To Download Ntse Stage II Paper 2014

NTSE STAGE-II
TEST PAPER-YEAR-2014
Contents
NTSE – National Talent Search Examination
TOPICS PAGE NO.
Year 2014 - (Stage -II) Test Paper
1. MAT- Paper 1-8
2. LCT -Paper 9-14
3. SAT-Paper 15-30
w Hints & Solution
wYear 2014 - (Stage -II) Solution (MAT, LCT,SAT) 31-36
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All rights reserved. Any photocopying, publishing or reproduction of full or any part of this study
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Roll No. 2 3 0 1 4 NTSE 14 _ MAT
National Talent Search Examination, 2014

(For Student Studying in Class - 10)
Mental Ability Test
Time : 45 minutes Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to Candidates
1. Mental Ability Test shall be administered in first 45 minutes. Thereafter Scholastic Aptitude Test Shall be
administered. Answer to Part - I. Mental Ability Test are to be given on the given answer sheet. The Mental
Ability answer sheet will be collected after first 45 minutes. After 5 minute Part - II Scholastic Aptitude
answer sheet & after 20 minutes Question booklet will be supplied to you which will also be collected after
the time is over.
2. Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clarly (only one digit in one box) Please
see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the appro-
priate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.
Example : For N.T.S.E.
Roll No. 2 3 0 1 4 0 4 0 3 2 1 5
3. Mental Ability Test consist of 50 questions. Each question carry one marks.
NTSE STAGE_II MENTAL ABILITY PAPER-2014
1. Select the correct number that is missing in the number series given below :
214, 265, 367, ?, 724
(1) 520 (2) 501 (3) 525 (4) 571
2. Select the correct alphabet number that is missing in the alphabet-number series given below :
NAJ31, BEF28, RAM31, ?, YAM31
(1) RPA31 (2) PRA30 (3) RPA30 (4) PAR31
3. P + Q means P is the father of Q; P – Q means P is thewife of Q; P × Q means P is the brother of Q.

Which of the following means A is the materanal uncle of D ?
(1) A × B – C + D (2) D × C – B × A (3) A × C + B – D (4) A – C × B + D
4. Select from the alternatives two signs which need to be interchanged to make the following equation
correct.
36  12 × 6 + 9 – 6 = 38
(1) – and × (2)  and × (3) – and + (4)  and +
5. According to a certain code, ‘=’ means ‘>’, ‘_’ means ‘+’ and ‘+’ means ‘_’. If a, b and c are positive
integers and a = b =c, then which of the following is true ?
(1) b = a + c (2) ac = b2 (3) a – c = 2b (4) ab = c2
6. Find the correct group of letters in place of ‘?’ in the following series.
FNHLJ, WOUQS, BNEKH, ?, DTHPL
(1) N B K E H (2) N V P T R (3) N F L H J (4) N D R Z V
Directions (Questons 7–8) : Each of the following questions contains three figures in which numbers are written
according to a pattern. Find the missing number for each question from among the alternatives.
7. (1) 13 (2) 14 (3) 12 (4) 18
8. (1) 14 (2) 16 (3) 15 (4) 11
9. Two faces of a cube are given below, which number will be opposite 3?
(1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 2
NTSE_STAGE-II _ MAT .-2014_PAGE # 2

Directions (Questions 10-11) : Each of the follwoing questions has a problem followed by a few numbered
statements. Decide which of the statements are sufficient for answering the problem and choose your
answer from the alternatives.
10. A, B and C together can complete a work in ‘x’ days. How many days would B alone take to complete
the work ?
Statements :
I. C can complete the work in half the number of days taken by A.
II. B can complete the work in half the number of days taken by A and C together.
III. A and C taken together can complete the work in ‘z’ days.
(1) Both I and II and required (2) I alone is sufficient
(3) II and III taken together are sufficient (4) Either II or III is sufficient
11. A boat travels in a stream from A to B and then from B to A. What is the speed of the boat in still water
?
Statements :
I. The speed of the boat in still water is 2 km/h more than the speed of the current.
II. The speed of the current is 1 km/h more than the speed of the boat.
III. Boat covers the distance of y kilometres between A and B both downstream and upstream in x
hours.
(1) All of I, II and III are required
(2) Both II and III are required
(3) I and III taken together are sufficient
(4) Either I and II together or II and III together are sufficient
12. How many triangles are there in the following figure ?
(1) 20 (2) 18 (3) 22 (4) 17
13. There are two statements given below as premises, which support the conclusion suggested in the
answer options. You may select the conclusion that makes the whole argument valid :
Statements :
I. No film actors are Cricketers.
II. Some Cricketers are poets.
(1) Therefore, some poets are film actors. (2) Therefore, some poets are not film actors.
(3) Therefore, all poets are film actors. (4) Therefore, all film actors are poets.
14. Find the missing term (?) in the following series

2, 6, 30, 260, ?
(1) 470 (2) 510 (3) 630 (4) 3130
15. One term in the following number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
2, 6, 18, 82, 650
(1) 2 (2) 18 (3) 82 (4) 650
16. If RIR is coded as IRI then MUM is coded as

(1) NFN (2) UMU (3) UNU (4) MFM
17. if FAST is coded as 798 and LAST is coded as 906 then BUSY is coded as
(1) 1759 (2) 1431 (3) 952 (4) 948

18. Six students A, B, C,D, E and F are in a class, A and B are from Town and C, D, E and F are from village.
D and F are studious while others are casual. A, C, D are girls and B, E, F are boys. Who is the studious
girl from village ?
(1) C (2) D (3) E (4) F
19. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.
(A) Gopal is shorter than Ashok but taller than Kunal
(B) Navin is shorter than Kunal
(C) Jayesh is taller than Navin
(D) Ashok is taller than Jayesh
Who among them is the tallest ?
(1) Gopal (2) Ashok (3) Kunal (4) Navin
20. Five persons are standing in a line. One of two persons at the extreme ends is a professor and the other
is businessman. An advocate is standing to the right of a student. An author is to the left of the
businessman. The student is standing between the professor and the advocate. Counting from the left,
the advocate is at which place.
(1) 1st (2) 2nd (3) 3rd (4) 5th
Directions (Questiosn 21 - 24) : A code language has been used to write the words in capital letters in
English in Column I as Greek letters in Column II. Greek letters in Column II do not appear in the same
order as letters in Column I. Decode tha language and choose the correct code for the word given in
each question from amongst the alternatives provided.
21. LIVER
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 
22. TROUBLE
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 
23. BROWN
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 
24. CYCLE
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) 
Direction (Questions 25 - 28) : P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a family. Each of them has a
different profession-Lawyer, Chartered Accountant (CA), Engineer, Teacher, Doctor, Architect and
Pharmacist. There are three female members. No lady is either Pharmacist or Chartered Accountant.
Each of them has a different monthly income. The Chartered Accountant (CA) earns the most. S, the
engineer, earns less than V, the doctor. R, the teacher earns more than P and less than S. W’s wife
earns the least. T is an unmarried lady lawyer and she earns less than P and more than only Q. The
pharmacist’s income is not the lowest.

25. Which of the following pairs of professional represents the professions of hushand and wife ?
(1) Pharmacist, Architect (2) Chartered Accountant, Architect
(3) Engineer, Pharmacist (4) Chartered Accountant, Engineer
26. Which of the following statements is false ?

(1) The Architect earns more than the Lawyer (2) The Teacher earns less than the Engineer
(3) The Doctor earns more than the Engineer (4) The Pharmacist earns more than the Lawyer
27. What is P’s profession ?

(1) Pharmacist (2) Lawyer (3) Teacher (4) None of the above
28. Which of the following represents the three female members of the family ?
(1) PTQ (2) TRQ (3) VTQ (4) Data inadequate
29. Which of the following Venn diagram correctly represents Ocean, Indian Ocean Pacific Ocean and
Mariana Trench ?
30. If RAJASTHAN = 9R17J8L19H13 in a coded language, then what is the encrypted form of the
MANIPUR in the same language ?
(1) 14R13H11G9 (2) 13M14W11B9 (3) 13R14J11F9 (4) 14M13V11J9
31. What is the next number in the series 7, 23, 55, 109, ...
(1) 199 (2) 189 (3) 191 (4) 209
32. Find out the missing number in the second figure on the basis of numbers arranged in the first figure.
(1) 30 (2) 58 (3) 160 (4) 32

Direction (Questions 33-37) : In the Venn diagram given below, sample data of a small town having total
population of 500, the square represents persons form urban areas, the triangle represents women, the
circle represents persons who are working and the rectangle represents the persons who are edu-
cated. Number given are number of persons.
33. If urban population is 350 find out the non educated non working urban females ?
(1) 13 (2) 10 (3) 9 (4) 20
34. Find out the urban males who are educated but not working.
(1) 110 (2) 40 (3) 30 (4) 7
35. If rural population is 150, how many non working rural males who are not
educated ?
(1) 5 (2) 1 (3) 6 (4) 3
36. Find out total non-working females but educated

(1) 80 (2) 79 (3) 51 (4) 19
37. Find out the total rural male population ?

(1) 111 (2) 187 (3) 180 (4) 114
38. Crime : Police :: Flood : ?

(1) Dam (2) River (3) Rain (4) Reservoir
39. When the given sheet of paper (X) is folded to make a cube, choose the cube that may be formed.
(1) 1 only (2) 1,2 and 3 only (3) 2 and 3 only (4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

40. In the following diagram, there are four inter locked figures of a circle, a square, a triangle and a
rectangle representing number of students passing in English, Maths, Science and Hindi, respectively.
Different regions of the diagrams are also lattered form A through Q.
Now consider the following statements :

statements :
I. There is no letter that represents a student who passed in all the four subjects.
II. There are only two letters that represent a student who passes on three subject only.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(1) I only (2) II only (3) Both I and II (4) Neither I and II
41. What is ‘X’ in the following table ?
(1) 16 (2) 17 (3) 18 (4) 21
42. Consider the question and two statements that follow :

What is the total cost of one pen, and one pencil and 1 note book ?
Statements :
I. The total cost of 5 pen, 6 pencils and 7 note books is Rs. 178
II. The total cost of 6 pens, 4 pencils and 2 note books, is Rs. 124
Which one of the following is correct ?
(1) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the quaetion
(2) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
(3) Statement I and II together are sufficient to answer the question
(4) Both statements are not sufficient to answer the question
43. Which one of the following differs the rest ?

(1) MGDLFC (2) JQVIPU (3) ZUBXTA (4) DYSCXR
44. Which one of the following fits inside the bracket ?

714 ( ) 65 if 953 (RVXYS)28
(1) UWZSR (2) UWZRS (3) TZWVU (4) TZWUV
45. If ‘X’ was born on December 6, 1983 and ‘Y’ on February 4, 1984, then when will ‘Y’ be half in age as
compared ot ‘X’ ?
(1) April 4, 1984 (2) April 5, 1984 (3) April 6, 1984 (4) April 8, 1984
46. Famine : Hunger : : War : ___________

(1) Enmity (2) Insecurity (3) Destruction (4) Infantry

47. Five persons P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a row. Q in between P and T. To find who among them is in
the middle, which of the following information given in the following statements is/are sufficient ?
Statements :
I. P is left of Q and right S.
II. R is at the right end.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(1) I only (2) II only (3) Either I or II (4) Both I and II
48. Certain blank spaces are left in the following series. Which is the group of letters given below, if put
in the blank spaces in sequence, will complete the series ?
_ ab _ a _ ba _ ab _ _ ab _
(1) bbaabbb (2) babaaaa (3) abaaaba (4) aaaaaaa
49. If the letters of the word ‘BLUE’ are arranged according to dictionary, what is the position of the word
‘UBLE’ ?
(1) 19 (2) 20 (3) 21 (4) 22
50. All except one does not belong to the same group. Which one is that ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

Roll No. 2 3 0 1 4 NTSE 14 _ LCT

Language Comprehensive Test
Instructions to Candidates
1. Language Comprehensive Test shall be administered in first 90 minutes. Thereafter Scholastic Aptitude
Test Shall be administered. Answer to Part - I. Language Comprehensive Test are to be given on the given
answer sheet. The Language Comprehensive answer sheet will be collected after first 45 minutes. After 5
minute Part - II Scholastic Aptitude answer sheet & after 20 minutes Question booklet will be supplied to
you which will also be collected after the time is over.
Roll No. 2 3 0 1 4 0 4 0 3 2 1 5
3. Language Comprehensive Test consist of 50 questions. Each question carry one marks.
NTSE STAGE_II (LCT) PAPER-2014
Q.1-5 Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.
Ray Bradbury is regarded as one of the greats of 20th century science fiction along with Isaac Asimov and
A.C. Clarke. He established himself at the age of thirty with The Martial Chronicle, which perhaps re-
mains his best known work. The book celebrates space travel but it is also critical of the social abuses
that modern technology had made possible. Though other writers had represented science and technol-
ogy as a mixed bag of blessings, his book had a great impact. Initially his audience was small as most
readers had no patience with jargon. His popularity grew as he avoided technical words and expressed
his ideas about the future in common language.
1. Ray Bradbury became famous because

1. he was friends with Isaac Asimo and A.C. Clarke.
2. he started writing at the age of thirty.
3. he wrote in futuristic language.
4. of the book The Martial Chronicle that he wrote.
2. In his books Bradbury expressed the view that modern technology

1. had made space travel possible.
2. was based on the inventions of great scientists like Asimov and Clarke.
3. appealed only to a small audience of readers who knew jargon.
4. was a good thing but could be misused.
3. Bradbury's fears regarding the development and use of modern technology were
1. totally unfounded and unconvincing.
2. related to his personal experiences as a user of technology.
3. shared by ther writers of science fiction as well.
4. expressed using jargon.
4. The phrase ‘mixed bag of blessings’ means

1. having both advantages and disadvantages.
2. the constant interaction between science and technology which benefits both.
3. having both familiar and unexpected consequences
4. using technical words and expressions.
5. The phrase ‘no patience with jargon’ refers to

1. fiction writers' lack of knowledge of proper technical terms.
2. readers’ lack of interest in fiction containing many tehnical terms.
3. the negative attitude of scientists and technologists to fiction.
4. the use of difficult words.
On the second day of our stay we had a skiing lesson. We began with learning how to clip on the special
shoes and strap on the skis. Then we tried to master the art of balancing on the skis as we moved side
ways and forward. There was a lot of slipping and falling. But when finally managed slow run down the
gentle slope. The helmeted toddlers skimming around like small gnats were an embarrassing contrast to
our clumsiness.But we ignored them firmly. Soon exhausted we cut short the lesson and retreated to the
institute.
All around us youngsters were happily trying their hand at skiing, snowboarding and floating hot air
balloons like flitting sky gods. It was truly a winter wonderland to revel in.
6. The difficult part of learning to ski for beginners is

1. clipping on shoes and strapping on skis
2. balancing on skis while moving sideways and forward.
3. avoiding bumping into noisy toddlers.
4. doing fast runs on the steep slopes.
NTSE_STAGE-II _LANGUAGE-2014_PAGE # 10
7. The expression ‘skimming around like small gnats' suggests that the toddlers were
1. able to go skillfully up and down the slopes.
2. an irritation as they moved in all direction noisily.
3. skilled and confident Iike pilots of fighter planes.
4. careless and kept bumping into those around them.
8. The writer and his friends cut short the skiing lessons because
1 . the were tired and needed to rest.
2. they did not like to be in the same place as toddlers
3. they had to go for other lessons.
4. many of them were hurt after falling down respeatedly.
9. The institute mentioned is a place where

1. only families with children go during school holidays.
2. advance training in skiing is given to prepare teams for competitions
3. nature and adventure camps for young children are organized.
4. facilities and training for different winter sports is provided to visitors.
10. The narrator in this passage seems to be

1. a trainer of young children learning to ski.
2. an older skier who goes to the institute often.
3. a member of an older group of beginners.
4. a parent whose toddlers are learning to ski.
The dainty swallow is known to be a great air-borne acrobatic artist, but its eating habits may come as a
surprise. It needs to devour nearly a thousand tiny insects each day to keep its supple body energized.
These black and white birds are found in the countryside, especially near water bodies and human
habitations. Unlike birds who peck at insects on trees or on the ground, swallows feed on flying insects,
houseflies, mosquitoes, gnats, midgets, etc. They spend most of the time in flight and are natural hunters
of flying insects. They play a role in our health by reducing the numbers of malaria and dengue causing
mosquitoes. Their bodies and wings allow incredible manoeuvetability and precision in flight. Their short
wide bills help them to feed as they sweep through clouds of swarming insects near water and grasslands
bits and above trees.
11. Swallow are largely found in

1. villages near rivers and lakes.
2. cities with large water bodies and parks.
3. place where human habits attract insects.
4. forest with tall trees.
12. Swallows live near water bodies because

1. constant flying makes them thirsty.
2. they cannot store water in their short wide bill .
3. they love to skim over cool water as they perform acrobatic.
4. a large number of insects are found there.
13. Swallows devour a large number of insects because

1. they are natural hunters.
2. their daily need for energy from food is very high
3. such insects would otherwise spread diseases
4. the insect population is very large.
14. The swallow's short wide bill is designed to

1. trap small flying insects.
2. destroy disease spreading insects.
3. help it perform acrobatic manoeuvres.
4. help it fly though insect swarms with great precision.
15. The swallow is described as an air-borne acrobat because of its
1. high energy needs to keep its body supple.
2. ability to catch even small insects.
3. varied movement in fast flight.
4. ability to eat insects.
Q.16-17 . The following five sentence come from a paragraph. The first and the last sentence are given.
Choose the order in which the four sentence (P, Q, R, S) should appear to complete the paragraph.
16. S1. Once an ant saw, hanging from a plant, a mature chrysalis which could just move its tail.
S2. _________________________________________________________________________________
S3. _________________________________________________________________________________
S4. _________________________________________________________________________________
S5. _________________________________________________________________________________
S6. The next moment the butterfly rose in the air and was soon out of the sight of the ant.
P - The next morning as the ant passed by the same plant it saw a butterfly with gorgeous wings near
the remnants of the chrysalis.
Q - 'Poor creature! You can just about move your tail while I can run here and there’, it mocked the
chrysalis.
R - ‘Look at me, Ant! Can you fly from one place to another in a short time ?’ it said as it dried its
wings.
S - The chrysalis heard all this but kept quiet.
1. QSPR 2. RPSQ 3. SPQR 4. SRPQ
17. S1. We would like to thank you once again for having selected our dealership.
S2. ______________________________________________________________________________
S3.______________________________________________________________________________
S4.______________________________________________________________________________
S5.______________________________________________________________________________
S6. We look forward to a long lasting relationship and wish you safe motoring.
P - However, in case you experience any incidence which is not to your satisfaction we will be
graeful if you could provide your valuable feedback directly to us at our website.
Q. – We will bring necessary improvements in the process/organization to deliver better services to
our esteemed customers.
R. – First of all, our entire team is dedicated to ensure your complete satisfaction and give you a
wonderful experience.
S. – This will help us to resolve your concern immediately.
1. SPQR
2. RPSQ
3. SQPR
4. QRPS
Q.18-19 The following questions have the second sentence missing. Choose the appropriate sentence from the
given options to complete it.
18. A. If you wanted to know all about bread and bread making you must visit the Bread Museum in Ulm,
Germany.
B. ________________________________________________________________________
C. There are exhibitions of the cultivation of seeds, milling techniques, techniques of bread - making,
equipment, the sale of bread ; virtually everything you wanted to know about bread.
1. There are interesting tidbits on the use of bread on social and religious occasions as well.
2. A range of bread ovens, bread baskets and baking moulds are used in Germany.
3. Set up in 1955, this huge museum gives you highly detailed history of bread making and displays
about 10,000 objects related to bread and bread production.
4. Bread making is an ancient art.
19. A . Anne Frank began to keep a diary on her thirteenth birthday, June 12, 1942, three weeks before she
went into hiding with her family and friends in the sealed-off upper rooms of the annex of her father’s office
building in Amsterdam.
B.________________________
C. They were, however, betrayed in Augst 1944 and were deported to the Nazi concentration camp.
1. With the assistance of a group of her father, Otto Frank’s trusted colleagues, they remained hidden for
two years and one month.
2. Anne Frank was helped by her friends.
3. Anne died in Bergen-Belsen shortly before its liberation in April 1945.
4. Of the group of eight, only Otto Frank survived the war.
Q.20-27 Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given
20. The hedge has become a little untidy after the monsoon. I think I’II call the gardener to _____________the
edges a bit.
1. thin 2. prim 3. slim 4. prune
21. The men drilled and ________the stone into smaller bits so that they could be carted away in trucks.
1.mauled 2. hacked 3. whittle 4. hewed
22. Be careful. The cat might ________________you if it feels frightened.

1. scratch 2.hit 3. cut 4. kill
23. She cut the cake into equal wedges and ____________it amongst the children.
1.scattered 2.separated 3. distributed 4. spread
24. For the curry you need to _____a few onions, a potato and a small piece of ginger.
1. chop 2. strip 3. saw 4. bite
25. The men________off some of the upper branches of the tree near the window to allow more light in .
1. pluck 2. tore 3.brought 4.lopped
26. They picked their axes and _______the thick thorny bushes that grew all around.
1. slice 2. chopped 3. pulled 4. scratched
27. The doctor made a neat______ at the mouth of the boil,

1. wound 2. dent 3. incision 4. path
Q.28-37 In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most
appropriate word for each blank from the given options.
Unlike most nutrients, vitamin D is a hormone and is synthesized ____(28)the body through a process
____(29) depends upon the ultraviolet rays ____(30) sunlight. Brief exposure of the face (31) arms to
ultraviolet light ____(32) the most reliable source of ____(33) in spring and summer. Deficiency ____(34)
vitamin-D causes rickets. This ____(35) deformity in bones among ____(36) Therefore, a good exposure
to ____(37) is essential.
28. 1.with 2. by 3. for 4.on
29. l. this 2. that 3. these 4.there
30. 1. of 2. by 3. on 4. for
31. 1. but 2. because 3. and 4. yet
32. 1. was 2. is 3. were 4. are
33. 1. vitamin D 2. protein 3. cell 4. hormone
34. 1. off 2. for 3. of 4. on
35. 1. give 2. cause 3. causIng 4. causes
36. 1. child 2. infants 3. young 4. boy
37. 1. sunlight 2. unlight 3. ray 4. lights
Q.38-40 Choose the appropriate phrasal verb to complete the sentences.

38. My sister ______our grandmother who loved to take up challenges.
1. takes back 2. takes off 3. takes after 4. takes in
39. Ravi's family could never on his small salary if his wife had not decided to work.
1. get off 2. get by 3. get after 4. get round
40. Soon winter ________and the nights became misty and chilly.
1. set about 2. set off 3. set aside 4. set in
Q.41-43 elect the meaning of the given phrases/idioms
41. Take the bull by the horns

1. try to overpower a bull by catching hold of its horns
2. grapple with a difficult situation without avoiding it
3. act positively even if one is feeling angry
4. having a bull fight
42. To think 'one is cat's whiskers'

1. think of oneself as a difficult person
2. think one is wonderful
3. think one is elegant like a cat
4. think one is honest
43. talk shop

1. talk about shops in general 2. talk about one's shop
3. talk about work 4. talk about shopping
Q.44-48 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives.
44. It is__________to note that the government has at last decided to revise the salaries of railway lines-
men.
1. hearten 2. hearty 3. heartfelt 4. heartening
45. We need to be careful to ensure that our project is on night ______

1. route 2. road 3. track 4. way
46. With two school going children to manage, some of my mornings are quite ______
1. jumpy 2. rushed 3. quick 4. racy
47. Some of the areas in the hills are quite ____________populated. You many not find a village for miles.
1. heavily 2. densely 3. sparsely 4. quietly
48. Most of the youngsters today are _______ in social networking in all of their free time
1. engaged 2. employed 3. involved 4. implicated
Q.49-50 Select the word which mean the opposite of the given word.
49. Miserable
1. painful 2. angry 3. happy 4. frightened
50. Unique
1. special 2. uncommon 3. well-to-do 4. common-place
Roll No. 2 3 0 1 4 NTSE 14 _ SAT

Scholastic Aptitude Test
Read these Instructions very carefully before attempting questions.

Roll No. 2 3 0 1 3 0 4 0 3 2 1 5
2. There are 100 questions in this paper Each question is to be answered.

NTSE STAGE_II SAT- PAPER-2014
1. Which one of the following statements is NOT true about evolution ?
1. Evolution leads to generation of diverse forms of life.
2. Time dating and fossil studies help in understanding of evolution.
3. Evolution is not always progressive series of changes that occur in organism.
4. Human beings have not evolved form chimpanzees.
2. Which one of the following is known as energy currency of cell ?

1. Adenosine diphosphate
2. Adenosine triphosphate
3. Pyruvate
4. Glucose
3. An analysis of soil sample revealed 0.1 mg of a pesticide and 1 mg of the same pesticide was found in grains.
However in the adipose tissue of birds the concentration was 2 mg. The reason for this is the phenomenon
known as
1. Bio-absorption 2. Bio-translocation
3. Bio-magnification 4. Bio-multiplication
4. Diseases that spr3ead by vectors such as mosquitoes are

1. Encephalitis and Malaria
2. Syphilis and AIDS
3. Tuberculosis and sleeping sickness
4. Kala-azar and SARS
5. Which one of the following is correct route for passage of sperms ?

1. Testes — scrotum — vasdeferens — urethra — penis
2. Scrotum — testes — urethra — vasdeferends — penis
3. Tetes — vasdeferens — urethra — seminal vesicles
4. Testes — vasdeferens — urethra — penis
6. Suggest which among the following is NOT a function attributed to endoplasmic reticulum
1. Detoxification of poisons and drugs
2. Digestion / egestioin of foreign materials outside the cell
3. Manufacture of fat and lipid molecules
4. Biogenesis of membranes
7. In nitrogen cycle, atmospheric nitrogen is fixed by bacteria and converted into ammonia. Ammonia is further
converted into other forms of nitrogen . At the end of the cycle it returns to the atmosphere by the process of :
1. Ammonification 2. Nitrification 3. Denitrification 4. Assimilation
8. Cell organelles that are involved in the waste diposal system of the cell are :
1. Golgi apparatus. 2. Lysosomes 3. Chromosomes 4. Ribosomes
9. Sequence of events which occure in a reflex action are

1. Receptor — motor neuron — CNS — sensory neurong — effector muscle
2. Effector muscle — CNS — sensory nerve — sensory organ
3. CNS — sensory neuron — motor neuron — effector muscle
4. Receptor organ — sensory neuron — CNS — motor neuron — effector muslce
10. Movement of food in digestive tract is due to

1. concentration gradient
2. secretions
3. peristalsis
4. villi
11. A pea plant with round green (RRyy) pea seed is crossed another pea plant with wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds
What would be the nature of seed in the first generation (F1 generation) ?
1. Round green 2. Wrinkled green 3. Wrinkled yellow 4. Round yellow
NTSE_STAGE-II _ SAT-2014_PAGE # 16
12. Some organisms are sensitive to different levels of air pollution and are used as pollution - indicators. Suggest
which among the following fits into the category
1. Fungi 2.Fresh water algae 3. Bacteria 4. Lichens
13. A group of laboratory mice having tails are bred together and their progeny studied. The progeny and again bred
them for four successive generations. What do you think would be the nature of the new progeny ?
1. All mice born will have tails.
2. All mice born will have no tails.
3. The ratio of tail less to tailed mice will be 1 : 3
4. The ratio of tail less to tailed mice will be 1 : 4
14. Which of the following statements is NOT correct ?

1. Tendons are tissues with great strength and flexibility
2. Bones are connected to each other by tendons
3. Cartilage smoothens bone surface at joints
4. Tendons connect muslces to bones
15. Which of the following are the correct examples of matter ?

1. Glass bottle, water and noise 2. Air, wood and vacuum
3. Silver foil, hot air and chalk 4. Sand, oxygen and light flash
16. Two identical beakers labeled as (X) and (Y) contain 100 cm3 of water each at 20ºC . To the water in the
beaker (X) 100 g of water at 0ºC was added and stirred to mix thoroughly.To the beaker (Y) 100g of ice at
0ºC was added and stirred till it melten into water. The water in the beaker (Y) will be
1. hotter than water in beaker X 2. Colder than water in beaker X
3. heavier than water in beaker X 4. lighter than water in beaker X
17. At 283 K a saturated solution of solid X can be prepared by dissolving 21.0g of it in 100 g of water.The
maximum amount of X which can be dissolved in 100 g of water at 313 K is 62.0 g. An attempt is made
to dissove 50.0 g of X in 100g of water at 313 K.
A. All the 50.0 g of X will dissove at 313 K.
B. At 313 K 29.0 g of X will remain undissoved
C. Solubility of X decreases with increases of temperature
D. On cooling the solution of X from 313 K to 283 K more than 21.0 g of X will crystallize out.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
1. A and B 2. A and D 3. B and C 4. A,C and D
18. Two elements A and B contain 13 and 8 protons respectively. If the number of neutrons in them happen to
be 14 and 8 respectively ; the formula unit mass for the compound between And B unit would be :
1. 43 2. 75 3. 102 4. 112
19. The reaction of burning of carbon in oxygen is represented by the equation:

C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g) + Heat + Light
When 9.0 g of solid carbon is burnt in 16.0 g of oxygen gas, 22.0g of carbon dioxide is produced.The
mass of carbon dioxide gas formed on burning of 3.0g of carbon in 32.0 g of oxygen would be (Note :
atomic mass of C = 12.0 u, O = 16.0u)
1. 6.60 g 2. 7.33 g 3. 8.25 g 4. 11.00g
20. An atom of an element (X) has its K, L and M shells filled with some electrons. It reacts with sodium metal
to form a compound NaX. The number of electrons in the M shell of the atom (X) will be
1. Eight 2. Seven 3. Two 4. One
21. Oxygen gas reacts with hydrogen to produce water. The reaction is represented
by the equation :
O2 (g) + H2(g) H2O (g)
The above reaction is an exampleof
(a) Oxidation of hydrogen (b) Reduction of oxygen
(c) Reduction of hydrogen (d) Redox reaction
1. (a), (b) and (c) 2. (b), (c) and (d) 3. (a), (c) and (d) 4. (a), (b) and (d)
22. Match the items of Column I with the items of the Column II
Column I Column II
a) NH4OH + CH3 (i) Thermal
COOH CH3COONH4+H2o decomposition
(ii) Thermit
b) 2AgBr 2Ag + Br2 reaction
(iii) Photochemical
c) ZnCO3 ZnO + CO3 reaction
d) 2AI + Fe2O3 2Fe + (iv) Neutralization
Al2O3 reaction
(1) (d) ii (c) iv (b) i (a) iii (2) (c) i (a) ii (c) iii (d) iv
(3) (b) ii (d) i (a) iii (c) iv (4) (a) iv (b) iii (c) i (d) ii
23. Which of the following represents the correct order of the acidic strength for equimolar aqueous solutions
of HCl, H2SO4, NH4OH and NaOH
1. HCl < NH4OH < NaOH < H2SO4 2. NH4OH < NaOH < H2SO4 < HCl
3. HCl < H2SO4 < NH4OH < NaOH 4. NaOH < NH4OH < HCl < H2SO4
24. Metals like sodium, potassium calcium and magnesium are extracted by electrolysis of their chlorides in
molten state. These metals are not extracted by reduction of their oxides with carbon because
a) reduction with carbon is very expensive
b) carbon readily makes alloys with these metals.
c) carbon has less affinity for oxygen
d) carbon is a weaker reducing agent than these metals.
1. (a) and (b) 2. (b) and (c) 3. (c) and (d) 4. (d) and (a)
25. A hydrocarbon has a molecular formula as C6H12 . It does not react with hydrogen to give C6H14 nor does
it react with chlorine to give C6H12Cl2 . The hydrocarbon C6H12is ]
a) A saturated hydrocarbon
b) An unsaturated hydrocarbon
c) An open chain hydrocarbon
d) A cyclo-alkane
1. (a) and (b) 2. (c) and (d) 3. (d) and (b) 4. (a) and (d)
26. An organic compound is a clear liquid having a molecular formula C4H8O. It has an open chain structure.
Without any carbon-carbon double bond. The compound can be
a) an alcohol b) an ester c) an aldehyde d) a ketone
1. (a) and (b) 2. (c) and (d) 3. (b) and (d) 4. (d) and (a)
27. An element with atomic number 17 is placed in the group 17 of the long form periodic table. Element with
atomic number 9 is placed above and with atomic number 35 is placed below it. Element with atomic
number 16 is placed left and with atomic number 18 is placed right to it.
Which of the following statements are correct .
a) Valency of the element with atomic number 18 is zero.
b) Elements with same valency will have atomic number 16,17 and 18.
c) Valency of elements with atomic number 9,17 and 35 is one.
d) Element with atomic number 17 is more electronegative that element with atomic numbers 16 and 35
1. (a), (b) and (c) 2. (a), (c) and (d) 3. (b), (c) and (d) 4. (a) , (b) and (d)
28. A car is moving with a constant speed of 70 km/h. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) The acceleration of the car is definitely zero.
(2) The car has an acceleration only if it is moving along a curved path
(3) The car may have an acceleration even if it is moving along a straight path
(4) The car may not have an acceleration even if it is moving along a curved path
29. A box of mass 20 kg is pushed along a rough floor with a velocity 2 m/s and then let go. The box moves
5 m on the floor before coming to rest. What must be the frictional force acting on the box ?
(1) 4 N (2) 2 N (3) 20 N (4) 8 N
30. Two objects, one 4 times as massive as the other, are approching each other under their mutual
graitational attraction. When the sepration between the objects is 100 km, the acceleration of the
lighter object is 1 m/s2. When the separation between them is 25 km, the acceleration of the heavier
object is
(1) 1m/s2 (2) 2m/s2 (3) 8m/s2 (4) 4m/s2
31. A spring balance measures the weight of an object in air to be 0.1 N. It shows a reading of 0.08 N
when the object is completely immersed in water. If the value of acceleration due to gravity is 10m/s2
the volume of the object is
(1) 20 cm3 (2) 80 cm3 (3) 200 cm3 (4) 2 cm3
32. A force of 10 N is applied on an object of mass 1 kg for 2 s, which was initially at rest. What is the
work done on the object by the force?
(1) 200 J (2) 20 J (3) 16 J (4) 180J
33. Stethoscope of doctors for finding quality, strength and frequency of human heart beat is based on the
principle of
(1) SONAR (2) Reverberation (3) Multiple reflection (4) Echo
34. A ray of light is incident in medium 1 on a surface that separates medium 1 from medium 2. Let v1 and v2
represent the velocity of light in medium 1 and medium 2 respectively. Also let n12 and n 21 repre-
sent the refractive index of medium 1 with respect to medium 2 and refractive index of medium 2
with respect to medium 1, respectively. If i and r denote the angle of incidence and angle of refraction,
then-
sin i v1 sin i v2 sin i v1 sin i v2
(1) = n21 = v (2) = n21 = v (3) = n12 = v (4) = n12 = v
sin r 2 sin r 1 sin r 2 sin r 1
35. A convex lens has a focal length of 0.5 m. It has to be combined with a second lens, so that the
combination has a power of 1.5 diopter. Which of the following could be the second lens?
(1) A concave lens of focal length 2 m.
(2) Another convex lens of focal length 0.5 m.
(3) A concave lens of focal length 0.5 m.
(4) A convex lens of focal length 2 m.
36. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly
(2) A person with hypermetropia can see nearby objects clearly
(3) A person with myopia can see distant objects clearly
(4) A person with hypermetropia can not see distant objects clearly
37. Consider two conducting plates A and B between which the potential difference is 5 volt, plate A
being at a higher potential. A proton and an electron are released at plates A and B respec tively. The 2
particales then move towards the opposite plates- the proton to plate B and the electron to plate A.
Which one will have a larger velocity when they reach their respective destination plates ?
(1) Both will have the same velocity.
(2) The electron will have the larger velocity.
(3) The proton will have the larger velocity.
(4) None will be able to reach the destination point.
38. Which one of the statement best describes the nature of the field lines due to a bar magnet?
(1) Field lines start from the north pole and end on the south pole. Any number of field lines can pass
through a point.
(2) Field lines start from the north pole and end on the south pole. Only one field line passes
through a point.
(3) Field lines are continuous lines passing inside and outside the magnet. Only one field line passes
through a point.
(4) Field lines are continuous lines passing inside and outside the magnet. Any number of field lines
can pass through a point.
39. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) AC generator generates a higher voltage
(2) DC generator generates a higher voltage
(3) AC generator has a permanent magnet whereas a DC generator has an electromagnet
(4) There is a split-ring commutator in a DC generator but not in an AC generator
40. A star produces its energy through the process of
(1) Nuclear fusion
(2) Chemical reaction
(3) Nuclear fission
(4) Gravitational atraction between different parts of the star.
41.  is an acute angle such that tan = 2/3 then evaluate

 1  tan    1  cot  
  .  
 sin   cos    sec   cos ec  
;fn  ,d U;wu d ks.k bl izd kj gSfd tan = 2/3 gS]rks
 1  tan    1  cot  
  .  
 sin   cos    sec   cos ec  
1 4 1 4
(1) – (B) – (C) (D)
5 13 5 13
42. Value of the expression :

1 3 4
– –
11  2 30 7  2 10 84 3
ljy hd j.k d sckn]O;at d
1 3 4
– –
11  2 30 7  2 10 84 3
(1) 30 (2) 2 10 (3) 1 (4) 0
43. The minumum value of the polynomial p(x) = 3x2 – 5x + 2 is

cgqin p(x) = 3x2 – 5x + 2 d k U;wure eku gSA
1 1 1 1
(1) – (2) (3) (4) –
6 6 12 12
44. For the equation |x|2 + |x| – 6 = 0

(1) Three are four roots (2) the sum of the roots is – 1
(3) the product of the roots is –4 (4) the product of the roots is –6
lehd j.k |x|2 + |x| – 6 = 0
(1) pkj ew y gSaA (2) ew
y ksad k ;ksx – 1 gSA
(3) ewy ksad k xq.kuQ y –4 gSA (4) ew
y ksad k xq.kuQ y –6 gSA
45. In ABC, D is a point on BC such that 3BD = BC. If each side of the triangle is 12 cm, then AD equals
ABC esa, D Hkqt k BC ij bl izd kj fLFkr gSfd 3BD = BC gSA ;fn f=kHkqt d h izR;sd Hkqt k 12 cm gks, rksAD d h
y EckbZgSA
(1) 4 5 (2) 4 6 (3) 4 7 (4) 4 11
46. In ABC, XY is paralled to A C and divides the triangle into the two parts of equal area. Then the
AX
equals
AB
AX
ABC es
a, XY Hkqt k A C d slekarj gSrFkk f=kHkqt d ksnkscjkcj {ks=kQ y ksaoky sHkkxksaesack¡Vrk gSA rc cjkcj
AB
gS
A B
X Y
A C
2 1 2 2 2 2 2 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 2 2
47. P is point in the interor of an equilateral triangle with side a units. If P1, P2 and P3 are the distance of P
form the three sides of the triangle, the P1 + P2 + P3
2a
(1) equals units
3
a 3
(2) equals units
2
(3) is more than a unit
(4) Cannot be determined unless the location of P is specified
Hkqt k a bd kbZoky s,d leckgqf=kHkqt d svH;arj esa,d fcUnqP fLFkr gSA ;fn f=kHkqt d h rhuksaHkqt kvksalsfcUnqP d h
nqfj;k¡P1, P2 vkSj P3 gS] rksP1 + P2 + P3
2a
(1) bd kbZ
3
a 3
(2) bd kbZ
2
(3) a bd kbZlsvf/kd
(4) fcUnqP d h fLFkfr fufnZ"V fd , fcukfu/kkZfjr ughafd ;k t kld rk gSA
48. In how many ways can given square be cut into two congruent
(1) Exactly 4 (2) Exactly 8 (3) Exactly 12 (4) More than 12
,d fn, gq, oxZd ksnkslokZaxle ley cksaesafd rusizd kj lsd kVk t k ld rk gS\
(1) 4 Bhd (2) 8 Bhd (3) 12 Bhd (4) 12 lsvf/kd
49. In how many ways can you position 6 into ordered ? [For exp, 3 can be positioned into 3 ways as 1 +
2, 2 + 1, 1 + 1 + 1]
6 d ksfd rusØ fer ;ksT;ksad s: i esafd rusizd kj lsfoHkDr d j ld rsgS\ [mnkgj.k d sfy , 3 d ks3 rjhd ksalst Sl s
1 + 2, 2 + 1, 1 + 1 + 1 d s: i es afoHkDr d j ld rsagS]
(1) 27 (2) 29 (3) 31 (4) 33
50. The no integers n (<20) for which n2 – 3n + 3 is a perfect square is

mu iw.kkZad ksan (<20) d h la[;k ft ud sfy , n2 – 3n + 3 ,d iw.kZoxZgS]fuEu gSA
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
51. For positive x and y, the LCM is 225 and HCF is 15 There.
(1) is exactly one such pair (2) are exactly two such pair
(3) are exactly three such pair (4) are exactly four such pair
/kukRed iw.kkZd ksax rFkk y d k y ?kqre lekioR;Z225 gSrFkk egÙke lekiorZd 15 gSA rc
(1) Bhd ,d ,s l k ;qXe laHko gSA (2) Bhd nks,s
l s;qXe laHko gSaA
(3) Bhd ehu ,s l s;qXe laHko gSaA (4) Bhd pkj ,sl s;qXe laHko gSA
52. in the figure, a semicircle with centre O is drawn on AB. The ratio of the larger shaded area t othe
smaller shaded area is.
vkd f̀r esa] AB ij d sUnzO y sd j ,d v/kZoÙ̀k [khap k x;k gSA cMs+Nk;kafd r Hkkx d s{ks=kQ y d k NksVsNk;kafd r
Hkkx d s{ks=kQ y lsvuqikr gSA
P
60°
A O B
4  2 3 4  3 3 4  3 3 3  2 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2  2 3 3  3 3 2  3 3 2  2 3
53. In ABC, angle B is obtuse. The smallest circle which covers the triangle is the
(1) Circumcircle (2) Circle with AB as diameter
(3) Circle with BC as diameter (4) Circle with AC as diameter
ABC es
a, d ks.k B vf/kd d ks.k gSA f=kHkqt d ksvkPNkfnr d jusoky k lclsNksVk oÙ̀k gSA
(1) ifjoÙ̀k (2) AB O;kl oky k oÙ̀k
(3) BC O;kl oky k oÙ̀k (4) AC O;kl oky k oÙ̀k
54. Which of the following can be expressed as the sum of square of two positive integers, as well as
three positive integers ?
fuEufy f[kr esalsd kSulh la[;k d ksnks/kukRed iw.kkZad ksad soxksZad s;ksx rFkk lkFk gh rhu /kukRed iw.kkZad ksad s
oxksZad s;ksx d s: i esafy [kk t k ld rk gS\
(1) 75 (2) 192 (3) 250 (4) 100
55. If P is a point inside the scalene triangle ABC such that APB, BPC and CPA have the same area
then P must be
(1) in centre of ABC (2) circumcentre of ABC
(3) centroid of ABC (4) orthocentr of ABC
;fn ,d fcUnqP fo"keckgqf=kHkqt ABC d svUnj bl izd kj fLFkr gSfd APB, BPC rFkk CPA d s
{ks=kQ y leku gSa] rksP d ksgksuk pkfg,A
(1) ABC d k vUr% d s Unz (2) ABC d k ifjd s Unz
(3) ABC d k d s Unzd (4) ABC d k y a cd sUnz
56. If the line segment joining the midpoint of the consecutive side of quadrilateral ABCD form a
recatangle then ABCD must be
(1) rhombus (2) square (3) kite (4) all of the above
;fn fd lh prqZHkqt ABCD d h Ø ekxr Hkqt kvksad se/; fcUnqv ksad ksfey kusij ,d vk;r cus] rks ABCD
vo'; ghgksxkA
(1) leprq
Hkq
Z t (2) oxZgksxk (3) irax (4) miZ
;qDr lHkh
57. C1 and C2 are two circle in a plane. If N is the total number of common tangent then which of the
following is wrong
(1) N = 2 when C1 and C2 interset but do not touch
(2) N = 4 when C1 and C2 are disjoint
(3) when C1 and C2 touch then N must be 3
(4) N can never be more than 4
C1 rFkk C2 ,d ry es anksoÙ̀k gSaA ;fn mHk;fu"B Li'kZjs[kkvksad h la[;k N gS]rksfuEufy f[kr esalsd kSulk xy r gS
\
(1) N = 2 t c C1 vkS
j C2 izfrPNsn d jrsgSaA fd Urq,d nwl jsd ksLi'kZughad jrsA
(2) N = 4 t c C1 vkS
j C2 vla;qDr gSaA
(3) t c C1 vkS
j C2 ,d nwl jsd ksLi'kZd jrsgSa]rc N d ksvo'; gh 3 gksuk pkfg,A
(4) N d k eku 4 lsvf/kd d Hkh ughagksld rk gSA
58. The side of a triangle are of length 20, 21 and 29 units. The sum of the lengths of altitude will be
1609 1609
(1) units (2) 49 units (3) units (4) 40 units
29 21
fd lhf=kHkqt d hHkqt kvksad hy EckbZ;k¡20, 21 rFkk29 gSA bl f=kHkqt d s'kh"kZy Ecksad ksy Eckb;ksad k;ksx D;kgS\
1609 1609
(1) bd kbZ (2) 49 bd kbZ (3) bd kbZ (4) 40 bd kbZ
29 21
59. If a,b, c be the 4th, 7th and 10th term of an AP respectively then the sum of the roots of the equation ax2
– 2bx + c = 0
b 2b ca
(1) – (2) – (3) (3) can not be determined
a a a
unless some more information is given about the AP
;fn fd lh lekarj (AP) d s4 Fks] 7 osavkSj 10 osain Ø e'k%a,b, rFkk c gS] rkslehd j.k ax2 – 2bx + c = 0 d s
ewy ksad k ;ksx
b 2b ca
(1) – (2) – (3) (3) leka
rj Js<h d sckjsesavkSj lwp y k d s
a a a
fcukfu/kkZfjr d juklaHko ughagSA
60. PQRS is a smallest square whose vertices are an the opposite sides of the square ABCD. The ratio of
the area of PQRS to ABCD is
PQRS og lclsNks Vk oxZgSft ld s'kh"kZoxZABCD d h Hkqt kvksaij fLfkr gSA PQRS rFkk ABCD d s
{ks=kQ y ksad k vuqikr D;k gS\
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 2 : 3
61. Consider the following events related to the French Revolution and identify the correct chronological
response from the options given thereafter:
a. Convocation of Estates General
b. Storming of the Bastille
c. Peasant revolts in the countryside
d. Third Estate forms National Assembly
(1) a, c, d, b (2) d, b, c, a (3) a, d, b, c (4) b. a, c, d
62. Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter:
a. The colonies in the Caribbean were important suppliers of tobacco, indigo, sugar and coffee.
b. The slave trade began in the 15th century.
c. French port cities like Bordeaux and Nantes owed their economic prosperity to the flourishing slave
trade.
d lavery was finally abolished in the French colonies in 1848.
(1) a, c, d (2) a, b, d (3) b. c, d (4) b. c, a
63. Match the List-I with List-II and select the 6: correct response from the options given thereafter:
List l
I. Liberals
II. Radicals
Ill. Conservatives
IV. Socialists
List II
a. Government to be based on the majority of country's population
b. The past has to be respected and change has to be brought about through a slow process
c. Property to be controlled by society as a whole
d. Men of property mainly should have the right to vote
(1) I-c, II-b, III-a, IV-d (2) I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c
(3) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d (4) I-d, II-a, IIl-b, IV-c
Statement I: azism became a mass movement after the Great Depression.
Statement II; After 1929, banks collapsed and businesses shut down, workers lost their jobs and the
middle classes were threatened with destitution.
(1) Statement I is false and Statement II is true
(2) Statement J is true and Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement
I
(4) Both Statement I and Statement Il are true but Statement II is not the coneet explanation of
Statement I
65. Consider the following statements and j identify the correct response from the options given thereafter:
Satement I: According to the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871, nomadic pastoralists were forced to tive only
in notified village settlements
Statement II: Colonial state wanted to transform all grazing lands into cultivated farms .
1. Statement I is false and Statement II is true
2. Statement I is true and Statement II is false
3. Both Satement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct expfanation of Statement 1
4. Both Statement 1 and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I
66. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct response from the options given thereafter:
List I List ll
a) The British government established 1. 1780s
monopoly in opium trade in Bengal.
b) The British government 2. 1820s
exported 50,000 chests of
opium from Bengal annually.
c) Opium production in British 3. 1870
occupied territories declined
rapidly.
d) Village headmen started paying 4. 1773
peasants for producing opium
in advance.
1. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1 2. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 3. a-3, b-2, c-1 d-4 4. a-I, b-2, c-4, d-3
67. Consider the following statement and identify thecorrect response from the options given thereafter :
a) Cricket, in Victorian England, was an all season leisure game for aristocrats.
b) The captain of the team was traditionally a batsman in Victorian England as amateurs played only
as batsmen
c) Len Hutton was the first professional Yorkshire batsman to lead the English test team.
d) Ther was a clear social hierarchy between the batsmen and the bowlers in Victorian England.
(1) a, b and c (2) a, b and d (3) a, c, and d (4) b, c and d
68. Consider the folloing statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter :
Statement I : Campaign for dress reforms by women started with the development of the suffrage
movement.
Statement II : Dress reform emphasized differences between men and women and established the
status of women as obedient and dutiful.
(1) Statement I is false & statement II is true.
(2) Statement I is true & statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct exphanation of Statement
I
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I
Statement I: Schools became an imp0rtant place for political and cultural hattles in Vietnam under the
French rule.
Statement II: Teachers did not blindly follow the curriculum but sometimes modified the text and
criticized what was stated.
(1) Statement I is faJse and Statement II is true
(2) Statement I is true and Statement II is faIse
I
Statement 1
70. Consider the folloing statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter:
Statement I: In 1921. as the NonnCooperation movement spread. houses of talukdars were looted and
merchants were attacked,
Statement II: Mahatma Gandhi had declared that tax was not to be paid and land was to be
redistributed amongst the poor.
(1) Statement I is false and Statement n is true
(2) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
I
(4) Both Statemet1t I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I
Statement I: In Victorian Britain, the upper classes - the aristocrats and the bourgeoisie - preferred
things produced by machine.
Statement II: Machine goods were mass produced and were easily available.
I
Statement I
Statement I: In the 19th century, London was a colossal city.
Statement II: London had many large factories.
I
Statement I
73. Consider the statement given below and select the correct explanation from the responses given
thereafter:
People of depressed classes found it difficult to find housing in Bombay during the late nineteenth
century.
(1) Bombay had a mere 9.5 square yards average space per person.
(2) Wages of depressed clas es were usually less than that of others.
(3) Most people of depressed classes were kept out of chawls.
(4) People belonging to the depressed classes had fixed space allotted per family.
74. Consider the statement given below and select the correct explanation from the responses given
thereafter:
In 1878 the Vernacular Press Act was passed.
(1) Englishmen criticized the printed matter objectionable to the Government.
(2) After the Revolt of 1857 the British wanted to clamp down the Indian press.
(3) British rule needed to be celebrated by journals and paper .
(4) ationalist newspapers grew in numbers and needed to be c.ontrolled.
75. By the 18th centuryt which of the following commodities were produced on large plantation in America
by lave labour and exported to other countries.
(1) Grains such as wheat and barley (2) Tropical fruits such as bananas and oranges
(3) Animal products such as wool and beef (4) Cash crops such as sugar and cotton
76. My stems are succulent, my leaves are mostly thick
In which category of the following vegetation type I am largely found?
(1) Tropical deciduous forest (2) Montane forest
(3) Tropical thorn forest and scrobs (4) Mangrove forest
77. The following diagram shows the general land use category in India. Identify the shaded category .
(1) Net sown area (2) Forest

(3) Current Fallow (4) Barren and waste land
78. Assertion (A): Since 1981. growth rate of population in India has started declining gradually
Reason (R): Birth rate is declining Select the correct option from the given alternatives
1. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are false.
3. A is false and R is true.
4. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
79. Which of the following diagram shows th approximate relief of India around, 200N latitude from Daman
to Bhubaneswar ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
80. Identify the right pair from the following:

Place Source of Energy
A. Ennore 1. Nuclear
B. Rawat Bhata 2. Thermal
C. Kopili 3. Hydor electric
D. Na arcoil 4. Wind
(1) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 (2) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 (3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (4) A-2, B-1, C -4, D-3
81. The peninsular part of India experience peak summers earlier than northern India
(1) Due to apparent northward movement of the sun, th global heat belts shift northwards.
(2) Cold waves from central Asia weeps through the northern plains during that time.
(3) There is less rainfall in the peninsular India during that time.
(4) Clouds do not form in those months.
82. National Highway-7 is the longest national highway in India, which traverses between Varanasi and
Kanya Kumari. Identify the places onroute from North to South.
(1) Nagpur - Jabalpur - Bangalore - Hyderabad - adurai
(2) Jabalpur - agpur - Hyderabad - Bangalore - Madurai
(3) Jabalpur - agpur - Bangalore - Hyderabad - lvladurai
(4) Nagpur - Jabalpur - Hyderabad - Bangalore - Madurai
83. The process of manufacturing of cotton garment is depicted in the following flow diagram. Identify the
correct sequence.
1 2 3 4
a. Dyeing and finishing
b. Fiber production
c. Garment manufacture
d. Weaving
(1) 1b, 2a, 3c, 4d (2) 1b, 2d, 3c, 4a (3) 1b, 2d, 3a, 4c (4) 1b, 2a, 3d, 4c
84. Match the fresh water lakes on the map of India (I, ll, III, IV) with their respectiv names.
A. Bhimtal
B. Loktak
C. Barapani
D. Dallake
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-Ill, C-II, D-I (3) A-III, B-I, C-II. D-lV (4) A-IV, B-Ill, C-I, D·II
85. A major line of latitude that passes through ~ Mizoram also passes through hich one of the following
state _______ .
(1) Nagaland (2) Odisha (3) Bihar (4) Jharkhand
86. Observe the following graph of a particular place. It is situated at an altitude of 224 meters above Mean
Sea Level and at latitude 26°18'N
Identify the type of natural vegetution most likely to be found in this place
(1) Montane forest (2) Mangrove forest
(3) Tropical thorn forest (4) Tropical evergreen forest
87. Identify the state from given names which has all the following characteristics
A. Its annual rainfall is 200-400 cm
B. Most of the area is covered under with alluvial soil
C. Rice is the predominant crop of this state
(1) Punjab (2) Assam (3) Odisha (4) TamilNadu
88. Identify the dates of advancing Monsoon in India.
(1) I- 1 June -10 June ; III - 15 July (2) I-1 June; II- 10 June ; III - 1 July
(3) I- 15 June; II- 15 July; III- 15 August (4) I- 15 July; II- 10 June; III - 1 June
89. Match the places with altitude
Column I Column II
(Altitude in meters abon (Place)
Mean Sea Level)
I. 1461 A. Nagpur
II. 6 B. Shillong
III. 224 C. Jodhpur
IV. 312 D . Kolkata
(1) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B (2) I-C, lI-A, Ill-B, IV-D (3) I-B, II- D, III-C, IV-A (4) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
90. What as the local time in Tokyo situated at 139°45' East longitude, when the President of India was
hoisting the Indian National Flag in the presence of Japanese Prime Minister at 10 a.m. in New Delhi?
The viewer in Japan were watching live telecast of this event.
(1) 6.11 a.m. (2) 1.49 a.m. (3) 2.49 a.m. (4) 1.49 p.m.
91. The following statements are about democracy in the contemporary world.
A. Democracy expanded throughout the 20th century.
B. Democracy did not spread evenly throughout the world.
C. All the member states of the International Monetary Fund (lMF) are democracies.
D. All the pennanent members of the United Nations Security Council are democracies.
(1) A and B (2) A, B and C (3) A, B and D (4) B. C and D
92. Match the following :
A. Abraham
B. Mahatma Gandhi
C. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
D. Jawahatlal Nehru
(i) How long shall we continue to deny equality in our social and economic life'? If we continue to deny
it for long, we will do so only by putt1ng our political democracy in peril.
(ii) Democracy is 'govern-ment of the people. by the people and for th p oplc'.
(iii) The ervice of India means the service of the million who suffer. It means e ending of poverty and
ignorance: and disease and inequality of opportunity
(iv) I shall work for an India in which ... all communities shall live in perfect harmony. There can be no
room in such an India for the curse of untouchability.
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-II (3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
93. Parliament of India consists of
(1) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabbs
(2) President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
(3) Election Commission, Rajya Sabha and LokSabha
(4) President, Election Commission. Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
94. Which of the following is not a feature of a 9, democratic form of government?
(1) Majority rule (2) Rights of minoriti s
(3) Universal adult franchise (4) Majoritarianism
95. Which of the following institutions have reserved seats for women?
A. Lok abha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Legislative Assemblies
D. Municipalities
E. Panchayats
(1) A, C, D, E (2) B, C, D, E (3) D and E (4) E only
96. The following are major changes that occurred in agriculture in the post-Independent India.
A. Use of high yielding variety (HYV) seeds
B. Introduction of Genetically modified (OM) crops
C. Application of chemical fertilizers and pesticides
D. Organic fanning
Which of the above signifies Green Revolution of late 1960s and 1970s?
(1) A and B (2) B and (3) A and C (4) B and D
97. Information relating to which of the folowing aspects are used to detennine the human development in a
country?
(1) HaIth, education and poverty
(2) Inequality, health and education
(3) Health, education and income
(4) Women's health, education and income
98. A father in a farm produces 100 kg of padd ' in one acre of land, during every ea. on. One year, hi son
joined him in farming. Which of th following definitely indicates disguised unemployment ?
(1) Output remains at 100 kilogram
(2) Output increa ed to 150 kilogram
(3) Output increa ed to 200 kilograms
(4) Output increased to 250 kilograms
99. How membership in a Self Help Group helps a poor rural woman?
(1) Facilitates her how to help herself in daily work.
(2) To work together in factones and get regular employment
(3) To overcome the problem of lack of collateral as borrowing is based on the group.
(4) To get free money from the government.
100. Though consumers in India has the right to information about the product he/she purchases, which of
the following aspects of a product, the producer need not inform the consumer ?
(1) Dat of production (2) Date of expiry
(3) Addres of the producer (4) The production proces
NTSE STAGE-II (2014)
CLASS-X [MAT]
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

ANSWER KEY
Que s. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 3 1 4 4 1 1 3 1 4 3 1 2 4 3
Que s. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 2 2 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 1 1 4 3 4
Que s. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 2 1 2 4 2 4 1 4 4 3 3 3 4 1
Que s. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 3 4 4 2 4
1. +51, +102, +153, +204,..... 17. FAST (62+12+192+202) = 798

Ans 520 LAST (122+12+192+202) = 906
BUSY (22+212+192+252) = 1431
2. NAJ31, BEF28, RAM31, RPA30, YAM31
JANUARY 31 DAYS R A J A ST H A N
FEBRUARY 28 DAYS 9 R 17 J 8
(19+20) 19 H 13
30.
MARCH 31 DAYS (S+T)
APRIL 30 DAYS.... Than MANIPUR = 14M13V11J9
7. (8+3)×(9–3) = 44
(4+2)×(12–3) = 54 31. By Difference’s difference
(10+6)×(13–8) = 80
32. (22+32+42) – (12+52) = 3
8. (7×5×12)÷10 = 42
(72+82+92) – (62+102) = 58
(5×6×8)÷10 = 24
(9×6×15)÷10 = 81
41. (72+22)–(32+52) = 19
14. 11+1 = 2 (82+52)–(72+42) = 24
22+2 = 6 (62+42)–(32+52) = 18
33+3 = 30
44+4 = 260 44. 953 (RVXYS) 28
55+5 = 3130 All letter’s position from back side
15. 2×1+4=6 R - 9, V - 5, X - 3, Y - 2, S - 8
6×2+6=18 So, 714 (TZWUV) 65.
18×4+8=80
80×8+10=650

CLASS-X [LCT]
ENGLISH
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 4 3 1 2 2 1 1 4 3 1 4 2 1 3
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 2 3 1 4 4 1 3 1 4 2 3 2 2 1
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 2 1 3 4 2 1 3 2 4 2 2 3 4 3
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 2 3 1 3 4
NTSE_STAGE-II _ MAT SOL.-2014_PAGE # 31

CLASS-X [SAT]
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

ANSWER KEY
Que s. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans 4 2 3 1 4 2 3 2 4 3 4 4 1 2 3
Que s. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 2 2 3 4 2 4 4 4 3 4 2 2 2 4 4
Que s. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans 4 1 3 1 1 1 2 3 4 1 1 4 4 3 3
Que s. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 2 2 4 3 3 2 3 4 3 3 4 3 1 3 1
Que s. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans 3 1 4 1 4 2 4 2 3 2 1 2 3 2 4
Que s. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans 3 2 4 1 3 1 2 3 3 4 3 2 1 3 4
Que s. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 1 2 2 4 3 3 3 1 3 4
15. Noise, vaccume and light flash not example of 44 3

 3 gm C give CO2 = ×
matter. 12 1
16. X Y = 11 gm
100 ML water 100 ml water
20ºC 20. X K, L, M  M shell is the valency
0ºC 100 g  water 100 g ice  0ºC shell
2,8,7 therefore valency = 7
 more cooling y is colder than x X = Cl
17. At 313 k it from saturated solution. therefore 21. O2 + H2 H2O (g)

all 50 gm. will be dissolve. O.S. of O2 become zero to – 2
when temperature down to 283 K (62 – 21 = it will be reduced and Oxidation state of H2
41 gm.) becomes zero to + 1 it will be oxidised
will be crystall cut. therefore reaction will be redox
18. A = Al B 22. NH4 OH + CH3COOH  CH3COONH4 + H2O

z = 13 z=8 base acid salt
valency = 3 valency = 2 (neutralisation reaction)
= Al2O3
2AgCl h 2Ag + Br2 (Photo chemical decom-
formula mass = 27 × 2 + 16 × 3 position)
= 102
ZnCO3  ZNO + CO2 (thermla decompostion)
2Al + Fe2O3 Al2O3 + 2Fe (Thermite reaction)
19. C(g) + O2 CO2 (g)
23. Order of acidic strength
3 32 H2SO4 > HCl > NH4OH > NaOH
mole of = mole of O2 =
12 32 Strongest strong Weak base strong
1 base
= =1 acid acid
4
LR 24. Na, K, Ca, Mg
 12 gm C give CO2 = 44 gm (i)these matals can lose e– easily as
compared to C therefore these are better
reducing agent as compare to C.
NTSE_STAGE-II _ SAT SOL.-2014_PAGE # 32
(ii) due to strong electropositive behaviour of
these metals having strong tendency to react 1010
a=
with oxygen. 4  625  10 6
25. Molecular formula C6H12
104
a=
2500
a = 4 m/s2
cyclohexane
31. Buoyant force
26. M.F. C4H8O B = 0.02
O  g v = 0.02
100 × 10 ×V= 0.02
CH3 — CH2 — CH2 —C—H V= 0.02 × 10–4 m3
an aldehyde = 2 cm3
O 32. Given :F = 10 N, m = 1 kg, t = 2s, u = 0

W=?
CH3 — C — CH2 —CH3 s = 0 + 1/2 (10/1) (2)2 = 20 m
a ketone W = 10×20 = 200 J
27. (a) Atomic no 18

it will be Ar inert gas 33. Stethoscope is based on multiple reflection of
valency = zero sound.
(c) 9, 17, 35, all are belong same group that

sin i v1
is 34. = v = n21
17 and have same valency. sin r 2
1
(d) atomic no. 17 is Cl 35. f1 = 0.5 m, P1 = =2D
atomic no. 16 is S 0 .5
atomic no. 35 is Br P1 + P2 = 1.5
Cl is more electronegative 2 + P2 = 1.5
P2 = –0.5 D
28. Body moving with constant speed can have 1
acceleration only if it moves along a curved  f2 = =–2m
 0.5
path. 36. Myopia, means person can see nearby objects.
29. m = 20 Kg, u = 2 m/s, v = 0, S = 5 m A B
v2 = u2 – 2 aS
0 = 4 - 2a x 5 + p –
a = 0.4 m/s2 + –
F = ma = 20 x 0.4 = 8 N
+ –
37. e –
+
G(m)( 4m)
30. F= + –
(100  10 3 )2
for smaller mass
W = KE
G(m)(4m) 5(q) = 1/2 mv2
m(1) =
(1010 ) 10q
v2 =
m
1010
Gm = mp > me
4
 ve > vp
for bigger mass 38. Magnetic filed line are continuous lines passing
G(m)( 4m) inside and outside the magnet, only one field
(4 m) (a) = line passes through a point
(25  10 3 )2
Gm
a=
625  1010

39. DC generator has split ring (commutator), 2
whereas AC generator does not.  5 1
= 3x   
 6 12
40. Energy of star is due to Nuclear Fusion.
1
so minimum value is –
12
44. Let |x| = y
y2 + y – 6 = 0
(y + 3) (y – 2) = 0
13 y = – 3 or y = 2
2 |x| = – 3 which is not possible
41. |x| = 2
x=  2
The product of the roots is –4
3
45. 3x =12 , x = 4
 2   3 
 1   1 
A
 3   2 
 2 3   
    13  13 
 13 13   3 2 
3x 3x

 5 

 1



 3   2 
=  5   
   5 13 
 13   6 
B x D E C
13   1 6
=    
3  2  5 13 3
AE = (3x)
1 2
=– DE = AE – AD
5
3x
= –x
2
1 3 4
42. – – x
6 5 5 2 6 2 =
2
 6 + 5 – 5– 2– 6 + 2
AD = AE 2  DE 2
0
43. p(x) = 3x2 – 5x + 2 27 2 x 2

= x 
4 4
5 2
= 3(x2 – x+ )
3 3 28x 2
= = 7x 2 = 7x=4 7
2 2 4
2 5 5 5 2
= 3[ x  x        ]
3 6 6 3
2
2
 BX  1
 5 25 2  46.   =
= 3  x  6   36  3   AB  2
  
BX 1
2 =
 5  25  24  AB 2
= 3  x  6   36

   BX 1
1– =1–
2
AB 2
 5 1
=3   x    
 6 36  AB  BX 2 1
 =
AB 2

(n – 2) × (n – 1) = 0
AX 2 2 n = 2,1
=
AB 2 so two values of n are possible
51. N1 = 15x
N2 = 15 y x and y are coprime
LCM  HCF = N1  N2
225  15 = 15x 15y
xy = 15
a 3.5 = 15
P3 a
P 1.15 = 15
47. P1 So, N1 = 3  15 = 45 or N1 = 1  15 = 15
N2 = 5  15 = 75 N2 = 15 
P2
15 = 225
(45, 75) , (15, 225)
two such pair exist
3 2 1
area equilateral D = a = a (P1 + P2 +
4 2
P
P3)
3 2 2 30° 60°
a  = P1 + P2 + P3
4 a
r
3a
= P1 + P2 + P3 52.
2
30° r 120° 60° r 60°

A O B
Let radius = r
area of sector APO
48. 120 1
= pr2 = r2
360 3
60
infinite tripazium can be made area of sector PBO =  r2
360
49. 1+1+1+1+ 1+1 1 way
1 2
2 +1 + 1 + 1 + 1 5 way = r
3+1+1+1 4 way 6
4+1+1 3 way 1 r
3r
5 +1 2 way Now area of AOP =  
2 2 2
2 +3+1 6 way
2 +4 2 way 3r 2
3 +3 1 way =
4
2 +2+2 1 way
2 +2 +1+1 6 way 3 2
Now area of DBOP = r
4
50. n2 – 3n +3 = m2 ....(1)
n2 – 3n + 3 – m2 = 0 area of major shaded area : Area of minor
this eq. have integer roots. if a = 1, b,c  I shaded area
D is perfect sq. 1 2 3 2   1 2 3 2 
=  3 r  4 r  :  6 r  4 r 
9 – 4.1 . (3–m2 ) = k2 
4m2 – k2 = 3    
(2m + k) (2m – k) = 3 × 1
2m + k = 3 4  3 3
=
2m – k = 1 2  3 3
on solving we get m = 1
Put m = 1 in equ.(1)
n2 – 3n + 3 =1

54. x2 + y2 = 250
1 1
a2 + b2 + c2 = 250 210 = A 20 210 = A 29
 x = 13 2 1 2 2
y=9 420
a=5 A1 = 21 A2 =
29
b = 12
c=9 1
210 = A  21
2 3
A3 = 20
420
57. (1) A1 + A2 + A3 = 21 + 20 +
29
420
= 41 +
(2) 29
1189  420 1609
= =
29 29
59. Let 4th term = x + 3d = a ..(1)

7th term = x + 6d = b ..(2)
10th term = x + 9d = c
on solving (1) & (2) we get
x = 2a – b
a  ( 2a  b)
&d=
3
th
10 term = x + 9d = C
 a  ( 2a  b) 
2a – b + 9   =C
 3 
(3) = 2a – b + 3a – 6a + 3b = C
– a + 2b = C
2b = a + c
sum of roots of equation ax2 – 2bx + c = 0
2b ac
sum of roots = =
a a
D R C
(4)
S 2a a
60. 2
a/2
A P a/2 B
a/2
20  21  29
58. s= = 35
2 a2
area of square PQRS 1
2
= 35  15  14  6 area of square PABCD = 2 = 2
a
= 57357223
=5732
= 210

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NTSE STAGE-II

Year 2014 - (Stage -II) Test Paper

1. MAT- Paper 1-8

2. LCT -Paper 9-14

w Hints & Solution

wYear 2014 - (Stage -II) Solution (MAT, LCT,SAT) 31-36

National Talent Search Examination, 2014

Mental Ability Test

Time : 45 minutes Max. Marks : 50

3. P + Q means P is the father of Q; P – Q means P is thewife of Q; P × Q means P is the brother of Q.

7. (1) 13 (2) 14 (3) 12 (4) 18

8. (1) 14 (2) 16 (3) 15 (4) 11

(1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 2

NTSE_STAGE-II _ MAT .-2014_PAGE # 2

12. How many triangles are there in the following figure ?

(1) 20 (2) 18 (3) 22 (4) 17

14. Find the missing term (?) in the following series

16. If RIR is coded as IRI then MUM is coded as

NTSE_STAGE-II _ MAT .-2014_PAGE # 3

NTSE_STAGE-II _ MAT .-2014_PAGE # 4

26. Which of the following statements is false ?

27. What is P’s profession ?

(1) 30 (2) 58 (3) 160 (4) 32

NTSE_STAGE-II _ MAT .-2014_PAGE # 5

36. Find out total non-working females but educated

37. Find out the total rural male population ?

38. Crime : Police :: Flood : ?

NTSE_STAGE-II _ MAT .-2014_PAGE # 6

Now consider the following statements :

41. What is ‘X’ in the following table ?

(1) 16 (2) 17 (3) 18 (4) 21

42. Consider the question and two statements that follow :

43. Which one of the following differs the rest ?

44. Which one of the following fits inside the bracket ?

46. Famine : Hunger : : War : ___________

NTSE_STAGE-II _ MAT .-2014_PAGE # 7

NTSE_STAGE-II _ MAT .-2014_PAGE # 8

National Talent Search Examination, 2014

Language Comprehensive Test

Time : 45 minutes Max. Marks : 50

1. Ray Bradbury became famous because

2. In his books Bradbury expressed the view that modern technology

4. The phrase ‘mixed bag of blessings’ means

5. The phrase ‘no patience with jargon’ refers to

6. The difficult part of learning to ski for beginners is

9. The institute mentioned is a place where

10. The narrator in this passage seems to be

11. Swallow are largely found in

12. Swallows live near water bodies because

13. Swallows devour a large number of insects because

14. The swallow's short wide bill is designed to

22. Be careful. The cat might ________________you if it feels frightened.

27. The doctor made a neat______ at the mouth of the boil,

28. 1.with 2. by 3. for 4.on

29. l. this 2. that 3. these 4.there

31. 1. but 2. because 3. and 4. yet

32. 1. was 2. is 3. were 4. are

33. 1. vitamin D 2. protein 3. cell 4. hormone

34. 1. off 2. for 3. of 4. on

35. 1. give 2. cause 3. causIng 4. causes

37. 1. sunlight 2. unlight 3. ray 4. lights

Q.38-40 Choose the appropriate phrasal verb to complete the sentences.

Q.41-43 elect the meaning of the given phrases/idioms