RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS

DMD4A CEU MALOLOS

SY. 2016-2017
1. In establishing cavity form for a Class II in that tooth wasloose and it was removed.
amalganm it is IMPORTANT to, No pulp exposure was evident, but the
I. limit the isthmus width to 1/4 tooth was sensitive. The patient cannot be
the intercuspal distnace whenever possible seen again for two weeks. The treatment
II. consider the depth rather than at this time would be to
width in order to prevent fracture of the filling a. smooth the rough edges and reappoint
material b. place a zinc phosphate cement
III. use pins to protect the large temporary restoration
amalgam restoration from fracture c. place a zinc oxide-eugenol cement
IV. have slight rounding of internal temporary restoration
line angles to relieve stress areas in the tooth d. cement on a metal band or shell with
The CORRECT answer is: reinforced zinc oxide-eugenol cement
e. dismiss the patient without further
a. I,II,III,IV intervention until the next scheduled visit which
b. I,II,III,V would provide sufficient time for the obviously
c. I,II,IV,V involved treatment
d. I,III,IV,V 5. A cavity prepared for a powdered gold
e. II,III,IV,V restoration on the proximal surface of an
anterior tooth ALWAYS
2. The use of composite resin for Class I a. includes contact area
restorations is not generally recommended b. extends beneath the crest of the
because its clinical performance is inferior gingival tissue
to amalgam with respect to: c. contains, 2-planed lingual wall and 2-
a. creep planed facial wall
b. fracture d. ends in the facial embrasure to
c. occlusal wear facilitate finishing and maintenance of
d. marginal breakdown the margins
e. decay e. has enamel walls which meet the
3. In the practice of preventive dentistry, surface of the tooth by following the
PRIMARY prevention refers to those general direction of the enamel rods
measures taken to 6. The MOST frequent complaint of pain after
a. prevent development of disease in the placement of an amalgam restoration is
primary dentition related to
b. prevent disease before evidence of its a. cold
occurrence is detected b. heat
c. prevent incipient disease from c. sweets
progressing to destructive activity d. galvanic shock
d. focus priority on those practices which e. biting pressure
minimize the loss of teeth 7. Cuspal reduction DECREASES
e. Ensure emphasis on prevention in all a. retention form
dental treatment at any time b. resistance form
4. A patient telephoned that she broke off a c. convenience form
big piece of her upper left back tooth. An d. pulpal involvement
emergency office visit between patients e. withdrawal form
revealed that the facial portion of the 8. An endodontically trated maxillary central
maxillary left second molar was sheared off incisor with medorated sized mesial and
level with the gingival tissue. A MOD inlay distal composite resin restorations
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
involving the facial surface and a heavy c. evaluate each patient only after total
occlusion would BEST be treated by patient treatment has been completed
restoring it with d. occasionally spot evaluate patients
a. post--retained porcelain metal full only after total patient treatment
crown rendered at the next recall
b. post-retained porcelain jacket crown e. evaluate the treatment rendered at
c. composite resin the next recall appointment in order
d. 3/4 gold crown to benefit from the service of an
e. none of the above expanded-function auxiliary
9. The location of the gingival margin in the 13. A split tooth will frequently display which
preparation of proximal cavities is of the following symptoms and signs?
influenced by the I. no radiographic evidence
I. need for retention of a cast II. moderate pain, transient in nature
restoration III. sensitivity to pressure
II. amount of gingival recession IV. thermal sensitivity
III. need to extend gingivally to clear the The correct answer is:
contact area
IV. convenience form of the cavity a. I,II
The correct answer is: b. II,III
c. III,IV
a. I,II d. II,III,IV
b. I, III e. all of the above
c. II,III 14. Of the following, the PRINCIPAL objective
d. II,IV of interproximal wedging when placing a
e. III,IV restoration is to
10. Inflammation of the pulp is MOST often a. obtain the desired separation of the
associated with teeth
a. trauma b. mark the gingival extent of the
b. galvanism restoration
c. occlusion c. control gingival hemorrhage
d. dental caries d. depress the gingival tissue
e. gingivitis e. increase the pulp
11. Pit and fissue caries is USUALLY 15. In planning the location fro placement of
characterized by cones of decay that pins for a pin-retaining amalgam, one
a. are apex to base at the DEJ should provide for
b. are base to base at the DEJ a. at least 3mm of pin extension into the
c. are apex to apex to DEJ amalgam
d. have no general pattern at the DEJ b. parallelism of the pins if more than
e. are unrecognizable one is used
12. An expanded-function dental auxiliary has c. a pin in the central dentin area of each
demonstrated to you that he can regularly cusp to be restores
complete a procedure at an acceptable d. 1mm of dentin between the pin and
quality level. Unless specifically requested the DEJ
to aid in a procedure, you should 16. One of the advantages of a cast gold inlay
a. continue to evaluate all treatment is
rendered by the auxiliary a. highly pleasing aesthetic qualities
b. occasionally spot evaluate procedures b. superior caries inhibitory qualities
as a quality control
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
c. allowance for a cementing medium to
be used
d. capability of restoring anatomic form
e. that it prevents further decay
17. What happens to the surface hardness of
gold foil during condensation?
a. is increased
b. is decreased
c. remains unaltered
d. either increases or decreases
depending upon the size of condenser
point used
e. either increases or decreases
depending upon the force applied to
the condenser
18. When using acid-etch technique with
composite resins, one solution used to etch
enamel is
a. 50% silicophosphoric acid
b. 75% phosphoric acid
c. 25% hydrofluoric acid in a buffer
d. 50% phosphoric acid in water
e. 30% hydrochloric acid in salt water
19. The shape of cavity preparation that best
resists displacement of the restoration in
any direction is called _____ form .
a. outline
b. resistance
c. retention
d. convenience
e. restraining
20. One of the claims for the superiority of
composite resin restorations over silicate
cement restorations is that resin
restorations
a. final outline form of the cavity has
been established
b. resistance and retention form has
been established
c. rubber dam has been placed
d. cavity has been sterilized
e. non of the above
21. Finishing the enamel at the gingival
cavosurface angle of a Class II cavity
preparation for amalgam is
a. contraindicated because of the low
edge strength of amalgam
b. provided by a steep cavosurface bevel
of the enamel margin
c. unnecessar since the remaining tooth
structure is strong
d. provided by a steep cavosurface area
to remove enamel prisms not
supported by dentin
e. not recommended
22. An ACCEPTABLE medicament for treating
sensitive eroded areas in anterior teeth is
a. phenol
b. precipitated silver nitrate
c. eugenol or other essential oils
d. a paste composed of sodium fluoride,
kaolin and glycerin
e. a ten percent stannous fluoride
solution
23. Which of the following statements are
CORRECT?
I. Dental hand instruments are divided
into the ff. parts: handle, shank, blade,
cutting edge, nib,and face or point
II. Cutting instruments have a handle, a
shank, a blade, and a cutting edge
III. Noncutting instruments have a
handle, a shank, a nib, and a face or
point
IV. Dr. Black also evolved the instruments
according to order names, suborder
names, class names, and sub-class
names.
V. Dr. Black also evolved the instrument
formula by which instruments could
be really duplicated anywhere.
VI. For example, the number of a gingival
margin trimmer is given as 15-95-8-
12R. The first 2 digits(15) of the
formula designate the width of the
blade in tenths of mm, the 3rd and 4th
digits (95) its length in mm, and the 5th
digit(8) represents the angle which the
blade forms with the axis of the
handle expressed in hundredths of a
circle(centigrades). WIth the
instruments in which the cutting edge
is at an angle to the length of the
blade, the 6th and 7th digits represent
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
the angle made by the edge with the d. Excavate all carious lesions and place
axis of the handle, expressed in intermediary restorative ZOE before
centigrade. The letter (R or L) signifies completing a treatment plan.
that the instrument is one of a pair e. Restore all teeth as slowly as possible
made in rights and lefts in order to using silver amalgam
work more efficiently. 27. The dietary carbohydrate most likely
The correct answer is: involved in the etiology of dental caries in
man is
a. I,III,V a. glucose
b. II,IV,VI b. sucrose
c. I,II,III,IV c. dextran
d. I,II,III,IV,V d. polysaccharide
e. I,II,III,IV,V,VI e. that produced by Streptocooccus
24. Which of the following procedures should mutans
be accomplished after an inlay is cemented 28. The potential for marginal leakage related
permanently and before the cement has to temperature change occurs to the
set? greatest extent with
a. Remove occlusal interferences a. amalgam alloy
b. Deepen the occlusal sluiceways b. silicate cement
c. Polish the inlay with sand paper disks c. unfilled resin
d. Burnish all margins for final d. composite resin
adpatation e. direct filling gold
e. Complete the polishing by use of 29. Dental wax patterns should be invested as
rubber cups and fine abrasive soon as possible after fabrication in order
25. Which of the following materials has to minimize change in the shape caused by
fluorides incorporated into it by the use of a. reduced flow
a fluoride flux in its manufacture? b. drying out of the wax
a. Zinc silicophosphate cement c. relaxation of internal stress
b. zinc phosphate cement d. continued expansion of the wax
c. polycarboxylate cement e. increased flow
d. BIS-GMA cement 30. Which of the following agents may be used
e. EBA-alumina cement on dentin as a cavity medicament because
26. After a thorough examination, a teen-aged it does not irritate the dental pulp?
patient is found to have numerous carious a. silver nitrate
lesions . Most of the proximal surfaces of b. phenol
the molars and the premolars are carious c. prednisolone
to the extent that much of the occlusal d. alcohol
enamel appears to be undermined. Of the e. chloroform
following courses of treatment, which f. ethyl chloride
would be the wisest to follow? 31. Which of the following agents may be used
a. Restore all teeth as rapidly as possible, on dentin as a cavity medicament because
using silver amalgam it does not irritate the dental pulp?
b. Place patient on a prevention regime g. silver nitrate
and delay treatment until h. phenol
effectiveness of home care is i. prednisolone
evaluated j. alcohol
c. Restore all teeth with gold inlays to k. chloroform
utilize the strength of this material
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
l. ethyl chloride b. Chemical adhesion to hard tooth
32. In working as a team, the position of the tissue under oral conditions does not
chairside assistant should be exist
a. lower than the dentist to facilitate c. Recent techniques of acid etching of
visibility enamel have produced chemical
b. at the same height as the dentist adhesion to enamel in the mouth
because they are working as a team d. Chemical adhesion is demonstrated in
c. higher than the dentist for proper clinical performance of
access and visibility to the patient’s polycarboxylate cements
oral cavity e. None of the above
d. varied, dependeing upon where the 37. Use if a rubber dam is most indicated for
dentist is working which of the following procedures?
e. none of the above I. Removal of carious dentin from deep
33. In restoring a Class II cavity, an onlay is lesions
indicated when the II. pulp capping
a. need for extra retention exists III. placement of direct filling gold
b. patient has a high caries index IV. removal of an old amalgam
c. opposing tooth has full coverage restoration
d. dentinal support of the cusps is V. opening into the pulp chamber to
questionable drain an acute periapical abscess
e. tooth is erupting but has not reached The correct answer is:
functional occlusion
f. all of the above a. I,II,III
34. A posterior tooth under a heavy occlusal b. I,II,V
load has cusps undermined with caries. The c. I,III,IV
restorative material of choice would be d. II,III,V
a. cast gold e. IV,V
b. silver amalgam 38. The anterior determinant of occlusion is
c. composite resin the
d. direct filling gold a. horizontal and vertical overlap
e. pure resin relation of anterior teeth
35. Pulpal irritation would not be expected b. horizontal overlap relation of anterior
from any restorative material provided the teeth only
minimal thickness of the material was c. vertical overlap relation of anterior
a. 0.2mm teeth only
b. 0.5mm d. cuspal inclinationin dergees
c. 1.0mm e. cuspal declination in degrees
d. 2.0mm 39. A frequent cause of interdental papillae
e. 3.0mm protruding from beneath the rubber dam is
36. Which of the following statements is true a. edematous gingival tissue
regarding chemical adhesion in clinical b. holes place too far apart
restorative materials? c. using a light-weight dam
a. Resins exhibit chemical adhesive d. holes placed too close together
properties to hard tooth structure in e. not using individual ligation of each
the mouth tooth
40. The use of functional occlusal registration
presupposes that
a. the teeth to be restored are extruded
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
b. the opposing teeth are in need of III. to furnish nerve and blood supply of
major restoration teeth
c. it is impossible to make use of an IV. cementum formation
anatomic registration V. periodontal ligament formation
d. the opposing teeth are in harmony The correct answer is:
with the remaining dentition
e. the opposing teeth are in need of a. I,II,V
minor restoration b. II,III
41. The purpose of prednisione in conjunction c. II,III,IV
with operative properties is to d. II,III,V
a. reduce the tendency for an acute e. III,IV,V
inflammatory response within the f. all of the above
pulp 45. The greatest precentage of tooth loss in
b. promote healing of the irritated pulp the first two decades of life (except natural
tissue loss of deciduous teeth) is due to
c. serve as an obtundent a. a peridontal disease
d. delay healing of the irritated pulp b. treated dental caries
tissue c. untreated dental caries
e. all of the above d. trauma to tooth from accidents
42. The property which most closely describes e. non of the above
the ability of a cast-gold inlay to be 46. What is added to render the surface of
burnished is impression hydrophilic?
a. elastic limit a. Base
b. ultimate strength
b. Catalyst
c. percentage of elongation
d. modulus of resilience c. Plasticizer
e. modulus of elasticity d. Surfactant
43. The form of a Class II cavity preparation for e. Reactors
an amalgam restoration inlcudes:
I. Extending the cavity to the line angles
of the tooth or beyond Rationale: Surfactant allows the
II. Beveling all enamel walls impression material to wet soft
III. Removing unsupported enamel along tissue better and to be poured in
the gingival wall
stone more effectively.
IV. rounding the axiopulpal line angle
The correct answer is:
47. Which of the following are
a. I,II,III
b. I,II,IV characteristic features of proximal
c. II,III,V caries on premolars and molars:
d. II,IV,V a) Spreading-cone shaped into
e. III,IV,V enamel, the base of the cone being
f. all of the above
44. Direct functions of the mature dental pulp the deepest part.
include: b) Spreading-cone shaped into
I. enamel formation enamel, the apex of the cone being
II. formation of dentin structure
the deepest part
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
c) Spreading-cone shaped into dentin point. In two surface Class two
in a conical form, the apex pointing preparation, there are 6 point
toward the pulp angles. They are:
d) Spreading-cone shaped into dentin 1. Distofaciopulpal
in a conical form, the base pointing 2. Distolinguopulpal
toward the pulp 3. Axiofaciopulpal
Rationale: Smooth surface caries 4. Axiolinguopulpal
and pit and fissure caries 5. Axiofaciogingival
progression is illustrated below. 6. Axiolinguogingival

49. The gold alloys used for casting

contain at least percent of precious
metals
a) 55%
b) 65%
c) 75%
d) 85%

Rationale: According to ADA

Specification no. 5
50. If a gold alloy has a fineness of 750, it
has how many carats?
a) 14
b) 16
c) 18
d) 20

Rationale: A 24 carat gold is

pure gold and the equivalent of 1000 fine.

48. In MO preparation, there are how 51. What ADA Specification number is for
many point angles? casting investments for dental gold
a) 2 alloys?
b) 4 a. 1
c) 6 b. 2
d) 8 c. 3
Rationale: A point angle is a d. 4
junction of three walls forming a e. 5
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
Rationale: The American Dental
Association (ADA) Specification
54. Which is true about hardness?
No. 2 for casting investments for
dental gold alloys encompasses a. Predicts the wear resistance of a
three types of investments. (Type material and its ability to abrade
I, II, III). The types are opposing dental structures
determined by whether the b. Based on its ability to accept
appliance to be fabricated is scratching
fixed or removable, and the c. Yield to indentation
method of obtaining the d. B & C only
expansion is required to e. All of the above
compensate for the contraction
Rationale: Hardness pertains to
of the molten gold alloy during
Choice A; Choice B and Choice C
solidification.
is a negation of the
characteristics of hardness which
52. Geriatric population group considered are: Based on its ability to RESIST
as the young-old: scratching and RESISTANCE to
a. 55-64 years old indentation.
b. 65-74 years old
c. 75-84 years old
d. 85 years and above 55. What is added to render the surface of
e. None of the above impression hydrophilic?

a) Base
Rationale: Ages 65-74 are
considered to be young old. Old for b) Catalyst
75-84 years old and old-old for 85 c) Plasticizer
years and above. d) Surfactant
e) Reactors
53. Special problems that will have a high
dental impact on the geriatric patient
EXCEPT: Rationale: Surfactant allows the
a. lack of adaptive potential impression material to wet soft
b. poor plaque control
tissue better and tbe poured in
c. root caries
d. periodontal breakdown and levels stone more effectively.
of toothwear.
e. None of the above
f. All of the above 56. Enamel bonding in the placement of
resin restoratives:
Rationale: All will have a high dental
impact to geriatric patients. a. greatly reduces marginal leakage
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
b. conserves tooth structure c. ability of the material to prevent
c. gives complete permanency to the postoperative discomfort
restoration d. effect of material in clinical
d. results in a smooth surface finish success of restoration
with composite e. all of the above

Rationale: Marginal leakage is Rationale: The reason for using

essentially eliminated if the enamel bonding traditional liners of bases is to either protect
technique is utilized in conjunction with the pulp or aid the pulp in recovery or both.
placement of a composite. The preparation
outline form for reception may be minimal. 59. If a body is placed under a load that
Even if a glazed would be applied its tends to shorten it, the internal
longevity is limited and the basic underlying resistance to such a load is called:
composite is not an will not remain smooth
nor will it endure permanently.
a. Compressive Stress
57. Setting time of zinc phosphate cement
b. Tensile Stress
may be increased by:
c. Sheer Stress
a. using a slab cooled to just above d. Flexural Stress
the dew point e. None of the above
b. using a lower ratio of liquid to
powder Rationale: The definition pertains to
c. using a longer mixing time compressive stress. It is associated with
d. adding the increments of a powder compressive strain. Example includes
slowly mincing of garlic.
e. a,b,c
f. a,c,d 60. A patient reports a serious allergic
g. b,c,d reaction to Oil of Cloves. Which of the
h. all of the above are correct following cements should be avoided?
a. BIS GMA
Rationale: The more liquid employed b. Glass Ionomer
to the ratio of the powder, the slower is the c. Phosphoric acid
setting rate. d. Ethoxybenzoic acid
e. Zinc oxide eugenol
58. In selecting intermediate base the 61. Which of the following statements is true
following criteria should be regarding Class IV Composite
considered: restorations?
a) A final veneer layer of microfilled
a. ability of the material to protect resin will help create a smooth,
the pulp glossy surface.
b. It is recommended to use retentive
b. ability of the material to
pins for support on Class IV
eliminate postoperative discomfort
restorations.
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
c. No answer apply
d. Tooth fragments should never be
reattached to the remaining tooth
structure
62. To extend the life of a tungsten carbide
bur, the bur should
a) Be moving fast before contacting
tooth structure
b. Be moving slow before contacting
tooth structure
c. Contacting tooth structure before
rotating
d. Be sterilized with heat sterilization
63. The perceived form of a restoration is
affected by its surface characteristics in
which of the following?
a) Surface smoother than usual will give
the impression of a larger size
b. Teeth appear smaller when the
value is increased
c. The illusion of increased length
can be achieved with horizontal
highlights
d. The illusion of increased width can
be achieved with vertical highlights
64. Each of the following is an indication for
the placement of placing a base except
one. Which is the exception?
a) All answer apply
b. Prevent or decrease marginal
leakage
c. Prevent other dental materials
form irritating the pulp
d. Replacing missing tooth structure
e. Thermal protection for the pulp
65. Each of the following is an indication for
the placement of placing a base except
one. Which is the exception?
a. All answer apply
b. Prevent or decrease marginal leakage
c. Prevent other dental materials form
irritating the pulp
d. Replacing missing tooth structure
e. Thermal protection for the pulp
66. Each of the ff is an advantage of using
the acid-etch technique for composite
resin restorations with minimal cavity
preparations except one.
a) Improved esthetic outcomes
b. Improved retention of the
restoration
c. Maximum conservation of tooth
structure
d. Improved access for finishing of
the restoration
67. Which of the following does not damage
soft tissue?
a) Home bleaching tx
b. Placement of a matrix band in a
tofflemire
c. Placement of gingival retraction
cord
d. Use of an interproximal carver
e. Topical fluoride treatment
68. Each of the following statements
regarding sealants is true except one.
Which is the exception?
a) They are considered a non invasive
procedure
b. They perform as a physical barrier
c. They prevent biofilm from
collecting within a pit or fissure
d. They should be used on all
patients teeth
69. Each of the following statements
regarding sealants is true except one.
Which is the exception?
a) They are considered a non invasive
procedure
b. They perform as a physical barrier
c. They prevent biofilm from
collecting within a pit or fissure
d. They should be used on all
patients teeth
70. Which of the statement is correct?
a) All answer is correct
b. Finish diamond burs impart less
surface damage than carbide burs
c. Metamerism aids the dentist while
selecting a shade
d. Rebonding decreases both
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
marginal integrity and color stability
e. Retentive pins should be used in
class IV restorations
71. If a rubberdam is abnormally wrinkled
between teeth, the probable reason is…
a) Overlapping and/or crowding of the
teeth involved
b. Teeth with abnormally broad
contacts
c. The holes were punched too
closely
d. The holes were punched too far
e. The holes were not punched large
enough
72. Each of the ff is a criteria when
determining the effectiveness of a visible
light-curing unit except one.
a) Fluoride releasing ability of the
composite being cured
b. Light exposure time
c. Shade of composite
d. Wavelength
73. A carious lesion is detected clinically and
is confirmed radiographically extending
from the distal pit to the central fossa
along the central groove of tooth #36.
The planned amalgam preparation and
restpration should…
a) Extend from the distal pit to the
central fossa along the central
groove. It should include any enamel
undermined by the removal of
carious tooth structure.
b. Extend from the distal pit to the
mesial pit, along the central groove
c. Extend from the distal pit to the
mesial pit, along the central groove.
Buccal and lingual extension should
be prepared as well, from the central
fossa along the buccal and lingual
grooves
d. Span the entire occlusal surface,
along the central groove, including
both the mesial and distal marginal
ridges.
74. After recurrent class V caries were found
on a molar that extends subgingivally,
crown lengthening surgery was
performed to expose 3+mm of root
structure. The best design feature would
include
a) Cervical line must be established in
the restoration
b. The gingival margin of the
restoration must be placed at the
new gingival line
c. The gingival restorative margin
should be move apically until it is in
sound tooth structure
d. The restoration should be over
contoured to maintain the protection
the gingival provided by buccal bulge
of the crown
75. Each of the following are TRUE regarding
self-curing sealants except ONE..
Benzoyl peroxide or aromatic tertiary amines
are components
b. Late manipulation may disrupt
polymerization
c. They cure by an endothermic reaction
d. They have 2 components
76. sIntra-enamel preparation (or the
roughening of the surface in under-
contoured areas) before placing a
veneer is recommended for the
following reasons:
I. To provide space for bonding
and veneering materials for
maximal esthetics without over-
contouring
II. To remove the outer, fluoride-
rich layer of enamel that may be
more resistant to acid-etching
III. To create a rough surface for
improved bonding
IV. To establish a definite finish line
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, III, IV
c. II, III, IV
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
d. I, IV c) Quality of the restorative
material -blocks of “machinable
ceramics” or “machinable
77. The lightening of the color of a tooth
composites” specifically for
through the application of a chemical
computer-assisted milling
agent to oxidize the organic
devices.
pigmentation in the tooth is referred to
d) None of the above
as:
a. Sodium perborate
83. The rubber dam is removed before all
b. Polymethyl methacrylate
of the excess resin cement has been
c. Walking bleach
removed, marginal integrity has been
d. Bleaching
verified, and the restoration has been
polished, as needed.
78. Pulpal protection requires consideration
a) True
of the following except:
b) False
a. Mechanical protection
c) Maybe
b. Thermal Protection
c. Pulpal Medication
84. In indirect tooth restorations, the
d. All of the above
occlusal portion of the preparation
e. None of the above
should be 2mm deep. Isthmus should
be at least 2mm wide to decrease the
79. Attrition of the incisal edges causes
possibility of fracture of the restoration.
closed incisal embrasures and angular
a) The first statement is correct, the
incisal edges.
second is wrong.
a. True
b) The first statement is wrong, the
b. False
second is correct.
c. Maybe
c) Both correct.
d) Both wrong.
80. Other term for color modifiers…
a. Hue 85. These are contraindications of tooth
b. Value colored restoration except:
c. Tints a) Heavy occlusal forces
d. Chroma
b) Deep subgingival preparation
c) Inability to maintain a dry field
81. These are causative factors of intrinsic
discoloration except: d) Large defects or previous
I. Iron deficiency restorations
II. High fevers
III. Excess fluoride 86. These are the artistic elements of
IV. Hereditary disorders conservative esthetic procedure except:
a. I, II, III a) Large restoration
b. I, II, IV b) Translucency
c. II, III, IV c) Shape or form
d. I, III, IV d) Position and alignment

82. These are disadvantages of chairside 87. What is Eame’s Technique in

CAD/CAM except: manipulating amalgam?
a) High initial cost a) Do not use squeeze cloth
b) Need for special training technique for low Hg-alloy
mixture
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
b) Use squeeze cloth technique for
low Hg-alloy mixture
c) Do not use squeeze cloth
technique for high Hg-alloy mixture
d) Use squeeze cloth technique for
high Hg-alloy mixture
88. Which is NOT true about Low Copper
Amalgam?
a) Contains 6% copper
b) Eliminates Gamma 2 resulting to
a superior property of amalgam.
c) Larger concentration of Tin-
Mercury (Sn-Hg) cmpd which are
responsible for increased
susceptibility to corrosion
d) Softer than the rest of the amalgam
resulting to deformation or occlusal
stress
89. Which is not an element contained in
an amalgam which improves strength
and corrosion resistance?
a) Palladium
b) Indium
c) Copper
d) None of the above
90. Which is NOT true about glass
ionomers?
a) Mechanically adhesive has the
more biocompatible
characteristic of polyacrylic acid
b) Powder: Aluminosilicate glass and
fluoride
c) Liquid: Polyacrylic acid
d) Hybrids of silicate and
polycarboxylate cement
91. An ACCEPTABLE medicament for
treating sensitive eroded areas in
anterior teeth is
a. phenol
b. precipitated silver nitrate
c. eugenol or other essential
oils
d. a paste composed of sodium
fluoride, kaolin, and glycerin
e. a ten percent stannous
fluoride solution
92. A cavity prepared for a powdered gold
restoration on the proximal surface of
an anterior tooth always
a. includes the contact area
b. extends beneath the crest of
the gingival tissue
c. contains a 2-planed lingual
wall and a 2-planed facial
wall
d. ends in the facial embrasure
to facilitate finishing and
maintenance of the margins
e. has enamel walls which meet
the surface of the tooth by
following the general
direction of the enamel rods
93. . Class II cavities prepared for cast gold
differ from those prepared for
amalgam in
a. principles of proximal
extension
b. principles of resistance form
c. use of hand cutting
instruments
d. use of bevels
94. A patient has a toothache.
Radiographs show a deep carious
lesion. There is no detectable pulpal
exposure upon excavation of decay.
The best treatment as this time is
a. direct pulp capping
b. root canal therapy
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
c. a permanent restoration
after placing a suitable base
d. placement of a zinc
phosphate cement
temporary restoration
e. placement of two coats of
cavity varnish and an
amalgam restoration
95. . A patient complains of sensitivity in a
mandibular premolar. A well-
condensed Class V amalgam restoration
was placed in that tooth five months
previously, with no discomfort for the
first four months. Since then, it has
become increasingly sensitive. The
problem probably relates to:
a. marginal leakage
b. fractured restoration
c. irreversible pulpal damage
d. toothbrush abrasion
e. none of the above
96. . A decrease in which of the following
properties of saliva is likely to cause a
decrease in caries activity?
a. pH
b. flow
c. viscosity
d. minimal content
e. buffering capacity
97. . one of the claims for the superiority of
composite resin restoration over
silicate cement restorations is that the
resin restorations
a. prevent galvanic reaction
b. are practically insoluble in
oral fluids
c. adapt to the walls of the
cavity better
d. have a higher coefficient of
thermal expansion
e. expedite galvanic action
98. Cohesion of direct filling gold at room
temperature is an example of the
principle of
a. wedging
b. annealing
c. adaptability
d. atomic attraction
e. differentiation
99. . A casting is maintained in position on
the tooth during chewing load primarily
by virtue of
a. cement seal
b. retention and resistance
forms
c. sharp cavosurface angle
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
100. . An MO amalgam restoration is
more resistant to fracture if
a. pins are placed in the dentin
of the cavity preparation
b. an occlusal dovetail is
present
c. the unsupported enamel at
the gingivo- cavosurface
margin is planed
d. the axio- pulpal line angle
angle is beveled
e. the axio-pulpal line angle is
reduced
101. the permanent teeth which exhibit
the HIGHEST incidence of dental
carious involvement are the
a. maxillary first molars
b. maxillary second molars
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
c. mandibular central incisors 105. . Basically, the faciolingual plane of
d. mandibular second the axial wall of a Class II cavity
premolars preparation should be
102. The optimal amount of fluoride for a. parallel to the dentino-
public drinking water of most enamel junction
communities is ___ ppm. b. placed at the dentino-
a. 0.7 enamel junction
b. 0.8 c. straight
c. 1.0 d. concave
d. 2.0 106.Acid-etching, removes the smear layer,
e. 4.0 opens the dentinal tubules, and
103. When pins are included in an demineralizes the intertubular and
amalgam restoration, there is an peritubular dentin. Drying the area is
increase in not necessary before it’s done.
I. retention a. 1st statement is correct
b. 2nd statement is correct
II. compressive strength
c. Both statements are correct
III. tensile strrength
d. Both statements are incorrect
the correct answer is: 107.In laser restorative dentistry Er:Yag
laser is attracted to haemoglobin and
a. I only melanin. Er:YAG laser is also suited for
b. I, II use in hard tissue treatment.
c. I, III a. 1st statement is correct
d. all of the above b. 2nd statement is correct
104. Strength properties of zinc oxide- c. Both statements are correct
eugenol cements for permanent d. Both statements are incorrect
cementation are upgraded by which of 108.Diode lasers allow the practitioner to
the following agents: remove gingival tissue to expose root
I. Feldspar caries, esthetically recontour gingival
II. Polymers tissues, to treat periodontal pockets and
III. Ortho- ethoxybenzoic acid a range of other applications that
IV. zinc acetate present daily in the typical practice. It
has superior coagulation benefits.
the correct answer is: a. 1st statement is correct
b. 2nd statement is correct
a. I,II
c. Both statements are correct
b. I, III
d. Both statements are incorrect
c. II, III 109.Caries lesion located at the gingival 3rd
d. II, IV of anterior teeth is classified as Class V
e. III, IV in G.V Black Classification. In treating
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
the case placement of Calcium
Hydroxide if mandatory to avoid
sensitivity.
a) 1st statement is correct
b) 2nd statement is correct
c) Both statements are correct
d) Both statements are incorrect
110.Caries found in the mesioocclusal
marginal ridge of maxillary first molar
and was classified as Class 1 dental
caries lesion in G.V black classification.
It is then classified as Class II caries
lesion when it as lingual or buccal pit
involvement.
a) 1st statement is correct
b) 2nd statement is correct
c) Both statements are correct
d) Both statements are incorrect
111.ICDAS stands for International Carious
Dentin Assessment System. It has 6
codes.
a) 1st statement is correct
b) 2nd statement is correct
c) Both statements are correct
d) Both statements are incorrect
112.In ICDAS if the tooth is healthy and
frees from any carious lesions it is
classified as code 1. Placement of
sealant is an optional treatment.
a) 1st statement is correct
b) 2nd statement is correct
c) Both statements are correct
d) Both statements are incorrect
113.In esthetic dentistry, microabrasions are
done in patients with orthodontic
problem to increase bond strength and
avoid chipping of restorative filling
material. Microabrasion are done using
any types of burs.
a) 1st statement is correct
b) 2nd statement is correct
c) Both statements are correct
d) Both statements are incorrect
114.The use of hydrogen peroxide as
bleaching agent is safer than using
carbamide peroxide. Because the
hydrogen peroxide has bigger particles
compare to carbamide peroxide.
a) 1st statement is correct
b) 2nd statement is correct
c) Both statements are correct
d) Both statements are incorrect
115.Bleaching has no effect in filing
materials. The shade of the filling
material will still follow the shade of
the teeth when bleaching was done.
a) 1st statement is correct
b) 2nd statement is correct
c) Both statements are correct
d) Both statements are incorrect
116.Amalgam filling material is better
compare to composite in longevity.
Amalgam also has excellent wear
resistance compare to composite.
a) 1st statement is correct
b) 2nd statement is correct
c) Both statements are correct
d) Both statements are incorrect
117.Amalgam filling is composed of silver
that increases strength, corrosion and
expansion. It also contains tin that
increases strength and hardness.
a) 1st statement is correct
b) 2nd statement is correct
c) Both statements are correct
d) Both statements are incorrect
118.In Class Two cavity preparation round,
straight and inverted burs are used.
Round bur is used to create initial depth
measured 1mm in cavity preparation.
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
a) 1st statement is correct d. The amalgam was not condensed with
nd the recommended pressure
b) 2 statement is correct
c) Both statements are correct e. The amalgam was condensed after its
d) Both statements are incorrect working time elapsed
119.Sex, age and complexion are factors to
consider in shade selection. Shade 123. Which type of glass filler is the most
selection in canine is avoided because radiopaque?
of prominent color appearance. a. Barium
a) 1st statement is correct b. Quartz
b) 2nd statement is correct c. Silicate
c) Both statements are correct d. Fumed silica
d) Both statements are incorrect
124. The day after a routine Class V composite
120. Fluoride release, esthetics and high
was placed, the patient reports discomfort
bond strength are the advantages of a
from the tooth. Which of the following is
Glass Ionomer cement. Glass Ionomer
most likely responsible for this complaint?
Cement type 1 can be use in class V
a. No liner or based used
restoration.
b. Over-etching with phosphoric acid
a) 1st statement is correct
c. Too deep an axial depth of the
b) 2nd statement is correct
preparation
c) Both statements are correct
d. Exposure of root dentin during the
d) Both statements are incorrect
finishing procedures

121. A freshly condensed Class II amalgam

125. Which of the following factors is of
restoration has a deficient margin at the
greatest importance in selecting a
proximogingival cavosurface angle. This
restorative material for a Class V cavity on
might have been caused by which of the
the facial surface of a mandibular
following?
premolar?
a. Overtightening the matrix band
a. Reaction of gingival tissue
b. Neglecting to wedge the matrix band
b. Resistance to stress
c. Neglecting to contour the matrix band
c. Ease of manipulation
d. Using too large an initial increment of
d. Esthetics
amalgam

126. A patient complains that a tooth with

122. A newly condensed amalgam restoration
recently placed large MOD restoration is
seems to chip away when being carved.
tender to mastication and exhibits
What is the likely cause of this problem?
occasional thermal sensitivity. Which of the
a. A low-copper alloy was used
following is the most likely cause?
b. Moisture contamination occurred
a. Microleakage
c. The alloy was incompletely wetted with
b. Recurrent caries
mercury
c. Gingival recession
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
d. Premature occlusion
127. Before beginning tooth preparation, the
dentist should visualize the outline form to
a. Establish the convenience form
b. Establish the resistance and retention
form
c. Prevent overcutting and overextension
d. Aid in the finish of enamel walls and
margins
128. A dentist inadvertently sealed a small
carious lesion in the occlusal surface of a
maxillary first molar. This would most likely
result in
a. Arrested caries
b. Extension of caries
c. Discoloration of the tooth
d. Increased microleakage
129. Each of the following determines the
outline form for a Class III composite
restoration EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION?
a. Convenience for access
b. Extension for prevention
c. Size, shape, and location of caries
d. None of the above
130. After a dentist has completed an etching
procedure on a Class III composite
preparation, the preparation becomes
contaminated with saliva. In response, the
dentist should do which of the following?
a. Blow away the saliva with air, then
proceed.
b. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the
preparation, then proceed
c. Wipe away the saliva with a cotton
pellet, rinse the preparation with water,
dry it with air then proceed
d. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the
preparation with air, then repeat the
etching procedure
131. How should the margins of a dental
amalgam restoration be trimmed?
a. By carving along the margins with a
sharp instrument that rests on the tooth
surface
b. By carving from the restoration to the
tooth with a sharp instrument
c. By carving from the tooth to the
restoration with a sharp instrument
d. By burnishing from the tooth to the
restoration until the amalgam is trimmed
to the margin
132. In preparing a Class I cavity for dental
amalgam, the dentist will diverge the
mesial and distal walls toward the occlusal
surface. This divergence serves to
a. Prevent undermining of the marginal
ridges
b. Provide convenience form
c. Resist the forces of mastication
d. Extend the preparation into areas more
readily forward
133. Each of the following describes the
properties of improved zinc oxide-eugenol
materials EXCEPT one. Which one is this
exception?
a. They provide an excellent marginal seal
b. They have a palliative effect on the
dental pulp
c. They have thermal insulation qualities
that compare to those of dentin
d. They are easily removed from the cavity
preparation
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
134. A patient presents with slight chipping of
the enamel along the incisal edges of teeth
#8 and #9. When choosing between
restoring the incisal edges or reshaping by
selective grinding, which of the following
important factors should the dentist
consider?
a. Location of proximal contacts
b. Shape of incisal embrasures
c. Amount of translucent enamel present
d. All of the above
135. The reduction of which of the following
represents the MOST significant advantage
of the acid-etch technique?
a. Microleakage
b. Pulpal irritation
c. Setting shrinkage of the matrix
d. Coefficient of thermal expansion
136. These are the artistic elements except:
a. shape or form b.
symmetry and
proportionality c.position
and alignment d. all of the
above* e. none of the
above
137. These are the artistic element for a youthful,
feminine smile except:
a. round incisal angle b.
more close incisal angles*
c.soften facial line angles
d. all of the above e. none
of the above
138. These are the artistic element for a masculine
smile except:
a. Prominent, less rounded incisal
angles b. prominent facial line
angle c. open incisal and facial
embrasures d. soften facial line
angle e. C and D*
139. States that a smile when viewed from the front
is considered to de esthetically pleasing if each
tooth in that smile (starting from midline) is
approximately 60% of the size of the tooth
immediately mesial to it.
a. position and alignment b. shape or
form c. Golden proportion d.
Euclid’s element e. C and D*
140. In Metamerism the problem in color perception
occurs due to:
a. different perception of color
produced by various light
sources. b. effect of the
surrounding environment. c.
Physiologic limitations of the
eye – extended viewing – color
fatigue- loss of sensitivity to
yellow and orange shade. d. all
of the above* e. none of the
above
141. It relates to the degree of how deeply light
penetrates into the tooth o restoration before
the light is reflected outward.
a. color b. translucency* c.
Both A and B d. none of
the above
142. These are used to create illusions of
translucency to enhance realism of restoration:
incorporated in the restoration to stimulate
maverick colors, check lines or surface spots for
further characterization.
a) Color b. shade selection c. Color
modifiers(tints)*
143. In question number 7, what color that reduces,
brightness and intensity of underlying yellow
dentin?
a) violet b. blue* c. green d. pink
144. A video image of the prepared tooth is
displayed to ensure proper positioning of the
scanning device.
a) CAD/CAM b. Optimal impression* c. cerec
system
145. These are the indication of indirect tooth-
colored restoration EXCEPT:
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
a) large defects or previous restoration b. preparation for composite and for
esthetics c. heavy occlusal forces* amalgam is in:
146. These are the contraindication of indirect
tooth-colored restoration EXCEPT: a) Proximal box
a) inability to maintain a dry field b. deep b) Pulpal wall
subgingival preparation c. large defects* c) Axial wall depth
147. These are the advantages of indirect tooth- d) None of the above
colored restoration EXCEPT:
a) improved physical properties b. wear
resistance c. increase auxillary support d.
NOTA* 153. Proper pulpal depth of all restoration may
148. These are the disadvantage of indirect tooth-
colored restoration EXCEPT:
be considered as:
a) increase cost and time b. technique a) Convenience form
sensitivity c. short clinical track record d. b) Outline form
reduced polymerization shrinkage c) Retention form
149. An intracoronal dental restoration, made
outside the oral cavity to conform to the d) Resistance form
prepared cavity, which restores some of the e) None of the above
occlusal surface of a tooth, but does not
restore any cusp tip.
a) crown b. inlay* c. onlay
154. Resistance forms is the ability to withstand
150. A dental restoration made outside the oral
cavity that covers one or more cusp tips and masticatory stress and this is established
adjoining occlusal surfaces but not the entire by:
external surface. a) Bulk of the restorative material
151. ZINC OXIDE AND EUGENOL SHOULD NOT b) Strength of the restorative materials
BE USED UNDER: c) Compressiveness
a) Porcelain filling material d) Compactness
b) A resin filling material
c) Gold inlays
d) Amalgam restorations 155. A newly condensed amalgam restoration
e) None of the above seems to chip away when being carved.
What is the likely cause of this problem?
a) A low-copper alloy was used
152. Silicate Cements is: b) Moisture contamination occurred
a) Do produce an irritating effect on c) The alloy was incompletely wetted
pulp with mercury
b) Do not produce an irritating effect on d) The amalgam was not condensed with
pulp the recommended pressure
c) Are harmless e) The amalgam was condensed after its
d) Are innocuous working time elapsed
e) None of the above

156. Gingival cavosurface margin is beveled in a

1. 3.. A notable difference in class II cavity class II cavity for amalgam restoration to:
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
a) Get a lap joint on the cavosurface
angle
b) Remove the unsupported enamel
rods
c) Get burnishable thickness of amalgam
d) Move the cavosurface away from the
contact
157. Affected dentin differs from infected
dentin in that it has:
a) Been invaded by microorganisms
b) Are precisely the same
c) Not been invaded by microorganisms
d) A soft texture
e) None of the above
158. Streptococcus mutans is considered to be a
principal etiologic agent of caries because
it produces organic acids and it:
a) Forms a gelatinous matrix
b) Derives energy from constituents
c) Metabolizes substrate from saliva
d) Lives symbiotically with Lactobacillus
acidophilus
159. Restorative pins for amalgam restoration
should be placed:
i. As close to the DEJ as possible
ii. In multiple numbers for retention
iii. In line with the long axis of the
tooth
iv. Parallel to the external surface of
the tooth
160. The mesial and distal walls of a class I
amalgam preparation should diverge
slightly
2. towards the occlusal surface to:
i. provide convenience form
ii. provide resistance form
iii. afford support for the mesial and
distal marginal ridges
iv. make condensing of the amalgam
easier
161. The position of the gingival margin of a
class II amalgam preparation is dictated
primarily by:
i. aesthetics
ii. the location of the gingival margin
iii. the extent of carious lesion
iv. the thickness of the enamel
162. Which line angle below is rounded when
preparing a class II amalgam preparation
i. axiobuccal
ii. axiolingual
iii. axiopulpal
iv. none of the above
163. During the preparation of a Class II cavity,
which of the following permanent teeth
pulp horns will be the most subject to
accidental exposure?
i. Distofacial of a maxillary first
molar.
ii. Facial of a mandibular first
premolar.
iii. Distofacial of a mandibular first
molar.
iv. Lingual of a mandibular first
premolar.
164. Which of the following is the most effective
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
way to reduce injury to the pulp during a
restorative procedure?
i. Prepare dentin with slow-speed
burs.
ii. Use anesthetics without
vasoconstrictors
iii. Minimize dehydration of the
dentinal surface.
iv. Keep the dentinal surface clean
by frequent irrigation.
165. In Class II cavity preparation for amalgam,
the primary retention form is provided by:
i. occlusal convergence of facial and
lingual walls
ii. dovetail design
iii. coving the internal line angles
iv. both A & B
166. 1..Reasons for incorporating an enamel
cavosurface bevel in preparations for
bonded, direct, composite restorations:
167. 1, provides more surface area for bonding
168. 2, allows for the more preferred end-on
etching of the enamel rods.
169. 3, increase retention
170. 4, reduce leakage
171. 5, provide greater potential for
strengthening the remaining tooth
structure
A. 1,2,3,4 B. 2,3,4,5 C. 1,2,3,5
D. 1,2,4,5 E. 1,2,3,4,5
172. .Basic preparation designs most frequently
used for tooth-colored restorations of Class
II cavities:
A. conventional cavity design C.
modified design
B. beveled conventional design D.
both A & B E. both B & C
3.Resistance forms is the ability to
withstand masticatory stress and this is
established by:
a) Bulk of the restorative material
b) Strength of the restorative materials
c) Compressiveness
d) Compactness
173. Capping of cusp/s should be considered
for an onlay restoration when:
a) Occlusal outline is extended up to the
cusp slopes more than ¼ the distance from
the primary grooves to the cusp tip
b) Occlusal outline is extended up to the
cusp slopes more than 2/3 the distance
from the primary grooves to the cusp tip
c) Occlusal outline is extended up to
the cusp slopes more than ½ the distance
from the primary grooves to the cusp tip
d) Occlusal outline is extended up to
the cusp slopes more than 1/3 the distance
from the primary grooves to the cusp tip
174. Setting time of zinc phosphate cement
may be increased by:
a. using a slab cooled to just above
the dew point
b. using a lower ratio of liquid to
powder
c. using a longer mixing time
d. adding the increments of a powder
slowly
e. a,b,c
f. a,c,d
g. b,c,d
h. all of the above are correct
175. patient reports a serious allergic reaction
to Oil of Cloves. Which of the following
cements should be avoided?
a. BIS GMA
b. Glass Ionomer
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
c. Phosphoric acid d. Result in fracture after setting
d. Ethoxybenzoic acid e. None of the above
e. Zinc oxide eugenol 180. The greatest single factor in the strength
176. In selecting intermediate base the of a final amalgam restoration is:
following criteria should be considered: a. The residual mercury content
b. The lead content
a. ability of the material to protect the c. The silver content
pulp d. The copper content
b. ability of the material to eliminate
postoperative discomfort e. All of the above
c. ability of the material to prevent 181. Periodontal objectives prior to restorative
postoperative discomfort dentistry procedures are
d. effect of material in clinical success of a. Elimination of all diseased gingival
restoration attachments with the resultant crevicular
e. all of the above depth as close to zero as possible
b. Elimination of all diseased root
177. For amalgam restoration, the most structure utilizing resection techniques
frequent complaint of pain right after c. Elimination of all etiological factors
placement is associated with: responsible for periodontal disease
d. A and B
a. Cold e. A and C
b. Galvanism f. None of the above
c. Heat 182. In a Class II, MO inlay preparation the
d. Biting pressure gingival bevel should be placed at :
178. A gold inlay restoration has which of the a.) 40 – 60 degrees
following advantage? b.) 60 – 75 degrees
1 close adaption to cavity walls c.) 30 – 45 degrees
2. Indestructibility in oral fluids d.) 15 – 30 degrees
3. No volume change after placement 183. A cavosurface angle of prepared cavity is :

A.the angle of two walls along a line

A. 1 and 2
B. the angle formed by the junction of three
B. B. 2 and 3 walls
C. C. 1 and 3
C. the junction of the walls of cavity with
D. D 1,2 and 3
the surface of the tooth
179. Overtrituration of alloy and mercury will:
D.all of the above
a. Result in shrinkage of the mass
E.none of the above
during set
14. The retention form in an amalgam
b. Result in expansion of mass during
restoration
set
A.· Is always parallel to the horizontal axis
c. Cause no shrinkage during set
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
B.·Should be parallel to the roof of the 190. A notable difference in Class II cavity
pulp chamber preparation for composite and for
C.·Neither of the above amalgam preparation is in:
a) Proximal box
184. different types of restorative material
b) Pulpal wall
A. are placed in the same cavity outline c) Axial wall depth
extensions d) None of the above
B. Are used with different cavity outline 191. Zinc oxide eugenol should not be used
extensions under:
C. can be mixed in the same cavity a) Porcelain filling material
preparation b) Resin filling material
c) Gold inlays
D. should never be used on the same
d) Amalgam restorations
tooth. e) None of the above
185. The reduction of which the following 192. Capping of cusp/s should be considered for
represents the most significant advantage an onlay restoration when:
of acid-etch technique? a) Occlusal outline is extended up to the
a) Microleakage cusp slopes more than ¼ the distance
b) Pulpal irritation from the primary grooves to the cusp
c) Setting shrinkage of the matrix tip
d) Coefficient of thermal expansion b) Occlusal outline is extended up to the
186. In a Class III composite preparation, cusp slopes more than 2/3 the
retention should be placed: distance from the primary grooves to
a) In the axial wall the cusp tip
b) At the DEJ c) Occlusal outline is extended up to the
c) Entirely in dentin cusp slopes more than ½ the distance
d) At the expense of facial and lingual from the primary grooves to the cusp
walls, but not the axial wall tip
187. Proper pulpal depth of all restoration may d) Occlusal outline is extended up to the
be considered as: cusp slopes more than 1/3 the
a) Convenience form distance from the primary grooves to
b) Outline form the cusp tip
c) Retention form 193. Which of the following represent the
d) Resistance form fundamental grasp/s for hand instruments:
e) None of the above a) Pen grasp
188. The axial wall of the Class V cavity b) Inverted pen grasp
preparation is: c) Modified palm and thumb grasp
a) Flat d) Palm and thumb grasp
b) Concave e) All of the above
c) Convex 194. Resons for incorporating an enamel
d) Convex only incisocervically cavosurface bevel in preparations for
189. The restorative material that is bonded, direct composite restorations:
anticarcinogenic is: I. Provides more surface area for
a) Composite Resin bonding
b) Dental Amalgam II. Allows for more preferred end-
c) Calcium Hydroxide on etching of the enamel rods
d) Glass Ionomer cement III. Increase retention
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
IV. Reduce leakage 200. The metal in dental amalgam alloy in which
V. Provide greater potential for mercury would dissolve maximum is:
strengthening the remaining a) Silver
tooth structure b) Tin
A. I, II, III, IV c) Copper
B. II, III, IV, V d) Zinc
C. I, II, III, V 201. The ideal enamel-amalgam interface
D. I, II, IV, V a) butt-joint
E. I, II, III, IV, V b) lap-joint
195. Basic preparation designs most frequently
c) sliding lap-joint
used for tooth-colored restorations of Class
II cavities: d) sliding butt-joint
a) Conventional cavity design
b) Beveled conventional design 202. Sensitivity can be felt in enamel due to the
c) Modified design presence of
d) Both A & B a. enamel lamellae
e) Both B & C b. enamel tufts
196. The gingival-to-occlusal divergence per wall
c. enamel spindles
from the line draw of an inlay or onlay
tooth preparation is: d. enamel sheath
a) 2-3 degrees
b) 2-4 degrees 203. Restorative pins for amalgam restoration
c) 2-5 degrees should be placed:
d) 3-5 degrees a. As close to the DEJ as possible
e) None of the above b. In multiple numbers for retention
197. Shallow retention grooves on facioaxial
c. In line with the long axis of the tooth
and linguoaxial line angles are usually
indicated if tooth is short for inlay/onlay d. Parallel to the external surface of the
restoration, this can be achieved by using: tooth
a) #33 ½
b) #253 204. Alloy-Hg ratio volumetrically
c) #169L a. 1:1
d) Flame shaped diamond bur
b. 5:7
e) #271
198. The amount of occlusal marginal metal c. 1:3
bevel for inlay d. 7:5
a) Less than 30 degrees 205. The pulp protection agent contraindicated
b) 30-40 degrees under composites
c) More than 40 degrees
d) None of these a. Calcium hydroxide
199. Which of these principles of the cavity
b. cavity varnish
preparation is of least importance for the
reception of silicate? c. glass ionomer cement
a) Extension for prevention
b) Resistance form d. zinc oxide eugenol
c) Finishing of enamel
d) Debridement
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
206. The mesial and distal walls of a class I c. after the final carving of the
amalgam preparation should diverge restoration
slightly d. none of the above
towards the occlusal surface to:
a. provide convenience form 211. Butt joint margins are recommended in an
b. provide resistance form indirect composite inlay preparation for
c. afford support for the mesial and the following reasons, except:
distal marginal ridges A. beveled margins remove less tooth
d. make condensing of the amalgam structures
easier B. thin beveled margins can break off
during sealing
C. beveled margins are more likely to
fracture under occlusal force
207. The position of the gingival margin of a D. beveled margins are more difficult to
class II amalgam preparation is dictated prepare in the mouth.
primarily by: E. Beveled margins are more difficult to
a. aesthetics finish in the lab.
b. the location of the gingival margin
c. the extent of carious lesion 212. During the preparation of a Class II cavity,
d. the thickness of the enamel which of the following permanent teeth
pulp horns will be the most subject to
208. Which line angle below is rounded when accidental exposure?
preparing a class II amalgam preparation a. Distofacial of a maxillary first molar. C.
a. axiobuccal Distofacial of a mandibular first molar.
b. axiolingual b. Facial of a mandibular first premolar.
c. axiopulpal D. Lingual of a mandibular first premolar.
d. none of the above

209. The outline form of the classical class V 213. Which of the following is the most effective
amalgam preparation is way to reduce injury to the pulp during a
a. square restorative procedure?
b. deformed trapezoid a. Prepare dentin with slow-speed burs.
c. triangle b. Use anesthetics without
d. rectangle vasoconstrictors

210. When is the matrix band removed from c. Minimize dehydration of the dentinal
surface.
the tooth
a. prior to the final carving of the d. Keep the dentinal surface clean by
restoration frequent irrigation.
b. as soon as the amalgam has been
condensed into the prep
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
214. In Class II cavity preparation for amalgam, a) Both statement and the reason are
the primary retention form is provided by: correct and related
a. occlusal convergence of facial and b) Both statement and the reason are
lingual walls correct but not related
b. dovetail design c) The statement is correct, but the
c. coving the internal line angles reason is not
d) The statement is not correct, but the
d. both A & B
reason is correct
e. both B & C
e) Neither the statement nor the reason
is correct
215. Used to prepare a retentive lock in the
220. Which of the following materials can be
axiolingual line angle to enhance retention used to cement a bridge and fill a cervical
form of the proximal box. lesion?
1. #33 ½ 2. #245 3. a) Glass ionomer
#169L 4. # ¼ b) ZOE
A. 1,2,3 B. 1,3,4 C. 1,4 D. c) Zinc polycarboxylate
3,4 E. 3 only. d) Zinc phosphate
216. nThe ideal amount of dentin required 221. When removing caries, which of the
between an amalgam restoration and the following layer of dentin are affected, but
pulp for insulation is: not infected, and therefore do not need to
a) 0.5 mm be removed?
b) 1.0 mm a) Turbid dentin
c) 1.5 mm b) Infected dentin
d) 2.0 mm c) Transparent dentin
217. Class V amalgam restorations rarely require d) Normal dentin
retention grooves, but if they are used, e) Subtransparent dentin
they are placed at the incisoaxial and 222. Which property of filled resins is primarily
gingivoaxial line angles. to blame for the failure of Class II
a) Both statements are true composite restorations?
b) Both statements are false a) Low flexural strength
c) The first statement is true, the second b) Low compressive strength
is false c) Low tensile strength
d) The first statement is false, the d) Low wear resistance
second is true 223. A gold onlay you placed last week fails.
218. What distinguishes a base from a cement, Which of the following reasons is most
and from a cavity liner? likely to responsible for the failure?
a) Final application thickness a) You “capped” the functioning cusp
b) Degree of pulpal protection b) You “shoed” the functioning cusp
c) Biocompatibility of material c) You “capped” the nonfunctioning cusp
d) Degree of hardness d) You “shoed” the nonfunctioning cusp
219. Zinc phosphate cement can cause 224. Rapid cooling(by immersion in water) of
irreversible pulpal damage because it dental casting from high temperature at
shrinks slightly on setting. which it has been shaped is referred to as:
a) Annealing
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
b) Tempering d) The statement is not correct, but the
c) Quenching reason is correct
d) NOTA e) Neither the statement nor the reason
225. High gold alloys used for cast restorations are correct
are: 230. The Young rubber dam is used more than
a) Greater than 20% gold or other noble the Woodbury version, because it provides
metals less soft tissue retraction.
b) Greater than 30% gold or other noble a) Both the statement and reason are
metals correct and related
c) Greater than 50% gold or other noble b) Both the statement and reason are
metals correct but not related
d) Greater than 75% gold or other noble c) The statement is correct, but the
metals reason is not
226. When attempting to remove a hard brittle d) The statement is not correct, but the
material, like amalgam, you would prefer a reason is correct
bur with a: e) Neither the statement nor the reason
a) Zero rake angle are correct
b) Positive rake angle 231. Generally, Glass ionomer cements contain:
c) Negative rake angle a) Zinc oxide and distilled water
227. Which of the following would NOT b) Fluoro alumino-silica powder
necessarily indicate the need for root canal and orthophosphoric acid
treatment or extraction of a carious tooth? c) Zinc oxide and polyacrylic acid
a) Lingering pain after 15 seconds d) Fluoro alumino-silica powder
b) Negative electric pulp test
and polyacrylic acid
c) Frank apical radiolucency
d) Percussion sensitivity
232. If a zinc phosphate cement base is used
228. The ideal amount of time from placing an
when restoring a tooth, when should the
indirect pulp cap until reopening the tooth
to remove the remaining decay is: varnish be applied?
a) 7-10 days a) Prior to placement of the base
b) 2-3 weeks b) After placement of the base
c) 1 month c) Makes no difference when the
d) 3-4 months varnish is applied
e) 1 year d) Varnish should not be used in
229. The most retentive style of pin is the self- conjunction with zinc
threading pins because they are cemented phosphate cement
into pinholes that are smaller than the pin
itself. 233. The thermal insulating capacity of a
a) Both the statement and reason are cement base is principally related to:
correct and related
I. Thickness of the base placed
b) Both the statement and reason are
II. Coefficient of thermal
not correct
expansion of the base
c) The statement is correct, but the
reason is not
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
III. Thermal conductivity of the set a) Dental caries is an infectious
base microbiological disease of the
IV. Powder/ liquid ratio of the teeth that results in localize
cement mix dissolution and destruction of
V. Density of the base placed the calcified tissues
b) The evidence for the role of
a) I, II, III bacteria in the genesis of dental
b) II, IV, V caries is overwhelming
c) I, III, V c) Mutans streptococci is the
d) I, III, IV principal etiological agent of
dental caries
234. The main function of cavity liners is to: d) Organisms which cause caries
a) Act as thermal insulators are called “cariostatic”
b) Provide a barrier against e) Lactic acid produced by
chemical irritation acidogenic bacteria is the main
c) Produce a structural form for cause of enamel decalcification
the cavity preparation
d) Resist forces applied during Topic: Composite
condensation of the restorative
material 238. Which property of filled resins is primarily
to blame for the failure of class II
235. Cavity varnishes used in conjunction with composite restorations?
amalgam restorations: a) Low flexural strength
a) Provide thermal insulation b) Low compressive strength
b) Act as antibacterial agent c) Low tensile strength
c) Promote healing of the pulp d) Low wear resistance
d) Reduce microleakage
239. What mixture of different size particles
allows advantages of higher filler levels and
Topic: Caries good finishing?
236. What is the outermost zone of carious a) Micro-filled resin based
dentin which still capable of composites
remineralization? b) Flowable resin based
a) Normal dentin composites
b) Sub-transparent dentin c) Packable resin based
c) Transparent dentin composites
d) Turbid dentin d) Hybrid resin based composites
e) Infected dentin
240. Which component of a dentin bonding
237. All of the following are true concerning system functions primarily to penetrate
dental caries except: through the remnant smear layer and into
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
the intertubular dentin to form an 245. The minimal reduction of working cusps for
interpenetrating network around dentin protection from the forces of mastication
collagen? should be?
a) Etchant a) 2.5 to 3 mm for both amalgam
b) Primer and cast gold restorations
c) Adhesive b) 1.5 to 2.0 mm for both
d) None of the above amalgam and cast gold
restorations
c) 2 mm for amalgam and 1 mm
Topic: Gold for cast gold restorations
d) 2.5 to 3 mm for amalgam and
241. With respect to onlay preparations, 1.5 mm for cast gold
“Shoeing “ of a functional cusp is: restorations
a) Sometimes indicated
b) Always indicated
c) Never indicated 246. Finish of the enamel margin at the gingival
cavosurface on a cavity prepared for
amalgam is
242. Surrounding the wax pattern with a a) not indicated because of the poor
material which can accurately duplicate its tensile strength of amalgam
shape and anatomical feature is referred to b) accomplished by creating a steep
as: cavosurface bevel
a) Investing c) not required since no stress is placed
b) Burnout on the restoration in the region
d) accomplished by removing all
c) Casting
unsupported enamel rods or prisms
d) Pickling
243. Copper’s major effect on a gold casting 247. Posterior teeth that have been
alloy is: endodontically treated are better restored
a) Corrosion resistance by a cast gold onlay because
b) To increase the hardness a) gold is more aesthetic than amalgam
c) To offset the color b) gold renders the tooth more resistant
to recurrent caries
contributions of copper
c) maximum protection is afforded to
d) To elevate the melting range the tooth
d) gold is likely to disturb gutta percha
244. The process of annealing gold foil is more filled canals than amalgam
commonly referred to as:
a) pickling 248. Stainless steel pins are principally used in
conjunction with amalgam restorations to
b) tempering
enhance the
c) compacting a. retention b. strength c. resistance
d) degassing form d. all of the above

249. Retention form for composite resin

restorations is achieved by
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
a) chemical bond with the tooth
b) adhesion to the enamel and dentin
c) mechanical undercuts
d) all of the above
250. The primary factor in developing the
outline form for a composite restoration is
a) position of the contact
b) relationship of the adjacent tooth
c) esthetics required
d) extent of caries involvement
251. Preparation for porcelain-bonded to metal
restorations should have a
a) shoulder all around the tooth
b) shoulder on the lingual and proximal
chamber on the labial
c) beveled shoulder on the labial
chamfer on the lingual
d) feather edge around entire tooth to
facilitate finishing
252. The margins of a porcelain inlay are fragile
and must be considered in the design of a
class V preparation. This is accomplished
by
a) preparing walls with a labial
convergence
b) preparing walls with a large labial
convergence
c) deepening the axial wall
d) preparing the cavosurface angles to
approximate 90 degrees
253. Gold foil, mat gold, and powdered gold
differ from each other by
a) percentage of pure gold present
b) degree of cohesiveness
c) method of fabrication
d) all of the above
254. A minimal mercury level for amalgam
varies with the brand of alloy used but it
falls within the range of
a) 40-50%
b) 46-53%
c) 50-55%
d) 55-60%
255. Tin is incorporated into an amalgam alloy
for the purpose of
a) increasing expansion and strength
b) reducing expansion and hardness
c) increasing strength
d) acting as a scavenger
256. Most amalgam alloys are comprised of
approximately what percentage of silver?
a) 50%
b) 70%
c) 80%
d) 90%
257. When an amalgam is prepared using the
minimal mercury technique and compared
with a high mercury content technique, it is
found to
a) have low 1-hr strength
b) set less rapidly
c) require less pressure in condensation
d) eliminate the need for a squeeze cloth
258. the principal reason for using a wedge in
conjunction with a matrix preparatory to
condensing a class II amalgam is except:
a) retract the gingival tissue
b) separate the tooth minimally to insure
the creation of a proper contact
c) adapt the matrix band firmly against
the tooth cervical to the gingival
margin
d) none of the above
259. Silver amalgam should be condensed
within 4 minutes following trituration
because
a) excess will be more easily removed
b) the final set takes place within
5minutes
c) time studies indicate that this is the
mose efficient working time
d) beyond this time the residual mercury
retention is markedly increased.
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
260. Commonly used acid for etching teeth in
conjunction with pit and fissure sealant is:
a) hydrochloric acid
b) acetic acid
c) phosphoric acid
d) sulfuric acid
261. The proper zone of gas- air flame used for
melting casting gold alloy is:
a) The zone closest to the nozzle
b) A combination of oxidizing and
reducing zones
c) The reducing zone
d) The oxidizing zone
262. The outline form of the cavity preparation
is:
a) 1st step in cavity preparation after
removal of carious dentin
a. b.final step in cavity
preparation
b. shape of the preparation on the
surface of the tooth
c. shape of the cavity after carious
dentin has been removed
263. The interim restoration of choice for
placement between completion of the
cavity preparation and the seating of the
cast MOD inlay restoration is
a) ZOE
b) zinc phosphate
c) polycarboxylate cement
d) acrylic onlay cemented with ZOE
264. Cavity varnish is desirable under amalgam
restorations because it
a) eliminates the possibility of galvanic
shock
b) improves the marginal seal of the
restoration
c) effective thermal insulator
d) all of the above
265. An interim dressing cement is condensed
down into the pin holes of a pin ledge inlay
preparation because failure to do this will
result in a nonretentive temporary
a) both statement and reason are correct
b) statement is correct but reason is
wrong
c) statement is wrong reasons is correct
d) both statement and reasons are
incorrect
266. Calium hydroxide is regarded as a good
pulp capping agent because
a) the pulp responds by forming
secondary dentin
b) it’s alkaline nature is non irritating to
the pulp
c) creates a better seal than other
materials
d) it has a sedative effect on the pulp
267. When a metal casting is prepared to
receive a porcelain veneer, the interior
angles of the area to be veneered should
a) have sharply defined undercuts to
help retain the porcelain
b) have rounded channels to enhance
porcelain retention
c) not have undercuts but sharply
defined angles for uniform thickness
d) have a rounded interior angles to
enhance adaptation
268. Matrix bands have following essential
characteristics except:
a) Can be contoured accordingly
b) easy to adopt and fix to the teeth
c) yields easily and breaks on the
slightest pressure
d) capable of easy introduction and
removal
269. Compared to unfilled resins, composites
resins have:
a) greater compressive strength
b) less solubility
c) smother finished surface
d) greater color stability
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
270. During condensation the surface hardness
of a direct filling gold
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remains the same
d) increase or decrease in relation force
applied
271. Metal instruments are contraindicated for
use with composite resin because
a) monomer reacts with metal and forms
corrosive products which affect the
final shade
b) metal is abraded by the filler and
discolors the restoration
c) polymer reacts with the metal to
affect shade
d) metal inhibits the polymerization
272. The margin of preparation for casting
should NOT be placed in which of the
following areas:
a) Wear facet
b) Marginal ridge
c) Gingival sulcus
d) Lingual bevel
273. She best surface finish on a composite
resin restoration is created by
a) the 12 fluted finishing burs
b) fine silica grit disks
c) lubricated cuttle disks
d) the matrix band with no additional
finish
274. In an occlusal cavity prepared for amalgam,
facial and lingual walls which slightly
converge occlusally would NOT create
weak enamel margins because:
a) enamel rods forming the margins
would still be full length and
supported on dentin
b) the amalgam will support the enamel
at the margins
c) enamel rods forming the margins need
not be in full length
d) dentin need not be supporting the
rods forming the enamel margin
e) Tome’s fibers would be strengthened
275. In restoring the distal surface of
mandibular first molar, how should the
distal marginal ridge be restored in relation
to the mesial marginal ridge of the
mandibular second molar provided the
maxillary molars are ideally shaped and
aligned?
a) Lower
b) Higher
c) Same height
d) marginal ridges unrelated
e) At right angles
f)
276. In class II cavity preparation for
amalgam, the isthmus usually includes
one fourth of the cusp tip to cusp tip
distance of the tooth. The facial and
lingual walls diverge slightly toward the
occlusal surface.
a) Both statements are true
b) First statement is true, second is
false
c) First statement is false, second is
true
d) Both statements are false
277. All of the following includes in the
resistance form in class I preparation
except;
a) Pulpal floor is flat and smooth and
is perpendicular to the long axis of
the tooth
b) Isthmus width is ¼ the intercuspal
distance
c) Presence of mesial and distal
occlusal dovetails
d) Pulpal floor is 0.5-1.00 mm in
dentin or 1.5 mm
278. These includes the matrix phase of
composite except;
a) EDTA
b) BisGMA
c) TEGDMA
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
d) UDMA
279. Cavity preparation design typical for
class III, IV, V restoration.
a) Modified preparation design
b) Beveled conventional design
c) Box only design
d) Conventional design
280. Advantages of an enamel bevel
1. Increased surface area to be
etched
2. Increases strength of the
composite
3. Stronger enamel-to-resin bond
which increases retention and
reduces marginal microleakage
4. Blends more esthetically with the
coloration of the surrounding
tooth structure
a) 1, 2
b) 1,3, 4
c) 1,4
d) 1,2,3
281. Each of the following can be
achieved with a properly trimmed
wooden wedge except;
a) Provides space for the matrix band
b) Protect the gingival
c) Prevent over-contouring of the
contact
d) Reduce leakage of moisture into
the cavity preparation
282. ZOE cement make good temporary
sedative restorations because their pH
is very basic.
a) Both the statement is correct and
related
b) Both the statement is correct but
not related
c) The statement is correct but the
reason is not
d) The statement is not correct but the
reason is correct
283. The thermal insulating capacity of a
cement base is principally related to:
i. Thickness of the base placed
ii. Coefficient of thermal
expansion of the base
iii. Thermal conductivity of the set
base
iv. Powder/ liquid ratio of the
cement mix
a. v. Density of the base placed
a. I, II, III
b. I, IV, V
c. I, III, V
d. I, III, IV
284. The minimal reduction of working
cusps for protection from the forces of
mastication should be?
a) 2.5 to 3 mm for both amalgam and
cast gold restorations
b) 1.5 to 2.0 mm for both amalgam
and cast gold restorations
c) 2 mm for amalgam and 1 mm for
cast gold restorations
d) 2.5 to 3 mm for amalgam and 1.5
mm for cast gold restorations
285. 10. Retention form for composite
resin restoration in Class III
preaparations is achieved by
a. Sharp, well-defined line angles
b. Parallel walls
c. Rounded undercuts at the
incisal and gingival point angles
d. Sharp, acute point angles at the
incisal, labioaxiogingival , and
linguoaxiogingival
286. In tipping the cups for a complex
amalgam restoration, the cups should
be reduced
a) 0.5-1mm
b) 1.1-5mm
c) 1.5-2mm
d) 2-3mm
e) 3-4mm
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
287. With the total-etch system when
bonding to dentin, one pf the following
statement is true. Which one?
a) The dentin surface should be
thoroughly dried after etching and
rinsing?
b) The surface of the etched,
washed, and dried dentin should
be "glistening"
c) The surface of the prepared dentin
should have visible water droplets
d) Once you have dried the etched
surface, bonding is hopeless
288. All of the following are true
concerning a class V amalgam
preparation except:
a) The outline form is determined
primarily by the located of the
free gingival margin
b) The mesial, distal, gingiva and
incisal walls of the cavity
preparation diverge outward
c) The retention form is provided by
the gingival retension groove along
the gingivoaxial line angle and an
incisal retension groove along the
incisoaxial line angle
d) a cervical clamp is usually to retract
gingival tissue
289. The main function of cavity liners is
to:
a) Act as thermal insulators
b) Provide a barrier against
chemical irritation
c) Produce a structure form for the
cavity preparation
d) Resist forces applied during
condensation of the restoration
material
290. Chisels are used primarily to cut
enamel, hatchets are primarily used to
cut dentin
a) Both statements are true
b) Both statements are false
c) The 1st statement is true, the 2nd
is false
d) The 1st statement is false, the 2nd is
true
291. Streptococcus mutans is considered to be
a principal etiologic agent of caries because
it produces organic acids and it:
A. forms a gelatinous matrix C.
metabolizes substrate from saliva
B. derives energy from constituents
D. lives symbiotically with
Lactobacillus acidophilus
292. In a Class III composite preparation,
retention should be placed:
A. in the axial wall C. entirely in
dentin
B. at the DEJ D. at the expense
of facial and lingual walls, but not
the axial wall
293. Reasons for incorporating an enamel
cavosurface bevel in preparations for
bonded, direct, composite restorations:
1, provides more surface area for
bonding
2, allows for the more preferred end-on
etching of the enamel rods.
3, increase retention
4, reduce leakage
5, provide greater potential for
strengthening the remaining tooth
structure
A. 1,2,3,4 B. 2,3,4,5 C. 1,2,3,5
D. 1,2,4,5 E. 1,2,3,4,5
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
294. Basic preparation designs most frequently 299. Primarily indicated for the initial
used for tooth-colored restorations of Class restoration of smaller, cavitated, carious
II cavities: lesions usually surrounded by enamel and
A. conventional cavity design C. for correcting enamel defects.
modified design A. conventional preparation design
D. beveled conventional preparation
B. beveled conventional design design
D. both A & B E. both B & C
B. modified preparation E.
box-only preparation
295. The gingival-to-occlusal divergence per wall C. facial / lingual slot preparation
from the line draw of an inlay/onlay tooth
preparation is:
A. 2 to 3 degrees C. 2 to 5
degrees 300. Primarily indicated on preparations located
on root surfaces.
B. 2 to 4 degrees D. 3 to 5 A. conventional preparation design
degrees E. none of these.
B. beveled conventional preparation
design

C. modified preparation

296. Shallow retention grooves on facioaxial D. box-only preparation

and linguoaxial line angles are usually
indicated if tooth is short for inlay/onlay
restoration, this can be achieved by using:
A. # 33 ½ B. # 253 C. # 169L D.
flame shaped diamond bur E. # 271.
297. Used in preparing occlusal and gingival
bevels:
A. # 33 ½ B. # 253 C. # 169L D.
flame shaped diamond bur E. # 271.
E. facial / lingual slot preparation
301. In pin-retained amalgam restoration, the
direction of retention pin holes should be:
A. parallel to the long axis of the tooth
B. parallel to the nearest external
surface
C. at right angles to the dentinal
tubules

D. perpendicular to the occlusal or the

298. The amount of occlusal marginal metal
gingival floor of the preparation
bevel for inlay is:
A. less than 30 degrees C. more than E. at a 15 degree angle to the long axis
40 degrees of the tooth.
B. 30 to 40 degree D. 140 to
150 degrees
302. The initial procedure in preparing the
outline form of the proximal box of a Class
II cavity preparations for amalgam is the
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
isolation of the proximal enamel by the c. Zinc silicophosphate
proximal ditch cut. The ideal bur to used is: d. Carboxylate cement
A. #33 ½ B. # 2 C. 309. A solution for one or more resins from the natural
gums, the synthetcis resins, and rosin in a organic
#245 D. #169L E. # ¼ solvent is called a
a. Cavity varnish*
b. Carboxylate cement
c. Liner
303. Ideally, in a MO Class II cavity preparation d. Cyanoacrylate cement
for amalgam, the mesiofacial and
310. A buffering agent for the phosphoric acid is silicate
mesiolingual margins of a conservative cement is
preparation should clear the adjacent a. SiO2
tooth by only: b. AlPO4*
A. 0.1 to 0.2mm B. 0.2 to 0.3mm C. c. Al2O3
d. CaF2
0.3 to 0.4mm D. 0.4 to 0.5mm
311. When a silicate restoration dissolves in the oral fluids
the portion of the set restoration that disintigrates is
a. Gel matrix*
304. Indicated when deep gingival extension of b. SiO2 Particles
c. CaF2 flux
proximal box is anticipated: d. Zn3PO4 buffer
A. round wedge B. triangular wedge
312. The only real advantage in properties the glads
C. both A & B D. none of these ionomer cement has over a silicate cement is that gi
has
a. Shorter setting time
b. Greater compressive strength
305. Used to cleaved away the remaining c. Slighty less solubility*
undermined proximal enamel to establish d. Less optical opacity.
properly the direction of the mesiolingual 313. The initiator of the autopolimerizing resins is
and mesiofacial walls: a. Benzoyl peroxide*
A. enamel hatchet C. angle b. Hydroquinone
c. Methyl methacrylate
former d. P-tolouene sulfinic acid
B. binangle chisel D. 314. The initiator or the ultraviolet ligth activiated BIS
GMA resin is
both A & B E. all of them a. Tertiary amine
b. Peroxide
c. Methyl ether*
d. Hydroquinone
306. The higher the mercury alloy ratio in dental amalgam 315. The common inorganic phases used in the
a. Higher the strength compound is/are
b. The more the matrix will be formed* a. BIS GMA resin
c. The more the y phase will be available b. Lithium aluminum silicate
d. Lower creep value c. Poly methyl methacrylate*
e. NOTA d. Borosilicate
307. In Zinc phosphate cement liquid the buffering e. Quartz
agents are zinc and f. Organic silane
a. Magnesium 316. Body and strength are given to the reversible
b. Bismuth hydrocolloid by
c. Aluminum* a. Potassium sulfate
d. Silicon b. Lead peroxide
308. The most effective dental cement in stimulating c. Agar
growth of secondary dentine is one of the d. Borax*
a. zinc phosphate cements
b. CaOH*
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
317. The fact that the temprature of gelation of reversible d) one should place locks 0.2mm inside
hydrocolloid is lower than the temperature of
liquefaction is known as
the DEJ to ensure that the proximal
a. Synersis* enamel is not undermined.
b. Gelling 323. the success of an amalgam restoration is
c. Hysteresis
d. Polymerization dependent on all of the following features
318. Calcium sulfate in the alginates is a of tooth/ cavity preparation except
a. Retarder a) butt joint cavosurface margin that
b. Reactor*
c. Neither
results in a 90 degree margin for the
d. Both 1 and 2 amalgam
319. The warm water has w/c of the following effects on b) adequate tooth removal for
alginate appropriate strength of the amalgam
a. No effect
b. Increase in gelation time c) divergent (externally) preparation
c. Decrease in the gelation time* walls
320. . Composite materials; Polymerization. Amalgam; d) adequate retention form features to
a. Galvanic formation
b. Compression alloy mechanically lock the amalgam in the
c. Ionization preparation
d. Amalgamation*
324. a “skirt” feature for a gold onlay
preparation
321. when preparing a Class III or IV composite
a) has a shoulder gingival margin design
tooth preparation, which of the following is
b) is prepared by a diamond held
false regarding placement of retention perpendicular to the long axis of the
form?
crown
a) often involves gingival and incisal
c) is used only for esthetics areas of a
retention tooth
b) is placed at the axiogingival line angle
d) increase both retention and resistance
regardless of the depth of the axial
form
wall 325. causes of post operative sensitivity with
c) may be needed in large preps
amalgam restorations include all the
d) is usually prepared with a no. ¼ round
following except
bur a) lack of adequate condensation,
322. when placement of proximal retention
especially lateral condensation in the
locks in Class II amalgam preparations is
proximal boxes
necessary, which of the following is
b) voids
incorrect?
c) extension onto the root surface
a) one should not undermine the
d) lack of dentinal sealing
proximal enamel
326. the setting reaction off dental amalgam
b) one should not prepare locks entirely proceeds primarily by
in the axial wall
a) dissolution of the entire alloy particle
c) even if deeper than ideal, one should
into mercury
use the axial wall as a guide for b) dissolution of the Cu from the particle
proximal lock placement.
into mercury
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
c) precipitation of Sn-Hg crystals
d) mercury reaction with Ag on or in the
alloy
327. a major difference between total-etch and
self etching primer dentin bonding system
include all of the following except
a) the time necessary to apply the
materials
b) the amount of smear layer removed
c) the bond strengths to enamel
d) the need for wet bonding
328. the principal goals of bonding are
a) sealing and thermal insulation
b) strengthening teeth and esthetics
c) esthetics and reduction of post
operative sensitivity
d) sealing and retention
e) retention and reduction of the tooth
flexure
329. which of the following statements is not
true regarding bonding system?
a) even though dentin bonding occurs
slowly, it results in a stronger bond
than to enamel
b) enamel bonding occurs quickly, is
strong, and is long lasting
c) one bottle dentin bonding systems
may be simpler but are not necessarily
better.
d) denting bonding is still variable
because of factors such as sclerosis,
tubule size, and tubule location
330. for a gold casting alloy, which of the
following is added primarily to act as
scavenger for oxygen during the casting
process?
a) copper
b) palladium
c) silver
d) zinc
331. when comparing pin retention with slot
retention for a complex amalgam
restoration, which of the following is false?
a) slots are used where vertical walls
allow opposing retention locks
b) slots provide stronger retention than
pins
c) slots and grooves can be used
interchangeably
d) pin retention is used primarily where
there are few or no vertical walls
332. restoration of an appropriate proximal
contact results in all of the following except
a) reduction/ elimination of food
impaction at the interdental papilla
b) provide appropriate space for the
interdental papilla
c) provide increased retention form for
the restoration
d) maintenance of the proper occlusal
relationship
333. it is generally accepted that the maximum
thickness of a composite increment that
allows for proper cure is
a) 1-2mm
b) 2-4mm
c) 4-6mm
d) there is no maximum thickness
restriction
334. bonding of resins to dentin is best
described as involving
a) mechanical interlocking
b) ionic bonding
c) covalent bonding
d) Van der Waals force
335. which of the following statements is true
regarding the choice between doing a
composite or amalgam restoration?
a) establishing restored proximal contact
is easier with composite
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
b) the amalgam is more difficult and e. None of the above
technique sensitive
c) the composite generally uses a more 338. What is the composition of the
conservative tooth/ cavity preparation smear layer?
d) only amalgam should be used for class I. film of nanocrystalline
II restorations debris that remains on
336. Streptococcus mutans is the most enamel after it is cut with
cariogenic with contributions from rotary instruments.
S.sanguis and S. salivarious. Root II. film of microcrystalline
surface caries are initiated by debris that remains on
Actinomyces viscus on accumulated dentin after it is cut with
plaque deposits. rotary instruments.
a. First statement is true. III. film of macrocrystalline
Second statement is false. debris that remains on
b. First statement is false. dentin after it is cut with
Second statement is true. rotary instruments.
c. Both statements are IV. film of microcrystalline
true. debris that remains on
d. Both statements are false. enamel after it is cut with
rotary instruments.
a. I and III only
337. What is the mechanism of action
b. II and IV only
of Hydrogen in lightening teeth?
c. II only
I. oxidizes and removes
d. III only
inorganic matter to lighten
e. None of the above
the tooth.
II. removes intraprismatic
organic matter within the
tooth to lighten the shade. 339. The choices below are
III. oxidizes and removes compound/s stimulate dentin
interprismatic inorganic bridging except:
matter within the tooth to a. Zinc phosphate cements
lighten the shade. b. Calcium Hydroxide
IV. oxidizes and removes c. Eugenol
interprismatic organic d. Resin Composite systems
matter within the tooth to
lighten the shade. 340. The following are chemical
a. I and III only component/s of composite resins
b. II and IV only except:
c. II only I. Coupling agents
d. IV only II. Principal and diluent
monomers
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
III. Polymerization initiator
IV. Radiation absorbers
a. IV only
b. II only
c. Any of the above
d. None of the above
341. How are glass ionomer cements
(GIC) classified?
a. Slow setting, fast setting,
light-cured glass ionomers
b. Capsule, filled, unfilled,
light-cured
c. Hydrous, anhydrous,
hybrid, light- cured
d. Restorative, Luting, Liner,
Sealant
342. What are compomers?
I. are low-viscosity, visible
light-cured, radiopaque,
composite resins, often
containing fluoride.
II. single light-cured
component made by
adding glass ionomer
particles to acidic
polymerizable monomers
in a resin matrix.
III. Simply the combination of
composite and glass
ionomer.
IV. primary function is to
enhance the marginal seal
of the restoration.
a. I and II only
b. II and III only
c. III and IV only
d. I and IV only
343. What options are available for
amalgam restorations?
I. Cast gold
II. Cast, fired, and pressed
ceramics
III. Direct, direct-indirect,
indirect placement
composite resins
IV. CAD-CAM and
mechanically milled
restorations
a. I, II, IV
b. I, III, IV
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
344. All are the benefits of cast gold
inlays and onlays except:
a. Low restoration
wear
b. Low wear of
opposing teeth
c. Lack of breakage
d. Negligible
polymerization
shrinkage
e. Burnishable and
malleable
restoration
f. Proven long-term
service
g. Bonded cast gold
restoration
improves their main
weakness
345. All are indications of porcelain
veneer restoration except:
I. Stained teeth or
teeth in which color
changes are desired
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
II. Enamel defects b. First statement is false.
III. Malposed teeth Second statement is true.
IV. Malformed teeth c. Both statements are true.
V. Replacement for d. Both statements are false.
multisurfaced
composite 348. The functional advantage of a
restoration when low copper content in dental
adequate tooth amalgam is, copper contents over
structure remains 6% eliminate the gamma-2 phase
(at least 30%) and result in alloys of much better
a. II only marginal stability.
b. V only a. True
c. I, IIII, IV b. False
d. All of the above
e. None of the above 349. An adverse pulpal reaction is
most likely to occur when which of
346. What is the purpose of finishing the following materials is placed
and polishing amalgam restoration? directly into a deep cavity
I. To reduce marginal preparation?
discrepancies and create a a. Silver amalgam
more hygienic restoration b. Zinc oxied eugenol
II. To reduce marginal c. Polycarboxylate cement
breakdown and recurrent d. Silicate cement
decay e. Zinc phosphate cement
III. To prevent tarnishing and f. Calcium hydroxide
increase the quality of
appearance of the 350. What is the major constituent of
restoration. inlay wax pattern?
a. I and II only a. Ceresin
b. II and III only b. Carnauba
c. III only c. Beeswax
d. All of the above d. Paraffin
347. In amalgam, smaller particle size e. Microcrystalline wad
results in higher strength, lower
flow, and better carvability.
Spherical amalgams high in silver 351. This is the primary causative agent of initial
and tin usually have the best tensile caries
and compressive characteristics. a) Lactobacillus
a. First statement is true. b) Sugar acid
Second statement is c) Streptococcus mutans
false.
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
d) Plaque c) First stament is false. Second
352. In the antimicrobial action of saliva, what statement is true
component binds iron and destroys the d) First statement is true. Second
agent that causes dental caries statement is true
a) Lysozyme 356. The first number found on hand cutting
b) Lactoferrin instruments indicates the:
c) Lactoperoxidase a) Primary cutting edge angle
d) Buffers b) Width of the blade
353. This is a natural sigar from birch trees (5- c) Blade length
carbon sugar) which can be used to d) Blade angle
prevent caries formation because the 357. The third number found on hand cutting
agent cannot ferment it instruments indicates the:
a) Sucrose a) Primary cutting edge angle
b) Xylitol b) Width of the blade
c) Fructose c) Blade length
d) Galactose d) Blade angle
354. Bateriostatic agent kills bacteria. They can 358. How much inorganic content does enamel
be used to further disrupt the growth of has?
the bacteria a) 95-98%
a) First statement is true. Second b) 78-90%
statement is the definition of the c) 89-95%
subject d) 56-60%
b) First statement is wrong. Second 359. Hybrid layer is formed when dentin is cut.
statement is not the definition of the This is removed by acid etching.
subject a) First statement is true. Second
c) First statement is true. Second statement is false
statement is not the definition of the b) First statement is false. Second
subject statement is false
d) First statement is wrong. Second c) First stament is false. Second
statement is the definition of the statement is true
subject d) First statement is true. Second
355. White spots on intact, hard proximal statement is true
surface enamel adjacent to and usually 360. Self threading pin is the most retentive pin
gingival to the contact area are often seen used for complex amalgam restoration
in older px whose caries activity is low. a) True
These discolored extrinsic stains are often b) False
results of remineralized initial lesions 361. Minikin pin size
a) First statement is true. Second a) 0.024 in 0.61 mm
statement is false b) 0.019 in 0.48 mm
b) First statement is false. Second c) 0.015 in 0.38 mm
statement is false d) 0.031 in 0.78 mm
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
362. Regular pin size
a) 0.024 in 0.61 mm 366. The cavosurface margin of an amalgam
b) 0.019 in 0.48 mm preparation:
c) 0.015 in 0.38 mm a) Should not be planed
d) 0.031 in 0.78 mm b) Never contains unsupported enamel
363. Macrofill inorganic filler c) Does not require a right angle margin
a) 75-80% d) Must be planed to remove unsupported
enamel
b) 35-60%
e) None of the above
c) 75-85% a.
d) 45-60%
364. Nanofill particle size b. An occlusal cavosurface bevel
a) 0.4-1 micrometer is contraindicated in the cavity
b) 3.5-4 micrometer preparation for an amalgam
c) 0.003-0.005 micrometer restoration. Attempt to provide a
d) 0.005-0.01 micrometer 90°-100° cavosurface angle
results in a 80-90% of amalgam
365. For a moderate amalgam filling, what is the
at the margins. The butt joint of
recommended steps of treatment?
enamel and amalgam creates the
a) Liner/sealer, filling strongest margin.
b) CaOh, base, liner/sealer, filling c. Reference: The Art and Science
c) Base, liner/sealer, filling of Operative Dentistry by
d) Filling Sturdevant p.196

367. An occlusal outline that has been prepared

too wide:
a) Will not give the amalgam as much
strength as a slight increase in depth
1. C
b) Will cause fracture of the amalgam
2. B
c) Will not cause fracture of the cusp
3. B d) Will cause corrosion of the amalgam
4. D
5. C
6. B e) The cavity preparation shouldn’t be
7. C wider than necessary especially on
8. A smaller teeth, when the occlusal
9. C portion may have a small distal tilt.
10. A This objective will help conserve the
dentinal support and strength of the
11. B
tooth and help minimize marginal
12. D
deterioration of the restoration
13. A f) Reference: The Art and Science of
14. D Operative Dentistry by Sturdevant p.
15. C 202-203
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
368. Moisture in an amalgam causes:
a) Increase in strength
b) Shrinkage in filling
c) No marginal breakdown
d) Excessive delayed expansion with
protrusion of the filling
e) None of the above
f)
g) Moisture contamination can create an
expansion of such magnitude that it
may not always be directed toward the
outer surface of the restoration. Axially
or pulpally directed expansion will
exert tremendous pressure in the pulp-
dentin organ. This can precipitate
changes in the position and the
environment of odontoblasts and
surrounding tissues.
h) Reference: Operative Dentistry:
Modern Theory and Practice by
Marzauk, A.L. p.117
369. The greatest single factor in the strength of
a final amalgam restoration is:
a) The residual mercury content
b) The lead content
c) The silver content
d) The copper content
e) All of the above
f) The more energy used in condensation,
the less will be the residual mercury,
which results in a higher relative
percentage of the strong original
particles in the restoration.
Condensation of an amalgam mass
after formation of the matrix crystals
does not diminish the strength
properties as trituration does, because
there is more resistance to the crystal
displacement during condensation than
during trituration.
g) Reference: Operative Dentistry:
Modern Theory and Practice by
Marzauk, A.L. p.109
370. Overtrituration of alloy and mercury will:
a) Result in shrinkage of the mass during
set
b) Result in expansion of mass during set
c) Cause no shrinkage during set
d) Result in fracture after setting
e) None of the above
f) Trituration makes a more coherent
mass of amalgam mix which
contributes to the greater strength
pattern in the restoration. On the other
hand, if trituration is continued after
complete formation of the matrix
crystals, the excess energy will create
cracks in these crystals and their
interphases leading to a drop in the
strength of the set amalgam.
g) Reference: Operative Dentistry:
Modern Theory and Practice by
Marzauk, A.L., p.109
371. A chalky appearance of the marginal ridge
suggests;
a) No need for radiographic examination
b) Underlying dental carries
c) No need for visual examination
d) Loss of translucency
e) None of the above
f) Cavitation of the surface occurs when
the subsurface demineralization is so
extensive that the tooth structure
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
collapses. Cavitation of enamel is capillary dilation, local edema and
irreversible and is usually associated stagnation of blood flow.
with an acceleration in the process of h) Reference: Operative Dentistry:
carious destruction of the tooth. Modern Theory and Practice by
g) Reference: Operative Dentistry: Marzauk, A.L., p50
Modern Theory and Practice by
Marzauk, A.L., p. 51
374. A visual inspection of restoration should
attempt to find the following anatomic
372. The loss of translucency in a tooth or its defects:
discoloration suggests: a) Absence of contour
a) Pulpal hyperemia b) Overcontour
b) Pulpal death c) Poor contact form
c) Pulpal abscess d) Faulty margins and overhangs on
d) Internal resorption restorations
e) None of the above e) All of the above
i.

f) The areas of enamel that lose their
transluscency are products of extensive
subsurface porosity caused by
demineralization. It means there is
stagnation of blood flow which in
return results to necrosis or pulpal
death.
g) Reference: Operative Dentistry:
Modern Theory and Practice by
Marzauk, A.L., p 50
f) All of the choices given should not be
present whenever a restoration is
made. It is important that there should
be correct contour, absence of
overhangs and proper contact with the
adjacent tooth.
g) Reference: Operative Dentistry:
Modern Theory and Practice by
Marzauk, A.L., p. 51

375. Percussion produces pain when:

373. A yellowish appearance to a tooth may a) There is inflammation in the pulp
suggest: b) There is any degree of inflammation of
a) Secondary dentin deposition periodontal or periapical tissues
b) Enlarged pulp chamber c) A pulp stone is present
c) Enlarged root canals d) Swelling is present
d) Necrosis of pulp e) None of the above
e) None of the above
f)

g) Acute, rapidly advancing caries with
very high levels of acid production
overpowers dentinal defenses and
results in infection. Small localized
infections in the pulp produces
inflammatory response involving
The pains are due to the stimulation of
pulp tissue by movement of fluid
through dentinal tubules that had been
opened to the oral environment by
cavitation.
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
Reference: Operative Dentistry: Modern
Theory and Practice by Marzauk, A.L.,
p. 52
376. An irritated or inflamed pulp responds to
the electric pulp test:
a. Later than normal pulp
b. Earlier than normal pulp
c. The same as the normal
pulp
d. Fails to respond at all
e. None of the above
a) Since there is an existing bacterial
infection close to the pulp, the reaction
would be more sensitive than a normal
pulp.
b) Reference: Operative Dentistry:
Modern Theory and Practice by
Marzauk, A.L., p.55
377. Operative dentistry is:
a) Purely mechanical
b) Treating a tooth
c) Devoid of physiologic and psychologic
aspects
d) Treating the person
e) None of the above
f) Operative dentistry does not only
confine itself in the mechanical aspect
of treating the tooth. It abides with the
patient’s well-being as the clinician
treats a problem. It treats the physical
as well as psychological aspect of the
patient.
g) Reference: Operative Dentistry:
Modern Theory and Practice by
Marzauk, A.L., p.75
378. Use of anesthesia for cavity preparation is
contraindication in the following:
a) Cardiovascular disease
b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Allergies
d) Emotional instability
e) All of the above
f) The components of the anesthetic, e.g.
epinephrine, may trigger one or two of
the diseases given. This in turn will be
very hard to manage once anesthetic
was given without any history taking.
It is best to take down patient’s
medical history for the safety of the
patient’s wel-being.
g) Reference: Operative Dentistry:
Modern Theory and Practice by
Marzauk, A.L., p.83
h)
379. The compound cavity involves:
a) Two surfaces of the tooth
b) Only one surface
c) More than three surfaces
d) Three surfaces
e) None of the above
f) Simple cavity denotes preparation on
one surface of the tooth, while a
compound cavity denotes
preparationon two surfaces of the
tooth.
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
g) Reference: Operative Dentistry:
Modern Theory and Practice by
Marzauk, A.L., p.77 382. The microorganism most
commonly associated with root
surface caries is:
380. Radiographic examination reveals: a) Actinomyces viscosus
b) Streptococcus mutans
a. Caries and indicates depth c) Streptococcus salivarius
of caries to a degree
d) Lactobacillus acidophilus
b. The extent of periodontal
and periapical bone loss to a
degree
383. What is Enameloplasty?
c. Unerupted and impacted a) Extension of outline form
teeth b) Adding synthetic enamel to
d. Number, size and shape of surface
roots and roots canals c) The procedure of reshaping
grooves with rotary cutting
e. All of the above
instruments
d) Removal of the entire thickness
of enamel
The radiograph is one of the most e) None of the above
helpful diagnostic tool in analyzing a
tooth. A full-mouth radiographic
examination will be a great device in
384. Sensitivity can be felt in enamel
locating caries, abnormalities and other
pathologic findings and therefore
due to the presence of:
making a better treatment plan. a) Enamel lamellae
b) Enamel tufts
Reference: Operative Dentistry: Modern
c) Enamel spindles
Theory and Practice by Marzauk, A.L.,
p.53 d) Enamel sheath

381. Streptococcus mutans is

considered to be a principal etiologic 385. What class/ classes of cavities
agent of caries because it produces is/are found on the all teeth (
organic acids and it: anterior or posterior)
a) Forms a gelatinous matrix a) Class I, II
b) Derives energy from b) Class III, IV
constituents c) Class I, V, VI
c) Metabolizes substrate from d) Class II, IV, V
saliva
d) Lives symbiotically with
Lactobacillus acidophilus
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
386. All enamels must consists of :
a) A cluster of enamel rods
protruding from cavity
b) Full length enamel rods or full-
length rods supported by shorter
rods terminating on sound
dentin
c) Cavity outline placed on rough
curve
d) Cavity outline placed on
irregular lines
e) None of the above
387. Affected dentin differs from
infected dentin in that it has:
a) Been invaded by
microorganisms
b) Are precisely the same
c) Not been invaded by
microorganisms
d) A soft texture
e) None of the above
388. Which of the following is the most
effective way to reduce injury to the
pulp during a restorative procedure?
a) Prepare dentin with slow-speed
burs.
b) Use anesthetics without
vasoconstrictors
c) Minimize dehydration of the
dentinal surface
d) Keep the dentinal surface clean
by frequent irrigation
389. Discoloration of the tooth under
big amalgam restoration can be
prevented by:
a) Using cavity varnish
b) Using correct alloy: mercury
ratio
c) Using zinc phosphate cement
base
d) Washing the prepared cavity
with NaOCl3
390. Gingival cavosurface margin is
beveled in a class II cavity for
amalgam restoration to:
a) Get a lap joint on the
cavosurface angle
b) Remove the unsupported
enamel rods
c) Get burnishable thickness of
amalgam
d) Move the cavosurface away
from the contact
391. The position of the gingival
margin of a class II amalgam
preparation is dictated primarily by:
a) Aesthetics
b) The location of the gingival
margin
c) The extent of carious lesion
d) The thickness of the enamel
392. A marginal ridge wall in a
prepared cavity for amalgam is:
a) At right angles to the pulpal floor
b) Parallel to the long axis of the
tooth
 RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
c) At an obtuse angle to the pulpal air, then repeat the etching
floor procedure
d) Determined by the extent of the
fissures of the central groove
e) None of the above 395. 15. Resistance forms is the ability
to withstand masticatory stress and
this is established by:
393. A newly condensed amalgam a) Bulk of the restorative material
restoration seems to chip away b) Strength of the restorative
when being carved. What is the materials
likely cause of this problem? c) Compressiveness
a) A low-copper alloy was used d) Compactness
b) Moisture contamination
occurred
c) The alloy was incompletely
wetted with mercury
d) The amalgam was not
condensed with the
recommended pressure
e) The amalgam was condensed
after its working time elapsed

394. After the dentist has completed

an etching procedure on a Class III
composite preparation, the
preparation becomes contaminated
with saliva. In response, the dentist
should do which of the following?
a) Blow away the saliva with air,
then proceed
b) Rinse away the saliva with
water, dry the preparation, then
proceed
c) Wipe away the saliva with a
cotton pellet, rinse the
preparation with water, dry it
with air, then proceed
d) Rinse away the saliva with
water, dry the preparation with