15/06/2016 CODE-A

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Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 Time : 3 Hrs.

AMBITIOUS COURSE FOR NEET (Phase-II) - 2016
Test - 4

Topics covered in various subjects :

Physics : Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solids and Fluids, Thermal Properties of Matter,
Thermodynamics, Kinetic Theory
Chemistry : Redox Reactions, Solid State
Botany : Cell Cycle & Cell Division, Transport in Plants, Minerals Nutrition
Zoology : Body Fluids & Circulation, Excretory Products and their Elimination, Locomotion & Movement-I:
Types of movement- ciliary, fiagellar, muscular; Skeletal muscle- contractile proteins and muscle
contraction

Instructions :
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. A gas at state A changes to state B through path 2. If g is acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s
I and II as shown in figure. The heat absorbed is Q1 surface, the gain in potential energy of an object of
and Q2 respectively, then mass m raised from the surface of the earth to a
height equal to twice the radius R of the earth.
P (1) 2mgR (2) 3mgR
I
2 3
A B (3) mgR (4) mgR
3 2
3. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the
II nth power of the distance. Then, the time period of
a planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun
V
will be proportional to
(1) Q1 = Q2 (2) Q1 < Q2 (1) Rn (2) R(n+1)/2
(3) Q1 > Q2 (4) Q1 = Q2 = 0 (3) R(n–1)/2 (4) R–n
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Test - 4 (Code A) Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016

4. A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle 10. During a polytropic process, the pressure of a gas
process PQRSP. The net work done by the system is found to be inversely proportional to the cube of
during PQRS is its volume. The polytropic exponent for the gas is

(1) 3 (2) –3
Pressure
(3) 2 (4) 1/3
S R
300 kPa 11. A scientist claims to have developed efficient engine
while working between 27°C and 327°C. Then
efficiency of engine will be
100 kPa Q
P
(1) 70% (2) 60%
Volume
100 cc 200 cc (3) 56% (4) 40%

(1) –20 J (2) 10 J PV

12. Given is the graph between and P of a gas at
T
(3) WPQRS = WPQRSP (4) Both (1) & (3)
two different temperature, then
5. Average speed of gas becomes 9 times then what
will be the effect on RMS velocity for same change ideal
in temperature?
PV
(1) Remains same (2) 3 times T T1

(3) 9 times (4) 81 times T2

6. The number of degree of freedom of 2 mole P
monatomic gas is
(1) T1 > T2 (2) T2 > T1
(1) 6 (2) 3.614  1024
(3) T1 = T2 (4) Data is insufficient
(3) 1.807  1024 (4) 3
13. An ideal monoatomic gas is expanded isothermally
7. If energy density of gas is 36 J/m3 in an ideal gas,
from V 1 to V 2, then compressed from V 2 to V 1
then the pressure of ideal gas is
adiabatically then final pressure will be
(1) 24 N/m2 (2) 10.6 N/m2
(1) Less than initial pressure

16 (2) Greater than initial pressure

(3) 40 N/m2 (4) N/m2
3 (3) Equal to initial pressure

8. The eccentricity of the earth’s orbit is 0.0167. The (4) May be (1) & (2)
ratio of its maximum speed in its orbit to its
14. The speed of the earth’s rotation about its axis is .
minimum speed is Its speed is increased to n times to make the
(1) 2.507 (2) 1.034 effective acceleration due to gravity equal to zero at
the equator, then n is
(3) 8.324 (4) 1.000
(1) 1 (2) 8.5
9. In case of solid sphere, where is its gravitational
potential minimum? (3) 17 (4) 34

15. A gas is compressed from V1 to V2 by isothermally

(1) Centre
and adiabatically separately, then work done is
(2) Surface maximum for
(3) Infinity (1) Isothermal process (2) Adiabatic process

(4) Mid point between centre and surface (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Data insufficient

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Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016 Test - 4 (Code A)
16. A vessel contains non, linear triatomic gas. If y 22. The escape velocity from the earth is 11.2 km/s. The
fraction of gas dissociate into individual atom then escape velocity from a planet having twice the radius
new value of degree of freedom will be (ignoring and same density is
vibrational mode)
(1) 11.2 km/s (2) 22.4 km/s
3y  6 6  3y (3) 33.6 km/s (4) 5.6 km/s
(1) (2)
1  2y (1  y )
23. A gas is expanded from V1 to V2 by isothermal and
6  3y adiabatic process then work done is maximum for
(3) (4) 6 – 3y
(1  3y ) (1) Isothermal process (2) Adiabatic process
17. The time period T of an artificial satellite of the earth (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Data insufficient
depends on the density d of the earth as
24. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) T d (2) T  d (1) A quasi static process is one in which no work
is done
1 1
(3) T  (4) T  (2) When a system goes from state 1 to state 2, the
d d
work done by the system is the same for all
18. For a gas if  = 1.2, then atomicity, Cp and Cv of process
gas are respectively (3) Internal energy of an ideal gas depends only on
(1) 5 R, 6 R (2) 6 R, 5 R the temperature

(3) 5 R, 3 R (4) 8 R, 3 R (4) In a free adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas

final state is same as initial state
19. In an adiabatic change, the volume and temperature
of a monoatomic gas are related as V  Tc, where 25. For a certain gas, the heat capacity at constant
c is equal to pressure is greater than that at constant volume by
29.1 J/K, then number of moles of gas are
2 3 (1) 3.5 moles (2) 4.5 moles
(1) (2) 
3 2
(3) 3 moles (4) 4 moles
3 1 26. Temperature of inside and outside of refrigerator are
(3) (4) 
2 3 273 K and 303 K respectively. Assuming that the
refrigerator cycle is reversible, for every joule of work
20. Which of the given diagrams best represents an done, the heat delivered to the surrounding will be
isothermal and adiabatic graph? nearly
P P
Adiabatic Isothermal (1) 10 J (2) 20 J
Isothermal
(3) 50 J (4) 60 J
(1) (2) Adiabatic
27. Isochoric modulus of elasticity is
V V
(1) Zero (2) Infinity
V P
Adiabatic Isothermal (3)  P (4) P
Isothermal Adiabatic
28. A scientist claims to have developed an efficient
(3) (4) engine cycle of efficiency X while working between
27°C and 327°C, then X will be
T T
(1) 90% (2) 95%
21. If A is the areal velocity of a planet of mass m, its
angular momentum is (3) 80% (4) 50%
29. Which of the following cannot be the coefficient of
m performance of heat pump?
(1) (2) 2mA
A
(1) 0.89 (2) 101.01
(3) A2m (4) Am2 (3) 80 (4) 42

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Test - 4 (Code A) Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016
30. Slope for isothermal process in P–V graph is 36. Which of the following wave is polarised?

P (1) Pressure wave (2) Sound

(1) (2) PV
V (3) Transverse (4) Longitudinal
P 37. A boat carrying large number of objects (obj < water).
(3) Zero (4) 
V What will happen to the water level if the objects are
unloaded into water?
31. Number of degree of freedom for 1 mol of CO at
normal temperature is (1) Rise
(1) 6 (2) 5 (2) Fall
(3) 31.12 × 1023 (4) 24.08 × 1023 (3) Remain unchanged
32. If the ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant (4) Rise and then fall
pressure to that at constant volume is , the heat
supplied to the system, when change in volume is 38. Two small sphere of radii r and 2r fall through a
V to 2V at constant pressure, is viscous liquid with the same terminal velocity. The
ratio between the viscous forces acting on them is
PV PV
(1) (2) (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(   1) (   1)
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
PV
(3) PV (4) 39. A sphere of mass M and radius R is dropped in a

liquid, then terminal velocity of sphere is proportional
33. A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle to
ABCD as shown in figure. Temperature decreases
during 1
(1) R (2)
R
P
1
B C (3) R2 (4)
R2
40. Cohesive force of a liquid causes

A D (1) Viscosity
V (2) Buoyancy
(1) AB (2) BC (3) Surface tension
(3) CD (4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Both (1) & (3)
34. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas
41. A small drop of water of mass (m), radius (R) and
is found to be proportional to cube of its absolute
acceleration due to gravity (g) in air. The final velocity
Cp
depends on
temperature. Then for the gas is
Cv
(1) Density (2) Gravity
3 (3) Radius (4) All of these
(1) 2 (2)
2
42. A stone of relative density k(k < 1) is released from
4 5 a height on the surface of a lake. If viscous effect are
(3) (4) ignored, net acceleration on the stone in the upward
3 3
direction is
35. If the pressure of an ideal gas contained in a closed
vessel increased by 0.5% the increase in ⎛ k ⎞
(1) g(1 – k) (2) g ⎜ ⎟
temperature is 2K. The initial temperature of the gas ⎝ 1 k ⎠
is
(1) 27°C (2) 300°C ⎛ 1 k ⎞ ⎛ 1⎞
(3) g ⎜ ⎟ (4) g ⎜ 1  ⎟
(3) 127 K (4) 400 K ⎝ k ⎠ ⎝ k⎠

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Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016 Test - 4 (Code A)
43. As shown in the figure, find the height of P above the 44. The total energy of a satellite moving with an orbital
ground level velocity v around the earth is

P 1 1
(1) mv 2 (2)  mv
2
2 2
H
Q (3) mv2 (4) –mv2
h
x 45. A silver ingot weighing 2.1 kg is held by a string so
as to be completely immersed in a liquid of relative
H density 0.8. The relative density of silver is 10.5. The
(1) 2H (2)
h tension in the string (kg-wt)
(1) 1.6 (2) 1.94
H
(3) H – h (4)
2 (3) 3.1 (4) 5.25

CHEMISTRY
46. The number of peroxide linkages present in Caro’s 52. The oxidation state of phosphorus in barium
acid is hypophosphite [Ba(H2PO2)2] is

(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) +1 (2) +2

(3) 4 (4) 3 (3) +3 (4) –1

47. A compound contains atoms X, Y and Z. The 53. 2MnO4  6H  5SO32  
 5SO24  3H2O  ' Z '.
oxidation number of X is +3, Y is +5 and Z is –2.
The possible formula of the compound will be (Z) in the given equation is

(1) XY2Z3 (2) X3(YZ4)3 (1) MnO24 (2) MnO2

(3) X3(Y4Z)2 (4) X3YZ2 (3) Mn2+ (4) Can be both (2) & (3)
48. One mole of acidified K2Cr2O7 was allowed to react 54. In which of the following changes, there is transfer of
with excess of KI . The number of moles of I 2 five electrons?
liberated will be
(1) MnO4–  Mn2+ (2) CrO42–  Cr3+
(1) 4 (2) 1
(3) MnO4–  MnO2 (4) Cr2O72–  2Cr3+
(3) 2 (4) 3
55. The oxidation of NH3 to NO takes place with the help
49. The species which can act both as an oxidising and of some oxidising agent. If the oxidant gains 2
reducing agent is electrons per molecule then the molecules of oxidant
which will be used to affect the oxidation of 0.5 mol
(1) ClO3– (2) SO32– of NH3 is
(3) Cl– (4) Both (1) & (2) (1) 2.5  NA (2) 1.5  NA
50. The oxidation number of Fe in [Fe(CN)6]3– ion is (3) 1.25  NA (4) 5  NA
(1) +1 (2) +2 56. Which of the following is the strongest reducing
(3) +3 (4) –3 agent?
(1) Na (2) Rb
51. The species undergoing reduction in the following
reaction is (3) Cs (4) K
57. Copper crystallises in fcc with a unit cell length of
Cr  3H2O  3ClO–  Cr 3   3Cl  6OH
361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom?
(1) ClO– (2) Cl– (1) 127 pm (2) 157 pm
(3) H2O (4) Cr (3) 181 pm (4) 108 pm

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Test - 4 (Code A) Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016
58. A solid AB has rock salt structure. If the distance of 66. The correct order of close packing efficiency of cubic
closest approach between A+ & B– is d, then the lattices follows the order
edge length of the unit cell is
(1) fcc > bcc > sc (2) fcc < bcc < sc
(1) d (2) 2d
(3) bcc > fcc > sc (4) bcc < fcc < sc
d d 3 67. Which of the following is a non-polar molecular
(3) (4)
2 2 solid?

59. A solid AB2 has fluorite structure. If all the ions along (1) HCl (2) SiC
one of the body diagonals are removed, then the new (3) CCl4 (4) AlN
formula of the compound is
68. The number of octahedral and tetrahedral holes in a
(1) AB (2) A13B32 hcp array of 250 atoms are respectively
(3) A5B8 (4) A3B2 (1) 250, 250 (2) 500, 500
60. If boron (Group 13) is doped with silicon (group 14) (3) 250, 500 (4) 500, 250
then which of the following is formed?
69. An element crystallizes in bcc and its radius is 100
(1) p-type semiconductor pm. What is the edge-length of the unit cell?
(2) n-type semiconductor (1) 400 pm (2) 57.73 pm
(3) Insulator (3) 230.9 pm (4) 100 pm
(4) Conductivity is not affected 70. When a substance is placed in a magnetic field, all
the magnetic moments get oriented in the direction
61. Which of the following solids is expected to have of the magnetic field and this ordering of moments
maximum energy gap between the valence band and persist even when the magnetic field is removed,
the conduction band? these substances are called
(1) Sodium (2) Silicon (1) Diamagnetic (2) Ferrimagnetic
(3) Diamond (4) Iron (3) Ferromagnetic (4) Antiferromagnetic
62. Which of the following crystal system is found to 71. Which of the following may have short-range order?
have all possible four type of bravias lattices in it?
(1) Quasicrystal (2) Amorphous solids
(1) Cubic (2) Orthorhombic
(3) Crystalline solids (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Triclinic (4) Rhombohedral
72. Carbon nanotube is an example of
63. If AgCl crystal is doped with 0.1 mol AlCl3, then the
number of cation vacancies formed in the crystal is (1) Metallic crystal (2) Covalent crystal
(3) Ionic crystal (4) van der Waals’ crystal
(1) 6.022  1023 (2) 12.044  1022
73. Which of the following set of axial angles and axial
(3) 3.01  1022 (4) 18.066  1023
lengths represent maximum number of Bravais
64. The coordination number of Sr2+ in SrF2 is 8, then lattices?
coordination number of F– is
(1)  =  =  = 90° and a = b = c
(1) 4 (2) 6
(2)  =  =  = 90° and a = b  c
(3) 2 (4) 8
(3)  =  =  = 90° and a  b  c
65. A solid AB has CsCl structure. If the distance of (4)  =  =   90° and a = b = c
closest approach between A+ and B– is d, then the
edge length of the unit cell is 74. The cubic crystal NaCl is very anisotropic in its
response to
2d (1) Mechanical stress
(1) 2d (2)
3
(2) Sodium D light (average wavelength 589.3 nm)
d 4d (3) Thermal expansion
(3) (4)
2 3 (4) Both (1) & (3)

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Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016 Test - 4 (Code A)
75. The number of formula units per unit cell (z) is same 83. In which of the following pairs of structures,
in which of the following pair of lattices? tetrahedral as well as octahedral holes are found?
(1) NaCl and CaF2 (2) CsBr and diamond (1) bcc and fcc (2) bcc and hcp
(3) NaCl and CsCl (4) CsCl and diamond
(3) hcp and simple cubic(4) hcp and ccp
76. Which of the following is in accordance with body-
84. Frenkel defect is not exhibited by
centered cubic (bcc) space lattice?
(1) First layer of spheres touch each other (1) AgI (2) AgBr

(2) Second layer of spheres touch each other (3) CsCl (4) ZnS

(3) Third layer of spheres are directly over the first- 85. When ZnO lattice is heated, the formula of lattice
layer spheres becomes (x is a positive number)
(4) The coordination number is 8, since each atom (1) ZnO1+x (2) Zn1–xO
touches eight atoms in the same layer
(3) ZnO (4) Zn1+xO
77. The minimum energy gap (Eg) in eV between the
highest occupied (valence band) and lowest vacant 86. In two dimensions close packing of ABAB type
conduction band is observed in arrangement, the coordination number of each
sphere is
(1) C(diamond) (2) Ge
(3) Sn (4) Pb (1) 4 (2) 6

78. In the inverse spinel compound, Fe 3 O 4 , the (3) 8 (4) 12

percentage of the tetrahedral voids occupied is equal
87. NaCl lattice is
to
(1) 12.5% (2) 50% (1) Weakly magnetised in a magnetic field in same
direction
(3) 74% (4) 68%
(2) Strongly magnetised in a magnetic field in same
79. Atoms of ‘element A’ form ccp lattice and those of
direction
the ‘element B’ occupy edge centers and body
centre. The formula of unit cell, when all the atoms (3) Weakly magnetised in a magnetic field in
are removed which are lying on a diagonal plane, is opposite direction
(1) AB2 (2) A2B (4) Ferrimagnetic
(3) AB (4) A2B3 88. The edge length of NaCl type cubic unit cell is
80. The two ions A + and B – have radii 88 pm and 508 pm. If the radius of the cation is 110 pm, the
200 pm respectively. In the close packed crystal of radius of the anion is
compound AB, the coordination number of A+ is
(1) 288 pm (2) 398 pm
(1) 6 (2) 12
(3) 144 pm (4) 618 pm
(3) 4 (4) 8
89. The number of nearest neighbours in an fcc lattice
81. A compound forms hexagonal close packed
of an element is
structure in three dimension. The total number of
tetrahedral voids present in 0.25 mol of it will be (1) 4 (2) 6
(1) 6.022 × 1023 (2) 3.011 × 1023 (3) 8 (4) 12
(3) 9.033 × 1023 (4) 1.501 × 1023
90. Void fraction in a bcc lattice, made of particles of
82. In NaCl, the nearest neighbour distance of ions is radius ‘r’ and edge length ‘a’ is
(a = edge length)
3 
a a 3 (1)
8
(2)
3 2
(1) (2)
4 2
3 
a a 2 (3) 1  (4) 1 
(3) (4) 8 3 2
2 2

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Test - 4 (Code A) Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016

BOTANY

91. Read the following statements w.r.t. Hydroponics 96. Find the choice for the correct path of movement of
a. It has been successfully employed as a water in the cellular arrangement given below
technique for commercial production of tomato
and seedless cucumber P w = –9

b. In this method plants are grown in defined s = –9

A. Q p = 2 DPD = 6 R
mineral solution
(1) Only b is correct
P w = –7
(2) Both a & b are correct
B. OP = 9
Q DPD = 6 R
(3) Only a is correct TP = 2
(4) Both a & b are incorrect A B
92. Essential elements can be grouped into following P P
broad categories on the basis of their diverse (1)
Q R Q R
functions, except
P P
(1) Structural elements of cells (2)
Q R Q R
(2) Activator or inhibitor of enzymes
P P
(3) Beneficial elements (3)
Q R Q R
(4) Components of energy related chemical
P P
compounds (4)
Q R Q R
93. Death of tissue, particularly leaf tissue, is due to
deficiency of 97. If a meiocyte contains 20 chromosomes, then what
will be the chromosome number at each pole during
(1) N, S, Mo (2) Ca, Mg, Cu, K anaphase-I?
(3) K, Co, Se (4) Na, Si, Ca
(1) 40 (2) 20
94. During stomatal opening in plant, which of the
(3) 10 (4) 5
following does not occur?
98. Transport proteins of ______ are control points where
(1) Carboxylation in guard cell
a plant adjusts the quantity and types of solute that
(2) Decrease in pH in guard cell reach the xylem
(3) Decreased T.P. of subsidiary cell (1) Pericycle cells (2) Epidermal cells
(4) Dissociation of malic acid in guard cell (3) Cortical cells (4) Endodermal cells
95. Read the following statements w.r.t. translocation of 99. Cells swell in _____ and shrink in ____ respectively
mineral ions and select wrong statements
(1) Isotonic solution, hypertonic solution
A. Exchange of minerals does not take place
between xylem and phloem. (2) Hypertonic solution, hypotonic solution

B. Minerals are removed to other parts before leaf (3) Hypotonic solution, hypertonic solution
fall in deciduous plants.
(4) Hypotonic solution, isotonic solution
C. Mineral ions are never remobilised.
100. Short distance movement of substances does not involve
D. After reaching ions in xylem, their further
(1) Cytoplasmic streaming
transport up the stem is through the
transpiration stream. (2) Energy
(1) One (2) Two (3) Diffusion
(3) Three (4) Four (4) Vascular system

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Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016 Test - 4 (Code A)

101. How many times C4 plants are efficient in preventing 106. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. facilitated
water loss as compared to C3 for same amount of diffusion?
CO2 fixed? (1) Requires special membrane proteins
(1) Two (2) Four (2) Highly selective

(3) Three (4) Five (3) Uphill transport

(4) Transport saturates
102. In meiosis, the homologous chromosomes are
separated during 107. Root pressure
(1) Is absent in herbaceous plants like tomato
(1) Metaphase-I (2) Anaphase-II
(2) Can push the water to maximum height of 12 m
(3) Metaphase-II (4) Anaphase-I
(3) Helps to re-establish the continuous chains of
103. Which stages of cell divisions do the figures A and water molecules
B represent respectively? (4) Is significant for water movement up tall trees
like Cedrus
108. Which the following statements is correct w.r.t.
apoplastic movement?
(1) Offers maximum resistance to water movement
A. B.
(2) It is energy consuming process
(3) It is independent of the gradient
(4) Mass flow takes place
Figure A Figure B
109. Rate of ascent of sap in treachery elements is fairly
(1) Early prophase Anaphase high, upto
(2) Late prophase Anaphase-I (1) 5 metres per hour (2) 25 metres per hour
(3) Late prophase Metaphase-I
(3) 10 metres per hour (4) 15 metres per hour
(4) Early prophase Metaphase-II
110. Read the following statements and select the right
choice
104. Xylem helps in translocation of
A. w of a cell is affected by solute potential only.
(1) Water and mineral salts
B. For a solution at atmospheric pressure w= s.
(2) Amides and some hormones C. p (pressure potential) is usually positive in
(3) Water and non-reducing sugars xylem during day.
(1) A & B are correct (2) Only A is correct
(4) More than one option is correct
(3) Only B is correct (4) B & C are correct
105. Find the correct set of options w.r.t. translocation of
111. Water which comes out during guttation is
sugars from source to sink.
(1) Pure water
The sugar is moved in the form of P into the Q and
(2) A solution containing mainly organic and
then into the living phloem cells by R transport. This
inorganic substance
process of loading at source produces an S
condition in the phloem (3) A solution containing mainly nitrogenous
compounds
P Q R S (4) A solution containing mainly sugars
(1) Glucose Sieve tube cell Active Hypotonic
112. During mitosis, nucleolus and golgi complex begin to
(2) Sucrose Mesophyll Passive Hypertonic disappear at
(3) Glucose Sieve tube cell Passive Hypotonic (1) Early prophase (2) Late metaphase
(4) Sucrose Companion cell Active Hypertonic
(3) Early metaphase (4) Late metaphase

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Test - 4 (Code A) Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016
113. Select the incorrect match 117. Elements most readily mobilised are
(1) G1 phase – Synthesis of tubulin protein (1) Ca, B, Fe (2) K, P, Ca
(2) S phase – Synthesis of histone (3) N, P, K (4) Cl, Fe, B
(3) G0 phase – Quiescent stage 118. Excess of manganese in plants induces the
deficiency symptoms of iron, magnesium and
(4) G2 phase – Cytoplasmic growth calcium because it
114. The beginning of diplotene is recognised by (1) Competes with iron and calcium for uptake
(1) Terminalisation of chiasmata (2) Competes with iron and magnesium for enzyme
(2) Disappearance of nucleolus and nuclear activation
membrane (3) Inhibits calcium translocation in shoot apex and
(3) Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex competes with iron and magnesium for uptakes
(4) Inhibits translocation of iron in shoot apex and
(4) Recombination of genetic material on the two
competes with Ca and Mg for uptake
chromosomes
119. Consider the following conversions of nitrogen cycle.
115. If the female gamete of an organism has 10 pg of
Which one of the following represents biological
DNA in its nucleus. How much DNA would a diploid
oxidation process?
cell of same organism have in zygotene (A),
diplotene (B) and anaphase-I (C)? (1) NH3  NO3 (2) NO3  N2
(1) A = 40 pg, B = 20 pg, C = 10 pg (3) NO3  NH3 (4) N2  NH3
(2) A = 20 pg, B = 40 pg, C = 10 pg
120. In biological N2 fixation
(3) A = 40 pg, B = 40 pg, C = 40 pg
(a) Plant releases cytokinin as well as auxin
(4) A = 40 pg, B = 40 pg, C = 20 pg (b) ATPs are provided by bacterial cells
116. Consider the following statements (A) – (D) each with (c) Nitrogenase enzyme may operate under aerobic
one or two blanks. conditions in heterocyst
A. (i)
is marked by the initiation of (d) Leghaemoglobin maintains anaerobic condition
condensation of chromosomal material. How many statements are correct?
B. In oocytes of some vertebrates, (ii) can last (1) 2 (2) 4
for months or years.
(3) 3 (4) 1
C. During anaphase the (iii) divide and the 121. Select incorrect statement regarding mineral
(iv) nutrition in plants?
start moving towards the two opposite
poles. (1) Cotyledons store microelements

D. In animal cells, during the S-phase (2) Iron is required in large amount in comparison to
other micronutrients
(v) replication begins in the nucleus and the
(3) Microelements constitute 10% of dry matters
(vi) duplicates in the cytoplasm. (4) Functional elements are non-essential elements
Which one of the following options, gives the correct 122. Calcium
fill ups for the respective blank numbers from (i) to (a) Is required by meristematic and differentiating
(vi) in the statement? tissues
(1) (i) Prophase (2) (i) Telophase (b) Is needed during formation of mitotic spindle
(iii) Centromere (v) Centriole (c) Does not accumulate in older leaves
(vi) DNA (vi) DNA (1) Only (a) is correct
(3) (ii) Diplotene (4) (i) Prophase (2) Only (a) & (b) are correct
(iv) Chromatids (iv) Chromosomes (3) Only (b) is correct
(vi) Centriole (v) Centriole (4) Only (a) & (c) are correct

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Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016 Test - 4 (Code A)
123. Activator of Rubisco, catalase, alcohol 128. Mark the mismatched pair (w.r.t. deficiency
dehydrogenase and PEPcase are respectively symptoms)

(1) Mg, Zn, Zn, Mg (2) Mg, Fe, Fe, Mg (1) Necrosis – K, Cu, Ca, Mg

(3) Mg, Fe, Zn, Mg (4) Mg, Zn, Fe, Mg (2) Delay flowering – Ca, Mg, K
(3) Inhibition of cell division – Mo, N, S, K
124. All minerals cannot be passively absorbed by the
roots because (4) Chlorosis – N, K, Mg, S, Zn

(1) Minerals are present in soil as ions 129. Plastoquinone as hydrogen carrier contains

(2) Concentration of minerals in soil is usually (1) Mg (2) Fe

higher, than that of minerals in root cells
(3) Ions cannot move across the cell wall of root
cells
(4) More than one option is correct
125. Glycine max export the fixed nitrogen as
(1) Asparagine
(3) S (4) Cu
130. The nitrogen-fixing microbes could be
(1) Anaerobic and symbiotic mostly
(2) Aerobic and free-living always
(3) Heterotrophic or autotrophic
(4) Some bacteria and only heterocystous BGA

(2) Glutamine 131. Optimum conc. of macronutrient is

(3) Ureides (1) < 10 mmolegm–1 (2) > 10 mmolegm–1

(4)  -ketoglutaric acid (3) < 10 mmolekg–1 (4) > 10 mmolekg–1

132. Which element helps to maintain an anion-cation
126. How many given matches are correct?
balance in cells and is involved in protein synthesis?
(a) Mg – Association of ribosomal sub-units.
(1) Cu (2) Mg
(b) S – Constituent of biotin and thiamine. (3) Cl (4) K
(c) Fe – Activates catalase. 133. Reductive amination requires
(d) N – Mineral elements required by plants in the (1) -KGA and glutamate synthetase
greatest amount.
(2) NADPH and glutamate dehydrogenase
(1) Three (2) Two (3) -KGA, NADPH and transaminase
(3) Four (4) One (4) NH4+, -KGA and -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
127. Consider the following w.r.t criteria for essentiality of 134. Select the odd one w.r.t. ureides
an element
(1) Transported through vessels
(a) In the absence of the element the plants do not (2) Produced in roots of soyabean
complete their life cycle or set the seeds.
(3) Have particularly high carbon to nitrogen ratio
(b) Requirements of the element must be specific
(4) Transpiration stream helps in their transport
and replaceable by another element.
135. Find the incorrect one
(c) Element cannot be directly involved in the
metabolism of plant. (1) Plants obtain their inorganic nutrients from air
and soil only
(d) Deficiency of any one element cannot be met by
supplying some other element. (2) An initial uptake of ions in free space is rapid
(3) NH3 is the first stable product of N2 fixation
How many are incorrect?
process
(1) Three (2) Two
(4) Division and growth of cortical and pericyclic
(3) One (4) Four cells lead to nodule formation

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Test - 4 (Code A) Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016

ZOOLOGY

136. Proteins contribute __________of blood plasma. B - (iii) Three C - (v) Right
(1) 90 – 92% (2) 6 – 8% (iv) Tricuspid (vi) SAN
(3) 15 – 22% (4) 55% C - (v) Left D - (vii) 30 percent
137. Find out the incorrect match. (vi) SAN
(1) Amount of Haemoglobin – 14 – 16 gm/l of (3) A - (i) Amphibians (4) A - (i) Amphibians
in healthy individual blood
(ii) Reptiles (ii) Reptiles
(2) Life span of human RBC – 120 days
C - (v) Right B - (iii) Three
(3) WBC count of healthy – 6000 – 8000/mm3
individual (vi) SAN (iv) Bicuspid

(4) Secretion of Basophils – Histamine, D - (vii) 30 percent D - (vii) 66 percent

Serotonin, Heparin
138. Consider the following statements A, B, C & D and
find which of them are True (T) or False(F)
(A) Leucocytes are colourless as they lack
haemoglobin
(B) The most abundant nucleated cells in blood is
neutrophils
140. To obtain standard ECG electrodes on the body of
patient are applied on
(1) Left wrist, right wrist, right ankle
(2) Left wrist, right wrist, left ankle
(3) Left ankle, right ankle, left wrist
(4) Left ankle, right ankle, right wrist

(C) Eosinophils constitute 6 – 8 percent of total 141. Sympathetic nerves

WBCs and are associated with allergic reactions (1) Decrease the rate of heart beat
(D) The type of agglutinin present in the blood (2) Reduce cardiac output
plasma of AB blood group is anti-A and anti-B
(3) Increase strength of ventricular contraction
A B C D
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) T F F F
142. Find the incorrect statement.
(2) T F T F
(1) Heart attack occurs when the heart muscle is
(3) T T F F
suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood
(4) T T T F supply

139. Consider the following statements A - D with certain (2) Angina occurs in the middle aged and elderly
blanks. Find the option which correctly fills up these men but not women
blanks.
(3) A constant blood pressure of 140/90 or higher
(A) Incomplete double circulation is found in __(i)__ shows hypertension
and _(ii)_
(4) In atherosclerosis, lumen of arteries becomes
(B) The opening between right atrium and right narrower
ventricle is guarded by a valve formed of
143. If inulin is injected into the blood, to which of the
(iii)_muscular flaps called _(iv)_ valve
steps of urine formation will it be subjected?
(C) A patch of nodal tissue is present on the _(v)_
(a) Ultrafiltration
upper corner of right atrium called _(vi)_
(b) Tubular reabsorption
(D) Atrial systole increases the flow of blood into
ventricles by about _(vii)_ (c) Tubular secretion
(1) A - (i) Fish (2) B - (iii) Two (1) (a) only (2) (a) & (b)
(ii) Amphibians (iv) Bicuspid (3) (a) & (c) (4) (c) only

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Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016
144. Columns of Bertini are
(1) Extensions of medulla into cortex of kidney
(2) Extensions of calyces into pelvis of kidney
(3) Extensions of pelvis into ureter
(4) Extensions of cortex in between the medullary
pyramids
145. All of the following are characteristic features of
juxtamedullary nephrons, except
Test - 4 (Code A)
(2) The osmolarity gradient from cortex to inner
medulla is maintained by NaCl and urea
(3) The osmolarity in the PCT is 300 mosm L–1
which increases to 1200 mosm L–1 in the hair
pin loop
(4) Small amounts of urea enter the thick segment
of the ascending limb of Henle’s loop which is
transported back to the interstitium by the
collecting tubule

(1) Vasa recta is highly developed 150. Which of the following is the correct set of
substances reabsorbed or secreted in the different
(2) Loop of Henle is longer
parts of nephron labelled as A, B, C & D?
(3) The Malpighian corpuscle, PCT and DCT of
nephron are situated in the cortical region of A D
kidney
(4) Constitute 85% of total nephrons present in
kidney
146. Consider the following statement with two blanks C
B
A & B and select the option which correctly fills up
these blanks.
Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water takes
place in _A_ in the presence of hormone _B_.
A B
Part of nephron Reabsorbed Secreted
(1) PCT Aldosterone
+ –
(1) A Glucose, NaCl H , HCO3
(2) DCT ADH
(2) B Water NaCl
(3) PCT ADH
(4) DCT Aldosterone (3) C NaCl Water
+ +
(4) D K,H
147. Find out the incorrect match.
(1) ANF – Antagonist of angiotensin II
151. An autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular
(2) Renin – Converts angiotensinogen in blood to junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis
angiotensin I of skeletal muscle is
(3) ACE – Converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II (1) Myasthenia gravis
(4) JGA – Produce angiotensinogen to regulate (2) Muscular dystrophy
kidney function
(3) Tetany
148. Which of the following is the excretory product of
largest gland of human body? (4) Arthritis

(1) Carbondioxide and water vapour 152. Choose the correct events that occur during muscle
relaxation
(2) Urea and Creatinine
(A) H-Zone becomes visible
(3) Bilirubin and Biliverdin
(B) I-Band shortens
(4) NaCl and Lactic acid
149. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. mechanism of (C) A-Band increases
concentration of the filtrate in nephron (D) M line shortens
(1) Counter current is formed by opposite flow of (1) (A), (C) (2) (C), (D)
filtrate and blood in the two limbs of Henle’s loop
and vasa recta respectively (3) (B), (C) (4) (A) only

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Test - 4 (Code A) Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016
153. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (B) (ii) are the most abundant blood cells
(1) Each actin filament is made of two F (C) A healthy adult man on an average contains (iii)
(filamentous) actins helically wound to each RBCs mm–3 of blood
other
(D) (iv) is considered as graveyard of RBCs
(2) Globular actin polymerises to form F actins
(1) A (i) 45 percent B (ii) Erythrocytes
(3) The tail of the meromyosin is called the heavy
C (iii) 4.0–4.5 million D (iv) Spleen
meromyosin (HMM)
(2) A(i) 55 percent B (ii) Neutrophils
(4) The globular head of meromyosin is an active
ATPase enzyme and has binding sites for ATP C(iii) 5.0–5.5 million D (iv) Liver
and active sites for actin
(3) A(i) 45 percent B (ii) Erythrocytes
154. Consider the following statements A, B, C & D w.r.t.
C(iii) 5.0–5.5 million D (iv) Spleen
skeletal muscle with certain blanks. Find the option
which correctly fills up these blanks. (4) A(i) 45 percent B (ii) Neutrophils
(A) The fascicles in an organised skeletal muscle are C(iv) 5.0–5.5 million D (iv) Spleen
held together by a common collagenous
connective tissue layer called __(i)__ 157. Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t.
SAN in human heart?
(B) The store house of Ca2+ in a skeletal muscle
fibre is __(ii)__ (1) It is present in the right upper corner of the left
atria
(C) I-Band in its centre contains an elastic fibre
(2) It is a specialised cardiac musculature with
called ___(iii)___ which bisects it
least auto excitability
(D) H-Zone consists of _(iv)_ only
(3) It can generate the maximum number of action
(1) (i) Fascia (2) (i) Sarcolemma potentials i.e., 70–75 min–1 and is responsible
for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic
(ii) Sarcomere (ii) Sarcoplasmic
contractile activity of the heart
reticulum
(4) It is called the pacesetter of the heart
(iii) Z-line (iii) M-line
158. The time gap between closure of semilunar valve and
(iv) Actin (iv) Myosin
atrio-ventricular valve in a cycle is
(3) (i) Fascia (4) (i) Sarcosome
(1) 0.3 s (2) 0.5 s
(ii) Sarcoplasmic (ii) Sarcoplasmic
(3) 0.7 s (4) 0.4 s
reticulum reticulum
159. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. wave in an
(iii) Z-line (iii) M-line ECG and its description?
(iv) Myosin (iv) Actin (1) P-wave – Depolarisation of atria
155. Find out the incorrect statement (2) End of T-wave – End of atrial systole
(1) Blood plasma is straw colored, viscous fluid (3) QRS complex – Depolarisation of ventricles
constituting nearly 55 percent of blood
(4) T wave – Ventricular repolarization
(2) Fibrinogens in blood plasma are needed for
160. Following structures A, B, C are a part of blood
clotting or coagulation of blood
circulatory system matched with their specific
(3) Albumins help in maintaining osmotic balance description. Find out the correct matches.
(4) Blood without clotting factors is called serum
156. Consider the following statements A – D with certain
blanks. Find the option which correctly fills up these
blanks
(A) Formed elements of blood constitute nearly (i)
of blood A B C

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Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016
A – Thick elastic tissue, valves absent, blood
pressure is high; carries blood away from
heart.
B – Thin elastic tissue, valves prevent back flow
of blood, blood pressure is low, carries
blood towards heart.
Test - 4 (Code A)
(b) The ascending limb of loop of Henle continues
into highly tubular region known as proximal
convoluted tubule
(c) In juxtamedullary nephrons, the loop of Henle is
very short and extends only slightly into the
medulla

C – Smallest blood vessels, made up of single (d) Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced in cortical
layer of flat endothelial cells. Contains about nephrons
5 to 7% of total volume of blood. (1) a, b, c and d (2) a, b and c
(1) A, B ,C (2) A, C (3) b, c and d (4) b and c
(3) B, C (4) C only 166. All of the following are functions of ADH, except
161. The state of the heart when it is not able to pump (1) Prevents diuresis
blood effectively to meet the needs of body is called
(2) Constrict blood vessels in kidney
(1) Heart failure (2) Cardiac arrest
(3) Decrease blood pressure
(3) Heart attack (4) Myocardial ischaemia
(4) Cause water reabsorption from latter parts of
162. Which of the following is the correct set of uricotelic tubule
animals?
167. Which of the following are responsible for increase in
(1) Lizard, Land snail, Shark GFR?
(2) Sparrow, Snake, Land snail (a) Angiotensin II (b) Rennin
(3) Penguin, Frog, Rohu (c) Aldosterone (d) ANF
(4) Salamander, Lizard, Snake (1) a, b, c and d (2) a, b and c
163. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. human kidneys (3) a and c (4) b and d
(1) Human kidneys are metanephric 168. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t.
(2) Human kidneys are reddish brown, bean shaped PCT in a nephron?
structures situated between the levels of last (1) It is lined by simple cuboidal brush bordered
thoracic and third lumbar vertebra close to the epithelium
ventral inner wall of abdominal cavity
(2) Maximum reabsorption of water occurs in PCT
(3) Hilum represents a notch towards the centre of even in the presence of ADH
the inner concave surface of the kidney through
(3) Selective secretion of H+ and ammonia and
which ureter, blood vessels and nerves enter and
absorption of HCO3– occurs in PCT
exit
(4) It plays a significant role in the maintenance of
(4) Inside the human kidney, there are two zones,
high osmolarity of medullary interstitial fluid
an outer cortex and an inner medulla
169. Toxic levels of urea in the blood resulting from severe
164. Which of the following cells are a part of filtration
malfunctioning of the kidneys is
membrane in kidney?
(1) Diabetes insipidus (2) Uremia
(1) Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium
(3) Gout (4) Polyuria
(2) Ciliated cuboidal epithelium
170. Tetany is due to
(3) Podocytes
(1) Low Ca2+ in sarcoplasm
(4) Basement membrane
(2) High Ca2+ in body fluid
165. Which of the following statements are wrong?
(3) Low Ca2+ in body fluid
(a) Renal corpuscle includes all parts of a nephron
except glomerulus (4) High Ca2+ in sarcoplasm

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Test - 4 (Code A) Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016
171. Consider the following statements a, b, c & d with 174. White muscle fibres have
certain blanks and find the correct option filling up
(1) Abundant mitochondria
these blanks.
(2) Abundant myoglobin
(A) Muscles contribute (i) percent of the body
weight in adult human. (3) Abundant sarcoplasmic reticulum
(B) Transportation of food through the digestive tract (4) More than one option is correct
and gametes through the genital tract is aided 175. Which of the following components of blood do not
by (ii) muscles normally enter the nephron during ultrafiltration?
(C) Macrophages and leucocytes in blood perform (1) Urea (2) Albumin
by (iii) movement
(3) Calcium ions (4) Glucose
(D) Passage of ova through the female reproductive
tract is facilitated by (iv) movement 176. Desert mammals are adapted to water shortage by
having nephrons with longer
(1) (i) 50 – 55 (2) (i) 40 – 50
(1) Loop of Henle
(ii) Non-striated (ii) Striated
(2) Peritubular capillaries
(iii) Amoeboid (iii) Ciliary
(3) PCT
(iv) Ciliary (iv) Amoeboid
(4) Collecting duct
(3) (i) 50 – 55 (4) (i) 40 – 50
177. In case of damage to all the stretch receptors on the
(ii) Striped (ii) Non-striated walls of urinary bladder which of the following is most
likely to occur?
(iii) Amoeboid (iii) Amoeboid
(1) Micturition continues normally
(iv) Ciliary (iv) Ciliary
(2) Micturition stops
172. Which of the following occurs during muscle
contraction? (3) Frequency of voluntary micturition increases
markedly
(1) A – band shortens (2) H - zone increases
(4) Formation of urine stops
(3) Sarcomere shortens (4) I - band remains same
178. How much plasma is filtered by the glomerulus per
173. Following are certain events which take place during minute to form 125 ml of filtrate in the Bowman’s
muscle contraction. Arrange them in correct capsule per minute?
sequence.
(1) 1200 ml (2) 700 ml
(a) Generation of action potential in sarcolemma
(3) 5000 ml (4) 125 ml
(b) Hydrolysis of ATP at the myosin head
179. Blood from head, neck and arms, enters the heart by
(c) Binding of myosin head to exposed active sites way of
on actin to form a cross bridge
(1) Superior vena cava (2) Inferior vena cava
(d) Release of acetylcholine at the synaptic cleft
(3) Pulmonary artery (4) Pulmonary vein
(e) Release of Ca2+ in the sarcoplasm
180. The action potential generated by SAN increases the
(f) Binding of Ca2+ to subunit of troponin flow of blood into ventricles by what per cent?
(1) e, a, d, f, b, c (2) d, a, e, f, b, c (1) 70 (2) 30
(3) a, e, f, d, c, b (4) d, a, e, b, f, c (3) 20 (4) 50

  

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Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016 Test - 4 (Code A)

15/06/2016 CODE-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 Time : 3 Hr.

AMBITIOUS COURSE FOR NEET (Phase-II) - 2016
Test - 4

ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (3) 73. (3) 109. (4) 145. (4)
2. (3) 38. (2) 74. (4) 110. (3) 146. (4)
3. (2) 39. (3) 75. (1) 111. (2) 147. (4)
4. (4) 40. (4) 76. (3) 112. (1) 148. (3)
5. (3) 41. (4) 77. (3) 113. (1) 149. (4)
6. (4) 42. (3) 78. (1) 114. (3) 150. (4)
7. (1) 43. (3) 79. (3) 115. (3) 151. (1)
8. (2) 44. (2) 80. (1) 116. (3) 152. (4)
9. (1) 45. (2) 81. (2) 117. (3) 153. (3)
10. (1) 46. (1) 82. (3) 118. (3) 154. (3)
11. (4) 47. (2) 83. (4) 119. (1) 155. (4)
12. (1) 48. (4) 84. (3) 120. (4) 156. (3)
13. (2) 49. (4) 85. (4) 121. (3) 157. (3)
14. (3) 50. (3) 86. (2) 122. (2) 158. (2)
15. (2) 51. (1) 87. (3) 123. (3) 159. (2)
16. (1) 52. (1) 88. (3) 124. (1) 160. (4)
17. (3) 53. (3) 89. (4) 125. (3) 161. (1)
18. (2) 54. (1) 90. (3) 126. (3) 162. (2)
19. (2) 55. (3) 91. (2) 127. (2) 163 (2)
20. (3) 56. (3) 92. (3) 128. (2) 164. (3)
21. (2) 57. (1) 93. (2) 129. (2) 165. (2)
22. (2) 58. (2) 94. (2) 130. (3) 166. (3)
23. (1) 59. (3) 95. (2) 131. (4) 167. (3)
24. (3) 60. (2) 96. (2) 132. (4) 168. (4)
25. (1) 61. (3) 97. (3) 133. (2) 169. (2)
26. (1) 62. (2) 98. (4) 134. (3) 170. (3)
27. (2) 63. (2) 99. (3) 135. (1) 171. (4)
28. (4) 64. (1) 100. (4) 136. (2) 172. (3)
29. (1) 65. (2) 101. (1) 137. (1) 173. (2)
30. (4) 66. (1) 102. (4) 138. (3) 174. (3)
31. (2) 67. (3) 103. (3) 139. (3) 175. (2)
32. (2) 68. (3) 104. (4) 140. (2) 176. (1)
33. (3) 69. (3) 105. (4) 141. (3) 177. (2)
34. (2) 70. (3) 106. (3) 142. (2) 178. (2)
35. (4) 71. (4) 107. (3) 143 (1) 179. (1)
36. (3) 72. (2) 108. (4) 144. (4) 180. (2)

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