8080 - PDF - 2019 12 14 19 09 36 PDF

PHYSICS
TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2020

 

INFORM ATIO
Course : VIJETA (JP) & ANOOP(EP) Date : 14.12.2019

E E ST
DPP
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS
NO. 5
TEST INFORMATION
DATE : 18.12.2019 PART TEST (MPT) - 03
Syllabus : Geometrical Optics, Electrostatics, Gravitation, Current Electricity, Heat Transfer,
Measurement Error & Experiments and Capacitance.
DPP Syllabus : Geometrical Optics, Electrostatics, Gravitiation.
REVISION DPP No. # 5

Total Marks : 300 Max. Time: 180 min.
Single correct Objective ('–1' negative marking) Q.1 to Q.60 (4 marks) [240]
Integer type Questions (‘0’ negative marking) Q.61 to Q.75 (4 marks) [60]
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 60 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Assuming the earth to be a homogeneous sphere of radius R, its density in terms of G (constant of
gravitation) and g (acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth)
(1) 3g/(4RG) (2) 4g/(3RG) (3) 4Rg/(3G) (4) 4RG/(3g)
2. Two particles of combined mass M, placed in space with certain separation, are released. Interaction
between the particles is only of gravitational nature and there is no external force present. Acceleration
of one particle with respect to the other when separation between them is R, has a magnitude:
GM GM
(1) 2
(2) 2
2R R
2GM
(3) (4) not possible to calculate due to lack of information
R2
3. An isolated triple star system consists of two identical stars, each of mass m and a fixed star of mass
M. They revolve around the central star in the same circular orbit of radius r. The two orbiting stars are
always at opposite ends of a diameter of the orbit. The time period of revolution of each star around the
fixed star is equal to :
m
r
M
m
4r 3 / 2 2 r3 / 2 2 r3 / 2 4 r3 / 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
G(4M  m) GM G(M  m) G(M  m)
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PAGE NO.-1
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R
4. Gravitation field intensity at a distance from centre of the earth is E0. Here R is the radius of the
2
earth. The earth expands up to radius 2R such that total mass of the earth remains unchanged.
R
Assume earth of uniform density in both cases. What will be the field intensity at a distance from
2
the centre in final situation.
E0 E0 E0
(1) (2) (3) (4) E0
2 4 8
5. Figure shows variation of acceleration due to gravity with distance from centre of a uniform spherical
planet of radius R. What is value of (r2 – r1).
g
g0
g0/4
r1 r2 r
R 7R 4R
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2R
4 4 3
6. An infinite number of masses, each of one kg are placed on the +ve X axis at 1m, 2m, 4m,.................
from the origin. The magnitude of the gravitational field at origin due to this distribution of masses is:
4G 3G
(1) 2G (2) (3) (4) 
3 4
7. Two masses, 800 kg and 450 kg are at a distance 25 m apart. The magnitude of gravitational field
intensity at a point 20 m distant from the 800 kg mass and 15 m distant from the 450 kg mass will be
(in N/kg) – (G is universal gravitational constant) :
(1) 2G (2) 2 2 G (3) 4G (4) zero
8. A uniform thin rod of mass m and length R is placed normally on surface of earth as shown. The mass
of earth is M and its radius is R. Then the magnitude of gravitational force exerted by earth on the rod is
GMm GMm 4GMm GMm

(1) (2) (3) 2
(4)
2R 2
4R 2
9R 8R2
PAGE NO.-2
9. If Gravitational field due to uniform thin hemispherical shell at point P is , then the magnitude of
gravitational field at Q is (Mass of hemisphere is M, radius R) -
P
2R
2R
Q
GM GM GM GM
(1) 2
– (2) 2
+ (3) – (4) 2 –
2R 2R 4R 2R2
10. Energy needed for moving a mass of 2kg from the centre of the earth to its surface will be (in joule)
(R is radius of earth in m, g is in m/sec2)
3 gR
(1) gR (2) gR (3) (4) 2gR
2 2
11. Knowing the fact that potential energy increases with height, to obtain maximum energy from eating a
guavava which is the most suitable place.
(I) On the everest (II) Inside Resonance
(III) In the valleys of DehraDun (IV) At the earth's centre
(1) (I) & (II) (2) (II) & (III)
(3) (III) & (IV) (4) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
12. STATEMENT-1 : In free space a uniform spherical planet of mass M has a smooth narrow tunnel along
the its diameter. This planet and another superdense small particle of mass M start approaching
towards each other from rest under action of their gravitational forces . When the particle passes
through the centre of the planet, sum of kinetic energies of both the bodies is maximum.
STATEMENT-2 : When the resultant of all forces acting on a particle or a particle like object (initially
at rest) is constant in direction, the kinetic energy of the particle keeps on increasing.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
PAGE NO.-3
13. The earth is moving around the sun in an elliptical orbit. Point A is the closest and point B is the farthest
point in the orbit , as shown. In comparison to the situation when the earth passes through point B:
Earth
A B
Sun
(1) total energy of the earth-sun system is greater when the earth passes through point A.
(2) gravitational potential energy of the earth-sun system is greater when the earth passes through
point A.
(3) kinetic energy of the earth due to the motion around the sun is greater when it passes through the
point A.
(4) magnitude of angular momentum of the earth about the sun is greater when the earth passes
through point A.
14. A diverging lens of focal length –10 cm is moving towards right with a velocity 5 m/s.An object placed
on Principal axis is moving towards left with a velocity 3 m/s. The veocity of image at the instant when
the lateral magification produced is 1/2 is : (All velocities are with respect to ground)
(1) 3 m/s towards right (2) 3 m/s towards left (3) 7 m/s towards right (4) 7 m/s towards left
15. If the earth did not rotate on its axis, the change in the weight of a body at the equator would be about
(Take radius of earth = 6400 km)
(1) 0.003% larger (2) 0.3% larger (3) 0.3% smaller (4) 0.003% smaller
16. An unnumbered wall clock shows time 04: 25: 37, where 1st term represents hours, 2nd represents
minutes & the last term represents seconds. What time will its image in a plane mirror show.
(1) 08: 35: 23 (2) 07: 35: 23 (3) 07: 34: 23 (4) none of these
17. A linear object AB is placed along the axis of a concave mirror. The object is moving towards the mirror
with speed V. The speed of the image of the point A is 4 V and the speed of the image of B is also 4V.
If centre of the line AB is at a distance L from the mirror then length of the object AB will be
A B
3L 5L 4L
(1) (2) (3) L (4)
2 3 3
18. A point object ' O ' is at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror. The mirror starts to move at a speed
u, in a direction perpendicular to the principal axis. Then the initial velocity of the image is:
(1) 2 u, in the direction opposite to that of mirror's velocity
(2) 2 u, in the direction same as that of mirror's velocity
(3) zero
(4) u, in the direction same as that of mirror's velocity.
PAGE NO.-4
19. Which of the following relations is correct for a spherical mirror if a point object is kept on the principal
axis. [‘P’ is pole, ‘C’ is centre object is at point ‘O’, image is at point ‘’]
OP P OP P PC P O P
(1) = (2)  (3)  (4) 
OC C C OC PO PC CP CO
20. A composite of three slabs (of refractive index n 1 = 1.2, n2 = 1.4 and n3 = 1.6) of identical thickness is
made in three different ways as shown in figure 1, figure 2 and figure 3. A ray of light is incident on
lower surface of all three arrangements at same angle of incidence. Let D 1, D2 and D3 be the net lateral
displacement of emergent ray due to arrangement 1 (figure-1) arrangement 2 (figure-2) and
arrangement 3(figure-3) respectively. Then pick the correct choice(s).
emergent ray emergent ray emergent ray
n3 = 1.6 n2 = 1.4 n1 = 1.2

n2 = 1.4 n3 = 1.6 n2 = 1.4
n1 = 1.2 n1 = 1.2 n3 = 1.6
i i i
incident ray incident ray incident ray
(Fig. 1) (Fig. 2) (Fig. 3)
(1) D1 > D2 (2) D2 > D3 (3) D3 > D1 (4) D1 = D2 = D3
21. A prism of refractive index g deviates the incident ray towards its base. If it is immersed in a
transparent liquid of refractive index l such that l > g then prism would
(1) deviate the ray towards its base (2) deviate the ray away from its base
(3) bot deviate the ray at all (4) nothing can be said
22. A ray of light incident on one of the face of a prism as shown. After refraction through this surface ray is
incident on base of the prism. The refractive index of the prism is 3 .The net deviation of the ray due
to prism is-
30°
67° 67°
(1)60o clockwise (2)166o clockwise (3)104o clockwise (4)104o anticlockwise
23. A concave spherical surface of radius of curvature 10 cm separates two mediums X and Y of refractive
indices 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. Centre of curvature of the surface lies in the medium X. An object is
placed in medium X.
(1) Image is always real
(2) Image is real if the object distance is greater than 90 cm.
(3) Image is always virtual
(4) Image is virtual only if the object distance is less than 90 cm.
PAGE NO.-5
24. Select the correct characteristics of the image of a real object formed by a lens of focal length f from the
choices given below :
Nature of lens and Position Characteristics of the image observed :
Lens is converging and 2f away from the
(i) (A) virtual, erect, diminished
object
Lens is converging and between f and 2f
(ii) (B) virtual, erect, magnified.
from the object
Lens is diverging and distant f from the
(iii) (C) real, inverted, diminished
object.
Lens is converging and less than f from
(iv) (D) real, inverted, magnified
the object.
(E) real, inverted, same size.
(1) (ii) – C (2) (iii) – B (3) (i) – E (4) (iv) – A
25. A stationary point object (O) is at a distance h from water surface in which a plane
mirror is placed at a depth d. An observer sees the image of object in mirror (as shown).
If the mirror starts mov sing upward with constant speed ' v' then speed of image formed
by plane mirror as observed by observer will be :
Observer
n=1 h
n=4/3 d
3
(1) v upwards (2) v upwards (3) 2v upwards (4) v downwards
2
26. A convex lens forms inverted image of a real object on a fixed screen. The size of image is 12 cm.
When lens is displaced 20 cm along principle axis it again forms a real image of size 3 cm on the
screen. Focal length of the lens is. (Assume image formation only by paraxial rays)
40 80 50
(1) cm (2) cm (3) 20 cm (4) cm
3 3 3
27. The following data are given for a crown glass prism ;
refractive index for blue light nb = 1.521
refractive index for red light nr = 1.510
refractive index for yellow light n y = 1.550
Dispersive power of a parallel glass slab made of the same material is :
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.02 (3) 0.03 (4) 0
PAGE NO.-6
28. You are provided four converging lenses with following specifications.
L1 L2 L3 L4
Focal length 100 cm 100 cm 5 cm 5 cm
Diameter of aperture 2 cm 30 cm 20 cm 1 cm
Which of the following pair will be preferred to construct telescope.

(1) L1 and L2 (2) L1 and L3 (3) L2 and L4 (4) L3 and L4
29. Which of the following is incorrect?

(1) Far-sightedness can be corrected using convex lens
(2) Near sightedness can be corrected using convexo-concave lens
(3) Cassegrain telescope is free from chromatic aberration
(4) In case of compound microscope, if final image is formed at infinity then, magnifying power and
magnification will be equal.
30. An astronomical telescope has an eyepiece of focal-length 5 cm. If the angular magnification in normal
adjustment is 10, when final image is at least distance of distinct vision (25cm) from eye piece, then
angular magnification will be:
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 50 (4) 60
31. In a compound microscope the focal length of objective lens is 1.2 cm and focal length of eye piece is
3.0 cm. When object is kept at 1.25 cm in front of objective, final image is formed at infinity. Magnifying
power of the compound microscope should be:
(1) 400 (2) 200 (3) 100 (4) 150
32. An astronomical telescope has an objective of focal length 200 cm and an eye piece of focal length 4
cm. The telescope is focused to see an object 10 km from the objective. The final image is formed at
infinity. The length of the tube and angular magnification produced by it is
(1) 204 cm, –50 (2) 200 cm, –50 (3) 204 cm, –100 (4) 200 cm, –100
33. The far point of a short sighted eye is 400 cm. The power of the lens is:
(1) - 2 D (2) - 1D (3) - 0.5 D (4) - 0.25 D
 4
34. A driver at a depth of 12 cm in water     seens the sky in a cone of semi vertical angle:
 3
3 4 4
(1) 90o (2) sin1 (3) tan1 (4) sin1
4 3 3
35. The figure shows a charge q placed inside a cavity in an uncharged conductor. Now if an external
electric field is switched on:
(1) Only induced charge on outer surface will redistribute.

(2) Only induced charge on inner surface will redistribute.
(3) Both induced charge on outer and inner surface will redistribute.
(4) Force on charge q placed inside the cavity will change.
PAGE NO.-7
36. In the figure two concentric conducting shells of radius R & 2 R are shown. The inner shell is charged
with Q and the outer shell is uncharged. The amount of energy dissipated when the shells are
connected by a conducting wire is:
k Q2 k Q2 k Q2 3kQ2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4R 2R 8R 4
37. Two large parallel conducting plates of net charge 2Q and –Q are placed in a uniform external electric
Q
field perpendicular to plates as shown. The surface area of each plates is A. The charge on the
2A0
left surface of the left plate and right surface of the right plate are respectively-
Q
E
2A0
2Q –Q
(1) Q/2 and -3Q/2 (2) Q and 0 (3) 0 and Q (4) Q/2 and Q/2
38. Two infinitely large charged planes having uniform surface charge density + and – are placed along
x-y plane and yz plane respectively as shown in the figure. Then the nature of electric lines of forces in
x-z plane is given by:
z –
+ x
z z z z
x x x x
(1) (2) (3) (4)
PAGE NO.-8
39. Two equipotential spherical surfaces having potential 20 V and 0 V are as shown in figure. There is no
charge anywhere in space except on the surface of both the spheres. Then which of the following figure
represents the nature of electric field in region between the spherical surfaces by electric lines of forces.
0V
20V
(1) (2) (3) (4)
40. Eight point charges (can be assumed as small spheres uniformly charged and their centres at the
corner of the cube) having values q each are fixed at vertices of a cube. The electric flux through
square surface ABCD of the cube is
q q q q
(1) (2) (3) (4)
24 0 12 0 6 0 8 0
41. Figure above shows a closed Gaussian surface in the shape of a cube of edge length 3.0 m. There
exists an electric field given by = [(2.0x + 4.0)i + 8.0 j + 3.0 k] N/C, where x is in metres, in the region in
which it lies. The net charge in coulombs enclosed by the cube is equal to
(1) – 54 0 (2) 6 0 (3) –6 0 (4) 54 0
42. Charge density () in a solid sphere varies with radial distance from centre (r) as shown in the graph:
Electric field intensity at a point r = r0 is:

0r0 0r0 20r0 0r0
(1) (2) (3) (4)
0 20 0 4 0
PAGE NO.-9
43. A dipole is kept at origin along x - axis. An another dipole is placed at point A(a, a) as shown. If
potential energy of system of dipoles p and p1 is minimum at angle  then value of tan is:
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

44. A dipole of dipole moment p  p î is kept at the centre of a circle of radius r as shown in the figure. The
radius of the circle is very large in comparison to the distance between the two charges of the dipole. A
& B are two points on the axis and C & D are two points on the equitorial line of the dipole. If V A, VB, VC
and VD are potentials at A, B, C and D respectively then, which of the following is correct?
C
B A
p
D
2kp kp
(1) VA - VB=0, VA - VD = 2
(2) VA - VB=0, VA - VD =
r r2
2kp kp 2kp 2kp
(3) VA - VB= 2
, VA - VD = (4) VA - VB= 2
, VA - VD =
r r 2
r r2
45. In the arrangement shown in figure-1, force on point charge at origin due to short dipole is Fi. ˆ If the
dipole is now rotated anticlockwise by 90º (as shown in figure 2), force acting on point charge will be
F F
(1) ĵ (2)  ĵ (3) 2 F ĵ (4) – 2 F ĵ
2 2
PAGE NO.-10
46. A dipole of dipole moment P = 2 î – 3 ĵ + 4 k̂ (C-m) is kept at point A whose coordinates are
(1, –1, 3). If an external electric field E = 5 î + 2 ĵ – 3 k̂ (V/m) is applied. The potential energy of the
dipole will be.
(1) 2.8 J (2) 4 J (3) 5.4 J (4) 8 J
47. A charge ' q ' is carried from a point A (r, 135º) to point B (r, 45º) following a path which is a quadrant of
circle of radius ' r '. If the dipole moment is P , the work done by external agent is:
qP 2 qP qP
(1) zero (2) (3) (4)
40r 2
40r 2 40r
1 1 1
48. Electrical potential ' v ' in space as a function of co-ordinates is given by, v = + + . Then the
x y z
electric field intensity at (1, 1, 1) is given by:

(1)  î  ˆj  kˆ  (2) î  ˆj  kˆ (3) zero (4)
1
3
 î  ˆj  kˆ

49. A graph of the x component of the electric field as a function of x in a region of space is shown. The Y
and Z components of the electric field are zero in this region. If the electric potential is 10 V at the
origin, then potential at x = 2.0 m is :
(1) 10 V (2) 40 V (3) – 10 V (4) 30 V
50. A sphere of radius R is having charge Q uniformly distributed over it. The energy density of the electric
field in the air, at a distance r (r > R) is given by (in J/m 3) :
Q2 Q2 Q2 Q2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
32 2 0 R2 r 2 32 2 0 r 4 32 2 0 R 4 16 2 0 r 4
51. Two smooth spherical non conducting shells each of radius R having uniformly distributed charge Q & 
Q on their surfaces are released on a smooth non-conducting surface when the distance between their
centres is 5 R. The mass of A is m and that of B is 2 m. The speed of A just before A and B collide is:
1
[Neglect gravitational interaction] (take K = )
4 0
2kQ 2 4k Q2 8k Q 2 16k Q 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5mR 5mR 5 mR 5mR
PAGE NO.-11
52. Figure shows a hemisphere of charge Q and radius R and a sphere of charge 2Q and radius R. The
total potential energy of hemisphere is UH and that the sphere is US. Then.
(1) 2UH = US (2) 2UH < US

(3) 2UH > US (4) UH = US
53. A point charge ' Q ' is placed at the centre of a spherical cavity of radius ' b ' carved inside a solid
1
conducting sphere of radius ' a '. Then total energy of the system is:[k = ]
4 0
kQ2 kQ2 kQ2 kQ2 kQ2 kQ2 kQ2 kQ2

(1)  (2) + (3) + (4) –
2a 2b 2a 2b a b a b
54. A charged particle q is shot towards another charged particle Q which is fixed, with a speed v. It
approaches Q upto a closest distance r and then returns. If q was given a speed 2v, the closest
distance of approach would be:
(1) r (2) 2r (3) r/2 (4) r/4
55. An  - particle moves towards a nucleus always at rest. The kinetic energy of the  -particle at a large
distance is 10 M ev. If the atomic number of the nucleus is 50 then the minimum distance of approach is
(1) 1.44 x 10 - 14 m (2) 2.88 x 10 -14 m (3) 1.44 x 10 - 10 m (4) 2.88 x 10 - 10 m
56. The three point charges shown in the figure lie along a straight line. The energy needed to exchange
the position of the central + ve charge with one of the negative charges is
q2 3q2 q2 q2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 0 a 8 0 a 4 0 a 8 0 a
57. The side of the cube is '' and point charges are kept at each corner as shown in diagram. Interaction
electrostatic potential energy of all the charges is :
4kq2 3kq2 2kq2 kq2

(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 3
PAGE NO.-12
58. If the electric potential of the inner shell is 10 volt & that of the outer shell is 5 volt, then the potential at
the centre will be: (the shells are uniformly charged)
(1) 10 volt (2) 5 volt (3) 15 volt (4) 0
59. Potential difference between centre and the surface of sphere of radius R and having uniform volume
charge density  within it will be :
 R2  R2  R2
(1) (2) (3) 0 (4)
6 0 4 0 2 0
60. If uniform electric field E = E0 î  2 E0 ˆj , where E0 is a constant, exists in a region of space and
at (0, 0) the electric potential V is zero, then the potential at (x 0, 0) will be:
(1) zero (2)  E0 x0 (3)  2 E0 x0 (4)  5 E0 x0
SECTION-II : (INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS)

 This section contains Fifteen (15) questions. The answer to each question is NUMERICAL VALUE with
two digit integer and decimal upto one digit.
61. The gravitational field in a region is given by E = 5 N/kg î + 12 N/kg ĵ . If the origin is taken as 72 J
potential energy, then the potential energy at (0, 5) is: (for 1 kg mass)
62. A comet is in elliptical orbit around the sun. In this orbit the comet's smallest distance from the sun is
72 × 106 m and its largest distance from the sun is 144 × 106 m. The ratio of comet's maximum speed
to the minimum speed in the orbit is x then the value of 12x is: (Neglect the presence of all bodies other
than the sun and comet).
63. Two planets A and B travel counter clockwise in circular orbits around a fixed star. The radii of their
orbits are in the ratio 1 : 4. At some time, they are aligned as shown in the figure, making a straight line
with the star. After a certain time, planet A comes back to its initial position, completing one full circle
about the star. In the same time, angular displacement (in degree)of the planet B is :
A B
64. The escape velocity of the body from the earth is 11.2 km/sec. If the radius of the planet be half the
radius of earth and its mass is four times that of earth. The escape velocity of the planet is:
65. A satellite is seen after each 8 hours over equator at a place on the earth when its sense of rotation is
opposite to the earth. The time interval after which it can be seen at the same place when the sense of
rotation of earth & satellite is same will be (in hour):
66. The reflecting surface of a plane mirror is vertical. A particle is projected in a vertical plane which is also
perpendicular to the mirror. The initial speed of the particle is 10 m/s and the angle of projection is 60°
from the normal of the mirror. The point of projection is at a distance 5m from the mirror. The particle
moves towards the mirror. Just before the particle touches the mirror, the velocity (in m/s) of approach
of the particle and the image is ;
PAGE NO.-13
67. A convex mirror of radius of curvature 18 cm forms image of the sun. The diameter of the sun subtends
an angle 1º on the earth. If the diameter of the image is x then the value of 100x is (in cm):
68. Two point objects are placed on principal axis of a thin converging lens. One is 20 cm from the lens and
other is on the other side of lens at a distance of 40 cm from the lens. The images of both objects
coincide. The magnitude of focal length (in cm) of lens is
69. A mango tree is at the bank of a river and one of the branch of tree extends over the river. A tortoise
lives in river. A mango falls just above the tortoise. The acceleration (in m/s 2) of the mango falling from
tree appearing to the tortoise is (Refractive index of water is 4/3 and the tortoise is stationary)
70. Refractive indices of 2 different media with separating boundary at the diagonal of rectangular glass
slab are shown. Then angle of deviation (in degree) of the ray as shown in the figure, as shown in figure
is:
5
71. Two parallel rays are incident on the prism as shown in the figure. If ()prism = , the angle (in degree)
3
3
between the emerging rays is (given sin 250 = )
5 2
250
0
25
72. A thin Plano-convex lens is placed on a plane mirror as shown in the figure. The radius of curvature of
curved surface is 40cm. The refractive index of material of lens n1 = 1.5. The refractive index
surrounding is n0=1.2. An object O starts moving parallel to plane mirror. If final image of object moves
with same speed as that of the object initially then distance of object O from the plane mirror is 10x cm
then the value of x is.
O
n0
n1
PAGE NO.-14
73. Radii of curvature of a concavo-convex lens (refractive index = 1.5) are 40 cm (concave side) and 20
cm (convex side) as shown. The convex side is silvered. The distance x on the principal axis where an
object is placed so that its image is created on the object itself, is equal to (in cm):
////
/////
O
/////////////
x
////
/
R = 40 cm R = 20 cm
74. The focal length of a lens of refractive index 3/2 is 10 cm in air. The focal length (in cm) of that lens in a
medium of refractive index 7/5 is:
75. For a prism kept in air it is found that for an angle of incidence 60°, the angle of refraction 'A', angle of
deviation '' and angle of emergence 'e' become equal. If the refractive index of the prism is x then the
value of 10x is
ANSWER KEY OF REVISION DPP No. # 5

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (2)
8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (2)
22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (2) 26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (3)
29. (4) 30. (2) 31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (1)
36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (3) 41. (4) 42. (4)
43. (3) 44. (3) 45. (2) 46. (4) 47. (3) 48. (2) 49. (4)
50. (2) 51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (1) 54. (4) 55. (1) 56. (3)
57. (1) 58. (1) 59. (1) 60. (2) 61. 12.0 62. 24.0 63. 45.0
64. 32.0 65. 24.0 66. 10.0 67. 15.7 68. 26.7 69. 13.3 70. 30.0
71. 40.0 72. 16.0 73. 16.0 74. 70.0 75. 17.3
PAGE NO.-15
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
 
TARGET : JEE(MAIN) 2020

INFORM ATIO
E E ST
DPP
Course : VIJETA (JP) & ANOOP (EP) Date : 14.12.2019

NO. 5
TEST INFORMATION
DATE : 18.12.2019 MPT-3 (ONLINE)
Syllabus : Equivalent Concept, Mole concept, Gaseous State (Real & Ideal Gas), d & f-Block Element,
Aromatic compounds, Carbonyl compound, Acid & Acid derivatives, Biomolecule, polymer, chemistry in
every day life and Environmental chemistry
DPP Syllabus : Equivalent Concept, Mole concept, Gaseous State (Real & Ideal Gas), d & f-Block Element
DPP No. # 5
Total Marks : 300 Max. Time: 180 min.
SECTION - I
This section contains 60 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The sulphate of a metal M contains 9.87% of M. This sulphate is isomorphous with ZnSO4.7H2O . The
atomic weight of M is
(1) 40.3 (2) 36.3 (3) 24.3 (4) 11.3
2. In the reaction 2Na 2S2O3  I2  Na 2S4O6  2NaI , the equivalent weight of Na2S2O3 (mol. wt. = M) is
equal to
(1) M (2) M/2 (3) M/3 (4) M/4
3. What is the concentration of nitrate ions if equal volumes of 0.1 M AgNO3 and 0.1 MNaCl are mixed
together?
(1) 0.1 M (2) 0.2 M (3) 0.05 M (4) 0.25 M
4. 1.25 g of a solid dibasic acid is completely neutralised by 25 ml of 0.25 molar Ba(OH)2 solution.
Molecular mass of the acid is
(1) 100 (2) 150 (3) 120 (4) 200
5. Ratio of Cp and C v of a gas X is 1.4, the number of atom of the gas ‘X’ present in 11.2 litres of it at NTP
will be
(1) 6.02  1023 (2) 1.2  1023 (3) 3.01 1023 (4) 2.01 1023
6. On reduction with hydrogen, 3.6 g of an oxide of metal left 3.2 g of metal. If the vapour density of metal
is 32, the simplest formula of the oxide would be
(1) MO (2) M2O3 (3) M2O (4) M2O5
Corp. / Reg. Office: CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.)-324005
Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : contact@resonance.ac.in
PAGE-1
7. 250 ml of a sodium carbonate solution contains 2.65 grams of Na 2CO3 . If 10 ml of this solution is
diluted to one litre, what is the concentration of the resultant solution (mol. wt. of Na 2CO3 =106)
(1) 0.1 M (2) 0.001 M (3) 0.01 M (4) 104 M
8. Mohr's salt is dissolved in dil. H2SO4 instead of distilled water to

(1) Enhance the rate of dissolution (2) Prevent cationic hydrolysis
(3) Increase the rate of ionisation (4) Increase its reducing strength
9. KMnO4 reacts with oxalic acid according to the equation,
2MnO4  5C2O24  16H  2Mn2  10CO2  8H2O , here 20 ml of 0.1 M KMnO4 is equivalent to
(1) 20 ml of 0.5 M H2C2O4 (2) 50 ml of 0.1 M H2C2O4
(3) 50 ml of 0.5 M H2C2O4 (4) 20 ml of 0.1 M H2C2O4
10. A solution containing Na 2CO3 and NaOH requires 300 ml of 0.1 N HCl using phenolpthalein as an
indicator. Methyl orange is then added to the above titrated solution when a further 25 ml of 0.2 N HCl
is required. The amount of NaOH present in solution is (NaOH  40,Na2CO3  106)
(1) 0.6 g (2) 1.0 g (3) 1.5 g (4) 2.0 g
11. KMnO4 reacts with ferrous ammonium sulphate according to the equation
MnO4  5Fe 2   8H  Mn2   5Fe 3   4H2O , here 10 ml of 0.1 M KMnO4 is equivalent to
(1) 20 ml of 0.1 M FeSO4 (2) 30 ml of 0.1 M FeSO4
(3) 40 ml of 0.1 M FeSO4 (4) 50 ml of 0.1 M FeSO4
12. The ratio of amounts of H2S needed to precipitate all the metal ions from 100 ml of 1 M AgNO 3 and 100
ml of 1 M CuSO4 will be
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 :2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) None of these
M
13. A solution of 10 ml FeSO4 was titrated with KMnO4 solution in acidic medium. The amount of
10
KMnO4 used will be
(1) 5 ml of 0.1 M (2) 10 ml of 1.1 M (3) 10 ml of 0.5 M (4) 10 ml of 0.02 M
14. The ratio of the molar amounts of H2S needed to precipitate the metal ions from 20mL each of
1M Cd(NO3 )2 and 0.5M CuSO4 is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 (4) Indefinite
15. 10 dm3 of N2 gas and 10 dm3 of gas X at the same temperature contain the same number of molecules. The
gas X is :
(1) CO (2) CO 2 (3) H2 (4) NO
16. The set of numerical coefficient that balances the equation K 2CrO 4  HCl  K 2Cr2O7  KCl  H2O is
(1) 1, 1, 2, 2, 1 (2) 2, 2, 1, 1, 1 (3) 2, 1, 1, 2, 1 (4) 2, 2, 1, 2, 1
17. A 100 ml solution of 0.1 n HCl was titrated with 0.2 N NaOH solution. The titration was discontinued
after adding 30 ml of NaOH solution. The remaining titration was completed by adding 0.25 N KOH
solution. The volume of KOH required for completing the titration is
(1) 70 ml (2) 32 ml (3) 35 ml (4) 16 ml
PAGE-2
18. In the following reaction, which choice has value twice that of the equivalent mass of the oxidising agent
SO2  H2O  3S  2H2O
(1) 64 (2) 32 (3) 16 (4) 48
19. The Vander Waal's equation explains the behaviour of

(1) Ideal gases (2) Real gases (3) Vapour (4) Non-real gases
20. Gases deviate from the ideal gas behaviour because their molecules
(1) Possess negligible volume (2) Have forces of attraction between them
(3) Are polyatomic (4) Are not attracted to one another
21. The compressibility factor of a gas is defined as Z  PV / RT . The compressibility factor of ideal gas is
(1) 0 (2) Infinity (3) 1 (4) –1
22 In Vander Waal's equation of state for a non-ideal gas, the term that accounts for intermolecular forces
is
 a 
(1) (V  b) (2) (RT )1 (3)  P   (4) RT
 V2 
23. Vander Waal's equation of state is obeyed by real gases. For n moles of a real gas, the expression will
be
 P na   V   a 
(1)       RT (2)  P   (V  b)  nRT
 n V2   n b   V2 
 na   n 2a 
(3)  P   (nV  b)  nRT (4)  P  2  (V  nb)  nRT
 V2   V 

24. Any gas shows maximum deviation from ideal gas at

(1) 0 o C and 1 atmospheric pressure (2) 100 o C and 2 atmospheric pressure
(3)  100o C and 5 atmospheric pressure (4) 500 o C and 1 atmospheric pressure
25. The temperature at which the second virial coefficient of real gas is zero is called
(1) Critical temperature (2) Eutetic point
(3) Boiling point (4) Boyle's temperature
26. When is deviation more in the behaviour of a gas from the ideal gas equation PV  nRT
(1) At high temperature and low pressure (2) At low temperature and high pressure
(3) At high temperature and high pressure (4) At low temperature and low high pressure
27. The ratio of root mean square velocity to average velocity of gas molecules at a particular temperature
is
(1) 1.086 : 1 (2) 1 : 1.086 (3) 2 : 1.086 (4) 1.086 : 2
28. Which is not true in case of an ideal gas

(1) It cannot be converted into a liquid
(2) There is no interaction between the molecules
(3) All molecules of the gas move with same speed
(4) At a given temperature, PV is proportional to the amount of the gas
29. Postulate of kinetic theory is

(1) Atom is indivisible
(2) Gases combine in a simple ratio
(3) There is no influence of gravity on the molecules of a gas
(4) None of the above
PAGE-3
30. According to kinetic theory of gases,
(1) There are intermolecular attractions
(2) Molecules have considerable volume
(3) No intermolecular attractions
(4) The velocity of molecules decreases after each collision
31. In deriving the kinetic gas equation, use is made of the root mean square velocity of the molecules
because it is
(1) The average velocity of the molecules
(2) The most probable velocity of the molecules
(3) The square root of the average square velocity of the molecules
(4) The most accurate form in which velocity can be used in these calculations
32. Kinetic energy of a gas depends upon its

(1) Molecular mass (2) Atomic mass (3) Equivalent mass (4) None of these
33. The kinetic theory of gases perdicts that total kinetic energy of a gaseous assembly depends on
(1) Pressure of the gas (2) Temperature of the gas
(3) Volume of the gas (4) Pressure, volume and temperature of the gas
34. If P, V, T represent pressure, volume and temperature of the gas, the correct representation of Boyle's
law is
1
(1) V  (at constant P) (2) PV  RT
T
(3) V  1 / P (at constant T) (4) PV  nRT
35. At constant temperature, in a given mass of an ideal gas

(1) The ratio of pressure and volume always remains constant
(2) Volume always remains constant
(3) Pressure always remains constant
(4) The product of pressure and volume always remains constant
36. Air at sea level is dense. This is a practical application of

(1) Boyle's law (2) Charle's law (3) Avogadro's law (4) Dalton's law
37. If 20 cm 3 gas at 1 atm. is expanded to 50 cm 3 at constant T, then what is the final pressure
1 1 1
(1) 20  (2) 50  (3) 1   50 (4) None of these
50 20 20
38. Amongst TiF62 , CoF63  , Cu 2 Cl 2 and NiCl 42  (Atomic number Ti  22, Co  27, Cu  29, Ni  28 ). The
colourless species are
(1) CoF63  and NiCl 42  (2) TiF62  and CoF63 
(3) Cu 2 Cl 2 and NiCl 42  (4) TiF62  and Cu 2 Cl 2
39. The colour of K 2 Cr2 O7 changes from red orange to lemon yellow on treatment with aqueous KOH
because of
(1) The reduction of Cr VI to Cr III
(2) The formation of chromium hydroxide
(3) The conversion of dichromate to chromate
(4) The oxidation of potassium hydroxide to potassium peroxide
40. The form of iron having the highest carbon content is

(1) Cast iron (2) Wrought iron (3) Strain steel (4) Mild steel
PAGE-4
41. Aqueous solution of ferric chloride is
(1) Acidic (2) Basic (3) Neutral (4) Amphoteric
42. The spin magnetic moment of cobalt in the compound Hg[Co (SCN )4 ] is
(1) 3 (2) 8 (3) 15 (4) 24
43. 4 K 2 Cr2 O7   4 K 2 CrO4  3O 2  X . In the above reaction X is

heat
(1) CrO3 (2) Cr2 O7 (3) Cr2 O 3 (4) CrO5
44. Which of the following is not oxidized by O 3

(1) KI (2) FeSO 4 (3) KMnO 4 (4) K 2 MnO4
45. Ferrous sulphate on strong heating gives

(1) SO 2 (2) Fe2 (SO 4 )3 (3) FeO  SO 3 (4) Fe2 O3  SO 2  SO 3
46. Copper displaces which of the metal from their salt solutions
(1) AgNO3 (2) ZnSO 4 (3) FeSO 4 (4) All of these
47. Which of the following pair of ions may exhibit same colour
(1) Cr    and Fe   (2) Ti    and V   (3) Fe    and Mn   (4) Cu  and Ni  
48. Cerium (Z  58) is an important member of the lanthanoids. Which of the following statements about
cerium is incorrect
(1) The +4 oxidation state of cerium is not known in solutions
(2) The +3 oxidation state of cerium is more stable than the +4 oxidation state
(3) The common oxidation states of cerium are +3 and +4
(4) Cerium (IV) acts as an oxidizing agent
49. In acidic medium potassium dichromate acts as an oxidant according to the equation,
Cr2 O72   14 H   6 e   2Cr 3   7 H 2 O . What is the equivalent weight of K 2 Cr2 O7 ? (mol. Wt. = M)
(1) M (2) M / 2 (3) M / 3 (4) M / 6
50. AgCl dissolves in a solution of NH 3 but not in water because
(1) NH 3 is a better solvent than H 2 O (2) Ag  forms a complex ion with NH 3

(3) NH 3 is a stronger base than H 2 O (4) The dipole moment of water is higher than NH 3
51. When hypo solution is added to cupric sulphate solution, the blue colour of the latter is discharged, due
to formation of
(1) CuS 2 O 3 (2) Na 2 S 4 O 6 (3) [Cu6(S2O3)5]–4 (4) Cu 2 O
52. Light green crystals of ferrous sulphate lose water molecule and turn brown on exposure to air. This is
due to its oxidation to
(1) Fe 2 O 3 (2) Fe2 O 3 .H 2 O (3) Fe(OH )SO 4 (4) Fe2 O 3  FeO
53. Which one of the following is reduced by hydrogen peroxide in acid medium
(1) Potassium permanganate (2) Potassium iodide
(3) Ferrous sulphate (4) Potassium ferrocyanide
54. Suppose 40% w/w aqueous solution of glucose (C6H12O6) and 20% w/w aqueous solution of urea
(NH2CONH2) have equal molarity, then which solution has higher density :
(1) Both have equal density (2) Glucose solution
(3) Urea solution (4) Cannot be predicted
PAGE-5
55. How many ml water should be added to 100ml HCl solution (d = 1.5 g/ml) 80% by wt. to make it a
solution of 40% by wt. of density = 1 g/ml.
(1) 100 ml (2) 300 ml (3) 200 ml (4) none of these
56. In the redox reaction

MnO4- + C2O42- + H+  Mn2+ + CO2 + H2O (Unbalance equation)
20 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 react quantitatively with
(1) 20 mL of 0.1 M oxalate (2) 40 mL of 0.1 M oxalate
(3) 50 mL of 0.25 M oxalate (4) 50mL of 0.1 M oxalate
57. X forms of oxide X2O3. 0.36 grams of X forms 0.56 grams of X2O3. So the atomic weight of X is :
(1) 36 (2) 565 (3) 28.2 (4) 43.2
58. An unknown gaseous hydrocarbon and oxygen gas are mixed in volume ratio 1 : 7 respectively and
exploded. The resulting mixture upon cooling occupied a volume of V mL, half of which got absorbed in
aq. KOH (absorbs CO2) and the remaining half was absorbed in alkalline pyrogallol solution (absorbs
O2). Assuming all volumes to be measured under identical conditions :
(1) The molecular formula of hydrocarbon can be C2H6.
(2) The resulting mixture obtained after cooling contains 50% O 2 and 50% CO by mole.
(3) The molecular formula of hydrocarbon can be C3H4.
(4) Molecular mass of hydrocarbon is definitely less than 28 u.
59. Diborane (B2H6) reacts with water to give boric acid (H3BO3) and hydrogen gas. How much boric acid
can be prepared using 98 g of diborane and 81 g of H2O ? (Take: atomic mass B = 11)
(1) 93 g (2) 98 g (3) 104 g (4) 112 g
60. What volume of 0.2 M Ba(OH)2 must be added to 300 mL of a 0.08 M HCl solution to get a solution in
which the molarity of hydroxyl (OH–) ions is 0.08 M ?
(1) 375 mL (2) 300 mL (3) 225 mL (4) 150 mL
SECTION-II :
(INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS)
This section contains Fifteen (15) questions. The answer to each question is NUMERICAL VALUE with two
digit integer and decimal upto one digit.
61. Calculate the molar volume of Van der waal's gas at 8.21 atm and 500 K temperature. Given a = 8.21
atm L2 mole–2 and b = 0.2 Lmol-1.
62. Calculate number of carbon atoms in molecular formula of a compound with minimum possible molar
mass having following composition (by mass) S = 16%, C = 4%, O = 4%
63. The oxidation number of Cr in the product of the reaction of K2Cr2O7 with KOH is
64. Number of pairs of ions which are coloured in aqueous solutions ?

(i) Ti3+, V3+ (ii) Cu+, Sc3+ (iii) Fe2+, Fe3+ (iv) Co2+ , Ni2+
2+
(v) Zn , Ag +
65. How many of the following oxides show amphoteric nature?

V2O3, V2O5, CrO, CrO3, Cr2O3, Mn2O7, FeO, Cu2O, ZnO.
66. How many of the following aqueous solutions are colored ?

V4+, V3+, V2+, Cr3+, Mn3+, Ti4+, Co2+, Ni2+, Cu2+, Zn2+, Sc3+, Ti3+
67. 3.5 g of a metal nitride M3N upon analysis was found to contain 2.1 g of metal M. Then, find the number
of gram-atoms in 63 g of metal M.
PAGE-6
68. A sample of CH4 gas has the same mass as 2 × 107 molecules of C4H8. How many CH4 molecules are
present in the sample ?
(Report your answer as X, where Number of CH4 molecules = X × 107)
69. Find total moles of S8 obtained if all S from 3 mole of S4N4 and 196 g H2SO4 and 128 g SO2 is
converted into S8.
70. The mass of hydrocarbon (in gram) that should be burnt to produce 11.2 L CO 2 (dH2O = 1 g/ml) and 18
ml H2O at STP is.
71. A mercury column of length 10 cm is in the middle of a horizontal tube of length 1 m closed at both
ends containing same amount of a gas in both columns. If the tube is placed vertically, the mercury
225
column will shift through a distance of cm from its initial position. Find the final pressure of gas in
13
upper column (in cm of Hg) when the tube is placed vertically.
72. An L.P.G. cylinder contains 15 kg of butane gas at 27°C and 10 atmospheric pressure. It was leaking
and its pressure fell down to 8 atmospheric pressure after one day. The gas leaked (in kg) is.
73. Calculate the change in pressure (in atm) when 2 mole of NO and 16 g O 2 in a 6.25 litre originally at
27°C react to produce the maximum quantity of NO2 possible according to the equation.
1
(Take R  atm L/mol K)
12
2NO(g) + O2(g)  2NO2(g)
74. Let Z be the compressibility factor for a real gas at critical conditions and Vander Waal constant b is
R  TC 
dipendent as b = m  P  , then find the product (Z × m).
 C
75. Compressibility factor (Z) for N2 at – 23ºC and 25 atm pressure is 1.2. Calculate moles of N 2 gas
required to fill a gas cylinder of 7 liter capcacity under the given conditions :
 1 1 1 
 Use R  12 lt atmmol K 
 
ANSWER KEY OF REVISION DPP No. # 5

1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (1)
8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (2)
15. (1) 16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (2) 21. (3)
22. (3) 23. (4) 24. (3) 25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (3)
29. (4) 30. (3) 31. (4) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (4)
36. (1) 37. (1) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (1) 42. (3)
43. (3) 44. (3) 45. (4) 46. (1) 47. (3) 48. (1) 49. (4)
50. (2) 51. (3) 52. (3) 53. (1) 54. (2) 55. (3) 56. (4)
57. (4) 58. (3) 59. (1) 60. (4) 61. (5) 62. (4) 63. (6)
64. (3) 65. (3) 66. (9) 67. (9) 68. (7) 69. (2) 70. (8)
71. (8) 72. (3) 73. (2) 74. (3) 75. (7)
PAGE-7
DPP
MATHEMATICS
TARGET : JEE(MAIN) 2020 
  INFORM ATIO

E E ST
Course :VIJETA (JP) & ANOOP (EP) Date: 14.12.2019

NO. 5
TEST INFORMATION
Date : 18-12-2019 MAIN PART TEST – MPT3
Syllabus : Statistics, Mathematical Reasoning, Sets and Relations, Functions and ITF, Indefinite and
Definite integration, Differential Equations.
DPP Syllabus: Statistics Mathematical Reasoning, Sets and Relations, Functions and ITF.
Revision DPP No. # 5

Total Marks : 300 Max. Time : 180 min.
SECTION - I
This section contains 60 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The range of the function f(x) = [x2]– [x]2 , x[0,2] where [.] denotes the greatest integer function, is
(1) {0} (2) {0,1} (3) {1,2} (4) {0,1,2}
2. If f(x) = ex and g(x) = loge x then which of following is not correct ?

(1) f(x) is one-one function (2) f(x) = g(x) is true for two values of x
(3) f(x) = g(x) is true for no value of x (4) f(x) and g(x) curves never intersect
3. Let N1 be the number of injective mappings from a set with m elements to a set with n elements when
m  n. Now let number of injective mappings when m > n, is N2. Then
(1) N1 > N2 (2) N1 < N2 (3) N1 = N2 (4) N1 + N2 = m + n
 x2  1 
4. The range of the function f(x) = tan–1  2  , x  R , is
x  3
        
(1)  ,  (2)  ,  (3)  ,  (4) None of these
6 2  6 3  6 4 
5. The function f: R  R defined by f(x) = (x – a) (x – b) (x – c) where a, b, c  R is

(1) not one-one but onto (2) one-one but not onto
(3) both one-one and onto (4) neither one-one nor onto
6. The function 'g' defined by g(x) = sin sin1  x   cos  sin1 x   1 where{x} is fractional part of x, is
(1) an even function (2) an odd function
(3) neither even nor odd (4)unbounded
PAGE-1
 2x 
7. If f(x) = 2 tan–1 x + sin–1   then for x >1, f(x) =
 1  x2 

(1) sec–1 x (2) 4 sin–1 x (3)  (4)
2
 2x   2 , x  2

8. Let f : R R is defined as f(x) =  x . If f(x) is onto function then set of values of is
 2  10, x  2
(1) [1,4] (2) [–2, 3] (3) (0,3] (4) [2,5]
 3  5 2
9. If cos–1   sin–1 x = then which of the following is true ?
 2 36
 
1 1 3 1 1 
(1) 0 < x < (2) x= 2  (3) x > (4) 2 x= 1  sin
2 2 2 2 2 12
10. If f(x) = 1 + |x – 1|, –1  x  3 and g(x) = 2– |x + 1|, –2  x  2 then choose the appropriate option.
(1) fog(x) = x –1 for x(0, 1) (2) fof(x) = x for x(–1, 1)
(3) gog(x) = x for x(–1, 2) (4) all of these
 x 
11. Domain of y = log2   is
 x3
(1) (–, –3) (2) (–, –3)  (0,) (3) (0,) (4) (–,)
1
12. Domain of f(x) = where [.] is greatest integer function, contains the set
logx 2
(1) (1, 3) (2) [2, ) (3) (0, 1) (4) (1, 3]
13. Range of function f(x) = cos–1(–{x}) where {x} denotes fractional part of x, is
       
(1)  ,   (2)  ,   (3)  ,   (4)  0, 
2  2  2   2
14. Let f be a function such that f(x) = f(2–x) and g(x) = f(x+1) then
(1) g(x) is an odd function (2) g(x) an even function
(3) graph of g(x) is symmetrical about x = 1 (4) graph of f(x) is symmetrical about (1,0)

15. If 1  x  y  z and sin–1 x + sec–1 y – cot–1 z = then x2 – yz + z2 =
4
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 0 (4) –2
16. Solution of 3(cot–1 x)2 – 4 3 cot–1 x + 3 > 0 is

     
(1)  ,  (2)  – ,    ,  
6 3  6 3 
 1 
(3) (–, cot 3 )   cot ,  (4) (0, )
 3 
10
17.  tan(tan
n1
1
(2n  2) ) =
(1) 2046 (2) 2026 (3) 2016 (4) 2006
PAGE-2
18. Let f : [0, )  R be a function such that f(x) = x2 – x sin x – cos x. Then
(1) f(x) is one-one (2) f(x) is onto
(3) f(x) = –2 has one solution (4) f(x) is many-one
19. The function f(x) = |sin 4x| + |cos 2x|, is a periodic function with fundamental period :
 
(1) 2 (2)  (3) (4)
2 4
20. Let A = {x1, x2,......, x7} and B = {y1, y2, y3} be two sets containing seven and three distinct elements
respectively. The total number of functions f : A  B that are onto, if there exist exactly three elements
x in A such that f(x) = y2, is equal to :
(1) 14.7C3 (2) 16.7C3 (3) 14.7C2 (4) 12.7C2
1
21. For x  R, x  0, x  1, let f0(x)= and fn + 1(x) = f0  f(n (x) , n = 0, 1, 2,……… Then the value of
1 x
2 3
f100(3) + f1   + f2   is equal to :
3 2
4 1 5 8
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 3 3
22. Which of the following functions pair is identical ?

1 1
(1) f(x) = x, g(x) = (2) f(x) = cosx, g(x) =
1/ x 1  tan2 x
1
(3) f(x) = tan–1x + tan–1 , g(x)=sin–1x + cos–1x (4) f(x) = cos(sin–1x) , g(x) = 1 x 2
x

23. For x(0,1), let  = sin–1x,  = x,  = tan–1x, = cot–1x – .Which of the following is true?
2
(1) > > >  (2) > > >  (3) > > >  (4) > > > 
1 63 
24. The value of sin  sin 1 is
4 8 

1 1 1 1
(1) (2)    (3)   (4)
2 3 2 2 5
  50   31  
25. The value of sec sin1   sin 1
  cos cos  9   is
  9   
 10  
(1) sec   (2) sec     (3) 1   (4) –1
 9  9
26. If the function f :[1,  ) [1,  ) is defined by f(x) = 3x(x–1) ; then f–1 (x) is :
x(x–1)
 1
(1)  
3
(2)
1
2
1– 1  4log3 x  (3)
1
2

1  1  4log3 x  (4) not defined
3
27. 2cot–1(7) + cos–1   , in principal value, is equal to
5
 41   117   44   44 
(1) tan–1   (2) tan–1   (3) cos–1   (4) cos–1  
 117   125   125   117 
PAGE-3

28. The solution set of the inequality tan–1x + sin–1x  is
2
 5 1     5 1     
(1) [–1,1] (2)  ,1 (3)  ,1 (4)  5  1,1
 4   2   2 
 x
29. The algebraic expression for tan  sin 1 cos tan1  is
 2 
2 x 1 2
(1) (2)    (3)    (4)
x 2 x |x|

30. Expression  cot
n 1
–1
(n 2 – 3n  3) simplifies to
  3
(1) (2)     
(3) (4) 
4 2 4
31. Which of the following are correct for sets A, B and C ?
(1) A – B = A –(AB) (2) A – B = A –(AB)
(3) A – (B C) = (A – B)  (A – C) (4) A – B = A  B’
32. In a certain town, 25% of the families own a phone and 15% own a car; 65% families own neither a
phone nor a car and 2,000 families own both a car and a phone. Consider the following three
statements:
(1) 5% families own both a car and a phone (2) 35% families own either a car or a phone
(3) 40,000 families live in the town
Then,
(1) Only (2) and (3) are correct (2) Only (1) and (3) are correct
(3) All (1), (2) and (3) are correct (4) Only (1) and (2) are correct
33. Let A = {(x,y) : x > 0 , y > 0, x2 + y2 = 1} and let B = {(x,y) : x > 0, y > 0, x6 + y6  1.}. Then AB =
(1) A (2) B (3)   (4) {(0,1), (1,0)}
34. Let X be the set of all persons living in a state. Elements x and y in X are said to be related whenever y
is 5 years older than X. The relation X is
(1) reflexive only (2) symmetric only (3) symmetric & transitive (4) none of these
35. Let P = {(x, y) : x2 + y2 = 1, xR, yR} be a relation in R the set of real numbers then the relation P is
(1) reflexive only (2) symmetric only
(3) transitive only (4) reflexive and transitive only
36. If A = {1, 2, 3, 4} then the relation R = {(1, 3), (2, 4), (2, 3), (3, 1) defined on set A is
(1) reflexive (2) symmetric (3) transitive (4) none of these
37. Let P be the relation on the set of all real numbers such that P = {(a, b) : sec2 a – tan2 b =1}. Then P is :
(1) reflexive and symmetric but not transitive (2) reflexive and transitive but not symmetric
(3) symmetric and transitive but not reflexive (4) an equivalence relation
38. Let Q be the set of all rational numbers and R be the relation defined as
R = {(x, y) :1 + xy > 0, x, y  Q}, then relation R is :
(1) symmetric and transitive (2) reflexive and transitive
(3) an equivalence relation (4) reflexive and symmetric
39. Consider the following relations
R1 = { (x , y) : x, y are integers and x = ay or y = ax for some integer a }
R2 = {(x, y) : x, y are integers and ax + by = 1 for some integers a, b}
Then
(1) R2 is an equivalence relation but R1 is not (2) R1, R2 are not equivalence relations.
(3) R1, R2 are equivalence relations. (4) R1 is an equivalence relation but R2 is not
PAGE-4
40. The average weight of 9 men is x kg. After another man joins the group, the average increases by 5
percent. Now one more man joins the group and average returns to old level of x kg. Then
(1) 10th & 11th men weights are same (2) 10th man weighs half as much as 11th
(3) 10th man weighs twice as much as 11th (4) none of these
41. The average marks of 10 students in a class is 60 with standard deviation 4 while the average marks of
other 10 students is 40 with standard deviation 6. If all the 20 students are taken together, their
standard deviation will be
(1) 109 (2) 12 (3) 116 (4) 126
42. n observations on a variable Xi are Xi = A + iB for i = 1, 2, 3…..n where A, B are real constants. The
mean of these observation is
 n  1  n  1  n  1 n
(1) A + B   (2) nA + B   (3) A + Bn   (4) A + B  
 2   2   2  2
43. Coefficient of variance of a distribution is 60% and the standard deviation is 25. The arithmetic mean of
the distribution is
25 125 25
(1) (2) 35 (3) (4)
3 3 6
44. The mean deviation from mean of observations a, a + d, a + 2d, …..,a + 2nd is
n(n  1)d2 n(n  1)d2 n(n  1)
(1) (2) (3) a + nd (4) | d|
3 2 2n  1
45. In a set of 2n distinct observations, each of the observation below the median of all the observations is
increased by 5 and each of the remaining observations is decreased by 3. Then the mean of the new
set of observations:
(1) Increases by 1 (2) decreases by 1 (3) decreases by 2 (4) increases by 2
46. The mean and the median of 100 observations have been computed to be 60 and 70 respectively.
Later it was discovered that three observations which have been recorded as 18, 28 and 98 are actually
80, 26 and 38 respectively. If the mean and median are recalculated with actual observations, then :
(1) median will change but mean will not change (2) neither mean nor median will change
(3) both mean and median will change (4) mean will change but median will not change
47. The weighted mean of first n natural numbers whose weights are equal to the squares of the
corresponding numbers is
n 1 3nn  1 n  12n  1  nn  1
(1) (2)   (3) (4)
2 22n  1 6 2
48. Negation of statement "Manu is in class X or Anu is in class XII is

(1) Manu is not in class X but Anu is in class XII
(2) Manu is not in class X or Anu is not in class XII
(3) Neither Manu is in class X nor Anu is in class XII
 (4) None of these
49. Negation of statement " there is no bird who can swim" is
(1) All birds can swim (2) There is no bird who cannot swim
(3) There is a bird who cannot swim  (4) There is a bird who can swim
50. Which of the following is false ?
(1) ~(p ~q)  p  q (2) (p  ~q) is a tautology
(3) ~(p  q)  ~ p  q (4) p  q  ~p  q
51. p  (q  p) is equivalent to
(1) p  (p  q) (2) p  (p  q) (3) p  (p  q) (4) p  (p  q)
PAGE-5
52. If p : maths is interesting, q : maths is easy then p  (~p  q) is equivalent to
(1) If maths is easy then it is interesting (2) Either maths is easy or it is interesting
(3) If maths is interesting then it is easy (4) Maths is neither interesting nor easy
53. The converse of the statement " I go to school if it does not rain" is:
(1) If it rains, I do not go to school (2) If I do not go to school, it rains
(3) If it rains, I go to school (4) If I go to school, it does not rain
54. The contrapositive of the statement, “If x is a prime number and x divides ab then x divides a or x
divides b”, can be symbolically represented using logical connectives , on apporpriately-defined
statements p,q,r,s, as
(1) (~ r  ~ s)  ( ~ p  ~ q) (2) ( r  s)  ( ~ p ~ q)
(3) (~ r  ~ s)  ( ~ p  ~ q) (4) ( r  s)  ( ~ p  ~ q)
55. If p and q are two statements then ~(~p q)  (p q) is logically equivalent to
(1) p (2) q
(3) p  q (4) p  q
56. Which one of the following statements is a tautology ?

(1) p  (p  q) (2) (p  q)  q
(3) p  (p  q) (4) p  (q  p)
57. Let a Relation R on set N of natural numbers is defined as (x,y) x2–4xy+3y2 = 0 x,yN. Relation R
is
(1) reflexive (2) symmetric
(3) transitive     (4) equivalence
58. The statement [p (p  q)]  q, is :

(1) a fallacy (2) a tautology
(3) neither a fallacy nor a tautology (4) not a compound statement
59. The proposition (~ p)  (p ~ q) is equivalent to :

(1) p  ~ q (2) p  ~ q
(3) q  p (4) p ~ q
60. The statement pq is equivalent to

(1) p  q  (~ p  q) (2) p ~ q
(3) ~ p  q     (4)  p  q    ~ p ~ q 
SECTION-II : (INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS)

 This section contains Fifteen (15) questions. The answer to each question is NUMERICAL VALUE with
two digit integer and decimal upto one digit.
61. Let f : R  R be defined as f(x) = x + cos x + 2 and g(x) be the inverse function of f(x) then the value of
g’(3) + g”(3) is
1  sin x 1  x2 1  e x  e x 
62. Consider functions f1 (x) = , f2(x) = , f3(x) = 1– x, f4(x) = n  x  . How many of
1  sin x 2x 2 2  e  e x 
these functions are inverse of itself?
63. If f : R R , f(x) = x3 + 3 and g : R  R , g(x) = 2x + 1 then f–1og–1 (23) is equal to
64. Let f be a function defined from R+ to R+ and (f(xy))2 = x(f(y))2 x,yR+. If f(2) = 6 then f(50) =
PAGE-6
x
65. The number of points, at which the two curves y = and y = sin x intersect, is :
99
66. If f is a function of real variable x satisfying f (x + 4) – f (x + 2) +f(x) = 0, then f is a periodic function with
period:

67. The number of roots of the equation sin–1(1–x) + 2sin–1 x = , is
2
68. A, B, C are sets of letters needed to spell the words STUDENT, PROGRESS and CONGRUENT
respectively. Then n(ABC) =
69. Given the relation R = {(1, 2), (2, 3)} on set A = {1, 2, 3} . Find the minimum number of ordered pairs
which when added to R make it an equivalence relation.
70. A relation on the set A = {x : |x| < 3, xZ}, where Z is the set of integers defined by R = {(x, y) :
y = |x|, x  –1}. Then the number of elements in the power set of R is :
71. If the standard deviation of x1, x2, ….,xn is 3.5 then the standard deviation of
–2x1–3, –2x2– 3, ….,–2xn – 3 is
72. The mean deviation about mean of an ungrouped data is 10. If each observation is increased by 4%,
the revised mean deviation about new mean is
73. In a class of 20 students, each student can score either 10 or 0 marks in a certain examination.
The maximum possible variance in the marks of the students in the class is
74. If the mean and the standard deviation of 10 observations x1, x2........,x10 are 2 and 3 respectively, then
the mean of (x1 + 1)2, (x2 + 1)2,............,(x10 + 1)2 is equal to :
75. In a frequency distribution, the mean and median are 21 and 22 respectively. Its mode is
ANSWER KEY
PART - I
1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (3)
8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (3) 11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (2)
15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (1) 21. (3)
22. (4) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (4) 26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (3)
29. (4) 30. (3) 31. (1) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (2)
36. (4) 37. (3) 38. (4) 39. (2) 40. (4) 41. (4) 42. (1)
43. (3) 44. (4) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (2) 48. (3) 49. (4)
50. (2) 51. (2) 52. (3) 53. (4) 54. (3) 55. (1) 56. (3)
57. (1) 58. (2) 59. (2) 60. (1)
PART - II
61. 2.0 62. 2.0 63. 2.0 64. 30 65. 199 66. 12 67. 2
68. 11 69. 7 70. 16 71. 7 72. 10.4 73. 25 74. 18.0
75. 24
PAGE-7
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PHYSICS

TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2020

Course : VIJETA (JP) & ANOOP(EP) Date : 14.12.2019

DPP Syllabus : Geometrical Optics, Electrostatics, Gravitiation.

REVISION DPP No. # 5

GMm GMm 4GMm GMm

n3 = 1.6 n2 = 1.4 n1 = 1.2

(1)60o clockwise (2)166o clockwise (3)104o clockwise (4)104o anticlockwise

(E) real, inverted, same size.

(1) (ii) – C (2) (iii) – B (3) (i) – E (4) (iv) – A

Which of the following pair will be preferred to construct telescope.

29. Which of the following is incorrect?

(1) Only induced charge on outer surface will redistribute.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) – 54 0 (2) 6 0 (3) –6 0 (4) 54 0

Electric field intensity at a point r = r0 is:

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

(1) 10 V (2) 40 V (3) – 10 V (4) 30 V

(1) 2UH = US (2) 2UH < US

kQ2 kQ2 kQ2 kQ2 kQ2 kQ2 kQ2 kQ2

(1) r (2) 2r (3) r/2 (4) r/4

4kq2 3kq2 2kq2 kq2

(1) 10 volt (2) 5 volt (3) 15 volt (4) 0

SECTION-II : (INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS)

ANSWER KEY OF REVISION DPP No. # 5

Course : VIJETA (JP) & ANOOP (EP) Date : 14.12.2019

(1) 0.1 M (2) 0.001 M (3) 0.01 M (4) 104 M

8. Mohr's salt is dissolved in dil. H2SO4 instead of distilled water to

9. KMnO4 reacts with oxalic acid according to the equation,

19. The Vander Waal's equation explains the behaviour of

24. Any gas shows maximum deviation from ideal gas at

28. Which is not true in case of an ideal gas

29. Postulate of kinetic theory is

32. Kinetic energy of a gas depends upon its

35. At constant temperature, in a given mass of an ideal gas

36. Air at sea level is dense. This is a practical application of

40. The form of iron having the highest carbon content is

43. 4 K 2 Cr2 O7   4 K 2 CrO4  3O 2  X . In the above reaction X is

(1) CrO3 (2) Cr2 O7 (3) Cr2 O 3 (4) CrO5

44. Which of the following is not oxidized by O 3

45. Ferrous sulphate on strong heating gives

50. AgCl dissolves in a solution of NH 3 but not in water because

(1) NH 3 is a better solvent than H 2 O (2) Ag  forms a complex ion with NH 3

56. In the redox reaction

64. Number of pairs of ions which are coloured in aqueous solutions ?

65. How many of the following oxides show amphoteric nature?

66. How many of the following aqueous solutions are colored ?

ANSWER KEY OF REVISION DPP No. # 5

TARGET : JEE(MAIN) 2020 

  INFORM ATIO

Course :VIJETA (JP) & ANOOP (EP) Date: 14.12.2019

Revision DPP No. # 5

2. If f(x) = ex and g(x) = loge x then which of following is not correct ?

5. The function f: R  R defined by f(x) = (x – a) (x – b) (x – c) where a, b, c  R is

16. Solution of 3(cot–1 x)2 – 4 3 cot–1 x + 3 > 0 is

(1) 2046 (2) 2026 (3) 2016 (4) 2006

22. Which of the following functions pair is identical ?

48. Negation of statement "Manu is in class X or Anu is in class XII is

56. Which one of the following statements is a tautology ?

58. The statement [p (p  q)]  q, is :

59. The proposition (~ p)  (p ~ q) is equivalent to :

60. The statement pq is equivalent to