Académique Documents
Professionnel Documents
Culture Documents
SA GRP2-May 2014
PAPER – 5 : ADVANCED ACCOUNTING
Question No. 1 is compulsory.
Answer any five questions from the remaining six questions.
Wherever necessary, suitable assumption(s) may be made by the candidates.
Working Notes should form part of the answer
Question 1
Answer the following questions:
(a) In its Final Accounts for the year ended 31st March, 2014, Z Ltd. made a provision of 3% of its total debtors. On 10th March, 2014, a
debtor of ₹ 5 lakhs suffered a heavy loss and became insolvent in April 2014. The loss was not insured.
State giving reasons, if the company may provide for the full loss in its accounts for the year ended 31 st March, 2014. (5 Marks)
(b) Suhana Ltd. issued 12% secured debentures of ₹ 100 Lakhs on 01.05.2013, to be utilized as under:
In March 2014, construction of the factory building was completed and machinery was installed and ready for it's intended use. Total interest
on debentures for the financial year ended 31.03.2014 was ₹ 11,00,000. During the year 2013-14, the company had invested idle fund
out of money raised from debentures in banks' fixed deposit and had earned an interest of ₹ 2,00,000.
Show the treatment of interest under Accounting Standard 16 and also explain nature of assets. (5 Marks)
(c) What do you understand by the term "Interest rate implicit on lease"? Calculate the interest rate implicit on lease from the following
details:
Annual Lease Rent ₹ 80,000 at the end of each year
Lease Period 5 Years
Guaranteed Residual Value ₹ 40,000
Unguaranteed Residual Value ₹ 24,000
Fair Value at the inception of the lease ₹ 3,20,000
Discounted rates for the first 5 years are as below: At 10% 0.909, 0.826, 0.751, 0.683, 0621
At 14% 0.877, 0.769, 0.675, 0.592, 0.519 (5 Marks)
(d) The following information is available for AB Ltd. for the accounting year 2012-13 and 2013-14:
Also para 10 of AS 16 “Borrowing Costs” states that to the extent that funds are borrowed specifically for the purpose of obtaining a qualifying
asset, the amount of borrowing costs eligible for capitalisation on that asset should be determined as the actual borrowing costs
incurred on that borrowing during the period less any income on the temporary investment of those borrowings.
Thus, eligible borrowing cost
= ₹ 11,00,000 – ₹ 2,00,000
= ₹ 9,00,000
(ii) EPS for the year 2012-13 restated for the right issue
₹ 22,00,000 2.12
10,00,000 shares x 1.04
(iii) EPS for the year 2013-14 (including effect of right issue)
₹ 30,00,000 2.62
(10,00,000 x 1.04 x 4/12) (12,00,000 x 8/12)
Working Notes:
1. Computation of theoretical ex-rights fair value per share =
Fair value of all outstanding shares immediately prior to exercise of rights+total amount received from exercise Number of shares outstanding
prior to exercise + number of shares issued in the exercise
(₹ 32 x 10,00,000) + (₹ 25 x 2,00,000)
10,00,000 + 2,00,000
= ₹ 30.83
2. Computation of adjustment factor
Fair value per share prior to exercise of rights Theoretical ex-rights value per share
₹ 32
=
₹ 30.83
= 1.04 (approx.)
Question 2
The partners P, Q & R have called you to assist them in winding up the affairs of their partnership on 31.12.2013. Their balance sheet as on
that date is given below:
January 2014
₹ 9,000 - collected from debtors; balance is uncollectable.
₹ 8,000 - received from the sale of entire furniture
₹ 1,000 - Liquidation expenses paid.
₹ 6,000 - Cash retained in the business at the end of month February 2014
₹ 1,000 - Liquidation expenses paid.
As part payment of his capital, R accepted a machinery for ₹ 9,000 (book value ₹ 3,500)
₹ 2,000 - Cash retained in the business at the end of month March 2014
₹ 38,000 - received on the sale of remaining plant and machinery.
₹ 10,000 - received from the sale of entire stock.
₹ 1,700 - Liquidation expenses paid.
₹ 41,000 - Received on sale of land & building.
No Cash is retained in the business.
You are required to prepare a schedule of cash payments amongst the partners by "Higher Relative Capital Method". (16 Marks)
Answer
31.03
.1
4
Working Notes:
₹
Interest on 8% Stock (₹ 22 Lakh x 8 / 100) 1,76,000
Interest on own Debentures (3,000 x ₹ 100 x 10 / 100) 30,000
2,06,000
4. Own Debentures Account
5. 8% Stock Account
Working Note:
Question 4
P Ltd. and Q Ltd. were carrying on the business of manufacturing of auto components. Both the companies decided to amalgamate and a
new company PQ Ltd. is to be formed with an Authorized Capital of ₹ 10,00,000 divided into 1,00,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each. The
Balance Sheet of the companies as on 31.03.2014 were as under:
P Limited
Balance Sheet as at 31.03.2014
Q Limited
Balance Sheet as at 31.03.2014
The assets and liabilities of the existing companies are to be transferred at book value with the exception of some items detailed below:
(i) Goodwill of P Ltd. was worth ₹ 50,000 and of Q Ltd. was worth ₹ 1,50,000.
(ii) Furniture & Fixture of Q Ltd. was valued at ₹ 35,000.
© The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
9
(iii) The debtors of P Ltd. are realized fully and bank balance of P Ltd. are to be retained by the liquidator and the sundry creditors are to
be paid out of the proceeds thereof.
(iv) The debentures of P Ltd. are to be discharged by issue of 8% debentures of PQ Ltd. at a premium of 10%.
You are required to:
(i) Compute the basis on which shares in PQ Ltd. will be issued at par to the shareholders of the existing companies.
(ii) Draw up a Balance Sheet of PQ Ltd. as at 1st April, 2014, the date of completion of amalgamation,
(iii) Write up journal entries including bank entries for closing the books of P Ltd. (16 Marks)
Answer
Calculation of Purchase Consideration
P Ltd. Q Ltd.
(₹ (₹
) )
Assets taken over:
Goodwill 50,000 1,50,000
Building 1,00,000 1,90,000
Plant & Machinery 25,000 80,000
Furniture & Fixtures - 35,000
Inventories 1,35,000 50,000
Trade Receivables - 1,42,000
Cash at Bank - 58,000
3,10,000 7,05,000
Less :Liabilities taken over
8% Debentures (1,21,000 -
)
Trade Payables - (1,40,000
)
Net Assets taken over 1,89,000 5,65,000
To be satisfied by issue of shares of PQ Ltd. of ₹ 10 each at par 18,900 56,500
PQ Limited
Balance Sheet as at 1st April, 2014
4 4,30,000
5 2,00,000
(2) Current Assets
a) Inventories 1,85,000
b) Trade Receivables 1,42,000
c) Cash at Bank 58,000
Total
10,15,000
Notes to Accounts:
₹
1 Share Capital Authorized
1,00,000 shares of ₹ 10 each Issued, Subscribed and Paid up 75,400 shares
of ₹ 10 each 10,00,00
0
(All the above shares are allotted as fully paid up pursuant to scheme of
amalgamation without payments being received in cash) 7,54,000
Reserve & Surplus Securities Premium Account Long term borrowings -
8 % Debentures Tangible Fixed Assets Building
P Ltd. 1,00,000
2 Q Ltd. 1,90,000
Plant & Machinery 11,000
P Ltd. 25,000
3 Q Ltd. 80,000
Furniture & Fixture Q Ltd. 1,10,000
4
Intangible Asset
Goodwill
P Ltd. 50,000
2,90,000
Q. Ltd. 1,50,000
1,05,000
35,000
4,30,000
5
2,00,000
Working Note:
Computation of Securities Premium
Debentures issued by PQ Ltd. to the existing debenture holders of P Ltd. at 10% premium.
₹ ₹
1 Realization Account To Building D 3,04,00
To Plant & Machinery To Inventories r 0
To Trade Receivables .
(Being all assets except cash transferred to Realization 1,00,000
Account) 25,000
1,35,000
44,000
4 PQ Ltd D 1,89,00
To Realization Account r 0
(Being Purchase consideration due) .
1,89,000
Answer 5
(a) Jay Electricity Company
₹ in lakhs
Cost of New Plant 250
Add: Cost of Materials used 38
288
Less: Estimated Current Cost of Replacing the Plant Amount to be (195)
Capitalized
93
Amount to be charged to Revenue
₹ in lakhs
Estimated Current Cost of Replacement 195
Less: Cash Sales of Scrap (15)
Less: Materials used (38)
Amount Amount
To Balance b/d 75 By Balance c/d 168
To Bank A/c (250-195) 55
To Replacement A/c 38
168 168
Replacement Account (₹ inlakhs)
Amount Amount
To Bank A/c 195 By Bank A/c 15
By Plant A/c 38
By Revenue A/c 142
195 195
It is assumed that materials worth ₹ 38 lakhs, used in the construction of the new plant, are taken out from the old plant.
Note: It is pertinent to note that the Electricity Act, 2003 does not deal with Replacement Accounting based on ‘Double Accounting System’.
Amount (₹)
(I) Net Premium earned
Premium from Direct Business received 92,00,000
Add: Receivable as on 31.03.2014 3,94,000
Less: Receivable as on 01.04.2013 (4,59,000)
Sub Total (A) 91,35,000
Premium on reinsurance accepted 7,86,000
Add: Receivable as on 31.03.2014 33,000
Less: Receivable as on 01.04.2013 (37,000)
Sub Total (B) 7,82,000
Premium on reinsurance Ceded 6,36,000
Add: Payable as on 31.03.2014 20,000
Less: Payable as on 01.04.2013 (28,000)
Sub Total (C) 6,28,000
Premium Earned (A+B-C) 92,89,000
(II) Net Claims Incurred
Claims paid on direct business 73,00,000
Add: Outstanding as on 31.03.2014 1,01,000
Less: Outstanding as on 01.04.2013 (94,000)
Sub Total (A) 73,07,000
Reinsurance claims 5,80,000
Add: Outstanding as on 31.03.2014 12,000
Less: Outstanding as on 01.04.2013 (16,000)
Sub Total (B) 5,76,000
Claims received from reinsurance 2,10,000
Add: Outstanding as on 31.03.2014 39,000
Less: Outstanding as on 01.04.2013 (42,000)
Sub Total (C) 2,07,000
Net Claim Incurred (A+B-C) 76,76,000
Question 6
(a) Pass necessary Journal entries in the books of an independent Branch of a Company, wherever required, to rectify or adjust the
following:
(i) Income of ₹ 2,800 allocated to the Branch by Head Office but not recorded in the Branch books.
(ii) Provision for doubtful debts, whose accounts are kept by the Head Office, not provided earlier for ₹ 1,000.
(iii) Branch paid ₹ 3,000 as salary to a Head Office Manager, but the amount paid has been debited by the Branch to Salaries Account.
(iv) Branch incurred travelling expenses of ₹ 5,000 on behalf of other Branches, but not recorded in the books of Branch.
(v) A remittance of ₹ 1,50,000 sent by the Branch has not received by Head Office on the date of reconciliation of Accounts.
(vi) Head Office allocates ₹ 75,000 to the Branch as Head Office expenses, which has not yet been recorded by the Branch.
(vii)Head Office collected ₹ 30,000 directly from a Branch Customer. The intimation of the fact has been received by the Branch only now.
(viii) Goods dispatched by the Head office amounting to ₹ 10,000, but not received by the Branch till date of reconciliation.
The Goods have been received subsequently.
(8 Marks)
(b) Department P sells goods to Department S at a profit of 25% on cost and to Department Q at a profit of 15% on cost. Department S
sells goods to P and Q at a profit of 20% and 30% on sales respectively. Department Q sells goods to P and S at 20% and 10% profit
on cost respectively.
Departmental Managers are entitled to 10% commission on net profit subject to unrealized profit on departmental sales being eliminated.
Departmental profits after charging Manager's commission, but before adjustment of unrealized profits are as below:
₹
Department P Department S 90,000
Department Q 60,000
45,000
Stock lying at different Departments at the end of the year are as below:
Figures in ₹
DEPARTMENTS
P S Q
Transfer from P - 18,000 14,000
Transfer from S 48,000 - 38,000
Transfer from Q 12,000 8,000 -
Find out correct Departmental Profits after charging Managers' Commission. (8 Marks)
Answer
(a) Books of Branch
Journal Entries
Amount
in ₹
Dr. Cr.
(i) Head Office Account D 2,8
To Income Account A/c 0 2,80
(Being the income allocated by the Head office not 0 0
recorded earlier, now recorded)
Outstanding ₹ 7,24,000
ECGC Cover 30% of outstanding (Subject to
maximum of ₹ 1,50,000)
Value of security
As per valuation on the date of grant of loan 2,25,000
As per realizable value as on date of Balance Sheet 1,75,000
Compute the necessary provision to be made by bank as per applicable rate.
(b) State under which head these accounts should be classified in Balance Sheet, as per Schedule VI of the Companies Act:
(i) Share application money received in excess of issued share capital.
(ii) Share option outstanding account.
(iii) Unpaid matured debenture and interest accrued thereon.
(iv) Uncalled liability on shares and other partly paid investments.
(v) Calls unpaid.
(vi) Intangible Assets under development.
(vii) Money received against share warrant.
(viii) Long term maturity of finance lease obligation.
(c) Explain in brief the treatment of Refund of Government Grants in line with AS 12 in the following three situations:
(i) When Government Grant is related to revenue,
(ii) When Government Grant is related to specific fixed assets,
(iii) When Government Grant is in the nature of Promoter's contribution.
(d) W paid a premium to other partners of the firm at the time of his admission to the firm, with a condition that the will not be dissolved
before expiry of five years. The firm is dissolved after three years. W claims refund of premium.
(i) List the criteria for the calculation of the amount of refund.
(ii) Also list any two conditions when no claim in this respect will arise.
© The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
16
(e) Give four conditions to be fulfilled by a Joint Stock Company to buy back its equity Shares.
(4x 4 = 16 Marks)
Answer
(a) Computation of provision to be made by a Bank
₹
Outstanding Value of Doubtful Asset (up to 3 years) 7,24,000
Less :Value of security (excluding ECGC cover) (₹
1,75,000
)
Sub Total ₹ 5,49,000
Less :ECGC Cover (subject to ₹ 1,50,000 maximum) (₹
1,50,000
)
Unsecured Portion ₹ 3,99,000
Provision:
For unsecured portion @ 100% of ₹ 3,99,000 ₹ 3,99,000
For secured portion @ 40% of ₹ 1,75,000 ₹ 70,000
Total Provision ₹ 4,69,000
(b) Classification of following accounts for the presentation in Schedule VI to the Companies Act, 1956
(e) As per section 77A of the Companies Act, 1956, a joint stock company has to fulfill the following conditions to buy back its own equity
shares:
1. Buy back is authorized by its articles.
2. A special resolution has been passed in general meeting of the shareholders of the company, authorizing the buy back.
3. The buyback does not exceed 25% of the total paid up capital and free reserves of the company.
4. All the shares proposed for buyback are fully paid up.
5. The ratio of the debts owed by the Company is not more than twice the capital and its free reserves after such buyback.
6. The buyback of listed shares is in accordance with the regulation of SEBI.
7. The buy back is made out of free reserves (which includes securities premium) or out of the proceeds of a fresh issue of any shares or
other specified securities.
8. The buy back is completed within 12 months of the passing of the special resolution or resolution passed by the Board.
9. Before making such buy back, a listed company has to file with the Registrar of the Companies and SEBI a declaration of solvency in
the prescribed form.
Note: All important conditions have been given in the above answer. However, any four conditions may be given in the answer as required in
the question.
Questions 1
Discuss the following:
(vii)Incorrect, it is the responsibility of the management for the maintenance of internal control system rather than of the Auditor. Because,
Internal control is the process designed, implemented and maintained by those charged with governance, management to provide
reasonable assurance about the achievement of entity’s objectives.
(viii) Incorrect, no dividend shall be declared or paid by a company for any financial year except out of the profits of the company
for that year arrived at after providing for depreciation or out of the profits of the company for any previous financial year or years arrived
at after providing for depreciation.
Alternatively, Correct, assuming it is approved by Central Government as per section 205 of the Companies Act, 1956.
(ix) Incorrect, no government company is allowed to contribute any amount or amounts directly or indirectly to any political party or for any
political purpose to any person.
(x) Incorrect, in case of a casual vacancy arising on account of resignation, only the company in general meeting can fill the vacancy by
appointing another auditor, who shall hold office till the conclusion of the next annual general meeting.
Question 3
How will you vouch/verify the following?
(a) Preliminary expenses
(b) Building
(c) Recovery of bad debts written off
(d) Cut-off arrangement/procedures. (4 x 4 = 16 Marks)
Answer
(a) Preliminary Expenses: The auditor takes following steps to vouch/verify preliminary expenses:
(i) Expenditure incidental to creation and floating of a company includes stamp duties, registration fees, legal costs, accountant’s fees, cost
of printing, etc. All such kind of expenses should be related to the formation of the enterprise.
(ii) Contracts relating to preliminary expenses should be examined with all preliminary expenses, relevant supporting documents should be
there.
(iii) He should examine company’s minute’s book to determine the pattern of writing off of the preliminary expenses over the period.
(iv) He must check that if such kinds of expenses are incurred by the promoters or they have been reimbursed to the promoters, it is as per
the instructions of the BOD and the powers in AOA.
(v) He should make a cross check of the amount of preliminary expenses with that of amount mentioned in the prospectus, statutory report
and balance sheet. Any amount in excess should be approved by the shareholders.
(b) Buildings:
(i) Examine the title deeds of buildings to see whether the client holds the title on the balance sheet date. If the property has been
mortgaged, the title deeds will be in the possession of the mortgagee, from whom a certificate should be obtained to that effect.
(ii) Verify the original cost of buildings by reference to the deed of conveyance. If the building is constructed by the client, verify the original
cost by reference to the cost as recorded in the books of account of the year in which the construction was completed.
(iii) Verify that appropriate depreciation has been provided against the buildings. In case no depreciation is provided on the buildings, a
note to this effect should be given in the profit and loss account.
(iv) See the appropriate lease deed, if the building is leasehold, to ascertain the cost, amortisation, etc. Also ensure that all the covenants in
the lease deed have been fulfilled by the client.
(v) See that the buildings have been valued at cost less depreciation. If any revaluation has taken place, see the basis of revaluation and
ensure that the disclosure of the same has been made. In case of a company, the requirements of Schedule VI to the Companies Act,
1956, have been complied with.
(vi) See that the relevant particulars of buildings have been entered in the fixed assets record maintained by the client.
(c) Recovery of Bad Debts written off:
(i) Check all correspondence and proper authorization of bad debts written off earlier and ensure that the decision of writing off of bad
debts was recorded properly.
(ii) Ascertain total bad debts and see whether all recovery of bad debts is recorded properly in the books of account and deposited into
bank.
(iii) Check all notifications from Court or bankruptcy trustee and all correspondence from debtors and collecting agencies.
(iv) Check Credit Manager’s files for amount recovered and confirm acknowledgement receipts issued to trustee/debtors.
(v) Vouch acknowledgement receipts issued to debtors or trustees.
(d) Cut-off arrangement: Accounting is a continuous process because the business never comes to halt. It is, therefore, necessary that
transactions of one period would be separated from those in the ensuing period so that the results of the working of each period
can be correctly ascertained. The arrangement that is made for this purpose is technically known as “cut-off arrangement”. It essentially
forms part of the internal control system of the organisation. Accounts, other than sales, purchase and stock are not usually affected
by the continuity of the business and therefore, this arrangement is generally applied only to sales, purchase and stock. The auditor
satisfies by examination and test-checks that the cut-off procedures are adequately followed and ensure that:
(i) Goods purchased, property in which passed on to the client, have in fact been included in the inventories and that the liability has been
provided for in case credit purchase.
(ii) Goods sold have been excluded from the inventories and credit has been taken for the sales. If the value of sales is to be received, the
concerned party has been debited.
The auditor may examine a sample of documents, evidencing the movement of stock into and out of stores, including documents pertaining to
period shortly before and after the cut-off date and check whether stocks represented by those documents were included or excluded as
appropriate during stock taking for perfect and correct presentation in the financial statements.
Question 4
Discuss with reference to SAs:
(a) What do you mean by "Written Representations"? As an auditor, how you will deal if management does not provide requested written
representations? (5 Marks)
(b) "Operating Conditions" that may cast doubt about going concern assumption. (5 Marks)
(c) The auditor is responsible for maintaining an attitude of professional skepticism throughout the audit. Do you agree with the
statement?(6 Marks)
Answer
(a) Written Representations: As per SA 580, “Written Representation”, is a written statement by management provided to the auditor to
confirm certain matters or to support other audit evidence. These representations are an important source of audit evidence. If
management modifies or does not provide the requested written representations, it may alert the auditor to the possibility that one or
more significant issues may exist. Further, a request for written, rather than oral, representations in many cases may prompt
management to consider such matters more rigorously, thereby enhancing the quality of the representations.
Requested Written Representations not provided by Management: If management does not provide one or more of the requested
written representations,
(i) the auditor shall discuss the matter with management;
(ii) re-evaluate the integrity of management and evaluate the effect that this may have on the reliability of representations (oral or written)
and audit evidence in general; and
(iii) take appropriate actions, including determining the possible effect on the opinion in the auditor’s report.
The auditor shall disclaim an opinion on the financial statements if management does not provide the written representations.
(b) Operating Conditions casting doubt about going concern assumption: The following are examples of operating events or conditions
that, may cast significant doubt about the going concern assumption.
(i) Management intentions to liquidate the entity or to cease operations.
(ii) Loss of key management without replacement.
(iii) Loss of a major market, key customer(s), franchise, license, or principal supplier(s).
(iv) Labour difficulties.
(v) Shortages of important supplies.
(vi) Emergence of a highly successful competitor.
(c) Professional Skepticism: As per SA 200, “Overall Objectives of the Independent Auditor and the Conduct of an Audit in Accordance
with Standards on Auditing”, Professional skepticism is an attitude that includes a questioning mind, being alert to conditions which may
indicate possible misstatement due to error or fraud, and a critical assessment of audit evidence.
Therefore, professional skepticism is necessary to the critical assessment of audit evidence. This includes questioning contradictory audit
evidence and the reliability of documents and responses to inquiries and other information obtained from management and those
charged with governance. It also includes consideration of the sufficiency and appropriateness of audit evidence obtained in the light of
the circumstances, for example in the case where fraud risk factors exist and a single document, of a nature that is susceptible to fraud,
is the sole supporting evidence for a material financial statement amount.
Maintaining professional skepticism throughout the audit is necessary if the auditor is, for example, to reduce the risks of overlooking unusual
circumstances, over generalising when drawing conclusions from audit observations or using inappropriate assumptions in determining
the nature, timing, and extent of the audit procedures and evaluating the results thereof.
Further, while obtaining reasonable assurance, the auditor is responsible for maintaining professional skepticism throughout the audit,
considering the potential for management override of controls and recognizing the fact that audit procedures that are effective for detecting
error may not be effective in detecting fraud. This requirement is also designed to assist the auditor in identifying and assessing the
risks of material misstatement due to fraud and in designing procedures to detect such misstatement.
Therefore, we do agree with the statement.
Question 5
(a) You are the auditor of a company. What precautions you will suggest in adopting test checking technique for audit work? (8 Marks)
(b) State the background of "Local Bodies". Draft an audit programme for audit of local bodies. (8 Marks)
Answer
(a) Precautions for adopting test checking technique: While adopting test check technique, an auditor should take following
precautions:-
(i) Classification: The transactions of the concern should be classified under appropriate heads and may be stratified in case of wide
variations between the transactions of the same kind.
(ii) System study in sequential order: Authorisations, documentations, recording of the transactions should be studied right from the
beginning to end.
(iii) Evaluation of internal control: Evaluating the system of internal control for its efficiency, soundness and capability to produce reliable
accounting and financial data.
(iv) Clarity of test check plan: Preparation of test check plan with clear audit objective understood by the audit staff.
(v) Scientific sample selection: Un-biased selection of the transactions with reference to the random number tables or other statistical
methods.
(vi) Test check, not applicable prohibited areas: Identification of the areas where test check may not be done.
(vii)Sample size: Based on degree of reliance and the confidence level required in the audit, the number of transactions to be selected for
each test plan should be pre- determined.
(viii) Materiality: Setting up criteria to judge what constitute material or immaterial errors. Further investigation of only
material errors be carried out and all immaterial errors may be avoided.
(b) Background of Local Bodies: A municipality can be defined as a unit of local self- government in an urban area. By the term ‘local self-
government’ is ordinarily understood the administration of a locality – a village, a town, a city or any other area smaller than a state
– by a body representing the local inhabitants, possessing fairly large autonomy, raising at least a part of its revenue through local
taxation and spending its income on services which are regarded as local and, therefore, distinct from state and central services.
Municipal government in India covers five distinct types of urban local authorities, viz., the municipal corporations, the municipal councils,
the notified area committees, the town area committees and the cantonment committees.
Audit Programme for local bodies:
(i) The Local Fund Audit Wing of the State Govt. is generally in charge of the audit of municipal accounts. Sometimes bigger municipal
corporations e.g. Delhi, Mumbai etc have power to appoint their own auditors for regular external audit. So the auditor should ensure
authenticity of his appointment.
(ii) The auditor while auditing the local bodies should report on the fairness of the contents and presentation of financial statements, the
strengths and weaknesses of system of financial control, the adherence to legal and/or administrative requirements; upon whether
value is being fully received on money spent. His objective should be to detect errors and fraud and misuse of resources.
(iii) The auditor should ensure that the expenditure incurred conforms to the relevant provisions of the law and is in accordance with the
financial rules and regulations framed by the competent authority.
(iv) He should ensure that all types of sanctions, either special or general, accorded by the competent authority.
(v) He should ensure that there is a provision of funds and the expenditure is incurred from the provision and the same has been authorized
by the competent authority.
© The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
22
(vi) The auditor should check that the different schemes, programmes and projects, where large financial expenditure has been incurred,
are running economically and getting the expected results.
Question 6
(a) Describe "Analytical Review Procedures" in Audit. Briefly discuss analytical procedures for verification of debtors. (8 Marks)
(b) Mention any eight important points which an auditor will consider while conducting the audit of hospital. (8 Marks)
Answer
(a) Analytical Review Procedure: As per SA 520, Analytical Procedure means analysis of financial information through analysis of
relationship among financial and non-financial data. It includes comparison of the entity’s financial information with comparable
information with prior period, anticipated results of the entity like budgets etc or expectations of auditor and similar industry information.
Therefore, an analytical review procedure assists the auditor in planning the nature, timing and extent of other audit procedures. It is an
auditing procedure based on ratios among accounts and tries to identify significant changes. Analytical review procedures can be used
in the consideration of risks and/or as direct tests of balances. When deciding whether to incorporate analytical review procedures into
the examination program as substantive tests of balances, the examiner should consider the extent to which the underlying data should
be tested.
Analytical Procedures in case of debtors: Following are the analytical review procedures which may often be helpful as a means of
obtaining audit evidence regarding the various assertions relating to debtors:
(i) comparison of closing balances of debtors with the corresponding figures for the previous year;
(ii) comparison of the relationship between current year debtor balances and the current year sales with the corresponding budgeted
figures, if available;
(iii) comparison of actual closing balances of debtors with the corresponding budgeted figures, if available;
(iv) comparison of current year’s ageing schedule with the corresponding figures for the previous year;
(v) comparison of significant ratios relating to debtors with similar ratios for other firms in the same industry, if available;
(vi) comparison of significant ratios relating to debtors with the industry norms, if available.
(vii) Check whether there is any change in credit policy of the organization.
(viii) Check the percentage of bad debts of previous years and current year.
(ix) Find the reasons of major variations in the estimated values and actual values.
These are only an illustrative list of analytical review procedures which an auditor may employ in carrying out an audit of debtors. The exact
nature of analytical review procedures to be applied in specific situation is a matter of professional judgment of the auditor.
(b) Audit of Hospital: The points to be considered by the auditor during the audit of a Hospital are stated below:-
(i) Income from Services: Vouch the Register of patients with copies of bills issued to them. Verify bills for a selected period with the
patients’ attendance record to see that the bills have been correctly prepared. Also see that bills have been issued to all patients from
whom an amount was recoverable according to the rules of the hospital.
(ii) Collection of cash: Check cash collections as entered in the Cash Book with the receipts, counterfoils and other evidence for example,
copies of patients bills, counterfoils of dividend and other interest warrants, copies of rent bills.
(iii) Income from Investments: See by reference to the property and Investment Regis- ter that all income that should have been received
by way of rent on properties, dividends, and interest on securities settled on the hospital, has been collected.
(iv) Legacies and Donations: Ascertain that legacies and donations received for a specific purpose have been applied in the manner
agreed upon.
(v) Reconciliation of Subscriptions: Trace all collections of subscription and donations from the Cash Book to the respective Registers.
Reconcile the total subscriptions due (as shown by the Subscription Register and the amount collected and that still outstanding).
(vi) Authorisation and Sanctions: Vouch all purchases and expenses and verify that the capital expenditure was incurred only with the
prior sanction of the Trustees or the Managing Committee and that appointments and increments to staff have been duly authorised.
(vii)Grants and TDS: Verify that grants, if any, received from Government or local authority has been duly accounted for. Also, that refund in
respect of taxes deducted at source has been claimed.
(viii) Budgets: Compare the totals of various items of expenditure and income with the amount budgeted for them and report
to the Trustees or the Managing Committee significant variations which have taken place.
(ix) Internal Check: Examine the internal check as regards the receipt and issue of stores; medicines, linen, apparatus, clothing,
instruments, etc. so as to ensure that purchases have been properly recorded in the Stock Register and that issues have been made only
against proper authorisation.
(x) Depreciation: See that depreciation has been written off against all the assets at the appropriate rates.
(xi) Registers: Inspect the bonds, share scrips, title deeds of properties and compare their particulars with those entered in the property
and Investment Registers.
(xii)Inventories: Obtain inventories, especially of stocks and stores as at the end of the year and check a percentage of the items physically;
also compare their total values with respective ledger balances.
(xiii) Management Representation and Certificate: Get proper Management Representation and Certificate with respect to
various aspects covered during the course of audit.
Question 7
Write short notes on any four of the following:
(a) Indicate expenses which are essentially of a revenue nature, if incurred for creating an asset, are also regarded as expenditure of a
capital nature.
The primary disadvantage of the approach are the high costs sometimes involved and the need for extensive technical expertise when
system are complex. However, these disadvantages are really spurious if auditing through computer is the only viable method of
carrying out the audit.
(e) Introductory Paragraph: As per SA 700, “Forming an Opinion and Reporting on Financial Statements”, the introductory paragraph in
the auditor’s report shall:
(i) Identify the entity whose financial statements have been audited;
(ii) State that the financial statements have been audited;
(iii) Identify the title of each statement that comprises the financial statements;
(iv) Refer to the summary of significant accounting policies and other explanatory information; and
(v) Specify the date or period covered by each financial statement comprising the financial statements.
(b) (i) Multi programming: Multi programming is defined as an execution of two or more programs that all reside in primary storage. Since
the CPU can execute only one instruction at a time, it cannot simultaneously execute instructions from two or more programs. The
purpose of multiprogramming is to increase the utilization of the computer system as a whole.
(ii) Multi processing: Multi processing (or parallel processing) refers to the use of two or more central processing units, linked together, to
perform coordinated work simultaneously.
(iii) Multi tasking: Multi tasking refers to the operating system’s ability to execute two or more of a single user’s tasks concurrently.
(iv) Multi threading: Multi threading allows a process to keep running even if some threads within the process are stalled, working on a
lengthy task, or awaiting user interaction, thus improve the performance of processing the task.
Question 3
(a) What is a 'threat'? Explain any three types of Network Security threat? (4 Marks)
(b) What do you mean by distributed database? Also briefly explain the two methodologies of distribution of a database. (4 Marks)
Answer
(a) Threat: A threat is anything that can disrupt the operation, functioning, confidentiality, integrity, or availability of a network or system.
Network security threats can be categorized into four broad themes:
Unstructured threats - These originate mostly from inexperienced individuals using easily available hacking tools from the Internet.
These tools include port-scanning tools, address-sweeping tools, and many others.
Structured threats - These originate from individuals who are highly motivated and technically competent and usually understand
network systems design and the vulnerabilities of those systems. An individual who presents a structured threat typically targets a
specific destination or group.
External threats - These originate from individuals or organizations working outside an organization, which does not have authorized
access to organization’s computer systems or network. They usually work their way into a network from the Internet or Dialup Access
servers.
Internal threats - These threats originate from individuals who have authorized access to the network. These users either have an
account on a server or physical access to the network. An internal threat may come from a discontented former or current employee or
contractor.
(b) Distributed Database: An organization may require decentralizing its database by scattering it with computing resources to several
locations so that running of applications programs and data processing are performed at more than one site. This refers to Distributed
Database and its processing facilitate savings in time and costs by concurrent running of application programs at various sites. When
processing is distributed, the database needs to be distributed fully or partly, depending on the organizational requirements.
There are two methodologies of distribution of a database which are given as under:
Replicated Database: In this, duplicates of data are provided to the sites so that the sites can have frequent access to the same data
concurrently. But this method of replication is costly in terms of system resources and also maintaining the consistency of the data
elements.
Partitioned Database: In this, a database is divided into parts or segments that are required and appropriate for the respective sites so
that only those segments are distributed without costly replication of the entire data.
Question 4
(a) Describe briefly any four features of Application Servers.
(b) List the two advantages and two disadvantages of 3 tier architecture.
Answer
(a) Features of the Application Servers are as follows:
Component Management: This provides the manager with tools for handling all the components and runtime services like session
management, and synchronous/ asynchronous client notifications, as well as executing server business logic.
Fault Tolerance: It is an ability of an application server with no single point of failure, defining policies for recovery and fail-over
recovery in case of failure of one object or group of objects.
Load Balancing: It is the capability to send the request to different servers depending on the load and availability of the server.
Transaction Management: It is an ability to process one or more logical unit of work requested by the client. The server ensures that
the transaction processes completely.
Management Console: It refers to the single point graphical management console for remotely monitoring clients and server clusters.
Security: The accessibility of data and application is restricted through user authentication at first tier of application server for security
measures.
(b) Advantages of three-tier architecture are as follows:
Clear separation of user-interface-control and data presentation from application logic: Through this separation, more clients are
able to have access to a wide variety of server applications. The two main advantages for client- applications are quicker development
through the reuse of pre-built business-logic components and a shorter test phase.
Dynamic load balancing: If bottlenecks in terms of performance occur, the server process can be moved to other servers at runtime.
Change management: It is easy and faster to exchange a component on the server than to furnish numerous PCs with new program
versions.
Disadvantages of three-tier architecture are as follows:
Creates an increased need for network traffic management, server load balancing, and fault tolerance.
Current tools are relatively immature and are more complex.
Maintenance tools are currently inadequate for maintaining server libraries. This is a potential obstacle for simplifying maintenance and
promoting code reuse throughout the organization.
Question 5
In addition to above there is a service tax @ 12.36% on the amount of maintenance charges. Considering house number and value of
advanced security system installed, as input, draw a flow chart to have printed output as house number, maintenance charges, service
tax and the total amount to be paid by each house owner.
Answer
Let us define the variables first:
HNO: House Number HC: House Category VAL_ASS: Value of Advanced Security
Systems MC: Maintenance Charges ST: Service Tax TA: Total
Amount
The desired flowchart is given as follows:
Start
Yes
If HC= A?
MC = 0.08 * VAL_ASS
No
No
Yes
If HC= C? MC = 0.04 * VAL_ASS
No
MC = 0.03 * VAL_ASS
ST = 0.1236 * MC
TA = MC + ST
Yes
More HNO? A
No
Stop
Question 7
Write short notes on any four of the following:
(a) Firewall
(b) Data Mining
(c) VoIP
(d) Object Oriented Programming (OOP)
(e) Front End Communication Processors: (2 x 4 = 8 Marks)
Answer 7
(a) Firewall: Firewall is a system which controls the flow of traffic between the Internet and the firm’s internal LANs and systems. They are
usually packaged as turnkey hardware/software packages and are set up to enforce the specific security policies that are desired. A
firewall is a proven, effective means of protecting the firm’s internal resources from unwanted intrusion.
(b) Data Mining: The process of recognizing patterns among data contained in a data warehouse or a data mart is called a process of Data
Mining. Data mining tools are software that allows users to perform detailed mathematical and statistical calculations on detailed data
warehouse data to detect trends, identify patterns and analyze data. Data Mining is responsible for finding the patterns by identifying
the underlying rules and features in the data and picking out relevant information. Examples of Data mining Software’s are SPSS, SAS,
Think Analytics and G-Stat etc.
(c) VoIP: Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) commonly refers to the communication protocols, technologies, methodologies, and
transmission techniques involved in the delivery of voice communications and multimedia sessions over Internet Protocol (IP) networks,
such as the Internet. Other terms commonly associated with VoIP are IP telephony, Internet telephony, Voice over BroadBand (VoBB),
broadband telephony, and broadband phone. This allows delivery of voice communications over IP networks, for example, phone calls.
(d) OOP: In Object-Oriented Programming (OOP), objects are combined and small amount of code is written instead of writing a program
line by line. The advantages of OOP are its graphical interface; ease of use; faster program development; enhanced programmer
productivity and more reliable programs that contain fewer errors. The disadvantages of OOP are its steep initial development costs;
more extensive start-up time and power PCs and workstations requirement. Some common object-oriented languages are small talk,
C++, Visual Basic and Java.
(e) Front End Communication Processors: These are programmable devices which control the functions of communication system.
They support the operations of a mainframe computer by performing functions, which it would otherwise be required to perform itself.
These functions include code conversions, editing and verification of data, terminal recognition and control of transmission lines. The
mainframe computer is then able to devote its time to data processing rather than data transmission.
SECTION – B
Question No. 8 is compulsory Answer any five questions from the rest
Question 8
(a) Mission statement of a company focuses on the question:
‘Who we are’ and ‘What we do’. Explain briefly. (3 Marks)
(b) State the factors of human resource that influence on employees competence. (3 Marks)
(c) Assume that you are an entrepreneur who has an intense desire to get into the business. What types of information relating to macro
environment would you need to determine external opportunities and threats? (3 Marks)
(d) What does corporate strategy ensure? Explain. (3 Marks)
(e) Briefly describe the impact of corporate culture on an organization. (3 Marks)
Answer
(a) A company’s mission statement is typically focused on its present business scope — “who we are and what we do”; mission
statements broadly describe an organizations present capabilities, customer focus activities and business makeup. An organisation’s
mission states what customers it serves, what need it satisfies, and what type of product it offers. It is an expression of the growth
ambition of the organisation. It helps organisation to set its own special identity, business emphasis and path for development. Mission
amplifies what brings the firm to this business or why it is there, what existence it seeks and what purpose it seeks to achieve as a
business firm.
In other words, the mission serves as a justification for the firm's very presence and existence; it legitimizes the firm's presence.
(b) Human resource management has been accepted as a strategic partner in the formulation of organization’s strategies and in the
implementation of such strategies through human resource planning, employment, training, appraisal and reward systems. The following
points should be kept in mind as they can have a strong influence on employee competence:
i. Recruitment and selection: The workforce will be more competent if a firm can successfully identify, attract, and select highly competent
applicants.
ii. Training: The workforce will be more competent if employees are well trained to perform their jobs properly.
iii. Appraisal of performance: The performance appraisal is to identify any performance deficiencies experienced by employees due to lack
of competence. Such
deficiencies, once identified, can often be solved through counselling, coaching or training.
iv. Compensation: A firm can usually increase the competency of its workforce by offering pay, benefits and rewards that are not only
attractive than those of their competitors but also recognizes merit.
(c) Macro environment mainly consists of economic, technological, political, legal and socio- cultural elements. For an entrepreneur it is
important to identify those factors that are likely to affect the new business. Each of the elements can have a bearing on the
opportunities and the threats.
Particularly, he should scan the relevant changes that have happened in recent past that can provide competitive edge. For example, a
technological innovation in the production process can be opportunity. Incentives such as cheaper land, tax free periods can be other
form of opportunities. Entrepreneur has to identify such opportunities that can be capitalized to enter markets or provide an edge over
the competitors. Entrepreneur has to also take care as these opportunities can also act as threats when competitors are able to
exploit them.
(d) Corporate strategy in the first place ensures the growth of the firm and ensures the correct alignment of the firm with its environment. It
serves as the design for filling the strategic planning gap. It also helps build the relevant competitive advantages. It works out the right
fit between the firm and its external environment. Basically the purpose of corporate strategy is to harness the opportunities available in
the environment, countering the threats embedded therein.
Corporate strategy brings methodical responses to the environment. Strategy is the opposite of adhoc responses to the changes in the
environment in competition, consumer tastes, technology and other variables. It amounts to long-term, well thought-out and prepared
responses to the various environment forces.
(e) Corporate culture refers to values, beliefs, business principles, traditions, ways of operating, and internal work environment. An
organization’s culture is either an important contributor or an obstacle to successful strategy execution. The beliefs, vision, objectives,
business approaches and practices underpinning a company's strategy may be compatible with its culture or not. When they are, the
culture becomes a valuable ally in strategy implementation and execution. When the culture is in conflict with some aspect of the
company's direction, performance targets or strategy, the culture becomes a stumbling block that impedes successful strategy
implementation and execution.
A culture grounded in values, practices, and behavioural norms that match what is needed for good strategy execution helps energize
people throughout the company to do their jobs in a strategy-supportive manner, adding significantly to the power and effectiveness of
strategy execution.
Question 9
(a) State with reasons which of the following statements are correct or Incorrect.
(i) Stability strategy is not a 'do-nothing' strategy.
(ii) Six sigma efforts target following main areas:
(x) Improving customer satisfaction.
(y) Reducing wastage
(z) Reducing defects (2 x 2 = 4 Marks)
(b) What are the major stages in the strategicmanagement process? (3 Marks)
Answer
(a) (i) Correct: Stability strategies are implemented by approaches wherein few functional changes are made in the products or markets. It is
not a ‘do nothing’ strategy. It involves keeping track of new developments to ensure that the strategy continues to make sense. This
strategy is typical for mature business organizations. Some small organizations will also frequently use stability as a strategic focus to
maintain comfortable market or profit position.
(ii) Correct: Primarily Six Sigma means maintenance of the desired quality in processes and end products. It is a highly disciplined
process that helps in developing and delivering near-perfect products and services. Improvements in these areas usually represent
dramatic cost savings to businesses, as well as opportunities to retain customers, capture new markets, and build a reputation for top
performing products and services.
(b) The major stages in the strategic management process are:
(i) Develop vision and mission statements
(ii) Perform internal and external audit
(iii) Establish long-term objectives
(iv) Generate, evaluate, and select strategies
(v) Implement strategies considering management issues
(vi) Implement strategies marketing, finance, accounting, R&D, MIS issues
(vii) Measure and evaluate performance
Question 10
What is the rationale behind Business Process Reengineering (BPR)? What steps would you recommend to implement BPR inan
organization? (7 Marks)
Answer
Business Process Reengineering (BPR) is an approach to unusual improvement in operating effectiveness through the redesigning of critical
business processes and supporting business systems. It is revolutionary redesign of key business processes that involves examination
of the basic process itself.
It looks at the minute details of the process, such as why the work is done, who does it, where is it done and when it is done. BPR refers to the
analysis and redesign of workflows and processes both within the organization and between the organization and the external entities like
suppliers, distributors, and service providers. The orientation of redesigning efforts is basically radical. In other words, it is a total
deconstruction and rethinking of business process in its entirety.
differentiation strategy should be pursued only after a careful study of buyers’ needs and preferences to determine the feasibility of
incorporating one or more differentiating features into a unique product. A successful differentiation strategy allows a firm to charge a
higher price for its product and to gain customer loyalty.
(b) Social Marketing and Service Marketing are marketing strategies primarily with different orientations. Social Marketing refers to the
design, implementation, and control of programs seeking to increase the acceptability of a social ideas, cause, or practice among a
target group. For instance, the publicity campaign for prohibition of smoking or encouraging girl child, etc.
On the other hand, service marketing is applying the concepts, tools, and techniques, of marketing to services. Service is any activity or
benefit that one party can offer to another that is essentially intangible and non-perishing. These may be from business to consumer
and from business to business.
Question 14
Write short notes on the following:
(a) Experience Curve (4 Marks)
(b) Production System (3 Marks)
OR
Characteristics of Strategic Business Unit (SBU) (3 Marks)
Answer
(a) Experience curve is similar to learning curve which explains the efficiency gained by workers through repetitive productive work.
Experience curve is based on the commonly observed phenomenon that unit costs decline as a firm accumulates experience in terms of
a cumulative volume of production.
The implication is that larger firms in an industry would tend to have lower unit costs as compared to those of smaller organizations, thereby
gaining a competitive cost advantage. Experience curve results from a variety of factors such as learning effects, economies of scale,
product redesign and technological improvements in production.
(b) Production System is concerned with the capacity, location, layout, product or service design, work systems, degree of automation,
extent of vertical integration, and such factors. Strategies related to production system are significant as they deal with vital issues
affecting the capability of the organisation to achieve its objectives.
Strategy implementation would have to take into account the production system factors as they involve decisions which are long-term in
nature and influence not only the operations capability of an organisation but also its ability to implement strategies and achieve
objectives.
or
Strategic Business Unit (SBU) is a unit of the company that has a separate mission and objectives and which can be planned independently
from other businesses of the orgnanisation. The three most important characteristics of SBU are:
It is a single business or a collection of related businesses which offer scope for independent planning and which might feasibly stand
alone from the rest of the organization.
Has its own set of competitors.
Has a manager who has responsibility for strategic planning and profit performance. He has control of profit-influencing factors.