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DATE : 17-05-14 CODE - A

VIBRANT ACADEMY
(India) Private Limited
A-14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota-324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2428664, 2428666, 2423406, 3205261, 3205262 Fax: 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com

IRP H1- BATCH TEST–2 (COURSE-2014)


JEE Advance (Paper-1)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 180
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions. The booklet has
28 pages.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and
on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet.

3. The question paper contains 2 blank pages for your rough work. No additional
sheets will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and
VA Roll No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet.

6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided


separately.

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

8. Do not open the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the


invigilators.
B. Question paper format  Read the instructions printed on the back page

C. Marking scheme  (page no. 28) of this booklet.
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them. in by the candidate.

.......................................................... ............................................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator

USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, g = 10 m/s2 , B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Ne = 20, Na = 23,
Mg = 24, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Ar = 40 , Ti = 48, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56,
Co = 59, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.5, Br = 80, Mo = 96, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, U = 238
PART I : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. If A is skew symmetric matrix, then I – A is (where I is identity matrix of the order equal to that of A)
(A) skew symmetric (B) symmetric
(C) singular (D) non-singular

2
2 2 2
 dy 
2. If y = a – b cos (n x ) then x2y2   is equal to
 dx 

(A) a2 – y2 (B) a2 + b2 – y2
(C) (a2 – y2) (b2 – a2 + y2) (D) (b2 – y2) (a2 – b2y2)

3. If the acute angle between the lines represented by 2x2 + 5xy + 3y2 + 6x + 7y + 4 = 0 is tan–1m and
a2 + b2 – ab – a – b + 1  0, then 2a + 3b is equal to

1
(A) (B) m (C) – m (D) m2
m

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MATHEMATICS
 
4. If the four plane faces of the tetrahedron are represented by the equation r . ( x1î  y1 ĵ )  0 , r . ( y1 ĵ  z1k̂ )  0 ,

 
r . ( z1k̂  x1î )  0 , r . ( x1î  y1 ĵ  z1k̂ )  p , then volume of tetrahedron is

p3 2p3 3p 3 6p 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 x1y1z1 3 x1y1z1 x1y1z1 x1y1z1

5. Three numbers are selected from the set {1, 2, 3,...., 10}. The probability that all the selected numbers are
consecutive or none of them are consecutive is equal to

7 8 1 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
15 15 2 3

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
6. Given two series S1= 1 –  –  ..... and S2 =    ..... , then
2 3 4 1001 501 502 503 1001
(A) S1 > S2 (B) S1 < S2 (C) S1 = S2 (D) S1 + S2 = 501

7. The value of  f (x)F(x)dx –  f (x)F(x) dx 


(A) f(x) F(x) – f(x) F(x) + c (B) f(x) F(x) – f(x) F(x) + c
(C) f(x) F(x) – F(x) f(x) + c (D) f(x) F(x) – F(x) f(x) + c

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MATHEMATICS
y3
8. If  sin2 x  2 cos x  1, then the value of y must lie in the interval
2y  5

 5 12   8 12   8 12   8   12 
(A)  – ,–  (B)  – 3 ,– 5  (C)  – ,–  (D)  – ,– 3   – 5 ,  
 2 5    3 5    

9. Let a point R lies on the plane x – y + z – 3 = 0 and P be the point (1, 1, 1). A point Q lies on PR such that
PQ2 + PR2 = k(constant), then the equation of locus of Q is
 4 
(A) [(x – 1)2 + (y – 1)2 + (z – 1)2] 1  2
k
 ( x – y  z – 1) 

 4 
(B) [(x – 1)2 + (y – 1)2 + (z – 1)2] 1 – 2
k
 ( x – y  z – 1) 

4
(C) (x – 1)2 + (y – 1)2 + (z – 1)2 + k
( x – y  z – 1)2

1 1 1 ( x – y  z – 1)2
(D)    k
( x – 1)2 ( y – 1)2 ( z – 1)2 4

2nk  a
 x 

 sin  f ( x ) dx
 2k 
10. If function f(x) satisfies f(x + k) + f(x) = 0  x  R and k   0,  , then the value of a
2k
is
 2  x 

0
cos  f ( x ) dx
 2k 

n
(A) 0 (B) n (C) – n (D) –
2k
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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

 2x  4 x 2  3 x 3 2y 1  4y 2  3 y 3 
11. A(x1, y1), B(x2, y2), C(x3, y3) are vertices of a triangle ABC and D   1 , , G
 9 9 

is centroid of ABC. Then


(A) D is nearer to BC than G (B) G is nearer to BC than D
(C) D is nearer to AC than G (D) G is nearer to AC than D

1 2 3
12. If i (i = 1, 2, 3....., 9) are squares of odd integers; then determinanat  4 5  6 is always divisible by
7 8 9

(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 32

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MATHEMATICS
13. If the roots of the cubic x3 – 6x2 – 24x +  = 0 are the first three terms of an A.P. then sum of first n terms of
that A.P. is
(A) n(3n – 1) (B) n(3n – 7) (C) n(5 – 3n) (D) n(11 – 3n)

14. If the equations of the diagonals of the parallelogram formed by the lines 2x – y + 7 = 0 ; 2x – y – 5 = 0 ;
3x + 2y – 5 = 0 and 3x + 2y + 4 = 0 are ax + by – 5 = 0 and px + qy + 1 = 0. Then
(A) a + b = 17 (B) p + q = 23 (C) a + p = 24 (D) b + q = 17

1  x 2  x 4  ....  x 2n2
15. If p( x )  is a polynomial in x, then n can be
1  x  x 2  ....  x n1
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) 17

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - III
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be
darkened. For example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2,
respectively, then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

 1 1 1 1
16. If x1, x2, x3, x4 denote the roots of the polynomial f(x) = x4 + 3x3 + 3x + 2, find  2  2  2  2  , where
 x1 x 2 x 3 x 4 
[·] denote greatest integer function.

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MATHEMATICS
17. f: R+  R+ be bijective continuous function, find the non-negative difference between LHL & RHL of

n
x – f (r )
Lim
x  f (k )
 | x – f (r ) | where k  I, 1  k  n.
r 1
(I denote set of integers)

sin x cos x
18. Let f(x) =  (x cos x  1) e dx and g(x) =
 ( x sin x – 1) e dx . Further suppose that f(0) = g(0) = 0.

Find the number of distinct solution(s) of the equation f(x).g(x) = 0.

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MATHEMATICS
19. The number of ways to choose 2010 function f1, f 2, f 3, ........, f 2010 each defined from the set {0, 1}  {0, 1}
such that the composition
f 2010(f 2009 (...........(f 1(x)).............) is constant ; is . Find the unit digit of .

 n n n n  2
20. If lim  tan –1 2 2  tan –1 2  tan –1 2  ......  tan –1 2  . Where k  N. Then find
n  n 1 n  22 n  32 n  n2  k
'k'.

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PART II : PHYSICS
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
21. Figure shows the graph of photocurrent versus potential of the anode with respect to the cathode. The
intensity of the incident radiation is halved and frequency doubled. The stopping potential and the saturation
current will now be respectively.

Photocurrent
4
(A)

–3 0 Potential(V)

(A) –6.0 V and 2.0A (B) –6.0 V and 4.0 A (C) –6.0 V and 1.0 A (D) None of these

22. The side of a cube is measured by vernier callipers (20 divisions of vernier scale coincide with 19 divisions
of main scale, where 1 division of main scale is 1 mm). The main scale reads 10 mm and first division of
vernier scale coincides with the main scale. The side is
(A) 10.02 mm (B) 10.05 mm (C) 10.04 mm (D) None of these

23. Characteristic X-rays


(A) Have only discrete wavelength which are characteristic of the target
(B) Have all the possible wavelength
(C) Are characteristic of speed of projectile electrons
(D) None of these

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PHYSICS
24. In an isobaric expansion of an ideal gas, which of the following is zero?

d2 V
(A) Work done (B) Q (C) U (D)
dT 2

25. The amplitude of a particle executing S.H.M. is 4 cm and its maximum velocity is 10 cm/s. The magnitude
of its acceleration (cm/s2) when its velocity is 5 cm/s is

(A) 0 (B) 5 3 (C) 10 3 (D) (12.5) 3

26. One end of a light rope is tied directly to the ceiling. A man initially at rest
on the ground starts climbing the rope hand over hand upto a height .
From the time he starts at rest on the ground to the time he is hanging at
rest at a height , how much work was done on the man by the rope? 
(A) 0 (B) Mg
(C) – Mg (D) It depends on how fast the man goes up.
27. A car is moving towards a huge wall with a speed = c/10, where c = speed of sound in still air. A wind is also
blowing parallel to the velocity of the car in the same direction and with the same speed. If the car sounds
a horn of frequency f, then what is the frequency of the reflected sound of the horn heard by driver of the
car?

10 f 11 f 11 f 10 f
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 10 9 11

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PHYSICS
28. An electric dipole is placed at the origin O such that its equator is y-axis. At a point P far away from dipole,
the electric field direction is along y-direction. OP makes an angle  with the x-axis such that :

1
(A) tan  = 3 (B) tan  = 2 (C) tan  = 1 (D) tan  =
2

29. A string is stretched between two fixed points. The string is plucked at its centre and it seen to vibrate with
frequency f as shown below :

Which one of the following expressions gives the frequencies of other possible modes of vibration that
have an antinode at the centre? The number n in each expression is an integer
(A) nf (B) (2n – 1)f (C) (n – 1)f (D) (n + 1)f
30. Ras from a lens are converging towards a point P, as shown in figure. How much thick glass plate having
refractive index 1.6 must be located between the lens and point P, so that image will be formed at P?

P P

0.3 cm

Glass plate

(A) 0.8 cm (B) 1.6 cm (C) 5 cm (D) None of these

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PHYSICS
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

31. A bar magnet, free to move along its axis, with its north
(N) and south (S) poles (as shown below) is placed along
S N
the axis of a circular conducting loop.
Choose the correct option(s)
(A) If the magnet moves leftwards, current in the loop runs clockwise and acceleration of magnet points to
the left.
(B) If the magnet moves rightwards, current in the loop runs counterclockwise and acceleration of magnet
points to the right.
(C) If the magnet moves leftwards, current in the loop runs clockwise and acceleration of magnet points to
the right.
(D) If the magnet moves rightwards, current in the loop runs counterclockwise and acceleration of magnet
points to the left.

32. Astronauts land on an asteroid of radius R and homogeneous mass distribution. A physicist atronaut makes
a simple pendulum and measures its period to be 1 second. As precious ores can be found in the asteroid,
a sphere of radius R/2 is excavated and removed from the asteroid (see the figure). Which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Period of the simple pendulum will be same at C, D A

(B) Period of the simple pendulum at A will be 2 second D


C
1
(C) Period of the simple pendulum at A will be second
2

1 B
(D) Period of the simple pendulum at B will be second
2

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PHYSICS
33. In a Young's Double slit experiment, the slits are illuminated by monochromatic light. The entire set up is
immersed in pure water. In order to restore the original fringe width, what can be done ?
(A) The slits can be brought closed together.
(B) The screen can be moved away from the slit plane.
(C) The incident light can be replaced by that of a longer wavelength.
(D) A thin transparent slab can be introduced in front of one of the slits.

34. A radio-nuclide 'X' decays into 'Y' which further decays into 'Z'. The decay constants are  and 2 respectively.
Z is a stable nucleus. Initially, there is only X present in the sample. Then, amongst the following statements,
the correct set is (NA is number of undecayed atoms of A)
(A) There will be only Z in the sample after a long time ()
dN Y
(B) At any time, activity of Z  –
dt
(C) The number of Y will first increase and then decrease
dY
(D) At any time,  [NX – 2NY ]
dt

35. 2 moles of He are mixed with 2 moles of H2 in a closed adiabatic container. Initially the mixture occupies 3
liters at 27ºC. The volume is suddenly decreased to 3/2 liters. Choose the correct option(s) (H2 & He can
be treated as ideal gases.)
(A)  for mixture is 3/2

(B) final temperature = 300 2K


(C) value of  will change with temperature
(D) Work done in compression is totally converted into internal energy

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PHYSICS
SECTION - III
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be
darkened. For example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2,
respectively, then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

36. A flat coil with cross-sectional area is placed in a magnetic field. The leads of the coil are connected to an
oscillograph. When the coil is moved out of the field, an induction emf is generated in it, and the oscillogram
of this emf is shown in the figure. Find the charge transferred across the coil, if the resistance of the coil is
1 ohms.

2V

t
O 0.5 1.5 2

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PHYSICS
37. The figure below shows a vacuum tube containing electrodes made of different metals, 1 and 2 whose
work functions are 1 and 2. The electrodes are illuminated simultaneously. The maximum kinetic energy
of photoelectrons reaching plate 2 is 1 eV and maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons reaching plate 1
is 3 eV. Assume that photoelectron emitted from either plate do not interact with each other. Given : 1 = 1.5
eV and 2 = 0.7 eV. If wavelength of the electromagnetic wave used is (n × 10–7) meter, find the value of n,

Light source

1 2

+ –

38. An electric circuit is as shown in the figure. The cells are of negligible internal resistances. In the steady
state find the charge (in C) on 1F capacitor.

4V
8 3

8V 16

3V
1F

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PHYSICS
10
39. A spherical conductor of radius 4 cm carries a charge of × 10–10 C. At what distance (in cm) from centre
9
40
of sphere should a point charge of × 10–10 C be placed so that the potential of the conductor becomes
9
75 V? Assume potential = 0 at .

40. A block A of mass 1 kg is placed at rest on a rough horizontal plane of coefficient of friction 0.5 at a distance
of 17.5 m from a vertical steel wall ‘S’. The block is projected with a velocity of 20 ms–1 normally towards
the wall and after rebound at the wall comes to rest 3.1 m short of its original position. If the coefficient of
restitution for the collision on the wall is e, find the value of 10 e.

V = 20 ms
–1 A

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PART III : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
41. When PbO2 reacts with conc. HNO3 then evolved gas is
(A) NO2 (B) O2 (C) N2 (D) N2O

42. What will be the major product of the below reaction :

O
Cl
+ Cl + AlCl3 ?
AcNH (1.1 equivalent)

O
Cl

(A) AcNH (B)


O CH2Cl AcNH

Cl
(C) (D)
AcNH AcNH O

43. At 600 K, half-life period for first order decomposition of H2O2 is 360 min. The energy of activation for the
reaction is 19345.2 cal mol –1 . The time required f or 75% decomposition at 700 K is
(in minute, R = 2 cal mol–1 K–1)
(A) 720 (B) 18 (C) 72 (D) None

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CHEMISTRY
44. Find the final major product of the below reaction
CH3 CH3
CH3 – C – C  C – C – CH3 1% HgSO4
40% H2SO4 ?
OH OH

OH O
O O
HO
(A) (B) (C) (D)
OH O O

45. Consider the following reaction and predict bond order of CO present in addition compound (X).
warm
B2H6 + 2CO   X.
(A) > 3.0 (B) < 3.0 (C) 3.0 (D) None of these

46. How many millimoles of sucrose should be dissolved in 500 g of water so as to get a solution which has a difference
of 103.57ºC between boiling point and freezing point ? (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1, mol–1, Kb = 0.52 K Kgmol–1).
(A) 500 (B) 900 (C) 750 (D) 650

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CHEMISTRY
47. The bicyclic compound celestolide is synthetic perfume component with a musk like odor. A synthesis of
celestolide is shown below. If intermediate A is also bicyclic, identify the structure of celestolide ?

O O O

Cl Zn(Hg) 1. CH3Li H2S O4 Cl


(A) ?
AlCl3 HCl 2. H2O AlCl3

(A) (B) (C) (D)


O O
O
O
O

48. In a closed container there is a mixture of SO2, CO2 and O2 gas. Which sequence of reagent can be helpful
to separate them.
(I) Limewater (II) Acidified potassium dichromate (III) Alkaline pyragallol.
(A) (I), (II), (III) (B) (II), (I), (III) (C) (III), (II), (I) (D) (III), (I), (II)

49. Which of the following ketones would racemize if treated with a drop of sulfuric acid ?

O O O O
Me
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Et

50. A 150 mL of solution of I2 is divided into two unequal parts. First part reacts with hypo solution in acidic
medium, 15 mL of 0.4 M hypo was consumed. Second part was added with 100 mL of 0.3 M NaOH
solution, where I2 disproportionationated into I– and IO3– . Residual base required 10 mL of 0.3 M H2SO4
solution for complete neutralization. What was the initial concentration of I2?
(A) 0.08 M (B) 0.1 M (C) 0.2 M (D) None of these

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
 O2
51. (X) + Na-metal  Na2O 
 (X)

CORRECT statement(s) about compound (X) is
(A) It gives H2O2 on hydrolysis with ice cold water
(B) When it absorbs CO2 then it liberates O2 gas
(C) It gives brown ppt with green vitriol
(D) It turns green Cr3+(aq) solution to orange Cr2O72–(aq) solution

52. The standard redox potentials Eº of the following systems are


Eº (volts)
– + – 2+
(i) MnO4 + 8H + 5e  Mn + 4H2O 1.51
2+
(ii) Sn  Sn + 2e 4+ – – 0.15
(iii) Cr2O72– + 14H+ + 6e–  2Cr3+ + 7H2O 1.33
3+ 4+ –
(iv) Ce  Ce + e – 1.61
The oxidising power of the various species are
(A) Cr2O72– > MnO4– (B) Ce4+ > Sn4+ (C) Ce4+ > MnO4– (D) MnO4– > Sn4+

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CHEMISTRY
53. Identify the correct statements in the following
(A) Borazole is more reactive than Benzene towards HCl
(B) When diborane is treated with excess of CH3l, B2(CH3)6 is formed as final product
(C) AlF3 is existed as a dimer as it is electron deficient compound
(D) Borax has two triangular and two tetrahedral units

54. When potassium iodide is added to the freshly precipitated mercury (II) iodide, then which of the following
is correct statement
(A) The precipitate will be dissolved in KI solution
(B) The anion present in solution is [HgI4]2–
(C) Nessler’s reagent will be formed by adding KOH solution
(D) Coloured solution is formed

55. Select correct statement(s)


(A) Surface tension of lyophilic sols is lower than that of H2O
(B) Fog is a colloidal system in which the dispersed phase is gas and the dispersion medium is liquid.
(C) Tyndall effect can be observed when the diameter of the dispersed phase particles is not much smaller
then the wavelength of the light used.
(D) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium differ greatly in magnitude.

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - III
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be
darkened. For example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2,
respectively, then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

56. U for vaporization of a liquid at its normal boiling point 227ºC is 5.0 kcal mol–1.
Calculate change in entropy (in cal K–1) of 0.5 mol of the liquid at normal boiling point.

57. How many number of unpaired electrons are present in central metal atom/cation of product formed in
given reaction :
FeCl2 + KCN(excess)  Product.

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CHEMISTRY
58. The van der Waals’ constant ‘b’ of a gas is 4 × 10–4 L/mol. The radius of gas atom can be expressed in
scientific notation as x × 10–9 cm. Calculate the value of x. (Given : NA = 6 × 1023).

59. What is the standard enthalpy change for formation of 0.1 mole of C2H4(g)
(Given : HºC (C2H4, g) = –1410 kJ/mol ; cHº (CO2, g) = –394 kJ/mol ; fHº (H2O, l) = –286 kJ/mol)

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CHEMISTRY
60. Oligosaccharides of the type (I) shown below are obtained from the partial hydrolysis of starch amylopectin.
What ratio of erythritol to glycerol would be obtained from successive treatment of a ten-residue oligosaccharide
of the type (I) shown with periodic acid, then NaBH4 and then hydrolysis in aqueous acid ?

CH2OH CH2OH
H OH
CH–OH
H OH
CH2OH
CH2OH
erythritol glycerol

CH2OH
HO O
HO
OH CH2OH
O O
HO
OH CH2OH
O
O
HO
OH OH
n–2
(I)

Hint : Periodate oxidation of methyl -D-glucopyranoside liberates one equivalent of formic acid.
CH2OH O
O CH2OH O
HO O ||
H HC
HO H5IO 6
H – C – OH
HC H + formic acid
HO (observed)
OCH3 O
OCH3

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DATE : 17-05-14 CODE - A
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

B. Question paper format :


9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics).
Each part has 3 sections.

10. Section I contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.

11. Section II contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.

12. Section III contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is an
integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the
ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section.

C. Marking Scheme :
13. For each question in Section-I, you will be awarded 2 marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened.
No negative marks will be awarded for in this Section.

14. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened.
In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.

14. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened.
In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.

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