Compiled ASCPi Recalls 14.

A kid has Reye’s syndrome, what additional test

Full name, MLS (ASCPi) should be performed?- Ammonia

1. About Micrococcus- Furazolidone resistant 15. Picture ofAlternaria

2. Graph about Hepa B

a. IgM Ab, IgG Ab, Stool Ag
b. IgG Ab, IgM Ab, Stool Ag
c. Stool Ag, IgM Ab, IgG Ab
d. IgG Ab, Stool Ag, IgM Ab

3. Butcher’s cut- Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

4. Description of Zygomycetes
a. Septate hyphae churva
16.
b. Septate hyphae something
Anti- Anti- A B D D Screen
c. Aseptate hyphae with sporangiospores A B cells cells Antigen control cells
d. Aseptate hyphae with basidiospores
4+ 4+ 0 0 0 0 0

5. Olive oil loving fungi- Malassezia furfur

What to do?
a. Do nothing
6. Purpose of potassium permanganate in auramine
b. Perform Du testing
rhodamine-quenching agent
c. Report as D positive
d. Perform Ab screen
7. Favors growth of anaerobic gram negative bacilli
a. Vitamin K and hemin
17.
b. Vitamin A and bile
Anti- A Anti-B A cells B cells
c. Phenylethyl 4+ 0 1+ 3+

8. A positive culture of sputum was stained.

a. Test patient serum with subgroup of A1
Carbolfucshin was added, washed, decolorized and
b. Test patient red cells with subgroup of A2
malachite blue was used as counter stain. Two entire
field was scanned and no acid fast bacilli were found.
18.
The most probably reason is:
Anti- A Anti-B A cells B cells
a. Wrong primary stain was used 4+ 0 0 0
b. Wrong counterstain was used
c. Inadequate scanning of slide Probable cause
d. Inadequate decolorization a. Polyagglutination
b. Immunodeficient
9. A patient has “whooping cough”, what specimen?
- Nasopharyngeal swab
19. Sputum sample has 25 PMN cells, 10 epithelial cells
on HPO (or LPO-not sure), in oil immersion bacteria
10. Jaw surgery anaerobic gram negative cocci: and fungi were seen, what to do?
a. Veilonella a. Culture bacteria only
b. Peptostreptococcus – gram positive b. Culture fungi only
c. Neisseria c. Culture both bacteria and fungi
d. Reject specimen
11. Picture of many tear drop-shapedred blood cells.
What deficiency? 20. Drug toxicity screening of a 6 year-old girl has
a. DNA increased presence of acetaminophen. What test
b. RNA should be done next?
c. G6PD a. BUN & Creatinine
d. Myeloperoxidase b. ALT & AST
c. CK and LDH
12. Homemade saline solution for contact lenses - d. Salicylates
Acanthamoeba
21. Transudates are usually
13. Urease method detects –NAD
a. Purulent
b. Has bacteria
 c. Non inflammatory
31. Table showing na increased ung ALP at total bilirubin.
22. In delayed hemolytic anemia, hemoglobinuria occurs (Study: Bilirubin and Disease Association!)
when:
a. Haptoglobin is increased SERUM ALP increased
b. Haptoglobin is depleted Total Bil increased
Urobil 1.1
23. Broad base budding pic- Blastomyces dermatitidis URINE Bilirubin positive
Urobil increased
24. PBS photo: full of stomatocytes,cause of:
a. Liver disease Which result is inconsistent?
b. IDA a. Urine urobilinogen
b. Urine bilirubin
25. Hgb value of 95 g/dL, MCV:102 fL, has target cells c. Serum total bilirubin
and stomatocytes
a. Macrocytic anemia in sprue 32. A woman having menstrual cycle would have the ff.
b. Megaloblastic anemia in pregnancy result:
c. Liver disease with folic acid deficiency a. Increased ferritin
b. Normal transferrin
26. Bilirubin results c. Increased % saturation
Before addition of caffeine 3.2 d. Increased TIBC
After addition of caffeine 5.4
33. React with phenol at pH 9.6–Paget’s disease (ALP)
Unconjugated and conjugated results are:
UNCONJUGATED CONJUGATED
34. Defect in PNH
a. 5.43.2 a. Spectrin
b. 3.2 5.4 b. Cobalamin
c. 2.2 3.2
c. CD3
d. 3.2 2.2 d. CD59

27. Whole blood collected at 9 am, stored at 4ºC. At 1 35. Computation of %Iron Saturation
pm, platelet was prepared. According to AABB, which Iron 125mg/dl
is correct regarding about platelets? Unsaturated TIBC 180mg/dl
a. “Hard spin” first Transferrin 245 mg/dl
b. Centrifuge should be at 4-6ºC
c. Platelet cannot be prepared
% Iron Saturation = (Serum Iron / TIBC) x 100%

28. When introducing a new manual technique, which is 36. RBC Reagent Strip +
the best approach? RBC (microscopy) no cell seen
a. Case presentation a. Dilute alkaline urine
b. Workshop
c. Lecture 37. Common error in PCR
a. Nucleic acid contamination
29. A woman has soft goiter and a decreased TSH, what b. Low temperature in machine
next test to perform
a. Free T4
38. 3 tubes negative to AHG. When check cell is added,
b. T3 negative parin. Error?
c. Anti microsomal Ab a. Insufficient saline from automated cell
d. Anti thyroglobulin Ab washer
b. Serum was omitted from the reaction
30. ANA shows speckled pattern
Anti-SM: Negative 39. AHG3+ 3+
Anti-RNP: Negative After auto adsorption, the result become 2+ AHG.
Anti-ss-DNA (or Anti ds-DNA?): Negative What to do next?
Anti SS-a, SS-b: Positive a. Do another auto adsorption
b. Cell panel
a. SLE c. Ab identification with enzyme
b. Sjogren’s syndrome
c. Polymyositis
d. Scleroderma
40. Patient with respiratory disease gave a specimen.
When cultured in sheep blood agar, beta-hemolytic 57. Metabolite of Cocaine - benzoylecgonine
gram positivecocci was seen. What to do next
a. Test with bacitracin 58. Primidone -Phenobarbital
b. Test with novobiocin
59. Image of Crithidialuciliae- SLE
41. RBC: 3.9
Hct: 33% 60. Picture of Trichinellaspiralis
Hb: 12.5
61. Picture of Heinz bodies
What is the problem?
a. Lipemic 62. Also, remember if there is an ingestion of moth
b. Clotted (naphthalene) balls you will find HEINZ BODIES
c. Release result
63. Picture of Mycobacteriumtuberculosis
*Check with the rule of 3
(Hbx3=Hct must be + or -3) 64. Cat scratch disease: Bartonella henselae

42. In HIV 65. Cat bite fever: Pasteurella multocida

a. Increased CD8
b. Decreased CD4 66. Gram positive bacilli; non-motile; non-hemolytic;
c. Increased total lymphocyte catalase positive; spore-forming - Bacillus anthracis

43. FBS = 120, RBS, OGTT = 140 67. PBS photo: RBC clumping - cold reactive antibody
a. hyperglycemia
b. normal 68. Rapid test for Legionella - urine antigen
c. impaired glucose
69. Glucose Strip = (+);Clinitest (-)
44. Cystic fibrosis Presence of glucose
- Burkholderia cepacia, Staphyloccus aureus,
Pseudomonas aeruginosa 70. Anti IgG (-) ; C3d (+)–Pre-warm

45. Oliguria 71. Blastoconidia – mother and baby budding

46. Components of PCR 72. Streptokinase therapy–D-dimer

47. Rhogam computation 73. Plasmodium falciparum:

no trophozoite and merozoite
48. Frequency of blood group computation
74. Sensitivity Formula –[TP/(TP + FN)] x 100
49. Definition of delta check
75. CA-19.9 - Pancreatic mass
50. Which blood should be given to babies for exchange
transfusion? (Polansky question) 76. Cocci in chains, bile esculin + ; Catalase - ; no growth
in 6.5% NaCl - Streptococcusbovis
51. Why is freshly collected blood/prbc preferred by
doctor to be transfused to babies? (Polansky 77. Lysine decarboxylase:
question) Salmonella(+) from Citrobacter(-)

52. Surface markers of plasma cells 78. Diagram given with fat cells, waxy casts, RBC casts
Nephrotic syndrome
53. Other name for CD4 - inducer
79. Renal tubular epithelial cells
54. Antibody panel 1 - answerJKa + E – acute tubular necrosis

55. Wash RBC with saline solution 80. Majoritory of CLL - B lymphocytes
Anti-A Anti-B A cell B cell
4+ 4+ 2+ 2+ 81. Kidney-shaped gram negative cocci–
Neisseria gonorrhea
56. Anti-Mitochondrial - primary biliary cirrhosis
82. Eye conjunctivitis - Chlamydia trachomatis 110. Anti-smooth muscle antibody
- chronicactive hepatitis
83. SSA (+) ; Rgt strip (-) - Other protein than albumin
111. Hepatitis present in in acute infection - IgM Anti-Hbc
84. Differentiate Pseudomonas aeruginosa from other
Pseudomonas - Growth at 42°C 112. Dacrocyte/teardrop - myelofibrosis metaplasia

85. ALP - biliary obstruction 113. Bilirubin crystals photo - liver disease

86. Picture of giant platelets 114. Howell Jolly bodies - Wright stain
Bernard Soulier Syndrome
115. Ouchterlony photo/description: partial identity / non-
87. Hair Baiting Test identical / identical
- T. rubrum and T. mentagrophytes
116. Anti-Microsomal – Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
88. EPO below normal - Polycythemia vera
117. Picture na maraming echinocytes
89. Normal PTH; IncreasedCa2+ - metastatic carcinoma a. Severe anemia
b. Improper pH of buffer
90. Favic chandelier - T. schoenleinii c. Overly dried smear
d. Hemoglobinopathy yata
91. Normal WBC, platelet retics 0.1%
- Pure red cell aplasia 118. Treatment for a patient with warfarin toxicity (nagtagal
ako dito, huhuhu)
92. False positive for protein UA test strip a. Cryoprecipitate
- Radiographic dye b. Factor IX concentrate
c. Factor VIII concentrate
93. Neisseria lactamica - (+) lactose d. Vitamin K

94. Cryoprecipitate pooled 8am; expires: 12nn same day 119. Picture of target cells, dacryocytes, echinocytes.
a. Severe anemia
95. TIBC measures - iron bound transferrin b. Strongly oxidative drugs
c. Allergic response to a drug
96. Platelet apheresis contains - 6-8 units
120. Picture of ANA staining pattern. Centromere
97. RAST - Specific IgE a. SLE
b. Sjogren’s
98. RIST - Total IgE c. Chronic liver disease
d. Scleroderma with CREST
99. Her 2/neu measured by–FISH/IHC
121. TIBC indirectly represents?
100. Xanthochromia caused by - bilirubin a. Iron level
b. Transferrin level
101. Levey Jennings showing trend - Open new kit c. Ferritin
d. Iron Saturation
102. Troponin I (+); CKMB normal - AMI
122. Tapos may antibody panel. 4ºC, 37ºC and
103. Sperm count - do it after liquefaction (30 minutes) AHG….Then may reactions sapolyspecific antisera,
monospecific anti-IgG and anti-C3d. What should the
104. Tap water - Mycobacterium gordonae MLS do next?
a. Elution on the cells
105. Mucor - No rhizoids b. Test clotted cells
c. All reactions are valid
106. Most potent activator enzyme –Magnesium or Zinc
123. Graph ng reaction ng platelet aggregation expressed
107. Eosinophil in LAP score - Not counted in % transmittance for ADP, collagen and
epinephrine. May reaction to 0% transmittance yung
108. Longer wavelength emission - fluorometer tatlo pero wala sa 50% and 100%.(Not sure)
a. Normal ADP and collagen, abnormal
109. Surfactant fetal lung maturity - phosphatidyl glycerol epinephrine
 b. Normal ADP, abnormal collagen and 2nd sample: collected after several hours of normal
epinephrine activity
c. Abnormal to ADP, collagen and epinephrine Specimen 1 Specimen 2
d. Normal to collagen ADP and epinephrine a. +3 Negative
b. +1 traces
124. Please review creatinine clearance computation. Two c. neg +1
problems. Yung first, plain computation. Yung second d. neg neg
question: Aside from creatinine, ano pa affected?
a. BUN 130. Principle of reagent strip for pH: double indicator
b. Calcium
c. AST 131. Which of the following would show dosage?
d. Glucose a. Anti–M
b. Anti-e
125. A CSF specimen was received in the lab with a c. Anti-K
previous history of 1:4 positive titer to RPR. Repeat d. Anti- Lea
RPR on the specimen is NEGATIVE. There are no
available VDRL kits in the Lab. What should the 132. Least dosage: Anti-E
medical technologist do?
a. Report RPR as negative 133. SsU antibodies appear in the presence of following
b. Wait for VDRL kits to arrive deletion sequence.
c. Call physician and request cancellation a. RH/RHCE
d. Repeat RPR but inactivate CSF first b. GYPB
c. GYPA
126. A viral specimen was received in the lab. What would d. GYPA/GYPB
the tech do when sending it to a reference lab within
96 hours? 134. Latex agglutination for Staphylococcus
a. Place in Loeffler’s serum slant and aureusdetects:Protein A and clumping factor
refrigerate
b. Lyophilize the sample 135. Given a sodium mean value of 142 mmol/L with an
c. Store at ambient temperature SD of 2.5. Assuming that 95% of the population is
d. Pack in ice considered for this value, what would be the reference
range for this analyte?137 – 147 mmol/L
127. 18% reticulocytes were observed on a Wright-stained
smear. What should you do next? 136. Sugar fermented by Neisseria gonorrhea?
a. Report retic count a. Mannitol
b. Heinz body stain b. Lactose
c. Siderocyte stain c. Maltose
d. Glucose
128. 2 methods were compared. 100 persons were tested.
137. Positive control for anti-c and negative control for anti-
Positive (100) Negative (100) Fya (Polansky: Heterozygous Cc for anti-c)
Method 1 50 100
Method 2 60 88 138. Lupus anticoagulant causes: Thrombosis

a. Method 1 is specific than 2 139. Result of unfilled EDTA?

b. Method1 is sensitive than 2 a. Decreased platelets
c. Method 1 is sensitive and specific than 2 b. DecreasedRBC count
d. Method 2 is sensitive and specific than 2 c. Decreased hemoglobin
d. Decreased microhematocrit
Review formula ng:
Sensitivity = (TP/TP+FN) 100% 140. Cause of false negative ABO?
Specificity = (TN/TN+FP) 100% a. Rouleaux
b. Red cells positive to DAT
Method 1 sensitivity = (50/50+0) 100 = 100% c. 37°C
Method 1 specificity = (100/100+50) 100 = 66.6%
Method 2 sensitivity = (60/60+12) = 83.33 % 141. Anti-A: 0
Method 2 specificity = (88/88+40) = 68.75% Anti-B: + (mf)
Acells: +
129. A patient is being evaluated for orthostatic proteinuria: Bcells: 0
1st sample: morning upon waking up
 152. Type and crossmatch result:
a. Polyagglutination Anti-A: 4+ Anti-B: 0 Anti-D: 0
b. Bx group A cells: 1+ Bcells: 4+

142. Merong picture ng cell pinakita saken parang IS 37 AHG

lymphocyte o hairy cell yun. Ano raw Screening cell I: 0 0 0
immunophenotype nung cell? Screening cell II: 0 0 0
a. CD19, CD20, CD35
b. CD2, CD3, CD7 Donor 1: 1+ 0 0
Donor 2: 1+ 0 0
143. PT: 50
PTT: 100 a. Do antibody in patient’s serum
TT: Prolonged rin b. Do antibody donor’s serum
Fibrinogen: 150 mg/dl (Normal)
200. Description: fusiform, septate macroconidia with
a. Congenital hypofibrinogenemia microconidia: Microsporum audonii(microconidia)
b. Acute DIC
c. Forgot 201. Lab Results: Sodium: Low; all other analytes are
within normal range. What to do?
144. PT: 12 (normal) patient is for gall bladder surgery a. Measure indirect Na using ISE
PTT: 50 b. Hemolyzed spx
Mixing studies (normal plasma): 47.9 c. Lipemic

a. Factor XII assay 202. In multichannel analyzer, controls of enzymatic

b. Factor VIII assay assays are lower than expected values while non-
c. Fibrinogen level enzymatic assays controls are within normal limits.
d. DVVT What is the probable cause?
a. Outdated control reagent
145. HBA1c- RBC life span b. Instrument temperature may be low

146. PBS: Burr cells-uremia 203. False decrease ESR in?

a. Tube at an angle
147. Irreversible phase in platelet aggregation? b. Vibration
a. Release of PF3 c. 8 hr delay in set up
b. Release of ADP
c. Platelet shape change 204. Specimen for rotavirus- STOOL

148. Antibody panel 205. Prolonged apnea, anesthesized by succinylcholine,

Lewis Antibody (adsorbed by plasma) the enzyme responsible for the reaction is?
a. Pseudocholinesterase
149. Anti-A: 4+ Acells: 2+ b. Acetylcholinesterase
Anti-B: 4+ Bcells: 2+ c. Aldolase
Anti-D: 0 d. 5- nucleotidase

a. Wash red cells and retype 206. PBS: Clumping or RBC with two WBCs
b. Incubate serum at room temperature PCH / Cold-reactive antibody
c. Use additional test sa serum
207. Results consistent with Cushing’ssyndrome:
150. a. Hyperglycemia
37/LISS Anti-IgG b. Hypoglycemia
Screening cell I: 0 +/- c. Hypercalcemia
Screening cellsII: 0 +/- d. Hypocalcemia

a. Use polyspecific AHG 208. Pink colonies in MAC

b. Report as negative LOA -++
Indole Negative
151. Rheumatoid factor- IgM that binds to the Fc portion Citrate Positive
of abnormal IgG a. Klebsiella pneumoniae (LOA +--)
b. Klebsiella oxytoca(Indole +)
c. Enterobactercloacae
 d. Enterobacteraerogenes(LOA ++-) 222. A patient with procainamide should be tested in
parallel with what drug?
209. CSF should be stored for subsequent culture at? a. Digoxin
a. Incubate at 35ºC b. NAPA
b. Room temperature
c. Frozen 223. Carbon dioxide ion selective electrode measure?
a. pCO2
210. Monocytosis is seen in: b. total CO2
a. Allergic reaction c. pH
b. Mononucleosis
c. Tuberculosis 224. pH- 7.22 pCO2- 35 H2CO3- 10
a. Metabolic acidosis
211. Antibody panel, Lewis antibody is the offending b. Metabolic alkalosis
antibody, it is characteristically? c. Respiratory acidosis
a. Present at birth(6years to fully develop) d. Respiratory alkalosis
b. Destroyed by enzymes(enhanced)
c. Adsorbed by plasma 225. pH measurement needs?
a. pH with known buffer at constant temp
212. What test should be run in a patient with obstructive b. 2 pH buffer
jaundice with pancreatic masses?
CA 19-9 226. Polycythemia vera mutation?
a. ADAMS
213. Patient has the ff. results after collecting blood in an b. Bcl/BCR
indwelling catheter. Patient is not in heparin / c. JAk
anticoagulanttherapy. d. Rpp

APTT: abnormal; PT: normal; Fibrinogen: 150 mg/dl 227. Heparin manganese is used in HDL determination
What test should be ordered? to?To precipitate non HDL

a. Factor XII assay 228. Hepatitis B marker that is predominantly seen in acute
b. Fator VIII assay phase of infection but rarely seen in chronic infection?
c. TT a. Anti-HBs
d. Dilute russel viper venom b. Anti-HBc IgM
c. Anti-HBc IgG
214. Speckled pattern – anti SBB, anti RNP, anti Sm d. Anti-HBe

215. Antibody panel. Use polyspecific. May reaction lang 229. Advantage of MALDI LOF MS in automated
sa C3d wala sa IgG. Prewarm and retest microbiology system?
a. No need to isolated org
216. Walking pneumonia- have no cell wall b. Can amplify DNA something
c. Rapid sensitivity results
217. What is urobilinogen?
a. Colorless product of bilirubin metabolism 230. CBC results: Instrument A is repeated with the use of
b. Results in increase bile instrument B. Not sure of values. The discrepancy is
due to?
218. Synovial too viscous and difficult to aspirate. What to a. Lyse resistant target cells
be added in the specimen?Hyaluronidase b. Lyse sensitive target cells
c. Fragility of Hgb C
219. After several weeks of pharyngitis what can be found d. Lyse resistant Hgb C
in kidney biopsy?Streptococcus pyogenes
231. Deteriorates upon storage?
220. TSI A/A oxidase positive isolated in a. P
wound?Aeromonas b. Lw
221. Decrease ratio of plasma:anticoagulant in sodim c. Lu
citrate with hematocrit of 0.7 - what should be done? d. MNs
a. Decrease anticoagulant
b. Increase anticoagulant 232. May values ng glucose, osmolarity, lactate, at pH ng
c. Collect in heparin arterial blood, alin daw ang specimen for lactic
d. Report the result acidosis? Puro values ang choices.
233. Patient is in coma, alin daw ang possible na results 245. Intraoperative autologous blood stored in 1-5ºC, how
ng sample niya? Values ng glucose, ketones, many hours it should administered?
osmolarity at lactate ang choices. a. 6
b. 12
234. A patient is suspected of DM, fasting glucose ay 137 c. 24
tapos 2 hrs post prandial ay 225. What to do next?
a. OGTT 246. About Rubella, what to test to determine acute
b. No further testing need infection?IgG 2 weeks apart

235. Sample of “adrenal”cushing syndrome? 247. Antibody panel Q's (5)

TSH decrease, cortisol increase
248. Screening cells Q's(3)
236. Sezary syndrome?
a. T cell deficiency 249.
b. T cell lymphoproliferative Anti a Anti b Weak Rh A cells B
D control cells
237. A patient is from West Africa. He is positive in the test 4+ 4+ 2+ 0 0 0
of HIV 1 and HIV 2 combination. HIV 1 Western blot is
performed – indeterminate, what to do next? a. ABO grouping is wrong
a. Repeat western blot b. Rh grouping is wrong
b. EIA in HIV 1 c. Rh control is wrong
c. EIA in HIV 2 d. Do nothing, interpret the results

238. A donor is in aspirin medication.She is deferred in 250. Post-partumA(-) mother gave birth to her first born
plateletpheresis of how many hours? O(+) baby. Mother has no anti-D in her serum. What
a. 6 should the technologist do next?
b. 12 a. Test the baby for HDN
c. 24 b. Give the mother Rhogam
d. 36 c. Do nothing

239. Who is deferred donor? 251. Picture: rouleaux formation (2) causes and other one
a. Hepa B vaccine several days ago is condition
b. RH immunoglobulin six months ago
252. Picture: ANA staining (fluorescence)
240. What is the test for AIDS?CD4 count a. anti dsDNA
b. anti SSA
241. Reference ranges is performed in a new methodology c. anti smooth muscle
to? d. anti mitochondrial
a. To test instrument accuracy
b. To test instrument precision 253. EBV titers
c. To assess control ranges Anti-VCA IgM <1:10
Anti-VCA IgG >1:10
242. Azotemia is increased in? Anti-EBNA >1:10
a. BUN (presence indicates past infection)
b. Creatinine CMV titer: 1:128
c. Ammonia Toxoplasma titer: <1:10
d. Uric acid
a. Primary CMV infection
243. Leukocyte esterase is 1+ but in microscopic exam no b. Primary EBV infection
WBC seen. What is the cause? c. CMV and EBV co-infection
A. Present of reducing agent d. Toxoplasma infection
B. LysedWBC
C. Bacteria acted in reagent strip
D. Present of ascorbic acid 254. Description: Sporothrix (cigar-shaped)

244. Group A Le (a+b-). Ano ang meron sasaliva ng 255. Bile Esculin + ; 6.5% NaCl +; PYR - ; LAP -
patient? a. Group D Strep
Lea b. Group B Strep
c. Leuconostoc
d. Enterococcus
256. Picture: Pneumocystis jirovecii 267. A leukemoid reaction is an increase in peripheral
blood cells associated with?
257. Picture with Schuffner’s dots trophozoite a. An extreme infectious response
a. P.falciparum and P.vivax b. Presence of Leukemia
b. P. vivax and P. ovale
c. P. malariae and P. vivax 268. In storage pool disease, platelets are primarily
d. P. falciparum and P. malariae deficient in:
a. ADP
258. Cold agglutinins: warm to resolve the problem b. PF3
c. Thrombasthenin
259. Out of 6 donor units there is 1 unit that is
incompatible. What is the possible reason? 269. Mother is group A positive, Father is group O
Ans: Donor unit may have positive DAT negative, the baby experienced HDN, what caused
the hemolytic disease of the newborn?
260. Quantitative fecal fat test a. Anti-D
a. H2O2 b. Anti-d
b. NADH c. Anti-A
c. Sudan black d. Anti-c
d. Weighing and extraction
270. Biochemical reaction, picture of tube reactions.
261. Sugar fermented by S. aureus Q: What is the correct reaction of Salmonella spp.?
a. Lactose
b. Sucrose 271. LAP score disease association
c. Glucose
d. Mannitol 272. What is a HAPTEN?

262. Low incidence antigen, usually not present on Ab 273. Michaelis-Menten curve, picture of graph was given.
screening or panel cells? Q: To formulate a new methodology, so that enzyme
a. Jka activity will be assessed using zero-order kinetics
b. I which concentration of substrate and needs to be first
c. Lw determined.
d. Wra
Pointers:
263. Cells produce immunoglobulins in response to MOST QUESTIONS ARE ABOUT BLOOD BANKING, AND
antigenic stimulation are designated as: QUESTIONS ARE TRICKY.
a. Thymocytes
b. Sezary cells Serology (Titers – EBV, CMV)
c. Plasma cells Immunohematology and Blood Banking (Antibody Screening
d. Virocytes and Identification, ABO/Rh Typing Discrepancies, DAT and
IAT)
264. Tropical sprue has the peripheral blood picture of: Hematology (APTT/PT instrument errors)
a. Malaria
b. Thalassemia
c. Megaloblastic anemia
d. IDA

265. Technique use to separate red cell membrane protein

a. PAGE
b. IEP
c. RID
d. HPLC

266. Exotic pets are often associated with the transmission

of
a. Helicobacter spp.
b. Campylobacter spp.
c. Vibrio spp.
d. Salmonella spp.