2nd SEMESTER OED

2nd SEMESTER OED
ENTR-112 WEEK 1-10

GRADE 12
AMALEAKS.BLOGSPOT.COM
Being the leader of the enterprise, entrepreneurs should possess which of the following
characteristics:
A:All of the answers correct
Development of core competencies requires investment in this.

Strategic Architecture requires the distillation of past and present data to answer which of
these questions.
A person who is able to identify business opportunities and implement actions to maximize on
the opportunities
A:Entrepreneur
The ability to do something successfully or efficiently
A:competency
In entrepreneurship, your life may lack stability and
A:Structure
A two bladed sword if not handled properly
A:outsourcing
Created when such innovation results in new demand
A:Wealth
This is not essential, but is normally a great help in thinking through the case for a new
business.
A:A formal business plan
Besides the inability to secure any type of employment this is the most basic reason for self-
employment.
A:Need to improve personal income
Entrepreneurs are capable of working for long hours and solving different complexities at the
same time.
A:Make stress work for them
Which of this is a personality of an entrepreneur?
Which of this is a job you can get with an Entrepreneurship degree?
A:Both of the given choices are correct
Involves innovation, risk taking, and decision-making
A:Image
The job of entrepreneur is not for
A:Everyone
Entrepreneurship is the career for you if you have this.
They need to know how to represent a company, manage accounts, and follow up on leads.
A: Sales
There are those people in society whose ultimate goal is to go into business at some defined
point life no matter how attractive wage employment might seem.
A:To fulfill a life-long ambition
A reason a person to strike out on his or her own rather than work inside a larger company.
A:All of answers correct
Outsourcing can give short term
A:Competitive Advantage
Act as the glue that bind businesses together as well as pave the way for new business
development
A:competences
The ability to implement creative ideas
A:Innovatineness
Core competencies play an important role in the process of advantage and we can identify
them using which of these tests?
Being an owner is the ultimate career in
A:Capitalism
Coined the term core competency in 1989.
A:Both Dr.C.K Prahalad
To undertake
A:Entreprendre
An individual who works to fill job openings in businesses or organizations
A:Recruiter
There are not enough employment opportunities in the formal sector. The small business sector
has the capacity to create many jobs.
A:Inability to secure a desirable job
The ability to generate ideas
A:Creativity
Without developing a core competency, a company may be highly profitable.
A:Only for a short period
Adequate reward
A:Profit
A person who helps others to acquire knowledge, competences or values
A:Teacher
The year Dr.C.K Prahalad and Prof. Gray Hamel coined core competency
A:1989
Entrepreneurs can choose the best way to do something, even if it is different from how they
want to do it.
A:Ability to accept change
You need to have heart, are motivated and
A:Driven
Which of these is a factor to consider before going into self-employment?
His definition of entrepreneurship placed an emphasis on innovation.
A:Joseph Schumpeter
One of the best things about pursuing a career as an entrepreneur is the wide-open
A:Possibilities
Eager for knowledge
A:Inquisitive
How many new businesses fail within 18 months of getting started?
A:Three out of five
Entrepreneurs are always alert to opportunities.
A:An eye for opportunity
This competencies are the collective learning of the organization, especially how to co-ordinate
the diverse production skill and integrate multiple stream of technologies
A:core
Which of these states the importance of core competencies?
Strategic architecture is a
A:roadmap
Their core competency is said to be content delivery, but they are now venturing into original
content creation too.
A:Netflix
Core capabilities are crucial for this
A:survival
As an organization, they developed products that are rich in design and user experience.
A:Apple
Strategic intent provides a basis for__________ the goals of the organization
A:stretching
The possibilities in entrepreneurship are
A:Endless
When teaching the entrepreneurial side, which one should you focus on?
Entrepreneurs are persistent and strongly believe that working hard will help them attain their
goals.
A:An appetite for hard work
In Entrepreneurship, you may become stressed. Why?
The ability to exert interpersonal influence by means of communication towards the
achievement of goals
A:Leadership
Crucial for survival but does not confer any specific differential advantage over other
competitors in the industry.
A:Core Capabilities
An intra company entrepreneur
A:Intrapreneur
Entrepreneurs most likely have a keen sense of what type of person is needed to fulfill a
position.
A:Recruiter
With entrepreneurial degrees are well suited for mid-level management
A:Graduates
It will be capable of creating more value if it has identified its core competencies
A:company
Core competencies play an important role in the process of
A:advantage
Entrepreneurs have many
A:Personalities
It is critical to find a balance between prospects and customers to ensure that your future
revenue is protected, while still keeping existing customers happy.
A:Focusing only on revenue
An entrepreneur may decide to offer a new product in a growth area rather than pursuing
sales of existing products that have minimum growth potential.
A:Growth potential
A person whose job or task is to seek financial support for a charity, institution, or other
enterprise.
A:Fund-raiser
Entrepreneurs enable citizens to survive comfortably without too much borrowing
A:Self-reliance
Just because you can innovate, does not always mean that you should.
A:Focusing only on innovation and the competition.
The most important advantage of having core competencies is having this.
A:Long-term competitive advantage
A set of circumstances that makes it possible to do something.
A:Opportunity
Market Potential will enable you to more accurately assess this.
If I had asked people what they wanted, they would have said faster horses.
A:Henry Ford
Enables you to concentrate on and solve your target market's problems.
A:Outside-in approach
Customers understand problems, but they cannot help you to move your product forward.
A:Focusing only on customers
Entrepreneurs do not give in to failure. Rather, they seek out the faults and weakness and
then correct them.
A:Perseverance
The next stage towards developing the core competencies is to leverage the current resources
of the organization.
A:Strategic Architecture
During this phase, it is time to take advantage of the situation and execute all of the great
ideas and projections ascertained from the two prior phases.
A:Opportunity Realization
Critical to determining attractiveness.
A:Duration
People who have not yet purchased your product but are considering it
A:Prospects
A source of input, but not the only source of input
A:Customers
Act as the glue that bind businesses together as well as pave the way for new business
development.
A: competences
Allocates capital with the expectation of a future financial return.
A: Investor
A situation in which people lie in wait to make a surprise attack
A:Trap
The activity or condition of competing
A:Competition
A person who organizes and operates a business or businesses, taking on greater than normal
financial risks in order to do so.
A:Entrepreneur
Latent qualities or abilities that may be developed and lead to future success or usefulness
A:Potential
It is critical to find a balance between prospects and
A:Focus only on revenue
Entrepreneurs must demonstrate this characteristic in order to cope with all the risks of
operating their own business.
A:Self-confidence
People who have already purchased your product.
A:Exiting Customers
Truly think outside the box, stretch the limits, and are combinatorial in non-traditional ways.
A:Opportunity Recognizers(NOTE: WAG NINYO ISASAGOT TO SA 3RD QUARTER EXAM
PERO TAMA YAN SA WEEK 13 & 15. ANG SAGOT PARA SA QUARTER EXAM AY
“ALL OF THE ANSWERS CORRECT”)
Entrepreneurs believe in their own ability to control the consequences of their endeavor by
influencing their socio-economic environment rather than leave everything to luck.
A:Locus of Control
Crucial when beginning a new enterprise.
A:Opportunity Recognition
A situation in which an individual works for himself instead of working for an employer that
pays a salary or a wage.
A:Self-employed
Which of these is part of your market?
A certain amount of risk is involved in all entrepreneurial ventures, and growth is no different.
A:Risk and rewards
A new method, idea, product
A:Innovation
The entire size of the market for a product at a specific time.
A:Market Potential
The process of developing core competencies starts with this thought of being a leader in the
market.
A:Strategic Intent
The income that a business has from its normal business activities, usually from the sale of
goods and services to customers.
A:Revenue
During this stage, an entrepreneur must assess potential strategies and business models as well
as conduct market and economic analyses.
A:Opportunity Assessment
The collective learning of the organization, especially how to co-ordinate the diverse
production skill and integrate multiple stream of technologies.
A:Core Competencies
People in your target market who are not currently looking for a solution.
A:Target market users
Profitable customers
A:Gold
For a product or service to succeed, it must be the right product being sold
A: All of the answers correct
Low profit but desirable customers
A: Iron
Unprofitable and undesirable customers
A: Lead
The amount of money that a company actually receives during a specific period, including
discounts and deductions for returned merchandise
A: revenue
A company in the same industry or a similar industry that offers a similar product or service
A:Competitor
Time spent with each customer is different
A:therefore the cost is different
If you know what makes them tick, you can serve them in the way they prefer.
A:What makes them feel good about buying
Having or showing a strong desire and determination to succeed
A:Ambitious
Includes everyone connected to the web.
A:market for downloadable e-books over the internet
Includes homes, schools, businesses, and government organizations.
A:market for personal computers
The state or condition of yielding a financial profit or gain
A:profitable
A financial benefit that is realized when the amount of revenue gained from a business
activity exceeds the expenses, costs and taxes needed to sustain the activity
A: profit
If your customers enjoy dealing with you, they are likely to buy more. In addition, you can only
tackle problems that customers have if you know what they are.
A:What they think about you
A party that supplies goods or services.
A:Supplier
Which of these questions do you need to ask before you make a final decision on a new
product or service offering?
What are things you need to know about your customers?
If you know how your customers view your competition, you stand a much better chance of
staying ahead of your rivals.
A:What they think about your competitors
Those who sell non-competing products and which generally help your sales.
A:Complementors / Influencers(NOTE: MAY NAPANSIN AKO SA TANONG NA ‘TO. MAY
CHANCE NA MAGING SAGOT AY COMPLEMENTORS OR INFLUENCERS. HINDI KO
ALAM KUNG PAANO KO MA-DIDIFFERENTIATE KASI SAME NA SAME TALAGA
YUNG QUESTION. PERO SA QUARTER EXAM ANG SAGOT AY
“COMPLEMENTORS”)
Net profit is revenue less what costs?

A:All of the answers correct(NOTE: MAY PAGKAKATAON NA NAUULIT YUNG “ALL OF
THE ANSWERS CORRECT” SA PAGPIPILIAN KAYA CHOOSE WISELY! TIP: KUNG
NAULIT YUNG “ALL OF THE ANSWERS CORRECT” PILIIN NIYO YUNG
PANGALAWA, MAS MATAAS ANG CHANCE NA TUMAMA)
It is at the center of every successful business.

Most profitable customers
A:Platinum
Includes all the homes and commercial properties within a logical reach.
A:market for a landscaping business
Companies have systems in place to avoid this type of customers.
A: Lead
An amount that has to be paid or spent to buy or obtain something
A:costs
The state of being spread out or transmitted
A:Diffusion
Desirable and measurable outcome or result from an action, investment, project, resource, or
technology
A: Benefit
The degree to which a business or activity yields profit or financial gain
A:Profitability
Extend the application of a method or conclusion
A:Extrapolate
To succeed as an entrepreneur, you must develop the ability to select and offer the right
products or services to your customers
A:In a competitive market
most important thing you can do before deciding what to sell
A: think
Which of these questions will help you analyze the product or service from the customer's point
of view?
A:What does the product achieve, avoid or preserve for the customer?
Companies would always give the best service and other benefits to this type of customers.
To make a product successful, you must be
A company operating in several countries
A:Multinational
It becomes difficult especially in a service environment where labor as well as time also has a
cost factor associated with it.
A:Calculating cost per customer
Means to divide the marketplace into parts, or segments, which are definable, accessible,
actionable, and profitable and have a growth.
A:Segmentation
Hopeful and confident about the future
A:Optimistic
Includes not just the people who regularly go there but also everybody who lives within driving
distance.
A:market of a local movie theater or restaurant
Accomplishing an aim or purpose
A:think
What is/are the thing/s you need to know before you can sell to a potential customer?
Those who have products and services similar to you and where customers who are buying
something will compare your offerings and prices directly, weighing one up against the other.
A:Competitors
Your target market should be measurable, sufficiently large and __________.

A:reachable
This thinking is often used in conjunction with its cognitive colleague, convergent thinking,
which follows a particular set of logical steps to arrive at one solution, which in some cases is a
'correct' solution
A:divergent
If you have a retail outlet, you have the means of distributing a customer comment card or
__________.
A:questionnaire
Which of the following should be a characteristic of your market?
A series of interviews of people in your target market.
A:Market Validation
The interaction with competitors is usually directly
A:Antagonistic
This thinking generally means the ability to give the "correct" answer to standard questions
that do not require significant creativity, for instance in most tasks in school and on
standardized multiple- choice tests for intelligence
A:convergent
Buy less, but are useful as in aggregate they may buy quite a lot.
A:Minor customers
A thought process or method used to generate creative ideas by exploring many possible
solutions.
A:Divergent thinking
The ability to give the correct answer to standard questions that do not require significant
creativity.
A:Convergent thinking
A valuable exercise and can create preliminary benchmarks.
A:Surveying existing customers
When you determine your target audience
The process of assessing the viability of a new good or service through research conducted
directly with the consumer that allows a company to discover the target market and record
opinions and other input from consumers regarding interest in the product.
A:Market Research
Your biggest advocates who want to help you.
A:Your respondents
They are like competitors but their products are not the same.
A:Substitutors
A commonly used geographic segmentation variable that affects industries such as heating
and air conditioning, sporting equipment, lawn equipment and building materials
A:climate
Existing customers is no doubt a valuable exercise and can create preliminary benchmarks, but
the focus of this article is on surveying non-customers, or people you may not immediately be
able to access
A:surveying
This budget will be much more cost effective if you promote to one type of customer and
speak directly to them
A:promotional
Most typically divided into smaller target market segments based on geographic,
demographic, psychographic and behavioristic characteristics.
A:Larger markets
How do you get started using a survey and a targeted audience to make smart decisions?
Collecting answers are one bit, but the next bit comes in processing the answers to qualify
them and in prioritizing, them based on
A:authenticity
They may sell directly into the market but largely they need to be kept aligned to your
strategy.
A:Suppliers
A characteristic of a product/service that automatically comes with it
A:feature
Typically, anonymous and try to reach as many members of a target market as possible
A:surveys
Attempt to get an understanding of a specific market segment by questioning eight to 12
members of that group to discover what psychographic and behavioristic factors might
motivate the entire group.
A:Focus groups
The desire for status, enhanced appearance and more money are examples of this variable
A:psychographic
If you ask people vague questions, you will also get __________ answers in response
A:vague
A thing that is accepted as true or as certain to happen, without proof.
A:Assumption
He coined convergent thinking.
A:Joy Paul Guilford
Any group of actual or potential buyers of a product.
A:Market
A profile for a business would include such factors as customer size, number of employees, type
of products, and annual revenue
A:demographic
An overriding issue in target market selection
A:profitability
In this type of market, individuals, groups or organizations that purchase your product or
service for direct use in producing other products or for use in their day-to-day operations
A:industrial
If you ask too many deep questions, you might lose the
A:audience
Ideally face to face, where you are still trying to understand the target audience and how real
the pain point is.
A: interview
One tip of framing questions is to put on this hat
A:skeptical
How do you create a great survey?
The entire concept of customer development is feedback
A:driven
Anchor statements are rather
A:powerful
Helps in growing branches of different businesses and then these businesses grow products as
fruit.
A:Core competency trunk
Your skill at this is critical to your success.

A:Customer
Explicit statements from your market that declare, "I want a product to do X".
A:Stated Needs
Those who sell non-competing products and which generally help your sales.
A:Complementors(NOTE: ANG SAGOT NA ITO AY PARA SA QUARTER EXAM LANG)
Problems with yet undefined solutions.

A:Silent Needs
Successful entrepreneurs always have the profit margin in sight and know that their business
success is measured by profits.
A:Focus on profits
Companies would always give the best service and other benefits to this type of customers.
A: Gold(NOTE: ANG SAGOT NA ITO AY PARA SA QUARTER EXAM LANG)
Your target market should be measurable, sufficiently large and

A:reachable
The desire for status, enhanced appearance and more money are examples of this variable.
A:psychographic
Entrepreneurs are the persons who take decisions under uncertainty and thus they are willing
to take risk, but they never gamble with the results.
A:Risk bearing
To make a product successful, you must be.
Customer classification depending on profitability.
A:Profit tiers
If you have a retail outlet, you have the means of distributing a customer comment card or
A:questionnaire
Typically, anonymous and try to reach as many members of a target market as possible
A:surveys
A profile for a business would include such factors as customer size, number of employees, type
of products, and annual revenue.
A:demographic
The costs incurred to deliver the product from the production unit to the end user. It is a broad
terminology and it includes several costs.
A:Distribution cost
To succeed as an entrepreneur, you must develop the ability to select and offer the right
products or services to your customers.
A:In a competitive market
Entrepreneurs have strong desire to achieve higher goals.
A:Need to achieve
The act of utilizing the promotional mix
A:Process of promotion
The total cost associated with delivering goods or services to customers.
A:Marketing Cost
ENTR-112 WEEK 11-20

GRADE 12
Figured as a percentage of the seller's cost

A: markup
A notice or announcement in a public medium promoting a product, service, or event

A:advertisement
What are the four P's of marketing?
A:Product, price, place, promotion
With enough frequency of the message, any name can become __________.
A:memorable
Take the time to describe the specific value and qualities of the product.
A:Define the product in detail
A straightforward product design is essential.

A:Refine your design with simplicity in mind.
A good, idea, method, information, object or service created as a result of a process and
serves a need or satisfies a want.
A:Product
Give the character depth and be genuine.

A:Be real, and have a story
Determines the most efficient way for each portion of the process to be done to
eliminate damage to the product and to eliminate areas where time and manpower are
being wasted
A:manager
The organization must develop the new product into different product concepts.
A:Development and Testing
A value that will purchase a finite quantity, weight, or other measure of a good or service
A:Price
At this stage, the product is available for purchase in the marketplace.

A:Commercialize
Translate goals into detailed actions and interim targets

A:Budgets
A limited list of important items or individuals: especially: a list of candidates for final
consideration
A:Shortlist
Not the same as a prototype, but some manufacturers try to sell them as such.
A:Virtual prototype
Narrow the focus of the product by identifying who will be buying.

A:Describe the targeted audience for the product
Your brand must be powerful enough to force them out of their routines.
A:Craft your image
The amount of money that a company actually receives during a specific period,
including discounts and deductions for returned merchandise
A:Revenue
The technical equipment or machinery needed for a particular activity or purpose

A:apparatus
Reflects the decrease in value of capital assets used to generate income

A:Depreciation
Reward your followers with something special and exclusive

A:Have a payoff, and say thank you
Indicate how similar products are selling in the marketplace, using the market research
that you have collected.
A:Create a pricing strategy for the product
A name, term, design, symbol, or other feature that distinguishes an organization or

product from its rivals in the eyes of the customer
A:Brand
Includes all the ways you tell your customers about your products or services and how
you then market and sell to them
A:Promotion
Packaging refers to
Refers to the way your product or service appears from the outside
A:Packaging
A disruptive technology with the ability to revolutionize certain industries

A:internet
A party that supplies goods or services

A:Supplier
Production is both reactive and proactive almost __________.

A:simultaneously
The last portions of the M's of Production

A:materials
A target market description, value proposition and sales goals are conceived at this time.
A:Developing Market Strategy
A physical product is developed.

A:Product Development
Offer a great opportunity to talk with a number of potential suppliers in the same place
at the same time
A:Exhibitions
Discovered the most important factor applied by the best companies was that they first
"got the right people on the bus and the wrong people off the bus."
A:Jim Collins
This entails generating ideas for new products.
A:Ideas
Where your product or service is actually sold.

A:Place
The arena of competitive or commercial dealings: the world of trade

A:marketplace
The second M in the 4M's of Operation

A:manpower
The beliefs or opinions that are generally held about someone or something.
A:Reputation
Combining the elements of these provides you with a clear focus for marketing a
product and for satisfying the objectives a company has for the product.
A:Marketing Mix and Marketing Strategy
A principle or standard by which something may be judged or decide

A:criteria
Creating a brand perception requires

A:intrusion
__________ waste is the key to efficient and profitable production

A:controlling
The goal is developing an exchange. Force your opinion and you will end conversations
before they begin.
A:Ask, do not tell
Includes all interest payable for debts, both short-term and long-term
A:Interest
The goal is to reduce the number of ideas.
A:Screen Ideas
A person who writes the text of advertisements or publicity material

A:copywriter
Hear a person's need, and then share expertise in a personal way that is motivated other
than to help.
A:Be interested, and respond
When you are developing a name for a business, a product or a service, you have a
number of options. Which one in this list is an option?
This step provides the organization the ability to not only test the marketing, but also the
product.
A:Test Market
Add to the conversation by offering up whatever knowledge you have.

A:Be interesting, and give
Hear the conversation first, and then participate.

A:Listen, do not just talk
The drive train that gets us where we are going

A:production
Includes all revenue streams generated by the business

A:Income
The overall effect of something

A:impression
The first visceral connection the consumer makes with the brand
A: logo
This step reviews the sales, costs and profit projections of the new product to decide if
the organizational goals are met.
A: Business Analysis
Recognize that place goes beyond geographic location.

A:Identify the place where the product will be marketed
This is the third M in the sequence

A: machine
Create a promotional strategy that features the product qualities as effectively as

possible.
A:Define the promotional techniques that you will use for the product
If __________ is not properly involved in the other four M's and it is sufficiently aware of
the process and the possible outcomes, the whole operation and even the problems
solution process could yield only mediocre to poor results
A:management
The promises behind the brand create its appeal, but getting the word out is still what
brings in the customers.
A:Get known
People form their first impression within the first

A:30 seconds
Responsible for every element of your sales, marketing strategies, and activities
A:People
The most successful companies pick a competitive position from which they know their
brands can win.
A: Know What the Customer Wants
Relating to or noting a new product, service, or idea that radically changes an industry or
business strategy
A:disruptiveness
A marketing strategy that aims to make a brand occupy a distinct position, relative to
competing brands, in the mind of the customer
A:Positioning
Happens in the minds of consumers

A:Branding
It is everything for everyone

A:Image
The engine that powers Auto Salvage yards

A:sales
Every business needs a reason for their customers to buy from them and not their
competitors.
A:Unique Sales Proposition
Shows the company's real bottom line.

A:Net profit after taxes
A financial document generated monthly and/or annually that reports the earnings of a
company by stating all relevant revenues and expenses in order to calculate net income.
A:Income Statement
The investigation of the needs and opinions of consumers, especially with regard to a
particular product or service.
A:Consumer Research
A first, typical or preliminary model of something, especially a machine, from which other
forms are developed or copied.
A:Prototype
One of the most powerful financial tools available to any small-business owner.
A:Business Budgeting
Inventory fully assembled and available for sals

A:Finished products
Which of these is a key to improve the gross margin?

Inventory that is partially assembled

A:Work-in-progress
What you plan to sell, and what will convince people to buy.
A:Revenue model
The two primary levers of a company's business model are pricing

A:Pricing and costs
Purchased to create a finished product.

A:Raw material
Implies the person behind the brand name has a credibility to be in this business, a pride
of workmanship and a moral standard.
A:Family name
Includes all the costs related to the sale of products in inventory.

A:Cost of goods
The set of controllable, tactical marketing tools that a company uses to produce a
desired response from its target market.
A:Marketing Mix
A unique or novel device, method, composition or process.

A:Invention
A set of activities that a firm operating in a specific industry performs in order to deliver a
valuable product or service for the market.
A:Value chain
Include all overhead and labor expenses associated with the operations of the business.
A:Operating expenses
Unique from their competition and often become among the most memorable.
A:Obscure brand names
A series of steps that includes the conceptualization, design, development and marketing
of brand new or nearly branded products or services.
A:Product Development
Designed to meet the company's marketing objectives by providing its customers with
value.
A:Marketing Strategy
Those things that change based on the amount of product being made and are incurred
as a direct result of producing the product.
A:Variable costs
Estimates of the future financial performance of a business.

A:Financial projections
The choice of a target market and formulation of the most appropriate promotion mix to
influence it.
A:Promotional Strategy
A great equalizer for the cash-strapped entrepreneur.

A: Social Media
A bookkeeper's central role.

A:To maintain financial records for a company or organization.
All of your business transactions pass through this account
A: Cash
The arrangement of and relations between the parts or elements of something complex
A:structure
Which of these is a part of a business plan?

These must be entered in the accounting software program on a daily basis so account
balances accurately reflect income and outgo.
A:Financial transactions
Amounts that are owed to you by your customers

A:Debtors
Many business owners think of bookkeeping as

A:Unwelcome chore
They are based on your assumptions about how your business will perform.
A:Pro forma statements
A thing providing protection against a possible eventuality

A:insurance
An idea is just an idea until you have a paying customer attached to it. Anyone can
discredit a simple idea, but no one can discredit paying customers according to
A:Will Chroter
Author of Bookkeeping Kit for Dummies

A:Lita Epstein
A stock or any other security representing an ownership interest.

A:Equity
Why it is important to keep records?
Which of these is an example of a business structure?

A financial journal that contains all cash receipts and payments, including bank deposits
and withdrawals.
A:Cashbook
Relating to or involving the imagination or original ideas, especially in the production of

an artistic work
A:creative
Entity that advances cash to a borrower for a stated period and for a fixed or variable
rate of interest
A:lender
Which of these are included in a business record?

Include items such as the cost of goods sold payroll for employees, payroll, sales and
income taxes, business insurance and loan interest
A:Expenses
The activity or occupation of keeping records of the financial affairs of a business.

A:Bookkeeping
Recording this in a timely and accurate manner is critical to knowing where your business
stands.
A:Sales
An instance of buying or selling something

A:Cash
This account is where you track any raw materials or finished goods that you buy for
your business.
A:Purchases
Your projections should be

A:Realistic in-between
Will include accounts payable, wages and salaries, taxes, rent and utilities, and loan
balances
A:Liabilities
Help an entrepreneur keep track of business transactions, aid in the filing of taxes,
compile final accounts and act as a future reference.
A:Records
A bookkeeper must meet with department supervisors and other managers to discuss
budget needs and inventory demands.
A:Office Communication
Products you have in stock to sell are like money sitting on a shelf and must be carefully
accounted for and tracked.
A:Inventory
Which of these is an example of a record?

A thing that is borrowed, especially a sum of money that is expected to be paid back
with interest
A: loan
This kind of business owner will know his business inside and out and be aware of when
it is prudent to cut corners and when it is not.
A:Both Perceptive and Savvy
Your company's sales and/or other sources of income
A:Revenues
The action or process of investing money for profit or material result

A:investment
This is the biggest cost of all for many businesses.

A:Payroll Expenses
Provide helpful information about a company's liquidity, profitability, debt, operating

performance, cash flow and investment valuation.
A:Financial ratios
Which of these is a key financial statement?

Protects the business in the event of litigation.

A:Liability insurance
Which of these is an example of a bookkeeping account?

As good as or better than others of a comparable nature

A:competitive
Managing this account does not take a lot of time and is important to investors and
lenders who want to track how well the company has done over time.
A:Retained earnings
An entrepreneur should maintain records to meet his or her business requirements.

A: True
Keeping this account accurate and up to date is essential for meeting tax and other
government reporting requirements.
A:Payroll Expenses
This is when a company purchases a fixed asset and expenses it over the entire period of
its planned use, not just in the year purchased
A:Depreciation
Record keeping is important in a business for it is one the many ways to inform the
entrepreneur how the business is doing.
A: False
Shows your company's assets and liabilities.

A:Balance sheet
Your financial statements should include an income statement, a balance sheet and a
_____ statement
A:cash-flow
If you have borrowed money to buy equipment, vehicles, furniture or other items for
your business, this is the account that tracks what is owed and what's due.
A:Loans Payable
Business records must be retrievable.

A: True
This is money due from customers, and keeping it up to date is critical to be sure, that
you send timely and accurate bills or invoices.
A:Accounts Receivable
This figure represents the amount of income earned by the business before paying taxes.
A: Net profit before taxes
Are assets that you cannot touch or see but that have value. They include franchise
rights, goodwill; no compete agreements, patents and many other items
A:Intangible
Are assets for long-term use and include land, buildings, leasehold improvements,
equipment, machinery and vehicles
A:fixed
Records are a legal requirement.

A: True
These expenses go up or down based on the sales you make such as advertising, delivery
charges and electricity if you are manufacturing
A:variable
These are the assets in a business that can be converted to cash in one year or less
A:current
Shows what types of employees you have along with what they will cost in terms of
salary and wages, health insurance, retirement plan contributions, workers compensation
insurance, unemployment insurance, and Social Security and Medicare taxes.
A:Personnel Plan
These selling, general and administrative expenses are necessary to run the business.
A:Operating expenses
A bookkeeper's central role is to maintain financial records for a company or

organization.
A: True
Which of these is characteristic of a Cash-Flow Statement?

This is caused by fluctuations in operating, investing and financing cash flow.

A:Net change in cash and marketable activities
Everyone likes to send money out of the business.

A: False
Shows the sums you expect to be coming into and going out of your business in a given
time frame.
A:Cash flow statement
These costs include materials used, direct labor, plant manager salaries, freight and other
costs associated with operating a plant.
A:Costs of goods sold
A chart that breaks down how much your business expects to sell in various categories
by month and by year.
A:Sales Forecast
This is the gross revenue generated from the sale of clothing less returns and allowances
A:sales
Purchases is where you track all incoming revenue from what you sell.
A: False
Cost of goods, commissions or discounts, variable and fixed expenses.

A:Business expenses
Include notes payable on lines of credit or other short-term loans, current maturities of
long-term debt, accounts payable to trade creditors, accrued expenses and taxes and
amounts due to stockholders.
A:Current liabilities
These include sales of common stock, changes in short- or long-term loans and
dividends paid.
A:Net cash flow from financing activities
It is calculated as sales less the cost of goods sold.

A:Gross profit
Include the balance sheet, income statement, statement of changes in net worth and
statement of cash flow.
A:Financial Statements
A written description of your business' future.

A:Business plan
Most business records have specified retention periods based on legal requirements and
/ or internal company policies.
A: True
These primarily consist of the purchase or sale of equipment.

A:Net cash flow from investing activities
These liabilities typically consist of all bank debt or stockholder loans payable outside of
the following 12-month period.
A:long-term
It must be retrievable later so that the business dealings can be accurately reviewed as
required.
A:Business record
(TRUE OR FALSE) Products you have in stock to sell are like money sitting on a shelf and
must be carefully accounted for and tracked.
A: True
An entrepreneur should entrust record keeping to any person.

A: False
This is the total amount of state and federal income taxes paid.
A: Income taxes
They include cash collections from customers: cash paid to suppliers and employees:
cash paid for operating expenses, interest and taxes: and cash revenue from interest
dividends.
A:Net cash flow from operating activities
Which of these should be included in your financial statements?

This is the amount of profit earned during the normal course of operations.
A:Operating profit
Include cash, accounts receivable, inventory and equipment.

A:Assets
This is the total amount of state and federal income taxes paid
A:income
Retailing and wholesale is the difference between the stock at the start and end of this
period
A:Inventory-reporting
PAALALA: YANG MGA TANONG NA NASA BABA AY “FILL IN THE BLANK”. INILIGAY KO
NA YUNG SAGOT NA GALING SA MODULE PERO PUTANG INA DI PA RIN TUMATAMA.
LAHAT NG TANONG DIYAN SA BABA GANUN GINAWA KO PERO SAME RESULT, MALI
PA RIN. SINUBUKAN KO NA RIN I-ALL CAPS YUNG SAGOT PERO GANUN PA RIN,
NAGTRY DIN AKO MAGSAGOT NG TRUE OR FALSE PERO KINGINA WALA TALAGA.
TIGNAN NIYO PICTURE SA TAAS, GANYAN TINUTUKOY KO. GALING NA SA MODULE,
INILAGAY KO SA TANONG PERO ANG RESULTA AY MALI. KAYA KUNG MAY
NATUKLASAN KAYONG PARAAN NA KUNG PAANO MAKUHA YUNG TAMANG SAGOT,
PAKISABI KAAGAD SA AKIN. “JOVERT MANADONG” SA FACEBOOK, SALAMAT.
#RIPWEEK19 #DIMAPERFECT #AMAANUENA
[FILL IN THE BLANK] This is where you track any raw materials or finished goods that you
buy for your business
A:PAKIBASA MUNA YUNG NASA ITAAS
[FILL IN THE BLANK] In order to fulfil the needs identified above you will need different
sets of
[FILL IN THE BLANK]With coworkers on a daily basis and creating procedures for receipt
submission and expense account reimbursements can help your work day flow smoothly
[FILL IN THE BLANK] As the business becomes more, it will be necessary to hire a
knowledgeable bookkeeper or accountant
A: PAKIBASA MUNA YUNG NASA ITAAS
[FILL IN THE BLANK] A stock or any other security representing an ownership interest
[FILL IN THE BLANK] A business record must be

[FILL IN THE BLANK] An entrepreneur should entrust record keeping to a person

[FILL IN THE BLANK] Records are a legal

[FILL IN THE BLANK] His/her central role is to maintain financial records for a company or
organization
[FILL IN THE BLANK] Products you have in stock to sell are like money sitting on a shelf
and must be carefully accounted for and tracked
[FILL IN THE BLANK] Estimates of the future financial performance of a business.

QUARTER EXAM
The Fourth P in the marketing mix is the place where your product or service is actually
sold.
A: True
Marketing Strategy is designed to meet the company's marketing objectives by providing

its customers with value.
A: True
A strong relationship will only benefit the supplier.

A: False
Fixed expenses are recorded as cost of goods sold. Variable expenses are counted as
operating expenses.
A: False
It is important to develop this before you start the naming process.

A: brand strategy
A set of activities that a firm operating in a specific industry performs in order to deliver a
valuable product or service for the market.
A: Value chain
These selling, generaland administrative expenses are necessary to run the business.
A: Operating expenses
The best suppliers will want to talk with you regularly to find out what needs you have
and how they can serve you better.
A: True
Things that change based on the amount of product being made and are incurred as a
direct result of producing the product.
A: Variable costs
The total amount of resources that a firm puts into the marketing mix in order to
stimulate demand for its goods and services.
A: marketing effort
To succeed, you need to know this about your brand.

A: true perception
By definition, financial projections are estimates of the future financial performance of a

business.
A: True
The income statement is designed to convert the accrual basis of accounting used to
prepare the income statement and balance sheet back to a cash basis.
A: False
The most effective financial budget includes both a short-range, month-to-month plan
for at least a calendar year and a long-range, quarter-to-quarter plan of at least three
years that you use for financial statement reporting. It should be prepared during the
two months preceding the fiscal year-end to allow ample time for sufficient information
gathering.
A: True
The marketing mix can be divided into four groups of variables commonly known as the
four P's.
A: True
The 4P's of marketing has no weaknesses.
A: False
Promotion refers to the way your product or service appears from the outside.
A: False
Designed to meet the company’s marketing objectives by providing its customers with
value.
A: Marketing Strategy
Busy packaging that explodes with colors or design elements will encourage customers.
A: False
A credit check will help reassure you that they will not go out of business when you need
them most.
A: True
A name, term, design, symbol, or other feature that distinguishes an organization or

product from its rivals in the eyes of the customer.
A: brand
If you need to choose a great brand name for your product, service or business, start by
considering the importance of the name in this.
A:branding efforts
Refers to method companies use to price their products or services.

A: pricing strategy
Maintaining a good short- and long-range financial plan enables you to control your
cash flow instead of having it control you.
A: True
A specific, defined series of activities used in marketing a new or changed product or

service, or in using new marketing channels and methods.
A: marketing campaign
Provides a snapshot of the business's assets, liabilities and owner's equity for a given
time.
A: balance sheet
The most successful companies pick a competitive position from which they know their
brands can survive.
A: False
A stock or any other security representing an ownership interest.

A: Equity
It is important to protect your name to the appropriate degree.

A: protect your brand name
The first visceral connection the consumer makes with the brand.
A: logo
Fundamental in establishing the proper policies, leadership, clear guidelines, work

discipline, effective solution methods plus the proper work culture.
A: management
Manpower is fundamental in establishing the proper policies, leadership, clear guidelines,

work discipline, effective solution methods plus the proper work culture.
A: False
The marketing of goods or services by means of telephone calls, typically unsolicited, to

potential customers.
A: Telemarketing
Measures all your revenue sources vs. business expenses for a given time period.
A: Income statement
Image is everything for everyone.

A: True
The technical equipment or machinery needed for a particular activity or purpose.

A: Apparatus
Most customers think of you in terms of a single attribute, either positive or negative.
A: Attribution Theory
The most successful companies pick this from which they know their brands can win.
A: competitive position
A straightforward product design is essential.

A: True
A low-cost vendor is your best bet.

A: False
A written report of the financial condition of a firm.

A: financial statement
The process of assessing the viability of a new good or service through research
conducted directly with the consumer that allows a company to discover the target
market and record opinions and other input from consumers regarding interest in the
product.
A: market research
Your inability to select, recruit, hire and retain the proper people, with the skills and
abilities to do the job you need to have done, is more important than everything else put
together.
A: False
The balance sheet provides a snapshot of the business's assets, liabilities and owner's
equity for a given time.
A: True
Controlling waste is the key to efficient and profitable production.

A: True
The first step in developing a financial management system is the creation of financial
statements.
A: True
A document that records a business dealing.
A: business record
A brand is a name, term, design, symbol, or other feature that distinguishes an

organization or product from its rivals in the eyes of the customer.
A: True
The way in which a company generates revenue and makes a profit from company
operations.
A: business model
All material needed to clean and package are always available and are placed to
minimize effort.
A: True
This kind of business owner will know his business inside and out and be aware of when
it is prudent to cut corners and when it is not.
A: Both of the given choices are correct
Budgeting only the income statement also allows a full analysis of the effect of potential
capital expenditures on your financial picture.
A: False
A first, typical or preliminary model of something, especially a machine, from which other
forms are developed or copied.
A: Prototype
After you choose your great brand name, you can create your logo and this.
A: corporate identity
Designed to convert the accrual basis of accounting used to prepare the income
statement and balance sheet back to a cash basis.
A: cash-flow statement
21st Century (ENGL-121)

Grade 11Week 1-10
https://amaleaks.blogspot.com
"A big blue house, with a well-kept rose garden," is an example of a:
Select one:
a. Setting as Place CORRECT
b. Effects of Setting
c. Setting as Cultural Context (Condition)
d. Setting as Time
This Manobo/Ilianon tale tells the adventures of a hero and his people, and their journey to Nalandangan.
Select one:
a. Biag ni Lam-ang
b. The Agyu CORRECT
c. Aliguyon
d. Labaw-Donggon
The "Treaty of Paris" between Spain and the United States ceded the Philippines to US for how much?
Select one:
a. $2,000,000
b. $200,000,000
c. $20,000,000 CORRECT
d. $30,000,000
Dubbed as the Great Propagandist, he was known for being a master in the use of his native language, Tagalog.
Select one:
a. Marcelo H. Del Pilar CORRECT

b. Graciano Lopez-Jaena
c. Mariano Ponce
d. Jose P. Rizal
The writers in Spanish were accustomed to write literary works that have themes of nationalism because they want to honor
Jose Rizal.
Select one:
True CORRECT
False
Jose Corazon de Jesus began a famous column in Taliba called _____
Select one:
a. Buhay Filipino
b. Buhay Maynila CORRECT
c. Buhay Pilipinas
d. Buhay Manileno
In Marcelo h. Del Pilar's Dasalan at Tocsohan, which of the following is said to be the Fifth Commandment of the Spanish Friars?
Select one:
a. "Manalangin ka sa Prayle Linggo man at piyesta."
b. "Huwag kang makinakaw."
c. "Huwag kang mamamatay kung wala pang salaping panlibing." CORRECT
d. "Sambahin mo ang Payle lalo na sa lahat."
It is easy to interpret poems.
Select one:
True
False CORRECT
A traditional depiction of the events before and after Jesus Christ was crucified.
Select one:
a. Sarsuela
b. Duplo
c. Moro-moro
d. Senakulo CORRECT
The following are known as Poets of the Heart (Makata ng Puso) except one:
The correct answer is: Aurelio Tolentino
He was a corresponding member of the Royal Academy of the Spanish Literature.
The correct answer is: Cecilio Apostol
He was recognized in the Hispanic world as the "greatest Filipino epic poet writing in Spanish."
It is a narrative poem written in four-line stanzas.
Jose Corazon de Jesus was most notable for writing which poem?
a: BAYAN KO
The correct answer is: Ballad
In a drama, the plot encompasses all the incidents and provides aesthetic pleasure.
The correct answer is: 'True'
The following are Bathala's daughters to a mortal woman except:
The correct answer is: Mayari
It is the emotional high point of the story. It is also the most exciting part.
The correct answer is: Climax
Which part of the Ilokano epic Biag ni Lam-ang, tells the story of Lam-ang's quest to find the Igorots?
The correct answer is: The Quest for the Father
It is an example of an epic poem which tells the story of Jesus Christ's life, trials, and sufferings, and is sung during Holy Week.
The correct answer is: Pasyon
The Tagalog god of the sea, originally the god of the hunters.
The correct answer is: Amanikable

A short piece of fiction that is a "bite size" version of a novel.
The correct answer is: Short Story
A mystifying, misleading or puzzling question posed as a problem to be solved or guessed.
The correct answer is: Riddle
It is an artistic piece of philosophical, personal, imaginative or inspirational nature that is laid out in lines.
The correct answer is: Poetry
The following are means for an alipin to become a freeman EXCEPT:
The correct answer is: Getting captured in war
Doctrina Cristiana was the first religious book published in the Philippines on July 15, 1593.
It is an allegory with moral or religious bent.
Select one:
a. fable
b. fantasy
c. allusion
d. parable
SHORT QUIZ 1
The name of Lam-ang's love interest.
The correct answer is: Ines Cannoyan
It was the first novel written in Spanish by a Filipino, which revolves around the misery of a woman who died of cholera.
The correct answer is: Ninay
Most English newspapers were ordered to stop its operations during the Japanese regime.
It is simply defined as a product of one's imaginative mind. It can be a drama, short story, novel, myth, folktale, and poetry.
The correct answer is: Fictional Literature
The author who was known as the "comma poet," introducing a unique style of poetry.
The correct answer is: Jose Garcia Villa
The correct answer is: Which part of the Ilokano epic Biag ni Lam-ang, tells the story of Lam-ang's quest to find the Igorots?
In the story of Malakas and Maganda, the children who ran away from their father and ran outside became the Alipin.
The correct answer is: 'False'
___ is a long narrative poem, telling heroic deeds or events.
The correct answer is: Epic
Not every poem has a speaker.
The Japanese encouraged nationalism, or the love for one's motherland.
These are short poems which express the personal thoughts or emotions of the poet.
The correct answer is: Lyric poems
Jose Garcia Villa's Bayan Ko was set to music by Constancio de Guzman and became a popular song during the Marcos
dictatorship.
He wrote "Banaag at Sikat" which was renowned for its depiction of certain issues of socialism and capitalism.
The correct answer is: Lope K. Santos
It is a story about animals that possess human traits.
The correct answer is: 'Fable'
____ is a famous comedy play written by Francisco "Soc" Rodrigo that portrays people's weaknesses.
The correct answer is: Sa Pula, Sa Puti
"The future looks fantastic, what with the flying cars and modern technology." This is an example of a:
The correct answer is: 'Setting as Time'
Claro M. Recto wrote for La Vanguardia under what penname?
The correct answer is: 'Aristeo Hilario'
Jose Garcia Villa won P1,000 from the Philippines Free Press, which he used to migrate to the United States and enroll at
University of Mexico.
This was deemed as the first novel ever written in the Philippines.
The correct answer is: Barlaan at Josaphat
A novel that dwells on the arrogance of the friars, revealing the dire consequences tied to the marriage between the Spanish
and Filipinos.
The correct answer is: La Hija Del Fraile
In a story, it is the verbal representation of a human being.
The correct answer is: Character
The American regime enforced free public education.
"Aso
Mataas sa pag-upo,
Mababa 'pag tumayo.
Kaibigan kong ginto,
Karamay at kalaro."
The poem above is an example of:
The correct answer is: Tanaga
A poem in which the first letter of each line, when read vertically, spell out a word, which is usually the subject of the poem.
The correct answer is: Acrostic poem
A series of fairy tale stories told by an old woman who kept a loadful of stories in her ancient baul.
The correct answer is: Mga Kwento ni Lola Basyang
A rhetorical device, a witty, ingenious, or pointed saying that is tersely expressed.
The correct answer is: epigram
The American Period had influenced the Philippine Literature.
The writing system used by the Filipinos before the Spanish colonization.
The correct answer is: Baybayin
The term ___ refers to the social class consisting of freemen.
The correct answer is: timawa

Carlos P. Romulo has four bestselling works that led him to bagging the Pulitzer Prize.
Which of the following is not one of the bestselling works of Carlos P. Romulo?
The correct answer is: The Lost Ones
He is the "greatest Filipino epic poet writing in Spanish," in the Hispanic world.
One of the writers in the Spanish era under the name Dimas-Ilaw and Pingkian who wrote "Ang Liwanag at Dilim" that became
the code of revolution.
The correct answer is: Emilio Jacinto
The goddess of love, conception and childbirth for the Tagalogs.
The correct answer is: Diyan Masalanta
The following are works by Jesus Balmori EXCEPT:
The correct answer is: Mi Patria
Filipinos already have literature before the Spaniards came to the land.
It is the repetition of the same stressed vowel sound and any succeeding sounds in two or more words.
The correct answer is: Rhyme
He came up with a poetry compilation called Crisalidas in 1914.
Select one:
a. Jose Corazon de Jesus
b. Fernando Ma. Guerrero CORRECT
c. Cecilio Apostol
d. Jose Garcia Villa
The Tagalogs believe in the supreme deity called __.
Select one:
a. Christ
b. Amanikable
c. Bathala CORRECT
d. Apolaki
The American colonization over the Philippines began in 1898 and 1941.
Select one:
True
False
"Batikuling" was a penname used by which Filipino poet?
Select one:
a. Jose Corazon de Jesus
b. Jesus Balmori
c. Jose Rizal
d. Claro M. Recto
____ is the play written by Jose Ma. Hernandez about a blacksmith from Pampanga who was the first Filipino who made a
cannon.
Select one:
a. Sino ba kayo?
b. The World is an Apple
c. Sa Pula, Sa Puti
d. Panday Pira
Severino Reyes's Ang Kalupi was first performed at the Teatro Zorilla in 1902.
Select one:
True
False
It is the repetition of vowel sounds.
Select one:
a. Assonance
b. Onomatopoeia
c. Consonance
d. Rhyme
The following are pen names of Mariano Ponce, except:
Select one:
a. Nanding
b. Taga-Ilog
c. Tikbalang
d. Kalipulako
Some of this hero's notable literary works are "El Verdadero Decalogo" (The True Decalogue or Ten Commandments, and "Sa
Bayang Pilipino" (To the Filipino nation).
Select one:
a. Antonio Luna
b. Mariano Ponce
c. Apolinario Mabini
d. Jose Maria Panganiban
The goddess of the moon and one of the three daughters of Bathala by a mortal woman.
Select one:
a. Hanan
b. Anagolay
c. Tala
d. Mayari
There are a few Spanish words integrated to our own language.
Select one:
True
False
Biag ni Lam-ang is one of the great epics that are able to survive with the help of oral transmission.
Select one:
True
False
The founder of La Vanguardia and La Opinion.

Select one:
a. Claro M. Recto
b. Cecilio Apostol
c. Jesus Balmori
d. Lope K. Santos
e. Fernando Ma. Guerrero
The writing system of Filipinos in the Pre-Spanish period.
Select one:
a. Alphabet
b. Baybayin
c. Alibata
d. none of the choices
Select one:
True
False
It is a narrative poem written in four-line stanzas.
Select one:
a. Free verse
b. Ballad
c. Sonnet
d. Ode
Essays that uses details related to the senses to create mental images for the reader.
Select one:
a. Descriptive essays
b. Persuasive essays
c. No correct answer
d. Expository essays
The goddess of lost things, she is also the wife of Dumakulem.

Select one:
a. Mayari
b. Anagolay
c. Dumakulem
d. Anitun Tabu
The Father of the Tagalog Zarzuela.
Select one:
a. Severino Reyes
b. Lope K. Santos
c. Jose Corazon de Jesus
d. Paz Marquez Benitez
He was one of the first Filipino writers to break free from the strict rules imposed on literature during the Propaganda
movement.
Select one:
a. Jose Maria Panganiban
b. Marcelo H. Del Pilar
c. Dr. Pedro Paterno
d. Dr. Jose Rizal
The repetition of consonant sounds in words.
Select one:
a. Alliteration
b. Onomatopoeia
c. Assonance
d. Consonance
There are more novels written during this era than poetry.
Select one:
True
False
The name of Lam-ang's love interest.
The correct answer is: Ines Cannoyan
It was the first novel written in Spanish by a Filipino, which revolves around the misery of a woman who died of cholera.
The correct answer is: Ninay
Most English newspapers were ordered to stop its operations during the Japanese regime.
It is simply defined as a product of one's imaginative mind. It can be a drama, short story, novel, myth, folktale, and poetry.
The correct answer is: Fictional Literature
The author who was known as the "comma poet," introducing a unique style of poetry.
The correct answer is: Jose Garcia Villa
The correct answer is: Which part of the Ilokano epic Biag ni Lam-ang, tells the story of Lam-ang's quest to find the Igorots?
In the story of Malakas and Maganda, the children who ran away from their father and ran outside became the Alipin.
___ is a long narrative poem, telling heroic deeds or events.
The correct answer is: Epic
Not every poem has a speaker.
The Japanese encouraged nationalism, or the love for one's motherland.
These are short poems which express the personal thoughts or emotions of the poet.
The correct answer is: Lyric poems
Jose Garcia Villa's Bayan Ko was set to music by Constancio de Guzman and became a popular song during the Marcos
dictatorship.
He wrote "Banaag at Sikat" which was renowned for its depiction of certain issues of socialism and capitalism.
The correct answer is: Lope K. Santos
It is a story about animals that possess human traits.
The correct answer is: 'Fable'
____ is a famous comedy play written by Francisco "Soc" Rodrigo that portrays people's weaknesses.
The correct answer is: Sa Pula, Sa Puti
The following are Bathala's daughters to a mortal woman except:
The correct answer is: Mayari
"The future looks fantastic, what with the flying cars and modern technology." This is an example of a:
The correct answer is: 'Setting as Time'
Claro M. Recto wrote for La Vanguardia under what penname?
The correct answer is: 'Aristeo Hilario'
Jose Garcia Villa won P1,000 from the Philippines Free Press, which he used to migrate to the United States and enroll at
University of Mexico.
This was deemed as the first novel ever written in the Philippines.
The correct answer is: Barlaan at Josaphat
A novel that dwells on the arrogance of the friars, revealing the dire consequences tied to the marriage between the Spanish
and Filipinos.
The correct answer is: La Hija Del Fraile
In a story, it is the verbal representation of a human being.
The correct answer is: Character
The American regime enforced free public education.
"Aso
Mataas sa pag-upo,
Mababa 'pag tumayo.
Kaibigan kong ginto,
Karamay at kalaro."
The poem above is an example of:
The correct answer is: Tanaga
A poem in which the first letter of each line, when read vertically, spell out a word, which is usually the subject of the poem.
The correct answer is: Acrostic poem
A series of fairy tale stories told by an old woman who kept a loadful of stories in her ancient baul.
The correct answer is: Mga Kwento ni Lola Basyang
A rhetorical device, a witty, ingenious, or pointed saying that is tersely expressed.
The correct answer is: epigram
The American Period had influenced the Philippine Literature.
The writing system used by the Filipinos before the Spanish colonization.
The correct answer is: Baybayin
The term ___ refers to the social class consisting of freemen.
The correct answer is: timawa
Carlos P. Romulo has four bestselling works that led him to bagging the Pulitzer Prize.
Which of the following is not one of the bestselling works of Carlos P. Romulo?
The correct answer is: The Lost Ones
He is the "greatest Filipino epic poet writing in Spanish," in the Hispanic world.
One of the writers in the Spanish era under the name Dimas-Ilaw and Pingkian who wrote "Ang Liwanag at Dilim" that became
the code of revolution.
The correct answer is: Emilio Jacinto
The goddess of love, conception and childbirth for the Tagalogs.
The correct answer is: Diyan Masalanta
A short piece of fiction that is a "bite size" version of a novel.
The correct answer is: Short Story
The following are works by Jesus Balmori EXCEPT:
The correct answer is: Mi Patria
It is the repetition of the same stressed vowel sound and any succeeding sounds in two or more words.
The correct answer is: Rhyme
ENGL-121-20172S / ► Week 9: Short Quiz / ► Short Quiz

Hinilawod is commonly sung for a period of three days, non-stop.
=False
Biag ni Lam-ang was first transcribed around 1640 by Pedro Bucaneg.
=True
The ___ magazine was stationed in Manila and contributed to the development of Hiligaynon literature.
=hiligaynon
A social and political critique that uses comedia and ineffectual character.
=Sabas Armenta
An author from Bicol whose works are known for perceptivity and fatalism.
=Angelo de Castro
Pampa Bucaneg was also known as a Chris a total of ___ syllables in octaves with rhymes at the end.
=16
The goddess of the Eastern sea in Hinilawod.
=Alunsina
Poetry from ___ possess "clarity and grace of expression."
=bicol
___ is the lingua franca of West Visayas.
=Hiligaynon
It was known as the "Bible of Northern Philippines".
=Bannawag
A song of allusion to mythical heroes.
=Siday
Biag ni Lam-ang was created before the Spaniards came.
=true
A folk theatrical that is a strictly private type of drama performed by friends and neighbors to divert a bereaved family from
their sorrow.
=Kolilisi
People of Western Visayas are more well-versed in writing myths and folktales than poetry and prose.
=True
Which of the following is not a reason why Pampango Literature did not flourish?
=geography
The Leopoldo Yabes version of the epic poem Biag ni Lam-ang consists of 206 stanzas.
=False
Leon C. Pichay is acknowledged as the Father of Ilocano Literature.
=False
Isabelo de los Reyes has ventured into journalism before he was 25.
= True
How long is Hinilawod usually sung?
=3 weeks, 2 hours a night
Mythological stories of Hiligaynons were passed through each generation by ____.
=oral transmission
ENGL-121 Week 7: Philippine Regional Literature - Ilokano (... / ► Learning Activity 2

=Sabas Armenta
Aside from being a writer, Pedro Bucaneg was also known as a Christian missionary.
=True
=. Bannawag
It tells the quest of Lam-ang to find the Igorots who murdered his father.
=The Quest for the Father
Biag ni Lam-ang is an epic poem that consists of 1744 lines.
=False
The common name of Awit and Corridos.
=kuriru
The playwright from Bicol who writes puns and mimes as double-edge statements for Spaniards.
=Mariano Shyna Perfecto
Leon C. Pichay was considered the most creative Ilocano writer in his generation.
=True
The title of Mariano Proceso Pabalan Byron's famous zarzuela that depicts a Filipino family.
=Ing Managne
=no literary outlet
Cardinal Bellarmine's catechism was the first book that was printed in Iloko.
Select one:
True
False
The author of the Pampango murder mystery novel, "Ing Buac ning Ester" (A Strand of Ester's Hair).
Select one:
a. Crisot
b. Jose M. Gallardo
c. Amado Yuzon
d. Aurelio Tolentino
It is the story of Lam-ang and his love interest Ines Cannoyan.
Select one:
a. The Quest for the Father
b. The Birth of Lam-ang
c. The Quest for a Wife
d. The Death and Resurrection of the Hero
The Father of Pampango Literature.
Select one:
a. Mariano Proceso Pabalan Byron
b. Juan Crisostomo Soto
c. Padre Anselmo Jorge de Fajardo
The Mother of Philippine Women's Literature.
Select one:
a. Leon C. Pichay
b. Isabelo de los Reyes
c. Leona Florentino
d. Genoveva Matute
One of the famous publishing houses from Bicol.
Select one:
a. Bicolanan
b. Bicoland
c. Bicolanon
d. Bicolandio
Ilocano literature is second to Tagalog in having the greatest number of printed works.
Select one:
True
False
The writer of Anti Cristo.
Select one:
a. Valerio Zinuga
b. Asisclo Jimenez
c. Manuel Fuentebella
d. Justiniano Nuyda
Leona Florentino was congenitally blind.
Select one:
True
False
Biag ni Lam-ang was first transcribed around 1640 by Pedro Bucaneg.

Answer:True
The Bukanegan is the Ilocano version of the Balagtasan
Answer:True
Ilocano literature is second to Tagalog in having the greatest number of printed works.
Answer:True
Leon C. Pichay is acknowledged as the Father of Ilocano Literature.
Answer:False
The writer of Anti Cristo.
Answer:Justiniano Nuyda
Poetry from ___ possess "clarity and grace of expression."
Answer:Bicol
Answer:no literary outlet
It is the story of Lam-ang and his love interest Ines Cannoyan.
Answer:The quest for a wife
Bicol Literature did not flourish because of the attitude of people towards it.
Answer:True
One of the famous publishing houses from Bicol.
Answer: Bicolanon
Leona Florentino was congenitally blind.

Answer:False
This writer detested the Spanish maladministration in the Philippines.
Answer:Isabelo de los Reyes
The title of Mariano Proceso Pabalan Byron's famous zarzuela that depicts a Filipino family.
Answer:Ing Managne
Who is known as the King of Crisotan?
Answer:Amado Yuzon
Answer:Bannawag
The author of the Pampango murder mystery novel, "Ing Buac ning Ester" (A Strand of Ester's Hair).
Answer:Aurelio Tolentino
The playwright from Bicol who writes puns and mimes as double-edge statements for Spaniards.
Answer:Mariano Perfecto
The Mother of Philippine Women's Literature.
Answer:Leona Florentino
Answer:Sabas Armenta
The Leopoldo Yabes version of the epic poem Biag ni Lam-ang consists of 206 stanzas.
Answer:False
A humorous and satiric song in Hiligaynon literature.
Select one:
a. Ballad
b. Haya
c. Siday
d. Bical
e. Awit
Vicente Y. Sotto began his journalistic career at the age of 22.
Select one:
True
False
The first short story in Sugbuanon.
Select one:
a. Maming
b. Ang Suga
c. La Justicia
d. Hinilawod
What was Pedro Bukaneg's origin, according to his name?
Select one:
a. Mangyan
b. Ibanag
c. Itneg
d. Ivatan
Bukaneg was a co-author of the Ilocano-English grammar book and dictionary.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Hiligaynon is the lingua franca of Northern Mindanao.
Select one:
True
False
Sugbuanon is a dialect spoken in central Visayas, as well as in the greater part of northern and central Mindanao.
Select one:
True
False
Hinilawod tells the story of how the islands of Iloilo, ____ and Aklan were formed.
Select one:
a. Iloilo
b. Guimaras
c. Capiz
d. Antique
Hinilawod is the oldest and longest epic poem in Panay.
Select one:
True
False
___ refers to the Ilocano balagtasan.
Select one:
a. Bukanegan
b. None of the choices
c. Balitaw
d. Balagtas sa Balitaw
A humorous and satirical song.
Select one:
a. Ambahan
b. Haya
c. Bical
d. Siday
Pampango poetry commonly has a total of ___ syllables in octaves with rhymes at the end.
Select one:
a. 14
b. 16
c. 12
d. 8
____, also known as the Bible of Northern Philippines, was a popular weekly magazine featuring literary works from Ilocano
writers.
Select one:
a. Balitaw
b. Hinilawod
c. Bannawag
d. Bukanegan
An old ritual of formalizing an engagement to marry.
Select one:
a. Bagamundo
b. Balagtasan sa Balitaw
c. Pamalaye
d. Kolilisi
___ tells a story of the bravery of ten datus who went on a journey to escape from a tyrannical ruler.
Select one:
a. Balitaw
b. Maragtas
c. Ambahan
d. Hinilawod
Haya is a dirge that is composed of three parts.
Select one:
True
False
Leona Florentino was fluent in Spanish, Tagalog, Ilokano and English.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Ilocano literature is heavily influenced by religion.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
___ thrive in the region because they depict history, important people and social condition.
Select one:
a. plays
b. novels
c. poems
d. dramas
e. short stories
The Yuhum magazine in Iloilo was established by:
Select one:
a. UP Press
b. Liwayway Publications
c. PDI
d. La Defensa Press
Sugbuanon literature is characterized as:
Select one:
a. Abundant and varied
b. No correct answer
c. Old and extinct
d. Unique and scarce
An incorporation of duplo and balitaw where the courtship plot becomes a mere framework for an argument on a non-
romantic subject.
Select one:
a. Bagamundo
b. Balagtasan sa Balitaw
c. Pamalaye
d. Drama-Balitaw
The name of the main character in Bucaneg's famous epic.
Select one:
a. Lam-ang
b. Bukaneg
c. Bannawag
d. Pedro
The father of Ilocano Literature.
Select one:
a. Fray Francisco Lopez
b. Leon C. Pichay
c. Pedro Bucaneg
d. Isabelo de los Reyes
It introduces the story's characters, setting, and conflict.
Select one:
a. Climax
b. Rising Action
c. Exposition
d. Falling Action
e. Resolution
A story about the tradition of Christmas in the Philippines, written to entertain and amuse the people from
Madrid.
Select one:
a. La Maestra de mi Pueblo
b. Noche Buena
c. La Hija del Fraile
d. A Mi Madre
He published his poetry book "Rimas Malayas" (Malayan Rhymes) at the age of 17 and even wrote a satirical
column for La Vanguardia called "Vida Manilenas"
Select one:
a. Cecilio Apostol
b. Jesus Balmori
c. Fernando Ma. Guerrero
d. Claro M. Recto
The name of the corrupt governor in A Child of Sorrow.
Select one:
a. Gerado Luna
b. Lucio Soliman
c. Pancho Ismael
d. Rosa
The following are known as Poets of Stage EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Patricio Mariano
b. Aurelio Tolentino
c. Pedro Deogracias
d. Severino Reyes
It was the very first book on Ilokano grammar written by Francisco Lopez.
Select one:
a. Arte de la Lengua Ilocana
b. Arte de la Iloka
c. Arte y Regalas de la Lengua Ilokana
d. Compendio de la Lengua Iloka
Alunsina and Datu Paubari in Hinilawod had twins.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
A Hiligaynon literary form that is a ballad of unrhymed couplets.
Select one:
a. Haya
b. Awit
c. Bical
d. Ambahan
e. Siday
The story of Maragtas is about a group of datus and their escape from Borneo.
Select one:
True
False
Dubbed as the most creative Ilocano writer in his generation whose works often revolve around the theme of love for the
country, spirituality and love for their local language.
Select one:
a. Isabelo de los Reyes
b. Pedro Bucaneg
c. Leon Pichay
d. Leona Florentino
A comic representation of the love chase in aa verse dialogue of courtship that develops into a wit combat performed in song
and dance.
Select one:
a. Bagamundo
b. Duplo
c. Balitaw
d. Drama-balitaw
e. Balagtasan sa Balitaw
he ___ magazine in Iloilo helped keep literature alive.
Select one:
a. Yuhum
b. La Defensa
c. Hiligaynon
d. None of the choices
Long before the Spaniards came to the Philippines, Ilokanos have already established their own culture, along with their own
mythology and folklore.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Which of the following is not a contribution to literature of Vicente Y. Sotto?
Select one:
a. published La Justicia in Cebu
b. the first published story in Sugbuanon, Maming
c. wrote folk theatricals in his native language

d. the first poetry in vernacular, Ang Suga
This refers to an old ritual of formalizing an engagement to marry.

answer: pamalaye
A comic representation of the love chase in a verse dialogue of courtship that develops into a wit combat performed in song
and dance.
Select one:
a. Pamalaye
b. Balitaw
c. Kolilisi
d. Duplo
One of Haya's parts that is a song regretting the loss of a loved one and extolling him.
Select one:
a. parahaya
b. siday
c. anogon
d. bical
It is a character that remains essentially the same throughout the story.
Select one:
a. developing character
b. static character
c. flat character
d. round character
It is the pattern of sound created by the arrangement of stressed and unstressed syllables in a line.
Select one:
a. Rhythm
b. Alliteration
c. Assonance
d. Consonance
In a story, this character is complex, multi-faceted and has the qualities of real people.
Select one:
a. Round character
b. Flat character
c. Developing character
d. Static character
Banaag at Sikat was notable for its depiction of issues such as socialism, capitalism, and the works of the
united association of laborers.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is:
Match the writer to his/her famous literary work.
Claro M. Recto - [Bajo los Cocoteros]
Jose Corazon de Jesus - [Bayan Ko]
Dr. Pedro Paterno - [Ninay]
Mariano Ponce - [Mga Alamat ng Bulacan]
Jose Esperanza Cruz - [Tatlong Maria]
Fr. Modesto de Castro - [Urbana and Feliza]
Clodualdo del Mundo - [Bulaga]
Jose Ma. Hernandez - [Panday Pira]
Stevan Javellana - [The Lost Ones]
Narciso G. Reyes - [Lupang Tinubuan]
Paz Marquez Benitez - [Dead Stars]
Liwayway Arceo - [Uhaw ang Tigang ng Lupa]
Graciano Lopez-Jaena - [Fray Botod]
Marcelo H. Del Pilar - [Dasalan at Tocsohan]
Jose Maria Panganiban - [A Nuestro Obispo]
Andres Bonifacio - [Pag-ibig sa Tinubuang Lupa]
Apolinario Mabini - [El Verdadero Decalogo]

Emilio Jacinto - [Ang Liwanag at Dilim]
Antonio Luna - [Noche Buena]
Severino Reyes - [Mga Kwento ni Lola Basyang]
Fernando Ma. Guerrero - [Crisalidas]
Jose Rizal - [Noli Me Tangere]
Justiniano Nuyda - [Anti Cristo]
Marcelino Foronda Jr. - [Ta Dida Ammo it Aramidda]
Fray Francisco Lopez - [Cardinal Bellarmine’s catechism]
Pedro Bukaneg - [Biag ni Lam-ang]
Vicente Sotto - [Maming]
Jose Garcia Villa - [Man Songs]
Zoilo Galang - [A Child of Sorrow]
Lope K. Santos - [Banaag at Sikat]
Cecilio Apostol's poem that opened the world of Spanish poetry for him.
The correct answer is: El Terror de Los Mares Indicos
The goddess of the Eastern sea in Hinilawod.
The correct answer is: Alunsina
The ___ magazine in Iloilo helped keep literature alive.
The correct answer is: Yuhum
Hinilawod tells the story of how the islands of Iloilo, ____ and Aklan were formed.
The correct answer is: Antique
The son of Idiyanale: he’s the strong and agile, the guardian of the mountains.
The correct answer is: Dumakulem
The Tagalog god of the sea, he was originally the god of hunters.
The correct answer is: Amanikable
___ refers to the Ilocano balagtasan.
The correct answer is: Bukanegan

The father of Ilocano Literature.
The correct answer is: Pedro Bucaneg
Both Tagalog and English were used as the medium of instruction in all levels of education in public schools.
The correct answer is: False
____, also known as the Bible of Northern Philippines, was a popular weekly magazine featuring literary works from Ilocano
writers.
The correct answer is: Bannawag
The name of the main character in Bucaneg's famous epic.
The correct answer is: Lam-ang
Which of the following is Juan Crisostomo "Crisot" Soto's works?
The correct answer is: Ing Managne
The ___ magazine was stationed in Manila and contributed to the development of Hiligaynon literature.
The correct answer is: Hiligaynon
A literary form that is a simple folk song, love song and work song.
The correct answer is: Awit
___ tells a story of the bravery of ten datus who went on a journey to escape from a tyrannical ruler.
The correct answer is: Maragtas
Sugbuanon literature forms delivered orally are the following except:
The correct answer is: plays
What was Pedro Bukaneg's origin, according to his name?
The correct answer is: Itneg
___ is the lingua franca of West Visayas.
The correct answer is: Hiligaynon
The oldest and longest epic poem in Panay.
The correct answer is: Hinilawod
Mythological stories of Hiligaynons were passed through each generation by ____.
The correct answer is: oral transmission
According to the Nicaraguan poet Daisy Zamora, poetry is:
Select one:
a. "a way of feeling life"
b. "criticism of life"
c. "blood, imagination and intellect running together"
d. "the spontaneous overflow of powerful feelings"
It is the method by which writers and speakers reveal attitudes or feelings.
Select one:
a. Syntax
b. Style
c. Theme
d. Tone
The full name of the author of "Lupang Tinubuan" that won first prize in the outstanding Filipino short stories in 1943.
Select one:
a. Francisco Soc Rodrigo
b. Gonzalo Flores
c. Narciso Reyes
d. Macario Pineda
The conflict in a short story is a major element of plot because it arouses curiosity, causes doubt, creates tension and produces
interest.
Select one:
True
False
Zoilo Galang's A Child of Sorrow was famous for being:
Select one:
a. The first Philippine novel written in the English language
b. The first Philippine poem written in the English language
c. The first Philippine short story written in the English language
d. The first Philippine essay written in the English language
A Manobo/Ilianon tale about the hero whose people had been driven out of their land.
Select one:
a. Agyu
b. Aliguyon
c. Biag ni Lam-ang
d. Labaw-Donggon
This author wrote "A Night in the Hills" which tells the story of Gerado Luna, a salesman in a jewelry store in Intramuros,
Manila.
Select one:
a. Severino Reyes
b. Paz Marquez-Benitez
c. Lope K. Santos
d. Jose Garcia Villa
e. Jose Corazon de Jesus
f. Zoilo Galang
He was a corresponding member of the Royal Academy of the Spanish Literature.
Select one:
a. Cecilio Apostol
b. Teodoro Agoncillo
c. Jesus Balmori
d. Lope K. Santos
The second prize for the outstanding Filipino short stories in 1943 is _______.
Select one:
a. Lupang Tinubuan by Narciso Reyes
b. Uhaw ang Tigang na Lupa by Liwayway A. Arceo
c. Suyuan sa Tubigan by Macario Pineda
d. Lungsod Ngayon at Dagat-dagatan by N.V.M. Gonzales

The name of the magazine that recognized the brilliant minds behind literary works during this era.
Select one:
a. Pambata
b. Filipinas
c. Liwayway
d. Ilustración Filipina
The Father of Tagalog plays.
Select one:
a. Paz Marquez-Benitez
b. Jose Garcia Villa
c. Severino Reyes
d. Lope K. Santos
The term Alibata was coined by _______.
Select one:
a. Marcelo H. Del Pilar
b. Father Antonio de Borja
c. Paul Rodriguez Verzosa
d. Jose P. Rizal
The author of the speech, Sa Mga Pilipino, a speech aimed to improve the condition of the Filipinos to become free and
progressive.
Select one:
a. Graciano Lopez Jaena
b. Andres Bonifacio
c. Mariano Ponce
d. Antonio Luna
He was the Father of the Tagalog Zarzuela and the one who wrote, "Walang Sugat" (No Wounds) about the Katipuneros in the
later years of the Spanish occupation.
Select one:
a. Jose Garcia Villa
b. Lope K. Santos
c. Zoilo Galang
d. Paz Marquez-Benitez
e. Severino Reyes
f. Jose Corazon de Jesus
he name of the corrupt governor in A Child of Sorrow.
Select one:
a. Gerado Luna
b. Rosa
c. Pancho Ismael
d. Lucio Soliman
A poem consisting of four lines with seven syllables each, with each line ending in rhyme.
Select one:
a. Tanaga
b. Haikai
c. Tanka
d. Haiku
The type of government in the Philippines during the Pre-Spanish period.
Select one:
a. Autocracy
b. Dictatorship
c. Thalassocracy
d. Democracy
Jesus Balmori died on June 12, on Philippine Independence Day.
Select one:
True
False
Articles that explain the steps in a process, report the news, or analyze a work of literature are all examples
of:
Select one:
a. Expository essays
b. Descriptive essays
c. Persuasive essays
d. No correct answer
Considered as the first modern English language short story writer from the Philippines.
Select one:
a. Jose Garcia Villa
b. Severino Reyes
c. Paz Marquez Benitez
d. Zoilo Galang
The term ____ refers to slaves that do not have the right to own property.
Select one:
a. saguiguilid
b. timawa
c. namamahay
d. alipin
Literature, in a literal sense, means:
Select one:
a. "placing, arrangement"
b. "an acquaintance with letters"
c. "love of wisdom"
d. "a thousand"
tory about the tradition of Christmas in the Philippines, written to entertain and amuse the people from
Madrid.
Select one:
a. La Maestra de mi Pueblo
b. La Hija del Fraile
c. Noche Buena
d. A Mi Madre
Use of Tagalog became widespread under the Japanese rule.
Select one:
True
False
The Father of Filipino Democracy.
Select one:
a. Andres Bonifacio
b. Marcelo H. Del Pilar
c. Emilio Aguinaldo
d. Jose Rizal
The ____ is an example of an epic poem that tells the story of Jesus Christ's life, trials and sufferings.
Select one:
a. Pasyon
b. Credo
c. Awit
d. Pater Noster
Drama is told mainly through the words and actions of characters and intended to be performed by actors.
Select one:
True
False
A ____ is a mystifying, misleading or puzzling question posed as a problem to be solved or guessed.
Select one:
a. parable
b. riddle
c. epic
d. fable
The Bikolanos call their supreme being Asuang.
Select one:
True
False
Which of the following is not one of Mariano Ponce's pennames?
Select one:
a. Kalipulako
b. Tikbalang
c. Tagailog
d. Naning
A seven-lined diamond-shaped poem that specifies the part of speech in each line, sometimes with
contrasting ideas.
Select one:
a. Acrostic poem
b. Diamond poem
c. Haiku
d. Shape poem
Philippine literature managed to thrive during this era.
Select one:
True
False
Aliguyon was the hero son of the goddess Alunsina, and the mortal Datu Paubari.
Select one:
True
False
Baybayin, the Filipino writing system in the Pre-Spanish period, is derived from the Tagalog word baybay
which means:
Select one:
a. "to spell"
b. "to speak"
c. "to draw"
d. "to read"
Free public education made knowledge and information accessible to a greater number of Filipinos, which
gave them the opportunity to join the educated masses.
Select one:
True
False
What are the most common works of literature during the Japanese regime?
Select one:
a. short story
b. poems
c. novels
On May 1, 1898, the Americans led by U.S. Navy Admiral George Dewey, along with Gen. Emilio Aguinaldo,
attacked the Spanish Navy in Manila Bay.
Select one:
True
False
One of the classics of Confucianism that is a collection of 300 poems and songs from the early Chou Dynasty.
Select one:
a. Ch'un Ching
b. Li Ching
c. I Ching
d. Shih Ching
e. Shu Ching
Some prominent rocks are worshipped as Kami.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
The goal of Hindu Life which refers to physical pleasure.
Select one:
a. Dharma
b. Artha
c. Kama
d. Moksha
ChinesA book of Confucianism that talks about "Great Learning."
Select one:
a. Lun Yu
b. Meng Tzu
c. Ta Hsueh
d. Chung Yung
Select one:
a. separation
b. individualization
c. expression
d. optimism
勇気 (Romaji: yuuki) means love.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
These are charms, wards or scriptures that are said to bring the bearer good luck or protection.
Select one:
a. magatama
b. ofuda
c. taima
d. omamori
A way to achieve God through direct action.
Select one:
a. Karma
b. Bakhti
c. Jnana
d. Sudra
The Indian goddess of dance.
Select one:
a. Rakshasa
b. Panchatantra
c. Kisa Gotami
d. Shivast
The name of the tree on which Gautama vowed never to arise until he found the truth.
Select one:
a. Lumbini
b. Piali
c. Pipal
d. Panna
Time refers to ____ while moment means "for the time being."
Select one:
a. clear-cut situation
b. relative situation
c. all of the choices
d. indistinct situation
Shinto believes that the reason for human's attachment to nature is because they become kami after they
die.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
A way to achieve God by what you know.
Select one:
a. Jnana
b. Bakhti
c. None of the choices
d. Karma
The Japanese believe in balance in perspective and beauty.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Which of the following is not one of the three levels in which the Japanese are shaped?
Select one:
a. Milleu
b. Race
c. Standard of living
d. Power of the moment
This term refers to Japanese festivals to celebrate and honor shrines.
Select one:
a. tanjou
b. jinjitsu
c. matsuri
d. kouhaku
Which of the following is incorrect?
Select one:
a. One of the four noble truths is that suffering arises from attachment to desires
b. Sorrow is one of the unwholesome mental states impeding progress towards enlightenment.
c. One of the factors of enlightment is equanimity
d. Selflessness is one of the characteristics of existence
A characteristic of existence in Buddhism which refers to selflessness.
Select one:
a. anicca
b. anatta
c. dukkha
d. sila
A way to achieve God by how you act.
Select one:
a. Sudra
b. Jnana
c. Karma
d. Bakhti
Select one:
a. Kama
b. Dharma
c. Moksha
d. Artha
Omamori comes from the word mamori, which means, ___.
Select one:
a. protection
b. guidance
c. overpower
d. strength
Being a Hindu is said to be a sign of being ____.
Select one:
a. patient
b. gracious
c. glorious
d. gallant
Which of the following is not one of the Confucian Thoughts from the Analects?
Select one:
a. “To be wealthy and honored in an unjust society is a disgrace.”
b. "The journey of a thousand miles begins with one step."
c. “The superior man has a dignified ease without pride. The mean man has pride without a dignified ease.”
d. “What you do not want done to yourself, do not do to others.”
Those who do not agree that life is impermanent, is said to be in the state of "___" or illusion.
Select one:
a. Sudra
b. Purusha
c. Brahmin
d. Maya
What marked the end of World War I?
Select one:
a. Hitler and his wife committed suicide
b. Germany signed the Treaty of Versailles
c. Friendship was secured between neighboring European countries
d. Germany surrendered
During the World War II, when was London destroyed causing the death of approximately 60,000 civilians?
Select one:
a. 1940
b. 1941
c. 1943
d. 1945
This type of newspaper was developed in 1962 as a supplement to the Sunday newspaper.
Select one:
a. newsletter
b. tabloid
c. berliner
d. compact
Identify what the following statement describes:

The art/literature has a realistic setting.
Select one:
a. Magic Realism and Realism
b. Fantasy
c. Magic Realism
d. Surrealism
e. Realism
f. Magic Realism and Fantasy
The common ground in the themes of postmodernism and modernism.
Select one:
a. criticism of something broken
b. tragedy of something broken
c. celebration
d. result of war and invasions
e. lamentation and apathy
Christopher Columbus discovered America in 1492.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
A fantasy plot that is accepted by the characters.
Select one:
a. Realism
b. Surrealism
c. Magic Realism and Fantasy
d. Magic Realism and Realism
e. Fantasy
f. Magic Realism
Which of the following terms related to postmodernism means "construction or creation from a diverse
range of available things"?
Select one:
a. playfulness
b. parody
c. irony
d. pastiche
e. bricolage
Identify the aspect of modernism described:
The rise of spontaneity and discovery in creation.
Select one:
a. a rejection of the distinction between "high" and "low" or popular culture
b. an emphasis on fragmented forms
c. a blurring of distinctions between genres
d. a rejection of elaborate formal aesthetics in favor of minimalist designs
Postmodernism emphasizes pastiche. Which of the following is the closest meaning of the word "pastiche"?
Select one:
a. an imitation of the style of a writer, artist or genre with deliberate exaggeration for a humorous effect.
b. the expression of one's meaning by using language that normally signifies the opposite for a humorous
effect.
c. an artistic work in a style that imitates that of another work, artist or period
d. construction or creation from a diverse range of available things.
A movement where Brazilians explored their myths and folklore.
Select one:
a. Vanguardia
b. Surrealism
c. Modernismo
d. Colonial ideology
A popularly acclaimed artist whose artworks result in powerful paradoxes, often provoking unsettling
thoughts.
Select one:
a. Rene Magritte
b. Gabriel Garcia Marquez
c. Oswaldo Guayasamin
Explores aspects that are associated with imagination, attempting to express the inner life of humans.
Select one:
a. Fantasy
b. Surrealism
c. Magic Realism and Realism
d. Magic Realism
e. Realism
f. Magic Realism and Fantasy
This artist's artworks feature racism and discrimination. One such example is the image below:
Select one:
a. Gabriel Garcia Marquez
b. Rene Magritte
The English title of Gabriel Garcia Marquez' novel which became the epicenter of novels in this period.
Select one:
a. One Hundred Years of Solitude
b. Chronicle of a Death Foretold
c. The General in His Labyrinth
d. Love in the Time of Cholera
Discontinuous narratives and random-seeming collages of different materials.
Select one:
a. an emphasis on impressionism and subjectivity in writing
b. a tendency toward reflexivity or self-consciousness
c. omniscient third-person narrators and fixed narrative points of view
d. an emphasis on fragmented forms
Choosing materials used to produce art and in methods of displaying, distributing and consuming art.
Select one:
a. a rejection of elaborate formal aesthetics in favor of minimalist designs
b. omniscient third-person narrators and fixed narrative points of view
c. a rejection fo the distinction between "high" and "low" or popular culture
d. a blurring of distinctions between genres
Choose what type of control exists in the following dystopian novel, based on its synopsis:
Ready Player One by Ernest Cline: "In the year 2044, reality is an ugly place. The only time teenage Wade
Watts really feels alive is when he's jacked into the virtual utopia known as the OASIS. Wade's devoted his life
to studying the puzzles hidden within this world's digital confines, puzzles that are based on their creator's
obsession with the pop culture of decades past and that promise massive power and fortune to whoever can
unlock them. When Wade stumbles upon the first clue, he finds himself beset by players willing to kill to take
this ultimate prize. The race is on, and if Wade's going to survive, he'll have to win—and confront the real
world he's always been so desperate to escape."
Select one:
a. Technological Control
b. Corporate Control
c. Philosophical/Religious Control
d. Bureaucratic Control
thoughts.
Select one:
a. Rene Magritte
b. Gabriel Garcia Marquez
Small portions of West Africa are composed of people who believe in ______.
Select one:
a. Yourubu religion
b. Islam
c. Animism
d. Christianity
This began in the middle of the 18th century and is associated with modern era.
Select one:
a. Modern America
b. none of the choices
c. European Enlightenment
d. Scientific Revolution
French-speaking African writers, politicians and intellectuals developed the ideological philosophy, Negritude.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The climax of dystopian literature is unresolved.
b. Dystopian literature ends on a hopeful note.
c. Dystopia's conflict mostly revolves around the beliefs held by the people in the society
d. Dystopia asks big questions such as "What is love?"
Explores the social and political ills in the 20th Century.
Select one:
a. Fantasy
b. Surrealism
c. Magic Realism and Fantasy
d. Magic Realism and Realism
e. Magic Realism
f. Realism
In Modern America, this country is the first to become an independent nation in West Indies.
Select one:
a. Central America
b. Peru
c. Haiti
d. Mexico
The following are countries that proclaimed independence from Spain except for:
Select one:
a. Central America
b. Texas
c. Peru
d. Mexico
This massacre occurred in Rwanda causing millions to flee.
Select one:
a. none of the choices
b. Ethiopian
c. Hutus
d. Zaire
Postmodernism emphasizes pastiche. Which of the following is the closest meaning of the word "pastiche"?
Select one:
a. an imitation of the style of a writer, artist or genre with deliberate exaggeration for a humorous effect.
b. construction or creation from a diverse range of available things.
c. the expression of one's meaning by using language that normally signifies the opposite for a humorous
effect.
d. an artistic work in a style that imitates that of another work, artist or period
n a dystopian world, ____ takes control of human minds.
Select one:
a. religion
b. ruling power
c. propaganda
d. beliefs
This refers to a set of philosophical, political, and ethical ideas which provide the basis for the aesthetic
aspect of modernism.
Select one:
a. Modernity
b. Late Modernity
c. Modernization
d. Postmodernity
Select one:
a. a rejection of the distinction between "high" and "low" or popular culture
b. a blurring of distinctions between genres
c. an emphasis on fragmented forms
d. a rejection of elaborate formal aesthetics in favor of minimalist designs
One of the themes reflected in postmodernism which means the construction or creation from a diverse
range of available things.
Select one:
a. irony
b. bricolage
c. parody
d. pastiche

Select one:
a. Magic Realism and Realism
b. Surrealism
c. Fantasy
d. Magic Realism
e. Magic Realism and Fantasy
f. Realism
Select one:
a. The climax of dystopian literature is unresolved.
b. Dystopian literature ends on a hopeful note.
c. Dystopia's conflict mostly revolves around the beliefs held by the people in the society
d. Dystopia asks big questions such as "What is love?"
Known as one of the authors of the 1935 Philippine Constitution.
Select one:
a. Severino Reyes
b. Paz Marquez Benitez
c. Lope K. Santos
d. Claro M. Recto
21st Century Literature (ENGL-121)

Grade 11Week 11-19
https://amaleaks.blogspot.com
Knowing and believing can be quite similar.
Select one:
- False
A way to achieve God by what you know.
Answer:
-Jnana
The total length of the Indus River is _____ kilometers.
Answer
-3,180
The first Indian poet who wrote the epic, Ramayana.
Answer:
Maharishi Valmiki
Evident in the Indian culture is a class structure determined by birth. It is also known as the
Answer
Caste system
Families build ____ where kamis live.

Ans: shrines
Ans: "The journey of a thousand miles begins with one step."
Ans: matsuri
The first Indian poet who wrote the epic, Ramayana.
Ans: Maharishi Valmiki
The term ____ refers to loyalty to one's true nature.
Ans: zhong
The Chinese do not like change.
Ans: True
Ans: Bakhti
Omamori comes from the word mamori, which means, ___.
Ans: protection
One of the classics of Confucianism that is a collection of 300 poems and songs from the early Chou Dynasty.
Ans: Shih Ching
Ans: Pipal
Sq. 8 ENGL-121 (21st century lit.)
In Indian Literature, the devil does not exist. Instead, God does something bad to a person to teach
them a lesson.
Select one:
-True
The Indian goddess of dance
Answer:
-Shivast
A way to achieve God through direct action.
Answer:
-Karma
A demonic being from Hindu mythology.
Answer:
-Rakshasa
Being a Hindu is said to be a sign of being ____
Answer
-glorious
Answer:
-Kama
The female Rakshasa in human form takes the name
Answer:
-Manushya-Rakshasi
Answer:
-Bakhti
_____refers to the red mark on the forehead of the Indians and is said to be a sign of God.
-kunkuni
The _____ is a major south-flowing river in South Asia.
Answer
-Indus River
L.A 9 ENGL-121 (21st century lit.)
Which of the following is not one of the three levels in which the Japanese are shaped?
Select one:
-Standard of living
During the ____ period, Shintoism became the main religion in Japan.
Answer
-Meiji
The term ____refers to spirits that roam the land and are also known as the Shinto gods.
Answer
-Kami
The demonic creatures represented as ogres and trolls roaming the earth.
Answer:
-Oni
Question 5
Some prominent rocks are worshipped as Kami.
Select one:
-True
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The Japanese do not possess guilt.
Select one:
-True
?? (Romaji: yuuki) means love.
Select one:
-False
Shinto believes that the reason for human's attachment to nature is because they become kami after
they die.
Select one:
-True
Shinto believes that humans are fundamentally good and evil deeds are caused by evil spirits.
Select one:
-True
The sun goddess, ____is considered as the most important God.
Answer
-Amaterasu
To the Japanese, a person's poor quality/badness is relative because of the existence of goodness.
Select one:
- False
Omamori comes from the word mamori, which means, _____
Answer
-protection
Time refers to _____while moment means "for the time being."
Answer
-clear-cut situation
Families build _____where kamis live.
Answer
-shrines
These are charms, wards or scriptures that are said to bring the bearer good luck or protection.
Answer:
-ofudasss
Heaven or ____is a positive and personal force in the universe for Confucius.
Answer
-T'ien
Select one:
- Sorrow is one of the unwholesome mental states impeding progress towards enlightenment.
Confucianism, like the Catholics, have specific rituals or practices for their religion.
Select one:
- False
Answer:
-pipal
Select one:
-"The journey of a thousand miles begins with one step."
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Chinese Literature serves to portray only a fraction of reality.
Select one:
- False
One of the classics of Confucianism that is a collection of 300 poems and songs from the early Chou
Dynasty.
Select one:
- Shih Ching
The Chinese do not like change.
Select one:
-True
The main principle of Confucianism is , which means "humaneness" or "benevolence."
Answer
-ren
_____ is a religion that encompasses a variety of traditions, beliefs, and spiritual practices largely based
on teachings attributed to Buddha.
-Buddhism
To Buddhists, ____or suffering is the innate nature of existence.
Answer
-dukkha
Which of the following is not a book of Confucianism?
Select one:
- Li Ching
The term ____refers to loyalty to one's true nature.
Answer
-zhong
Complete the quote: Not to discuss with a man worthy of conversation is to waste the man. To discuss
with a man not worthy of conversation is to ____."
Answer
-waste words
Chinese expressed things by _____ than analysis.
Answer
-individualization
L.Q 3 ENGL-121 (21st century lit.)
One of the goals of Hindu life that refers to materialistic pleasure/wealth.
Select one:
- Artha
_____is said to be relative in the Japanese customs.
Answer
-Truth
This is the term that refers to the end of reincarnation.
Select one:
- Moksha
Which of the following is not a way of Japanese living?
Select one:
-importance of time
The Japanese term which refers to nature itself.
Answer:
-Kigo
? (read as chikara) is a kanji (Chinese character) that means wealth.
Select one:
- False
A group in the caste system composed of slaves.
Select one:
-Sudra
_____is a collection of fables given to kings and princes, which purpose is to teach them values,
leadership and governance.
Answer
-Panchatantra
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Indian's way of living?
Select one:
- Peace
The protagonist in Ramayana whose wife is abducted by the demonking of Lanka, Ravana.
Select one:
- Rama
The Japanese believe in balance in perspective and beauty.
Select one:
- True
Select one:
-The Indian's way of living is one of individualism
This refers to a class of supernatural monsters, spirits, and demons in Japanese folklore.
Answer:
-Yokai
What is the difference between joy and happiness?
Select one:
-joy is natural while happiness is acquired
Those who do not agree that life is impermanent, is said to be in the state of "_____" or illusion.
Answer
-Maya
The ____ Veda is a book of spells.
Select one:
- Atharva
______is the shrine maiden or the caretaker that is usually a daughter of the priest.
Answer
-Miko
??? means to protect. It is said to provide various forms of luck or protection.
Answer:
-Omamori
Matsuri is a Japanese ____celebrating and honoring shrines.
Answer
-festival
Omamori are charms, wards or scriptures said to bring the bearer good luck or protection, depending on
what is written on them.
Select one:
- False
A characteristic of existence in Buddhism which refers to selflessness.
Select one:
- anatta
Siddhartha Gautama was born and eventually grew up in India.
Select one:
- False
A book of Confucianism that talks about "Great Learning."
Select one:
-Ta Hsueh
Adolf Hitler's conquering strategy called ______ or Lightning War.
-Blitzkrieg
After the first World War, the clothing of people became simplistic.
Select one:
- False
A law designed to protect woman's rights during that time.

Select one:
-Equal Pay Act of 1970
The age of technology brought about the following except:
Select one:
-storage drives
People of the time read war poems that are based on the horrors of the aftermath of the World War.
Select one:
- True
Who was the youngest Prime Minister of Britain for almost 200 years?
Select one:
-Tony Blair
The first woman Prime Minister and was elected three consecutive times.
Select one:
- Margaret Thatcher
The first woman member in the House of Commons.
Answer:
-Lady Astor
All women over eighteen were granted the right to vote.
Select one:
-False
This type of newspaper was developed in 1962 as a supplement to the Sunday newspaper.
Answer:
-Tabloid
The common themes of British literature often stray from modernism and stream of consciousness.
Select one:
-False
What marked the end of World War I?
Select one:
-Germany signed the Treaty of Versailles
King Edward VII took the invasion of Belgium by Germans as a threat.
Select one:
- False
Which of the following is not one of the independent countries which the British Empire has dissolved
into?
Select one:
-Nepal
During the World War II, when was London destroyed causing the death of approximately 60,000
civilians?
Select one:
-1941
Postmodernism emphasizes pastiche. Which of the following is the closest meaning of the word
"pastiche"?
Select one:
- an artistic work in a style that imitates that of another work, artist or period
Choosing materials used to produce art and in methods of displaying, distributing and consuming art.
Select one:
- a rejection fo the distinction between "high" and "low" or popular culture
The European Enlightenment began on mid-eighteenth century.
Select one:
-True
In Modern America, this country is the first to become an independent nation in West Indies.
Select one:
-Haiti
Christopher Columbus discovered America in 1492.
Select one:
-False
This term generally refers to the broad aesthetic movements of the 20th Century.
Answer:
-Modernism
The _____ was implemented and Canada was then separated from the British parliament.
Answer
-Canada Act of 1982
Discontinuous narratives and random-seeming collages of different materials.
Select one:
-an emphasis on fragmented forms
The following are countries that proclaimed independence from Spain except for:
Select one:
- Texas
Aztecs found Tenochtitlan in 1325 to 1350 A.D. Today, Tenochtitlan is known as:
Select one:
-Mexico
Postmodern art favors discontinuity in narrative structure.
Select one:
-True
This refers to a set of philosophical, political, and ethical ideas which provide the basis for the aesthetic
Answer:
-Modernity
Select one:
-a rejection of elaborate formal aesthetics in favor of minimalist designs
The common ground in the themes of postmodernism and modernism.
Select one:
-result of war and invasions
Which of the following terms related to postmodernism means "construction or creation from a diverse
range of available things"?
Select one:
-. bricolage
______is a means of reuniting conscious and unconscious realms of experience so completely that the
world of dream and fantasy combines.
-Surrealism
Select one:
- Surrealism
This artist's artworks feature racism and discrimination. One such example is the image below:
Select one:
-Oswaldo Guayasamin

Treats unreal events as matter-of-fact.
Select one:
-Magic Realism
Portrays non-realistic subjects, often a product of hallucinations.
Select one:
-Fantasy
Depicts everyday subjects and situations in contemporary settings.
Select one:
-Realism
Explores the social and political ills in the 20th Century.
Select one:
-Magic Realism
The art/literature has a realistic setting.
Select one:
-Magic Realism and Realism
A movement where Brazilians explored their myths and folklore.
Select one:
- Modernismo
A fantasy plot that is accepted by the characters.
Select one:
- Magic Realism and Fantasy
The English title of Gabriel Garcia Marquez' novel which became the epicenter of novels in this period.
Answer:
One Hundred Years of Solitude
The purpose of this is an approach to find methods of uniting the conscious and subconscious realms of
experience.
Select one:
-Surrealism
The Spanish and Portuguese in South America had two goals. What are these?
Select one:
-increase wealth and convert the natives to Christians
thoughts.
Select one:
-Rene Magritte
The objective is to bring a fresh image of our everyday world.
Select one:
- Magic Realism
______deptics an ideal society"
answer: utopia
4th quarter exam ENGL-121 (21st century lit.)
c-Eliezer Bernardo
Noted: 49/50 langpo it's up to you!
The one who wrote Totem, a poem that encourages common racial identity for black Africans.
-Leopold Sedar Senghor
The Sun Goddess that is considered the most important God in Shinto.
– Amaterasu
These are charms and wards or scriptures that is said to bring the bearer good luck or protection.
- Ofuda
Gautama Buddha is known to be _________ and will remain in this position until he has found the truth.
- seated under the pipal tree
Which of the following paths is not included in the samadhi or meditation?
- Right Thought
The one who proposed equality in the West Africa. -Blaise Daigne
The story about the grief of a woman who lost her child and eventually where the line, "the living are
few, but the dead are many" became popular.
- Kisagotami(sabinilayandaw????)
The term that refers to the goal of liberation
.-Moksha
This consists of three books on the Rites of Propriety. -
-Li Ching
A way to achieve God which depends on how you act. -
-Bakhti
This is the innate nature of existence according to Buddhism.
-Dukkha
A Japanese word which means protection.
-Mamori
The Veda for rituals of sacrifice.
-Yajur Veda
The characteristic of existence which refers to selflessness. .
-anatta
In 1948, immigrants arrived in Britain. Their nationalities varied and they are the following except:
-Australians
The movement initiated the emerging of daring and confrontational themes.
- vanguardia
Indian Literature is often described as illogical. a. True
The literary and ideological philosophy developed by French-speaking African intellectuals.
-Negritude
The positive and personal force in the universe, according to Confucius is Heaven or
-T’ien
I Ching or the Classic of Changes is a collection of texts on divination based on a set of hexagrams that
reflect the relationship between Yin and Yang in nature and society.
- 64
This depicts the tragedy of something broken. Modernism
he Spanish conquistador who defeated the Aztecs in 1521.
-Herman Cortes
This book advocates the discernment of a basic norm of human action which, if put into effect, will bring
life into harmony with the process of the universe.
-Chung Yung
The main principle of Confucianism is Answer which means humaneness or benevolence.
-ren
The Spanish literary movement which is characterized by its use of sensuous imagery to express
distinctive spiritual values, as well as metaphors.
-Modernismo
This is a collection of fables given to kings and princes that will teach them all there is to know about
values, leadership and governance.
-Panchatantra
Which of these refers to the collection of 300 poems and songs from the early Chou Dynasty?
-Shih Ching
The level of caste system which refers to the soldiers.
-Vaisya
What is the existing goal of the Ramayana? Dharma
The Indians believe that knowing and believing are nearly the same. .
-False
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Modernism in American literature?
-a clear distinction between genres
A book of Mencius' conversations with kings of the time.
-Meng Tzu
This term is used to refer to works that depict supernatural forces working because of a logical reason.
-Magic realism
Japanese term referring to nature.
-Kigo
akshasas are most commonly called
-Maneaters
Shinto became the main religion in Japan during the meiji period
This term refers more to art/literature that defies logic with the
supernatural
-surealism
Confucianism is characterized by a highly Answer
-optimistic
This art favors reflexivity, self-consciousness, fragmentation and discontinuity.
-postmodern
Adolf Hitler, head of the Nazis used the
-Blitzkrieg
Which of the following is not one of the unwholesome mental states that impede profress towards
enlightenment?
-Lying
roup are composed of writers, painters and artists that aim to revive the Uli art of the Igbo tribe.
-Nsukka
Religion believes that we planned our lives with God. Youruba
Indian belief dictates that salvation is not achieved by action but by knowledge or realization.
-True
The Indian's way of living's characteristics include the following except:
-happiness
This refers to a set of philosophical, political and ethical ideas which provide the basis for the aesthetic
-Modernity
There is no devil in Indian literature.
-True
Edward VII lead the friendship of major European countries and eventually forming the group called, "
-entente cordiale
River is one of the longest rivers in Asia extending to 3,180 kilometers.
-Indus
The Indians have Answer identities of the god.
-300.
You can't look at things in only one way.
You should look from both angles.
~Takahashi sensei
The term that refers to the goal of liberation.
-Moksha
The Chinese accept that change is inevitable.
-true
The_______ group are composed of writers, painters and artist that aim to receive the Uli art of the lgbo
tribe
-Nsukka
The positive and personal force in the universe, according to Confucius is Heaven or __________
-T'ien
This Japanese term refers to the spirits that roam the land.
-yoaki
- yokai
- entente cordiale
- t'ien
The story about the grief of a woman who lost her child and eventually where the line, "the living are few,
but the dead are many" became popular.
-KisaGotami
-Yajur Veda
The characteristic of existence which refers to selflessness.
-Anatta
Shinto became the main religion in Japan during the ____period.
-meiji
- Magic Realism
This term refers more to art/literature that defies logic with the supernatural.
-Magic Realism
-Ofuda
This book advocates the discernment of a basic norm of human action which, if put into effect, will bring life
into harmony with the process of the universe.
-Chung Yung
This consists of three books on the Rites of Propriety
- Li Ching
enlightenment.
-lying
Rakshasas are most commonly called
-maneaters
-True
-dukkha
-shihching
- an emphasis on fragmented forms
The main principle of Confucianism is ____which means humaneness or benevolence.
- ren
This refers to a set of philosophical, political and ethical ideas which provide the basis for the aesthetic aspect
of modernism.
- Modernity
The___River is one of the longest rivers in Asia extending to 3,180 kilometers.
-Indus
-Mamori
The people who have been subjected to bad karma cannot find their way to Nirvana.
-False
Indian Literature is often described as illogical.
-true
-Modern
-seated under the pipal tree
-Right Thought
The____religion believes that we planned our lives with God.
- Youruba
-Amaterasu
-Happiness
the___group are composed of writers, painters and artists that aim to revive the Uli art of the Igbo tribe.
-Nsukka
- Meng Tzu
This depicts the tragedy of something broken.
-Modernism
Adolf Hitler, head of the Nazis used the ____or lightning war in conquering Poland.
- blitzkrieg
Confucianism is characterized by a highly _____ view of human nature.
- optimistic
-Moksha
-False
The Spanish conquistador who defeated the Aztecs in 1521.
- Herman Cortes
-true
The Indians have ____ identities of the god
-300
- negritude
The Indians believe that knowing and believing are nearly the same.
-false
I Ching or the Classic of Changes is a collection of texts on divination based on a set of ____ hexagrams that
- 64
- australians
The Spanish literary movement which is characterized by its use of sensuous imagery to express distinctive
spiritual values, as well as metaphors.
- avant-garde
What is the existing goal of the Ramayana?
-dharma
A way to achieve God which depends on how you act.
-bakhti
-Vaisya
The _____ movement initiated the emerging of daring and confrontational themes.
- Vanguardia
– Amaterasu
- Ofuda
- Right Thought
- Kisagotami(sabinilayandaw )
😂 😂

.-Moksha
-Li Ching
-Bakhti
-Dukkha
-Mamori
-Yajur Veda
-anatta
-Australians
- vanguardia
-Negritude
T’ien
I Ching or the Classic of Changes is a collection of texts on divination based on a set of hexagrams that reflect
the relationship between Yin and Yang in nature and society.
- 64
Herman Cortes
Chung Yung
ren
Modernismo
This is a collection of fables given to kings and princes that will teach them all there is to know about values,
leadership and governance. Panchatantra
Which of these refers to the collection of 300 poems and songs from the early Chou Dynasty? Shih Ching
Vaisya
False
a clear distinction between genres
Meng Tzu
Magic realism
Japanese term referring to nature. Kigo
Maneaters
This term refers more to art/literature that defies logic with the supernatural
surealism
Confucianism is characterized by a highly Answer optimistic
postmodern
Blitzkrieg
enlightenment?
Lying
group are composed of writers, painters and artists that aim to revive the Uli art of the Igbo tribe.
Nsukka
True
happiness
of modernism.
Modernity
True
entente cordiale
Indus
300.
~Takahashi sensei
This depicts the aftermath of wars.
A: Both choices are correct
The freedom of Latin America opened for export and import of goods.
A: true
The Southern part of West Africa are mostly

A: Christians
This was a means of combining both worlds of dream and fantasy.

A: Surrealism
Who declared war against the Germans during World War I?

A: King George V
There is a line drawn between the rich and the poor in dystopian literature.
A: true
Choose what type of control exists in the following dystopian novel, based on its synopsis:
The Circle by Dave Eggers: "When Mae Holland is hired to work for the Circle, the world’s most powerful
internet company, she feels she’s been given the opportunity of a lifetime. The Circle, run out of a sprawling
California campus, links users’ personal emails, social media, banking, and purchasing with their universal
operating system, resulting in one online identity and a new age of civility and transparency. As Mae tours
the open-plan office spaces, the towering glass dining facilities, the cozy dorms for those who spend nights at
work, she is thrilled with the company’s modernity and activity. There are parties that last through the night,
there are famous musicians playing on the lawn, there are athletic activities and clubs and brunches, and
even an aquarium of rare fish retrieved from the Marianas Trench by the CEO. Mae can’t believe her luck, her
great fortune to work for the most influential company in America--even as life beyond the campus grows
distant, even as a strange encounter with a colleague leaves her shaken, even as her role at the Circle
becomes increasingly public. What begins as the captivating story of one woman’s ambition and idealism
soon becomes a heart-racing novel of suspense, raising questions about memory, history, privacy,
democracy, and the limits of human knowledge."
A: Technological Control
Dystopian literature is generally objective.

A: false
Divergent by Veronica Roth: "In Beatrice Prior's dystopian Chicago world, society is divided into five factions,
each dedicated to the cultivation of a particular virtue—Candor (the honest), Abnegation (the selfless),
Dauntless (the brave), Amity (the peaceful), and Erudite (the intelligent). On an appointed day of every year,
all sixteen-year-olds must select the faction to which they will devote the rest of their lives. For Beatrice, the
decision is between staying with her family and being who she really is—she can't have both. So she makes a
choice that surprises everyone, including herself."
A: Bureaucratic Control
A: matsuri
This is the term that depicts an ideal society.

A: Utopia
The West Africa-Nsukka Group aims to revive the ___ art of the Igbo tribe.
A: uli
This began in the middle of the 18th century and is associated with modern era.
A: European Enlightenment
Which of the following is not a theme of British literature?

A: postmodernism
This expresses the inner life and psychology of humans.

A: surrealism

A: Dystopia's conflict mostly revolves around the beliefs held by the people in the society
The English term of the movement of literature which promotes surrealism.

A: avant-grande
The Hunger Games trilogy by Suzanne Collins: "The nation of Panem, formed from a post-apocalyptic North
America, is a country that consists of a wealthy Capitol region surrounded by 12 poorer districts. Early in its
history, a rebellion led by a 13th district against the Capitol resulted in its destruction and the creation of an
annual televised event known as the Hunger Games. In punishment, and as a reminder of the power and
grace of the Capitol, each district must yield one boy and one girl between the ages of 12 and 18 through a
lottery system to participate in the games. The 'tributes' are chosen during the annual Reaping and are forced
to fight to the death, leaving only one survivor to claim victory."
A: Bureaucratic Control
This holds the ruling power during the American Revolution.

A: elite
Queen Victoria died after only ten years of being a queen.

A: false
One of the themes reflected in postmodernism which means the construction or creation from a diverse
range of available things.
A: bricolage
21st Century Literature Grade 11
Week 20 GRADE 11
- yokai
- entente cordiale
- t'ien
-KisaGotami
-Yajur Veda
The characteristic of existence which refers to selflessness.
-Anatta
Shinto became the main religion in Japan during the ____period.
-meiji
- Magic Realism
This term refers more to art/literature that defies logic with the supernatural.
-Magic Realism
-Ofuda
-Chung Yung
This consists of three books on the Rites of Propriety
- Li Ching
enlightenment.
-lying
Rakshasas are most commonly called
-maneaters
-True
-dukkha
-shihching
The main principle of Confucianism is ____which means humaneness or benevolence.
- ren
of modernism.
- Modernity
The___River is one of the longest rivers in Asia extending to 3,180 kilometers.
-Indus
-Mamori
The people who have been subjected to bad karma cannot find their way to Nirvana.
-False
Indian Literature is often described as illogical.
-true
-Modern
-seated under the pipal tree
-Right Thought
The____religion believes that we planned our lives with God.
- Youruba
-Amaterasu
-Happiness
the___group are composed of writers, painters and artists that aim to revive the Uli art of the Igbo tribe.
-Nsukka
- Meng Tzu
This depicts the tragedy of something broken.
-Modernism
Adolf Hitler, head of the Nazis used the ____or lightning war in conquering Poland.
- blitzkrieg
Confucianism is characterized by a highly _____ view of human nature.
- optimistic
Adolf Hitler, head of the Nazis used the ____ in conquering Poland.
A: lightning war

-Moksha
-False
The Spanish conquistador who defeated the Aztecs in 1521.
- Herman Cortes
-true
The Indians have ____ identities of the god
-300
- negritude
The Indians believe that knowing and believing are nearly the same.
-false
I Ching or the Classic of Changes is a collection of texts on divination based on a set of ____ hexagrams that
- 64
- australians
- modernismo
What is the existing goal of the Ramayana?
-dharma
A way to achieve God which depends on how you act.
-bakhti
-Vaisya
The _____ movement initiated the emerging of daring and confrontational themes.
- Vanguardia
– Amaterasu
- Ofuda
- Right Thought
- Kisagotami( sabinilayandaw ) 😂 😂

.-Moksha
-Li Ching
-Bakhti
-Dukkha
-Mamori
-Yajur Veda
-anatta
-Australians
- vanguardia
-Negritude
T’ien
The positive and personal force in the universe, according to Confucius is ___.
A: T’ien
I Ching or the Classic of Changes is a collection of texts on divination based on a set of hexagrams that reflect
the relationship between Yin and Yang in nature and society.
- 64

Herman Cortes
Chung Yung
ren
Modernismo
This is a collection of fables given to kings and princes that will teach them all there is to know about values,
leadership and governance. Panchatantra
Which of these refers to the collection of 300 poems and songs from the early Chou Dynasty? Shih Ching
Vaisya
False
Meng Tzu
Magic realism
Japanese term referring to nature. Kigo
Maneaters
This term refers more to art/literature that defies logic with the supernatural
surealism
Confucianism is characterized by a highly Answer optimistic
postmodern
Blitzkrieg
enlightenment?
Lying
group are composed of writers, painters and artists that aim to revive the Uli art of the Igbo tribe.
Nsukka
True
happiness
of modernism.
Modernity
True
entente cordiale
Indus
300.
~Takahashi sensei
CHEM-112 WEEK 1-10
Basic component that makes up any kind of material.
A: atom
This basically makes up any kind of material

A: atom
Anything that occupies space and has mass

A: matter
What is the general term for any body that has mass and occupies space?
A: matter
General term referring to anything that occupies space and has mass
A: matter
Study of materials and its components

A: Chemistry
General term for anything with mass and has volume

A: matter
Quantities standardized for scientific use

A: SI
Smallest building block of any material

A: atom
Branch of chemistry that deals with compounds containing carbon

A: organic
Path of electron around the nucleus of an atom
A: orbit
Most basic building block of any substance

A: atom
Quantity with square unit

A: SI
What kind of base forms hydroxide ions when mixed with water?
A: weak
Path followed by an electron around the nucleus of an atom

A: orbit
What do you call the path of an electron around the nucleus of an atom?
A: orbit
Science that deals with the chemical composition of chemical processes associated with the Earth
and other planets.
A: geochemistry
Reaction involved when a complex reactant is broken down into a simpler product.
A: decomposition
What kind of reaction is involved when a complex reactant is simplified?

A: decomposition
Science dealing with the composition of processes involving the Earth and other planets
A: geochemistry
Quantity that refers to the space occupied by a body

A: volume
Quantity referring to the space occupied by a body
A: volume
Gas law involving constant pressure.

A: charle’s law
Product of the combination of atoms during chemical reactions

A: molecule
Results from the combination of atoms during chemical reactions

A: molecule
What substance results from the combination of atoms during chemical reactions?
A: molecule
Term used to refer to a charged atom

A: ion
In one molecule of water, how many percent is hydrogen?

A: 11.19
Consider one molecule of water. How many percent of this molecule is hydrogen?
A: 11.19
In the oxidation of methane alcohol in air, if 209 grams of this substance are used up, how many
grams of water are produced?
A: 235
How heavy (in grams) is one molecule of ethanol

A: 46.07
Consider the burning of methanol in air. If 209 grams of methanol are used up in the combustion,
how much water (in grams) is produced?
A: 235
What is the chemical reaction characterized by the union of reactants

A: synthesis
What is the chemical reaction characterized by the union of reactants?

A: synthesis
How heavy is a molecule of sodium hypochlorite? Express your answer in grams.

A: 74.44
How heavy (in grams) is one molecule of sodium hypochlorite?

A: 74.44
When burning 1200 grams of carbon, how much carbon monoxide (in grams) will be produced?
A: 2800
In the burning of 1200 grams of carbon, how many grams of carbon monoxide will be produced?
A: 2800
When 124 grams of aluminum reacts with 601 grams of Fe2O3, determine how many grams of
Al2O3 are formed.
A: 234
How many molecules are in 3 moles of calcium tetrachloride?
A: 1.8066 x 10^24
In a molecule of ammonia, how many percent is nitrogen?

A: 82.24
Consider a molecule of ammonia. How many percent of this molecule is nitrogen?

A: 82.24
How heavy (in grams) is one molecule of ethanol?

A: 46.07
Consider a molecule of ethane. How many percent of ethane is carbon?

A: 79.89
In one molecule of ethane, how many percent of this molecule is carbon?

A: 79.89
In a molecule of potassium hydroxide, how many percent of this molecule is oxygen?

A: 28.52
The molecular mass of hydrochloric acid is how many grams?

A: 36.46
The mass of hydrochloric acid is how many grams?

A: 36.46
How many grams is a molecule of hydrochloric acid?

A: 36.46
How heavy is a molecule of sodium hypochlorite? Express your answer in grams

A: 74.44
How many molecules are there in 8 moles of benzoic acid?

A: 4.8176 x 10^24
Consider the reaction of 124 grams of Al with 601 grams of Fe2O3. Compute for the mass (in
grams) of Al2O3 formed.
A: 234
Consider one molecule of sodium sulfate. Determine the percentage of sulfur in it.
A: 22.57
In a molecule of sodium sulfate, determine the percentage of sulfur in it.

A: 22.57
In one molecule of sodium sulfate, how many percent of it is sulfur?
A: 22.57
How many molecules are there in 0.75 mole of sodium chloride?

A: 4.5165 x 10^23
A 0.75 mole of sodium chloride has ___ x 1023 atoms. Note: The answer must be in 4 decimal
places.
A: 4.5165
Find the molecular mass of hydrogen peroxide in grams?

A: 34.01
What is the molecular mass (in grams) of hydrogen peroxide?

A: 34.01
Determine the molecular mass (in grams) of dinitrogen trioxide?

A: 76.01

A: 46.07
How many grams is one molecule of ethanol?

A: 46.07
Suppose you want to burn 1200 grams of graphite. How much oxygen (in grams) would you need?
A: 1600
If you want to burn 1200 grams of carbon, how many grams of oxygen would you need?
A: 1600
How many grams is one molecule of calcium oxide?

A: 56.08
How heavy (in grams) is calcium oxide?

A: 56.08
How heavy (in grams) is one molecule of sulfuric acid?

A: 98.07
How many grams is a molecule of sulfuric acid?

A: 98.07
What is the mass (in grams) of sulfuric acid?

A: 98.07
Determine how many atoms of carbon dioxide does 0.55 mole of this molecule has? ____ x 1021
A: 7.53
A 0.55 mole of carbon dioxide has ___ x 1021 atoms.

A: 7.53
How many molecules does 0.55 mole of carbon monoxide has?

A: 7.53 x 10^21
What do you call the particle with more positive charges than negative charges?
A: cation
What is the molecular mass (in grams) of calcium carbonate?

A: 162.11
What do you call the agent in a redox reaction from which electrons are released?
A: reducing
Agent in a redox reaction from which electrons are removed.

A: reducing
The twelve-gauge copper wire is roughly cylindrical and has a diameter of approximately 0.1040 in.
The density of copper is 8.92 g/cm3 and copper atoms have an approximate atomic radius of 135
pm. What is the mass (in grams) of a 100-ft piece of copper wire?
A: 1491
Quantity used to measure distance between two points.

A: length
Quantity that measures the distance between two bodies

A: length
Made up of proton/s, neutron/s, and electron/s.

A: atom
Composed of proton/s, neutron/s, and electron/s

A: atom
This body is composed of proton/s, neutron/s, and electron/s.

A: atom
Which of the following is the lightest particle?

A: electron
Term used to refer to a charged atom.

A: ion
Which is the lightest: proton, neutron, or electron?

A: electron
Particle that contains more positive charges than negative charges.

A: cation
Particle with more positive charges than negative charges

A: cation
Science that deals with the composition of materials.

A: chemistry
Study dealing with the composition of materials

A: chemistry
What kind of acid completely dissociates when mixed with water?

A: strong
Composed of a nucleus and electron/s.

A: atom
Always has a nucleus and electron/s

A: atom
Science that deals with energy and its interactions with matter.
A: physics
Science of energy and its interactions with different materials
A: physics
Particle with more negative charges than positive ones.

A: anion
Particle having more negative charges than positive ones

A: anion
Type of bond between a cation and an anion.

A: ionic
Form of atom that is positively charged with respect to its neutral state.
A: cation
What type of bond exists between a cation and an anion?

A: ionic
Atom with a positive charge with respect to its neutral state

A: cation
Chemistry that deals with compounds with carbon
A: organic
What quantity is constant in Charles's law?

A: pressure
Formed when atoms combine through bonds.

A: molecule
How many grams is one molecule of sodium bicarbonate?

A: 84.01
What is the mass (in grams) of sodium bicarbonate?

A: 84.01
Amount of material contained by a body.

A: mass
Measurement of the amount of material in a body

A: mass
This refers to the amount of material in any given body.

A: mass
An atom that is negatively charged.

A: anion
Negatively-charged atom
A: anion
Chemistry of materials related to living tissues.

A: biochemistry
Chemistry living tissues.

A: biochemistry
This branch of chemistry is related to living tissues.
A: biochemistry
Method of comparing an unknown quantity with a known quantity

A: measurement
Process of comparing an unknown quantity with a known quantity.

A: measurement
Bond formed by the sharing of electrons between atoms.

A: covalent
Bond formed through the sharing of electrons between atoms

A: covalent
What kind of bond is formed by the sharing of electrons between atoms?

A: covalent
Comparison of something unknown with a standard.

A: measurement
Quantity used to express the amount of a substance.

A: mole
What is the percentage of hydrogen in propanoic acid?

A: 8.16
How many percent of propanoic acid is hydrogen?

A: 8.16
Quantity expressed with cubic unit.

A: volume
Three moles of methane has ____ x 1024 molecules.

A: 1.8066
Eight moles of benzene has ____ x 1024 molecules. Note: The answer must be in 4 decimal places.
A: 4.8176
Reaction wherein the anions and cations of two compounds switch places to form two entirely
different compounds.
A: double replacement
This reaction involves the anions and cations of two compounds switching places to form two
entirely different compounds.
Uses Avogadro’s number to have a numerical value.

A: mole
Reaction that involves the transfer of protons from an acid to a base.

A: acid-base
Reaction characterized by production of a complex product from simple reactants.

A: synthesis
It is the phase in which the sister chromatid separate.

A: anaphase
What type of reaction is characterized by the production of a complex product from simple
reactants?
A: synthesis
How many percent of one molecule of potassium hydroxide is oxygen?

A: 28.52
How much (in percent) of one molecule of potassium hydroxide is oxygen?

A: 28.52
This particle has more negative charges than positive ones.

A: anion
A: (synthesis)
Reaction generally described as: AB + C AC + B

A: single replacement
This type of reaction is generally described as: AB + C -> AC + B

What is the process of comparing an unknown quantity with a known quantity?

A: measurement
Chemical reaction characterized by the combination of reactants.

A: synthesis
How much volume (in L) will 0.20 mol hydrogen iodide at 300 K and 100.0 kPa occupy? Use R = 8.314
kPa*L/(K*mol) = 0.08205 atm*L/(mol*K).
A: 5
How many molecules are present in 3 moles of methanal?

A: 1.8066 x 10^24
Type of bond between an anion and a cation

A: ionic
In a titration experiment, 500 mL of gaseous hydrochloric acid at 300 K and 100 kPa dissolved in pure
water is needed to neutralize 12.5 mL of sodium hydroxide. What is the concentration of the basic
solution (in mol/L)?
A: 1.60
Substance formed when atoms bond with each other
A: molecule
Identify which quantity is constant in Boyle's law.

A: temperature
What is the resulting concentration (in mol/L) of aqueous hydrochloric acid if 500 mL of its gaseous form
at 300 K and 100 kPa will be dissolved in 100 mL pure water? Use 8.314 kPa*L/(K*mol).
A: 0.200
Consider the reaction of 3.66 g of a sample containing zinc (atomic weight = 65.4) and magnesium
(atomic weight = 24.3) with a dilute acid to yield 2.470 L of hydrogen gas at 101.0 kPa and 300 K. What is
the percentage of zinc in the sample?
A: 30
(2 points) Suppose 4 moles of nitrogen gas are confined to a 6.0 L container at 1770C and 12.0 atm.
If the container will be allowed to isothermally expand to 36.0 L, determine the final pressure
experienced by the gas. (Express the answer in atm)
A: 2
Gas law involving constant pressure and temperature.

A: avogadro’s law
Quantities specifically used in scientific measurements

A: SI
(2 points) A 60.0 liter tank of gaseous chlorine at 270C and 125 atm suddenly had a leak. When this
leak was discovered, the pressure was found to have reduced to 50 atm. Determine how many
moles of chlorine escaped from the tank.
A: 187.5
Consider 6.2 liters of an ideal gas compressed at 3.0 atm and maintained at 37 degrees Celsius.
Determine how many moles of this gas are contained.
A: 0.75
One liter of an air sample at 250 degrees Celsius and 1 atm is compressed to 3 mL at a pressure of
1000 atm. Determine the temperature of the air sample in kelvins.
A: 983
Gas law involving constant temperature.

A: Boyle's Law
Treating 50.0 mL of silver nitrate solution with excess hydrogen iodide gas produces 2.35 grams of silver
iodide. Compute for the concentration (in M) of the silver nitrate solution.
A: 0.2
(3 points) Suppose methanol will be burned in air. If 209 grams of this substance are used up in the
reaction, how many grams of water are produced?
A: 235
(2 points) Consider a 0.316 mole sample of nitrogen gas. If this is placed in a 4-L container at 315 K, what
is the pressure (in torr) of the gas?
A: 1550
CHEM-112 WEEK 11-20
Which of the following atoms has the greatest number of unpaired electrons?
A: Cr
Which one of the following statements about orbitals is incorrect?

A: orbitals can hold two electrons provided they are spinning in the same direction
This type of wave has certain allowable states or energies.

A: standing
Which one of the following statements about d orbitals is incorrect?

A: d orbitals are filled before p orbitals in the same principal energy level
Electrons enter the 4s sub-level before the 3d sub-level because...

A: the 4s orbital has a lower energy
Quantum number that describes the average distance of the orbital from the nucleus.
A: principal
How many valence electrons does an electrically neutral atom of lead have?
A: 4
Which one of the following statements about s orbitals is incorrect?

A: they can only hold one electron
Smaller units that make up the sub-atomic particles of the nucleus.

A: Quarks
What alternative term do you use to refer to electron clouds or the probable path of electrons.
A: orbital
Which one of the following is not the electronic configuration of atom of a noble gas?
A: 1s22s2
Which element does not form chemical bonds more easily: gallium or nihonium?
A: nihonium
What is the classification of orbitals when they have the same energy?
A: degenerate
What is the electronic configuration of a sodium ion Na+?

A: 1s22s22p6
What is the electronic configuration of an oxide ion O2-?

A: 1s22s22p6
Higher electronegativity: niobium or tin?

A: tin
Another term for electron clouds or the approximate path followed by electrons.
A: orbital
Principle that states that it is impossible to know the exact position and momentum of an electron at
the same time.
A: uncertainty principle
Which one of the following is not isoelectronic with the others?

A: Mg+ - wrong/ Ne – wrong/F- wrong/Na- wrong / Mg & Ne – wrong/ Mg & Na – wrong/ Mg & F –
wrong/F & Na – wrong/F & Ne – wrong/ Ne & Na – wrong/ Na, Ne, F – wrong/ Na, F, Mg – wrong/
Mg, F, Ne – wrong/ Mg, Na, Ne – wrong/ Mg, Na, Ne, F – wrong
This quantum number gives you an idea on the shape of the electron orbital.
A: angular momentum
Number of energy levels in an atom of tungsten

A: 6
Which element has a larger atom: technetium or gold?

A: gold
Which element forms chemical bond more easily: rutherfordium or flerovium?

A: flerovium
(2 points) A hydrogen electron moves with a velocity of 2.2 x 106 m/s in its ground state energy
level. What is the de Broglie wavelength of this particle?x 10-10 m
A: 3.3
Which statement about copper is incorrect?

A: the electronic configuration of copper atoms is 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d9
This states that it is impossible to know where and how fast an electron is at the same time.
A: uncertainty principle
Which element requires more energy to release an electron: copper or roentgenium?

A: copper
Which of the atom pairs both have only three unpaired electrons in their d orbitals?
A: V and Co
This quantum number describes how the direction of the electron along its orbit.
A: spin
Particle that is approximately as heavy as a proton but is neutrally charged.

A: neutron
An atom of meitnerium has how many energy levels?

A: 7
Which one of the following ions has an electronic configuration similar to argon?
A: Ti4+
The electronic configuration of an atom an element with atomic number 8 is...

A: 1s22s22p4
This is the basis of the assumption that electrons are added to an atom starting with the lowest
energy orbital.
A: Aufbau principle
The order of filling orbitals is...

A: 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p
How many energy levels does an atom of plutonium have?

A: 7
How many valence electrons does an electrically neutral atom of thallium have?
A: 3
Number of valence electrons in an electrically neutral atom of antimony

A: 5
Lower ionization energy: sulfur or polonium?
A: polonium
Which element more easily releases an electron: technetium or indium?

A: indium
Which one of the following statements about p orbitals is incorrect?

A: they are found in all principal energy levels
What is the absolute value of the possible values for the spin quantum number of an electron?
A: ½
Higher atomic radius: chlorine or osmium?

A: osmium
Which element has a smaller atom: zirconium or tellurium?

A: tellurium
Type of ion to be formed by tin.

A: anion
Which of the following is a salt?

A: zinc selenide
Which of these compounds can conduct electricity when mixed with a solvent?
A: Lithium oxide
Type of ion assumed by a non-metal.

A: anion
Form of atom that forms ionic bonds.

A: ions
Type of ion to be formed by antimony.

A: anion
What element is the anion in sodium selenide?

A: selenium
Which among these compounds will boil first?

A: Chlorine trifluoride
Type of ion to be formed by potassium.

A: cation
Which of these compounds has weaker bonds between its component atoms?
A: Arsenic trioxide
Bond formed between a metal and a non-metal.

A: ionic
Which of the following is not a salt?

A: iodine trichloride
Which of these compounds will relatively melt first?

A: Bromine pentafluoride
What element is the cation in potassium oxide?

A: Potassium
Which of these compounds is more difficult to boil?

A: Barium Selenide
Type of ion to be formed by magnesium.

A: cation
Which of the following is not a salt?

A: carbon tetrachloride
Happens to electrons that results to formation of ionic bonds.

A: transfer
Which of these compounds can exist only in solid form?

A: Barium iodide
Which of these compounds will relatively melt last?

A: Potassium bromide
What element is the cation in sodium fluoride?

A: sodium
What element is the cation in calcium chloride?

A: calcium
What element is the anion in silver oxide?

A: oxygen
Which of these compounds has a relatively high melting point?

A: Sodium bromide
Type of ion assumed by a metal.
A: cation
Which of the following is a salt?

A: zinc fluoride
Which of these compounds can never conduct electricity even in aqueous solution?
A:Dioxygen difluoride
Happens to electrons in ionic bonding.

A: transferred
Which of these compounds has stronger bonds between its atom components?
A: Potassium chloride
All of the following compounds (in solid form) are hard EXCEPT for…
A: Ethanol
How many covalent bonds can an atom of oxygen form?

A: 6
How many dots should be around a neutral atom of tennessine?

A: 7
What type of bond can form between nitrogen and hydrogen?

A: covalent
Shows the number of valence electrons of an atom in a Lewis representation.

A: dot
Number of lone pairs around the central atom in the bent geometry of a polar compound.
A: 2
What kind of compound is chlorine trifluoride?

A: Covalent
Which element is more electronegative: tin or antimony?

A: antimony
When formed as a compound, in which of these two elements will there be more electrons:
germanium or phosphorous?
A: phosphorous
What is the geometry of the non-polar covalent compound with no lone pairs around the central
atom but has three bonding electron groups it?
A: Trigonal planar
Manner of bonding between two non-metals.
A: sharing
Kind of compound with one side positive and the other negative.
A: polar
Tendency of an atom to attract electrons in a bond.

A: electronegativity
Which of the following compounds is a good conductor of electricity when in a solution?

A: Potassium nitride
What is the bonding mechanism in ammonium sulfide?

A: transfer of electrons
Geometry of polar compound with one lone pair around the central atom.
A: pyramidal
Which of these two elements will attract electrons more than the other: nihonium or oxygen?
A: oxygen
Number of maximum valence electrons an atom can have.

A: 8
Observed in determining how many bonds an atom can have.

A: Octet rule
Which of the following molecules does not involve sharing of molecules?

A: zinc selenide
Identify which of the following compounds with boil first when heated.
A: Chlorine trifluoride
Type of bonding between molecules wherein the electrons are shared.

A: Covalent
Which compound can serve as a good insulator?

A: ozone
Representation of the number of valence electrons of the atom of an element.

A: all of the choices are correct
Which of the following is not a covalent compound?

A: zinc fluoride
What type of bond will possibly form between carbon and potassium?
A: Ionic
Which of the following is a covalent compound?

A: carbon tetrachloride
Which of the following has covalent bonds in it?

A: iodine trichloride
Identify the compound that will easily dissolve in water.

A: Zinc phosphate
Which of the following compounds melts first when subjected to the same amount of heat?
A: Carbon monoxide
What element is the anion in barium sulfide?

A: Sulfur
Identify the following compounds if they are ionic or covalent:

Fe2O3
A: Ionic
The ability of an atom to attract electrons in the presence of another atom is a measurable property
called
A: electronegativity
A set of covalently bonded atoms that have an overall charge, making them an ion.
A: Polyatomic ion
A carbon atom has fix electrons, four of which are in the outer shell of the atom, its valence shell.
A: true
It is an ion with more electrons than protons giving it a net negative charge.
A: anion
Different compounds that have the same molecular formula.

A: isomers
It is a change in the chemical bonds of one or more molecules.

A: Chemical reaction
Although each isotope has varying numbers of neutrons, there is difference to the chemical
reactions of the carbon atom.
A: false
It is a substance made by combining two or more different materials in a such a way that no
chemical reaction occurs.
A: mixture
What do you call two monomers that are connected?
A: Dimer
Covalent bonding can be visualized with the aid of

A: Lewis diagram
They are organic molecules consisting entirely of carbon and hydrogen, such as methane (CH4)
A: Hydrocarbons
A type of chemical bond where two atoms are connected to each other by the sharing of two or more
electrons.
A: Covalent bond
A bond in which or more electrons from one atom are removed and attached to another atom
resulting in positive and negative ions which allow each other.
A: ionic bond
Organic acids that contain a carbon atom that participates in both a hydroxyl and a carbonyl
functional group.
A: Carboxylic acids
They are specific atoms, ions, or groups of atoms having consistent properties.
A: Functional groups
They are specific atoms, ions, or groups of atoms having consistent properties.
This functional group is produced from the condensation of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid and is
named based on these components.
A: Esters
It is a natural component of crude oil and has been classified as a carcinogen.

A: bezene
These are compounds with a nitrogen atom, a lone pair of electrons, and three substituents.
A: aminos
Class of organic compounds characterized by an oxygen atom connected to two alkyl or aryl groups.
A: esters
It is the simplest hydrocarbon molecule, with a central carbon atom bond to form different hydrogen
atoms.
A: methane
This is a model that is based on the repulsive behaviour of electron-pairs.

A: VSEPR
They are formed by successive bonds between carbon atoms and may be branched or unbranched.
A: Hydrocarbon chains
It contains a carbon-carbon double bond.

A: alkenes
Having a closed ring of alternate single and double bonds with delocalized electrons.
A: Aromatic chain
Carbon atoms have six protons in the nucleus and six electrons orbiting around the nucleus.
A: true
Carbon compounds containing boron and silicon are among the hardest substances known.
A: true
Monomers covalently bonded to one another in longer chains.

A: polymers
They are organic molecules consisting entirely of carbon and hydrogen, such as methane (CH4).
A: Hydrocarbons
It refers to a specific group of atoms bonded in a certain arrangement that give a compound certain
physical and chemical properties.
A smaller organic molecule that often plays its own functional roles in living organisms.
A: monomer

C4
A: Covalent

H2O
A: Covalent
The basic geometry for a molecule containing a central atom with three pairs.
A: trigonal planar
They are classes of organic compounds that contain a carbonyl (C=0) group.
A: Aldehydes and ketones
A class of organic compounds in which the carbon atoms are arranged in an open chain.
A: Aliphatic
It is present in many biological molecules including some amino acids and most steroids, which
includes cholesterol and the hormones estrogen and testosterone.
A:Benzene ring
In this type of reaction, a water molecule is released as a product, effectively dehydrating the
reactants as a larger biomolecule is synthesized.
A: Dehydration synthesis

KNO3
A: ionic

CH4
A: covalent
The most electronegative element

A: Fluorine
It is a dark grey crystalline solid with a purple vapour. It is very slight with soluble in water, but
dissolve freely in organic solvents.
A: Iodine
They are highly acidic and almost exclusively existing in an ionized state in solutions by releasing
two hydrogen ions.
A: phosphates
Carbon compounds come in the form of diamond graphite, charcoal, carbon block and fullerene.
A: true
Functional groups characterized by the presence of an “OH” group.

A: Alcohols
Reactions incorporate the atoms from a water molecule into each monomer as the chemical bond
between the monomers is broken.
A: Hydrolysis
An organic compound that consist of a carbon bonded to an OH group

A: propanol
The building blocks of proteins

A: AMINO ACIDS
Carbon double bonded to oxygen

A: CARBONYL GROUP
The electron cloud is divided into 7 principal energy levels numbered n=1 to n=7 with n=1 closest to
nucleus. n is called
A: principal quantum number
Name the compound.
SiF4
A: Silicon tetrafluoride
Name the compound. BeI2

A: Beryllium iodide
This describes the wavelike behaviour of either one electron or a pair of electrons in an atom.
A: ATOMIC ORBITAL
Name the compound. HF

A: hydrogenmonofluoride
Lipid molecules hold a large amount of energy and are energy storage molecules.
A: TRUE
What are the atoms that have to pair to form these given chemical formulas?
KF= Potassium+fluorine
MgI2= Magnesium+iodine
AlCl3= Aluminum+chlorine
CaCl2= Calcium+chlorine
Na2O= Sodium+Oxygen
They carry genetic information in the cell. They also help in synthesis of proteins, through the
process of translation and transcription.
A: Deoxyribonucleic acids
It is a type of chemical bond where a pair of electrons is unequally shared between two atoms
A: POLAR COVALENT BOND
The ionization energy of the elements within a group generally increases from top to bottom. This is
due to electron shielding.
A: FALSE
A compound that contains COO

A: Carboxylic acid
It is found in many different compounds. It is the sixth most abundant element in the universe.
A: CARBON
This type of compound always contains the carbon atom.

A: ORGANIC
The higher the energy is, the more readily the atom becomes a cation.
A: FALSE
Determine if the elements in the following compounds are metals or non-metals. Describe the type of
bonding that occurs in the compound.
SO2 Non-metal Non-metal Ionic
MgBr2 Metal Non-metal Covalent
CaO Metal Non-metal Ionic
H2O Non-metal Non-metal Covalent
Cu - Zn alloy Metal Metal Metallic
Name the compound.K2O

A: Potassium oxide
Electronegativity is a qualitative property and there is standardized method for calculating

electronegativity.
A: false
When a protein in an assembly of more than one polypeptide or subunits of its own, this is said to be
the structure of protein that is categorized as
A: Quarternary
A carboxylic acid that has a long hydrocarbon chain and derived from a natural source.
A: Fatty acid
It is a large molecule or macromolecule, composed of many repeated subunits, that is not artificially
manufactured.
A: Natural Polymer
Basic component that makes up any kind of material.

A: atom
This basically makes up any kind of material

A: atom
Anything that occupies space and has mass

A: matter
What is the general term for any body that has mass and occupies space?
A: matter
General term referring to anything that occupies space and has mass
A: matter
Study of materials and its components
A: Chemistry
General term for anything with mass and has volume

A: matter
Quantities standardized for scientific use.

A: SI
Smallest building block of any material

A: atom
Branch of chemistry that deals with compounds containing carbon

A: organic
Path of electron around the nucleus of an atom

A: orbit
Most basic building block of any substance

A: atom
Quantity with square unit

A: pressure
What kind of base forms hydroxide ions when mixed with water?
A: weak
Path followed by an electron around the nucleus of an atom

A: orbit
What do you call the path of an electron around the nucleus of an atom?
A: orbit
Science that deals with the chemical composition of chemical processes associated with the Earth
and other planets.
A: geochemistry
A: decomposition
What kind of reaction is involved when a complex reactant is simplified?

A: decomposition
Science dealing with the composition of processes involving the Earth and other planets
A: geochemistry
Quantity that refers to the space occupied by a body

A: volume
Quantity referring to the space occupied by a body
A: volume
Gas law involving constant pressure.

A: charle’s law
Product of the combination of atoms during chemical reactions

A: molecule
Results from the combination of atoms during chemical reactions

A: molecule
What substance results from the combination of atoms during chemical reactions?
A: molecule
Term used to refer to a charged atom

A: ion
In one molecule of water, how many percent is hydrogen?

A: 11.19
Consider one molecule of water. How many percent of this molecule is hydrogen?
A: 11.19
In the oxidation of methane alcohol in air, if 209 grams of this substance are used up, how many
grams of water are produced?
A: 235
How heavy (in grams) is one molecule of ethanol

A: 46.07
Consider the burning of methanol in air. If 209 grams of methanol are used up in the combustion,
how much water (in grams) is produced?
A: 235
What is the chemical reaction characterized by the union of reactants

A: synthesis
What is the chemical reaction characterized by the union of reactants?

A: synthesis
How heavy is a molecule of sodium hypochlorite? Express your answer in grams.

A: 74.44
How heavy (in grams) is one molecule of sodium hypochlorite?
A: 74.44
When burning 1200 grams of carbon, how much carbon monoxide (in grams) will be produced?
A: 2800
In the burning of 1200 grams of carbon, how many grams of carbon monoxide will be produced?
A: 2800
When 124 grams of aluminum reacts with 601 grams of Fe2O3, determine how many grams of
Al2O3 are formed.
A: 234
How many molecules are in 3 moles of calcium tetrachloride?

A: 1.8066 x 10^24
In a molecule of ammonia, how many percent is nitrogen?

A: 82.24
Consider a molecule of ammonia. How many percent of this molecule is nitrogen?

A: 82.24

A: 46.07
Consider a molecule of ethane. How many percent of ethane is carbon?

A: 79.89
In one molecule of ethane, how many percent of this molecule is carbon?

A: 79.89
In a molecule of potassium hydroxide, how many percent of this molecule is oxygen?

A: 28.52
The molecular mass of hydrochloric acid is how many grams?

A: 36.46
The mass of hydrochloric acid is how many grams?

A: 36.46
How many grams is a molecule of hydrochloric acid?

A: 36.46
How heavy is a molecule of sodium hypochlorite? Express your answer in grams

A: 74.44
How many molecules are there in 8 moles of benzoic acid?
A: 4.8176 x 10^24
Consider the reaction of 124 grams of Al with 601 grams of Fe2O3. Compute for the mass (in
grams) of Al2O3 formed.
A: 234
Consider one molecule of sodium sulfate. Determine the percentage of sulfur in it.
A: 22.57
In a molecule of sodium sulfate, determine the percentage of sulfur in it.

A: 22.57
In one molecule of sodium sulfate, how many percent of it is sulfur?

A: 22.57
How many molecules are there in 0.75 mole of sodium chloride?

A: 4.5165 x 10^23
A 0.75 mole of sodium chloride has ___ x 1023 atoms. Note: The answer must be in 4 decimal
places.
A: 4.5165
Find the molecular mass of hydrogen peroxide in grams?

A: 34.01
What is the molecular mass (in grams) of hydrogen peroxide?

A: 34.01
Determine the molecular mass (in grams) of dinitrogen trioxide?

A: 76.01
What is the molecular mass (in grams) of dinitrogen trioxide?

A: 76.01

A: 46.07
How many grams is one molecule of ethanol?

A: 46.07
Suppose you want to burn 1200 grams of graphite. How much oxygen (in grams) would you need?
A: 1600
If you want to burn 1200 grams of carbon, how many grams of oxygen would you need?
A: 1600
How many grams is one molecule of calcium oxide?
A: 56.08
How heavy (in grams) is calcium oxide?

A: 56.08
How heavy (in grams) is one molecule of sulfuric acid?

A: 98.07
How many grams is a molecule of sulfuric acid?

A: 98.07
What is the mass (in grams) of sulfuric acid?

A: 98.07
Determine how many atoms of carbon dioxide does 0.55 mole of this molecule has? ____ x 1021
A: 7.53
A 0.55 mole of carbon dioxide has ___ x 1021 atoms.

A: 7.53
How many molecules does 0.55 mole of carbon monoxide has?

A: 7.53 x 10^21
What do you call the particle with more positive charges than negative charges?
A: cation
What is the molecular mass (in grams) of calcium carbonate?

A: 162.11
What do you call the agent in a redox reaction from which electrons are released?
A: reducing
Agent in a redox reaction from which electrons are removed.

A: reducing
The twelve-gauge copper wire is roughly cylindrical and has a diameter of approximately 0.1040 in.
The density of copper is 8.92 g/cm3 and copper atoms have an approximate atomic radius of 135
pm. What is the mass (in grams) of a 100-ft piece of copper wire?
A: 1491
Quantity used to measure distance between two points.

A: length
Quantity that measures the distance between two bodies

A: length
Made up of proton/s, neutron/s, and electron/s.
A: atom
Composed of proton/s, neutron/s, and electron/s

A: atom
This body is composed of proton/s, neutron/s, and electron/s.

A: atom
Which of the following is the lightest particle?

A: electron
Term used to refer to a charged atom.

A: ion
Which is the lightest: proton, neutron, or electron?

A: electron
Particle that contains more positive charges than negative charges.

A: cation
Particle with more positive charges than negative charges

A: cation
Science that deals with the composition of materials.

A: chemistry
Study dealing with the composition of materials

A: chemistry
What kind of acid completely dissociates when mixed with water?

A: strong
Composed of a nucleus and electron/s.

A: atom
Always has a nucleus and electron/s

A: atom
Science that deals with energy and its interactions with matter.
A: physics
Science of energy and its interactions with different materials
A: physics
Particle with more negative charges than positive ones.
A: anion
Particle having more negative charges than positive ones

A: anion
Type of bond between a cation and an anion.

A: ionic
Form of atom that is positively charged with respect to its neutral state.
A: cation
What type of bond exists between a cation and an anion?

A: ionic
Atom with a positive charge with respect to its neutral state

A: cation
Chemistry that deals with compounds with carbon

A: organic
What quantity is constant in Charles's law?

A: pressure
Formed when atoms combine through bonds.

A: molecule
How many grams is one molecule of sodium bicarbonate?

A: 84.01
What is the mass (in grams) of sodium bicarbonate?

A: 84.01
Amount of material contained by a body.

A: mass
Measurement of the amount of material in a body

A: mass
This refers to the amount of material in any given body.

A: mass
An atom that is negatively charged.

A: anion
Negatively-charged atom
A: anion
Chemistry of materials related to living tissues.

A: biochemistry
Chemistry living tissues.

A: biochemistry
This branch of chemistry is related to living tissues.
A: biochemistry
Method of comparing an unknown quantity with a known quantity

A: measurement
Process of comparing an unknown quantity with a known quantity.

A: measurement
Bond formed by the sharing of electrons between atoms.

A: covalent
Bond formed through the sharing of electrons between atoms

A: covalent
What kind of bond is formed by the sharing of electrons between atoms?

A: covalent
Comparison of something unknown with a standard.

A: measurement
Quantity used to express the amount of a substance.

A: mole
What is the percentage of hydrogen in propanoic acid?

A: 8.16
How many percent of propanoic acid is hydrogen?

A: 8.16
Quantity expressed with cubic unit.

A: volume
Three moles of methane has ____ x 1024 molecules.

A: 1.8066
Eight moles of benzene has ____ x 1024 molecules. Note: The answer must be in 4 decimal places.
A: 4.8176
Reaction wherein the anions and cations of two compounds switch places to form two entirely
different compounds.
This reaction involves the anions and cations of two compounds switching places to form two
entirely different compounds.
Uses Avogadro’s number to have a numerical value.

A: mole
Reaction that involves the transfer of protons from an acid to a base.

A: acid-base
Reaction characterized by production of a complex product from simple reactants.

A: synthesis

A: anaphase
What type of reaction is characterized by the production of a complex product from simple
reactants?
A: synthesis
How many percent of one molecule of potassium hydroxide is oxygen?

A: 28.52
How much (in percent) of one molecule of potassium hydroxide is oxygen?

A: 28.52
This particle has more negative charges than positive ones.

A: anion
A: (synthesis)
Reaction generally described as: AB + C AC + B

This type of reaction is generally described as: AB + C -> AC + B

What is the process of comparing an unknown quantity with a known quantity?

A: measurement
Chemical reaction characterized by the combination of reactants.

A: synthesis
How much volume (in L) will 0.20 mol hydrogen iodide at 300 K and 100.0 kPa occupy? Use R = 8.314
kPa*L/(K*mol) = 0.08205 atm*L/(mol*K).
A: 5
How many molecules are present in 3 moles of methanal?

A: 1.8066 x 10^24
Type of bond between an anion and a cation

A: ionic
In a titration experiment, 500 mL of gaseous hydrochloric acid at 300 K and 100 kPa dissolved in pure
water is needed to neutralize 12.5 mL of sodium hydroxide. What is the concentration of the basic
solution (in mol/L)?
A: 1.60
Substance formed when atoms bond with each other

A: molecule
Identify which quantity is constant in Boyle's law.

A: temperature
What is the resulting concentration (in mol/L) of aqueous hydrochloric acid if 500 mL of its gaseous form
at 300 K and 100 kPa will be dissolved in 100 mL pure water? Use 8.314 kPa*L/(K*mol).
A: 0.200
Consider the reaction of 3.66 g of a sample containing zinc (atomic weight = 65.4) and magnesium
(atomic weight = 24.3) with a dilute acid to yield 2.470 L of hydrogen gas at 101.0 kPa and 300 K. What is
the percentage of zinc in the sample?
A: 30
(2 points) Suppose 4 moles of nitrogen gas are confined to a 6.0 L container at 1770C and 12.0 atm.
If the container will be allowed to isothermally expand to 36.0 L, determine the final pressure
experienced by the gas. (Express the answer in atm)
A: 2
Gas law involving constant pressure and temperature.

A: avogadro’s law
Quantities specifically used in scientific measurements

A: SI
(2 points) A 60.0 liter tank of gaseous chlorine at 270C and 125 atm suddenly had a leak. When this
leak was discovered, the pressure was found to have reduced to 50 atm. Determine how many
moles of chlorine escaped from the tank.
A: 187.5
Consider 6.2 liters of an ideal gas compressed at 3.0 atm and maintained at 37 degrees Celsius.
Determine how many moles of this gas are contained.
A: 0.75
One liter of an air sample at 250 degrees Celsius and 1 atm is compressed to 3 mL at a pressure of
1000 atm. Determine the temperature of the air sample in kelvins.
A: 983
Gas law involving constant temperature.

A: Boyle's Law
Treating 50.0 mL of silver nitrate solution with excess hydrogen iodide gas produces 2.35 grams of silver
iodide. Compute for the concentration (in M) of the silver nitrate solution.
A: 0.2
(3 points) Suppose methanol will be burned in air. If 209 grams of this substance are used up in the
reaction, how many grams of water are produced?
A: 235
(2 points) Consider a 0.316 mole sample of nitrogen gas. If this is placed in a 4-L container at 315 K, what
is the pressure (in torr) of the gas?
A: 1550
The noble gases possess very high ionization energies because of their full valence shells.
A: TRUE
Electron affinity is a quantitative measurement of the energy change that occurs when an electron is
added to a neutral gas atom.
A: TRUE
Encircle the one that is not an example of polar compounds

A: Sulphur dioxide
This model of the atom uses complex shapes of orbitals, volumes of space in which there is likely to
be an electron. This model is based on probability rather than certainty.
A: Quantum mechanical model
They are atoms which have the same atomic number but different mass numbers.
A: isotopes
This type of polymer is derived from petroleum oil and made by scientists and engineers.
A: Synthetic
Ionization energy increases from left to right on the periodic table.

A: true
In Ionic bonds, the metal loses electrons to become a positively-charged cation, whereas the non-
metal accepts those electrons to become a negatively-charged ion.
A: true
The least electronegative atom and should be the central atom.

A: nitrogen
Name the compound.

SrO
A: Strontium oxide
This compound, usually formed by the dehydration-condensation reaction of an oxoacid, yields two
molecules of the acid when it reacts with water.
A: Acid anhydride
It is molecule that is present in living organisms, including large macromolecules such as proteins,
carbohydrates, lipids and nucleic acids, as well as small molecules such as primary metabolites
secondary metabolites and natural products.
A: Biomolecules
Electron shielding describes the ability of an atom’s inner electrons to shield its positively-charged
nucleus from its valence electrons.
A: true
In Ionic bonds, the metal loses electrons to become a positively-charged cation, whereas the non-
metal accepts those electrons to become a negatively-charged ion.
A: true
Periodic trends are specific patterns that are present in the periodic table that illustrate different
aspects of a certain element, including its size and its electronic property.
A: true
DIRR 122 3rd Quarterly Exam
Question 1
Complete
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
The province/s that are at risk to tsunamis include.

Select one:
a. Tawi-tawi
c. Batanes
d. all of the choices
e. Sulu
f. Basilan
Question 2
Complete
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Other potential earthquake hazards include:

Select one:
a. all of the choices
b. landslide
c. ground subsidence
d. tsunami
Question 3
Complete
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During and after an emergency, you should think only of yourself and should not
provide first aid for anyone who needs it.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Complete
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Usually included in marginalized and most vulnerable groups.

Select one:
a. people with disability
b. women
c. poor
Question 5
Complete
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Gender and age are considered risk factors.

Select one:
True
False
Question 6
Complete
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Other terms for vulnerability:

Select one:
a. Susceptibility, weakness, fragility
b. weakness, constraints, capacity
c. issues, problem, capacity
d. challenges, problem, opportunity
Question 7
Complete
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There are people in disaster affected areas who are more prone to suffer from
psychological trauma after experiencing devastating calamities.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
Complete
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People living within or near a _____ line, are more susceptible to be overwhelmed by
an earthquake hazard.
Select one:
a. defect
b. mistake
c. fault
d. imperfection
Question 9
Complete
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When water lines are broken, so there is no _____ to extinguish the fire.
Select one:
a. water
b. spray
c. none of the given choices are correct
d. splash
Question 10
Complete
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When an earthquake breaks a dam or levee along a river, the water from the river or
the reservoir floods the area and may damage buildings and drown people.
Select one:
True
False
Question 11
Complete
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Tectonic Hazards and disasters are not the same.

Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Complete
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After an earthquake, just relax and do not think of aftershocks.
Select one:
True
False
Question 13
Complete
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A disaster will surely not occur when a hazard hit an area with vulnerable people and
assets.
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Complete
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The Philippine Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Act of 2010 defines
exposure as "the degree to which the elements at risk are likely to experience hazard
events of different magnitudes".
Select one:
True
False
Question 15
Complete
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Responsible people should check water, gas, and electric lines for damage.
Select one:
True
False
Question 16
Complete
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There is impending tsunami if:

Select one:
b. if there is a loud "roaring" sound similar to that of a train or jet aircraft
c. there is severe ground shaking;
d. if seawater recedes from the coast;
Question 17
Complete
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People living in rich developed countries have more vulnerabilities than those living
in poor developing countries.
Select one:
True
False
Question 18
Complete
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The deformation on the ground that marks the intersection of the fault plane with the
earth's surface is known as:
Select one:
a. Both
b. ground deformation
c. ground rupture
Question 19
Complete
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Philippines is not one of the disaster-prone countries of the world.

Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Complete
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After an earthquake, you should Check yourself and others for injuries.
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
Complete
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_____is a very important tool. It shows what places in the country, which are at risk to
earthquakes.
Select one:
a. map
b. chart
c. survey
d. plan
Question 22
Complete
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Exposure is not one among the key determinants of disaster risk.

Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Complete
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In interpreting earthquake hazard maps,

Select one:
a. orange is the color code for high risk areas
b. white
c. red
d. yellow
Question 24
Complete
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If you smell gas after an emergency, close all the windows and doors and sleep
soundly.
Select one:
True
False
Question 25
Complete
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Exposure elements, exposed elements, or vulnerable elements are other terms used to
refer to the capacity.
Select one:
True
False
Question 26
Complete
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The Philippines and its cities are one of the countries and cities with significant
population and economic exposure to typhoons, earthquakes, tsunamis, storm surges,
volcanoes, and landslides, according to recent studies by risk analysis firm Verisk
Maplecroft.
Select one:
True
False
Question 27
Complete
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_____shows the places in the country which are at risk to tsunamis

Select one:
a. map
b. chart
c. plan
d. surve
Question 28
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Disasters do not have an effect to the development efforts of a country.

Select one:
True
False
Question 29
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Armed conflicts and wars are natural hazards.

Select one:
True
False
Question 30
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Elements at risk do not include people, properties and location.

Select one:
True
False
Question 31
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Physical risk factors can either lessen or aggravate one's vulnerability to hazards, for
example the level of strength of an office and the presence or absence of emergency
exits in the case of an earthquake.
Select one:
True
False
Question 32
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Critical facilities and lifelines are not affected at all by a high magnitude hazard.
Select one:
True
False
Question 33
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Understanding of vulnerability and capacity can be best done through.

Select one:
b. reading
c. research
d. vulnerability and capacity assessment
Question 34
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Fires, spills of hazardous chemicals and flooding are considered as:

Select one:
a. secondary effects
b. primary effect of earthquakes
c. collateral effects
Question 35
Complete
Flag question
Question text
If you are at the beach or near the ocean and you feel the earth shake, move
immediately to higher ground.
Select one:
True
False
Question 36
Complete
Flag question
Question text
In interpreting earthquake hazard maps, the color code for no risk areas is:
Select one:
a. white
b. yellow
c. orange
d. red
Question 37
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Landslides and liquefaction due to ground shaking brought about by an earthquake are
considered:
Select one:
a. all of the choice
b. secondary effects;
c. primary effect of earthquakes;
Question 38
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Examples of capacities.
Select one:
a. life-saving skills
b. savings
c. good governance
Question 39
Complete
Flag question
Question text
People living in the __________ slopes are defenseless in the face of landslides.
Select one:
a. prominence
b. height
c. range
d. mountain
Question 40
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Be careful around broken glass and debris. Wear boots or sturdy shoes to keep from
cutting your feet.
Select one:
True
False
Question 41
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The following should be done before an earthquake:

Select one:
a. make up a plan of where to meet your family after an earthquake
b. all of the choices
c. learn first aid
d. learn how to turn off the gas, water, and electricity in your home
Question 42
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The following should be done after an earthquake except:

Select one:
a. Use the phone to connect to face book
b. Turn on the radio and listen for news
c. Check yourself and others for injuries
d. Provide first aid for anyone who needs it
Question 43
Complete
Flag question
Question text
During an earthquake, the following should NOT be done except:

Select one:
a. Don't use elevators (they'll probably get stuck anyway).
b. panic, if you're indoor, and run, If you're outside
c. If you're in a car, continue to drive until the earthquake stops,
d. Fix heavy furniture, cupboards, and appliances to the walls or floor,
Question 44
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Rich people don't usually have savings, much so insurance.

Select one:
True
False
Question 45
Complete
Flag question
Question text
_________ earthquakes are caused by sudden displacements along fault lines in the
solid and rigid layer of the earth's surface.
Select one:
a. formative
b. architectural
c. constructural
d. tectonic
Question 46
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Ground subsidence is a potential ___________ hazard.

Select one:
a. earthquake
b. tsunami
c. flash flood
d. none of the given choices are correct
Question 47
Complete
Flag question
Question text
________ can be assessed and quantified as low, medium and high.
Select one:
a. problem
b. danger
c. risks
d. accident
Question 48
Complete
Flag question
Question text
In interpreting earthquake hazard maps.

Select one:
a. orange is the color code for medium risk areas
b. red
c. white
d. yellow
Question 49
Complete
Flag question
Question text
One of the key risk reduction measures is to reduce exposure to hazards.

Select one:
True
False
Question 50
Complete
Flag question
Question text
During and after an emergency, if you're at school or work, _______ the emergency
plan or the instructions of the person in charge.
Select one:
a. copy
b. follow
c. stalk
d. observe
Finish review
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Started on Thursday, 11 January 2018, 10:41 AM

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Completed on Thursday, 11 January 2018, 11:03 AM
Time taken 22 mins 35 secs
Grade 50.00 out of 50.00 (100%)
Question 1
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The focus of the natural science perspective in analyzing disaster is what _______and
loss it could cause to physical aspects such as people and their properties and assets:
public and private buildings and infrastructures.
Select one:
a. impairment
b. harmful
c. destruction
d. damage
Question 2
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The following hazards are potential earthquake hazards:

Select one:
a. liquefaction
b. ground rupture
c. ground shaking
Question 3
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Psychological perspective is concerned about the negative consequences of disaster to

________ health, particularly the Post Traumatic Stress Disorder.
Select one:
a. intellectual
b. mental
c. brain
d. cognitive
Question 4
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Ground subsidence is a potential ___________ hazard.

Select one:
a. tsunami
b. flash flood
c. none of the given choices are correct
d. earthquake
Question 5
Complete
Flag question
Question text

Select one:
a. reading
c. vulnerability and capacity assessment
d. research
Question 6
Complete
Flag question
Question text
In assessing disaster risk, the framework used is DR=HEV, where DR stand for
disaster risk, H for Hazard, E for Exposure and V for Vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Some factors which make people and their property vulnerable.

Select one:
a. poor construction design
c. poverty
d. unsafe locations
Question 8
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Tectonic Hazards and disasters are not the same.

Select one:
True
False
Question 9
Complete
Flag question
Question text
If you are at the beach or near the ocean and you feel the earth shake, move
immediately to higher ground.
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Gender and age are considered risk factors.
Select one:
True
False
Question 11
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The elements at risk are not hazard-specific. Who and what can be damaged depends
not on the hazards and the characteristics of the area.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. mountain
b. prominence
c. height
d. range
Question 13
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Some participatory tools for capacity and vulnerability assessment include.

Select one:
a. livelihood and coping analysis
b. community watching (transect walk)
c. resources mapping
Question 14
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Landslide and is a potential __________ hazard.

Select one:
a. earthquake
b. none of the given choices are correct
c. flash flood
d. tsunami
Question 15
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 16
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Disaster do not cause problems and hardships to population and communities.

Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Complete
Flag question
Question text

Select one:
a. women
b. people with disability
c. poor
Question 18
Complete
Flag question
Question text
There are people in disaster affected areas who are more prone to suffer from
psychological trauma after experiencing devastating calamities.
Select one:
True
False
Question 19
Complete
Flag question
Question text
During and after an emergency, if you're at school or work, _______ the emergency
plan or the instructions of the person in charge.
Select one:
a. follow
b. copy
c. stalk
d. observe
Question 20
Complete
Flag question
Question text
After an earthquake, you should Check yourself and others for injuries.
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
Complete
Flag question
Question text
After an earthquake, just relax and do not think of aftershocks.

Select one:
True
False
Question 22
Complete
Flag question
Question text
In interpreting earthquake hazard maps, the color code for low risk areas is:
Select one:
a. yellow
b. orange
c. white
d. red
Question 23
Complete
Flag question
Question text
One of the key risk reduction measures is to reduce exposure to hazards.

Select one:
True
False
Question 24
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Developmental perspective considers disasters as a challenge to ___________ as they

negate years of hard earned advances in education, health, social and economic areas.
Select one:
a. development
b. growth
c. enlargement
d. evolution
Question 25
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Other terms for vulnerability:

Select one:
a. challenges, problem, opportunity
b. Susceptibility, weakness, fragility
c. weakness, constraints, capacity
d. issues, problem, capacity
Question 26
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Ground rupture which is the surface expression of an earthquake above magnitude

5.5-6.0 is known as:
Select one:
b. primary effect of earthquakes
c. secondary effects
Question 27
Complete
Flag question
Question text
A disaster will surely not occur when a hazard hit an area with vulnerable people and
assets.
Select one:
True
False
Question 28
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Categorization of factors for capacities and vulnerabilities could include:

Select one:
b. physical, economic, environmental
c. social, infrastructure, institutional
d. physical, social, motivational
Question 29
Complete
Flag question
Question text
__________ is the government agency that monitors the coming and going of
typhoons and tropical depression
Select one:
a. NASA
b. PHILVOLCS
c. PAGASA
d. None of the given choices are correct
Question 30
Complete
Flag question
Question text
On November 8, 2013, Super Typhoon ______ cut a devastating path across the
Central Philippines (Visayas).
Select one:
a. Rosing
b. Ondoy
c. Juan
d. Haiyan(or Yolanda)
Question 31
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Fires, spills of hazardous chemicals and flooding are considered as:

Select one:
a. primary effect of earthquakes
b. collateral effects
d. secondary effects
Question 32
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Disasters do not have an effect to the development efforts of a country.

Select one:
True
False
Question 33
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Exposure elements, exposed elements, or vulnerable elements are other terms used to
refer to the capacity.
Select one:
True
False
Question 34
Complete
Flag question
Question text
For locally-generated tsunamis, where you might feel the ground shake, you may only
have a few minutes to move to higher ground.
Select one:
True
False
Question 35
Complete
Flag question
Question text
People living in rich developed countries have more vulnerabilities than those living
in poor developing countries.
Select one:
True
False
Question 36
Complete
Flag question
Question text
If you smell gas after an emergency, close all the windows and doors and sleep
soundly.
Select one:
True
False
Question 37
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Disasters do not cause death, diseases, destruction and displacement.

Select one:
True
False
Question 38
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The Philippines and its cities are one of the countries and cities with significant
population and economic exposure to typhoons, earthquakes, tsunamis, storm surges,
volcanoes, and landslides, according to recent studies by risk analysis firm Verisk
Maplecroft.
Select one:
True
False
Question 39
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Earthquake is human sourced hazards resulting from political processes.

Select one:
True
False
Question 40
Complete
Flag question
Question text
If you experience the signs of impending tsunami, the best action to take is:
Select one:
a. immediately leave the low-lying coastal areas and move to higher ground
b. wait for official evacuation orders
c. go near the sea to gather corrals and fishes
Question 41
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Physical risk factors can either lessen or aggravate one's vulnerability to hazards, for
example the level of strength of an office and the presence or absence of emergency
exits in the case of an earthquake.
Select one:
True
False
Question 42
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Landslides and liquefaction due to ground shaking brought about by an earthquake are
considered:
Select one:
a. all of the choice
b. secondary effects;
c. primary effect of earthquakes;
Question 43
Complete
Flag question
Question text
During and after an emergency, you should think only of yourself and should not
provide first aid for anyone who needs it.
Select one:
True
False
Question 44
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Critical facilities and lifelines are not affected at all by a high magnitude hazard.
Select one:
True
False
Question 45
Complete
Flag question
Question text
When an earthquake breaks a dam or levee along a river, the water from the river or
the reservoir floods the area and may damage buildings and drown people.
Select one:
True
False
Question 46
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Be careful around broken glass and debris. Wear boots or sturdy shoes to keep from
cutting your feet.
Select one:
True
False
Question 47
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Fire is an example of a natural hazard.

Select one:
True
False
Question 48
Complete
Flag question
Question text

Select one:
a. If you're in a car, continue to drive until the earthquake stops,
b. Don't use elevators (they'll probably get stuck anyway).
c. panic, if you're indoor, and run, If you're outside
d. Fix heavy furniture, cupboards, and appliances to the walls or floor,
Question 49
Complete
Flag question
Question text

Select one:
a. Use the phone to connect to face book
b. Provide first aid for anyone who needs it
c. Check yourself and others for injuries
d. Turn on the radio and listen for news
Question 50
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Typhoon Haiyan cannot be an example of a disaster because the extent of damages it

wrought in the Visayas Islands is negligible.
Select one:
True
False
Finish review
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Question 1
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Environmental pollution is good for the health.

Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Complete
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________as it is, is not a disaster, but can cause massive and complex disasters.
Select one:
a. hazard
b. risk
c. problem
d. danger
Question 3
Complete
Flag question
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Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Examples of measures to increase capacity and reduce vulnerability.

Select one:
a. training and education
c. adequate food supply
d. sustainable livelihood
Question 5
Complete
Flag question
Question text
__________ is the government agency that monitors and records the cases of
earthquakes in the Philippines.
Select one:
a. NASA
b. None of the given choices are correct
c. PAGASA
d. PHILVOLCS
Question 6
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Hazard is a dangerous event or substance.

Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Complete
Flag question
Question text
If you are at home and hear there is a tsunami warning, you should make sure your
entire family is aware of the warning.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
Complete
Remove flag
Question text
The magnitude of a _______is a big factor in the making of a disaster.

Select one:
a. danger
b. hazard
c. risk
d. problem
Question 9
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Hazard Maps show the places in the country which are at risk to
Select one:
a. landslides
b. earthquakes
d. tsunami
Question 10
Complete
Flag question
Question text
People living in coastal areas are constantly threatened to experience tsunami, ______
surges and sea level rise.
Select one:
a. typhoon
b. storm
c. whirlwind
Question 11
Complete
Flag question
Question text

Select one:
a. surve
b. map
c. plan
d. chart
Question 12
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Water supplies, electricity and transportation are always protected and therefore
cannot be affected even by strong typhoons with strong winds.
Select one:
True
False
Question 13
Complete
Flag question
Question text

Select one:
a. orange is the color code for high risk areas
b. red
c. yellow
d. white
Question 14
Complete
Flag question
Question text
When a natural hazard strikes elements at risk with high level of exposure and with
many _________________, most likely this hazard would result to disaster.
Select one:
a. accountability
b. liability
c. vulnerabilities
d. obligation
Question 15
Complete
Flag question
Question text
One of the common side effects of an earthquake is ______, which is often associated
with broken electrical and gas lines.
Select one:
a. fire
b. burning
c. conflagration
d. blaze
Question 16
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The intangibles elements at risk include social cohesion, community structure, and
cultural losses.
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Complete
Flag question
Question text
An earthquake may be classified as either tectonic or volcanic.

Select one:
True
False
Question 18
Complete
Flag question
Question text
A process where particles of loosely consolidated and water-saturated deposits of sand

are rearranged into more compact state, squeezing water and sediments towards the
surface in the form of sand fountain and creating a condition resembling to a "quick
sand" is called:
Select one:
a. liquefaction
b. ground subsidence
c. Both
Question 19
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Hazard and risk are not interrelated at all.

Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Complete
Flag question
Question text
There is impending tsunami if:

Select one:
a. there is severe ground shaking;
b. if there is a loud "roaring" sound similar to that of a train or jet aircraft
d. if seawater recedes from the coast;
Question 21
Complete
Flag question
Question text
People living within or near a _____ line, are more susceptible to be overwhelmed by
an earthquake hazard.
Select one:
a. fault
b. imperfection
c. defect
d. mistake
Question 22
Complete
Flag question
Question text
All submarine earthquakes are pleasant experience as if one is riding a submarine.

Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Communities with many vulnerabilities and low capacities are susceptible to

experience __________.
Select one:
a. accident
b. tragedy
c. disasters
d. calamity
Question 24
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Complex web of interlinked conditions, which include physical, social, economic,

environmental factors.
Select one:
a. disaster risk
b. development
c. risk reduction
d. vulnerability
Question 25
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The deformation on the ground that marks the intersection of the fault plane with the
earth's surface is known as:
Select one:
a. Both
b. ground deformation
c. ground rupture
Question 26
Complete
Flag question
Question text
People live within or close to volcano danger zones, are to be affected by _____ flow
and ash fall.
Select one:
a. magma
b. lava
c. all of the given choices are correct
d. lahar
Question 27
Complete
Flag question
Question text

Select one:
a. red
b. orange is the color code for medium risk areas
c. yellow
d. white
Question 28
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Livelihoods and economic assets can be considered in measuring exposure of the

elements at risk.
Select one:
True
False
Question 29
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The Dock, Cover and Hold is a "must do" before an earthquake.

Select one:
True
False
Question 30
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Philippines is not one of the disaster-prone countries of the world.

Select one:
True
False
Question 31
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Rich people don't usually have savings, much so insurance.

Select one:
True
False
Question 32
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Hazards always have similar adverse impacts on the elements at risk in an urban and
rural setting.
Select one:
True
False
Question 33
Complete
Flag question
Question text

Select one:
True
False
Question 34
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The concept which explains why given a level of exposure to the hazard, some people
or sectors in the community or society are more at risk or less at risk.
Select one:
a. vulnerability
b. capacity
c. traditional
d. education
Question 35
Complete
Flag question
Question text
_____is a very important tool. It shows what places in the country, which are at risk to
earthquakes.
Select one:
a. survey
b. map
c. plan
d. chart
Question 36
Complete
Flag question
Question text

Select one:
True
False
Question 37
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Elements at risk, particularly people can be affected by hazards, thus disaster

preparedness is important.
Select one:
True
False
Question 38
Complete
Flag question
Question text
_________ earthquakes are caused by sudden displacements along fault lines in the
solid and rigid layer of the earth's surface.
Select one:
a. tectonic
b. architectural
c. constructural
d. formative
Question 39
Complete
Flag question
Question text

Select one:
a. ground subsidence
b. tsunami
d. landslide
Question 40
Complete
Flag question
Question text
__________ earthquakes are those induced by rising lava or magma beneath an active
volcano.
Select one:
a. sensitive
c. volcanic
d. quick
Question 41
Complete
Flag question
Question text
A phenomenon which produce giant sea waves generated mostly by vertical

displacement of the ocean floor associated with a strong and shallow submarine
earthquake is called:
Select one:
b. storm surge
c. tidal waves
d. tsunami
Question 42
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The Philippine Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Act of 2010 defines
exposure as "the degree to which the elements at risk are likely to experience hazard
events of different magnitudes".
Select one:
True
False
Question 43
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. water
c. splash
d. spray
Question 44
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. orange
b. red
c. white
d. yellow
Question 45
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The following should be done before an earthquake:

Select one:
a. make up a plan of where to meet your family after an earthquake
c. learn how to turn off the gas, water, and electricity in your home
d. learn first aid
Question 46
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Tsunami is a potential ________ hazard.

Select one:
a. flash flood
b. landslide
c. earthquake
d. all of the given choices are correct
Question 47
Complete
Flag question
Question text
________ can be assessed and quantified as low, medium and high.

Select one:
a. problem
b. risks
c. accident
d. danger
Question 48
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. good governance
b. life-saving skills
c. savings
Question 49
Complete
Flag question
Question text

Select one:
c. Basilan
d. Batanes
e. Tawi-tawi
f. Sulu
Question 50
Complete
Flag question
Question text
___________ refers to the intense vibration of the ground.

Select one:
a. earthquake
b. ground rupture
d. Ground shaking
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State Finished
Grade 50.00 out of 50.00 (100%)
Question 1
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Hazard is a dangerous event or substance.

Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Complete
Flag question
Question text

Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Communities with many vulnerabilities and low capacities are susceptible to

experience __________.
Select one:
a. accident
b. tragedy
c. calamity
d. disasters
Question 4
Complete
Flag question
Question text
__________ is the government agency that monitors the coming and going of
typhoons and tropical depression
Select one:
a. None of the given choices are correct
b. PAGASA
c. PHILVOLCS
d. NASA
Question 5
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. tsunami
b. landslides
d. earthquakes
Question 6
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The concept which explains why given a level of exposure to the hazard, some people
or sectors in the community or society are more at risk or less at risk.
Select one:
a. vulnerability
b. traditional
c. capacity
d. education
Question 7
Complete
Flag question
Question text
__________ is the government agency that monitors and records the cases of
earthquakes in the Philippines.
Select one:
a. NASA
b. PAGASA
c. PHILVOLCS
d. None of the given choices are correct
Question 8
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Typhoon Haiyan cannot be an example of a disaster because the extent of damages it

wrought in the Visayas Islands is negligible.
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
Complete
Flag question
Question text

Select one:
True
False
Question 10
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Psychological perspective is concerned about the negative consequences of disaster to

________ health, particularly the Post Traumatic Stress Disorder.
Select one:
a. intellectual
b. cognitive
c. mental
d. brain
Question 11
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Water supplies, electricity and transportation are always protected and therefore
cannot be affected even by strong typhoons with strong winds.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Complete
Flag question
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In assessing disaster risk, the framework used is DR=HEV, where DR stand for
disaster risk, H for Hazard, E for Exposure and V for Vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 13
Complete
Flag question
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The Dock, Cover and Hold is a "must do" before an earthquake.

Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Complete
Flag question
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Ground rupture which is the surface expression of an earthquake above magnitude

5.5-6.0 is known as:
Select one:
b. secondary effects
c. primary effect of earthquakes
Question 15
Complete
Flag question
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The elements at risk are not hazard-specific. Who and what can be damaged depends
not on the hazards and the characteristics of the area.
Select one:
True
False
Question 16
Complete
Flag question
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Select one:
a. immediately leave the low-lying coastal areas and move to higher ground
b. go near the sea to gather corrals and fishes
c. wait for official evacuation orders
Question 17
Complete
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Select one:
b. sustainable livelihood
c. training and education
d. adequate food supply
Question 18
Complete
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All submarine earthquakes are pleasant experience as if one is riding a submarine.

Select one:
True
False
Question 19
Complete
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Environmental pollution is good for the health.

Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Complete
Flag question
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Select one:
a. danger
b. risk
c. hazard
d. problem
Question 21
Complete
Flag question
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Select one:
True
False
Question 22
Complete
Flag question
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Select one:
a. livelihood and coping analysis
c. community watching (transect walk)
d. resources mapping
Question 23
Complete
Flag question
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Select one:
True
False
Question 24
Complete
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People live within or close to volcano danger zones, are to be affected by _____ flow
and ash fall.
Select one:
a. lava
b. magma
c. all of the given choices are correct
d. lahar
Question 25
Complete
Flag question
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One of the common side effects of an earthquake is ______, which is often associated
with broken electrical and gas lines.
Select one:
a. conflagration
b. fire
c. blaze
d. burning
Question 26
Complete
Flag question
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A process where particles of loosely consolidated and water-saturated deposits of sand

are rearranged into more compact state, squeezing water and sediments towards the
surface in the form of sand fountain and creating a condition resembling to a "quick
sand" is called:
Select one:
a. Both
b. liquefaction
c. ground subsidence
Question 27
Complete
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Select one:
a. social, infrastructure, institutional
b. physical, economic, environmental
c. physical, social, motivational
Question 28
Complete
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The magnitude of a _______is a big factor in the making of a disaster.

Select one:
a. problem
b. hazard
c. danger
d. risk
Question 29
Complete
Flag question
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Select one:
True
False
Question 30
Complete
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The focus of the natural science perspective in analyzing disaster is what _______and
loss it could cause to physical aspects such as people and their properties and assets:
public and private buildings and infrastructures.
Select one:
a. harmful
b. impairment
c. damage
d. destruction
Question 31
Complete
Flag question
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__________ earthquakes are those induced by rising lava or magma beneath an active
volcano.
Select one:
a. sensitive
b. quick
c. volcanic
Question 32
Complete
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Livelihoods and economic assets can be considered in measuring exposure of the

elements at risk.
Select one:
True
False
Question 33
Complete
Flag question
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Select one:
a. landslide
b. flash flood
c. earthquake
d. all of the given choices are correct
Question 34
Complete
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When a natural hazard strikes elements at risk with high level of exposure and with
many _________________, most likely this hazard would result to disaster.
Select one:
a. liability
b. obligation
c. vulnerabilities
d. accountability
Question 35
Complete
Flag question
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A phenomenon which produce giant sea waves generated mostly by vertical

displacement of the ocean floor associated with a strong and shallow submarine
earthquake is called:
Select one:
b. tsunami
c. tidal waves
d. storm surge
Question 36
Complete
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Hazards always have similar adverse impacts on the elements at risk in an urban and
rural setting.
Select one:
True
False
Question 37
Complete
Flag question
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Select one:
a. earthquake
b. flash flood
c. tsunami
Question 38
Complete
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Developmental perspective considers disasters as a challenge to ___________ as they

negate years of hard earned advances in education, health, social and economic areas.
Select one:
a. evolution
b. growth
c. development
d. enlargement
Question 39
Complete
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People living in coastal areas are constantly threatened to experience tsunami, ______
surges and sea level rise.
Select one:
a. whirlwind
b. storm
c. typhoon
Question 40
Complete
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Select one:
b. ground rupture
c. Ground shaking
d. earthquake
Question 41
Complete
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Elements at risk, particularly people can be affected by hazards, thus disaster

preparedness is important.
Select one:
True
False
Question 42
Complete
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The intangibles elements at risk include social cohesion, community structure, and
cultural losses.
Select one:
True
False
Question 43
Complete
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In interpreting earthquake hazard maps, the color code for low risk areas is:
Select one:
a. yellow
b. red
c. white
d. orange
Question 44
Complete
Flag question
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The following hazards are potential earthquake hazards:

Select one:
b. ground shaking
c. liquefaction
d. ground rupture
Question 45
Complete
Flag question
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Select one:
True
False
Question 46
Complete
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On November 8, 2013, Super Typhoon ______ cut a devastating path across the
Central Philippines (Visayas).
Select one:
a. Ondoy
b. Rosing
c. Juan
d. Haiyan(or Yolanda)
Question 47
Complete
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For locally-generated tsunamis, where you might feel the ground shake, you may only
have a few minutes to move to higher ground.
Select one:
True
False
Question 48
Complete
Flag question
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Select one:
b. unsafe locations
c. poverty
d. poor construction design
Question 49
Complete
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If you are at home and hear there is a tsunami warning, you should make sure your
entire family is aware of the warning.
Select one:
True
False
Question 50
Complete
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Complex web of interlinked conditions, which include physical, social, economic,

environmental factors.
Select one:
a. disaster risk
b. risk reduction
c. development
d. vulnerability
DIRR-112 WEEK 1-9
Critical facilities and lifelines are usually affected by a high magnitude hazard.
A: true
People in disaster affected areas do not suffer from psychological trauma after experiencing a
devastating calamitous event.
A: false
Disasters can cause death, diseases, destruction and displacement.

A: true
A disaster has occurred because a hazard hit an area without people and their assets.
A: false
Elements at risk can also be categorized into tangible and intangible. The intangibles include social
cohesion, community structure, and cultural losses.
A: true
Physical risk factors can either lessen or aggravate one's vulnerability to hazards, for example the
level of strength of a building and the presence or absence of fire exits in the case of an earthquake.
A: true
Disasters can set back years of development efforts of a country.

A: true
Disaster risk reduction aims to reduce the damages and loss caused by hazards. One of the key risk
reduction measures is to reduce exposure to hazards.
A: true
Hazards have different adverse impacts on the elements at risk in an urban and rural setting.
A: true
The elements at risk are hazard-specific. Who and what can be damaged depends on the hazards
as well as the characteristics of the area.
A: true
Hazards and disasters are one and the same.

A: false
Exposure is one of the key determinants of disaster risk.

A: true
The Philippines and its cities are not among countries and cities with significant population and
economic exposure to typhoons, earthquakes, tsunamis, storm surges, volcanoes, and landslides,
according to recent studies by risk analysis firm Verisk Maplecroft.
A: false
People living in poor developing countries have more vulnerabilities than those living in developed
countries.
A: true
Philippines is one of top three countries with regards to being at-risk to hit by hazards.
A: true
Gender and age are risk factors that make recovery more difficult.
A: true
Disaster cause problems and hardships to population and communities.

A: true
The Philippine Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Act of 2010 defines exposure as "the
degree to which the elements at risk are likely to experience hazard events of different magnitudes".
A: true
Aside from physical exposure, livelihoods and economic assets can be considered in measuring
exposure of the elements at risk.
A: true
The focus of the ....science perspective in analyzing disaster is what damage and loss it could cause
to physical aspects such as people and their properties and assets; public and private buildings and
infrastructures.
A: physical/natural
People l ivingin ....are constantly endangered to tsunami, storm surges and sea level rise.
A:coastline/coastal areas
The following should be done after an earthquake except

A: Don't use matches, candles, or any flame. Broken gas lines and fire don't mix.
All submarine earthquakes can cause tsunamis.

A: false
If you experience the signs of impending tsunami, the best action to take is
A: immediately leave the low-lying coastal areas and move to higher ground
A process where particles of loosely consolidated and water-saturated deposits of sand are
rearranged into more compact state, squeezing water and sediments towards the surface in the form
of sand fountain and creating a condition resembling to a "quick sand" is called
A: liquefaction
Landslides and liquefaction due to ground shaking brought about by an earthquake are considered
A: secondary effects
In interpreting earthquake hazard maps, the color code for high risk areas is
A: red
Ground rupture which is the surface expression of an earthquake choices magnitude 5.5-6.0 is
known as
A: primary effect of earthquakes
Fires, spills of hazardous chemicals and flooding are considered as

A:collateral effects
The deformation on the ground that marks the intersection of the fault plane with the earth's surface
is known as
A: ground rupture
The color code for no risk areas is

A: white
A phenomenon which produce giant sea waves generated mostly by vertical displacement of the
ocean floor associated with a strong and shallow submarine earthquake is called
A: tsunami
The intense vibration of the ground is known as

A: ground shaking
There is impending tsunami if

A: all of the choices
After an earthquake, always be prepared for aftershocks.

A: true
The Dock, Cover and Hold is a "must do" after an earthquake.

A: false
The color code for medium risk areas is

A: orange
The color code for low risk areas is
A: yellow

A: false
Water supplies, electricity and transportation can be severely affected by strong typhoons with
strong winds.
A: true
_____________is a phenomenon, which produce giant sea waves generated mostly by vertical
displacement of the ocean floor associated with a strong and shallow submarine earthquake.
A: tsunami
Psychological trauma is not good for overall well-being of a person.

A: true
Displacement and living in an evacuation center cause problems and hardships to population and
communities.
A: true
Understanding of vulnerability and capacity can be best done through

_________________________________.
A: vulnerability and capacity assessment
Susceptibility, ___________, fragility are other terms for vulnerability

A: weakness
Elements at risk include people, properties, livelihood, location, etc. .

A: true
Disaster risk and hazards are not the same.

A: true
Exposure elements, exposed elements, or vulnerable elements are other terms used to refer to the
elements at risk.
A: true
_______________ is a process where particles of loosely consolidated and water-saturated deposits

of sand are rearranged into more compact state, squeezing water and sediments towards the
surface in the form of sand fountain and creating a condition resembling to a "quick sand".
A: liquefaction
Savings: good governance: and, life-saving skills are examples of __________

A: capacity
Environmental pollution is purely a human made hazard.
A: false

A: a, b and c
Hazards have different adverse impacts on the elements at risk in an urban and rural setting.
A: true
____________refers to the intense vibration of the ground.

A: earthquake
Women: poor people: and, people with disability are usually included in marginalized and most
___________groups.
A: vulnerable
Complex web of interlinked conditions which include physical, social, economic, environmental
factors.
A: vulnerability
Hazard is not a dangerous event or substance.

A: false
Critical facilities and lifelines are more likely to be affected by a high magnitude hazard.
A: true
Death, destruction, diseases and displacement are associated to disasters.

A: true
Develop a family ______ consisting of where to meet your family after an earthquake.
A: plan
After an earthquake check yourself and others for injuries: provide first aid for anyone who needs it:
and, turn on the _________ and listen for news.
A: radio
Categorization of factors for capacities and vulnerabilities.

Hazard and risk are interrelated but not the same.

A: true
Houses that are built according to good design and construction principles have a better chance to
withstand the onslaught of a strong earthquake than those that are poorly constructed.
A: true
Examples of measures to increase ____________and reduce vulnerability include training and
education: sustainable livelihood: and, adequate food supply.
A: capacity
Who and what elements at risk can be damaged depends on the hazards and the characteristics of
the area or location.
A: true
__________condition is a factor, which make people and their property more vulnerable.
A: unsafe
The development efforts of a country is affected by a disaster because the money intended for
development may be diverted to more pressing relief efforts.
A: true
When a hazard strikes a vulnerable people, with very low capacity, living in an unsafe location,
disaster may occur and recovery may take more time.
A: true
Some ______________tools for capacity and vulnerability assessment include resources mapping:
community watching: transect walk: livelihood and coping analysis.
A: Participatory
_____________________refers to the deformation on the ground that marks the intersection of the
fault plane with the earth's surface.
A: ground rupture
While other elements at risk can be affected by hazards, people are not because they can escape.
A: false
Philippines is in the top three most disaster-prone countries of the world.

A: true
Don't use __________ during an earthquake, as they'll probably get stuck anyway.
A: elevators
The concept which explains why given a level of exposure to the hazard, some people or sectors in
the community or society are more at risk or less at risk.
A: vulnerability

A: a, b and c
Earthquake is natural hazards resulting from geological processes.

A: true
Exposure is the degree to which the elements at risk are likely to experience hazard events of
different magnitudes.
A: true
Gender and very young and very old age are considered risk factors.
A: true
A good attitude and mental health are factors in good decision making, particularly during
emergencies.
A: true

A: false

A: a, b and c
Social cohesion, community structure, and cultural losses are some kinds of intangibles elements at
risk.
A: true
A: a, b and d
Understanding of vulnerability and capacity can be best done through ... and ... .
There is impending _________if there is severe ground shaking: if seawater recedes from the coast:
and, if there is a loud "roaring" sound similar to that of a train or jet aircraft.
A: tsunami

A: a, b and c
Typhoon Haiyan is an example of a hazard that became a disaster because of the extent of
damages it wrought in the Visayas Islands.
A: true
Other terms for vulnerability.

A: Susceptibility, weakness, fragility
Ash fall rarely endangers human lives, but it can have devastating effects on the things that people
rely upon from day to day living.
A: false
The two indicators for an impending tsunami.

A: there is severe ground shaking; if seawater recedes from the coast Or, if there is a loud "roaring"
sound similar to that of a train or jet aircraft.
Hazards can be classified according to origin, which could be from nature, from man's activity or a
combination of both.
A: true
Lava flows are streams of molten rock that pour or ooze from an erupting vent.
A: true
During volcanic eruption, check for injured and trapped persons near the slide, without entering the
direct slide area. Direct rescuers to their locations.
A: false
People living near volcanoes may not detect premonitory events before and eruption.
A: false
Fire is an example of a human-sourced hazard.

A: true
People, properties and location are examples of elements at risk.

A: true
Increase in the frequency of volcanic quakes with rumbling sounds and occurrence of volcanic
tremors are signs of impending volcanic eruption.
A: true
Knowing the ways of protecting the school from ash fall, landslides and debris ?ows by consulting
your local disaster coordinating council must be done before a volcano erupts.
A: true
There is impending tsunami if

Provinces that are at risk to tsunami.

A: Sulu/Tawi-tawi/Basilan/Batanes
Hazard of high magnitude should always be welcome by children because there will be no class.
A: false
The legend in the map tells you what different colors and signs mean in the map. It works as a
decoder of the data presented in the map.
A: true
The three things that should be done after an earthquake.

A: Check yourself and others for injuries; Provide first aid for anyone who needs it; Turn on the radio
and listen for news/Use the phone to connect to family.
Both ash fall and pyroclastic flows can destroy agricultural lands.
A: true
During volcanic eruption, less priority if given for evacuation outside the area of ash shower to
pupils/students with breathing problems. They should be advised to cover their nose, preferably with
a wet piece of cloth.
A: false
The GPS coordinates are a unique identifier of a precise geographic location on the earth, usually
expressed in alphanumeric characters.
A: true
The earthquake that hit Bohol some years back cannot be an example of a disaster because the
extent of damages it wrought in the Bohol island is negligible.
A: false
Most volcanoes provide various type of warnings before eruptions begin.

A: true
During a volcanic eruption, follow the instructions that go with the warning. If there is a directive to
evacuate, do so immediately.
A: true
Closing windows and doors to reduce entry of ash if heavy ash fall is expected to hit the community
must be done during a volcanic eruption.
A: false
The Marawi armed political conflict is an example of a natural hazard.

A: false
Ballistic projectiles are rocks that an erupting volcano may hurl into the air.
A: true
Do not "Dock, Cover and Hold " during an earthquake, just stand and wait for news.
A: false
In assessing disaster risk, the formula used is DR=HEV, where DR stand for Development
Research, H for Hazard, E for Exposure and V for Vulnerability.
A: false
Do not panic and be sensitive to the possibility of aftershocks, after an earthquake.

A: true
The following should be done during an earthquake except

A: Anchor heavy furniture, cupboards, and appliances to the walls or floor
Environmental pollution is detrimental to health.

A: true
The following should be done before an earthquake except

A: Don't use matches, candles, or any flame. Broken gas lines and fire don't mi
Volcano hazard maps illustrate potential for ground-based volcanic impacts-lava flows, pyroclastic
flows, ash fall, volcanic gases, and more far-reaching hazards (such as lahars) in valleys that drain
the volcano.
A: true
Example of geological hazard. EARTHQUAKE
Example of combination of human made and natural hazards. FLOODING
Example of human made hazard . FIRE
Shows the dangerous areas. HAZARD MAPS
Very high risk. RED COLOR SIGNIFIES
No risk. WHITE COLOR SIGNIFIES
Big sea waves. TSUNAMI
High risk province. SULU
During an earthquake. “Dock, cover and hold”
agency that deals with volcanoes. PHIVOLCS
Hazard maps are used to help understand the areas that may be affected by specific volcanic
eruption phenomena.
A: true
During and after an emergency, you should not think only of yourself, you should provide first aid for
anyone who needs it, if you are capable.
A: true
In interpreting a hazard map, look for the title, which is located at the bottom portion of the geological
map. It is important because it tells you right away what kind of hazard map it represents or the area
where the map is based.
A: false
Earthquake is a human sourced hazard resulting from geological processes.
A: false
Elements at risk, particularly people can be affected by hazards, but they can manage even without
disaster preparedness.
A: false
Volcanic ash does not consist of fragments of pulverized rock, minerals, and volcanic glass created
during volcanic eruptions and measuring less than 2 mm in diameter.
A: false
The three things that should be done before an earthquake.

A: Learn first aid; Learn how to turn off the gas, water, and electricity in your home; Make up a plan
of where to meet your family after an earthquake
Pyroclastic flows contain a high-density mix of hot lava blocks, pumice, ash and volcanic gas.
A: true
The three things that should be done during an earthquake.

A: Do not panic; Fix heavy furniture, cupboards, and appliances to the walls or floor; If you're in a
car, stop driving until the earthquake stops/Don't use elevators
Water supplies, electricity and transportation are not always protected and therefore can be affected
by strong typhoons with strong winds.
A: true
Hazard Maps show the places in the country which are at risk to the following:
A: earthquake;tsunami Or, landslides
In assessing disaster risk, the framework used is DR=HEV, where DR stand for disaster risk, H for
Hazard, E for Exposure and V for Vulnerability.
A:
In assessing risk, the framework used is R=HEV, where R stand for risk, H for Health, E for
Evacuation and V for Vulnerability.
A: Vulnerability and Capacity Assessment
Typhoon Haiyan cannot be an example of a disaster because the extent of damages it wrought in
the Visayas Islands is negligible.
A: false
A: white

On November 8, 2013, Super Typhoon ______ cut a devastating path across the Central Philippines
(Visayas).
A: Haiyan(or Yolanda)

_____is a very important tool. It shows what places in the country, which are at risk to earthquakes.
A: map
A: immediately leave the low-lying coastal areas and move to higher ground

A: false
Be careful around broken glass and debris. Wear boots or sturdy shoes to keep from cutting your
feet.
A: true
A disaster will surely not occur when a hazard hit an area with vulnerable people and assets.
A: false
Communities with many vulnerabilities and low capacities are susceptible to experience
__________.
A: disasters
People living in rich developed countries have more vulnerabilities than those living in poor
developing countries.
A: false
Developmental perspective considers disasters as a challenge to ___________ as they negate

years of hard earned advances in education, health, social and economic areas.
A: development
For locally-generated tsunamis, where you might feel the ground shake, you may only have a few
minutes to move to higher ground.
A: true
In assessing disaster risk, the framework used is DR=HEV, where DR stand for disaster risk, H for
Hazard, E for Exposure and V for Vulnerability.
A: true

A: map
Elements at risk, particularly people can be affected by hazards, thus disaster preparedness is
important.
A: true
A: water
Physical risk factors can either lessen or aggravate one's vulnerability to hazards, for example the
level of strength of an office and the presence or absence of emergency exits in the case of an
earthquake.|
A: true
People live within or close to volcano danger zones, are to be affected by _____ flow and ash fall.
A: (lava)
Livelihoods and economic assets can be considered in measuring exposure of the elements at risk.
A: true

A: false
Hazards always have similar adverse impacts on the elements at risk in an urban and rural setting.
A: false
The intangibles elements at risk include social cohesion, community structure, and cultural losses.
A: true

A:false

A: earthquake
Landslides and liquefaction due to ground shaking brought about by an earthquake are considered:
A: secondary effects;

A: earthquake


A: false

A: false

A: true
A: hazard

A: false



A: red

A: red - wrong

A: ground shaking
__________ earthquakes are those induced by rising lava or magma beneath an active volcano.
A: volcanic

A: mountain
A phenomenon which produce giant sea waves generated mostly by vertical displacement of the
ocean floor associated with a strong and shallow submarine earthquake is called:
A: tsunami
A: true
The focus of the natural science perspective in analyzing disaster is what _______and loss it could
cause to physical aspects such as people and their properties and assets: public and private
buildings and infrastructures.
A: damage
Typhoon Haiyan cannot be an example of a disaster because the extent of damages it wrought in
the Visayas Islands is negligible.
A: false
Understanding of vulnerability and capacity can be done through.


A: Use the phone to connect to face book

A: If you're in a car, continue to drive until the earthquake stops,
During and after an emergency, if you're at school or work, _______ the emergency plan or the
instructions of the person in charge.
A: follow
Lahars are a specific kind of mudflow made up of volcanic debris.

A: true
DIRR-112 WEEK 11-19
During a landslide stay ___________ and ___________.

A: Alert and awake
A sudden rise of ocean water from its normal tide is __________.

A: Storm surge
__________ are conditions with prolonged deficit in water.

A: Drought
Landslides are downward movement of geological materials such as soil and rocks.
A: true
___________: low susceptibility-less likely to experience landslide be prepared ___________:

moderately susceptible: be cautious ___________: highly susceptible: be alert ad ready to evacuate
A: Yellow, Green and Red
Sinkholes are geologic process that could be natural or man-made in nature.

A: true
Geologic hazards have several factors that triggers its occurrence, one common cause is the
adjustment of the earth as the molten core moves.
A: true
_____________, legends, bar scale, ____________, and coordinates are the major parts/elements
found in geologic maps.
A: Title, Orientation Compass
Sinkholes typically develop slowly, but can also form suddenly when a collapse occurs.
A: true
Sinkholes doesn't have types, it is generally a collapse in the ground. It is all the same.
A: false
_________ , legends, bar scale, ________________, and coordinates are the major parts/elements
found in geologic maps.
A: Title, Orientation Compass
_______________ are the primary source of information for various aspects of land-use planning,
including the siting of buildings and transportation systems
A: Geologic Maps
During a landslide stay ... and ... .

A: alert, awake
For any hazard one must learn about the ________________________ plans for your area. And
develop for your own family as well.
A: contact
Swelling of rivers may lead to __________.

A: flood
During a landslide, ... or stay out of the path of landslide or debris flow.
A: evacuate
Human activities can't cause landslides.

A: false
Rainfall is influenced by "Hanging __________".

A: habagat
Landslides and sinkholes can both be caused by man-made interventions such as bomb explosion.
A: true
Slumps, rock fall, and debris are general types of landslide.

A: true
During a landslide, _____________ or stay out of the path of landslide or debris flow
A: Evacuate
Ensure to have a __________ for medical emergencies

A: First aid kit
If you suspect an imminent landslide or sinkhole danger ____________ your local fire, police, or
public works department.
A: contact
Typhoons move in a __________ movement.

A: Counterclockwise
Thunderstorms are associated with __________.

A: Heavy Rainfall
______________ tells you what different colors and signs mean in the map. Works as a decoder of
the data presented in the map.
A: Legends
Acid rains dissolve minerals in the soil causing sinkholes.

A: True
__________ is important to receive information about status of disaster

A: Radio
After a landslide, listen to _____________________for the latest emergency information.

A: Local radio
If you suspect an imminent landslide or sinkhole danger ... your local fire, police, or public works
department.
A: Contact or Call
Typhoons are created through a process called __________.

A: Cyclogenesis
Rain-induced landslides can't be considered as a geological hazard.

A: false
The color ____________ usually means that there are no or 0% chance for a landslide or sinkhole to
occur in that particular area in the map.
A: white
The lull period in the storm indicates the __________ is passing your area.
A: eye
Which are the three basic tools for monitoring?

A: Rain gauge, Wind vane and Anemometer
The onset of the El Nino phenomenon may foretell dry spells or a ________.
A: Drought
Examples of hydro metrological hazards.

A: Typhoons, floods, heavy rain and drought
Wind direction is provided by a

A: wind vane
is the stage when the plume begins to form above the burning fuel. It begins to draw or
entertain air from the surroundings space into the column.
A: Growth/s– wrong (fire)– wrongINCIPIENT– wronggrowth stage - wrong
is the material or substance being oxidized or burned in the combustion process. In scientific terms,
the
A: fuel
The Philippines is highly prone to hydro-meteorological hazards, which are climate and water
related.
A: true
In the map, yellow means high susceptibility-less likely to experience landslide.

A: false
To find the direction of the _______, a person should face the wind and the center of the storm lies
approximately 90 degrees on your left hand side.
A: storm
Both ____________ and pyroclastic flows can destroy agricultural lands, like what happened during
Mt. Pinatubo and Mt. Mayon eruptions.
A: ash flow
pertains to the malicious burning of property, using certain chemicals, bombs, etc., and causing fire
to start.It involves the movement of electrons between two objects in contact with each other.
Electrical charges are produced on the objects when they are separated. If the charge builds up, it
will develop enough energy to jump as a spark to a nearby grounded or less highly charged object.
A: static electricity
Ameasures rainfall.
A: raingauge
The common _______signs of an incoming flood include intense rainfall, dam or levee failure as well
as other events such as slow moving tropical storms.
A: warning
is the condition of being safe from the risk or danger of fire. It is also the quality or state of not
presenting or involving risk or danger of fire
A: fire safety
_____________ projectiles are rocks that an erupting volcano may hurl into the air.
A: Ballistic projectiles
If left unprepared, the population in the many villages of the country may be highly vulnerable to
hydro metrological hazard. as these hazards may become disasters.
A: true
Drought events is characterized by of ________ water for domestic and agriculture purposes.
A: shortage
The color green usually means that there are no or 0% chance for a landslide or sinkhole to occur in
that particular area in the map.
A: false
During a landslide, stay where you are and watch the debris flow, praying that you will not be carried
by the debris.
A: false
Early signs of drought indicate dry spells with _______ below the normal level, which If extends to 3
months, a drought is declared.
A: rainfall
1 mm of rainfall is equivalent toliter/s of water per sqm.

A: 1
is a chemical reaction. It is the rapid oxidation of a fuel producing heat and light.
A: combustion – wrong /spontaneous ignition– wrong / OXIDIZING AGENTS - wrong
These are set by students or staff of the school and can obviously not be predicted. Most of the time
they are started in trashcans or in piles of garbage because it is the easiest thing to light
A: intentional fires– wrong /intentional fire – wrong / intentional– wrong / fire - wrong
_________is one weather bureau in the Southeast Asian region that has established a regional
network of monitoring stations for tropical typhoons and other hydro-meteorological events
A: PAGASA
Geologic hazards have several factors that triggers its occurrence, one common cause is the
adjustment of the earth as the molten core moves.
A: true
Risks andof a community are shown by a hazard map

A: hazard/s – wrong /exposure– wrong /location – wrong / warnings - wrong
Another sign that we should know about landslide are doors or windows that stick or jam for the first
time.
A: true
People close to ___________ may detect some precursor to eruption, so they need to be careful,
they may even be ordered to evacuate.
A: volcanoes
A base map showsand land use

A: topography
Atmospheric pressure is measured in terms of

A: milibars– wrong/ barometer– wrong air pressure - wrong
During a landslide or any hazard, we should stay alert, watchful and awake.
A: true
Hazard maps are available with Projec

A: NOAH
A hazard map is arepresentation of specific hazards in the area.

A: visual
A family should not develop a family plan, so that each member knows where to meet after an
emergency.
A: true
The three components of fire are fuel,and oxygen.

A: heat– wrong/ oxidizing agents – wrong
is the pin at the top of the extinguisher that keeps the handle from being accidentally pressed.
A: pull
Legends tell you what different language and signs mean in the map.
A: false
After a landslide, never listen to local radio or TV station, you need to rest and you don't need the
latest emergency information, because the landslide is over.
A: false
is reducing the temperature below the fire point
A: cooling
Geological maps are the secondary source of information for various aspects of land-use planning,
including the siting of buildings and transportation systems.
A: false
Lahars are a specific kind of ____________ made up of volcanic debris.

A: Mudflows
General flood advisories are issued by _______ to inform and warn people flood levels and status of
water levels in river basins.
A: PAGASA
__________is one basic tools for monitoring rainfall, which is measured in millimeters. One
millimeter of rainfall is equivalent to 1 liter of water per square meter.
A: Raine gauge
A hazard map arecoded to show various hazards in the area.

A: color
in a combustion reaction is known as the "reducing agent".

A: fuel/s - wrong
New cracks or unusual bulges in the ground, street pavements or sidewalks is one of the signs that
we should know to be prepared for a landslide or sinkholes.
A: true
It is not important that one must learn about the emergency-response and evacuation plan for any
hazard in your area.
A: false
The swelling of ______ and lakes, or the occurrence of storm surge may lead to hydro-
meteorological events contribute to flooding particularly in flood-prone areas.
A: rivers
A measures atmospheric pressure.

A: barometer
Title, legends, bar scale, orientation compass and coordinates are the major parts/elements found in
geologic maps.
A: true
In CBDRM, the people are at the heart of decision-making and implementation of disaster risk
reduction and management activities at the community level.
A: true
The disaster risk reduction plan is a guide in transforming at risk communities to become disaster
__________communities.
A: resilient
DRR is important for the developing countries only.

A: false
Community based disaster risk management or CBDRRM has been recognized in the Philippines as
a necessary approach to put communities out of harm's way.
A: true
__________, which should be part of the community preparedness plan, is the process of moving
persons or property from a dangerous or potentially dangerous place, for reasons of safety and their
protection.
A: evacuation
Safety and security of the individuals, household and communities is not as important as education
and health.
A: false
Disaster risk reduction is the responsibility of the government alone, because they are paid to do
DRR.
A: false
Sustainable development goals can be achieved even without reducing the risks.
A: false
In planning for evacuation, the community should Identify safe place for evacuation and identify the
shortest and ________ route.
A: safest
There are six global targets to reduce disaster risks as agreed in the Sendai Framework on Disaster
Risk Reduction.
A: false
Communities should rely on the assistance of the government during calamities as government is
responsible for helping communities.
A: false
CBDRRM is a process of disaster risk reduction and management in which at risk communities are
never allowed to engage in the identification, analysis, treatment, monitoring and evaluation of
disaster risks.
A:false
____________ unites the community and its supporters in commitments and actions to undertake to
reduce disaster risk.
A: planning
The economic impact of disasters is lessening as the years go by even considering the impact of
Climate Change.
A: false
Participatory community risk assessment includes hazard, exposure and vulnerability assessment.
A: true
CBDRM aims to reduce peoples' vulnerabilities and enhance their capacities.

A: true
Disaster risk reduction refers only to providing emergency assistance during disasters.
A: false
There are only three priorities for action in the Sendai Framework on Disaster Risk Reduction.
A: false
Early _________, which should be part of the community preparedness plan, is the provision of
timely and effective information, advisory, and warning to individuals, families, communities, or
populations on the existence of danger, and what can be done to prevent, avoid, or minimize
danger.
A: warning
Local people need not prioritize DRR in their lives, as they have so many things to think about.
A: false
Project NOAH combines science and technology for DRRM. It is also is a responsive program that
aims to provide a 6-hour lead-time warning to agencies involved in disaster prevention and
mitigation.
A: true
___________ with indication of evacuation sites and routes is necessary part of the tools included in
the emergency kit.
A: map
___________ liters per person per day is required for drinking and for sanitation.
A: four
The Act repealed PD No. 1566 of 1978 and transforms the disaster management system from
disaster response towards disaster risk reduction.
A: true
Project NOAH is Nationwide Operational Awareness of Hazards.

A: false
DRRM ensures that disaster risk reduction and climate change measures are gender responsive,
sensitive to indigenous knowledge systems, and respectful of human rights.
A: true
We should avoid ___________ or sugary food as this will make you thirsty.
A: salty
In the survival kit, it is important to include the following documents: ___________ certificates,
passport, marriage contract, diploma, insurance certificates, land titles, etc.
A: Birth certificates
___________ kit includes disposable gloves, adhesive strips, sterile medical tap, thermometer,
adhesive bandage, among others.
A: first aid
A survival kit is necessary during emergencies, when help or support to family is absent, it refers to
emergency supplies, that a family needs to survive.
A: true
A person can survive without water intake for five days, but not without food for a day.
A: false
PAGASA and PHIVOLCS support the NOAH project.

A: true
The DRRM Act is reactive in addressing disasters and focused on the need for response.
A: false
DRRM provides maximum care, assistance and services to vulnerable sectors/ individuals of
communities.
A: true
The Philippine DRRM Act of 2010 is the new law for disaster management.
A: true
Mainstreaming of DRRM into the school curricula of secondary and tertiary level of education,
including the NSTP is one of the provisions of the Act.
A: true
Emergency survival kit should contain food, water and blanket only.
A: false
When a family is isolated for several days due to difficulty in access to go out to secure food, or for
help to come in, survival kit is very important in order to survive.
A: true
Public information is not necessary before emergency, it is important only during disasters.
A: false
The development, promotion and implementation of NDRRM plan is one of the policies of DRRM.
A: true
Ballistic projectile is the most dangerous volcanic hazard.

A: true
Typhoons, floods, heavy rain and drought are examples of ____________ hazards.
A: Hydro metrological
GBIO-121 Week 1-9
They are hollow cylinders and are the thickest of the cytoskeleton structures
A: microtubules
The exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

A: crossing over
It is closely related DNA–containing organelles include chloroplasts, chromoplasts, and a diverse

group of leucoplasts.
A: plastids
The relationship is evident (protein structure determines its function) , (nucleic acids structure results
in a genetic code) , anatomy (longer necked giraffes are more functional than short neck giraffes) ,
as well as cells.
A: structure-function relationship
The belief that living organisms grow directly from decaying organic substances was the accepted
explanation for the appearance of small organisms.
A: spontaneous generation
The smallest unit of structure and function of all living organisms.

A: cell
True or False: People with both normal undefected mtDNA and not normal, defected mtDNA, may
not inherit mitochondrial disease.
Answer: true
The division of the cell’s nucleus the final step before two daughter cells are produced.
A: mitosis
True or False: Tight junctions are the closely associated areas of cells.
Answer: false
The smallest cell currently known has a diameter of only 400 nm.
A: prokaryotic cells
True or False: Mitosis begins immediately at the conclusion of interphase, specifically at the end of
the G2 phase.
Answer: true
A watery fluid that contains cytoskeletal fragments, dissolved particles and organelles.
A: cytosol
They are structures that carry out specific functions inside the cell.
A: organelles
True or False: Cells come in the same shape
Answer: false
They are usually single–celled and smaller than eukaryotic cells.

A: Prokaryotic cells
True or False: Biologists in the early part of the 19th century suggested that all living things were
made of cells.
Answer: true
True or False: A mitochondrion, is a membrane–enclosed organelle that is found in most prokaryotic.

Answer: FALSE
Sperm cells are the only human cell with

A: flagella
True or False: A desmosome is a cell junction specialized for cell-to-cell adhesion.

A: true
True or False: Rudolf Virchow observed that cells cannot divide to produce more cells.
A: false
One of Schwann's original conclusions stated that cells formed in a similar way to crystals.
A: cell theory
They are also called the plasma membrane which is the physical boundary between the intracellular
space which is the physical boundary between the intracellular space ( the inside of the cell) and the
extracellular environment.
A: cell membrane
True or False: The spindle starts to form during prophase of mitosis.

Answer: true
True or False: Prophase is the first and longest phase of mitosis.

Answer: true
They are found in simple and stratified squamous epithelium, and in muscle tissue where they find
muscle cells to one another.
A: desmosome
It forms the “strings” which support celery stalks

A: collenchyma
True or False: During mitotic phase (M) is when the nucleus and then the cytoplasm divide.
A: true
The organelles on which proteins are made during protein synthesis
A: ribosomes
One gap junction channel is composed of how many connexions.

A: two
True or False: The nucleus of many cells also contains an organelle called a nucleolus.
A: true
A repeating series of events that include growth , DNA synthesis, and cell division.
A: cell cycle
True or False: As a cell grows, its volume increses more quickly than its surface area.
A: true
It strengthen and support parts of the plant which have completed elongation.
A: sclerenchymal cells
The Father of microscopy

A: Antony van Leeuwenhoek
True or False: Biologists found cells everywhere

A: true
True or False: Porins form channels that allow small molecules to freely diffuse across the
membrane to the other.
Answer: true
It organizes the inside structure of the cell by holding organelles and providing strength
A: Intermediate filaments
They may form a mass of abnormal cells.

A: CANCER
True or False: The nucleolus is inside the nucleus, and is where ribosomes are made.
Answer: true
During this phase, the cell grows rapidly while performing routine metabolic processes.
A: Growth Phase 1
Such cell types found lining your small intestine, where they absorb nutrients from your food through
protrusions.
A: microvilli
Which of the following statements is not a part of cell theory

A: Not all living things are made of one or more cells
His carefully crafted microscopes and insightful observations f microbes led to the title the" The
Father of Microscopy." Give the complete name.
A: Antony Van Leeuwenhoek
He is a British biologist and early microscopes that looked at thin slices of cork under a microscope.
Give the complete name.
A: Robert hooke
It makes and stores plant pigments

A: chromoplast
They are microscopic organisms that have neither a membrane-bound nucleus nor membrane-
bound organelles.
A: prokaryotes
An outer gelatinuous layer both joins and separates adjacent plant cells.
A:middle lamella
True or False: A gap junction or nexus is a specialized intercellular connection between a variety of
animal cell types.
Answer: true
The kind of microscopes that use more than one lens have been invented around 1595 by Zacharias
Jansen , a Dutch spectacle maker.
A: Compound Microscope
They are found in most eukaryotic cells and they are absent in some plants and most fungi.
A: centrioles
One component of cells that is common to all cells.

A: cytoplasm
True or False: The cell cycle is not controlled by regulatory proteins at three key checkpoints in the
cycle.
A: false
They are most closely resemble the generalized plant cell, desmosomes.
A: parenchymal cells
True or False: Prokaryotes have 80S ribosomes each consisting of a small (20S) and a large (60s)
subunit.
Answer: false
It is a type of junctional complex present only in vertebrates

A: Tight Junction
True or False: Cancer is a disease that occurs when the cell cycle is longer regulated.
Answer: true
It normally range between 1-100 um in diameter

A: eukaryotic cells
The process by which the information in a gene is “decodes’ by various cell molecules to produce a
functional gene product, such as a protein molecule or an RNA molecule.
A: gene expression
The Cell’s DNA is copied in the process of DNA replication.

A: Synthesis phase
True or False: In plant cells, the spindle forms with centrioles.

Answer: false
True or False: Changes in the DNA or RNA sequence can have significant phenotypc effects or they
can have no effects.
Answer: true
A new methodologies are developed, testing for more mutations will become more common and less
expensive.
A: Cystic fibrosis
This kind of disorder that can be inherited in a dominant or recessive manner.

A: genetic disorder
It is the diffusion of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane from an area of
highly concentration to an area of lower concentration.
A: osmosis
A mutation that is lethal prior to birth or shortly after birth.

A: homozygous
It is the representation of genetic inheritance.

A: pedigree
A kind of genetic disorder that reduced activity of a protein needed for blood clotting.
A: Hemophilia A
The exchange of genetic materials can happen many times within the same pair of homologous
chromosomes, creating unique combination of alleles.
A: Homologous combination
True or False: The mutation can be passed from one generation to the next.
A: true
It separates chromatids, similar to anaphase of mitosis.
A: Anaphase II
True or False: Individuals can be diagnosed prior to birth by genetic testing.

A: true
The stage when the synaptonemal complex degrades and homologous chromosomes disassociate
slightly from each other.
A: Diplotene stage
Human cells have ________pairs of chromosomes

A: 23
True or False: For autosomal dominant disorders, a person with the disorder has a 50% chance of
passing on the gene to their offspring.
A: true
True or False: Mitosis is the multi-phase process in which the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell multiply.
A: false
An outer, gelatinous layer both joins and separates adjacent plant cells.
A: middle lamella
They are caused by mutations in genes on the X chromosome. Only a few disorders have this
inheritance pattern.
A: X-linked dominant
True or False: It is an autosomal recessive disorder, requiring the inheritance of a defective gene
from each parent.
A: true
A condition caused by abnormalities, such as mutations in your genes or chromosomes.

A:Genetic disorder
The genetic material from two non-sister chromatids actually intertwine around each other and some
material from non-sister chromatid switch chromosomes that is the material breaks off and
reattaches at the same position in the homologous chromosome.
A: chiasma
It has normally has a negative regulatory effect on bone growth.

A: Achondroplasia Gene 3 (FGFR3)
This is an example of a recessive disorder.

A: Tay-Sachs Disease
True or False: Tay-Sachs results from mutations in the HEXA gene located on chromosomes.
A: true
In this stage, chromosome further condense

A: Diakinesis
The most common form of dwarfism in humans, and it is caused by a dominant mutation.
A: Achondroplasia
More than 98% of achondrolasia is caused by this at nucleotide 1138 of the FGFR3 gene, which
causes a glycine to arginine substitution.
A: G to A point mutation
It is an autosomal recessive inheritable disorder caused by a mutation in a gene called the cystic
fibrosis , transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR)
A: Cystic fibrosis
Anyone can be a carrier of the Tay-Sachs mutation, but the disease is most common among the:
A: Ashkenazi Jewish population
Each chromosome contains two sister chromatids and each chromosomes has a ____________
present in the nucleus.
A: crossing-over
It is an autosomal dominant disorder.

A: Achondroplasia
The stage occurs as the chromosomes pair with their homologue forming homologous chromosome
pairs
A: Zygotene
True or False: Homozygous achondroplasia is usually a lethal condition.

A: true
occurs when the plasma membrane folds inward to form a channel allowing dissolved substances to
enter the cell.
A: Pinocytosis
True or False: One in 22 people of European descent are carriers of a mutated CFTR gene.
A: true
True or False: The phragmosome suspends the cell nucleus in the center of the cell in preparation
for prophase.
A: true
An affected person usually has unaffected parents who each carry a single copy of the mutated
gene.
A: Autosomal recessive
Collagen genes result in bone disorders, specifically the spectrum of osteogenesis imperfect, or
brittle bone diseases
A: Type I collagen genes
True or False: During interphase the cell grows, performs routine life process, and prepare to divide.
A: true
During this phase, the cell makes final preparations to divide.

A: Growth phase 2 (G2)
It begins after DNA replicates during interphase of the cell cycle.

A: Meiosis
True or False: Proteins are made on ribosomes.

A: true (false)
One of the main principles of biology.

A: Cell Theory
A specialized inter-cellular connection between a variety of animal cell-types.

A:Gap junction
True or False: The variety of cell shapes seen in prokaryotes and eukaryotes reflects the functions
that each cell has confirming the structure-functional relationship seen throughout seen throughout
biology.
A: true
True or False: All cells come from the other cells.

A: true
The field of Biology that studies cells.

A: Cell biology
They are made of two thin actin chains that are twisted around one another.
A: microfilaments
True or False: Research in cell Biology is closely linked to molecular biology, as well as genetics,
biochemistry and developmental biology.
A: true
It includes both mitosis and cytokinesis.

A: Mitotic Phase
True or False: When a ribosome finishes reading an mRNA molecule, the two ribosomal subunits
associate.
A: false
During the centromeres of the chromosomes line up along metaphase plate or equatorial plane, in
essence the approximate middle of the cell.
A: Metaphase
In 1858, the German doctor that observed that cells divide to produce more cells. He proposed that
all cells arise only from other cells.
A: Rudolf Virchow
True or False: The eukaryotic cells spends most of its “life” in interphase of the cell cycle.
A: True
True or False: ATP is produced by the enzyme, ATP synthase, which is a membrane protein of the
mitochondria inner membrane.
A: true
The relationship is evident (protein structure determines its function) , (nucleic acids structure results
in a genetic code) , anatomy (longer necked giraffes are more functional than short neck giraffes) ,
as well as cells.
A: structure-function relationship
True or False: A large central vacuole may occupy for 40 to 90% of a plant cell volume.
A: false

A: anaphase
True or False: Single celled (unicellular) organisms like bacteria can be composed of trillions of cells.
A: false
Eukaryotic DNA organized in one or more linear molecules called

A: chromosomes
They are rod-like structures made of short microtubules.

A:Centrioles
True or False: The cell cycle is a repeating series of events that cells go through.
A: true
True or False: The Cell cycle in prokaryotes is more complicated than cell cycle in eukaryotes.
A: false
True or False: Centrosomes a are associated with the nuclear membrane during prophase of the
mitosis
A: true
The watery substance that does not contain organelles, is made of 80% to 90% water.
A: cytosol
True or False: Mitosis is a single stage process.

A: false
It has a long, thin cellular extension, allowing for very quick and accurate communication and
responses.
A: Neurons
True or False: Ribosomes can be found alone or in groups within the cytoplasm.
A: true
The two German scientists who suggested that cells were the basic unit of structure and function of
all living things.
A: Theodor Schwann and Matthias Jakob Schleiden
It is located outside the cell membrane and shapes, supports, and protects the cell.
A: cell wall
True or False: Cancer cells grow rapidly and may form a mass of abnormal cells.
A: true
True or False: Centrosomes a are associated with the nuclear membrane during prophase of the
mitosis.
A: true
It is the final step in cell division

A: cytokinesis
It is due to a deficiency in the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH)

A: Phenylketonuria
A tail that is water fearing

A: hydrophobic
True or False: The water-fearing, hydrophobic tails face each other in the middle of the cell
membrane, because water is not found in this space.
A: true
True or False: Over 80% of unrelated individuals with with Achondropasin have the same mutation
making it one of the most common mutations in the human genome.
A: false
True or False: Gated ion channels can open or close in response to different types of stimuli such as
electrical or chemical signals.
A: true
True or False: Cystic fibrosis (CF) can result from more than a thousand different mutations in the
human genome.
A: true
If it is diagnosed early enough, an affected newborn can grow up with normal brain development.
A: PKU
True or False: A hypertonic solution is one having a lower concentration of a substance on the
outside of a cell that is found within the cells themselves.
A: false
True or False: The hypertonic solution has a lower water concentration than the hypotonic solution.
A: true
True or False: Molecules in the cell membrane does not allow it to be semi-permeable.
A: false
is a type of vacuole that removes excess water from a cell.

A: contractile vacuole
It allows only certain materials to pass through. Characteristic of the cell membrane.
A: semipermeable
True or False: Ion channels are very specific as they allow only certain ions through the cell
membrane.
A: true
is the energy-requiring process of pumping molecules and ions across membranes uphill against a
gradient.
A: Active transport
It is the to an area of lower concentration.

A: false (true)
It is the ability of an organism to maintain stable internal conditions such body temperature
regardless of outside conditions.
A: homeostasis
True or False: A uniport can be either a channel protein or a carrier of a protein.

A: true (false)
The plasma membrane pulls away from the cell wall as it shrivels.
A: plasmolysis
True or False: Cells are found in all different types of environments, and these environments are
constantly changing.
A: true
The general term for all of the material inside the cell excluding the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.
A: cytoplasm
is a cell junction specialized for cell-to- cell adhesion

A: desmosome
it is a cell junction specialized for cell-to- cell adhesion

A: desmosome
is the process of capturing a substance or particle from outside the cell by engulfing it with the cell
membrane.
A: Endocytosis
True or False: The hydrophobic interior of the phospholipid bilayer allow ions or polar molecules
through because they are hydrophilic or water loving.
A: false
True or False: Osmosis cannot be seen very effectively when potato slices are added to a high
concentration of salt solution.
A: false
is to transport of two substrates in the same direction across the membrane.

A: Symport
True or False: The cell cycle is controlled mainly by regulatory proteins.

A: true
Lipid barrier that surrounds the cell; also known as the plasma membrane.
A: cell membrane
The protein that assists molecules entering or leaving the cells.

A: transport protein
True or False: There is no water found on both the inside and the outside of cells.
A: false
describes the process of vesicles fusing with the plasma membrane and releasing their contents to
the outside of the cell.
A: Exocytosis
They are caused by mutation on the Y chromosome

A: Y-linked disorders
True or False: Homeostasis is a dynamic equilibrium rather than an unchanging state.
A: true
True or False: The inside of the plasma membrane is hydrophobic so certain molecules can easily
pass through the membrane.
A: false
True or False: If a cell has a cell wall, wall helps maintain the cell’s water balance.
A: true
A “cellular eating” occurs when the dissolved materials enter the cell.
A: Phagocytosis
True or False: Fish cells like all cells have semi-permeable membranes.
A: true
It is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder characterized by the inability to metabolize the amino
acid pheylalanine.
A: Phenylketonuria
True or False: An increased surfaced area to volume ratio means decreased exposure to the
environment.
A: false
True or False: Sclerenchymal cells strengthen and support parts of the plant which have completed
elongation.
A: true
True or False: Cells are essentially carbohydrates lipids, proteins and nuclei acids in a water
environment.
A: true
During this stage, the nucleus membrane disintegrates and microtubule spindles invade the center
of the cell.
A: prometaphase
True or False: The greater the surface area to volume ratio of a cell the easier it is for the cell to get
rid of wastes and take it essential materials such as oxygen and nutrients.
A: true
True or False: The Cell Theory has withstood intense examination of cells by modern powerful
microscope and other instruments.
A: true
True or False: Tubulin are protein that forms microtubules.

A: true
They are hair-like structures on the surface of the cell that attach to other bacterial cells or surfaces
A: pili
serves as a “jelly” in which organelles are suspended and held together by the cell membrane.
A: Cytoplasm
The action potential signalling contraction is passed efficiently and effortlessly.

A: gap junction
higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
A: Osmosis
True or False: Cells as the primary building block of life.

A: true
True or False: Cells share the same needs.

A: true
True or False: Big cells, such as white blood cells, often grow more nuclei so that they can supply
enough proteins and RNA.
A: true
True or False: All metabolic functions carried out by a prokaryotic take place in the plasma
membrane or the cytosol.
A: true
True or False: Single-celled organisms like bacteria are obviously composed of three cells.
A: false
In this stage, chromosomes further condense.

A: diakinesis stage
True or False: The smaller subunit binds to thee transfer RNA (tRNA) while the larger subunits find
to the mRNA pattern.
A: false
This is the process of capturing a substance of particle from outside the cell by engulfing it with the
cell membrane.
A: endocytosis
The mixture of a solute in a solvent.

A: Solution
True or False: A bigger cell is more effective and transporting materials, including waste products,
than a smaller cell.
A: false
It concerns the understanding of the interactions between the various systems of a cell, including the
relationship between DNA, RNA and proteins.
A: Molecular biology
TEXT:
It is a kind of disorders that can be inherited in a dominant or recessive manner.

A: Achondroplasia (WRONG)
True or False: As a cell grows, its volume decreases more quickly that its surface area.
A: false
A sheet of cytoplasm that bisects the middle of the cell.

A: PHRAGMASOME
The division of the cell's nucleus wherein the final step before two daughter cells are produced.
A: MITOSIS
The process of pairing the homologous chromosomes

A: SYNAPSIS
It is the final step in cell division.

A: CYTOKINESIS
It actually includes both mitosis and cytokinesis.
A: MITOTIC PHASE
An outer gelatinous layer that both joins and separates adjacent plant cells.
A: MIDDLE LAMELLA
The exchange of genetic materials between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

A: CROSSING OVER
It is a cell junction specialized for cell-to-cell adhesion.

A: DESMOSOME
It is a cellular "scaffolding" or "skeleton" that crisscrosses the cytoplasm.

A: CYTOSKELETON
It is essentially the opposite of prophase and prometaphase.

A: TELOPHASE
It concerns the understanding of the interactions between the various systems of a cell, including the
relationship between DNA, RNA and proteins.
A: Molecular biology
GBIO-121 WEEK 10
stage occurs when the synaptonemal complex degrades and homologous chromosomes
disassociate slightly from each other.
- Diplotene
True or False: During mitotic phase (M) is when the nucleus and then the cytoplasm divide.
- true
During this stage, the nucleus membrane disintegrates and microtubule spindles invade the center
of the cell.
- prometaphase
Collagen genes that result in bone disorders, specifically the spectrum of osteogenesis, imperfect or
brittle bone disease.
- Type I collagen genes
True or False: Sclerenchymal cells strengthen and support parts of the plant which have completed
elongation.
- true
True or False: Tubulin are protein that forms microtubules.

- true
Ability of an organism to maintain stable internal conditions such body temperature, regardless of
outside conditions.
- homeostasis
serves as a “jelly” in which organelles are suspended and held together by the cell membrane.
- Cytoplasm
True or False: As a cell grows, its volume decreases more quickly that its surface area.
- false
A representation of genetic inheritance.

- pedigree
A “cellular eating” occurs when the dissolved materials enter the cell.
- Phagocytosis
It is a type of vacuole that removes excess water from a cell.

- contractile vacuole
higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
- Osmosis
It is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder characterized by the inability to metabolize the amino
acid pheylalanine.
- Phenylketonuria
True or False: Cells are essentially carbohydrates lipids, proteins and nuclei acids in a water
environment.
- true
True or False: All cells come from the other cells.

- true
During this phase, the cell makes final preparations to divide.

- Growth phase 2
The action potential signalling contraction is passed efficiently and effortlessly
- gap junction
This is the process of capturing a substance of particle from outside the cell by engulfing it with the
cell membrane.
- endocytosis
Anyone can be a carrier of the Tay-Sachs mutation, but the disease is most common among this
people.
- Ashkenazi Jewish population
is to transport of two substrates in the same direction across the membrane.

- Symport
It is the diffusion of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane from in area a higher
concentration to an of lower concentration.
- osmosis
True or False: Single-celled organisms like bacteria are obviously composed of three cells.
- false
True or False: A bigger cell is more effective and transporting materials, including waste products,
than a smaller cell.
- false
It describes the process of vesicles fusing with the plasma membrane and releasing their contents to
the outside cell.
- Exocytosis
human cells have

- 23
True or False: An increased surfaced area to volume ratio means decreased exposure to the
environment.
- false
The stage occurs as the chromosomes pair with their homologue forming homologous
chromosomes pairs.
- Zygotene
True or False: Big cells, such as white blood cells, often grow more nuclei so that they can supply
enough proteins and RNA.
- true
True or False: Cells share the same needs.

- true
True or False: The smaller subunit binds to thee transfer RNA (tRNA) while the larger subunits find
to the mRNA pattern.
- false
True or False: The greater the surface area to volume ratio of a cell the easier it is for the cell to get
rid of wastes and take it essential materials such as oxygen and nutrients.
- true
True or False: The Cell Theory has withstood intense examination of cells by modern powerful
microscope and other instruments.
- true
The most common form of dwarfism in humans, and it is caused by a dominant mutation.
- Achondroplasia
True or False: Cells as the primary building block of life.

- true
True or False: All metabolic functions carried out by a prokaryotic take place in the plasma
membrane or the cytosol.
- true
The mixture of a solute in a solvent.

- Solution
In this stage, chromosomes further condense.

- diakinesis
protein assists molecules entering or leaving the cell.

- transport
It is a kind of disorders that can be inherited in a dominant or recessive manner.

- hemophilia A
It begins after DNA replicates during interphase of the cell cycle.

- Meiosis
TEXT:
A sheet of cytoplasm that bisects the middle of the cell.

A: PHRAGMASOME
The division of the cell's nucleus wherein the final step before two daughter cells are produced.
A: MITOSIS
The process of pairing the homologous chromosomes

A: SYNAPSIS
It is the final step in cell division.

A: CYTOKINESIS
It actually includes both mitosis and cytokinesis.

A: MITOTIC PHASE
An outer gelatinous layer that both joins and separates adjacent plant cells.
A: MIDDLE LAMELLA
The exchange of genetic materials between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

A: CROSSING OVER
It is a cell junction specialized for cell-to-cell adhesion.

A: DESMOSOME
It is a cellular "scaffolding" or "skeleton" that crisscrosses the cytoplasm.

A: CYTOSKELETON
It is essentially the opposite of prophase and prometaphase.

A: TELOPHASE
GBIO-121 WEEK 11-19
Its bases are like the letters of a four-letter alphabet: These "letters" can be combined to form
"words". Groups of three bases form words. They carry genetic information in living organisms.
A: Genetic code
During a chemical reaction, the reactants are used up to create the products.
A: true
They are molecules which have many different functions in living things, and are made of amino
acids.
A: Proteins
Water is one of the most common ingredients in solutions.

A: true
Nucleic acids contain the information needed for cells to make proteins.
A: true
When water (H2O) breaks down into hydrogen (H2) and oxygen (O2).
A: decomposition reaction
These are the main chemical components of living organisms

A: organic compounds
A type of simple sugar which results from bonding two single sugars together. Also commonly called
two sugars.
A: disaccharide
Described as the "energy currency of the cell" or the "molecular unit of currency."
A: ATP
Carbon atoms are bonded to as many hydrogen atoms as possible.

A: True
DNA and RNA have one function relating to the genetic code and proteins.
A: False
The sterol __________ is an important part of cell membranes and plays other vital roles in the
body.
A: Cholesterol
Small building block molecule

A: Monomer
Proteins has no ability to bond with other molecules.

A: false
Proteins are similar to one another in the number and order of amino acids.
A: false
They have a "kink" or bend in their chain.

A: Unsaturated fats
Enzymes can catalyse up to several million reactions per second.

A: true
Nucleic acids are found not only in all living cells but also in viruses.
A: true
Protein, fats and carbohydrates are three of the main building blocks that make up your body.
A: true
They are organic compounds that contain carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and phosphorus.
A: Nucleic acids
Two monosaccharides will bond together through a dehydration reaction in which a water molecule
is lost.
A: true
Glycogen is used for long term energy storage in animal cells.

A: true
________ is a strongly polar solvent and polar solvents are better at dissolving polar solutes.
A: water
Fats are liquid at room temperature, whereas oils are fluid.

A: false
Proteins can differ in both the number and order of amino acids.
A: true
Antibodies are known as "biological catalysts".

A: false
Phospolipids serve as the main component of the protective outer membrane of all cells.
A: true
Although some lipids in the diet are essential excess dietary lipids can be harmful.
A: true
are pairs of bases that bond together.

A: complementary bases
Many organic compounds and other important biochemical are polar, so they dissolve well in water.
A: true
The name given to the collection of the lump sum of chemical reactions performed by an organism to
survive
A: metabolism
These are proteins that protect you against disease.

A: Antibodies
The largest proteins have more than 20,000 amino acids.

A: false
The unique blueprints to make the proteins that give you your traits.
A: DNA
It refers to a substance that speeds up chemical reactions.

A: catalyst
When ATP is used in DNA synthesis, the ribose sugar is first converted to deoxyribose by
ribonuleotide reductase.
A: True
Life could exist without enzymes.

A: false
It's important for you and other animals to eat food with protein because we cannot make certain
amino acids on your own.
A: true
The binding of complementary bases allows DNA molecules to take this well-known shape.
A: double helix
It is a single simple 6-carbon ring with the chemical formula C6H12O6.

A: glucose
A human stores glycogen in liver cells.

A: true
Animals use this for long term energy storage and to keep warm
A: fats
Protein that identifies pathogens by other substances as being harmful.

A: antibody
There are only 10 common amino acids needed to build proteins.

A: false
Fructose has the same chemical formula as glucose but the atoms are arranged differently.
A: true
Enzymes are type of protein that speed up chemical reactions.

A: true
DNA consists of three chains of nucleotides.

A: false
All cells are soluble in or does not mix with water.

A: false
Starches are one of the more common polysaccharides.

A: true
Reduction is the decrease of electrons or an increase in oxidation state by a molecule, atom, or ion.
A: false
In Saturated fats, some carbon are not bonded to as many hydrogen atoms as possible.
A: false
Complex carbohydrate form when simple sugars bind together into a chain.
A: true
Strongly polar solvents like water can dissolve strongly nonpolar pollutes likes oil.
A: false
Enzymes bind both reactant molecules called the substrate tightly and specifically at the ________
on the enzyme molecule.
A: active site
Most anabolic reactions are endergonic.

A: true
The substances that form as a result of a chemical reaction.

A: products
It is a saccharide polymer containing a small number (typically two to ten) of monosaccharides

A: oligosaccharides
DNA and RNA contain genetic instructions for protein, help synthesize proteins, and pass genetic
introductions on to daughter cells and offspring.
A: True
It sometimes referred to as animal starch.

A: glycogen
Molecules that absorb specific wavelengths (colors) of light

A: pigment molecules
The proteins which speed up chemical reactions.

A: enzyme
Which of the following consists of cells which contain organelles called chloroplasts (small green
ovals)
A: Elodea
Group of molecules, including chloropyll in the thylakoid membrane of a chloroplast, captures light
energy.
A: photosystem
The green pigment present in most plants which absorbs solar energy and helps convert that energy
into chemical energy.
A: chlorophyll
Space outside the thylakoid membranes of a chloroplast site of the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis.
A: stroma
When fossil fuels are burned, the chemical energy changes to thermal energy.
A: true
Sub-organelle within the chloroplast which organize patterns of proteins and other molecules which
conduct photosynthesis.
A: Thylakoid
The organelle of photosynthesis; its helps maximize photosynthesis.

A: chloroplast
Heterothroph can make their own food so they must eat or absorb it.
A: false
Chemical energy in our cells

A: ATP
It is the energy which can be found in moving objects.

A: kinetic energy
It refers to energy that is stored in objects, typically because of their position or shape.
A: Potential energy
Refers to organelles which conduct photosynthesis, and closely resemble cyanobacteria.

A: chloroplasts
Eukaryotic organelles, such as mitochondria, evolved from ancient, free-living prokaryotes that
invaded other prokaryotic cells.
A: Theory of Endosymbiosis
_______ play an important role in neutralizing acids throughout the body.

A: Bicarbonate ions
Energy transformation obeys the law of conservation of energy which states that energy cannot be
created or destroyed.
A: true
Series of electron-transport molecules that pass high-energy electrons from molecule to molecule
and capture their energy.
A: electron transport chain
It can not be created or destroyed only transformed.

A: Energy
Property of matter that is defined as the ability to do work.

A: Energy
When energy changes during Energy Transformation the energy is used up.
A: false
NADH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) and ATP (adenosine triphosphate) are used during
cellular respiration.
A: false
Stacks of sac-like thylakoid membranes, found in chloroplasts and photosynthetic bacteria.

A: grana
NADP+ accepts an electron at the end of the light reactions electron transport chain of
photosynthesis.
A: true
Mechanical energy commonly changes between kinetic and potential energy.

A: true
A pigment within plant cells which absorbs light.

A: Chlorophyll
Molecules that accept and temporarily hold high-energy electrons.
A: electron carrier
Kinetic energy can be used to change the position or shape of an object giving it potential energy.
A: true
Refers to the substance involved in a chemical reaction that is present at the beginning of the
reaction.
A: reactant
Refers to molecules which accept and temporarily hold high-energy electrons.

A: Electron carrier
When this occurs, the light is absorbed by chlorophyll in the membrane of chloroplasts in the plant
cell.
A: Light dependent reactions
Sunlight contains many different wavelengths which are visible when they separate into a rainbow.
A: true
An organism in a symbiotic relationship

A: Symbiont
Hydrogen ions are pumped into the thylakoids, forming an electrochemical gradient whose energy
builds ATP molecules.
A: true
Organism that produces organic compounds from energy and simple inorganic molecules; also
known as a producer.
A: Autotrophs
correlates with energy use, which reflects the link between oxygen and energy metabolism.
A: Respiration rate
Cellular respiration in the presence of oxygen; produces 36-38 ATP molecules glucose.
A: Aerobic respiration
It can power other metabolic pathways, or in many organisms, provide energy for further ATP
synthesis.
A: hot hydrogen
During the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis only water were used to produce oxygen gas.
A: false
The second stage of photosynthesis; results in the formation of a sugar.

A: calvin cycle
The oldest and most widespread pathway for making ATP
A: Glycolysis
Photosynthesis cells arranged into tightly packed sheaths around the veins of a leaf.
A: Bundle-sheath cells
First stage of photosynthesis in which light energy from the sun is captured and transformed into
chemical energy also known as the light reaction.
A:light-dependent reaction
The Sun is a(n) star
Light does not provides energy to split water molecules into electrons, hydrogen ions, and oxygen
gas.
A: false
Short term energy carrier; temporarily stores energy during cellular respiration.
A: NADH
A photosynthetic adaptation to arid conditions in some plants; allows stomata to be closed during the
day.
A: CAM photosynthesis
Energy-carrying molecule that cells use to power their metabolic process; energy currency of the
cells. (Note: acronym is also accepted)
A: ATP
Wilhelm Roentgen discovered Xrays
The splitting of a water molecule to replace electrons used during the light reactions; splitting by
light.
A: photolysis
Exchange of gases between the body and the outside air.

A: respiration
The enzyme that combines one molecule of CO2 with a 5 carbon sugar; called ribulose biphosphate
(RUB P; the most abundant enzyme on earth).
A: RuBiSCO
Bacteria which make yogurt.

A: Lactobacillus acidophilus
The process of "splitting glucose".

A: glycolysis
The process which converts carbon dioxide in the air to organic molecules as in photosynthesis.
A: Carbon fixation
It is essential to have efficient cellular respiration; most organisms need oxygen for a single purpose
to release energy from food for use by cells.
A: Oxygen
Every seconds, the sun fuses over 600 million tons of hydrogen into 596 tons of helium, converting
over 4 tons of helium into light and heat energy.
A: true
The movement of carbon and oxygen between the ground, atmosphere, oceans and living
organisms
A: carbon-oxygen cycle
The 3-carbon product of glycolysis is called

A: Pyruvate
Ion channel and enzyme complex; chemically bonds a phosphate group to ADP, producing ATP as
H+ ions flow through the ion channel.
A: ATP synthase
Glucose is the energy-rich product of photosynthesis and a universal food for life.
A: true
Kinetic Energy is the process in which energy changes from one type or form to another.
A: false
The process in which one kind of energy changes into another kind
A: Energy conversion
It provides up to 85% of the energy needs of new "flex-fuel" cars

A: Ethanol
It completes the breakdown of glucose which began with glycolysis.

A: Krebs Cycle
It is formed by the reduction of pyruvate.

A: Lactic acid
The Matrix of the Mitochondria is the site of Krebs Cycle reactions.

A: true
True or False: The alchemists have been successful in changing lead to gold. False
The various isotopes of an element all have the same number of protons but different
numbers of neutrons.
The type of anaerobic respiration carried out by yogurt bacteria such as Lactobacillus.
A: Lactic acid fermentation
The aerobic phases of cellular respiration in eukaryotes occur within these organelles.
A: Mitochondria
Behind each release of gas is an army gut bacteria undergoing some crazy biochemistry.
A: true
According to this theory, engulfing of some certain aerobic bacteria led to eukaryotic cells with
mitochondria.
It actually prefers fermentation over aerobic respiration

A: Saccharomyces cerevisiae
It is a type of anaerobic respiration that includes glycolysis followed by the conversion of pyruvic acid
to ethanol and carbon dioxide and the regeneration of NAD+ from NADH.
A: Alcoholic fermentation
True or False: Noble gases almost never react to other substances. False
Hydrogen ions flows "down" the gradient from outer to inner compartment through the ion
channel/enzyme ATP synthase
A: true
Fill in the blank: _________ is an energy carrier molecule produced during the Krebs Cycle of
Aerobic Cellular respiration.
A: FADH2
Carbon is the final electron; no part of the process - from the Kreb Cycle.
A: false
Refers to the substance involved in a chemical reaction that is present at the beginning of the
reaction.
A: reactant
When bread bakes, yeast releases carbon dioxide gas.

A: true
It allows glycolysis to continue making ATP.

A: NAD+
True or False: Carbon in graphite can be described as hard as the carbon in diamond. False
It is importantuse to lactic acid fermentation to allow the continuous production of some ATP your
muscle cells.
A: true
The oxygen gradually formed a protective ozone layer, which helped many living organisms on
Earth.
A: true
Aerobic respiration begins with the entry of the product of glycolysis, pyruvate into the mitochondria.
A: true
Although humans are obligate aerobes, our muscles cells have not given up on ancient pathways
which allow them to keep producing ATP quickly when oxygen runs low.
A: true
The Krebs Cycle takes place within the Matrix.

A: true
The third stage of cellular respiration uses the energy stored during the earlier stages in NADH and
FADH2to make ATP.
A: true
The process for making ATP in the absence of oxygen converts glucose to ethanol and carbon
dioxide.
A: ethanol fermentation
For Lactobacillus bacteria, the acid resulting from fermentation kills bacterial competitors in
buttermilk, yogurt, and some cottage cheese.
A: true
Lactic Acid fermentation makes ATP in the absence of oxygen by converting glucose to lactic acid.
A: true
Eukaryotic single-celled microorganism classified in the kingdom Fungi.

A: yeast
Fill in the blank: In the ________ , citric acid is carried through a series of chemical reactions which
gradually release energy and capture it in several carrier molecules.
A: Citric Acid Cycle and Krebs Cycle
The process of producing ATP in the absence of oxygen, through glycolysis alone.
A: Fermentation
We employ this to use their anaerobic talents to help bread use and grapes ferment.
A: Yeast
Muscle cells cannot continue to produce ATP when oxygen runs low using lactic acid fermentation.
A: false
The primary task of the initial state of cellular respiration.

A: false
GBIO-121 WEEK 20
It can be either a channel protein or a carrier protein, utilized in a facilitated diffusion.
A: uniporter
It means to maintain a stable internal environment.

A: homeostatis
These are essential in carrying out cellular respiration, as they are capable of "splitting" glucose
apart to release chemical energy and produce carbon dioxide.
A: Enzymes
IDENTIFICATION: This refers to the lipid barrier that surrounds the cell.
A: cell membrane
Proteins are molecules that have many different functions in living things
A: True
An organism which requires oxygen for cellular respiration.

A: Obligate anaerobe
refers to the difference in the concentration of the molecules in the two areas.
A: Concentration Gradient
allows glycosis to continue to make ATP in low-oxygen conditions.

A: lactic acid fermentation
___________ is an energy-carrying molecule which cells use to power their metabolic processes.
A: Adenosine Triphosphate
means "water-loving"
A: hydrophilic
This theory proposes that eukaryotic organelles evolved from ancient, free-living prokaryotes that
invaded other prokaryotic cells.
IDENTIFICATION. This serves a way for small molecules or ions to move across the cell membrane
without input of energy by the cell.
A: passive transport
Antibodies protect you against disease.

A: true
Physics tells us that organize system such as living organisms, tend to disorder without a constant
input energy.
A: true
IDENTIFICATION. They allow formation of a concentration gradient between the extracellular fluid
and the cytosol.
A: ion channels
Within plant cells or algal cells, chloroplasts organize that enzymes, chlorophyll, and accessory
pigment molecules necessary for photosynthesis.
A: true
is type of transport protein, acts like a pore in the membrane that allows transport of substances
across a cell membrane.
A: channel protein
The light reactions of photosynthesis also obviously occur during night hours.
A: false
Property of matter that is defined as the ability to do work.

A: energy
A metabolic process that uses energy released by the oxidation of nutrients to produce adenosine
triphosphate (ATP).
A: oxidative phosphorylation
Fill in the blank: When the four ATP produced in glycosis and the Krebs Cycle are added, the total of
______ ATP fits the overall equation for aerobic cellular respiration. (note: numerical answer only)
A: 38
DNA is the unique blueprint to make the proteins that give you your traits.
A: true
These are organelles specialized in carrying out aerobic respiration. They have their own DNA and
ribosomes.
A: Mitochondria
Potential energy is the energy of moving objects.

A: false
FILL IN THE BLANK: A ________is an organism which requires oxygen for cellular respiration.
A: obligate aerobes
FILL IN THE BLANK: Certain molecules require the assistance in the form of ________ to get
across the plasma membrane.
A: transport proteins
Kinetic energy is stored in objects typically because of their position or shape.

A: false
IDENTIFICATION: ____________ is a series of chemical reactions which completes the breakdown
of glucose begun in Stage 1 of aerobic cellular respiration.
A: Citric Acid Cycle
means "water-hating"
A: hydrophobic
The rate of gas exchange between the body and the outside air.
A: respiration rate
All living things require an ongoing source of energy to do the work of life.
A: true
Organic compound is the secondary components of living organism
A: false
refers to the movement of substances across the cell membrane.

A: cell transport
FILL IN THE BLANK: One of the ways for molecules to pass through a phospholipid membrane,
__________requires that the cell uses energy to pull in or pump out certain molecules and ions.
A:active transport
The structure within the chloroplast, this consists of stacks of sac-like thylakoid membranes.
A: grana
Life requires photosynthesis for fuel and for the oxygen to burn that fuel.
A: true
The source of energy for food is sunlight energy.

A: true
When the binding of complementary bases takes place, DNA molecules form a double helix.
A: true
Disaccharide is a type of simple sugar results from bonding two single sugars together.
A: true
Cytosine and guanine doesn't always bond together.

A: false
The formation of new combinations of alleles.
A: genetic recombination
They are called the paired chromosomes as they are formed by a complex with four chromatids.
A: bivalent or tetrad chromosomes
Each cell undergoes this stage, producing four haploid cells, each with a unique combination of
genes and chromosomes.
A: cytokinesis
It refers to the suspended state of the oocytes.

A: Dictyotene stage
A type of cell division which halves the number of chromosomes.

A: Meiosis
Longest phase of meiosis

A: Prophase I
This refers to the pairing of a chromosome during meiosis.

A: synapsis
In this stage, the new plate is rotated by 90 degrees when compared to meiosis 1, perpendicular to
the previous plate.
A: Metaphase II
The first stage of Prophase 1
A: leptotene
The _____________________ of chromosomes, as suggested by Mendel, are based on the fact

that some chromosomes inherited from the father are facing one side of the cell, while some are
facing the other side.
A: independent assortment
PHYSICAL EDUCATION AND HEALTH 2 GRADE

11
(PEDH-112) WEEK 1-10
In badminton, the grip should be neither tight nor loose but firm and pliant, loosening as the swing
progresses.
Select one:
True
False
Badminton can be played in both singles and doubles.
Select one:
True
False
The ball used in table tennis is fragile but quite hard to break.
Select one:
True
False
Another name for a shuttlecock.

Select one:
a. bird
b. ball
c. cock
d. shutter
The net in badminton must be made of fine cord of light color and thickness with a mesh of not less
than 20mm.
Select one:
True
False
The ____ shot is used rarely but effectively. It is a and downward swing. (table tennis)
Select one:
a. drive
b. smash
c. serve
d. drop
The overall dimension of a badminton racket cannot exceed 26 3/4 inches in length, 9 inches in
width and 11 inches in head length.
Select one:
True
False
The official badminton court for a game of singles is:
Select one:
a. 40ft long x 22ft wide
b. 44ft long x 22ft wide
c. 44ft long x 17ft wide
d. 40ft long x 17ft wide
When the bird touches the top of the net and falls in the proper side of the court, it is called ____.
Select one:
a. clear
b. fault
c. let
d. drop
This refers to the single layer of cellular rubber in the paddle of the table tennis racket located
underneath the rubber surface.
Select one:
a. padding
c. sponge
d. rubber
Which of the following is not a part of a badminton racket?
Select one:
a. stringed area
b. face
c. frame
d. head
e. throat
f. handle
In badminton, any stroke made on the side of the body opposite the racket side.
Select one:
a. Forehand
b. Backhand
c. Match
d. Drive
e. Clear
In badminton, this term refers to loss of service.
Select one:
a. let
b. hand-out
c. love
d. fault
Badminton was said to be similar to what game?
Select one:
a. tennis
b. table tennis
c. none of the choices
d. battledore
The grip wherein the forefinger and thumb reach over the shoulders of the blade, with the other
fingers spread over the back. (table tennis)
Select one:
a. western grip
b. handshake grip
c. penhold grip
d. eastern grip
In badminton, ___ is the stroke used to initiate play and used to begin each point in the match.
Select one:
a. smash
b. service
c. play
d. drive
Floor surface of badminton courts are traditionally composed of wood
This refers to the line running parallel to the net in the badminton court.
Select one:
a. short base line
b. short service line
c. long service line
d. base line
The variable length of feathers in a shuttlecock.
Select one:
a. 64mm to 70 mm
b. 65mm to 75mm
c. 58mm to 68mm
d. 25mm to 28mm
The shot in which the bird follows the net in a short flight. (badminton)
Select one:
a. Drop
b. Rally
c. Setting the Game
d. Fault
e. Net flight
A defensive stroke where the ball is struck with a downward and forward motion with a short
chopping motion. (table tennis)
Select one:
a. smash shot
b. push shot
c. top spin serve
d. chop stroke
e. drop shot
The ____ governs the promotion and development of badminton in the Philippines.
Select one:
a. Philippine Badminton Federation
b. Badminton Association of the Philippines
c. Association of Badminton in the Philippines
This refers to the flat shot that is kept as low as possible to have the opponent run from side to side.
(badminton)
Select one:
a. Net shot
b. Smash
c. Drive
d. Overhand stroke
e. Drop shot
___ are used as defensive stroke in badminton to allow the player time to return to the ready position
and regroup and to move the opponent as far away from the net as possible.
Select one:
a. clears
b. backhands
c. hand-outs
d. faults
The two types of shuttlecocks are the feathered and the ___.
Select one:
a. synthetic
b. plastic
c. recreational
d. authentic
Which of the following is not considered a fault?
Select one:
a. If in play, shuttle lands nearly on boundary lines and fails to go past the net or touches the ceiling
or walls
b. If server misses the shuttlecock
c. If service is not correct
d. If a player misbehaves or repeated misconduct during the game
Table tennis has been included as an event in local athletic sport meets.
Select one:
True
False
Which Olympic host country was badminton presented as a demonstration sport?
Answer: germany
right
Singles serve and receive in the service court. (table tennis)
The ball resting on the palm of the free hand and toss it around six or more inches in height, letting
it bounce on the table side of the server before passing by the net and bounce in the receiver's side
of the table. (table tennis)
Select one:
a. push shot
b. drop shot
c. top spin serve
d. smash shot
e. chop stroke
How many points must a player get to win a badminton game?
Answer: 21
The net in badminton should be 720mm in depth and at least 6.1m wide.
Select one:
True
False
This refers to a good service but unable to hit or touch with the racket. (badminton)
Select one:
a. Clear
b. Fault
c. Drive
d. Ace
e. Bird
The ____ is small, celluloid, spherical, white or orange in color, 40mm in diameter and 2.5g in weight.
Select one:
a. paddle
b. sponge
d. ball
In India, Badminton was known as ____.
Answer: Poona
Matches in table tennis can get up to what number?
Answer: 7
Color of boundary lines in badminton courts.
Answer: White or yellow
match
Reaching 40 points is also called . (tennis)
17
The tennis court for a singles game must be feet wide
hip leve
At the event of a forehand stroke, the racket head must be at to point opposite the right
hip. (tennis)
Major Walter Wingfield introduced the game Answer playing ball which the racket game originated
from. (tennis)
In a doubles game of tennis, all players may have the chance to serve the ball.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
The backswing in the one-handed backhand technique starts from the ready position, with the
feet facing the net. The player steps forward using the right foot and meet the ball early for the
backhand execution. (tennis)
Tennis was used to be played by using the palm of the hand.

Select one:
True
False
Winning 3 out of 5 sets is considered a winner. (tennis)
Feet are turned sideways in preparation for a backhand stroke. (tennis)
This refers to chasing how many points to play when the score becomes tied in 13-all or 14-all.
(badminton)
A: setting the game
In doubles, the receiving side may change depending on the serving team's score. (table tennis)
A: true
Badminton was said to be similar to what game?

A: battledore
The shot in which the bird follows the net in a short flight. (badminton)
A: net flight
___ are used as defensive stroke in badminton to allow the player time to return to the ready position
and regroup and to move the opponent as far away from the net as possible.
A: clears
Hungary and Czechoslovakia are some of the countries that dominated the table tennis international
competitions.
A: true
The official badminton court for a game of singles is:

A: 44ft long x 17ft wide
Table tennis originated on December 1890.

A: false
The ____ governs the promotion and development of badminton in the Philippines.
A: Badminton Association of the Philippines
The grip wherein the forefinger and thumb reach over the shoulders of the blade, with the other
fingers spread over the back. (table tennis)
A: penhold grip
than 20mm.
A: false
A defensive stroke where the ball is struck with a downward and forward motion with a short
chopping motion. (table tennis)
A: chop stroke
Scoring used in table tennis is called

A: love
The first player in badminton to reach ___ points wins a game.

A: 21
The ball is in play from the moment it is projected from the hand in service. (table tennis)
Which of the following statements is not true about table tennis?

A: A good stance in serving the ball is that the shoulder of the non-racket hand is parallel to the net
in the backhand position.
Singles serve and receive in the right service court
The Premier International Men's Team Thomas Cup was established in 1948. (badminton)
This refers to the single layer of cellular rubber in the paddle of the table tennis racket located
underneath the rubber surface.
A: sponge
How many, at the most, are the sets in one match? (table tennis)
A: 5
The meaning of IBF.

A: international badminton federation
The number of feathers fixed in the base of a shuttlecock.

A: 16
The ball is not in play anymore if it has been struck by either play at least once. (table tennis)
A: false
The variable length of feathers in a shuttlecock.

A: 64mm to 70 mm
The overall dimension of a badminton racket cannot exceed 26 3/4 inches in length, 9 inches in
width and 11 inches in head length.
A: false
This refers to the line running parallel to the net in the badminton court.
A: short service line
In badminton, the grip should be neither tight nor loose but firm and pliant, loosening as the swing
progresses.
A: false
In badminton, this term refers to loss of service.

A: hand-out
than 20mm.
A: false
The ____ is small, celluloid, spherical, white or orange in color, 40mm in diameter and 2.5g in weight.
A: ball
stroke refers to the act of striking the ball with the racket. (tennis)
When the points reach 40-40, it is called a deuce
Occasionally move your body forward with a swing as it will direct the flight of the ball. (tennis)
A: false
Major Walter Wingfield introduced the game playing ball
A score that means zero. (tennis)

A: love
backhand stroke is used in baseline rallies. (tennis)
How many games are there in one set? (tennis)

A: 6
What does Paume mean?

A: palm
The game is won if one of the player gets four points. (tennis)
A: true
Winning 3 out of 5 sets is considered a winner

The most popular grip in tennis.
A: eastern grip
The length of the tennis court is 78 feet
backswing must be executed with an extended arm and firm wrist. (tennis)
eastern grip allows extremely wide reach and maximum power with minimum effort. (tennis)
Two points in tennis is equal to 30 points
technique, eastern forehand grip is used for the left hand (for right-handed players) and continental
grip for right hand (if the player is left-handed). (tennis
A: two-handed backhand
For the forehand stroke, the player may choose to reach for the incoming ball. (tennis)
A: false
The server's score is always first. (tennis)

A: true
Tennis was used to be played by using the palm of the hand.

A: true
The least practiced tennis stroke.

A: backhand stroke
One-handed backhand technique starts from the ready position, with the feet facing the net. The
player steps forward using the right foot and meet the ball early for the backhand execution. (tennis)
The most prestigious tennis tournament is the Wimbledon
refers to the move of hitting the ball in a high arc. (tennis

A: LOB
is seldom used because of the limited stroke production and awkward grip. (tennis)
A: western grip
A hard horizontal stroke that is straight and close to the net. (badminton)
Select one:
a. drive
b. drop
c. ace
d. serve
An entire play from service until ball is dead. (tennis)
Select one:
a. point
b. rally
c. score
d. volley
The table tennis ball is made of celluloid and is white in color. TRUE
Badminton was first organized in India. False – England
A game of badminton is won by the player who first scores 21 points. True
In executing forehand strokes, the left foot and left shoulder should
approximately towards the table. (badminton) - False - backhand
The tennis court for a singles game must be

A: 27
in preparation for a backhand stroke. (tennis)

A: sideways
The base of the shuttlecock must be:

A: 25 to 28mm
An attacking shot made with all the power and speed one can put into it.
(badminton)
Select one:
a. lob
b. net shot
c. smash
d. drop shot
What move is illustrated in the picture?
Select one:
a. downswing
b. one-handed backhand
c. two-handed backhand
d. forehand
A match shall consist of the best of five out of five games. (badminton) False –
Three
True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False,
write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term.
Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is
considered wrong.
For example:
Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals
The server serves the ball with open palm. (table tennis) True
At score 20-20 or "deuce," the player changes after every serve.
(badminton) False – 21
What move is illustrated in the picture?
Select one:
a. forehand
b. eastern forehand
c. backhand
d. western forehand
An outer bird is light in weight and is a sphere of cork covered with white hide.
(badminton) False – SHUTTLECOCK
The stroke used in returning the bird from the left side of the body.
(badminton)
Select one:
a. backhand stroke
b. overhand stroke
c. forehand stroke
d. service
in a western grip stroke. (tennis)

A: downward motion
Full extension of the arm and racket will minimize the line of the shot in a backhand
stroke. (tennis)
A: false
In a doubles game, the tennis court is 36
In a doubles game, the players must maintain their

A: parallel
Where did badminton originate from an old and similar game?

A: india
This refers to the flat shot that is kept as low as possible to have the opponent run from side
to side. (badminton)
A: drive
Correct ____ and footwork is needed in playing table tennis.

A: stance
____ is the basic offensive shot in badminton.
A: smash
The net in badminton must be made of fine cord of light color and thickness with a mesh of
not less than 20mm.
A: false
Table tennis has been included as an event in local athletic sport meets.
A: true
Table tennis can only be played indoors.

A: false
In badminton, any stroke made on the side of the body opposite the racket side.
A: backhand
These are shots struck on the side away from the racket (left side for the right-handed and
right side for the left-handed). (badminton)
A: backhand stroke
The post of the badminton net should be ___ meters in height.

A: 1.55
Table tennis is also known as ___.

A: ping pong
Correct gripping is the most vital factor in badminton and winning matches.
A: true
If the serving team commits a fault,

A: side-out
Double games are played up to

A: 21
Up to how many feathers does a standard shuttlecock have?

A: 16
The ____ grip is done by gripping the short handle of the racket very closely to the blade,
wherein the forefinger is positioned behind the blade for support. (table tennis)
A: handshake
When the bird touches the top of the net and falls in the proper side of the court, it is called
____.
A: let
The ball used in table tennis is fragile but quite hard to break.
A: true
At a game where both players reach 40 points each, one player must win at least one point
over the other to win. (tennis)
A: false
In a doubles game of tennis, all players may have the chance to serve the ball.
A: true
Reaching 40 points is also called

A: match point
At the event of a forehand stroke, the racket head must be at

A: hip level back
requires a strong wrist to be effective. (tennis

A: continental forehand
The hands and racket is highly used in taking the racket back for a backhand stroke. (tennis)
A: true
power is generating from the speed and velocity of the forward and upward movements of
arms, legs and body. (tennis
A: forward swing
The tennis tournament in the USA is called the

A: US open
This refers to a good service but unable to hit or touch with the racket. (badminton)
A: ace
A serve made by a quick flip of wrist and bird travels in a direct line to the desired spot.
(badminton)
A: drive serve
service is always from the right service court to the opponent's right service court. (table
tennis
A: first
The badminton court is longer for a doubles game.

A: false
The badminton racket should be

A: 9
If the player served when the opponent is not ready, it is considered a

A: let
Which of the following describes the net of a table tennis table?

A: light in texture, stretched across the center of the table and attached to the outside by
vertical standards
In table tennis, both players change ends once one reaches 15 points.
A: false
Another name for a shuttlecock.

A: bird
The net in badminton should be 720mm in depth and at least 6.1m wide.
A: false
The tennis ball is

A: bright yellow
The receiver must return the serve on its

A: first
Players change ends after every even-numbered game. (tennis)

A: false
The ball resting on the palm of the free hand and toss it around six or more inches in height,
letting it bounce on the table side of the server before passing by the net and bounce in the
receiver's side of the table. (table tennis)
A: push shot
is delivered by projecting the ball from the free hand and the projection starts from
above the playing surface. (table tennis
A: service
When was the first Badminton association formed?

A: 1899
refers to the point won by a server in tennis. Ace
The ____ shot is used rarely but effectively. It is a vicious forward and downward swing.
(table tennis)
A: smash
If the player's freehand touches the playing surface while in play, the point is awarded to the
____. (table tennis)
A: opponent
shuttles are used for recreational badminton games

A: synthetic
An illegal action wherein the player hits the ball before it bounces. (table
tennis)
Select one:
a. volley
b. rally
c. point
d. score
A student of court tennis who introduced the game "Playing Ball"

A: Major walterwingfield
Players alternate w many, at the most, are the sets in one match? (table te in serving the
ball every other game. (tennis)
A: true
A low shot close to the net made from back court that fails or drops sharply
immediately after crossing net. (badminton)
Select one:
a. serve
b. drop
c. drive
d. ace
A drive serve is made by a quick flip of wrist and bird travels in a direct line to
the desired spot. (badminton) True
Balls with worn-off fuzz become

A: very light

11
(PEDH-112) WEEK 11-19
Which of the following is not a symptom of weight loss?

A: lack of sufficient sleep
You must net at or below your BMR in terms of caloric intake.

A: FALSE
The penhold grip is executed by grasping the racket as if to shake hands

with it. (table tennis) False - Handshake grip
A player scores 21 points. (table tennis) a. deuce

The height of the net in the playing surface from the floor. (table tennis) 76
cm
The act of striking the ball with a racket. (tennis) Stroke
A ball bouncing near the net. short
True or False: A 35000 calorie excess or deficit for a person meeting his assumptions, would lead to
the gain or loss, respectively of one pound of body weight.
A: false
makes up lean muscle mass.

A: Protein
The term referring to the activity level use of little or no exercise.

A: sedentary
One of the simplest aerobic exercises in which your intensity varies to match your fitness level.
A: Walking
The stroke used in returning a high shot and in which arm and shoulder are
fully extended. (badminton) overhand stroke
Any infraction of the rules resulting in loss of the serve or the point. (table
tennis) fault
The ball should bounce first on the server's court after service. (table tennis)
True
A good serve that the opponent is unable to hit or touch with his racket.
(badminton) drop
The stroke used in returning the bird from right side of the body.
(badminton) backhand stroke
The British introduced badminton to our country. True
A single game is played by two players in each court. True

A player won 2 out of 3 sets. (table tennis) Match
The measurement of the playing table of table tennis. 2.74 m x 1.52 cm
A player gains a point if he fails to make a good return. False – Loses
The International Table Tennis Federation was established in 1936. False –

1926
At the start of a new game, the player who serves first in the previous game
becomes the receiver. (table tennis) True
A bird which touches top of the net and falls in the proper side of the court.
(badminton) LET
A table tennis game is started with a toss of a coin. True
A rally which is not scored and being replayed. (tennis) True
All shots are played with the body at right angle to the net. (tennis)
False - Parallel Angle
Change of service takes place after either player reaches 8 points

throughout the game. (table tennis) True
To put the bird in play. (badminton) Serve
Reaching over the net to hit a bird is a fault. (badminton) True
Table tennis is also known as pingpong. True

True or False: Rare latency periods vary from three days to two weeks after ingestion.
A: false
Bone loss increases as part of the natural ageing process.

A: true
Total energy expenditure is computed by adding 100% of the calories for activity
A: strenuous
diets are also referred to as balanced percentage diets.
A: low-calorie
Aerobic exercises starts with

A: BREATHING
years occur from age 5 to 18.

A: bone building
The American College of Sports Medicine recommends a minimum daily calorie intake of 1,200 for
men.
A: FALSE
Unintentional weight loss occuring because of an inadequately nutritious diet relative to a person's
energy needs.
A: malnutrition
True or False: Weight gain is associated with excessive consumption of fats, sugars and refined
carbohydrates.
A: true
The cause of this disease-related malnutrition is poor appetite.

A: impaired intake
are microscopic sacs where oxygen enters into the blood.

A: ALVEOLI
True or False: Adults of all ages are advised to spare at least 75 minutes of rigorous exercise every
week.
A: TRUE
The disease-related malnutrition which is caused by changes to metabolic demands caused by

illness, surgery and organ dysfunction.
A: altered requirements
True or False: Depression is also a contributing factor to increase in weight.

A: True
True or False: Children are advised to take at least one hour of physical activity a day.
A: true
The other term for fat.
A: adipose tissue
True or False: Intentional weight loss is the loss of total body mass as a result of efforts to improve
fitness and health or to change appearance through slimming.
A: True
The heart has the ability to decrease in size, slow and eventually fail.
A: true
BMR increases as you age.

A: false
Aerobic exercises become anaerobic exercises if performed at a level of intensity that is lower.
A: false
state means that the digestive system is inactive which requires twelve hours of fasting.
A: post-absorptive
Lean muscle tissue requires more calories than other tissues.

A: true
The amount of oxygen the muscles extract, or consume from the blood.
A: oxygen consumption
True or False: All medications can potentially cause weight gain or loss.
A: FALSE
facilitates fermentation of indigestible carbohydrates to short-chain fatty acids, SCFAs, contributing

to weight gain.
A: MICROBIOTA
A type of aerobic exercise that is a good choice for people who are greater than 50 pounds
overweight as it helps the heart without the mechanical stress on some parts of the body.
A: Cycling
A volume of blood sent with every beat of the heart.

A: stroke volume
BMR decreases with the loss of lean body mass.
A: true
This is calculated from age, gender, weight, height and the activity factor.
A: total energy expenditure
The oxygen is filtered through small branches of tubes called

A: bronchioles
The amount of energy expended while at rest in a neutrally temperate environment, in the post-
absorptive state.
A: basal metabolic rate
Hard exercise/sports for 6 to 7 days a week is a

A: very active
BMR increases if there is an increase in muscle mass.

A: true
Skipping meals to lose weight improves your BMR.

A: false
True or False: Social networks contribute to weight gain.

A: True
True or False: Our muscles use fat and carbohydrates to function.

A: true
The average woman weighed ___ pounds in 1994.

A: 147
An average healthy adult inhales and exhales 7 to 8 liters of air per hour
A: true
True or False: Depression is also a contributing factor to increase in weight.

A: true
Which of the following is not a gentle exercise routine?

A: walking
Cycling may be too strenuous to be enjoyable and depends on the person's capability to use the
bicycle.
A: false
Conditions such as burns can be associated to this problem such as skin exudates.
A: Excess nutrient losses
It is recommended by dieticians to consume Vitamin D as supplementation to prevent weight gain.

A: false
The American College of Sports Medicine recommends a _____ daily caloric intake of 1,200 for
women and 1,800 for men.
A: minimum
Basal Metabolic Rate is the amount of energy expended while at rest in a highly temperate
environment.
A: false
Improving reflexes is one of the advantages of playing badminton. Which of the following benefits
apply?
A: develop athleticism
cholesterols decrease the size of blood vessels, increasing the risk of heart attacks and stroke.
A: bad
Which of the following is not one of the levels of the body that should be taken care of or given
extra precautions?
A: arms and legs
Total Energy Expenditure is calculated by adding 100% calories to the BEE for moderate activity.
A: false
The lean muscle tissue requires less calories than others.

A: False
These are microscopic sace where oxygen enters the blood.

A: alveoli
Playing badminton also builds and exercises the quads, glutes, calves and hamstrings. What
advantage is this?
A: increased muscle tone
exercise is an activity that causes you to be quickly out of breath.

A: anaerobic
Lack of sufficient sleep is a cause of weight gain.

A: true
Playing badminton can reduce or eliminate the risk of health problems such as high blood presure
and heart disease, among others. What advantage is this?
A: good for overall health
The air we breathe contains approximately

A: 20
People with osteoporosis must avoid exercise altogether as it may further damage their already
fragile bones.
A: false
Eating restrictions often from treatment or lack of food are some of the causes of this problem.
A: Impaired intake
People with knee or hip problems should avoid this as it can put extra stress on the joints.
A: Stair Climbers and Steppers
Which of the following components is not included in the computation for the Total Energy
Expenditure.
A: Endurance
Running games is still recommended for bone-loss years.

A: false
The cause of this problem are because of symptoms such as vomiting or diarrhea.
A: Excess nutrient losses
Basal Energy Expenditure refers to the amount of calories burned by the human body in one day.
A: false
Playing badminton reduces the risk of death by about 30 percent.
A: false
Weight loss that is said to be unexplained if it is not caused by reduction in calorific intake or
exercise is called
A: cachexia
Interactions while playing badminton will result in positive feelings. What advantage is this?
A: social health
Aerobic exercises are also called cardioexercises that require pumping of oxygenated blood by the
heart to deliver oxygen to working muscles.
A: true
Which of the following is not a gastrointestinal disorder often contributing to unexplained weight
loss?
A: pancreatic cancer
The term for the activity level use that requires extremely hard exercise/sports or physical job and
twice more training.
A: extremely active
This term refers to the acceleration, one of the known benefits of playing badminton.
A: glutei
As your metabolism slows, it becomes harder to eat normal amounts of calories without gaining
weight.
A: true
Playing badminton decreases the level of bad cholesterol.

A: true
Which of the following is the only good cholesterol in our body?

A: high-density lipoprotein
The basal heart rate reduces to a few beats per minute while blood pressure rises in playing
badminton.
A: false
Playing badminton decreases the liver's production of sugar. What advantage of playing badminton
is this?
A: decrease diabetes
The BMR calculator gives the maximum number of calories you should eat on a daily basis.
A: false
Healthy individuals seeking to maintain their weight should consume an average of 2,000 caleries
daily.
A: true
Playing badminton lubricates the joints, eventually preventing arthritis. What advantage of playing
badminton is this?
A: mobility
This machine requires above-average coordination to master.

A: Ski machines
The release of energy in the post-absorptive state is sufficient only for the functioning of the vital
organs.
A: true
Achieving weight loss through playing badminton alone is possible.

A: false
Medications can cause both weight gain and weight loss.

A: true
For a beginner in swimming, the recommended time of activity is 30 to 60 minutes to achieve

desired results.
A: false
Badminton is allowed for both adults and children, of any age.

A: true
It helps improve communication between old and young people.

A: Offers a social outlet
An increase in motor skills and cognitive awareness.

A: Keeps your brain sharp
The player works out a solution for puzzles involving the speed, spin and placement of the ball.
A: Develops mental acuity
Tennis players tend to be more optimistic and to have greater self-esteem.

A: Boosts mood
The player uses strategic planning to return the ball to the opponent.
A: Stimulates various different parts of the brain
Aerobics and cycling burns more calories than tennis.

A: false
is the ability of the brain to change based on an experience or environmental factors.

A: plasticity
is a protein that promotes neuron growth and survival.

A: brain-derived neurotrophic factor
One of the physical reasons for playing tennis associated with overall fitness and resistance to
disease of a player's body.
A: immune system
Tennis takes patience and dedication.

A: Improves discipline and social skills
Playing tennis increases oxygen intake and heart rate.

A: Improved aerobic and anaerobic health
A physician dubbed ping pong/table tennis as " world's best brain “sport for being highly aerobic
and the use of brain in planning and executing shots.
A: world's best brain
It has been proven that the risk of death for tennis players are half than usual.
A: true
It helps the player in following the ball's trajectory as it moves.

A: Improves coordination
One of the psychological reasons to play tennis associated with adapting to stress and ongoing to
recovery.
A: learn how to recover
Singles tennis can make players lose around 400-600 calories per hour.
A: Burns calories and fat
An example of neurotransmitter that is related to mood, appetite, sleep and memory.

A: serotonin
Identify the advantage of playing Table Tennis being described: Improving leg, arm and core
strength in standard mode.
A: It's easy on the joints
One of the psychological reasons to play tennis associated with learning to adjust to the elements
and still have the ability to compete.
A: manage adversity
An example of neurotransmitter that is related to stress response.

A: norepinephrine
One of the physical reasons for playing tennis associated with short intense bursts of activity during
a point followed by rest which helps muscles use oxygen efficiently.
A: anaerobic fitness
An hour of playing can help reduce the calories.

A: Burns calories
Tennis requires 300 to 500 bursts of energy per match.

A: Great cross-training for other sports
The part of the brain that a game of ping pong stimulates which is responsible for allowing us to
form and retain long term facts and events.
A: hippocampus
Bursts of exertion and recovery.

A: Improves reflexes
One of the psychological reasons to play tennis associated with the ability to create strategies based
on knowledge of geometry and physics.
A: learn to solve problems
One of the physical reasons for playing tennis associated with court movement and ball-striking skills
requiring control of the body's large muscle groups.
A: gross motor control
Tennis involves planning, tactical thinking, agility and the coordination of parts of the body.
A: Boosts brain power
One of the physical reasons for playing tennis associated with hundreds of starts, stops, changes of
direction and hitting on the run.
A: dynamic balance
are vital chemicals that regulate various brain functions.

A: neurotransmitters
is a troublesome illness caused by bones losing density due to complex interactions between the
body hormones, bone forming and bone dissolving cells.
A: osteoporosis
A psychological reason for playing tennis exhibited by the ability of a doubles team to form a
cohesive unit.
A: learn teamwork
A physical reason for playing tennis exhibited by burning fat and improving cardiovascular fitness.
A: aerobic fitness
This is referred to as the second most popular organized sport in the world.
A: table tennis
Playing badminton may cause heart attacks.

A: false
A psychological reason for playing tennis exhibited by anticipation of an opponent's moves and
planning counterattacks.
A: plan and implement strategies
People with hypertension are encouraged to play badminton that slows their basal heart rate.
A: true
The neurotransmitter responsible for mood, appetite, sleep and memory.

A: serotonin
Which of the following muscles is not trained by playing badminton?
A: Pectineus
A physical reason for playing tennis exhibited by constantly judging the timing between the
oncoming ball and the proper contact point.
A: eye-hand coordination
helps lubricate joints, preventing arthritis and similar conditions from developing
A: mobility
Brain-derived Neurotrophic Factor (BDNF) promotes ____ growth and survival.

A: neuron
A physical reason for playing tennis exhibited by hundreds of starts, stops, changes of direction, and
hitting on the run.
A: dynamic balance
Table tennis technique executions are often quick-paced problem solving challenges.
A: true
An average person can burn 272 calories in playing table tennis.

A: true
Table tennis is highly anaerobic.

A: false
Coordination helps because it can give you a wider range of motion, help prevent injuries and reduce
muscle strain.
A: false
A physical reason for playing tennis exhibited by a series of side-to-side and up and back sprints to
chase the ball.
A: speed
Tennis helps maintain aerobic health, allowing muscles to use oxygen in a better way.
A: false
Playing badminton improves longevity by at least 5 years.

A: false
The cerebellum is the part of the brain that lights up when doing any voluntary movement.
A: false
Playing badminton burns fat at approximately 300 calories per hour.

A: false
A study has proven that playing badminton can reduce the production of sugar.
A: true
Ping pong has a relatively low injury risk.

A: true
A psychological reason for playing tennis exhibited by proper control of the pace of the play.
A: develop discipline
Aside from being a great aerobic workout, playing table tennis is also a goodexercise
A: cardiovascular
A physical reason for playing tennis exhibited by forcing on the player change of direction for at least
5 times in 10 seconds.
A: agility
Exercise increases which are referred to as the brain's feel-good neurotransmitters.

A: endorphins
Advanced cardiac tests are required before playing a round of badminton for people from the age of
35 and above. Which of the following parts of the body must the player take extra precaution of?
A: sensory
The ability of the brain to change based on an experience or environmental factors.

A: brain plasticity

11
(PEDH-112) WEEK 20 QUARTERLY
Intentional weight loss is referred to as

A: slimming
Which of the following is an intentional weight loss technique?

A: Increased physical activity
refers to the wasting of the body due to chronic illness.

A: cachexia
Identify if the activity is anaerobic or aerobic exercise.

soccer
A: anaerobic exercise
An advantage in playing individual/dual sports exhibited by side-to-side and up and back sprints
used in chasing the ball.
A: speed

swimming
A: aerobic exercise
When the adipose tissue increases, a person loses weight.

A: false
One of the causes of this problem is poor quality of meals consumed.

A: impaired intake
exercises refer to activities that are performed while standing up, often using the power of your feet
and legs.
A: weight-bearing

table tennis
A: aerobic exercise
Being fat was once accepted as being financially rich.

A: true

sit-ups
Which of the following is not a goal of an aerobic exercise program?

A: repetitive use of all muscle groups
The neurotransmitter affecting response to stress.

A: norepinephrine
Iron is what makes up lean muscle mass.

A: false
The only good cholesterol in our body is the

A: high-density lipoprotein

badminton

bench press
An advantage in playing individual/dual sports exhibited by the use of touch shots like angled
volleys, drop shots and lobs.
A: fine motor control
The Basal Metabolic Rate calculates the:

A: number of calories you'd burn while motionless for a day
The focus of swimming is on:

A: smaller upper body musculature

jogging
A: aerobic exercise
These factors affect the exact number of calories a person needs for a day.
A: age and height
refers to the amoung ot oxygen the muscles extract or consume from the blood.
A: oxygen consumption
gives the player a wider range of motion and can help prevent injuries and reduce muscle strain.
A: flexibility

sprinting

Walking
A: aerobic exercise
Playing badminton regularly decreases levels of HDL cholesterol.

A: false

skiing
A: aerobic exercise

squats

triathlons
A: aerobic exercise

cycling
A: aerobic exercise
The part of the brain that gives birth to new brain cells until adulthood.
A: hippocampus
An advantage in playing individual/dual sports exhibited by the accurate estimate of the oncoming
ball and the contact point on the court.
A: eye-hand coordination

zumba
A: aerobic exercise
exercises refer to activities that require muscles to work harder than normal.
A: muscle-strengthening
Lean muscle tissue requires as much calories as other tissues.

A: false
Cycling is especially recommended for people with:

A: arthritis
Table tennis causes only few injuries on the head.

A: true
These are muscles used for accelerations in playing badminton.

A: glutei

tennis

weightlifting
An advantage in playing individual/dual sports exhibited by learning to adjust to the elements.

A: the ability to manage adversity
Tennis is known to be a ______ activity well-suited to building strong bones.

A: weight-bearing

push-ups

dancing
A: aerobic exercise

jumping
The release of energy in the post-absorptive state is enough for the functioning of the heart, lungs
and brain only.
A: false
One of the causes of this problem is diarrhea and vomiting.
A: excess nutrient losses

hiking
A: aerobic exercise
PHYSICAL SCIENCE (PHSC-112)

GRADE 11 – WEEK 1-10
1.What do you call the solid formed when a liquid solution is allowed to stand still for a long amount
of time.
ans. Precipitate
2.What is the proper term for catalysts involved in biological processes?
ans.Enzymes
3.What is the term for the energy responsible for the variations in the reaction rates of chemical
processes?
answer:activation energy
4.What property of a material describes the compactness of the arrangement of its molecules?
ans.Density
5.Identify the kind of change wherein the product is the same as the reactants.
ANWER:physical change
6.In which type of covalent bonding are the shared electrons shared congruently throughout the
molecule? answer:nonpolar
7.What do you call the ability of a substance to chemically combine with other compounds?
answer:Reactivity
8.Fill in the blank: The ______
property of a substance can be observed without changing the substance. answer:physical
9.What type of covalent compound is there a slight difference in the electric charge between the
opposite sides of the molecule? answer:polar covalent compound
10.Identification: This factor in a reaction rate is a consequence of the kinetic energy of the reactant
molecules? wrong answer akodito.
11.What kind of chemical bond involves the sharing of electrons between two atoms?
answer:covalent bond
Identification: Substance that aides any chemical reaction. Catalyst
12.What is the component of a chemical reaction that is present at its start? answer:reactant
13.Identification: Two different atoms may or may not have this type of covalent bonding.
answer:polar covalent bonding
14._____ covalent bond does not have an equal sharing of electrons. answer.Polar
15.What kind of change results to the production of a material that is entirely different from the
reactants? answer:chemical change
16.Identification: This is another term used to refer to covalent compounds. answer:molecular
compound
17.Identification: This refers to the speed of a chemical process. answer:reaction rate
18.Which atom is more positive than the other in a molecule of dihydrogen oxide? answer: hydrogen
atom
19.Identification: These compounds are highly soluble in water. answer:ionic compounds
20.Identification: These properties can be detected using your senses. answer:Physical properties
21.What type of compound is formed by the sharing of electrons? answer:Covalent compound
22.covalent bonding exists between two identical atoms. answer: nonpolar
23.Identification: This is the force that exists between the molecules of a compound. answer:
Intermolecular force
is the ability of matter to combine chemically with other substances. REACTIVITY
24.What is the term for the property that makes it capable of being hammered into thin sheets?
answer:malleability
25.In a water molecule, which atom is more frequented by the shared electrons? answer:oxygen
26.Identify the substance that hastens chemical reactions? answer:catalyst
27. In a ______
type of covalent bonding, there is equal sharing of electrons between the atoms. answer: nonpolar
28.What type of covalent bonding is characterized by the incongruent sharing of electrons between
the atoms? answer:polar
29.Which reaction rate factor is due to the amount of reacting substances? answer: concentration
30.Identification: This compound is formed by a cation and an anion. answer:ionic compound
Short Quiz 8:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Also known as the revolution of the Earth around the sun
Answer: ANNUAL MOTION
2. Ancient constellations related to Earth’s annual motion
Answer: ZODIAC
3. Center in Ptolemaic system of the universe
Answer: EARTH
4. Center of the universe in the Copernican system
Answer: SUN
5. Earth’s movement that results to the observation of diurnal motion
Answer: ROTATION
6. Event when the sun crosses the Celestial Equator
Answer: EQUINOX
7. Line on Earth that is parallel to apparent daily paths
Answer: CELESTIAL EQUATOR
This factor in a reaction rate is a consequence of the kinetic energy of the reactant
molecules? Temperature
8. Main factor in the precession of equinoxes
Answer: GRAVITY
9. More common term for the annual motion of the Earth
Answer: REVOLUTION
10. Type of observable motion associated with heavenly bodies
Answer: DIURNAL MOTION
Learning Activity 8 (Physics)
Slow and continuous change in the orientation of an astronomical body’s rotational axis
Answer:
Axial precession
Periodic observable motion that results from the Earth’s motion on its axis
Answer:
diurnal motion
Center of the universe in Ptolemy’s model
Answer:
Earth
Motion of the Earth around the sun
Answer:
revolution
Motion of the Earth responsible for diurnal motion
Answer:
rotation
Long Quiz 3:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Identify the center in the universe model Copernicus.
Answer: SUN
2. Identify the date of the year when the Earth is at its closest from the Sun.
Answer: PERIHELION
3. Identify the main factor in the precession of equinoxes.
Answer: GRAVITY
4. Identify the shape of the planetary orbit based on Kepler’s third law.
Answer: ELLIPSE
5. Identify the universe’s center in Ptolemy’s model.
Answer: EARTH
6. Name the line on Earth that is parallel to apparent daily paths.
7. Name the star blamed by the Greeks for the intensity of their summer
Answer: SIRIUS
8. This ancient device aligns with the North Star and is used to determine the precise time of its
user’s location.
Answer: ASTROLABE
9. This model is the combination of two ancient models of the universe.
Answer: TYCHONIC
10. This model of the universe considered the ideas of the Earth- and Sun-centered universe models.
Anwer: TYCHONIC
11. This motion is also called the revolution of the Earth around the sun.
12. This structure was developed by the Mayans as they observed Venus.
Answer: CARACOL
13. What do you call Earth’s movement that results to the observation of diurnal motion?
Answer: ROTATION
14. What do you call the ancient constellations that are related to Earth’s annual motion?
Answer: ZODIAC
15. What do you call the event when the sun crosses the Celestial Equator?
Answer: EQUINOX
16. What do you call the motion of the Earth that is responsible for diurnal motion?
Answer: ROTATION
17. What is the center in Ptolemaic system of the universe?
Answer: EARTH
18. What is the center of the universe based on the model by Ptolemy?
Answer: EARTH
19. What is the center of the universe in the Copernican system?
Answer: SUN
20. What is the constant quantity in the universe model by Kepler?
Answer: AREA SPEED
21. What is the more common term for the annual motion of the Earth with respect to the sun?
Answer: REVOLUTION
22. What is the oldest heavenly body that has been observed and has preceded great events in
history?
Answer: HALLEY’S COMET
23. What is the periodic observable motion that is the result of the Earth’s movement on its axis?
24. What is the term that refers to the motion of the Earth around the sun?
Answer: REVOLUTION
25. What is the term that refers to the slow and continuous change in the orientation of an
astronomical body’s rotational axis?
Answer: AXIAL PRECESSION
26. What is the universe model that is said to be Sun-centered?
Answer: COPERNICAN
27. What is this type of observable motion that is associated with heavenly bodies?
28. What property of a planet has this property directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major
axis of its orbit?
Answer: ORBITAL PERIOD
29. Where is the Sun located with respect to a planet’s elliptical orbit
Answer: FOCAL POINT
30. Which model of the universe is said to be Earth-centered?
Answer: PTOLEMAIC
Learning Activity 9:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Aligns with the North Star to determine precise time for user’s location
Answer: ASTROLABE
2. Combination of two ancient models of the universe
Answer: TYCHONIC
3. Developed by the Mayans for the observation of Venus
Answer: CARACOL
4. Earth-centered system of the universe
Answer: PTOLEMAIC
5. Sun-centered system of the universe
Answer: COPERNICAN
Short Quiz 9:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Center in the model of the universe proposed by Copernicus
Answer: SUN
2. Center of the universe based on the model proposed by Ptolemy
Answer: EARTH
3. Considered the ideas of the Earth- and Sun-centered universe model
Answer: TYCHONIC
4. Constant quantity in the universe model by Kepler
Answer: AREA SPEED
5. Date of the year when the Earth is closest to the Sun
Answer: PERIHELION
6. Location of the Sun with respect to the elliptical orbit based on Kepler’s laws
Answer: FOCAL POINT
7. Oldest heavenly body observed that has preceded great events in history
8. Planet property whose square is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its
orbit
9. Shape of the orbit based on Kepler’s third law
Answer: ELLIPSE
10. Star blamed by Greeks for the intensity of summer
Answer: SIRIUS
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Constant in the motion of a falling body in vacuum
Answer: ACCELERATION
2. Description of the change in the rate of movement of a body
3. Indirect force resulting from the application of a force
Answer: REACTION
4. Necessary component of motion according to Aristotle
Answer: FORCE
5. Property of a body that affects its state of motion
Answer: INERTIA
Short Quiz 10:PHYSC
Aside from changing the state of motion of a body, this is also an effect of applying an unbalanced
force to the body.
Answer:
ACCELERATION
Which can be easily affected by an unbalanced force: one cube of ice or one sack of rice?
Answer:
ONE SACK OF RICE
This law implies the importance of balanced forces and what unbalanced forces are.
Answer:
LAW OF INTERACTION
Which will accelerate more when the same unbalanced force is applied: pencil or cabinet?
Answer:
CABINET
This law of motion relates the rate of change in the movement of a body and the unbalanced force
that it experiences.
Answer:
LAW OF ACCELERATION
Which law of motion states that a body will not change its current state of motion unless an
unbalanced force acts upon it?
Answer:
LAW OF INERTIA
If you push the wall with an amount of force, you supply the action force. What is the source of the
reaction force?
Answer:
WALL
What factor of a body that is at rest prevents it from moving?
Answer:
INERTIA
What is the only factor that is constant for bodies falling in a vacuum?
Answer:
ACCELERATION
Which of these has a greater inertia: fly or cat?
Answer:
cats
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Constant in a body as long as no net force acts upon it
Answer: VELOCITY
2. Decreases as acceleration increases in Newton’s law of acceleration
Answer: MASS
3. Force involved in Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation
Answer: GRAVITATIONAL FORCE
4. Statement based on repeated experimental observations
Answer: LAW
5. Statement taken to be true since what it proposes is already evident
Answer: AXIOM
Short Quiz 11:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. According to Galileo, this quantity is not needed to keep a body in motion under ideal conditions.
Answer: FORCE
2. Describe the total amount of energy of a body before it falls from a height and as it hits the
ground.
Answer: EQUAL
3. In the law of acceleration, which quantity decreases as the acceleration decreases?
Answer: FORCE
4. This is also known as the “inertia in motion” of a body.
Answer: MOMENTUM
5. This kind of statement is considered true since it has been based on a series of observations.
Answer: LAW
6. What do you call a statement that is taken as true without scientific evidence?
Answer: AXIOM
7. What happens to energy as it is used up by different systems?
Answer: TRANSFORMED
8. What happens to the magnitude of the gravitational force as the bodies become more massive?
Answer: INCREASES
9. What happens to the magnitude of the gravitational force as the distance between two bodies
increase?
Answer: DECREASES
10. What term do you use to refer to the amount of material contained by a body?
Answer: MASS
Short Quiz 12:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Consider the formula for momentum. What quantity increases with the velocity of a body?:
Momentum; Velocity; Inelastic; Force; Mass; Elastic; Energy
Answer: Momentum
2. If a body has no momentum, what else does it not have?: Elastic; Inelastic; Force; Momentum;
Mass; Velocity; Energy
Answer: Velocity
3. In the formula for momentum, this quantity decreases as the body moves slower.: Elastic; Mass;
Energy; Momentum; Force; Velocity; Inelastic
Answer: Mass
4. In this type of collision, this factor is not necessarily conserved.: Energy; Elastic; Velocity; Force;
Inelastic; Mass; Momentum
Answer: Energy
5. This quantity describes how difficult it is to stop a moving body.: Inelastic; Velocity; Momentum;
Force; Energy; Mass; Elastic
Answer: Momentum
6. This quantity enables bodies to move so that they would collide.: Mass; Energy; Elastic; Force;
Velocity; Inelastic; Momentum
Answer: Energy
7. What SI quantity is directly related and directly proportional to the mass of a body?: Inelastic;
Momentum; Velocity; Elastic; Energy; Force; Mass
Answer: Momentum
8. What type of collision is involved between two bodies that show a spark of light after colliding:
Momentum; Force; Inelastic; Mass; Elastic; Energy; Velocity
Answer: Inelastic
9. Which type of collision involves the constant sum of total kinetic energy before and after the
collision?: Momentum; Velocity; Mass; Elastic; Force; Energy; Inelastic
Answer: Elastic
10. Which will stop first when these two bodies collide: truck or bicycle?
Answer: BICYCLE
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Collision that involves the conversion of energy into other forms outside the colliding bodies
Answer: INELASTIC
2. Factor responsible for the movement of the bodies that are about to collide
Answer: ENERGY
3. Not necessarily conserved between colliding bodies
Answer: ENERGY
4. Quantity conserved in any collision
Answer: MOMENTUM
5. Type of collision wherein the total kinetic energy is constant before and after the collision
Answer: ELASTIC
Short Quiz 13:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Consider the wave equation. Which quantity increases with the frequency of the wave?:
Absorption; Latitudinal; Index of Refraction; Longitudinal; Wavelength; Refraction; Electron; Photon;
Transverse; Energy; Mirror; Speed; Dispersion
Answer: Speed
2. In light, this is what the photons carry enabling them to move.: Wavelength; Energy; Mirror;
Photon; Longitudinal; Dispersion; Electron; Speed; Transverse; Index of Refraction; Absorption;
Refraction; Latitudinal
Answer: Energy
3. In the wave equation, this quantity is inversely proportional to the frequency of the wave.:
Absorption; Mirror; Electron; Latitudinal; Longitudinal; Energy; Speed; Photon; Refraction; Index of
Refraction; Dispersion; Wavelength; Transverse
Answer: Wavelength
4. Name the component of light that travels in straight lines.: Index of Refraction; Longitudinal;
Transverse; Absorption; Latitudinal; Energy; Electron; Refraction; Mirror; Photon; Dispersion;
Wavelength; Speed
Answer: Photon
5. This constant determines how much light will bend as it enters a different medium.: Electron;
Refraction; Photon; Latitudinal; Mirror; Speed; Index of Refraction; Transverse; Absorption;
Longitudinal; Dispersion; Wavelength; Energy
Answer: Index of Refraction
6. This phenomenon of light is the evidence of the energy possessed by light.: Absorption; Photon;
Energy; Dispersion; Electron; Mirror; Speed; Longitudinal; Transverse; Wavelength; Latitudinal; Index
of Refraction; Refraction
Answer: Absorption
7. This wave is produced by the disturbance of the molecules nearby its source.: Latitudinal;
Absorption; Mirror; Photon; Wavelength; Index of Refraction; Electron; Speed; Dispersion;
Longitudinal; Transverse; Refraction; Energy
Answer: Longitudinal
8. What is the optical device that is used to show the bouncing of light?: Latitudinal; Speed; Index of
Refraction; Wavelength; Electron; Dispersion; Transverse; Absorption; Mirror; Photon; Refraction;
Energy; Longitudinal
Answer: Mirror
9. What kind of wave is light?: Index of Refraction; Speed; Photon; Mirror; Absorption; Refraction;
Energy; Speed; Transverse; Electron; Dispersion; Longitudinal; Transverse; Wavelength; Latitudinal
Answer: Transverse
10. What kind of wave is represented by a sine wave?: Dispersion; Transverse; Index of Refraction;
Refraction; Mirror; Energy; Longitudinal; Electron; Absorption; Photon; Latitudinal; Speed; Wavelength
Answer: Transverse
--ccto
Learning Activity 13: PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Optical device that demonstrates bending of light
Answer: LENS
2. Particle of light that carries its energy
Answer: PHOTON
3. Path of light that makes it understood to be a particle
Answer: STRAIGHT LINE
4. Wave that can propagate even without molecules
Answer: TRANSVERSE
5. Wave that cannot exist in vacuum
Answer: LONGITUDINAL
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Bending of light around an edge causing umbra and penumbra in the shadow
Answer: DIFFRACTION
2. Deflection of light along its path
Answer: SCATTERING
3. Phenomenon of light wherein light waves add up
Answer: INTERFERENCE
4. Phenomenon of separation of light into different colors
Answer: DISPERSION
5. Type of mirror that shows an inverted image of you
Answer: CONCAVE
Short Quiz 14:PHYSC
What exists between two charges in space?
Select one:
- Electrostatic force
This phenomenon of light explains how light shows different colors after passing through a prism.
Select one:
-Dispersion
This type of mirror shows a virtual image of the object.
Select one:
-Convex
What do you call a displaced image of an object as the result of the bending of light rays?
Select one:
-Mirage
According to Faraday, what is produced by a changing magnetic field?
Select one:
- Induced voltage
What principle explains why it is impossible to determine experimentally both the position and the
speed of an electron at the same time?
Select one:
-Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
How do electron orbits look like as a consequence of the uncertainty principle?
Select one:
- Electron clouds
What type of mirror shows your image in an inverted manner?
Select one:
-Concave
What can electric current produce along a wire?
Select one:
- Magnetic field
What phenomenon of light is utilized to identify the wavelength of a given light ray?
Select one:
- Dispersion
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Hertz applied high voltage AC electricity across the central spark gap of the transmitter creating
sparks.: True; False
Answer: False
2. What digital storage oscilloscope circuit compensates for high sampling rates of high frequency
signals?: charged-couple device; analog to digital converter
Answer: charged-couple device
3. What test equipment combines the operation of many test instruments into a single compact unit.:
Impedance meter; Communication service monitor
Answer: Communication service monitor
4. When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction
take place?: in the oscillator; receiving end
Answer: receiving end
5. What part of the pulse code modulation (PCM) process converts a continuous time signal into a
discrete time signal?
Answer: Sampling
Short Quiz 15:PHYSC
Hertz found that when sparks flew across the main gap, sparks also usually glow across the
secondary gap that is between points A and B in the image.
Select one:
- True
According to Hertz, he pictured waves of electric charge moving back and forth, creating a standing
wave within the wire.
Select one:
- True
When reading the forward power on a wattmeter, what does two right-facing arrow heads mean?
Select one:
- Power exceeds 120 percent of the range
What are the two main types of photodetectors? (separate your answers with the word "and")
Answer:
-Positive intrinsic photodiode AND negative intrinsic photodiode
In November 1886, Heinrich Hertz became the first person to transmit and receive controlled radio
waves.
Select one:
-True
If the interference can be eliminated by disconnecting the receiving antenna, the source of the
disturbance is most likely
Select one:
- External to the radio
What initial nuclear radiation components generate electromagnetic pulses? (separate your answers
with the word "and")
Answer:
-Gamma rays AND neutrons
Who discovered radio waves?
Answer:
-Heinrich Hertz
What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set accepts a 48-bit parallel word and
generates a serial pattern?
Select one:
-48-bit transmitter only
Hertz started generating radio waves using a piece of electrical equipment called an induction coil.
Select one:
-True
Short Quiz 16:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. As measured in any inertial frame of reference, light is always propagated in empty space with a
definite velocity that is independent of the state of motion of the emitting body.: False; True
Answer: True
2. Maxwell’s equations are not consistent with Galilean relativity unless one postulates the existence
of a physical aether.: True; False
Answer: True
3. The laws of physics are the same in all inertia frames of reference.: True; False
Answer: True
4. The postulates of special relativity can be expressed very succinctly using the mathematical
language of pseudo-Riemmannian manifolds: True; False
Answer: True
5. What is the correct expression for the amplitude of a vibrating mass? Amplitude is the: Maximum
velocity of the mass during vibration; Maximum displacement of the mass from the rest position
Answer: Maximum displacement of the mass from the rest position
6. Which of the following is not a term associated with periodic waves?: Frequency; How much space
is occupied
Answer: How much space is occupied
7. Which of the following sound wave can be heard by the human ear?: Ultrasonic sound waves;
Sound waves with frequencies between 20 hz and 20,000 hz
Answer: Sound waves with frequencies between 20 hz and 20,000 hz
8. It combines special relativity with the equivalence principle.
Answer: General relativity
9. It is the succession of methods by which astronomers determine the distances to celestial objects.
Answer: Cosmic distance ladder
10. Known as the “dwarf planet”
Answer: Pluto
L.A 16:PHYSC
Vibrations
Select one:
- Can sometimes be sensed
Special relativity is a theory.
Select one:
- True
States that the net force acting on a body is equal to that body’s (inertia ) mass multiplied by its
acceleration.
Select one:
-Newton's Second Law of Motion
According to this law there is a universality of free fall. The trajectory of a test body in free fall
depends only on its position and initial speed.
Answer:
-Newton's Law of Gravity
Which of the following must be satisfied for a vibration to be simple harmonic motion? The restoring
force of the vibrating object is
Select one:
-
Identification: The more positive atom in a molecule of dihydrogen oxide
Dihydrogen oxide
Identification: Lightest particles in an atom Electron
Factor in reaction rate related to the amount of reactants Both Concentration and
Temperature
Identification: It refers to tyhe speed of a chemical process Reaction rate
Age of the universe (in billions of years) according to the most widely accepted
cosmological theory of its existence 13.7
Property of a substance that is observable without changing it PHYSICAL
PROPERTY
Identification: Properties observable using your eyes PHYSICAL PROPERTY
Identification: Reaction in giant stars for the fusion of hydrogen to form
helium CNO cycle
Force between the molecules of a compound Intermolecular forces
-Opposite to and proportional to a displacement

It is the passage of electromagnetic radiation through a medium.
Select one:
Answer: Transmission
This Kepler's law states that the line joining the planet to the sun sweeps out equal areas in equal
times as it moves along its orbit.
Select one:
Answer: Second law
Which of Newton's laws states that an object either remains at rest or continuous to move at a
constant velocity, unless acted upon by a force?
Select one:
Answer: First law
Galileo looked at the Sun and found out that it had spots.
Answer: True
Mercury and Venus are never more than 200 and 450, respectively, from the Sun.
Answer: False
The Aristotelian view of the world made the certain basic assumption that the Earth is a sphere, fixed,
and unmoving at the center of the universe.
Answer: False
PHYSICAL SCIENCE (PHSC-112)

GRADE 11 – WEEK 11-20
1.What do you call the solid formed when a liquid solution is allowed to stand still for a long amount
of time.
ans. Precipitate
2.What is the proper term for catalysts involved in biological processes?
ans.Enzymes
3.What is the term for the energy responsible for the variations in the reaction rates of chemical
processes?
answer:activation energy
4.What property of a material describes the compactness of the arrangement of its molecules?
ans.Density
5.Identify the kind of change wherein the product is the same as the reactants.
ANWER:physical change
6.In which type of covalent bonding are the shared electrons shared congruently throughout the
molecule? answer:nonpolar
7.What do you call the ability of a substance to chemically combine with other compounds?
answer:Reactivity
8.Fill in the blank: The ______
property of a substance can be observed without changing the substance. answer:physical
9.What type of covalent compound is there a slight difference in the electric charge between the
opposite sides of the molecule? answer:polar covalent compound
10.Identification: This factor in a reaction rate is a consequence of the kinetic energy of the reactant
molecules? wrong answer akodito.
energy is the energy needed to start a reaction. Activation Energy
11.What kind of chemical bond involves the sharing of electrons between two atoms?
answer:covalent bond
12.What is the component of a chemical reaction that is present at its start? answer:reactant
13.Identification: Two different atoms may or may not have this type of covalent bonding.
answer:polar covalent bonding
14._____ covalent bond does not have an equal sharing of electrons. answer.Polar
15.What kind of change results to the production of a material that is entirely different from the
reactants? answer:chemical change
The solid that settles out of a liquid solution is called precipitate
16.Identification: This is another term used to refer to covalent compounds. answer:molecular
compound
Identification: How fast or slow a chemical process takes place. Rate of

Reaction
17.Identification: This refers to the speed of a chemical process. answer:reaction rate
18.Which atom is more positive than the other in a molecule of dihydrogen oxide? answer: hydrogen
atom
19.Identification: These compounds are highly soluble in water. answer:ionic compounds
20.Identification: These properties can be detected using your senses. answer:Physical properties
21.What type of compound is formed by the sharing of electrons? answer:Covalent compound
22.covalent bonding exists between two identical atoms. answer: nonpolar
23.Identification: This is the force that exists between the molecules of a compound. answer:
Intermolecular force
24.What is the term for the property that makes it capable of being hammered into thin sheets?
answer:malleability
25.In a water molecule, which atom is more frequented by the shared electrons? answer:oxygen
26.Identify the substance that hastens chemical reactions? answer:catalyst
27. In a ______
type of covalent bonding, there is equal sharing of electrons between the atoms. answer: nonpolar
refers to the ability of matter to burn. Flammability
helps determine how an element might be used. HARDNESS
28.What type of covalent bonding is characterized by the incongruent sharing of electrons between
the atoms? answer:polar
29.Which reaction rate factor is due to the amount of reacting substances? answer: concentration
30.Identification: This compound is formed by a cation and an anion. answer:ionic compound
Short Quiz 8:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
Bond where electrons are shared congruently throughout the molecule

Polar covalent bonding
1. Also known as the revolution of the Earth around the sun

2. Ancient constellations related to Earth’s annual motion
Answer: ZODIAC
3. Center in Ptolemaic system of the universe
Answer: EARTH
4. Center of the universe in the Copernican system
Answer: SUN
5. Earth’s movement that results to the observation of diurnal motion
Answer: ROTATION
6. Event when the sun crosses the Celestial Equator
Answer: EQUINOX
7. Line on Earth that is parallel to apparent daily paths
8. Main factor in the precession of equinoxes
Answer: GRAVITY
9. More common term for the annual motion of the Earth
Answer: REVOLUTION
10. Type of observable motion associated with heavenly bodies
Learning Activity 8 (Physics)
Slow and continuous change in the orientation of an astronomical body’s rotational axis
Answer:
Axial precession
Periodic observable motion that results from the Earth’s motion on its axis
Answer:
diurnal motion
Center of the universe in Ptolemy’s model
Answer:
Earth
Motion of the Earth around the sun
Answer:
revolution
True or False: The catalyst brings the reactants together by permanently
bonding with them. False
The Gold foil experiment led to the discovery of this atomic part Nucleus
Identification: Property of material to emit charged particles ATOM
Solid substance that settles when a liquid solution is left still for a long amount of time?
SUSPENSION
Identification: It is the ability of a substance to chemically combine with
other compounds Reactivity
Substance that can turn lead to gold Philosopher's Stone
Change in which the product is the same as the reactants Physical change
Identification: Compactness of the arrangement of the molecules of a
material Density
Identification: Repelled the directed alpha particles in the gold foil experiment Protons
Identification: This also means covalent compounds Molecular
compounds
Identification: Bond characterized by the sharing of electrons between
atoms Nonpolar
Identification: Energy responsible different reaction rates Activation
Energy
Identification: Change resulting to new material that is entirely different
from the reactants Chemical change
Identification: Star with strong gravity allowing the formation of more
oxygen and magnesium Supergiant
Identification: Material property making it capable of being hammered into
thin sheets Malleability
Covalent bonding resulting from unequal sharing of electrons between the
atoms Polar covalent bonding
Behavior of the universe explaining the Big Bang Theory expanding
Covalent bond between identical atoms Nonpolar Covalent Bond
Molecular compound where there is a slight difference in the charge between its opposite
sides Polar
Identification: Compound formed by positive and negative atoms Ionic
Compound
Identification: Nuclear particles that do not contribute to its charge Alpha
particle
Identification: Proton component that binds the other components
together Chemical Bonding
Covalent bond with unequal sharing of electrons Polar
Identification: Particles smaller than a proton with strong nuclear force
holding the quarks together GLUONS
Identification: Reaction rate factor related to the kinetic energy of the
reactant molecules Temperature
Identification: Atoms of the same element but with various atomic weights
isotopes
Identification: Substance that cannot be simplified anymore Elements
Identification: Term used by scientists referring to the very small but
detectable amount of heat residue of the Big Bang Background Radiation
Identification: Smallest possible particle of an element containing all of the properties of the
element ATOM
Identification: Catalysts in digestion of food enzymes
Covalent bond that may or may not exist between two different atoms
Polar
Fill in the blank: In a molecule of water, the atom more visited by the shared electrons would
be Oxygen atoms
Identification: Compound formed by electron sharing NonPolar
Identification: Reaction that fuses hydrogen to form helium in dwarf stars

PP Chain
Identification: Radiation emitted by a body that absorbed it first infrared
Identification: Compounds that are dissolves easily in water solubility

Identification: Covalent bonding where electrons are shared equally between the atoms
Nonpolar
Identification: Component of chemical reaction present at its start

Reactants
Negatively charged particles in atoms Electrons
Identification: It refers to the cloud where stars are born nebula
Motion of the Earth responsible for diurnal motion

Answer:
rotation
Long Quiz 3:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Identify the center in the universe model Copernicus.
Answer: SUN
2. Identify the date of the year when the Earth is at its closest from the Sun.
Answer: PERIHELION
3. Identify the main factor in the precession of equinoxes.
Answer: GRAVITY
4. Identify the shape of the planetary orbit based on Kepler’s third law.
Answer: ELLIPSE
5. Identify the universe’s center in Ptolemy’s model.
Answer: EARTH
6. Name the line on Earth that is parallel to apparent daily paths.
7. Name the star blamed by the Greeks for the intensity of their summer
Answer: SIRIUS
8. This ancient device aligns with the North Star and is used to determine the precise time of its
user’s location.
Answer: ASTROLABE
9. This model is the combination of two ancient models of the universe.
Answer: TYCHONIC
10. This model of the universe considered the ideas of the Earth- and Sun-centered universe models.
Anwer: TYCHONIC
11. This motion is also called the revolution of the Earth around the sun.
12. This structure was developed by the Mayans as they observed Venus.
Answer: CARACOL
13. What do you call Earth’s movement that results to the observation of diurnal motion?
Answer: ROTATION
14. What do you call the ancient constellations that are related to Earth’s annual motion?
Answer: ZODIAC
15. What do you call the event when the sun crosses the Celestial Equator?
Answer: EQUINOX
16. What do you call the motion of the Earth that is responsible for diurnal motion?
Answer: ROTATION
17. What is the center in Ptolemaic system of the universe?
Answer: EARTH
18. What is the center of the universe based on the model by Ptolemy?
Answer: EARTH
19. What is the center of the universe in the Copernican system?
Answer: SUN
20. What is the constant quantity in the universe model by Kepler?
Answer: AREA SPEED
21. What is the more common term for the annual motion of the Earth with respect to the sun?
Answer: REVOLUTION
22. What is the oldest heavenly body that has been observed and has preceded great events in
history?
23. What is the periodic observable motion that is the result of the Earth’s movement on its axis?
24. What is the term that refers to the motion of the Earth around the sun?
Answer: REVOLUTION
25. What is the term that refers to the slow and continuous change in the orientation of an
astronomical body’s rotational axis?
Answer: AXIAL PRECESSION
26. What is the universe model that is said to be Sun-centered?
Answer: COPERNICAN
27. What is this type of observable motion that is associated with heavenly bodies?
28. What property of a planet has this property directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major
axis of its orbit?
29. Where is the Sun located with respect to a planet’s elliptical orbit
Answer: FOCAL POINT
30. Which model of the universe is said to be Earth-centered?
Answer: PTOLEMAIC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Aligns with the North Star to determine precise time for user’s location
Answer: ASTROLABE
2. Combination of two ancient models of the universe
Answer: TYCHONIC
3. Developed by the Mayans for the observation of Venus
Answer: CARACOL
4. Earth-centered system of the universe
Answer: PTOLEMAIC
5. Sun-centered system of the universe
Answer: COPERNICAN
Short Quiz 9:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Center in the model of the universe proposed by Copernicus
Answer: SUN
2. Center of the universe based on the model proposed by Ptolemy
Answer: EARTH
3. Considered the ideas of the Earth- and Sun-centered universe model
Answer: TYCHONIC
4. Constant quantity in the universe model by Kepler
Answer: AREA SPEED
5. Date of the year when the Earth is closest to the Sun
Answer: PERIHELION
6. Location of the Sun with respect to the elliptical orbit based on Kepler’s laws
Answer: FOCAL POINT
7. Oldest heavenly body observed that has preceded great events in history
8. Planet property whose square is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its
orbit
9. Shape of the orbit based on Kepler’s third law
Answer: ELLIPSE
10. Star blamed by Greeks for the intensity of summer
Answer: SIRIUS
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Constant in the motion of a falling body in vacuum
2. Description of the change in the rate of movement of a body
3. Indirect force resulting from the application of a force
Answer: REACTION
4. Necessary component of motion according to Aristotle
Answer: FORCE
5. Property of a body that affects its state of motion
Answer: INERTIA
Short Quiz 10:PHYSC
Aside from changing the state of motion of a body, this is also an effect of applying an unbalanced
force to the body.
Answer:
ACCELERATION
Which can be easily affected by an unbalanced force: one cube of ice or one sack of rice?
Answer:
ONE SACK OF RICE
This law implies the importance of balanced forces and what unbalanced forces are.
Answer:
LAW OF INTERACTION
Which will accelerate more when the same unbalanced force is applied: pencil or cabinet?
Answer:
CABINET
This law of motion relates the rate of change in the movement of a body and the unbalanced force
that it experiences.
Answer:
LAW OF ACCELERATION
Which law of motion states that a body will not change its current state of motion unless an
unbalanced force acts upon it?
Answer:
LAW OF INERTIA
If you push the wall with an amount of force, you supply the action force. What is the source of the
reaction force?
Answer:
WALL
What factor of a body that is at rest prevents it from moving?
Answer:
INERTIA
What is the only factor that is constant for bodies falling in a vacuum?
Answer:
ACCELERATION
Which of these has a greater inertia: fly or cat?
Answer:
cats
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Constant in a body as long as no net force acts upon it
Answer: VELOCITY
2. Decreases as acceleration increases in Newton’s law of acceleration
Answer: MASS
3. Force involved in Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation
Answer: GRAVITATIONAL FORCE
4. Statement based on repeated experimental observations
Answer: LAW
5. Statement taken to be true since what it proposes is already evident
Answer: AXIOM
Short Quiz 11:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. According to Galileo, this quantity is not needed to keep a body in motion under ideal conditions.
Answer: FORCE
2. Describe the total amount of energy of a body before it falls from a height and as it hits the
ground.
Answer: EQUAL
3. In the law of acceleration, which quantity decreases as the acceleration decreases?
Answer: FORCE
4. This is also known as the “inertia in motion” of a body.
Answer: MOMENTUM
5. This kind of statement is considered true since it has been based on a series of observations.
Answer: LAW
6. What do you call a statement that is taken as true without scientific evidence?
Answer: AXIOM
7. What happens to energy as it is used up by different systems?
Answer: TRANSFORMED
8. What happens to the magnitude of the gravitational force as the bodies become more massive?
Answer: INCREASES
9. What happens to the magnitude of the gravitational force as the distance between two bodies
increase?
Answer: DECREASES
10. What term do you use to refer to the amount of material contained by a body?
Answer: MASS
Short Quiz 12:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Consider the formula for momentum. What quantity increases with the velocity of a body?:
Momentum; Velocity; Inelastic; Force; Mass; Elastic; Energy
Answer: Momentum
2. If a body has no momentum, what else does it not have?: Elastic; Inelastic; Force; Momentum;
Mass; Velocity; Energy
Answer: Velocity
3. In the formula for momentum, this quantity decreases as the body moves slower.: Elastic; Mass;
Energy; Momentum; Force; Velocity; Inelastic
Answer: Mass
4. In this type of collision, this factor is not necessarily conserved.: Energy; Elastic; Velocity; Force;
Inelastic; Mass; Momentum
Answer: Energy
5. This quantity describes how difficult it is to stop a moving body.: Inelastic; Velocity; Momentum;
Force; Energy; Mass; Elastic
Answer: Momentum
6. This quantity enables bodies to move so that they would collide.: Mass; Energy; Elastic; Force;
Velocity; Inelastic; Momentum
Answer: Energy
7. What SI quantity is directly related and directly proportional to the mass of a body?: Inelastic;
Momentum; Velocity; Elastic; Energy; Force; Mass
Answer: Momentum
8. What type of collision is involved between two bodies that show a spark of light after colliding:
Momentum; Force; Inelastic; Mass; Elastic; Energy; Velocity
Answer: Inelastic
9. Which type of collision involves the constant sum of total kinetic energy before and after the
collision?: Momentum; Velocity; Mass; Elastic; Force; Energy; Inelastic
Answer: Elastic
10. Which will stop first when these two bodies collide: truck or bicycle?
Answer: BICYCLE
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Collision that involves the conversion of energy into other forms outside the colliding bodies
Answer: INELASTIC
2. Factor responsible for the movement of the bodies that are about to collide
Answer: ENERGY
3. Not necessarily conserved between colliding bodies
Answer: ENERGY
4. Quantity conserved in any collision
Answer: MOMENTUM
5. Type of collision wherein the total kinetic energy is constant before and after the collision
Answer: ELASTIC
Short Quiz 13:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Consider the wave equation. Which quantity increases with the frequency of the wave?:
Absorption; Latitudinal; Index of Refraction; Longitudinal; Wavelength; Refraction; Electron; Photon;
Transverse; Energy; Mirror; Speed; Dispersion
Answer: Speed
2. In light, this is what the photons carry enabling them to move.: Wavelength; Energy; Mirror;
Photon; Longitudinal; Dispersion; Electron; Speed; Transverse; Index of Refraction; Absorption;
Refraction; Latitudinal
Answer: Energy
3. In the wave equation, this quantity is inversely proportional to the frequency of the wave.:
Absorption; Mirror; Electron; Latitudinal; Longitudinal; Energy; Speed; Photon; Refraction; Index of
Refraction; Dispersion; Wavelength; Transverse
Answer: Wavelength
4. Name the component of light that travels in straight lines.: Index of Refraction; Longitudinal;
Transverse; Absorption; Latitudinal; Energy; Electron; Refraction; Mirror; Photon; Dispersion;
Wavelength; Speed
Answer: Photon
5. This constant determines how much light will bend as it enters a different medium.: Electron;
Refraction; Photon; Latitudinal; Mirror; Speed; Index of Refraction; Transverse; Absorption;
Longitudinal; Dispersion; Wavelength; Energy
Answer: Index of Refraction
6. This phenomenon of light is the evidence of the energy possessed by light.: Absorption; Photon;
Energy; Dispersion; Electron; Mirror; Speed; Longitudinal; Transverse; Wavelength; Latitudinal; Index
of Refraction; Refraction
Answer: Absorption
7. This wave is produced by the disturbance of the molecules nearby its source.: Latitudinal;
Absorption; Mirror; Photon; Wavelength; Index of Refraction; Electron; Speed; Dispersion;
Longitudinal; Transverse; Refraction; Energy
Answer: Longitudinal
8. What is the optical device that is used to show the bouncing of light?: Latitudinal; Speed; Index of
Refraction; Wavelength; Electron; Dispersion; Transverse; Absorption; Mirror; Photon; Refraction;
Energy; Longitudinal
Answer: Mirror
9. What kind of wave is light?: Index of Refraction; Speed; Photon; Mirror; Absorption; Refraction;
Energy; Speed; Transverse; Electron; Dispersion; Longitudinal; Transverse; Wavelength; Latitudinal
Answer: Transverse
10. What kind of wave is represented by a sine wave?: Dispersion; Transverse; Index of Refraction;
Refraction; Mirror; Energy; Longitudinal; Electron; Absorption; Photon; Latitudinal; Speed; Wavelength
Answer: Transverse
--ccto
Learning Activity 13: PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Optical device that demonstrates bending of light
Answer: LENS
2. Particle of light that carries its energy
Answer: PHOTON
3. Path of light that makes it understood to be a particle
Answer: STRAIGHT LINE
4. Wave that can propagate even without molecules
Answer: TRANSVERSE
5. Wave that cannot exist in vacuum
Answer: LONGITUDINAL
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Bending of light around an edge causing umbra and penumbra in the shadow
Answer: DIFFRACTION
2. Deflection of light along its path
Answer: SCATTERING
3. Phenomenon of light wherein light waves add up
Answer: INTERFERENCE
4. Phenomenon of separation of light into different colors
Answer: DISPERSION
5. Type of mirror that shows an inverted image of you
Answer: CONCAVE
Short Quiz 14:PHYSC
What exists between two charges in space?
Select one:
- Electrostatic force
This phenomenon of light explains how light shows different colors after passing through a prism.
Select one:
-Dispersion
This type of mirror shows a virtual image of the object.
Select one:
-Convex
What do you call a displaced image of an object as the result of the bending of light rays?
Select one:
-Mirage
According to Faraday, what is produced by a changing magnetic field?
Select one:
- Induced voltage
What principle explains why it is impossible to determine experimentally both the position and the
speed of an electron at the same time?
Select one:
-Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
How do electron orbits look like as a consequence of the uncertainty principle?
Select one:
- Electron clouds
What type of mirror shows your image in an inverted manner?
Select one:
-Concave
What can electric current produce along a wire?
Select one:
- Magnetic field
What phenomenon of light is utilized to identify the wavelength of a given light ray?
Select one:
- Dispersion
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Hertz applied high voltage AC electricity across the central spark gap of the transmitter creating
sparks.: True; False
Answer: False
2. What digital storage oscilloscope circuit compensates for high sampling rates of high frequency
signals?: charged-couple device; analog to digital converter
Answer: charged-couple device
3. What test equipment combines the operation of many test instruments into a single compact unit.:
Impedance meter; Communication service monitor
Answer: Communication service monitor
4. When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction
take place?: in the oscillator; receiving end
Answer: receiving end
5. What part of the pulse code modulation (PCM) process converts a continuous time signal into a
discrete time signal?
Answer: Sampling
Short Quiz 15:PHYSC
Hertz found that when sparks flew across the main gap, sparks also usually glow across the
secondary gap that is between points A and B in the image.
Select one:
- True
According to Hertz, he pictured waves of electric charge moving back and forth, creating a standing
wave within the wire.
Select one:
- True
When reading the forward power on a wattmeter, what does two right-facing arrow heads mean?
Select one:
- Power exceeds 120 percent of the range
What are the two main types of photodetectors? (separate your answers with the word "and")
Answer:
-Positive intrinsic photodiode AND negative intrinsic photodiode
In November 1886, Heinrich Hertz became the first person to transmit and receive controlled radio
waves.
Select one:
-True
If the interference can be eliminated by disconnecting the receiving antenna, the source of the
disturbance is most likely
Select one:
- External to the radio
What initial nuclear radiation components generate electromagnetic pulses? (separate your answers
with the word "and")
Answer:
-Gamma rays AND neutrons
Who discovered radio waves?
Answer:
-Heinrich Hertz
What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set accepts a 48-bit parallel word and
generates a serial pattern?
Select one:
-48-bit transmitter only
Hertz started generating radio waves using a piece of electrical equipment called an induction coil.
Select one:
-True
Short Quiz 16:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. As measured in any inertial frame of reference, light is always propagated in empty space with a
definite velocity that is independent of the state of motion of the emitting body.: False; True
Answer: True
2. Maxwell’s equations are not consistent with Galilean relativity unless one postulates the existence
of a physical aether.: True; False
Answer: True
3. The laws of physics are the same in all inertia frames of reference.: True; False
Answer: True
4. The postulates of special relativity can be expressed very succinctly using the mathematical
language of pseudo-Riemmannian manifolds: True; False
Answer: True
5. What is the correct expression for the amplitude of a vibrating mass? Amplitude is the: Maximum
velocity of the mass during vibration; Maximum displacement of the mass from the rest position
Answer: Maximum displacement of the mass from the rest position
6. Which of the following is not a term associated with periodic waves?: Frequency; How much space
is occupied
Answer: How much space is occupied
7. Which of the following sound wave can be heard by the human ear?: Ultrasonic sound waves;
Sound waves with frequencies between 20 hz and 20,000 hz
Answer: Sound waves with frequencies between 20 hz and 20,000 hz
8. It combines special relativity with the equivalence principle.
Answer: General relativity
9. It is the succession of methods by which astronomers determine the distances to celestial objects.
Answer: Cosmic distance ladder
10. Known as the “dwarf planet”
Answer: Pluto
L.A 16:PHYSC
Vibrations
Select one:
- Can sometimes be sensed
Special relativity is a theory.
Select one:
- True
States that the net force acting on a body is equal to that body’s (inertia ) mass multiplied by its
acceleration.
Select one:
-Newton's Second Law of Motion
According to this law there is a universality of free fall. The trajectory of a test body in free fall
depends only on its position and initial speed.
Answer:
-Newton's Law of Gravity
Which of the following must be satisfied for a vibration to be simple harmonic motion? The restoring
force of the vibrating object is
Select one:
-
-Opposite to and proportional to a displacement
READING AND WRITING (ENGL-112)

GRADE 11 WEEK 1-20
This is the stage where you polish the order of your ideas and filter the information
needed to get your point across and correct any mechanical errors.
The correct answer is: Revising
This refers to the set of basic questions that can start the exploration of your topic.
The correct answer is: journalists' questions
This stage in the writing process narrows your topic into the most important and
relevant.
The correct answer is: Pre-writing
Which of the following statements is not true?
The correct answer is: You must start thinking about writing a completely unfamiliar
topic and explore it along the way.
True or False: Output is important, but an effective written work is still valued.
The correct answer is: True
Learning activity 2. reading and writing.

Arrange the following sentences to form a comprehensive paragraph.
1.Guerrilla movements can exist only when they have some support from the people in
their area of operations
2.The greater the support the more effective the guerrillas become
3.This is because in all lands where a strong, ideologically motivated guerrilla force looks
in struggle with the government, ultimate victory goes to the side which succeeds in
rallying people
4.Conversely, when the people deny or withdraw their support, the guerrilla lose their
ability to disengage, disappear and exist and shortly are down and wipe out
5.The decisive factor in the twilight war in South Vietnam is the support of the rural
masses
Read the following jumbled paragraph and answer the succeeding question:
(A) For the first time however, the waters of Laguna de Bay are serving a new and
different purpose. (B) Today, these lands can be planted to palay during off-season. (C)
They are being harnessed to water rice field along the shores which are idle during the
dry season. (D) Fish abound in its waters and its shores have been favorable breeding
ground for ducks. (E) Laguna de Bay has, for centuries, been a major source of livelihood
for people living along its shores.
Which is the most fitting 4th sentence for the given paragraph?
The correct answer is: B
(A) Gone with the Wind is not just Scarlett O’Hara’s story; it is also the story of another
remarkable woman, Melanie Wilkes. (B) The author describes Melanie as having “the
face” of a sheltered child who had never known anything but simplicity and kindness,
truth and love, a child who had never looked upon harshness or evil, and would not
have recognized them if she saw them.” (C) Strangely enough, the qualities that
weakened Melanie in Scarlett’s eyes—loyalty, naivete, and simplicity—actually proved to
make Melanie a strong person.
The correct answer is: C
Read the following jumbled paragraph and answer the succeeding question.
(A) Guerrilla movements can exist only when they have some support from the people in
their area of operations. (B) This is because in all lands where a strong, ideologically
motivated guerrilla force looks in struggle with the government, ultimate victory goes to
the side which succeeds in rallying people. (C) Conversely, when the people deny or
withdraw their support, the guerrilla lose their ability to disengage, disappear and exist
and shortly are down and wipe out. (D) The decisive factor in the twilight war in South
Vietnam is the support of the rural masses. (E) The greater the support the more
effective the guerrillas become.
Which is the fitting 3rd sentence in the paragraph?
Improvements in health, education and trade are essential for the development of
poorer nations. __________, the governments of richer nations should take more
responsibility for helping the poorer nations in such areas.
The correct answer is: However
Learning Activity 3. Reading and Writing..

Read the following narrative essay:
Jerry was the kind of guy you love to hate. He was always in a good mood and always
had something positive to say. When someone would ask him how he was doing, he
would reply, "If I were any better, I would be twins!" He was a unique manager because
he had several waiters who had followed him around from restaurant to restaurant. The
reason the waiters followed Jerry was because of his attitude. He was a natural
motivator. If an employee was having a bad day, Jerry was there telling the employee
how to look on the positive side of the situation.”
The writer presented what point of view?
The correct answer is: Second person
Read the following narrative essay:
I can remember my first ascension to a mountain top well. It happened about three
years ago, when it was autumn, and the weather in the mountains was gloomy. My
friends offered me to travel to the western Carpathian Mountains, and after a short
period of hesitation, I accepted their invitation. There was nothing much to do for me at
the time, so I thought a change of surrounding would only be of use to me.
What narrative device was used in the paragraph?
The correct answer is: Flashback
A strategy in writing a definition paragraph that shows the evolution of the word and
how it was formed.
The correct answer is: Etymology
True or False: The main aim of descriptive paragraphs is to describe a particular thing as
accurately as possible.
This is one of the terms used in writing narratives that refers to the outcome of the
characters’ actions.
The correct answer is: Resolution
LEARNING ACTIVITY 4. READING AND WRITING.

----There are five transition words used in the following cause and effect paragraph.
Write them in order in the given spaces below:
In recent decades, cities have grown so large that now about 50% of the Earth's
population lives in urban areas. There are several reasons for this occurrence. First, the
increasing industrialization of the nineteenth century resulted in the creation of many
factory jobs, which tended to be located in cities. These jobs, with their promise of a
better material life, attracted many people from rural areas. Second, there were many
schools established to educate the children of the new factory laborers. The promise of
a better education persuaded many families to leave farming communities and move to
the cities. Finally, as the cities grew, people established places of leisure, entertainment,
and culture, such as sports stadiums, theaters, and museums. For many people, these
facilities made city life appear more interesting than life on the farm, and therefore drew
them away from rural communities.
1. for
2. first
3.second
4.finally
5.therefore
LEARNING ACTIVITY 5. READING AND WRITING.

---Which of the following statements is not true?�
The correct answer is: Internet has become so widespread that it is hard to track the
cause of serious problems encountered by its users.
----Which of the following is not a proposed solution of the author?�
The correct answer is: Install anti-virus programs that could prevent potential malware.
----- According to the essay sample, which of these is not a problem specified by the
author? (Write the letter of the correct answer)
�a. children can access potentially dangerous sites�
b. news and company websites are hacked
�c. online fraud�
d. websites with unverified authenticity.
The correct answer is: d
----An example of a dangerous site that children can easily access:
The correct answer is: pornography sites
----Is the conclusion positive or negative?�
The correct answer is: Neutral�
SHORT QUIZ 1. READING AND WRITING.

True or False: It's best to think of different topics and discover various points of focus so
you can keep your options open before writing.
True or False: In brainstorming, you must find the related ideas to the topic you have in
mind and link it to subtopics.
Learning to write is a
The correct answer is: sequential
A pre-writing strategy which is the process of pouring out all your thoughts nonstop in
an exact order, language and form as you think them.
The correct answer is: Freewriting
Complete the following sentence: "Writing without _________
form and content
Correct is like a human body without skeleton; writing without ___________ is like a
skeleton with no flesh."
The correct answer is: form and content
In writing a text, these two elements must be present: content and
The correct answer is: form
Which of the following statements is true?
The correct answer is: You must come up with all the possible ideas from the pre-writing
stage.
A stage in writing where you look for any mechanical errors.
True or False: The final draft does not require editing or revising.
Pre-writing requires an
The correct answer is: open
SHORT QUIZ 2. READING AND WRITING..

1. Arrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
[There have been immense advances in technology in most aspects of people’s lives,
especially in the field of education.]. [Nowadays, an increasing number of students rely
on computers for research and to produce a perfect paper for school purposes. ].
[Others have decided to leave the original way of learning and to get knowledge
through online schools.]. [These changes in the learning process have brought a special
concern regarding the possible decrease of importance of teachers in the classroom.].
2. Choose the correct transition words for the paragraph from the given choices below.
You may use the same word multiple times.
Every four years, the whole world stops to watch international sporting events [such as]
the Olympics and the Football World Cup in which athletes show their best performance
to make their country proud. These sporting occasions have proved to be helpful in
easing international tension in difficult times when powerful leaders were trying to
control the world’s economy and other governments were fighting over the land.
The Olympic Games are one of the best examples which prove how sporting events can
bring nations together, at least temporarily. [from] the ancient History, [when] Greeks
and Romans would interrupt battles to participate in the games, to the more recent
international disputes, when athletes from Palestine and Israel would forget their
differences, compete peacefully and even embrace each other after an event.
[moreover], these popular events have called the world’s attention to the terrible
consequences of wars; [thus] some leaders have tried to reach agreements to end their
disputes and live peacefully.
Similarly, international sporting events show benefits in some developing countries
which live in a daily internal civil war. [for example], Brazil has a high rate of
unemployment, lack of education, hunger, crime, poverty and corruption which leads to
an immense embarrassment of being Brazilian and a low self-esteem. [however], when
the Football World Cup starts, the Brazilian squad, which is considered the best team in
the world, provokes an amazing feeling of pride in their country. Most people seem to
forget all their problems and even the criminal activity decreases. They paint roads with
the national colors, wear the Brazilian team shirts and buy national flags. [moreover], the
competition brings families and neighbors together and even rival gangs watch the
games and celebrate peacefully.
[in conclusion], popular sporting events play an important role in decreasing
international tensions and liberating patriotic feelings as history has shown.
3. Arrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
[For some people the little green tassels dropping from the trees and the fluffy pink,
white, and yellow blossoms announce the arrival of allergy season.]. [For others a big,
furry dog or a soft feather pillow brings on the sneezes or itchy eyes.]. [Still others are in
trouble if they accidentally eat honey, chocolate, or water chestnuts.]. [Although millions
of Americans have allergies, no one knows definitely how allergies develop or why some
people have them and others do not.]. [ Doctors have made some progress in
diagnosis.]. [Yet allergies remain a mystery that is only partially understood and only
partially treatable.].
4.Which of the following contains the topic sentence?
(A) Today’s world has been divided into developing and industrialized countries which
the main difference between them is the amount of money that governments apply in
important sectors such as education, health and commerce. (B) Most of the poorer
nations are buried in debts as a result of their unbalanced finances which are reflect in a
failed health care, an unstructured education system and a weak international trade. (C)
This vicious cycle will continue indefinitely unless wealthier nations show interest in
minimizing the worldwide economic differences, as well as taking more responsibility for
assisting less fortunate countries.
The correct answer is: A
5.Choose the proper pattern of arrangement of the following jumbled paragraph.
(A) For the first time however, the waters of Laguna de Bay are serving a new and
different purpose. (B) Today, these lands can be planted to palay during off-season. (C)
They are being harnessed to water rice field along the shores which are idle during the
dry season. (D) Fish abound in its waters and its shores have been favorable breeding
ground for ducks. (E) Laguna de Bay has, for centuries, been a major source of livelihood
for people living along its shores.
The correct answer is: E, C, A, B, D
6. Which among the set of sentences is most appropriate to be the 4th sentence?
(A) Yet allergies remain a mystery that is only partially understood and only partially
treatable.
(B) Still others are in trouble if they accidentally eat honey, chocolate, or water
chestnuts.
(C) Doctors have made some progress in diagnosis.
(D) For others a big, furry dog or a soft feather pillow brings on the sneezes or itchy
eyes.
(E) Although millions of Americans have allergies, no one knows definitely how allergies
develop or why some people have them and others do not.
(F) For some people the little green tassels dropping from the trees and the fluffy pink,
white, and yellow blossoms announce the arrival of allergy season.
The correct answer is: E
7.Which of the following contains the topic sentence?
(A) As an English writer has written, “Providence in her wise disposition has placed these
people in a garden of Eden, where the means of subsistence are found without much
labor, and does not require them to toil and slave to satisfy their personal wants.” (B) By
the yard stick of human action in temperature countries, the Filipinos do not work hard.
(C) Foreign writers have rashly accused the Filipinos of “indolence.” (D) The Filipinos take
life easy because of the tropical climate and the liberality of nature. (E) Such may seem
the case, but foreign critics are interpreting it as a manifestation of racial laziness.
LONG QUIZ 1. READING AND WRITING..
A. The correct answer is:
Arrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
Shakespeare never grows old. Why is that? It’s because he expresses timeless truths with
unparalleled literary excellence. The study of Shakespeare is essential for a good
education.
[The first reason to study Shakespeare is to develop one’s appreciation for great
literature]. [Shakespeare’s genius is evident, not only in his sonnets and other poems,
but in some three dozen plays]. [His characters are vivid and his plots compelling]. [Once
you’ve met them, who can ever forget Hamlet or Lady Macbeth - his grief, or her
guilt - or Beatrice and Benedick, and their humorous banter?] It’s not an accident that
Shakespeare is the most-quoted author in the English language. [He also confers a rich
vocabulary]. [The prestigious Oxford English Dictionary estimates that Shakespeare
“coined” about 1700 words]. [What better way to develop an appreciation for great
literature than by studying the best?]
[Clearly, there is an enduring value in Shakespeare]. [In addition to his literary gifts,
Shakespeare reveals deep spiritual insights]. [ The plays of Shakespeare rest upon and
express a Biblical worldview]. Although he tapped many sources for inspiration, his
primary source was Scripture. One researcher has documented over 1,300 Biblical
references in Shakespeare, an average of about forty per play. Shakespeare wrote from a
God-centered, redemptive perspective. The great Biblical themes are all there.
Given the magnitude of his contribution, it is no wonder that scholars like E. D. Hirsch
have insisted on the importance of reading Shakespeare to develop a basic, “cultural
literacy.” Shakespeare provides a wonderful ‘bridge’ for discussing the great questions
of life, and for rediscovering the richness in Western civilization.
The works of Shakespeare constitute a rich literary, spiritual and cultural treasure, just
waiting for discovery. Students of Shakespeare are rewarded for their efforts. But that’s a
bonus. It’s like getting paid to play.
B. The correct answer is:
Arrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
Every four years, the whole world stops to watch international sporting events such as
the Olympics and the Football World Cup in which athletes show their best performance
to make their country proud. These sporting occasions have proved to be helpful in
easing international tension in difficult times when powerful leaders were trying to
control the world’s economy and other governments were fighting over the land.
[The Olympic Games are one of the best examples which prove how sporting events can
bring nations together, at least temporarily]. [From the ancient History, when Greeks and
Romans would interrupt battles to participate in the games, to the more recent
international disputes, when athletes from Palestine and Israel would forget their
differences, compete peacefully and even embrace each other after an event].
[Moreover, these popular events have called the world’s attention to the terrible
consequences of wars; thus some leaders have tried to reach agreements to end their
disputes and live peacefully].
Similarly, international sporting events show benefits in some developing countries
which live in a daily internal civil war. [For example, Brazil has a high rate of
unemployment, lack of education, hunger, crime, poverty and corruption which leads to
an immense embarrassment of being Brazilian and a low self-esteem]. [However, when
the Football World Cup starts, the Brazilian squad, which is considered the best team in
the world, provokes an amazing feeling of pride in their country]. [Most people seem to
forget all their problems and even the criminal activity decreases]. They paint roads with
the national colors, wear the Brazilian team shirts and buy national flags. [Moreover, the
competition brings families and neighbors together and even rival gangs watch the
games and celebrate peacefully].
[In conclusion, popular sporting events play an important role in decreasing
international tensions and liberating patriotic feelings as history has shown].
C. The correct answer is:
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate transition word. Choose one from the given
choices below.
Turkish governments have been trying to join the European union for years. Despite all
the difficult tasks that have to be achieved in order to join the EU, Turkish governments
are persistent. Turkish citizens seem to agree with their governments, too. Why do we
insist on becoming a member of the union then? It is probably because of the
differences between the happiness levels of Turkish and EU citizens.
A study has been conducted on contentment and optimism of people in Turkey and the
EU, which revealed that as a nation we have low levels of satisfaction and happiness.
Nearly two thirds of Turkish people are discontent with their lives, [while] four fifths of
the EU citizens are satisfied with their lives. Approximately the same results can be
observed on people’s thoughts about their countries’ present and future conditions. It is
obvious that people in the EU are happier than the people in Turkey, [but] why are we
unhappy and pessimistic in contrast to EU citizens?
There are plenty of reasons for the discontentment of people in Turkey compared to
those in EU, [but] there are some reasons of greater significance, [such as] differences in
income, welfare, and stability.
[first of all], it is known that there is a great gap between the incomes of Turkish and EU
citizens. This means that a person in EU who does the same job as a person in Turkey
will receive a higher salary in Europe than in Turkey. Similarly, an unemployed person in
EU is paid more or has more pension and social rights than an unemployed person in
our country.
[moreover], there is another fact which is a result of earlier ones: there are many people
below poverty line and starvation limit in Turkey. These conditions lead to dissatisfaction
in the country, we cannot be happy when we are starving, can we?
[furthermore], Turkish economic and government systems lack stability. Considering
successive crises and growths following these, it can be said that Turkish economy is
fluctuating. Just as the economy, government has no sign of continuity. Each new
government blames the previous governments and changes what they have done. These
acts are justified as being necessary [but] generally lead to nothing but corruption. Lack
of continuity causes confusion, [as] people need time to get used to new conditions. If
you do not give them enough time and change the conditions again, just like in Turkey,
the result will be confusion followed by depression. [however], in Europe there is a
system that goes on without great disruptions, which means that there is a stable life
and a predictable, better to say a hopeful, future.
As I mentioned before, our persistence in joining the EU may be because of their
happiness against our discontentment. We hope to find satisfaction, which we could not
find alone, in Europe. Considering the fact that neither EU nor any other unions can
grant happiness without any effort, is it not better that we work for our own benefit, not
only to join the EU?
D. Identify the topic sentence.
(A) Most people want to get married and have children. (B) Perhaps they want to leave a
trace or offspring after them, so that they become somehow “immortal”. (C) And it is
commonly said that children are the ultimate bliss in our lives. (D) Although many
people agree with this statement, to my mind, it is not true
The correct answer is: D
E.Identify the topic sentence.
(A) Everyday in one way or another we are trying to find happiness in a complete chaos,
that is what all we are struggling for. (B) Actually, temporary happiness is everywhere if
we want to find it and search for it. (C) Sometimes it is just as close as a cute kitten to us,
sometimes giving a hand to someone who is in need of us is enough. (D) Even taking a
breath may give somebody the absolute happiness at times. (E) But what if we leave
temporary happiness alone and decide to construct our lives on basic principles of
permanent happiness? (F) Certainly these principles depend on one’s characteristics and
point of view. (G) In my opinion, social relations, acceptance and independence are the
most important elements of permanent happiness in life.
The correct answer is: G
F. Identify the topic sentence.
(A) The expansion of the world population is the most important problem that should
be solved in order not to confront in the near future big social problems such as bad
economic circumstances and lack of resources, food and housing. (B) Birth control,
although may lead to religious, cultural and moral objections, is the fastest way to
reduce the population growth rate. (C) Therefore, governments should begin programs
of birth control even in a compulsory manner due to the fact that group survival is more
important than individual freedom.
long quiz 2. reading and writing..
----What type of definition is used in the given paragraph?
Newton’s First Law: If the total force acting on an object is zero, its center of mass
continues in the same state of motion.
In other words, an object initially at rest is predicted to remain at rest if the total force
acting on it is zero, and an object in motion remains in motion with the same velocity in
the same direction. The converse of Newton’s first law is also true: if we observe an
object moving with constant velocity along a straight line, then the total force on it must
be zero. You may encounter the term “net force,” which is simply a synonym for total
force
The correct answer is: Denotation
----True or False: The rising action refers to events caused by the climax.
.----Read the following paragraph and identify what type of description is used:
Back in 1999 this fearless athlete posed in this football picture. In the far distance below
the cloudless sky stands an off-white stadium. Embedded in the center is large, cracked,
blue, painted, letters that spell out BISON. Beneath the old stadium are rows of worn-
out bleachers which are completely empty. Up in front stands the competitor down on
one knee. As you observe more, the sport player is wearing a blue Bison jersey sporting
the number 60. To the left above the freshly trimmed green grass that engulfs this
player’s figure lays a football. In the center of the picture, you see her pale white face
and dark brown eyes. Around these features you can not help but notice the bronzed
hair; which appears to be pulled back around this slender face. Her stern look shows
how proud she is; nonetheless, all the confidence she carries on her padded up
shoulders. This unique woman is not only elegant and brave; she is my sister, Margaret
Eva Hoyt.
The correct answer is: Subjective description
-----Read the given paragraph below:
Differences Between Tokyo and Kyoto
In recent decades, the title of one of the most popular cultures worldwide should be
definitely given to Japan. Millions of people all over the world study the Japanese
language, watch dorama (dramatic TV series on all kinds of topics) or animation, read
and write haiku, and make pen pals with Japanese people. Countless people buy tickets
and fly to the country of the rising sun to see its wonders with their own eyes.
Among the most popular destinations—mostly because these city names are most
known to the western public—are Tokyo and Kyoto. And perhaps for an inexperienced
traveler, there is a dilemma: where to go? Mostly, people know that Tokyo is a mega city
of the future, and Kyoto has more to do with ancient culture, traditions, and so on.
Basically it is true, but at the same time, there also exist more subtle differences one
should consider when choosing their destination point in Japan.
The first of them is prices. Tokyo is expensive—as you might expect from the capital of
the most urbanized country in the world (the prices below are listed in Japanese yen: 1
USD approximately equals 100 yen). So, to grab some inexpensive snack in Tokyo would
cost around 850 yen. Having a three-course meal for two people in a mid-range
restaurant, in case you travel with your spouse, will cost you 5,230 yen. A one-way ticket
on Tokyo transport costs you 190 yen, and renting one room apartment outside of the
city center costs 77,853 yen (and this is probably a weekly price). Just do not expect this
apartment to be big and cozy; most likely it will be tiny, with basic utilities, and with no
central heating (actually, there is no such thing in Japan at all—everyone warms their
house up on their own). If you think of buying an apartment in Tokyo, forget it—one
square meter of a room outside of the city center is around 1 million yen (double the
price if you want to live closer to the city center).
Kyoto is not much cheaper. Although dining in a restaurant is cheaper—only 4,000 yen
for two persons in a mid-range restaurant—transportation costs are surprisingly higher:
235 yen for a ride (however, if you want to purchase a monthly pass, it is cheaper to do
in Kyoto rather than in Tokyo: 8,410 yen compared to 10,000 yen). If you think you can
save some money buying food in a market, you are correct only in particulars: some
products in Japan cost a lot of money no matter where you buy them. For example,
white rice costs 850 yen for 1 kg in Kyoto (453 yen in Tokyo). White bread, tomatoes,
chicken breasts, and especially cheese—these are the most expensive products both in
Kyoto and in Tokyo. Speaking of accommodation, renting or buying an apartment in
Kyoto is much cheaper: for a one room apartment outside of Kyoto’s center, you must
pay 48,000 yen to rent, or 300,000 yen per square meter if you want to buy it
(Numbeo.com).
Tokyo is great to visit if you enjoy hustle and bustle, if you want to feel the heartbeat of
a mega-city, dive into its life, and experience all those crazy things people in the West
usually tell about Japan. Be prepared for the overcrowded subway— and “overcrowded”
is a gentle way to put it; in fact, you can take a 60-minute ride in the subway, and your
feet will not even touch the floor, because you will be squeezed between other people
so tight that you can even take a nap in this position. Kyoto, on the other hand, is good
to visit for all those who feel inspired by traditional Japanese culture: haiku, hanami,
court customs, the No theater, and so on. In Kyoto, you will not see amazing
skyscrapers, over 280 subway stations, and the craziness of the famous Shibuya crossing;
instead, get prepared for temples, tea houses, museums: all things antique and
authentic. But, if you want modernity, go to Tokyo, and you will not feel disappointed—
this city already lives in the future (Go Overseas).
It is difficult to say which city is better for an inexperienced tourist to visit, Tokyo or
Kyoto. Kyoto is cheaper, especially in terms of renting an apartment, and is more
suitable for those looking for the old Japanese culture weaved into sophisticated
palaces made during Heian-jidai. Tokyo, on the contrary, is an enormous metropolis,
with crazy prices, crazy transportation, crazy everything. The atmospheres are different,
but both of the cities will make you awed, so if you have a chance, you should definitely
visit them.
Based on the given example of compare and contrast essay, which of the two cities is
cheaper in terms of dining?
The correct answer is: Kyoto
------True or False: Descriptive paragraphs may or may not appeal to the five senses of
the readers.
The periodic table is most easily understood in terms of the ______________

configurations of the elements. Electron
The Bohr theory was developed to explain which of these phenomena? The
photoelectric effect
Aluminum is an example of Element
True or False: The human body is composed of 65% oxygen & 18% carbon.
True
True or False: If the covalent bonds are polar, then the covalent compound
as a whole can be nonpolar. True
Who coined the term, "radioactivity"? Marie Curie
The second most abundant element in the Earth's atmosphere is Oxygen
Oxygen and silicon
The Sun's photosphere is, by mass, about 25% helium
What is the visible surface of the Sun called? Photosphere
True or False: Melting a covalent network solid is accomplished by
overcoming the relatively weak intermolecular forces. True
The number of _______________ on the Sun varies over an 11-year cycle.
Sunspots
When the absolute magnitudes, or brightnesses, of stars are plotted against their surface
temperatures or colors, we obtain a(n) Hertzsprung-Russell (or H-R) diagram.
What is the temperature in kelvins of the visible surface of the Sun? 6000 K
Covalent compounds' physical state at room temperature can be gas, liquid or solid.
What is the name given to all matter, energy, and space? Universe
Who discovered the atomic nucleus in 1911? Ernest Rutherford
refers to an electrically neutral particle composed of two or more atoms chemically
combined. Molecules
True or False: Ionic compounds are for both metals and nonmetals. True
When fast electrons strike a metal target, what are produced? Xrays
True or False: The matter in the early universe was not smoothly distributed
across space. True
The majority of stars are small, cool, type-M stars called Red dwarfs
The ancient Greek who is known for championing the concept of atom was
named ______________. Democritus
True or False: New stars are born in the Orion nebula. True
This was one of Rutherford's famous experiements where he used a
radioactive source to direct alpha particles toward a very thin sheet of gold
foil. The Gold Foil Experiment
The planetary model of the atom is associated with Rutherford.
When electrons are not shared equally between two atoms, it is called
Polar Covalent Bond
This consists of fundamental particles called leptons. electrons
Nearly 100% of mass of Earth's core is composed of the two elements iron
and nickel
He defined the word element as a form of matter that could not be split into simpler forms.
Robert Boyle
True or False: Sodium reacts violently with water. True
Thomson referred to negatively charged particles as corpuscles
True or False: Chemical reactions occur inside living things. True
The heaviest elements are created in _______, the fantastic death of supergiant stars.
supernovae
True or False: Sodium can exist by itself.True
About 75% of the mass of the visible universe is composed of which element? Hydrogen
The remaining core of a planetary nebula is called a _______________. white dwarf
True or False: Neutrons are found in all atoms except for most atoms of nitrogen. False
True or False: Aluminum is a good conductor of heat. True

Sodium is an example of elements
Amylase is an enzyme found in the mouth and small intestine that hlps in
the breakdown of starch to sugar.
True or False: Salt can conduct electricity in any form. FALSE
True or False: The catalyst is a reactant in the chemical reaction it speeds

up. False
Catalysts in living things are called Enzymes
refers to the concentration of a substance. Density

The apparent brightness of stars is ranked according to magnitude. The brightest stars were
originally ranked as what magnitude? First
The water solubility of molecular compounds is very low
is a form of carbon that is extremely hard and is one of the few materials that can scratch
glass. Diamond
The "plum pudding model" of the atom is associated with Thomson.
True or False: Tools made from iron easily rust. True
is a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction. Catalyst
True or False: In determining the limiting reactant, mass quantities must be converted to
moles. True
True or False: Lower activation energy = more reactant particles with

enough energy to react causing the reaction to occur faster. True
if it can be rolled and stretched to long and thin shapes. DUCTILE
Identification: This factor in a reaction rate results from the kinetic energy of
the reactant molecules? Temperature
The two types of bright nebulae are emission nebulae and _______________ nebulae.
Reflection
refers to how fast a chemical reaction occurs. Reaction Rate
True or False: Substances made of wood are not prone to flammability. False
True or False: Silver conducts electricity at minimal circumstances only. False
True or False: Chromium is one of the soft elements. False

----Cause and effect requires a
The correct answer is: coherent
-------The correct answer is:
Based on the sample paragraph, complete the outline:
I. [Personal Computer]
A. [Desktop]
- [permanent location required]
- [more power]
- [more storage]
- [more versatile]
B. [Laptop/notebook]
- [portable]
- [battery-operated]
- [slightly larger than a hardcover book]
II. [Workstation]
A. [enhanced capabilities]
B. [suitable for game development]
III. [Server]
A. [needs optimization]
B. [lots of memory]
IV. [Main frame]
A. [network of terminals]
V. [Supercomputer]
B. [for massive jobs of calculation]
-----Read the given paragraph below:
Differences Between Tokyo and Kyoto
In recent decades, the title of one of the most popular cultures worldwide should be
definitely given to Japan. Millions of people all over the world study the Japanese
language, watch dorama (dramatic TV series on all kinds of topics) or animation, read
and write haiku, and make pen pals with Japanese people. Countless people buy tickets
and fly to the country of the rising sun to see its wonders with their own eyes.
Among the most popular destinations—mostly because these city names are most
known to the western public—are Tokyo and Kyoto. And perhaps for an inexperienced
traveler, there is a dilemma: where to go? Mostly, people know that Tokyo is a mega city
of the future, and Kyoto has more to do with ancient culture, traditions, and so on.
Basically it is true, but at the same time, there also exist more subtle differences one
should consider when choosing their destination point in Japan.
The first of them is prices. Tokyo is expensive—as you might expect from the capital of
the most urbanized country in the world (the prices below are listed in Japanese yen: 1
USD approximately equals 100 yen). So, to grab some inexpensive snack in Tokyo would
cost around 850 yen. Having a three-course meal for two people in a mid-range
restaurant, in case you travel with your spouse, will cost you 5,230 yen. A one-way ticket
on Tokyo transport costs you 190 yen, and renting one room apartment outside of the
city center costs 77,853 yen (and this is probably a weekly price). Just do not expect this
apartment to be big and cozy; most likely it will be tiny, with basic utilities, and with no
central heating (actually, there is no such thing in Japan at all—everyone warms their
house up on their own). If you think of buying an apartment in Tokyo, forget it—one
square meter of a room outside of the city center is around 1 million yen (double the
price if you want to live closer to the city center).
Kyoto is not much cheaper. Although dining in a restaurant is cheaper—only 4,000 yen
for two persons in a mid-range restaurant—transportation costs are surprisingly higher:
235 yen for a ride (however, if you want to purchase a monthly pass, it is cheaper to do
in Kyoto rather than in Tokyo: 8,410 yen compared to 10,000 yen). If you think you can
save some money buying food in a market, you are correct only in particulars: some
products in Japan cost a lot of money no matter where you buy them. For example,
white rice costs 850 yen for 1 kg in Kyoto (453 yen in Tokyo). White bread, tomatoes,
chicken breasts, and especially cheese—these are the most expensive products both in
Kyoto and in Tokyo. Speaking of accommodation, renting or buying an apartment in
Kyoto is much cheaper: for a one room apartment outside of Kyoto’s center, you must
pay 48,000 yen to rent, or 300,000 yen per square meter if you want to buy it
(Numbeo.com).
Tokyo is great to visit if you enjoy hustle and bustle, if you want to feel the heartbeat of
a mega-city, dive into its life, and experience all those crazy things people in the West
usually tell about Japan. Be prepared for the overcrowded subway— and “overcrowded”
is a gentle way to put it; in fact, you can take a 60-minute ride in the subway, and your
feet will not even touch the floor, because you will be squeezed between other people
so tight that you can even take a nap in this position. Kyoto, on the other hand, is good
to visit for all those who feel inspired by traditional Japanese culture: haiku, hanami,
court customs, the No theater, and so on. In Kyoto, you will not see amazing
skyscrapers, over 280 subway stations, and the craziness of the famous Shibuya crossing;
instead, get prepared for temples, tea houses, museums: all things antique and
authentic. But, if you want modernity, go to Tokyo, and you will not feel disappointed—
this city already lives in the future (Go Overseas).
It is difficult to say which city is better for an inexperienced tourist to visit, Tokyo or
Kyoto. Kyoto is cheaper, especially in terms of renting an apartment, and is more
suitable for those looking for the old Japanese culture weaved into sophisticated
palaces made during Heian-jidai. Tokyo, on the contrary, is an enormous metropolis,
with crazy prices, crazy transportation, crazy everything. The atmospheres are different,
but both of the cities will make you awed, so if you have a chance, you should definitely
visit them.
Which of the two cities has the higher cost for transportation?
The correct answer is: Kyoto
=----This refers to the logical transition of one sentence or paragraph to another
The correct answer is: consistency
----
_____ refers to the technique that suggest hints on future events in a story.
The correct answer is: Foreshadowing
----True or False: The subject in a descriptive paragraph may be conveyed in detail
through an explanation of its significance.
LONG QUIZ 3. READING AND WRITING..
Read the following essay and answer the following questions.
The times when parents were responsible for their children’s academic
accomplishments—and students themselves—seem to have gone. Nowadays, many
people believe it is the high school administration, teachers, and the government that
are responsible for students getting good grades. Before, when you got an F, your
parents would blame you; today, they would rather go to your school and demand your
teacher to give you a better grade. Such an approach leads to irresponsible behavior:
students care less about their grades and start skipping classes, considering them to be
boring. And although there is seemingly nothing wrong with skipping a boring class you
think you would not need in future, in fact doing so has a number of negative impacts
on your future.
To start with, parents of a student who skips school lose huge amounts of money (given
that it is not the student who pays for studying). In the United States, free education is a
rare privilege; every single class skipped is worth a certain amount of money. Whether a
student studies at high school, college, or university, it does not matter—the average
cost of a skipped class is in the range between $50 to $100 (IFR). If a student chooses to
skip classes regularly, it will cost him or her or his or her parents a lot of money annually,
without getting the result: education and knowledge.
The likeliness to get lower grades when skipped classes is another consequence.
Whereas those who stay in class obtain at least some knowledge, even if they are not
bright, a person who skips classes is at higher risks of obtaining no knowledge at all.
Besides, teachers may have a bias toward such a student, and will treat him or her
unfairly even though this person might be bright and studied the subject on his or her
own. Needless to say, this situation can lead to a failure during exams or getting
expelled from an educational institution (FRI).
According to research, only five absences is usually enough for a student’s academic
performance to drop. Five more absences would most likely lead to a decreased chance
to graduate a particular educational institution: on average, skippers are about 20% less
likely to successfully graduate. If a student studies at high school, he or she has a 25%
less chance to enter any type of higher education institution. They are also 2.5 times
more likely to have to live on welfare compared to their more disciplined peers (Middle
Earth).
Skipping classes has yet another not-so-obvious consequence: a student is more likely
to become engaged in activities that neither the American society nor the legislative
system would approve. Skipping classes does not always imply staying at home; more
likely, a student would spend their time outdoors, and chances to get involved in
antisocial behavior (substance abuse, shoplifting, gambling, and so on) increase. No
need to say it can cause a person to enter prison eventually.
Skipping classes is not so harmless as it might seem. It is a direct waste of money for all
those who have to pay for the education—and such people are the majority. Students
who skip classes are more likely to get lower grades and face a biased attitude from
their teachers; moreover, they have lower chances to successfully graduate, and enroll in
a college—of any type. Such students are also more likely to live on welfare, and get
engaged in antisocial behavior. Therefore, this problem should be treated with all
possible attention from teachers, parents, and authorities.
QUESTIONS:
Paragraph order: Logical order =logical
Signal words used (arranged according to its order in the essay):
1. before
2.today
3. although
4. in fact
5.to start with
6.Whether.. or
7.if
8.whereas
9.even if
10. besides
11.According to
12. yet
13.such
14. therefore
Type of paragraph development: Answer:
cause and effect
THIRD PERIODICAL EXAM. READING WRITING.

The most common method of discovering a topic.
The correct answer is: Brainstorming
Which step in writing process includes coming up with ideas for you to write?
The correct answer is: Pre-writing
Tell which figure of speech is used in the following sentences.
The leaves of the trees waved in the wind
.The correct answer is: Personification
The sequential flow of ideas in a sentence.
The correct answer is: Coherence
Each level of an outline must have same grammatical structures.
The correct answer is: Parallel structure
_________ is the part of the story where the characters and setting are introduced. It also
tells backstories and other important plot events.
The correct answer is: Exposition
The logical transition of one sentence or paragraph to another.
The correct answer is: Consistency
_________ is the formal definition of a term.
Laughter is music for the soul.
The correct answer is: Metaphor
Her eyes were like fireflies
.The correct answer is: Simile
Which of these statements are supporting details?
I. But they face certain problems which cannot be discussed with his relatives – in
whatever relation they may stand and here is the need of a friend, of course a true
friend. There is no matter which cannot be discussed with a friend.
II. Friendship is seen even among animals.
III. Men of similar moral idea irrespective of social, cultural, educational and financial
idea may grow true friendship.
The correct answer is: Both II and III are supporting details
The correct answer is: Both II and III are supporting details
_________ shows the formation of the word and how it has evolved through time.
The correct answer is: Etymology
There are terms that are defined by the author’s perspective and experiences. What are
these terms called?
The correct answer is: Connotation
Nordquist suggested the structure of paragraphs in a problem-solution essay to serve
as a guide on what to include in that type of essay. Which of the following is the
elaboration of the problems and the search for the solution?
The correct answer is: Problem Paragraph
The most unrestrained method in finding a suitable topic.
The correct answer is: Freewriting
Which of the following is the best test of friendship?
The correct answer is: Adversity
Which step in the writing process includes expressing ideas in sentences and
paragraphs?
The correct answer is: Writing
Why are human beings the best creation of God?
The correct answer is: Because human beings have moral feelings.
I’m so hungry I could eat a horse!
The correct answer is: Hyperbole
The time and the place where the story takes place.
The correct answer is: Setting
Which of the following sentences is not coherent?
The correct answer is: Summer is the smell of mowed grass, the sound of outdoor
concerts, and the way grilled hamburgers taste.
The highest point in a story.
The correct answer is: Climax
Which of the following statements is true about the three main principles in developing
classification paragraphs?
I. The specific items identified in paragraphs must belong to one class only to avoid
confusion.
II. Classification paragraphs must contain consistency wherein one sentence or
paragraph is parallel to another.
III. Classification paragraphs require the writer to include connected classes/groups to
the paragraph to complete the image of the main idea.
The correct answer is: All of the statements are correct.
Which step in the writing process includes correcting mechanical errors and filtering the
information needed to get your point across?
The technique in finding a writing topic by finding the relationships between ideas.
The correct answer is: Clustering
The element of a paragraph that gives life to the characters and gives sense to the
setting.
The correct answer is: Plot
A story cannot be without a foundation. The writer gives the readers a view of what has
happened to the characters in the past and how they came to be. Which narrative
device is used to show these parts of the story?
The correct answer is: Backstory
The intent of dividing items into groups.
The correct answer is: Exclusiveness
Which of the following sentences is the topic sentence of the paragraph?
The correct answer is: Friendship means closeness, association, relationship, and mutual
trust – without any selfish motive.
Which of the following is not true about the topic sentence of a paragraph?
The correct answer is: The topic sentence gives life to the paragraph.
Which step in the writing process includes checking for errors of your work?
The correct answer is: Editing
_________ is the outcome of the events and the character’s actions.
Read the paragraph and answer the following questions.
There are a few places that can boast an act of creation everyday. A newspaper is one of
them. Out of the daily newsroom whirl emerges a remarkable product. In a matter of
hours, thousands of words and pictures are put together in a cohesive pattern designed
to inform, enlighten, and entertain the reader. To a casual observer, the men and
women working in the newsroom may appear to be running about aimlessly amid the
clatter of typewriters and the continually ringing telephones. Actually, the scurrying
around, the occasional shouting, the general air of excitement are all part of a controlled
procedure. Each editor, reporter, and copyboy has a designated job, the end result of
which is the newspaper that rolls off the press on time.
1. The topic sentence in the paragraph is sentence number
ANSWER: three =3
2. The type of paragraph development: Answer
descriptive =description
3. Give one signal word from the paragraph, indicating space, location and place.
Answer: amid
Which narrative device is used by the writer to present hints to future events?
The correct answer is: Foreshadowing
Based on the paragraph, why are true friendships rarely seen?
The correct answer is: Because true friendships depend upon selection of a friend.
There are terms that are associated with indirectly related words through analogy. What
are these terms called?
The correct answer is: Comparison
He’s as gentle as a bunny.
The correct answer is: Simile
Learning Activity 7 (Reading and Writing Skills)

Which among the following choices is the most suitable/strongest inference for the
given sentence?
"He admitted to plagiarizing this piece of text."
---The correct answer is: There are several passages that are exactly the same in
structure, albeit the use of synonyms
In the analysis of a written text, in what element does the following question fall?
What is the author trying to emphasize in the text?
---The correct answer is: Drawing Conclusions
How does this statement relate to the other parts of the text?
---The correct answer is: Organization
Statements of ______ may be proven through personal observations, researches, and
experimentation.
---The correct answer is: fact
To whom did the author intend to write the text for?
---The correct answer is: Audience

So, although on the surface volunteering may look like “working for free,” in fact it is a
great investment in one’s future career.
---The correct answer is: Claim of value
Defense mechanisms are numerous, and each person has a set of their own.
---The correct answer is: Claim of fact
Stories about being abducted by aliens are frightening, because knowing the size of the
Universe, one can never be sure that aliens do not exist, or that their intentions are non-
hostile.
During your first two days in a hostel, you can meet more new people than you did
throughout your whole last year of office work.
Too much alcohol may cause a lot of heart-related diseases.

This is portrayed by the use paraphrasing another author's statement. What is being
described?
---The correct answer is: Intertext
This is achieved through an accumulation of a variety of texts connecting to a single text
to form a meaning. What is being described?
This goes beyond what is included in the text, with references a reader can easily access.
What is being described?
---The correct answer is: Hypertext
The commonly used strategy in digital media/text. What is being described?
This analyzes the media in which the text is used. What is being described?
---The correct answer is: Context

Rowling created truly vivid characters; however, not all of them revealed their potential
from the very beginning. Surprisingly, the one who truly took his time before finally
showing his personality was Harry. Whereas Ron, Hermione, Draco, Snape, and other
characters possessed vivid and readable personalities from the very beginning, for a
long time, Harry remains some kind of an “event-trigger,” whose main goal is to move
the story forward.
---The correct answer is: Counterclaim
Many high school graduates simply do not have an opportunity to continue their
education right away (Saiz, Report on Education to Career Conversion).
---The correct answer is: Assertion - fact
They conducted a study in which a group of healthy young men slept 8 hours one night,
and then abstained from sleep another night.
Abortion causes severe psychological and emotional damage to a woman who has
undergone this surgery.
---The correct answer is: Claim
R. Dworkin does something rather novel and considers that, rather than being immoral,
something could be from a different moral code (1977, p. 995). This, of course, makes
perfect sense, and is what I have said already. I would even go so far as to suggest that
it is impossible to act immorally. This is another reason morality and legality must
remain separate, because, whereas illegal acts exist, immoral ones do not.

What did the main idea of the story make you feel as the reader? Identify what is
described.
---The correct answer is: theme
A review of Harry Potter contains the following passage:
It all starts in a rather trivial way though—with a boy being branded as the “unique one,”
a survivor of a terrible assault with a destiny to defeat an evil overlord. However, this is
the basic layer of the story, so to say.
What guide question did it answer?
---The correct answer is: What is the conflict of the story?
You must have an interest in the book you're analyzing.
---The correct answer is: True
After reading the book, that's when to take notes of what you have read.
---The correct answer is: False
This is where you identify the climax of the story.
---The correct answer is: plot

A part of the research report that gives the synthesis of the supporting details.
---The correct answer is: Review of Literature
The part of a research report that describes the procedure to arrive at the result.
---The correct answer is: Methods
This part of a research report describes the instrument used to arrive at a result.
This identifies what type of research it is going to be.
---The correct answer is: Research questions/hypothesis
The step in writing a research report wherein you formulate questions related to the
topic.
---The correct answer is: planning the research

It is in bad taste to stress your interest in applying for the job in the company.
Identify which part of the resume the following information belongs to:
Certificate of N5 level Japanese Language Proficiency.
---The correct answer is: Educational qualifications
Experienced with Moodle.
---The correct answer is: Technical/software skills
You may choose not to include your address in the email copy of your application letter.
The application letter must be in strict business letter format.
Short Quiz 7 (Reading and Writing Skills)

How does this contribute to the variety of texts done discussing the same topic?
---The correct answer is: Research/Sources
The text does not have a meaning by itself.
Is the stand of the author clear?
---The correct answer is: Topic and position
given sentence?
"Drug use is detrimental to society."
---The correct answer is: There has been multiple instances and cases displaying the dire
consequences of drugs on people.
Where was the text published or found?
---The correct answer is: Audience
Which of the following words does not signal a statement of opinion?
---The correct answer is: according to
This is a strategy that is purposefully writing a passage leaning towards a single
perspective.
---The correct answer is: slanting
In what tone did the author write the text?
---The correct answer is: Style
given sentence?
"This group has garnered the most music awards for this year."
---The correct answer is: They have received multiple awards from different award-
giving bodies.
What do you call the terms used in a text that need further definition as they are
exclusively used in a field of study?
---The correct answer is: jargon

If you move to China, you will discover another reason why this country is worth moving
to: its prices.
The police should be responsible of the people’s safety and not a source of fear.
---The correct answer is: Claim of policy
Global warming, despite others’ doubts, exists.
The four circles, or stages of mourning are denial, anger, bargaining, and depression; the
exit is acceptance.
Let us choose to believe the opposite, and not doubt the possibility of us being the
masters of our lives, so that no ‘cunning demon’ can distract us with false perceptions
and throw us off the right path.
At least 25 percent of the federal budget should be spent on helping upgrade business
to clean technologies, researching renewable energy sources, and planting more trees in
order to control or eliminate pollution.
Volunteering is a great alternative to a number of other activities, since it can help you
acquire work experience and get a job.
Time is gold.
Anger can be effectively used to establish and defend your personal boundaries,
personal space, sense of justice, beliefs, and so on.
Western classical music has not just artistic and cultural value, but also causes a number
of unexpected and (fortunately) positive effects on the human mind.

Through this, the text related to the topic you are reading may be easily found through
search engines. What is being described?
At its whole, this will heavily affect the way the text is written. What is being described?
These are the circumstances surrounding a topic. What is being described?
This is also known as "interactive multimedia."
This can be divided into static (or something prepared or stored in advance) or dynamic
(something that continually changes). What is being described?
In the analysis of this, even the way pictures are selected is scrutinized. What is being
described?
This is described as "a structural analysis of texts in relation to the larger system of
signifying practices or uses of signs in culture." What is being described?
A nonlinear way of presenting information. What is being described?
This refers to the occasion or situation in which the reader can consider while analyzing.
What is being described?
This builds relationships and connections among social meanings. What is being
described?
St. Thomas Aquinas gave five proofs for God’s existence. The first two are cosmological:
there can be no uncaused cause, so the universe could not have created itself, so there
must be a first cause/prime mover, (Appiah, 2003, p. 322), which he calls “God.” This, in
my view, does not prove anything. He is saying the universe cannot have come from
nothing, but its creator can. If God is an exception to the “no uncaused cause” rule, why
cannot the universe be? (Russell, 1927).
Lord Templeman suggested that the issue of consent was irrelevant to the question of
the illegality of an action, since the latter constitutes a breach of the peace. This traces
back to high-minded English snobbery about a king needing able-bodied soldiers. The
idea seems to be that a society is more important than its individuals. But this is, of
course, erroneous, for it seems obvious, upon reflection, that there can be nothing more
sacred than individual liberty.
On the other hand, the exploitation of the system of standardized testing is linked to a
number of issues. Thus, many feel that tests do not provide accurate evaluations of a
student’s knowledge and learning capabilities, particularly due to the fact that in order
to pass a test, a simple memorization is preferred to critical thinking and higher learning
(Strong 254).
Of course, any book can be described like this; for example, the plot of “The Lord of the
Rings” can be described even in a shorter way: “Four guys go to a dangerous land to
defeat ancient evil by destroying an important artifact, and their friends help them.”
However, unlike Tolkien’s novel, Twilight has nothing to offer to a reader except the
events described in the previous paragraph. This is ridiculous, considering four
published books, some sort of online encyclopedia, and movies.
It is equally possible many gods could exist. Furthermore, St. Thomas uses “God” as a
label for the first cause. The first cause is not necessarily the Christian God (Dawkins,
2007, p. 101)—all-knowing, all-powerful, and all-good (all-k.p.g.), or anything God is
usually considered to be.
Insomnia affects not only the mind, but also the body in ways no less devastating;
specifically, according to a study conducted by the University of Chicago, sleep
deprivation is closely connected to the reduced control of blood-sugar levels.
Insomnia, or sleep deprivation, is a dangerous condition leading to a wide range of
health problems.
Studying is a necessity rather than a privilege.
A woman who has undergone the abortion procedure may develop such persistent
symptoms as shame, a sense of isolation, a loss of self-confidence and/or trust in other
people, nightmares, insomnia, anxiety, loneliness, and suicidal thoughts. As an
unpleasant bonus, these symptoms can be accompanied with various eating disorders
(American Pregnancy Association).
What epicness is there in a lovey-dovey story about a relationship between a schoolgirl
and a vampire? Obviously none, neither in the novel, nor in the movies—it is simply a
marketing turn aimed at making the source look like something more worthwhile than it
is.
---The correct answer is: Assertion - opinion

A review of the Twilight Saga contains the following passage:
The first and foremost question: why would a 104 year-old person fall in love with a
teenager? Theoretically, people get wiser when they get older, although reality proves it
is not necessarily so. I would understand if Edward treated Bella as an adopted
daughter, at least. But love? There is a special word for adult men having romantic and
sexual relationships with teen girls. Also, according to folklore, vampires are sadistic, vile,
and sexually-insatiable creatures, so in a proper vampire story, exploitation and being
devoured would be Bella’s only options. But a true, clean, and romantic love? This is
stupid. The only reason why it became possible is probably because aging has
negatively affected Edward’s (and his family’s) mental capabilities. Also, why would Bella
not feel scared of knowing people who suck blood, or who can turn into savage beasts?
What kind of weird taste or fetish is that? And it is not only Bella and Edward acting
weird—Jacob, Victoria, the vampire clans, and other folks appearing in Twilight seem to
have little to no common sense, reason, or logic.
What guide question did it answer?
---The correct answer is: What is the weakness of the plot?
Where did the story take place and how does it relate to the story?
---The correct answer is: setting
In evaluating an article, it is important for it to be generally unknown so you can grab
the reader's attention.
A critique must contain the following parts except for:
---The correct answer is: comparison with other relevant works
This part of the literary analysis gives the subtopics.
---The correct answer is: body
It is important to dwell on the author's life and his works in a literature analysis.
There are different interpretations of a single literature. There may be similarities in
some but there will always be differences.
This part of a literature review contains the general indications of the work.
---The correct answer is: introduction
What happens in the story that changed the course of the character/s?
---The correct answer is: conflict
In writing a critique, focus on the flaws of the text.

The part of a project proposal that gives the funding details.
---The correct answer is: budget
The cover sheet must be in ______ format.
---The correct answer is: APA
A part of the project detail that emphasizes what the project can contribute to a group
of people in the society.
---The correct answer is: Deliverables
An element of a good project proposal that details where to get the funds to bring the
project to fruition.
---The correct answer is: Resources
A part of the project proposal that identifies similar solutions.
---The correct answer is: motivation
This informs the recipient of what the project aims to achieve.
---The correct answer is: goals and objectives
The references of the research report is recommended to be in MLA format.
A part of the project detail that uses diagrams to illustrate what tools to use in the
implementation of the project.
---The correct answer is: Architecture and environment
This gives what the end product of the project is.
---The correct answer is: Deliverables
This part of the project details identifies the implementation challenges.
---The correct answer is: project details
Use any font you want in creating your resume as long as it is somewhat readable.
Skilled in written and oral communication.
---The correct answer is: Key skills
Finished a Bachelor's Degree in Accountancy (2011-2015)
I have volunteered for various non-government organizations, handling public relations
and advertising of events. (She is applying for PR specialist in a company)
---The correct answer is: Opening statement
The opening paragraph of your application letter must contain:
---The correct answer is: how you learned about the position or the company
Your resume must include your birthday and gender.
Prior research about the company you're applying for helps in composing your
application letter.
Factual errors in your resume are worse than typographical errors.
Which is the usual format followed in sending an application letter via email?
---The correct answer is: name, position
Can handle pressure.
---The correct answer is: Personal attributes
Long Quiz 4 (Reading and Writing Skills)

Critical reading is a way to identify new ways of thinking.
Often mistaken as a plagiarized passage.
A strategy in critical reading that requires the reader to put himself/herself on the
author's shoes.
---The correct answer is: Contextualizing
This involves the analysis of the author's use of signs in obtaining the meaning of the
text.
This element of text is identified for the reader to know how this was developed and
asserted throughout the text.
---The correct answer is: purpose
Therefore, I think it is important to learn to distinguish between light constructive
feelings of care, and intense romantic addiction, which can lead to unforeseen
consequences.
The death penalty is an unfair and rather ineffective means of punishment.
Feminism should be seen as a movement that has a role and value for the real world
that is extremely difficult to underestimate.
You will identify this through comparing and contrasting the text to other works.
---The correct answer is: What a text does
This uses various techniques such as allusion, quotation and referencing.
Reading like a writer can help you understand how the process of writing is a series of
making choices, and in doing so, can help you recognize important decisions you might
face and techniques you might want to use when working on your own writing.
This helps the reader control the level of detail of the document he/she is examining.
Video games are perhaps the most popular and widespread form of entertainment at
present.
One of the most important functions of the judicial system is to punish the criminals and
to protect the innocent.
Instead of killing time playing Angry Birds, one might want to use their gadget as a
learning tool—modern mobile devices are perfectly suited for this purpose.
In ____, the critical reader does not accept anything at face value, thus recognizing the
fact that everything must be thoroughly understood.
---The correct answer is: evaluating an argument
The following are the types of reading and discussion in critical reading except:
---The correct answer is: What a text will do
You will identify this through taking notes and paraphrasing the key points.
---The correct answer is: What a text says
Standardized tests are meant to set a high standard and promote objectivity.
For political correctness to achieve its goals, too many words have to be banned.
Critical reading may only consist of negative observations and analysis.
One of the main purposes of testing is to set a standard: a performance baseline of
progress for all parties involved in the educational process—students, teachers, and
school districts, and to hold them accountable for achieving it.
People in democratic countries vote for their candidates on presidential elections, freely
express themselves, practice any religion they want, and enjoy many other rights and
freedoms, all of which are guarded by numerous laws, bills, non-governmental
organizations, and so on.
This is used to establish connections between language, images, characters, topics,
themes and the like.
It is recommended to read looking only for facts and more information.
This type of reading aims to find a particular piece of information in a text.
---The correct answer is: scanning
Execution is actually a judicial murder.
Critical reading aims to find the faults and flaws in the text.
It is important to slowly read and savor the text you're reading in order to critically
analyze it.
It's deemed irrelevant to consider other points of view other than what the text presents.
Long Quiz 5 (Reading and Writing Skills)

Identify the part of the research report where the following passage falls:
The study, "A Content Analysis of The Catalyst’s News Stories From 1986 to 2010", seeks
to find out how The Catalyst, the official student publication of Polytechnic University of
the Philippines selected and treated the news articles they have published from 1986 to
2010.
The researchers wanted to classify the news issues which The Catalyst gave emphasis on
into categories: Political, Financial/Economic, Peace and Order, Social, Rebellion,
Religious, Sports/Entertainment, Miscellaneous and Politics within University. The
researchers also sorted The Catalyst’s news articles in terms of the following:
Scope/Origin, Chronology/Sequence, Structure and Content. Lastly, the researchers
intended to determine the treatment and the tone of the news articles.
The researchers used convenience sampling method. The researchers have content
analyzed 84 existing issues from the year 1986 up to 2010. The researchers categorized
586 news articles from the said issues into categories based on the criteria following the
three major variables in content analysis by Elena Pernia (2004).
Based on the observations and results of the content analysis, it was determined that
The Catalyst’s style changed from the orthodox style in 1986 to different forms of layout
in the later years. Moreover, The Catalyst transitioned from using blue ink to mainly
using black ink and later on red ink.
Moreover, the scope of The Catalyst’s news was mostly local. The student publication
usually covered events within the university. Most of the student publication’s news
stories were straight news. The news articles were mostly treated as neutral, meaning
the news were written merely as statement of events in the simplest and most objective
way. The researchers concluded that The Catalyst has performed its duty as the official
student publication of PUP through disseminating information that would be of concern
to the students and the university.
---The correct answer is:
Abstract
The researchers used the three major variables by Pernia (2004) as basic instrument in
analyzing the news stories of The Catalyst. With each category is a set of keywords to
make the coding easier for the coders. The coders would determine the category an
article belongs to through the keywords provided.
The researchers analyzed all the news stories of each issue of The Catalyst starting from
1986 up to 2010, with the exception of the special issues released and the issues without
dates available in the university archives. There were no recorded issues of The Catalyst
in the year 1989 and 1990 due to problems within the publication while there were no
issues for the year 1999 at the archives during the time of the coding. News roundups
and news bits in every issue are also not included in this particular study but would
focus on the stories in the news section and sports section.
---The correct answer is: Limitations
Due to lack of job opportunities here in the Philippines, there are Filipinos who were
willing to work abroad to earn higher salary compared to the Philippines’. These people
are called OFWs or Overseas Filipino Workers. They are ready to sacrifice their lives here
in the Philippines for the sake of earning more money. Because of this, they were
referred to as “New Heroes”.
Our government is not that vocal about the progress of the country’s economy through
the help of OFWs yet they encourage more Filipinos to accept different jobs abroad.
The OFWs’ children are the ones highly by their parent’s departure. They have to suffer
the loneliness of not having their parent/s with them.
Although they have guardians to look after them and to care for them, nothing can
compare to a parent’s love and affection.
There are laws and agencies that protect and support OFWs but the child would not be
ensured of their parent’s safety. They would be surely anxious of the condition of their
parents because of the distance that makes the young ones worry about them.
---The correct answer is: Results
In line with this, the scope of the publication’s news articles is within the immediate
proximity which is the university and its branches. Therefore, these findings reflect that
The Catalyst does its duty as the student publication to serve the student body, first and
foremost.
The ruling quantity of news classified into spot news depicted that the abundance of
news within the local proximity were given the utmost priority by the editorial board.
Events which occurred in PUP demanded immediate publication to easily spread the
information to the rest of the university.
---The correct answer is: Conclusion
Departure of Filipinos was beneficial to the country and to the families of OFWs, since
the dollar reserve that we can get from them saved us from economic turmoil. But let us
think about the children as well, they may experience great loneliness due to their
parent’s absence.
Communication is important, considering the distance between the parent and the child.
The OFWs should communicate with their children regularly so as not to create a
distance between them. It could also help the child if the parent is easily approachable.
Imagine if communicating devices did not exist. It would be a great suffering for both
the parents and the children since snail mail, the alternative communication, would take
a long time of process just to reach the receiver, unlike e-mail, in which the message
would be sent in just a matter of seconds.
If the parents truly care for the child, they would always make a way to extend their love
overseas to reach them through communication.
The children also need their guardians to plan “outings” and other activities that they
would all enjoy for them not to feel alone.
---The correct answer is: Recommendations
The History of Philippine Journalism
Journalism in the Philippines has gone through a number of both setbacks and boosts.
The history of Philippine journalism presented in this study is cited from “Journalism for
Filipinos” by Malinao (2003).
In the year 1637, the first Philippine Newsletter was published - the “Successos Felices”
(Fortunate Events) of Tomas Pinpin, the father of Filipino printing. Aside from Pinpin’s
one-shot fling at journalism, the “Hojas Volantes” (Flying sheets) or Spaniards’ notice to
the public, were widely distributed in the country for mass readership.
---The correct answer is: Review of Literature
Questions:
1. In the resume, where does the information number 6 fall under?
---The correct answer is: List of key skills
---The correct answer is: Opening Statement
4. In the resume, where does information number 4 fall under?
---The correct answer is: Personal attributes/career overview
5. In the resume, where does information number 2 fall under?
---The correct answer is: Contact details
Questions:
1. What question does the following passage in the sample book review answer:
"The language Tolkien uses (and he was a British professor of linguistics and philology),
the aforementioned epic scales of storyline, the incredibly diverse cultural background
behind the novel—its characters, plot, described events—this and many other factors
make reading the trilogy rather an intellectual than entertaining occupation."
---The correct answer is: Does the way a character speaks help you to understand how
that character thinks and feels? If so, how?
2. What question does the following passage in the sample book review answer:
"And the books are indeed full of awe-inspiring moments; here are just a few of them:
the first fight with the Nazguls; the battle with the ancient demon in desolated Moria
and Gandalf’s disappearance; the death of Boromir (in my opinion, one of the most
tragic moments in world literature of the 20th century); the resurrection of Gandalf the
White; the transformation of King Theoden; the siege of Helm’s Deep; the uprising of
the ents and Saruman’s exile; recruiting of the undead army by Aragorn; the battle for
Minas Tirith and the sortie to the Black Gate of Mordor; the defeat of the Witch-King of
Angmar; the annihilation of the Ring; Aragorn’s marriage with Arwen and honors to the
hobbits; finally, Frodo’s departure to the West.
---The correct answer is: What is the high point of the story? Why is this incident more
important than the others?
3. What element does the following passage discuss in the passage from the sample
book review:
"While working on the book, Tolkien invented at least two fully functional languages:
Elven and Dwarven; he interpreted the Scandinavian myths (“The Saga of the
Nibelungs“, in particular) and used them to create his own unique plot, world, and
characters. The number of cultural and literary references used in “The Lord of the
Rings” is enormous."
---The correct answer is: Dialogue
book review:
"The saga tells a story unfolding around The One Ring, created and lost by Sauron—an
ancient demigod of the world of Middle Earth, and the main antagonist of the saga."
---The correct answer is: Plot
book review:
"It is almost impossible to say more about the plot, because at the end of the first book,
it branches into multiple storylines."
---The correct answer is: Plot
The research is a quantitative research dealing with the computed numerical figures
from analyzing each news story. Through this, the researchers analyzed each criterion
that will determine the changes made in The Catalyst’s news stories over the years in
terms of physical changes, as well as in content.
---The correct answer is: Limitations
The researchers have coded a total of 586 news stories from The Catalyst’s issues from
the year 1986 to 2010. The table above shows that focus-wise, The Catalyst presented a
substantial amount of news articles with miscellaneous issues taking up 26.97% of the
total number of articles. As provided in the definition of news by Bangkok Post, there
are miscellaneous stories which continually appear in the news section. In this study,
these news articles are common stories within PUP which did not fall to any of the other
categories.
---The correct answer is: Results
OFW parents could influence their children in either good or bad way. Children who
have parents as overseas workers would be considered well-off in life because of the
money, not to mention, dollars sent to them. But OFWs are willing to endure all the
pains and sufferings of having their families away from them because in the end, they
are recognized by the government and by every Filipino.
Because of this, former President Corazon Aquino acknowledged their sacrifices, efforts
and contributions by referring to them as the modern heroes in the speech she gave last
1988 to a group of domestic helpers in Hong Kong.
In honor of the OFWs who kept our country’s economy afloat as well as their families’
lives, the Philippines celebrates December as the “Month of Overseas Filipino Workers”,
to pay tribute to them.
---The correct answer is: Introduction
Questions:
1. What type of job application letter is given?
---The correct answer is: hardcopy
2. What position is the person applying for?
---The correct answer is: programmer
3. In what paragraph number did the applicant summarize his experiences?
---The correct answer is: 3
4. In what paragraph number did the applicant describe his/her skills?
---The correct answer is: 2
5. What is the name of the applicant?
---The correct answer is: John Donaldson
An example of quantitative research is
Select one:
a. observing the life habits of a robin
b. immersing in the research setting to get first-hand experience
c. observing the mixture of two colors
d. interviewing the entrepreneur at a local pizza parlor
What step can one take before starting a research?
Select one:
a. Get an approval from the research adviser.
b. Find an interesting social issue to address.
c. Find a research partner or group.
d. Be familiar with the needed software for the data analysis.
Which of the following is not part of the library research?
Select one:
a. Note down the information of the sources used.
b. Study the journals, theses and books related to the topic.
c. Decide the research design appropriate for the topic.
d. View multi-media sources such as videos, films related to the topic.
Questions:
1. What is the main goal/objective of the project proposal?
---The correct answer is: To identify and describe the monitoring of three common
precursors and evaluate how accurate each monitoring is in predicting earthquakes.
2. What part of the project proposal does the following sentence fall under:
"Given that I can obtain all my sources for the literature review from the library, there is
no appreciable cost associated with performing this literature review. The only costs,
which will be minor, are for copying articles, printing the review, and spiral binding the
review. I estimate that I can do these tasks for under $10."
---The correct answer is: Budget
"I am a senior in the Geological Engineering Department at the University of Wisconsin
at Madison. In my undergraduate courses I have taken rock mechanics, soil mechanics,
geophysics, and stratigraphy, all of which have included the principles of seismology
and stress-strain relationships."
---The correct answer is: Preparation
"Because I already possess several books and articles on earthquake prediction, most of
my time will be spent sifting through the information, finding the key results, and
presenting those results to the audience."
---The correct answer is: Resources
"A secondary audience for the review would be non-technical readers who either live in
earthquake-prone areas or are affected financially when earthquakes occur."
---The correct answer is: Significance
Fourth Quarter Exam (Reading and Writing Skills)

Match the term to its description.
Identifying the main ideas and supporting details to support the claim. - [Outlining and
Summarizing]
Acknowledging the differences between personal existing values and attitude and the
author's perspective. [Contextualizing]
Done to get an initial understanding of the text. [Previewing]
Consult related readings in order to learn how to approach the same topic in different
ways. [Compare and Contrast]
An idea, an opinion, a judgment or a point of view that the writer wants you to accept.
[Claim]
This consists of reasons and evidence that will prove to the readers that the conclusion
presented is worth accepting. [Support]
Newer knowledge is obtained through this way of learning as this is the key to
understanding the author's point of view. [Asking questions]
Weighing in on the consistency of claims and support. [Evaluation]
The reader must be able to track the pattern in the author's thoughts and presentation
of his/her own beliefs. [Reflecting on challenges to beliefs and values]
_______ the material enables the reader to grasp the organization and the content of the
text in the shortest possible time. [Skimming]
Assertions that are based on facts and has to be proven by reliable proofs. [Opinion]
An assertion that relies on personal choice. [Preference]
Claims made to rebut a previous claim. [Counterclaim]
The part of a literary review that emphasizes the main point of the review. [Conclusion]
The part of a research report that states the significance of the research. [Introduction]
This includes the instrument used in the research. [Methods]
A part of the project proposal that states what the project will produce. [Deliverables]
The part of the project proposal that states what makes the project unique.
[Implementation Issues and Challenges]
This part of the project proposal explains what the project wants to achieve. [Project
Summary]
This part of the project proposal explains the problem and what makes it interesting.
[Motivation]
In which element does the following questions fall?
Is the author's claim objective? [Topic and Position]
From what perspective did the author write the text? [Style]
Is the information arranged according to the content, by the author's argument or by
the needs of the audience? [Organization]
Which of the references elicits further discussion? [Research/Sources]
Where is the text found? [Audience]
Does the text mean to persuade? [Purpose/Context]
Are the sources credible? [Proof/Evidence]
Which of the evidence carries the more weight? [Proof/Evidence]
How is the information arranged in the text? [Organization]
What can you infer from the writer's choice of words? [Style]
Questions:
1. Which of the following is the overall claim of the given essay?
---The correct answer is: Despite all the joy that video games can bring to children and
teenagers, ...
2. Which of the following information does not support the claim?
---The correct answer is: Video games use their characters in the games ...
3. What is the overall conclusion of the essay?
---The correct answer is: Video games is not suitable for children and teenagers
4. Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the essay?
---The correct answer is: Video games help players improve social skills and reflexes
5. Which of the following is correct according to the essay?
---The correct answer is: Video games offer simplified and conditional models of
environments and people.
Questions:
---The correct answer is: Death penalty is an unfair and rather ineffective ...
---The correct answer is: Death penalty can be overturned.
---The correct answer is: Death penalty can hardly be called ...
---The correct answer is: These has been numerous evidence ...
5. What is the stand of the author in the imposing of death penalty?
---The correct answer is: He/she is against it.
Questions:
---The correct answer is: Romeo and Juliet's love story is dysfunctional.
---The correct answer is: Romeo has immediately set his eyes on Juliet...
---The correct answer is: It is important to learn to distinguish love from ...
---The correct answer is: Romeo and Juliet's love progressed swiftly and carefully ...
---The correct answer is: William Shakespeare did not mean for his characters to be
idyllic.
Questions:
---The correct answer is: Many arguments in favor of the usage ...
---The correct answer is: Tests help see the bias of teachers ...
---The correct answer is: Improvements must be made in the distribution ...
---The correct answer is: Most of the time, standardized tests encourage ...
5. What is the stand of the author in this argument?
---The correct answer is: He/she weighs in on both advantages and disadvantages ...
Match the term to its description.
Identifying the main ideas and supporting details to support the claim. - [Outlining and
Summarizing]
Acknowledging the differences between personal existing values and attitude and the
author's perspective. [Contextualizing]
Done to get an initial understanding of the text. [Previewing]
Consult related readings in order to learn how to approach the same topic in different
ways. [Compare and Contrast]
An idea, an opinion, a judgment or a point of view that the writer wants you to accept.
[Claim]
This consists of reasons and evidence that will prove to the readers that the conclusion
presented is worth accepting. [Support]
Newer knowledge is obtained through this way of learning as this is the key to
understanding the author's point of view. [Asking questions]
Weighing in on the consistency of claims and support. [Evaluation]
The reader must be able to track the pattern in the author's thoughts and presentation
of his/her own beliefs. [Reflecting on challenges to beliefs and values]
_______ the material enables the reader to grasp the organization and the content of the
text in the shortest possible time. [Skimming]
Assertions that are based on facts and has to be proven by reliable proofs. [Opinion]
An assertion that relies on personal choice. [Preference]
Claims made to rebut a previous claim. [Counterclaim]
The part of a literary review that emphasizes the main point of the review. [Conclusion]
The part of a research report that states the significance of the research. [Introduction]
This includes the instrument used in the research. [Methods]
A part of the project proposal that states what the project will produce. [Deliverables]
The part of the project proposal that states what makes the project unique.
[Implementation Issues and Challenges]
This part of the project proposal explains what the project wants to achieve. [Project
Summary]
This part of the project proposal explains the problem and what makes it interesting.
[Motivation]
In which element does the following questions fall?
Is the author's claim objective? [Topic and Position]
From what perspective did the author write the text? [Style]
Is the information arranged according to the content, by the author's argument or by
the needs of the audience? [Organization]
Which of the references elicits further discussion? [Research/Sources]
Where is the text found? [Audience]
Does the text mean to persuade? [Purpose/Context]
Are the sources credible? [Proof/Evidence]
Which of the evidence carries the more weight? [Proof/Evidence]
How is the information arranged in the text? [Organization]
What can you infer from the writer's choice of words? [Style]
Questions:
---The correct answer is: Despite all the joy that video games can bring to children and
teenagers, ...
---The correct answer is: Video games use their characters in the games ...
---The correct answer is: Video games is not suitable for children and teenagers
---The correct answer is: Video games help players improve social skills and reflexes
---The correct answer is: Video games offer simplified and conditional models of
environments and people.
Questions:
---The correct answer is: Death penalty is an unfair and rather ineffective ...
---The correct answer is: Death penalty can be overturned.
---The correct answer is: Death penalty can hardly be called ...
---The correct answer is: These has been numerous evidence ...
5. What is the stand of the author in the imposing of death penalty?
---The correct answer is: He/she is against it.
Questions:
---The correct answer is: Romeo and Juliet's love story is dysfunctional.
---The correct answer is: Romeo has immediately set his eyes on Juliet...
---The correct answer is: It is important to learn to distinguish love from ...
---The correct answer is: Romeo and Juliet's love progressed swiftly and carefully ...
---The correct answer is: William Shakespeare did not mean for his characters to be
idyllic.
Questions:
---The correct answer is: Many arguments in favor of the usage ...
---The correct answer is: Tests help see the bias of teachers ...
---The correct answer is: Improvements must be made in the distribution ...
---The correct answer is: Most of the time, standardized tests encourage ...
5. What is the stand of the author in this argument?
---The correct answer is: He/she weighs in on both advantages and disadvantages ..
SHORT QUIZ 3. READING AND WRITING.....

---- Refer to the given paragraph below, entitled “Picturing Don Quixote”:
Seventeenth-century images emphasized the title character’s pompous folly as well as
the often rough-and-tumble action of many episodes. The windmill scene, in which Don
Quixote mistakes the technology that grinds the grain produced in the semi-arid
Manchegan landscape for giants, became immediately iconic. The first representation of
the scene appears in a Frankfurt edition of 1648, in which the windmill sail stabs Don
Quixote.
What type of description is used in the paragraph?
The correct answer is: Subjective description
---The term that refers to the consequences or events caused by the climax.
The correct answer is: Falling action
---What type of figure of speech is used in the following sentence?
The lady in the water screamed like a banshee
----Read the following narrative essay:
In blistering Nebraska, it was America’s Independence Day. As usual on every
Independence Day since I was five years old, George and Terry, my two best friends, and
I, went on a manly picnic. I diligently carried out my household chores, packed my picnic
bag and off I went to collect my friends by way of bicycle. It is going to be an awesome
day, I thought to myself as I sped down my neighborhood street on my beat-up blue
Schwinn.
THE writer presented what point of view?
The correct answer is: First person
---Read the following excerpt from the short story, Dead Stars by Paz Marquez Benitez:
Alfredo remembered that period with a wonder not unmixed with shame. That was less
than four years ago. He could not understand those months of a great hunger that was
not of the body nor yet of the mind, a craving that had seized on him one quiet night
when the moon was abroad and under the dappled shadow of the trees in the plaza,
man wooed maid. Was he being cheated by life? Love--he seemed to have missed it. Or
was the love that others told about a mere fabrication of perfervid imagination, an
exaggeration of the commonplace, a glorification of insipid monotonies such as made
up his love life? Was love a combination of circumstances, or sheer native capacity of
soul? In those days love was, for him, still the eternal puzzle; for love, as he knew it, was
a stranger to love as he divined it might be.
What narrative device was used in the paragraph?
The correct answer is: Flashback
--- Read the following example of a definition paragraph:
The term protein quality refers to the ratio of essential amino acids (eaa) in a protein in
comparison with the ratio required by the body. A high quality protein contains eaa in a
ratio that matches human requirements. A protein which is lacking or low in one or
more eaa is termed a low quality protein. The eaa which is in the shortest supply is
called the ‘limiting’ amino acid. In general, animal proteins tend to be high quality while
vegetable proteins tend to be low quality. The exception is soy protein which is quite
high quality.
What is the strategy used in the development of the paragraph?
----Refer to the given paragraph below on The Great Wall of China:
The Great Wall, or Chang Cheng in Chinese, is massive. It begins in the east at the
Yellow Sea, travels near China’s capital, Beijing, and continues west through numerous
provinces. For thousands of miles, it winds like a snake through China’s varied terrain.
Smaller walls extend from the main wall. According to conservative estimates, the Great
Wall’s length is approximately 2,400 miles, its thickness ranges from 15-30 feet wide,
and it reaches in height to about 25 feet.
What type of description is used in the paragraph?
The correct answer is: Objective description
-----Read the following example of a definition paragraph:
Soren Kierkegaard, another famous existentialist, comprehends absurd as a synonym to
paradox. He defines it as a matter of faith and the only phenomena that allows a person
to believe in self. According to his philosophy, a human being is a synthesis of
opposites: eternal and temporary, finite and infinite, freedom and obligation. Due to the
synthesis of these opposites in an individual’s consciousness, one constantly resides in
fear and despair (Liam 194). And the more self-consciousness one possesses, the deeper
these feelings are. The only way for salvation is faith in God and this is where absurd
comes in. Kierkegaard refers to the biblical myth about Abraham and his son Isaac.
According to this legend, God required Abraham to sacrifice his son to Him. In this case,
Abraham’s faith led him to commit a crime; it transformed a murder into an act of
charity and simultaneously, where faith had returned Isaac to his father alive. Faith
cannot be logically argued, but it works and this is absurd. Individuals are free and this
freedom lets them find their own way to God.
(Source: https://academichelp.net/…/a…/essays/definition/absurd.html…)
What is the strategy used in the development of the paragraph?
The correct answer is: Extensive definition
-----Given the following sentence from the story, Dead Stars:
A round orange moon, "huge as a winnowing basket," rose lazily into a clear sky,
whitening the iron roofs and dimming the lanterns at the windows.
What is the figure of speech used for the round orange moon?
-----The latin word from which the word "narration" comes
The correct answer is: narrare
Which of the following questions is not beneficial in exploring your topic?

Answer: How does the issue relate to other public issues
SHORT QUIZ 5. READING AND WRITING..
--Which of the following statements is not true according to the essay?
The correct answer is: Volunteering is simply "working for free"
--One advantage of volunteering is meeting new people. Which of the following is not
one of the benefits it could yield?
The correct answer is: have companions for future volunteer work
--Which of the following is not said to be a health benefit of volunteering?
The correct answer is: heals the body and mind of any mental and psychological
problems
--More and more employers are looking into volunteering experiences than personal
skills.
--What is the author's conclusion?
The correct answer is: a summary of all the points that he/she presented in the essay.
--Read the excerpt of a persuasive essay below and answer the following given
questions.
So, what makes Southeast Asia a tourism option you should consider?
(1) The first reason is the prices all across the region: they are ridiculously low. (2) One of
the first problems a backpacker needs to solve after arriving to a new country is
accommodation. (3) In Southeast Asia—almost everywhere—accommodation is so
cheap that for the money a tourist would spend on a hostel in Europe for one week, in
this region, he or she could live one month! (4) See for yourself: if you go to Cambodia
or Laos, a place in a dorm room would cost you somewhere between $2-5 per day. (5) A
night in a Vietnamese hostel will cost you $8-10. Thailand is probably the most
expensive in the list, with prices between $6-13. (6) If you are not fond of living with a
bunch of unfamiliar people, get ready to pay only $15-20 for a private room. (7) Of
course, these prices depend on cities—larger cities and popular tourist destinations will
naturally be more expensive, but generally, throughout the entire Southeast Asia, you
can find extremely cheap accommodation easily, especially considering there is no need
to book a hostel in advance: basically, you show up and rent a room/bed in the spot
(NomadicMatt). (8) So, if you are a tourist with a limited budget, worrying about a place
to stay for a couple of weeks, Southeast Asia is your choice: living here is more than
affordable.
(9) By the way, the same refers to food. (10) Almost everywhere around Southeast Asia
you will be able to find quality street food for low prices. (11) The price for a pack of
chewing gum in the United States equals a huge portion of filling, exotic food in
Vietnam.
(12) As well as the “mainland” Asia, the region possesses ancient history and deep
culture closely interconnected with Buddhism. (13) The ruins of Angkor Wat, Javans,
Champa, pagodas of Bagan, millenary temples and shrines—all this and much more
awaits a tourist discovering this part of Asia. (14) Relics of the past are so numerous that
even if you spend a year in the region, you will probably not be able to see all of them.
(15) Along with the ancient times, Southeast Asia has gone through intense political and
military turmoils during the recent century. (16) The war in Vietnam, the terror of the
Khmer Rouge, the destruction of Laos, Pacific navy battles, Japanese invasions—this is
just a tiny part of what was going on here not so long ago. (17) Knowing about the
hardships Southeast Asia had gone through, and witnessing its rapid development now,
watching incredible contrasts intertwine and combine, it is difficult to not fall in love
with this place. (18) Besides, if you are seeking for cultural diversity, Southeast Asia has it
all: with such a diversity of languages, customs, ethnicities, religious beliefs, lifestyles,
and fashions concentrated on such a relatively small piece of land, your immersion in
the atmosphere of this place will be instant, deep, and impressive (Bootsnall.com).
(19) Yet another good argument for a budget tourist visiting Southeast Asia is the
convenience and affordability of transportation in the region. (20) Naturally, when you
arrive to a new country, you do not want to spend your whole time in one city—you
want to see all of what this country can offer, and this often implies using public
transport, such as trains or buses. (21) Well, booking transportation in Southeast Asia is
easier and cheaper than in many other regions of the world; every big city is flooded
with travel agencies offering their services for almost no cost, and even getting to some
distant islands is not a problem (Goatsontheroad.com). (22) A bus is usually the
cheapest way to travel around the region: a 5-6 hours ride by a bus will cost you only
$5-8. (23) Overnight buses are somewhat more costly —$10-15 dollars, depending on
distance. (24) As for the transportation within big cities, there is only good news for a
poor tourist. (25) For example, a bust around Bangkok costs only 10 cents, and the
subway, $1. (26) The local train system of Singapore starts its pricing from $1 as well.
(27) Taxis and minibuses are usually more expensive, but it is possible to bargain with
the drivers, so you can get a price up to two times lower than the one initially suggested
by a cab owner. (Nomadicmatt.com). (28) All of which means, in a nutshell, that you will
be able to see everything you want, get everywhere, and spend a reasonable amount of
money.
(29) Southeast Asia is a unique region with ancient history, rich culture, incredible food,
and unique experiences a traveler can get from visiting it. (30) With incredibly low
accommodation prices, affordable food, and convenient transportation, this part of Asia
is a number one choice for a budget tourist. (31) Therefore, when planning your next
trip, you should definitely consider going there.
QUESTIONS:
Give the number of the sentence that conveys what is asked. Only one answer is
required per question.
Second reason presented by author on why Southeast Asia is a viable tourism option:
Answer
9 =10
Correct
An evidence of the second reason presented by the author. Answer
11
Correct
A sentence which gives an evidence of the affordability of transportation in Southeast
Asia. Answer
21 =22 =24 =25 =26
Correct
The sentence concluding the first reason presented by the author. Answer
8
Correct
The sentence concluding the paragraph on the diverse culture of Southeast Asia. Answer
17 =18
Correct
The leaves of the trees waved in the wind
.The correct answer is: Personification
F. Identify the topic sentence.

(A) The expansion of the world population is the most important problem that should
be solved in order not to confront in the near future big social problems such as bad
economic circumstances and lack of resources, food and housing. (B) Birth control,
although may lead to religious, cultural and moral objections, is the fastest way to
reduce the population growth rate. (C) Therefore, governments should begin programs
of birth control even in a compulsory manner due to the fact that group survival is more
important than individual freedom.
RESEARCH 111
RSCH
The coordinator made an announcement, “Only the first 100 applicants will be interviewed today.
The others would have to
come back tomorrow.”
Interview of applicants will be conducted today and tomorrow.
In reading, we should consider not only what we can directly get from the text but also what we can
read between the lines. In order to fully understand and appreciate a thought, a sentence, a passage,
and a text, we need to read more than the literal
meaning (Yu & Plata, 2006).
We should use given information in inferring ideas
Recommendations should aim to solve or help solve problems discovered in the investigation.
False
The best research design is the qualitative research design.
False
Mateo almost wished that he hadn’t listened to the radio. He went to the closet and grabbed his
umbrella. He would feel silly
carrying it to the bus stop on such a sunny morning.
Mateo heard a weather forecast; it would rain in the afternoon.
Godina (2004) explored the contradictory literacy practices of 10 high school students of Mexican
background from the rural
Midwest. Literacy is investigated through English and Spanish in a sociocultural context. Findings
reveal how Mexicanbackground students demonstrate different literacy practices in their homes and
communities than those acknowledged at school.
Results indicate that the lost opportunities for effective literacy learning at school ignored the
realistic responsibilities and potential of the Mexicanbackground students.
Ethnographic Research
Harmon (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) collected data from 8 nurses who were employed between 1951 and
1965 in a Virginia state
hospital. These nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of psychiatric nursing
experience. The researcher
wanted to describe the experiences of these nurses who practiced in a state mental hospital before
and during the introduction of
antipsychotic medications. They expressed resignation and frustration while trying to provide care
despite crowded wards and
inadequate personnel and supplies. The nurses indicated that they focused on the patient’s body
instead of on the patient’s mind.
The camaraderie they experienced with other nurses helped them continue in their positions, despite
what they felt to be a
“thankless job.”
8 nurses
Daly (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) studied the lived experiences of mothers of suicidal adolescents. She
contended that, unfortunately,
the mother’s experience is often the hidden dimension in the family. Unstructured interviews were
conducted with 6 mothers living
with suicidal adolescents. Six themes were identified: failure as a good mother, the ultimate rejection,
feeling alone in the struggle,
helplessness and powerlessness in the struggle, cautious parenting, and keeping an emotional
distance.
Phenomenological Research
Interview Segment
Q: What are your views on homelessness?
A: Well, I think it’s a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don’t
know though what we can do
about it. I want to do something but I don’t know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem
if you go to town. They are
always there asking for money. You don’t know though if they really need it or if they are in fact
doing quite well from begging. But
if you have any caring qualities you can’t ignore requests for help, when you have so much for
yourself. They say a lot of people
choose to live on the streets – well I don’t believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities
to say – it lets them off the
hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about
homelessness. I feel that something
should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the
government to do something.
It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don’t know what to do.
Source: Grbich (2013)
Being homeless is a choice and individual decision.
True
Interview Segment
doing quite well from begging. But
if you have any caring qualities you can’t ignore requests for help, when you have so much for
yourself. They say a lot of people
choose to live on the streets – well I don’t believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities
to say – it lets them off the
hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about
homelessness. I feel that something
should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the
government to do something.
It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don’t know what to do.
Homelessness is a perennial global problem
True
1965 in a Virginia state
hospital. These nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of psychiatric nursing
experience. The researcher
wanted to describe the experiences of these nurses who practiced in a state mental hospital before
and during the introduction
of antipsychotic medications. They expressed resignation and frustration while trying to provide care
despite crowded wards and
inadequate personnel and supplies. The nurses indicated that they focused on the patient’s body
instead of on the patient’s
mind. The camaraderie they experienced with other nurses helped them continue in their positions,
despite what they felt to be a
“thankless job.”
Narrative Research
Williams and Irurita (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) studied the personal control and emotional comfort of
hospitalized patients.
Interviews were conducted with 40 patients, and 75 hours of field observations were conducted. The
basic psychological
process identified by the researchers was labeled “optimizing personal control to facilitate emotional
comfort.” Personal control
referred to the ability of patients to influence their environment; emotional comfort was defined as a
state of relaxation that
affected the physical status of the patient. Personal control was found to be a central feature of
emotional comfort.
Grounded Theory Research
background from the rural
Midwest. Literacy is investigated through English and Spanish in a sociocultural context. Findings
reveal how Mexicanbackground
students demonstrate different literacy practices in their homes and communities than those
acknowledged at
school. Results indicate that the lost opportunities for effective literacy learning at school ignored the
realistic responsibilities and
potential of the Mexicanbackground students
high school students of Mexican background from the rural Midwest
Interview Segment
doing quite well from begging.
But if you have any caring qualities you can’t ignore requests for help, when you have so much for
yourself. They say a lot of
people choose to live on the streets – well I don’t believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the
authorities to say – it lets them
off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about
homelessness. I feel that
something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has
come for the government to
do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don’t know what to do.
The homeless are also the same beggars asking for money on the street.
True
hospitalized patients.
Interviews were conducted with 40 patients, and 75 hours of field observations were conducted. The
basic psychological
process identified by the researchers was labeled “optimizing personal control to facilitate emotional
comfort.” Personal control
referred to the ability of patients to influence their environment; emotional comfort was defined as a
state of relaxation that
affected the physical status of the patient. Personal control was found to be a central feature of
emotional comfort.
hospitalized patients
Results rely heavily on words, and often quotations from those studied are included in the document.
True
Recommendations should aim for the ideals but they must be feasible, practical, and attainable even
for impossible.
False
Bill and Jessica were almost done taking turns choosing the players for their teams. It was Jessica’s
turn to choose, and only
Kurt was left. Jessica said, “Kurt.”
Jessica was pleased to have Kurt on her team.
You just opened a bag of potato chips and poured some juice in a glass when the phone rang. You
went out of the kitchen to
answer it. When you returned after a couple of minutes, you found the split juice and pieces of chips
on the floor. Your little
sister was tearyeyed and said, “I’m sorry. It was an accident.”
Your sister decided to get her own snacks
Not too much detail is needed in the summary of findings – simple answer the research questions,
and draw the conclusion.
True
The list of research participants
Word Tables and Lists
Characteristics of the people being studied
It is highly recommended through texts and marking them up with different colored highlighter
pens.
Pawing
Organizational chart of the institution being studied
Graphics
Spradley (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) recorded conversations among tramps at informal gatherings,
meals, card games, and
bull sessions. As the men talked to each other about their experiences, there were many references
to making a flop.
Spradley combed through his recorded material and notes looking for verbatim statements made by
informants about his
topic. On analyzing the statements, he found that most of the statements could fit into subcategories
such as kinds of flops,
ways to make flops, ways to make your own flop, kinds of people who bother you when you flop,
ways to make a bed, and
kinds of beds. Spradley then returned to his informants and sought additional information from
them on each of the
subcategories.
indigenous categories
He stole the recipe from the chef.
Plagiarism
Milken, Michael, et al. "On Global Warming and Financial Imbalances." New Perspectives Quarterly,
vol. 23, no. 4, 2006, p. 63.
CMS
Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Research survey
Dynamic
An Inconvenient Truth. Directed by Davis Guggenheim, performances by Al Gore and Billy West,
Paramount, 2006.
MLA
She hastily distorted the statistical computation of the data to finish her paper on time.
Falsification
The researcher invented the results of the study.
Fabrication
Theatrical play
Dynamic
Food blog
Syndicated
The research assistant wrote an anonymous name in the list.
Fabrication
The World Famous Hot Dog Site. (1999, July 7). Retrieved January 5, 2008, from
APA
“What is your message to people who are still fighting cancer until now?”
5
“Good morning. I’m a health officer in our barangay and I also belong to the medical research team
of our community.”
1
Do you find her comments on your website offensive?
Leading
How people use their bodies and voices to communicate different emotions; what individuals’
behaviors indicate about their
feelings toward one another, their social rank, or their profession.
Physical behavior and gestures
Gender, age, ethnicity, and profession of speakers; dynamics of interaction
Verbal behavior and interactions
A researcher is interested in the examples or illustrations several authors have used to prove a point.
How can he pull them all
together and use them in his own paper in a list?
Include a citation after each separate example to indicate where you found them.
A blogger made a photo collage for his latest blog. He picked photos from his Facebook friends
without asking for their consent.
What research misconduct did he commit?
Plagiarism
Which of the following statements describes the process of reviewing the literature in a qualitative
study?
It is limited to a brief preliminary search so as to avoid bias from the researcher.
In MLA citation style, when documenting one author in reference in a text, which is correct?
This point has been argued before (Frye 197).
Which of the following statements is correct?
The reference list is doublespaced with hanging indents.
Which of the following is not an example of dynamic source?
paintings
Arrange the correct order of the guidelines for a coherent review of related literature:
1. Avoid misinterpretation or distortion of the writer’s original meaning by direct quotation.
2. Analyze their respective content, facts, findings, methods, concepts and implications. Cite properly
all relevant literature into a
meaningful whole.
3. Synthesize into holistic body of content or in one relevant discussion.
4. Classify and identify the appropriate categories, relationship, similarities, of both local and
international studies.
4, 2,1,3
Which of the following is an example of static type of source?
Html coded web sites
Which of the following is the most essential in conducting the review of related literature?
Examine all potential literature.
When doing your background reading for your literature review it is important to
All of the choices
Ellis, Rod. Understanding Second Language Acquisition. New York: Oxford University, 1986. Print.
MLA
What type of source is the newspaper clipping?
Syndicated
What does CMS citation style mean?
Chicago Manual Style
Most of the searches for related literature are conducted using:
Key word searches
What comes first before planning the structure of literature review?
Outlining the aim of the research
Which of the following is the best advice in using internet search engines in qualitative research?
Web addresses ending in ac.uk or .edu are generally bona fide academic sources
What is the APA citation style of the information of the source presented?
Personal author: McCullough, David G.
Title: John Adams
Publication info: New York : Simon & Schuster, c2001.
Bibliography note: Includes bibliographical references (p. 703726) and index
Cullough, D. (2001). John Adams, 703726. New York : Simon & Schuster
Which of the following is the best way to maximize the process of reviewing of the related literature?
Reviewing the researcher’s notes made on editorial and overview papers and chapters
Which of the following is not an error that will result to plagiarism?
Paraphrasing other people’s information and citing the source of that information
In 1904, Matisse came under the influence of Signac's use of separated colors in his paintings. This
was called "divisionism." As
Spurling says, "Divisionism provided logical grounds for separating the ultimate goal of painting
order, harmony, emotional
stability achieved through rhythmic compositions of form and color from its traditional dependence
on the subject. This was an
important idea for Matisse.
No year of publication beside the cited names
Which of the following is the best way to avoid plagiarism?
Make sure that the source of every idea is very clearly identified and cited.
What information is required for the APA intext citation?
Title: John Adams
Bibliography note: Includes bibliographical references (p. 703726) and index.
McCullough, 2001
Which of the following is true in MLA citation of block quotes?
All of the choices
The literature review must be:
Required reading for the program of the study
What does the researcher engage in reading the literature?
An evaluation of the literature
What is the purpose of the search for literature in research?
The researcher develops an awareness of all the related literature.
Which characteristic is the first consideration in surveying related literature and studies?
The surveyed materials must be as recent as possible.
In APA citation style, which of the following is TRUE about quotations?
They should be used only when absolutely necessary.
Why does a researcher need to cite his/her sources?
To show readers the materials where the researcher base his/her analysis, narrative or conclusion.
Which of the following is the best way to protect yourself against plagiarism?
All of the choices
Describe your relationship with your colleagues.
Open
Where people enter and exit; how long they stay; who they are (ethnicity, age, gender); whether they
are alone or
accompanied; number of people
Human traffic
Would you like to continue that kind of relationship?
Mapping
“Thank you for finding time to be in this interview. Your story is very inspiring.”
6
“One area of this research is to record particular challenges that cancer patients face after
chemotherapy. Could you tell me
your experience?”
4
What do you think about the two presidential candidates?
Open
What individuals’ preferences concerning personal space suggest about their relationships
Personal space
“How old were you when you discovered your disease?”
3
Do you feel great when people admire your work?
Leading
“How does your family view your situation?”
4
Pollan, Michael. 2006. The Omnivore’s Dilemma: A Natural History of Four Meals. New York: Penguin.
APA
Research journal
Syndicated
Weinstein, Joshua I. "The Market in Plato’sRepublic." Classical Philology 104 (2009): 439–58.
CMS
Braveheart (starred and produced by Mel Gibson)
Static
The bibliography is incomplete.
Fabrication
The researcher manipulated the results of the study.
Falsification
Google. “Google Privacy Policy.” Last modified March 11,
2009. http://www.google.com/intl/en/privacypolicy.html.
MLA
Official website
Static
A director didn’t cite the name of the playwright he used in the contest.
Plagiarism
Spolarium by Juan Luna
Static
Reference list allows readers to locate and use the sources and copy the ones cited.
False
References can be the same as bibliography.
False
The club president tendered his resignation and said, “While I may no longer lead this organization, I
will continue to support its endeavors and activities.”
He will still participate in the activities of the organization.
James Springer and his identical twin James Lewis were separated at birth. They were raised in
different homes. They did not
meet again until they were 39. When they met, they found out the following: Springer’s first wife was
named Linda and his second
wife, Betty. Lewis has also had a wife named Betty and one named Linda. Each had a son named
James Allen. Each had owned a
dog named Toy. Their favorite subject in high school had been math. They had both studied law
enforcement after high school.
They had the same hobbies and the same favorite vacation place. They even liked the same brand of
cookies. (adapted from
http://www.gedonlineclass.net)
What conclusion can you draw about twins based on this article?
Identical twins have a lot in common
Conclusions should refer only to the population, area, or subject of the study.
True
“English has been dubbed as the “language of the world”. Over a billion people in the world have
considered English as their second
language. With over 2,500 OFW’s leaving the country everyday to different parts of the globe,
Filipinos are expected to arm
themselves with English to communicate with the world.”(Excerpt from “Nursing the Carabao
English”,in Yu& Plata, 2006)
Communicating in English is an important tool for Filipinos who want to work abroad.
The research report need not to be substantially different from drafts, except where participants have
indicated that change is
necessary.
True
The readers must be informed why this research counts and why is it important.
True
different homes. They did not
meet again until they were 39. When they met, they found out the following: Springer’s first wife was
named Linda and his second
wife, Betty. Lewis has also had a wife named Betty and one named Linda. Each had a son named
James Allen. Each had owned a
dog named Toy. Their favorite subject in high school had been math. They had both studied law
enforcement after high school.
They had the same hobbies and the same favorite vacation place. They even liked the same brand of
cookies. (adapted from
http://www.gedonlineclass.net)
What conclusion can you draw about the two men in the article?
Even though these men were raised differently, they like many of the same things.
Maria is watching too much television. A toddler shouldn’t be spending hours staring blankly at a
screen. Worse yet, some of her wild behavior have been inspired by those awful cartoons she
watches.
Some cartoons are not good for Maria.
In a study of birth planning in China, Greenhalgh (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) surveyed 1,011 ever-
married women, gathered
social and economic histories from 150 families. She conducted indepth interviews with present and
formal officials (known as
cadres), and collected documentary evidence from local newspapers, journals and other sources.
Greenhalgh notes that "Because I was largely constrained from asking direct questions about
resistance, the informal record of field notes, interview transcripts, and questionnaire data contains
few overt challenges to state policy." Greenhalgh concludes, however, that their conversations with
the researchers, both peasants and cadres made strategic use of silence to protest aspects of the
policy they did not like. Cadres, for example were loathe to comment on birthplanning campaigns;
peasant women were reluctant to talk about sterilization. These silences form one part of the
unofficial record of birth planning in the villages. More explicit protests were registered in informal
conversations. From these interactions emerged a sense of profound distress of villagers forced to
choose between a resistance that was politically risky and a compliance that violated the norms of
Chinese culture and of practical reason.
searching for missing information
Geographic map of the study area
Graphics
Summary of research findings
Another linguistic approach is to look for naturally occurring shifts in thematic content.
Transitions
Interviews searching for what people do in managing impersonal social relationships, methods by
which people acquire and
maintain achieved and ascribed status, and information about how people solve problems
Social science queries
The changing image of public transportation
Pictures The approach is based on a powerful trick most of us learned in kindergarten and requires
paper and scissors.
Cutting and Sorting
The object is to look for metaphors in rhetoric and deduce the schemas, or underlying principles,
that might produce patterns in those metaphors.
Metaphors and analogies
Look carefully at words and phrases that indicate relationships among things.
Connectors
Artwork of the child participants
Pictures
Bisogni, et. al. (2005) studied the conceptual understanding of how management of food and eating
is linked to life course events and
experiences. Individual qualitative interviews were conducting to adults in upstate New York,
particularly 14 men and 11 women with
moderate to low incomes. A conceptual model of food choice capacity emerged. Food choice
capacity represented participants'
confidence in meeting their standards for food and eating given their food management skills and
circumstances. Most participants had
faced challenging and changing circumstances (income, employment, social support, roles, health
conditions). Participants linked
strong food management skills with high levels of food choice capacity, except in the case of
extreme financial circumstances or the
absence of strong standards.
Narrative Research
Bullington (2005) investigated how older people (60+) experience the ageing body and how these
experiences affect aged peoples’
sense of identity. Explorative, open ended, interviews were conducted with 13 respondents between
the ages of 63 and 82, recruited
from a retired peoples’ organization, Church organizations, and from the working population. The
results showed that generally the
experience of the ageing body has to do with a changed life world, reactions to this change in terms
of body and self, and finding ways
to feel at home in this changed situation.
13 respondents between the ages of 63 and 82
Dunckley, Aspinal, AddingtonHall, Hughes, & Higginson (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) used the staff in one
hospice and one nursing home
setting in London as their research data. The purpose of the study was to identify facilitators and
barriers to the use of the Palliative
Care Outcome Scale (POS). Staff took part in semistructured interviews, completed diaries, and
participated in monthly meetings to
give their opinions of what they thought were the facilitators and barriers to the implementation of
the POS.
Action Research
Dunckley, Aspinal, AddingtonHall, Hughes, & Higginson (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) used the staff in one
hospice and one nursing home
setting in London as their research data. The purpose of the study was to identify facilitators and
barriers to the use of the Palliative
Care Outcome Scale (POS). Staff took part in semistructured interviews, completed diaries, and
participated in monthly meetings to
give their opinions of what they thought were the facilitators and barriers to the implementation of
the POS.
staff of one hospice and one nursing home
Interview Segment
know though what we can do about
it. I want to do something but I don’t know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you
go to town. They are always there
asking for money. You don’t know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well
from begging. But if you have any
caring qualities you can’t ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a
lot of people choose to live on the
streets – well I don’t believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say – it lets them
off the hook. So really I guess the
answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that
something should be done but I feel
powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do
something. It makes me feel
uncomfortable; I don’t know what to do.
Common people are powerless to help the homeless.
False
experiences affect aged peoples’
sense of identity. Explorative, open ended, interviews were conducted with 13 respondents between
the ages of 63 and 82, recruited
from a retired peoples’ organization, Church organizations, and from the working population. The
results showed that generally the
experience of the ageing body has to do with a changed life world, reactions to this change in terms
of body and self, and finding ways
to feel at home in this changed situation.
Phenomenological Research
Interview Segment
Homelessness is hopeless to be solved.
False
is linked to life course events and
experiences. Individual qualitative interviews were conducting to adults in upstate New York,
particularly 14 men and 11 women with
moderate to low incomes. A conceptual model of food choice capacity emerged. Food choice
capacity represented participants'
circumstances. Most participants had
faced challenging and changing circumstances (income, employment, social support, roles, health
conditions). Participants linked
strong food management skills with high levels of food choice capacity, except in the case of
extreme financial circumstances or the
absence of strong standards.
14 men and 11 women with moderate to low incomes
Interview Segment
The homeless are stereotyping their social conditions to beg for money.
False
Interview Segment
Not all homeless are impoverished.
True
Textbooks
Static
The researcher copied the results of the study from another thesis.
Plagiarism
She changed the gender of the participant to complete the all male survey.
Falsification
Ebert, Roger. Review of An Inconvenient Truth, directed by Davis Guggenheim. rogerebert.com, 1
June 2006,
http://www.rogerebert.com/reviews/aninconvenienttruth2006. Accessed 15 June 2016.
MLA
Baxter, C. (1997). Race equality in health care and education.Philadelphia: Ballière Tindall.
APA
Leroux, Marcel. Global Warming: Myth Or Reality?: The Erring Ways of Climatology. Springer, 2005.
CMS
Live concert
Dynamic
Discovery Channel
Syndicated
Alibali, M. W. (1999). How children change their minds: Strategy change can be gradual or abrupt.
Developmental Psychology,
35,127145.
APA
The researcher declared she interviewed the resource person even if she didn’t.
Fabrication
RSCH 4th quarter exam

RSCH-111 WEEK:11 SHORT QUIZ 7
Name the research misconduct performed in the following situations by choosing the letter of the
correct answer:
- Fabrication
June
2006, http://www.rogerebert.com/reviews/an-inconvenient- truth-2006. Accessed 15 June 2016.
-MLA
study?
A: It is a continuing process because the research problem becomes more focused throughout the
research.
-APA
Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter:
Live concert
-Dynamic
-CMS
Discovery Channel
-Syndicated
-Falsification
Textbooks
-Static
-Plagiarism
Alibali, M. W. (1999). How children change their minds: Strategy change can be gradual or abrupt.
Developmental Psychology, 35,127-145.
-APA
RSCH-111 WEEK 11: L.A 7
-Plagiarism
Milken, Michael, et al. "On Global Warming and Financial Imbalances." New Perspectives
Quarterly, vol.
23, no. 4, 2006, p. 63.
-CMS
-Falsification
Paramount, 2006.
-MLA
Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Research survey
- Dynamic
research long quiz 4
30/30
c-Misha Sanches
Which of the following is the first to help improve the use of the research literature?
Keep a researcher notebook
Title: John Adams
Bibliography note: Includes bibliographical references (p. 703-726) and index.
Cullough, David. John Adams, p. 703-726. New York : Simon & Schuster (2001). Print.
Why does a researcher need to cite his/her sources?
Examine all potential literature.
The researcher develops an awareness of all the related literature.
Which of the following is the best way to avoid plagiarism?
Make sure that the source of every idea is very clearly identified and cited.
What does the researcher need to generate useful and thorough key word searches?
A search and reading strategy
Outlining the aim of the research
What is the context of “literature” in a research project?
Published accounts of researchers
What citation style was used in this source?
Economy Hurt by Decline in English (2006, June 18). The Manila Times, p. A1, A2.
APA
An evaluation of the literature
without
asking for their consent. What research misconduct did he commit?
Plagiarism
The Internet has become an accepted source of information for educational research. Which of the
following is NOT an indicator of the quality of information found on the Internet?
The authenticity of the information
Paraphrasing other people’s information and citing the source of that information.
Web addresses ending in ac.uk or .edu are generally bona fide academic sources.
Required reading for the program of the study
What is the most popular citation style used in academic research papers?
APA and MLA
Which one is an example of a correct in-text quotation?
Eguchi and Eguchi (2006) and Icassatti (2006) mentioned that students showed enthusiasm while
using
these strategies.
Last week your professor talked about her theory of the best method for electoral reform in a lecture.
Since she knows all about it, do you need to reference this?
You need to cite it in the body of your paper and in the reference list.
All of the choices
The surveyed materials must be as recent as possible.
In MLA citation style, when documenting one author in reference in a text, which is correct?
This point has been argued before (Frye 197).
What is the difference of related literature from related studies?
Related literature are materials usually printed and found in books.
Which part of the review of the related literature engages in a dialogue with the literature?
Introduction
What type of source is the newspaper clipping?
Syndicated
Which of the following is an example of static type of source?
Html coded web sites
What information is required for the APA in-text citation?
Title: John Adams
McCullough, 2001
What organizational principle is used to explain ideas according to their respective premise?
Theme
MLA
What research misconduct is committed when the researcher use the sentences from published
medical
literature with minor modification in word structure without attribution?
Plagiarism
RSCH-110 QE
Which of the following can be found in the final part of the research paper?
Select one:
- Conclusion and recommendations of the study
Data gathering techniques are part of
Select one:
- The methodological framework
What is literature in research?
Select one:
- All of the choices
What category of information in participant observation is concerned about clothing, age, gender,
physical appearance of respondents?
Select one:
-Appearance
Which statement is true in writing research recommendations?
Select one:
-Recommendations should be logical and valid.
Which of the following is correct?
Select one:
-Only research conducted by academic staff with human participants requires ethical approval.
Which connector is used to signify conditional relationships?
Select one:
- Rather than
Why do researchers need to be knowledgeable about research misconduct?
Choose the best research design approach for the following research title:
A Qualitative Study of Multicultural Identities: Three Cases of London's Inner-City Children
Select one:
- Ethnographic Research
The researcher collected data using questionnaires, structured observation and interviews. What is
the
research design applied?
Select one:
- Ethnographic
What is a research design?
Select one:
-all of the choices
The entire research project is an exercise in
Select one:
-. All of the choices
What data collection procedure is used when analyzing and communicating the social life through
photos?
Select one:
-Visual data
What is the basis of research conclusion?
Select one:
- Data results
What influences the choice of the research design?
Select one:
In participant observation, what information can be observed?
Select one:
Which of the following should include the informed consent during an experimentation?
Select one:
A personal journey with grounded theory methodology
Select one:
- Grounded Theory
Living with the patients with Schizophrenia and their families
Select one:
- Phenomenological Research
Which of the following citation used the APA format?
Select one:
- Canonigo, C.S. (1999). English grammar & composition part 1. Manila: CKC Publication
What research method allows researchers to obtain a detailed description of social settings or event
in
order to situate people’s behavior within their own socio-cultural context?
Select one:
-. Observation
Why is participant observation common among ethnographic studies?
Select one:
-. Because it helps researchers learn the perspectives held by study populations.
Children of wealthy parents in the education system
Select one:
- Grounded Theory
Which organizational principle is used to connect the research topic to different backgrounds (i.e.
political, methodological, geographical, literary)?
Select one:
- Sector
What research design is used when a theory is developed from data generated by a series of
observations or interviews principally involving an inductive approach?
Select one:
- Grounded theory
What are research data?
Select one:
Which of the following is the basic rule in data collection?
Select one:
- Begin with secondary data, then proceed if necessary to collect primary data.
Which of the following is the first stage of in-depth interview?
Select one:
- Establish an initial rapport
Which of the following should be considered in questioning data validity and reliability?
Select one:
Which of the following is qualitative data analysis?
Select one:
A researcher would like to display the geographic map of his research population. What mode for
displaying qualitative data should he use?
Select one:
-Graphics
What section of the research should clarify concepts defined within the scope of the study?
Select one:
- Conclusion
The research project is
Select one:
- A scientific endeavor
Thea is interested to study the young people with dementia – chronic disorder caused by brain
disease
or injury. What research design is appropriate for her research inquiry?
Select one:
-Phenomenological research
What is common in data collection among qualitative researches?
Select one:
-Language based
Which of the following is the purpose of recommendations?
Select one:
-Courses of actions suggested by the researcher based on the findings of the study
Which of the following titles is a narrative research?
Select one:
- The Life and Works of Rizal
Solving word problems of preschoolers through illustrations
Select one:
- Action Research
It is also known as the research plan.
-Research Design
How does key word in context (KWIC) work for novice researchers?
- Researchers identify key words and then systematically search the corpus of text to find all
instances of the word or phrase.
Which of the following is the content of conclusion?
- A judgment or final decision
What is the grounded theory research design?
Select one:
- The researcher generates a general explanation (a theory) of a process, and action, or an interaction
shaped by the views of a large number of participants.
Which statement is correct in writing research conclusion?
Select one:
What techniques for discovering research texts fall under simple observation?
Select one:
-Word repetitions, key-indigenous terms, and key-words- in-contexts (KWIC)
Threats to credibility in qualitative research exist when _____________.
Select one:
- The data that fail to fit the explanation or interpretation are not addressed.
What are the ways to verify conclusions for qualitative research?
Select one:
-Memoing, verification and credibility
Which of the following is not normally associated with qualitative data?
Select one:
-Pie charts
A study is based on 30 people (across three focus groups). What type of study is this?
Select one:
-Qualitative
What is the final stage of analyzing data?
Select one:
-Presenting the data in tabular form
A study is based on 1000 people interviewed face-to- face in shopping areas. What qualitative data
collection was used?
Select one:
- Interview
What kind of questions must be used in conducting interviews?
Select one:
-Mapping questions
Which of the following research questions should NOT be answered using action research methods?
Select one:
- Is parent attitude toward school uniforms related to their socioeconomic status?
The lived experience of being a sole mother in the Philippines
Select one:
Which of the following is NOT the function of references?
Select one:
-To ensure sufficiently long reference list
How does verification of data happen?
-Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are realistic, supportable, and valid.
A study of the Italians and the health benefits of the Mediterranean lifestyle
Select one:
-Action Research
Which citation style is usually used in social science researches?
Select one:
-APA format
What is the optimal number of participants for a focus group discussion?
Select one:
- 8-12 members
A historical and comparative note on the relationship between analytic induction and grounded
theorizing
Select one:
- Ethnographic Research
Which of the following is an example of falsification in research?
Select one:
-Manipulated data from the findings
Which qualitative research design seeks action to improve practice and study the effects of the
action
that was taken?
Select one:
-Action research
Which of the following belongs to related literature?
Select one:
-textbook
When assessing Internet based literature, which of the following is NOT important?
Select one:
- The layout of the site
Which of following should NOT be considered in conducting in-depth interview?
Select one:
- Pretend to be interested in hearing about the life of the interviewee.
__________________ is the thing (person, place, event, etc.) that is selected for inclusion in the study.
Select one:
-Sampling unit
A teacher conducts an action research study of the problem-solving methods used by students in her
ninth-grade Algebra I classes. Which of the following can she assume on the basis of her study?
Select one:
-Results apply only to Algebra I students in ninth grade.
Student awareness in global warming
Select one:
- Action Research
What type of source are documentary films?
Select one:
- Static
What qualitative analytic approach is mentioned here? This approach involves the researcher in the
production of “objective” accounts of the content of the verbal, written or visual texts, the
development
of codes and categories often prior to analysis, and the definition and measurement of units of
analysis.
Select one:
- Enumerative approach
What is the purpose of the qualitative data analysis?
Select one:
- To accomplish a clear description of the phenomenon under study
What is bibliography?
Select one:
- A complete list of all works related to the study including the ones that are not directly contained in
the report
What is known to be deliberately fabricating details of a research project?
Select one:
-Lying by fabrication
A surveyor placed a cable across a street to count the number of vehicles which pass over it at
different
times of the day in order to select a site for a new 7-Eleven store. What type of data collection did he
use?
Select one:
- Observation
Which of the following is not a type of narrative research?
Select one:
- Case study
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of related literature and studies?
Select one:
-Reviewed materials must be many.
According to historical accounts, face-to- face methods have been used since the early years of
civilization to collect population figures. Why were these records kept?
Select one:
Which of the following is the correct notion about observation?
Select one:
- A key data gathering method in social sciences.
Lived experiences of adult caregiving daughter and their elderly mothers
Select one:
A literature review should include material that is _____________________.
Select one:
- Directly related to the research questions
Which of the following method is used in qualitative research?
Select one:
- Focus group discussion
__________ contains a small number of people (usually eight to twelve) and is convened to address
topics introduced by a group moderator?
- Focus group discussion
What is the best research design?
- For beginning researchers, a qualitative research is advisable because the natural setting is
accessible.
What kind of research will answer a social inquiry?
The correct answer is: Qualitative research is the best design for a social inquiry since it explores and
analyzes people's values and perspective through observation.
promote the values that are essential to collaborative work, such as trust, accountability, mutual
respect and fairness.
The correct answer is: Ethical standards
True or False: A responsible researcher looks for alternative ways to arrive at a conclusion in the
study.
Research is described as a cycle because it follows a process.
True or False: Qualitative research requires data from a natural setting.
Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research
knowledge and experience.
“Research is the highest form of adoration” ― Pierre Teilhard de Chardin
The correct answer is: Research is valuing others’ work.
“I believe in innovation and that the way you get innovation is you fund research and you learn the
basic facts. ” -Bill Gates
The correct answer is: Innovation is funding a research and learning its basic facts.
“Do research. Feed your talent. Research not only wins the war on cliche, it's the key to victory over
fear and it's cousin, depression.” ― Robert McKee
The correct answer is: Research is not only answering questions but also discovering one’s talent and
skill
“The measure of greatness in a scientific idea is the extent to which it stimulates thought and opens
up new lines of research.” ― Paul A.M. Dirac
The correct answer is: Research starts from the stimulated mind and may end to measure of
greatness.
“Research is formalized curiosity. It is poking and prying with a purpose. ” -Zora Neale Hurston
The correct answer is: Research is a formalized curiosity with a purpose.
“All I’m armed with is research.” -Mike Wallace
The correct answer is: Research can equip anyone.
What is the role of research in the daily life of people? It aims human
satisfaction and understanding.
“The more important reason is that the research itself provides an important long-run perspective on
the issues that we face on a day-to-day basis. ” -Ben Bernanke
The correct answer is: Research provides an important perspective on our daily issues.
“In much of society, research means to investigate something you do not know or understand. ” -
Neil Armstrong
The correct answer is: Research is an investigation of the unknown.
“Research is about engaging in a conversation with a brand.” -Matthew Rhodes
The correct answer is: Research is discussing specific issues.
“Find out what’s really out there. I never said to be like me, I say be like you and make a difference.” –
Marilyn Manson
The correct answer is: Research is finding out there what other’s has not seen so you make a
difference.
v What is the common research experience of a novice researcher?
Reading various materials in answering assignments.
Debriefing should…
The correct answer is: Explain all relevant aspects of research procedures
A researcher may withhold a participant’s name and any identifying characteristics when asked to
present such information when
The correct answer is: They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality
Researchers can encourage people to volunteer to participate in their project by
The correct answer is: Offering small incentives
Confidentiality is used to protect a participant’s privacy by
The correct answer is: Sharing only the information permitted by the participant
Anonymity is when a participant does not give a researcher…
The correct answer is: His/her name and identifying characteristics
Research hypotheses can be defined as
The correct answer is: A tentative conclusion or answer to a specific question raised at the beginning
of the investigation.
Which of the following is similar in qualitative and quantitative research?
The correct answer is: Both can be utilized by researchers depending on the use.
Which of the following is not considered to be an example of misconduct in research?
The correct answer is: Fabrication of data
Informed consent requires that individuals…
The correct answer is: Have adequate information about the procedures and benefits associated with
the research
Confidentiality and anonymity are important to insure limited risk of exposure of information
including…
The correct answer is: Illegal behaviors
Normally, in which part of the research report are the hypotheses justified to the reader?
The correct answer is: in the introduction
What is the purpose of informed consent?
The correct answer is: To make sure that participants know exactly what to expect from the research
and to communicate their right to withdraw at any stage.
What scope of research promotes awareness to its audience?
The correct answer is: Education
What scope of research increases the productivity of an institution?
The correct answer is: Administration
Which of the following should not be done by the researchers?

The correct answer is: Prevent mental and physical harm to subjects.
Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma in research?
The correct answer is: Falsification of data bank
Which of the following is not an example of qualitative researchers?
The correct answer is: descriptive research
Critical researchers are primarily concerned with
The correct answer is: ethical violations in methodology
Fraud in research comprises
The correct answer is: all of the choices
What aspect of research experience illustrates the pressure to the researcher in meeting research
deadlines?
The correct answer is: Emotions
Among the steps in the research process, which part typically takes the most time of the researcher?
The correct answer is: Collecting data
What is a research instrument?
The correct answer is: a tool for data collection
What is an ethical dilemma?
The correct answer is: conflict between the different principles of immoral conduct
Which of the following statements is wrong?
The correct answer is: Research must give pride to its investigator.
Which of the following is not part of a systematic investigation?
The correct answer is: Getting funding for the research
Researcher’s involvement to the research means
The correct answer is: The research that the researcher takes in becomes a personal importance.
Research in daily life has

The correct answer is: Practical value
Research is
The correct answer is: Analyzing and interpreting new information
Which of the following best describes a hypothesis?
The correct answer is: Proposed before a good research question can be developed.
Modern qualitative research can generally involve a detailed study of
The correct answer is: values and judgement
Almost all research plans include the following components:
The correct answer is: a problem statement, a hypothesis, definitions, a literature review, a sample of
subjects, tests or other measuring instruments, a description of procedures, and data analysis.
Which of the following is NOT a role of a researcher?
The correct answer is: fabricator of data
A reasoning where one start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal
statement is called
The correct answer is: inductive method
Research is
The correct answer is: Searching for the truth in a scientific way
Who is responsible for ethical behavior?
The correct answer is: the researchers
Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?
The correct answer is: Identification of problem
Which of the following is not included in the research experience?
The correct answer is: Social class of the researcher
Research done in natural settings is
The correct answer is: more likely to involve applied research than basic research
What is a major ethical drawback of offering financial incentive for participation?
The correct answer is: It can be coercive.
Research involves exploring what _________________ other researchers have come to.
The correct answer is: conclusion
Choose the most appropriate explanation to the meaning of the following quotation on qualitative
research.
“The major strength of qualitative approach is the depth to which explorations are conducted, and
descriptions are written, usually resulting in sufficient details for the reader to grasp the
idiosyncrasies of the situation.” – Myers
The correct answer is: The importance of context and meaning are the reasons to get the depth of
explorations in qualitative research. The setting of the problem and multiple ways to get data from
the locale will surely help the researcher to explain the unexplainable.
research.
“Formal symbolic representation of qualitative entities is doomed to its rightful place of minor
significance in a world where flowers and beautiful women abound.” Albert Einstein
The correct answer is: Qualitative research is everyday life research. The issues to be addressed are in
the beautiful places where problems are least expected to arise such as home, school, church, tourist
spots, etc.
What should happen if a participant withdraws from your research? All information
contributed by that participant up to that date should be destroyed, or
turned over to the participant for his/her disposal.
Qualitative design is messy because it involves multi-layered processes.
research.
“The most important advances, the qualitative leaps, are the least predictable. Not even the best
scientists predicted the impact of nuclear physics, and everyday consumer items such as the iPhone
would have seemed magic back in the 1950s.” - Martin Rees
The correct answer is: The flexible design of qualitative research is illustrated in the quotation since it
can be modified from modern to conservative or vice-versa depending on the need of the study. The
skill seft required of the researcher is the key to interpret unpredictable findings.
Online and mobile technology offer limited enhancements to qualitative research designs.
The correct answer is: False – unique
Qualitative research derives meaning from data of multiple sources.
The qualitative design cannot be modified or changed.
The correct answer is: False – can
Qualitative research can prove the absolute truth.
The correct answer is: False - absence of absolute truth
Education, nursing, sociology, anthropology, information studies, humanities, and health sciences are
the only topics to be used for qualitative research.
Qualitative research uses survey as an instrument for data collection.
The correct answer is: False – observation
Qualitative research is relative to the everyday life of the researcher including his/her meditation on
daily activities and experiences.
Qualitative research addresses scientific issues.
The correct answer is: False – personal
Which of the following best describes a hypothesis?
Statement that you set out to prove.

Qualitative research requires the analytical and organizational abilities that are necessary for all
researchers.

“The worse thing that contemporary qualitative research can imply is that, in this post-modern age,
anything goes. The trick is to produce intelligent, disciplined work on the very edge of the
abyss.” ― David Silverman
The correct answer is: The messy analysis and inductive approach is the qualitative characteristic
describe in this quotation. It involves multilayered process which may include anything but the
inductive approach will shape the result into an intelligent and disciplined work that will really make
a difference.
“Modernity is a qualitative, not a chronological, category.” - Theodor Adorno
The correct answer is: The unique capabilities of online and mobile qualitative research can be under
modern category and they are very much useful in qualitative research.
Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research:
Multitasking: Helpful or Hurtful
The correct answer is: Applied
Which part of the research paper do you find the following? The weaknesses spring out of the
inaccuracies of the perceptions of the respondents.
The correct answer is: Scope and Delimitations
Ways to Improve School Readiness for Children
Which part of the research paper do you find the following?

Avoid rhetorical questions (answerable by yes/no) for they only elicit either of the two responses and
may result to vagueness.
The correct answer is: Statement of the Problem
Which part of the research paper do you find the following? Possible solutions to existing problems
or improvement to unsatisfactory conditions.
The correct answer is: Significance of the Study
The best quality data that a researcher can get is the double blind test.
The correct answer is 'False'.
Individuals are like scientists who develop theories on how the world and their own activities
function.
The correct answer is 'True'.
Subjectivity of researcher in methodology is recognized less.
It is generally used to figure out the changes in a system when a variable in the system changes,
measuring how the end result changes by altering a variable.
The mathematics involved is very high level and people often struggle with it even after being taught
how to do it.
It addresses the question of how people produce social reality in and through interactive processes.
It can be defined like mathematical and statistical models which are describing a diverse array of
variables relationship.
Looks at relationships between variables and can establish cause and effect in highly controlled
circumstance.
It is the arrangement of the individual’s arrangements of a particular person.
The observation of such forms can be broken into the dimensions of temporal, spatial, material,
social, meaningful, media-technical, emotional and bodily aspects.
Applying the algorithm for detecting individual trees from Drone Images
Which part of the research paper do you find the following?

It embodies substantive words or keywords or phrases that describe one’s research study.
The correct answer is: Research Title

It must give precise answers that will determine the difference or relationship, or implication of the
variables under study.
Compositions of Protons, Neutrons and Electrons
The correct answer is: Pure
It must also reflect the variables under study.
The correct answer is: Research Title
Your answer is correct.

Match the general term to its specific topic.
1. Generalization - [OFWs and migration]
2. Theater - [Les Miserables]
3. Texting - [Code switching]
4. Cloning - [Stem cell research]
5. Emotional quotient - [cyberbullying]
6. Anime - [manga]
7. Nuclear power - [Fukushima crisis]
8. Holidays - [Eid-ul-Fitr]
9. Natural material - [wood]
10. Dogs - [cross breeding]
College Tuition Becoming Prohibitive to Young Adults from Being Successful
This section indicates the specific benefits which will be gained from the results of the study.
A brief statement of the general purpose of the study.
The Specific Genetic Code of the Fruit Fly

How Do Slime Molds Reproduce
It is biased in terminology or position.
The problem statement is more specific than a topic and it limits the scope of the research problem.
It has the potential to suggest directions for past research.
It should not use comparative terms (such as higher, better, etc.).
It addresses indirectly some real problem in the world.
The vertical columns of elements in the periodic table are called groups.
Who discovered the electron in 1897? Thomson
What is element 61 called? Promethium
are fixed distances from the nucleus. Energy levels
If all samples of a material have identical properties and composition, it is a

homogeneous mixture.
the nuclear model of the atom is associated with Rutherford.
When the Sun moves off the main sequence, it will next become a
_______________. red giant
Electrons at the outermost energy level of an atom are called Valence

electrons
The region where an electron is most likely to be is called an orbital
puts the elements in order of increasing atomic number, into seven horizontal rows.
Periodic Table
The horizontal rows of elements in the periodic table are called periods
In 1661, who developed a definition of element that made the concept subject to laboratory
investigation? Boyle
It clearly states the constructs to be examined.
It has multiple possible answers.
The greater the mass of a star, the _______________ it moves through its life cycle. Faster
What was the nationality of the first persons who we know speculated about “elements”?
Greek
It should not pose an ethical or moral problem for implementation.
Indicate what is probably necessary to conduct the study and explain how the findings will present
this information.
What is a research rationale needed in scope and delimitation? It is the

suitability of the study to the beneficiaries.
This refers to a star that has a mass of more than 8 solar masses. Supergiant
True or False: Formaldehyde is a nonpolar compound. False
The temperature of the Sun's interior is estimated to be about how many kelvins? 15
million
It must only ask about the relationship between two or more variables.

Developing algorithm for performing classification based on pixels
The period of the study which includes the time, either months or years, during which the data were
gathered.
The correct answer is: Scope and Delimitations
How to cure Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
Theory of Relativity
This fusion process details how helium is made in our sun. proton-proton chain
He invented the neutron. James Chadwick
The rationale, timeliness, and or relevance of the study.
No experimental treatments were given, and no control other than gender was attempted.
The correct answer is: DELIMITATION
The researchers also determined the children’s reactions on violent cartoon shows watched on
television.
The correct answer is: SCOPE
This is qualitative research that investigates the daily life of housewives on weekdays.
Statistics will not be utilized in analyzing the results.
The results of this study should be limited to students enrolled in similar programs.
Some technical terms on information technology were not explained in this study.

This study concentrates on the factors that need to be considered for the implementation of the
policy.
Reliability of survey questions was not established.
The inputs are only coming from senior high school students of the subject school.
The study is focused on the possible implementation of online exam in the university.
The beneficiaries mentioned in the significance of the study pertain to
The correct answer is: People and institution who have directly or indirectly experienced the research
problem.
How does ethical consideration consider in the scope and delimitation?
The correct answer is: Acknowledge the researcher’s co-authors.
Which of the following skill does not belong to a qualitative researcher?
The correct answer is: Technically capable in operating statistical devices.
Limitations of research refer to the
The correct answer is: Restrictions identified by the researcher.
Which of the following subject areas can be covered by qualitative research?
The correct answer is: Anthropology
Why are research questions used in qualitative research?
The correct answer is: All of the above
Willing (2009) argues that many qualitative researchers tend not to work with “variables” that are
defined by the researcher prior to the research project because
The correct answer is: All of the above

In the title “The Chemistry of English Language between Foreign and Local Students of Holy Ghost
College in Bangued, Abra”, who could be the possible beneficiaries of the research?
The correct answer is: Students, teachers, school administrators and future researchers
What is the characteristic of a specific question in the statement of the problem?
The correct answer is: It must contribute to the development of the whole research problem or topic.
What is the composition of a research title?
The correct answer is: The title must reflect the variables under study.
Which of the following is NOT strength of qualitative research?
The correct answer is: Subjectivity leads to procedural difficulty.
Which sentence belongs to the Scope and Delimitation of a research?
The correct answer is: This study determines the status of irregular second year students enrolled in a
Catholic school.
Qualitative research is relative to the everyday life of the researcher because
The correct answer is: They are particularly useful for exploring how and why things that have
happened.
Qualitative research proves the absence of the absolute truth because
The correct answer is: The researcher strives to collect information from which some level of useful
knowledge can be gained.
What is conceptual audacity that can be found in the theme of everyday life research?
The correct answer is: A tool that enables us to see new and perhaps surprising aspects of the
everyday lives that we lead.
Which of the following is NOT found in the significance of the study?
The correct answer is: Possible recommendations to the research findings.
Scope and delimitation distinguishes the constraints of the study by delimiting the topic in terms of
time, ____________________, availability of subjects, resources and ethical considerations.
The correct answer is: Measurability
Which of the following titles is best for applied research?

The correct answer is: The effectiveness of abstinence programs
What are the types of issues that qualitative research commonly answers?
The correct answer is: Sensitive or personal issues
What contributes to the messiness of qualitative research messy?
The correct answer is: the inductive approach
Which of the following is a good title for a qualitative research?
The correct answer is: The Chemistry of English Language between Foreign and Local Students of
Holy Ghost College in Bangued, Abra
Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research?
The correct answer is: Flexible design
What is the purpose of daily life research?
The correct answer is: To study the social interaction in a natural environment.
Daily life research is advisable for students because
The correct answer is: It involves their experience.
How can a researcher become the data gathering instrument in qualitative research?
The correct answer is: The researcher is at the center of the data-gathering phase.
What does participant-researcher relationship mean in qualitative research?
The correct answer is: The participants and the researcher share the “research space”.
What is NOT an advantage of qualitative research?
The correct answer is: It measures the validity and reliability of a research instrument.
What is the coverage of ethical considerations in research?
The correct answer is: Human and non-human participants
How can online and mobile communications become advantageous in qualitative research?
The correct answer is: Participants can enrich their text responses by attaching files, images, links to
websites, and voice response.
Independent variable is identified as the _____________ of the research topic.

The correct answer is: Solution
It does not apply statistical test or measurement on data analysis.
The correct answer is: Qualitative
What is the last step of the research process?
The correct answer is: Make recommendations for further research.
A well-formulated title must state ______________ in a clear, concise, and precise way.
The correct answer is: Variables
What subject involves the everyday life?
The correct answer is: Social science
It is considered valid and reliable.
The correct answer is: All of the choices
It is a formal, objective, systematic process in which numerical data are used to obtain information
about the world.
The correct answer is: Quantitative Research
Its hypotheses are tentative and evolving, based on particular study.
What is the use of research hypotheses?
____________ tend to be generally expressed; a ____________ is a specific prediction about what the
readers will find.
The correct answer is: research question; hypothesis
The researcher should never report flaws in procedural design and estimate their effect on the
findings.

It relates to the growth of knowledge, to the verification or validation of existing knowledge or
practice to the development of new knowledge.
Online and mobile qualitative research enhance data integrity by
Hypothesis refers to the
The correct answer is: A tentative statement about the relationship
Restate the statement: Although it might be said that an absolute truth is intangible in all forms of
research, the interactive, personal and interpretive approach in qualitative inquiry extinguishes the
notion that the outcomes represent an absolute truth.
The correct answer is: Absolute truth in non-existing in qualitative inquiry.
What is pure research?
The correct answer is: It develops or refines theories.
Research is
The correct answer is: investigating, analyzing and synthesizing new information from various
sources
Which title uses the qualitative inquiry?
The correct answer is: Eating habits of Preschoolers in Bulacan
In ethical dilemma, conflict of interest happens when
The correct answer is: The researcher participates as a research subject for his/her own study.
Which of the following is the good way to find a good topic?
The correct answer is: Personal experience
Which word was developed from the everyday life of man?
The correct answer is: Social
What is the research experience?
The correct answer is: researcher’s personal aspects

Quantitative research shows clarity based on interpreting _____________ data.
Interviewed
It has primarily deductive process used to test pre-specified concepts,

constructs, and hypotheses that make up a theory. Qualitative
There should be a general statement of the problem which narrows down

to sub-problems or specific questions.
Select one:
a. Quantitative Research
b. Qualitative Research
c. Statement of the Problem
d. Scope and Delimitation
e. Significance of the Study
Which of the following is a characteristic of a researchable question?
The correct answer is: Unique
Its hypotheses are Specific, testable, stated prior to particular study.
The correct answer is: Quantitative
It is quantitative research designed to portray a complete and accurate

description of historical events. Historical research
Which is a good argument in the research hypothesis?
The correct answer is: A dog can be trained to alert a human if the telephone is ringing.
Generalize the beneficiaries of a study.
The correct answer is: The readers are involved in all the studies that they read.
What is the best definition of justice in research?
The correct answer is: Fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants
They must be clear and free from double meanings.

Its method is limited by variables.
It is also used to uncover trends in thought and opinions, and dive deeper into the problem.
What characteristic of qualitative research is mentioned here? The data and the researcher’s
interpretation of the data – hinge greatly on the contexts from which the data are obtained (Roller &
Lavraks, 2015).
The correct answer is: Importance of context
What section identifies the people or institution who will benefit from the findings of the study?
It identifies the possibilities to which to which the study becomes manageable in terms of issues,
respondents, and time.
The correct answer is: Scope
It is an exploratory research.
Which of the following is a proof of the research experience?
An understanding of qualitative research is important because
The correct answer is: The daily life activities can be studied.
Which of the following is a product of basic research?
The correct answer is: natural sciences
What is the intervention used in quantitative research?
The correct answer is: No participant involvement
It generates data about human groups in social settings.
The correct answer is: Qualitative Research

It uses measurable data to formulate facts and uncover patterns in research.
The correct answer is: Quantitative
Which of the following is not under qualitative research?
The correct answer is: pure research
Which of the following applies the double meaning questions?
What is the basic skill required of any researcher?
The correct answer is: Ability to source data
What is wrong with double meaning question in research?
The correct answer is: It may result to inaccuracies in the attitudes being measured for the question.
Choose a good research problem for a qualitative research?
The correct answer is: A student examined the function of boxing as a way to help adolescents with a
criminal record to deal with aggression
Time expenditure on research is lighter on the planning end and heavier during the analysis phase.
Which of the following is not found in the scope and delimitation?
The correct answer is: Timelessness
Which of the following is the strength of qualitative research?
The correct answer is: This may in turn generate new forms of human action.
Paraphrase the statement: Qualitative approaches are typically used to explore new phenomena and
to capture individuals’ thoughts, feelings, or interpretations of meanings and process (Given, 2008).
The correct answer is: It is used to gain an understanding of underlying reasons, opinions, and
motivations of humans.
Which of the following is not a thesis statement?
The correct answer is: The wanton cutting down of trees.

Which of the following statements is true based on the question: which of these is a way to build the
general knowledge of a research topic?
I. Read a good recent textbook chapter.
II. Look for the recent publication before reading a material.
III. Find and use a reader on the topic in question.
The correct answer is: I and III
What characteristic of qualitative research is mentioned here? It is designed

to match the dynamics of the evolving research process (Klenke, 2008).
Select one:
a. Flexible design
b. Importance of context
c. Participant-researcher relationship
d. Importance of meaning
Where do ethical issues become important to the research project? They are
very important at many stages of the research process.
What is a conceptual audacity?Select one:a. A concrete object in the everyday life

of humans.b. A tool to see new and surprising aspects of the human everyday
livesc. The critical voices of the participantsd. The filtered reality of human’s local,
historical, contextual, and multiple lenses
4TH QUARTER EXAM
The correct answer is: Plagiarism
Research survey
The correct answer is: Dynamic

Milken, Michael, et al. "On Global Warming and Financial Imbalances." New Perspectives Quarterly,
vol. 23, no. 4, 2006, p. 63.
The correct answer is: CMS
Paramount, 2006.
The correct answer is: MLA
The correct answer is: Falsification
Alibali, M. W. (1999). How children change their minds: Strategy change can be gradual or
abrupt. Developmental Psychology, 35,127-145.
The correct answer is: APA

June 2006, http://www.rogerebert.com/reviews/an-inconvenient-truth-2006. Accessed 15 June 2016.
June 2006, http://www.rogerebert.com/reviews/an-inconvenient-truth-2006. Accessed 15 June 2016
The correct answer is: Fabrication
Live concert
Discovery Channel
The correct answer is: Syndicated
Textbooks
The correct answer is: Static
The researcher invented the results of the study.
Theatrical play
Food blog
The research assistant wrote an anonymous name in the list.
The World Famous Hot Dog Site. (1999, July 7). Retrieved January 5, 2008, from
http://www.xroads.com/~tcs/hotdog/hotdog.html
The bibliography is incomplete.
Spolarium by Juan Luna
Braveheart (starred and produced by Mel Gibson)
Weinstein, Joshua I. "The Market in Plato’sRepublic." Classical Philology 104 (2009): 439–58.
Pollan, Michael. 2006. The Omnivore’s Dilemma: A Natural History of Four Meals. New York: Penguin.
Google. “Google Privacy Policy.” Last modified March 11, 2009.

http://www.google.com/intl/en/privacypolicy.html.
The researcher manipulated the results of the study.
Research journal
Official website
A director didn’t cite the name of the playwright he used in the contest.
The correct answer is: Required reading for the program of the study
What should be used in writing a related literature review?
What organizational principle is used to explain ideas according to their respective premise?
The correct answer is: Theme
What is the most popular citation style used in academic research papers?
The correct answer is: APA and MLA
The correct answer is: Web addresses ending in ac.uk or .edu are generally bona fide academic
sources.
The correct answer is: The surveyed materials must be as recent as possible.

without asking for their consent. What research misconduct did he commit?
Which of the following is not an example of dynamic source?
The correct answer is: paintings
The correct answer is: The researcher develops an awareness of all the related literature.
Which of the following is the most essential in conducting the review of related literature?
The correct answer is: Examine all potential literature.
Economy Hurt by Decline in English (2006, June 18). The Manila Times, p. A1, A2.
The correct answer is: Outlining the aim of the research
What is the difference of related literature from related studies?
The correct answer is: Related literature are materials usually printed and found in books.
When doing your background reading for your literature review it is important to
The correct answer is: An evaluation of the literature
The Internet has become an accepted source of information for educational research. Which of the
The correct answer is: The authenticity of the information
Which of the following is the best way to maximize the process of reviewing of the related literature?
The correct answer is: Reviewing the researcher’s notes made on editorial and overview papers and
chapters
What is the context of “literature” in a research project?
The correct answer is: Published accounts of researchers
The correct answer is: Paraphrasing other people’s information and citing the source of that
information.
What is missing in the following passage from a student paper?
In 1904, Matisse came under the influence of Signac's use of separated colors in his paintings. This
was called "divisionism." As Spurling says, "Divisionism provided logical grounds for separating the
ultimate goal of painting - order, harmony, emotional stability achieved through rhythmic
compositions of form and color from its traditional dependence on the subject. This was an
important idea for Matisse.
The correct answer is: No year of publication beside the cited names

Title: John Adams
The correct answer is: Cullough, D. (2001). John Adams, 703-726. New York : Simon & Schuster
In APA citation style, which of the following is TRUE about quotations?
The correct answer is: They should be used only when absolutely necessary.
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE with regards to the literature review?
The correct answer is: It explains the method necessary for the gathering of data.
What research misconduct is committed when the researcher use the sentences from published
medical literature with minor modification in word structure without attribution?
A researcher is interested in the examples or illustrations several authors have used to prove a point.
How can he pull them all together and use them in his own paper in a list?
The correct answer is: Include a citation after each separate example to indicate where you found
them.
Most of the searches for related literature are conducted using:
The correct answer is: Key word searches
In MLA, which of the following is the correct way to cite a website in a text?
The correct answer is: Both choices are correct
study?
The correct answer is: It is limited to a brief preliminary search so as to avoid bias from the
researcher.
1965 in a Virginia state hospital. These nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of
psychiatric nursing experience. The researcher wanted to describe the experiences of these nurses
who practiced in a state mental hospital before and during the introduction of antipsychotic
medications. They expressed resignation and frustration while trying to provide care despite crowded
wards and inadequate personnel and supplies. The nurses indicated that they focused on the
patient’s body instead of on the patient’s mind. The camaraderie they experienced with other nurses
helped them continue in their positions, despite what they felt to be a “thankless job.”
The correct answer is: Narrative Research
hospitalized patients. Interviews were conducted with 40 patients, and 75 hours of field observations
were conducted. The basic psychological process identified by the researchers was labeled
“optimizing personal control to facilitate emotional comfort.” Personal control referred to the ability
of patients to influence their environment; emotional comfort was defined as a state of relaxation
that affected the physical status of the patient. Personal control was found to be a central feature of
emotional comfort.
The correct answer is: Grounded Theory Research

background from the rural Midwest. Literacy is investigated through English and Spanish in a
sociocultural context. Findings reveal how Mexican-background students demonstrate different
literacy practices in their homes and communities than those acknowledged at school. Results
indicate that the lost opportunities for effective literacy learning at school ignored the realistic
responsibilities and potential of the Mexican-background students.
The correct answer is: high school students of Mexican background from the rural Midwest
Interview Segment
know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don’t know what. You are
constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You
don’t know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if
you have any caring qualities you can’t ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself.
They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets – well I don’t believe that. I think that is an easy
thing for the authorities to say – it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your
questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be
done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the
government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don’t know what to do.
The homeless are also the same beggars asking for money on the street.
hospitalized patients. Interviews were conducted with 40 patients, and 75 hours of field observations
were conducted. The basic psychological process identified by the researchers was labeled
“optimizing personal control to facilitate emotional comfort.” Personal control referred to the ability
of patients to influence their environment; emotional comfort was defined as a state of relaxation
that affected the physical status of the patient. Personal control was found to be a central feature of
emotional comfort.
The correct answer is: hospitalized patients
is linked to life course events and experiences. Individual qualitative interviews were conducting to
adults in upstate New York, particularly 14 men and 11 women with moderate to low incomes. A
conceptual model of food choice capacity emerged. Food choice capacity represented participants'
circumstances. Most participants had faced challenging and changing circumstances (income,
employment, social support, roles, health conditions). Participants linked strong food management
skills with high levels of food choice capacity, except in the case of extreme financial circumstances
or the absence of strong standards
The correct answer is: Narrative Research
experiences affect aged peoples’ sense of identity. Explorative, open ended, interviews were
conducted with 13 respondents between the ages of 63 and 82, recruited from a retired peoples’
organization, Church organizations, and from the working population. The results showed that
generally the experience of the ageing body has to do with a changed life world, reactions to this
change in terms of body and self, and finding ways to feel at home in this changed situation.
The correct answer is: 13 respondents between the ages of 63 and 82
Dunckley, Aspinal, Addington-Hall, Hughes, & Higginson (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) used the staff in
one hospice and one nursing home setting in London as their research data. The purpose of the
study was to identify facilitators and barriers to the use of the Palliative Care Outcome Scale (POS).
Staff took part in semi-structured interviews, completed diaries, and participated in monthly
meetings to give their opinions of what they thought were the facilitators and barriers to the
implementation of the POS.
The correct answer is: Action Research
Dunckley, Aspinal, Addington-Hall, Hughes, & Higginson (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) used the staff in
one hospice and one nursing home setting in London as their research data. The purpose of the
study was to identify facilitators and barriers to the use of the Palliative Care Outcome Scale (POS).
Staff took part in semi-structured interviews, completed diaries, and participated in monthly
meetings to give their opinions of what they thought were the facilitators and barriers to the
implementation of the POS.
The correct answer is: staff of one hospice and one nursing home
Common people are powerless to help the homeless.
experiences affect aged peoples’ sense of identity. Explorative, open ended, interviews were
conducted with 13 respondents between the ages of 63 and 82, recruited from a retired peoples’
organization, Church organizations, and from the working population. The results showed that
generally the experience of the ageing body has to do with a changed life world, reactions to this
change in terms of body and self, and finding ways to feel at home in this changed situation.
The correct answer is: Phenomenological Research
Homelessness is hopeless to be solved.

is linked to life course events and experiences. Individual qualitative interviews were conducting to
adults in upstate New York, particularly 14 men and 11 women with moderate to low incomes. A
conceptual model of food choice capacity emerged. Food choice capacity represented participants'
circumstances. Most participants had faced challenging and changing circumstances (income,
employment, social support, roles, health conditions). Participants linked strong food management
skills with high levels of food choice capacity, except in the case of extreme financial circumstances
or the absence of strong standards.
The correct answer is: 14 men and 11 women with moderate to low incomes
Not all homeless are impoverished.
contended that, unfortunately, the mother’s experience is often the hidden dimension in the family.
Unstructured interviews were conducted with 6 mothers living with suicidal adolescents. Six themes
were identified: failure as a good mother, the ultimate rejection, feeling alone in the struggle,
distance.
Being homeless is a choice and individual decision.
background from the rural Midwest. Literacy is investigated through English and Spanish in a
sociocultural context. Findings reveal how Mexican-background students demonstrate different
literacy practices in their homes and communities than those acknowledged at school. Results
indicate that the lost opportunities for effective literacy learning at school ignored the realistic
responsibilities and potential of the Mexican-background students.
The correct answer is: Ethnographic Research
Homelessness is a perennial global problem.
1965 in a Virginia state hospital. These nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of
psychiatric nursing experience. The researcher wanted to describe the experiences of these nurses
who practiced in a state mental hospital before and during the introduction of antipsychotic
medications. They expressed resignation and frustration while trying to provide care despite crowded
wards and inadequate personnel and supplies. The nurses indicated that they focused on the
patient’s body instead of on the patient’s mind. The camaraderie they experienced with other nurses
helped them continue in their positions, despite what they felt to be a “thankless job.”
The correct answer is: 8 nurses
Adler (2003) examined the relationship of foreign language study and SAT Verbal scores.
Additionally, the study explored whether or not the number of years of foreign language study had
an impact on SAT verbal scores. The students involved were female seniors at a private high school in
suburban Maryland. It was hypothesized that there would be no significant effect that the choice of
foreign language study has on the verbal score achieved on the SAT. This hypothesis was rejected
because there was a significant difference in SAT Verbal averages among the students of three
different foreign languages. French foreign language students outperformed Spanish and Latin
foreign language students.
The correct answer is: female senior students
Additionally, the study explored whether or not the number of years of foreign language study had
an impact on SAT verbal scores. The students involved were female seniors at a private high school in
suburban Maryland. It was hypothesized that there would be no significant effect that the choice of
foreign language study has on the verbal score achieved on the SAT. This hypothesis was rejected
because there was a significant difference in SAT Verbal averages among the students of three
different foreign languages. French foreign language students outperformed Spanish and Latin
foreign language students.
Being homeless is a permanent social status.
Gance-Cleveland (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) examined the features, critical attributes, processes, and
benefits of school based support groups for adolescents with an addicted parent. Participant
observations were conducted weekly at two high schools over one semester. Interviews were
conducted with program administrators, school administrators, group co-facilitators, and
participants. School-based support group participation was found to enhance self-knowledge and
led to self-care and self-healing.
The correct answer is: program administrators, school administrators, group co-facilitators
The government is the only one who can help the homeless.
Many people are still unconditionally helping the homeless.

Edwards (2007) explored the process of college men’s gender identity development. In order to try
to meet these expectations and be seen as men, participants described putting on a performance
that was like wearing a mask or “putting my man face on.” This process included learning societal
expectations of them as men, as well as specific cultural group expectations. The men in this study
were all aware that they did not neatly fit behind the mask, either as a result of personal
characteristics or social identities. Their resulting insecurities led them to wearing the mask both
consciously and unconsciously so that they would be seen as men by society.
The correct answer is: Grounded Theory Research
Edwards (2007) explored the process of college men’s gender identity development. In order to try
to meet these expectations and be seen as men, participants described putting on a performance
that was like wearing a mask or “putting my man face on.” This process included learning societal
expectations of them as men, as well as specific cultural group expectations. The men in this study
were all aware that they did not neatly fit behind the mask, either as a result of personal
characteristics or social identities. Their resulting insecurities led them to wearing the mask both
consciously and unconsciously so that they would be seen as men by society.
The correct answer is: college men
contended that, unfortunately, the mother’s experience is often the hidden dimension in the family.
Unstructured interviews were conducted with 6 mothers living with suicidal adolescents. Six themes
were identified: failure as a good mother, the ultimate rejection, feeling alone in the struggle,
distance.
The correct answer is: 6 mothers living with suicidal adolescents
Gance-Cleveland (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) examined the features, critical attributes, processes, and
benefits of school based support groups for adolescents with an addicted parent. Participant
observations were conducted weekly at two high schools over one semester. Interviews were
conducted with program administrators, school administrators, group co-facilitators, and
participants. School-based support group participation was found to enhance self-knowledge and
led to self-care and self-healing.
The correct answer is: Ethnographic Research
How people use their bodies and voices to communicate different emotions; what individuals’
behaviors indicate about their feelings toward one another, their social rank, or their profession.
The correct answer is: Physical behavior and gestures

“Good morning. I’m a health officer in our barangay and I also belong to the medical research team
of our community.”
The correct answer is: 1
“Can you describe how you first became aware of your sickness?”
Anything that might indicate membership in groups or in sub-populations of interest to the study,
such as profession, social status, socioeconomic class, religion, or ethnicity
The correct answer is: Appearance
What do you feel when people admire your work?
The correct answer is: Open
Would you like to continue that kind of relationship?
The correct answer is: Mapping
What individuals’ preferences concerning personal space suggest about their relationships
The correct answer is: Personal space
Do you think he is gay?
The correct answer is: Leading
The correct answer is: Open
The characteristics of these individuals; what differentiates them from others; whether people consult
them or they approach other people; whether they seem to be strangers or well known by others
present.
The correct answer is: People who stand out
“This research is conducted to investigate the life experiences of people who survived cancer and
now living cancer free for more than 5 years.”

“One area of this research is to record particular challenges that cancer patients face after
chemotherapy. Could you tell me your experience?”
Where people enter and exit; how long they stay; who they are (ethnicity, age, gender); whether they
are alone or accompanied; number of people
The correct answer is: Human traffic
Organizational chart of the institution being studied
The correct answer is: Graphics
Another way to find themes is to look for local terms that may sound unfamiliar or are used in
unfamiliar ways.
The correct answer is: Indigenous category
Naomi Quinn (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) has analyzed hundreds of hours of interviews to discover
concepts underlying American marriage and to show how these concepts are tied together. She
began by looking at patterns of speech and at the repetition of key words and phrases, paying
particular attention to informants' use of metaphors and the commonalities in their reasoning about
marriage. Nan, one of her informants, says that "marriage is a manufactured product." This popular
metaphor indicates that Nan sees marriages as something that has properties, like strength and
staying power, and as something that requires work to produce. Some marriages are "put together
well," while others "fall apart" like so many cars or toys or washing machines.
The correct answer is: metaphors and analogies
Area plan of a research field

The idea that themes represent the ways in which texts are either similar or different from each other.
The correct answer is: Compare and contrast
Look carefully at words and phrases that indicate relationships among things.
The correct answer is: Connectors
The changing image of public transportation

The correct answer is: Pictures
The approach is based on a powerful trick most of us learned in kindergarten and requires paper and
scissors.
The correct answer is: Cutting and Sorting
The object is to look for metaphors in rhetoric and deduce the schemas, or underlying principles,
that might produce patterns in those metaphors.
The correct answer is: Metaphors and analogies
Sherzer (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) presents a detailed analysis of a two-hour performance by Chief
Olopinikwa of a traditional San Blas Kuna chant. The chant was recorded in 1970. Like many linguistic
anthropologists, Sherzer had taught an assistant, Alberto Campos, to use a phonetic transcription
system. After the chant, Sherzer asked Campos, to transcribe and translate the tape. Campos put
Kuna and Spanish on left- and right-facing pages. By studying Campos’s translation against the
original Kuna, Sherzer was able to pick out certain recurrent features. Campos left out the chanted
utterances of the responding chief (usually something like "so it is"), which turned out to be markers
for verse endings in the chant. Campos also left out so-called framing words and phrases (like "Thus"
at the beginning of a verse and "it is said, so I pronounce" at the end of a verse). These contribute to
the line and verse structure of the chant. Finally, "instead of transposing metaphors and other
figurative and allusive language into Spanish" Campos "explains them in his translation".
The correct answer is: transitions
Another linguistic approach is to look for naturally occurring shifts in thematic content.
The correct answer is: Transitions
It is based on a simple observation: if you want to understand a concept, then look at how it is used.
The correct answer is: Key words in context (KWIC)
In a study of birth planning in China, Greenhalgh (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) surveyed 1,011 ever-
married women, gathered social and economic histories from 150 families. She conducted in-depth
interviews with present and formal officials (known as cadres), and collected documentary evidence
from local newspapers, journals and other sources. Greenhalgh notes that "Because I was largely
constrained from asking direct questions about resistance, the informal record of field notes,
interview transcripts, and questionnaire data contains few overt challenges to state policy."
Greenhalgh concludes, however, that their conversations with the researchers, both peasants and
cadres made strategic use of silence to protest aspects of the policy they did not like. Cadres, for
example were loathe to comment on birth-planning campaigns; peasant women were reluctant to
talk about sterilization. These silences form one part of the unofficial record of birth planning in the
villages. More explicit protests were registered in informal conversations. From these interactions
emerged a sense of profound distress of villagers forced to choose between a resistance that was
politically risky and a compliance that violated the norms of Chinese culture and of practical reason.
The correct answer is: searching for missing information
Geographic map of the study area
Artwork of the child participants
The correct answer is: Pictures
Results rely heavily on words, and often quotations from those studied are included in the document.
Recommendations should aim for the ideals but they must be feasible, practical, and attainable even
for impossible.
Bill and Jessica were almost done taking turns choosing the players for their teams. It was Jessica’s
turn to choose, and only Kurt was left. Jessica said, “Kurt.”
The correct answer is: Jessica was pleased to have Kurt on her team.
You just opened a bag of potato chips and poured some juice in a glass when the phone rang. You
went out of the kitchen to answer it. When you returned after a couple of minutes, you found the
split juice and pieces of chips on the floor. Your little sister was teary-eyed and said, “I’m sorry. It was
an accident.”
The correct answer is: Your sister decided to get her own snacks.
Not too much detail is needed in the summary of findings – simple answer the research questions,
and draw the conclusion
Conclusions should refer only to the population, area, or subject of the study.
different homes. They did not meet again until they were 39. When they met, they found out the
following: Springer’s first wife was named Linda and his second wife, Betty. Lewis has also had a
wife named Betty and one named Linda. Each had a son named James Allen. Each had owned a dog
named Toy. Their favorite subject in high school had been math. They had both studied law
enforcement after high school. They had the same hobbies and the same favorite vacation
place. They even liked the same brand of cookies. (adapted from http://www.gedonlineclass.net)
What conclusion can you draw about the two men in the article?
The correct answer is: Even though these men were raised differently, they like many of the same
things.
References can be the same as bibliography.
Reference list allows readers to locate and use the sources and copy the ones cited.
The readers must be informed why this research counts and why is it important.
The club president tendered his resignation and said, “While I may no longer lead this organization, I
will continue to support its endeavors and activities.”
The correct answer is: He will still participate in the activities of the organization.
The research report need not to be substantially different from drafts, except where participants have
indicated that change is necessary.
different homes. They did not meet again until they were 39. When they met, they found out the
following: Springer’s first wife was named Linda and his second wife, Betty. Lewis has also had a
wife named Betty and one named Linda. Each had a son named James Allen. Each had owned a dog
named Toy. Their favorite subject in high school had been math. They had both studied law
enforcement after high school. They had the same hobbies and the same favorite vacation
place. They even liked the same brand of cookies. (adapted from http://www.gedonlineclass.net)
What conclusion can you draw about twins based on this article?
The correct answer is: Identical twins have a lot in common.

“English has been dubbed as the “language of the world”. Over a billion people in the world have
considered English as their second language. With over 2,500 OFW’s leaving the country everyday to
different parts of the globe, Filipinos are expected to arm themselves with English to communicate
with the world.”(Excerpt from “Nursing the Carabao English”,in Yu& Plata, 2006)
The correct answer is: Communicating in English is an important tool for Filipinos who want to work
abroad.
Maria is watching too much television. A toddler shouldn’t be spending hours staring blankly at a
screen. Worse yet, some of her wild behavior have been inspired by those awful cartoons she
watches.
The correct answer is: Some cartoons are not good for Maria.
In reading, we should consider not only what we can directly get from the text but also what we can
read between the lines. In order to fully understand and appreciate a thought, a sentence, a passage,
and a text, we need to read more than the literal meaning (Yu & Plata, 2006).
The correct answer is: We should use given information in inferring ideas.
Where can one find the literature of a qualitative research?
Select one:
a. Middle part
b. Reference part
c. Beginning part
d. Ending part
Which of the following is NOT an ESSENTIAL element of ethical research?
Select one:
a. Valuable scientific question
b. Subject selection based on locality
c. Balance of risks and benefits
d. Independent review
umbrella. He would feel silly carrying it to the bus stop on such a sunny morning.
The correct answer is: Mateo heard a weather forecast; it would rain in the afternoon.
The best research design is the qualitative research design.
The coordinator made an announcement, “Only the first 100 applicants will be interviewed today.
The others would have to come back tomorrow.”
The correct answer is: Interview of applicants will be conducted today and tomorrow.
Recommendations should aim to solve or help solve problems discovered in the investigation.
Arrange the following parts of the research paper by numbering them chronologically from 1
to 10.
Methodology
Significance of the Study
Conclusions and Recommendations
Introduction
Review of Related Literature
Title
References
Statement of the Problem
Presentation and Interpretation of Data
Scope and Delimitation
Which of the following is the content of conclusion?
The correct answer is: A judgment or final decision
Which of the following should be considered in questioning data validity and reliability?

What research method allows researchers to obtain a detailed description of social settings or event
in order to situate people’s behavior within their own socio-cultural context?
The correct answer is: Observation
What is literature in research?
What are the ways to verify conclusions for qualitative research?
The correct answer is: Memoing, verification and credibility
Which citation style is usually used in social science researches?
The correct answer is: APA format
Living with the patients with Schizophrenia and their families
What research design is used when a theory is developed from data generated by a series of
observations or interviews principally involving an inductive approach?
The correct answer is: Grounded theory
What is bibliography?
The correct answer is: A complete list of all works related to the study including the ones that are not
directly contained in the report.
What techniques for discovering research texts fall under simple observation?
The correct answer is: Word repetitions, key-indigenous terms, and key-words-in-contexts (KWIC)
How does verification of data happen?
The correct answer is: Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are realistic,
supportable, and valid.
Which of the following research questions should NOT be answered using action research methods?
The correct answer is: Is parent attitude toward school uniforms related to their socioeconomic
status?
Which statement is true in writing research recommendations?

The correct answer is: Recommendations should be logical and valid.
What data collection procedure is used when analyzing and communicating the social life through
photos?
The correct answer is: Visual data
What is known to be deliberately fabricating details of a research project?
The correct answer is: Lying by fabrication
What is the grounded theory research design?
The correct answer is: The researcher generates a general explanation (a theory) of a process, and
action, or an interaction shaped by the views of a large number of participants.
Which organizational principle is used to connect the research topic to different backgrounds (i.e.
political, methodological, geographical, literary)?
The correct answer is: Sector
__________________ is the thing (person, place, event, etc.) that is selected for inclusion in the study.
The correct answer is: Sampling unit
A study is based on 30 people (across three focus groups). What type of study is this?
It is also known as the research plan.
The correct answer is: Research design
Which of the following method is used in qualitative research?
The correct answer is: Focus group discussion
Which of the following is an example of falsification in research?
The correct answer is: Manipulated data from the findings
A surveyor placed a cable across a street to count the number of vehicles which pass over it at
different times of the day in order to select a site for a new 7-Eleven store. What type of data
collection did he use?
The correct answer is: Observation
Why do researchers need to be knowledgeable about research misconduct?

Which of the following titles is a narrative research?
The correct answer is: The Life and Works of Rizal
Which of the following citation used the APA format?
The correct answer is: Canonigo, C.S. (1999). English grammar & composition part 1. Manila: CKC
Publication
Why is participant observation common among ethnographic studies?
The correct answer is: Because it helps researchers learn the perspectives held by study populations.
The research project is
The correct answer is: A scientific endeavor
Which statement is correct in writing research conclusion?
A researcher would like to display the geographic map of his research population. What mode for
displaying qualitative data should he use?
What type of source are documentary films?
What influences the choice of the research design?
Data gathering techniques are part of
The correct answer is: The methodological framework
What category of information in participant observation is concerned about clothing, age, gender,
physical appearance of respondents?
The correct answer is: Appearance
What kind of questions must be used in conducting interviews?
The correct answer is: Mapping questions

Which of the following is the first stage of in-depth interview?
The correct answer is: Establish an initial rapport
What is the best research design?
The correct answer is: For beginning researchers, a qualitative research is advisable because the
natural setting is accessible.
A study of the Italians and the health benefits of the Mediterranean lifestyle
What is pawing in context analysis?
The correct answer is: Marking the texts up with different colored highlighter pens.
Which of the following is the purpose of recommendations?
The correct answer is: Courses of actions suggested by the researcher based on the findings of the
study
Which of the following is qualitative data analysis?
Select one:
a. All of the choices

b. Involves the uncovering information relating to languages within cultural contexts.
c. Involves seeking meaning and developing interpretive explanation through the process of feedback.
d. Needs to maintain a detailed and critically reflective diary record and be prepared to subject
himself/herself to regular periods of debriefing with a supervisor or colleague.
Feedback
What is the basis of research conclusion?
The correct answer is: Data results
Student awareness in global warming
What is a research design?
The correct answer is: all of the choices

__________ contains a small number of people (usually eight to twelve) and is convened to address
topics introduced by a group moderator?
The correct answer is: Focus group discussion
What section of the research should clarify concepts defined within the scope of the study?
The correct answer is: Conclusion
When assessing Internet based literature, which of the following is NOT important?
The correct answer is: The layout of the site
Which qualitative research design seeks action to improve practice and study the effects of the
action that was taken?
The correct answer is: Action research
What is the final stage of analyzing data?
The correct answer is: Presenting the data in tabular form
Which of the following should include the informed consent during an experimentation?
How does a researcher avoid fraud?
Select one:
a. Stress that ethical research practice involves honesty during training of
scientists.
b. Make clear statements that those committing fraud will be caught
and punished.
c. Report to the police any fraud material collected.
d. Contact research participants and verifying that they were actually in a
study.
RSCH G11
-Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma in research?
Select one: a. Misconduct in research b. Informed consent c. Falsification of data bank d. Conflicts of
interest
-True or False: A responsible researcher looks for alternative ways to arrive at a conclusion in the study.
Answer: False
-What aspect of research experience illustrates the expedition of the researcher?
Select one: a. Involvement b. Research Adventure c. Emotions d. Knowledge
-What does “observe justice” mean in ethical research?
Select one: a. Individuals should be treated as autonomous agents. b. Persons with diminished autonomy
(e.g., prisoners, students, children, etc) should not be coerced to participate in a research. c. Investigators
should mind the reduction of risk that might occur from the research. d. Investigator should practice
fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants.
-A researcher may withhold a participant’s name and any identifying characteristics when asked to present
such information when
Select one: a. They feel the information is unnecessary to the individual b. They have obtained a certificate
of confidentiality c. It is a case involving required reporting d. The research paper is not published yet.
-What is scientific method?
Select one: a. Validating the results b. Systematic process c. Good research d. Making research instruments
-Research is described as a cycle because it follows a process.
-Which of the following is not included in the research experience?
Select one: a. Identity of the researcher b. Biography of the researcher c. Social class of the researcher d.
Emotions of the researcher
-Anonymity is when a participant does not give a researcher…
Select one: a. His/her name and identifying characteristics b. Confidential material c. Confidential material
and identifying characteristics d. His/her name e. Identifying characteristics f. His/her name and
confidential material
-Research is
Select one: a. Reorganizing, or restating, reviewing common findings b. Analyzing and interpreting new
information c. Collecting existing information d. Modifying established knowledge
-Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it
is an incorrect description. It should not use comparative terms (such as higher, better, etc.).
Select one: True False
is an incorrect description. The problem statement is more specific than a topic and it limits the scope of
the research problem.
is an incorrect description. The problem statement is more specific than a topic and it limits the scope of
the research problem.
-Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: The Specific Genetic Code of
the Fruit Fly
Answer: PURE
is an incorrect description. It is biased in terminology or position.
-Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Compositions of Protons,
Neutrons and Electrons
Answer: PURE
is an incorrect description. Indicate what is probably necessary to conduct the study and explain how the
findings will present this information.
is an incorrect description. It must only ask about the relationship between two or more variables.
-Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Applying the algorithm for
detecting individual trees from Drone Images
Answer: APPLIED
is an incorrect description. It has the potential to suggest directions for past research.
-The Internet has become an accepted source of information for educational research. Which of the
Select one: a. The number of "hits" for the site b. The honesty of the reported information c. The
authenticity of the information d. The lack of bias
-What should a review of the literature enable an investigator to do?
Select one: a. Provide the insights necessary to develop a logical framework into which the topic fits. b.
Ascertain what is already known about a topic. c. None of the choices d. Identify methodological
strategies for designing the study. e. All of the choices
-What is the context of “literature” in a research project?
Select one: a. Any highly regarded novel b. Any paper source c. Any written material d. Published accounts
of researchers
Which of the following is NOT found in scope and delimitation of research?
Select one:
a. The benefits and beneficiaries of the study
b. The locale of the study
c. A brief statement of the general purpose of the study
d. The period of the study
-Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Food blog
Select one: a. Syndicated b. Dynamic c. Static
-Identify the citation format used in the following references by writing CMS, APA or MLA: Pollan, Michael.
2006. The Omnivore’s Dilemma: A Natural History of Four Meals. New York: Penguin.
Answer: APA
-Most of the searches for related literature are conducted using:
Select one: a. Long sentences b. Key word searches c. Short sentences d. Key letter searches
-Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Braveheart (starred and produced by Mel
Gibson)
Select one: a. Dynamic b. Static c. Syndicated
-Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE with regards to the literature review?
Select one: a. It shows why research questions are important. b. It explains the method necessary for the
gathering of data. c. It helps researchers to build up an argument. d. It has everything a researcher needs
to read about his/her research
-What is the most popular citation style used in academic research papers?
Select one: a. APA and CMS b. APA c. CMS d. MLA e. CMS and MLA f. All of the choices g. APA and MLA
-Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Spolarium by Juan Luna
Select one: a. Syndicated b. Dynamic c. Static
-In a study of birth planning in China reenhalgh in Ryan and ernard 00 surveyed 1011 evermarried women
gathered social and economic histories from 10 families. he conducted indepth interviews with present
and formal officials known as cadres and collected documentary evidence from local newspapers ournals
and other sources. reenhalgh notes that ecause I was largely constrained from asking direct uestions aout
resistance the informal record of field notes interview transcripts and uestionnaire data contains few overt
challenges to state policy. reenhalgh concludes however that their conversations with the researchers oth
peasants and cadres made strategic use of silence to protest aspects of the policy they did not like. adres
for eample were loathe to comment on irthplanning campaigns peasant women were reluctant to talk
aout steriliation. hese silences form one part of the unofficial record of irth planning in the villages. More
eplicit protests were registered in informal conversations. rom these interactions emerged a sense of
profound distress of villagers forced to choose etween a resistance that was politically risky and a
compliance that violated the norms of hinese culture and of practical reason.
Answer: searching for missing information
-Artwork of the child participants
Select one: a. Pictures . Word Tales and Lists c. Graphics
-Answer 1,2,3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said.
Answer: 4
-Identify the technique used to discover the thees in the data below.
Naomi Quinn (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) has analyzed hundreds of hours of interviews to discover
concepts underlying American marriage and to show how these concepts are tied together. he egan y
looking at patterns of speech and at the repetition of key words and phrases paying particular attention
to informants use of metaphors and the commonalities in their reasoning about marriage. an one of her
informants says that marriage is a manufactured product. his popular metaphor indicates that an sees
marriages as something that has properties like strength and staying power and as something that reuires
work to produce. ome marriages are put together well while others fall apart like so many cars or toys or
washing machines.
Answer: Metaphors and analogies
Anything that might indicate membership in groups or in supopulations of interest to the study such as
profession social status socioeconomic class religion or ethnicity
Select one: a. Human traffic b. verbal behavior and interactions c. Physical behavior and gestures d.
Appearance e. Personal space f. People who stand out
Answer: OPEN
-Much can be learned from a text by what is not mentioned.
Select one: a. Transitions . Unarked tets c. Indigenous categor d. ord repetitions e. awing f. Metaphors and
analogies g. opare and contrast h. utting and Sorting i. e words in contet I . j. Searching for missing
information k. onnectors l. Social science queries
What is your message to people who are still fighting cancer until now
Answer: 5
-The idea that themes represent the ways in which tets are either similar or different from each other.
Select one: a. Unarked tets . Searching for issing inforation c. onnectors d. Indigenous categor e. awing f.
Social science queries g. compare and contrast h. Metaphors and analogies i. ord repetitions . e words in
contet I k. utting and Sorting l. Transitions
-Barkin et al. (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) interviewed clinicians community leaders and parents aout what
physicians could and did do to prevent violence among youth. hese were long comple interviews so arkin
et al. roke the coding process into two steps. hey started with three maor themes that they developed
from theory. he principle investigator went through the transcripts and cut out all the uotes that pertained
to each of the maor themes. hen four other coders independently sorted the uotes from each maor theme
into piles. hen the pile sort data were analyed with multidimensional scaling and cluster analysis to
identify suthemes shared across coders.
Answer: cutting and sorting
-Anonymity is when a participant does not give a researcher…
Answer: His/her name and identifying characteristics
-The mathematics involved is very high level and people often struggle with it even after being taught
how to do it.
Answer: False
-Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?
Answer: Identification of problem
-True or False: A responsible researcher looks for alternative ways to arrive at a conclusion in the study.
Answer: False
-What aspect of research experience illustrates the pressure to the researcher in meeting research
deadlines?
Answer: Emotions
Which of the following is a research method that allows a researcher to get information about a large
number of subjects relatively inexpensively and easily?
Answer: Naturalistic observation
-Subjectivity of researcher in methodology is recognized less. –False
-Informed consent requires that individuals…
Answer: Have adequate information about the procedures and benefits associated with the research
-A researcher may withhold a participant’s name and any identifying characteristics when asked to present
such information when
Answer: They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality
-What is a research instrument?
Answer: a tool for data collection

-A reasoning where one start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal statement is
called
Answer: inductive method
-Itaddresses the question of how people produce social reality in and through interactive processes.
Answer: Qualitative research is the best design for a social inquiry since it explores and analyzes people's
values and perspective through observation.
-What is an ethical dilemma?
Answer:conflict between the different principles of immoral conduct
-What does “observe justice” mean in ethical research?
Answer: Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants
-Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-written research hypothesis?
Answer: pertinent question
-Which of the following is NOT a role of a researcher?
Answer: fabricator of data
-Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge
and experience. “In much of society, research means to investigate something you do not know or
understand. ” -Neil Armstrong
Answer: Research is an investigation of the unknown.
-True or False: Qualitative research requires data from a natural setting.
Answer: true
-Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma in research?
Answer: Falsification of data bank
-Write TRUE if the statement gives the correct description of an everyday life research and FALSE if it is
incorrect. The observation of such forms can be broken into the dimensions of temporal, spatial, material,
social, meaningful, media-technical, emotional and bodily aspects.
Answer: true
is an incorrect description. It has the potential to suggest directions for past research.
Answer: False
-Which of the following is a good research question?
Answer: How do teenagers view the word “forever”?
-Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Compositions of Protons,
Neutrons and Electrons
Answer: PURE
-Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write ELIMITATI if it is a
restriction of the research. The study is focused on the possible implementation of online ea in the
university.
Answer: SCOPE
-The beneficiaries mentioned in the significance of the study pertain to
Answer: People and institution who have directly or indirectly experienced the research problem.
-What qualitative research characteristic is being described in the statement: The data and the researchers
interpretation of the data - hinge greatly on the contents fro which the data are obtained
Answer: Importance of context
-It clearly states the constructs to be examined.
Answer: True
-Reliability of survey questions was not established.
Answer: DELIMITATION
-In the title “The chemistry of English Language between Foreign and Local Students of Holy Ghost
College in Bangued, Abra”, who could e the possible beneficiaries of the research
Answer: Students, teachers, school administrators and future researchers
-What should e considered in formulating research questions for the statement of the problem?
Answer: Avoid open-ended questions that need explanatory answers.
-The results of this study should be limited to students enrolled in similar programs.
-It should not pose an ethical or moral problem for implementation.

Answer: True
-Statistics will not be utilized in analyzing the results.
-Research benefits and beneficiaries are mentioned in
Answer: Significance of the study
-How can a researcher become the data gathering instrument in qualitative research?
Answer: The researcher is at the center of the data-gathering phase.
-What is conceptual audacity that can be found in the theme of everyday life research?
Answer: A tool that enables us to see new and perhaps surprising aspects of the everyday lives that we lead.
-It must only ask about the relationship between two or more variables
Answer: True
-Which of the following titles is best for applied research?
Answer: The effectiveness of abstinence programs
-What does participant-researcher relationship mean in qualitative research?
Answer: The participants and the researcher share the “research space”.
-What is the scope of the research?
Answer: Identifies the possibilities to which to which the study becomes manageable in terms of issues,
respondents, and time.
-The researcher invented the results of the study.
Answer: Fabrication
-Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it’s a terrible thing that in a modern
society we have a problem such as this. I don’t know though what we can do about it. I want to
do something but I don’t know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to
town. They are always there asking for money. You don’t know though if they really need it or if
they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can’t
ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose
to live on the streets – well I don’t believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to
say – it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not
sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel
something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don’t know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013)
The government is the only one who can help the homeless
Answer: False
-The Internet has become an accepted source of information for educational research. Which of
the following is NOT an indicator of the quality of information found on the Internet?
Answer: The authenticity of the information
-What is the context of “literature” in a research project?
Answer: Published accounts of researchers
-The World Famous Hot Dog Site. (1999, July 7). Retrieved January 5, 2008, from
http://www.xroads.com/~tcs/hotdog/hotdog.html
Answer: APA
-Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it’s a terrible thing that in a modern
society we have a problem such as this. I don’t know though what we can do about it. I want to
do something but I don’t know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to
town. They are always there asking for money. You don’t know though if they really need it or if
they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can’t
ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose
to live on the streets – well I don’t believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to
say – it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not
sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel
something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don’t know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013)
Answer: False
-Harmon (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) collected data from 8 nurses who were employed between
1951 and 1965 in a Virginia state hospital. These nurses were now retired and had between 12
and 46 years of psychiatric nursing experience. The researcher wanted to describe the
experiences of these nurses who practiced in a state mental hospital before and during the
introduction of antipsychotic medications. They expressed resignation and frustration while
trying to provide care despite crowded wards and inadequate personnel and supplies. The
nurses indicated that they focused on the patient’s body instead of on the patient’s mind. The
camaraderie they experienced with other nurses helped them continue in their positions, despite
what they felt to be a “thankless job.”
Answer: 8 nurses
-A director didn’t cite the name of the playwright he used in the contest.
Answer: Plagiarism
-What information is required for the APA in-text citation?
Personal author: McCullough, David G. Title: John Adams Publication info: New York : Simon &
Schuster, c2001. Bibliography note: Includes bibliographical references (p. 703-726) and index
Answer: McCullough, 2001
-What organization principle is used to explain historical changes or perspectives?
Answer: Chronology
-Name the research misconduct performed in the following situations by choosing the letter of
the correct answer: She hastily distorted the statistical computation of the data to finish her
paper on time.
Answer: Falsification
-Identify the sample used in the researches below by choosing the letter of the best answer:
Dunckley, Aspinal, Addington-Hall, Hughes, & Higginson (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) used the staff
in one hospice and one nursing home setting in London as their research data. The purpose of
the study was to identify facilitators and barriers to the use of the Palliative Care Outcome Scale
(POS). Staff took part in semi-structured interviews, completed diaries, and participated in
monthly meetings to give their opinions of what they thought were the facilitators and barriers
to the implementation of the POS.
Answer: staff of one hospice and one nursing home

-Do the preliminary data analysis on the interview below by agreeing or disagreeing on the
following statements. Write TRUE for agree and FALSE for disagree.
Interview Segment Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it’s a terrible thing
that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don’t know though what we can do
about it. I want to do something but I don’t know what. You are constantly reminded of the
problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don’t know though if
they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring
qualities you can’t ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot
of people choose to live on the streets – well I don’t believe that. I think that is an easy thing for
the authorities to say – it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is
that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I
feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to
do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don’t know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013)
Many people are still unconditionally helping the homeless.
Answer: True
-Identify the citation format used in the following references by writing CMS, APA or MLA:
Google. “Google Privacy Policy.” Last modified March 11, 2009.
http://www.google.com/intl/en/privacypolicy.html
Answer: MLA
-What type of source is the newspaper clipping?
Answer: Syndicated
-What citation style was used in this source? Ellis, Rod. Understanding Second Language
Acquisition. New York: Oxford University, 1986. Print.
Answer: MLA
-Identify the sample used in the researches below by choosing the letter of the best answer:
Additionally, the study explored whether or not the number of years of foreign language study
had an impact on SAT verbal scores. The students involved were female seniors at a private high
school in suburban Maryland. It was hypothesized that there would be no significant effect that
the choice of foreign language study has on the verbal score achieved on the SAT. This
hypothesis was rejected because there was a significant difference in SAT Verbal averages
among the students of three different foreign languages. French foreign language students
outperformed Spanish and Latin foreign language students
Answer: female senior students
-Which part of the review of the related literature engages in a dialogue with the literature?
Answer: Introduction
-A researcher is interested in the examples or illustrations several authors have used to prove a
point. How can he pull them all together and use them in his own paper in a list?
Answer: Include a citation after each separate example to indicate where you found them.
-Which of the following is the best way to maximize the process of reviewing of the related
literature?
Answer: Reviewing the researcher’s notes made on editorial and overview papers and chapters
-Answer 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements
are said.
“What is your message to people who are still fighting cancer until now?”
Answer: 5
-The research report need not to be substantially different from drafts, except where participants
have indicated that change is necessary.
Answer: True
-Identify the category of the information in participant observation by choosing the letter of the
best answer.
How people use their bodies and voices to communicate different emotions; what individuals’
behaviors indicate about their feelings toward one another, their social rank, or their profession.
Answer: Physical behavior and gestures
best answer.
Gender, age, ethnicity, and profession of speakers; dynamics of interaction
Answer: Verbal behavior and interactions
-Recommendations should aim for the ideals but they must be feasible, practical, and attainable
even for impossible.
Answer: False
are said.
“This research is conducted to investigate the life experiences of people who survived cancer
and now living cancer free for more than 5 years.”
Answer: 2
-Identify the most appropriate way to display the following research data. Choose the letter of
the correct answer.
Summary of research findings
Answer: Word Tables and Lists
-Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer.
The club president tendered his resignation and said, “While I may no longer lead this
organization, I will continue to support its endeavors and activities.”
Answer: He will still participate in the activities of the organization.
the correct answer.
Area plan of a research field
Answer: Graphics
are said.
Answer: 6
-Choose the technique for discovering theme to the description:
The idea that themes represent the ways in which texts are either similar or different from each
other.
Answer: Compare and contrast
-Identify the following questions as OPEN, LEADING or MAPPING.
Do you think he is gay?
Answer: LEADING
-Not too much detail is needed in the summary of findings – simple answer the research
questions, and draw the conclusion.
Answer: true
-Choose the technique for discovering theme to the description:
Interviews searching for what people do in managing impersonal social relationships, methods
by which people acquire and maintain achieved and ascribed status, and information about how
people solve problems.
Answer: Social science queries
The coordinator made an announcement, “Only the first 100 applicants will be interviewed
today. The others would have to come back tomorrow.”
Answer: Interview of applicants will be conducted today and tomorrow.
best answer.
Where people enter and exit; how long they stay; who they are (ethnicity, age, gender); whether
they are alone or accompanied; number of people
Answer: Human traffic
-Identify the following questions as OPEN, LEADING or MAPPING.
Since you wish to pursue your graduate studies, what course will you enroll?
Answer: MAPPING
In reading, we should consider not only what we can directly get from the text but also what we
can read between the lines. In order to fully understand and appreciate a thought, a sentence, a
passage, and a text, we need to read more than the literal meaning (Yu & Plata, 2006).
Answer: We should use given information in inferring ideas.
the correct answer.
The list of research participants
Answer: Word Tables and Lists
umbrella. He would feel silly carrying it to the bus stop on such a sunny morning.
Answer: Mateo heard a weather forecast; it would rain in the afternoon.
-What is a research design?
Answer: all of the choices
-What is bibliography?
Answer: A complete list of all works related to the study including the ones that are not directly
contained in the report.
-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Children of wealthy
parents in the education system
Answer: Grounded Theory
-Which of the following is the correct notion about observation?

Answer: A key data gathering method in social sciences
-Which of the following is not a type of narrative research?
Answer: Case study
-What is the final stage of analyzing data?
Answer: Presenting the data in tabular form
-Which of the following is NOT the function of references?
Answer: To ensure sufficiently long reference list
-A study is based on 30 people (across three focus groups). What type of study is this?
Answer: Qualitative
-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A personal journey
with grounded theory methodology
Answer: Grounded Theory
-Which of the following titles is a narrative research?
Answer: The Life and Works of Rizal
-How does verification of data happen?
Answer: Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are realistic, supportable,
and valid.
-When assessing Internet based literature, which of the following is NOT important?
Answer: The layout of the site
-A surveyor placed a cable across a street to count the number of vehicles which pass over it at
different times of the day in order to select a site for a new 7-Eleven store. What type of data
collection did he use?
Answer: Observation
-Which of the following should be considered in questioning data validity and reliability?
Answer: All of the choices

-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Solving word
problems of preschoolers through illustrations
Answer: Action Research
-__________ contains a small number of people (usually eight to twelve) and is convened to
address topics introduced by a group moderator?
Answer: Focus group discussion
-The researcher collected data using questionnaires, structured observation and interviews.
What is the research design applied?
Answer: Ethnographic
-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A Qualitative Study
of Multicultural Identities: Three Cases of London's Inner-City Children
Answer: Ethnographic Research
-What is the purpose of the qualitative data analysis?
Answer: To accomplish a clear description of the phenomenon under study
-Which statement is true in writing research recommendations?
Answer: Recommendations should be logical and valid.
-What techniques for discovering research texts fall under simple observation?
Answer: Word repetitions, key-indigenous terms, and key-words-in-contexts (KWIC)
-What type of source are documentary films?
Answer: Static
-What influences the choice of the research design?
-Which of the following belongs to related literature?
Answer: textbook
-Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of related literature and studies?

Answer: Reviewed materials must be many.
-Threats to credibility in qualitative research exist when _____________.
Answer: The data that fail to fit the explanation or interpretation are not addressed.
-What is common in data collection among qualitative researches?
Answer: Language based
-Which of the following is the purpose of recommendations?
Answer: Courses of actions suggested by the researcher based on the findings of the study
-In participant observation, what information can be observed?
-Which of the following is the correct order in writing the research paper?
Answer: Introduction, method, results, discussion and references
-Which of the following method is used in qualitative research?
Answer: Focus group discussion
-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Lived experiences of
adult caregiving daughter and their elderly mothers
Answer: Phenomenological Research
-Which of the following citation used the APA format?
Answer: Canonigo, C.S. (1999). English Grammar & Composition Part 1. Manila: CKC Publication
-Which of the following do you need to consider in designing a research?
Answer: Focus on your research questions.
-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A historical and
comparative note on the relationship between analytic induction and grounded theorizing
Answer: Ethnographic Research

-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: The lived experience
of being a sole mother in the Philippines
Answer: Phenomenological Research
-Which connector is used to signify conditional relationships?
Answer: Rather than
-A study is based on 1000 people interviewed face-to-face in shopping areas. What qualitative
data collection was used?
Answer: Interview
-The entire research project is an exercise in
-Which citation style is usually used in social science researches?
Answer: APA format
-Which statement is correct in writing research conclusion?
-What are research data?
-Why is participant observation common among ethnographic studies?
Answer: Because it helps researchers learn the perspectives held by study populations.
-What kind of questions must be used in conducting interviews?
Answer: Mapping questions
-What is known to be deliberately fabricating details of a research project?
Answer: Lying by fabrication
-What are the ways to verify conclusions for qualitative research?

Answer: Memoing, verification and credibility
-Which qualitative research design seeks action to improve practice and study the effects of the
action that was taken?
Answer: Action research
-What qualitative analytic approach is mentioned here? This approach involves the researcher in
the production of “objective” accounts of the content of the verbal, written or visual texts, the
development of codes and categories often prior to analysis, and the definition and
measurement of units of analysis.
Answer: Enumerative approach
-What section of the research should clarify concepts defined within the scope of the study?
Answer: Conclusion
-Which of the following is the first stage of in-depth interview?
Answer: Establish an initial rapport
Interdisciplinary discussion becomes more comprehensive through this principle.

A: sector
Paraphrasing must be done properly to avoid plagiarism. What is paraphrasing?

A: All of the choices
Drinking to cope is very common among college students and is related to much higher levels of
alcohol consumption, episodes of heavy drinking, and levels of both negative and positive alcohol
related consequences” (p. 486). Levenson and Park (2002)
A: Levenson and Park (2002) found that drinking to cope is very common among college students
and it is related to much higher levels of alcohol consumption and related consequences.
Statistics and Probability (STAT-112)

Grade11Week 1-10
Which of the following statement is TRUE.
Select one:
a. All of the statements are TRUE.
b. Countable number of values are called discrete variables
c. Non-countable values are called discrete variables
d. Infinite numbers are considered discrete variables.
Answer: Countable number of values are called discrete variables
Question 2
The speed of cars travelling in the road and the water consumption of household are examples of
Select one:
a. Discrete Continuous Random Variable
b. Continuous Discrete Random Variable
c. Continuous Random Variable
d. Discrete Random Variables
e. None of the choices
Answer: Continuous Random Variable
Question 3
True or False: The number of questions that you answer correctly on this quiz is an example of a discrete
random variable.
Answer:
false
Question 4
Select one:
a. Probability distribution equals to one.
b. Probability distribution equals to zero.
c. Probability distribution is used to compute discrete random variables

e. Probability distribution is used to compute continuous random variables
Answer: Probability distribution equals to zero.
Question 5
What is the probability distribution of occurring the all heads in a toss of three coins?
Select one:
a. 0.1255
b. 0.25
c. 1
e. 0
Answer: 0.1255
Short Quiz 1
Which of the following is CORRECT about Sample Space
Select one:
a. Sample space is also known as probability mass function.
b. Sample space is a subset of events.
c. Sample space should be always be a number from zero to one.
d. Sample space are possible outcomes
Answer: Sample space are possible outcomes
The sum of all the probabilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal
to _____
Answer: 1
How many possible outcomes when you simultaneously toss three fair coins.
Answer: 8
Salary, scores and age are examples of answer: continuous.. random variables
Which one of these variables is a not continuous random variable?
Select one:
a. The number of attendees in an Information Technology conference.

b. The tuition fee enrolled in different universities
c. The number of volunteers in a community
d. The number of senators elected in the Philippines
Answer: The number of senators elected in the Philippines
Countless number of values are also known as Answer continuous.. variables.
Which of the following random activity would you define as a discrete random variable?
Select one:
a. Distance travelled of a tourist bus.
b. Depth of building excavation.
c. None of the choices.
d. Height of students enrolled in an online course.
e. Wind speed during typhoon.
Answer: None of the choices.
1.
Select one:
a. The statement is NOT ALWAYS FALSE
b. The statement is TRUE.
c. The statement is FALSE.
d. The statement is NOT ALWAYS TRUE
Answer: The statement is TRUE.
A continuous random variable assigns a whole number to each possible outcome of an experiment.
Select one:
a. None of the choices
b. The statement has insufficient information.
c. True
d. False
Answer: True
This tells what the possible values of X and how probabilities are assigned to these values.
Answer: Probability Distribution
Week3 Stats
WEEK 3
Learning Activity 3 AND SHORT QUIZ 3
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.
Select one:
a. Median
b. Z-score
c. Normal Distribution Measurement
d. Empirical Rule
Feedback
The correct answer is: Z-score
In an IT Certification Examination, the mean was 75 and the standard deviation was 5. If Pam z-scored is
1.5, what was her score in the examination?
Select one:
a. 117.50
b. 487.50
d. 82.50
Feedback
The correct answer is: 82.50
Who is the famous mathematician where the normal distribution curve was named after?
Select one:
a. Carl Friedrich Gauss
b. William Gosset
c. Ronald Fisher
d. John Tukey
Feedback
The correct answer is: Carl Friedrich Gauss
Which of the following is not a characteristics of a normal distribution.
Select one:
a. Mount-shaped distribution
b. Bell-shaped
d. Perfectly asymmetric
Feedback
The correct answer is: Perfectly asymmetric
How many regions can be found at the left side of the normal distribution curve?
Select one:
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 1
Feedback
Short Quiz 3
In a normal distribution curve,
Select one:
a. Mean is equal to Median and Mode
c. Mean is equal to Mode
d. Mean is equal to Median
Feedback
The correct answer is: Mean is equal to Median and Mode
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.
Select one:
a. Empirical Rule
b. Median
c. Z-score
d. Normal Distribution Measurement
Feedback
The correct answer is: Z-score
Given the set of data:
1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22
Find the lower quartile
Select one:
a. 8
b. 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,
c. 3
d. 0
Feedback
1, what was her score in the examination?
Select one:
a. 53.00
c. 80.50
d. 82.50
Feedback

Assuming z-score is -1, which of the following statement is TRUE.
Select one:
a. All values are greater than the mean.
b. All values are less than the mean.
c. All values are equal to the mean.
d. All values are equal to the z-score
Feedback
The correct answer is: All values are less than the mean.
1,1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22
Find the upper quartile
Select one:
a. 13,14,15,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22
b. 18
c. 22
d. 0
Feedback
Find the median of the following data set.
11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 22, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37, 39, 41, 43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59
Select one:
a. 36.45
b. 24
c. 30
d. 31
Feedback

1,1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22
How many numbers are in the lower quartile?
Select one:
a. 0
b. 10
c. 6
d. 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10
Feedback
Normal Distribution Curve is also called
Select one:
a. Arc-Shaped Curve
b. Bell Curve
c. Basic Curve
d. All of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: Bell Curve
In a normal distribution curve, data are divided into 3 equal parts.
Select one:
a. The statement is TRUE.
c. The statement is FALSE.
d. The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE depending on the data set.
Feedback
The correct answer is: None of the choices

Week 5 Stats
Learning Activity 4
True or False: Variance Error is the difference between a sample statistic used to estimate a population
parameter and the actual but unknown value of the parameter
The correct answer is: FALSE
True or False: Sampling Error is the degree of error expected for a given sample design
The correct answer is: TRUE
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No.
The correct answer is: No
Given the following sample data, compute for the true mean. The answer must have two decimal places.
1112345558888
Given the following mean, compute for the Mean of Means. The answer must have two decimal places.
4.5, 9.2, 9.1, 8.4
Week 5 Stats short quiz 4
Short Quiz 4
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No
Renmel closes his eyes, opens a book and randomly points to a word on the page. She repeats the
process for 30 times.
True or False: Mean of means is the sum of all means multiplied by the number of means
It is a part of population intended to represent a population as a whole.
Select one:
a. Mode
b. Deviation Error
c. Parameter
d. Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means
e. Random Sample
f. Mean
g. Sampling Error
h. Population Mean
i. Median
j. Statistics
k. Distribution Error
l. Sample Distribution of sample means
m. Standard Curve
n. Sample
o. Standard Deviation
p. Sample
q. Population
The correct answer is: Sample
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No
Women who volunteer to take a survey on human rights.
The distribution that describes the spread of the means of multiple samples from the sample population
Select one:
a. Deviation Error
b. Parameter
c. Sample
d. Standard Deviation
e. Distribution Error
f. Population
g. Random Sample
h. Mode
i. Sampling Error
j. Population Mean
k. Mean
l. Statistics
m. Median
n. Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means
o. Sample Distribution of sample means
p. Sample
q. Standard Curve
The correct answer is: Sample Distribution of sample means
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No.
Each audience in a game show is assigned a number from 111 to 666 and roll three standard dice to
choose random contestants.
The correct answer is: Yes
If the standard deviation of a population is 300, and samples of 25 units each are taken, what is the
Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means?
Given the following sample data, compute for the true mean. The answer should be rounded off to one
decimal place.
3 5 5 5 6 6 8 8 13 15 17 30
True or False: People whose names were drawn out of the survey is an example of a random sample
True or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases.

Learning Activity 6 Stats
To calculate the mean from a sample,
Select one:
a. Get the half of the sum of the all the values
b. Add all the values and divided by the total number of samples
c. Divide each value with the sum of all values
The correct answer is: Add all the values and divided by the total number of samples
Compute for the point estimate of the population parameter. Round off your answer to the nearest
hundredths or has two decimal places. Write the measurement at the end of the answer.
Average Speed of a car Car 1 Car 2 Car 3 Car 4
80 kph 75 kph 60 kph 66 kph
The correct answer is: 7 0 . 2 5 k p h
This is defined by two values, between which a population parameter is said to lie.
Select one:
a. Interval Estimate
b. Points Estimate
c. Coefficient Estimate
d. Point to point Estimate
The correct answer is: Interval Estimate
Compute for the point estimate of the population parameter. Round off your answer to the nearest
hundredths or has two decimal places, if necessary.
Scores of students in quizzes
Compute for the point estimate of the population parameter of the grades of students. (Round off your
answer to the nearest hundredths.)
Point estimate is
Select one:
b. always equal to the mean
c. used to estimate population parameter Correct

d. the number of samples
e. a range of possible values of population mean
Feedback
The correct answer is: used to estimate population parameter
A single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population.
Select one:
a. Sample distribution Incorrect
b. Confidence Limit
c. Confidence coefficient
d. Sample Mean
Feedback
The correct answer is: Sample Mean
Short Quiz 6 Stats
Confidence interval is associated by confidence level
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Which of the following illustrates confidence

level? 95%
The effectiveness of the sample android application can be measured by the proportion of mobile users
who install the application. To determine this proportion for a specific android app, the distributed to
500 users and 450 user install the app. The point estimate is ____________.
Select one:
a. .85
b. .80
c. .90
d. .95
The correct answer is: .90
Which measure of tendency is the best estimator?
Select one:
a. Mode
b. Mean
c. Standard Deviation
d. Median
The correct answer is: Mean
Confidence level indicates the level of assurance that confidence interval encloses the:
Select one:
a. unknown population mean
b. biased sample
c. known population mean
d. unbiased sample
The correct answer is: unknown population mean
Which of the following applies to confidence interval
Select one:
a. Confidence interval is used to the true mean of population
b. As the confidence interval for a given statistic increases in length, the confidence level increases
c. Confidence interval is associated by confidence level
e. All of the choices

A 95% confidence interval means 95% of all samples of size n would fall ______ our confidence interval
Select one:
a. Below
b. Outside
d. Within
e. Above
Feedback
The correct answer is: Within
You need to calculate for the confidence interval for the population mean. The population standard
deviation is known. There are 50 sample observations. You will use 95 percent level of confidence. The
appropriate value of z is:
Select one:
a. Cannot be determined
b. 1.64
c. 2.58
d. 1.96
e. 1
Point estimate is always equal to the sampling coefficient.
Select one:
a. FALSE. Change the statement to “Point estimate is equal to the number of samples”
b. FALSE. Change the statement to “Point estimate is used to estimate population parameter”
c. TRUE
d. FALSE. Change the statement to “Point estimate is a range of possible values of population mean”
The correct answer is: FALSE. Change the statement to “Point estimate is a range of possible values of
population mean”
Confidence coefficient is a single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to confidence limit
c. FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to sample mean
d. FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to Confidence Limit
The correct answer is: FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to sample mean
The confidence level is expressed as a fraction
Select one:
a. FALSE

Short Quiz 8
The “p hat” is calculated as
Select one:
a. Number of desired elements over the number of desired outcomes
b. Number of desired outcomes over the number of desired elements Correct
c. 1- (Number of desired elements over the number of desired outcomes)
d. (Number of desired outcomes over the number of desired elements) – 1
Feedback
The correct answer is: Number of desired outcomes over the number of desired elements
Sampling distribution of proportions is ______________ distributed
Select one:
a. Normally Correct
b. Randomly
c. Evenly
d. Unevenly
Feedback
The correct answer is: Normally
A survey was conducted to 300 Grade 10 students who have Internet access to determine who access
social media websites after attending classes. Based on the survey, 250 students responded Yes. What is
the population proportion to students who do not access social media after attending classes?
Select one:
a. 80%
b. 20%
c. 17% Correct
d. 83%
Feedback
The correct answer is: 17%
When the confidence level is 95%, the ____________________ are +- 1.96
Select one:
a. Margin of Errors
b. Confidence coefficients Correct
c. Confidence intervals
d. “p hat” values
Feedback
The correct answer is: Confidence coefficients
Point estimate is
Select one:
a. Always equal to the number or samples
b. A range of possible values for a population parameter.
c. Equal to the population mean
d. A statistical that estimates a population parameter Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: A statistical that estimates a population parameter
The ^p is the ____________ estimate of p.
Select one:
a. balanced
b. unbiased Correct
c. biased
d. inverse
Given n=10, x¯ =28, s=2.0, 95% confidence. Assuming that the samples come from a normal distribution,
find the margin of error.
Select one:
a. 1.24 Correct
b. 26.76
c. 3.16
d. 0.63
Feedback
Given n=10, x¯ =28, s=2.0, 99% confidence. Assuming that the samples come from a normal distribution,
find the interval estimate of the population mean.
Select one:
a. (11.34, 14.89)
b. (1.63, 2.25)
c. (21.36, 24.63)
d. (26.36, 29.63) Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: (26.36, 29.63)
What is in the center of the confidence interval?
Select one:
a. Margin of Error
b. Point Estimate Correct
c. Population Parameter
d. Number of samples
Feedback
The correct answer is: Point Estimate
In a survey of 500 individuals, 300 likes to eat dinner in a restaurant. Estimate the sample proportion ^p
of those who like to eat dinner in a restaurant based on the sample.
Select one:
a. 45%
b. 0.40
c. 55%
d. 0.60 Correct
Feedback
Margin of error is
Select one:
a. the product of confidence coefficient and standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample
size Correct
b. the quotient of confidence coefficient and standard deviation multiplied by the square root of the
sample size
c. the product of confidence coefficient and square root of the sample size divided by standard deviation
d. the quotient of confidence coefficient and square root of the sample size divided standard deviation
Feedback
The correct answer is: the product of confidence coefficient and standard deviation divided by the
square root of the sample size
Given n=100, x¯ =45, s=2.0, 90% confidence. Assuming that the samples come from a normal
distribution, find the interval estimate of the population mean.
Select one:
a. (42.103, 43.970)
b. (43.355, 46.645)
c. (44.461, 45.329) Incorrect
d. (46.921, 47.727)
Feedback
Given n=100, x¯ =80, s=2.0, 95% confidence. Assuming that the samples come from a normal
distribution, find the margin of error.
Select one:
a. 0.348 Incorrect
b. 0.20
c. 0.392
d. 0.196
Feedback
A survey was conducted from the 250 individuals. Based on the result of the survey, 170 are satisfied
with the current Local Government administration. Estimate the sample proportion ^p of those who are
not satisfied based on the sample provided.
Select one:
a. 55%
b. 0.32 Correct
c. 0.
d. 0.68
Feedback
A survey was conducted to 110 college students to determine who are using the Library Resource Center
of the university. Based on the survey, only 30% responded Yes. Based on the survey, how many
students are not using the Library Resource Center?
Select one:
a. 33
b. 30
c. 67 Correct
d. 70
Feedback
A survey of 200 people finds that they work on average of 8 hours a day. If the margin of error at 98%
confidence level is 1.2 hours. How do you compute for the lower confidence interval?
Select one:
a. 8 hours less 1.2 hours
b. Z score plus less the square root of 8 hours less 1.2 hours Correct
d. 8 hours less 1.2 hours multiplied by the z score at 98% confidence level
Feedback
The correct answer is: Z score plus less the square root of 8 hours less 1.2 hours
King Lo Electronics claims that the new brand of computer will last for 25,000 hours. A research
company conducted a test on the information. The company randomly select and test 100 cellular
phone. The data from the sample shows that the mean life of the cellular phone is 20,000 hours, with a
standard deviation of 1000 hours. Determine the 95% confidence interval of the mean life of the cellular
phone.
Select one:
a. (17,482, 18,649)
b. (19,804, 20,196) Correct
c. (23,467, 24,639)
d. (26,928, 27,375)
Feedback
The correct answer is: (19,804, 20,196)
Given the sample size (n=400) and sample proportion (p=0.56), find the approximate margin of error for
the 99% confidence interval:
Select one:
a. 0.043 Incorrect
b. 0.052
c. 0.064
d. 0.074
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.053
b. 0.085
c. 0.072 Incorrect
d. 0.039
Feedback
A private organization telephone poll of 750 adults, aged 18 and older, living in the country found that
60% of citizen feel confident in the accuracy of their doctor's advice, and don't feel the need to check for
a second opinion or do additional research. The margin of error for this survey was given as ± 20
percentage points. Find a 95% confidence interval estimate of the percent of adults who feel confident
in the accuracy of their doctor’s advice and don’t feel the need to check for a second opinion.
Select one:
a. (0.490, 0.601)
b. (0.452, 0.538)
c. (0.565, 0.640) Correct
d. (0.316, 0.483)
Feedback
Short Quiz 9
Select one:
a. 0.086
b. 0.059
c. 0.039 Incorrect
d. 0.330
Feedback
Suppose a new cancer treatment is given to a sample of 500 patients. The treatment was successful for
300 of the patients. Assume that these patients are representative of the population of individuals who
have this cancer.
Determine a 90% confidence interval for the proportion successful treated.
Select one:
a. 0.564 < p < 0.640
b. 0.640 < p < 0.742 Incorrect
c. 0.742 < p < 0.834
d. 0.834 < p < 0.927
Feedback
The correct answer is: 0.564 < p < 0.640
a second opinion or do additional research. The margin of error for this survey was given as ±10
percentage points.
Find a 90% upper confidence interval estimate of the percent of adults who feel confident in the
accuracy of their doctor’s advice and don’t feel the need to check for a second opinion.
Select one:
a. 0.077
b. 0.329 Incorrect
c. 0.834
d. 0.290
Feedback

Lim Electronics claims that the new brand of cellular phone will last for 80,000 hours. A research
company conducted a test on the information. The company randomly select and test 100 cellular
phone. The data from the sample shows that the mean life of the cellular phone is 60,000 hours, with a
standard deviation of 1500 hours. Determine the 95% confidence interval of the mean life of the cellular
phone.
Select one:
a. (79,301 , 80,890) Incorrect
b. (59,706 , 60,294)
c. (59,301 , 60,890)
d. (79,706 , 80,294)
Feedback
The correct answer is: (59,706 , 60,294)
A survey of 900 female finds that they sleep on average of 8 hours a day. If the margin of error at 95%
confidence level is 1.3 hours. Find the confidence interval?
Select one:
a. 4.50 hours < p < 5.89 hours
b. 6.70 hours < p < 9.30 hours Correct
c. 8.66 hours < p < 11.26 hours
d. 7.34 hours < p < 8.66 hours
Feedback
The correct answer is: 6.70 hours < p < 9.30 hours
Select one:
a. 0.055
b. 0.069
c. 0.047 Correct
d. 0.039
Feedback

Given the problem in item 9, what does the answer tells about?
Select one:
a. Lim Electronics can use the survey conducted for their advertisements.
b. The confidence interval does not support the claim of Lim Electronics.
c. The confidence interval support the claim of Lim Electronics. Incorrect
d. The information is not sufficient to conclude.
Feedback
The correct answer is: The confidence interval does not support the claim of Lim Electronics.
A survey of 900 people finds that they work on average of 9 hours a day. If the margin of error at 98%
confidence level is 1.5 hours. What is the solution to find the lower confidence interval?
Select one:
a. Z score plus less the square root of 9 hours less 1.5 hours
c. 9 hours less 1.5 hours Correct
d. All of the choices
e. 9 hours less 1.5 hours multiplied by the z score at 98% confidence level
a second opinion or do additional research. The margin of error for this survey was given as ±10
percentage points.
Find a 90% lower confidence interval estimate of the percent of adults who feel confident in the
accuracy of their doctor’s advice and don’t feel the need to check for a second opinion.
Select one:
a. 0.0726
b. 0.8932
c. 0.4508 Incorrect
d. 0.0934
Feedback

Suppose a new cancer treatment is given to a sample of 500 patients. The treatment was successful for
300 of the patients. Assume that these patients are representative of the population of individuals who
have this cancer.
Calculate the sample proportion that was successfully treated.
Select one:
a. 0.85 Incorrect
b. 0.72
c. 0.30
d. 0.60
Feedback

In hypothesis testing, the computed statistics is compared to the critical value for decision making.
Select one:
a. The statement is TRUE. Correct
b. The statement is FALSE.
Feedback
The correct answer is: The statement is TRUE.
This separates the rejection region to the region where we do not reject the null hypothesis.
Select one:
a. Z score
b. Null value Incorrect
c. Critical value
d. chi value
The correct answer is: Critical value
Given a=0.05 and the test statistics, decide whether the null hypothesis is to be rejected or accepted:
–4
Select one:
a. Do not Reject
b. Reject Correct
c. Cannot be determined
Feedback
The correct answer is: Reject
St. Therese senior high school have an average achievement test score of 96. From a random sample of
49 students St. Therese students we find the average achievement test score to be 98 with a standard
deviation of 88. We want to know if these high school students are representative of the overall
population. What can we conclude based?
Select one:
a. Accept null hypothesis
b. Reject null hypothesis
c. Accept alternative hypothesis Incorrect
d. Reject alternative hypothesis
Feedback
The correct answer is: Accept null hypothesis
2.35
Select one:
b. Reject
c. Do not Reject Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: Reject
Suppose that the z is the test statistics for hypothesis testing, calculate the value of the z for each of the
following. Express your answer in 2 decimal places. µ = 25, s = 5, n = 80, x¯ = 23.4
Answer:
-5
Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: -2.86
Suppose that the z is the test statistics for hypothesis testing, calculate the value of the z for each of the
following. Express your answer in 2 decimal places. µ = 77, s = 6, n = 109, x¯ = 78.2
Answer:
-12.83
Incorrect
Feedback
Short Quiz 12
Consider the scenario: In a recent survey, 320 persons out of 35 reported that they prefer to ride in a
public utility air-conditioned vehicle rather than a jeepney. What is the value of the test statistics?
Select one:
a. 3.49 Incorrect
b. – 1.85
c. – 1.85
d. – 1.33
Feedback
The correct answer is: – 1.85
Supposed that the z is the test statistics for hypothesis testing, calculate the value of the z for each of
the following. Express your answer in 2 decimal places.
µ = 8.5, s = 4, n = 99, x¯ = 7.2
Answer:
34.32
Incorrect
Feedback
3.31
Select one:
b. Reject Correct
c. Do not Reject
Consider the scenario: In a recent survey, 320 persons out of 35 reported that they prefer to ride in a
public utility air-conditioned vehicle rather than a jeepney.
What can we conclude based the value of the test statistics?
Select one:
a. Reject null hypothesis
b. Accept alternative hypothesis Incorrect
c. Reject alternative hypothesis
d. Accept null hypothesis
Feedback
The correct answer is: Accept null hypothesis
Values supporting the ___________________ occurs in the rejection region.
Select one:
a. Critical values
b. Alternative hypothesis and critical values Incorrect
c. Null hypothesis
d. Null hypothesis and critical values
e. Alternative hypothesis
Feedback
The correct answer is: Null hypothesis and critical values
A sample is small when n=30.
Select one:
a. The statement is TRUE. Incorrect
b. The statement is FALSE. Replace the letter n with letter x.
c. The statement is FALSE. Replace the = with =
d. The statement is FALSE. Replace the word small with large.
Feedback
The correct answer is: The statement is FALSE. Replace the word small with large.
In hypothesis testing, the computed statistics is compared to the critical value for decision making.
Select one:
a. The statement is FALSE.
b. The statement is TRUE. Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: The statement is TRUE.
0.131
Select one:
a. Do not Reject
b. Reject Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: Do not Reject
1.11
Select one:
b. Do not Reject Correct
c. Reject
Feedback

µ = 77, s = 6, n = 109, x¯ = 78.2
Answer:
56.23
Incorrect
Feedback
µ = 8, s = 4, n = 99, x¯ = 7.2
Answer:
-1.99
Correct
Feedback
1.20
Select one:
b. Reject
c. Do not Reject Correct
Feedback
– 0.6
Select one:
b. Do not Reject Correct
c. Reject
Feedback

A Police Sub Station claims that 45% of crimes are related to cell phone snatching. In a random sample
of 150 accidents, it is found that 60 of the accidents are related to cell phone snatching.
What is the standard error of the proportion?
Select one:
a. 0.033
b. 0.028
c. 0.066 Incorrect
d. 0.041
Feedback
What is the observed value of the sample proportion?
Select one:
a. 0.932
b. 0.400
c. 0.783
d. 0.600 Incorrect
Feedback
A businessman is increasing his price for processed food, claiming that the cost of labor and material is
going up and accounts for 75% of his budget. In a random sample of 10 of the processed food, it is found
out that in 6 of the processed food, the cost of the material is higher.
Select one:
a. 0.442 Incorrect
b. 0.391
c. 0.137
d. 0.296
Feedback
At the 5% level of significance, test the contractor/engineer’s claim. Based on the test, what can you
conclude?
Select one:
a. Reject the null hypothesis
b. Accept the null hypothesis Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Accept the null hypothesis
At the 10% level of significance, test the Police Sub Station claims. Based on the test, what can you
conclude?
Select one:
a. Accept the null hypothesis Correct
b. Reject the null hypothesis
Feedback
What is the test statistic for this scenario?
Select one:
a. -0.066
b. 2.112
c. -1.231
d. 1.992 Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.899
b. 1.203
c. 0.996
d. 1.095 Correct
Feedback
Short Quiz 13 Stats
The traffic management office claims that 65% of road accidents are related to motorcycles. In a random
sample of 200 accidents, it is found that 135 of the accidents are related to motorcycles.
At the 10% level of significance, test the traffic management office’s claim. Based on the test, what can
you conclude?
Select one:
Feedback

A building contractor/engineer is increasing his price for building projects, claiming that the cost of labor
and material is going up and accounts for 65% of his budget. In a random sample of 30 of his projects it
is found that in 20 of the projects the cost of the material is higher.
Select one:
a. 0.983
b. 2.181
c. 3.004
d. 1.191 Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.087 Correct
b. 0.0632
c. 0.032
d. 0.051
Feedback
About 30% of the male population living in an urban area smokes cigarette. A researcher believes that
male aged 16-30 are more likely smokes cigarette than other ages in the urban area population. The
researcher surveys 300 male aged 16-30 and finds that 80 of them smokes cigarette:
Select one:
a. 0.041
b. 0.089
c. 0.026 Correct
d. 0.011
Feedback
Select one:
a. -2.729
b. -0.998
c. -3.661
d. -1.260 Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.372
b. 0.419
c. 0.267 Correct
d. 0.189
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.667 Correct
b. 0.429
c. 0.739
d. 0.921
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.0548
b. 0.0808
c. 0.0993
d. 0.0741 Correct
Feedback
conclude?
Select one:
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.963
b. 0.675 Correct
c. 0.367
d. 0.822
Feedback
Short Quiz 13 Stats
At the 10% level of significance, test the traffic management office’s claim. Based on the test, what can
you conclude?
Select one:
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.983
b. 2.181
c. 3.004
d. 1.191 Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.087 Correct
b. 0.0632
c. 0.032
d. 0.051
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.041
b. 0.089
c. 0.026 Correct
d. 0.011
Feedback
Select one:
a. -2.729
b. -0.998
c. -3.661
d. -1.260 Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.372
b. 0.419
c. 0.267 Correct
d. 0.189
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.667 Correct
b. 0.429
c. 0.739
d. 0.921
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.0548
b. 0.0808
c. 0.0993
d. 0.0741 Correct
Feedback
conclude?
Select one:
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.963
b. 0.675 Correct
c. 0.367
d. 0.822
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.062
b. 0.077
c. 0.034 correct
d. 0.045
Short Quiz 15
Describe the relationship based when r value = 0.01
Select one:
a. No apparent correlation Correct
b. Weak positive correction
c. Strong positive correction
d. Minimal positive correction
Feedback
The correct answer is: No apparent correlation
Linear correlation coefficient is always a value between ____ and ____.
Select one:
a. 0, 100 Incorrect
b. 1, 100
c. +1, -1
d. 0, 1
Feedback
The correct answer is: +1, -1
Year and household monthly water consumption in the Philippines
Select one:
a. Water consumption is the explanatory variable and year is the response variable Incorrect
b. Year is the explanatory variable and water consumption is the response variable
Feedback
The correct answer is: Year is the explanatory variable and water consumption is the response variable
Describe the relationship based on the r-value r=0,
Select one:
a. No relationship
b. Deterministic relationship Incorrect
c. Weak relationship
d. Strong relationship
Feedback
The correct answer is: No relationship
The value of a perfect positive coefficient is ________.
Select one:
a. A positive number greater than 1
b. Equal to zero.
d. Equal to 1.
e. A positive number greater than 0. Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: Equal to 1.
Select one:
a. Minimal positive correction Incorrect
b. Weak positive correction
c. No apparent correlation
d. Strong positive correction
Feedback
The correct answer is: Strong positive correction
The variable that causes an effect
Select one:
a. Response variable
b. Explanatory variable Correct
c. Trend variable
d. Correlation variable
Feedback
The correct answer is: Explanatory variable
This pattern is produced when the score of one observation is high, the score of the other observation
to be high.
Select one:
a. XY Plot
b. Positive Correlation
c. Direct Correlation Incorrect
d. Negative Correlation
Feedback
The correct answer is: Positive Correlation
Year and household monthly water consumption in the Philippines
Select one:
a. Water consumption is the explanatory variable and year is the response variable Incorrect
b. Cannot be determined
c. Year is the explanatory variable and water consumption is the response variable
Feedback
The correct answer is: Year is the explanatory variable and water consumption is the response variable
The variable that reflects the effect
Select one:
a. Explanatory variable
b. Response variable Correct
c. Correlation variable
d. Trend variable
Feedback
The correct answer is: Response variable
Select one:
a. Minimal positive correction
b. Strong positive correction Correct
c. No apparent correlation
d. Weak positive correction
Feedback
The correct answer is: Strong positive correction
The symbol used to measure the strength and direction of a linear correlation
Select one:
a. r2
b. r
c. XY
d. None of the choices Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: r
It is also called independent variable
Select one:
a. Explanatory variable
b. Response variable Incorrect
c. Trend variable
d. Correlation variable
Feedback
The correct answer is: Explanatory variable
Salary and number of years of experience
Select one:
a. Number of years is the explanatory variable and salary is the response variable Correct
b. Salary is the explanatory variable and number of years is the response variable
Feedback
The correct answer is: Number of years is the explanatory variable and salary is the response variable
Select one:
a. No apparent correlation
b. Minimal positive correction Incorrect
c. Weak positive correction
d. Strong positive correction
Feedback
The correct answer is: Weak positive correction
Expenditure is an example of a
Select one:
a. Trend variable
b. Explanatory variable
c. Correlation variable
d. Response variable Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Response variable

Short Quiz 5 Stats
True or False: Empirical Rule states that 68% of the data falls within the 1 standard deviation.

True or False: In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size must be greater than or equal
to 20.
True or False: In Central Limit Theorem, the standard deviation of the distribution of means is estimated
by dividing the standard deviation of the population by the square of the sample size.
True or False: A random sample of size 49 is selected from a known population with a mean of 29 and a
standard deviation of 3.3. Samples of the same size are repeatedly collected, allowing a sampling
distribution of sample means to be drawn. The sampling distribution of sample mean will be
approximately a normal curve.
Margin of Error is the value that _______________ from the mean to identify the confidence interval.
A: add/subtract
In a normal curve, a _____ of 1 means 1 deviation data are above the average.
The correct answer is: Z score
Empirical rule states that _______ % of data falls within 2 standard deviation.
True or False: Standard deviation of a distribution of means is the standard error of the mean.
True or False: If the population is normally distributed, the sampling distribution of sample mean is
equal to 1.
A: false
If there are 2 volunteers that are randomly selected from population of 10 for each sample, how many will be
the possible samples?
A: 45
The average of the population.
PROBLEM SOLVING: Write the answer corresponds to the problem.
REMINDERS
If the answer requires decimals, express your answer in 2 decimal places.

If your answer is more than 3 digits, DO NOT INCLUDE THE COMMA.
If there are three students that are randomly selected from population of 20 for each sample, how many
possible samples will there be?
True or False: In Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean is equal to
the population mean.
It is located at the middle of the normal curve.
Bell shaped curve.
The correct answer is: Normal Curve
In a normal curve, the mean always has a z score of ____
Week 6 Learning Activity 5 Stats Different questions. Comment below yung questions kapag wala pa rin
dito.
If the population is normally distributed,
Select one:
b. The sampling distribution of sample mean is normal Correct
c. Standard deviation is equal to Mean
d. Standard deviation is distributed along the normal curve
Feedback
The correct answer is: The sampling distribution of sample mean is normal
Standard deviation of a distribution of means is the standard error of the mean.
Select one:
a. The statement is TRUE Correct
c. The statement is FALSE
d. The statement do not have sufficient information to conclude
The correct answer is: The statement is TRUE
A random sample of size is 50 is selected from a known population with a mean of 13 and a standard
deviation of 3.3. Samples of the same size are repeatedly collected, allowing a sampling distribution of
sample means to be drawn. What is the approximate standard deviation of the sample means?
Select one:
a. 12.692
b. 0.066
c. 0.467 Correct
d. 15.15
Feedback
A random sample of size 50 is selected from a known population with a mean of 25 and a standard
deviation of 5.2. Samples of the same size are repeatedly collected, allowing a sampling distribution of
sample means to be drawn. What does the problem tells us?
Select one:
a. All of the above statements does not describe the problem
b. Standard deviation of the sample mean is calculated by 5.2 divided by size of the sample which is 50
c. The sampling distribution of sample mean will be approximately a normal curve
d. Z score can be calculated by dividing 25 by the size of samples which is 50
Answer: c. The sampling distribution of sample mean will be approximately a normal curve
If there are 5 students that are randomly selected from population of 10 for each sample, how many will
be the possible samples?
Select one:
a. 250
b. 126
c. 50
d. 252
Answer: 252
In Central Limit Theorem, the standard deviation of the distribution of means is estimated by
Select one:
a. Mean of the population multiplied by the standard deviation of the population
b. Dividing the standard deviation of the population by the square root of the sample size
c. Dividing the mean of the population by the square root of the deviation of the population
d. Mean of the population divided by the mean of the sampling distribution
Answer:Dividing the standard deviation of the population by the square root of the sample size
Which of the following applies to Central Limit Theorem?
Select one:
a. None of the answers is correct.
b. All of the answers are correct.
c. Distribution of sample means may be assumed normal as long as sample size is greater than or equal
to 30.
d. When the sample size is large or above 30, the population is not normal Incorrect
e. Population is normally distributed when standard deviation is large
Feedback
The correct answer is: Distribution of sample means may be assumed normal as long as sample size is
greater than or equal to 30.
Short Quiz 7 Stats
Margin of Error is the value that ______ from the mean to identify the confidence interval.
Select one:
a. Subtracted
b. Added
d. Added and subtracted
The correct answer is: Added and subtracted
Compute for the confidence intervals of the following data:

Mean = 88
Standard deviation = 6
Sample size = 100
Confidence level = 95%
Select one:
a. 73.89, 79.89
b. 80.08, 84.23
c. 89.05, 92.45
d. 86.82, 89.18
The correct answer is: 80.08, 84.23
The number of degrees of freedom is ________ the sample size.
Select one:
b. Greater than
c. Equal to
d. Less than
The correct answer is: Less than
Compute for the confidence intervals of the following data: Mean = 66 Standard deviation = 5 Sample
size = 100 Confidence coefficient = 1.645
Select one:
a. 70.04, 71.34
b. 71.90, 72.22
c. 69.33, 70.02
d. 65.18, 66.82
Find the point estimate of the population parameter of the grades of students. The answer must be
rounded off to the nearest hundredths.
The correct answer is: 8 6 . 2 5

The range of possible values expected to capture the population mean is called the Margin of Error.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Which of the following does not describes a T distribution?
Select one:
b. Bell shaped curve
c. Symmetrical
d. Mean of Means is equal to 0
The correct answer is: Mean of Means is equal to 0
Compute for the margin of error given the following data:
Mean = 80
Sample size = 100
Note that the answer must be rounded off to the nearest hundredths.
Answer:
Incorrect
Feedback
Which of the following is used to estimate population parameter?
Select one:
a. Point Estimate
b. Central Limit Theorem Estimate Incorrect
c. Mean Estimate
d. Biased Estimate
Feedback
Mean of means is also called
Select one:
a. Unbiased estimate
b. Interval Estimate Incorrect
c. Point Estimate
d. Population Mean
Feedback
Compute for the margin of error given the following data:
Mean = 77
Sample size = 100
Confidence coefficient = 2.58
Note that the answer must be rounded off to the nearest hundredths.
Answer:
Incorrect
Feedback
Learning activity 7 Stats
Compute for the confidence intervals of the following data:
Mean = 66
Sample size = 100

Select one:
a. 66.03, 69.03
b. 64.04, 67.96
c. 65.41, 66.59
d. 69.03, 70.99
Common choices for the confidence level.
Select one:
a. 68%, 95%, 99.7%
b. 90%, 95%, 99%
c. 95%, 99%, 100%
d. 0%, 50%, 100%
The correct answer is: 90%, 95%, 99%
In T distribution, if we increase the number of observations
Select one:
a. the distribution approaches the shape of a normal distribution
b. the mean approaches zero
c. the curve lies within the horizontal axis
d. the mean increases
e. all of the choices
The correct answer is: the distribution approaches the shape of a normal distribution
A single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population.
Select one:
a. Confidence Limit
b. Sample Mean Correct
c. Sample distribution
d. Confidence coefficient
Feedback
The correct answer is: Sample Mean
For example, a 90% confidence interval covers 90% of the normal curve, so the probability of observing
a value outside of this area is ____________.
Select one:
a. Less than 10%
b. Higher than the 2 nd standard deviation Incorrect
c. Greater than 10%
d. Lower than the 2 nd standard deviation
Feedback
The correct answer is: Less than 10%
This is the value that is added to and subtracted from the mean to identify the confidence interval.
Select one:
a. Confidence Level
b. Margin of Error
c. Confidence Interval Incorrect
d. Standard Deviation Error
Feedback
The correct answer is: Margin of Error

Find the sample size given 95% confidence, Margin of Error = 0.15 and p ^ =0.25.
Select one:
a. 34 Incorrect
b. 33
c. 31
d. 32
Feedback

Find the sample size given 90% confidence, Margin of Error = 0.15 and ^p =0.25.
Select one:
a. 20 Incorrect
b. 22
c. 23
d. 21
Feedback
Select one:
a. 389
b. 215 Incorrect
c. 139
d. 152
Feedback
Select one:
a. 41
b. 42
c. 44 Incorrect
d. 43
Feedback
The Engineer of the building wants to use the proportion of the population to determine the sample size
needed to interview regarding their idea about the new color design of the building. He wants to be able
to assure with probability 0.90 that his error will be most 0.10. Similar surveys during past year that 85%
approved the new color design. How large a sample does the Engineer need?
Select one:
a. 278 Incorrect
b. 2,145
c. 1,372
d. 196
Feedback

Short Quiz 11 Stats
Determine whether each of the following is a null of an alternative hypothesis:
The proportion of computer in the software laboratory is lower than the total number of BS IT students
in the university.
Answer:
alternative hypothesis
Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Alternative hypothesis
The alternative hypothesis and null hypothesis should be ________________.
Select one:
a. Mutually exclusive
b. All of the choices
d. Mutually inclusive Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Mutually inclusive
The proportion of an employee income is greater than the monthly expenses of the employee.
Answer:
null hypothesis
Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: Alternative hypothesis
William collected a random sample of 88 people, asking how many times they open ABC web site per
day on average, and calculated x¯ = 50.30. ABC suggests that µ = 55, and s = 10. William thinks the actual
mean is less than the website owner claims. What is the null and alternative hypothesis?
Select one:
a. 55
b. Null hypothesis µ = 55, Alternative hypothesis µ < 55
c. Null hypothesis µ ? 55, Alternative hypothesis µ
d. Null hypothesis µ > 55, Alternative hypothesis µ = 55
e. 55, Alternative hypothesis µ ? 55 Correct
f. Null hypothesis µ
Feedback
The correct answer is: Null hypothesis µ = 55, Alternative hypothesis µ < 55
A type of test that is denoted by the symbol Ho.
Select one:
a. Rejection hypothesis Incorrect
b. Statistical hypothesis
c. Alternative hypothesis
d. Null hypothesis
Feedback
The correct answer is: Null hypothesis
The probability of making type I error is
Select one:
a. ß
b. 1- a
c. 1- ß
d. a Correct
e. µ - a
Feedback
The correct answer is: a
For the 99% confidence level,
Select one:
a. a
b. a
c. a
d. 0.001
e. a
f. 0.010
g. 0.005
h. 0.025 Correct
Feedback
A police precinct claims that there is ten crimes on the average are reported.
Answer:
alternative hypothesis
Incorrect
Feedback
This refers to the area where the value of the test statistic lies for which we will reject the null
hypothesis.
Select one:
a. Rejection region and Null region
b. Rejection region and Critical region Correct
c. Null region and Critical region

d. Null region
e. Critical region
f. None of the choices
g. Rejection region
h. All of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: Rejection region and Critical region
The average income of an employee is 12,000 pesos.
Answer:
null hypothesis
Correct
Feedback
The level of significance is the
Select one:
a. 1 - p value
b. Same as confidence interval
c. Maximum allowable probability of Type II error
d. Minimum allowable probability of Type II error
e. Probability of committing a Type I error Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Probability of committing a Type I error

What is the null hypothesis to the claim that people like android phone than IOS? State the null
hypothesis.
Select one:
a. Less people like IOS than android
b. More people like android than IOS phone Correct
c. Less people like android and IOS phone
d. More people like IOS phone than android phone
Feedback
The correct answer is: More people like android than IOS phone
If the null hypothesis is true and rejected, the decision is incorrect – Type I Error
Select one:
a. Rejection Error
b. Type I Error Correct
c. Correction Error
d. Type II Error
Feedback
The correct answer is: Type I Error
The average internet usage of a College student is 6 hours.
Answer:
null hypothesis
Correct
Feedback

Short quiz 14
In a ____________, high values in one variable correspond to high values in the other variable.
Select one:
a. Perfect Correlation Incorrect

b. Positive Correlation
c. Scattered Correlation
d. Negative Correlation
Feedback
The correct answer is: Positive Correlation
Graphical representation of the relationship between two variables.
Select one:
a. Line Plots Incorrect
b. XY intersection plot
c. scatter plot
d. Cartesian plane
Feedback
The correct answer is: scatter plot
When examining scatterplot and draw an ellipse around the data, long and narrow ellipses means
Select one:
a. Negative linear association
b. Weak linear association
c. Positive linear association Incorrect
d. Strong linear association
e. Cannot determine with the given information
Feedback
The correct answer is: Strong linear association
This measures relationship between bivariate data.
Select one:
b. Correlation Correct
c. All of the choices
d. Linear Regression
e. Scatterplot Analysis
Feedback
The correct answer is: Correlation
A _____________ is simply a scatterplot in which we connect successive chronological observations with

a line segment to give more information about how the data values are changing over a period of time.
Select one:
a. XY Plot
b. Scatter Plot
c. Correlation Plot
d. Line plot Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Line plot
The data had a _________________ when one variable increases, the other variable also decreases.
Select one:
a. negative linear association Incorrect
b. proportional association
c. elliptical association
d. positive linear association
Feedback
The correct answer is: positive linear association
The goal of examining bivariate data is to show some relativity or association between two or more
variables.
Select one:
a. The statement is TRUE. Incorrect
b. The statement is FALSE.
Feedback
The correct answer is: The statement is FALSE.

Learning Actvity 14 Stats
Given the data below, what is the direction of the association between the two variables.
Select one:
a. Positive linear association Incorrect
b. Weak linear association
c. Strong linear association
e. Negative linear association
Feedback
The correct answer is: Negative linear association
The data had a _________________ when one variable increases, the other variable also increases.
Select one:
a. positive linear association Correct
b. proportional association
c. elliptical association
d. negative linear association
Feedback
The correct answer is: positive linear association
The line that is closest to the points is called _____________.
Select one:
a. Trend line Correct
b. Correlation line
c. Cross line
d. Scatter line
Feedback
The correct answer is: Trend line
The three important characteristics of a bivariate?
Select one:
a. Elliptical, Rounded, Scattered
b. Proportional, Directional, Elliptical
c. Direction, Shape, Strength
d. Line, Points, Shape Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: Direction, Shape, Strength
The series of disconnected points is referred to as _________________________
Select one:
a. XY Plots
b. Trend line plots
c. Bivariate data
d. scatter plot Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: scatter plot
Short Quiz 16 Stats
The equation y=2x2 + 9 will produce a
Select one:
a. Parabola Correct
b. Ellipse
c. Circle
d. Straight line
Feedback
The correct answer is: Parabola
When slope is positive,
Select one:
a. y increases as x increases Correct
b. y decreases as x increases
c. y increases, x values approaches point of origin
d. y decreases, x values approaches 1
Feedback
The correct answer is: y increases as x increases
In the slope-intercept equation of a line, the slope of the line is represented as the coefficient of the
variable x.
Select one:
a. FALSE
b. Cannot be determined
c. TRUE Correct
Feedback
Given the table below, what is the linear equation?
Select one:
a. y=3x + 11 Incorrect
b. y=6x + 5
c. y=8x + 3
d. y=3x + 8
Feedback
Your answer is incorrect.
The correct answer is: y=8x + 3
If the line has no slope,
Select one:
a. The line is a horizontal line
b. The line is at the point of origin
c. The line intercepts the x and y axis

d. The line lies at the x axis Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: The line is a horizontal line
Given the table below, what is the slope?
Select one:
a. 9
b. 11
c. 8
d. 3 Incorrect
Feedback
Given the equation y = 7x+ 30, what is the slope?
Answer:
4.2
Incorrect
Feedback
Given the table and graph, determine the slope intercept equation.
Select one:
a. y=5x + 1
b. y=10x + 2 Incorrect
c. y=5x + 2
d. y=10x + 1
Feedback
Given the equation 9y = 2x + 81, what is the y intercept?

Answer:
Incorrect
Feedback
The equation y=mx + b is also known as
Select one:
a. slope intercept form
b. y intercept Incorrect
c. correlation intercept form
d. xy intercept form
Feedback
The correct answer is: slope intercept form
Given the equation y = 3x+ 10, what is the slope?
Answer:
Correct
Feedback
Given the table and graph, determine the slope intercept equation.
Select one:
a. y=3x + 1
b. 2y=6x + 3
c. y=-3x + 3 Correct
d. 2y=6x + 1
The correct answer is: y=-3x + 3
Given the table below, what is the slope?
Select one:
a. 2 Correct
b. 1
c. 8
d. 7
Feedback
Given the equation 2y = 3x + 10, what is the y intercept?
Answer:
Incorrect
Feedback
Given the table below, what is the linear equation?
Select one:
a. y=2x + 7 Correct
b. y=5x + 2
c. y=7x + 1
d. y=7x + 5
Feedback
Write the slope-intercept equation of the line that has slope 6 and y-intercept 4.
answer: 6x+4
Q: True or False: The Greek letter alpha represents the mean.
A: False
Q: This determines the degree to which values of a random variable dif
A: Variance
Q: Find the median of the following data set. 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 22, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37, 39, 41,
43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59
A: 31
Q: A single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population.
A: Sample Mean
Q: Empirical Rule states that 68% of the data falls within the 1 standard deviation.
A: False
Q: The sum of all the probabilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal 1.
A: The statement is TRUE.
True or False: Variance is the degree to which values of a random variable differ from the expected value
ANSWER: TRUE
Q: As the sample size increases,
A: sampling distribution becomes closer to a normal distribution.
Q: Given the following sample data, compute for the true mean. The answer must have two decimal places.1
112345558888
A: 4.53
Q: How many possible outcomes when you simultaneously toss three fair coins.
A: 8
Q: Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Weight of students in a university
A: CONTINUOUS
Q: True or False: In Statistics, variance is defined as the number of times an outcome can occur compared to
all possible outcomes.
A: False
Q: True or False: Mean is the sum of all possible values of random variables.
A: False
Q: Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39
A: 39
Q: Which of the following does not describes a T distribution?
A: Mean of Means is equal to 0
Q: True or False: Random sample happened when data is collected in no certain order
A: True
Q: True or False: In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size must be greater than or equal to
20.
A: False
Q: To calculate the mean from a sample,
A: Add all the values and divided by the total number of samples
Q: Which of the following is used to calculate population parameter?
A: Point Estimate
Q: Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No The manager chooses
30 employees randomly from a department.
A: Yes
Q: Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Total number of volunteers in a community
A: DISCRETE
Q: Normal Distribution Curve is also called
A: Bell Curve
Q: In Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean is equal to the
A: Population mean
Q: Which measure of tendency is the best estimator?
A: Mean
Q: The number of times out of 100 that the repeated experiment would be expected to capture the
population mean within the given interval.
A: Confidence Level
Q: In a normal curve, a ___ of 1 means 1 deviation data are above the average.
A: Z score
Q: True or False: In Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean is equal to the
population mean.
A: True
Q: Confidence coefficient is a single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population.
A: FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to sample mean
Q: For example, a 90% confidence interval covers 90% of the normal curve, so the probability of observing a
value outside of this area is ____________.
A: Less than 10%
Q: Use to check the normality of a distribution
A: Normal quantile plot
Q: Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of winning tournaments of a
varsity team
A: DISCRETE
Q: The weighted average of the possible values of random variables.
A: Mean
Q: Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the number of
students who rides on the train.
A: Yes
Q: Consider the given the probability distribution
A:4.100
Q: PROBLEM SOLVING: Write the answer corresponds to the problem.
REMINDERS If the answer requires decimals, express your answer in 2 decimal places. If your answer is more
than 3 digits, DO NOT INCLUDE THE COMMA.
A: 1140
Q: Which of the following describes a Normal Distribution Curve.
Q: True or False: Random distribution is the process of assigning a number to each member of the population
A: False
Q: How many regions can be found at the left side of the normal distribution curve?
A: 3
A: Bell Curve
Q: Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, how many numbers are in the lower
quartile?
A: 4
Q: In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size must be greater than or equal to _______.
A: 30
Q: Who is the famous mathematician where the normal distribution curve was named after?
A: Carl Friedrich Gauss
Population Mean is an example of a parameter.

A: true
Q: True or False: People whose names were drawn out of the survey is an example of a random sample
A: True
Q: Empirical Rule states that _____ % of data falls within the first standard deviation from the mean.
A: 68
Q: The sum of all the probabilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal
to
A: 1
Q: True or False: The number of questions that you answer correctly on this quiz is an example of a discrete
random variable.
A: False
Q: Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. A teacher conducts
examination to all his students.
A: No
Q: Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, find the upper quartile
A: 14
Q: What is the formula to calculate for the z-score?
A: Mean value of the variable subtracted from the observed value divided by the standard deviation
Q: Given the following table, what is the correct computation to find mean?
x,0,1,2
p(x),0.30,0.20,0.10
A: None of the choices
Q: True or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases.
A: False
It is the number of times an outcome can occur compared to all possible outcomes.
Select one:
a. Variance
b. Standard Deviation
c. Mean
d. Probability
What is the common symbol for the mean?
Select one:
a. ∑
b. Α
c. Ω
d. µ
True or False: Mean is computed as the weighted average of the possible numbers of random variables.
ANSWER: TRUE
Assuming z-score is 1, which of the following statement is TRUE.
Select one:
a. All values are less than the mean.
b. All values are equal to the z-score
c. All values are equal to the mean.
d. All values are greater than the mean.
True or False: To determine the value of the mean, multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X
by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X.
Answer: true
How do you determine the value of the mean,
Select one:
a. Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the
square root of the sum of all possible values of X.
c. Sum each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the
product of all possible values of X.
d. Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the
sum over all possible values of X.
True or False: The probability variance of a discrete random variable is a graph, a table or a formula that
specifies the probability associated with each possible value that the random variable can assume.
Answer: FALSE
true or False: One of the most important characteristics of any probability distribution is the mean.
~ true
The probability distribution of a discrete random variable is a graph, a table or a formula that specifies the
probability associated with each possible value that the random variable can assume.
Select one:
a. The statement is INCORRECT. The word “formula” should not be included in the statement.
b. The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph” should not be included in the statement.
c. The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph and formula” should not be included in the statement.
d. The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT.
Which of the following applies to a normal distribution?
Select one:
a. Mean is greater than Median.
b. Data is exactly equal to the mean.
c. Exactly ½ of the data is above the mean and ½ of data is below.
d. Median is greater than Mean.
e. None of the choices
What are the percentages of normal distribution within 1, 2 and 3 standard deviation.
Select one:
a. Approximately 50% and 50% respectively
b. Exactly 25%, 25% and 50% respectively
c. Exactly 100% be applied to each standard deviation
d. Approximately 68%, 95% and 99.7% respectively
In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size ________________________.
Select one:
a. Must be greater than zero.
b. Must be greater than sample distribution.
c. Must be equal than the sample mean.
d. Must be greater than 30.
This is a representative subset of a population.
Select one:
a. Standard Deviation
b. Sample
c. Statistics
d. Mean
In the Empirical Rule, _______ % of data will fall in with two standard deviation.
Select one:
a. 99.7
b. 34
c. 50
d. 100
e. 95
This is always in the center of the normal curve
Select one:
a. Mode
b. Median
c. Standard Deviation
d. Mean
True or False: Variance is the degree to which values of a random variable differ from the expected value.
A: false
In a normal curve, the mean is located at the
Select one:
a. highest point of the curve
b. lowest point of the curve
c. midpoint of the curve
d. intersection of the lowest and highest point
The range of probability is
Select one:
a. can be any number (positive or negative)
b. from zero to 1
c. negative 1 to positive 1
d. from zero to any positive number
The standard deviation of the normal distribution is
Select one:
a. should always be a positive number
b. always equal to zero
c. always equal to one
d. greater than or equal to zero
This determines the degree to which values of a random variable differ from the expected value.
Select one:
a. Median
b. Standard Deviation
c. Variance
d. Mode
e. Mean
The mean of the normal distribution is
Select one:
a. should always be a positive number
b. always equal to zero
c. always equal to one
d. greater than or equal to zero
This are numbers that summarizes data for an entire population
Select one:
a. Standard Deviation
b. Mean
c. Sample Distribution of sample means
d. Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means
e. Sample
f. Parameter
g. Random Sample
h. Standard Curve
i. Sampling Error
j. Population
k. Population Mean
l. Distribution Error
m. Median
n. Mode
o. Statistics
p. Sample
q. Deviation Error
True or False: The probability of an outcome that all heads face up when fairly tossing three coin is 3/8.
Answer: false
The range of possible values expected to capture the population mean.
Select one:
a. Standard Deviation Error
b. Confidence Interval
c. Margin of Error
d. Confidence Level
The t-distribution shape changes as the _______________ changes.
Select one:
a. Population Mean
c. Sample Mean
d. Sample size
The confidence level is expressed in terms of ____________.
Select one:
a. Percentage
b. Whole Number
c. Fraction
d. Ratio
In Central Limit Theorem, the standard deviation of the population is estimated by dividing the standard
deviation of the population by the square of the sample size.
Select one:
a. The statement is TRUE
b. The statement is FALSE
c. The statement is SOMETIMES FALSE
d. The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE

A: False
A: Variance
43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59
A: 31
A: Sample Mean
A: False
112345558888
A: 4.53
A: 8
A: CONTINUOUS
A: False
A: False
A: 39
A: True
20.
A: False
A: Point Estimate
A: Yes
A: DISCRETE
A: Normal Curve
A: Population mean
A: Mean
A: Confidence Level
Q: In a normal curve, a ___ of 1 means 1 deviation data are above the average.
A: Z score
population mean.
A: True
value outside of this area is ____________.
A: Less than 10%
varsity team
A: DISCRETE
A: Mean
A: Yes
A:
A: 1140
A: False
A: 3
A: Basic Curve
quartile?
A: 4
Q: In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size must be greater than or equal to _______.
A: 30
A: True
Q: Empirical Rule states that _____ % of data falls within the first standard deviation from the mean.
A: 68
to
A: 1
random variable.
A: False
A: No
A: 14
x,0,1,2
p(x),0.30,0.20,0.10
A: False
STAT-112-20172S / ► Week 10: Quarterly Exam / ► Quarterly Exam

A: False
A: Variance
43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59
A: 31
A: Sample Mean
A: False
112345558888
A: 4.53
A: 8
A: CONTINUOUS
A: False
A: False
A: 39
A: True
20.
A: False
A: Point Estimate
A: Yes
A: DISCRETE
A: Normal Curve
A: Population mean
A: Mean
A: Confidence Level
Q: In a normal curve, a _ of 1 means 1 deviation data are above the average.
A: Z score
population mean.
A: True
value outside of this area is __________.
A: Less than 10%
varsity team
A: DISCRETE
A: Mean
A: Yes
A:
A: 1140
A: False
A: 3
A: Basic Curve
quartile?
A: 4
Q: In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size must be greater than or equal to _____.
A: 30
A: True
Q: Empirical Rule states that ___ % of data falls within the first standard deviation from the mean.
A: 68
to
A: 1
random variable.
A: False
A: No
A: 14
x,0,1,2
p(x),0.30,0.20,0.10
A: False
Which of the following is tells about t distribution,
Two dice is rolled and the sum of face up is being recorded and represented as X. What is P(x <= 5)?
10
In a normal distribution curve,: Mean is equal to Median; None of the choices; Mean is equal to Mode;
Mean is equal to Median and Mode Mean is equal to Median and Mode
True or False: Sampling Error is the degree of error expected for a given sample design TRUE
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No A survey company
collects information on businessman in Metro Manila on who will they vote for president on the next
election. Yes
1. Given the data set, find the Mean Value or Expected value (round off your answer to the nearest
tenths): 4.2
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. The brightness of an LED bulb
CONTINUOUS
In a normal distribution curve, data are divided into 3 equal parts.: The statement is FALSE.; None of the
choices; The statement is TRUE.; The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE depending on the data set.
None of the choices
False
True or False: Variance is the degree to which values of a random variable differ from the expected
value. False
4.5, 9.2, 9.1, 8.4 2.60
True or False: To determine the value of the mean, multiply each possible outcome of the random
variables X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X. True
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the number
of students who rides on the train. Yes
False
True or False: Mean is the sum of all possible values of random variables. False
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Women who
volunteer to take a survey on human rights. No
The speed of cars travelling in the road and the water consumption of household are examples of:
Continuous Discrete Random Variable; None of the choices; Discrete Random Variables; Discrete
Continuous Random Variable; Continuous Random Variable Continuous Random Variable
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Time travelled by an astronaut

CONTINUOUS
This determines the degree to which values of a random variable differ from the expected value.: Mean;
Median; Standard Deviation; Variance; Mode Variance
It is a part of population intended to represent a population as a whole.: Sample; Mode; Random

Sample; Standard Curve; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Statistics;
Sampling Error; Standard Deviation; Population; Distribution Error; Population Mean; Mean; Sample;
Median; Sample Distribution of sample means; Deviation Error; Parameter Sample
True or False: Parameters are numbers that summarizes data for an entire population TRUE
tenths): 4.2
The probability distribution of a discrete random variable is a graph, a table or a formula that specifies
the probability associated with each possible value that the random variable can assume.: The
statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph and formula” should not be included in the statement.; The
statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is
INCORRECT. The word “formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is ALWAYS
CORRECT. The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT.
It is a part of population intended to represent a population as a whole.: Standard deviation of the

distribution of the sample means; Deviation Error; Standard Deviation; Sampling Error; Mean;
Parameter; Random Sample; Mode; Statistics; Standard Curve; Sample; Sample Distribution of sample
means; Population; Median; Sample; Population Mean; Distribution Error Sample
The standard deviation of the normal distribution is: always equal to zero; greater than or equal to zero;
always equal to one; should always be a positive number always equal to one
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Z-score;
Normal Distribution Measurement; Median; Empirical Rule Z-score
In a normal distribution curve,: Mean is equal to Median and Mode; Mean is equal to Median; Mean is
equal to Mode; None of the choices Mean is equal to Median and Mode
In a normal distribution curve, data are divided into 3 equal parts.: The statement is TRUE.; The
statement is FALSE.; None of the choices; The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE depending on the data
set. None of the choices
Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, how many numbers are in the
lower quartile?: 6; 1; 4; 0 4
Given the following table, what is the correct computation to find mean? : (0.30+0.20+0.10)/3; None of
the choices ; (0.30+0.20+0.10)/(0+1+2) ; (0)(0.30) + (1)(0.20) + (2)(0.10); (0+1+2)(0.30+0.20+0.10)
None of the choices
True or False: Random sample happened when data is collected in no certain order TRUE
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Renmel closes his
eyes, opens a book and randomly points to a word on the page. She repeats the process for 30 times.
No
True or False: Random distribution is the process of assigning a number to each member of the
population FALSE
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. The speed of
internet in all areas in the Visayas Region. Yes
True or False: To determine the value of the mean, multiply each possible outcome of the random
variables X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X. True
True or False: Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means is computed as the population
standard deviation multiplied by the square root of the sample size. FALSE
What is the probability distribution of occurring the all heads in a toss of three coins?: 0.25; 0.1255; 0;
None of the choices; 1 0.1255
Given the following mean, compute for the Mean of Means. The answer should be rounded off to the
nearest hundredths. 3.2 3.6 3.9 9.2
False
True or False: Sample Distribution of sample means is the the distribution that describes the spread of
the means of multiple samples from the sample population TRUE
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the election
results in all areas in the Philippines during election No
Which of the following random activity would you define as a discrete random variable?: Depth of
building excavation.; Height of students enrolled in an online course.; None of the choices.; Wind speed
during typhoon.; Distance travelled of a tourist bus. None of the choices.
What is the common symbol for the mean?: Α; ∑; µ; Ω µ
What is the probability distribution of occurring the all heads in a toss of three coins?: 0.25; 0; None of
the choices; 0.1255; 1 0.1255
Given the following sample data, compute for the true mean. The answer should be rounded off
to one decimal place. 3 5 5 5 6 6 8 8 13 15 17 30 10.8
How do you determine the value of the mean,: Sum each possible outcome of the random variables X by
its associated probability and the take the product of all possible values of X.; None of the choices;
Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the
sum over all possible values of X.; Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its
associated probability and the take the square root of the sum of all possible values of X.
Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the
take the sum over all possible values of X.
This are numbers that summarizes data from a sample: Parameter; Sampling Error; Statistics; Sample
Distribution of sample means; Standard Deviation; Population Mean; Mode; Standard Curve; Sample;
Population; Median; Distribution Error; Deviation Error; Standard deviation of the distribution of the
sample means; Random Sample; Mean; Sample Statistics
Which of the following is not a characteristics of a normal distribution.: None of the choices; Perfectly
asymmetric; Mount-shaped distribution; Bell-shaped Perfectly asymmetric
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Median;
Normal Distribution Measurement; Empirical Rule; Z-score Z-score
Salary, scores and age are examples of ____________ random variables. Continuous
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No A survey
company collects information on businessman in Metro Manila on who will they vote for president on
the next election. Yes
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Total number of volunteers in a

community DISCRETE
In a normal curve, the bigger the values of standard deviation results to a: wider curve; straight live
curve; skewed to the right; narrower curve; skewed to the left wider curve
Which of the following is CORRECT about Sample Space: Sample space should be always be a number
from zero to one.; Sample space are possible outcomes; Sample space is a subset of events.; Sample
space is also known as probability mass function. Sample space are possible outcomes
Assuming z-score is -1, which of the following statement is TRUE.: All values are less than the mean.; All
values are equal to the z-score; All values are equal to the mean.; All values are greater than the mean.
All values are less than the mean.
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Normal
Distribution Measurement; Z-score; Empirical Rule; Median Z-score
Which of the following statement is TRUE.: Non-countable values are called discrete variables; Infinite
numbers are considered discrete variables.; Countable number of values are called discrete variables; All
of the statements are TRUE. Countable number of values are called discrete variables
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of winning tournaments of a

varsity team DISCRETE
statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph and formula” should not be included in the statement.; The
INCORRECT. The word “formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is ALWAYS
The range of probability is: can be any number (positive or negative); negative 1 to positive 1; from zero
to any positive number; from zero to 1 from zero to 1
Which of the following is incorrect?: Probability distribution is used to compute discrete random
variables; Probability distribution equals to zero.; Probability distribution is used to compute continuous
random variables; Probability distribution equals to one.; None of the choices Probability distribution
equals to zero.
Assuming z-score is -1, which of the following statement is TRUE.: All values are equal to the mean.; All
values are equal to the z-score; All values are less than the mean.; All values are greater than the mean.
All values are less than the mean.
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Basic Curve; Arc-Shaped Curve; Bell Curve; All of the choices
Basic Curve
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. A teacher conducts
examination to all his students. No
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Internet speed in an office
CONTINUOUS
nearest hundredths. 3.2 3.6 3.9 9.2 1.65
True or False: The larger the sample size the closer the sampling distribution was to a normal
distribution TRUE
Given the set of data: 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 Find the lower
quartile : 8; 0; 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,; 3 8
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of students in a University

DISCRETE
In a given experiment, the sum of all probabilities is: can be any number (positive or negative); One;
Zero; All positive numbers One
This is states that the percentages of data in a normal distribution within 1,2 and 3 standard deviations.:
Empirical Rule; None of the choices; Normal quantile plot; Z score Empirical Rule
10
A fair six sided dice is tossed. The player loses 5 pesos if the result is “1”, and loses P5 pesos if the result
is a “6”, the rest of the numbers, player wins P10. Which of the following table best describes the
problem? : ; None of the choices; ;
to ______. 1
Given the set of data: 1,1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 Find the upper
quartile : 18; 13,14,15,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22; 22; 0 18
The data set that approximates a normal distribution is located at the left side of the curve wherein
mean is greater than median.: None of the choices.; The statement is INCORRECT; The statement is
ALWAYS TRUE.; The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE. The statement is INCORRECT
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Selects all areas in
the Philippines who are affected by typhoon and with 5th and 6th income class. Yes
It is computed as the population standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size:
Random Sample; Standard Deviation; Median; Parameter; Standard deviation of the distribution of the
sample means; Deviation Error; Sample; Mean; Population Mean; Sample Distribution of sample means;
Sampling Error; Sample; Statistics; Mode; Standard Curve; Distribution Error; Population
Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means
This are numbers that summarizes data for an entire population: Mean; Random Sample; Mode;
Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Deviation Error; Parameter; Standard Curve;
Statistics; Population; Population Mean; Sample; Median; Sampling Error; Sample Distribution of sample
means; Standard Deviation; Distribution Error; Sample Parameter
True or False: The Greek letter alpha represents the mean. False
It is measure of the number of standard deviations a particular data value: Z score; Normal quantile plot;
None of the choices; Empirical Rule Z score
True or False: In Statistics, variance is defined as the number of times an outcome can occur compared
to all possible outcomes. False
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Normal Curve; Arc-Shaped Curve; All of the choices; Basic Curve
Normal Curve
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Mobile data consumed by a telephone
subscriber
CONTINUOUS Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No
Renmel closes his eyes, opens a book and randomly points to a word on the page. She repeats the
process for 30 times. No
The distribution that describes the spread of the means of multiple samples from the sample
population: Population Mean; Distribution Error; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample
means; Sample Distribution of sample means; Deviation Error; Statistics; Standard Deviation; Parameter;
Sampling Error; Mode; Sample; Mean; Standard Curve; Population; Sample; Median; Random Sample
Sample Distribution of sample means
4.5, 9.2, 9.1, 8.4 2.60
Who is the famous mathematician where the normal distribution curve was named after?: William
Gosset ; Carl Friedrich Gauss ; John Tukey ; Ronald Fisher Carl Friedrich Gauss
Which of the following random activity would you define as a discrete random variable?: Height of
students enrolled in an online course.; Wind speed during typhoon.; None of the choices.; Distance
travelled of a tourist bus.; Depth of building excavation. None of the choices.
Which of the following statement is TRUE.: All of the statements are TRUE.; Countable number of values
are called discrete variables; Non-countable values are called discrete variables; Infinite numbers are
considered discrete variables. Countable number of values are called discrete variables
Which of the following is CORRECT about Sample Space: Sample space is a subset of events.; Sample
space should be always be a number from zero to one.; Sample space is also known as probability mass
function.; Sample space are possible outcomes Sample space are possible outcomes
quartile : 3; 0; 8; 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12, 8

CONTINUOUS
nearest hundredths. 3.2 3.6 3.9 9.2 1.65
True or False: Sampling Error is the degree of error expected for a given sample design TRUE Two
dice is rolled and the sum of face up is being recorded and represented as X. What is P(x <= 5)? 10
Which of the following is incorrect?: None of the choices; Probability distribution is used to compute
discrete random variables; Probability distribution is used to compute continuous random variables;
Probability distribution equals to one.; Probability distribution equals to zero. Probability distribution
equals to zero. This tells what the possible values of X and how probabilities are assigned to these
values. Probability Distribution equals to zero
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Basic Curve; All of the choices; Arc-Shaped Curve; Bell Curve
Basic Curve
Find the median of the following data set. 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 22, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37, 39, 41,
43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 : 36.45; 30; 31; 24 31
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Speed of a tropical storm in the
Philippines CONTINUOUS
quartile : 18; 0; 22; 13,14,15,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22 18
Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39: 44; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 +
39)/2; 39; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/7 39
It is also called 68-95-99.7 Rule.: Empirical Rule; None of the choices; Z score Rule; Variance Rule
Empirical Rule
Use to check the normality of a distribution: Normal quantile plot; Empirical Rule; Z score; None of the
choices Normal quantile plot
population FALSE
How do you determine the value of the mean,: Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables
X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X.; Sum each possible
outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the product of all possible
values of X.; Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and
the take the square root of the sum of all possible values of X.; None of the choices Multiply each
possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all
possible values of X.
A curve is said to be symmetric if all data points lies at the right side of the curve.
A: false
As the confidence interval for a given statistic increases in length, the confidence level decreases.
A: false
The mean of the normal distribution is: always equal to one; always equal to zero; should always be a
positive number; greater than or equal to zero always equal to zero
Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means? 60
In a normal curve, the bigger the values of standard deviation results to a: wider curve;
narrower curve; skewed to the right; skewed to the left; straight live curve wider curve
distribution TRUE
True or False: The Greek letter alpha represents the mean. False
True or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases.FALSE True or False: Mean is
the sum of all possible values of random variables. False
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Selects all areas in
the Philippines who are affected by typhoon and with 5th and 6th income class. Yes
1.5, what was her score in the examination?: 82.50; 487.50; None of the choices; 117.50 82.50
It is a part of population intended to represent a population as a whole.: Median; Sample; Mean; Mode;
Sample; Standard Deviation; Population Mean; Standard Curve; Deviation Error; Standard deviation of
the distribution of the sample means; Parameter; Statistics; Population; Random Sample; Distribution
Error; Sample Distribution of sample means; Sampling Error Sample
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Bell Curve; Basic Curve; Arc-Shaped Curve; All of the choices
Basic Curve
4.5, 9.2, 9.1, 8.4 2.60
True or False: Sampling Error is the degree of error expected for a given sample design TRUE
Assuming z-score is 1, which of the following statement is TRUE.: All values are equal to the mean.; All
values are greater than the mean.; All values are equal to the z-score; All values are less than the mean.
All values are greater than the mean.
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Time travelled by an astronaut

CONTINUOUS
The process of assigning a number to each member of the population: Random Sample; Population
Mean; Median; Sample; Standard Curve; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means;
Sample; Sample Distribution of sample means; Mean; Distribution Error; Sampling Error; Population;
Parameter; Statistics; Standard Deviation; Deviation Error; Mode Random Sample
This is states that the percentages of data in a normal distribution within 1,2 and 3 standard deviations.:
Normal quantile plot; Empirical Rule; Z score; None of the choices Empirical Rule
Which of the following statement is CORRECT?: A discrete variable is a random variable where data can
take infinitely many variables; A continuous random variable assigns a whole number to each possible
outcome of an experiment; A discrete variable are countable number of possible values; Continuous
random variables are finite numbers A discrete variable are countable number of possible values
Consider the given the probability distribution What is the variance? : 2.466; 1.233; 1.99 ; 1.44 1.99
It is the difference between a sample statistic used to estimate a population parameter and the actual
but unknown value of the parameter: Population Mean; Sample Distribution of sample means; Sample;
Distribution Error; Population; Mean; Sampling Error; Standard deviation of the distribution of the
sample means; Sample; Random Sample; Parameter; Standard Curve; Median; Deviation Error; Mode;
Standard Deviation; Statistics Sampling Error
TRUE
quartile : 8; 0; 3; 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12, 8
quartile : 18; 13,14,15,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22; 22; 0 18
A continuous random variable assigns a whole number to each possible outcome of an experiment.:
None of the choices; True; False; The statement has insufficient information. True
t is the difference between a sample statistic used to estimate a population parameter and the actual
but unknown value of the parameter: Statistics; Sample Distribution of sample means; Standard
deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Standard Curve; Sample; Standard Deviation;
Sampling Error; Mode; Population; Deviation Error; Random Sample; Median; Parameter; Mean;
Population Mean; Distribution Error; Sample Sampling Error
tenths): 4.2
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Renmel closes his
eyes, opens a book and randomly points to a word on the page. She repeats the process for 30 times.
No
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Basic Curve; Arc-Shaped Curve; Normal Curve; All of the choices
Normal Curve
True or False: The bigger the sample size, the more closely the samples will be clustered around the true
value. TRUE
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of winning tournaments of a

varsity team DISCRETE
This are numbers that summarizes data from a sample: Distribution Error; Population; Parameter;
Sample Distribution of sample means; Deviation Error; Population Mean; Statistics; Sampling Error;
Sample; Mode; Standard Curve; Random Sample; Median; Standard deviation of the distribution of the
sample means; Sample; Standard Deviation; Mean Statistics
CONTINUOUS
mean is greater than median.: The statement is ALWAYS TRUE.; The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE.;
None of the choices.; The statement is INCORRECT The statement is INCORRECT
The range of probability is: can be any number (positive or negative); from zero to any positive number;
negative 1 to positive 1; from zero to 1 from zero to 1

community DISCRETE
43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 : 24; 31; 36.45; 30 31
1, what was her score in the examination?: 80.50; None of the choices; 53.00; 82.50 53.00
Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39: 44; 39; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 +
39)/7; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/2 39
1112345558888 4.53
True or False: Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means is computed as the population
standard deviation multiplied by the square root of the sample size. FALSE
Which one of these variables is a not continuous random variable?: The number of volunteers in a
community; The number of attendees in an Information Technology conference.; The tuition fee
enrolled in different universities; The number of senators elected in the Philippines The number of
volunteers in a community
Given the following table, what is the correct computation to find mean? : (0.30+0.20+0.10)/(0+1+2) ;
(0+1+2)(0.30+0.20+0.10) ; (0)(0.30) + (1)(0.20) + (2)(0.10); (0.30+0.20+0.10)/3; None of the choices
None of the choices
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Normal
Distribution Measurement; Z-score; Median; Empirical Rule Z-score
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Select all 100 poor
households in a community in areas in the Philippines affected by the earthquake. Yes
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Weight of students in a university
CONTINUOUS
election. Yes
True or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases. FALSE Identify if the random
variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Mobile data consumed by a telephone subscriber
CONTINUOUS
TRUE
In a given experiment, the sum of all probabilities is: One; can be any number (positive or negative);
Zero; All positive numbers One
Which of the following statement is CORRECT?: A discrete variable are countable number of possible
values; A discrete variable is a random variable where data can take infinitely many variables;
Continuous random variables are finite numbers; A continuous random variable assigns a whole number
to each possible outcome of an experiment A discrete variable are countable number of
possible values
The weighted average of the possible values of random variables.: Mode; Median; Mean; Standard
Deviation; Variance Mean
The standard deviation of the normal distribution is: always equal to zero; greater than or equal to zero;
always equal to one; should always be a positive number always equal to one
Consider the given the probability distribution What is the variance? : 1.233; 1.99 ; 1.44 ; 2.466 1.99
True or False: One of the most important characteristics of any probability distribution is the mean.
True
The mean of the normal distribution is: always equal to zero; should always be a positive number;
always equal to one; greater than or equal to zero always equal to zero
What is the probability distribution of occurring the all heads in a toss of three coins?: 1; None of the
choices; 0.1255; 0.25; 0 0.1255 What is the probability of getting all head when a three coins are
tossed? 1/8
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Arc-Shaped Curve; Normal Curve; Basic Curve; All of the choices
Normal Curve
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Arc-Shaped Curve; All of the choices; Basic Curve; Bell Curve
Basic Curve
population FALSE
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No The manager
chooses 30 employees randomly from a department. Yes
43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 : 24; 30; 31; 36.45 31
Countless number of values are also known as _____________ variables. Continuous It is

computed as the population standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size: Standard
deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Deviation Error; Sampling Error; Mean; Standard
Deviation; Mode; Statistics; Sample; Median; Random Sample; Population; Standard Curve; Sample
Distribution of sample means; Population Mean; Sample; Parameter; Distribution Error
Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means
How many possible outcomes when you simultaneously toss three fair coins. 8
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Empirical
Rule; Normal Distribution Measurement; Z-score; Median Z-score
quartile : 0; 18; 22; 13,14,15,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22 18
10
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the election
results in all areas in the Philippines during election No
How many regions can be found at the left side of the normal distribution curve?: 4; 2; 1; 3 3
False
This tells what the possible values of X and how probabilities are assigned to these values.
Probability Distribution
Which of the following applies to a normal distribution?: Mean is greater than Median.; Median is
greater than Mean.; None of the choices; Data is exactly equal to the mean.; Exactly ½ of the data is
above the mean and ½ of data is below.
Exactly ½ of the data is above the mean and ½ of data is below.
The weighted average of the possible values of random variables.: Mode; Median; Variance; Standard
Deviation; Mean Mean
Which of the following is not a characteristics of a normal distribution.: Bell-shaped; None of the
choices; Perfectly asymmetric; Mount-shaped distribution Perfectly asymmetric
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of proposed thesis in a university
DISCRETE
39)/7; 39; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/2 39
INCORRECT. The word “formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is INCORRECT.
The word “graph and formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is ALWAYS
What is the common symbol for the mean?: ∑; Α; Ω; µ µ
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Bell Curve; All of the choices; Basic Curve; Arc-Shaped Curve
Basic Curve
What is the probability distribution of occurring the all heads in a toss of three coins?: 0.25; 0; 0.1255; 1;
None of the choices 0.1255
It is also called 68-95-99.7 Rule.: Z score Rule; Empirical Rule; Variance Rule; None of the choices
Empirical Rule
The standard deviation of the normal distribution is: greater than or equal to zero; always equal
to one; always equal to zero; should always be a positive number always equal to one
but unknown value of the parameter: Mean; Standard Deviation; Random Sample; Sampling Error;
Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Sample Distribution of sample means;
Median; Parameter; Population Mean; Mode; Sample; Standard Curve; Population; Distribution Error;
Deviation Error; Sample; Statistics Sampling Error
It is the degree of error expected for a given sample design: Population; Random Sample; Standard
deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Median; Sampling Error; Sample Distribution of
sample means; Sample; Deviation Error; Population Mean; Standard Deviation; Distribution Error;
Standard Curve; Sample; Parameter; Statistics; Mode; Mean Sampling Error
The distribution that describes the spread of the means of multiple samples from the sample
population: Population; Sample; Sample; Sample Distribution of sample means; Deviation Error;
Standard Deviation; Sampling Error; Distribution Error; Median; Mode; Standard deviation of the
distribution of the sample means; Standard Curve; Population Mean; Statistics; Random Sample; Mean;
Parameter Sample Distribution of sample means
The distribution that describes the spread of the means of multiple samples from the sample population.
Sample Distribution of sample means
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Shake a bag
of colored balls, reach in and select a marble with eyes closed. Yes
distribution TRUE
A fair six sided dice is tossed. The player loses 5 pesos if the result is “1”, and loses P5 pesos if the result
is a “6”, the rest of the numbers, player wins P10. Which of the following table best describes the
problem? : None of the choices; ; ;
1, what was her score in the examination?: 53.00; 80.50; None of the choices; 82.50 53.00
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Each audience in a
game show is assigned a number from 111 to 666 and roll three standard dice to choose random
contestants. Yes
What is the probability of getting the same numbers on 3 dice when they are thrown simultaneously?
1
Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39: (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/2;
44; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/7; 39 39
True or False: In Statistics, variance is defined as the number of times an outcome can occur compared
to all possible outcomes. False
Assuming z-score is 1, which of the following statement is TRUE.: All values are less than the mean.; All
values are equal to the z-score; All values are equal to the mean.; All values are greater than the mean.
All values are greater than the mean.
The range of probability is: from zero to any positive number; negative 1 to positive 1; can be any
number (positive or negative); from zero to 1 from zero to 1
In a normal distribution curve,: Mean is equal to Median; Mean is equal to Median and Mode; Mean is
equal to Mode; None of the choices Mean is equal to Median and Mode
True or False: Variance is the degree to which values of a random variable differ from the expected
value. False
True or False: To determine the value of the mean, multiply each possible outcome of the
random variables X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X.
True
It is also called 68-95-99.7 Rule.: Variance Rule; None of the choices; Z score Rule; Empirical Rule
Empirical Rule
statement is INCORRECT. The word “formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement
is ALWAYS CORRECT.; The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph and formula” should not be
included in the statement.; The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph” should not be included in
the statement. The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT.
True or False: Mean of means is the sum of all means multiplied by the number of means FALSE
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of proposed thesis in a university
DISCRETE

CONTINUOUS
Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means? 60
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Select all registered
voters in a community whose family income is below 10,000 pesos. Yes
Which of the following random activity would you define as a discrete random variable?: Wind
speed during typhoon.; Depth of building excavation.; Distance travelled of a tourist bus.; None of the
choices.; Height of students enrolled in an online course. None of the choices.
The standard deviation of the normal distribution is: always equal to one; should always be a
positive number; greater than or equal to zero; always equal to zero always equal to one What is
the probability of getting the same numbers on 3 dice when they are thrown simultaneously? 1
Consider the given the probability distribution What is the variance? : 1.99 ; 1.44 ; 1.233; 2.466 1.99
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Shake a bag of
colored balls, reach in and select a marble with eyes closed. Yes
Consider the given the probability distribution The value of the mean is ________. : 4.100 ; 1.233 ;
2.466; 0.082 4.100
A continuous random variable assigns a whole number to each possible outcome of an experiment.:
None of the choices; False; True; The statement has insufficient information. True
A representative subset of a population: Random Sample; Deviation Error; Standard Curve; Population
Mean; Sample Distribution of sample means; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample
means; Distribution Error; Median; Sampling Error; Mean; Population; Sample; Sample; Standard
Deviation; Statistics; Parameter; Mode Sample
Which of the following statement is TRUE.: All of the statements are TRUE.; Non-countable values are
called discrete variables; Countable number of values are called discrete variables; Infinite numbers are
The process of assigning a number to each member of the population: Population Mean;
Parameter; Sampling Error; Standard Deviation; Sample; Distribution Error; Statistics; Random Sample;
Mean; Sample Distribution of sample means; Standard Curve; Sample; Mode; Deviation Error; Median;
Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Population Random Sample
39)/2; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/7; 44 39
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the
number of students who rides on the train. Yes
True or False: Mean of means is the sum of all means multiplied by the number of means FALSE
mean is greater than median.: The statement is INCORRECT; The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE.; None
of the choices.; The statement is ALWAYS TRUE. The statement is INCORRECT
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Empirical
Rule; Median; Z-score; Normal Distribution Measurement Z-score
43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 : 36.45; 31; 24; 30 31
Which of the following is CORRECT about Sample Space: Sample space is a subset of events.; Sample
space are possible outcomes; Sample space is also known as probability mass function.; Sample space
should be always be a number from zero to one. Sample space are possible outcomes
False
Which of the following random activity would you define as a discrete random variable?: Depth of
building excavation.; Wind speed during typhoon.; None of the choices.; Distance travelled of a tourist
bus.; Height of students enrolled in an online course. None of the choices.
How many regions can be found at the left side of the normal distribution curve?: 3; 2; 4; 1 3

CONTINUOUS
subscriber CONTINUOUS
Who is the famous mathematician where the normal distribution curve was named after?: Carl Friedrich
Gauss ; John Tukey ; Ronald Fisher ; William Gosset Carl Friedrich Gauss
The speed of cars travelling in the road and the water consumption of household are examples of:
Continuous Discrete Random Variable; Discrete Continuous Random Variable; Continuous Random
Variable; None of the choices; Discrete Random Variables Continuous Random Variable
Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, find the upper quartile:

13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16; 24; 16; 14 14
1.: The statement is NOT ALWAYS TRUE; The statement is FALSE.; The statement is TRUE.; The
statement is NOT ALWAYS FALSE The statement is TRUE.
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Weight of students in a university
CONTINUOUS
rue or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases. FALSE
In a normal curve, the mean is located at the: midpoint of the curve; intersection of the lowest
and highest point; lowest point of the curve; highest point of the curve highest point of the curve
Which of the following is incorrect?: Probability distribution equals to zero.; Probability distribution is
used to compute discrete random variables; Probability distribution is used to compute continuous
random variables; None of the choices; Probability distribution equals to one. Probability distribution
equals to zero.
True or False: Sampling Error is the degree of error expected for a given sample design TRUE Identify
whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the election results
in all areas in the Philippines during election No What is the common symbol for the mean?: ∑;
Ω; Α; µ µ
True or False: One of the most important characteristics of any probability distribution is the mean.
True
True or False: The formula of mean is relative to compute for the variance. True
quartile : 8; 0; 3; 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12, 8
True or False: Variance Error is the difference between a sample statistic used to estimate a population
parameter and the actual but unknown value of the parameter FALSE
False
Which of the following statement is TRUE.: Non-countable values are called discrete variables;
Countable number of values are called discrete variables; All of the statements are TRUE.; Infinite
numbers are considered discrete variables. Countable number of values are called discrete
variables
The speed of cars travelling in the road and the water consumption of household are examples of: None
of the choices; Discrete Random Variables; Continuous Random Variable; Continuous Discrete Random
Variable; Discrete Continuous Random Variable Continuous Random Variable
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No A survey
company collects information on businessman in Metro Manila on who will they vote for president on
the next election. Yes
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. A teacher conducts
examination to all his students. No The sum of all the prob
abilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal to ______. 1
mean is greater than median.: The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE.; The statement is ALWAYS TRUE.;
The statement is INCORRECT; None of the choices. The statement is INCORRECT
True or False: In Statistics, variance is defined as the number of times an outcome can occur
compared to all possible outcomes. False
In a normal distribution curve, data are divided into 3 equal parts.: The statement is FALSE.; The
statement is SOMETIMES TRUE depending on the data set.; None of the choices; The statement is TRUE.
None of the choices
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Select all registered
voters in a community whose family income is below 10,000 pesos. Yes
10
An example of a parameter.: Population Mean; Sample Distribution of sample means; Standard

deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Random Sample; Population; Mode; Sample; Median;
Mean; Deviation Error; Standard Curve; Statistics; Parameter; Distribution Error; Standard Deviation;
Sample; Sampling Error Population Mean
quartile : 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,; 3; 8; 0 8
Given the set of data: 1,1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 How many
numbers are in the lower quartile? : 10; 0; 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10; 6 6
How do you determine the value of the mean,: Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables
X by its associated probability and the take the square root of the sum of all possible values of X.;
Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the
sum over all possible values of X.; None of the choices; Sum each possible outcome of the random
variables X by its associated probability and the take the product of all possible values of X.
Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the
take the sum over all possible values of X.
1 1 1 2 3 4 5 5 5 8 8 8 8 4.53 Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39: 39;
44; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/7; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/2 39
CONTINUOUS
This are numbers that summarizes data for an entire population: Parameter; Standard Deviation;
Distribution Error; Sample; Population Mean; Median; Mode; Sample; Sampling Error; Standard
deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Deviation Error; Random Sample; Standard Curve;
Sample Distribution of sample means; Statistics; Population; Mean Parameter
Which of the following applies to a normal distribution?: None of the choices; Median is greater than
Mean.; Mean is greater than Median.; Data is exactly equal to the mean.; Exactly ½ of the data is above
the mean and ½ of data is below. Exactly ½ of the data is above the mean and ½ of data is below.

community DISCRETE
43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 : 31; 36.45; 30; 24 31
The mean of the normal distribution is: greater than or equal to zero; always equal to one; should
always be a positive number; always equal to zero always equal to zero
False
In a normal distribution curve,: Mean is equal to Mode; Mean is equal to Median; None of the
choices; Mean is equal to Median and Mode Mean is equal to Median and Mode
to ______. 1
but unknown value of the parameter: Parameter; Mean; Sample; Mode; Distribution Error; Standard
deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Median; Sampling Error; Deviation Error; Standard
Deviation; Standard Curve; Population; Population Mean; Statistics; Sample Distribution of sample
means; Sample; Random Sample Sampling Error
It is the number of times an outcome can occur compared to all possible outcomes.: Probability;
Standard Deviation; Variance; Mean Probability
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. The brightness of an LED bulb
CONTINUOUS
It is also called 68-95-99.7 Rule.: Z score Rule; None of the choices; Empirical Rule; Variance Rule
Empirical Rule
This are numbers that summarizes data from a sample: Random Sample; Statistics; Population Mean;
Sample; Deviation Error; Population; Standard Deviation; Parameter; Sample Distribution of sample
means; Sample; Standard Curve; Mode; Median; Sampling Error; Standard deviation of the distribution
of the sample means; Distribution Error; Mean Statistics

CONTINUOUS
Use to check the normality of a distribution: None of the choices; Normal quantile plot; Z score;
Empirical Rule Normal quantile plot
Which of the following statement is TRUE.: All of the statements are TRUE.; Non-countable values are
called discrete variables; Countable number of values are called discrete variables; Infinite numbers are

community DISCRETE
subscriber CONTINUOUS
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Women who
volunteer to take a survey on human rights. No
Which one of these variables is a not continuous random variable?: The number of senators elected in
the Philippines; The number of volunteers in a community; The tuition fee enrolled in different
universities; The number of attendees in an Information Technology conference. The number of
senators elected in the Philippines
True or False: Mean is the sum of all possible values of random variables. False
to ______. 1
10
election. Yes
1.: The statement is FALSE.; The statement is NOT ALWAYS TRUE; The statement is TRUE.; The
statement is NOT ALWAYS FALSE The statement is TRUE.
An example of a parameter.: Standard Deviation; Sample; Random Sample; Standard deviation of the
distribution of the sample means; Mode; Median; Sampling Error; Standard Curve; Population Mean;
Statistics; Parameter; Distribution Error; Deviation Error; Mean; Sample; Sample Distribution of sample
means; Population Population Mean
The speed of cars travelling in the road and the water consumption of household are examples
of: Discrete Continuous Random Variable; Continuous Random Variable; Continuous Discrete Random
Variable; Discrete Random Variables; None of the choices Continuous Random Variable
1. Given the data set below, compute for the variance. (Round off your answer to the nearest
hundredths):
A: 5.98
The degree of error expected for a given sample design

A: sampling error
This is defined by two values, between which a population parameter is said to lie.
A: interval estimate
Which of the following applies to Central Limit Theorem?

A: Distribution of sample means may be assumed normal as long as sample size is greater than or equal to 30.
These are numbers that summarizes data from a sample.

A: statistics
The average of the population.

A: mean
In what type of research does a researcher study an individual subject in
depth? Naturalistic observation
Confidence interval is associated by confidence level
A: true
In Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean is equal to the
A: population mean
Which of the following does describes a T distribution?

In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, which of the statement applies?
A: A sample size greater than or equal to 30
Margin of Error is computed as quotient of the standard deviation and the ____________ of the sample size
multiplied by the confidence coefficient.
A: square root
In a normal distribution curve, the total area of the curve is

A: 1
Number of rooms & employees are examples of _________________.

A: Discrete Random Variables
What is the formula to calculate the standard deviation of the sampling distribution?
A: Standard deviation of the population divided by the square root of the sample size
The formula to computer for the confidence interval is?
A:
The mean of sample should fall ________________ the lower and upper values of the confidence interval.
A: within
Which of the following describes a T distribution?

As the confidence interval for a given statistics increases in length,

A:confidence level increases
T distribution is use to estimate population mean interval for:

A: Smaller samples
In a normal curve, z-score is ______________.

A: Always equal to zero.
Also known as Bell shaped curve.

A: normal curve
In a normal distribution, the tail of the curve __________ along the horizontal axis.
A: flatten
Formula to compute for the variance
A:
According to the Empirical Rule, ________ % of the sample estimates will fall within one standard error
above the population parameter.
The process of assigning a number to each member of the population

A: Random Sampling
AMANAMBAWAN
DIRR-122 4th QUARTERLY EXAM
Question 1
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The disaster risk reduction plan is a guide in transforming at risk communities to

become disaster _________ communities.
Select one:
a. Flexible
b. Resilient
c. Tough
d. Strong
Question 2
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Hazard maps are the primary source of information for various aspects of land-use
planning, including the siting of buildings and transportation systems.
Select one:
True
False
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Early _________, which should be part of the community preparedness plan, is the
provision of timely and effective information, advisory, and warning to individuals,
families, communities, or populations on the existence of danger, and what can be
done to prevent, avoid, or minimize danger
Select one:
a. Advisory
b. Notification
c. Caution
d. Warning
Question 4
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Close windows and doors to reduce entry of ash if heavy ash fall is expected to hit the
community. Bring animals and livestock into closed shelters.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
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Disaster Risk Reduction is important for

_________ countries, as well as developed countries.
Select one:
a. Increasing
b. Decreasing
c. Growing
d. Developing
Question 6
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_________, which should be part of the community preparedness plan, is the process
of moving persons or property from a dangerous or potentially dangerous place, for
reasons of safety and their protection.
Select one:
a. House
b. Hospital
c. Evacuation
d. Center
Question 7
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_________ and security of the individuals, household and communities is as

important as education and health.
Select one:
a. Well-being
b. Security
c. Safety
d. Wellfare
Question 8
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Volcanoes are difficult to know when they would erupt because they don't provide
any type of warnings before eruptions begin.
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True
False
Question 9
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Volcanoes are natural systems, and their activities are always predictable.
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True
False
Question 10
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Project NOAH combines ___________ and technology for DRRM.

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a. Biology
b. Science
c. Chemistry
d. Physics
Question 11
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Green means moderately susceptible; be cautious.

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True
False
Question 12
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In interpreting a hazard map, look for the title, which is located at the top portion of
the geological map. It is important because it tells you right away what kind of hazard
map it represents or the area where the map is based.
Select one:
True
False
Question 13
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The three components of fire, known as the fire triangle are: fuel, heat and
_________.
Select one:
a. Fire
b. Water
c. Oxygen
d. Wind
Question 14
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Community based disaster risk reduction and management or CBDRRM is a process

of disaster risk reduction and management in which at risk communities are engaged
in the, _________ treatment, monitoring and evaluation of disaster risks. analysis,
Select one:
a. Distinguishing
b. Verification
c. Identification
d. Confirmation
Question 15
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The Philippine Atmospheric, Geophysical Astronomical Services Administration

(PHIVOLCS) enumerates volcanic phenomena directly associated with eruption.
Select one:
True
False
Question 16
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Static _________ involves the movement of electrons between two objects in contact
with each other.
Electrical charges are produced on the objects when they are separated. If the charge
builds up, it will develop enough energy to jump as a spark to a nearby grounded or
less highly charged object.
Select one:
a. Static
b. Electricity
c. Energy
d. Power
Question 17
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Check for injured and trapped persons near the slide, without entering the direct slide
area, after volcanic eruption.
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True
False
Question 18
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During a landslide, evacuate or stay out of the path of landslide or debris flow.
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True
False
Question 19
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Disaster risk reduction refers to the prevention, mitigation, preparedness and to

providing _________ assistance during disasters.
Select one:
a. Calmness
b. Emergency
c. Success
d. Solution
Question 20
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_________ of DRRM into the school curricular of secondary and tertiary level of
education, including the NSTP is one of the provisions of the Act.
Select one:
a. Mainstreaming
b. Normal
c. Conventional
d. Ordinary
Question 21
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Fire safety is the condition of being _________ from the risk or danger of fire. It is
also the quality or state of not presenting or involving risk or danger of fire.
Select one:
a. Guarded
b. Secure
c. Sheltered
d. Safe
Question 22
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Lava flows are streams of molten rock that come from a heavy rain.
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True
False
Question 23
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In the map, yellow means low susceptibility-less likely to experience landslide, but
still be prepared.
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True
False
Question 24
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Growth is the stage when the plume begins to form above the burning _________,
when it begins to draw or entertain air from the surroundings space into the column.
Select one:
a. Petroleum
b. Fuel
c. Diesel
d. Gas
Question 25
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In order to get the real measure of the data presented in the map, use the color
provided in the map.
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True
False
Question 26
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Project NOAH is Nationwide Operational _______ of Hazards.

Select one:
a. Accurate
b. Ability
c. Assessments
d. Acceptance
Question 27
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The pages in the map tell you what different colors and signs mean in the map. It
works as a decoder of the data presented in the map.
Select one:
True
False
Question 28
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The GPS coordinates are a unique identifier of a precise geographic location on the
earth, usually expressed in alphanumeric characters.
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True
False
Question 29
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Sustainable _________ goals cannot be achieved without reducing the risks.

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a. Advancement
b. Improvement
c. Increase
d. Development
Question 30
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For any hazard one must learn about the emergency-response and evacuation plans for
your area.
Select one:
True
False
Question 31
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DRRM ensures that disaster risk reduction and _________change measures are
gender responsive, sensitive to indigenous knowledge systems, and respectful of
human rights.
Select one:
a. Temperature
b. Climate
c. Humidity
d. Weather
Question 32
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Those who are living near volcanoes may detect premonitory events before eruption
of volcanoes.
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True
False
Question 33
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Decoder tells you what different colors and signs mean in the map.
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True
False
Question 34
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Priority should be given to pupils/students with breathing problems during volcanic

eruption, They should be advised to cover their nose, preferably with a wet piece of
cloth.
Select one:
True
False
Question 35
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Pyroclastic flows contain a high-density mix of hot lava blocks, pumice, ash and
volcanic gas.
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True
False
Question 36
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An orientation compass in the geological map can orient you, which direction is to the
north, south, east and west.
Select one:
True
False
Question 37
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Lahars are a specific kind of mudflow made up of flooding debris.

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True
False
Question 38
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Volcanic ash consists of fragments of pulverized rock, minerals, and volcanic glass
created during volcanic eruptions and measuring less than 2 mm in diameter.
Select one:
True
False
Question 39
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Ash fall endangers human lives and can have devastating effects on the things that
people rely upon from day to day living.
Select one:
True
False
Question 40
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DRRM ensures that disaster risk reduction and climate change measures are gender
responsive, sensitive to indigenous knowledge systems, and respectful of human
rights.
Select one:
True
False
Question 41
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_________ unites the community and its supporters in commitments and actions to
undertake to reduce disaster risk.
Select one:
a. Planning
b. Arrangement
c. Organization
d. Preparation
Question 42
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Red means highly susceptible; be alert and ready to evacuate.

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True
False
Question 43
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Only ash fall and not the pyroclastic flows can destroy agricultural lands.
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True
False
Question 44
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Fire is a chemical reaction resulting from the rapid oxidation of a fuel producing
_________ and light.
Select one:
a. Humidity
b. Heat
c. Intensity
d. Warmth
Question 45
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_________ community risk assessment includes hazard, exposure and vulnerability

assessment.
Select one:
a. Attendance
b. Participatory
c. Assistance
d. Cooperation
Question 46
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Fuel is the material or substance being oxidized or burned in the _________ process.
Select one:
a. Combustion
b. Explosion
c. Ignition
d. Flaming
Question 47
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Arson pertains to the malicious burning of property, using certain chemicals, bombs,
etc., and causing _________ to start.
Select one:
a. Combustion
b. Fire
c. Conflagration
d. Blaze
Question 48
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A family should develop a family plan, so that each member knows where to meet
after an emergency.
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True
False
Question 49
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Knowing the ways of protecting the school from ash fall, landslides and debris flows
by consulting your local disaster coordinating council must be done during a volcanic
eruption.
Select one:
True
False
Question 50
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Increase in the frequency of volcanic quakes with rumbling sounds and occurrence of
volcanic tremors are not signs of impending volcanic eruption.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
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The Act repealed PD No. 1566 of 1978 and transforms the disaster management
system in the country from disaster _________ towards disaster risk reduction.
Select one:
a. Answer
b. Rejoinder
c. Reaction
d. Response
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Question 3
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Only observations are used to help understand the areas that may be affected by
specific volcanic eruption phenomena.
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True
False
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still be prepared.
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True
False
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In order to get the real measure of the data presented in the map, use the color
provided in the map.
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True
False
Question 6
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A volcanologist is not so educated in geophysics that works and observes active

volcanoes.
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True
False
Question 7
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Ballistic projectiles are rocks that an erupting volcano may hurl into the air.
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True
False
Question 8
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True
False
Question 9
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In planning for evacuation, the community should Identify safe place for evacuation
and identify the shortest and _________ route.
Select one:
a. Safest
b. Secure
c. Guarded
d. Sheltered
Question 10
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Active volcanoes can bring damaging effects to people, property, livelihood and
environment during an eruption.
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True
False
Question 11
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Knowing the ways of protecting the school from ash fall, landslides and debris flows
by consulting your local disaster coordinating council must be done during a volcanic
eruption.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
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If you suspect an imminent landslide or sinkhole danger contact (or call or inform)
your local fire, police, or public works department.
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True
False
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True
False
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True
False
Question 15
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Disaster risk reduction is the responsibility of _________, not the government alone,
because everybody needs to be safe.
Select one:
a. Anybody
b. Everybody
c. Each one
d. All
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Question 17
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True
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Question 18
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Community based disaster risk management or CBDRRM has been recognized in the
Philippines as a necessary approach to put communities out of harm's way.
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True
False
Question 19
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Fuel is the material or substance being oxidized or burned in the _________ process.
Select one:
a. Flaming
b. Explosion
c. Combustion
d. Ignition
Question 20
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Only active volcanoes may release to the atmosphere gasses in the form of water
vapor, hydrogen sulfide, sulfur dioxide, carbon monoxide, hydrogen chloride and
hydrogen fluoride.
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True
False
Question 21
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Project NOAH is Nationwide Operational _______ of Hazards.

Select one:
a. Ability
b. Acceptance
c. Assessments
d. Accurate
Question 22
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For any hazard one must learn about the emergency-response and evacuation plans for
your area.
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
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An orientation compass in the geological map can orient you, which direction is to the
north, south, east and west.
Select one:
True
False
Question 24
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During a landslide stay alert and awake.

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True
False
Question 25
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Flowers in the ground is one of the signs that we should know as it may cause
sinkholes.
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True
False
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True
False
Question 27
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In CBDRM, the people are at the heart of decision-making and _________ of disaster
risk reduction and management activities at the community level.
Select one:
a. Application
b. Implementation
c. Discharge
d. Operation
Question 28
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Title, legends, bar scale, Orientation Compass and coordinates are the major
parts/elements found in geologic maps.
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True
False
Question 29
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Cooling is reducing the _________ below the fire point.

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a. Warmth
b. Climate
c. Temperature
d. Condition
Question 30
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Close windows and doors to reduce entry of ash if heavy ash fall is expected to hit the
community. Bring animals and livestock into closed shelters.
Select one:
True
False
Question 31
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The government is responsible for helping people during calamities, however

_________ or people should develop their coping capacities and should rely on
themselves, while seeking assistance from the government.
Select one:
a. Communities(CORRECT ANSWER)
b. Group(WRONG)
c. Set
d. Area
Question 32
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True
False
Question 33
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Ash fall endangers human lives and can have devastating effects on the things that
people rely upon from day to day living.
Select one:
True
False
Question 34
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Select one:
a. Physics
b. Biology
c. Science
d. Chemistry
Question 35
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There are _________ global targets to reduce disaster risks as agreed in the Sendai
Framework on Disaster Risk Reduction.
Select one:
a. Seven
b. Six
c. Two
d. Five
Question 36
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True
False
Question 37
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True
False
Question 38
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The economic impact of disasters is ________ as the years go by, considering the
impact of Climate Change.
Select one:
a. Growing
b. Increasing
c. Decreasing
d. Developing
Question 39
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There are _________ priorities for action in the Sendai Framework on Disaster Risk
Reduction.
Select one:
a. Five
b. Seven
c. Three
d. Four
Question 40
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Increase in the frequency of volcanic quakes with rumbling sounds and occurrence of
volcanic tremors are not signs of impending volcanic eruption.
Select one:
True
False
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after an emergency.
Select one:
True
False
Question 42
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Lahar, ash fall, pyroclastic flow, ballistic projectile, volcanic gasses and lava Flow are
some of the volcanic related hazards.
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True
False
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True
False
Question 44
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Select one:
a. Confirmation
b. Verification
c. Identification
d. Distinguishing
Question 45
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Earthquake hazard maps illustrate potential for ground-based volcanic impacts-lava
flows, pyroclastic flows, ash fall, volcanic gases, and more far-reaching hazards (such
as lahars) in valleys that drain the volcano.
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True
False
Question 46
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Volcanologists focus on knowing the movement and formation of molten rock deep
under the earth's surface, and what can be possibly done to avoid the impact of this
phenomenon in the community.
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True
False
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_________, which should be part of the community preparedness plan, is the process
of moving persons or property from a dangerous or potentially dangerous place, for
reasons of safety and their protection.
Select one:
a. Evacuation
b. House
c. Hospital
d. Center
Question 48
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cloth.
Select one:
True
False
Question 49
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Select one:
a. Ordinary
b. Conventional
c. Normal
d. Mainstreaming
Question 50
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Select one:
a. Growing
b. Increasing
c. Decreasing
d. Developing
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Question 1
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_________ community risk assessment includes hazard, exposure and vulnerability

assessment.
Select one:
a. Cooperation
b. Participatory
c. Attendance
d. Assistance
Question 2
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True
False
Question 3
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DRRM ensures that disaster risk reduction and _________change measures are
gender responsive, sensitive to indigenous knowledge systems, and respectful of
human rights.
Select one:
a. Temperature
b. Humidity
c. Weather
d. Climate
Question 4
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Lahar, ash fall, pyroclastic flow, ballistic projectile, volcanic gasses and lava Flow are
some of the volcanic related hazards.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
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Title, legends, bar scale, Orientation Compass and coordinates are the major
parts/elements found in geologic maps.
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True
False
Question 6
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Fire safety is the condition of being _________ from the risk or danger of fire. It is
also the quality or state of not presenting or involving risk or danger of fire.
Select one:
a. Sheltered
b. Safe
c. Guarded
d. Secure
Question 7
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Lava flows are streams of molten rock that come from a heavy rain.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
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Early _________, which should be part of the community preparedness plan, is the
provision of timely and effective information, advisory, and warning to individuals,
families, communities, or populations on the existence of danger, and what can be
done to prevent, avoid, or minimize danger
Select one:
a. Warning
b. Caution
c. Advisory
d. Notification
Question 9
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cloth.
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
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True
False
Question 11
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True
False
Question 12
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The color white usually means that there are no or zero percent chance for a landslide
or sinkhole to occur in that particular area in the map.
Select one:
True
False
Question 13
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The government is responsible for helping people during calamities, however

_________ or people should develop their coping capacities and should rely on
themselves, while seeking assistance from the government.
Select one:
a. Group
b. Set
c. Area
d. Communities
Question 14
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True
False
Question 15
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If you suspect an imminent landslide or sinkhole danger contact (or call or inform)
your local fire, police, or public works department.
Select one:
True
False
Question 16
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True
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Question 18
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_________ people, particularly those in dangerous locations need to prioritize

Disaster Risk Reduction in their lives, even they have so many things to think about,
because their safety is at stake.
Select one:
a. Restricted
b. Local
c. District
d. Regional
Question 19
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Select one:
a. Decreasing
b. Growing
c. Developing
d. Increasing
Question 20
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Select one:
a. Confirmation
b. Verification
c. Distinguishing
d. Identification
Question 21
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Pyroclastic flows contain a high-density mix of hot lava blocks, pumice, ash and
volcanic gas.
Select one:
True
False
Question 22
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During a landslide, evacuate or stay out of the path of landslide or debris flow.
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
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Select one:
True
False
Question 24
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Select one:
True
False
Question 25
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_________ and security of the individuals, household and communities is as

important as education and health.
Select one:
a. Well-being
b. Wellfare
c. Security
d. Safety
Question 26
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Earthquake hazard maps illustrate potential for ground-based volcanic impacts-lava

flows, pyroclastic flows, ash fall, volcanic gases, and more far-reaching hazards (such
as lahars) in valleys that drain the volcano.
Select one:
True
False
Question 27
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after an emergency.
Select one:
True
False
Question 28
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Only observations are used to help understand the areas that may be affected by
specific volcanic eruption phenomena.
Select one:
True
False
Question 29
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Select one:
True
False
Question 30
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Disaster risk reduction is the responsibility of _________, not the government alone,
because everybody needs to be safe.
Select one:
a. Anybody
b. All
c. Everybody
d. Each one
Question 31
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The Act repealed PD No. 1566 of 1978 and transforms the disaster management
system in the country from disaster _________ towards disaster risk reduction.
Select one:
a. Response
b. Rejoinder
c. Answer
d. Reaction
Question 32
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A volcanologist is not so educated in geophysics that works and observes active
volcanoes.
Select one:
True
False
Question 33
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Only active volcanoes may release to the atmosphere gasses in the form of water
vapor, hydrogen sulfide, sulfur dioxide, carbon monoxide, hydrogen chloride and
hydrogen fluoride.
Select one:
True
False
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Select one:
a. Normal
b. Mainstreaming
c. Conventional
d. Ordinary
Question 35
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Community based disaster risk management or CBDRRM has been recognized in the
Philippines as a necessary approach to put communities out of harm's way.
Select one:
True
False
Question 36
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Active volcanoes can bring damaging effects to people, property, livelihood and
environment during an eruption.
Select one:
True
False
Question 37
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Volcanoes are difficult to know when they would erupt because they don't provide
any type of warnings before eruptions begin.
Select one:
True
False
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Arson pertains to the malicious burning of property, using certain chemicals, bombs,
etc., and causing _________ to start.
Select one:
a. Combustion
b. Conflagration
c. Fire
d. Blaze
Question 39
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The DRRM Act is _________ in addressing disasters and focused on the need for
prevention, mitigation, preparedness, and response.
Select one:
a. Driven
b. Entriprising
c. Proactive
d. Energetic
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During a volcanic eruption, do not follow the instructions that go with the warning
because the waning may be wrong, it's too difficult.
Select one:
True
False
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DRRM ensures that disaster risk reduction and climate change measures are gender
responsive, sensitive to indigenous knowledge systems, and respectful of human
rights.
Select one:
True
False
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During a landslide stay alert and awake.

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True
False
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True
False
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Select one:
a. Biology
b. Chemistry
c. Science
d. Physics
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Volcanoes are natural systems, and their activities are always predictable.
Select one:
True
False
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still be prepared.
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True
False
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True
False
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There are _________ priorities for action in the Sendai Framework on Disaster Risk
Reduction.
Select one:
a. Seven
b. Five
c. Three
d. Four
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There are _________ global targets to reduce disaster risks as agreed in the Sendai
Framework on Disaster Risk Reduction.
Select one:
a. Six
b. Two
c. Seven
d. Five
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Most of the time _________ fire are started in trashcans or in piles of garbage because
it is the easiest thing to light.
Select one:
a. Knowing
b. Deliberate
c. Intentional
d. Intended
Which of the following is not part of a

systematic investigation?
Select one:
a. Identifying an area of research and
formulating research questions
b. Getting funding for the research
c. Developing a clear research strategy,
research design, and choice of methods
d. Coming up with detailed explanations of the
overall process of research and the results
Question 2
How does a researcher gain research
knowledge?
Select one:
a. by studying and synthesizing a complete
review of related literature
b. by realizing the usefulness of those
research outputs by employing the
systematic process of research
c. by publishing the complete and well-written
research paper
d. by conducting the data collection properly,
ethically and factually.
Question 3
Which of the following is not an example of
qualitative researchers?
Select one:
a. case study
b. descriptive research
c. perspective taking
d. individual experiences
Question 4
Research hypotheses can be defined as
Select one:
a. An instrument that is not tested and
validated yet.
b. A way to collect data either in qualitative or
quantitative research
c. A guide for the researcher in consolidating
research findings.
d. A tentative conclusion or answer to a
specific question raised at the beginning of
the investigation.
Question 5
Which of the following is a type of quantitative
research design?
Select one:
a. Recording a day in the mental institute
b. Observations of children playing on the
street
c. Stories from first hand-sources
d. Television ratings
Question 6
Choose the correct paraphrase of the following
quotation on the statements about research
“Research is about engaging in a conversation
with a brand.” -Matthew Rhodes
Select one:
a. Research is an investigation of the
unknown.
b. Research provides an important perspective
on our daily issues.
c. Research is not only answering questions
but also discovering one’s talent and skill
d. Research is a formalized curiosity with a
purpose.
e. Research starts from the stimulated mind
and may end to measure of greatness.
f. Research is finding out there what other’s
has not seen so you make a difference.
g. Research is valuing others’ work.
h. Research can equip anyone.
i. Innovation is funding a research and learning
its basic facts.
j. Research is discussing specific issues.
Question 7
What is scientific method?
Select one:
a. Good research
b. Validating the results
c. Making research instruments
d. Systematic process
Question 8
Critical researchers are primarily concerned
with
Select one:
a. ethical violations in methodology
b. what researchers take for granted
c. how research is funded
d. misuse of statistics
Question 9
Choose the correct paraphrase of the following
quotation on the statements about research
“The measure of greatness in a scientific idea
is the extent to which it stimulates thought and
opens up new lines of research.” ― Paul A.M.
Dirac
Select one:
a. Research is an investigation of the
unknown.
b. Innovation is funding a research and
learning its basic facts.
c. Research is discussing specific issues.
d. Research is valuing others’ work.
e. Research starts from the stimulated mind
and may end to measure of greatness.
f. Research is not only answering questions
but also discovering one’s talent and skill
g. Research can equip anyone.
h. Research is finding out there what other’s
has not seen so you make a difference.
i. Research is a formalized curiosity with a
purpose.
j. Research provides an important perspective
on our daily issues.
Question 10
What scope of research increases the
productivity of an institution?
Select one:
a. Information and Technology
b. Administration
c. Education
d. Professional
Question 1
What would happen if the constructed
research question has no precise answer?
Select one:
a. The results will not be accurate and valid.
b. The results will not address the specific
need of the problem.
d. The whole research process is useless.
Question 2
Which of the following is not a result of
research?
Select one:
a. Caesarian birth
b. Solar powered objects
d. Deep well water
Question 3
In qualitative research, researchers evaluate
any number of variables to make sense of the
data. These variables include
Select one:
b. Language of the participants
c. Educational background of participants
d. Quantity of participants
Which of the following is not a characteristic of research?
Research begins with an unanswered problem or question.
Which of the following is a product of qualitative research?
All of the choices
This part distinguishes the constraints of the study by stating the
demarcations of time, measurability, availability of subjects, resources
and ethical considerations. Scope and Delimitation
Question 4
What skill set is required from a qualitative
researcher?
Select one:
a. Observational, objective and mathematical
skills
b. Organization, attention to details and
analytical abilities
c. Writing, listening, and reading skills
d. Investigative, subjective and interpretative
abilities
It is objective, replicable and reliable. Quantitative
Question 5
The quantitative method is used when
__________ , ___________, and ________
are sought in the study.
Select one:
a. Clarity, reliability and validity
b. Richness, complexity and data
c. truth, evidences and reality
d. Numbers, statistics and measurement
Question 6
Which of the following is a good research
question?
Select one:
a. Does the information on the issue appear to
have evidences?
b. What are the basic values or goals of the
organization?
c. How many teenagers are using the social
media?
d. Is the source current or out of date to
answer the problem?
Question 7
It generates data about human groups in
social settings.
Select one:
a. Quantitative Research
b. Statement of the Problem
c. Scope and Delimitation
d. Significance of the Study
e. Qualitative Research
Question 8
What research purpose could be used in this
title, Dogs: Intervention for Children with
Disabilities in Manila?
Select one:
a. Pure/basic
b. both choices are correct
d. Applied
Question 9
What is the third step in the research process?
Select one:
a. Do the library search
b. Form a hypothesis
c. Design the study
d. Formulate research questions
Question 10
What is the best description of research
rationale?
Select one:
a. Reasons for conducting the research
b. Location of the research
c. The scope and delimitation of research
d. Similar to research hypothesis
The variable which is not influenced by other

variables in the study.
Select one:
a. Independent variable
b. Discrete variable
c. Dependent variable
d. Common variable
Choose a good research problem for a

qualitative research?
Select one:
a. A lawmaker is thinking of an innovation for a
cleaner election.
b. A shopper wants to compare the number of
shoppers during ordinary and Christmas
season.
c. A teacher was considering a computer
instructional tool for active learning pedagogy.
d. A student examined the function of
boxing as a way to help adolescents with a
criminal record to deal with aggression
What part of the research problem is described

here? It must be free from biases and
impartiality.
Select one:
a. Determine a problem
b. Form a hypothesis
c. Design the study
d. Analyze data
What is in significance of the study?

Select one:
a. research questions
b. research purpose
c. research coverage
d. research beneficiaries
Conclude the delimitation of a research with
the title Impact of Electronic, Video and Mobile
Games on Social Development of Teenagers
Select one:
a. This study does not include the health
effects of these technologies to teenagers.
b. This study is focused only on the effects
of these new technologies to the social
growth of teenagers.
d. This study is limited to the social
development of teenagers including the
improvement on their attitude and values.
It lets the meaning emerge from the

participants.
Select one:
a. Significance of the Study
b. Scope and Delimitation
c. Qualitative Research
d. Statement of the Problem
e. Quantitative Research
What is the sample size in qualitative

research?
Select one:
a. big
b. holistic
c. small
d. representative
Validity in research refers to

Select one:
a. How well a test measures what it is
supposed to measure
b. How the researcher uses the instrument to
the participants
c. the legality of the test to be used
d. The power of the instrument to be used
What implications do human values have on

qualitative research?
Select one:
a. They contribute to the value of the data set
by other researchers.
b. They influence the number of researchers to
be involved in the study.
c. They set the price the research is worth to
be sold for.
d. They influence the ethical decisions of
the researcher.
What ethical dilemma is needed in this

situation: A celebrity’s recent scandal involving
the “hacking” of her personal photographs on
iCloud where her personal information was
accessed for a research on the lifestyle of local
celebrities.
Select one:
a. Informed consent
b. Misconduct in research
c. Authorship
d. Conflicts of interests
Which of the following statements applies to
research knowledge?
Select one:
a. Determined students travel to search for
topics.
b. A social media user surveys online.
c. A child is learning how to speak.
d. Critical readers become curious analysts.
Its hypotheses are Specific, testable, stated

prior to particular study.
Select one:
a. Qualitative
b. Quantitative
It states possible implications such as the possible causes of the problems
discovered, the possible effects of the problems, and the remedial
measures to solve the problems. Significance of the Study

It provides observed effects (interpreted by researchers) of a program on a
problem or condition. Qualitative
To be original, a study must be

Select one:
b. Conducted with a sample that has never
been studied before
c. Radically different from previous
research
d. Addressing a gap in the existing research
literature
e. All of the choices
Which is a good argument in the research

hypothesis?
Select one:
a. Childhood obesity is alarming nowadays.
b. More students get sick during the final week
of testing than at other times.
c. A dog can be trained to alert a human if the
telephone is ringing.
d. The amount of sun exposure is good to a
plant.
In selecting factors for a study, which of these

does a researcher needs to consider?
Select one:
a. They are not of interesting so only few will
choose them.
b. They are available for investigation.
c. They do not lead to another question.
d. They have been investigated before.
FILI-121 WEEK 1-10
Ito ang may pinakamahabang bahagi ng sulatin.
The correct answer is: Katawan
Malilinang ang pagsusuri at obserbasyon ng isang indibidwal sa pagbabasa at pagsusulat ng

akademikong sulatin.
Kilalanin kung anong uri ng pagsulat ang ginagamit sa mga sumusunod.

Encyclopedia
The correct answer is: Reperensyal
Ang bahaging ito ay naglalaman na ng kabuuan ng sulatin.

The correct answer is: Wakas
Maaaring bumuo ng sariling istruktura sa pagbuo ng isang sulating akademikong sulatin.
Kilalanin ang inilalahad sa mga sumusunod na bilang.

Pagsulat ukol sa hiram na sansaysay bilang patunay ng mga sinasaliksik o natuklasan bilang
pangangailangang pang-akademiko.
The correct answer is: Tesis
Maaaring opinyon lamang ang gamitin sa pagbuo ng akademikong sulatin.

Hindi lamang ang mentalidad kundi pati na rin ang pagpapahalagang pansarili ang malilinang
sa paggawa ng sulating pang-akademiko.
Nakatuon sa maraming paksa ang akademikong sulatin.

Ang katotohanang natuklasan, napatunayan at naisulat na hindi na maaari pang magbago.

Kilalanin kung anong uri ng pagsulat ang ginagamit sa sumusunod:

Mga salita mula sa mga IT (Gigabite, motherboard, at iba pa)
The correct answer is: teknikal
Ang hindi makatarungang pagpuna sa personalidad ng isang indibidwal.

The correct answer is: ad hominem
Nangangahulugan sa Ingles na, "After this, Therefore because of This."

The correct answer is: post hoc, ergo propter hoc
Kilalanin kung anong uri ng pagsulat ang ginagamit sa mga sumusunod:

Talaarawan.
The correct answer is: journalistik
Kilalanin kung anong uri ng pagsulat ang ginagamit sa sumusunod:

Dagli
The correct answer is: malikhain
Sa bahaging ito ay maaari nang basahing muli, suriin at irebisa o iedit ang mga ideya,
magkaltas o magdagdag ng mga ideya kung kinakailangan.
The correct answer is: pagkatapos sumulat
Dito na ang aktuwal na pagsulat ng mga nakalap na impormasyon at pagbuo ng isang sulatin.
The correct answer is: habang sumusulat
Laging argumento lamang ang nilalaman ng lahat ng mga sulating pang-akademiko.

Kilalanin kung anong uri ng pagsulat ang ginagamit sa diksyunaryo.

Naglalaman ito ng introduksyon, o ang magbibigay ng impresyon at motibasyon sa mambabasa
kung ipagpapatuloy pa niya ang pagbabasa sa teksto.
The correct answer is: Panimula
Maaaring magsingit ng isa pang paksa sa pagbuo ng isang sulating may paksa na.

Pagsasalin ng mga simbolo sa isang materyales tulad ng papel, kahoy, bato at iba pa na
naghahatid ng ideya o mensahe.
The correct answer is: Pagsulat
Dapat may iisang wika lamang ang gagamitin sa pagbubuo ng isang sulating pang-akademiko.

Mahirap na uri ng sulatin sapagkat nangangailangan ito ng matinding pananaliksik upang
maging reperensya.
Nangangalap ng mga impormasyon ang mananaliksik sa pamamagitan ng interbyu.

The correct answer is: bago sumulat
Nangangahulugan sa Ingles na “It does not follow.”

The correct answer is: non sequitur
Sa manunulat nakasalalay ang impormasyon na ilalahad sa pagbuo ng isang sulatin.

Maaaring magkaroon ng mga salitang di-pormal sa paglalahad ng mga impormasyon.

Dapat laging nakasalalay sa interes ng akademikong komunidad ang isusulat.


Uri ng sulating naglalahad ng mga kaalaman o pangyayari sa paligid o maaaring personal na
pangyayari.

Uri ng pagsulat na ginagawa sa akademikong institusyon.
The correct answer is: akademikong pagsulat
Ang unang hakbang upang makabuo ng isang sulatin.

Likas sa akademikong sulatin ang magkaroon ng maraming argumento at kumbensyon.

Bumubuo ng maraming ideya ang isang mag-aaral ukol sa paksang kanyang nais italakay.
Pagsulat ng mga masisining na bagay na maaring batay sa imahinasyon o sumasalamin sa
totoong buhay.
Nagkaroon ng desisyon ang isang mananaliksik ukol sa kanyang paksang sasaliksikin.

Pinalitan ni Tonyo ang ilang salitang kanyang ginamit sa kanyang ginawang teksto.
Kilalanin kung anong uri ng pagsulat ang ginagamit sa balita sa dyaryo.


Ito ay uri ng pagsulat na pumipili ng isang masining na sulatin. Dito ay pag-aaralan nang maigi
ang nilalaman at sa pamamagitan ng pagsulat ay ilalahad ang naobserbahan ng isang
manunulat.
Dinepensahan ni Che ang kanyang ginawang Tesis.

Bahaging dapat mag-iwan ng kaintalan sa mga mambabasa.

The correct answer is: wakas
May mabuting dulot ang pagsusulat ng akademikong sulatin.


Uri ng sulating nakabatay sa isang grupo.
The correct answer is: Teknikal
Dapat lamang na nakatuon lamang sa iisang layunin ang paggawa ng akademikong sulatin.
Kilalanin kung anong uri ng pagsulat ang ginagamit sa tula.

The correct answer is: Malikhain
Piliin ang salitang WASTO kung tama ang pahayag na nabasa. HINDI WASTO kung ito naman
ay taliwas.
Madalas nasa di-pormal na uri ng sanaysay ang lakbay-sanaysay.
The correct answer is: Wasto
Tukuyin kung ang mga pahayag sa bawat bilang ay abstrak o introduksiyon.

Pagpapakita ito ng kaluluwa ng isang pananaliksik upang maging gabay sa mga interesado at
ayundin sa mga nagsasaliksik.
The correct answer is: Abstrak
Pagsusunod-sunod ng mga impormasyon sa mahahalagang detalye ayon sa pangyayari.
The correct answer is: Kronolohikal
Isulat ang letrang A kung ito ay sekwensiyal, B kung ito ay kronolohikal, at C ay prosidyural.
Tuloy-tuloy ang kaniyang paglakad na tila hindi alintana ang nasa paligid. Nang walang ano-ano
ay nagising ang kaniyang kamalayan sa malakas na preno at busina ng isang sasakyan sa
kaniyang gilid. Lumabas ang napakatikas at mala-Adonis na anyo at saka siya sinigawan ng
“Oy! Ano ka ba??”

May mga balangkas ng isyu ukol sa sinaliksik.
The correct answer is: Introduksiyon
Nililinang ang nilalaman ng bawat kaisipan.


Naiisa-isa ang mga isyung may kaugnay sa natuklasan.

Ipinakikilala ang pananaliksik at mga isyu ukol dito para sa isang talakayan.
Pagbabahagi ng mga kaalaman ukol sa paksa.

Nagkakaroon ng brainstorming o pagbibigay ng saloobin.


Isiniksik ang impormasyon ng pananaliksik nang daglian.
ay taliwas.
Kailangang laging may interes sa pagtuklas sa napuntahang lugar.
Sulating ginagamit ng imahinasyon.

The correct answer is: Malikhain
Pagkakaltas at pagdadagdag ng ideya.

Pagsusunod-sunod ng mga hakbang o proseso ng paggawa.

The correct answer is: Prosidyural
Tukuyin kung ang nasa bawat bilang ay tumutukoy sa INTRODUKSYON o ABSTRAK.
Mayroong balangkas ng isyu.
The correct answer is: Introduksyon
ay taliwas.
Kapag nagsusulat na ng lakbay-sanaysay ay gumamit ng ikalawang panauhang punto de vista.
The correct answer is: Hindi Wasto
Pagkakasunod-sunod na mga pangyayari sa isang kuwento o salaysayin na ginagamitan ng

mga panandang naghuhudyat ng pagkakasunud-sunod tulad ng una, pangalawa.
The correct answer is: Sekwensiyal
Ito ay pagbubuod ng akademikong sulatin na laging mababasa sa panimula o introduksiyon ng

pag-aaral.
Isa sa mga katangian ng akademikong sulatin ay ang makatuklas ng mga bagong
impormasyon.
The correct answer is: Mali
Wikang pinagmulan ng salitang abstract.

The correct answer is: Latin
Paglalarawan gamit ang teksto sa mga mambabasa ng mga pangunahing ideya.
The correct answer is: Deskriptib
Ito ay bahagi ng pananaliksik na ang layunin ay ipakilala ang isang natuklasang impormasyon.
Gumagawa ng panayam para sa impormasyon.

Pag-iisip ng paksa para sa isang sulatin.

Ayon sa kanya ang akademikong sulatin ay dapat maglahad ng mahahalagang argument.

The correct answer is: Karen Gocsik
Ang pagboto ay parehong karapatan at responsibilidad. Karapatan sapagkat bawat taong
kabilang sa isang lipunan ay may kalayaang pumili sa tingin niya’y karapat dapat na mamuno
sa kaniyang lipunan.Responsibilidad sapagkat ito ay tungkuling dapat gampanan ng isang may
malasakit na mamamayan para sa kaniyang bayan.

Naglalahad ng implikasyon ang isang pananaliksik
ay taliwas.
Ang lakbay-sanaysay ay pagsulat ng saloobin.
Sapat na ang isang katibayan sa pagsulat ng isang sulating pang-akademiko.


Ibinubuod nang daglian ang kabuuan ng isang pananaliksik kasama ang kongklusyon
Ang akademikong pagsulat ay ginagawa lamang ng isang indibidwal na iskolar.

The correct answer is: Tama
ay taliwas.
Magkapareho lamang ang konsepto ng turista at naglalakbay upang makapagsulat.

Naglalahad ng resulta ng isang pananaliksik
Uri ng pagsulat na pampersonal o pampahayagan.

The correct answer is: Jornalistik
Ang salitang syntithenai ay nangangahulugang __________.

The correct answer is: Pagsamahin
Dapat laging deskriptib ang ginagawang akademikong sulatin.

Dapat isang wika lamang ang gagamitin sa pagsulat akademikong sulatin.


Obhektibo ang paglalahad at hindi na kailangan pang ipaliwanag ang kahalagahan ng sinaliksik.

Nagpapahayag ng proposisyon
ay taliwas.
Makagagawa ka ng isang napakaganda at epektibong lakbay-sanaysay nang hindi
napupuntahan ang lugar at hindi nararanasan ang pakiramdam nang nandoon sa lugar na iyon.
Binabanggit dito ang mga paraan kung paano isinagawa ang sinaliksik.
Pagsasaayos ng mga impormasyon ukol sa paksa.

Ang pagsulat ay kapwa mental at sosyal na gawain.

Nagwawasto ng bawat bantas at baybay.

Alamin kung ang mga sumusunod na kaparaanan ay

Nangangalap ng impormasyon.
Ang akademilong pagsulat ay intelektuwal na pagsulat.

Ayon sa kanila ang abstrak ay may dalawang uri.

The correct answer is: University of Adelaide
Sagutan ang mga impormasyong hinihingi at ipasa ito sa unang counter. Hintayin na matawag
ang iyong pangalan at sundin ang susunod na proseso.
Isulat ang mga asignaturang dapat ienrol at isaka ipakaencode ang mga ito sa counter.
Pagkatapos, pumunta sa accounting area para bayaran ang matrikula.
Ang pagsulat ay paggamit ng simbolo upang mabasa at maunawaan ang saloobin ng isang tao.
Maaaring magkaroon ng mga salitang di-pormal sa paglalahad ng mga impormasyon.

ay taliwas.
Kailangang talakayin ang lugar, ang matinding damdaming nadama sa naranasan sa
lugar,kultura at iba pa.

May paglalahad ng lagom ng isang mahalagang paksang natuklasan.
Tama lamang na instrument lamang ang dapat gamitin sa pagsulat.
Paglalahad ng mga mahahalagang ideya at punto na nilagom mula sa paksa, layunin, kaligiran,
metodolohiya, kinalabasan ng pag-aaral at kongklusyon.
The correct answer is: Impormatib
Patuloy siyang nakatingin sa langit. Hinihintay niya ang kaniyang ina. Alas-dose na ng gabi
nang dumating ang kaniyang ina na may dalang pansit.
Inilalahad ang mga nakalap na impormasyon.


Nagbibigay ng rekomendasyon

Naglalahad ng proposisyon ng manunulat.
Likas na sa akademikong sulatin ang may kumbensyong sinusunod.

ay taliwas.
Dapat hindi maging literal ang mga obserbasyon sa napuntahang lugar.
Sulating ginagamit sa espisipikong larangan.

The correct answer is: Teknikal
ay taliwas.
Epektibo kung hindi itinatala ang mga nalaman na impormasyon.
Pagkopya ng mga ideya na hindi kinilala ang totoong may ari nito
Kahit ano lamang na larawan ay maaaring ilagay sa picto-essay.

Tukuyin kung anong bahagi ng replektibong sanaysay ang mga sumusunod na pangungusap o
talata.
Makikita lamang ang halaga ng buhay at iba pang bagay na may kaugnayan sa buhay sa
pamamagitan ng pagsubok o kilala bilang problema. Nangangailangan lamang ng magandang
persepsyon sa buhay. Kung wala ka nito ay simula na ng problema.
The correct answer is: Kongklusyon
Pagsulat ng mga ginagad na mga ideya, konsepto at katotohanan sa pamamagitan ng pag-iisip

nang malalim, repleksyon o pagninilay mula sa mga naranasan o nararanasang pagkakataon.
The correct answer is: Replektibong-sanaysay
talata.
Hindi ba’t problema rin ang kawalan ng problema? Sapagkat nakakapag-isip ang isang tao ng
mapagkakaabalahan niya nang hindi nakakapagnilay ng mga kalalabasan ng piniling aksyon.
Napansin kong pinipili at nangyayari ito sa mga taong maraming biyayang natanggap at hindi
nagamit nang wasto.
Nangangailangan ng pananaliksik sa pagbuo ng isang larawang sanaysay.

Nakasalalay sa larawan ang isusulat ng isang manunulat upang makabuo ng isang larawang
sanaysay.
Piliin ang oo kung ang pahayag sa bawat bilang ay ang dahilan kung bakit kailangan ng
repleksyon. Piliin ang hindi kapag ito ay isa sa mga dahilan.
Magkaroon ng realisasyon sa mga bagay-bagay
The correct answer is: Oo
Ayon sa tema ang picto-essay kung ito ay may mga serye ng larawan.
Tukuyin kung ang mga sumusunod na pahayag ay nagpapahiwatig ng katangian ng isang uri ng
picto-essay.
Nagbibigay ng tiyak na ideya bago pa mabasa ng isang mambabasa ang sanaysay ng isang
manunulat dahil sa serye ng larawan na inilatag.
The correct answer is: Pasalaysay
talata.
“Kung hindi ikaw ang solusyon, ikaw ang problema”, ito ang kasabihang nagmula sa mga
Aprikano. Napakagandang kasabihan bilang gabay upang magbigay ng ebalwasyon sa kung
ano mang pagsubok na nangyayari o pagkakataong nararanasan.
picto-essay.
Hindi nangangailangan ng napakaraming larawan sapagkat tama nang gumamit ng isang
larawan lamang.
The correct answer is: Ayon sa Tema
talata.
Ayon nga sa linya ng isang artista ay “Hindi nakakaganda ang pagiging nega (negatibo)”.
Natural lang ang mga pagsubok na pinagdadaanang ng bawat tao. Paano nga naman titibay
ang isang indibidwal na hindi dumaan sa pagpapanday? Kung nasasaktan tanda iyon na buhay
ka at doon mapahahalagahan ang kamatayan na katambal ng buhay.
Laging nangungumbinsi ang papel ng larawan sa larawang-sanaysay.

picto-essay.
Ang isang larawan ay nagbibigay ng kabuuang ideya ng sanaysay,
The correct answer is: Ayon sa Tema
Magkaroon ng kaugnayan at pagkaunawa sa lahat ng bagay.
Pagbibigay ng manunulat ng kahalagahan ng isinasalaysay.

The correct answer is: Wakas
Kailangang limitado lamang ang mga ilalahad sa pagbuo ng isang picto-essay.

picto-essay.
Nagbibigay ng mga mahahalagang pangyayari na ayon sa mga pagkakasunud-unod ng mga
pangyayari.
picto-essay.
May sinusundan na sekwensiyal na kwento.
Posibleng maaaring tawaging picto-essay ang isang picto-essay kapag ito ay walang larawan.
Maproseso ang ating sariling pagkatuto.
Ang larawan ang isa sa pinakamahalagang sangkap ng picto-essay.
Ang larawang may iisang pangungusap na naglalarawan sa isang larawan ay itinuturing na

larawang-sanaysay.
talata.
Bakit kaya maraming tao ang pinoproblema ang problema samantalang ang problema walang
pinoproblema na problema? Iyan ang tanong ng mga taong madalas magreklamo sa kanilang
kinakaharap. Sa bawat araw na ginawa ng Diyos ay hindi maiiwasan ang problema.
Mapaunlad ang sarili lamang.
Paglalahad ng mga saloobin, pananaw, kuru-kuro, opinyon o anumang nais palitawin na ideya.
The correct answer is: Sanaysay
Magkaroon ng sariling desisyon at maresolba ang sariling suliranin.
Ayon sa kaniya may mga layunin kung bakit kailangang magnilay o magkaroon ng repleksiyon.
The correct answer is: Moon
Inilalahad ang mga paliwanag sa mga natamong aral at mga pagbabago.

Nagsasalaysay lamang ang inihahayag ng larawang-sanaysay.

Isang komunikatibong pasalita na isinasagawa sa pampublikong lugar na may layuning

makapaglahad ng mga impormasyon at opinyon, makapagpaliwanag, mang-aliw o manghikayat
na tumutuon sa iisang paksa.
The correct answer is: Talumpati
Siguraduhing ______________ lamang ang gagawing bionote upang hindi mabagot ang mga
tagapakinig o mambabasa sa pagpapakilala sa tao.
The correct answer is: Maikli
Kumpletuhin ang ibinibigay na analohiya. Baybayin ito sa Filipino.

TALUMPATI NG LIDER NG NAGRARALLY :
MENSAHE NG BELDIKTORYAN : MAY PAGHAHANDA
The correct answer is: biglaan
Binibigyan lamang ng paksa ang isang tagapagsalita at saka ito ipaliliwanag.

The correct answer is: Impromptu o biglaang talumpati

: TAGAPAKINIG
MANANALUMPATI : TAGAPAGSALITA
The correct answer is: awdiyens
Pagpapakita ito ng mga totoong impormasyon na may kinalaman ang bilang.

The correct answer is: Estadistika
Laging siguraduhing ______________ ang mga impormasyon.

The correct answer is: tama
Alamin kung ang mga sumusunod na pahayag ay tinutukoy ang BIONOTE, TALAMBUHAY o
RESUME.
Isinusulat at maaaring basahin kung siya ay ipakikilala sa madla dahil sa kaniyang ambag sa
partikular na disiplina.
The correct answer is: Bionote
Paglalahad ito ng mga sitwasyon na magpapakita ng mga dahilan at kung ano ang mga epekto.
The correct answer is: Sanhi at Bunga
RESUME.
Maaaring gamitin sa pag-aaral na may kinalaman sa paksang pinag-aaralan madalas ay sa
mga manunulat, bayani at iba pa.
The correct answer is: Talambuhay
Panatilihin ang maayos na ______________ ng pagkakasulat kung bionote ay ililimbag sa

magasin, aklat at iba pa.
The correct answer is: pormalidad
Ito ay talumpating may paghahanda sa balangkas, mula sa panimula hanggang wakas ngunit
ang mga paliwanag bilang katawan ay nakasalalay na sa tagapagsalita.
The correct answer is: Talumpating Ekstemporanyo
Pagbibigay ng mga tiyak na kauhulugan sa pinakasimple o payak na paraan.

The correct answer is: Depinisyon
Tulad ng talumpating binabasa ay inihanda ang kabuuan sa anyong pasanaysay ngunit ito ay
isinaulo para bigkasin sa harap ng mga tagapakinig.
The correct answer is: Talumpating isinaulo

KAHULUGAN : DEPINISYON
DAHILAN AT EPEKTO :
The correct answer is: Sanhi at bunga
Tandaang may ______________ pinaggagamitan ang bionote.
The correct answer is: inilalaang
Ito ang pagbibigay ng mga anyo ukol sa mga sitwasyon, tao at mga bagay-bagay.
The correct answer is: Paglalarawan
RESUME.
Isinusulat para sa pangangailangang pantrabaho.
The correct answer is: Resume

SONA : TALUMPATING ISINAULO
SERMON NG PARI :
The correct answer is: ekstemporanyo
Panatilihin ang ______________ sa pagsulat ng bionote.

The correct answer is: katotohanan
Nasa ikatlong panauhan ang dapat na ______________ sa pagsusulat ng bionote.

The correct answer is: gamitin
RESUME.
Personal at pinakatiyak na impormasyon ang isinusulat dito
The correct answer is: Resume
Ito ay sinulat sa anyong pasanaysay at binabasa nang buong lakas sa harap ng mga
tagapakinig.
The correct answer is: Talumpating binabasa
Magbigay ______________ sa mga mahahalagang detalye.

The correct answer is: empasis

KATAWAN : PAGTALAKAY SA PAKSA
: PAGLALAGOM
The correct answer is: PANGWAKAS
Magbigay ng mga sitwasyon o magsalaysay ang paraan dito upang matamo ang layuning
mapaunawa ang kaisipan sa mga nakikinig.
The correct answer is: Paghahalimbawa
RESUME.
Sinusulat nang patalata at payak upang makilala at ipagbigay alam ang kredibilidad ng isang
tao sa kaniyang kakayahan.
The correct answer is: Bionote
Alamin kung saan uri ng pagsulat nahahanay ang mga sumusunod.
Komiks
Tamang Sagot: Malikhain

Thesaurus
Tamang Sagot: teknikal
Ano ang pinakamalapit na paliwanag sa sinasabing ang pagbuo ng akademikong pagsulat ay

nakadepende sa kritikal na pagbasa ng isang indibidwal?
Tamang Sagot: Nakadepende sa kakayahang magbasa at magsulat ng isang tao ang
mabubuong mabisang sulating akademik
Bakit sinasabing ang pagsulat ay kapwa isang mental at pisikal na gawain?

Tamang Sagot: HINDI KO MATUKOY ANG TAMANG SAGOT DAHIL SA AKING PALAGAY,
ANG OED MISMO ANG MAY PROBLEMA. KAPAG NAENCOUNTER ANG GANITONG
TANONG, IREATTEMPT NIYO NALANG PARA MAGING 50/50.
Ang mga mag-aaral ng AMA ay nag-aral ng iba’t ibang paraan ng pagsulat ng mga liham
pantrabaho. Nang makapagtapos sila ay nagamit nila ang kanilang kaalaman sa pagsulat ng
wastong liham sa kanilang trabaho at napaunlad pa. Anong layunin ng akademikong sulatin ang
natamo sa nasabing sitwasyon?
Tamang Sagot: Nalilinang at napapataas ang kalidad ng kaalaman
Alin sa mga sumusunod ang layunin ng akademikong sulatin?

Tamang Sagot: Linangin at pataasin ang kalidad ng kaalaman ng mga mag-aaral
Ano ang pinakamalapit na kahulugan ng salitang pagsulat?

Tamang Sagot: Aktong pagkilalaat pagsasailustrasyon ng mga nakita o nabasa sa anumang
gamit
Tukuyin kung mga pahayag sa bawat bilang ay kapakinabangan o layunin ng akademikong

sulatin.
Nagiging mapanuri sa mga sinaliksik o binibigyang diskusyon
Tamang Sagot: Kapakinabangan
Bakit kailangang iuri ang mga sulatin?

Tamang Sagot: Upang maging malinawang mga tiyak na sulatin
Ano ang mga pinakamatibay na datos para sa lakbay-sanaysay?

Tamang Sagot: Ang mga nakalap na impormasyon at naranasan sa lugar
Kailangang aralin ni George ang tamang gramatika sa pagsusulat ng abstrak. Anong katangian
ng akademikong sulatin ang nangingibabaw sa nasabing sitwasyon?
Tamang Sagot: Pili at wasto ang salita
Isang uri ng abstrak naang pangunahing layunin ay makapaglahad o makapagbigay ng mga
mahahalagang ideya na binuod ng isang manunulat ukol sa isang pag-aaral.
Tamang Sagot: Impormatib
Ano ang maliwanag at pinaksimpleng paradigmang isang kinopyang sulatin?

Tamang Sagot: Pagkilala sa mga simbolo, pagbasa, pagsulat
Bakit kailangang malaman ang proseso ng pagsulat?

Tamang Sagot: Sapagkat magiging magulo at hindi magiging mabisa ang isang sulatin kung
hindi ito dumadaan sa wastong proseso
Ano ang pinakamalapit na kahulugan ng akademikong pagsulat?

Tamang Sagot: Pagbuo ng mga sulatin partikular ng sa akademikong institusyon.
Ang salitang synthesis ay nagmula sa salitang griyego na____.

Tamang Sagot: Syntithenai

Maikling kwento

sulatin.
Natututo sa mga paraan ng pagsulat
Sa anong layuning inilalahad ang abstrak?

Tamang Sagot: Obhektibo
Ang salitang abstrak ay mula sa salitang _____.

Tamang Sagot: Abstrahere
Alin sa mga sumusunod ang tumutukoy sa kapakinabang dulot ng akademikong sulatin?

Tamang Sagot: Natututo ang parehong manunulat at mambabasa.

sulatin.
Makatuklas pa ng iba pang opinyon at katotohanan
Tamang Sagot: Layunin
Ano ang natatanging katangiang taglay ng lakbay-sanaysay sa iba pang uri ng sanaysay?
Tamang Sagot: May paglalahad at paglalarawan sa napuntahang lugar

sulatin.
Magiging bukas sa mga naitalakay na isyu
Sa paanong paraan nakatutulong ang akademikong pagsulat sa mga mambabasalalo na sa

mga mag-aaral?
Tamang Sagot: Nakapagbibigay ng alalay, impormasyon para sa kaalamang nais matamo
Ang pagbuo ng akademikong pagsulat ay nakadepende sa kritikal na pagbasa ng isang

indibidwal (Arrogante et. al., 2007). Nangangahulugan lamang na ito ay_____.
Tamang Sagot: Dapat lamang na paglaanan ng talino at hinubog na kakayahan ng isang
manunulat ang pagsusulat nito.
Bakit kailangang bigyang pagkilala sa pagsusulat ng akademikong sulatin ang mga taong
nakabuo sariling ideya ukol sa espisipikong paksa?
Tamang Sagot: Dahil labag sa batas ang bastang pagkopya ng anumang ideya
Hindi hinayaan ng isang mananaliksik na maging maligoy ang kaniyang sinusulat na saliksik. Sa
pagkakataong nabanggit ay anong katangian ng akademikong sulatin ang pinairal?
Tamang Sagot: Pokus sa isang paksa
Aling sitwasyon ang nagpakita ng pagsunod sa estratehiya sa akademikong pagsusulat?

Tamang Sagot: Pagkonsulta sa bihasa
Ang sinulat na sanaysay ba ay maaaring maging talumpati?

Tamang Sagot: Oo, kapag binasa sa madla
Si Ana ay may ginagawang tesis. Lagi niyang kinukuha kung saan niya nakukuha ang mga
impormasyong nakakalap niya at inilalagay sa kanyang pormal na sanaysay ang ngalan ng
taong nagsabi ng ideya. Anong taglay na katangian ng sulatin ang nagawa ni Ana?
Tamang Sagot: Pagkikilala sa hiram na ideya mula sa orihinal na sumulat.

Dagli

sulatin.
Nalilinang ang kaugalian sa pag-aaral

Pamanahong papel
Tamang Sagot: Akademik
Tukuyin kung mga pahayag sa bawat bilang ay kapakinabangan o layuninng akademikong

sulatin.
Nakikilala ang mga akdang dapat binibigyang pansin.
Ano sa mga sumusunod ang hindi tumutukoy sa katangian ng akademikong sulatin?
Tamang Sagot: Subhektibo at malinaw

Talatinigan
Tamang Sagot: Teknikal
Sa abstrak na ito naglalaman ito ng punto ng teksto, nilalagom ang kaligiran, layunin, paksa,
metodolohiya, resulta at kongklusyon?
Tamang Sagot: Impormatib

Encyclopedia

sulatin.
Mapahalagahan ang impormasyon
Ano sa mga sumusunod na sitwasyon ang hindi kabilang sa prosesong kailangang gawin
habang nagsusulat?
Tamang Sagot: Pagsisiguro ng gramatika

sulatin.
Linangin ang mga kaalaman ng mga mag-aaral
Anong anyo ng panitikan maihahanayang lakbay-sanaysay?

Tamang Sagot: Tuluyan
Ano ang tanging taglay ng akademikong sulatin sa iba pang sulatin?

Tamang Sagot: Madalas itong binubuo o ginagawasa paaralan
Bakit mahalagang maisaalang-alang ang iyong kawilihan sa paksa kung ikaw ay magsasagawa
ng pagsulat ng abstrak ng papel-pananaliksik?
Tamang Sagot: Dahil mas magiging epektibo ang mga isusulat kung ang manunulat mismo ay
may kawilihan
Ano ang pinakamalapit na kahulugan ng akademikong sulatin?

Tamang Sagot: Pormal na sulatin o akdang isinasagawa sa isang akademikong institusyon o
unibersidad sa isang partikular na larangang akademiko
Malalamang pasalaysay ang isang picto-essay kapag __________ .

Tamang Sagot: Kapag nagbibigay ito sekwensiyal na detalye
Maituturing bang akademiko ang isang sulatin kung ito ay may halo laging personal na
pananaw?
Tamang Sagot: Hindi, sapagkat kailangan ng maraming basehanat malalim na pananaliksik
Kapakinabangan
sulatin.
Magkaroon ng kamalayan ang iba pang mag-aaral
Sa pagsusulat ng riserts o disertasyon ay hindi dapat naglalagay ng unang panauhan upang
hindi maipakita ang pagigingpersonal ang paghahayag ng mga katwiranng mga
mananaliksik.Ano ang katangian ng akademikong sulatin ang pinairal sa nasabing sitwasyon?
Tamang Sagot: Impormatib at obhektibo ang paglalahad
Uri ng abstrak na layunin ay ilawan ang ideyang nais ipabatid ng manunulat sa isang papel
pananaliksik.
Tamang Sagot: Deskriptib
Diksyunaryo
sulatin.
Makapagbigay ng mga impormasyon sa lipunan.
Riserts
Naging madali kay Adriane ang pagbibigay ng interpretasyonsa isang konseptong papel.Ano
ang nilinang na kakayahan kay Adriane?
Tamang Sagot: Nahasa ang kakayahan sa mapanuring pagbabasa
Ang wikang pinagmulan ng salitang abstrak.

Tamang Sagot: Latin
Kailangang depensahan o bigyang patunay ni Berto ang nasaliksik niya ay totoo sa harap ng
kanyang mga propesor. Anong katangian ng akademikong sulatin niya ang dapat manaig?
Tamang Sagot: Ang malinaw at obhetibong gawa niyang sulatin.
Ano ang pinakamalapit na kahulugan ng akademikong sulatin?

Pormal na sulatin o akdang isinasagawa sa isang akademikong institusyon o unibersidad sa
Tamang Sagot: isang partikular na larangang akademiko
Bakit kailangang maging tiyak ang pormalidad ng isang akademikong sulatin?

Tamang Sagot: Dahil pinakikita nito ang natatanging katangian at layunin ng sulatin

Disertasyon
Ano ang pinakamahalagang papel ng akademikong pagsulat sa kalagayang pang-akademiko?

Tamang Sagot: Makapagbigay ng tiyak at naayong anyo ng mga partikular na sulatinpara sa
positibong pagtalakay sa mga isyu.
Bakit sinasabing kailangang malinaw ang mga layunin sa pagsulat ng akademikong sulatin?
Tamang Sagot: Sapagkat ito ang magiging salig at gabay para sa nais matamo
Binigyang pansin niAaron ang bawat ideya at sinigurado niya ang nilalaman ng kanyang sulatin
nang may dating na mapitagan. Anong katangian ng isang manunulat ang sinisigurado nyang
taglay ng kaniyang sulatin?
Tamang Sagot: Pinili at wasto ang mga salita
Alin samga sumusunod ang likas na sa akademikong sulatin?

Tamang Sagot: Pagiging maargumento at maingat na maingat ang pagkakasulat
Alin samga sumusunod ang hindi halimbawa ng akademikong sulatin?

Tamang Sagot: Magasin
Alin sa mga sumusunod ang hindi itinuturing na akademikong sulatin?

Tamang Sagot: Wala sa nabanggit
Ano sa mga sumusunod na sitwasyon ang kabilang sa katangian ng isang akademikong

sulatin?
Tamang Sagot: Hindi sinusulat ng manunulat ang kanyang damdamin sa paksa.
Nagkaroon ng interes at paghanga si Jey Ar sa pananaliksik na ginawa ni Dr. Buscaglia kaya

itinabi nya ito at binahagi sa iba pa. Ano ang kapakinabangang dulot ng akademikong sulatin
kay Jey Ar?
Tamang Sagot: Nalinang ang paggalang sa natuklasan ng iba
Nais naming ipabatid sa iyo na ikaw ay itinatalaga bilang tagapangulo ng organisasyong ito.
-Liham paghirang
Bakit kinakailangan na mayroong agenda bago magkaroon ng isang pulong?
-Upang maging handa ang at maayos ang daloy ng pulong
Piliin ang salitang TAMA kung ang mga pahayag ay mga dapat isaalang-alang sa pagbuo ng
portfolio, MALI naman kung ito ay hindi.
Siguruhing naisama ang mga sarili at mahahalagang dokumentong nakolekta at kinakailangan
sa portfolio.
-Tama
Saang hakbang nabibilang ang pagkuha ng impormasyon sa alam na, kaalaman at karanasan?
1. Pag-iipon ng materyales
2. Pagbabalangkas ng mga ideya o kaisipan para sa kabuuan ng malinaw at mabisang
talumpati
3. Pag-iisip at pagpili ng paksa
4. Linangin ang mga kaisipan at detalye
5. Magkaroon ng simple at mapamukaw na pagwawaka ng talumpati
-1
Bakit kailangang isa sa mga dapat isaalang-alang ay ang mga tagapakinig sa
pagtatalumpatian?
-Upang magkaroon ng koneksyon ang mga tagapakinig na ayon sa paksa
Tukuyin kung anong akademikong sulatin, batay sa napag-aralan mo sa kursong ito, ang dapat
gamitin sa mga sumusunod na sitwasyon.
Impormasyon ng isang manunulat na dapat ilagay sa isang aklat.
-BIONOTE
Piliin ang letra ng wastong sagot na makikita sa loob ng kahon na tumutugon sa iba’t ibang uri
ng liham na isinasaad ng bawat bilang.
Lubos kaming magagalak kung kayo po ay dadalo sa aming pagdiriwang ng anibersaryo ng
pagkakatatag ng aming paaralan.
-Liham-paanyaya
Bakit kailangang linangin ang nilalaman ng talumpati?
-Upang hindi magulo ang nilalaman
Aling sitwasyon ang nagpakita ng pagsunod sa estratehiya sa akademikong pagsusulat?
-Pagkonsulta sa bihasa
Ako po ay nagbabakasakali sa inyong mabuting tanggapan na magkaroon ng pagkakataong
makapaglingkod.
-Liham-pag-aaplay
Pagbibigay ng katipunan ng mga kuha ng isang photographer sa isang sikat na kompanya.
-LARAWANG SANAYSAY
Alin sa mga sumusunod ang hindi epekto ng kawalan ng agenda?
-Magiging detalyado ang pulong
Pinaikli ni Dante ang nilalaman ng isang papel-pananaliksik.
-ABSTRAK
Upang maging mapayapa at ligtas sa kapahamakan ang lahat ng mamamayang inyong
nasasakop nawa po ay inyong maaksyunan an gaming idinulog na suliranin sa inyo.
-Liham-kahilingan
Ito ay serye ng mga larawan na ang layunin ay makapagsalaysay o makapagbigay ng mga
ideya sa piling tema.
-Picto-essay
Laging maging totoo sa lahat ng inilalagay sa portfolio.
-Tama
Ito ay ang maikling katha ng buhay ng isang tao batay sa kaniyang mga nagawa.
-Bionote
Maglista ng mga nagawa ukol sa propesyon at iba pang gagawin.
-Tama
Sana po ako ay inyong pahintulutang makapagsaliksik sa inyong silid-aklatan.
-Liham-pahintulot
Mga kabataan ng isang paaralan at mga biktima ng marshall ang nagsulat ng kanilang mga
opinyon, saloobin at mga ideya ukol sa pagpapalibing kay Dating Pangulong Ferdinand Marcos
na idinulog sa Commission on Human Rights.
-POSISYONG PAPEL
Pagpaplano ng Barangay sa Liga at idinulog sa mga opisyales ng Barangay.
-PANUKALANG PROYEKTO
Ito ay pagsusulat ng mga natuklasan sa buhay at sa sarili na makakatulong upang maging
pilosopiya at gabay sa buhay.
-Replektibong sanaysay
Pagsasalita ng isang panauhing pandangal sa isang piping palabas.
-TALUMPATI
Bakit kailangang matutuhan ng isang estudyante ang pagsulat ng agenda?
-Dahil para maging handa sapagkat maaaring gawin ito sa hinaharap
Ito ang komunikatibong pasalita sa madla upang makapagpahayag ng saloobin,
makapanghikayat o magbigay ng mga impormasyon o ideya.
-Talumpati
Kolektahin na ang mga dokumentong magpapatunay sa mga kahusayang nagawa.
-Tama
Paglalahad ito ng mga napagtantong mga ideya ng isang tao mula sa kaniyang naranasan o
naisip sa pamamagitan ng pagsulat.
-Replektibong sanaysay
Binabati ka namin! Ikaw ay nakapasa sa pagsusulit na iyong kinuha noong ika-8 ng Agosto sa
Unibersidad ng New Era.}
-Liham pagbati
Ipagpatawad po ninyo Ginoo ngunit hindi po namin kayo mapagbibigyan sa inyong kahilingan.
Ang AVR ay may nakatakdang okasyong gaganapin din sa inyong hinihiling na araw.
-Liham pagtanggi
Magkakaroon ng record para sa pag-unlad ng mga ginawa.
-Tama
Kailangang aralin ni Gorge ang tamang gramatika sa pagsusulat ng abstrak. Anong katangian
ng akademikong sulatin ang nangingibabaw sa nasabing sitwasyon?
-Pili at wasto ang salita
ay taliwas.
Magkaroon ng kaunting kaalaman bago pumunta sa lugar na dapat gawan ng lakbay-sanaysay.
- Hindi Wasto
At home, Dad's laptop is the only device with direct Internet connection. He shares it to
other members of the family via Wi-Fi,which you connect to using your phone.. In this
scenario, Dad's laptop is a
Server
The name Trojan is derived from a fictional wooden
Horse
Which of the following does not need human action to spread?
Spam
Which of the following is not a malware?
Ad blocker
A spam is a type of virus
In the Internet, your _____ is as good as your actual name.
Username
Programs that can only be accessed using a browser are called
Web applications
The URL and design of a website's homepage changes depending on the preferences of the
current user. This website is _____
Dynamic
A Web 3.0 characteristic in which events and information are made available to users as they
happen.
Real-Time
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Phishing is a type of virus that can make copies of itself
_____ is the most common TLD
Select one:
a. .com
b. .org
c. .info
d. .net
Question 2
Correct
Flag question
Question text
You want to know if classes are suspended because of a storm. Which of the following TLD's
is most likely to have the most credible information
Select one:
a. .info
b. .gov
c. .com
d. .org
Question 3
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A computer that does a task for other computers is called a _____
Select one:
a. Cloud
b. Server
c. Service
d. Client
Question 4
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Which of the following does not need human action to spread?
Select one:
a. Trojan
b. Spam
c. Worm
d. Phishing
Question 5
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
What is the official website of the Intellectual Property Code of the Philippines?
Select one:
a. ipophil.com.ph
b. ipphil.com
c. ipcode.gov.ph
d. ipophil.gov.ph
Question 6
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Which of the following mobile apps is not a native application?
Select one:
a. Gmail
b. None of these
c. Instagram
d. Youtube
Question 7
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ is bullying that is done using electronic technology.
Select one:
a. E-bullying
b. Cyberbullying
c. Trolling
d. iBullying
Question 8
Correct

Flag question
Question text
The URL and design of a website's homepage changes depending on the preferences of the
current user. This website is _____
Select one:
a. Native
b. Static
c. Dynamic
d. Active
Question 9
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
_____ are programs that are directly installed in a computer or device
Select one:
a. Wiki
b. Native applications
c. Web applications
d. Social media
Question 10
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Malware is short for _____
Select one:
a. Malignant software
b. Malignant hardware
c. Malicious hardware
d. Malicious software
Question 11
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Someone keeps posting cat pictures in a forum about car maintenance. This act is called
_____
Select one:
a. Trolling
b. Cyberbullying
c. Spamming
d. Counterfeiting
Question 12
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ Internet-based networks that are used to store, manage, and share resources and
information
Select one:
a. Service
b. Local Area Network
c. Cloud Computing
d. Servers
Question 13
Correct

Flag question
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_____ is a web browser owned by Apple
Select one:
a. Internet Explorer
b. Safari
c. Bing
d. Savanna
Question 14
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The following are benefits of cloud computing except _____
Select one:
a. Proficiency
b. Updated Software
c. Mobility
d. Flexibility
Question 15
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Which of the following does not apply to Netiquette?
Select one:
a. Do unto others as you would have them do unto you.
b. Respect other people's property
c. Expect the unexpected (CORRET)
d. Respect other people's privacy
Question 16
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Clicking on a search result using the _____ will open the link in a new tab.
Select one:
a. Cursor
b. Right button
c. Left button
d. Mouse wheel
Question 17
Correct
Flag question
Question text
While you are typing your keyword in the address bar or the search bar, several _____ may
appear bellow it
Select one:
a. Corrections
b. Solutions
c. Indentations
d. Suggestions
Question 18
Correct

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You can make online searches in Mozilla Firefox by typing your keywords in the _____
located on the upper right corner.
Select one:
a. Search bar
b. Search tab
c. Search results
d. Search page
Question 19
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The use of strength or power to intimidate someone into doing something that he does not
want or to make him feel bad is called ____
Select one:
a. Bullying
b. Spamming
c. Flaming
d. Trolling
Question 20
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ is a type of malware that is disguised as a harmless or useful program or file.
Select one:
a. Trojan
b. Spam
c. Adware
d. Worm
A program used to create, store, and manage data in tables.
Select one:
a. Spreadsheet
b. DBMS
c. Graphics suite
d. Word processor
Question 2
Correct
Flag question
Question text
In the spreadsheet above, what result will you get if you use the formula =SUM(A1,B1,C1,B3)
Select one:
a. 850
b. 1890
c. 520
d. 820
Question 3
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What is the name of word processor that we used in this chapter
Select one:
a. LibreOffice Document
b. LibreOffice Writer
c. LibreOffice Fresh
d. LibreOffice Word
Question 4
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What sign is used for multiplication?
Select one:
a. -
b. /
c. *
d. +
Question 5
Correct

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In a spreadsheet, each box in a table is called a _____.
Select one:
a. Row
b. Column
c. Formula
d. Cell
Question 6
Correct
Flag question
Question text
In Calc, what sign can be seen in the beginning of the formulas?
Select one:
a. +
b. /
c. c
d. *
Question 7
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
In the spreadsheet above, what result will you get if you use the formula =SUM(B1,B4)
Select one:
a. 860
b. 560
c. 430
d. 30
Question 8
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A group of programs used to view, manipulate, and print computer graphics is called a
_____.
Select one:
a. Graphics suite
b. Graphics site
c. Graphics spread
d. Graphics set
Question 9
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A program used to create, edit, and print documents is called a _____
Select one:
a. Spreadsheet
b. Word processor
c. DBMS
d. Graphics suite
Question 10
Correct
Flag question
Question text
In the spreadsheet above, what result will you get if you use the formula =SUM(B1:B4)
Select one:
a. 560
b. 1200
c. 430
d. 860
_____ is a TLD that was originally intended for non profit entities.
Select one:
a. .com
b. .edu
c. .org
d. .net
Question 2
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A link will open in a new tab if you click on it with your _____
Select one:
a. Mouse wheel
b. Right button
c. Left and right buttons at the same time
d. Left button
Question 3
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. .info
b. .net
c. .com
d. .org
Question 4
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
In Calc, what is the symbol used for subtraction?
Select one:
a. +
b. *
c. -
d. /
Question 5
Correct
Flag question
Question text
By default, Gmail will delete a message in the Trash after 50 days.
Select one:
True
False
Question 6
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Websites that belong in different generations of the internet cannot co-exist in a given time
period
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
When you sign up to an app or website, you normally have to set an alias. This alias is called
a _____.
Select one:
a. Maiden name
b. Username
c. Domain name
d. Full name
Question 8
Correct
Flag question
Question text
In many cases, _____ occurs when someone uses a quote or a part of a published work
without mentioning who originally wrote it and which publication it belongs to.
Select one:
a. Bootlegging
b. Trolling
c. Plagiarism
d. Piracy
Question 9
Correct

Flag question
Question text
A _____ is a computer that does tasks for other computers.
Select one:
a. Server
b. Service
c. Client
d. Network
Question 10
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Based on the spreadsheet above, give the answer to the following formula:
=B2/C2+B4
84
Answer:
Question 11
Correct
Flag question
Question text
=B3*C1/B4
3.75
Answer:
Question 12
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
The apps in your smart phone are web-based apps because they connect to the Internet.
Select one:
True
False
Question 13
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
REPUBLIC ACT NO. 8293, also known as the IP Code governs the protection of intellectual
property and online etiquette in the Philippines.
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The World Anti-Piracy Observatory is operated by _____
Select one:
a. UNICEF
b. WHO
c. UNESCO
d. UNILAB
Question 15
Correct
Flag question
Question text
w eb 2
Answer is the generation of the Internet that is characterized by the increased focus
on user participation and the prevalence of dynamic websites.
Question 16
Correct
Flag question
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You can use _____ to create multiple letters with the same body or message but are
addressed to different people.
Select one:
a. Formula
b. LibreOffice
c. Data source
d. Mail Merge
Question 17
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ can cause your system to slow down because they initialize automatically and remain
running in the background.
Select one:
a. Phishing
b. Spam
c. Adware
d. Adblocker
Question 18
Correct

Flag question
Question text
Clicking on a search result using the _____ will open the link in a new tab.
Select one:
a. Mouse wheel
b. Right button
c. Left button
d. Cursor
Question 19
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What is the name given to software used to create, store and collections of information?
database management system
Answer:
Question 20
Correct

Flag question
Question text
.com stands for _____
Select one:
a. company
b. commercial
c. complicated
d. communication
Question 21
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A website that allows users to edit its contents and structure is called a _____.
Select one:
a. Google
b. Wiki
c. Cloud
d. Web 3.0
Question 22
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What do you call an application used for sending, receiving, and organizing emails?
Email client
Answer:
Question 23
Correct
Flag question
Question text
4. =D1*B5+A5
11150
Answer:
Question 24
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Other than the search bar, you can also enter your search keywords in your browser's _____.
Select one:
a. Space bar
b. Address bar
c. Domain bar
d. Keyword bar
Question 25
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The _____ of an email address is on the right.
Select one:
a. Local part
b. Client part
c. Name part
d. Domain part
Question 26
Correct
Flag question
Question text
=B3*C1-A4
260
Answer:
Question 27
Correct

Flag question
Question text
What do you call a program that is used to create, view, edit, and print documents?
w ord processor
Answer:
Question 28
Correct
Flag question
Question text
5. =B2/C2-D1
-107
Answer:
Question 29
Correct

Flag question
Question text
What is the name of the open-source productivity suite that we used in Chapter 5?
LibreOffice
Answer:
Question 30
Correct
Flag question
Question text
All the forms of piracy are violations of _____ which is the legal right to own an original work.
Select one:
a. Plagiarism
b. Piracy
c. Copyright
d. IP Code
Question 31
Correct

Flag question
Question text
The alias that you use when you sign up in a website is called a _____.
Select one:
a. Full name
b. Username
c. Domain name
d. Maiden name
Question 32
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Adware are browser add-ons that prevent advertisements from being displayed in your
browser.
Select one:
True
False
Question 33
Correct
Flag question
Question text
It's bad to receive a lot of _____ because they are annoying take up memory space
Select one:
a. Spam
b. Adware
c. Phishing
d. Trojan
Question 34
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Information stolen via _____ such as credit card and bank account information can be used in
identity theft and stealing money.
Select one:
a. Phishing
b. Worm
c. Trojan
d. Spam
Question 35
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ websites can change their appearance and behavior based on the users' actions.
Select one:
a. Social Media
b. Native
c. Static
d. Dynamic
Question 36
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
The vertical groupings in a spreadsheet are called _____.

Select one:
a. Formulas
b. Rows
c. Collumns
d. Cells
Question 37
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What is the group of characters that when combined with your username or email address,
can be used to open your online account?
Select one:
a. Password
b. Location
c. Address
d. Birth Date
Question 38
Incorrect

Flag question
Question text
In a spreadsheet, the horizontal groupings are called _____.
Select one:
a. Collumns
b. Cells
c. Rows
d. Formulas
Question 39
Correct
Flag question
Question text
By default, Gmail will delete a message in the Trash after 30 days.
Select one:
True
False
Question 40
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Which generation of the internet is defined by characteristics such as real-time, ubiquitous,

and machine learning?
Select one:
a. Web 2.0
b. Web 4.0
c. Web 3.0
d. Web 1.0
Question 41
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Web 1.0 websites are defined as read-only or _____
Select one:
a. Social Media
b. Static
c. Dynamic
d. Native
Question 42
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
When you record a movie that was shown on TV and you sold copies of it, you are
committing an act of piracy called _____
Select one:
a. Streaming
b. Bootlegging
c. Counterfeiting
d. Trolling
Question 43
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Recording live performances or broadcasts without permission from the owner is called
_____.
Select one:
a. Streaming
b. Counterfeiting
c. Bootlegging
d. Trolling
Question 44
Correct
Flag question
Question text
People who try to cause trouble by posting inappropriate or banned contents and off-topic
messages are called _____
Select one:
a. Bullies
b. Spammers
c. Trolls
d. Knolls
Question 45
Correct

Flag question
Question text
The _____ is the first part of an email address. It follows strict naming rules.
Select one:
a. Domain part
b. Client part
c. Local part
d. Name part
Question 46
Correct
Flag question
Question text
=D5/D1
5
Answer:
Question 47
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A program designed to interfere with your computer, device or network's normal operation
Virus
is called aAnswer .
Question 48
Correct
Flag question
Question text
In a spreadsheet, a box in a table is called a _____.
Select one:
a. Row
b. Cell
c. Collumn
d. Formula
Question 49
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Data centers are centralized locations for _____
Select one:
a. Cloud
b. Social Media
c. Google
d. Servers
Question 50
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A _____ can be a single program or a system of programs designed to look for information in
the Internet.
Select one:
a. Advanced search
b. Search bar
c. Web search engine
d. Facebook
Which of the following is true?
Select one:
a. As of 2016, there are less than a million websites in the Internet.
b. As of 2016, there are more than 1 billion websites in the Internet.
c. As of 2016, there are less than 90 million websites in the Internet.
d. As of 2016, there are exactly 100 million websites in the Internet.
Question 2
Correct
Flag question
Question text
By default, the _____ can be found below the main toolbox
Select one:
a. Tool options
b. Image window
c. Layers
d. Channels
Question 3
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
During the _____ stage, old web contents are either deleted or archived.
Select one:
a. Development
b. Retirement
c. Planning
d. Maintenance
Question 4
Correct
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Question text
GIF stands for _____.

Select one:
a. Graphics International Formation

b. Graphics Interchangeable Feature
c. Graphics Interchange Format
d. Grey-scale Internal Format
Question 5
Correct
Flag question
Question text
After the web content is finished and approved for publication, we are now ready for the
_____ stage.
Select one:
a. Deployment
b. Archiving
c. Development
d. Planning
Question 6
Correct
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GIF supports _____ colors.
Select one:
a. 526
b. 16 million
c. 256
d. 17 million
Question 7
Correct
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Question text
At the bottom of the ______, you will find the foreground and the background colors.
Select one:
a. Tool options
b. Layer tab
c. Main toolbox
d. Image window
Question 8
Correct

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If you make a mistake, you can _____ your action to go back to the state before you made
that action.
Select one:
a. undo
b. repeat
c. disregard
d. report
Question 9
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The _____ determines how the parts of your blog will be arranged.
Select one:
a. category
b. theme
c. layout
d. domain
Question 10
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Reducing the size of a file is called _____
Select one:
a. Reduction
b. Rasterization
c. Formatting
d. Compression
What type of compression discards some of the data that makes up the image?
Select one:
a. Lossless compression
b. Raster compression
c. Vector compression
d. Lossy compression
Question 2
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. Modern CMS's have collaborative environments, which allow your readers to edit your
blog
b. You have to be familiar with computer programming in order to use modern CMS's
c. Modern CMS's have collaborative environments, which allow multiple users to work on a
single project.
d. Modern CMS's have phased out collaborative features because they make blogs hard to
manage
Question 3
Correct
Flag question
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In the _____, you can access features such as the page editor and statistics about your
website.
Select one:
a. Elements
b. Stats
c. Dashboard
d. Welcome page
Question 4
Correct
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Question text
_____ is used to make web contents more visible to online search engines.
Select one:
a. Search Engine Syndication
b. Search Engine Optimization
c. Optimized Keyword Syndication
d. Web Syndication
Question 5
Correct

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The Undo and the Redo buttons are located in the _____
Select one:
a. Textbox
b. Transformation tool
c. Left Sidebar
d. Top Menu
Question 6
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A _____ is composed of a pixels instead of points, lines and shapes.
Select one:
a. Lossless image
b. Raster image
c. Vector image
d. Lossy image
Question 7
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What is Prezi's official website?
Select one:
a. prezi.com
b. prezi.net
c. officialprezi.net
d. prezi.edu
Question 8
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The _____ determines how parts of your blog will be arranged.
Select one:
a. category
b. domain
c. theme
d. layout
Question 9
Correct
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Question text
Bcc stands for _____.
Select one:
a. Black Carbon Copy
b. Blocked Carbon Copy
c. Black Courier Carrier
d. Blind Carbon Copy
Question 10
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A _____ is composed of points, lines, and shapes instead of pixels
Select one:
a. Raster image
b. Vector image
c. Lossy image
d. Lossless image
Question 11
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Giving other websites permission to publish your web content is called _____.
Select one:
a. search engine syndication
b. web marketing
c. web engine optimization
d. web syndication
Question 12
Correct

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Question text
GIMP has two modes. One of them is _____.
Select one:
a. Full-screen mode
b. Mini-window mode
c. Windows mode
d. Multi-window mode
Question 13
Correct
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Question text
In Weebly, Business, Online Store, Personal, and Events are _____ categories.
Select one:
a. Theme
b. Page
c. Home Page
d. Layout
Question 14
Correct
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Question text
_____ are boxes in a prezi that act as slides.
Select one:
a. Sheet
b. Canvas
c. Frames
d. Page
Question 15
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
What is the name of word processor that comes with LibreOffice?
Select one:
a. Word
b. Writer
c. Fresh
d. Docs
Question 16
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ is the number of visitors in a website and the number of web pages that they visit.
Select one:
a. Post
b. Web content
c. Web traffic
d. Comment
Question 17
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
With _____, some of the data that makes up the image are discarded to make the make it
smaller.
Select one:
a. Lossless compression
b. Raster compression
c. Vector compression
d. Lossy compression
Question 18
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The _____ is the part of the email address located on the right side.
Select one:
a. Name part
b. Local part
c. Client part
d. Domain part
Question 19
Correct

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What can you use to change the frame type?
Select one:
a. Textbox
b. Transformation tool
c. Top Menu
d. Zoom
Question 20
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Which one is true?
Select one:
a. High web traffic means that a website was poorly designed
b. High web traffic can be fixed by archiving old web contents
c. Web traffic is used to determine the availability of a domain name.

d. Web traffic is used to measure the popularity of websites and web contents.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Google Docs?
Select one:
a. Your documents are saved in the Cloud
b. Your work is automatically saved
c. Your documents are automatically downloaded as MS Word or PDF
d. Shared documents can be viewed and edited by several people at the same time
Question 2
Correct
Flag question
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_____is a cloud-based file storage and sharing service owned and operated by Google.
Select one:
a. Youtube
b. Google Drive
c. Google Plus
d. My Drive
Question 3
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Which of the following can be launched from My Drive?
Select one:
a. Google Slides
b. Google Docs
c. All of these
d. Google Sheets
Question 4
Correct
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Question text
Google Drive's main page is called _____
Select one:
a. Google Talk
b. Google Plus
c. My Drive
d. My Slides
Question 5
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Groupware is also known as _____
Select one:
a. VoIP
b. Word Processor
c. Collaborative software
d. Native software
Question 6
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What is the URL that you should use to directly access My Drive?
Select one:
a. mydrive.google.com
b. drive.google.com
c. mydrive.com
d. google.com/mydrive
Question 7
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A/An _____ can be edited by members of an online community.
Select one:
a. Chat message
b. VoIP
c. Wiki
d. Email
Question 8
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ is Google Drive's word processor
Select one:
a. Google Sheets
b. Google Docs
c. My Drive
d. Google Slides
Question 9
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Which of the following have a lot in common with Microsoft Excel?
Select one:
a. Google Slides
b. My Drive
c. Google Docs
d. Google Sheets
Question 10
Correct

Flag question
Question text
_____ allows 2 or more people to communicate through real-time audio and video.
Select one:
a. Email
b. Videoconferencing
c. VoIP
d. Online Chat
_____ is a feature that is activated during and after natural and man-made disasters which
enables users in disaster stricken areas to let people know that they are safe.
Select one:
a. Google Person Finder
b. Holacracy
c. Change.org
d. Facebook Safety Check
Question 2
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Skype is an example of _____.
Select one:
a. VoIP
b. Videoconferencing
c. Email
d. Online Chat
Question 3
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Google Docs, Sheets, and Slides are collaborative _____.
Select one:
a. Word processor
b. Spreadsheet program
c. Presentation tool
d. Productivity apps
Question 4
Correct

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A _____ is a group of characters that is used to unlock your account.
Select one:
a. Phone number
b. Date of birth
c. Password
d. Email address
Question 5
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A _____is a document that aims to persuade a person or a group to fund or sponsor a

project.
Select one:
a. Support Document
b. Petition
c. Sales Pitch
d. Concept Paper
Question 6
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What is the name of the cloud-based file storage and sharing service owned and operated
by Google?
Select one:
a. Google Drive
b. Google Hangouts
c. Google Plus
d. My Drive
Question 7
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. Google Talk
b. Google Plus
c. My Drive
d. My Slides
Question 8
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ are programs that can be accessed using an Internet browser.
Select one:
a. Native applications
b. Social media
c. Wiki
d. Web applications
Question 9
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The header is also known as the _____.
Select one:
a. headline
b. letterhead
c. masthead
d. footer
Question 10
Correct
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Question text
FAQ stands for _____.
Select one:
a. frequently asked questions
b. frequently answered questions
c. Formal Answers to Questions
d. formerly active questions
Question 11
Correct

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Question text
Instead of slides, the contants of a Prezi are all displayed in a single page or a _____.
Select one:
a. Sheet
b. Canvas
c. Frame
d. Path
Question 12
Correct
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_____ is Google's presentation app

Select one:
a. My Drive
b. Google Docs
c. Google Sheets
d. Google Slides
Question 13
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What part of a website usually contains the website's name and logo?
Select one:
a. content section
b. contact section
c. navigation
d. header
Question 14
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Which of the following program is a lot like Google Docs?
Select one:
a. GIMP
b. Microsoft Powerpoint
c. LibreOffice Writer
d. LibreOfficeCalc
Question 15
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What is the name of the presentation program that we learned about in Chapter 10?
Select one:
a. Slides
b. Photoshop
c. Prezi
d. Powerpoint
Question 16
Correct
Flag question
Question text
It is impossible to create a website without knowing how to write computer codes.
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
In Chapter 12, we learned about an online petition website called Change.com
Select one:
True
False
Question 18
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A group of programs used to view, manipulate, and print computer graphics is called a
_____.
Select one:
a. Spreadsheet
b. Graphics processor
c. Word Processor
d. Graphics suite
Question 19
Correct
Flag question
Question text
In your concept paper, in which part do you ask for permission to use school facilities?
Select one:
a. Purpose
b. Support
d. Description
Question 20
Correct

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Question text
Links to Terms of Service and Copyright Information are often located in the header.
Select one:
True
False
Some apps have both synchronous and asynchrounous features.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ is a technology that enables two or more people to send and receive short messages
instantly.
Select one:
a. Online Chat
b. Shared calendar
c. VoIP
d. Videoconferencing
Question 3
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The _____ is the series of steps or phases that web content has to go through before and
after it is published.
Select one:
a. Archiving
b. SEO
c. Web Syndication
d. Web Content Lifecycle
Question 4
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ is an open source web application created by volunteer engineers after the Haiti
earthquake.
Select one:
a. Change.org
b. Facebook Safety Check
c. Google Earth
d. Google Person Finder
Question 5
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Unlike a slideshow that is made up of multiple slides, a prezi is composed of a single page
called a _____
Select one:
a. Frame
b. Canvas
c. Presentation
d. Sheet
Question 6
Correct

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_____ is a form of communication that uses visual elements like text and pictures to express
an idea or send a message.
Select one:
a. Web page Design
b. Presentation
c. Collaboration
d. Graphics design
Question 7
Incorrect
Flag question
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A _____ is composed of points, lines, and shapes.
Select one:
a. Vector image
b. Raster image
c. GIF image
d. Prezi image
Question 8
Correct
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Question text
_____ is the total number of visitors in a website and the number of web pages that they
visit.
Select one:
a. Web traffic
b. Followers
c. Likes
d. Hashtag
Question 9
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ is the delivery of a topic to an audience using a combination of speaking and visual
aids.
Select one:
a. Presentation
b. Web content lifecycle
c. Weebly
d. Prezi
Question 10
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What is the name of the web-based word processor that we learned about in Chapter 11?
Select one:
a. Prezi
b. Google Docs
c. Weebly
d. GIMP
Question 11
Correct

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Select one:
a. Word Processor
b. Collaborative software
c. Native software
d. Web Conferencing
Question 12
Correct
Flag question
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_____ is a social media feature that is activated during and after natural and man-made
disasters which enables users in disaster stricken areas to let people know that they are safe.
Select one:
a. Google Person Finder
b. Change.org
c. Facebook Safety Check

d. Holacracy
Question 13
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ is an open source graphics editor
Select one:
a. GIMP
b. Prezi
c. Change.org
d. Weebly
Question 14
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
In Chapter 9, we learned to use a website building tool. What is it called?
Select one:
a. Change.org
b. Weebly
c. Prezi
d. WordPress
Question 15
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ is the process of planning, researching, creating, publishing, and maintaining

information for online publication.
Select one:
a. Web Content Development
b. Collaboration
c. Presentation
d. Graphic Design
Question 16
Incorrect

Flag question
Question text
You cannot edit uploaded Microsoft Word files using Google Docs.
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Prezis created using free accounts can be viewed by anyone while paying users can make
their presentations private.
Select one:
True
False
Question 18
Correct

Flag question
Question text
A _____ is composed of a grid of dots.
Select one:
a. Vector image
b. Lossy image
c. Lossless image
d. Raster image
Question 19
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A team structure where leadership responsibilities can be given to different members of the
team is called a _____.
Select one:
a. Social Awareness
b. Social Awareness
c. Team environment
d. Holacracy
Question 20
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
You can sign up to Change.org using your Facebook account
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The ALS Ice Bucket Challenge was used to raise social awareness and gather donations for
the treatment of the ZIKA Virus.
Select one:
True
False
Question 22
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Software tools that are used to create websites without having to deal with computer code
are called _____.
Select one:
a. Website builders
b. Website manager
c. Website management system
d. Webpage creators
Question 23
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Holacracy can be compared to what shape?
Select one:
a. Rectangle
b. Square
c. Triangle
d. Circle
Question 24
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A _____ is a program or a set of programs used by people to achieve a common goal.
Select one:
a. Firmware
b. Conference
c. Software
d. Groupware
Question 25
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Web traffic is used to measure the popularity of websites and web contents.
Select one:
True
False
Question 26
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What web-based presentation program did we use in Chapter 10?
Select one:
a. WordPress
b. Change.org
c. Prezi
d. Weebly
Question 27
Correct
Flag question
Question text
SEO stands for _____.
Select one:
a. Search Environment Optimization
b. Search Engine Optimization
c. Syndicated Engineering Operation
d. Single-end Organization
Question 28
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What is the name of Google's cloud-based file storage and sharing service?
Select one:
a. Google Drive
b. Youtube
c. Google Plus
d. My Drive
Question 29
Incorrect

Flag question
Question text
Which Google Drive productivity tool is similar to Microsoft Excel?
Select one:
a. Google Docs
b. Google Sheets
c. My Drive
d. Google Slides
Question 30
Correct
Flag question
Question text
In Prezi, the action of moving around the canvas is called _____
Select one:
a. Switching
b. Zooming
c. Pathing
d. Panning
Question 31
Correct
Flag question
Question text
As of 2016, there are over 1 billion websites in the Internet
Select one:
True
False
Question 32
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Groupware that allow the sharing of information in real-time are called _____.
Select one:
a. Real-time groupware
b. Asynchronous groupware
c. Multi-synchronous groupware
d. Synchronous groupware
Question 33
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The unit unit of measurement for image resolution is called _____
Select one:
a. Pixels per inch
b. Image resolution
c. Vector capacity
d. Pixel ratio
Question 34
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The Presentation app included in Google Drive is called _____.

Select one:
a. Google Docs
b. Prezi
c. Google Slides
d. Google Sheets
Question 35
Correct
Flag question
Question text
PNG Can only recognize 256 colors
Select one:
True
False
Question 36
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
What content management system did we use to create a blog?
Select one:
a. Prezi
b. WordPress
c. Weebly
d. Change.org
Question 37
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
To persuade a person or a group to sponsor your project, you have to write a _____.
Select one:
a. Sales Pitch
b. Support Document
c. Petition
d. Concept Paper
Question 38
Correct

Flag question
Question text
In GIMP, you can make a _____ by isolating an area of the image so that your actions will
apply to that area alone.
Select one:
a. vector
b. selection
c. JPEG
d. compression
Question 39
Correct
Flag question
Question text
An online location that points to a group of web pages is called a _____
Select one:
a. website
b. URL
c. web page
d. domain
Question 40
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What is the name of Google Drive's word processor
Select one:
a. Google Slides
b. Google Sheets
c. Google Docs
d. My Drive
Question 41
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Information shared using _____ are not instantly displayed to other members of the group.
Select one:
a. Multi-synchronous groupware
b. Synchronous groupware
c. Online groupware
d. Asynchronous groupware
Question 42
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
GNU is the name of the organization that created GIMP.
Select one:
True
False
Question 43
Correct
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Question text
The header is also known as the _____.

Select one:
a. footer
b. letterhead
c. masthead
d. byline
Question 44
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
_____ is the practice of giving other websites the permission to publish your original
contents.
Select one:
a. Web syndication
b. Advertising
c. web marketing
d. SEO
Question 45
Correct

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_____ is the practice of moving outdated web content away from the main website.
Select one:
a. Packaging
b. Recording
c. Packeting
d. Archiving
Question 46
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
GIF supports 16 million colors
Select one:
True
False
Question 47
Correct
Flag question
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_____ allows people to make voice calls through the Internet.
Select one:
a. Wiki
b. VoIP
c. Online Chat
Question 48
Correct
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_____is the ratio between the size of the image in pixels and its physical size when printed on
paper.
Select one:
a. Resolution
b. Compression
c. Selection
d. Vector
Question 49
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What do you call text, sounds, images, videos, and other media that are published online?
Select one:
a. web content
b. web traffic
c. social media
d. presentation
Question 50
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What is the name of the online petition site that we learned about in Chapter 12?
Select one:
a. Change.com
b. Change.org
c. Change.net
d. Change.gov
is your alias, which is used by websites to represent your online presence.
Username
Which of the following is not a malware?
Select one:
a. Worm
b. Trojan
c. Adware
d. Ad blocker
Question 2
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ Internet-based networks that are used to store, manage, and share resources and
information
Select one:
a. Service
b. Local Area Network
c. Cloud Computing
d. Servers
Question 3
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A Web 3.0 characteristic in which users are always connected to the Internet.
Select one:
a. Machine Learning
b. Dynamic
c. Real-Time
d. Ubiquitous
Question 4
Correct

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is your alias, which is used by websites to represent your online presence.
Select one:
a. Domain name
b. Full name
c. Username
d. Maiden name
Question 5
Correct
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Question text
Your computer became slow and unresponsive after you opened a file named
100freemp3s.exe. This file is probably a _____
Select one:
a. Adware
b. Trojan
c. Spam
d. Worm
Question 6
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
You used your smartphone to access Yahoo mail and send an email. In this scenario, your
smartphone is a _____
Select one:
a. Client
b. Server
c. Native app
d. Cloud
Question 7
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Which of the following is NOT true about passwords?
Select one:
a. Passwords can be saved in Internet browsers
b. Passwords should be kept a secret
c. Passwords should not be memorized
d. Passwords are used to unlock your account
Question 8
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Which of the following is TRUE about Cloud-based services?
Select one:
a. Subscription to cloud-based services cannot be upgraded or downgraded
b. Subscription to cloud-based services are offered in a paid subscription basis
c. Cloud services can only be accessed in one location.
d. Some cloud-based services can be used for free
Question 9
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
other members of the family via Wi-Fi, which you connect to using your phone. In this
scenario, your phone is a _____.
Select one:
a. Service
b. Client
c. Network
d. Server
Question 10
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ is a browser add-on that prevents ads from being displayed in your browser.
Select one:
a. Antimalware
b. Adware
c. Ad blocker
d. Antivirus
.info stands for

Select one:
a. informal
b. information
c. infomercial
d. internet forecast
Question 2
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Which of the following is not true?
Select one:
a. It is important to cite the source of the information that you use
b. It is important to check if the author is credible
c. Some online articles are written for commercial purposes
d. All TLD's contain credible information
Question 3
Incorrect

Flag question
Question text
Which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a. Like a virus, spam can make copies of itself in computers that it comes in contact with.
b. No one can steal your personal information without asking for permission.
c. Usernames are used to determine if you are old enough to access certain contents and
features in the Internet.
d. A computer virus can spread whenever a computer makes contact with another
computer.
Question 4
Correct
Flag question
Question text
People who send unwanted and unsolicited emails are called _____
Select one:
a. Phishers
b. Scammers
c. Hackers
d. Spammers
Question 5
Correct
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Question text
HTML means _____
Select one:
a. Hyper-technical Machine Learning
b. Hypertext Markup Language
c. High-tech Machine Language
d. Heavy-to-medium Load
Question 6
Incorrect
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Question text
Which of the following is NOT true about Cloud-based services?

Select one:
a. Cloud-based services can be accessed in different locations using different computers

that are connected to the Internet
b. Subscribing to cloud-based services is more expensive than building your own programs
and buying your own servers.
c. People from different places can work with one another through the cloud.
d. Subscription to cloud-based services can be upgraded or downgraded.
Question 7
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Which of the following is not a search engine?
Select one:
a. Google
b. Advanced Search
c. Bing
d. Yahoo
Question 8
Correct

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Question text
What is the official website of the Intellectual Property Code of the Philippines?
Select one:
a. ipphil.com
b. ipcode.gov.ph
c. ipophil.com.ph
d. ipophil.gov.ph
Question 9
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ are programs that are directly installed in a computer or device
Select one:
a. Web applications
b. Wiki
c. Social media
d. Native applications
Question 10
Correct
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Question text
other members of the family via Wi-Fi, which you connect to using your phone. In this
scenario, your phone is a _____.
Select one:
a. Network
b. Server
c. Client
d. Service
Question 11
Correct
Flag question
Question text
"IP Code" stands for

Select one:
a. Internet Property Code of the Philippines
b. Internet Protocol Code of the Philippines
c. International Property Code of the Philippines
d. Intellectual Property Code of the Philippines
Question 12
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ is a browser add-on that prevents ads from being displayed in your browser.
Select one:
a. Ad blocker
b. Antivirus
c. Antimalware
d. Adware
Question 13
Correct

Flag question
Question text
Computers can create data and make decisions based on the user's actions through _____
Select one:
a. Web 2.0
b. Ubiquitous
c. Machine Learning
d. Real-Time
Question 14
Correct
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Question text
_____ is the legal right to own an original work
Select one:
a. Plagiarism
b. Intellectual Property Code
c. Piracy
d. Copyright
Question 15
Correct
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_____ is a program that is designed to cause harm to your computer or device
Select one:
a. virus
b. Phishing
c. spam
d. bacteria
Question 16
Correct
Flag question
Question text
In our lesson, we visited the website of which movie?
Select one:
a. Planet of the Apes
b. Soylent Green
c. Space Jam
d. Back to the Future
Question 17
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Which of the following can be used in identity theft?
Select one:
a. Birth Date
b. Address
c. All
d. Full name
Question 18
Correct
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Question text
Select one:
a. .com
b. .info
c. .net
d. .org
Question 19
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Your mom is calling you during class. In this situation, which of the following is the ethical
thing to do?
Select one:
a. Ask for your teacher's permission to go outside so you can answer the call.
b. Go outside without asking permission and talk to your mom for 20 minutes.
c. Put your mom on speaker so you can hear her while your teacher is speaking
d. Use headphones so you can hear your mom while your teacher is speaking
Question 20
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Which of the following is NOT true?
Select one:
a. The cloud is made up of multiple servers
b. The cloud is not an actual cloud
c. Google has data centers in several countries
Question 1
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. As of 2016, there are less than a million websites in the Internet.
b. As of 2016, there are less than 90 million websites in the Internet.
c. As of 2016, there are more than 1 billion websites in the Internet.
d. As of 2016, there are exactly 100 million websites in the Internet.

Question 2
Correct
Flag question
Question text
GIF stands for _____.

Select one:
a. Graphics Interchangeable Feature
b. Grey-scale Internal Format
c. Graphics Interchange Format
d. Graphics International Formation
Question 3
Correct
Flag question
Question text
When you create a new file, it will be displayed in the
Select one:
a. Image window
b. Channels
c. New Files
d. Tool options
Question 4
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ is the process of planning, researching, creating, publishing, and maintaining

information for online publication.
Select one:
a. Web Content Development
b. Web Content Evolution
c. Web Content Publishing
d. Web Content Creation
Question 5
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Outdated web contents are unpublished moved to a different location for future use. This
practice is called _____.
Select one:
a. Packaging
b. Recording
c. Archiving
d. Packeting
Question 6
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____is the ratio between the size of the image in pixels and its physical size when printed on
paper.
Select one:
a. Resolution
b. Selection
c. Layer
d. Lossless
Question 7
Correct

Flag question
Question text
PNG stands for _____.
Select one:
a. Philadelphia Networking Guild
b. People's Network Guide
c. Portable Network Graphics
d. Portable Networking Graphics
Question 8
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
What image format is ideal for online use?
Select one:
a. Bitmap
b. JPEG
c. PNG
d. GIF
Question 9
Correct
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Question text
JPEG stands for _____.
Select one:
a. Joint Photographic Experts Group
b. Joint Photographic Experience Group
c. Japan Photographers' Entity Guide
d. Joint Photographers' Entity Guide
Question 10
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The _____ stage involves research, writing, and other tasks like graphics design, photography,
and video editing.
Select one:
a. Maintenance
b. Creation
c. Research
d. Planning
Question 3
Correct
Flag question
Question text
In this lesson, we learn about the unit of measurement for resolution. What is it called?
Select one:
a. Pixels per image
b. Pixels per inch
c. Pixels per layer
d. Pixels per vector
Question 4
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A website can promote its content by sending emails to potential viewers. This is called
_____.
Select one:
a. Blogging
b. Phone marketing
c. Email Advertisement
d. Email Publishing
Question 5
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What is the main difference between free and paid Prezi accounts
Select one:
a. Free Prezi accounts expire after one month while paid accounts never expire
b. Everyone can view Prezis created using free accounts while those made using paid
accounts can be made private.
c. Prezis created using free accounts can only be viewed once while those created using
paid accounts can be viewed multiple times.
d. Prezis created using free accounts expire after 1 month while preziz created using paid
accounts do not expire.
Question 6
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Programs that can be edited and used by anyone for free are called _____
Select one:
a. Graphics suite
b. Office productivity suite
c. Open-source
d. Spreadsheet
Question 7
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ is the number of visitors in a website and the number of web pages that they visit.
Select one:
a. Web traffic
b. Post
c. Web content
d. Comment
Question 8
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Emails are stored in sections called _____.
Select one:
a. Clipboards
b. Pages
c. Archives
d. Folders
Question 9
Correct
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Question text
What will you find written below the header of a new blank page?
Select one:
a. "Start with a Theme"
b. "Start adding Elements"
c. "Start with a Home Page"
d. "Start with a Layout"
Question 10
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The _____ usually contains links to Terms of Service and Copyright Information.
Select one:
a. footer
b. call to action
c. contact section
d. content section
Question 11
Correct

Flag question
Question text
When you create a new file, it will be displayed in the
Select one:
a. Channels
b. New Files
c. Image window
d. Tool options
Question 12
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Emails are stored in sections called _____.
Select one:
a. Folders
b. Pages
c. Archives
d. Clipboards
Question 13
Correct
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Question text
In Weebly, the Elements can be found in the _____ tab.
Select one:
a. PAGES
b. ELEMENTS
c. THEME
d. BUILD
Question 14
Correct
Flag question
Question text
In the lesson about Graphics Design, what online document were you instructed to consult
in order to learn more in-depth details about GIMP?
Select one:
a. GIMP Docs
b. GIMP User Manual
c. GIMP Tutorials
d. GIMP Books
Question 15
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Which is NOT way to zoom in and out of the canvas?
Select one:
a. Use the zoom buttons on the right side of the page
b. Press the Enter button
c. Scroll using your mouse wheel
d. Click Zoom to frame in the transformation tool
Question 16
Correct
Flag question
Question text
In Weebly, text, image, gallery, and slideshow are called _____.
Select one:
a. Sections
b. Elements
c. Themes
d. Pages
Question 17
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Where can you find the zoom in, zoom out, and home icon?
Select one:
a. bottom of the screen of the screen
b. middle-right part of the screen
c. middle of the screen
d. middle-left part of the screen
Question 18
Correct

Flag question
Question text
What do you call a form of communication that uses visual elements like text and pictures
to express an idea or send a message?
Select one:
a. Graphics design
b. Raster
c. GIMP
d. Web design
Question 19
Correct
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Question text
What do you call a program or group of programs that is created by a community of

developers and is made available to the public for free?
Select one:
a. Spreadsheet
b. Office productivity suite

c. Graphics suite
d. Open-source
Question 20
Correct
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Question text
Reducing the size of a file is called _____
Select one:
a. Compression
b. Reduction
c. Formatting
d. Rasterization
_____ allows 2 or more people to communicate through real-time audio and video.
Select one:
a. Email
b. VoIP
c. Videoconferencing
d. Online Chat
Question 2
Correct
Flag question
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Select one:
a. Google Plus
b. Google Talk
c. My Slides
d. My Drive
Question 3
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Which of the following is TRUE?
Select one:
a. Google Drive can be accessed without a Google account

b. Some apps have both synchronous and asynchrounous features.
c. The only way to upload a file is by dragging and dropping it to the My Drive page
d. The only way to upload a file is to click the NEW button
Question 4
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What is the URL that you should use to directly access My Drive?
Select one:
a. google.com/mydrive
b. mydrive.com
c. mydrive.google.com
d. drive.google.com
Question 5
Correct
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Question text
Which of the following can be launched from My Drive?
Select one:
a. All of these
b. Google Docs
c. Google Slides
d. Google Sheets
Question 6
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Groupware that allow the sharing of information in real-time are called _____.
Select one:
b. Asynchronous groupware
c. Online groupware
Question 7
Correct

Flag question
Question text
_____ is Google Drive's word processor
Select one:
a. Google Sheets
b. Google Slides
c. My Drive
d. Google Docs
Question 8
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ are services where people can post messages for others to read and reply to.
Select one:
a. Email
b. Online Chat
c. Online Forums
d. Wiki
Question 9
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. Word Processor
b. Native software
c. Collaborative software
d. VoIP
Question 10
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
All the applications that we used in this chapter is owned by which company?
Select one:
a. Bing
b. Microsoft
c. Google
d. Yahoo
Question 1
Correct
Flag question
Question text
ICT can be used to spread _____ by informing the public about important issues.
Select one:
a. Disaster Response
b. Charity
c. Petitions
d. Social Awareness
Question 2
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Of all the applications that you have learned about in the previous chapters, which one
looks a lot like Google Sheets?
Select one:
a. LibreOfficeCalc
b. LibreOffice Writer
c. GIMP
d. Weebly
Question 3
Correct
Flag question
Question text
FAQ stands for _____.
Select one:
a. formerly active questions
b. frequently answered questions
c. Formal Answers to Questions
d. frequently asked questions
Question 4
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What is the name of the presentation app that comes with Google Drive?
Select one:
a. Google Docs
b. Google Slides
c. Google Sheets
d. Google Prezi
Question 5
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Links to Terms of Service and Copyright Information are often located in the _____.
Select one:
a. footer
b. content section
c. call to action
d. contact section
Question 6
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A university is most like to use which TLD?
Select one:
a. .sch
b. .org
c. .ama
d. .edu
Question 7
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What is the other name given to forums?
Select one:
a. Chat rooms
b. Shared Calendar
c. Wikis
d. Message boards
Question 8
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
_____ can be used to coordinate time and schedule activities.
Select one:
a. Chat rooms
b. Shared Calendar
c. Wikis
d. Message boards
Question 9
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
What part of a website contains articles, images, videos, etc?
Select one:
a. content section
b. navigation
c. header
d. contact section
Question 10
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Pre-made designs that you can use in your Prezi presentation are called _____.
Select one:
a. Layouts
b. Palettes
c. Elements
d. Templates
Question 11
Incorrect

Flag question
Question text
You used your laptop open your Facebook account. In this scenario, your laptop is called a
_____.
Select one:
a. Server
b. Native app
c. Cloud
d. Client
Question 12
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ is practically an Internet-powered telephone service.

Select one:
a. Wiki
b. VoIP
c. Email
d. Online Chat{
Question 13
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Links to Terms of Service and Copyright Information are often located in the header.
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Information shared using _____ are not instantly displayed to other members of the group.
Select one:
a. Online groupware
b. Multi-synchronous groupware
c. Asynchronous groupware
Question 15
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
What do you call groupware that allow the sharing of information in real-time?
Select one:
b. Synchronous groupware
c. Asynchronous groupware
d. Online groupware
Question 16
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The website's articles, images, videos, and other media are normally located in the _____.
Select one:
a. header
b. content section
c. navigation
d. contact section
Question 17
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A _____ is a group of characters that is used to unlock your account.
Select one:
a. Date of birth
b. Email address
c. Password
d. Phone number
Question 18
Correct

Flag question
Question text
_____ is Google Drive's main page.
Select one:
a. My Drive
b. Google Talk
c. Google Plus
d. My Slides
Question 19
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Which of the following is NOT a type of synchronous groupware?
Select one:
a. VoIP
b. Email
c. Online Chat
Question 20
Correct
Flag question
Question text
_____ is a feature that is activated during and after natural and man-made disasters which
enables users in disaster stricken areas to let people know that they are safe.
Select one:
a. Holacracy
b. Change.org
c. Google Person Finder
d. Facebook Safety Check

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ENTR-112 WEEK 1-10

Development of core competencies requires investment in this.

Net profit is revenue less what costs?

It is at the center of every successful business.

Your target market should be measurable, sufficiently large and __________.

Your skill at this is critical to your success.

Problems with yet undefined solutions.

Your target market should be measurable, sufficiently large and

ENTR-112 WEEK 11-20

Figured as a percentage of the seller's cost

A notice or announcement in a public medium promoting a product, service, or event

A straightforward product design is essential.

Give the character depth and be genuine.

At this stage, the product is available for purchase in the marketplace.

Translate goals into detailed actions and interim targets

Narrow the focus of the product by identifying who will be buying.

The technical equipment or machinery needed for a particular activity or purpose

Reflects the decrease in value of capital assets used to generate income

Reward your followers with something special and exclusive

A name, term, design, symbol, or other feature that distinguishes an organization or

A disruptive technology with the ability to revolutionize certain industries

A party that supplies goods or services

Production is both reactive and proactive almost __________.

The last portions of the M's of Production

A physical product is developed.

Where your product or service is actually sold.

The arena of competitive or commercial dealings: the world of trade

The second M in the 4M's of Operation

A principle or standard by which something may be judged or decide

Creating a brand perception requires

__________ waste is the key to efficient and profitable production

A person who writes the text of advertisements or publicity material

Add to the conversation by offering up whatever knowledge you have.

Hear the conversation first, and then participate.

The drive train that gets us where we are going

Includes all revenue streams generated by the business

The overall effect of something

Recognize that place goes beyond geographic location.

This is the third M in the sequence

Create a promotional strategy that features the product qualities as effectively as

People form their first impression within the first

Happens in the minds of consumers

It is everything for everyone

The engine that powers Auto Salvage yards

Shows the company's real bottom line.

Inventory fully assembled and available for sals

Which of these is a key to improve the gross margin?

Inventory that is partially assembled

The two primary levers of a company's business model are pricing

Purchased to create a finished product.

Includes all the costs related to the sale of products in inventory.

A unique or novel device, method, composition or process.

Estimates of the future financial performance of a business.

A great equalizer for the cash-strapped entrepreneur.

A bookkeeper's central role.

Which of these is a part of a business plan?

Amounts that are owed to you by your customers

Many business owners think of bookkeeping as

A thing providing protection against a possible eventuality

Author of Bookkeeping Kit for Dummies

A stock or any other security representing an ownership interest.

Which of these is an example of a business structure?