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Test-2 (Code-E)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2020

TEST - 2 (Code-E)
Test Date : 17/11/2019

ANSWERS
1. (2) 37. (3) 73. (1) 109. (2) 145. (3)
2. (1) 38. (2) 74. (1) 110. (1) 146. (3)
3. (2) 39. (4) 75. (4) 111. (4) 147. (4)
4. (2) 40. (2) 76. (2) 112. (3) 148. (2)
5. (4) 41. (1) 77. (2) 113. (2) 149. (3)
6. (3) 42. (3) 78. (2) 114. (3) 150. (2)
7. (4) 43. (4) 79. (3) 115. (4) 151. (3)
8. (1) 44. (2) 80. (1) 116. (2) 152. (3)
9. (3) 45. (1) 81. (2) 117. (2) 153. (3)
10. (3) 46. (4) 82. (3) 118. (3) 154. (1)
11. (1) 47. (4) 83. (1) 119. (1) 155. (4)
12. (4) 48. (1) 84. (4) 120. (4) 156. (1)
13. (2) 49. (2) 85. (1) 121. (3) 157. (1)
14. (3) 50. (3) 86. (1) 122. (2) 158. (2)
15. (2) 51. (1) 87. (3) 123. (3) 159. (4)
16. (1) 52. (3) 88. (4) 124. (1) 160. (2)
17. (4) 53. (3) 89. (3) 125. (2) 161. (3)
18. (4) 54. (2) 90. (3) 126. (1) 162. (2)
19. (1) 55. (2) 91. (1) 127. (3) 163. (4)
20. (2) 56. (1) 92. (4) 128. (2) 164. (3)
21. (3) 57. (3) 93. (3) 129. (3) 165. (2)
22. (2) 58. (3) 94. (4) 130. (1) 166. (4)
23. (2) 59. (4) 95. (2) 131. (3) 167. (3)
24. (2) 60. (1) 96. (1) 132. (1) 168. (3)
25. (2) 61. (4) 97. (2) 133. (2) 169. (2)
26. (1) 62. (2) 98. (3) 134. (4) 170. (2)
27. (3) 63. (1) 99. (2) 135. (1) 171. (2)
28. (2) 64. (4) 100. (2) 136. (2) 172. (3)
29. (4) 65. (4) 101. (4) 137. (1) 173. (4)
30. (2) 66. (2) 102. (2) 138. (4) 174. (1)
31. (3) 67. (2) 103. (2) 139. (2) 175. (3)
32. (1) 68. (3) 104. (3) 140. (3) 176. (1)
33. (2) 69. (4) 105. (1) 141. (2) 177. (3)
34. (1) 70. (3) 106. (4) 142. (3) 178. (2)
35. (4) 71. (2) 107. (2) 143. (4) 179. (3)
36. (1) 72. (3) 108. (3) 144. (4) 180. (1)
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS


[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (2) 5. Answer (4)
(m2 − m1 ) µmg
Hint : a = g. Hint : Fmin = , when θ = λ
(m2 + m1 ) µ2 + 1
(2 − 1) 10 1× 10 × 10 100
=
Sol. : a = g m/s2 for each blocks. Sol. : Fmin
= = N
(2 + 1) 3 2 3
2  1 
2. Answer (1) 2 1 + 
 2
Hint : Conservation of linear momentum and e = 1.
6. Answer (3)
Sol. : Before collision
Hint : Newton’s second law of motion.
Sol. :

After collision

mg – T = ma

mg − T
Conservation of linear momentum a=
m
10 × 4 = 10v1 + 6v2
mg − mg /5 4g
⇒ 20 = 5v1 + 3v2 =
a(min) = = 8 m/s2
m 5
Coefficient of restitution = e = 1 7. Answer (4)
v2 – v 1 = 4
Hint : θ = tan–1(µ) is angle of repose.
⇒ 5v2 – 5v1 = 20
Sol. : FBD of block from frame of reference of the
v2 = 5 m/s elevator.
v1 = 1 m/s
3. Answer (2)
Hint : ∆U = –Wc.

Sol. : ∆U =− ( −3iˆ ) ⋅ ( 6iˆ )


∆U = 18 J m(g + a) cosθ = N
4. Answer (2)
m(g + a) sinθ = f
Hint : Use parallel axis theorem.
f
2 Dividing ⇒ = tan(θ) ⇒ f = µN
Sol. : I = mR 2 + mR 2 N
5
Since the value of friction = µN is possible.
7
= mR 2
5 ∴ Block will remain at rest.
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Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

8. Answer (1) Sol. :


Hint : Newton’s second law of motion.
Sol. : Let tension in string be T
50 – T = 5a
T – 10 = 10a
40 8
⇒ =
a = m/s2
15 3
9. Answer (3)
Hint : Conservation of mechanical energy.
l 1 2
Sol. : mg = Iω
2 2

l 1  ml 2  2 Total area = 20 – 16 = 4 N s
=
mg  ω
2 2 3  = 4 kg m s–1
4
3g Momentum change/mass = = 2 m/s
= ω 2
l
12. Answer (4)
30 Hint & Sol. : Since there is no external force on
=ω = 10 rad/s
0.3 the system, velocity of centre of mass remains
10. Answer (3) constant.
Hint : Maximum value of static friction = µN. 13. Answer (2)

Sol. : Hint : Acceleration = g sinθ (θ is slope angle).


Sol. :

⇒ T = 20 g = 200 N
dy
Slope = tan(θ=
) = x2
dx
dy
⇒ =1
dx x =1

θ = 45°
1
T=f sin θ =
2
⇒ T ≤ µN
g
T ≤ µ(40 + m)g a=
2
200 ≤ 0.25 (40 + m)(10)
14. Answer (3)
20
≤ 40 + m Hint : Work-energy theorem.
0.25
Sol. : Since the initial kinetic energies of both
40 kg ≤ m blocks are same. The work done on both blocks
11. Answer (1) by the forces must be same.
 
Hint : ∆p = area under F-t graph. ∆K = F .S
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

15. Answer (2) Sol. : τ = Iα = mk2α


Hint : Rotational equilibrium. 36 = m(42)(9)
Sol. : 36
m= 2
= 0.25 kg
4 ×9
19. Answer (1)
Hint & Sol. : The theorem of perpendicular axes
is applicable only for planar bodies.
20. Answer (2)
  
Hint=
: v P v P/com + v com .
l   2l 
3g   = mg   
3 3 Sol. : v P/com =12 × 2 ( −iˆ ) =−24iˆ
3 = 2m 
v com = 6iˆ
3 
⇒ m= = 1.5 kg vP = 6iˆ − 24iˆ =
−18iˆ m/s
2

16. Answer (1) v P = 18 m/s
Hint : Gravitational potential energy = mgy. 21. Answer (3)
1 2 1 1
Sol. : =
y u sin θt − gt Hint : KE
= 2
mv cm + Icm ω2 .
2 2 2
(symbols have their usual meanings)
1 1  mR 2  2
 1  Sol. : KE(disc) =mv 02 +  ω
= = mg  u sin θt − gt 2 
U mgy 2 2 2 
 2 
2
1 mR 2  v 0 
= A mgu sin θ  = mv 02 +  2
2   2 4 R 
= At − Bt
⇒ U  mg 2 
B =  3
 2  KE(disc) = mv 02
4
∴ U v/s t is a downward parabolic graph
vparticle = 2 v0
1
( )
2
⇒ KE(particle) = m 2 v0
2
= mv02
3
KE(net) = mv 02 + mv 02
4

17. Answer (4) 7


= mv 02
4
Hint & Sol. : Gravitational potential energy (U)
can be negative as its value depends on zero 22. Answer (2)
potential energy reference frame chosen. Hint : Conservation of momentum.
 1  Sol. :
Kinetic energy  K = mv 2  is either zero or
 2 
positive.
Mechanical energy (U + K) may be negative,
positive or zero depending on value and sign of
gravitational potential energy.
18. Answer (4)
Hint : τ = Iα, I = mk2 (k : radius of gyration).
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Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

Applying conservation of momentum 25. Answer (2)


mu = (2m)v Hint & Sol. : Moment of inertia is not a vector
u quantity. According to parallel axis theorem,
⇒ v= I = Icom + md2.
2
Conservation of mechanical energy: ∴ Minimum moment of inertia (among parallel
2
axis) is about an axis passing through centre of
1 u  mass
(2m )  = 2mgl (1 − cos θ)
2 2
26. Answer (1)
u 2   
1 − cos θ = Hint : v = ω × r
8gl 
Sol. : v = ( 2iˆ + ˆj ) × ( iˆ + 2 ˆj )
u2
cos θ = 1 −
8gl = 4kˆ − kˆ = 3kˆ m/s
 u2  27. Answer (3)
⇒ θ cos−1  1 −
= 
 8gl  Hint & Sol. : In stable equilibrium, the potential
energy is minimum.
23. Answer (2)
28. Answer (2)
Hint & Sol. : For a body rolling purely on
horizontal surface, the point of contact with the 1 m1m2
Hint
= : ∆ KE (u − u2 )2 (1 − e 2 ) .
ground is instantaneously at rest 2 m1 + m2 1

1 (6 × 6)   1 2 
Sol. : ∆ KE
= {10} 2 1 −   
2 (6 + 6)   4  

1125
= J
8
29. Answer (4)
Net velocity of P
Hint & Sol. : As the body moves towards ground,
v – ωR = 0
the potential energy decreases. Since the body
24. Answer (2) accelerates, the kinetic energy increases.
Hint : Moment of inertia of a point mass = mR2. 30. Answer (2)
Sol. : Hint : Conservation of mechanical energy.
Sol. : Let maximum extension = x
At maximum extension, speed of block = 0
1 2
−mg ( x ) + 0
kx =
2
2mg 2 × 10 × 10
⇒=x = = 0.5 m
k 400
31. Answer (3)
 
2 Hint : Power = F ⋅ v
R = 2 −1
Sol. : F = tension = mg = 10 × 103 × 10 = 105 N
= 3
v = 0.6 m/s
2
I = 10(0) + 10(0) + 10 ( 3 )
2 2
Power = 6 × 104 W
= 30 kg m2 = 60 kW
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

32. Answer (1) 37. Answer (3)


Hint : Work done by gravity = change in kinetic 1 2
energy. Hint : KE
= Iω .
2
Sol. : Work done by gravity = (mg) × displacement
1 1
Sol. : I ω2 = I ω2
∴ Ratio of work done = Ratio of displacement 2 A A 2 B B
=1:5 1 1
⇒ )2
I (ω= I (2ω)2
33. Answer (2) 2 A 2 B
 
Hint & Sol. : dK
= mv ⋅ dv IA = 4IB
 
dK= p ⋅ dv 38. Answer (2)
34. Answer (1) Hint : Spring force and Newton’s II law of motion.
Hint & Sol. : As internal forces cancel out in a Sol. : Let compression in spring be x
system, according to Newton’s III law of motion,
For m1
they lead to no net force and hence no net
change in momentum. F – kx = m1a1
35. Answer (4) 80 – kx = 10 × 4
Hint : Newton’s II law of motion. ⇒ kx = 40 N
F For m2
Sol. : Acceleration of the system (a) =
mA + mB
⇒ 40 = m2a2
80 80
= = 40
4 + 12 16 a2 = = 2 m/s2
20
= 5 m/s2
39. Answer (4)
FBD of block B
Hint : Net force on man plus platform system will
be zero.
Sol. : Let force applied by man be F
∴ Tension = T

N = mBa
N = 12 × 5 = 60 N
36. Answer (1)
Hint : Fnet = ma. 3T = (25 + 50) g
Sol. : FBD of links C, D and E combined T = 25 × 10 = 250 N
40. Answer (2)
Hint & Sol. : Initially friction will be equal to the
applied force. Later it becomes constant (kinetic
friction).
41. Answer (1)
1 2
Hint : Rotational KE
= Iω
2
F – 3 = (0.3) × 4 1
Translational KE = mv 2 .
F = 3 + 1.2 = 4.2 N 2
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Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

Sol. : v = ωR 43. Answer (4)


1 2 1 2
KE(Rotational) = Iω = 2 2
 mR  ω =
Hint : xcom

=
mi xi
; y com
∑ mi y i .
2 25 
∑ mi ∑ mi
1
= mv 2
5 1(0) + 3(0) + 6(4) 24
Sol. : xcom
= = = 2.4
6 + 3 +1 10
1
KE(Translational) = mv 2
2 1(0) + 3(4) + 6(0) 12
=
y com = = 1.2
KE(Rotational) 6 + 3 +1 10
Ratio =
KE(Rotational) + KE(Translational) Position of COM = (2.4, 1.2)
1 44. Answer (2)
mv 2
5 2
= = Hint : p = 2mK .
1 1 7
mv 2 + mv 2
2 5
Sol. : pi = 2mK i
42. Answer (3)
Hint : Rate of change of angular momentum = Kf = 4Ki
Torque = mg(x).
=pf 2mK f
= 2m
= (4K i ) 2 2mK i
R
Sol. : Torque = mg  
2 pf = 2pi
2
 u sin(2θ) 
= mg   45. Answer (1)
 2g 
Hint & Sol. : The moment of inertia of a uniform
mgu 2 1
= = mu 2 cylinder about its geometric axis is 1 MR 2 .
2g 2 2

[CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (4) 48. Answer (1)
[Salt]
Hint : For basic buffer, pOH = pKb + log . Hint : For a reversible isothermal expansion of an
[Base]
ideal gas
 + 
RNH3 
Sol. : pOH = pK b + log  V 
∆S = nR × 2.303 log10  f 
[RNH2 ]  Vi 
 0.40 
= − log10 −5 + log   = 4.82  23.03 
 0.60  Sol. : ∆S = 2 × 8.314 × 2.303 log10  
 2.303 
pH = 14 – 4.82 = 9.18
47. Answer (4) = 38.29 J K–1
Hint : Hydrolysis of RCOO –
49. Answer (2)
RCOO (aq) + H2O(l)  RCOOH (aq) + OH (aq)
– –
Hint : For H2 gas, molecular attractive forces are
Kw 10 −14
Sol. : K h =
= insignificant.
K a (RCOOH) 10 −6
a
⇒ K h = 10−8 Sol. : P + ≈P
V2
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

van der Waals equation for 1 mole of gas 56. Answer (1)
becomes Hint : Conjugate acid is formed by addition of
P(V–b) = RT ⇒ PV – bP = RT one H+ while conjugate base is formed by release
of one H+.
 b 
⇒ Z= 1 +  P 57. Answer (3)
 RT 
Hint : Acid having higher value of Ka will be more
b acidic.
For Z vs P graph, Slope =
RT
58. Answer (3)
50. Answer (3)
J
Hint : R = 8.314 .
Hint : At identical T, P conditions mol-K
1 Sol. : Cp – Cv = R
r∝
Molecular weight 59. Answer (4)
rO2 64 Hint : HBr is a polar molecule.
Sol. : = = 2 :1
rSO2 32 Sol. : Dipole-dipole interaction energy between
1
rotating polar molecules is proportional to 6 .
51. Answer (1) r
– +
Hint 4Zn + NO3 + 7H2O → 4Zn2+ + NH4 + 10 OH– 60. Answer (1)

x = 4, y = 1, c = 10 Hint : Molecules involving more H-bond will have


less vapour pressure.
52. Answer (3)
Sol. : C2H5 – O – C2H5 > CCl4 > C2H5OH > H2O
Hint : F is most electronegative element. (vapour pressure).
Sol. : Oxidation state of F is always –1 in its 61. Answer (4)
compound. Hint : V1M1 = (V1 + V2)M2.
53. Answer (3) Sol. : Initial [H+] = 10–3 M; Final [H+] = 10–5 M
∆ng 1 × 10–3 = (1 + V2) × 10–5
Hint : K p = K c (RT)
V2 = 100 – 1 = 99 L
Sol. : For reaction Hence volume of water added = 100 – 1 = 99 L.
N2O4(g)  2NO2(g) 62. Answer (2)
∆ng = 1 Hint : Aqueous solution of salt of weak base and
strong acid will undergo cationic hydrolysis.
So, Kp = Kc(RT)
⊕ –

or Kp > Kc Sol. : NH4 Cl(aq) → NH4 (aq) + C l (aq)
54. Answer (2) ⊕
NH4 + H2 O  NH4 OH + H⊕
Hint : Mass of pure solids do not affect pressure/
concentration of equilibrium. 63. Answer (1)
q
Sol. : A decomposition reaction is endothermic. Hint : ∆S =rev
When temperature increases, equilibrium shifts in T
forward direction. Sol. : When heat is added to the system,
molecular motion increases, hence entropy
55. Answer (2)
increases.
Hint : For spontaneous reaction ∆rG < 0. 64. Answer (4)
Sol. : ∆rG = ∆rH – T∆rS < 0, Hint : For a compound, net charge is zero.
Reaction will be spontaneous at all temperatures Sol. : A2BC2 : Net charge = 2 × (1) + 4 + 2 × (–3)
when ∆rH is –ve and ∆rS is +ve. =0
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Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

65. Answer (4) 71. Answer (2)

: Eocell Eo
Hint= − Eo nO2
Sn2 + Sn Cd2 + Cd Hint
= : p O2 × Ptotal
nO2 + nNe
o
Sol. : Ecell = –0.14 + 0.4
32
= 0.26 V Sol.
= : p O2 32 × 100
32 180
66. Answer (2) +
32 20
3
Hint : K.E. = n × RT  1
2 =   × 100 = 10 atm
 10 
14 3
Sol. : K.E. = × × 8.314 × (273 + 127) 72. Answer (3)
28 2
Hint : Work done in reversible isothermal
= 2.5 kJ V 
expansion w = –2.303 nRT log  f 
67. Answer (2) V 
 i
Hint : ∆rH = Σ BE of reactants – Σ BE of products.
 60 
Sol. : w = –2.303 × 6 × 8.314 × 300 log  
Sol. : N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g), ∆rH = –83 kJ  30 
∆rH = {B.E (N ≡ N) + 3 B.E. (H – H)} – = –10.4 kJ
6 B.E. (N – H) 73. Answer (1)
⇒ –83 = 946 + (3 ×435) – 6 × B.E. (N – H) Hint : Electron deficient species behaves as
Lewis acid.
⇒ B.E. (N – H) = 389 kJ mol–1
74. Answer (1)
68. Answer (3)
Hint : The more negative standard electrode
Hint : ∆G = ∆H – T∆S. reduction potential implies increasing power of
reducing nature of metal.
Sol. : ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
Sol. : Ascending order of reducing power
= 5.7 – 300 × 40 × 10–3
Ag < Hg < Zn < Mg < Na
= 5.7 – 12
+0.80 V + 0.79 V − 0.76 V − 2.37 V − 2.71 V
= –6.3 kcal mol–1
75. Answer (4)
69. Answer (4) Hint : Oxidation number of Oxygen atom in H2O2
Hint : More the polarity of gas, more will be its is –1
critical temperature. −1 0 −2
Sol. : 2H2O2 (aq) → O2 ( g) + 2H2 O ( l )
Sol. : Molecule TC(K)
H2 33.2 76. Answer (2)

CO2 304.1 Hint : ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT.

O2 154.3 Sol. : Reaction for which ∆ng is maximum, will


have large difference of ∆H and ∆U.
NH3 405.5
77. Answer (2)
70. Answer (3)
Hint : Salts having high value of Ksp, will be more
Hint : Multiplying through a factor ‘n’ in soluble.
equilibrium reaction, equilibrium constant 78. Answer (2)
becomes nth power of initial value.
Hint : At constant temperature, Boyle’s law is
Sol. : N2(g) + O2(g)  2NO(g), K1 = 64 × 10–2 applicable.
1 Sol. : P1V1 = P2V2
[(N2(g) + O2(g)  2 NO(g)], K2 = (K1)1/2
2 ⇒ 10 bar × 2.27 L = 2 bar × V2
= 8 × 10–1 = 0.8 ⇒ V2 = 11.35 L
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

79. Answer (3) As slope increases ⇒ nRT increases


Hint : ⇒ T increases

⇒ T1 > T2 > T3
Hence, only set possible is
Sol. : urms > uav > ump
T1 = 800 K, T2 = 600 K, T3 = 100 K
80. Answer (1)
85. Answer (1)
Hint : S — S linkage is present in S4 O26− ion.
Hint : Cr2O72− does not act as self-indicator.

Sol. : MnO4 acts as the self-indicator in the
Sol. :

titration of MnO4 and Fe2+.

81. Answer (2) 86. Answer (1)


Hint : Extensive property depends on quantity / Hint : If Kc > 103, then the reaction proceeds
amount of matter. nearly to completion.
Sol. : Temperature is an intensive property. 87. Answer (3)
82. Answer (3)
Hint : ∆subH = ∆fusH + ∆vapH.
2

Hint : At equilibrium, K p =
(pY ) Sol. :
( )
pY
2 X(s) → X(g), ∆H = 57.3 kJ mol–1 …(i)

Sol. : Y2 (g)  2Y(g) X(l) → X(g), ∆H = 41.8 kJ mol–1 …(ii)

At equilibrium 1 – α 2α, PT = 1 atm Applying (i) – (ii)

 2α 
2 X(s) → X(l), ∆H = 57.3 – 41.8 = 15.5 kJ mol–1
× PT 
(=
py ) 
2

Kp
=  1 − α + 2α  88. Answer (4)
py
2
( )
 1− α
 1 − α + 2α PT 
 Hint : Work done is path function.
 
89. Answer (3)
( 2 × 0.5 )
2 2 −1
 1 
( atm )
2 −1
=  1 + 0.5  7
(1 − 0.5 )   Hint : C2H6 (g) + O (g) → 2CO2 (g) + 3H2O(l)
2 2
12  1  1 4 Sol. : ∆rH = 2 ∆fH{CO2(g)} + 3∆fH{H2O(l)} –
⇒ Kp = ×   = == 1.33 atm
0.5  1.5  0.75 3
∆fH{C2H6(g)}
83. Answer (1)
= 2 × (–90) + 3 × (–70) – (–20)
Hint : Third law permits the calculation of
absolute value of entropy of pure crystalline = –180 – 210 + 20
substance. = –370 kcal mol–1
84. Answer (4)
90. Answer (3)
Hint : Ideal gas equation, PV = nRT
Hint : Ksp = [Al3+][OH–]3.
1
Sol. : P = (nRT ) Sol. : Ksp = [Al3+][OH–]3
V
= 10–5 × [3 × 10–5]3
1
⇒ P vs is straight line passing through origin
V = 27 × 10–20 = 2.7 × 10–19
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Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

[BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (1) Sol. : Euglena lacks cell wall rather its body is
Hint : Carl Woese noticed that members of covered with pellicle.
Monera differ from each other. 100. Answer (2)
Sol. : Monera was divided into two kingdoms Hint : Dead diatoms are nearly indestructible.
Archaebacteria and Eubacteria by Carl Woese.
Sol. : Silica deposited cell wall of diatoms make
92. Answer (4)
them indestructible.
Hint : Cytoplasmic streaming occurs only in
101. Answer (4)
eukaryotes.
Sol. : Since monerans are prokaryotes they do Hint : Fungal body is called mycelium.
not show cytoplasmic streaming. Sol. : Mycelium is made up of a network of
93. Answer (3) hyphae.
Sol. : According to shapes, bacteria are classified 102. Answer (2)
into four groups: Cocci (spherical), Bacillus (Rod Hint : Zygospores are formed by fusion of
shaped), Vibrio (comma shaped) Spirillum gametes.
(Spiral)
Sol. : Zygospores are diploid sexual spores
94. Answer (4) formed by members of Phycomycetes.
Hint : These bacteria lack enzymes for aerobic 103. Answer (2)
respiration.
Hint : Members of ascomycetes are called sac
Sol. : Obligate anaerobes show anaerobic mode
fungi.
of respiration only.
Sol. : Ascus is the site of karyogamy and meiosis
95. Answer (2)
in sac fungi.
Sol. : Ability of bacteria to pick up the DNA from
solution is called competence. 104. Answer (3)

96. Answer (1) Hint : Primary mycelium is monokaryotic and


short lived in Basidiomycetes.
Hint : Peptidoglycan is not found in some of the
monerans. Sol. : Dikaryophase is dominant phase of life
cycle in Basidiomycetes.
Sol. : Archaebacteria lack peptidoglycan.
97. Answer (2) 105. Answer (1)

Hint : Streptomycin, erythromycin and Hint : Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Trichoderma


chloramphenicol don’t interfere synthesis of belong to class Deuteromycetes.
peptidoglycan. Sol. : Members of Deuteromycetes lack sexual
Sol. : Penicillin interferes synthesis of cell wall. reproduction. Sexual reproduction in Rhizopus
As Mycoplasma don’t have cell wall they are takes place by conjugation.
insensitive to penicillin. 106. Answer (4)
98. Answer (3) Sol. : Mycorrhizal roots lack root cap, root hairs
Hint : Slime moulds are connecting link of plants, and depend on fungal partner for the supply of
animals and fungi. H2O, N, P and S. Roots provide shelter and
Sol. : Diatoms : Lack flagella throughout the life. nourishment to the fungal partner.
Dinoflagellates : Have heterokont flagella. 107. Answer (2)
Sporozoan : Endoparasite Hint : UV rays and autoclave are used for
99. Answer (2) sterilisation purpose.
Hint : Body of Euglena is covered by Sol. : Viruses can be killed by autoclaving and
proteinaceous covering. UV rays.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

108. Answer (3) Sol. : Fleshy cylindrical stem of Euphorbia


Sol. : First crystallization of virus-W. M. Stanley, contains chlorophyll and performs photosynthesis
called phylloclade.
Discovery of virus-D. J. Ivanowsky.
119. Answer (1)
Term virus-Pasteur.
Hint : In suckers lateral branches come out form
Contagium vivum fluidum by M.W. Beijerinck soil.
109. Answer (2) Sol. : Chrysanthemum and pineapple are
Hint : Envelope is optional structure in viruses. examples of sucker.
Sol. : Outer protein coat of viruses is called 120. Answer (4)
capsid, made up of capsomeres. Viruses lack Sol. : Swollen leaf base is called pulvinus.
capsule.
121. Answer (3)
110. Answer (1)
Hint : Alstonia have whorled phyllotaxy.
Sol. : Usually plant viruses have ss RNA as their
Sol. : Guava – Opposite phyllotaxy
genetic material.
Sunflower – Alternate phyllotaxy.
111. Answer (4)
122. Answer (2)
Hint : PSTD is caused by a viroid.
Hint : Tendrils in peas, fleshy edible scale of
Sol. : Viroids cause diseases in plants only.
onion and pitcher of plant are modified leaves.
112. Answer (3)
Sol. : Tendrils in grapevines are the modifications
Hint : Proteinaceous infectious particles cause of stem.
‘Kuru’ disease. 123. Answer (3)
Sol. : Prions are proteinaceous infectious Sol. : Venation – Arrangement of veins and
particles. veinlets
113. Answer (2) Floral symmetry – Arrangement of floral organs
Hint : Lichens are indicators of air pollution. on thalamus of flower
Sol. : Lichens are highly sensitive to SO2 and Phyllotaxy – Pattern of arrangement of leaves on
cannot grow in SO2 polluted area. stem
Arrangement of flowers on floral axis is termed as
114. Answer (3)
inflorescence.
Hint : Tap roots are found in dicots.
124. Answer (1)
Sol. : Fibrous roots are found in monocots not in
Hint : Members of Fabaceae family have
dicots.
racemose inflorescence.
115. Answer (4)
Sol. : Cymose inflorescence – Dianthus,
Sol. : Root hairs are present in the region of Solanum, Bougainvillea.
maturation
Racemose inflorescence – Lupin
116. Answer (2)
125. Answer (2)
Sol. : Radish (storage root), Rhizophora
Hint : Androecium and gynoecium are the
(respiratory roots), Banyan tree (prop root), reproductive parts of flower.
sugarcane (stilt root).
Sol. : Calyx and corolla form accessory whorls of
117. Answer (2) flower and do not take part directly in
Hint : In pea, tendril is modification of leaf. reproduction.
Sol. Stem tendrils are found in pumpkin, 126. Answer (1)
watermelon and cucumber. Hint : Perianth is found in members of Liliaceae
118. Answer (3) family.
Hint : In phylloclade, stem modifies for Sol. : Tulip being a member of Liliaceae family
photosynthesis. has perianth.
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Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

127. Answer (3) 136. Answer (2)


Hint : Chilli flower can be divided into two equal Hint : TV + ERV.
halves by any plane passing through the centre. Sol. : Expiratory capacity is the sum of tidal
Sol. : Datura – actinomorphic, Hibiscus – volume and expiratory reserve volume i.e. the
bisexual flower, Maize – unisexual flower, Chilli – amount of air which can be breathed out normally
actinomorphic flower. followed by a forced exhalation.
128. Answer (2) 137. Answer (1)
Hint : Flower with superior ovary is hypogynous. Hint : Hb has affinity for both CO2 and O2 .
Sol. : When female reproductive part occupies Sol. : High pCO2 and low pO2 in tissues favour
highest position then flower is called hypogynous binding of CO2 to haemoglobin. CO2 travels in
with superior ovary. blood in bicarbonate form. CO2 is transported as
129. Answer (3) carbaminohaemoglobin.
Sol. : One margin of a petal/sepal overlaps and 138. Answer (4)
other is overlapped in twisted aestivation. Hint : 20-25% CO2 is transported as
130. Answer (1) carbaminohaemoglobin.
Hint : In diadelphous condition, stamens are Sol. : 70% CO2 is transported via blood plasma in
united in two bundles. the form of HCO3− ions and 7% in dissolved state.
Sol. : Pea – diadelphous stamens 139. Answer (2)
China rose – monoadelphous stamens Hint : Humans exhibit negative pressure
Citrus – polyadelphous stamens breathing.
131. Answer (3) Sol. : Intra-pulmonary pressure must be less than
Hint : This placentation is found in mustard. the atmospheric pressure for inhalation.
140. Answer (3)
Sol. : Ovary becomes two chambered due to
formation of false septum in parietal placentation. Hint : Opening of the larynx is called glottis.
132. Answer (1) Sol. : During deglutition food can enter from
pharynx into the larynx. This is prevented by
Hint : Mango and coconut are drupe fruits.
closure of glottis with epiglottis.
Sol. : Mango and coconut develop from 141. Answer (2)
monocarpellary superior ovary.
Hint : RV cannot be exhaled.
133. Answer (2)
Sol. : FRC = ERV + RV
Hint : Non-endospermous seeds are found in
VC = ERV + IRV + TV
Fabaceae family.
TLC = TV + ERV + IRV + RV
Sol. : Castor is an endospermous seed.
142. Answer (3)
Pea, bean, gram-non endospermous seeds.
Hint : Expired air is a mixture of alveolar air and
134. Answer (4) dead space air.
Hint : Epipetalous stamens are found in Sol. : The pO2 in expired air is higher than pO2 of
members of Solanaceae family.
alveolar air as the O2 rich dead space air gets
Sol. : Tomato have alternate phyllotaxy, mixed with alveolar air during exhalation.
epipetalous stamens and valvate aestivation of
143. Answer (4)
petals.
Hint : Inhalation of industrial pollutants damages
135. Answer (1)
the lungs.
Sol. : Colchicine is obtained from Colchicum
Sol. : Industrial pollutants damage and cause
autumnale which is not a medicinal plant.
fibrosis of upper part of lungs (occupational lung
Medicinal plants-Aloe, Belladonna, Muliathi. diseases).
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

144. Answer (4) Sol. : The cortical extensions between medullary


Hint : Tissues have low O2 requirement at rest. pyramids are renal columns of Bertini.
152. Answer (3)
Sol. : Under normal physiological conditions,
HbO2 dissociation is lesser, hence only 5 ml of O2 Hint : BCOP opposes filtration.
per 100 ml of arterial blood is released to tissues. Sol. : The colloids/proteins of blood constitute the
145. Answer (3) blood colloidal osmotic pressure which prevents
filtration through glomeruli.
Hint : Dead space volume does not reach the
alveoli. 153. Answer (3)
Sol. : Out of 500 ml tidal volume, 150 ml air is Hint : Blood capillaries of medulla are vasa recta.
called the dead space volume as it remains in the Sol. : The loop of Henle of cortical nephrons do
conduction zone of respiratory system and does not reach deep into pyramids. Vasa recta are well
not reach the alveoli. developed in JG nephrons.
Alveolar ventilation rate = (TV – dead space) × 154. Answer (1)
Respiratory rate Hint : 20% of cardiac output is filtered by kidneys
⇒ (500 – 150)ml × 14 = 4900 ml per minute.
146. Answer (3) Sol. : 1/5th of cardiac output is the renal blood
Hint : Cartilaginous rings also provide strength to flow (i.e. 1100-1200 ml/minute). 125 ml/min is the
ducts inside the lungs. amount of filtrate formed.
Sol. : The incomplete cartilaginous rings are 155. Answer (4)
present upto initial bronchioles. Hint : Identify the paired structure of excretory
147. Answer (4) system.
Hint : Tissues at rest produce less CO2 . Sol. : Neural mechanisms cause micturition reflex
which is initiated by stretching of urinary bladder.
Sol. : At low metabolic rate, pCO2 of tissues will
Stretch receptors are absent in ureters.
be low, so the HbO2 dissociation will be lesser.
156. Answer (1)
148. Answer (2)
Hint : Urea & NaCl make the medullary
Hint : pCO2 changes have more pronounced interstitium highly osmotic.
effects on respiration. Sol. : Movement of urea from collecting duct and
Sol. : The chemosensitive areas of brain as well –
electrolytes (Na+, Cl ) from ascending limb of
as arteries are highly sensitive to CO2 levels and Henle’s loop into medulla raises the medullary
H+ ions. osmolarity.
149. Answer (3) 157. Answer (1)
Hint : ANF is released in response to increased Hint : RAAS helps in osmoregulation during
blood volume. dehydration.
Sol. : RAAS restores the blood volume & Sol. : Dehydration reduces the blood volume in
osmolarity back to normal, so atria of heart the body which reduces the GFR, stimulating the
release ANF to inhibit RAAS. initiation of RAAS by the release of renin.
150. Answer (2) 158. Answer (2)
Hint : Inner layer of Bowman’s capsule facilitates Hint : Lack of insulin reduces glucose uptake by
filtration. the body cells from blood.
Sol. : Podocytes are specialized squamous cells Sol. : Diabetes mellitus occurs in insulin
of Bowman’s capsules around the glomeruli. deficiency which results in loss of glucose
151. Answer (3) through urine along with ketone bodies produced
Hint : Cortex extends as columns between by cells during fat metabolism as they are unable
pyramids. to use glucose.

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Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

159. Answer (4) 167. Answer (3)


Hint : Rh antibodies are formed in mother at the Hint : Lymph lacks platelets but can clot.
time of birth of the incompatible foetus.
Sol. : Serum is plasma minus clotting factors.
Sol. : Rh +ve RBCs of 1st foetus induce formation
168. Answer (3)
of Rh antibodies in the mother and these will be
harmful to second Rh +ve foetus. Hint : Neutrophils and monocytes are both
phagocytic.
The formation of these antibodies can be
prevented by RhoGAM injection. Sol. : Both neutrophils and monocytes are similar
in action as they engulf the foreign pathogens.
160. Answer (2)
169. Answer (2)
Hint : Cuspid valves are present in atrio-
ventricular septum. Hint : AVN is the pacesetter of heart.
Sol. : Bicuspid/mitral valves separate the left Sol. : SAN has the highest capacity of impulse
atrium from left ventricle. generation i.e., number of action potentials per
161. Answer (3) minute.

Hint : The cells which transport oxygen. 170. Answer (2)

Sol. : Mature human RBC’s are enucleated i.e., Hint : Filling of a heart chamber occurs during its
they lack nuclei. relaxation.

162. Answer (2) Sol. : Atrial filling occurs both during ventricular
systole as well as joint diastole (0.7 s).
Hint : The phase during which all chambers of
heart are relaxed. 171. Answer (2)
Sol. : Joint diastole lasts for 0.4 seconds, so 70% Hint : Portal circulation is present between liver
filling of ventricles occurs in this phase. and intestine.
163. Answer (4) Sol. : Blood from stomach, small intestine and
large intestine is carried to liver through hepatic
Hint : ECG waves record depolarisation and
portal vein.
repolarisation of cardiac muscles.
172. Answer (3)
Sol. : T-wave represents the repolarisation of
ventricles. Hint : Death of heart muscles causes chest pain.
164. Answer (3) Sol. : Reduced O2 supply to heart muscles
Hint : Cardiac output can be moderated through causes death of a part of the cardiac wall,
ANS. resulting in Angina pectoris (pain in the chest
radiating into left arm).
Sol. : Adrenaline from adrenal medulla and
sympathetic nerves raise the heart rate and 173. Answer (4)
cardiac output. Hint : The oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
165. Answer (2) never mix during double circulation.
Hint : Heart attack can lead to cardiac arrest. Sol. : Oxygenated blood from lungs returns to left
Sol. : Heart failure is sometimes called atrium while deoxygenated blood from the body
returns to right atrium.
congestive heart failure because congestion of
lungs is one of the symptom. 174. Answer (1)
166. Answer (4) Hint : Blood groups are determined by surface
Hint : Closure of heart valves produces sounds. antigens of RBCs.

Sol. : ‘Dubb’ sound is higher pitched and is Sol. : Persons with ‘O’ blood group lack antigens
produced 0.3 seconds after the ‘lubb’ or first heart on RBCs and only a person with ‘O’ blood group
sound. can act as a donor in this case.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 2 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

175. Answer (3) 178. Answer (2)


Hint : Chordae tendineae help to prevent back Hint : Large amount of CO2 is removed by lungs.
flow of blood from ventricles to atria.
Sol. : Our lungs remove approximately
Sol. : Chordae tendineae connect cuspid valves 200 ml/min of CO2 along with significant
to papillary muscles preventing reversal of cuspid
quantities of water per day.
valves towards atria during forceful ventricular
systole. 179. Answer (3)
176. Answer (1) Hint : The outer covering of heart is protective
Hint : Cardiac output = Stroke volume × Heart and collagenous.
rate. Sol. : Pericardium is the double layered outer sac
Sol. : Stroke volume is the amount of blood over the heart while epicardium is the outer layer
pumped by each ventricle per beat. of the heart wall.
177. Answer (3) 180. Answer (1)
Hint : Defective filtration occurs in Hint : The product of one step acts as a catalyst
glomerulonephritis. for the next step in a cascade process.
Sol. : Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney will lead Sol. : Prothrombin is converted to thrombin by
to defective filtration which allows proteins and thrombokinase which, in turn, converts
blood cells to pass in filtrate. fibrinogens to fibrins.

  

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16/16
Test-2 (Code-F)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2020

TEST - 2 (Code-F)
Test Date : 17/11/2019

ANSWERS
1. (1) 37. (3) 73. (1) 109. (2) 145. (2)
2. (2) 38. (1) 74. (2) 110. (2) 146. (2)
3. (4) 39. (4) 75. (4) 111. (4) 147. (2)
4. (3) 40. (3) 76. (1) 112. (3) 148. (3)
5. (1) 41. (4) 77. (4) 113. (2) 149. (3)
6. (2) 42. (2) 78. (3) 114. (3) 150. (4)
7. (4) 43. (2) 79. (3) 115. (4) 151. (2)
8. (2) 44. (1) 80. (1) 116. (1) 152. (3)
9. (3) 45. (2) 81. (2) 117. (2) 153. (4)
10. (1) 46. (3) 82. (2) 118. (3) 154. (2)
11. (4) 47. (3) 83. (3) 119. (2) 155. (3)
12. (1) 48. (4) 84. (3) 120. (4) 156. (2)
13. (2) 49. (3) 85. (1) 121. (1) 157. (4)
14. (1) 50. (1) 86. (3) 122. (3) 158. (2)
15. (3) 51. (1) 87. (2) 123. (2) 159. (1)
16. (2) 52. (4) 88. (1) 124. (2) 160. (1)
17. (4) 53. (1) 89. (4) 125. (4) 161. (4)
18. (2) 54. (3) 90. (4) 126. (2) 162. (1)
19. (3) 55. (2) 91. (1) 127. (2) 163. (3)
20. (1) 56. (1) 92. (4) 128. (3) 164. (3)
21. (2) 57. (3) 93. (2) 129. (2) 165. (3)
22. (2) 58. (2) 94. (1) 130. (1) 166. (2)
23. (2) 59. (2) 95. (3) 131. (2) 167. (3)
24. (2) 60. (2) 96. (1) 132. (4) 168. (2)
25. (3) 61. (4) 97. (3) 133. (3) 169. (4)
26. (2) 62. (1) 98. (2) 134. (4) 170. (3)
27. (1) 63. (1) 99. (3) 135. (1) 171. (3)
28. (4) 64. (3) 100. (1) 136. (1) 172. (4)
29. (4) 65. (2) 101. (2) 137. (3) 173. (4)
30. (1) 66. (3) 102. (1) 138. (2) 174. (3)
31. (2) 67. (4) 103. (3) 139. (3) 175. (2)
32. (3) 68. (3) 104. (2) 140. (1) 176. (3)
33. (2) 69. (2) 105. (3) 141. (3) 177. (2)
34. (4) 70. (2) 106. (4) 142. (1) 178. (4)
35. (1) 71. (4) 107. (1) 143. (4) 179. (1)
36. (3) 72. (4) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (2)
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 2 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS


[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (1) Sol. : v = ωR
Hint & Sol. : The moment of inertia of a uniform 1 2 1 2 2 2
KE(Rotational) = Iω =  mR  ω
2 25 
cylinder about its geometric axis is 1 MR 2 .
2
1
= mv 2
2. Answer (2) 5

Hint : p = 2mK . 1
KE(Translational) = mv 2
2
Sol. : pi = 2mK i
KE(Rotational)
Ratio =
Kf = 4Ki KE(Rotational) + KE(Translational)

=pf 2mK f
= 2m
= (4K i ) 2 2mK i 1
mv 2
5 2
= =
pf = 2pi 1 1 7
mv 2 + mv 2
2 5
3. Answer (4)
6. Answer (2)

=
Hint : xcom

=
mi xi
; y com
∑ mi y i . Hint & Sol. : Initially friction will be equal to the
∑ mi ∑ mi applied force. Later it becomes constant (kinetic
friction).
1(0) + 3(0) + 6(4) 24 7. Answer (4)
Sol. : xcom
= = = 2.4
6 + 3 +1 10
Hint : Net force on man plus platform system will
be zero.
1(0) + 3(4) + 6(0) 12
=
y com = = 1.2
6 + 3 +1 10 Sol. : Let force applied by man be F

Position of COM = (2.4, 1.2) ∴ Tension = T

4. Answer (3)
Hint : Rate of change of angular momentum =
Torque = mg(x).

R
Sol. : Torque = mg  
2
3T = (25 + 50) g
 u 2 sin(2θ) 
= mg   T = 25 × 10 = 250 N
 2g 
8. Answer (2)
mgu 2 1 Hint : Spring force and Newton’s II law of motion.
= = mu 2
2g 2
Sol. : Let compression in spring be x
5. Answer (1)
For m1
1 2
Hint : Rotational KE
= Iω F – kx = m1a1
2
80 – kx = 10 × 4
1
Translational KE = mv 2 .
2 ⇒ kx = 40 N
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Test - 2 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

For m2 12. Answer (1)


⇒ 40 = m2a2 Hint & Sol. : As internal forces cancel out in a
system, according to Newton’s III law of motion,
40 they lead to no net force and hence no net
a2 = = 2 m/s2
20 change in momentum.
9. Answer (3) 13. Answer (2)
 
1 2 Hint & Sol. : dK
= mv ⋅ dv
Hint : KE
= Iω .  
2 dK= p ⋅ dv
1 1 14. Answer (1)
Sol. : I ω2 = I ω2
2 A A 2 B B
Hint : Work done by gravity = change in kinetic
1 1 energy.
⇒ )2
I (ω= I (2ω)2
2 A 2 B Sol. : Work done by gravity = (mg) × displacement
IA = 4IB ∴ Ratio of work done = Ratio of displacement
10. Answer (1) =1:5
Hint : Fnet = ma. 15. Answer (3)
Sol. : FBD of links C, D and E combined  
Hint : Power = F ⋅ v
Sol. : F = tension = mg = 10 × 103 × 10 = 105 N
v = 0.6 m/s
Power = 6 × 104 W
= 60 kW
16. Answer (2)
Hint : Conservation of mechanical energy.
Sol. : Let maximum extension = x
F – 3 = (0.3) × 4
F = 3 + 1.2 = 4.2 N At maximum extension, speed of block = 0

11. Answer (4) 1 2


−mg ( x ) + 0
kx =
2
Hint : Newton’s II law of motion.
F 2mg 2 × 10 × 10
Sol. : Acceleration of the system (a) = ⇒=x = = 0.5 m
mA + mB k 400
17. Answer (4)
80 80
= =
4 + 12 16 Hint & Sol. : As the body moves towards ground,
the potential energy decreases. Since the body
= 5 m/s2
accelerates, the kinetic energy increases.
FBD of block B
18. Answer (2)
1 m1m2
Hint
= : ∆ KE (u − u2 )2 (1 − e 2 ) .
2 m1 + m2 1

1 (6 × 6)   1 2 
Sol. : ∆ KE
= {10} 2 1 −   
2 (6 + 6)   4  
N = mBa 1125
= J
N = 12 × 5 = 60 N 8
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 2 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)

19. Answer (3) 24. Answer (2)


Hint & Sol. : In stable equilibrium, the potential Hint : Conservation of momentum.
energy is minimum. Sol. :
20. Answer (1)
  
Hint : v = ω × r

Sol. : v = ( 2iˆ + ˆj ) × ( iˆ + 2 ˆj )

= 4kˆ − kˆ = 3kˆ m/s


21. Answer (2)
Hint & Sol. : Moment of inertia is not a vector
quantity. According to parallel axis theorem,
Applying conservation of momentum
I = Icom + md2.
mu = (2m)v
∴ Minimum moment of inertia (among parallel
axis) is about an axis passing through centre of u
⇒ v=
mass 2
22. Answer (2) Conservation of mechanical energy:
Hint : Moment of inertia of a point mass = mR2. 1 u 
2
(2m )  = 2mgl (1 − cos θ)
Sol. : 2 2

u2
1 − cos θ =
8gl

u2
cos θ = 1 −
8gl

 u2 
⇒ θ cos−1  1 −
= 
 8gl 
25. Answer (3)
1 1
R = 22 − 1 Hint : KE
= 2
mv cm + Icm ω2 .
2 2
= 3
1 1  mR 2  2
2 Sol. : KE(disc) =mv 02 +  ω
I = 10(0)2 + 10(0)2 + 10 ( 3 ) 2 2 2 
2
= 30 kg m2 1 mR 2  v 0 
= mv 02 +  2
23. Answer (2) 2 4 R 
Hint & Sol. : For a body rolling purely on 3
horizontal surface, the point of contact with the KE(disc) = mv 02
4
ground is instantaneously at rest
vparticle = 2 v0
1
( )
2
⇒ KE(particle) = m 2 v0
2
= mv02
3
KE(net) = mv 02 + mv 02
4
Net velocity of P 7
= mv 02
v – ωR = 0 4
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Test - 2 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

26. Answer (2) 31. Answer (2)


  
Hint=
: v P v P/com + v com . Hint : Rotational equilibrium.
 Sol. :
Sol. : v P/com =12 × 2 ( −iˆ ) =−24iˆ

v com = 6iˆ

vP = 6iˆ − 24iˆ =
−18iˆ m/s

v P = 18 m/s

27. Answer (1)


Hint & Sol. : The theorem of perpendicular axes l   2l 
3g   = mg  
is applicable only for planar bodies. 3 3
28. Answer (4) 3 = 2m
Hint : τ = Iα, I = mk2 (k : radius of gyration). 3
⇒ m= = 1.5 kg
Sol. : τ = Iα = mk2α 2
36 = m(42)(9) 32. Answer (3)
36 Hint : Work-energy theorem.
m= 2
= 0.25 kg
4 ×9 Sol. : Since the initial kinetic energies of both
29. Answer (4) blocks are same. The work done on both blocks
by the forces must be same.
Hint & Sol. : Gravitational potential energy (U)
 
can be negative as its value depends on zero ∆K = F .S
potential energy reference frame chosen.
33. Answer (2)
 1 
Kinetic energy  K = mv 2  is either zero or Hint : Acceleration = g sinθ (θ is slope angle).
 2 
positive. Sol. :
Mechanical energy (U + K) may be negative,
positive or zero depending on value and sign of
gravitational potential energy.
30. Answer (1)
Hint : Gravitational potential energy = mgy.
1 2
Sol. : =
y u sin θt − gt
2
dy
(symbols have their usual meanings) Slope = tan(θ=
) = x2
dx
 1 
= = mg  u sin θt − gt 2 
U mgy dy
 2  ⇒ =1
dx x =1
= A mgu sin θ 
2   θ = 45°
= At − Bt
⇒ U  mg 2 
B =  1
 2 
sin θ =
∴ U v/s t is a downward parabolic graph 2
g
a=
2
34. Answer (4)
Hint & Sol. : Since there is no external force on
the system, velocity of centre of mass remains
constant.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 2 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)

35. Answer (1) l 1 2


Sol. : mg = Iω
Hint : ∆p = area under F-t graph. 2 2
Sol. : l 1  ml 2  2
=
mg  ω
2 2 3 

3g
= ω
l

30
=ω = 10 rad/s
0.3
38. Answer (1)
Hint : Newton’s second law of motion.
Sol. : Let tension in string be T
50 – T = 5a
T – 10 = 10a
Total area = 20 – 16 = 4 N s
40 8
= 4 kg m s–1 ⇒ =
a = m/s2
15 3
4
Momentum change/mass = = 2 m/s 39. Answer (4)
2
36. Answer (3) Hint : θ = tan–1(µ) is angle of repose.
Hint : Maximum value of static friction = µN. Sol. : FBD of block from frame of reference of the
elevator.
Sol. :

m(g + a) cosθ = N
⇒ T = 20 g = 200 N m(g + a) sinθ = f

f
Dividing ⇒ = tan(θ) ⇒ f = µN
N

Since the value of friction = µN is possible.

∴ Block will remain at rest.

T=f 40. Answer (3)


⇒ T ≤ µN Hint : Newton’s second law of motion.
T ≤ µ(40 + m)g Sol. :
200 ≤ 0.25 (40 + m)(10)
20
≤ 40 + m
0.25
40 kg ≤ m
37. Answer (3)
Hint : Conservation of mechanical energy. mg – T = ma
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Test - 2 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

mg − T Sol. : Before collision


a=
m

mg − mg /5 4g
=
a(min) = = 8 m/s2
m 5

41. Answer (4)


After collision
µmg
Hint : Fmin = , when θ = λ
µ2 + 1

1× 10 × 10 100
Sol. : Fmin
= = N
 1 
2 3
2
2 1 + Conservation of linear momentum

 2 10 × 4 = 10v1 + 6v2
42. Answer (2) ⇒ 20 = 5v1 + 3v2
Hint : Use parallel axis theorem.
Coefficient of restitution = e = 1
2
Sol. : I = mR 2 + mR 2 v2 – v 1 = 4
5
⇒ 5v2 – 5v1 = 20
7
= mR 2
5 v2 = 5 m/s
43. Answer (2) v1 = 1 m/s
Hint : ∆U = –Wc. 45. Answer (2)

Sol. : ∆U =− ( −3iˆ ) ⋅ ( 6iˆ ) (m2 − m1 )


Hint : a = g.
∆U = 18 J (m2 + m1 )

44. Answer (1) (2 − 1) 10


=
Sol. : a = g m/s2 for each blocks.
Hint : Conservation of linear momentum and e = 1. (2 + 1) 3

[CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (3) 48. Answer (4)
Hint : Ksp = [Al3+][OH–]3. Hint : Work done is path function.
Sol. : Ksp = [Al ][OH ]
3+ – 3
49. Answer (3)
= 10–5 × [3 × 10–5]3
Hint : ∆subH = ∆fusH + ∆vapH.
= 27 × 10–20 = 2.7 × 10–19
Sol. :
47. Answer (3)
X(s) → X(g), ∆H = 57.3 kJ mol–1 …(i)
7
Hint : C2H6 (g) + O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g) + 3H2O(l)
2 X(l) → X(g), ∆H = 41.8 kJ mol–1 …(ii)

Sol. : ∆rH = 2 ∆fH{CO2(g)} + 3∆fH{H2O(l)} – Applying (i) – (ii)


∆fH{C2H6(g)} X(s) → X(l), ∆H = 57.3 – 41.8 = 15.5 kJ mol–1
= 2 × (–90) + 3 × (–70) – (–20) 50. Answer (1)
= –180 – 210 + 20 Hint : If Kc > 103, then the reaction proceeds
= –370 kcal mol–1 nearly to completion.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 2 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)

51. Answer (1) 56. Answer (1)

Hint : Cr2O72− does not act as self-indicator. Hint : S — S linkage is present in S4 O26− ion.

Sol. : MnO4 acts as the self-indicator in the
– Sol. :
titration of MnO4 and Fe2+.

52. Answer (4)


57. Answer (3)
Hint : Ideal gas equation, PV = nRT
Hint :
1
Sol. : P = (nRT )
V
1
⇒ P vs is straight line passing through origin
V Sol. : urms > uav > ump
As slope increases ⇒ nRT increases 58. Answer (2)
Hint : At constant temperature, Boyle’s law is
⇒ T increases
applicable.
⇒ T 1 > T2 > T3 Sol. : P1V1 = P2V2
Hence, only set possible is ⇒ 10 bar × 2.27 L = 2 bar × V2
T1 = 800 K, T2 = 600 K, T3 = 100 K ⇒ V2 = 11.35 L

53. Answer (1) 59. Answer (2)


Hint : Third law permits the calculation of Hint : Salts having high value of Ksp, will be more
soluble.
absolute value of entropy of pure crystalline
60. Answer (2)
substance.
Hint : ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT.
54. Answer (3)
Sol. : Reaction for which ∆ng is maximum, will
2

Hint : At equilibrium, K p =
(pY ) have large difference of ∆H and ∆U.

(pY ) 2
61. Answer (4)
Hint : Oxidation number of Oxygen atom in H2O2
Sol. : Y2 (g)  2Y(g) is –1
−1 0 −2
At equilibrium 1 – α 2α, PT = 1 atm Sol. : 2H2O2 (aq) → O2 ( g) + 2H2 O ( l )
2
 2α  62. Answer (1)
× PT 
(=
py )  2

Kp
=  1 − α + 2α  Hint : The more negative standard electrode
py ( )
 1− α
 1 − α + 2α PT 
 reduction potential implies increasing power of
reducing nature of metal.
2

 
Sol. : Ascending order of reducing power
( 2 × 0.5 )
2 2 −1
 1 
( atm ) Ag < Hg < Zn < Mg < Na
2 −1
=  1 + 0.5 
(1 − 0.5 )   +0.80 V + 0.79 V − 0.76 V − 2.37 V − 2.71 V

12  1  1 4 63. Answer (1)


⇒ Kp = ×   = == 1.33 atm
0.5  1.5  0.75 3 Hint : Electron deficient species behaves as
Lewis acid.
55. Answer (2)
64. Answer (3)
Hint : Extensive property depends on quantity / Hint : Work done in reversible isothermal
amount of matter. V 
expansion w = –2.303 nRT log  f 
Sol. : Temperature is an intensive property. V 
 i
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Test - 2 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

 60  70. Answer (2)


Sol. : w = –2.303 × 6 × 8.314 × 300 log  
 30  3
Hint : K.E. = n × RT
= –10.4 kJ 2
65. Answer (2) 14 3
Sol. : K.E. = × × 8.314 × (273 + 127)
nO2 28 2
Hint
= : p O2 × Ptotal
nO2 + nNe = 2.5 kJ
71. Answer (4)
32
32 : Eocell Eo
Hint= − Eo
Sol.
= : p O2 × 100 Sn2 + Sn Cd2 + Cd
32 180
+
32 20 Sol. : Eocell = –0.14 + 0.4
 1 = 0.26 V
=   × 100 = 10 atm
 10  72. Answer (4)
66. Answer (3) Hint : For a compound, net charge is zero.
Hint : Multiplying through a factor ‘n’ in Sol. : A2BC2 : Net charge = 2 × (1) + 4 + 2 × (–3)
equilibrium reaction, equilibrium constant =0
becomes nth power of initial value.
73. Answer (1)
Sol. : N2(g) + O2(g)  2NO(g), K1 = 64 × 10–2
q
Hint : ∆S =rev
1 T
[(N2(g) + O2(g)  2 NO(g)], K2 = (K1)1/2
2 Sol. : When heat is added to the system,
= 8 × 10–1 = 0.8 molecular motion increases, hence entropy
increases.
67. Answer (4)
74. Answer (2)
Hint : More the polarity of gas, more will be its
critical temperature. Hint : Aqueous solution of salt of weak base and
strong acid will undergo cationic hydrolysis.
Sol. : Molecule TC(K)
⊕ –

H2 33.2 Sol. : NH4 Cl(aq) → NH4 (aq) + C l (aq)
CO2 304.1 ⊕
NH4 + H2 O  NH4 OH + H⊕
O2 154.3
NH3 405.5 75. Answer (4)
Hint : V1M1 = (V1 + V2)M2.
68. Answer (3)
Sol. : Initial [H+] = 10–3 M; Final [H+] = 10–5 M
Hint : ∆G = ∆H – T∆S.
1 × 10–3 = (1 + V2) × 10–5
Sol. : ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
V2 = 100 – 1 = 99 L
= 5.7 – 300 × 40 × 10–3
Hence volume of water added = 100 – 1 = 99 L.
= 5.7 – 12 76. Answer (1)
= –6.3 kcal mol–1 Hint : Molecules involving more H-bond will have
69. Answer (2) less vapour pressure.
Hint : ∆rH = Σ BE of reactants – Σ BE of products. Sol. : C2H5 – O – C2H5 > CCl4 > C2H5OH > H2O
(vapour pressure).
Sol. : N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g), ∆rH = –83 kJ
77. Answer (4)
∆rH = {B.E (N ≡ N) + 3 B.E. (H – H)} –
Hint : HBr is a polar molecule.
6 B.E. (N – H)
Sol. : Dipole-dipole interaction energy between
⇒ –83 = 946 + (3 ×435) – 6 × B.E. (N – H) 1
rotating polar molecules is proportional to 6 .
⇒ B.E. (N – H) = 389 kJ mol–1 r
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 2 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)

78. Answer (3) 87. Answer (2)


J
Hint : R = 8.314 . Hint : For H2 gas, molecular attractive forces are
mol-K
insignificant.
Sol. : Cp – Cv = R
79. Answer (3) a
Sol. : P + ≈P
Hint : Acid having higher value of Ka will be more V2
acidic.
van der Waals equation for 1 mole of gas
80. Answer (1) becomes
Hint : Conjugate acid is formed by addition of
P(V–b) = RT ⇒ PV – bP = RT
one H+ while conjugate base is formed by release
of one H+.  b 
⇒ Z= 1 +  P
81. Answer (2)  RT 
Hint : For spontaneous reaction ∆rG < 0. b
For Z vs P graph, Slope =
Sol. : ∆rG = ∆rH – T∆rS < 0, RT
Reaction will be spontaneous at all temperatures 88. Answer (1)
when ∆rH is –ve and ∆rS is +ve.
82. Answer (2) Hint : For a reversible isothermal expansion of an
Hint : Mass of pure solids do not affect pressure/ ideal gas
concentration of equilibrium.
V 
Sol. : A decomposition reaction is endothermic. ∆S = nR × 2.303 log10  f 
When temperature increases, equilibrium shifts in  Vi 
forward direction.
83. Answer (3)  23.03 
Sol. : ∆S = 2 × 8.314 × 2.303 log10  
∆ng  2.303 
Hint : K p = K c (RT)
= 38.29 J K–1
Sol. : For reaction
N2O4(g)  2NO2(g) 89. Answer (4)
∆ng = 1 Hint : Hydrolysis of RCOO–
So, Kp = Kc(RT)
RCOO– (aq) + H2O(l)  RCOOH (aq) + OH– (aq)
or Kp > Kc
84. Answer (3) Kw 10 −14
Sol. : K h
= =
Hint : F is most electronegative element. K a (RCOOH) 10 −6

Sol. : Oxidation state of F is always –1 in its ⇒ K h = 10−8


compound.
85. Answer (1) 90. Answer (4)
– +
Hint 4Zn + NO3 + 7H2O → 4Zn2+ + NH4 + 10 OH– [Salt]
Hint : For basic buffer, pOH = pKb + log .
x = 4, y = 1, c = 10 [Base]
86. Answer (3)  + 
Hint : At identical T, P conditions RNH3 
Sol. : pOH = pK b + log
r∝
1 [RNH2 ]
Molecular weight
 0.40 
= − log10 −5 + log   = 4.82
rO2 64  0.60 
Sol. : = = 2 :1
rSO2 32 pH = 14 – 4.82 = 9.18
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Test - 2 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

[BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (1) 100. Answer (1)
Sol. : Colchicine is obtained from Colchicum Hint : Perianth is found in members of Liliaceae
autumnale which is not a medicinal plant. family.
Medicinal plants-Aloe, Belladonna, Muliathi. Sol. : Tulip being a member of Liliaceae family
92. Answer (4) has perianth.
Hint : Epipetalous stamens are found in 101. Answer (2)
members of Solanaceae family. Hint : Androecium and gynoecium are the
Sol. : Tomato have alternate phyllotaxy, reproductive parts of flower.
epipetalous stamens and valvate aestivation of Sol. : Calyx and corolla form accessory whorls of
petals. flower and do not take part directly in
93. Answer (2) reproduction.
Hint : Non-endospermous seeds are found in 102. Answer (1)
Fabaceae family.
Hint : Members of Fabaceae family have
Sol. : Castor is an endospermous seed. racemose inflorescence.
Pea, bean, gram-non endospermous seeds. Sol. : Cymose inflorescence – Dianthus,
94. Answer (1) Solanum, Bougainvillea.
Hint : Mango and coconut are drupe fruits. Racemose inflorescence – Lupin
Sol. : Mango and coconut develop from 103. Answer (3)
monocarpellary superior ovary. Sol. : Venation – Arrangement of veins and
95. Answer (3) veinlets
Hint : This placentation is found in mustard. Floral symmetry – Arrangement of floral organs
Sol. : Ovary becomes two chambered due to on thalamus of flower
formation of false septum in parietal placentation. Phyllotaxy – Pattern of arrangement of leaves on
96. Answer (1) stem
Hint : In diadelphous condition, stamens are Arrangement of flowers on floral axis is termed as
united in two bundles. inflorescence.
Sol. : Pea – diadelphous stamens 104. Answer (2)
China rose – monoadelphous stamens Hint : Tendrils in peas, fleshy edible scale of
Citrus – polyadelphous stamens onion and pitcher of plant are modified leaves.
97. Answer (3) Sol. : Tendrils in grapevines are the modifications
Sol. : One margin of a petal/sepal overlaps and of stem.
other is overlapped in twisted aestivation. 105. Answer (3)
98. Answer (2) Hint : Alstonia have whorled phyllotaxy.
Hint : Flower with superior ovary is hypogynous. Sol. : Guava – Opposite phyllotaxy
Sol. : When female reproductive part occupies Sunflower – Alternate phyllotaxy.
highest position then flower is called hypogynous
106. Answer (4)
with superior ovary.
Sol. : Swollen leaf base is called pulvinus.
99. Answer (3)
107. Answer (1)
Hint : Chilli flower can be divided into two equal
halves by any plane passing through the centre. Hint : In suckers lateral branches come out form
Sol. : Datura – actinomorphic, Hibiscus – soil.
bisexual flower, Maize – unisexual flower, Chilli – Sol. : Chrysanthemum and pineapple are
actinomorphic flower. examples of sucker.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 2 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)

108. Answer (3) 119. Answer (2)


Hint : In phylloclade, stem modifies for Hint : UV rays and autoclave are used for
photosynthesis. sterilisation purpose.
Sol. : Fleshy cylindrical stem of Euphorbia Sol. : Viruses can be killed by autoclaving and
contains chlorophyll and performs photosynthesis UV rays.
called phylloclade.
120. Answer (4)
109. Answer (2)
Sol. : Mycorrhizal roots lack root cap, root hairs
Hint : In pea, tendril is modification of leaf.
and depend on fungal partner for the supply of
Sol. Stem tendrils are found in pumpkin, H2O, N, P and S. Roots provide shelter and
watermelon and cucumber.
nourishment to the fungal partner.
110. Answer (2)
121. Answer (1)
Sol. : Radish (storage root), Rhizophora
(respiratory roots), Banyan tree (prop root), Hint : Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Trichoderma
sugarcane (stilt root). belong to class Deuteromycetes.
111. Answer (4) Sol. : Members of Deuteromycetes lack sexual
Sol. : Root hairs are present in the region of reproduction. Sexual reproduction in Rhizopus
maturation takes place by conjugation.
112. Answer (3) 122. Answer (3)
Hint : Tap roots are found in dicots. Hint : Primary mycelium is monokaryotic and
Sol. : Fibrous roots are found in monocots not in short lived in Basidiomycetes.
dicots. Sol. : Dikaryophase is dominant phase of life
113. Answer (2) cycle in Basidiomycetes.
Hint : Lichens are indicators of air pollution. 123. Answer (2)
Sol. : Lichens are highly sensitive to SO2 and Hint : Members of ascomycetes are called sac
cannot grow in SO2 polluted area. fungi.
114. Answer (3) Sol. : Ascus is the site of karyogamy and meiosis
Hint : Proteinaceous infectious particles cause in sac fungi.
‘Kuru’ disease. 124. Answer (2)
Sol. : Prions are proteinaceous infectious Hint : Zygospores are formed by fusion of
particles. gametes.
115. Answer (4)
Sol. : Zygospores are diploid sexual spores
Hint : PSTD is caused by a viroid. formed by members of Phycomycetes.
Sol. : Viroids cause diseases in plants only.
125. Answer (4)
116. Answer (1)
Hint : Fungal body is called mycelium.
Sol. : Usually plant viruses have ss RNA as their
genetic material. Sol. : Mycelium is made up of a network of
hyphae.
117. Answer (2)
126. Answer (2)
Hint : Envelope is optional structure in viruses.
Sol. : Outer protein coat of viruses is called Hint : Dead diatoms are nearly indestructible.
capsid, made up of capsomeres. Viruses lack Sol. : Silica deposited cell wall of diatoms make
capsule. them indestructible.
118. Answer (3) 127. Answer (2)
Sol. : First crystallization of virus-W. M. Stanley, Hint : Body of Euglena is covered by
Discovery of virus-D. J. Ivanowsky. proteinaceous covering.
Term virus-Pasteur. Sol. : Euglena lacks cell wall rather its body is
Contagium vivum fluidum by M.W. Beijerinck covered with pellicle.
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Test - 2 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

128. Answer (3) 137. Answer (3)


Hint : Slime moulds are connecting link of plants, Hint : The outer covering of heart is protective
animals and fungi. and collagenous.
Sol. : Diatoms : Lack flagella throughout the life. Sol. : Pericardium is the double layered outer sac
Dinoflagellates : Have heterokont flagella. over the heart while epicardium is the outer layer
of the heart wall.
Sporozoan : Endoparasite
138. Answer (2)
129. Answer (2)
Hint : Large amount of CO2 is removed by lungs.
Hint : Streptomycin, erythromycin and
chloramphenicol don’t interfere synthesis of Sol. : Our lungs remove approximately
peptidoglycan. 200 ml/min of CO2 along with significant
Sol. : Penicillin interferes synthesis of cell wall. quantities of water per day.
As Mycoplasma don’t have cell wall they are 139. Answer (3)
insensitive to penicillin. Hint : Defective filtration occurs in
130. Answer (1) glomerulonephritis.
Hint : Peptidoglycan is not found in some of the Sol. : Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney will lead
monerans. to defective filtration which allows proteins and
blood cells to pass in filtrate.
Sol. : Archaebacteria lack peptidoglycan.
140. Answer (1)
131. Answer (2)
Hint : Cardiac output = Stroke volume × Heart
Sol. : Ability of bacteria to pick up the DNA from
rate.
solution is called competence.
Sol. : Stroke volume is the amount of blood
132. Answer (4)
pumped by each ventricle per beat.
Hint : These bacteria lack enzymes for aerobic
141. Answer (3)
respiration.
Hint : Chordae tendineae help to prevent back
Sol. : Obligate anaerobes show anaerobic mode
flow of blood from ventricles to atria.
of respiration only.
Sol. : Chordae tendineae connect cuspid valves
133. Answer (3)
to papillary muscles preventing reversal of cuspid
Sol. : According to shapes, bacteria are classified valves towards atria during forceful ventricular
into four groups: Cocci (spherical), Bacillus (Rod systole.
shaped), Vibrio (comma shaped) Spirillum 142. Answer (1)
(Spiral)
Hint : Blood groups are determined by surface
134. Answer (4) antigens of RBCs.
Hint : Cytoplasmic streaming occurs only in Sol. : Persons with ‘O’ blood group lack antigens
eukaryotes. on RBCs and only a person with ‘O’ blood group
Sol. : Since monerans are prokaryotes they do can act as a donor in this case.
not show cytoplasmic streaming. 143. Answer (4)
135. Answer (1) Hint : The oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
Hint : Carl Woese noticed that members of never mix during double circulation.
Monera differ from each other. Sol. : Oxygenated blood from lungs returns to left
Sol. : Monera was divided into two kingdoms atrium while deoxygenated blood from the body
Archaebacteria and Eubacteria by Carl Woese. returns to right atrium.
136. Answer (1) 144. Answer (3)
Hint : The product of one step acts as a catalyst Hint : Death of heart muscles causes chest pain.
for the next step in a cascade process. Sol. : Reduced O2 supply to heart muscles
Sol. : Prothrombin is converted to thrombin by causes death of a part of the cardiac wall,
thrombokinase which, in turn, converts resulting in Angina pectoris (pain in the chest
fibrinogens to fibrins. radiating into left arm).
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 2 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)

145. Answer (2) 154. Answer (2)


Hint : Portal circulation is present between liver Hint : The phase during which all chambers of
and intestine. heart are relaxed.
Sol. : Blood from stomach, small intestine and Sol. : Joint diastole lasts for 0.4 seconds, so 70%
large intestine is carried to liver through hepatic filling of ventricles occurs in this phase.
portal vein.
155. Answer (3)
146. Answer (2)
Hint : Filling of a heart chamber occurs during its Hint : The cells which transport oxygen.
relaxation. Sol. : Mature human RBC’s are enucleated i.e.,
Sol. : Atrial filling occurs both during ventricular they lack nuclei.
systole as well as joint diastole (0.7 s). 156. Answer (2)
147. Answer (2) Hint : Cuspid valves are present in atrio-
Hint : AVN is the pacesetter of heart. ventricular septum.
Sol. : SAN has the highest capacity of impulse Sol. : Bicuspid/mitral valves separate the left
generation i.e., number of action potentials per atrium from left ventricle.
minute.
157. Answer (4)
148. Answer (3)
Hint : Rh antibodies are formed in mother at the
Hint : Neutrophils and monocytes are both
time of birth of the incompatible foetus.
phagocytic.
Sol. : Both neutrophils and monocytes are similar Sol. : Rh +ve RBCs of 1st foetus induce formation
in action as they engulf the foreign pathogens. of Rh antibodies in the mother and these will be
harmful to second Rh +ve foetus.
149. Answer (3)
Hint : Lymph lacks platelets but can clot. The formation of these antibodies can be
prevented by RhoGAM injection.
Sol. : Serum is plasma minus clotting factors.
158. Answer (2)
150. Answer (4)
Hint : Closure of heart valves produces sounds. Hint : Lack of insulin reduces glucose uptake by
the body cells from blood.
Sol. : ‘Dubb’ sound is higher pitched and is
produced 0.3 seconds after the ‘lubb’ or first heart Sol. : Diabetes mellitus occurs in insulin
sound. deficiency which results in loss of glucose
through urine along with ketone bodies produced
151. Answer (2)
by cells during fat metabolism as they are unable
Hint : Heart attack can lead to cardiac arrest.
to use glucose.
Sol. : Heart failure is sometimes called
159. Answer (1)
congestive heart failure because congestion of
lungs is one of the symptom. Hint : RAAS helps in osmoregulation during
dehydration.
152. Answer (3)
Sol. : Dehydration reduces the blood volume in
Hint : Cardiac output can be moderated through
ANS. the body which reduces the GFR, stimulating the
initiation of RAAS by the release of renin.
Sol. : Adrenaline from adrenal medulla and
sympathetic nerves raise the heart rate and 160. Answer (1)
cardiac output. Hint : Urea & NaCl make the medullary
153. Answer (4) interstitium highly osmotic.
Hint : ECG waves record depolarisation and Sol. : Movement of urea from collecting duct and

repolarisation of cardiac muscles. electrolytes (Na+, Cl ) from ascending limb of
Sol. : T-wave represents the repolarisation of Henle’s loop into medulla raises the medullary
ventricles. osmolarity.
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Test - 2 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

161. Answer (4) Sol. : The chemosensitive areas of brain as well


Hint : Identify the paired structure of excretory as arteries are highly sensitive to CO2 levels and
system. H+ ions.

Sol. : Neural mechanisms cause micturition reflex 169. Answer (4)


which is initiated by stretching of urinary bladder. Hint : Tissues at rest produce less CO2 .
Stretch receptors are absent in ureters.
Sol. : At low metabolic rate, pCO2 of tissues will
162. Answer (1)
be low, so the HbO2 dissociation will be lesser.
Hint : 20% of cardiac output is filtered by kidneys
per minute. 170. Answer (3)
Sol. : 1/5th of cardiac output is the renal blood Hint : Cartilaginous rings also provide strength to
flow (i.e. 1100-1200 ml/minute). 125 ml/min is the ducts inside the lungs.
amount of filtrate formed.
Sol. : The incomplete cartilaginous rings are
163. Answer (3) present upto initial bronchioles.
Hint : Blood capillaries of medulla are vasa recta. 171. Answer (3)
Sol. : The loop of Henle of cortical nephrons do Hint : Dead space volume does not reach the
not reach deep into pyramids. Vasa recta are well alveoli.
developed in JG nephrons.
Sol. : Out of 500 ml tidal volume, 150 ml air is
164. Answer (3) called the dead space volume as it remains in the
Hint : BCOP opposes filtration. conduction zone of respiratory system and does
not reach the alveoli.
Sol. : The colloids/proteins of blood constitute the
blood colloidal osmotic pressure which prevents Alveolar ventilation rate = (TV – dead space) ×
filtration through glomeruli. Respiratory rate
165. Answer (3) ⇒ (500 – 150)ml × 14 = 4900 ml
Hint : Cortex extends as columns between 172. Answer (4)
pyramids.
Hint : Tissues have low O2 requirement at rest.
Sol. : The cortical extensions between medullary
pyramids are renal columns of Bertini. Sol. : Under normal physiological conditions,
HbO2 dissociation is lesser, hence only 5 ml of O2
166. Answer (2)
per 100 ml of arterial blood is released to tissues.
Hint : Inner layer of Bowman’s capsule facilitates
filtration. 173. Answer (4)

Sol. : Podocytes are specialized squamous cells Hint : Inhalation of industrial pollutants damages
of Bowman’s capsules around the glomeruli. the lungs.
167. Answer (3) Sol. : Industrial pollutants damage and cause
fibrosis of upper part of lungs (occupational lung
Hint : ANF is released in response to increased
diseases).
blood volume.
Sol. : RAAS restores the blood volume & 174. Answer (3)
osmolarity back to normal, so atria of heart Hint : Expired air is a mixture of alveolar air and
release ANF to inhibit RAAS. dead space air.
168. Answer (2) Sol. : The pO2 in expired air is higher than pO2 of
Hint : pCO2 changes have more pronounced alveolar air as the O2 rich dead space air gets
effects on respiration. mixed with alveolar air during exhalation.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 2 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)

175. Answer (2) 178. Answer (4)


Hint : RV cannot be exhaled. Hint : 20-25% CO2 is transported as
carbaminohaemoglobin.
Sol. : FRC = ERV + RV
Sol. : 70% CO2 is transported via blood plasma in
VC = ERV + IRV + TV
the form of HCO3− ions and 7% in dissolved state.
TLC = TV + ERV + IRV + RV
179. Answer (1)
176. Answer (3) Hint : Hb has affinity for both CO2 and O2 .
Hint : Opening of the larynx is called glottis. Sol. : High pCO2 and low pO2 in tissues favour
Sol. : During deglutition food can enter from binding of CO2 to haemoglobin. CO2 travels in
pharynx into the larynx. This is prevented by blood in bicarbonate form. CO2 is transported as
closure of glottis with epiglottis. carbaminohaemoglobin.

177. Answer (2) 180. Answer (2)


Hint : TV + ERV.
Hint : Humans exhibit negative pressure
breathing. Sol. : Expiratory capacity is the sum of tidal
volume and expiratory reserve volume i.e. the
Sol. : Intra-pulmonary pressure must be less than amount of air which can be breathed out normally
the atmospheric pressure for inhalation. followed by a forced exhalation.

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