between them after 1+1
mixing
ii)A 1
OR
i)proper definitions 1+1
ii)solutions having same osmotic pressure ,blood with 0.9% NaCl ½ +½
solution

30 a) i)CH3I since I is a better leaving group ½ +½

ii) CH3Cl since it is a primary halide and so steric hindrance is less
½ +½
b)proper definition 1
OR
i) SN1, 1
½
resonance stabilized benzyl carbocation
½
resonance structures
ii) a)air conditioners/refrigerators b)antiseptic
½ +½

Mass of K2SO4=25mg=0.025g ½
K2SO4→2K+ + SO4-2
31 . Thus, i = 3 ½
Now, π = i CRT = i n2RT/V 1
=3 x 0.025 (g) x 0.0821x298/174x2
=5.27x10-3atm ½ +½

OR

Volume of 100g of solution=mass/density=100/1.2=83.3ml=0.083L ½

Molarity=moles of solute/vol of solution in L ½
=10/180x0.083
=0.67M ½
Mass of solvent=90g ½
Molality (m) of solution = moles of solute/mass of solvent in Kg ½
=10/180x0.09 ½
= 0.617 m
32 i)formula+name ½ +½
evidence(adding Barium chloride solution to the given isomer gives a 1
white ppt.)
ii)definition+example ½ +½
33 a)Correct definition and example ½ +½
b)Current = 5A ½
Time = 20 × 60 = 1200 s
Charge = current × time
= 5 × 1200 ½
= 6000 C
According to the reaction,Ni2+ +2e→Ni
Nickel deposited by 2 × 96487 C = 58.71 g
Therefore, nickel deposited by 6000 C 1
= 1.825 g
34 i) Sc3+ ,d0 system, no d-d transition 1
ii)participation of ns orbitals along with (n-1)d orbitals 1
iii)lanthanoid contraction 1

65
35 a)graph 1
catalyst lowers the activation energy by providing an alternate pathway 1
and helps to achieve equilibrium faster
b)logk2/k1=Ea/2.303R[1/T1-1/T2] ½
log2= Ea/2.303x8.314[1/298-1/308] substitution and calculation 1+1/2
=52.8KJ/mol correct answer 1

OR
a) definition of rate constant and rate of reaction
b) The initial rate of the reaction is 1+1
Rate = k [A][B]2
= (2.0 × 10−6) (0.1) (0.2)2
= 8.0 × 10−9 1
When [A] is reduced from 0.1 mol L−1 to 0.06 mol−1, the concentration
of A reacted = ½
(0.1 − 0.06) = 0.04 mol/ L
Therefore, concentration of B reacted = 0.02 mol/ L
Then, concentration of B available, [B] = (0.2 − 0.02) mol/ L ½
= 0.18 mol/ L
After [A] is reduced to 0.06 mol L−1, the rate of the reaction is given as ½
Rate = k [A][B]2
= (2.0 × 10−6 ) (0.06) (0.18)2 ½
= 3.89 mol L−1 s−1
36 a)each correct structure 1x2=2
b)i)angular strain in white P 1x3=3
ii)strong H-bonding
iii)breaks up to release nascent oxygen
OR
a)each correct structure 1x2=2
b)i) presence of unpaired electrons in NO2 1x3=3
ii)strong tendency to gain electrons/more negative EGE
iii)hydrogen formed reduces ferric back to ferrous
37 a)i)benzoic acid gives effervescence of CO2 with NaHCO3 1
ii)ethanol gives a positive iodoform test 1
b) Since compound A contains a total of 8 carbon atoms, each of B and
C contain 4 carbonatoms.
Again, on dehydration, alcohol C gives but-1-ene. Therefore, C is of
straight chain and ½
hence, it is butan-1-ol.
On oxidation, Butan-1-ol gives butanoic acid. Hence, acid B is butanoic ½
acid. ½
Hence, the ester with molecular formula C8H16O2 is butylbutanoate. ½
reactionA to B ½
reaction C to B ½
reaction of C to But-1-ene
OR
a)i)Iodoform test(proper explaination) 1x2=2
ii) Fehling test (proper explaination , not given by aromatic
aldehydes) 1
b)i)Propanone reduced to Propan-2-ol,then dehydration 1
ii)oxidation by alkaline KMnO4 followed by H3O+ 1
iii)ethanol oxidized to ethanal followed by NaOH(aldol condensation)

66
 KENDRIYA VIDAYALAYA SANGATHAN
SAMPLE PAPER-2: 2019-20
CLASS: XII
CHEMISTRY
TIME ALLOWED: 3HRS. M.M:70
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. All questions are compulsory
2. Question numbers 1 to 20 are very short –answer questions, carrying 1 mark each.
3. Question numbers 21 to 27are short –answer questions, carrying 2 marks each.
4. Question numbers 28 to 34 are also short –answer questions, carrying 3 marks each.
5. Question numbers 35 to 37 are long-answer questions of 5 marks each
6. Use of calculator is not permitted
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1. Define collision frequency.

2. Write the IUPAC name of:
3. How is cast iron different from pig iron?
4. What are azeotropes?
5. Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between (any one)
(i) Phenol and ethanol.
(ii) Propanol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol.
6. Why is the product formed during SN1 reaction optically inactive?
OR
What are meso compounds? 1
7. (CH3)2NH is more basic than (CH3)3 N in aqueous solution. Why?
8. State Kohlrausch’s law of independent migration of ions.

OR
Why is it not possible to obtain the m0 value of CH3COOH experimentally?
9. Compare non-transition and transition elements on the basis of their
(i) Stability of oxidation states.
(ii) Variability of oxidation states (any one)
10. Benzyl chloride undergoes SN1 reaction faster than cyclohexyl methyl chloride.
Explain the observation.
11. What is a pseudo first order reaction? Give an example.
12. Draw the structure of (any one):
(i)H2S2O7.
(ii) BrF5
13. What is the effect of adding a catalyst on
(i) Activation energy and
(ii) Gibbs energy ( G) of a reaction?
14. Write the chemical reaction to illustrate Friedel-Crafts acetylation of anisole.
15. Write the formula and the IUPAC name of the ionization isomer of the coordination
compound [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4
16. Complete the equation: (any one)
(i) C + H2SO4(conc)
(ii) XeF2 + H2O
17. What is peptization? Give an example of a peptizing agent.
18. Using the standard electrode potential value, predict if the reaction between Fe3+(aq)
and Br-(aq) is feasible or not:
E0Fe3+/Fe2+ = +0.77 V and E01/2Br2/Br- = +1.090 V
20. Despite having greater polarity why does HF boil at a lower temperature in
comparison to water?

67
20. Why does acetylation of aniline reduce its activation effect?
OR,
Explain why n-propylamine has higher boiling point than trimethylamine.
21. Describe the principle involved in each of the following processes:
(i) Mond process for refining of Ni.
(ii) Column chromatography for purification of rare elements.
22. (i) State two advantages of a fuel cell over an ordinary cell.
(ii) Why does conductivity of a solution decrease with dilution?
23. (i) Which reacts faster by SN2 pathway and why?
(a) CH3CH2 CH2Br or (b) (CH3)3 C-Br
(ii) Draw the structures of the enantiomers of 3-methylpent-1-ene in three dimension.
24. The rate constant for a zero order reaction is 0.0030 molL-1s-1. How long will it take
for the initial concentration of the reactant to fall from 0.10 M to 0.075 M?
OR
After 24 hours, only 0.125g out of the initial quantity of 1g of a radioactive isotope remains
behind. Calculate its half-life period.
[log8= 0.9031]
25. Explain the following:
(i) Physisorption is multilayered while chemisorption is monolayered.
(ii) FeCl3 forms a positively charged sol when it is added slowly to boiling water.
26. Calculate the time required to deposit 1.27g of copper at the cathode when a current
of 2 A is passed through the solution of CuSO4. [Molar mass of Cu= 63.5gmol-1]
27. (i) Write the equation for the preparation of 2-methoxy-2-methylpropane by
Williamson’s synthesis.
(ii) Write the equation for reaction of HI with methoxybenzene.
OR
Write the mechanism for the acid catalyzed hydration of propene.
28. (i) What are anomers?
(ii) What happens when glucose is treated with bromine water? Write equation.
(iii)What is a zwitter ion? Give an example.
29. Give reasons:
(i) The enthalpies of atomization of transition elements are high.
(ii) Actinoid contraction is greater than lanthanoid contraction.
(iii) E0 value for the Mn3+/Mn2+ couple is much more positive than that of the Cr3+/Cr2+
couple.
30. (i) Why is bithional added to soap?
(ii) What is tincture of iodine? State its one use.
(iii)What are broad spectrum antibiotics? Give one example.
31. (i) Arrange the following polymers in increasing order of their intermolecular forces:
PVC, neoprene, nylon-6.
(ii) Name a polymer used for non-stick kitchen wares. Also, write the structure of its
monomer.
(iii)Write the monomers of glyptal.

32. (i) On the basis of crystal field theory, write the electronic configuration of the d4 ion
if 0>P.
(ii) Write the hybridization and magnetic behavior of [CoF6]3-
(iii)[Ti (H2O)6]3+ is coloured but [Sc(H2O)6]3+ is colourless. Why?

OR
(i) Draw the geometrical isomers of [Pt(en)2Cl2]2+
(ii) Which isomer named in (i) above, is optically inactive? Why?
33. (i) What is the effect of temperature on chemisorption? Why?
(ii) What is the sign for change in entropy during adsorption?
(iii)How does Brownian motion help to stabilize a colloid?

68
34. How can you convert?
(i) Toluene to p-toluidine.
(ii) Nitrobenzene to acetanilide.
(iii) Benzyl chloride to 2-phenylethanamine.
OR
How can you convert?
(i) Aniline to fluorobenene.
(ii) Benzene diazonium chloride to benzene.
(iii) Aniline to iodobenzene.
35. Give reasons:
(i) Among the halogens, F2 is strongest oxidizing agent.
(ii) ICl is more reactive than I2.
(iii) Bleaching action of chlorine is permanent.
(iv) Dioxygen is a gas but Sulphur is a solid at room temperature.
(v) All bonds in SF4 are not equivalent.
36. (i) The degree of dissociation of Ca(NO3)2 in dil.aq solution containing 7.0g of the
solute per 100g of water at 100oC is 70%. If vapour pressure of water at 100oC is 760 mm of
Hg, calculate the vapour pressure of the solution.
(ii) Explain why:
(a) Aquatic animals are more comfortable in cold water than in warm water.
(b) Molarity of a solution decreases with increase in temperature.
OR
(i) Two elements A and B form compounds having molecular formulae AB2 and AB4.
When dissolved in 20g of benzene, 1g of AB2 lowers the freezing point by 2.3K whereas 1g
of AB4 lowers it by 1.3K. The molal depression constant for benzene is 5.1K kg mol-1.
Calculate the atomic masses of A and B.
(j) Explain why:
(a) Elevation of boiling point of 1M KCl solution is nearly double than that of 1M sugar
solution.
(b) For ideal solutions, mixH=0
37. (i) An organic compound ‘A’ with molecular formula C8H8O gives positive DNP and
iodoform tests. It does not decoulorise bromine water. Also, it does not reduce Tollen’s or
Fehling’s solution. On oxidation with chromic acid, H2CrO4, it gives a carboxylic acid ‘B’
with molecular formula C7H6O2.Deduce structures and IUPAC names of A and B and of the
product that ‘A’ forms with DNP.
(ii) Explain:
(a) pKa of chloroacetic acid is lower than that of acetic acid.
(b) During esterification, the water or ester formed should be removed as soon as they are
formed.

69
 MARKING SCHEME

1 No. of collisions per unit volume per sec 1

2 2-methylcyclopentane carboxylic acid 1
3 Pig iron contains 4% C along with S,P,SI etc as impurities. Cast iron contains 3% of C 1
and is hard.
4 Correct definition. 1
5 Correct test 1
6 Because the product is a racemic mixture which is formed by attack on the 1
carbonium ion intermediate from either side with equal probability. Hence the
product is a 50:50 mixture of both enantiomers.
OR,
Meso compounds are compounds having chiral centres but they are optically inactive
due to internal compensation.
7 Due to +I and solvation effect, this trend is observed. The ion formed from the 20 1
amine is more solvated in solution.
8 Correct statement. 1
OR,
For weak electrolytes the value of m0 does not increase linearly with dilution.
Hence, not possible to find experimentally.
9 (i) In transition elements,higheroxidn. States are favoured by the heavier 1
elements but in case of non-transition elements, heavier
elememtsfavour lower oxidation states.
(ii) In case of transition elements, the oxidation states differ by one unit but
for non-transition elements, it differs by two units.
10 The carbonium ion is resonance stabilized in the former case. 1
11 Correct definition & example. ½+1/2
12 Correct structure. 1
13 (i) No effect ½
(ii) No effect 1/2
14 Correct reaction. 1
15 Ionisation isomer is [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br ½+1/2
Its IUPAC name is: Pentaamminesulphatocobalt(III)bromide.
16 Correct balanced equation 1
17 Correct definition and example. ½+1/2
18 E0cell = 0.77 – 1.09 = -0.32 V; hence not feasible. 1
19 Extensive H-bonding in water. 1
20 The lone pair of electrons is less available for donation to the ring since it is involved 1
in resonance.
OR,
Trimethylamine is branched and has smaller surface area; hence weaker
intermolecular forces. So it has lower b.p.
21 (i) Ni is converted to its volatile carbonyl, and then decomposed to give 1
pure nickel (equations required).
(ii) It is based on the principle that different components of a mixture are
adsorbed differently on an adsorbent. In case of rare earths, ion- 1``
exchange is used as an adsorbent.
22 (i) More efficient, gives steady current and causes less or no pollution (any 1
two)
(ii) Because no. of ions per unit volume of solution decreases. 1
23 (i) CH3CH2 CH2Br, Because there is less crowding around the carbon 1
attached to the halogen; hence approaching nucleophile is less hindered.
(ii) Correct structures. ½+1/2
24 [𝑅0]−[𝑅] ½
t= 𝑘

0.10−0.075 ½
= 0.0030
70
 = 8.33 s 1

OR,

2.303 [𝑅𝑜]
k= 𝑡
log [𝑅]
2.303 1
= 24
log 0.125
½
2.303
= log 8
24

=0.0866 h-1 ½

t1/2 = 0.693/k
=8 hrs 1
(1/2 mark to be deducted for wrong or no unit)
25 (i) Physisorption lacks specificity since Vander waals forces are involved. 1
Chemisorption is more specific; it involves chemical bonds.
(ii) Selective adsorption of Fe3+ ions by Fe(OH)3 ppt.
1
26 t= Q/I ½
2𝑥96500𝑥1.27 ½
=( 63.5
)/2
1
= 1930 s

(1/2 mark to be deducted for wrong or no unit)

27 Correct equations (1+1)
OR,
Correct mechanism. 2
28 (i) Correct definition. 1
(ii) Correct equation. 1
(iii) Correct definition and example. ½+1/2

29 (i) Strong metallic bonds. 1

(ii) Poorer shielding of 5f electrons in actinoids. 1
(iii) Large third I.E of highly stable Mn2+ due to 3d5 configuration. 1
30 (i) Bithional has antiseptic properties. It reduces odour produced by 1
bacterial decomposition of organic matter on skin.
(ii) 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol and water is known as tincture of 1
iodine. It is a powerful antiseptic.
(iii) Correct defn and example. ½+1/2
31 (i) Neoprene  PVC  Nylon-6 1
(ii) Teflon; monomer is CF2=CF2 1
(iii) Pthalic acid and ethylene glycol 1
32 (i) It is t2g4eg0 1
(ii) Sp3d2; paramagnetic 1
(iii) Sc3+(d0); hence no d-d transition possible
Ti3+(d1); coloured due to d-d transition 1
OR,
(i) Correct structures
(ii) The trans isomer; it has symmetry 1+1
½+1/2
33 (i) The rate first increases since the required activation energy is supplied. It 1
then decreases since desorption starts (Le Chatelier’s principle)
(ii) S = - ve 1
(iii) It prevents particles of the dispersed phase from settling down due to its
stirring effect. 1
34 Correct steps. (1+1+1)

71
35 (i) Due to low bond enthalpy of F-F bond and high hydration enthalpy of F-. (1X5)
(ii) I-Cl bond is polar and hence more reactive.
(iii) Since it bleaches by oxidation.
(iv) Molar mass of Sulphur (S8) is greater. So stronger Vander Waals forces.
(v) Because two S-F bonds are in the equatorial plane and two at
perpendicular to this plane (distorted due to repulsion from lone pair in
the equatorial plane).The bond angles in the equatorial are larger, hence
lesser repulsion and shorter bonds.
(I)
36 Initially 1 mole of solute.(molar mass = 164 g mol-1
Total moles at equilibrium = (1+2) =1+(2x0.7)=2.4
For solution containing 1g of solute, no. of moles =2.4/164 ½
No. of moles of solute in soln. containing 7 g of solute=(2.4/164)x7
½
=0.102
By Raoult’s law,
𝑝𝑜−𝑝 𝑛
= ½
𝑝𝑜 𝑛+𝑁

760−𝑝 0.102 ½
or, =
760 0.102+100/18

or, p = 746.3 mm Hg 1

(ii) (a) Oxygen is less available in warm water (Henry’s law) since solubility decreases
with increase in temperature. 1
(b) Volume increases and molarity is inversely related to temperature. So it
decreases. 1
OR,
𝐾𝑓𝑥𝑊2𝑥1000
(i) M2 = ∆𝑇𝑓 𝑥𝑤1

5.1𝑥1𝑥1000
MAB2= 2.3𝑥20
= 110.87 g mol-1 ½

MAB4 =
5.1𝑥1𝑥1000
= 196.15 g mol-1 ½
1.3𝑥20

Now, a+2b = 110.87 ( a is at mass of A, b is at. Mass of B)

½
and a+ 4b= 196.15
a= 25.59u. and b=42.64u
½
(ii) (a) For sugar i=1
½+1/2
For KCli=2, since it dissociates in soln.
1
So, Tb increases.
(b) For ideal solutions magnitude of A-B interactions is same as A-A or B-B 1
interactions. So, mixH=0.

37. (i) (1/2 mark for name + ½ mark for structure)

A- acetophenone
B- Benzoic acid
Product of A with DNP is - Acetophenone(2,4-dinitrophenyl) hydrazon
(ii) (a) Stronger -I effect in former,hence weaker O-H bond and easier
release of proton.
(b) It is a reversible reaction; hence this is required to shift the equilibrium to the
right

37

72
73