Practice Questions

Medical Technology Board Exam Reviewer 3:
HEMATOLOGY
1. Length of needle usually used in routine phlebotomy:
a. 0.5-1.0 inch
b. 1.0-1.5 inches
c. 1.5-2.0 inches
d. 2.0-2.5 inches
2. In preparing a blood smear, the distance of the drop of blood
from the label or end of the slide should be:
a. 1.0 cm
b. 2.0 cm
c. 3.0 cm
d. 4.0 cm
3. After staining a blood smear, the RBCs appeared bluish when
viewed under the microscope. The following are possible
causes, except:
a. Stain of buffer is too basic
b. Inadequate rinsing
c. Inadequate buffering
d. Heparinized blood was used
4. Macrocytes: 25-50%
a. 1+
b. 2+
c. 3+
d. 4+
5. Codocytes: 41 per oil immersion field
a. 1+
b. 2+
c. 3+
d. 4+
6. Stomatocytes: 15 per oil immersion firld
a. 1+
b. 2+
c. 3+
d. 4+
7. 12 RBCs with basophilic stippling were seen on a blood smear.
How do report this finding?
a. Positive
b. Rare, few, moderate, many
c. 1+, 2+, 3+, 4+
d. average number / OIO
8. Hypochromia grading: “Area of pallor is two-thirds of cell
diameter”
a. 1+
b. 2+
c. 3+
d. 4+
9. Polychromasia grading: 1+
a. 1%
b. 3%
c. 5%
d. 10%
10.How many platelets per oil immersion field should be observed
in order to evaluate normal platelet number in an appropriate
area of a blood smear?
a. 4-10
b. 6-15
c. 8-20
d. 10-30
11.Hematopoietic stem cell marker:
a. CD10
b. CD34
c. CD35
d. CD56
12.Capillary tube:
a. Length: 11.5 cm Bore: 3.0 mm
b. Length: 30.0 cm Bore: 2.6 mm
c. Length: 7.0 cm Bore: 1.0 mm
13.Third layer in the examination of spun hematocrit;
a. Plasma
b. Buffy coat
c. Fatty layer
d. Packed red cells
14.If the RBC count of a patient is 5.0 x 1012/L, what is the
approximate hemoglobin value?
a. 12 g/dL
b. 14 g/dL
c. 15 g/dL
d. 20 g/dL
15.MCHC: 28 g/dL
a. Outside reference range and considered normal
b. Within reference range and considered normal
c. Outside reference range and considered abnormal
d. Within reference range and considered abnormal
16.Which of the erythrocyte indices is not used in the
classification of anemia?
a. MCV
b. MCHC
c. MCH
17.Normocytic and normochronic anemia is usually seen in patients
with ___.
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Thalassemia
d. Anemia of chronic disease
18.What is the primary cause of death in patients with sickle
cell media anemia?
a. Aplastic crises
b. Infectious crises
c. Vaso-occlusive crises
d. Bleeding
19.Effect of multiple myeloma on ESR:
a. Markedly increased
b. Moderately increased
c. Normal decreased
20.A manual WBC count was performed on a hemacytometer and 15,000
WBC/L were counted. When the differential count was
performed, the medical technologist counter 20 NRBC per 100
total WBC. Calculate the corrected WBC count.
a. 10,000 WBC/L
b. 11,500 WBC/L
c. 12,000 WBC/L
d. 12,500 WBC/L
21.If the white count is markedly elevated, in which it may be as
high as 100 to 300 x 109/L, a ___ dilution is used.
a. 1:10
b. 1:100
c. 1:200
d. 1:250
22.How many WBCs can be counted in a differential when the WBC
count is below 1.0 x 109/L?
a. 50
b. 100
c. 150
d. 200
23.A 200-cell count may be performed when the differential shows
the following abnormal distribution, except:
a. Over 10% eosinophils
b. Below 2% basophils
c. Over 11% monocytes
d. More lymphocytes than neutrophils except in children
24.Which of the following cells could be seen in lesions of
mycosis fungoides?
a. T lymphocytes
b. B lymphocytes
c. Monocytes
d. Neutrophils
25.Fresh blood smears made from capillary blood are used for this
cytochemical stain:
a. Sudan Black B
b. Chloroacetate esterase
c. Periodic Acid Schiff
d. Peroxidase
26.Color of blood in sulfhemoglobinemia:
a. Mauve lavender
b. Chocolate brown
c. Cherry red
d. Bright red
27.In hemoglobin C, glutamic acid on the 6th position of beta
chain is replaced by which amino acid?
a. Lysine
b. Valine
c. Arginine
d. Glutamine
28.Five-part differential:
a. Granulocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes, platelets,
erythrocytes
b. Immature cells, inclusions, erythrocytes. Leukocytes,
platelets
c. Platelets, band cells, granulocytes, lymphocytes,
monocytes
d. Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils,
basophils
29.Negative instrumental error:
a. Bubbles in the sample
b. Extraneous electrical pulses
c. Aperture plugs
d. Excessive RBC lysis
30.In an automated instrument, this parameter is calculated
rather than directly measured:
a. RBC count
b. WBC count
c. Hemoglobin
d. Hematocrit
31.Side angel scatter in a laser-based cell counting system is
used to measure:
a. Cell size
b. Cell number
c. Cytoplasmic granularity
d. Antigenic identification
32.Number of platelet stages:
a. Six
b. Seven
c. Eight
d. Nine
33.Stage in the megakaryocytic series where thrombocytes are
visible:
a. Metamegakaryocyte
b. Megakaryocyte
c. Promegakaryocyte
d. Megakaryoblast
34.Platelet estimate: 100,000-149,000
a. Low normal
b. Slight normal
c. Normal
d. Moderate decrease
35.Normal value for template bleeding time:
a. 3-6 minutes
b. 6-10 minutes
c. 2-4 minutes
d. 7-15 minutes
36.Condition in which blood escaped into large areas of skin and
mucous membranes, but not into deep tissues:
a. Petachiae
b. Purpura
c. Ecchymosis
d. Hematoma
37.This is one of the coagulation factors which is activated in
cold temperatures:
a. III
b. V
c. VII
d. IX
38.Similarity of factors V and VIII:
a. Vitamin-K dependent factors
b. Present in serum
c. Included in contact family of coagulation proteins
d. Labile factors
39.Euglobulin clot lysis time:
a. Screening test
b. Confirmatory test
c. Other test
d. None of these
40.Visual detection of fibrin clot formation:
a. Fibrometer
b. Electra 750
c. Coag-A-Mate X2
d. Tilt tube
41.Concentration of fibrinogen (mg/dL) that will affect PT and
PTT tests? (Per)
a. 75
b. 100
c. 200
d. 400
42.First factor affected by Coumarin is:
a. VII
b. X
c. VIII
d. HMWK
Medical Technology Board Exam Reviewer 2: CLINICAL

MICROSCOPY
1. Nomarski and Hoffman are example of what microscopy?
a. Phase contrast microscopy
b. Darkfield microscopy
c. Brightfield microscopy
d. Fluorescent microscopy
2. Degree of Hazard: 3
a. Slight Hazard
b. Moderate Hazard
c. Extreme Hazard
d. Serious Hazard
3. The best aid for chemical spills is flushing the area with
large amounts of water for at least ___ minutes then seek
medical attention.
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
4. Arsenal fire:
a. Type A fire
b. Type C fire
c. Type E fire
d. Type F fire
5. Urine samples should be examined within one hour of voiding
because:
a. RBC, leukocytes and casts agglutinate on standing for
several hours at room temperature
b. Urobilinogen and bilirubin increased after prolonged
exposure to light
c. Bacterial contamination will cause alkalinization of
urine
d. Ketones will increased due to bacterial and cellular
metaboliam
6. The urine volume of a patient with oliguria is usually:
a. 1,200-1,500 mL
b. > 2,500 mL
c. < 400 mL
d. < 700 mL
7. The clarity of a urine sample should be determined:
a. Using glass tubes only, never plastic
b. Following thorough mixing of the specimen
c. After addition of salicylic acid
d. After the specimen cools to room temperature
8. Urine clarity grading: “Few particulates, print easily seen
through urine”
a. Clear
b. Hazy
c. Cloudy
d. Turbid
9. Which method for the determination of urine specific gravity
is based on refractive index?
a. Total solids meter
b. Hydrometer
c. Reagent strip
d. Harmonic oscillation densitometry
10.Urine reagent strips should be stored in a/an:
a. Incubator
b. Cool dry place
c. Refrigerator
d. Freezer
11.Reading time: 30 seconds
a. Bilirubin
b. Ketones
c. Specific gravity
d. pH
12.The protein section of urine reagent strip is most sensitive
to:
a. Albumin
b. Bence Jones protein
c. Mucoprotein
d. Globulin
13.Bence Jones Protein is characterized by its unique ability to
coagulate at ___ and dissolve at ___.
a. 30-50oC : 80-100oC
b. 40-50oC : 80-90oC
c. 50-60oC : 90-100oC
d. 40-50oC : 80-100oC
14.SSA turbidity: “Turbidity with granulation, no flocculation”
a. 1+
b. 2+
c. 3+
d. 4+
15.The parameter in the reagent strip which utilizes Ehrlich
units is:
a. Bilirubin
b. Urobilinogen
c. Glucose
d. Leukocytes
16.Convert 0.4 mg/dL urobilinogen to Ehrlich units.
a. 0.4
b. 4
c. 40
d. 400
17.Ascorbic acid causes false negative reactions in what urine
reagent strip?
a. Blood
b. Bilirubin
c. Leukocytes
d. All of the choices
18.Soluble in ether, except:
a. Red blood cells
b. Lipids
c. Chyle
d. Lymphatic fluid
19.Soluble in dilute acetic acid, except:
a. Red blood cells
b. Amorphous phosphates
c. Calcium carbonates
d. White blood cells
20.Ascending sequence of casts:
a. Waxy-hyaline-coarsely granular-finely granular-cellular
b. Coarsely granular-finely granular-hyaline-waxy-cellular
c. Hyaline-cellular-coarsely granular-finely granular-waxy
d. Cellular-hyaline-finely granular-coarsely granular-waxy
21.Normal urinary crystal which is colorless, resembling flat
plates or thin prisms often in rosette form:
a. Amorphous phosphates
b. Struvite
c. Apatite
d. Calcium carbonate
22.If alcohol is added to urine with tyrosine crystals, this
other type of abnormal crystal may be precipitated:
a. Bilirubin
b. Sulfonamide
c. Leucine
d. Cystine
23.Manner of reporting for RTE cells:
a. Average number per LPF
b. Average number per HPF
c. Average number per OIO
d. 1+, 2+, 3+, 4+
24.Transitional epithelial cells seen in urine specimens may be
reported using rare/few/moderate/many by using the:
a. Scanner field
b. Low power field
c. High power field
d. Oil immersion field
25.In a urine specimen, ten calcium oxalate crystals were seen
per high power field (HPF). How do you report the findings?
a. Rare
b. Few
c. Moderate
d. Many
26.In a urine specimen, nine bacteria were seen per high power
field (HPF). How do you report the finding?
a. Rare
b. Few
c. Moderate
d. Many
27.Most frequent parasite encountered in the urine:
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Enterobius vermicularis
c. Trichomonas vaginalis
d. Giardia lamblia
28.A renal calculi described as very hard, dark in color with
rough surface:
a. Calcium oxalate
b. Uric acid
c. Cystine
d. Phosphate
29.Renal disease whose etiology is the deposition of anti-
glomerular basement membrane antibody to glomerular and
alveolar basement membranes:
a. Berger’s disease
b. Wagener’s granulomatosis
c. Goodpasture syndrome
d. Membranous glomerulonephritis
30.The sperm acrosomal cap should encompass approximately ___ of
the head and covers approximately ___ of the nucleus.
a. One half, two-thirds
b. One third, one half
c. Two-thirds, one fourth
d. One fourth, one third
31.Sperm motility grading: “Slower speed, some lateral movement”
a. 4.0
b. 3.0
c. 2.0
d. 1.0
32.Reagent/s used for the assessment of sperm viability:
a. Papanicolau
b. Wright’s
c. Giemsa
d. Eosin-Nigrosin
33.Computer-Assisted Semen Analysis (CASA) is used to determine
sperm cell:
a. Vertical movement
b. Lateral movement
c. Circular movement
d. Velocity and trajectory
34.Florence test, which choline, uses which reagent?
a. Potassium iodide
b. Picric acid
c. Trichloroacetic acid
d. Silver nitroprusside
35.Pellicle clot formation after 12-24 hours refrigeration of
cerebrospinal fluid:
a. Bacterial meningitis
b. Viral meningitis
c. Tubercular meningitis
d. Fungal meningitis
36.Oligoclonal banding in cerebrospinal fluid but not in serum,
except:
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Encephalitis
c. Neurosyphilis
d. Guillain-Barre disease
37.Normal synovial fluid glucose should not be more than ___
mg/dL lower than the blood value.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
38.Cell which could be seen in synovial fluid resembles polished
rice macroscopically:
a. Ragocytes
b. Cartilage cells
c. Rice bodies
d. Reiter cell
39.The normal color of gastric fluid is
a. Colorless
b. Green
c. White
d. Gray
40.What reagent is used for the APT test?
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Sodium hydroxide
c. Sulfuric acid
d. Potassium hydroxide

Clinical Microscopy
1. Urinometer steps: 1. Fill urine; 2. Place urinometer in twisting motion; 3.
Read at lower meniscus
2. Principle of protein strip? Protein errors of indicators.
3. Stain that best differentiates small cells and monocytic cells?
a. PAPS
b. Gram stain
c. Giemsa
d. NMB
4. Gives greatest problem in refractometer?
a. bubbles
b. Cells
c. Crystals
d. High protein
5. Same patient voided urine thrice. Which has highest specific gravity?
a. All have same SG
b. 30 ml
c. 100ml
d. 80ml
6. High renin corresponds to?
a. Low sodium and low plasma volume
b. High potassium and low plasma volume
c. Low aldosterone
7. Low EPO due to:
a. Renal disease
b. Cardiomegaly
8. Diluent for WBC CSF Count: Acetic Acid
9. Dilute urine effect on RBC: Swell; appears like a halo
10. Curshman spirals
a. Elongated crystals with Charcot Leyden
b. Spiral microorganisms staining gram negative
11. How much can the glomerulus filter? Less than…
a. <50kDa
b. <60kDa
c. <70kDa
d. 7000
12. Temperature for Total WBC CSF count: Refrigeration temp.
13. Phosphate: Aluminum molybdate for determination
14. Fructose in seminalysis if delayed for 2 hours: store at Freezing temp till
available for analysis
15. CaOx Monohydrate shape: Elongated hourglass shape
16. True about sputum
a. Normal body fluid
b. Usually green color
c. All of the items
d. From tracheo-bronchial
17. First stage in spermatogenesis: Spermatogonia
18. For newborn screening specimen collection: Blood spot test
19. Bilirubin conjugated with albumin to be processed in the liver?
a. Unconjugated
b. Conjugated
c. Direct
d. None
20. Bilirubin measurement in amniotic fluid: Spectrophotometry
21. True of Biosafety cabinet II: Laminar flow
22. Biohazard symbol: Three circles arrange in a triangle connected by a circle in
the middle
23. Sharps sympol: Syringe enclosed in a circle to make it look like an “X”
24. Oligoclonal band: Neurosyphilis not Multiple MYELOMA (common mistake)
25. Occult blood in stool: Pseudoperoxidase activity of haemoglobin
26. Blondheim: To differentiate myoglobin and haemoglobin
27. Principle of protein reagent strip: Albumin accepts hydrogen ions which
changes the pH
28. Ketone reagent strip color: Purple
29. Ketone reagent strip:
a. Acetoacetic acid and nitroprusside
b. Acetone and phenosuphthalein
c. All items
d. Betahydroxybutyric acid and ---
30. What tell patient in collection for seminalysis: (MOORSE TYPE)
a. Abstain for 2-3 weeks = (2-7 days)
b. No alcohol driking
c. Place in penicillin bottle
d. No smoking
31. Stool WBC differential count:
a. Polymorphonuclear cells and Monocyte
b. Phagocytic and non-phagocytic
c. Segmenters, Monocytes, Eosinophils
32. Most abundant WBC in urine: Neutrophil (?)
33. Best indicator for urinary bladder infection: Neutrophil
34. Indicator for Acute tubular necrosis:
a. Brown cast
b. >1000WBC
c. Renal cell- renal tubular epithelial cells
d. Hemoglobinuria
35. Most significant cell: Renal cell (RTE)
36. Blood in peritoneal fluid
a. TB peritonitis
b. Malignancy
37. Least significant to most significant cast: hyaline > wbc > granular >rbc >Waxy
> broad
hyaline - rbc – granular- wbc-Waxy
38. Cast in athlete: Cylinduria

39. Granular cast derived from: Cells (Apollon)
40. Associated with Melanuria: Albinism
41. Which is not a PPE: sharp’s container
Medical Technology Board Exam Reviewer 1: CLINICAL

CHEMISTRY
1. Specimen collection and processing is under which part of
the quality assurance program?
a. Pre-analytical
b. Analytical
c. Post-analytical
d. None of the above
2. Mechanical hazards are caused by:
a. Centrifuges
b. Refrigerators
c. Both
d. Neither
3. What kind of quality control is important in maintaining
long term accuracy of the analytical methods?
a. Internal quality control
b. External quality control
c. Sensitivity
d. Specificity
4. In statistics, this is used to determine whether there is
a statistically significant difference between the standard
deviations of two groups of data.
a. Mean
b. Median
c. F-test
d. T-test
5. It is a sample of known quantity with several analytes
present.
a. Calibrator
b. Reagent
c. Standard
d. Control
6. This is the most widely used quality control chart in the
clinical laboratory.
a. Gaussian Curve
b. Cumulative Sum Graph
c. Youden/Twin Plot
d. Levey-Jennings Chart
7. This type of error which can be observed on a Levey-
Jennings chart is formed control values that distribute
themselves on one side or either side of the mean for six
consecutive days.
a. Trend
b. Shift
c. Outliers
8. The independent variable is plotted along the:
a. Horizontal axis
b. Vertical axis
c. Y-axis
d. Ordinate
9. A value of 11.2 g/dL thyroxine is equivalent to ___ in
SI units.
a. 135 nmol/L
b. 135 mol/L
c. 145 nmol/L
d. 145 mol/L
10. Convert 4.5 g/dL albumin to SI units:
a. 45 g/L
b. 90 g/L
c. 0.45 g/L
d. 0.45 g/L
11. What is the conversion for bilirubin from conventional
(mg/dL) to SI (mol/L) unit?
a. 17.1
b. 0.357
c. 88.4
d. 0.0113
12. What anticoagulant is used for cardiopulmonary bypass?
a. EDTA
b. Heparin
c. Citrate
d. Oxalate
13. Glucose is metabolized at room temperature at a rate of
___ mg/dl/hour and at 4oC, the loss is approximately ___
mg/dl/hour.
a. 2, 7
b. 3, 8
c. 8, 3
d. 7, 2
14. Whole blood fasting glucose level is ___ than in serum or
plasma.
a. 10-15% lower
b. 5-10% lower
c. 10-15% higher
d. 5-10% higher
15. The glycated hemoglobin value represents the blood
glucose value during the preceding:
a. One to three weeks
b. Three to six weeks
c. Two to three weeks
d. Eight to twelve weeks
16. Apolipoprotein B-100 is the primary component of:
a. VLDL
b. LDL
c. IDL
d. HDL
17. Intermediate density lipoprotein (IDL) and Lipoprotein a
(are) considered as:
a. Major lipoproteins
b. Minor lipoproteins
c. Abnormal lipoproteins
d. Fatty acids
18. What age group has a moderate risk cut off value of >240
mg/dl and high risk cut off value of >260 mg/dl for total
cholesterol?
a. 2-19 years old
b. 20-29 years old
c. 30-39 years old
d. 40 years old and over
19. According to the NCEP Guidelines for Acceptable
Measurement Error, the coefficient of variation for HDL
cholesterol should be on what range?
a. < 2%
b. < 3%
c. < 4%
d. < 5%
20. This is considered as a one-step method for cholesterol
determination:
a. Liebermann-Burchardt
b. Abell-Kendall
c. Schoenheimer Sperry
d. Bloors
21. Cholesterol esterase is used in which method/s for
chelesterol determination?
a. Chemical methods
b. Enzymatic methods
22. LDL can be calculated from measurements of the following
except: ___ by the Friedewald formula:
a. Total cholesterol
b. VLDL
c. HDL
d. Triglyceride
23. Which method for the assay of uric acid is simple and
nonspecific?
a. Colorimetric: kinetic
b. Colorimetric: end point
c. Enzymatic: UV
d. Enzymatic: H2O2
24. This approach to the assay for urea nitrogen has a
greater specificity and more expensive.
a. Colorimetric: diacetyl
b. Caraway
c. Kinetic
d. Enzymatic: NH3 formation
25. The most simple method for creatinine determination but
is nonspecific is:
a. Colorimetric: end point
b. Colorimetric: kinetic
c. Enzymatic: UV
d. Enzymatic: H2O2
26. Proteins that migrate in the alpha-2 globulin band in
serum protein electrophoresis except:
a. Transferring
b. Haptoglobin
c. AMG
d. Ceruloplasmin
27. This condition shows a beta-gamma bridging effects as the
serum protein electrophoretic pattern:
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Nephrotic syndrome
c. Hepatic cirrhosis
d. Pulmonary emphysema
28. In hemolytic disease of the newborn, which form of
bilirubin is elevated in plasma?
a. Conjugated bilirubin
b. Unconjugated bilirubin
c. Delta bilirubin
d. B and C
29. Creatine kinase is under what enzyme category?
a. Oxidoreductases
b. Hydrolases
c. Lyases
d. Transferases
30. It is the only enzyme whose clinical significance is not
increased, but decreased levels.
a. Pseudocholinesterase
b. Ceruloplasmin
c. 5’ Nucleotidase
d. Glucose-6-Phospate Dehydrogenase
31. For each degree of fever in the patient, pO2 will fall
___ & pCO2 will rise ___%.
a. 7,3
b. 3,7
c. 2,5
d. 5,2
32. Confirmatory test for acromegaly:
a. Physical activity test
b. Insulin tolerance test
c. Somatomedin C
d. Glucose suppression test
33. It is the most potent of the estrogens.
a. Estriol
b. Estrone
c. Estradiol
d. Testradiol
34. An individual with hyperthyroidism will manifest ___
triglyceride levels.
a. Increased
b. Decreased
35. An individual with hypothyroidism will manifest ___ T3
uptake levels.
a. Increased
b. Decreased
36. This tumor marker is helpful in the diagnosis of urinary
bladder cancer:
a. CA 19-9
b. Calcitonin
c. HER-2/neu
d. NMP
37. The primary product of hepatic metabolism of cocaine is:
a. Morphine
b. NAPA
c. Benzoylecgonine
d. Primidone
38. Which of the following drugs is a barbiturate?
a. Cyclosporine
b. Methotrexate
c. Phenobarbital
d. Acetaminophen
39. The signs and symptoms of this blood alcohol level in
%w/v are mental confusion, dizziness and strongly impaired
motor skills (staggering, slurred speech).
a. 0.09-0.25
b. 0.18-0.30
c. 0.27-0.40
d. 0.35-0.50
40. This pipette, commonly used in laboratories, is the
considered the most basic pipette.
a. Automatic pipette
b. Air displacement pipette
c. Glass pipette
d. Positive displacement pipette
41. The BMI of an obese individual in kg/m2 is:
a. 18.5
b. 25
c. 29.9
d. 30
42. Which of the following is true about Fahey and McKelvey
method?
a. Kinetic method
b. Measured after 18 hours
c. Diameter = log of concentration
d. All of the above
43. Which correctly describes when there is damaged in the
epithelium?
a. Increased AST
b. Increased ALT
c. Direct bilirubin ratio to total bilirubin is greater than
1:2
d. Increased CK
44. Which correctly describes when there is decreased in the
potency of the biliary epithelium?
a. Increased AST
b. Increased ALT
c. Direct bilirubin ratio to total bilirubin is greater than
1:2
d. Increased CK
45. Which test are routinely used to asses the kidney
function (Dean Rodriguez’s Lectures)
a. K and crea
b. Na and crea
c. Cl and urea
d. K and urea
46. Which enzyme has a moderate specificity for heart, liver
and skeletal muscle?
a. AST
b. LDH
c. ALT
d. CK
47. Who can perform POCT for glucose?
a. Med Techs only
b. Nurses
c. Non-lab personnel and diabetic patients
d. All of the above
48. Considered as the risk factor for coronary heart disease
a. HDL
b. Triglycerides
c. Cholesterol
d. Phospholipids
49. Physician asks in asymptomatic DM patients
a. History of vascular disease
b. History of insulin resistance
c. Hypertension
d. All of the above
Medical Technology Board Exam Reviewer 8: Clinical

Chemistry
1. What does U stand for in Clearance = urine UxV/P? Urine Creatinine in mg/dl
2. 12 mg/dl of uric acid to mmol/l = 0.71
3. TC=200; HDL=30; TAG=150 compute for LDL = 140mg/dl
4. Which one is not needed in computation for LDL?
LDL = TC – (HDL + VLDL)
a. HDL
b. VLDL
c. TAG- indirectly needed
d. TC
5. Abrupt change to new mean in Levy Jenning’s chart
a. Dispersion
b. Shift
c. Trend
6. Hypothyroidism T3 and T4 uptake are?
a. Both high
b. Both low
c. One is very high and one is moderately high
d. Inversely proportional
7. Primary hyperthyroidism with normal T4. Confirm with
a. TBG
b. TSH
c. T3 uptake
8. Chloride and Bicarbonate relationship? Reciprocal
9. Active male hormone? Testosterone
10. Screening test for Cushing’s syndrome
a. Low dexamethasone -----
b. 24 hour urine cortisol
c. All items
d. Insulin hypoglycaemia test
11. Hepatic jaundice: Increase in direct and indirect bilirubin (both)
12. Cholelithiasis: Increase in unconjugated bilirubin (increase TB > 90% is conjugated)
13. In case of liver transplant which are monitored? Hepatic enzymes, Bilirubin, Coagulation
factos
14. Glucose oxidase negative; Benedict’s test positive in new born: Inborn error of metabolism
15. TAG has fasting 12-15 hrs (ideal- 12hrs)
16. RACE meaning = rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish
17. <50 mg/dl alcohol level or 0.05%. What is the presumption
a. Not under influence of alcohol
b. Presumed to be under influence of alcohol
c. No presumption can be done
18. Endogenous TAG: VLDL
19. Exogenous TAG: Chylomicrons
20. HEPA meaning= high efficiency particulate air
21. Uricase: Enzymatic:H202
22. Fahey and Mancini method: Fahey 48-72 hours and sensitive
23. Convert 0.5mg/dl IgD to mmol/L: 5.0
24. pH measurement: Potentiometry
25. Involved in female hormones:
a. Hirsutism
b. Polycistic ovarian dse
c. Infertility
d. All
26. pC02: increase 3% when increase 1’ temp
27. Blood with no anticoagulant blood glucose decreases: 7mg/dl per hour
28. Activity depends on increase substrate concentration. Increase in substrate - - - - -for
enzyme excess: First order kinetics
29. Rape victims: ACP
30. Renal threshold for glucose: 160-180mg/dl
31. Which enzyme is the least specific?
a. LDH
b. ALT
c. CK
d. ACP
32. Increase in gauge of needle: decrease in bore of needle.
33. All are true for Sodium except: for nerve impulses
34. Middle value of date: Median
35. Frequently seen in date: Mode
36. Total divided by the number of populations: Mean
37. True about continuous flow:
a. Use of separate cuvets
b. Use of stirring rod
c. Continuous tubing
d. Allows STAT
38. Differentiate VLDL from LDL and HDL: TAG and chole content daw po (?)
39. Characteristics of DM: Destruction of B cells (sa pancreas hindi sa immunes system ibig
sabihin nito); deficiency of insulin receptors; increase blood glucose
40. Which of the following is not considered emergency: ans is Glycosuria
41. Measure of substance in relation to other substance in solution: concentration
42. Color of <350 nm
a. Red
b. Orange
c. UV
d. Infrared
43. Newborn screening:
a. Blood spot test
b. Capillary
c. Venipuncture
d. Heat at 42’c----
44. LDL mmol/L: use TAG/2.175 ( Binigay po both friedwald and de long but friedwald ang
commonly used)
45. Variation in basal state: exercise, diet (All of the above)

HISTOTECHNIQUES AND MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY LAWS
1. Panunumpa ng Propesyunal: Ako, si (Pangalan) ng (_____) ay
taimtim na nanunumpa…
a. Tirahan
b. Paaralan
c. Bansa
d. Kurso
2. Cursing a co-worker which part of the code of ethics?
a. Share my knowledge and expertise with my colleagues
b. Restrict my praises, criticisms, views and opinions
within constructive limits.
c. Treat any information I acquire in the course of my work
as strictly confidential
d. Contribute to the advancement of the professional
organization and other allied health organizations.
3. Non-biodegradable wastes are contained in ___ -colored bags:
a. Black
b. Yellow
c. Red
d. Orange
4. Stat means:
a. Immediately
b. As soon as possible
c. Now
d. None of these
5. It is a general purpose fixative.
a. Mercuric chloride
b. Acetone
c. Chromate
d. 10% neutral buffered formalin
6. Clearing is also known as:
a. Dealcoholization
b. Dehydration
c. Infiltration
d. Embedding
7. In double embedding, the tissue is first infiltrated with ___,
followed by embedding with ___.
a. Celloidin > Paraffin
b. Paraffin > Celloidin
c. Celloidin > Gelatin
d. Paraffin > Gelatin
8. Most rapid embedding technique:
a. Manual
b. Vacuum
c. Automatic
d. None of the choices
9. He invented the Cambrides microtome:
a. Minot
b. Adams
c. Trefall
d. Queckett
10.The following characterizes honing except:
a. Heel to toe
b. Removal of nicks
c. Knife sharpening
d. Uses paddle made of horse leather
11.Polyclonal antibodies used in immunohistochemical techniques
are derived from:
a. Rabbit
b. Goat
c. Pig
d. Mice
12.Aminoethylcarbazole (AEC), which is ___ in color, is a common
chromogen for peroxidases which should be made fresh
immediately before use.
a. Red
b. Brown
c. Orange
d. Pink
13.It is a surgical connection between two structures. It usually
means a connection that is created between structures, such as
blood vessels or loops of intestine.
a. Anastomosis
b. Network
c. Matrix
d. Reticulum
14.In an anatomic procedure, the prosector is the:
a. Pathologist
b. Medical technologist
c. Assistant
d. Patient
15.This anatomic site for gynecologic samples is used for the
detection of endocervical lesions or intrauterine lesions.
a. Upper third of the vaginal wall
b. Ectocervix
c. Endocervix
d. Vulva
16.Instruments used in obtaining cervical samples for Papanicolau
smear, except:
a. Glass pipette
b. Ayre’s spatula
c. Laryngeal cannula
d. Syringe
17.Which of the following is used for embedding EM Sections?
a. Epon
b. Araldite
c. Tissuemat
d. Paraplast

IMMUNOLOGY-SEROLOGY & BLOOD BANKING
1. He was said to have been given the world’s first blood
transfusion by his Jewish physician Giacomo di San Genesio,
who had him drink the blood of three 10-year-old boys.
a. Pope Innocent VII
b. Pope Pius I
c. Pope Gregory III
d. Pope Boniface IV
2. The number of H antigen structures currently identified
are:
a. Two
b. Four
c. Six
d. Eight
3. Greatest amount of H antigen:
a. A1
b. O
c. AB
d. B
4. Identify the blood type based on the following reactions:
FORWARD GROUPING REVERSE GROUPING

Anti-A Anti-B A cells B cells
O 4+ 3+ O
a. Type O
b. Type A
c. Type B
d. Type AB
5. Bombay phenotype antibodies include:
a. Anti-A
b. Anti-B
c. Anti-H
d. All of the choices
6. What type of blood should be given in an emergency
transfusion when there is no time to type the recipient’s
sample?
a. O Rh-negative, whole blood
b. O Rh-positive, whole blood
c. O Rh-negative, pRBCs
d. O Rh-positive, pRBCs
7. This blood group is an anthropological marker in Asian
ancestry:
a. Diego
b. Cartwright
c. Colton
d. Gerbich
8. The activity of this antibody is enhanced in an acidic
environment.
a. Anti-S
b. Anti-U
c. Anti-N
d. Anti-M
9. Shelf-life of packed red blood cells obtained through
open system with ACD anticoagulant:
a. 21 days
b. 35 days
c. 42 days
d. None of the choices
10. Indication for transfusion of neocytes:
a. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
b. Hemolytic transfusion reaction
c. Thalassemia
d. Hydrops fetalis
11. Citrate in ACD functions as:

a. Anticoagulant
b. ATP source
c. RBC membrane stabilizer
d. Caramelization inhibitor
12. The most common cause of transfusion-related sepsis is:
a. Whole blood
b. Packed red blood cells
c. Leukocyte concentrates
d. Platelets concentrates
13. Major advantage of gel technology:
a. Decreased sample volume
b. Improved productivity
c. Enhanced sensitivity
d. Standardization
14. Agglutination reaction: “Several large clumps with clear
background”
a. 4+
b. 3+
c. 2+
d. 1+
15. This type of autologous donation occurs when blood is
collected from the patient before the start of surgery. The
patient’s blood volume is returned to normal with fluids, and
autologous blood may be returned to the patient after the
surgery is complete.
a. Preoperative
b. Normovolemic hemodilution
c. Intraoperative salvage
d. Postoperative salvage
16. The anticoagulant preferred in direct antiglobulin
testing is:
a. EDTA
b. Heparin
c. Citrate
d. Oxalate
17. A donor was deferred by the physician due to the presence
of bluish purple areas under the skin of the donor. This is
typical of:
a. Syphilis
b. Herpes simplex
c. Candidiasis
d. Kaposi’s sarcoma
18. A febrile transfusion reaction is defined as a rise in
body temperature of ___ occurring in association with the
transfusion of blood or components and without any other
explanation.
a. 1oC or more
b. 1oF or more
c. 3oC or more
d. 3oF or more
19. The most severe form of HDN is associated with:
a. Anti-A
b. Anti-B
c. Anti-K
d. Anti-D
20. This is a diagnostic prenatal test in which a sample of
the baby’s blood is removed from the umbilical cord for
testing:
a. Cordocentesis
b. PUBS
c. Both
21. Year of discovery of the T cell receptor gene:

a. 1964
b. 1974
c. 1984
d. 1994
22. Percentage of B cells present in the circulation
a. 2-5%
b. 5-10%
c. 10-15%
d. 75-85%
23. C3b
a. Anaphylatoxin
b. Opsonin
c. Chemotaxin
d. Cytokine
24. What is the most common complement component deficiency?
a. C1
b. C2
c. C3
d. C4
25. Which of the following is the most common congenital
immonudeficiency?
a. Severe combined immonudeficiency
b. Selective IgA deficiency
c. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
d. Common variable immunodeficiency
26. Which disease might be indicated by antibodies to smooth
muscle?
a. Chronic active hepatitis
b. Primary biliary cirrhosis
c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
d. Myasthenia gravis
27. The most common fungal infection for AIDS patients is
caused by:
a. Candida albicans
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Blastomyces dermatitidis
d. Cryptosporidium parvum
28. This dengue antigen has been detected in the serum of
dengue virus infected patients as early as 1-day post onset of
symptoms (DPO), and up to 18 DPO.
a. NS1
b. C
c. E
d. prM
29. These are expressed in the developing fetus and in
rapidly dividing tissue, such as that associated with tumors,
but that are absent in normal adult tissue:
a. Oncogenes
b. Sarcoma
c. Oncofetal antigens
d. Tumor specific antigen
30. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a/an ___ assay.
a. Chemical
b. Molecular
c. Enzymatic
d. Biologic
31. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) is a/an
___ assay.
a. Chemical
b. Molecular
c. Enzymatic
d. Biologic
32. Hives and itching are under what type of

hypersensitivity?
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
33. Gamma counter uses these substances as labels:
a. Isotopes
b. Fluorochromes
c. Enzymes
d. Immune complexes
34. Treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test: 10%
treponemes are immobilized. Interpret the result.
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Doubtful
d. Indeterminate
35. When reading for a slide agglutination for Salmonella,
macroscopic agglutination is graded as 25%. Interpret.
a. Non-reactive
b. Negative
c. Positive
d. 1+
36. Other name for “HCV RNA”:
a. Viral clade
b. Surface antigen
c. Viral load
d. Core antigen
37. Not included as a Hepatitis B serologic marker:
a. HBcAg
b. HBeAg
c. Anti-HBeAg
d. Anti-HBcAg
38. Autoimmune diseases are mostly associated with which
class of HLA?
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV
39. Which of the following activates both T and B cells?
a. Pokeweed mitogen
b. Lipopolysaccharide
c. Concanavalin A
d. Phytohemagglutinin
40. It is used as the receptor for the sheep red blood cells
(sRBC) for e-rosette assay:
a. CD2
b. CD4
c. CD8
d. CD12

ISBB
1. Gel technology centrifuge time: 10 minutes
2. If three phases of Ab screen is negative, what to do: Add IgG coated cells
(check cells)
3. Which is a classification of cell (?) according to function?
a. NK cell
b. B cell
c. Tcell
d. All
4. CD marker for T cells: CD4 and CD8
5. C3 has high affinity for:
a. IgM
b. IgG
6. Mycetoma & “Black lung?”: Aspergillus fumigatus
7. MHC lymphotoxicity microscope used: Phase contrast microscope
8. Deficiency in C3: Disease of the kidney (presumed to be AGN)
9. Enzyme present in neutrophil but absent in monocyte?
a. Peroxidise
b. ALP
c. ACP
10. All has end stage except?
a. Monocyte
b. Neutrophil
c. Eosinophil
11. Penicillin (Anti-penicillin): Type II hypersensitivity
12. Associated with hairy cell leukemia?
a. EBV
b. CMV
c. HTLV-2
13. Antibody is to Antigen; Immunogen is to Immunoglobulin
14. Ragocytes: Rheumatoid Arthritis
15. Circulating in Rheumatoid arthritis: Rheumatoid factor
16. Paternity testing: dna testing
17. To differentiate ABO & Rh HDN: Amniotic fluid O.D
18. Amniotic fluid, bilirubin: Spectrophotometry
19. WB to PRBC what to do: Change label to PRBC and adjust expiration date
(rationale: becomes open system)
20.
Anti A Anti B Anti AB Cell A Cell B
++ + + ++++ +++
Possible cause?
a. Contamination
b. Cold agglutinins
21. Emergency and no O negative or O positive cells available. What should be
given?
a. AB negative plasma
b. Oh Bombay blood
c. Crystalloid
22. Not indicated for Cryoppt:
a. Hypofibrinogenemia
b. vWF dse
c. XIII deficiency
d. ITP
23. Mr. Palanca is a resident in Palawan for 10 years. How many years deferral
before blood donation: 3 years ( 1 year if traveller)
24. Point of care testing for HBSAg
a. Viral load
b. PCR
c. Sandwich method (inisip ko na lang po yung kit na readily
available at yung principle niya)
25. Most number of subgroups:
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O

MICROBIOLOGY & PARASITOLOGY
1. Which of the following produces macroconidia that are large,
multicellular and club-shaped with smooth walls?
a. Fonsecaea pedrosi
b. Microsporum audouinii
c. Trichophyton rubrum
d. Epidermophyton floccosum
2. Corn meal agar test is used to identify Candida albicans through
the organism’s production of:
a. Chlamydospore
b. Urease
c. Germ tube
d. Inositol
3. This presumptive test for Candida uses serum.
a. Germ tube test
b. Latex agglutination
c. Hair perforation test
d. Chlamydospore test
4. In order to demonstrate of the encapsulated yeast Cryptococcus
neoformans in wet preparations of patient specimens, what should
be used?
a. Methylene blue
b. India ink
c. Malachite green
d. Safranin
5. Which of the following is diagnostic for chromoblastomycosis?
a. Flowerette conidia
b. Asteroid body
c. Sclerotic body
d. Germ tube
6. Rose gardener’s disease:
a. Sporotrichosis
b. Histoplasmosis
c. Coccidioidomycosis
d. Blastomycosis
7. Which of the following media identifies species of Aspergillus?
a. Urease medium
b. Rice agar
c. Czapek’s agar
d. Blood agar
8. Which of the following parasite larva can be isolated in sputum?
a. Paragonimus westermani
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Taenia saginata
d. Ascaris lumbricoides
9. The following are techniques used for detection of parasitic
infection and their corresponding causative agent. Which of the
following is correctly matched?
a. Harada Mori Technique and Capillaria philippinensis
b. Xenodiagnosis and Leishmania
c. Knott’s Technique and Microfilariae
d. Sellotape Method and Trichuris trichiura
10.Proper collection of a sample for recovery of Enterobius

vermicularis includes collecting:
a. A 24-hour urine collection
b. A first morning stool with proper preservative
c. Capillary blood
d. A scotch tape preparation from the perianal region
11.Heart-lung migration except:
a. Roundworm
b. Whipworm
c. Hookworm
d. Seatworm
12.Diphyllobothrium latum adult resembles the adult form of:
a. Paragonimus westermani
b. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Taenia saginata
d. Spirometra
13.Second intermediate host of Paragonimus westermani:
a. Snail
b. Fish
c. Freshwater crab
d. Vegetation
14.What is a schistosomule?
a. Cercaria minus a tail
b. Cercaria minus a head
c. Metacercaria
d. Cercaria with a tail
15.The third teania spp.:
a. T. asiatica
b. T. crassiceps
c. T. taeniaeformis
d. T. saginata
16.The definitive host to Plasmodium is the:
a. Tsetse fly (Glossina)
b. Sandfly (Phlebotomus)
c. Mosquito (Female Anopheles)
d. Reduviid bug (Male Triatoma)
17.What is the infective stage of Leishmania spp. to humans?
a. Amastigote
b. Trypomastigote
c. Promastigote
d. Sporozoites
18.Cytomegalovirus isolation is best accomplished using:
a. Monkey kidney cells
b. A549 cells
c. Human embryonic fibroblasts
d. Embryonated hen’s eggs
19.It is the smallest RNA virus:
a. Enterovirus
b. Picornavirus
c. Cytomehalovirus
d. Togavirus
20.Enteroviruses can be differentiated from rhinoviruses by:
a. Size
b. Ether stability
c. Ribonuclease treatment
d. Acid resistance
21.A medium that aids in the presumptive identification of
organisms based on their appearance on the medium is called:
a. Enriched
b. Differential
c. Selective
d. Transport
22.Which of the following is a suitable transport medium for
bacteria and virus?
a. Phosphate buffered sucrose (2SP)
b. Hank’s balanced salt solution
c. Eagles minimum essential medium
d. Stuart’s medium
23.Lysostaphin susceptibility is a test used to differentiate:

a. Staphylococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.
b. Streptococcus spp. from Staphylococcus spp.
c. Staphylococcus spp. from Pseudomonas spp.
d. Streptococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.
24.Prosthetic heart valve endocarditis is most commonly caused by
this staphylococcal species:
a. S. aureus
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. saprophyticus
d. S. pyogenes
25.Which Staphylococcus spp. is resistant to 5µg novobiocin?
a. S. aureus
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. saprophyticus
d. S. pyogenes
26.In the β-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method, which of

the following indicates a positive reaction?
a. Production of acid
b. Reduction of nitrates
c. Color change
d. Turbidity
27.The following are DNase positive, except:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c. Moraxella catarrhalis
d. Serratia marcescens
28.For the antibiotic susceptibility testing of group A beta-
hemolytic streptococci, how many units of bacitracin is used?
a. 10.00
b. 0.02 – 0.04
c. 5.00
d. 1.00 – 2.00
29.Characteristically, species from the genus Enterococcus are:
a. Unable to grow in 6.5% NaCl
b. Bile esculin positive
c. Relatively sensitive to penicillin
d. Sodium hippurate negative
30.A positive Quellung test is:
a. Virtual proof that the organism is a pathogen
b. Visible only by fluorescent light
c. From capsular swelling due to an antigen-antibody
reaction
d. Oxidation but not fermentation
31.A medical technologist cultured a specimen from a suspected
cystic fibrosis patient. After 24 hours of incubation, the MT
noticed colonies which were spreading and flat, with serrated
edges and a metallic sheen. There was a characteristic corn
taco-like odor. Identify the bacteria.
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Escherichia coli
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
32.Serratia strains are readily differentiated from Klebsiella on

the basis of their:
a. Failure to produce gas from inositol
b. Slowness and reluctance to ferment lactose
c. Rapid gelatin liquefaction
d. All of the above
33.Diagnosis of typhoid fever can be confirmed best by culture of:
a. Stool
b. Urine
c. Bone marrow
d. Blood
34.Cultures of Staphylococcus supplies which of the following for
cultures of Haemophilus?
a. III factor
b. I factor
c. X factor
d. V factor
35.String test is used for the diagnosis of which bacteria?
a. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
b. Elizabethkingia meningoseptica
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Campylobacter jejuni
36.Which diphtheroid has the same morphology
as Corynebacterium diphtheriae on blood agar plate (BAP)?
a. C. ulcerans
b. C. minutissimum
c. C. jeikeium
d. C. urealyticum
37.Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best differentiated
from Mycobacterium bovis by:
a. Growth rate
b. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests
c. Hydrolysis of Tween 80
d. Catalase test at 68oC
38.Woolsorter’s disease is caused by the ___ form of anthrax.
a. Gastrointestinal
b. Cutaneous
c. Pulmonary
d. Urinary
39.Which anaerobic, gram-positive rods produce terminal “lollipop”
spores?
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Eubacterium lentum
c. Clostridium butyricum
d. Bacteroides ureolyticus
40.In water bacteriology, the following are used as confirmatory
test media except:
a. Lactose broth
b. Endo agar
c. Eosin methylene blue agar
d. Brilliant green lactose broth
Medical Technology Board Exam Reviewer 7: MICRO-
PARA
1. How to prepare agar plates?
a. 1/3water first
b. Pour all agar first
c. ½ agar first
d. Pour all water first
2. Water bacteriology completed test?
a. Gram neg, non-sporulating on agar slant
b. Lactose broth -Acid with gas
c. Metallic sheen on EMB
d. Lactose broth -Acid only
3. By product of acetamide utilization?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Ammonia
4. Incubation period for fungal development in bone marrow and CSF?
a. 14 days
b. 7 days
c. 28 days
d. 20 days
5. Microscope for spirochetes
a. Brightfield
b. Fluorescent
c. Electron
d. Phase contasrt
6. How is water bacteriology reported?
a. CFU
b. Colonies/ml
c. MPN/100ml
d. IU/ml
7. Household bleach inactivated at?
a. 1 hour
b. 60 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 60 seconds
8. What is bench marking? Asked twice.
a. Interlaboratory marketing (1st)
b. Interlaboraty monitoring (2nd)
c. Bench so others have space
d. Comparing results with peers
9. Gravid segments contain?
a. Male reproductive organ
b. Female reproductive organ
c. Egg
d. Scolex
10. Recovered from cestodes in stool are?
a. Filariform larva
b. Microfilaria
c. Ova
d. Proglottids, scolex, ova
11. Enhancement media?
a. BAP
b. Thioglycollate broth
c. Selenite broth
d. all
12. Elevated cream yellow colored colonies?
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Staphylococcus haemolyticus
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. ALL
13. Optochin test for S. pneumonia?
a. <10 mm zone of inhibition in 6mm disk
b. >14mm zone of inhibition in 6mm disk
c. <14mm zone of inhibition in 6mm disk
d. >16mm zone of inhibition in 6mm disk
14. Double zone of hemolysis?

a. C. perfringes
b. C. difficile
c. C. botulinum
d. B. cereus
15. Cause of whooping cough?
a. Bordetella parapertusis
b. Bordetella pertussis
c. Bordetella bronchiseptica
d. ALL
16. Test for influenza & rubella?
a. Hemagglutination inhibition
b. Neutralization
c. MIT
d.
17. True of Leptorspirosis
a. Smear of urine sediment for diagnosis
b. Difficult to stain and look for in microscope
c. Stained with PAPs
d. all
18. Best Quality control in parasitology Laboratory
a. Slides with ova and adult
b. Hanging drop from preserved stools
c. Parasitology atlas
d. all
19. Stool delayed for 30 minutes must be transported in
a. Stuart medium
b. Anderson medium
c. Francis medium
d. Saline Mary medium
20. Undulating membrane (MOORSE TYPE)
a. Trichomonas
b. Euglena
c. Giardia
d. Trypanosoma
21. Rhabditiform larvae: Thread worm

22. Stool sample enrichment: Selenite broth
23. Vinegar: flukes can’t be killed
24. True of schistosomiasis: Skin penetration of cercaria in contaminated water
25. Normal oral flora: Viridans
26. Common pathogen: Group A
27. Stool contaminated with S. aureus what to do? Plate with MSA (7.5%NaCl)
28. 8 nuclei: Entamoeba coli.
29. Differentiate histolytica and hartmanii: size
30. 90% cause of malaria: Falciparum and vivax
31. POCT for dx of malaria: Falciparum, vivax, malariae
32. Dwarf: H. nana
33. Herpesviridae-ether sensitive
34. True of W.bancroftii: no terminal nuclei (B. malayi yun)
35. Cutaneous larva migrans: Ancylostoma brasilense
36. Used in coagulase test:
a. Sheep
b. Human
c. Goat

Hematology
1Medical Technology Board Exam Reviewer 10: Hematology
Sex chromosome: Barr body,

2. Gray , brown, bluish dots containing ribosomes: Basophilic stipplings
3. Associated with lead poisoning: Basophilic stipplings
4. Wintrobe tube: 115 mm long 3 mm internal bore
5. Tilt tube test size of test tubes: 75x10mm
6. Average life span of platelets: 10 days
7. Not true cell which fragments only from the mother cell in the bone marrow?
a. Erythrocyte
b. Leukocyte
c. Thombocyte ans
d. All
8. Computations for corrected WBC count (2 questions)

9. When is nRBC considered significant? 5nRBC present
10. Vitamin K dependent (asked twice): 2,7,9,10
11. >30 x 10^9 WBC: Dilute at 1:200
12. 0.1 to 30x10^9: Dilute at 1;20 ____
13. Patient is bleeding while being treated with thrombolytic infusion something.
Blood results of blood taken DURING infusion (heparin)
PTT: Very Prolong.
Fibrinogen: Very Low. What is the most likely disease?
b. Hyperplasminemia
c. Liver and kidney disease
d. DIC ans
14. Stem cell to blast: 3-5 days. Life span in circulation: 121 days. What cell?
a. Monocyte
b. Erythrocyte ans
c. Lymphocyte
d. Basophil
15. Stem cell to blast: 5. Life span in tissue: 10 days. What cell?
a. Monocyte an
b. Erythrocyte
c. Lymphocyte
d. Basophil
16. Patient is bleeding while being treated with thrombolytic infusion something.Blood results of
blood taken BEFORE heparin
PTT: Prolong. Fibrinogen: Very low
b. Hyperplasminemia
c. Liver and Kidney disease
d. DIC
17. Bone marrow smear is prepared by:
a. Crush
b. Concentrate
c. Particulate
d. All ans
18. How to make good smear?
a. Smooth and rapid
b. Smooth ans
c. Slow
d. Rapid
19. What can be made with automated smear maker?
a. Wedge ans
b. Cover slip
c. All
20. Failure to create secondary enzymes: Pelger huet
21. Hyposegmentation: Pelger huet
22. FAB classification of acute myeloblastic leukemia WITHOUT maturation = M1
23. Differentiate ALL from AML in that ALL is: Negative to both esterase and peroxidise
24. Differentiate CML from leukemoid
a. Basophils present
b. LAP score of more than 100
25. Grading of codocytes 20-50/oif: +3
26. MCV <85; MCHC <31
a. Macrocytic, normochromic
b. Microcytic, hypochromic ans
c. Normo,normo
d. Marco, hypo
27. Increase in WBC:
a. Strenuous exercise
b. Emotions
c. Crying
d. All ans
Medical Technology Board Exam Reviewer 12: Clinical
Microscopy
Click here for Answers.
The primary chemical affected by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone

system is:
a. Chloride
b. Sodium
c. Potassium
d. Hydrogen
2. The fluid leaving the glomerulus has a specific gravity of:

a. 1.005
b. 1.010
c. 1.015
d. 1.020
3. What are the variables included in the Cockgroft and Gault formula
for creatinine clearance?
1. Age 3. Urine creatinine
2. Sex 4. Body weight
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. The average total volume of urine produced by a normal adult every

24 hours is about:
a. 750 mL
b. 1200 mL
c. 2000 mL
d. 2400 mL
5. An abnormal decrease in urine production is called:

a. Anuria
b. Oliguria
c. Polyuria
d. Dysuria
6. Cloudiness in a freshly-voided urine could indicate the presence of:

a. Protein
b. Sugar
c. WBCs
d. Any of these
7. Which of these plasma substances is NOT normally filtered through the

glomerulus in significant amounts?
a. Protein
b. Glucose
c. Creatinine
d. Urea
8. Which term is defined as a urine volume in excess of 2000 mL excreted

over a 24-hour period?
a. Anuria
b. Oliguria
c. Polyuria
d. Hypersthenuria
9. Which of the following will contribute to a specimen’s specific
gravity if it is present in a person’s urine?
a. 50-100 RBC/hpf
b. 85 mg/dL glucose
c. 3+ amorphous phosphates
d. Moderate bacteria
10. Why is the first-voided morning urine specimen the most desirable
specimen for routine urinalysis?
a. Most dilute specimen of the day
b. Less contamination by microorganisms
c. It can detect orthostatic proteinuria
d. Most concentrated specimen of the day
11. Freshly voided normal urine is usually clear; however, if it is

alkaline, a white turbidity may be present due to:
a. Yeast cells
b. Uroerythrin
c. WBCs
d. Amorphous phosphates
12. A strong odor of cabbage in a urine specimen could indicate:

a. Methionine malabsorption
b. Trimethylaminuria
c. Phenylketonuria
d. Tyrosyluria
13. A specimen with a strong ammonia odor and a heavy white precipitate
when it arrives in the laboratory may require:
a. Collection of a fresh specimen
b. Centrifugation
c. Dilution for specific gravity
d. Testing under a hood
14. A correlation exists between a specific gravity of 1.050 and a:

a. 2+ protein
b. 2+ glucose
c. Radiographic dye infusion
d. First morning specimen
15. A yellow-brown specimen that produces a yellow foam when shaken can
be suspected of containing:
a. Carrots
b. Hemoglobin
c. Rhubarb
d. Bilirubin
16. A patient with a 1+ protein reading in the afternoon is asked to

submit a first morning specimen. The second specimen also has a 1+
protein. This patient is:
a. Positive for orthostatic proteinuria
b. Negative for orthostatic proteinuria
c. Positive for Bence Jones proteinuria
d. Negative for clinical proteinuria
17. Urinalysis on a patient with severe back and abnominal pain is

frequently performed to check for:
a. Bilirubinuria
b. Proteinuria
c. Hematuria
d. Hemoglobinuria
18. Reagent strip – specific gravity readings are affected by:
a. Glucose
b. Radiographic dye
c. Alkaline urine
d. All of the above
19. The reagent strip reaction that requires the longest reaction time
is:
a. Bilirubin
b. Leukocyte esterase
c. pH
d. Glucose
20. The enzyme dipstick test for glucose has a sensitivity of:
a. 10 mg/dL
b. 50 mg/dL
c. 100 mg/dL
d. 200 mg/dL
21. Which of the following is true of the detection of urinary glucose?

a. Any reducing substance can give a false positive reaction w/
copper reduction test for glucose
b. The copper reduction method is specific for glucose
c. Glucose cannot appear in the urine in the absence of elevated
plasma glucose
d. Ketonuria may produce a false positive dipstick test for glucose
22. Which of the reagents below is used to detect urobilinogen in urine?

a. p-Dinitrobenzene
b. p-Aminosalicylate
c. p-Dichloroaniline
d. p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
23. All of the statements below regarding urine bilirubin tests are true
EXCEPT:
a. A positive test indicates either liver or hepatobiliary disease
b. The test detects only conjugated bilirubin
c. High levels of ascorbate usually do not interfere
d. Standing urine may become falsely negative due to bacterial
hydrolysis
24. A positive test for blood in urine can occur in the following EXCEPT:
a. Extravascular hemolytic anemia
b. Crush injury
c. Malignancy of the kidney or urinary system
d. Renal calculi
25. Which of the following is the major organic substance found in urine?
a. Sodium
b. Glucose
c. Chloride
d. Urea
26. A reagent test strip impregnated with an aromatic amine such as p-

arsanilic acid or sulfanilamide may be used to detect which analyte?
a. Bilirubin
b. Blood
c. Nitrite
d. Urobilinogen
27. What is the expected pH range of a freshly voided urine specimen?
a. 3.5-8.0
b. 3.5-9.0
c. 4.0-8.5
d. 4.5-8.0
28. False positive levels of 5-HIAA can be caused by a diet high in:
a. Bananas
b. Tomatoes
c. Pineapples
d. All of these
29. Blue diaper syndrome is associated with:

a. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
b. Hartnup disease
c. Alkaptonuria
d. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
30. Hurler, Hunter and Sanfilippo syndrome are hereditary disorders

affecting metabolism of:
a. Tryptophan
b. Purines
c. Mucopolysaccharides
d. Porphyrins
31. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase deficiency is associated with which

of the following?
a. Acute intermittent porphyria (AIN)
b. Hereditary coproporphyria (HCP)
c. Congenital erythropoietic porphyria (CEP)
d. Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT)
32. Urinary screening tests for mucopolysaccharides:

1. Acid albumin 3. Cyanide-Nitroprusside
2. CTAB 4. Nitroso-naphthol
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 3 and 4
33. He discovered phenylketonuria from a mentally retarded child with a

peculiar mousy odor to his urine:
a. Ivan Folling
b. Garrod
c. Cotugno
d. Frederik Dekkers
34. A clinically significant epithelial cell is the:

a. Cuboidal cell
b. Clue cell
c. Caudate cell
d. Squamous epithelial cell
35. When using the glass slide and coverslip method, which of the
following might be missed if the coverslip is overflowed?
a. RBCs
b. WBCs
c. Casts
d. Bacteria
36. Which of the following should be used to reduce light intensity in
bright-field microscopy?
a. Centering screws
b. Aperture diaphragm
c. Rheostat
d. Condenser aperture diaphragm
37. The finding of dysmorphic RBCs is indicative of:

a. Renal calculi
b. Traumatic injury
c. Glomerular bleeding
d. Coagulation disorders
38. The primary component of urinary mucus is:

a. Albumin
b. Uromodulin
c. Goblet cells
d. Beta2-microglobulin
39. The purpose of the Hansel stain is to identify:

a. Neutrophils
b. Monocytes
c. Renal tubular cells
d. Eosinophils
40. What is the normal value for urinary eosinophils?

a. >10%
b. <1%
c. >1%
d. <10%
41. A disorder characterized by the disruption of the electrical charges

that produce the tightly fitting podocyte barrier resulting in massive
loss of proteins and lipids:
a. Alport syndrome
b. Nephrotic syndrome
c. IgA nephropathy
d. Lipid nephrosis
42. Visicoureteral reflux or the reflux of urine from the bladder back
into the ureters may result to:
a. Acute glomerulonephritis
b. Cystitis
c. Acute pyelonephritis
d. Acute interstitial nephritis
43. The presence of renal tubular epithelial cells and casts is an

indication of:
a. Acute interstitial nephritis
b. Chronic glomerulonephritis
c. Minimal change disease
d. Acute tubular necrosis
44. End-stage renal disease is characterized by all of the following

EXCEPT:
a. Electrolyte imbalance
b. Azotemia
c. Hypersthenuria
d. Isosthenuria
45. Broad and waxy casts are most likely associated with:
a. Nephrotic syndrome
b. Acute renal failure
c. Chronic renal failure
d. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
46. It is described as a genetic disorder showing lamellated and thinning

of glomerular basement membrane:
a. Goodpasture syndrome
b. Alport syndrome
c. Nephrotic syndrome
d. Wegener’s granulomatosis
47. Casts are formed primarily in which portion of the kidney?

a. Distal convoluted tubule
b. Glomerulus
c. Loop of Henle
d. Proximal convoluted tubule
48. A parasite associated with a positive leukocyte esterase is:

a. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Schistosoma haematobium
d. Candida albicans
49. The hormone characteristically present in the blood of pregnant women

and which, when its concentration in the blood reaches a certain point,
also appears in the urine is:
a. Estradiol
b. Aldosterone
c. Progesterone
d. hCG
50. HCG is produced by which of the following?

a. Cytotrophoblast cells
b. Argentaffin cells
c. Endocervical glandular cells
d. Type II pneumocytes
51. The most common composition of renal calculi is:

a. Calcium oxalate
b. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
c. Cystine
d. Uric acid
52. A renal calculi described as yellowish to brownish red in color with

a moderately hard consistency is:
a. Cystine
b. Phosphate
c. Calcium oxalate
d. Uric acid
53. A renal calculi described as pale and friable is:

a. Cystine
b. Phosphate
c. Calcium oxalate
d. Uric acid
54. A stool specimen collected from an infant with diarrhea has a pH of

5.0. This result correlates with a:
a. Positive APT test
b. Negative trypsin test
c. Positive Clinitest
d. Negative occult blood test
55. What is the gold standard for fecal fat determination?

a. Van de Kamer titration
b. Van den Berg reaction
c. APT test
d, D-Xylose test
56. Which of the following pairings of stool appearance and cause does
not match?
a. Pale, frothy: steatorrhea
b. Black, tarry: blood
c. Yellow-gray: bile duct obstruction
d. Yellow-green: barium sulfate
57. All of the following statements about CSF are true EXCEPT:
a. CSF is formed by ultrafiltration of plasma through the choroid
plexus
b. CSF circulates in the subarachnoid space and ventricles of the
brain
c. The chemical composition of CSF is similar to plasma
d. Reabsorption of CSF occurs via vessels in the sagittal sinus
58. All of the following are indication of CSF traumatic tap EXCEPT:
a. Clearing of fluid as it is aspirated
b. A clear supernatant after centrifugation
c. Xanthochromia
d. Presence of a clot in the sample
59. The term used to denote a high WBC count in the CSF is:
a. Empyema
b. Neutrophilia
c. Pleocytosis
d. Lymphocytosis
60. The limulus lysate test on CSF is a sensitive assay for:

a. Viral meningitis
b. Cryptococcal meningitis
c. Gram positive bacterial exotoxin
d. Gram negative bacterial endotoxin
61. A normal CSF glucose and lactate level is associated with which type
of meningitis?
a. Viral meningitis
b. Bacterial meningitis
c. Fungal meningitis
d. Tubercular meningitis
62. The most common cause of male infertility is:

a. Mumps
b. Klinefelter’s syndrome
c. Varicocele
d. Malignancy
63. Which of the following stains is used to determine sperm viability?

a. Eosin
b. Hematoxylin
c. Papanicolau
d. Methylene blue
64. Seminal fluid viscosity graded as 4 is described as:
a. Watery
b. Fair
c. Friable
d. Gel-like
65. The sugar present in the seminal fluid in high concentration is:
a. Glucose
b. Lactose
c. Fructose
d. Sucrose
66. Maturation of spermatozoa takes place in the:

a. Sertoli cells
b. Seminiferous tubules
c. Epididymis
d. Seminal vesicles
67. Which test for FLM is least affected by contamination with hemoglobin
and meconium?
a. Amniostat-FLM
b. Foam stability
c. Lamellar body count
d. L/S ratio
68. How are specimens for FLM testing delivered to and stored in the
laboratory?
a. Delivered on ice and refrigerated or frozen
b. Immediately centrifuged
c. Kept at room temperature
d. Protected from light
69. The presence of a fetal neural tube disorder may be detected by:
a. Increased amniotic fluid bilirubin
b. Increased maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
c. Decreased amniotic fluid phosphatidyl glycerol
d. Decreased maternal serum acetylcholinesterase
70. What type of tube for gastric fluid collection is inserted through
the mouth?
a. Rehfuss tube
b. Levine tube
c. Diagnex tube
d. None of these
71. A gastric disorder characterized by achlorhydria due to the presence

of anti-parietal cell antibodies:
a. Zollinger-Ellison disease
b. Helicobacter pylori infection
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Cystic fibrosis
72. All of the following may be associated with bronchial asthma EXCEPT:
a. Creola bodies
b. Curschmann’s spirals
c. Charcot-Leyden crystals
d. Pneumoliths
73. A sputum that is rusty-colored and filled with pus is associated

with:
a. Congestive heart failure
b. Lobar pneumonia
c. Tuberculosis
d. Anthracosis
74. Rice bodies are called so because:

a. It was discovered by Dr. Rice
b. It resembles cooked rice
c. It resembles uncooked rice
d. It resembles polished rice
75. Lyme arthritis is caused by:

a. Borrelia recurrentis
b. Borrelia hermsii
c. Borrelia burgdorferi
d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
76. CYFRA 21-1 is a tumor marker for:

a. Uterine cancer
b. Colon cancer
c. Lung cancer
d. Breast cancer
77. This is a sensitive test for the detection of intra-abdominal

bleeding:
a. Peritoneal lavage
b. Bronchioalveolar lavage
c. Thoracic lavage
d. Pericardial lavage
78. What is the method of choice for preservation of routine urinalysis
samples?
a. Boric acid
b. Formalin
c. Sodium fluoride
d. Refrigeration
79. A urine specimen for routine urinalysis would be rejected by the

laboratory because:
a. The specimen had been refrigerated
b. More than 50 mL was in the container
c. The label was placed on the side of the container
d. The specimen and accompanying request did not match
80. Which of the following is the preferred urine specimen for cytology
studies?
a. Catheterized
b. First morning
c. Suprapubic aspiration
d. Three-glass collection
81. Following collection, urine specimens should be delivered to the

laboratory promptly and tested within ___ hour(s)
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
82. All of the following changes occur in unpreserved urine EXCEPT:

1. Decreased glucose 3. Increased ketones 5. Incr. urobilinogen
2. Increased pH 4. Increased clarity 6. Increased bacteria
a. 3, 4 and 5
b. 1, 2 and 6
c. 1, 3 and 5
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
83. Which of the following matches regarding specimen collection is/are

incorrect?
1. Arthrocentesis – synovial fluid 3. Thoracentesis – Ascitic fluid
2. Amniocentesis – amniotic fluid 4. Pericardiocentesis – Pleural
fluid
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 4
84. The most representative sample for fecal fat analysis is:
a. First morning
b. 3-day collection
c. 2-day collection
85. Three labeled tubes of CSF specimen were sent to the laboratory.
Which of these tubes will be used for cell counting?
a. Tube 1
b. Tube 2
c. Tube 3
d. Any of these
86. If seminal fluid fructose analysis will be delayed for more than 2
hours, the sample should be stored at what condition?
a. Refrigerator temperature
b. Frozen
c. Body temperature
d. Room temperature
87. It is the process that provides documentation of proper sample

identification from the time of collection to the receipt of laboratory
results:
a. Proficiency testing
b. Accreditation
c. Chain of custody
d. Pre-analytical phase
88. This is also known as the modulation contrast microscope:

a. Nomarski
b. Hoffman
c. Kohler
d. Phase-contrast
89. It refers to the ability of a microscopic lens to distinguish two

small objects that are a specific distance apart:
a. Parfocal
b. Birefringence
c. Illumination
d. Resolution
90. Which type of microscopy is used to aid in identification of

cholesterol in oval fat bodies, fatty casts and crystals?
a. Polarizing
b. Phase-contrast
c. Interference-contrast
d. Dark-field
91. It is based on the principle that the frequency of a sound wave
entering a solution changes in proportion to the density of the solution
a. Harmonic oscillation densitometry
b. Refractive index
c. Urinometer
d. Reagent strip
92. What is the minimum urine volume required by the Clinitek Atlas
automated instrument?
a. 1 mL
b. 2 mL
c. 7 mL
d. 15 mL
93. All of the following are important to protect the integrity of

reagent strips EXCEPT:
a. Storing in an opaque bottle
b. Storing at room temperature
c. Removing the dessicant from the bottle
d. Resealing the bottle after removing a strip
94. When a control is run, what information is documented?

a. The lot number
b. Expiration date of the control
c. The test results
d. All of the above
95. Given the following, identify the preanalytical errors:

1. Patient misidentification 4. Insufficient urine volume
2. Poor handwriting 5. Delayed transport of urine to lab
3. Reagent deterioration 6. Instrument malfunction
a. 1, 4 and 5 c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 6 d. 4, 5 and 6
96. The best way to break the chain of infection is:

a. Decontamination
b. PPE
c. Aerosol prevention
d. Handwashing
97. An acceptable disinfectant for blood and body fluid decontamination

is:
a. NaOH
b. Antimicrobial soap
c. H2O2
d. Sodium hypochlorite
98. The last thing to do when a fire is discovered is to:

a. Rescue persons in danger
b. Activate the alarm system
c. Close doors to other areas
d. Extinguish the fire if possible
99. A class ABC fire extinguisher contains:

a. Water
b. Dry chemicals
c. Sand
d. Acid
100. Correct procedure for handwashing, EXCEPT:

a. Wet hands with warm water
b. Thoroughly clean between fingers for at least 15 seconds
c. Rinse hands in an upward position
d. Turn off faucets with a clean paper towel
Answers for Reviewer 12 & 13
1. B
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. C
9. B
10. D
11. D
12. A
13. A
14. C
15. D
16. B
17. C
18. C
19. B
20. C
21. A
22. D
23. C
24. A
25. D
26. C
27. D
28. D
29. B
30. C
31. D
32. A
33. A
34. B
35. C
36. C
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. B
41. B
42. C
43. D
44. C
45. C
46. B
47. A
48. B
49. D
50. A
51. A
52. D
53. B
54. C
55. A
56. D
57. C
58. C
59. C
60. D
61. A
62. C
63. A
64. D
65. C
66. C
67. A
68. A
69. B
70. A
71. C
72. D
73. B
74. D
75. C
76. C
77. A
78. C
79. D
80. C
81. B
82. A
83. B
84. B
85. C
86. B
87. C
88. B
89. D
90. A
91. A
92. B
93. C
94. D
95. A
96. D
97. D
98. D
99. B
100. C

HEMATOLOGY
1. Which of the following is not an appropriate safety practice?
a. Disposing of needles in biohazard, puncture-proof containers
b. Frequent hand-washing
c. Sterilizing lancets for reuse
d. Keeping food out of the same areas as specimens
2. Factors involved with initial activation of the coagulation system and
that require contact with a negatively charged surface for their
activity belong to the following group of factors:
a. Prothrombin group
b. Fibrinogen group
c. Fibrinolytic
d. Contact group
3. Factor X can be activated by:

a. Factor XIa
b. Factor IXa, VIIIa, PF3, Ca++
c. Factor XIIa
d. Factor Va and VIIa
4. Which of the following cleaves pro-thrombin to thrombin?
a. Xa, Va, PF3, Ca++
b. IXa, VIIa, PF3, Ca++
c. VIIa / TF
d. XIa
5. Activated protein C together with its cofactor, protein S is an
inhibitor of:
a. Factors VIIIa and Va
b. Plasmin
c. Thrombin
d. Plasminogen activators
6. The most concentrated coagulation factor in the blood is:
a. XII
b. IX
c. X
d. Fibrinogen
7. Which of the following is requires in adequate amounts for
stabilization of the fibrin clot?
a. Factor I
b. Factor X
c. Factor XI
d. Factor XIII
8. Hemophilia B is a deficiency of:
a. Factor XI
b. Factor VIII
c. Factor IX
d. Fibrinogen
9. In which of the following disease would you most likely find an
abnormal pro-thrombin time:
a. Hemophilia A
b. Hemophilia B
c. DIC
d. Prekallikrein deficiency
10. Heparin inhibits the clotting of blood by neutralizing the effects of:
a. Calcium
b. Thrombin
c. Platelets
d. Factor XIII
11. High molecular weight kinninogen (HMWK) and kallikrein are coagulation
factors involved in:
a. Synergistic action with factor III
b. Activation of intrinsic coagulation
c. Induction of viscous metamorphosis
d. Formation of covalent bonds between fibrin monomers
12. Prekallikrein is also known as:
a. Fletcher factor
b. Fitzgerald factor
c. Williams factor
d. Flaujeac factor
13. High molecular weight kinninogen is also known as:
a. Extrinsic factor
b. Passavoy factor
c. Fletcher factor
d. Fitzgerald factor
14. In the APTT procedure the time is taken for clot formation is measured
after the addition of:
a. Tissue thromboplastin
b. Calcium chloride
c. Phospholipid
d. Activator
15. Which of the following factors is not present in BaSO4 adsorbed
plasma?
a. VIII
b. II
c. XII
d. V
16. The integrity of the intrinsic coagulation system is evaluated by the:
a. Thrombin time test
b. PT
c. APTT
d. Bleeding time
17. The activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is used as a screen
for the laboratory evaluation of inherited or acquired deficiencies in
the:
a. Extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade
b. Intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade
c. Platelets
d. Vascular system
18. A deficiency in Factor X would affect:
a. Pro-thrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time
b. Activated partial thromboplastin time and template bleeding
time
c. Activated partial thromboplastin time and thrombin time
d. Thrombin time and template bleeding time
19. A prolonged Stypven (Russell viper venom) time is associated with
deficiency of the following factors EXCEPT:
a. Factor I
b. Factor II
c. Factor X
d. Factor VII
20. If a patient has a prolonged PT and prolonged APTT but both are
corrected by aged plasma and serum but not corrected with adsorbed
plasma, the most likely deficiency is factor:
a. X
b. V
c. II
d. I
21. The urea solubility test is specific for detecting deficiencies of
factor:
a. X
b. XII
c. XIII
d. IX
22. A patient has a prolonged PT but a normal APTT. What is the most
likely deficiency?
a. Factor VII
b. Factor X
c. Factor IX
d. Factor V
23. The D-dimer test is a specific test for:
a. Plasminogen activation
b. Plasmin degradation of fibrinogen
c. Plasmin degragation of fibrin
d. Factor XIII
24. Based on the following data, what is the most likely factor
deficiency?
PT normal
APTT prolonged
APTT + normal plasma correction
APTT + adsorbed plasma no correction
APTT + aged serum correction
a. Factor V
b. Factor VIII
c. Factor IX
d. Factor XI
25. The combination of prolonged APTT and a prolonged test with the mixing
study procedures indicates the presence of:
a. Circulating inhibitor
b. Factor VIII deficiency
c. Anti-platelet antibodies
d. Excessive vitamin K
26. Which laboratory test is specific for fibrinolysis?
a. D-dimer test
b. Fibrinogen defeciency
c. Euglobulin clot lysis
d. Antithrombin III
27. An abnormal thrombin time is associated with:
a. Factor X deficiency
b. Fibrinogen deficiency
c. Excess plasminogen
d. Protein C deficiency
28. The observation of a normal reptilase time and a prolonged thrombin
time is indicative of:
a. Presence of fibrin degradation products
b. Dysfibrinogenemia
c. Hypoplasminogenemia
d. Presence of heparin
29. These cells are important in the transport of oxygen and carbon
dioxide between the lungs and body tissues:
a. Platelets
b. Leukocytes
c. Thrombocytes
d. Erythrocytes
30. Leukocytes are necessary for:
a. Defense against foreign antigens
b. Hemostasis
c. Oxygen transport
d. Excretion of cellular metabolism
31. This organ is important in maturation of T-lymphocytes:
a. Lymph nodes
b. Liver
c. Spleen
d. Thymus
32. Nucleoli of cells contain predominantly which of the following:
a. DNA
b. RNA
c. ALP
d. Peroxidase
33. The major erythrocyte production site is the:
a. Bone marrow
b. Kidney
c. Liver
d. Spleen
34. The correct maturation order of erythrocyte morphologic stages is:
a. Prorubricyte, rubricyte, rubriblast, metarubricyte
b. Rubriblast, prorubricyte, rubricyte, metarubricyte
c. Rubriblast, metarubricyte, rubricyte, prorubricyte
d. Rubriblast, rubricyte, prorubricyte, metarubricyte
35. The earliest recognizable erythroid precursor on a Wright-stained
smear of the bone marrow is:
a. Pronormoblast
b. Basophilic mormoblast
c. CFU-E
d. BFU-E
36. A normal erythrocyte has a lifespan of:
a. 8.2 hours
b. 5 days
c. 28 days
d. 120 days
37. Erythrocytes that contain a marked decrease in spectrin would most
likely cause:
a. An increase in membrane permeability
b. Methemoglobinemia
c. An absence of MN antigens
d. Decreased erythrocyte membrane permeability
38. Most of the erythrocyte’s energy comes from the:
a. Embden-Meyerhoff pathway
b. Hexose-monophosphate shunt
c. Rapoport-Luebering
d. Metheglobulin reduction pathway
39. This metabolic pathway facilities oxygen release from hemoglobin to
tissues:
a. Embden-Meyerhoff
b. Hexose-monophosphate shunt
c. Rapoport-Luebering
d. Metheglobulin reductase
40. In the red blood cell, the hexose monophosphate shunt:
a. Produces adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
b. Produces 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG)
c. Helps prevent oxidation of hemoglobin
d. Maintains membrane integrity
41. The major site for removal of normal aged erythrocytes is:
a. Bone marrow
b. Kidney
c. Liver
d. Spleen
42. Relative erythrocytosis may be found:
a. In pulmonary disorders
b. At high altitudes
c. With high oxygen affinity hemoglobin
d. In dehydration
43. This renal hormone stimulates erythropoiesis in the bone marrow:
a. IL-1
b. Erythropoietin
c. Granulopoietin
d. Thrombopoietin
44. These pairs of chains make up the majority of hemoglobin in normal
adults:
a. α2β2
b. α22
c. α2δ2
d. 22
45. A shift to the right in the ODC (oxygen dissociation curve) occurs
when there is a/an:
a. Increase in O2
b. Increase in CO2
c. Increase in pH
d. Decrease in CO2
46. The sigmoid shape of the ODC is due to:
a. The cooperative binding of O2 by hemoglobin
b. The Bohr effect
c. The presence of glycosylated hemoglobin
d. Erythropoietin
47. Which of the following is unable to bind oxygen?
a. Carboxyhemoglobin
b. Sulfhemoglobin
c. Methemoglobin
d. All of the above
48. Bite cells are associated with:
a. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
b. PNH
c. G6PD deficiency
d. Heredity pyropoikilocytosis
49. Patients with beta thalassemia major may show increased amounts of:
a. Hemoglobin F
b. Hemoglobin C
c. Hemoglobin H
d. Hemoglobin A
50. Which of the following is a pure red cell aplasia?
a. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
b. DiGuglielmo’s disease
c. Diamond-Blackfan anemia
d. Fanconi’s anemia
Haptoglobin may become depleted in:
a. Inflammatory conditions
b. Acute hemolytic anemia
c. Infectious diseases
d. Kidney disease
2. This form of hemoglobin has iron in the ferric state:
a. Sulhemoglubin
b. Methemoglobin
c. Carboxyhemoglobin
d. Deoxyhemoglobin
3. Which of the following is a cause of neutrophilia:

a. Viral infection
b. Acute bacterial infection
c. Allergic reaction
d. Myeloperoxidase deficiency
4. Which of the following findings would be most typical of severe
septicemia?
a. Toxic granulation
b. Auer rods
c. Hypersegmentation
d. Alder-Reilly anomaly
5. The plasma cell develops from the:
a. Basophil
b. T lymphocyte
c. B lymphocyte
d. Monocyte
6. In the neutrophil series of leukocyte development, the earliest stage
to normally appear in the peripheral blood is the:
a. Myeloblast
b. Promyelocyte
c. Myelocyte
d. Band
7. The primary function of neutrophils is:
a. A mediator of hypersensitivity
b. Control of parasitic infections
c. Initiation of the immune response
d. Phagocytic defense against microorganism
8. Sézary cells are:

a. Lipid-filled histiocytes
b. Abnormal plasma cells
c. Abnormal cells in Hodgkin’s disease
d. Abnormal T lymphocytes
9. This is the first heavy immunoglobulin chain produced in the maturing
B-lymphocyte:
a. α
b. β
c. 
d. µ
10. A peripheral blood smear that has a mixture of macrocytes, microcytes
and normal erythrocytes present can be best described by which term?
a. Polkilocytosis
b. Polychromatophilia
c. Megaloblastosis
d. Anisocytosis
11. What is the iron transport protein?
a. Ferritin
b. Transferrin
c. Hemosiderin
d. Albumin
12. What are DÖhle bodies?
a. Aggregates of rough endoplasmic reticulum
b. Primary granules
c. Fat globules
d. Liposomes containing partially degraded mucopolysaccharides
13. Multiple myeloma is a disorder of:
a. T lymphocytes
b. Plasma cells
c. Megakaryocytes
d. Erythrocytes
14. The cells considered to be distinctive of Hodgkin’s disease is:
a. Turk’s cells
b. Ferrata cells
c. Reed-Sternberg cells
d. Flame cells
15. Alder-Reilly anomaly has effect on leukocytes that closely resembles:
a. Toxic granulation
b. Hyposegmention
c. Dohle-like inclusion bodies
d. Hypersegmentation
16. Aleukoerythrobalstic reaction is characterized by the presence of ___
in the peripheral blood:
a. Immature leukocytes and nucleated erythrocytes
b. Lymphocytosis and neutropenia
c. Leukocytosis and erythrocytosis
d. Pseudo-Pelger Huet cells
17. An increased in basophils is associated with:
a. Chronic myeloproliferative diseases
b. Parasitic infection
c. Chronic infection
d. Administration of glucocorticoids
18. HIV (Human immunodeficiency virus) infects:
a. B lymphocytes
b. Suppressor T lymphocytes
c. Helper T lymphocytes
d. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
19. A 2-year old child has a total leukocyte count of 10 x 109/L and 60%
lymphocytes. The following best describes this blood picture:
a. Absolutely lymphocytosis
b. Relative lymphocytosis
c. Normal lymphocyte count for a given age
d. Absolute lymphocytopenia
20. Auer rods are inclusions found in:
a. Myeloblasts
b. Lymphoblasts
c. Erythrocytes
d. Prolymphocytes
21. Extensive bone marrow fibrosis, leukoerythroblastic peripheral blood
and the presence of anisocytosis with dacyocytes are most
characteristic of:
a. CML
b. PV
c. ET
d. MMM
22. What is the minimum number of bone marrow blasts needed for the
diagnosis of acute leukemia?
a. 29%
b. 50%
c. 5%
d. 30%
23. In addition to the number of blasts, what other criterion is essential
for the diagnosis of RARS?
a. More than 15% ringed sideroblasts
b. More than 30% ringed sideroblasts
c. Dyshematopoiesis in all three cell lineages
d. Pancytopenia
24. The FAB classification of a leukemia with large blasts that are
myeloperoxidase and specific esterase negative but have strong
Positivity for nonspecific esterase inhibited by sodium fluoride is:
a. M1
b. M4
c. M5
d. M7
25. The highest levels of serum and urine muramidase are found in this
leukemia:
a. M0 AML
b. M2 AML
c. CML
d. M5 AML
26. When Auer rods (bodies) are found in blasts of a case of acute
leukemia, the leukemia is most probably:
a. Undifferentiated leukemia
b. B lymphocytic leukemia
c. T lymphocytic leukemia
d. Myelocytic leukemia
27. The normal lifespan of the platelets in the peripheral blood is:
a. 8 hours
b. 1 day
c. 10 days
d. 100 days
28. Platelet dense granules are storage organelles for ___, which are
released after activation.
a. Calcium, ADP and serotonin
b. Fibrinogen, glycoprotein Ib, and von Willebrand factor
c. ADP, thromboxane A2, and fibrinogen
d. Lysosomal granules, ATP, and factor V
29. Which of the following is needed for platelets to aggregate?
a. Thrombin
b. Actin
c. von Willebrand factor
d. Fibrinogen
30. Platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex is:
a. Membrane receptor for fibrinogen
b. Secreted from the dense bodies
c. Secreted by endothelial cells
d. Also called actin
31. The formation of thromboxane A2 in the activated platelet:
a. Is needed for platelets to adhere to collagen
b. Is caused by the alpha granule proteins
c. Requires the enzyme cyclooxygenase
d. Occurs via a pathway involving von Willebrand factor
32. A humoral factor which regulates platelet production by speeding up
the maturation time of megakaryocyte is called;
a. Thrombocyte
b. Thrombopoeitin
c. Interleukin 3
d. prostaglandin
33. which of the following is true about relationship between ADP and
platelets?
a. ADP is necessary for platelet adhesion
b. ADP released from the granules is required for platelet
aggregation
c. ADP is synthesized in the platelet from arachidonic acid
d. ADP is released from the alpha granule of the platelet
34. Thrombocytopenia may be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Prolonged bleeding time
b. Prolonged clotting time
c. Poor clot retraction
d. Positive tourniquet test
35. Approximately ___ of the total number of platelets circulate in the
systemic circulation?
a. One-fourth
b. One-third
c. One-half
d. Two-thirds
36. Clot retraction is a function of:
a. Thromboxane A2
b. Factor XIII
c. Thrombosthenin
d. Thromboplastin
37. A patient with Bernard Soulier disease will probably have:
a. Increased bleeding time
b. Increased prothrombin time
c. Increased platelet count
d. Abnormal aggregation with ADP and collagen
38. A patient with Glanzmann thrombasthenia has:
a. A mutation in the gene for fibrinogen
b. An acquired abnormality of von Willebrand factor
c. A genetic abnormality of glycoprotein IIb or IIIa
d. An acquired vascular disorder
39. A patient with hereditary telangiectasia has:
a. Abnormal platelet adhesion t collagen
b. Thrombocytosis
c. A deficiency of platelet dense bodies
d. Dilated capillaries on mucous membranes that are likely to
cause bleeding
40. The bleeding time is expected to be normal in:
a. Hemophilia
b. Drug-induced thrombocytopenia
c. Uremia
d. Bernard-Soulier disease
41. Platelet adhesion is abnormal in Bernard-Soulier disease because:
a. Glycoprotein Ib of the platelet membrane is defective
b. A plasma factor needed for platelet adhesion is absent
c. Antibodies to phospholipid are present
d. Abnormal proteins in the plasma coat the platelet membrane
42. An elevated platelet count is associated with:
a. Hemorrhage
b. Megaloblastic anemia
c. Myelodysplastic syndromes
d. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
43. Platelet aggregation studies revealed normal aggregation curves with
collagen, epinephrine, and ADP, but an abnormal aggregation curve with
ristocetin. Based on these findings, what is the differential
diagnosis?
a. Von Willebrand disease and Bernard-Soulier syndrome
b. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia and von disease
c. Storage pool disease and Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
d. Bernard-Soulier syndrome and storage pool disease
44. Bleeding disorder/s in which platelets fail to aggregate with
ristocetin:
1. von Willebrand’s disease
2. Glanzmann’s disease
3. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
4. Storage pool disease
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
45. Which of the following platelet responses is most likely associated
with Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia?
a. Decreased platelet aggregation to ristocetin
b. Defective ADP release; normal response to ADP
c. Decreased amount of ADP in platelets
d. Markedly decreased aggregation to epinephrine, ADP and
collagen
46. Platelet function is impaired after ingesting aspirin because:
a. Aspirin blocks certain glycoprotein receptors on the surface
of the platelet
b. Aspirin interferes with liver synthesis of a number of
coagulation factors
c. Aspirin alters the structure of the glycocalyx
d. Aspirin decreases thromboxane A2 formation by inhibiting
cyclooxygenase
47. Aspirin ingestion has the following hemostatic effect in a normal
person:
a. Prolonged prothrombin time
b. Prolonged bleeding time
c. Prolonged APTT
d. All of the above
48. Using manual techniques, the most reproducible test of the following
is:
a. Leukocyte count
b. Erythrocyte count
c. Hemoglobin determination
d. Hematocrit determination
49. Hemoglobin is measured spectrophotometrically at which of the
following wavelength:
a. 340 nm
b. 440 nm
c. 450 nm
d. 540 nm
50. Which of the following may be confused with reticulocytes in a
brilliant cresyl blue stained smear:
a. Hemoglobin C crystal
b. Basophilic stipplings
c. Hemoglobin H bodies
d. Cabot rings
The degree of effective erythropoiesis is best assessed by:

a. Serum iron labels
b. Hemoglobin determinations
c. Ferrokinetic studies with Fe59
d. Reticulocyte counts
2. Any turbidity in a peripheral blood specimen will result in a falsely
elevated hemoglobin determination. Which of the following is NOT a
potential source of turbidity?
a. Lipemia
b. Increased leukocyte counts
c. Increased level of carboxyhemoglobin
d. Presence of hemoglobin S
3. The following erythrocyte data were obtained from an EDTA-

anticoagulated specimen: erythrocyte count = 2.84 x 1012/L, hemoglobin
= 7.2 g/dL, hematocrit = 26% (0.26 L/L), calculate the MCV.
a. 25.3 fL
b. 27.7 fL
c. 65.9 fL
d. 91.5 fL
4. Which of the following is NOT a condition associated with an elevated
ESR?
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Polycythemia vera
c. Multiple myeloma
d. Chronic infection
5. Which stain is commonly used to perform a reticulocyte count?
a. Wright stain
b. Crystal violet
c. New methylene blue
d. Natural red
6. Which of the following is an appropriate screening test for the
presence of hemoglobin S?
a. Dithionate solubility test
b. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
c. Heat instability test
d. Acid elution test
7. Which of the following does NOT increase the sedimentation of red
cells?
a. Rouleaux
b. Poikilocytosis
c. Increased globulins
d. Low erythrocyte count
8. Which of the following is not detected by the DAT with polyspecific
AHG?
a. Erythrocyte sensitization with antibodies “in vivo”
b. Erythrocyte sensitization with incomplete antibodies “in
vivo”
c. Erythrocyte sensitization with complement “in vivo”
d. Erythrocyte sensitization with antibodies “in vitro”
9. The Donath-Landsteiner test is positive in:
a. PNH
b. CHD
c. PCH
d. Warm AIHA
10. A positive sucrose hemolysis test was followed by a Ham test. There
was hemolysis of the patient’s cells in acidified serum. These results
are indicative of:
a. G6PD deficiency
b. Hereditary spherocytosis
c. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
d. PNH
11. The principal test in the diagnosis of heredity spherocytosis is:
a. Autohemolysis test
b. Ham test
c. Osmotic fragility test
d. Thermal stability test
12. Which laboratory test is more appropriate screen for unstable
hemoglobulin disorders?
a. Heat instability test
b. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
c. Osmotic fragility
d. Serum bilirubin
13. The slowest moving hemoglobin on electrophoresis at pH 8.4 is:
a. Hemoglobin A
b. Hemoglobin F
c. Hemoglobin C
d. Hemoglobin G
14. In cellulose acetate electrophoresis, hemoglobin S has the same
mobility as:
a. Hemoglobin E
b. Hemoglobin F
c. Hemoglobin D
d. Hemoglobin C
15. Which of the following hemoglobin electrophoresis results is most
typical of sickle cell trait?
a. 85% Hb S and 15% Hb A
b. 85% Hb F and 15% Hb S
c. 45% Hb S and 55% Hb A
d. 55% Hb F and 455 Hb S
16. The substance that will hasten the sickling of erythrocyte is:
a. Sodium oxalate
b. Sodium metabisulfite
c. Sodium citrate
d. Sodium phosphate
17. Hemoglobin S and D can be differentiated by which test?
a. Autohemolysis test
b. Acid serum test
c. Hemoglobin electrophoresis at pH 8.6
d. Solubility test
18. Increased osmotic fragility could be expected in which of the
following disorders?
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Thalassemia
c. Sickle cell anemia
d. Hereditary spherocytosis
19. Which of the following erythrocyte inclusions cannot be stained and
visualized with Romanowsky stain?
a. Pappenheimer bodies
b. Howell-Jolly bodies
c. Heinz bodies
d. Basophilic stippling
20. Which of the following laboratory tests is most specific for vitamins
B12 or folic acid deficiency?
a. Low ferriti
b. High RDW
c. Coomb’s test
d. MCV > 105
21. Which laboratory result is most useful in distinguishing iron
deficiency anemia from anemia of chronic disease?
a. Serum iron
b. MCV
c. Hemoglobin
d. Transferrin receptor
22. If a serum transferring receptor assay were performed on an iron
deficient individual, what would you expect the result to be:
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Normal
d. AOTA
23. The electrical impedance principle is based on the fact that:
a. Blood cells are good conductors of electricity
b. Blood cells are poor conductors of electricity
c. Resistance of the electrical path is decreased as the
individual cells passes through the aperture
d. Blood cells have a relative density greater than that of
saline
24. B-lymphocytes can be distinguished from T-lymphocytes by:
a. Morphology on Romanowsky-stained smear
b. Size of the cell
c. Monoclonal antibodies to surface antigens
d. Presence of granules
25. A manual leukocyte count was performed on an EDTA-anticoagualated
specimen. The specimen was diluted 1:20 and a total of 165 leukocytes
were counted in the four corner squares of the hemacytometer. What is
the leukocyte count?
a. 1.3 x 109/L
b. 3.3 x 109/L
c. 4.1 x 109/L
d. 8.3 x 109/L
26. Chromosome analysis revealed the presence of the Philadelphia
chromosome. What myeloproliferative disorder is present?
a. CML
b. PV
c. ET
d. MMM
27. What cytochemical stain is used to help differentiate a leukomoid
reaction from CML?
a. Peroxidase
b. New methylene blue
c. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
d. Perl’s Prussian blue
28. What cytochemical stain is most useful in the differentiation of a
myeloblast from a lymphoblast?
a. Periodic acid-Schiff reaction
b. Acid phosphatase
c. Myeloperoxidase
d. α-naphthyl acetate esterase
29. The esterase cytochemical stains are useful to differentiate:
a. Granulocytic from monocytic leukemias
b. Lymphocytic leukemias from myelocytoc leukemias
c. Monocytic leukemias from megakaryocytic leukemias
d. Lymphocytic leukemias from monocytic leukemias
30. A leukomoid reaction may be distinguished from chronic myelocytic
leukemia by:
a. The total leukocyte count
b. The presence or absence of immature neutrophils
c. Chromosome studies
d. The presence or absence of anemia
31. Which of the following stains is not useful in the differentiation of
acute myelogenous leukemia from acute lymphocytic leukemia?
a. Chloracetate esterase stain
b. Sudan black B stain
c. Myeloperoxidase stain
d. Periodic acid-Schiff stain
32. Based on the results obtained from the evaluation of a leukocyte
alkaline phosphatas (LAP) stain, what is the total LAP score?
Cell Rating Number of Cells Counted
It0 35
1+ 40
2+ 20
3+ 5
4+ 0
a. 65
b. 75
c. 95
d. 130
33. The niroblue tetrazolium test would be most useful in detecting:
a. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Chronic granulomatous disease
d. Niemann-Pick disease
34. Heterophil antibodies found in infectious mononucleosis are absorbed
by:
a. Beef erythrocytes but not guinea pig kidney cells
b. Both beef erythrocytes and guinea pig kidney cells
c. Neither beef erythrocytes and guinea pig kidney cells
d. Guinea pig kidney cells but not beef erythrocytes

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
1. The process that encompasses all aspects of laboratory

operating including patient identification, specimen
collection, equipment maintenance, and the reporting of
patient results:
a. Accuracy
b. Reliability
c. Quality assurance
d. Quality control
2. The process that monitor’s each laboratory analysis, using
material with known constituent concentrations, in order to
ensure the accuracy of the test results is:
a. Pooled control
b. Quality assurance
c. Quality control
d. Accuracy monitoring
3. A technique used to detect unlikely combination of values.

a. Previous value check
b. Alert check
c. Pattern recognition
d. Randomized duplicate specimens
4. A mean value of 100 and standards deviation of 1.8 mg/dL
were obtained from a set of glucose measurements on a
control solution. The 95% confidence interval in mg/dL
would be:
a. 94.6-105.4
b. 96.4-103.6
c. 97.3-102.7
d. 98.2-101.8
5. The following five sodium control value (mEq/L) were
obtained:
140, 135, 138, 140, 142
Calculate the coefficient of variation.
a. 1.9%
b. 5.6%
c. 2.7%
d. 6.1%
6. This test is used to compare means between two groups of
data.
a. T-test
b. Pattern recognition
c. F-test
d. Average of normal
7. If the sample population and the method used in the same as
those described in the manual, what is the minimum number
of individuals that can be tested to obtain the reference
range, provided that no more than 2 results outside the
expected range?
a. 5
b. 15
c. 10
d. 20
8. The pairest type of reagent water is:
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. All
9. Type of extinguisher for Class C fires:
a. Water, dry chemical, loaded stream
b. Carbon dioxide, dry chemical, halon
c. Metal X
d. None
10. Chemicals should be stored:
a. Alphabetically, for easy accessibility
b. Inside a safety cabinet with proper ventilation
c. According to their chemical properties and
classification
d. Inside a fume hood, if toxic vapors can be
released when opened
11. 20oC = ___oF
a. 25
b. 53
c. 68
d. 86
12. 75oF = ___oC
a. 15.5
b. 21.0
c. 23.8
d. 32.6
13. It is used for nonviscous fluid, self-draining; small
amount left in the tip should not be blown out.
a. Volumetric pipet
b. Ostwald Folin
c. Micropipattes
d. Pasteur pipet
14. The etched rings on the top of a pipette means:
a. The pipette should be allowed to drain and the
last drop should remain in the pipette
b. The last drop is to be known out after the
pipettes drain
c. The pipette is color coded
d. The pipette is a volumetric pipette
15. The preferred length of the lancet for skin puncture should
be ___ to avoid penetrating the bone.
a. 1.75 mm
b. 2.0 mm
c. 2.25 mm
d. 2.5 mm
16. Specimens that require chilling (4oC)
1. Ammonia
2. Lactic acid
3. Blood gases
4. Renin
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
17. A medical technologies on duty in the Clinical Chemistry
section received a sterile bottle containing CSF. What
should he or she do first?
a. Centrifuge the fluid
b. Measure the volume
c. Put it inside the freezer set at 2o degrees
Celsius
d. should verify if it is the only bottle collected
from the patient
18. Analytical testing performed outside the confines of the
central laboratory, usually by nonlaboratorian personnel
(nurse, respiratory therapist etc.)
1. Point of care testing (POCT)
2. Decentralized testing
3. Near-patient testing
4. Alternate site testing
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
19. Beer’s law states that the concentration of a substance is
(1)___ proportional to the amount of light absorbed
or (2)___ proportional to the logarithm of the
transmitted light.
a. Directly, inversely
b. Inversely
c. Both directly proportional
d. Both inversely proportional
20. The more light absorbed, the higher the concentration of
analyte in this technique of measuring the amount of light
absorbed by a solution.
a. Atomic absorption
b. Fluorometry
c. Nephelometry
d. Spectrophotometry
21. The process by which fluorescence of an analyte is reduced
due to the excited molecule losing some of its energy by
interacting with other substances in solution is known as:
a. Ionization
b. Quenching
c. Phosphorescence
d. Self-absorption
22. One sample sequentially following another through the
system so that different analytical functions are being
carried on simultaneously on more than one sample best
describes:
a. Automatic clinical analysis
b. Centrifugal analysis
c. Continuous-flow analysis
d. Dry-slide analysis
23. Direct injection of a sample into very small diameter
tubing, thus minimizing lateral diffusion best describes:
a. Automatic clinical analysis
b. Centrifugal analysis
c. Continuous-flow analysis
d. Flow-injection analysis
24. Which analyzer requires that the sample and reagent be
pipeted inyo separate chambers in a rotor prior to the
chemical analysis being performed?
a. Centrifugal
b. Continuous flow
c. DuPont aca
d. Kodak dry, slide
25. An instrument that can analyze patient samples for only
those tests specifically ordered and can analyze stat
samples by interrupting the normal sequence of patient
analyses is referred to as:
a. Batch analyzer
b. Discrete analyzer
c. Multitest analyzer
d. Random-access analyzer
26. In a chemical reaction, the amount of product formed is
measured at specific intervals during a specified period
and then related to the concentration of the analyte in the
unknown. This type of measurement is known as:
a. Colorimetric
b. End-point
c. Rate
d. Ultraviolet
27. Dubowski method for glucose utilizes:
a. Phosphomolybdic acid
b. Arsenomolybdic acid
c. Ortho-toluidine
d. Potassium ferricyanide
28. C-peptide is formed during the conversion of pro-insulin to
insulin. The amount of circulating C-peptide provides
reliable indicators for pancreatic and insulin secretions
(beta cell function). It is decreased in:
a. Insulinoma
b. Ingestion of hypoglycemic drugs
c. Type 1 DM
d. Type 2 DM
29. CSF glucose concentration is approximately ___ that of
plasma concentration.
a. 50%
b. 60-70%
c. 80-100%
d. 65-85%
30. Every 1% change in the HBA1C value causes a change of
approximately ___ in the plasma glucose.
a. 10 mg/dL
b. 25 mg/dL
c. 15 mg/dL
d. 35 mg/dL
31. A turbidimetric method used for the quantitation of total
protein in urine and cerebrospinal fluid specimens is:
a. Biuret
b. HABA
c. Coomassie blue
d. SSA
32. Which of the following nutritional markers has been found
to be most sensitive and helpful indicator of nutritional
status in very ill patients?
a. Transthyretin
b. Transferrin
c. Albumin
d. Somatomedin C
33. Patient with Nephrotic Syndrome is expected to have which
of the following results in serum protein electrophoresis?
a. Decreased in all fractions except albumin region
b. Decreased in all fractions except alpha 1 region
c. Decreased in all fractions except alpha 2 region
d. Decreased in all fractions except beta region
34. Decreased serum albumin levels may be associated with:
a. Malnutrition
b. Liver disease
c. Kidney disease
d. Both B and C
e. A, B and C
35. Which of the following is a negative acute phase reactant?
a. Prealbumin
b. Ceruloplasmin
c. Albumin
d. Haptoglobin
36. A protein that precipitates in acid solution but
redissolves upon heating best describes:
a. Albumin
b. Bence Jones
c. Haptoglobin
d. Transferrin
37. Which dye may be used to stain serum protein fractions
following electrphorosis?
a. Amido black
b. Ponceau S
c. Fat red
d. Both A and B
e. A, B and C
38. The method of choice for quantifying protein fractions
following electrophoresis?
a. Densitometry
b. Fluorometry
c. Spectrophotometry
d. Nephelometry
39. The acute-phase reactant that is able to inhibit enzymatic
proteolysis is:
a. Alpha1 antitrypsin
b. Complement
c. Haptoglobin
d. Prealbumin
40. The screening procedure useful in detecting PKU is:
a. Copper reduction
b. Glucose oxidase
c. Ferric chloride
d. Nitroprusside
41. Which of the following elevates carboxyhemoglobin?
a. Nitrite poisoning
b. Exposure to carbon monoxide
c. Sulfa drug toxicity
d. Sickle cell anemia
42. CDC reference method for determination of cholesterol:
a. Liebermann Burchardt reaction
b. Salkowski reaction
c. Cholesterol oxidase reaction
d. Abell, Levy and Brodie method
43. When TAG and LDL-c are being measured, fasting becomes a
requirement. Require fasting of patients:
a. 2 to 4 hours
b. 4 to 6 hours
c. 6 to 8 hours
d. 12 to 14 hours
44. A cholesterol QC chart has the following date for the
normal control:
x = mean of data
x = 137 mg/dL x = 1,918 mg/dL

2 SD = 6 mg/dL N = 14
The coefficient of variation for this control is:
a. 1.14%
b. 4.38%
c. 2.19%
d. 9.49%
45. The function of the major lipid components of the very low
density lipoproteins (VLDL) is to transport:
a. Cholesterol from peripheral cells to the liver
b. Exogenous triglycerides
c. Cholesterol and phospholipids to peripheral cells
d. Endogenous triglycerise
46. What is the reference method for quantitation of
lipoproteins (LPPs)
a. Liberman Burchardt
b. Van Handel and Zilversmith
c. Abell-Kendall
d. Ultracentrifugation
47. Which of the following lipoproteins is the smallest of all
the lipoproteins and is composed of 50% proteins?
a. HDL
b. LDL
c. Chylomicrons
d. Triglycerides
48. It is the major and product from the cetabolism of VLDL. It
constitutes about 50% of the total LPP in plasma:
a. CM
b. LDL
c. VLDL
d. HDL
49. Which of the following would be most adversely affected by
a nonfasting sample?
a. HDL
b. Cholesterol
c. LDL
d. Triglycerides
50. Method of uric acid determination that has problem with
turbidity and several common drugs interface:
a. Colorimetric
b. Enzymatic H2O2
c. Enzymic UV
d. IDMS
Method of urea determination that is inexpensive but lacks
specificity:
a. Colorimetric and point
b. Enzymatic
c. Colorimetric kinetic
d. IDMS
2. Method of measurement of ceratinine that measures ammonia
colorimetrically or with ISE:
a. Colorimetric and point
b. Enzymatic
c. Colorimetric kinetic
d. IDMS
3. One international unit of enzyme activity is the amount of

enzyme that under specified reaction conditions of
substrate concentration, pH and temperature, causes usage
of substrate at the rate of:
a. 1 millimole/min
b. 1 nanomole/min
c. 1 micromole/min
d. 1 picomole/min
4. Which of the following enzymes are classified as
transferases?
1. ACP
2. ALP
3. PK
4. Glycogen phosphorylase
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1 and 2
e. 3 and 4
5. This measures the amount of reducing sugars produced by the
hydrolysis of starch by the usual glucose methods. Classic
reference method expressed in Somogyi units
a. Saccharogenic
b. Chromogenic
c. Amyloclastic
d. Coupled-enzyme
6. The reference method for determination of lipase:
a. Tietz and Fiereck
b. Peroxidase coupling
c. Cherry Crandal
d. Kermen
7. When an enzyme requires an inorganic substance such as zinc
for activity, this substance is termed as a(n):
a. Activator
b. Conezyme
c. Facilitator
d. Regulator
8. Which of the following are considered primary tissue source
of alkaline phosphatase?
a. Liver, bone, kidney
b. Liver, heart, kidney
c. Kidney, pancreas, heart
d. Prostate, liver, bone
9. Which of the following enzymes exhibits the least tissue
specificity?
a. ACP
b. AST
c. CK
d. LD
10. Which of the following may be associated with the creatine
kinase isoenzymes?
a. CK-1 referred to as CK-MM
b. CK-3 remains close to the origin during
electrophorosis
c. CK-MM is found in skeletal muscles
d. Both B and C
e. A, B and C
11. Which of the following enzymes is most useful in
establishing the hepatic origin of an elevated serum
alkaline phosphatase?
a. Alanine aminotransferase
b. Aspartate aminotransferase
c. Ornithine carbamyltransferase
d. Gamma-glutamyltranspeptidase
e. Lactate dehydrogenase
12. In the Bessey-Lowry-Brock method for determining alkaline
phosphatase activity, the substrate used is:
a. Monophosphate
b. Phenylphosphate
c. Disodium phenylphosphate
d. Para-nitrophenylphosphate
13. Regan isoenzyme has the same properties as alkaline
phosphatase that originates in the:
a. Skeleton
b. Intestine
c. Kidney
d. Placenta
14. Which of the following may be classified as being a
function of the liver?
a. Detoxification of drugs
b. Excretion of bile acids
c. Metabolism of glucose
d. Synthesis of proteins
e. All of the above
15. Increased blood ammonia levels may be associated with:
a. Hepatic encephalopathy
b. Neurological changes
c. Coma
d. Both B and C
e. A, B and C
16. Which of the following methods estimates the urine sugar
concentration by measuring total reducing substances?
a. Copper sulfate
b. Glucose oxidase
c. Hexokinase
d. Ferricyanide
17. A patient with insulinoma may exhibit dizziness and
fainting attributable to:
a. Acidosis
b. Ketosis
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Hyperglycemia
18. Precipitating agents used to remove VLDL and HDL from serum
so that only the HDL cholesterol remains for measurement
include all of the following, except:
a. Citrate/fluoride
b. Heparin/manganese
c. Phosphotungstate/magnesium
d. Dextran sulfate
19. Which electrolyte is significantly involved in the
transmission of nerve impulse?
a. Iron
b. Phosphorus
c. Potassium
d. Sodium
20. The composition of the electrode used to measure blood pH
is:
a. Glass
b. Plastic
c. Platinum
d. Valinomycin
21. The role of calciumin body metabolism is that of:
a. Structural contribution to bone formation
b. An activator of the coagulation system
c. Facilitating transmission form of nerve impulse
d. Both A and B
e. A, B and C
22. The physiologically active form of calcium is:
a. Complexes
b. Ionized
c. Lipid-bound
d. Protein-bound
23. A hospitalized patient is experiencing increased
neuromuscular irritability (tetany). Which of the following
tests should be ordered immediately?
a. Calcium
b. Phosphorus
c. BUN
d. Glucose
24. The formation of molybdenum blue complex is assocaited with
the quantitation of:
a. Calcium
b. Iron
c. Magnesium
d. Phosphate
25. Which of the following clinical disorders is/are associated
with magnesium deficiency?
a. Tetany
b. Convulsions
c. Abnormal cardiac rhythm
d. Both A and B
e. All of the above
26. Increased anion gap:
1. Uremia
2. Poisoning by methanol
3. Ketoacidosis
4. Hypoalbuminemia
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
27. Glucose tolerance factor contains the following trace
metal:
a. Copper
b. Chromium
c. Selenium
d. Zinc
28. The following metal is most associated with the “dimentia
of dialysis”:
a. Aluminum
b. Fluorine
c. Cadmium
d. Zinc
29. An emphysema patient suffering from fluid accumulation in
the alveolar spaces is likely to be in what metabolic
state?
a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Respiratory alkalosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis
30. The neurohypophysis is the:
a. Hypothalamus
b. Anterior pituitary
c. Pineal gland
d. Thyroid gland
e. Posterior pituitary
31. The anterior pituitary produces all of the following
hormones, except:
a. ACTH
b. FSH
c. PTH
d. TSH
32. For a hormone to be biochemically active and able to bind
its receptor site, the hormone must be:
a. Bound to glucose
b. Bound to lipoprotein
c. Bound to protein
d. Free, not bound to protein
33. Which amino acid is directly involved in thyroid synthesis?
a. Alanine
b. Glutamine
c. Threonine
d. Tyrosine
34. TSH test is the most important thyroid function test. The
best screening test. It is increased in:
1. primary hypothyroidism
2. hashimoto’s thyroidism
3. thyrotoxicosis due to pituitary tumor
4. primary hyperthyroidism
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
35. In patients with developing subclinical hyperthyroidism,
TSH levels will likely be ___, and fT4 will be likely ___.
a. Decreased, increased
b. Increased, decreased
c. Decreased, normal
d. Increased, normal
36. Which of the following tests may be used in the
differential diagnosis of depression?
a. ACTH stimulation test
b. Dexamethasone suppression test
c. Metapirone inhibition test
d. Metyrapone inhibition test
37. The parent substance in the biosynthesis of androgens and
estrogen is:
a. Cortisol
b. Catecholamines
c. Progesterone
d. Cholesterol
38. The biologically most active, naturally occuring androgen
is:
a. Androstenedione
b. Epiandrosterone
c. Dehydroepiandrosteron
d. Testosterone
39. The amino acid that is the immediate precursor for the
biogensis of the catecholamine is:
a. Tryptophan
b. Threonine
c. Tyrosine
d. Phenylalanine
40. All of the following biochemical changes are seen during
pregnancy, except:
a. Decreased albumin
b. Increased alkaline phosphatase
c. Increased FSH and LH
d. Increased estrogens
41. Major actions of angiotensin II include:
a. Increased pituitary secretion of rennin
b. Increased parathyroid hormone secretion by the
parathyroid
c. Increased vasoconstriction
d. Decreased adrenal secretion of aldosterone
42. Estrogen and progestrogen receptor assays are useful in
assessing prognosis in which of the following?
a. Ovarian cancer
b. Endometriosis
c. Breast canser
d. Amenorrhea
43. Zinc protoporphyrin or free erythrocyte protoporphyrin
measurements are useful to assess blood concentrations of:
a. Lead
b. Mercury
c. Arsenic
d. Beryllium
44. Pharmacological parameters that determine serum drug
concentration:
1. Liberation
2. Absorption
3. Distribution
4. Metabolism
5. Excretion
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
45. A cardiac glycoside that is used in the treatment of
congenital heavy failure and arrythmias by increasing the
force and velocity of myocardial contraction is:
a. Digoxin
b. Acetaminophen
c. Lithium
d. Phenytoin
46. It is used for treatment of petit mal (absence seizure) and
grand mal.
a. Theophylline
b. Lithium
c. Valproic acid (Depakene)
d. Digoxin
47. The drug of choice for controlling petit mal (absence
seizure).
a. Phenobarbital
b. Carbamazepine
c. Vancomycin
d. Ethosuximide (Zarontin)
48. All of the following may be used to cleanse the skin when
drawing blood for ethanol analysis, except:
a. Alcohol swab
b. Merthiolate
c. Soap and water
d. Zephiran
49. Substances with modified structures that are analogs of
prescription pharmaceuticals or abused are known as:
a. Designer drugs
b. Generic drugs
c. Trade drugs
d. Toxic drugs
50. Morphine is the major metabolism of:
a. Cocaine
b. Heroin
c. Marijauna
d. Phnecyclidine

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Medical Technology Board Exam Reviewer 3:

Medical Technology Board Exam Reviewer 2: CLINICAL

Medical Technology Board Exam Reviewer 9:

38. Cast in athlete: Cylinduria

41. Which is not a PPE: sharp’s container

Medical Technology Board Exam Reviewer 1: CLINICAL

d. All of the above

Medical Technology Board Exam Reviewer 8: Clinical

45. Variation in basal state: exercise, diet (All of the above)

Medical Technology Board Exam Reviewer 4:

Medical Technology Board Exam Reviewer 5:

FORWARD GROUPING REVERSE GROUPING

11. Citrate in ACD functions as:

21. Year of discovery of the T cell receptor gene:

32. Hives and itching are under what type of

Medical Technology Board Exam Reviewer 11:

Anti A Anti B Anti AB Cell A Cell B

Medical Technology Board Exam Reviewer 6:

10.Proper collection of a sample for recovery of Enterobius

23.Lysostaphin susceptibility is a test used to differentiate:

26.In the β-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method, which of

32.Serratia strains are readily differentiated from Klebsiella on

14. Double zone of hemolysis?

21. Rhabditiform larvae: Thread worm

Medical Technology Board Exam Reviewer 10:

Sex chromosome: Barr body,

8. Computations for corrected WBC count (2 questions)

The primary chemical affected by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone

2. The fluid leaving the glomerulus has a specific gravity of:

4. The average total volume of urine produced by a normal adult every

5. An abnormal decrease in urine production is called:

6. Cloudiness in a freshly-voided urine could indicate the presence of:

7. Which of these plasma substances is NOT normally filtered through the

8. Which term is defined as a urine volume in excess of 2000 mL excreted

11. Freshly voided normal urine is usually clear; however, if it is

12. A strong odor of cabbage in a urine specimen could indicate:

14. A correlation exists between a specific gravity of 1.050 and a:

16. A patient with a 1+ protein reading in the afternoon is asked to

17. Urinalysis on a patient with severe back and abnominal pain is

21. Which of the following is true of the detection of urinary glucose?

22. Which of the reagents below is used to detect urobilinogen in urine?

26. A reagent test strip impregnated with an aromatic amine such as p-

29. Blue diaper syndrome is associated with:

30. Hurler, Hunter and Sanfilippo syndrome are hereditary disorders

31. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase deficiency is associated with which

32. Urinary screening tests for mucopolysaccharides:

33. He discovered phenylketonuria from a mentally retarded child with a

34. A clinically significant epithelial cell is the:

37. The finding of dysmorphic RBCs is indicative of:

38. The primary component of urinary mucus is:

39. The purpose of the Hansel stain is to identify:

40. What is the normal value for urinary eosinophils?

41. A disorder characterized by the disruption of the electrical charges

43. The presence of renal tubular epithelial cells and casts is an

44. End-stage renal disease is characterized by all of the following

46. It is described as a genetic disorder showing lamellated and thinning

47. Casts are formed primarily in which portion of the kidney?

48. A parasite associated with a positive leukocyte esterase is:

49. The hormone characteristically present in the blood of pregnant women

50. HCG is produced by which of the following?

51. The most common composition of renal calculi is:

52. A renal calculi described as yellowish to brownish red in color with

53. A renal calculi described as pale and friable is: