Test No.

IAS Prelims - 2020 16

PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26

GENERAL STUDIES

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CURRENT AFFAIRS
(SEPTEMBER + OCTOBER 2019)

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Answer Key

Q. 1 (a) Q. 21 (b) Q. 41 (a) Q. 61 (a) Q. 81 (d)

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Q. 2 (b) Q. 22 (b) Q. 42 (c) Q. 62 (c) Q. 82 (a)
Q. 3 (b) Q. 23 (b) Q. 43 (a) Q. 63 (a) Q. 83 (a)
Q. 4 (c) Q. 24 (b) Q. 44 (a) Q. 64 (b) Q. 84 (c)
Q. 5 (b) Q. 25 (d) Q. 45 (c) Q. 65 (c) Q. 85 (a)
Q. 6 (b) Q. 26 (c) Q. 46 (c) Q. 66 (d) Q. 86 (a)
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Q. 7 (b) Q. 27 (a) Q. 47 (c) Q. 67 (b) Q. 87 (d)

Q. 8 (c) Q. 28 (b) Q. 48 (c) Q. 68 (d) Q. 88 (c)
Q. 9 (c) Q. 29 (d) Q. 49 (b) Q. 69 (c) Q. 89 (d)
Q. 10 (d) Q. 30 (a) Q. 50 (d) Q. 70 (a) Q. 90 (b)
Q. 11 (c) Q. 31 (d) Q. 51 (b) Q. 71 (a) Q. 91 (c)
Q. 12 (b) Q. 32 (b) Q. 52 (d) Q. 72 (c) Q. 92 (d)
Q. 13 (b) Q. 33 (b) Q. 53 (a) Q. 73 (a) Q. 93 (d)
Q. 14 (d) Q. 34 (c) Q. 54 (a) Q. 74 (d) Q. 94 (c)
Q. 15 (c) Q. 35 (c) Q. 55 (c) Q. 75 (c) Q. 95 (b)
Q. 16 (b) Q. 36 (d) Q. 56 (d) Q. 76 (a) Q. 96 (a)
Q. 17 (c) Q. 37 (a) Q. 57 (b) Q. 77 (c) Q. 97 (b)
Q. 18 (b) Q. 38 (d) Q. 58 (a) Q. 78 (c) Q. 98 (c)
Q. 19 (c) Q. 39 (b) Q. 59 (c) Q. 79 (b) Q. 99 (a)
Q. 20 (b) Q. 40 (d) Q. 60 (d) Q. 80 (a) Q. 100 (d)

1 PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
1. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct: Sabka Vishwas
Scheme is a Legacy Dispute Resolution
scheme is offered to those taxpayers who
wish to disclose any previously undisclosed
tax liability without any penalty or
prosecution.
Supplementary notes:
Sabka Vishwas Scheme
 The scheme targets those taxpayers who
want to close their pending disputes related
to Service Tax and Excise Tax (now
subsumed under Goods and Services Tax).
 The two main components of the Scheme
are dispute resolution and amnesty.
 The dispute resolution component
is aimed at liquidating the legacy cases
of Central Excise and Service Tax that
are subsumed in GST and are pending
in litigation at various forums.
 The amnesty component of the Scheme
CO
offers an opportunity to the taxpayers
to pay the outstanding tax and be free
of any other consequence under the
law. The most attractive aspect of the
Scheme is that it provides substantial
relief in the tax dues for all categories of
cases as well as full waiver of interest,
fine, penalty, In all these cases, there
would be no other liability of interest,
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fine or penalty. There is also a complete
amnesty from prosecution.
 The Scheme is especially tailored to free
the large number of small taxpayers
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of their pending disputes with the tax
administration.
2. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 and 4 are incorrect:
Enforcement Directorate is responsible
for the administration of Prevention
of Money Laundering Act, 2002 and
Foreign Exchange Management Act,
1999 only.
Supplementary notes:
Enforcement Directorate
 It is economic intelligence and law
enforcement agency responsible for enforcing
economic laws and fighting economic crime
in India.
 It functions under aegis of Department of
Revenue, Union Ministry of Finance.
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
 Its prime objective is enforcement of two
key Acts of Government of India namely:
 Foreign Exchange Management Act
1999 (FEMA) and
 Prevention of Money Laundering Act
2002 (PMLA)
 To check money laundering by curb black
money and hawala trade cases.
 It is composed of officers from the Indian
Revenue Service, Indian Police Service and
the Indian Administrative Service.
 It was established in 1956 as ‘Enforcement
Unit’ in Department of Economic Affairs.
 It is headquartered in New Delhi.
3. Correct Option: (b)
RE
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: National Sports
Day is celebrated on the birth anniversary
of hockey legend Major Dhyan Chand.
Supplementary notes:
Fit India Movement
 Prime Minister has launched nation-
wide Fit India Movement on the
occasion of National Sports Day.
 Fit India Movement aims to motivate every
Indian to incorporate simple, easy ways of
staying fit in their everyday life.
National Sports Day
 It is celebrated on 29 August, on
the birth anniversary of hockey
legend Major Dhyan Chand.
 On this Day, President confers the National
Sports Awards, National Adventure
Awards, Arjuna Award, KhelRatna,
Dronacharya Award and Dhyanchand
Award to recognise the exceptional
achievements of Indian sportspersons.
4. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
RBI Economic Capital Framework
 Recently, the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI) accepted the recommendations
of Bimal Jalan panel; set up to review the
RBI’s Economic Capital Framework.
 Following these recommendations, RBI
decided to transfer Rs 1.76 lakh crore in
dividend and surplus reserves to the
government.
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  The objective of the economic capital
framework is to build harmony
between the central bank’s need for
autonomy and the Government’s
objectives of the development.
 The Bimal Jalan-led
recommended holistic risk
frameworks to assess the adequacy
reserves. Some recommendations
committee are:
 RBI to maintain the Contingency
Risk Buffer (CRB), which is the
country’s fund to handle financial
stability within the range of 5.5% to
6.5% of the RBI’s balance sheet.
 It recommended a review of the
RBI’s Economic Capital Framework
(ECF) every five years.
 The RBI’s accounting year of July-
June can be brought in sync with
the fiscal year of April-March from the
financial year 2020-21.
 The report has also removed the
interim payout structure in general O in the world that truly reflects global
circumstances.
 All the recommendations of the
panel have been accepted by the
RBI.
SC
5. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The SURE
project is a commitment by India’s
apparel industry to set a sustainable
pathway for the Indian fashion
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industry.
Supplementary notes:
Project SURE
 The SURE project is a commitment
by India’s apparel industry to set a
sustainable pathway for the Indian
fashion industry.
 SURE stands for ‘Sustainable Resolution’ –
a firm commitment from the industry to
move towards fashion that contributes to a
clean environment.
 The project has been launched by
the Union Textiles Ministry, along
with Clothing Manufacturers Association of
India (CMAI); United Nations in India; and
IMG Reliance.
 It will be the first holistic effort by the apparel
industry towards gradually introducing a
broader framework for establishing critical
sustainability goals for the industry.
 This framework would help the
industry reduce its carbon emissions,
increase resource efficiency, tackle waste
and water management, and create
positive social impact to achieve long-term
sustainability targets.
panel
capital
of RBI 6. Correct Option: (b)
of the
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The 45th
WorldSkills Competition were held at the
KAZAN EXPO International Exhibition
Centre in Kazan, Russia.
Supplementary notes:
WorldSkills Competition
 The 45th WorldSkills Competition was
held at the KAZAN EXPO International
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Exhibition Centre in Kazan, Russia.
 It is a flagship event of the WorldSkills
International, organised every two years.
 It is the biggest vocational
education and skills excellence event
industry.
 The aims of the competition
include demonstrating the advantages of
learning a vocational skill, and encouraging
‘parity of esteem’ between vocational and
academic qualifications.
7. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Report was
released by the non-government organization
World Vision India and research institute
IFMR LEAD.
Supplementary notes:
Child well-being index
 The India child well-being index is a
crucial report that can be mined both by
the Government and civil organisations to
achieve the goal of child well-being and we
will use this report effectively.
 This report provides insights on health,
nutrition, education, and sanitation and
child protection.
 The dimensions of the index include
healthy individual development, positive
relationships and protective contexts.
 Focusing on the three key dimensions,
24 indicators were selected to develop the
computation of the child well-being index.
 The index captures the performance of each
state and union territory on a composite
child well-being score.
3 PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
  Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh and
Puducherry topped the charts in the child
well-being index.
 Meghalaya, Jharkhand and Madhya
Pradesh featured at the bottom.
 Among the union territories, Puducherry
led the way and Dadra and Nagar Haveli
featured at the other end.
 The report has called for states to look at
their respective scores on the dimensions of
child well-being and to prepare for priority
areas of intervention with specific plans of
action.
 The report also emphasised on triggering
policy level changes, seek better budgetary
allocations and initiate discussions with all
stakeholders which can help in enhancing
the quality of life of all children in the
country.
8. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
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International Fund for Animal Welfare
(IFAW)
 The International Fund for Animal Welfare
is a global non-profit helping animals and
people thrive together.
 Experts and everyday people, working
across seas, oceans and in more than 40
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countries around the world.
 It rescue, rehabilitate and release animals,
and restore and protect their natural
habitats.
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 Partner with local communities,
governments, non-governmental
organizations and businesses.
9. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP)
 Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP) gives
an option to a company looking for exploring
hydrocarbons to select the exploration
blocks on its own, without waiting for the
formal bid round from the Government.
 Under Open Acreage Licensing Policy
(OALP), a bidder intending to explore
hydrocarbons like oil and gas, coal bed
methane, gas hydrate etc., may apply to the
Government seeking exploration of any new
block (not already covered by exploration).
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
 The Government will examine the
Expression of Interest and justification. If
it is suitable for award, Govt. will call for
competitive bids after obtaining necessary
environmental and other clearances.
 OALP was introduced vide a Cabinet
decision of the Government as part of the
new fiscal regime in exploration sector
called HELP or Hydrocarbon Exploration
and Licensing Policy, so as to enable a
faster survey and coverage of the available
geographical area which has potential for
oil and gas discovery.
 What distinguishes OALP from New
Exploration and Licensing Policy (NELP)
is that under OALP, oil and gas acreages
will be available round the year instead of
cyclic bidding rounds as in NELP. Potential
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investors need not have to wait for the
bidding rounds to claim acreages.
 Setting up of National Data Repository is one
of the milestones achieved for Open Acreage
Licensing Policy. To make India a favorable
destination globally for Exploration of Crude
Oil and Natural Gas, the Government plans
to move to the OALP regime soon.
 It is well acknowledged that there is a need
for a faster vehicle of awarding blocks in
order to bring more area under exploration.
 As India has vast unexplored sedimentary
basins, a strategy which facilitates a time
bound full coverage has become a necessity.
Moreover, even the OALP pre-supposes
offering of data to the interested companies
for them to submit their bids/ interest.
Hence, availability of data is no longer an
option, but a pre-condition.
10. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Food fortification in India
 Fortification is the addition of key
vitamins and minerals such as iron,
iodine, zinc, Vitamin A & D to staple foods
such as rice, milk and salt to improve their
nutritional content. These nutrients may or
may not have been originally present in the
food before processing.
 India’s National Nutritional strategy,
2017, had listed food fortification as one
of the interventions to address anaemia,
vitamin A and iodine deficiencies apart
from supplementation and dietary
diversification.
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  Malnutrition is a prominent issue in India
— 38 per cent of children under five years
are stunted i.e. too short for their age, 36
per cent are underweight and 21 per cent
are wasted i.e. too thin for their height,
which is a sign of acute under-nutrition.
 59 per cent women and 53 per cent children
are anaemic.
 The Food Safety and Standards
Authority of India (FSSAI) made
standards for fortification in the Food
Safety and Standards (Fortification of
Foods) Regulations, 2018, for five staples —
wheat, rice, milk, oil and salt.
 The standards are given for wheat and
rice fortification with iron, folic acid,
and vitamin B12, the deficiency of which
cause anaemia. Besides, other B vitamins
are also added.
 Standards are provided for oil and milk
fortification with vitamin A and
vitamin D, the deficiency of which cause
night blindness and rickets respectively;
and salt fortification with iron along with
O with a sizeable overall population — have
iodine to prevent goitre.
 The food companies who wish to add
micro-nutrients to these staples sold in
the packages will also have to follow the
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standards set by FSSAI. If the product is
fortified according to the standards, the
package will carry an F+ label.
 The Union Ministries of Women and
Child Development, Human Resource
Development and Consumer Affairs, Food
and Public Distribution have mandated the
distribution of fortified wheat flour,
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rice, oil and double fortified salt in their
schemes — Integrated Child Development
Services (ICDS) and Mid-Day Meal (MDM)
and Public Distribution System (PDS)
respectively.
12. Correct Option: (b)
Some of the important features of Food Safety
and Standards (Fortification of Foods)
Regulations, 2018 are as follows:
 It prescribes the standards of addition of micro-
nutrients for the purpose of food fortification.
 The manufacturers of the fortified food are
required to provide a quality assurance
undertaking.
 Packaging and labelling of the fortified food
must state the food fortificant added,
logo and the tagline “Sampoorna Poshan
Swasth Jeevan”.
 It should be in compliance to the Food Safety
and Standards (Packaging and Labelling)
Regulations, 2011.
5 PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
11. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme was
first launched on a pilot basis in 2009-10
 Statement 3 is incorrect: It aimed
to achieve integrated development of
selected villages with more than 50% SC
population.
Supplementary notes:
Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana
 The Union government has identified
26,968 Dalit-majority villages for focused
implementation of various government
schemes over the next five years.
 All existing Central and state welfare
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schemes that are necessary to meet critical
gaps in socio-economic and infrastructure
needs, and reduce disparities will be
implemented in Dalit villages.
 These villages — where over 50 per cent of
the total population are Dalits and those
been zeroed in under the Pradhan Mantri
Adarsh Gram Yojana for “integrated
development”.
 While the scheme is mainly about ensuring
focused implementation and convergence
of existing Central and state government
schemes, the ministry provides Rs 21 lakh
per village as gap funding.
 According to the 2011 Census, Dalits make
up 16.6 per cent of the country’s total
population, with states such as Punjab,
Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh,
West Bengal, and the Union Territory of
Delhi recording more than 20 per cent Dalit
population.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Pradhan Mantri
Mudra Yojana (PMMY) can be availed for
non-farm sector income generating activities
only.
Supplementary notes:
Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY)
 Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) is
a flagship scheme of Government of India
to “fund the unfunded” by bringing such
enterprises to the formal financial system
and extending affordable credit to them.
 It enables a small borrower to borrow from
all Public Sector Banks such as PSU Banks,
 Regional Rural Banks and Cooperative
Banks, Private Sector Banks, Foreign
Banks, Micro Finance Institutions (MFI)
and Non-Banking Finance Companies
(NBFC) for loans upto Rs 10 lakhs for non-
farm income generating activities.
 The scheme was launched on 8th April,
2015 by the Hon’ble Prime Minister.
Eligibility
 Any Indian Citizen who has a business plan
for a non-farm sector income generating
activity such as manufacturing, processing,
trading or service sector and whose credit
need is less than Rs 10 lakh.
 The citizen can approach eithera Bank,
MFI, or NBFC for availing of Micro Units
Development & Refinance Agency Ltd.
(MUDRA) loans under Pradhan Mantri
Mudra Yojana (PMMY).
Types of loans provided
Under the aegis of Pradhan Mantri MUDRA
Yojana, MUDRA has already created the
following products / schemes.
 Shishu : covering loans upto 50,000/-
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 Kishor : covering loans above 50,000/- and
upto 5 lakh
 Tarun : covering loans above 5 lakh and
upto 10 lakh
13. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
S
 Option (b) is correct: The ‘Samudrayaan’
is a pilot project of the Ministry of Earth
Sciences’ for deep ocean mining for rare
minerals.
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Supplementary notes:
Samudrayaan
 The ‘Samudrayaan’ is a pilot project of the
Ministry of Earth Sciences for deep ocean
mining for rare minerals.
 The project proposes to send a submersible
vehicle with three persons to a depth of about
6000 metres to carry out deep underwater
studies.
 The indigenously developed vehicle is
capable of crawling on the sea bed at a depth
of six kilometre for 72 hours.
 Similar to ISRO’s plan to carry persons
on a space mission, NIOT has undertaken
Samudrayaan. The ¹ 200 croreproject
proposes to carry three persons in a
submersible vehicle to a depth of 6000
metres under sea for various studies.
 The success of the ‘’Samudrayaan’’ will help
India join the league of developed nations in
exploration of minerals from oceans.
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
 India has been allocated a site of 75,000
sq km in the Central Indian Ocean Basin
by the International Sea Bed Authority for
exploration of polymetallic nodules from
seabed.
 The estimated resource of polymetallic
nodules is about 380 million tonnes,
containing 4.7 million tonnes of nickel, 4.29
million tonnes of copper and 0.55 million
tonnes of cobalt and 92.59 million tonnes of
manganese.
14. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Automatic Exchange of Information
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(AEOI)
 The new global standard on Automatic
Exchange of Information (AEOI)
reduces the possibility for tax evasion.
 It provides for the exchange of non-resident
financial account information with the tax
authorities in the account holders’ country
of residence.
 Participating jurisdictions that
implement AEOI send and receive pre-
agreed information each year, without
having to send a specific request.
 AEOI will enable the discovery of
formerly undetected tax evasion.
 It will enable governments to recover tax
revenue lost to non-compliant taxpayers, and
will further strengthen international efforts
to increase transparency, cooperation, and
accountability among financial institutions
and tax administrations.
 Additionally, AEOI will generate
secondary benefits by increasing voluntary
disclosures of concealed assets and by
encouraging taxpayers to report all relevant
information.
15. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct: The Ministry of
Electronics and Information Technology
(MeitY) and Google have signed a statement
of intent to roll-out ‘Build for Digital India’
programme.
Supplementary notes:
Build for Digital India Programme
 The Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology (MeitY) and Google have signed
a statement of intent to roll-out ‘Build for
Digital India’ programme.
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 About:
 The programme will give engineering
students a platform to develop technology-
based solutions to address key social
problems.
 As part of the programme, engineering
students across the country will be invited
to apply and join in a learning journey that
will help them transform their bright ideas
into real-world solutions.
 Applicants will take part in online and
offline learning opportunities on key
technologies such as machine learning,
cloud and android.
 These will be offered through Google’s
Developer Student Club network and other
Google Developer networks.
 Google will also offer mentorship sessions
in product design, strategy and technology
to the most promising products and
prototypes.
16. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:

head of the NWBL.
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Option (b) is correct: PM is the ex-officio
Supplementary notes:
SC
National Board for Wildlife
 National board for wildlife recently gave its
approval to Gulmarg defence project.
 The proposed project in J&K includes
installation of air defence and weaponry
along with helipad construction. “Only radar
system would be set up in the sanctuary
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area and all other basic infrastructure will
be outside the wildlife area”.
 The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL)
has given its nod for an air defence and
weaponry project in Jammu and Kashmir
in which 1.18 hectares of Gulmarg Wildlife
Sanctuary land will be used. The project
will also cover 12.35 hectares of forest land
outside Gulmarg Sanctuary.
 The proposal, recommended by the then
State Chief Wildlife Warden with 17 riders/
conditions, was cleared at a July 18 meeting
of the standing committee of NBWL.
The meeting was chaired by Minister for
Environment, Forest and Climate.
17. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The Ministry of
Women and Child Development (MWCD) is
implementing POSHAN Abhiyaan.
7 PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
Supplementary notes:
POSHAN Abhiyaan
 POSHAN Abhiyaan is a multi-
ministerial convergence mission with
the vision to ensure attainment of
malnutrition free India by 2022.
 The objective of POSHAN Abhiyaan to
reduce stunting in identified Districts
of India with the highest malnutrition
burden by improving utilization of key
Anganwadi Services and improving
the quality of Anganwadi Services
delivery.
 Its aim to ensure holistic development and
adequate nutrition for pregnant women,
mothers and children.
 The Ministry of Women and Child
Development (MWCD) is implementing
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POSHAN Abhiyaan in 315 Districts in
first year, 235 Districts in second year
and remaining districts will be covered
in the third year.
 There are a number of schemes directly/
indirectly affecting the nutritional status
of children (0-6 year’s age) and pregnant
women and lactating mothers. In spite of
these, level of malnutrition and related
problems in the country is high. There is
no dearth of schemes but lack of creating
synergy and linking the schemes with each
other to achieve common goal. POSHAN
Abhiyaan through robust convergence
mechanism and other components would
strive to create the synergy.
Feature:
The POSHAN Abhiyaan, as an apex body,
will monitor, supervise, fix targets and guide
the nutrition related interventions across the
Ministries.
The proposal consists of
 mapping of various Schemes contributing
towards addressing malnutrition
 introducing a very robust convergence
mechanism
 ICT based Real Time Monitoring system
 incentivizing States/UTs for meeting the
targets
 incentivizing Anganwadi Workers (AWWs)
for using IT based tools
 eliminating registers used by AWWs
 introducing measurement of height of
children at the AnganwadiCentres (AWCs)
 Social Audits
 Setting-up Nutrition Resource Centres,
involving masses through Jan Andolan for
their participation on nutrition through
various activities, among others.
18. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: IoEs will be
free to fix and charge fees from foreign
students without restriction
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Each Public
Institution selected as IoE will be provided
financial assistance up to Rs. 1000 crore
over a period of five years.
Supplementary notes:
Institution of Eminence
 University Grants Commission (UGC)
issued / notified enabling regulatory
architecture in the form of UGC (Declaration
of Government Educational Institutions
as Institutions of Eminence) Guidelines,
2017 and UGC (Institutions of Eminence
Deemed to be Universities) Regulations,
2017 to enable 10 public and 10 private
Institutions to emerge as World Class
Teaching and Research Institutions. These
Institutions shall be called as ‘Institutions
of Eminence (IoEs)’.
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 The aim of the scheme is to bring higher
educational institutions selected as
IoEs in top 500 of world ranking in the
next 10 years and in top 100 eventually
overtime.
 The scheme has been launched with an
objective to provide world class teaching
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and research facilities to Indian students
within the country and enhance general
level of education of the country.
The salient features are available in the
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UGC Guidelines and the UGC Regulations
under which greater autonomy viz.
 to admit foreign students up to 30% of
admitted students;
 to recruit foreign faculty upto 25% of
faculty strength;
 to offer online courses upto 20% of its
programmes;
 to enter into academic collaboration with
top 500 in the world ranking Institutions
without permission of UGC;
 free to fix and charge fees from foreign
students without restriction;
 flexibility of course structure in terms of
number of credit hours and years to take
a degree;
 Complete flexibility in fixing of
curriculum and syllabus, etc. has been
provided to IoEs.
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
 Under this scheme, IoEs will have freedom
to choose their own path to become world
class institutions. Institutions shall be
selected as IoEs by the Empowered Expert
Committee (EEC), constituted for this
purpose.
 The EEC shall conduct their appraisal
based on their 15 years strategic vision
plan and 5 years implementation plan as
well as any other measure of demonstrated
commitment to the cause of developing an
Institution of Eminence.
 The EEC will make its recommendation
after engagement with the Institutions to
study their proposals, hear presentations
from them and after a thorough scrutiny,
rank the Institutions for their suitability for
inclusion in this scheme.
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 Each Public Institution selected as IoE
will be provided financial assistance
up to Rs. 1000 crore over a period of
five years.
19. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 4 is incorrect: MDR-TB is
resistant to anti-TB drugs like isoniazid
and rifampicin
Supplementary notes:
Tuberculosis
Rapid molecular tests: This tests is used

to detect influenza viral RNA or nucleic
acids in respiratory specimens with high
sensitivity and high specificity. Notably,
the detection of influenza viral RNA or
nucleic acids by molecular assays does not
necessarily indicate detection of viable virus
or on-going influenza viral replication.
 Sputum smear microscopy: This
technique requires the examination of
sputum samples using a microscope to
determine the presence of bacteria. In the
current case definitions recommended by
WHO, one positive result is required for a
diagnosis of smear-positive pulmonary TB.
 Culture-based methods: A culture test
involves studying bacteria by growing the
bacteria on different substances. This is to
find out if particular bacteria are present.
In the case of the TB culture test the test
is to see if the TB bacteria Mycobacterium
tuberculosis, are present.
 Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease
usually caused by Mycobacterium
tuberculosis (MTB) Bacteria.
Tuberculosis generally affects the lungs,
but can also affect other parts of the body.
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  India is the country with the highest
burden of TB According to the World
Health Organization (WHO) India has
close to 27 lakh TB cases every year and
4.23 lakh cases die (2016).
 National Strategic Plan (NSP) for 2017-
2025 has been set up in line with other
health sector strategies and global efforts,
such as the draft National Health Policy
2015, World Health Organization’s (WHO)
End TB Strategy and the Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs) of the United
Nations (UN) for TB elimination by 2025.
 The Health Ministry has signed a
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
with Wadhwani Institute for Artificial
Intelligence (AI) to explore the application
of Artificial Intelligence technology in its
fight against tuberculosis (TB) in 2019.
 Revised National TB Programme
(RNTCP) aims at adoption of AI
technologies for building easy TB combats.
RNTCP is the state-run tuberculosis
(TB) control initiative of the Government
of India.
 As per the National Strategic Plan 2012–
O has become the 2nd largest producer
17, the program has a vision of achieving
a “TB free India”, and aims to achieve
Universal Access to TB control services.
 As part of the collaboration, Wadhwani AI
would support the National TB programme
SC
by helping it become AI-ready which includes
developing, piloting, and deploying AI-based
solutions. It would support the programme
in vulnerability and hot-spot mapping,
modeling novel methods of screening and
diagnostics.
 India plans to end TB by 2025, five
years ahead of the Global Sustainable
GS
Development targets. Meanwhile, World
Health Organization (WHO) stated that
countries aiming to reduce their TB burden
by 2035.
 Most of the tests used for early detection
of TB are not promising. For example,
sputum testing is only 50% accurate and
frequently misses the disease in its early
stages. Molecular testing – while highly
accurate – is too expensive for population
screening in most regions. AI is very helpful
in detection of TB with accuracy and
precision.
 MDR-TB is resistant to anti-TB drugs like
isoniazid and rifampicin
20. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: M-SIPS was
launched in 2012 under NEP, 2012 and
ended in 2018.
Supplementary notes:
National Electronics Policy (NEP)
 National Electronics Policy (NEP) is
launched in 2019 and replaced the earlier
National Electronics Policy, 2012. It
aims at making India a global hub
for Electronics System Design and
Manufacturing (ESDM) by creating an
enabling environment for the industry
to compete globally. It promotes domestic
manufacturing in the entire value-chain
of ESDM, including core components and
materials to increase the domestic value
addition and reduce dependence on import
of electronic goods by focusing on scale, skill
and technology.
 NEP 2019 primarily targets increasing the
electronic goods exports. The rising trend
RE
has been seen in electronics exports amid
slowdown in Indian economy. The total
value of production of electronic goods
has increased from $31.2 billion in FY15
to $65.5 billion in FY19. Electronics
exports are led by mobile phones. India
of mobile phones, replacing Vietnam.
India started to become an alternate
production destination because of: 1).
Pull Factors include potential domestic
demand and government policies to boost
electronic exports. 2). Push Factors include
trade tensions between the US and China.
This is expected that the positive trend in
India’s electronic exports to continue.
 Modified Special Incentive Package
Scheme (M-SIPS): M-SIPS was launched
in 2012 under NEP, 2012 and ended in
2018.
21. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct: Exercise
TSENTR2019 is part of the annual series
of large scale exercises that form part of
the Russian Armed Forces’ annual training
cycle.
Supplementary notes:
EXTSENTR
 Russia holds this major military exercise
every year at one of its four military
Commands i.e Vostok (East), Zapad (West),
TSENTR (Centre) and Kavkas (South).
The series of exercise rotates through the
four main Russian operational strategic
commands.
 These annual exercises have slowly begun
taking an international character, with
9 PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
 Belarus participating in ZAPAD-2017
and China and Mongolia participating in
VOSTOK-2018.
 This year’s Exercise TSENTR 2019 will be
conducted by Central Military Commission
of Russia. Apart from host Russia, military
contingents from China, India, Kazakhstan,
Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Pakistan and
Uzbekistan will also take part in this mega
event.
 The exercise aims at evolving drills of the
participating armies and practicing them in
the fight against the scourge of international
terrorism thereby ensuring military security
in the strategic central Asian region.
 The TSENTR-2019 strategic measures
will focus on evaluating the level of troop
preparedness, the acquisition of the
required skills and raising the level of inter-
operability and demonstrate the readiness
of the participating armies.
22. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
CO
 Option (b) is correct: The size of
Hurricane is mainly measured by the
Saffir-Simpson scale.
Supplementary notes:
Hurricane
 A hurricane is a large rotating storm with
high speeds of wind that gust at least
S
74 mph that forms over warm waters in
tropical areas.
 Hurricanes have three main parts, the calm
eye in the center, the eyewall where the
GS
winds and rains are the strongest, and the
rain bands which spin out from the center
and give the storm its size
 In the southern hemisphere, hurricanes
rotate in a clockwise direction, and in
the northern hemisphere they rotate in an
anti-clockwise direction. This is due to
what’s called the Coriolis Force, produced
by the Earth’s rotation.
How are hurricanes formed?
 Hurricanes begin as tropical disturbances
in warm ocean waters with surface
temperatures of at least 80 degrees
Fahrenheit (26.5 degrees Celsius). Those
low-pressure systems are fed by energy
from warm seas.
 A storm with wind speeds of 38 miles (61
km) an hour or less is classified as a tropical
depression. It becomes a tropical storm—and
is given a name, according to conventions
determined by the World Meteorological
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
Organization—when its sustained wind
speeds top 39 miles (63 km) an hour.
 Hurricanes are enormous heat engines that
deliver energy on a staggering scale. They
draw heat from warm, moist ocean air and
release it through condensation of water
vapor in thunderstorms.
 Hurricanes spin around a low-pressure
center known as the eye. Sinking air makes
this 20- to 40-mile-wide (32- to 64-kilometer-
wide) area notoriously calm. But the eye is
surrounded by a circular “eye wall” that
contains the storm’s strongest winds and
rain.
Hurricane Dorian
 Dorian is estimated to be the second-most-
powerful hurricane ever recorded in the
RE
Atlantic Ocean and ties the record for the
most-powerful storm to make landfall,
according to the National Weather Service
 The storm is not currently expected to make
landfall in the US; it should instead stay
uncomfortably close offshore.
 The storm could bring several inches of
rain or more for parts of Florida and the
Southeast.
 The deadliest aspect of a hurricane tends
to be storm surge (flooding caused
by seawater pushed onshore by the
hurricane’s winds).
 Reason behind downgrading of
Category of Dorian: Dorian has slowed
down because a high pressure ridge that
was steering the storm westward has
weakened. Now, the storm is essentially
waiting for another external force before it
starts moving quickly again.
23. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: India is a
major part of this project but it is not
indigenously designed and developed
in India.
Supplementary notes:
Project Miniature Sun
 Nick named as ‘miniature sun’,
International Thermonuclear
Experimental Reactor (ITER) is the
largest plasma based fusion reactor ever
built.
 It is the costliest technological project of the
21st century with an estimated construction
cost of $25 Billion.
10
  The project site is located in Cadarache,
Southern France.
 The term ‘Thermonuclear’ indicates the
nuclear fusion reaction.
 ITER will be two times the size of the largest
fusion reactor present and the chamber
volume will be 10 times the present one.
 It is worth mentioning here that the mega
project is undertaken by USA, Russia, South
Korea, China, Japan, European Union and
India.
India’s Contribution
 India has also provided a Cryostat, the
world’s largest refrigerator, weighing
around 3800 tons and made with stainless
steel. It is built by Larsen & Toubro
 It will cover the entire structure and
keep the magnetic components at a very
low temperature (less than -200OC) for
maintaining the superconductivity of
magnets.
24. Correct Option: (b) O thus, 85% of the exoplanets detected are inside
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: It is eight times
the mass of Earth and not Jupiter.
SC
Supplementary notes:
K2-18b
 K2-18b an exoplanet that orbits around
a small red dwarf star K2-18, nearly 110
light-years away in the constellation Leo.
K2-18b was first discovered in 2015 by

25. Correct Option: (d)
GS
Nasa’s now retired Kepler space telescope.
 It was found orbiting within the red dwarf
star’s habitable zone, making it an ideal
candidate to have liquid surface water.
 Having a mass that is eight times greater
than Earth’s, K2-18b is also known as
Super-Earth exoplanets with masses
between those of Earth and Neptune.
 The Kepler satellite mission discovered
nearly two-third of all known exoplanets.
While the mission indicated that five to 20
per cent of these are located in the habitable
zone of their stars.
 Water vapour has been detected on K2-18b
a potentially ‘habitable’ planet by Nasa and
the European space agency’s Hubble Space
Telescope.
 K2-18b could be the only exoplanet known
to have both water and temperatures in its
atmosphere to sustain liquid water on a
rocky surface
11
 The new finding offers an ‘unprecedented
opportunity’ to gain insight into the
composition and climate of habitable-zone
planets.
 K2-18b is not ‘Earth 2.0’ as it is significantly
heavier and has a different atmospheric
composition.
 This study contributes to our understanding
of habitable worlds beyond our Solar
System and marks a new era in exoplanet
research.
What Is an Exoplanet?
 All of the planets in our solar system orbit
around the Sun. Planets that orbit around
other stars are called exoplanets.
 Exoplanets are very hard to see directly with
telescopes. They are hidden by the bright glare
RE
of the stars they orbit.
 There are many methods of detecting
exoplanets. Transit photometry and Doppler
spectroscopy have found the most, but these
methods suffer from a clear observational bias
favoring the detection of planets near the star;
the tidal locking zone.
 One way to search for exoplanets is to look for
“wobbly” stars. A star that has planets doesn’t
orbit perfectly around its center. From far
away, this off-center orbit makes the star look
like its wobbling.
 The most massive planet listed on the NASA
Exoplanet Archive is HR 2562 b, about 30
times the mass of Jupiter.
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
eSIM
 An eSIM is exactly what it sounds like an
electronic, or embedded, SIM. Instead of a
physical card, SIM technology is built right
into your phone. It’s a small chip that’s
used to authenticate our identity with our
carrier.
 One of the advantages of eSIM technology
is that it makes it much easier to switch
carriers. Instead of having to order a new
SIM and wait around for it to arrive, you
can switch to a new carrier straight from
your phone.
 eSIM technology supports multiple
accounts and switching between them
is super easy.
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
  It will help make devices smaller.
 It could be extremely helpful for
wearables devices.
26. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Uyghur Community
 The Uyghurs are Turkic-speaking
Muslims from the Central Asian
region.
 The largest population lives in China’s
autonomous Xinjiang region, in the
country’s north-west.
 The Uyghurs are one of a number of
persecuted Muslim minorities in Xinjiang,
including the Kazakhs, Uzbeks, Tajiks,
Kyrgyz and Hui.
 Many Uyghur communities also live in
countries neighbouring China, such as
Uzbekistan, Kyrgyzstan and Kazakhstan,
CO
Australia.
27. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct: It was the largest
flying animal which was a plane-sized
reptile.
S
Supplementary notes:
Cryodrakon Boreas
GS
 New species of pterosaur, the plane-sized
reptiles that lorded over primeval skies
above T-rex, Triceratops and other dinosaurs
of the late Cretaceous.
 With a wingspan of 10 m and weighing
250 kg, Cryodrakon boreas rivals another
pterosaur as the largest flying animal of all
time
 Its remains were first discovered more
than 30 years ago in Alberta, Canada, yet
elicited scant excitement because of the
misclassification.
 Like other winged reptiles living at the
same time, about 77 million years ago, C.
boreas was carnivorous and probably fed
on lizards, small mammals and even baby
dinosaurs.
 Despite their large size and wide distribution
across North and South America, Asia,
Africa and Europe only fragmentary
remains have been unearthed, making the
new find especially important.
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
28. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Bonn
Challenge is not a new global commitment
but rather a practical means of realizing
many existing international commitments,
including the CBD Aichi Target 15.
Supplementary notes:
Bonn Challenge
 The Bonn Challenge is a global effort to bring
150 million hectares of the world’s deforested
and degraded land into restoration by 2020,
and 350 million hectares by 2030.
 It was launched in 2011 by the Government
of Germany and IUCN, and later endorsed
and extended by the New York Declaration
RE
on Forests at the 2014 UN Climate
Summit.
 Bonn Challenge is the forest landscape
restoration (FLR) approach, which
aims to restore ecological integrity at
the same time as improving human
well-being through multifunctional
landscapes.
 The Bonn Challenge is not a new global
commitment but rather a practical
means of realizing many existing
international commitments, including
the CBD Aichi Target 15, the UNFCCC
REDD+ goal, and the Rio+20 land
degradation neutrality goal.
29. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The “Ban
Amendment” provides for the prohibition
by Parties listed in Annex VII (members
of OECD, EU, Liechtenstein) of all
transboundary movements of hazardous
wastes including electronic wastes and
obsolete ships which are destined for final
disposal operations from OECD to non-
OECD States.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: India has not
ratified the Basel ban amendment.
Supplementary notes:
Basel Convention
 The Basel Convention on the Control of
Transboundary Movements of Hazardous
Wastes and their Disposal was adopted
on 22 March 1989 by the Conference of
Plenipotentiaries in Basel, Switzerland, in
response to a public outcry following the
discovery, in the 1980s, in Africa and other
parts of the developing world of deposits of
toxic wastes imported from abroad.
12
  It does not address the movement of
radioactive waste.
 To implement and restrict the trade of
hazardous waste between more developed
countries and less developed countries an
organization is formed which is known as
Basel Action Network (BAN).
The provisions of the Convention center
around the following principal aims
 The reduction of hazardous waste generation
and the promotion of environmentally sound
management of hazardous wastes, wherever
the place of disposal.
 The restriction of transboundary movements
of hazardous wastes except where it is
perceived to be in accordance with the
principles of environmentally sound
management.
 A regulatory system applying to cases where
transboundary movements are permissible.
The Basel Convention BAN Amendment
 The Ban Amendment was originally adopted
as a decision of the second meeting of the
Conference of the Parties in March 1994.
O of pig production systems, the presence/
 According to amendment, it was agreed
that such “Annex VII Parties” prohibit and
phase out all transboundary movements of
hazardous wastes destined for recovery or
SC
recycling operations from OECD to non-
OECD States by 31 December 1997.
 At COP-3 in 1995, Parties adopted the same
as a further amendment to the Convention
known as the “Ban Amendment”.
 The Ban Amendment had been stalled for
all these years till now due to uncertainty
over how to interpret the Convention.
GS
Ratification status of other major
countries
 According to BAN the United States, the
world’s most wasteful country per-capita,
has not ratified the Basel Convention, nor
the Ban Amendment
 Other developed countries like Canada,
Japan, Australia, and New Zealand,
likewise, have e-waste export problems and
they too have so far refused to ratify the
Ban Amendment.
 South Korea, Russia, India, Brazil, and
Mexico are yet to ratify the ban.
30. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Although signs
of ASF and classical swine fever (CSF) may
be similar, the ASF virus is not related to
the CSF virus.
13
 Statement 3 is incorrect: ASF is not
a risk to human health as it is relatively
harmless.
Supplementary notes:
What is African swine fever?
 Historically, outbreaks have been reported
in Africa and parts of Europe, South
America, and the Caribbean. More recently
(since 2007) the disease has been reported
in multiple countries across Africa, Asia and
Europe, in both domestic and wild pigs.
 African swine fever (ASF) is a highly
contagious haemorrhagic viral disease
(severe illness, sometimes associated
with bleeding), of domestic and wild
pigs.
It is caused by a large DNA virus of the
RE

Asfarviridae family, which also infects ticks
of the genus Ornithodoros.
Transmission and spread:
 The epidemiology of ASF is complex and
varies depending on the environment, types
absence of competent tick vectors, human
behaviour, and the presence/absence of wild
pigs.
 Direct contact with infected domestic or wild
pigs: This transboundary animal disease
(TAD) can be spread by live or dead pigs,
domestic or wild, and pork products.
 Indirect contact, through ingestion of
contaminated material (e.g. food waste,
feed, or garbage). Contaminated fomites,
or biological vectors (soft ticks of the genus
Ornithodoros) where present.
Prevention and control:
 Currently there is no approved vaccine for
ASF.
 United Nations Food and Agriculture
Organization (FAO) reported that ASF has
caused the deaths of more than 3.7 million
pigs across a vast swathe of Asia, primarily
in its east and south-east, where pork is the
primary meat staple.
 Although signs of ASF and classical
swine fever (CSF) may be similar,
the ASF virus is unrelated to the CSF
virus.
 ASF is not a risk to human health as it
is relatively harmless.
31. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All pairs are correctly matched
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
 Supplementary notes:
 Crimean-Congo
Meaning of Vectors haemorrhagic fever

 Vectors are living organisms that can  Lyme disease

transmit infectious diseases between Ticks  Relapsing fever
humans or from animals to humans. (borreliosis)
 Many of these vectors are bloodsucking  Tick-borne encephalitis
insects, which ingest disease-producing
 Tularaemia
microorganisms during a blood meal from
an infected host (human or animal) and Triatomine  Chagas disease (American
later inject it into a new host during their bugs trypanosomiasis)
subsequent blood meal.  Sleeping sickness (African
Tsetse flies
 Mosquitoes are the best known disease trypanosomiasis)
vector. Others include ticks, flies, sandflies,  Plague (transmitted by
fleas, triatomine bugs and some freshwater fleas from rats to humans)
Fleas
aquatic snails.
 Rickettsiosis
 Meaning of Vector-borne diseases:

RE
 Onchocerciasis (river
Vector-borne diseases are human illnesses Black flies
 blindness)
caused by parasites, viruses and bacteria
that are transmitted by vectors.  Typhus and louse-borne
Lice
relapsing fever
 The major vector-borne diseases, together,
account for around 17% of all infectious
diseases. The burden of these diseases is 32. Correct Option: (b)
CO
highest in tropical and subtropical areas
Explanation:
and they disproportionately affect the
poorest populations.  Statement 1 is incorrect: The PM-KMY is
a Central Sector Scheme, administered by
 Since 2014, major outbreaks of dengue, the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation
malaria, chikungunya, yellow fever and & Farmers Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture
Zika have afflicted populations, claimed & Farmers’ Welfare.
lives and overwhelmed health systems in
Supplementary notes:
many countries.
S

Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan-Dhan

Main vectors and diseases they transmit: Yojana
Vector Disease  The PM-KMY is a Central Sector Scheme,
GS

administered by the Department of

 Chikungunya Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers
 Dengue fever Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’
Welfare.
Aedes  Lymphatic filariasis
 The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan-Dhan
mosquit Rift Valley fever
 Yojana (PM-KMY) provides for an assured
 Yellow fever monthly pension of Rs. 3000/- to all land
holding Small and Marginal Farmers
 Zika (SMFs), whether male or female, on their
attaining the age of 60 years.
 Malaria
 The amount of the monthly contribution
 Lymphatic filariasis
ranges between Rs.55 to Rs.200 per month
Anopheles  Culex mosquito depending upon the age of entry of the
mosquit farmers into the Scheme.
 Japanese encephalitis
 The Central Government will also make an
 Lymphatic filariasis equal contribution of the same amount in
 West Nile fever the pension fund.

 Leishmaniasis  The spouse is also eligible to get a separate

(Kala-Azar) pension of Rs.3000/- upon making separate
Sandflies contributions to the Fund.
 Sandfly fever (phelebotomus
fever)  In case of death of the farmer before
retirement date, the spouse may continue

PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26 14
 in the scheme by paying the remaining
contributions till the remaining age of the
deceased farmer.
 If the farmer dies after the retirement date,
the spouse will receive 50% of the pension
as Family Pension.
 After the death of both the farmer and the
spouse, the accumulated corpus shall be
credited back to the Pension Fund.
Eligibility
 All Small and Marginal Farmers (SMFs)
in all States and Union Territories of the
country, who are of the age of 18 years
and above and upto the age of 40 years,
and who do not fall within the purview of
the exclusion criteria as mentioned in the
guidelines, are eligible to avail the benefits
of this Scheme by joining it.
 Farmers falling within the purview of the
exclusion criteria are not eligible for the
benefit.
Exclusion criteria
 SMFs covered under any other statuary
social security schemes such as National
Pension Scheme (NPS), Employees’ State
O
Insurance Corporation scheme, Employees’
Fund Organization Scheme etc.
 Farmers who have opted for Pradhan Mantri
SC
Shram Yogi Maan Dhan Yojana (PMSYM)
administered by the Ministry of Labour &
Employment.
 Farmers who have opted for Pradhan
Mantri Laghu Vyapari Maan-dhan Yojana
(PM-LVM) administered by the Ministry of
Labour & Employment.
GS
 The following categories of beneficiaries of
higher economic status are not eligible for
benefits under the scheme:
 All Institutional Land holders.
 Former and present holders of constitutional
posts
 Professionals like Doctors, Engineers,
Lawyers, Chartered Accountants, and
Architects registered with Professional
bodies and carrying out profession by
undertaking practice.
33. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary notes:
NISHTHA
 National Mission to improve learning
outcomes at the elementary level
15
through an Integrated Teacher
Training Programme called NISHTHA
is launched by The Department of
School Education and Literacy under
the Centrally Sponsored Scheme of
Samagra Shiksha in 2109-20.
 NISHTHA is a capacity building programme
for “Improving Quality of School Education
through Integrated Teacher Training”.
 It aims to build competencies among all
the teachers and school principals at the
elementary stage.
 NISHTHA is the world’s largest teachers’
training programme of its kind.
 The basic objective of this massive training
programme is to motivate and equip
teachers to encourage and foster critical
thinking in students. The initiative is first
RE
of its kind wherein standardized training
modules are developed at national level for
all States and UTs.
 This integrated programme aims to build
the capacities of around 42 lakh participants
covering all teachers and Heads of Schools
at the elementary level in all Government
schools, faculty members of State Councils
of Educational Research and Training
(SCERTs), District Institutes of Education
and Training (DIETs) as well as Block
Resource Coordinators and Cluster Resource
Coordinators in all States and UTs.
 Training will be conducted directly by
33120 Key Resource Persons (KRPs) and
State Resource Persons (SRP) identified
by the State and UTs, who will in turn
be trained by 120 National Resource
Persons identified from National Council
of Educational Research and Training
(NCERT), National Institute of Educational
Planning and Administration (NIEPA),
Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS),
Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS), Central
Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) and
Non-Government Organisations.
 The prominent features of this integrated
programme are activity based modules
including educational games and quizzes,
Social-emotional learning, motivational
interactions, team building, preparation for
school based assessment, in-built continuous
feedback mechanism, online monitoring and
support system, training need and impact
analysis (Pre and Post training).
34. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It is issued by
Government of India.
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
 Supplementary notes:
ILP
 ILP is an official travel document issued
by the Government of India to grant
inward travel of an Indian citizen into
a protected area for a limited period.
Visitors are not allowed to purchase
property in these regions.
 Validity of permit is generally 15-20 days.
 Prior to Manipur’s merger with India,
Manipur had become a state and nearly
had the ILP system. However, it was only
in 1951 when the then chief commissioner
Himmat Singh lifted the rule and allowed
unregulated entry of outsiders into the
region.
 According to the 2011 census, the population
of Manipur is a little over 27 lakh. Of this,
only 17 lakh (1.7 million) are indigenous
people and 10 lakh (one million) are
outsiders.
 The ongoing agitation took an ugly turn
when villagers torched the houses of MP
CO
and MLAs.
 Currently, the Inner Line Permit is
operational in Arunachal Pradesh,
Mizoram and Nagaland. In addition to
these, Meghalaya, Manipur, Andaman
and Nicobar Islands and Leh also
require Indian citizens to have a permit
before they enter.
S
 It has been issued under the Bengal
Eastern Frontier Regulation, 1873 and the
conditions and restrictions vary from state
to state.
GS
 It can be issued for travel purposes solely.
 Visitors are not allowed to purchase
property in these regions. However, there
might be a different set of rules for long
term visitors, though they are not valid for
central government employees and security
forces.
Purpose
 To regulate the movement of visitors into
sensitive regions
 To strengthen security of the sensitive areas
near to international borders
 To protect the cultural ethos of a specific
region
35. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
Supplementary notes:
Mietei Community
 Mietei community of Manipur who are
largely Hindus are believed to be behind
the violent protests. The tribal populations
in Manipur have no role in protests.
 Meiteis demand the Scheduled Tribe status
and the tribals are saying if Meiteis are
given the ST status they will buy all their
lands.
 The influx of foreign tourists and illegal
immigration from Bangladesh, Nepal and
Myanmar has contributed to the crisis.
This has created fear among the locals over
employment and availability of resources.
Meiteis want strict imposition of ILP
in Manipur to protect their culture and
identity.
RE
 Meiteis abandoned their traditional
Sanamahi faith and converted en mass to
Hinduism.
36. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct:
Supplementary notes:
Market Intervention Scheme
 Jammu and Kashmir Governor, Satya Pal
Malik launched market intervention scheme
for apples of J&K.
 Kashmir’s apple is battling to get exported
outside the State this year due to shut
down and suspected militants campaigning
against the fruit’s export.
 In the absence of MSP like scheme
for apples J&K Govt. plans to procure
12 lakh metric tonnes worth of 8,000
crores under market intervention
scheme with the help of the National
Agriculture Cooperative Marketing
Federation of India (NAFED). It makes
60% of the estimated annual apple
production.
 It has been approved by the Department
of Agriculture and Cooperation, Union
Ministry of Agriculture under the aegis
of Ministry of Home Affairs, for the
current apple harvesting season.
 In J&K, the scheme will be implemented
by the Directorate of Planning and
Marketing, supported by the Directorate
of Horticulture (Kashmir) and Jammu and
Kashmir Horticultural Produce, Marketing
and Processing Corporation Ltd.
 Kashmir produced 20 lakh metric tonnes of
apple in 2018, contributing 73% to the total
apple production of the country.
16
  The period of procurement would be
for six months, starting September, at
a cost of Rs. 8,000 crore.
 Apples to be bought from the doorsteps
of the orchardists. Direct payment
will be made to their account.
Transportation will be the job of the
procurer only.
 The government has set up mandis for the
scheme at Srinagar’s Parimpora, Baramulla’s
Sopore, Shopian and Anantnag’s Botengu.
Significance
 It would help stabilize the price of
apples and help maintain a uniform
rate in the open market across the
country, after India raised tariffs on
apple imports from the United States
earlier this year.
 It will provide the much needed support to
the fruit growers in Jammu and Kashmir.
Earlier, government failed to provide the
required number of trucks for transportation
of the apples.


from the doorsteps of the farmers.
O
Ease and convenience for the farmers as
apples will be procured and transported
It will help in building the necessary
SC
forwards and backward linkage in the apple
industry in Jammu and Kashmir. The
building of cold storages will also receive
the necessary attention in the region.
37. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
GS
 Statement 3 is not correct: India is not
founding member of Shanghai Cooperation
Organisation.
Supplementary notes:
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
(SCO)
 The SCO, an intergovernmental body for
security and economic cooperation in the
Eurasian region, was formed in 2001 by
the ‘Shanghai Five’ (China, Kazakhstan,
Kyrgyzstan, Russia and Tajikistan), in
the wake of the Soviet Union’s collapse in
1991.
 Uzbekistan joined the SCO in 2001, with
India and Pakistan following suit in 2017.
 It aimed to cooperate against non-
traditional security challenges, in
particular fighting the so-called “three
evils” of terrorism, separatism, and
extremism.
17
 The fact that the SCO also strives
to strengthen mutual trust and good
neighbourly relations between its member
states.
 On 9 June 2017, at a summit in Astana,
India and Pakistan officially joined SCO as
full members.
38. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct: A gig economy is
a free market system in which temporary
positions are common and organizations
contract with independent workers for
short-term engagements
Supplementary notes:
RE
Gig Economy
 In a gig economy, temporary, flexible jobs
are commonplace and companies tend
toward hiring independent contractors and
freelancers instead of full-time employees.
 A gig economy undermines the traditional
economy of full-time workers who rarely

change positions and instead focus on a
lifetime career.
The gig economy can benefit workers,
businesses, and consumers by making work
more adaptable to the needs of the moment
and demand for flexible lifestyles.
 At the same time, the gig economy can have
downsides due to the erosion of traditional
economic relationships between workers,
businesses, and clients.
39. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct: Logistics
Performance Index (LPI) is published by
World Bank.
Supplementary notes:
Logistics Performance Index
 The Logistics Performance Index (LPI) is an
interactive benchmarking tool created by
the World Bank to help countries identify
the challenges and opportunities they face
in their performance on trade logistics
and what they can do to improve their
performance.
 The LPI is based on a worldwide survey
of operators on the ground (global freight
forwarders and express carriers), providing
feedback on the logistics “friendliness” of
the countries in which they operate and
those with which they trade.
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
  They combine in-depth knowledge of the
countries in which they operate with
informed qualitative assessments of other
countries where they trade and experience
of global logistics environment.
 Feedback from operators is supplemented
with quantitative data on the performance
of key components of the logistics chain in
the country of work.
40. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes
Sant Ravidas—the mystic Guru of Bhakti
movement
 Guru Ravidas was a famous saint of
the Bhakti Movement and was born in
1377 C.E. at Mandhuadhe which is located
in Uttar Pradesh, India.
 He was one of the most famous and leading
star of the nirgunasampradaya means
santparampara and lead the North Indian
Bhakti movement.
CO
 He has given variety of spiritual and social
messages through his great writings of
poetry to his lovers, followers, community
people, and society people to reform their
mind and show their boundless love towards
God.
 He was the vision of people as a messiah in
order to complete the social and spiritual
S
needs. He was the spiritually rich person
worshipped by the people.
 Guru Ravidas was also known as Raidas,
GS
Rohidas or Ruhidas.
 Sant Guru Ravidasji is considered as a
spiritual Guru of the Meera Bai
 She was very impressed by the teachings
of Guru RavidassJi and became the great
follower of him.
 Meera Bai has written some lines in
the respect of his Guru “Guru Milyaa
Ravidasji”
 He was sent by the God on the earth when
required him to save the real Dharma as at
that time social and religious patterns were
distressing because of the lots of man-made
discriminations over social beliefs, caste,
colour and etc.
 He bravely faced all the discriminations and
answered people about the real definition of
beliefs and castes.
 He taught people that one is not known by
his caste, religion or believes for God, he
known only for his great actions (or karma).
He also worked against the system of
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
untouchability in the society by the higher
caste people for lower caste people.
 He spread a message that “God created
man and not man created God” means
everyone is created by the God and has
equal rights on this earth.
41. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Vultures are
native to India, Pakistan and Nepal
Supplementary notes:
Critically Endangered Indian Vulture
(Gyps indicus)
 Nine species of vulture can be found living
in India, but most are now in danger of
RE
extinction.
 The number declined from 40 million in the
80s to a few thousand by 2009.
 The major reason behind the vulture
population getting nearly wiped out was
the drug Diclofenac, found in the carcass of
cattle the vultures fed on. The drug, whose
veterinary use was banned in 2008, was
commonly administered to cattle to treat
inflammation.
 The IUCN Red Data Book has listed Gyps
bengalensis as “critically endangered”.
 The dramatic vulture decline observed
across India presents a range of ecological
threats, by influencing the numbers and
distribution of other scavenging species.
Increased feral dog populations have been
reported all over in India, posing many
associated disease risks such as rabies to
humans and wildlife.
 The Hindu religion, which represents 80%
of the country’s population, is particularly
favourable to vultures. Cows are considered
sacred by majority of Hindus, so cow meat
is generally not consumed. This results in
the cow’s corpse being left to be fed on by
vultures.
FACT BOOK
 Habitat and Ecology: Forest, Grassland,
Shrubland, Savanna, Artificial/Terrestrial
 IUCN status: Critically Endangered
 Major Threat: Diclofenac Drug
 Vulture Care Centre (VCC): set up at
Pinjore, Haryana.
 Vulture Conservation and Breeding
Centres (VCBC) in India: 9
 Extant (resident): India; Pakistan
18
42. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
HOG Technology
 The new technology is expected to transform
the way air conditioners (ACs) run and
power is supplied in the railway coaches
 In HOG technology, power is fed from the
electric locomotive to the train to cater for
the Hotel Load of the train.
 It will reduce the power consumption
to a drastic level thus opening the door
towards sustainable use of resources.
43. Correct Option: (a)
45. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Rome Statute
 The Rome Statute, a multilateral treaty,
O NIRVIK
is the foundation and governing document
of the International Criminal Court
(ICC).
 The Rome Statute of the International
SC
Criminal Court is an agreement that led to
the formation of the International Criminal
Court (ICC).
International Criminal Court
 The International Criminal Court is an
intergovernmental organization and
international tribunal that sits in The Hague,
Netherlands.
GS
 The ICC has jurisdiction to prosecute individuals
for the international crimes of genocide, crimes
against humanity, war crimes, and crimes of
aggression.
 It is intended to complement existing national
judicial systems and it may therefore exercise
its jurisdiction only when certain conditions
are met, such as when national courts are
unwilling or unable to prosecute criminals or
when the United Nations Security Council or
individual states refer situations to the Court.
44. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Jan Soochna Portal
 Jan Soochna Portal is the first ever public
information portal launched by the
government of Rajasthan.
19
 Section 4(2) of the Right to Information
(RTI) Act of 2005 requires public authorities
to disclose information pro-actively. The
Jan Soochna Portal will not require
citizens to submit RTI application for
seeking information.
 Aim: To provide information on government
services and authorities to public suo-moto
in the true spirit of right to information.
 The portal will prevent anomalies and
corruption in government.
 A mobile app will be developed and self-
service portals will be installed in villages
so that people can access the Jan Soochna
Portal easily and get the information they
require.
RE
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
 Export Credit Guarantee Corporation
of India (ECGC) has introduced
‘NIRVIK’ scheme to ease the lending
process and enhance loan availability
for exporters.
 Insurance cover guaranteed will cover
up to 90 percent of the principal and
interest.
 The increased cover will ensure that foreign
and rupee export credit interest rates
are below 4 percent and 8 percent
respectively for the exporters.
 The insurance cover will include both pre
and post-shipment credit.
 The gems, jeweller and diamond (GJD)
sector borrowers with limit of over
Rs 80 crore will have a higher premium
rate in comparison to the non-GJD sector
borrowers of this category due to the higher
loss ratio.
 For accounts with limits below Rs 80 crore,
the premium rates will be moderated to
0.60 per annum and for those exceeding Rs
80 crore, the rates will be 0.72 per annum
for the same enhanced cover.
 It mandates inspection of bank documents
and records by ECGC officials for losses
exceeding Rs. 10 crore as against the present
Rs 1 crore.
 The banks shall pay a premium to ECGC
monthly on the principal and interest as the
cover is offered for both outstanding.
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
  The Export Credit Guarantee
Corporation of India (ECGC) is a fully
government-owned company that
was established in 1957 to promote
exports by providing credit insurance
services.
 The ECGC provides Export Credit Insurance
to Banks (ECIB) to protect the banks from
losses on account of export credit at the Pre
and Post-Shipment stage given to exporters
due to the risks of insolvency or protracted
default of the exporter borrower.
46. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Teaser Loans
 Teaser Loans is a term used
for loans that offer low, fixed interest
rates in the initial few years, but switch
to floating rates thereafter.
 SBI first introduced teaser loan in
CO
2009-10.
 The RBI is not likely to allow the return of
teaser home loans, following the introduction
of the external benchmark-linked loan
pricing.
 SBI had tried to bring back teaser
loans several times in the past. However,
the RBI does not seem to be in its favour.
S
 The RBI felt banks could use the low interest
rates to lure customers into taking these
loans and then move to a higher market
GS
rate later. In 2011, the central bank had
increased the provisioning on these loans to
discourage banks from offering them.
47. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statement are correct
Supplementary notes:
Various Prenatal Diagnosis Tests
 Dual Marker and Triple Marker
Tests: These tests look at the level of
certain hormones which are ‘markers’
associated with Down’s Syndrome.
 Ultrasound Tests: They are used
extensively, four-five times in the
pregnancy. Here we look for markers for
certain abnormalities. In the case of Down’s
Syndrome, for example, certain physical
characteristics suggest that the foetus has
this condition. With an ultrasound at 18-19
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
weeks we can pick up lots of information on
structural problems.
 Invasive Tests: These test the amniotic
fluid, chorionic villus tissue or foetal blood.
Sometimes we even do a skin biopsy of the
baby. The other tests will give you a probable
diagnosis – each one has its own proportion
of false positives and false negatives. But
when we test the tissue, we are actually
looking at the genes, chromosomes, DNA,
and this gives us a confirmatory result for
certain genetic diseases. Amniocentesis is
an example of invasive test.
48. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
RE
Supplementary notes:
About LRO:
 Lunar Reconnaissance Orbiter (LRO)
is a robotic mission that set out to map
the moon’s surface and, after a year of
exploration, was extended with a unique set
of science objectives.
 LRO entered lunar orbit on June 23, 2009
and after spacecraft commissioning, the
Exploration Mission began on September
15, 2009.
 The Exploration Mission completed on
September 15, 2010 when responsibility
for LRO was transferred to NASA’s Science
Mission Directorate for a two-year Science
Mission with a new set of science goals. The
LRO mission has been extended to continue
lunar science and exploration.
Focus of the exploration Mission:
 The Exploration Mission was focused
on supporting the extension of human
presence in the solar system.
 LRO continues to help identify sites close to
potential resources with high scientific value,
favourable terrain and the environment
necessary for safe future robotic and human
lunar missions.
 LRO observations have enabled numerous
ground-breaking discoveries, creating a
new picture of the moon as a dynamic and
complex body. These developments have set
up a scientific framework through which to
challenge and improve our understanding
of processes throughout the solar system.
Some of the LRO exploration and science
results:
 In polar shadowed regions found the coldest
spots measured (below 30 K) in the solar
system.
20
  Discovered significant subsurface hydrogen
deposits in regions cold enough for water ice
to survive, as well as in additional hydrogen
deposits in warmer areas where surface
water ice is not thermally stable.
 New (<5 years old) impact craters and are
found to be widespread across the lunar
surface, with a surprising abundance of
related surface changes.
 Developed an improved catalogue of lunar
craters larger than 20 km in diameter,
thus providing constraints on the ancient
impactor population that affected the inner
solar system.
 First radar measurements of the lunar far
side.
 Characterized relatively young volcanic
complexes, such as Ina, and revealed first
direct evidence of the presence of highly
silicic volcanic rocks on the Moon.
 Measured galactic cosmic ray interactions
with the Moon during a period with the
largest cosmic ray intensities observed
during the space age.
O Disadvantages of P-Notes
 Created the first cosmic ray albedo
proton map of the Moon.
49. Correct Option: (b)
SC
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct: Participatory Notes
are regulated by Security and Exchange
Board of India (SEBI).
Supplementary notes:
Participatory Motes (P- Notes)
GS
P-notes are issued by registered foreign
portfolio investors (FPIs) to overseas investors
who wish to be a part of the Indian stock market
without registering themselves directly after
going through a due diligence process.
Who issues P-Notes and what is the
process?
 Participatory notes are issued by
brokers and FIIs registered with SEBI.
The investment is made on behalf of
these foreign investors by the already
registered brokers in India.
 For example, Indian-based brokerages
buy India-based securities and then issue
participatory notes to foreign investors.
Any dividends or capital gains collected
from the underlying securities go back to
the investors.
 The brokers that issue these notes or trades
in Indian securities have to mandatorily
report their PN issuance status to SEBI
21
for each quarter. These notes allow foreign
high networth individuals, hedge funds
and other investors to put money in Indian
markets without being registered with
SEBI, thus making their participation easy
and smooth.
Advantages of participatory notes
 Anonymity: Any entity investing in
participatory notes is not required to
register with SEBI, whereas all FIIs have to
compulsorily get registered. It enables large
hedge funds to carry out their operations
without disclosing their identity.
 Ease of trading: Trading through
participatory notes is easy because they
are like contract notes transferable by
endorsement and delivery.
Tax saving: Some of the entities route their
RE

investment through participatory notes to
take advantage of the tax laws of certain
preferred countries.
 P-Notes also aid in saving time and costs
associated with direct registrations.
 Because of the anonymous nature of the
instrument, the investors could be beyond
the reach of Indian regulators.
P-Notes are being used in money laundering

with wealthy Indians, like the promoters
of companies, using it to bring back
unaccounted funds and to manipulate their
stock prices.
50. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
National Pension Scheme for Traders
and Self Employed Persons
 Under this scheme all shopkeepers,
retail traders and self-employed
persons are assured a minimum
monthly pension of Rs. 3,000/- month
after attaining the age of 60 years.
 All small shopkeepers and self-employed
persons as well as the retail traders with
GST turnover below Rs. 1.5 crore and
age between 18-40 years, can enrol for
this scheme. The scheme would benefit
more than 3 crore small shopkeepers and
traders.
 The scheme is based on self-declaration
as no documents are required except
Aadhaar and bank account. Interested
persons can enrol themselves through
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
 more than 3,25,000 Common Service
Border
Centres spread across the country. Security Force
Sundarban India and (BSF) and
 GSTIN is required only for those with 6.
Maitri Bangladesh Border Guard
turnover above Rs. 40 lakhs. Bangladesh
 The Central Government shall give 50 (BDB)
% share of the monthly contribution and 7. Suryakiran India and Nepal Army exercise
remaining 50% contribution shall be made
by the beneficiary. For example if a person Ex Lamitya Indo-Seychelles
8. Army Exercise
VII Joint Training
with age of 29 years contributes Rs. 100/-
month, then the Central Government also Disaster
contributes the equal amount as subsidy Management
9. SAADMEx SAARC
into subscriber’s pension account every Exercise by
month. NDRF

 The beneficiary should not be income tax Exercise IAF's annual Indian Air
10.
Livewire exercise Force
payer and also not a member of EPFO/
ESIC/NPS (Govt.) /PM-SYM. HAND-IN-
11. India & China Army exercise
HAND
 This scheme will target enrolling 25
lakh subscribers in 2019-20 and 2 crore India & Sri

RE
12. SLINEX Naval Exercise
subscribers by 2023-2024. An estimated 3 Lanka
crore Vyaparis in the country are expected
13. Indra India & Russia Army exercise
to be benefitted under the pension scheme.
India &
14. SAMPRITI Army exercise
Bangladesh
51. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation: 52. Correct Option: (d)
CO
 Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: It is the
first bilateral exercise between Japan Air
Explanation:
Self-Defence Force (JASDF) and the Indian  All statements are correct.
Air Force.
Supplementary notes:
Supplementary notes:
International Migrant Stock
Bilateral Exercises
India was the leading country of origin of
“Dharma Guardian”: It is the first bilateral international migrants in 2019 with a 17.5
S


exercise between the Japan Ground Self-
Defense Force (JGSDF) and the Indian
Army in the area of counter-terrorism.
GS
million strong Diaspora, according to new
estimates released by the United Nations,
which said the number of migrants globally
reached an estimated 272 million.

 ‘SHINYUU MAITRI 18’: It is the first

bilateral exercise between Japan Air Self-  The count of the Indian Diaspora has
Defence Force (JASDF) and the Indian Air increased 10% from 15.9 million in 2015,
Force. making it the largest in the world, according
to the UN’s International Migrant Stock
 “Cope India”: It is the India-U.S. bilateral
2019 released on Wednesday.
exercise.
 The data set was compiled by the UN
Other exercises: Department of Economic and Social Affairs
S. Name of Participating Nature of
Division.
No. exercise country exercise  It now comprises 6.4% of the total global
YUDH India & United migrant population.
1. Army exercise
ABHYAS States
 The United Arab Emirates (UAE) was the
India & top destination of Indian migrants followed
2. KUVERIN Army exercise
Maldives by the US, Saudi Arabia, Pakistan and
Oman.
India &
3. AUSINDEX Naval exercise
Australia  Bangladesh was a top source of migrants
to India, followed by Pakistan, Nepal,
MITRA India & Sri
4.
SHAKTHI Lanka
Army exercise Srilanka and China.

Malabar Global data

India & US &
5. Naval Naval Exercise
Exercise
Japan  In 2019, the number of international
migrants worldwide was nearly 272 million,

PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26 22
 up from 221 million in 2010 and 174 million
in 2000.
 More than half of all international migrants
lived in Europe (82 million) or Northern
America (59 million).
 Women comprised slightly less than
half of all international migrants. The
share of women in the total number of
international migrants fell from 49.3 %
in 2000 to 48% cent in 2019.
 In 2019, the percentage of females among
all international migrants was highest in
Northern America (51.8 %) and Europe
(51.4 %).
 Central and Southern Asia (49.4 %), and
Eastern and South-Eastern Asia (49.3 %)
hosted an almost equal proportion of female
and male migrants.
 Europe hosts the largest number of
international migrants, at 82 million;
followed by North America at 59 million;
North Africa and Western Asia host around
49 million migrants.
In News - UN’s International Migrant Stock
2019 has been released. O North Atlantic.
53. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
SC
 Option (a) is correct: The Houthi takeover
in Yemen, is known as the September 21
Revolution.
Supplementary notes:
September 21 Revolution
 The Houthi takeover in Yemen, is known
as the September 21 Revolution
GS
 It was a gradual armed takeover by the
Houthis and supporters of former Yemeni
President Ali Abdullah Saleh that pushed
the Yemeni government from power.
54. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct: The theme for the
World Ozone Day 2019: 32 Years and
Healing
Supplementary notes:
Ozone Day
 The theme for this year celebrates over
three decades of remarkable international
cooperation to protect the ozone layer and
the climate under the Montreal Protocol.
 The Montreal Protocol has led to the
phase-out of 99 per cent of ozone-depleting
chemicals in refrigerators, air-conditioners
and many other products.
23
 The latest Scientific Assessment of Ozone
Depletion shows that, parts of the ozone
layer have recovered at a rate of 1-3% per
decade since 2000.
 At projected rates, Northern Hemisphere
and mid-latitude ozone will heal completely
by the 2030s.
55. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Atlantic
Meridional Overturning Circulation
(AMOC) is a large system of ocean currents
that carry warm water from the tropics
northwards into the North Atlantic.
Supplementary notes:
RE
About Atlantic Meridional Overturning
Circulation (AMOC):
 The Atlantic Meridional Overturning
Circulation (AMOC) is a large system of
ocean currents that carry warm water
from the tropics northwards into the
 AMOC ensures the oceans are continually
mixed, and heat and energy are distributed
around Earth.
How does the AMOC work?
 The AMOC is a large system of ocean
currents, like a conveyor belt, driven by
differences in temperature, salt content and
the water’s density.
 As warm water flows northwards it cools and
some evaporation occurs, which increases
the amount of salt. Low temperature and
a high salt content make the water denser,
and this dense water sinks deep into the
ocean.
 The cold, dense water slowly spreads
southwards, several kilometres below the
surface. Eventually, it gets pulled back to
the surface and warms in a process called
“upwelling” and the circulation is complete.
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
 Effect of climate change on the AMOC:
 Climate models suggest that the AMOC
will weaken over the 21st Century as
greenhouse gases increase. This is because
as the atmosphere warms, the surface ocean
beneath it retains more of its heat.
 All these changes make the ocean water
lighter and so reduce the sinking in the
‘conveyor belt’, leading to a weaker AMOC.
So the AMOC is very likely to weaken, but
it’s considered very unlikely that large,
rapid changes in the AMOC, as seen in past
times, will happen in the 21st Century.
 A weaker AMOC will bring less warm water
northwards, and this will partly offset the
warming effect of the greenhouse gases over
Western Europe.
The role of Indian Ocean:
 As the Indian Ocean warms faster and
faster, it generates additional precipitation.
This draws more air from other parts of the
world to the Indian Ocean, including the
Atlantic.
 With so much precipitation in the Indian
Ocean, there will be less precipitation in
CO
the Atlantic Ocean. Less precipitation will
lead to higher salinity in the waters of the
tropical portion of the Atlantic because there
won’t be as much rainwater to dilute it.
 This saltier water in the Atlantic, as it
comes north via AMOC, will get cold much
quicker than usual and sink faster.
S
56. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
All statements are correct
GS

Supplementary notes:
Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC):
 The Climate and Clean Air Coalition is
a voluntary partnership of governments,
intergovernmental organizations,
businesses, scientific institutions and
civil society organizations committed to
improving air quality and protecting the
climate through actions to reduce short-
lived climate pollutants.
 Its global network currently includes over
120 state and non-state partners, and
hundreds of local actors carrying out
activities across economic sectors.
What are short-lived climate pollutants?
 Short-lived climate pollutants are those
pollutants which are short lived in
atmosphere.
 They are also known as Super
Pollutants.
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
 Methane, black carbon and
hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are some
examples of short lived pollutants.
 They are many times more powerful than
carbon dioxide at warming the planet.
 But because they are short-lived in the
atmosphere, preventing emissions can
rapidly reduce the rate of warming.
Approach of CCAC to reduce short-lived
climate pollutants:
The Coalition’s partners and initiative
participants work in cooperation with key
short-lived climate pollutant emitters and other
stakeholders from around the world to encourage,
enable and catalyse action to reduce emissions.
To achieve real and ambitious reductions, the
Coalition focuses on four key strategies:
 Enable transformative action by
RE
providing knowledge, resources, and
technical and institutional capacity to act
and supporting the sharing of information,
experience, and expertise.
 Mobilize support for action to put short-
lived climate pollutants on the policy map
through advocacy at all levels of government
and in the private sector and civil society.
 Increase the availability of and access
to financial resources to support the
successful implementation of scalable,
transformational action.
 Enhance scientific knowledge to help
decision-makers scale up action and promote
the multiple benefits of action on short-lived
climate pollutants.
Funding of CCAC:
 The Coalition’s activities are financed
through a multi-donor The Climate and
Clean Air Trust Fund, established in
2012, which is administered through UN
Environment. While governments are the
core of the Coalition’s funding, contributions
from the private sector and global community
are encouraged.
Goal of CCAC:
 The Coalition’s goal is to reduce
short-lived climate pollutants beyond
the recommendations made by the
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC) in its special report Global
Warming of 1.5°C.
Benefits of increasing action on short-
lived climate pollutants:
 It can avoid an estimated 2.4 million
premature deaths from outdoor air pollution
annually by 2030/.
 It can prevent as much as 52 million tonnes
of crop losses per year, and slow the increase
in global warming by as much as 0.6°C by
2050.
24
  It can also prevent the climate tipping points
that can exacerbate long-term climate
impacts and make adapting to climate
change harder, especially for the poor and
most vulnerable.
India and CCAC:
 India formally joined the Climate &
Clean Air Coalition (CCAC), becoming the
65th country to join the partnership.
 India plans to work with Climate Clean and
Coalition countries on best practices and
experiences for the effective implementation
of India’s National Clean Air Programme
(NCAP).
57. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: He contested
for Lok Sabha from Uttar Pradesh, but did
not get elected as he failed to gain enough
political traction.
Supplementary notes:
 Deendayal’s personal life: O ancient culture.
 Deendayal Upadhyaya was born in a
village near the Farah town in Mathura
district called Chandrabhan, which
later went on to be named after him as
“Deendayal Dham”.
SC
 His father’s name was Bhagwati Prasad,
an astrologer, and his mother Rampyari
was a religious woman.
 Both his parents died when he was only
eight years old and he was then brought
up by his maternal uncle and aunt who
took care of him and his education as
GS
well.
 Deendayal and the Bharatiya Jana
Sangh:
 After meeting the RSS founder KB
Hedgewar in 1942, he joined RSS as a
full-time worker, called Pracharak.
 In 1951, Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
founded the Bharatiya Jana Sangh.
 Deendayal was seconded to the party by
the RSS, bestowed with the responsibility
of moulding it into a genuine member of
the ‘Sangh Parivar’.
 Then, he was appointed as General
Secretary of the party’s Uttar Pradesh
branch, and later as the all-India General
Secretary.
 He remained the general secretary for 15
long years and also contested for Lok
Sabha from Uttar Pradesh, but did
not get elected as he failed to gain
enough political traction.
25
 Upadhyaya’s ideology for India:
 Upadhyaya devised the political
philosophy of Integral Humanism,
which advocates the simultaneous and
integrated program of the body, mind
and intellect and soul of each human
being.
 This philosophy of his is a synthesis
of the material and the spiritual; the
individual and the collective.
 For India, he visualised a decentralised
polity and self-reliant economy with
the village being the core basis which
thought of India as an independent
nation which cannot rely upon western
concepts like individualism, democracy,
socialism, communism or capitalism.
RE
 Deendayal was of the view that India is in
urgent need of a ‘fresh breeze’ to get rid of
the post-independence westernisation.
 He felt Indian intellect had been
suffocated, and Indian polity was no
more rooted in the traditions of our
 Deendayal, just like all strong leaders,
believed in the concept of Swaraj
(Self Governance).
 Deendayal’s death: A mystery
 A pool of doubt surrounds the mysterious
death of this political leader.
 Travelling in a train to Patna, a year
after he was elected in 1967 as the
president of the Jana Sangh, he was
allegedly murdered.
 10 minutes after the train’s arrival at
Mughal sarai station, his body was found
near it clutching a five-rupee note in his
hand.
 Hence, the problematic case has been
looked into by several judges and has
seen demands made by several MPs,
politicians and family members to be
reopened.
Deendayal Upadhyayas Literary work:
 Samrat Chandragupta (1946)
 Jagatguru Shankaracharya (1947)
 Akhand Bharat Kyon? (1952)
 Bharatiya Arthniti: Vikas Ki Disha (1958)
 The Two Plans: Promises, Performances,
Prospects (1958)
 Rashtra Jivan Ki Samasyayen (1960)
 Devaluation: A Great Fall (1966)
 Political Diary (1968)
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
 Rashtra Chintan
 Integral Humanism
 Rashtra Jivan Ki Disha
58. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct: Crimea is situated
between Black sea and Sea of Azov.
Supplementary notes:
Crimea
 The Crimean peninsula is connected on
the northwest to the mainland by the
“Perekop Isthmus”, a 5-mile- (8-km-)
wide strip of land that has been the site of
numerous battles for the control of Crimea.
 Between Crimea and the mainland to
the north lies Svyash (“Putrid Sea”), a
network of shallow inlets that is separated
from the Sea of Azov by the Arabat Spit, a
70-mile- (113-km-) long sandbar along the
eastern shore of Crimea.
 The Crimean Peninsula was annexed by
O
the Russian Federation in 2014 and since
then has been administered as two Russian
federal subjects - the Republic of Crimea
and the federal city of Sevastopol.
SC
GS
59. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: More male
teachers in Higher Educational Institutions
(HEIs) in India than females.
Supplementary notes:
India’s Survey on Higher Education
 The survey, undertaken as an annual,
web-based, pan-India exercise on the
status of Higher Education since 2010-
11, covers all the Higher Educational
Institutions in the country.
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
 The survey collects data on several
parameters like teachers, student
enrolment, programmes, examination
results, education finance,
infrastructure, etc.
 The data collected under these parameters
come handy for making informed policy
decisions and conducting research in
education development.
 The survey is building a sound database,
which is getting updated annually as per
information submitted by the institutions
Highlights of AISHE Report 2018-19
 Total enrolment in higher education has
been estimated to be 37.4 million with
19.2 million male and 18.2 million female.
Female constitute 48.6% of the total
RE
enrolment.
 Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in
Higher education in India is 26.3%, which
is calculated for 18-23 years of age group.
GER for male population is 26.3% and
for females, it is 26.4%. For Scheduled
Castes, it is 23% and for Scheduled
Tribes, it is 17.2% as compared to the
national GER of 26.3%.
 UP and Karnataka have more female
enrolment in higher education and the
ratio of male students is higher than females
on almost every level, except Certificate,
Post Graduate and M.Phil. The female
enrolment in Karnataka and UP is
50.04% and 50% respectively.
 Maharashtra has recorded the second-
highest student enrolment with roughly
54.95% male and 45.05% females.
 In Rajasthan, male enrollment number
is higher as compared to the females.
 UG level student enrolment is 51%
males and 49% females across India.
 The top 6 States having highest student
enrollment are UP, Tamil Nadu,
Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Karnataka
and West Bengal. However, when it comes
to the total number of institutes, the state-
wise ranking is different with UP (8077) at
the top followed by Maharashtra (6662),
Karnataka (5028), Rajasthan (3723),
Andhra Pradesh (3540) and Tamil Nadu
(3443).
 The above mentioned 6 states with
the highest student enrolment have
roughly 54.23% of the total student
enrolment in India
 Remaining 30 States (including UTs)
have only 25.76% of the total student
enrolment.
26
  The survey covers all institutes of higher
education in India, and the institutes are
categorised in 3 broad categories such
as College, University and Stand-alone
institutes (offering Paramedical, Diploma,
Hotel Management and Catering courses).
 There are a total of 993 Universities,
39931 Colleges and 10725 Stand Alone
Institutions listed on the AISHE web portal
and out of that, 962 Universities, 38179
Colleges and 9190 Stand Alone Institutions
have responded during the survey. 298
Universities are affiliating.
 More male teachers in Higher
Educational Institutions (HEIs) in
India than females, with the lowest
gender proportion in Bihar.
 4,16,299 is the total number of teachers
out of which about 57.8 per cent are male
teachers and 42.2 per cent are female
teachers. In Bihar, 78.97 per cent are
male teachers and 21.03 per cent are
females.
 Jharkhand has 69.8 per cent male teachers
and 30.2 per cent female teachers.


O
UP has 32.3 per cent, female teachers.
At All India level, there are just 73 female
teachers per 100 male teachers.
SC
60. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Higher Education Commission
GS
 The Draft bill on Higher Education
Commission of India (Repeal of University
Grants Commission Act, 1956) Bill, 2018
was made public to attract public opinion.
 The Bill seeks to repeal the University
Grants Commission Act, 1956 and
establishes the Higher Education
Commission of India (HECI).
 The HECI will maintain academic
standards in higher education by
specifying learning outcomes for courses,
specifying eligibility criteria for Vice
Chancellors, and ordering closure of higher
educational institutions which fail to adhere
to minimum standards.
 Every higher educational institution
empowered to award degrees or
diplomas will have to apply to the HECI
to commence its first academic operations.
The HECI also has the power to revoke
permission on specified grounds.
27
 The Bill sets up an Advisory Council
chaired by the Union Minister of
Human Resource Development. The
Council will advise on coordination
and determination of standards in
higher education between the centre
and states.
Background
 In India, education is included in the
concurrent list which implies that both the
centre and states can enact laws on it.
 Higher education is regulated by multiple
authorities. The University Grants
Commission (UGC) regulates universities
and colleges teaching general subjects. It
has the power to determine and maintain
standards and disburse grants.
RE
 The All India Council for Technical
Education (AICTE) regulates technical
education such as engineering, management,
and architecture.
 Further, institutions offering courses related
to medical, legal, nursing or teacher education
are regulated by 14 professional councils such

as the Medical Council, the Bar Council, and
the Nursing Council.
The several expert bodies such as the
National Knowledge Commission (2009),
the Yashpal Committee (2010), and the
Committee for Evolution of the New
Education Policy (2016) have suggested
measures to reform higher education to
address issues related to access, quality,
funding and governance.
 Noting that the current system is
overregulated but under governed, they
recommended consolidating all existing
regulators under an independent
regulator.
 In 2011, the Higher Education and
Research Bill, 2011 was introduced in
Parliament which sought to consolidate
the regulators of all higher education under
a single regulator. However, the Bill was
withdrawn in 2014.
Key Issues and Analysis
 HECI aims to promote autonomy of higher
educational institutions. However,
certain provisions of the Bill do not meet
this stated objective. It may be argued
that instead of granting higher educational
institutions increased autonomy, the Bill
provides HECI with extensive regulatory
control.
 Currently, institutions offering professional
courses are regulated by 14 professional
councils. Of these, the Bill seeks to bring
legal and architecture education within
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
 the purview of HECI. It is unclear why
only these two areas are included within the
regulatory ambit of the HECI and not the
other fields of professional education.
 At present, the UGC has the power
to allocate and disburse grants to
universities and colleges. While the Bill
replaces the UGC, it does not include any
provisions regarding disbursal of grants.
This raises a question whether HECI will
have any role in the disbursal of grants to
higher educational institutions.
 Presently, the Central Advisory Board
of Higher Education (CABE) co-
ordinates and advises the centre
and states on education related
matters. The Bill creates an Advisory
Council and requires HECI to implement
its recommendations. This may restrict
HECI from functioning as an independent
regulator.
61. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct: Golden triangle
O
comprises of Laos, Thailand and Myanmar.
Supplementary notes:
Golden Triangle
SC
 The Golden Triangle is located in Southeast
Asia comprising of three contiguous
countries of Laos, Thailand and Myanmar
from East to West.
GS
 Myanmar is the largest country; Laos
is the only landlocked country not only
of the Golden Triangle but also of that of the
entire Southeast Asia and Thailand has
the largest coastline in the region.
 The Golden Triangle is the world’s second
largest illicit opium producing region
with a potential production of 5,020 metric
tons out of which, Myanmar itself has
30,900 metric tons followed by 10,000
metric tons in Laos and Thailand having the
least production of 128 metric tons in 2005
(UNODC, INCSR, 2006). Laos is more that
of trans-shipment country. Thailand and
Myanmar are money laundering countries.
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
 The Golden Crescent is located in
Southwest Asia and consists of three
contiguous countries of Pakistan,
Afghanistan and Iran from East to
West.
 Iran is the largest country, Afghanistan
the only land locked country and
Pakistan shares the maximum land
boundaries in this region.
 This is the world’s leading illicit opium
producing region with the potential
production of 5,020 metric tons, out of
which Afghanistan alone has 4,950 metric
tons of illicit opium production, followed
by Pakistan with meager 70 metric tons in
2005 (UNODC, INCSR, 2006).
 Iran is not an opium producing country
in this region but is more that of a
RE
trans-shipment country.
62. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct: MAITREE-2019 was
held between India and Thailand.
Supplementary notes:
MAITREE Exercise
 Exercise MAITREE is the annual bilateral
joint exercise between Indian Army (IA) and
Royal Thailand Army (RTA).
 The aim of exercise is joint training of
troops in counter terrorism operations in
both jungle terrain and urban scenario.
 Exercise MAITREE-2019 has been the face
of long standing bilateral ties between India
and Thailand since 2006.
 The 14 days exercise will be conducted under
the framework of United Nations mandate.
Both contingents will share their valuable
experiences in the conduct of counter
terrorism operations in form of lectures,
drills, demonstrations and skill-at-arms
with an aim to refine tactics, techniques
and procedures.
63. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: First Quad
talks were held in 2015 in Manila,
Philippines.
Supplementary notes:
Quad Grouping
 Indo-Pacific Quadrilateral also known as
Quad Group is a closed group consisting of
India, Australia, Japan & USA.
28
  Japan pioneered the initiative in 2007
as a coalition of maritime democracies.
 First Official quad talks were held in
Manila, Philippines in 2017
 Securing a rules-based global order,
liberal trading system and freedom of
navigation are believed to be the guiding
principles.
 It aims to contain a rising China and its
“predatory” economic and trade policies.
 The purpose is also to provide alternative
debt financing for countries in the Indo-
Pacific region.
 Report on stability was recently launched by
four think tanks from the Quad countries at
the Vivekananda International Foundation
65. Correct Option: (c)
(VIF).
 The report was published by Quadripartite
Commission on Indian Ocean Regional
Security, which put out a series of 20 policy
recommendations for stability in the Indian
Ocean Region (IOR).
 It recommended that the four countries
should work to oppose the establishment
of permanent Chinese military bases in
the IOR.
O 
64. Correct Option: (b)
SC
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The ocean is
vertically stratified with less dense
water sitting above more dense layers
Supplementary notes:
About Global Oceans:
GS
 The ocean contains about 97% of the
Earth’s water, supplies 99% of the
Earth’s biologically-habitable space,
and provides roughly half of the
primary production on Earth.
 The average depth of the global ocean
is about 3700 m, with a maximum depth of
more than 10,000 m.
 The ocean is vertically stratified with
less dense water sitting above more
dense layers, determined by the seawater
temperature, salinity and pressure. The
surface of the ocean is in direct contact with
the atmosphere, except for sea ice covered
regions.
 Sunlight penetrates the water column
and supports primary production (by
phytoplankton) down to 50 to 200 m depth
(epipelagic zone).
 Atmospheric-driven mixing occurs from the
sea surface and into the mesopelagic zone
29
(200 to 1000 m). The distinction between
the Upper Ocean and Deep Ocean depends
on the processes being considered.
 The ocean is a fundamental climate
regulator on seasonal to millennial time
scales. Seawater has a heat capacity
four times larger than air and holds
vast quantities of dissolved carbon.
 Heat, water, and biogeochemically relevant
gases (e.g., oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide
(CO2)) exchange at the air-sea interface,
and ocean currents and mixing caused
by winds, tides, wave dynamics, density
differences, and turbulence redistribute
these throughout the global ocean.
RE
Explanation:
 Statements 1 is incorrect: Vitamin B12
is water soluble.
Supplementary notes:
Vitamin B12
A water-soluble vitamin, B12 is the most
critical element in the metabolism of
every cell in the human body. Deficiency
can cause anemia, weakness of limbs and
dementia.
 Pregnant women who lack this vitamin can
give birth to brain-damaged babies, which
can lead to autism.
 India doesn’t have nation-wide data
on B12 deficiency. But there is wide
acceptance among the medical fraternity
that a large number of people as many as
those suffering from vitamin D deficiency
have this problem.
 About 47 per cent people in northern India
are vitamin B12 deficient. Thus, being an
endemic problem
 This vitamin is only found in animal meat
and to a lesser extent in milk products.
 For India, this debate has greater relevance
as about 30 per cent of the population is
vegetarian, according to an assessment of
the National Sample Survey Office in 2014.
An Indian eats roughly 4 kg of meat per
year, as compared to the global average of
43 kg, according to the Food and Agriculture
Organization.
 But there is another layer to the curious
case of B12 deficiency in India. Even the
non-vegetarian population is facing this
deficiency. Most non-vegetarian Indians
largely consume chicken, which has very
little amount of vitamin B12 as compared to
mutton or sea food
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
  The government should also think about
fortification as a possible panacea. The
easiest solution is to inject the vitamin; a
one course injection can suffice for a year.
66. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Caribbean Community and Common
Market (CARICOM)
 The Caribbean Community and Common
Market (CARICOM) is a group of twenty
developing countries in the Caribbean
that have come together to form an economic
and political community that works
together to shape policies for the region and
encourages economic growth and trade.
Seat of Secretariat: Georgetown, Guyana
 Fifteen of these countries are full-fledged
members of the community while five of
them only retain associate member status.

O
The fifteen full-time countries are Antigua
and Barbuda, Bahamas, Barbados, Belize,
Dominica, Grenada, Guyana, Haiti, Jamaica,
Montserrat, Saint Lucia, Saint Kits and
SC
Nevis, Saint Vincent and the Grenadines,
Suriname and Trinidad and Tobago. The
associate members are Anguilla, Bermuda,
British Virgin Islands, Cayman Islands and
Turks and Caicos.
 These nations have collectively joined
together to expand their trade and economic
relations internationally, including further
GS
development of activity in international
markets.
 CARICOM was formed in 1973 after
the founders had enacted the Treaty of
Chaguaramas.
 The Caribbean Community and
Common Market was established to
replace the Caribbean Free Trade
Area which had failed in its mission
to develop policies in the region
pertaining to labor and capital.
Pillars of Integration
 To improve standards of living and
work
 Full employment of labor and other factors
of production
 Accelerated, coordinated and sustained
economic development and convergence
 Expansion of trade and economic relations
with Third States
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
 Enhanced levels of international
competitiveness
 Organization for increased production and
productivity
 Achievement of a greater measure of
economic leverage
 Effectiveness of Member States in dealing
with Third States, groups of States and
entities of any description
 The enhanced coordination of Member
States’ foreign and foreign economic policies
and enhanced functional cooperation.
67. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Dehradun
RE

based Wildlife Institute of India (WII)
has launched a mobile application “Ganga
Data Collector” under the “Biodiversity
and Ganga Conservation” project initiated
by the National Mission for Clean Ganga
(NMCG) of Union Ministry of Jal Shakti.
Supplementary notes:
Ganga data collector app
 The app will provide field researchers with
a complete data entry solution to monitor
the aquatic population in the river.
 Dehradun based Wildlife Institute
of India (WII) has launched a mobile
application “Ganga Data Collector” under
the “Biodiversity and Ganga Conservation”
project initiated by the National Mission for
Clean Ganga (NMCG) of Union Ministry of
Jal Shakti.
 The Ganga basin covers 11 states
including Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh,
Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Haryana,
Himachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh,
Jharkhand, Bihar, West Bengal and
Delhi.
 In the first phase, training will be given to
volunteers and staff in five Ganga states
including Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh,
Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal where
Ganga stretches over 2,200-km. In the
second phase, training will be given to the
staff of the other six states of the Ganga
basin.
68. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a polar
expedition initiated by German research
icebreaker Polarstern.
30
  Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a one-year-
long expedition into the Central Arctic to
study its climate.
Supplementary notes:
Mosaic Mission
 The Multidisciplinary drifting Observatory
for the Study of Arctic Climate expedition
is a one-year-long expedition into the
Central Arctic, planned to take place from
2019 to 2020.
 For the first time a modern research
icebreaker will operate in the direct vicinity
of the North Pole year round, including the
nearly half year long polar night during
winter.
 During its one-year-long journey, the
central expedition ship, the research
icebreaker Polarstern from Germany’s
Alfred Wegener Institute, Helmholtz
Centre for Polar and Marine Research
(AWI), will be supported and resupplied
by the icebreakers Akademik Fedorov and
Admiral Makarov (Russia), Oden (Sweden)
and Xue Long II (China). O of the Milky Way, near the border of the
 The `results of MOSAiC mission will
contribute to enhance understanding of the
regional and global consequences of Arctic
climate change.
SC
 It will be helpful in understanding the
reasons behind the sea-ice loss and improve
weather and climate predictions.
69. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
GS
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Bio-fences
 Bio-fences/Live fences are lines of trees
or shrubs planted on farm or field
boundaries that provide protection
against cattle and wildlife, act as
windbreaks, enrich the soil, provide
bee forage, provide shade, and control
dust. Hence it is environment friendly
and economical for farmers.
 They are less expensive and more useful
than fences made of wood, barbed wire, or
stone masonry. Various species have been
tested to discover their suitability for use as
biofencing plants.
 The Uttarakhand government is planning
to us this unique and cost-effective method
to keep wild animals away from residential
areas.
31
 Plants like lemongrass, agave, rambans,
and certain species of chilly including some
other plant rare species have been identified
as effective to keep wild animals away.
 The government is planning to grow these
plants in the areas where wild animals
enter residential areas near forests.
 Wild animals like leopards and bears, along
with elephants and wild boars are a major
threat to human life, livestock and crops in
such areas the forest officials informed.
70. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct: Sagittarius A*
is one of very few black holes in the
universe where we can actually witness the
RE
flow of matter nearby.
Supplementary notes:
Sagittarius A
 Sagittarius A is a bright and very compact
astronomical radio source at the center
constellations Sagittarius and Scorpius.
 It is likely the location of a supermassive
black hole, similar to those generally
accepted to be at the centers of most if not
all spiral and elliptical galaxies.
 Astronomers have used NASA’s Chandra
X-ray Observatory to take a major step in
understanding why material around Sgr A*
is extraordinarily faint in X-rays.
 Sgr A* is one of very few black holes in the
universe where we can actually witness the
flow of matter nearby.
71. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Tilaiya
dam was constructed across the Barakar
River at Tilaiya in Koderma district in
Jharkhand. It was the first of the four multi-
purpose dams included in the first phase of
the Damodar Valley Corporation.
 Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Bansagar
Dam is a multipurpose river Valley Project
on Sone River situated in the Ganges Basin
in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
Supplementary notes:
Khadakwasla Dam
 Khadakwasla Dam was built on the Mutha
River. The dam created a reservoir known
as Khadakwasla Lake which is the main
source of water for Pune and its suburbs in
the state of Maharashtra.
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
  Tilaiya dam was constructed across the
Barakar River at Tilaiya in Koderma district
in Jharkhand. It was the first of the four
multi-purpose dams included in the first
phase of the Damodar Valley Corporation.
 Bansagar Dam is a multipurpose river
Valley Project on Sone River situated in
the Ganges Basin in the state of Madhya
Pradesh.
 Other major Dams and Reservoirs in India:
O counselling services.
SC
72. Correct Option: (c)
GS
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
UMMID
 The Department of Biotechnology (DBT)
has started the UMMID (Unique Methods
of Management and treatment of
Inherited Disorders) Initiative which is
designed on the concept of ‘Prevention is
better than Cure’.
 UMMID aims to create awareness about
genetic disorders amongst clinicians to
establish molecular diagnostic in hospitals.
Goals of UMMID initiative:
 To establish NIDAN (National Inherited
Diseases Administration) Kendras
to provide counselling, prenatal testing
and diagnosis, management, and
multidisciplinary care in Government
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
Hospitals wherein the influx of patients is
more.
 To produce skilled clinicians in Human
Genetics.
 To undertake screening of pregnant women
and new born babies for inherited genetic
diseases in hospitals at aspirational
districts.
Why need UMMID?
 The contribution of genetic disorders
to infant and childhood mortality and
morbidity is increasing.
 In India’s urban areas, congenital
malformations and genetic disorders are
the third most common cause of mortality
in new-borns. With a very large population
and high birth rate, and consanguineous
RE
marriage favoured in many communities,
prevalence of genetic disorders is high in
India.
 The congenital and hereditary genetic
diseases are becoming a significant health
burden in India, and there was the need for
adequate and effective genetic testing and
 Though there are excellent medical genetics
centres in India providing state-of-the-art
patient care services to families with genetic
disorders, the number of such centres is
small.
 Hence establishment of patient care
services for genetic disorders is the need of
the time.
 Therefore the Department of Biotechnology
has initiated the UMMID program to
establish many genetic diagnostic centres
in different parts of the country.
 To achieve this, a combined program of
training doctors in genetic diagnostics
and providing funding to establish
genetic diagnostic laboratories and to
create awareness about genetic disorders
amongst doctors and lay persons, has been
meticulously planned.
73. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It was during
the reign of King Narasimha Varman I
(630 - 668AD), the name Mahabalipuram
was changed to Mamallapuram.
Supplementary notes:
Mamallapuram
 Mahabalipuram was the second capital
of the Pallavas who ruled Kanchipuram.
32
 Formerly, mahabalipuram was known and
called as Mamallapuram.
 King Narasimha Varman I was a great
and valiant warrior. He was given
the title Mamalla which means
‘the great wrestler’ so the name
was converted from Mahabalipuram
to Mamallapuram considering the great
king and his achievements.
 During the reign of the Pallava dynasty,
between the 3rd century CE and 7th century
CE, it became an important centre of art,
architecture and literature.
 Mahabalipuram was already a thriving sea
port on the Bay of Bengal before this time.
A significant amount of coins and other
artefacts excavated from this region also
indicate a pre-existing trade relation with
the Romans even before it became a part of
the Pallava Empire.
Art & Architectural Masterpieces at
Mamallapuram:
 Shore Temple: The Shore Temple (built
in 700–728 AD) is so named because it
overlooks the shore of the Bay of Bengal.
O
It is a structural temple, built with blocks
of granite, dating from the 8th century
AD. It was built during the reign of
Narasimhavarman II. It is a remnant
of a larger complex of temples and civil
SC
structures much of which lie under the
depth of the sea now.
 Descent of the Ganges: It is alternatively
known as Arjuna’s Penance. Descent of
the Ganges is a gigantic open air bas-relief
sculpted out of pink granite. The dramatic
relief sculpture narrates the tales from
GS
Indian epics such as the Mahabharata.
 Pancha Ratha: Pancha Ratha (five chariots)
is an architectural ode to Mahabharata’s
five Pandava brothers Yudhistir, Bhima,
Arjuna, Nakula, Sahadeva, and their wife
Draupadi. Thematically and structurally,
each ratha is significantly different from
the other ones, but all of them were carved
out of a long stone or monolith
74. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Tejas Express
 The Tejas Express is India’s first semi-
high speed fully air-conditioned train
Introduced by Indian Railways. It features
modern on-board facilities with automatic
doors.
33
 The first Tejas train was started
between Lucknow to Delhi.
 Antyodaya Express is a completely
unreserved train designed by Indian
Railways. The word ‘Antyodaya’ refers
to uplifting of the weakest section of the
society. These are supposed to be overnight
fully unreserved trains.
 Indian Railways introduced the first
Antyodaya Express between Ernakulam
and Howrah.
 UDAY Express or Utkrisht Double
Decker Air Conditioned Yatri Express
are completely Double-Decker AC chair car
trains designed by Indian Railways.
 The first UDAY Express train started
service between Coimbatore and Bangalore
in the month of June 2018
RE
 These all categories of trains were
announced in the budget 2016-2017.
75. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
PMKSY
 A Central Sector Scheme - SAMPADA
(Scheme for Agro-Marine Processing and
Development of Agro-Processing Clusters)
was approved by the Cabinet Committee on
Economic Affairs (CCEA) in 2017.
 This umbrella scheme has now been
renamed as the “Pradhan Mantri
Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY)” to
be implemented by Ministry of Food
Processing Industries (MoFPI).
 PM Kisan SAMPADA Yojana is a
comprehensive package which aims
to create modern infrastructure with
efficient supply chain management
from farm gate to retail outlet.
 It will not only provide a big boost to the
growth of food processing sector in the
country but also help in providing better
returns to farmers and is a big step towards
doubling of farmers income, creating huge
employment opportunities especially in the
rural areas, reducing wastage of agricultural
produce, increasing the processing level
and enhancing the export of the processed
foods.
Objectives of PMKSY:
 Creation of modern infrastructure for food
processing mega food parks/ clusters and
individual units.
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
  To create effective backward and forward
linkages - linking farmers, processors and
markets.
 To create robust supply chain infrastructure
for perishables.
The following schemes will be implemented
under PM Kisan SAMPADA Yojana:
 Mega Food Parks
 Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition
Infrastructure
 Creation/ Expansion of Food Processing/
Preservation Capacities (Unit Scheme)
 Infrastructure for Agro-processing Clusters
 Creation of Backward and Forward
Linkages
 Food Safety and Quality Assurance
Infrastructure
 Human Resources and Institutions
76. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
O 
Supplementary notes:
About Kaniyan Pungundranar:
SC
 Kaniyan Poongunranar, also Poongundranar
or Pungundranar was an influential Tamil
philosopher from the Sangam age.
 His name Kaniyan implies that he was an
astronomer as it is a Tamil word referring
mathematics.
 He was born and brought up in
GS
Mahibalanpatti, a village panchayat in the
Thiruppatur taluk of Sivaganga district in
the state of Tamil Nadu.
 He composed two poems in Purananuru
and Natrinai.
 His famous Tamil quote “Yaadhum Oore
Yaavarum Kelir” meaning “To us all
towns are one, all men our kin” is at
present depicted in the United Nations
Organisation and also quoted by Prime
Minister Narendra Modi in United Nations
General Assembly address.
 Abdul Kalam was the first one to quote this
famous quote in European Union Historical
Speech.
77. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Ratapani
Tiger Reserve, located in the Raisen district
of Madhya Pradesh, in Vindhya Range.
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
Supplementary notes:
Ratapani Tiger Reserve
 Recently it is declared the Tiger State of
India, Madhya Pradesh is inching closer
to getting its seventh tiger reserve — the
Ratapani Tiger Reserve.
 Established in the year 1976, the Ratapani
Wildlife Sanctuary boasts a forest area of
around 688 sq km – mainly comprising a
beautiful teak forest.
 The Ratapani Tiger Reserve, located in
the Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh, in
Vindhya Range.
 Other tree species found here include
bijasal, saj, tendu and khair.
 Although the tiger holds the position of
top predator in the park, leopards, striped
RE
hyenas, jackals, Indian foxes and wild dogs
also inhabit its forested tracts.
 Members of the deer family such as
chausingha, chinkara, and barasingha are
spotted often, and you can also expect to see
herds of nilgai, the largest Indian antelope.
Around 150 species of birds can be
spotted here. Birders can expect to spot
the Indian robin, white spotted fantail
fly-catcher, crimson breasted barbet
and the State Bird of MP – paradise
flycatcher, amongst other species.
 Many rare migratory birds from Tibet,
Nepal, Russia and Siberia also visit this
sanctuary and are a great attraction.
 Dahod Dam, Ratapani Dam and Barna Dam
are large water bodies inside the park and
home to aquatic avifauna such as ducks,
geese, cranes, storks and snipes. Among
reptiles, pythons and crocodiles are also
seen here.
78. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Goldschmidt
 A new, curious mineral has been discovered
inside a diamond unearthed from a mine in
South Africa.
 The mineral has been named goldschmidtite,
after Victor Moritz Goldschmidt, the
Norwegian scientist acknowledged as the
founder of modern geochemistry.
 Goldschmidtite has an unusual chemical
signature for a mineral from Earth’s
mantle
34
  While the mantle is dominated by elements
such as magnesium and iron, goldschmidtite
has high concentrations of niobium,
potassium and the rare earth elements
lanthanum and cerium.
79. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Bathukamma
is a colourful and vibrant festival of
Telangana and celebrated by women, with
flowers that grow exclusively in each region.
This festival is a symbol of Telangana’s
cultural identity.
Supplementary notes:
Bathukamma
 Bathukamma is a colourful and vibrant
festival of Telangana and celebrated by
women, with flowers that grow exclusively
in each region. This festival is a symbol of
Telangana’s cultural identity.
 The festival begins a week before the grand
‘Saddula Batukamma’ (the grand finale of
the Batukamma festival) which falls two

days before Dussehra.
O
Bathukamma is a beautiful flower stack,
arranged with different unique seasonal
flowers most of them with medicinal values,
SC
in seven concentric layers in the shape of
temple gopuram.
 Batukamma celebrates the inherent
relationship between earth, water and the
human beings.
80. Correct Option: (a)
GS
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary notes:
INS Nilgiri
 INS Nilgiri is the first ship of Project 17A
frigates
 Project 17A frigates are a design derivative
of the Shivalik class stealth frigates
with much more advanced stealth features
and indigenous weapons and sensors.
 The P17A frigates incorporate new design
concepts for improved survivability,
sea keeping, and stealth and ship
manoeuvrability.
81. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
35
Supplementary notes:
EEHV
 Elephant endotheliotropic herpesviruses
(EEHV) or Elephantid betaherpesvirus 1
(ElHV-1) is a type of herpesvirus, which
can cause a highly fatal hemorrhagic
disease when transmitted to young
Asian elephants.
 The four deaths in Nandan Kanan Zoo are
the first reported cases of EEHV-related
deaths in an Indian zoo
 Most elephants carry just as most humans
carry a cold virus. When EEHV is
triggered, the elephant dies of massive
internal bleeding and symptoms which
are hardly visible.
 Some elephants show symptoms such as
reduced appetite, nasal discharge and
RE
swollen glands
 There is no true cure for herpesviruses
in animals or in humans, because
herpes viruses go latent.
 EEHV is lethal for young elephants between
the ages of one and 12. If a young elephant

dies before reproducing, it affects the
population of the species as a whole in the
concerned geography.
In India, the CZA will set up a national
committee of scientists from Guwahati,
Kerala, IVRI and Nandan Kanan to develop
protocols for the country lest an EEHV
outbreak occurs elsewhere in the future.
82. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct: Bru refugees
belong to Mizoram
Supplementary notes:
Bru refugees
 Mizoram officials have re-identified 26,128
Bru refugees belonging to 4,278 families
lodged in six relief camps in North Tripura
district
 The Brus are in Tripura since late 1997 in
the wake of a communal tension triggered
by the murder of a forest guard inside the
Dampa Tiger Reserve on October 21, 1997 by
Bru National Liberation Front militants.
 The Brus, also referred to as the Reangs,
are spread across the northeastern states of
Tripura, Assam, Manipur, and Mizoram.
83. Correct Option (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct:
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
 Supplementary notes:
Section 11 of RPA, 1951 and related news
 Sikkim Chief Minister Prem Singh
Tamang was barred by law from
contesting elections for six years in
2016 for graft charges.
 He had been sentenced to one year
imprisonment for misappropriation of
funds in the procurement of cows when
he was state Animal Husbandry Minister
under the Prevention of Corruption Act,
1988. However, the section under which
he was convicted had been omitted in an
amendment in 2018. He completed the one-
year sentence on August 10, 2018.
 After completing his one-year prison term
in 2018 his disqualification was sharply
reduced to just a year and a month by
the Election Commission of India (ECI)
recently.
 EC cited Section 11 of the Representation
of the People Act, 1951 which empowers
it to remove/reduce disqualification
prescribed by statutory rule for reasons
to be recorded.
O 
 The EC justified its decision on the ground
that Tamang was convicted of an
offence committed in 1996-97, when
a minimum punishment of two years
SC
was warranted under the Prevention
of Corruption Act, 1988, for attracting
the six-year disqualification. Tamang was
imprisoned for a year. The EC also noted
that he had already served his sentence, and
hence, his case merited a disqualification
waiver.
GS
84. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: WHEF is a non-
profit organization headquartered in Delhi,
India.
Supplementary notes:
World Hindu Economic Forum
 WHEF is a non-profit organization
headquartered in Delhi, India.
 It was founded by Swami Vigyananand
in 2010.
 It is as an independent international
organization committed to make Hindu
society prosperous through creation
and sharing of surplus wealth.
 The forum brings together eminent Hindu
intellectuals and businesses for the
purposes of collaboration.
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
 The organization holds an annual
international conference and several
regional conferences in different parts
of the world.
 World Hindu Economic Forum has earlier
been organised in London, Chicago, Losa
Angeles, Hong Kong, and Nairobi.
 2019 World Hindu Economic Forum
held from 27-29 September in Mumbai.
 Dharmasya Moolam Arthah (Economy
is the strength) is the philosophy of
WHEF. (Kautilian Arthashastra)
85. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
RE
Supplementary notes:
Special Report on Ocean and Cryosphere
in a Changing Climate
 The IPCC approved and accepted this report
at its 51st session held in September.
Created in 1988 by the World Meteorological
Organization (WMO) and the United
Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
 Headquarter: Geneva
 Objective: To provide governments
at all levels with scientific information
that they can use to develop climate
policies. IPCC reports are also a key
input into international climate change
negotiations.
IPCC Reports
Reports Year
First 1990
Second 1995
Third 2001
Fourth 2007
Fifth 2013
86. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct.
Supplementary notes:
About Extinction Rebellion
 Extinction Rebellion is an international
movement that uses non-violent civil
disobedience in an attempt to halt
mass extinction and minimise the risk
of social collapse.
36
  It is a movement made up of people from all
walks of life. It started in response to the
IPCC report that we only have 12 years to
stop catastrophic climate change and our
understanding that we have entered the 6th
mass extinction event.
 It started small and was launched in the
UK on October 31st 2018, it has grown
very quickly and there are now about 130
Extinction Rebellion groups across the UK
and across the world.
 The majority of people who work for
Extinction Rebellion are volunteers; a small
percentage is receiving living expenses.
 Decisions are made based on a model of
organising called a “self-organising system”
in which people do what they can accord the
skills and time they can offer.
87. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes: O onion-growing areas have reported excessive
Onion Pricing
 Onion price has been shooting in the
wholesale and retail markets and the
SC
central government has taken many efforts
to control the increasing price.
 Since May 2019, prices in wholesale
markets across the onion-growing
districts of Maharashtra have been
increasing.
 The ripple effect can be seen in the retail
markets where the price of onion has also
GS
increased.
 According to Price Monitoring Cell (PMC) of
the Consumer Affairs department, the retail
price of onion has increased by Rs 20-25/kilo
across the country in the last six months (as
of September 2019).
 Maharashtra, Karnataka, Gujarat, Madhya
Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh
and West Bengal account for almost 90% of
onion production in the country.
 Maharashtra contributes nearly one
third of the country’s production.
 Farmers across the country take three
crops of onions which ensure uninterrupted
supply across the year. Of these,
 Kharif and late kharif are not
amenable for storage (has higher
moisture content)
 Rabi crop can be stored for a long
period.
37
 Farmers usually store their produce in
moisture-proof and dust-proof structures
to prevent the bulbs from sprouting green
shoots.
 Depending on the price, farmers release
their produce, enabling steady supply for
retail markets.
Why the price is rising?
 Hoarding: Hoarding of perishable items is
illegal; however, many traders have hoarded
onions and are now selling at much inflated
prices than before. Therefore, traders and
not farmers are benefited when onion prices
hike.
 Low Onion Consumption: The price
rise comes during months when onion
consumption usually goes down. It goes with
the law of demand and supply. For example,
RE
it happens during the nine days of Navratri
in Maharashtra and the month of Shravan.
 Delayed Monsoon leads to supply-side
constraints: The current increase in onion
prices is a fall out of 2018’s drought and
the delayed monsoon in 2019. Some
rain and delay in harvest period by a week
or so.
 A combination of factors has led to the
increase in prices now.
 The cultivation area under rabi crop
has decreased in Maharashtra. So,
it reported a low cultivation in the rabi
season of 2018-19.
 Karnataka received heavy rain
during kharif crop’s harvest period,
which delayed the arrival of kharif
onions from Karnataka.
 So, the stored rabi crop should have to be
supplied to the markets.
 As the imported onions may not
arrive soon, the price of the bulb is
expected to stay high.
Steps Taken by Government to control
Onion Prices
 In early September 2019, the state-
run Minerals and Metals Trading
Corporation of India (MMTC) had
floated contracts for importing onions
from Pakistan, Egypt, China, Afghanistan,
etc. Following sharp criticism, MMTC
dropped Pakistan from the list of countries.
 The Centre also tried to restrict exports
by sharply hiking the Minimum Export
Price (MEP).
 In June 2019, the government ended the
10% export subsidy for onion.
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
  Anticipating a shortage, the central
government had created a buffer stock of
57,000 tonnes, of which some have already
been offloaded.
88. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Rafale UAV is
not an anti-drone technology.
Supplementary notes:
Various Anti-Drone Technologies
 Drone Gun: A drone gun is capable of
jamming the radio, global positioning
system (GPS) and mobile signal between
the drone and the pilot and forces the drone
to ground in good time before it could wreak
any damage
 Sky Fence: It uses a range of signal
disruptors to jam the flight path and
prevent them from entering their target, a
sensitive installation or event venue.
 ATHENA: It is an acronym for Advanced
Test High Energy Asset, is another
weapon under analysis as it works by
O as a potential threat, and in 1606 he
firing a high energy laser beam on a
rogue drone resulting in its complete
destruction in the air. However, this is
SC
a very costly technology and is being
currently tested by the US army.
 Drone Catcher: It swiftly approaches an
enemy drone and grabs it by throwing
a net around. Such a tool is required when
a rogue drone is needed to be captured safely
to extract incriminating evidence from it.
Skywall 100: It is the ground version
GS
 salvation.
of the ‘drone catcher’ and it works by
bringing down an UAV using a parachute
that is hurled through a net from 100 meters
distance.
89. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Guru Nanak
 Guru Nanak was born in Talwandi but he
travelled for years before he founded the
Dera Baba Nanak in Kartarpur.
 Irrespective of their creed or caste, his
followers ate together in a common
kitchen known as langar. And the sacred
place/temple he created for worship and
meditation was called dharmasal (now
known as Gurudwara).
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
 Before he died in 1539, he appointed a
follower called Lena (known later as Guru
Angad) as his successor.
 Guru Angad compiled the work of Guru
Nanak and added to it his own script known
as Gurmukhi.
 The next three Gurus also wrote under
Nanak’s name, and their work was compiled
by Guru Arjan in 1604.
 Works of Shaikh Farid, Sant Kabir, Bhagat
Namdev, and Guru Tegh Bahadur were also
added to these compilations.
 Finally, in 1706, Guru Gobind Singh
authenticated the compilation and
created the Guru Granth Sahib.
 Guru Nanak’s followers increased in the
sixteenth century as people from all castes
RE
and occupations joined the community.
 By the seventeenth century, the town of
Ramdaspur developed around a Gurudwara
called the Harmandar Sahib and became a
self-governing society.
 The Mughal Emperor Jehangir saw them
ordered the execution of Guru Arjan.
 By the seventeenth century, Guru Gobind
Singh organised the Khalsa Movement,
and the community of Sikhs became a
political organisation called the Khalsa
Panth.
Guru Nanak’s Teachings:
 Guru Nanak emphasised the worship of
one God and insisted that caste, creed,
and gender were irrelevant to attaining
 According to him, pursuit of an active life
would liberate humans, and he also used the
terms nam, dan, and isnan to mean right
worship, welfare, and purity of conduct.
 His ideas today are called nam-japna, kirt-
karna, and vand-chhakna, which mean
right belief and worship, honest living, and
helping others.
 Thus, Guru Nanak’s idea of equality had
social and political implications.
90. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: National
nutrition survey was conducted by the
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in
partnership with United Nations Children
Fund (UNICEF) to measure the level of
malnutrition in India.
38
 Supplementary notes:
Government Scheme
 National nutrition survey was conducted
by the Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare in partnership with United Nations
Children Fund (UNICEF) to measure the
level of malnutrition in India.
 CDSA – Clinical Development Services
Agency was selected as the monitoring
agency for the aforementioned survey.
 The survey covered more than 1,20,000
covering both children and adolescents
in rural and urban area. The survey was
conducted over a period of two years (2016-
2018)
 It aimed to assess the following
 Micro nutrient deficiencies
 Sub clinical inflammation
 Overweight or obesity
 Cardio – metabolic risks
91. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
O 
SC
Supplementary notes:
FAME 2 Scheme
 The outlay of Rs. 10,000 crore has been
made for three years till 2022 for FAME 2
scheme.
 The government will offer the incentives
for electric buses, three-wheelers and four-
GS
wheelers to be used for commercial purposes.
Plug-in hybrid vehicles and those with a
sizeable lithium-ion battery and electric
motor will also be included in the scheme
and fiscal support offered depending on the
size of the battery.
 The centre will invest in setting up charging
stations, with the active participation of
public sector units and private players.
 FAME 2 will offer incentives to
manufacturers, who invest in developing
electric vehicles and its components,
including lithium-ion batteries and electric
motors.
92. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct: Global
Competitiveness Index (GCI) is published
by World economic forum.
39
Supplementary notes:
Global Competitiveness Report
 The Global Competitiveness Report (GCR)
is a yearly report published by the World
Economic Forum.
 The report “assesses the ability of countries
to provide high levels of prosperity to
their citizens”. This in turn depends on
how productively a country uses available
resources.
 The report measures twelve pillars of
competitiveness. These are:
 Institutions
 Appropriate infrastructure
 Stable macroeconomic framework
Good health and primary education
RE

 Higher education and training
 Efficient goods markets
 Efficient labor markets
 Developed financial markets
Ability to harness existing technology
 Market size—both
international
domestic and
 Production of new and different goods
using the most sophisticated production
processes
 Innovation
93. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Lithium-ion
battery uses petroleum coke layered with
lithium ions and not lead-acid. Lead-acid
batteries are still used to start gasoline- and
diesel-powered vehicles today.
Supplementary notes:
Lithium-ion Battery
 The first rechargeable battery came about
in 1859. These were made from lead-acid,
and are still used to start gasoline- and
diesel-powered vehicles today.
 Dr. Stanley Whittingham discovered an
extremely energy-rich material, which he
used to create an innovative cathode in a
lithium battery. This battery was made
from titanium disulphide.
 The battery’s anode was partially made
from metallic lithium, which has a strong
drive to release electrons. It resulted in a
battery that had great potential, just over
two volts.
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
  The big advantage of this technology was
that lithium-ion stored about 10 times as
much energy as lead-acid or 5 times as
much as nickel-cadmium
 Lithium-ion batteries were also
extremely lightweight and required little
maintenance.
 Lithium ion batteries using cobalt oxide can
boost the lithium battery’s potential to four
volts.
Benefits and uses of Lithium ion battery:
 The advantage of lithium-ion batteries
is that they are not based upon chemical
reactions that break down the electrodes,
but upon lithium ions flowing back and
forth between the anode and cathode.
 They are lightweight, rechargeable,
powerful batteries, now used in
everything from mobile phones
to laptops and long-range electric
vehicles.
 Battery technology helps replace carbon-
emitting sources because it allows power
companies to store excess solar and wind
O
power when the sun does not shine nor the
wind blow, making possible a fossil fuel-free
society and combating the effects of climate
change.
SC
 They are also capable of being miniaturized
and used in devices like implanted
pacemakers.
 They can be scaled up to power a car or a
home.
 This battery technology helps replace
carbon-emitting sources because it allows
GS
power companies to store excess solar
and wind power when the sun does not
shine nor the wind blow, making possible a
fossil fuel-free society and combating the
effects of climate change.
Mechanics of Lithium ion battery:
 Lithium-ion batteries are powered by flows
of lithium ions crossing from one material
to another.
 When the battery is in use, positively-
charged lithium ions pass from an anode to
a cathode, releasing a stream of electrons
along the way that form an electric current.
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
 When the battery is being recharged, lithium
ions flow in the opposite direction, resetting
the battery to do it all over again.
Issues:
 More than half of lithium is gathered using
brine extraction from deep inside the
earth, and the rest is still mined traditionally
from rock.
 Lithium extraction has caused
environmental damage to areas around
lithium processing operations.
94. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: All girl children
within the age of 13 to 18 in the state are
targeted beneficiaries.
RE
Supplementary notes:
Kanyashree Scheme
 Kanyashree is a conditional cash
transfer scheme aiming at improving
the status and wellbeing of the girl child
by incentivising schooling of teenage
girls and delaying their marriages
until the age of 18.
 It received the United Nations Public
Service Award last year.
 It Improve lives and status of the adolescent
girls in State. Provide financial help to girls
from disadvantaged families to pursue
higher studies (now it will cover every girl
from state).
 Prevent child marriage. Improved outcomes
in terms of their health (especially facilitate
the prevention of infant and maternal
mortality).
 Contribute towards empowerment of girls
in the state. Bring immeasurable benefits
for the larger society as a whole.
 Components of Scheme Annual
Scholarship of Rs. 500: It is for unmarried
girls aged 13-18 years enrolled in classes
VIII-XII in government recognized
regular or equivalent open school or
equivalent vocational or technical
training course.
 One time Grant of Rs. 25,000: It is for girls
turned 18 at time of application, enrolled
in government recognized regular or open
school and colleges or pursuing vocational
or technical training or sports activity or is
inmate of Home registered under JJ Act.
 Progress: So far around 50 lakh girls from
the state have been benefited by scheme
and removal of ceiling will help another
three lakh more girls annually. Since its
launch, it has helped to reduce number of
school drop out of girls by nearly 11.5%
40
95. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It is listed
as ‘near threatened’ in the Red List of
International Union for Conservation of
Nature (IUCN).
97. Correct Option: (b)
Supplementary notes:
Emperor Penguins
 Emperor penguins are the tallest and
heaviest of all living penguin species and
are endemic to Antarctica.
 The only penguin species that breeds during
the Antarctic winter, emperor penguins
trek 50–120 km (31–75 mi) over the ice to
breeding colonies which can contain up to
several thousand individuals.
 It is listed as ‘near threatened’ in the Red
List of International Union for Conservation
of Nature (IUCN).
Recent demands:
 Experts have demanded that the IUCN
status of species should be changed to

‘vulnerable’ from ‘near threatened’.
O
The experts also advocated that the emperor
penguin should be listed by the Antarctic
Treaty as a Specially Protected Species.
SC
 The 1959 treaty sets aside Antarctica as a
scientific preserve, establishes freedom of
scientific investigation, and bans military
activity on the continent.
96. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
GS
Statement 1 is incorrect: It would be

setup in Bhopal.
98. Correct Option: (c)
Supplementary notes:
e-Waste Clinic
 The Bhopal Municipal Corporation (BMC)
and the Central Pollution Control Board
(CPCB) have signed a MOU to set up the
country’s first e-waste clinic in Bhopal.
 The clinic is being conceived in compliance
with the Solid Waste Management Rules,
2016.
 This would enable segregation, processing
and disposal of waste from both household
and commercial units.
 Electronic waste will be collected door-to-
door or could be deposited directly at the
clinic in exchange for a fee. Door-to-door
collection will happen in two ways. Either
separate carts for the collection of e-waste
will be designed, or separate bins will be
41
attached to existing ones meant for solid
and wet waste.
 A three-month pilot project, the clinic, if
successful, would be replicated elsewhere in
the country.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Rajasthan has
announced the creation of a Pneumoconiosis
Fund.
Supplementary notes:
Pneumoconiosis Fund
 Rajasthan has announced the creation
of a Pneumoconiosis Fund, which will be
majorly financed by money from the District
RE
Mineral Foundation (DMF). This Fund will
be used to finance a comprehensive policy
on the disease.
 The aim of the policy is to streamline the
strategy to deal with pneumoconiosis.
 The Fund will be operating under
Social Justice and Empowerment

Department.
It will include pension for patients and
their families after the patient’s death and
their inclusion in the state’s social security
schemes, which will be over and above the
compensation paid.
 Rajasthan is one of the leading mining
states of India, with a distinction of having
more than 33,000 mine leases, the highest
in the country. Most of these are sandstone
mines and quarries.
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
C40
 C40 is a network of the world’s
megacities committed to addressing
climate change. C40 supports cities to
collaborate effectively, share knowledge
and drive meaningful, measurable and
sustainable action on climate change.
 Around the world, C40 Cities connects 94
of the world’s greatest cities to take bold
climate action, leading the way towards a
healthier and more sustainable future.
 C40 cities are taking actions that reduces
global greenhouse gas emissions - together
C40 member cities combined community
emissions represent 2.4 Gt of CO2.
PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26
 The chair  The survey was conducted by the AIIMS,
Delhi and Union Ministry of Health
 The Chair is the elected leader of the
organisation. and Family Welfare.

 The Chairmanship is a rotating position,  The survey was conducted between 2015
which has been held to date by the following and 2019.
C40 City Mayors:  The survey was conducted in 31 districts of
 Paris Mayor Anne Hidalgo (2016- 24 states and the results were extrapolated
present) for the entire country.
 Rio de Janeiro Mayor Eduardo Paes  India is the first country to launch
(2013-2016) National Program for Control of
Blindness in 1976. The aim of the program
 New York Mayor Michael R. Bloomberg
(2010-2013) is to reduce the blindness prevalence to
0.3% by 2020.
 Toronto Mayor David Miller (2008-
2010)  Key findings of the report

 London Mayor Ken Livingstone (2005-  Cataract is the leading cause of

2008) blindness in people above 50 years,
according to the survey.

RE
 The prevalence of blindness in India is
1.99%.
 Bijnor, Uttar Pradesh has the highest
population suffering from blindness.
 Around 3.67% of the districts are blind
and 21.82% suffer visual impairment.
O  Blindness is more pronounced
among illiterates as compared to
literates. Around 3.23% illiterates are
blind and 0.43% literates are blind.
SC
 Blindness is more prevalent in rural
population (2.14%) as compared to
urban (1.8%)
 Approximately 93% of cases of blindness
and 96.2% visual impairment cases in
this age group were avoidable.
Causes of blindness
GS

 Aphakia – Absence of lens in the eye

 Untreated non-infectious corneal opacity-
scarring of cornea
 Cataract related surgical complication was
the second highest cause for blindness.
 The outcomes of cataract surgery are not
good everywhere. Around 40% of cataracts
were done in government facilities. Rest of
the surgeries took place in private and non
– profit facilities. Of these, only 57.8% saw
99. Correct Option (a) good visual outcome. Cost was the biggest
barrier in accessing cataract surgeries.
Explanation:
 Around 22.1% of blindness was caused
 All statements are correct because of cost as a barrier. Around 22.1%
of blindness were caused due to lack of
Supplementary notes:
awareness
National Blindness and Visual Impairment
Survey, 2019 Barriers to accessing treatment

 Union Health Minister released the  Among men, the most important barriers
National Blindness and Visual Impairment are financial constraints (31%) and local
Survey 2019. reasons (21.5%).

PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26 42
  Among women, local reasons (23.1%) and  ‘Eat Right Jacket’, and ‘Eat Right Jhola’
financial constraints (21.2%) were the most were launched to strengthen food safety
important barriers. administration and scale up the ‘Eat Right
India’ movement.

100. Correct Option (d)  Eat Right Jacket’ has a smart design to hold
tech devices like tablets/smart phone, a QR
Explanation: code and RFID tag for identification and
 All statements are correct tracking.
 Eat Right Jhola is a reusable cloth bag
Supplementary notes:
that is expected to replace plastic bags for
Safety Mitra Scheme shopping purpose in various retail chains.

™™™™™

RE
O
SC
GS

43 PTS2020/PPP-16/112019/26